Introduction to Psychological Science, Third Canadian Edition 3E Mark Krause Test Bank

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Test Bank Ersin Aslıtürk

An Introduction to Psychological Science Third Canadian Edition Mark Krause Southern Oregon University

Daniel Corts Augustana College

Stephen Smith University of Winnipeg

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CONTENTS Chapter 1

Introducing Psychological Science

Chapter 2

Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research

Chapter 3

Biological Psychology

Chapter 4

Sensation and Perception

Chapter 5

Consciousness

Chapter 6

Learning

Chapter 7

Memory

Chapter 8

Thought and Language

Chapter 9

Intelligence Testing

Chapter 10

Lifespan Development

Chapter 11

Motivation and Emotion

Chapter 12

Personality

Chapter 13

Social Psychology

Chapter 14

Health, Stress, and Coping

Chapter 15

Psychological Disorders

Chapter 16

Therapies

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Chapter 1 : Introducing Psychological Science Chapter Quiz Questions 1. Psychology can be considered a collection of many related fields of study. What is one of the features that all of these fields have in common? A) The use of the scientific method B) The study of mental illness C) The belief that the unconscious mind determines human behaviour D) The use of introspection QuestionID: 01-1-01 Objective: 1.1a Know the key terminology of the scientific method. Answer: A) The use of the scientific method 2. __________ are general principles or explanations, whereas __________ are specific predictions. A) Theories; hypotheses B) Hypotheses; theories C) Theories; observations D) Observations; theories QuestionID: 01-1-02 Objective: 1.1b Understand the steps of the scientific method. Answer: A) Theories; hypotheses 3. The biopsychosocial model assumes that A) behaviour can only be fully explained by combining multiple perspectives. B) biological factors are more important than social factors in determining behaviour. C) all living organisms form social groups based on their physical and psychological needs. D) the simplest explanation for behaviour is usually the best. QuestionID: 01-1-03 Objective: 1.1d Apply the biopsychosocial model to behaviour. Answer: A) behaviour can only be fully explained by combining multiple perspectives. 4. Which of the following is true about the concept of scientific literacy? A) Only trained scientists are considered scientifically literate. B) Scientific literacy is the ability to answer basic science questions without looking up their answers. C) Scientific literacy is the ability understand, analyze, and apply scientific information. D) Knowledge of scientific terminology is the most important part of scientific literacy. QuestionID: 01-1-04 Objective: 1.1c Understand the concept of scientific literacy. Answer: C) Scientific literacy is the ability understand, analyze, and apply scientific information. 5. ___________ is the belief that knowledge comes through observation and experience. A) Determinism B) Parsimony C) Skepticism D) Empiricism .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 01-1-05 Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: D) Empiricism 6. Psychology has been considered a science since A) around 470 BCE. B) the early 1600s. C) the late 1800s. D) the mid-1900s. QuestionID: 01-1-06 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: C) the late 1800s. 7. How did physiologists and physicists, like Gustav Fechner, contribute to the development of psychology as a science? A) They studied the relationship between the physical world and the mental representation of that world. B) They demonstrated that the brain was responsible for consciousness. C) They identified the physical properties and locations of specific functions within the brain. D) They extended Darwin's theory of evolution to behaviour and cognitive abilities. QuestionID: 01-1-07 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) They studied the relationship between the physical world and the mental representation of that world. 8. The belief that the unconscious mind has an influence on a person's behaviour is part of which early approach to psychology? A) structuralism B) functionalism C) psychoanalysis D) behaviourism QuestionID: 01-1-08 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: C) psychoanalysis 9. The investigation into the influence of environment and genetics on behaviour and mental processes is often referred to as the study of A) the nature and nurture relationship. B) eugenics. C) psychology. D) anthropology. QuestionID: 01-1-09 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: A) the nature and nurture relationship. 10. Why was the perspective followed by Wilhelm Wundt and his followers called structuralism? A) They wanted to identify the major brain structures. B) Their primary goal was to understand the physiology of the mind and its interaction with the physical world. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) They focused their efforts on analyzing the elements of the nervous system. D) Their primary focus was on describing the basic components of conscious experience. QuestionID: 01-1-10 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: D) Their primary focus was on describing the basic components of conscious experience. 11. Which school of psychology questioned whether psychologists should study the mind, which was thought to be unobservable? A) psychoanalysis B) behaviourism C) Gestalt psychology D) humanism QuestionID: 01-1-11 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: B) behaviourism 12. You attend a lecture by a psychologist who uses terms such as free will and life's meaning. Which psychological perspective is most consistent with the points the psychologist presented? A) behaviourism B) humanistic psychology C) functionalism D) psychodynamics QuestionID: 01-1-12 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: B) humanistic psychology 13. The primary focus of social psychologists is A) exploring the influence of others on an individual's behaviour. B) investigating the nature and nurture relationship. C) explaining how people, like Hitler, grow up. D) studying how different personality characteristics can influence how we think and act. QuestionID: 01-1-13 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: A) exploring the influence of others on an individual's behaviour. 14. Dr. Fernwood is a research psychologist. The main focus of her research is the use of psychological knowledge to find ways to reduce bullying in schools. Dr. Fernwood's research could be described as _________ psychology. A) basic B) forensic C) applied D) industrial/organizational QuestionID: 01-1-14 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: C) applied

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

15. Dr. D'Arcy's research focuses on the relationship between activity in specific regions of the brain and decision-making. It is likely that Dr. D'Arcy is in the field of _____________. A) biopsychology B) cognitive psychology C) industrial/organizational psychology D) cognitive neuroscience QuestionID: 01-1-15 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: D) cognitive neuroscience Essay Questions 1. Many non-scientists confuse the terms hypothesis and theory. Explain the difference between these terms and the interaction between hypothesis testing and the construction of theories using the scientific method. QuestionID: 01-2-01 Objective: 1.1b Understand the steps of the scientific method. Answer: A hypothesis is a testable prediction whereas a theory is an explanation of some aspect of the world. Theories gain support when the hypotheses that they generate are proved to be true. For example, if someone poses the theory "Males are more outgoing than females," this theory would gain support if the hypothesis "Males score higher on scales of extraversion than females" is proven to be true. The theory would lose support if the hypothesis it generates is proven to be false. In order to be a theory, an argument must be testable using hypotheses. Hypotheses and theories are both essential parts of the scientific method. 2. To most people, the term psychology brings to mind a psychologist speaking to patients about their current challenges or issues. But within the field of psychology there are many areas beyond clinical psychology. Name and describe two different fields and/or schools of psychology (besides clinical) and their primary goals or focuses. QuestionID: 01-2-02 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: Discussion could include applied psychology, behaviourism, cognitive psychology, cognitive neuroscience, cross-cultural psychology, humanistic psychology, industrial/organizational psychology, personality psychology, positive psychology, the psychodynamic approach, psychology of women, social psychology, or social neuroscience. - Applied psychology can take place in schools, in the workplace, in the military, or in a number of other settings. - Behaviourism is an approach that dominated the first half of the 20th century in North American psychology and had a singular focus on studying only observable behaviour, with little to no reference to mental events or instincts as possible influences on behaviour. - Cognitive psychology is a modern psychological perspective that focuses on processes such as memory, thinking, and language. - Cognitive neuroscience combines elements of cognitive psychology and biopsychology and is focused on understanding the neural mechanisms for cognitive behaviours such as memory, emotion, and decision-making. - Cross-cultural psychology compares individual and group behaviour among cultures; it helps us understand the role of society in shaping behaviour, beliefs, and values. - Humanistic psychology focuses on the unique aspects of each individual human, each person's freedom to act, his or her rational thought, and the belief that humans are fundamentally different from other animals. - Industrial/organizational psychology applies psychological research to the workplace, helping to ensure that the work environment is fair for all employees. - Personality psychology is the study of how different personality characteristics can influence how we think and act. - Positive psychology focuses on helping people see the good in their lives by promoting self-acceptance and improving social relationships with others. - The psychodynamic approach is a psychological approach that attempts to explain how behaviour and personality are .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

influenced by unconscious processes. - Psychology of women examines important issues such as women's health, violence toward women, and experiences that are unique to females (e.g., pregnancy). - Social psychology is the study of the influence of other people on our behaviour. - Social neuroscience is the use of neuroimaging techniques (e.g., fMRI) to study social interactions and appraisals. 3. Describe the motivation behind the emergence of humanistic and cognitive psychology after behaviourist and psychodynamic approaches. QuestionID: 01-2-03 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: During the mid-20th century, behaviourism and psychodynamic approaches (Freud) were dominant in the field of psychology. Both of these approaches discounted free will and suggested that human behaviours were a manifestation of either external stimuli (behaviourism) or unconscious drives (psychodynamic theory). In contrast to these disempowering perspectives, humanist and cognitive psychologists posited that humans do have control over their behaviours and life paths. Fill-in-the-blank Questions 1. In order to be scientific, a hypothesis must be __________ . QuestionID: 01-3-01 Objective: 1.1b Understand the steps of the scientific method. Answer: a. testable 2. For psychologists, __________ means that we apply scientific methods carefully, examine our assumptions and biases, and tolerate ambiguity when the evidence is inconclusive. QuestionID: 01-3-02 Objective: 1.1e Apply the steps in critical thinking. Answer: a. critical thinking 3. The principle of __________ holds that, when dealing with competing theories, the simplest one should be chosen. QuestionID: 01-3-03 Objective: 1.1a Know the key terminology of the scientific method. Answer: a. parsimony 4. is the pursuit of knowledge through careful observation rather than speculation. QuestionID: 01-3-04 Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: a. Empiricism 5. is the field of psychology that concentrates on the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders. QuestionID: 01-3-05 Objective: Distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: a. Clinical psychology .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

6. Developed by Freud, __________ was an approach that attempted to explain the relationship between behaviour and the unconscious. QuestionID: 01-3-06 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: a. psychoanalysis 7. Wundt's primary research method was training volunteers to use __________ to describe their experiences. QuestionID: 01-3-07 Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: a. introspection 8. Although Ivan Pavlov is usually credited with its discovery, professor Edwin Twitmyer was one of the first people to study __________ . QuestionID: 01-3-08 Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: a. classical conditioning 9. combine cognitive psychology and biopsychology to investigate the structure and functions of the brain. QuestionID: 01-3-09 Skill: Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: a. Cognitive neuroscientists 10. psychologists apply psychological concepts specifically to the work environment. QuestionID: 01-3-10 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: a. Industrial and organizational Multiple-Choice Questions 1. According to the textbook, the discipline of psychology is best defined as A) a collection of self-help principles used to treat psychological disorders. B) a combination of hypotheses and personal intuition about human behaviour and mental processes. C) a process for encouraging individuals to reach their ultimate potential. D) the scientific study of behaviour, thought, and experience. QuestionID: 01-4-01 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.1a Know the key terminology of the scientific method. Answer: D) the scientific study of behaviour, thought, and experience. 2. Which of the following statements regarding the over-arching goals of psychology is FALSE? A) Psychology involves researching the role of brain structures on human behaviour. B) Psychology is centred around curing all psychological disorders. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) The field of psychology focuses on understanding the effects of genetics and environment on behaviour. D) Psychology focuses on understanding how many different factors contribute to the development of psychological disorders. QuestionID: 01-4-02 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.1a Know the key terminology of the scientific method. Answer: B) Psychology is centred around curing all psychological disorders. 3. What process is used across all areas of psychology? A) the scientific method B) the curation of opinions C) the belief that the unconscious mind determines human behaviour D) the science of persuasion QuestionID: 01-4-03 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.1a Know the key terminology of the scientific method. Answer: A) the scientific method 4. A scientist is best described as A) an individual who conducts experiments. B) an individual who dissects specimens or combines chemicals to answer questions about the world. C) an individual who studies in the fields of biology, chemistry, physics, or geology. D) an individual who arrives at conclusions based on a careful system of observing, predicting, and testing. QuestionID: 01-4-04 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.1a Know the key terminology of the scientific method. Answer: D) an individual who arrives at conclusions based on a careful system of observing, predicting, and testing. 5. Caroline is interested in determining how black-capped chickadees find the caches of seeds they stored several months earlier. She watches the chickadees in a park and notices that they tend to hide their food in trees near landmarks, such as sculptures or benches. She predicts that moving these landmarks after the chickadees have stored their food will prevent them from finding it later, and designs an experiment to test her prediction. Caroline's approach is an example of A) pseudoscience. B) the scientific method. C) theory development. D) the biopsychological model. QuestionID: 01-4-05 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.1b Understand the steps of the scientific method. Answer: B) the scientific method. 6. Collecting observations, testing predictions about how to best explain the observations, and developing theories are all part of A) the scientific method. B) pseudoscience. C) the biopsychosocial model. D) the psychoanalytic model. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 01-4-06 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.1b Understand the steps of the scientific method. Answer: A) the scientific method. 7. "Children who watch violent cartoons will become more aggressive compared to those who do not watch violent cartoons." This statement is most likely a(n) A) theory. B) untestable statement. C) hypothesis. D) pseudoscience. QuestionID: 01-4-07 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.1a Know the key terminology of the scientific method. Answer: C) hypothesis. 8. As part of the scientific method, scientists form testable predictions that can be observed and measured. These are called A) theories. B) proofs. C) hypotheses. D) models. QuestionID: 01-4-08 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.1b Understand the steps of the scientific method. Answer: C) hypotheses. 9. A sound hypothesis must be A) testable. B) agreed upon by the majority of experts in the field. C) proven to be fact. D) stated in very general terms. QuestionID: 01-4-09 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.1b Understand the steps of the scientific method. Answer: A) testable. 10. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) A hypothesis is an explanation for a broad range of observations. B) A theory is a testable prediction about a process. C) Hypotheses must be highly specific in order to be proven as correct or incorrect. D) A theory is built upon observations and a number of tested hypotheses. QuestionID: 01-4-10 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.1b Understand the steps of the scientific method. Answer: D) A theory is built upon observations and a number of tested hypotheses. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

11. Randi is a practitioner of crystal healing: the use of different crystals to treat medical disorders ranging from headaches to cancer. Crystal healers like Randi use scientific terminology (e.g., energy, vibrations, etc.) when explaining the technique to patients, but do not use the scientific method to develop or test their claims. Crystal healing can be best categorized as a(n) A) theory. B) pseudoscience. C) hypothesis. D) non-science. QuestionID: 01-4-11 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.1a Know the key terminology of the scientific method. Answer: B) pseudoscience. 12. The term pseudoscience refers to A) the study of psychology and related phenomena through collecting observations, developing theories to explain them, and using the theories to make predictions. B) hypotheses that have been rejected through careful observation and testing. C) claims and ideas that are presented as science but do not use the basics of the scientific method to support their claims. D) theories that have not yet been proven. QuestionID: 01-4-12 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.1a Know the key terminology of the scientific method. Answer: C) claims and ideas that are presented as science but do not use the basics of the scientific method to support their claims. 13. Astrology is considered a pseudoscience because A) its claims cannot be scientifically tested. B) its claims are presented as science but have not been demonstrated using the scientific method C) astrology can be proven by using appropriate scientific methods. D) it is only a theory and not a scientific fact. QuestionID: 01-4-13 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.1a Know the key terminology of the scientific method. Answer: B) its claims are presented as science but have not been demonstrated using the scientific method 14. In science, a theory can be defined as A) a testable prediction about processes that can be observed and measured. B) an explanation for a broad range of observations that generates new hypotheses. C) a personal opinion or belief about a specific topic. D) an idea that is presented as science but does not utilize basic principles of the scientific method. QuestionID: 01-4-14 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.1f Analyze the use of the term scientific theory. Answer: B) an explanation for a broad range of observations that generates new hypotheses. 15. __________ are general principles or explanations, whereas ________ are specific predictions. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

Theories; hypotheses Hypotheses; theories Theories; observations Hypotheses; observations

QuestionID: 01-4-15 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.1b Understand the steps of the scientific method. Answer: A) Theories; hypotheses 16. What property do hypotheses and theories have in common? A) They are both capable of proving a fact as true. B) They both integrate numerous findings and observations. C) They are both specific, testable predictions about processes. D) They are both falsifiable. QuestionID: 01-4-16 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.1b Understand the steps of the scientific method. Answer: D) They are both falsifiable. 17. When a psychologist uses the term scientific theory, he or she is referring to something that A) has been proven to be true through repeated falsifications. B) explains a wide range of observations. C) is a specific, testable prediction. D) is an educated guess. QuestionID: 01-4-17 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.1f Analyze the use of the term scientific theory. Answer: B) explains a wide range of observations. 18. Which of the following is TRUE about scientific theories? A) All theories are equally plausible provided that there is a consensus among many people who believe it to be true. B) The quality of a theory cannot be measured by the number of people who believe it to be true. C) Theories are the same thing as opinions or beliefs. D) A theory is only valid if it has been proven to be true. QuestionID: 01-4-18 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.1f Analyze the use of the term scientific theory. Answer: B) The quality of a theory cannot be measured by the number of people who believe it to be true. 19. Lidia gives a talk at a psychology conference in which she presents her new theory about the causes of autism. At one point, an audience member interrupts and says, "But that's just your theory." What is the problem with this statement? A) A theory is not the same thing as an opinion or belief. B) If Lidia is presenting the theory at a psychology conference it must be true. C) If most of the psychologists in the audience agree with Lidia, then the theory is likely to be true. D) The audience member should have used the term hypothesis, not theory. QuestionID: 01-4-19 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Applied Objective: 1.1f Analyze the use of the term scientific theory. Answer: A) A theory is not the same thing as an opinion or belief. 20. Dr. Preston is a psychologist who studies depression. She understands that the development of depression is complicated and includes many factors in her research, such as genetics, brain chemistry, cultural influences, and the influence of friends and family. Dr. Preston's understanding of depression is an example of A) the sociocultural perspective. B) the biopsychosocial model. C) a pseudoscientific theory. D) the biological perspective. QuestionID: 01-4-20 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.1d Apply the biopsychosocial model to behaviour. Answer: B) the biopsychosocial model. 21. Two researchers are interested in understanding student success in university. Dr. Baker focuses on the influence of genes and brain anatomy of students, while Dr. Rodrigues focuses on the cultural background and interpersonal relationships of students. Dr. Baker is researching student success from a _________ perspective while Dr. Rodrigues is approaching it from a ________ perspective. A) biological; psychological B) psychological; sociocultural C) sociocultural; psychological D) biological; sociocultural QuestionID: 01-4-21 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.1d Apply the biopsychosocial model to behaviour. Answer: D) biological; sociocultural 22. The biopsychosocial model assumes that A) behaviour can often only be fully explained by combining multiple perspectives. B) although many factors influence behaviour, biological factors have a larger influence than both psychological and sociocultural factors. C) as humans evolved, influence on behaviour shifted from biological factors to more sociocultural factors. D) the simplest explanation for behaviour is usually correct. QuestionID: 01-4-22 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.1d Apply the biopsychosocial model to behaviour. Answer: A) behaviour can often only be fully explained by combining multiple perspectives. 23. Which of the following is TRUE about the concept of scientific literacy? A) Only trained scientists are considered scientifically literate. B) Scientific literacy is the ability to answer basic science questions without looking up the answers. C) A person who can understand, analyze, and apply scientific information is demonstrating scientific literacy. D) Knowledge of scientific terminology is the primary component of scientific literacy. QuestionID: 01-4-23 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.1c Understand the concept of scientific literacy. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: C) A person who can understand, analyze, and apply scientific information is demonstrating scientific literacy. 24. The ability to understand, analyze, and apply scientific information is called A) the scientific method. B) scientific literacy. C) skepticism. D) generalization. QuestionID: 01-4-24 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.1c Understand the concept of scientific literacy. Answer: B) scientific literacy. 25. Ms. Patel is a third-grade teacher. Several children in her class have been having trouble concentrating and sitting still, so she finds several articles from peer-reviewed scientific journals on hyperactivity and attention in young children. Although she is not a scientist, Ms. Patel is able to understand and use the information from the articles to redesign her classroom schedule to help improve attention. This example demonstrates Ms. Patel's A) intuition for children's behaviour. B) biopsychosocial perspective for understanding behaviour. C) scientific literacy. D) biases toward behaviour in children. QuestionID: 01-4-25 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.1c Understand the concept of scientific literacy. Answer: C) scientific literacy. 26. Which of the following techniques could be described as massed learning? A) taking a full-day workshop on mental health first aid B) studying for your introduction to psychology exam by focusing on the same difficult topics every day for three weeks C) setting aside a couple of hours, three days a week, to learn a new language D) reading all four chapters of your textbook from beginning to end before going back to review them again QuestionID: 01-4-26 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.1c Understand the concept of scientific literacy. Answer: A) taking a full-day workshop on mental health first aid 27. A friend of yours has 30 Spanish vocabulary words to learn by tomorrow. Which of the following is the best way for her to use flashcards to study? A) Study each card only once. B) Divide the cards into five piles and then study each pile four times before moving on to the next pile. C) Go through the entire pile of 30 cards four times. D) Divide the cards into 10 piles and then study each pile four times before moving on to the next pile. QuestionID: 01-4-27 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.1c Understand the concept of scientific literacy. Answer: C) Go through the entire pile of 30 cards four times.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

28. Which of the following is the best conclusion to draw from the massed learning versus spacing experiment discussed in the textbook? A) Massing is better than spacing for all types of learning. B) Massing is better than spacing for studying vocabulary. C) Spacing is better than massing for all types of learning. D) Spacing is better than massing for studying vocabulary. QuestionID: 01-4-28 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.1c Understand the concept of scientific literacy. Answer: D) Spacing is better than massing for studying vocabulary. 29. Jose reads in an article from a psychology journal that people tend to remember the first and last few items in long lists of information, but have the most trouble remembering the items in the middle. He immediately starts thinking of how he can use this information to change the way he studies the long list of vocabulary terms for his upcoming exam. Which part of the scientific literacy model does this demonstrate? A) application of scientific information B) scientific explanation C) knowledge gathering D) critical thinking QuestionID: 01-4-29 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.1c Understand the concept of scientific literacy. Answer: A) application of scientific information 30. Caroline's best friend tells her that eating a chili pepper with each meal will increase her metabolism and help her burn more calories. "That sounds interesting," says Caroline, "but is there any scientific evidence to back up this claim?" Caroline's question illustrates what element of critical thinking? A) the principle of parsimony B) cynicism C) tolerating ambiguity D) skepticism QuestionID: 01-4-30 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.1a Know the key terminology of the scientific method. Answer: D) skepticism 31. Being skeptical about a claim means A) questioning whether there is sound evidence to support it. B) realizing that most complex issues have complex answers. C) not believing the claim, no matter what. D) believing the claim unless evidence to the contrary is presented. QuestionID: 01-4-31 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.1a Know the key terminology of the scientific method. Answer: A) questioning whether there is sound evidence to support it. 32. As a critical thinker, what habit is most likely to keep you from basing your conclusions on poor research? A) examining assumptions and biases .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) examining the nature and source of evidence C) tolerating ambiguity D) avoiding overly emotional thinking QuestionID: 01-4-32 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.1e Apply the steps in critical thinking. Answer: B) examining the nature and source of evidence 33. For a class project, Mukisa read about the results of several studies investigating the causes of schizophrenia. Some of the studies indicated that schizophrenia is genetic, while others indicated that schizophrenia could be triggered by environmental factors. Eventually, Mukisa had to accept that schizophrenia is a complicated disease, and that there probably is not a clear-cut reason why some people develop it. This illustrates what critical thinking habit? A) examining assumptions and biases B) examining the nature and source of the evidence C) tolerating ambiguity D) considering alternatives QuestionID: 01-4-33 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.1e Apply the steps in critical thinking. Answer: C) tolerating ambiguity 34. Which of the following is TRUE about critical thinking? A) If used properly, everyone who uses it will come to the same conclusion. B) It forces us to examine our own assumptions and biases. C) It often requires being negative or arbitrarily critical of other people's ideas. D) It always guarantees a correct answer. QuestionID: 01-4-34 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.1e Apply the steps in critical thinking. Answer: B) It forces us to examine our own assumptions and biases. 35. ____________ holds that, when dealing with competing theories, the simplest one should be chosen. A) Skepticism B) Ambiguity C) The principle of parsimony D) Critical thinking QuestionID: 01-4-35 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.1c Understand the concept of scientific literacy. Answer: C) The principle of parsimony 36. Leonard is missing a sock. His sister suggests that a friend of his may have snuck into his room while he was sleeping and taken the sock as a practical joke; however, Leonard decides it is much more likely that the sock was simply lost when he last did the laundry. What element of critical thinking most likely influenced his decision? A) skepticism B) the principle of parsimony .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) tolerance of ambiguity D) avoiding overly emotional thinking QuestionID: 01-4-36 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.1e Apply the steps in critical thinking. Answer: B) the principle of parsimony 37. According to the principle of parsimony, reports of alien abduction are unlikely to be true because A) there are several other explanations that are much simpler. B) aliens do not exist. C) eyewitness reports should never be believed. D) people who think they were abducted by aliens are clearly mentally unstable. QuestionID: 01-4-37 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.1e Apply the steps in critical thinking. Answer: A) there are several other explanations that are much simpler. 38. ______________ is the idea that knowledge is gained through observation and experience. A) Determinism B) Parsimony C) Skepticism D) Empiricism QuestionID: 01-4-38 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: D) Empiricism 39. A research psychologist is interested in whether children who play violent video games display above average violent behaviour in real life. Which approach to this question could the psychologist take that would be consistent with the principles of empiricism? A) Use common sense and public opinion to determine if there is a connection. B) Ask children to speculate about whether they notice a connection between playing video games and their aggression. C) Carefully measure the type and amount of children's video game play and then observe their behaviour. D) Ask parents and teachers to provide general observations about the video games their children play and their behaviour. QuestionID: 01-4-39 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.2d Analyze how the philosophical ideas of empiricism and determinism are applied to human behaviour Answer: C) Carefully measure the type and amount of children's video game play and then observe their behaviour. 40. Which of the following questions represents an empirical question? A) Would Martin Luther King, Jr., have been a good American president? B) What is the meaning of life? C) Was the War of 1812 necessary? D) Is there life on other planets? QuestionID: 01-4-40 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Applied Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: D) Is there life on other planets? 41. Dr. Shapiro is a school psychologist who has noticed that a fifth-grade student has recently begun to misbehave and fall behind academically. He decides there must be a reason for the student's sudden problems and decides to try to figure out what it is. Dr. Shapiro's belief that the student's behaviour is the result of some unknown cause is an example of A) determinism. B) parsimony. C) skepticism. D) empiricism. QuestionID: 01-4-41 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.2d Analyze how the philosophical ideas of empiricism and determinism are applied to human behaviour Answer: A) determinism. 42. According to the principle of _______________, human behaviour is the result of internal and external influences. A) free will B) materialism C) determinism D) empiricism QuestionID: 01-4-42 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.2d Analyze how the philosophical ideas of empiricism and determinism are applied to human behaviour Answer: C) determinism 43. The belief that behaviour follows lawful, cause-and-effect relationships is known as A) free will. B) materialism. C) empiricism. D) determinism. QuestionID: 01-4-43 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: D) determinism. 44. The concept of free will—the idea that we are freely in charge of our own behaviour—is often in conflict with the concept of A) empiricism. B) determinism. C) parsimony. D) materialism. QuestionID: 01-4-44 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.2d Analyze how the philosophical ideas of empiricism and determinism are applied to human behaviour

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: B) determinism. 45. Psychological science is A) both empirical and deterministic. B) empirical but not deterministic. C) deterministic but not empirical. D) neither empirical nor deterministic. QuestionID: 01-4-45 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2d Analyze how the philosophical ideas of empiricism and determinism are applied to human behaviour Answer: A) both empirical and deterministic. 46. Psychology has been considered a science since A) around 470 BCE. B) the early 1600s. C) the late 1800s. D) the mid-1900s. QuestionID: 01-4-46 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: C) the late 1800s. 47. One of the first people to connect personality to underlying physiology, Hippocrates proposed that four ________ were responsible for influencing an individual's personality. A) temperaments B) humours C) biles D) brain areas QuestionID: 01-4-47 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: B) humours 48. In a given culture, certain periods of its history are dominated by a general set of beliefs and attitudes known as A) zeitgeist. B) empiricism. C) parsimony. D) determinism. QuestionID: 01-4-48 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: A) zeitgeist. 49. According to the textbook, what is a key reason why psychology took almost 300 years longer than physics, biology, and chemistry to become scientific? A) Early scientific methodology was too primitive to use to study the mind. B) Laws were passed in the 1600s that made it illegal to study the mind. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) Few people were interested in the mind and behaviour prior to the 20th century. D) The zeitgeist of the 1600s prevented people from believing that science could be applied to the study of the mind. QuestionID: 01-4-49 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: D) The zeitgeist of the 1600s prevented people from believing that science could be applied to the study of the mind. 50. According to the textbook, scholars in the 1600s likely did not apply scientific methodology to the study of the mind and human behaviour because of what belief? A) They believed the scientific method did not work. B) They believed human behaviour was already well-understood. C) They believed humans were more than just physical machines and should not be studied using science. D) They believed it was a religious sin to try to study the nature of the mind and soul. QuestionID: 01-4-50 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: C) They believed humans were more than just physical machines and should not be studied using science. 51. The belief that the mind or soul is separate from the physical body is known as ____________, whereas the belief that humans are completely physical beings is called _____________. A) determinism; empiricism B) empiricism; determinism C) dualism; materialism D) materialism; dualism QuestionID: 01-4-51 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: C) dualism; materialism 52. The philosopher and mathematician René Descartes famously believed that the mind was not made of physical matter and could exist outside of the body. Descartes' belief in the relationship between mind and body could be described as A) determinism. B) empiricism. C) materialism. D) dualism. QuestionID: 01-4-52 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: D) dualism. 53. How did physiologists and physicists, like Gustav Fechner, contribute to the development of psychology as a science? A) They studied the relationship between the physical world and mental representation of that world. B) They acknowledged that the mind and soul were separate from the body C) They mapped the brain and identified the locations of specific functions within the brain. D) They extended Darwin's theory of evolution to behaviour and cognitive abilities. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 01-4-53 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) They studied the relationship between the physical world and mental representation of that world. 54. Zoe is a participant in an experiment. She is told to watch a series of lights and to identify which one is the brightest. It is likely that Zoe is participating in a(n) _____________ experiment. A) psychophysics B) materialism C) temperament D) psychoanalysis QuestionID: 01-4-54 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: A) psychophysics 55. Psychophysics is the study of A) how the mind controls the body. B) the relationship between the physical world and the mental representation of that world. C) the relationship between natural selection and behaviour. D) the localization of brain function. QuestionID: 01-4-55 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: B) the relationship between the physical world and the mental representation of that world. 56. Which of the following is TRUE regarding Darwin's theory of evolution? A) It applies to physical characteristics, but not to behaviour. B) It applies to behaviour, but not to physical characteristics. C) Behaviour is shaped by evolution in a similar way to physical traits. D) It was discredited along with Francis Galton's concept of eugenics. QuestionID: 01-4-56 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: C) Behaviour is shaped by evolution in a similar way to physical traits. 57. How did Darwin suggest behaviour was influenced by natural selection? A) Our current behaviours are those that would have given our ancestors a better chance at survival. B) Behavioural traits are directly tied to physical traits, thus a change in a physical trait led to a change in behaviour. C) Individuals who were more sensitive to small changes in their environment were more likely to survive. D) Personality traits like kindness and empathy were more likely to be passed on than aggression and stubbornness. QuestionID: 01-4-57 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) Our current behaviours are those that would have given our ancestors a better chance at survival.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

58. Suppose a small number of geese are born with a genetic mutation that makes them spend more time caring for their eggs. As a result, more chicks hatch from these eggs that then survive to reproduce themselves. According to the principle of natural selection, which of the following would be the likely result? A) Other genetic mutations would start occurring at a faster rate. B) The genetically inherited behaviour would become more common after many generations. C) The genetically inherited behaviour would become less common after many generations. D) The rate of genetic mutations would slow drastically. QuestionID: 01-4-58 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: B) The genetically inherited behaviour would become more common after many generations. 59. How would Charles Darwin likely explain maternal aggression when something or someone threatens a mother's children? A) Young girls learn to protect their children by observing their mothers. B) Maternal aggression is an inherited trait that is selected for because it contributes to the survival of the offspring. C) Mothers are rewarded by others in their social group for being protective of their children. D) Mothers learn to be protective of their children through trial and error. QuestionID: 01-4-59 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: B) Maternal aggression is an inherited trait that is selected for because it contributes to the survival of the offspring. 60. Localization of brain function influenced the field(s) of A) psychophysics. B) sociocultural psychology. C) medicine and personality psychology. D) biological and clinical psychology. QuestionID: 01-4-60 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: D) biological and clinical psychology. 61. Which two physicians developed phrenology? A) Gall and Spurzheim B) Broca and Wernicke C) Darwin and Fechner D) Galton and Wundt QuestionID: 01-4-61 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) Gall and Spurzheim 62. Which of the following is TRUE regarding phrenology? A) It is still used by forensic psychologists. B) It was an early application of brain localization research. C) It led to the advancement of psychophysics and clinical psychology. .

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D) It was supported by rigorous scientific studies. QuestionID: 01-4-62 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: B) It was an early application of brain localization research. 63. Kelly notices a bump on the side of Roger's head and points it out to him. He replies, "That means I'm a passionate person!" Roger's statement is based on the theory of A) phrenology. B) eugenics. C) clinical psychology. D) psychophysics. QuestionID: 01-4-63 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: A) phrenology. 64. Besides phrenology, what was another early approach used by physicians like Paul Broca, to understand the connection between the brain and behaviour? A) using electricity to stimulate different brain regions B) surgically removing brain regions C) studying the behaviour of patients who had experienced brain injuries D) studying the shape and size of the human skull QuestionID: 01-4-64 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: C) studying the behaviour of patients who had experienced brain injuries 65. Which two doctors were able to identify important language centres in the brain by studying their patients? A) Gall and Spurzheim B) Broca and Wernicke C) Fechner and Darwin D) Galton and Wundt QuestionID: 01-4-65 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: B) Broca and Wernicke 66. Who developed a now discredited medical treatment using magnets, and contributed to the development of hypnosis? A) Galton B) Wernicke C) Mesmer D) Freud QuestionID: 01-4-66 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: C) Mesmer 67. A patient's belief in a treatment working, and the treatment subsequently "curing" the patient's ailment (with no scientific support), is known as A) psychoanalysis. B) phrenology. C) psychophysics. D) psychosomatic medicine. QuestionID: 01-4-67 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: D) psychosomatic medicine. 68. The belief that the unconscious mind has an influence on an individual's behaviour is part of what early approach to psychology? A) structuralism B) functionalism C) psychoanalysis D) behaviourism QuestionID: 01-4-68 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: C) psychoanalysis 69. What did Sigmund Freud consider as the key to understanding the psychosomatic conditions he observed? A) conscious experience B) brain physiology C) unconscious processes D) external consequences QuestionID: 01-4-69 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: C) unconscious processes 70. Which treatment approach did Sigmund Freud develop for treating his patients? A) hypnosis B) hysterical paralysis C) clinical psychology D) psychoanalysis QuestionID: 01-4-70 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: D) psychoanalysis 71. Freud stressed the importance of the influence of ______ on behaviour. A) early life experiences B) puberty .

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C) brain localization D) metallic fluids QuestionID: 01-4-71 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) early life experiences 72. Which of the following was NOT one of Freud's lasting contributions to modern psychology? A) the idea that hypnosis allows a psychologist to gain access into an individual's unconscious mind B) the idea that mental activity can occur outside of conscious thought C) the idea that physiological needs and urges related to survival can influence behaviour D) the idea that medical ideas can be used to treat disorders of emotions, thoughts, and behaviours QuestionID: 01-4-72 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) the idea that hypnosis allows a psychologist to gain access into an individual's unconscious mind 73. The investigation into the influence of environment and genetics on behaviour and mental processes is often referred to as A) the nature and nurture relationship. B) eugenics. C) psychology. D) anthropology. QuestionID: 01-4-73 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: A) the nature and nurture relationship. 74. Which of the following would be most difficult for Francis Galton to explain with his theories? A) Close family relatives often have similar traits. B) Sometimes children from very humble families become very successful. C) Successful parents often have successful children. D) In the United States, whites are, on average, more successful than non-whites. QuestionID: 01-4-74 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: B) Sometimes children from very humble families become very successful. 75. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the legacy of Francis Galton? A) Although his ideas have been discredited, his use of statistical methods to measure and study behaviour has had a lasting impact on scientific psychology. B) While many of his ideas are still considered valid, Galton failed to use scientific methodology. C) Both his ideas and methodology are still considered valid today. D) Although important in his time, Galton had almost no lasting impact on scientific psychology. QuestionID: 01-4-75 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: A) Although his ideas have been discredited, his use of statistical methods to measure and study behaviour has had a lasting impact on scientific psychology. 76. Which individual is usually credited with establishing psychology as an independent field of study, separate from biology, medicine, or physiology. A) Sigmund Freud B) William James C) John Watson D) Wilhelm Wundt QuestionID: 01-4-76 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: D) Wilhelm Wundt 77. Wilhelm Wundt is best known for A) establishing the first laboratory dedicated to studying human behaviour. B) writing books on ethics and logic. C) establishing phrenology as a science and writing the first textbook for phrenology. D) training doctors to treat mental illness based on functionalism. QuestionID: 01-4-77 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) establishing the first laboratory dedicated to studying human behaviour. 78. Introspection is a method of A) investigating psychophysics through careful measurement. B) free-association based on unconscious processes. C) empirical investigation using introverted adults. D) drawing conclusions based on one's own perceptions and thoughts. QuestionID: 01-4-78 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: D) drawing conclusions based on one's own perceptions and thoughts. 79. Following in Wundt's footsteps, Titchener also used the technique of __________ to develop a map of the structure of human consciousness. A) intervention B) introspection C) insight inventory D) induction QuestionID: 01-4-79 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: B) introspection 80. At the close of the nineteenth century, Gerhard is excited to find that he has been accepted for training in the psychology laboratory of Wilhelm Wundt. It is likely that Gerhard will be trained to .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

analyze how to break down sensations into their most basic elements. determine the function or purpose of a particular human behaviour. listen intently while individuals tell him of their childhood experiences. carefully feel the bumps on a person's head in order to determine their character traits.

QuestionID: 01-4-80 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) analyze how to break down sensations into their most basic elements. 81. Why was the perspective followed by Wilhelm Wundt and his followers called structuralism? A) They wanted to identify the major brain structures involved with behaviour. B) Their primary goal was to understand the basic components of the human body. C) They focused their efforts on analyzing the basic elements of the nervous system. D) Their primary focus was to describe the basic elements of conscious experience. QuestionID: 01-4-81 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: D) Their primary focus was to describe the basic elements of conscious experience. 82. Which school of thought in psychology tried to identify the basic elements of sensations, images, and feelings? A) structuralism B) phrenology C) functionalism D) psychoanalysis QuestionID: 01-4-82 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) structuralism 83. While participating in a study, Shyanne is asked to describe all the different components of taste when she bites into an orange. It is likely that the researchers conducting the experiment are using the approach of ______________ to understand conscious experience. A) psychoanalysis B) functionalism C) behaviourism D) structuralism QuestionID: 01-4-83 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: D) structuralism 84. In America, Wilhelm Wundt's ideas were popularized by one of his students, _______________, who gave Wundt's approach the name "structuralism." A) Sigmund Freud B) John Watson C) William James D) Edward Titchener .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 01-4-84 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: D) Edward Titchener 85. What early American psychologist believed that mental experiences were created by combining a limited number of sensations? A) Sigmund Freud B) William James C) B. F. Skinner D) Edward Titchener QuestionID: 01-4-85 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: D) Edward Titchener 86. Who was an early proponent of functionalism as a way to explain human behaviour? A) Ivan Pavlov B) William James C) Wilhelm Wundt D) Max Wertheimer QuestionID: 01-4-86 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: B) William James 87. ____________ suggests that behaviours and mental processes are results of the roles they play in our evolution. A) Behaviourism B) Cognitivism C) Functionalism D) Structuralism QuestionID: 01-4-87 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: C) Functionalism 88. Which school of thought in psychology was heavily influenced by the evolutionary theories of Charles Darwin? A) cognitive psychology B) structuralism C) functionalism D) psychoanalysis QuestionID: 01-4-88 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: C) functionalism 89. Dena believes that the purpose of jealousy in men is to prevent their mates from becoming impregnated by other men. The reason why it is so common, she argues, is that it is a very adaptive behaviour from an evolutionary perspective. Dena's approach to jealousy is an example of A) structuralism. B) functionalism. C) empiricism. D) behaviourism. QuestionID: 01-4-89 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: B) functionalism. 90. Suppose you were one of the early graduate students of the newly developed field of psychology. Your mentor is interested in discovering the answers to questions like, "Why is the ability to forget helpful?" and "How do emotions assist us in social situations?" Your mentor's approach is most consistent with the ___________ perspective. A) behaviourist B) functionalist C) psychoanalytic D) structuralist QuestionID: 01-4-90 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: B) functionalist 91. Twitmyer and Pavlov could both be considered __________, each focusing on the process of ___________. A) behaviourists; conditioning. B) functionalists; salivation. C) structuralists; reflexes. D) cognitive psychologists; adaptive behaviour. QuestionID: 01-4-91 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) behaviourists; conditioning. 92. Which school of psychology ignored mental processes as influences on behaviour? A) psychoanalysis B) behaviourism C) Gestalt psychology D) humanism QuestionID: 01-4-92 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: B) behaviourism 93. What advice might John B. Watson have offered to psychologists of his time? .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

"Focus on observable behaviour." "We are but a sum of our parts." "We cannot know others until we know ourselves." "Remember that what we accomplish is due to the composition of our genes."

QuestionID: 01-4-93 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) "Focus on observable behaviour." 94. Suppose you were a graduate student studying for a Ph.D. in psychology in the 1920s. Your adviser was strongly influenced by John B. Watson. Which of the following might your adviser consider an acceptable choice for your research? A) a survey of daydreams in young adults B) an analysis of the acquisition of specific behaviours C) a comparison of sexual imagery in the dreams of men versus women D) an analysis of the thought processes students report while answering test items QuestionID: 01-4-94 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: B) an analysis of the acquisition of specific behaviours 95. Which pair of founding contributors to psychology helped develop the field of behaviourism? A) Gestalt and Wundt B) Freud and Watson C) Watson and Pavlov D) Pavlov and Wundt QuestionID: 01-4-95 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: C) Watson and Pavlov 96. B. F. Skinner is most associated with which perspective? A) behaviourism B) cognitivism C) functionalism D) psychoanalysis QuestionID: 01-4-96 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) behaviourism 97. Humanism developed, in part, as a reaction against which two perspectives? A) the cognitive and learning perspectives B) the behaviourist and psychoanalytic perspectives C) the sociocultural and cognitive perspectives D) the biological and behaviourist perspectives QuestionID: 01-4-97 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: B) the behaviourist and psychoanalytic perspectives 98. You attend a lecture by a psychologist who uses terms such as free will and life's meaning. Which psychological perspective is most consistent with the points the psychologist presented? A) behaviourism B) humanism C) functionalism D) psychodynamics QuestionID: 01-4-98 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: B) humanism 99. Early leaders in __________________ believed that people are generally motivated to grow as individuals and fulfill their potential. A) psychodynamics B) cognitive psychology C) functionalism D) humanistic psychology QuestionID: 01-4-99 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: D) humanistic psychology 100. Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow were two major figures in the development of which psychological perspective? A) humanistic psychology B) functionalism C) cognitive psychology D) behaviourism QuestionID: 01-4-100 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) humanistic psychology 101. Memory researchers like Herman Ebbinghaus and Frederick Bartlett contributed to the beginning of the ____________ perspective. A) humanistic B) psychoanalytic C) cognitive D) behaviourist QuestionID: 01-4-101 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: C) cognitive .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

102. The origins of the cognitive perspective can be traced back to a handful of European psychologists who were studying A) memory. B) behaviour. C) computers. D) language. QuestionID: 01-4-102 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) memory. 103. Gestalt psychology served as a precursor for what is now known as A) psychoanalysis. B) cognitive psychology. C) behavioural psychology. D) social psychology. QuestionID: 01-4-103 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: B) cognitive psychology. 104. _________ was in stark contrast to structuralism, suggesting that the whole is more important than the sum of individual parts. A) Introspection B) Functionalism C) Psychoanalysis D) Gestalt psychology QuestionID: 01-4-104 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: D) Gestalt psychology 105. Professor Ashmore approaches questions about human behaviour from a perspective that emphasizes how people reason, remember, and understand language. It is most likely that she accepts the _____________ perspective. A) biological B) behavioural C) cognitive D) sociocultural QuestionID: 01-4-105 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: C) cognitive 106. ______________ psychologists are generally interested in how the behaviour of an individual is influenced by other people. A) Social .

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B) Gestalt C) Behavioural D) Humanistic QuestionID: 01-4-106 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: A) Social 107. The idea that humans behave differently when in the presence of others best describes the focus of A) social psychology. B) cognitive psychology. C) personality psychology. D) humanistic psychology. QuestionID: 01-4-107 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: A) social psychology. 108. A central theme in social psychology is that A) human behaviour can be best understood by studying individuals in a controlled environment. B) behaviour is a function of both the individual and the environment they are in. C) social situations generally have the same effect on everyone. D) the most important influence on an individual's behaviour is the environment. QuestionID: 01-4-108 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: B) behaviour is a function of both the individual and the environment they are in. 109. Dr. Sandra Bem's research demonstrated that more men were in positions of power because A) men have a more favourable stress response than women, making them more stable leaders. B) of rampant sexism present in almost every aspect of society. C) women are too emotional, leading them to make poor choices. D) men are genetically more aggressive than women, and are more likely to seek out promotions and positions of power. QuestionID: 01-4-109 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: B) of rampant sexism present in almost every aspect of society. 110. Research in the field of the psychology of women focuses on A) man hating. B) equality, women's health, and female perspectives. C) the history of psychology. D) promoting females as the superior sex. QuestionID: 01-4-110 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. .

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Answer: B) equality, women's health, and female perspectives. 111. Dr. Fernwood is interested in the differences in sensation and perception between individuals from remote tribes in Papua New Guinea and North Americans. Dr. Fernwood's research could be described as ____________ psychology. A) female B) cognitive neuroscience C) cross-cultural D) industrial/organizational QuestionID: 01-4-111 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: C) cross-cultural 112. In class, Professor Deacon describes her research investigating the differences in brain activity between children born in Canada and those that immigrated within the last 12 months. It is likely that Professor Deacon is a researcher in the field of __________ psychology. A) cross-cultural B) humanistic C) personality D) applied QuestionID: 01-4-112 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: A) cross-cultural 113. Dr. Bardouille is a researcher in the field of _________. His primary focus is identifying the area of the brain that is involved with individual decision-making. A) cross-cultural psychology B) social neuroscience C) positive psychology D) cognitive neuroscience QuestionID: 01-4-113 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: D) cognitive neuroscience 114. At a recent lecture, the speaker with a background in ________ discussed self-acceptance and identifying the good in our lives. A) cognitive psychology B) psychology of women C) social psychology D) positive psychology QuestionID: 01-4-114 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: D) positive psychology .

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115. Research that occurs in the "real world," such as in schools or the military, is often conducted with the intention of changing current practice, laws, and approaches. This type of psychology is known as _________ psychology. A) humanistic B) applied C) positive D) clinical QuestionID: 01-4-115 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: B) applied 116. The application of psychological research and concepts to the workplace is known as A) industrial/organizational psychology. B) clinical psychology. C) humanistic psychology. D) social psychology. QuestionID: 01-4-116 Skill: Factual Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: A) industrial/organizational psychology. 117. Michel receives his daily information from Instagram and websites like Reddit, in which content is produced by anyone and then rated by followers. What risk is Michel running when he collects information from these platforms? A) Information he collects is not correct. B) Superficial characteristics of the content may significantly influence him. C) The content may be accurate but the emotional impact will be negative. D) He will collect information fast but will not be able to understand. QuestionID: 01-4-117 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.1e Apply the steps in critical thinking. Answer: B) Superficial characteristics of the content may significantly influence him. 118. Amanda values the equality of women and men. When she watches a presenter showing evidence that men in general outperform women on mental rotation tasks, she directly reacts. Amanda's reaction best illustrates what element of critical thinking skills? A) tolerating ambiguity B) examining the nature and source of the evidence C) examining assumptions and biases D) avoiding emotional thinking QuestionID: 01-4-118 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.1e Apply the steps in critical thinking. Answer: D) avoiding emotional thinking 119. Joshua reads an article by two authors claiming that climate change is not caused by carbon emissions or .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

human activity but by the cyclical changes of Earth. Then, he checks who these authors are and whether they are funded by oil companies. What element of critical thinking is best illustrated in Joshua's curiosity? A) tolerating ambiguity B) considering alternative viewpoints C) examining assumptions and biases D) avoiding emotional thinking QuestionID: 01-4-119 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.1e Apply the steps in critical thinking. Answer: C) examining assumptions and biases 120. Most scientists believe human beings and animals do not possess a soul or spirit. They also believe and offer strong evidence that the human mind is not separate from the physical substance or body. Their views best illustrate what foundational philosophical orientation of science and psychology? A) materialism B) scientism C) dualism D) determinism QuestionID: 01-4-120 Skill: Applied Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: A) materialism 121. In the 19th and 20th century, some scientists and politicians believed that intelligent and talented individuals should be encouraged to reproduce, but that criminals, those with physical or mental disabilities, and nonWhites should be prevented from having children to help create a improved society. What is this movement called? A) eminence B) sexism C) racism D) eugenics QuestionID: 01-4-121 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: D) eugenics 122. How can Gestalt psychology can be contrasted with structuralism? A) While Gestalt psychology is close to humanism, structuralism is close psychoanalysis. B) While Gestalt psychology emerged as a reaction to behaviourism, structuralism emerged as a reaction to psychoanalysis. C) While Gestalt psychology emphasized importance empirical research, structuralism emphasized introspection. D) While Gestalt psychology focuses on the whole of conscious experience, structuralism analyzed its elements. QuestionID: 01-4-122 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology Answer: D) While Gestalt psychology focuses on the whole of conscious experience, structuralism analyzed its elements. Supplementary Questions .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

1. Psychologists use research techniques based on A) inductive reasoning. B) objective introspection. C) deductive reasoning. D) the scientific method. QuestionID: 01-5-01 Objective: 1.1a Know the key terminology of the scientific method. Answer: D) the scientific method. 2. Dr. Siela claims that all humans have invisible souls that guide their behaviour. Which principle of a good scientific theory is most important to consider when evaluating this claim? A) replicability B) Occam's razor C) ruling out rival hypotheses D) falsifiability QuestionID: 01-5-02 Objective: 1.1a Know the key terminology of the scientific method. Answer: D) falsifiability 3. Which claim is falsifiable? A) Men are more physically aggressive than women. B) A weak superego is at the root of psychopathy. C) Bad things happen to bad people because of karma. D) Introspection is a valid approach to studying sensation. QuestionID: 01-5-03 Objective: 1.1a Know the key terminology of the scientific method. Answer: A) Men are more physically aggressive than women. 4. Proponents of speed-reading courses hold stubbornly to their beliefs, despite contradictory evidence. Which aspect of pseudoscience is being characterized? A) intolerance of ambiguity B) reliance on emotional evidence C) lack of self-correction D) absence of connectivity QuestionID: 01-5-04 Objective: 1.1e Apply the steps in critical thinking. Answer: C) lack of self-correction 5. Structuralism emphasizes A) individual differences. B) the application of biological principles to the mind. C) the influence of subconscious urges on conscious behaviour. D) the basic units of experience and their combinations. QuestionID: 01-5-05 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: D) the basic units of experience and their combinations. 6. Dr. Martian claims that aliens are real and have been performing mind experiments on humans for years. Which principle of critical thinking is most important to consider when evaluating this claim? A) being curious B) avoiding emotional reasoning C) examining the nature of the source of the evidence D) tolerating ambiguity QuestionID: 01-5-06 Objective: 1.1e Apply the steps in critical thinking. Answer: C) examining the nature of the source of the evidence 7. Freud was the founder of A) existential psychology. B) behavioural psychology. C) psychoanalysis. D) behaviourism. QuestionID: 01-5-07 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: C) psychoanalysis. 8. Freud's theories differed radically from the views of his predecessors because of A) his extensive use of laboratory research to support his claims. B) the emphasis he placed on Eastern philosophies and culture. C) the emphasis he placed on unconscious processes. D) his emphasis on environmental learning as the source of most personality characteristics. QuestionID: 01-5-08 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: C) the emphasis he placed on unconscious processes. 9. Which aspect of the mind held the greatest fascination for Freud? A) the preconscious mind B) the conscious area C) suppressions D) the unconscious QuestionID: 01-5-09 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: D) the unconscious 10. A therapist is interested in interpreting dreams and in having clients relate their thoughts without modifying them. This therapist is most likely to be a A) client-centred therapist. B) psychoanalyst. C) cognitive therapist. D) behaviour therapist. QuestionID: 01-5-10 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: B) psychoanalyst. 11. Psychoanalysis was a therapy technique designed by A) Fritz Perls. B) Sigmund Freud. C) Carl Rogers. D) Alfred Adler. QuestionID: 01-5-11 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: B) Sigmund Freud. 12. Freud believed that many psychological problems were the result of A) feelings and emotions repressed during childhood. B) genetic factors. C) organic disturbances. D) the identity crises. QuestionID: 01-5-12 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) feelings and emotions repressed during childhood. 13. Of the following, which type of therapist would be more interested in a client's past rather than their current situation? A) psychoanalytic B) rational-emotive C) behavioural D) Gestalt QuestionID: 01-5-13 Skill: Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) psychoanalytic 14. The belief that anxiety results from feelings and emotions repressed during childhood was proposed by A) Perls. B) Moniz. C) Pinel. D) Freud. QuestionID: 01-5-14 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: D) Freud. 15. Steve, a university student, is seeing a psychologist because of his intense fear of people. His counsellor feels that Steve's fear is a product of unresolved conflicts about his parents and his childhood experiences with them. Steve's therapist is most characteristic of which school of psychology? A) behaviourism B) psychoanalytic C) humanistic D) Gestalt .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 01-5-15 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: B) psychoanalytic 16. The first psychology laboratory was founded by A) Wundt. B) James. C) Titchener. D) Watson. QuestionID: 01-5-16 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) Wundt. 17. It is generally agreed that psychology was born in A) 1642. B) 1853. C) 1879. D) 1906. QuestionID: 01-5-17 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: C) 1879. 18. Titchener was a member of the ___________ school of thought. A) structuralist B) functionalist C) behaviourist D) reductionist QuestionID: 01-5-18 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) structuralist 19. As a science, psychology is approximately how old? A) 50 years B) 100+ years C) 150 years D) 2500 years, since the field dates back to the ancient Greeks QuestionID: 01-5-19 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: B) 100+ years 20. Modern psychology is said to have begun when A) Greek philosophers began studying the differences between people. B) Wundt opened the first laboratory devoted to the scientific study of psychology. C) Freud developed psychoanalytic theory and therapy. D) it was discovered in the early 1900s that many illnesses have no medical basis.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 01-5-20 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: B) Wundt opened the first laboratory devoted to the scientific study of psychology. 21. What word describes the method of investigation used by Wundt? A) structuralism B) psychoanalysis C) functionalism D) introspection QuestionID: 01-5-21 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: D) introspection 22. Studying the elements of sensations, feelings, and images is most directly associated with which school of psychology? A) structuralism B) functionalism C) behaviourism D) humanism QuestionID: 01-5-22 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) structuralism 23. The primary method of investigation used by structuralists was A) natural observation. B) dream interpretation. C) introspection. D) experimentation. QuestionID: 01-5-23 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: C) introspection. 24. Psychology is said to have begun when A) medicine was seen to be ineffective in treating neurosis. B) Wilhelm Wundt started the first psychological laboratory. C) Sigmund Freud opened his private practice in Vienna. D) it was discovered in the early 1900s that many illnesses have no medical basis. QuestionID: 01-5-24 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: B) Wilhelm Wundt started the first psychological laboratory. 25. Psychologists stopped relying on the method of introspection as their primary research tool because A) they wanted to study mental processes rather than observable behaviour. B) results were inconsistent across labs. C) laboratory research was replaced by field research. D) the technique did not provide useful information for therapists.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 01-5-25 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: B) results were inconsistent across labs. 26. The __________ psychological school asks, "What are mental processes for?" rather than "What are mental processes?" A) structuralist B) functionalist C) humanist D) Gestalt QuestionID: 01-5-26 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: B) functionalist 27. In the late 20th century, psychology A) expanded dramatically. B) stagnated. C) contracted slightly. D) contracted dramatically. QuestionID: 01-5-27 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: A) expanded dramatically. 28. A psychologist bases their theories completely on measuring observable behaviours. This psychologist is probably a A) humanist. B) behaviourist. C) structuralist. D) functionalist. QuestionID: 01-5-28 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: B) behaviourist. 29. ___________________ emphasizes that humans are positively motivated and progress toward higher levels of functioning. A) Humanistic psychology B) Psychoanalytic theory C) Social learning theory D) Trait theory QuestionID: 01-5-29 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: A) Humanistic psychology 30. Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow were A) behaviourists. B) psychoanalysts. C) humanists. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) cognitivists. QuestionID: 01-5-30 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: C) humanists. 31. __________ believed humans have a natural motivation to reach their highest potential. A) Maslow B) Skinner C) Adler D) Jung QuestionID: 01-5-31 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: A) Maslow 32. Genuineness, empathy, unconditional positive regard, and self-growth are all associated with ________ therapy. A) Gestalt B) humanistic C) cognitive D) behavioural QuestionID: 01-5-32 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: B) humanistic 33. Which of the following approaches is based on the premise that people naturally strive to reach their potential and lead a fulfilling life? A) psychoanalytic B) behavioural C) humanistic D) biomedical QuestionID: 01-5-33 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: C) humanistic 34. In Gestalt psychology, the focus is on A) changing overt behaviour. B) becoming more aware of the self. C) resolving repressed conflicts. D) fulfilling personal potential. QuestionID: 01-5-34 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: B) becoming more aware of the self. 35. Cognitive psychologists are a subgroup of experimental psychologists who are concerned primarily with A) neurobiological events that underlie behaviour. B) the function of age on behaviour. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) mental events that intervene between stimuli and responses. D) how people are affected by social situations. QuestionID: 01-5-35 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: C) mental events that intervene between stimuli and responses. 36. Cognitive psychologists are concerned with the scientific study of A) reinforcement. B) alienation and apathy. C) mental processes. D) self-actualization. QuestionID: 01-5-36 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: C) mental processes. True-False Questions 1. Psychology is best defined as the study of mental illness and abnormal behaviour. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-01 Objective: 1.1a Know the key terminology of the scientific method. Answer: b. False 2. A hypothesis is a testable prediction about processes that can be observed and measured. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-02 Objective: 1.1b Understand the steps of the scientific method. Answer: a. True 3. A good hypothesis is one that is stated in the most general terms possible. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-03 Objective: 1.1b Understand the steps of the scientific method. Answer: b. False 4. The term "theory" is interchangeable with the terms "opinion" or "belief." a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-04 Objective: 1.1b Understand the steps of the scientific method. Answer: b. False .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

5. Part of being scientifically literate is being able to apply scientific knowledge to real-world situations. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-05 Objective: 1.1c Understand the concept of scientific literacy. Answer: a. True 6. Critical thinking involves exercising curiosity and skepticism when evaluating the claims of others, as well as our own assumptions and beliefs. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-06 Objective: 1.1e Apply the steps in critical thinking. Answer: a. True 7. Critical thinkers realize that all opinions are valid. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-07 Objective: 1.1e Apply the steps in critical thinking. Answer: b. False 8. Empiricism means that knowledge about the world is based on careful observation, not common sense or speculation. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-08 Objective: 1.2a Know the key terminology of psychology's history. Answer: a. True 9. Psychology became a scientific discipline in the mid- to late-1600s. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-09 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: b. False 10. Phrenologists suggested that specific mental traits and dispositions could be identified by examining the surface of the skull. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-10 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: a. True 11. Sigmund Freud's work using hypnosis to cure patients made him realize that many of his patients' symptoms had mental, not physical, causes and this led to the development of psychoanalysis. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-11 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: a. True 12. Psychoanalysis emphasizes the influence of unconscious urges and memories on behaviour. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-12 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: a. True 13. Credit for establishing psychology as an independent field of science is generally given to William James. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-13 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: b. False 14. The goal of Edward Titchener in adopting Wilhelm Wundt's method of introspection was to break down consciousness into its most basic elements. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-14 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: a. True 15. Structuralism was an early psychological approach that emphasized the function and purpose of behaviour and consciousness. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-15 Objective: 1.2b Understand how various philosophical and scientific fields became major influences on psychology. Answer: b. False 16. Humanistic psychology is an approach emphasizing the need for psychologists to focus on the whole of perception and experience, rather than its parts. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-16

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: b. False 17. The cognitive perspective is an approach that emphasizes mental processes in thinking, memory, language, and other areas of behaviour. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-17 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: a. True 18. The psychology of women is focused primarily on investigating why men are traditionally favoured in society. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-18 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: b. False 19. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) allows researchers to tap into the unconscious processes that motivate behaviour. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-19 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: b. False 20. Cognitive psychology focuses on helping people to see the good in their lives and to accept themselves for who they are. a True b False QuestionID: 01-6-20 Objective: 1.2c Apply your knowledge to distinguish among the different specializations in psychology. Answer: b. False

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Chapter 2 : Reading and Evaluating Scientific Research Chapter Quiz Questions 1. Scientists study a _________ and then generalize the results of their investigation to a __________. A) sample; population B) population; sample C) convenience sample; random sample D) random sample; convenience sample QuestionID: 02-1-01 Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: A) sample; population 2. Which of the following is an example of demand characteristics affecting an experiment? A) An experimenter draws the wrong conclusions from a study because she did not use the correct statistical analysis. B) A participant changes his behaviour because he has the feeling he knows what the experimenter wants. C) An experimenter changes his behaviour because he can predict how the participant will respond. D) A participant in a double-blind experiment believes she is in the control group. QuestionID: 02-1-02 Objective: 2.1c Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study. Answer: B) A participant changes his behaviour because he has the feeling he knows what the experimenter wants. 3. Why it is a bad idea to draw conclusions from anecdotal evidence? A) Such conclusions usually go against common sense and conclusions against common sense are not usually valid. B) Anecdotes are reliable only if they come from experts, which they rarely do. C) Anecdotes are a single-blind technique, not a double-blind method. D) There is no way to know if the anecdote is true or if it will generalize to other people and situations. QuestionID: 02-1-03 Objective: 2.1c Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study. Answer: D) There is no way to know if the anecdote is true or if it will generalize to other people and situations. 4. What does a correlation coefficient of –0.94 indicate about the relationship between two variables? A) The variables are weakly associated, with both increasing together. B) The variables are strongly associated, with both increasing together. C) The variables are weakly associated, with one increasing as the other decreases. D) The variables are strongly associated, with one increasing as the other decreases. QuestionID: 02-1-04 Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: D) The variables are strongly associated, with one increasing as the other decreases. 5. Most people would agree that anxiety can lead to sleep loss. However, Dr. Jenkins believes that sleep deprivation can also cause increased anxiety. Which research method would allow him to test a cause–effect relationship between the two? A) naturalistic observation

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) experimental C) correlational D) survey QuestionID: 02-1-05 Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples Answer: B) experimental 6. Which of the following statements describes the amount of cognitive and emotional risk to participants allowed in psychological research today? A) Any amount of risk is acceptable. B) No amount of risk is acceptable. C) Low levels of risk are always acceptable, but more than minimal risk is never acceptable. D) The amount of acceptable risk depends in part on the possible benefits from the study. QuestionID: 02-1-06 Objective: 2.3a Know the key terminology of research ethics. Answer: D) The amount of acceptable risk depends in part on the possible benefits from the study. 7. The use of deception in psychological research is A) considered necessary and completely acceptable in all research. B) not considered acceptable. C) generally acceptable when shown to be absolutely necessary for the research. D) acceptable only in nonhuman research. QuestionID: 02-1-07 Objective: 2.3e Analyze the role of using deception in psychological research. Answer: C) generally acceptable when shown to be absolutely necessary for the research. 8. Under which of the following circumstances would the mean be the best measure of central tendency to use? A) The data have a normal distribution. B) The data are positively skewed. C) The data are negatively skewed. D) The mean is robust and always considered the best measure of central tendency. QuestionID: 02-1-08 Objective: 2.4d Analyze the choice of central tendency statistics based on the shape of the distribution. Answer: A) The data have a normal distribution. 9. A teacher notices that, on the last science test, some students did very well while other students performed poorly or had grades somewhere in the middle. If she wanted to measure how "spread out" the scores were, which descriptive statistic could she use? A) median B) mode C) standard deviation D) mean QuestionID: 02-1-09 Objective: 2.4d Analyze the choice of central tendency statistics based on the shape of the distribution. Answer: C) standard deviation

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

10. Keisha performs an experiment with two randomly assigned groups of school children. The first group is allowed 15 minutes of recess play before a math test, while the second group watches a video before the test. When she analyzes the test scores, she finds that there is a statistical difference between the groups, with the recess group scoring higher, on average, on the test. Which conclusion can be drawn from this result? A) The difference between the scores for the two groups is not likely due to their differing pre-test activities and it is probably due to random chance. B) The difference between the scores for the two groups is likely due to their differing pre-test activities, and did not happen by chance. C) Students who are good at math prefer recess to watching a video. D) Students who are good at math prefer watching a video to recess. QuestionID: 02-1-10 Objective: 2.4b Understand how and why psychologists use significance tests. Answer: B) The difference between the scores for the two groups is likely due to their differing pre-test activities, and did not happen by chance. Essay Questions 1. What are the five characteristics of good research described in the textbook? Briefly explain each one. QuestionID: 02-2-01 Objective: 2.1b Understand the five characteristics of quality scientific research. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Research should be based on measurements that are * objective: consistent across instruments and observers * valid: actually measure what they claim to measure * reliable: provide consistent answers when re-measured - Good research can be generalized to situations, individuals, and events beyond the original study. - Good research should use techniques to reduce bias from both the participants and the experimenters. - Research should be made public, usually through the peer review process and publication in an academic journal. - It must be possible for other researchers to replicate the results of good research. 2. Explain why anecdotal evidence, appeals to authority, and appeals to common sense are all considered poor forms of evidence and provide an example (not covered in the textbook) of each. QuestionID: 02-2-02 Objective: 2.1e Analyze whether anecdotes, authority figures, and common sense are reliably truthful sources of information. Answer: (examples will vary): Anecdotal evidence is the experience of one person generalized into a theory, such as when a person listens to hypnosis CDs and loses 58 pounds in three months. This is anecdotal evidence and not real evidence because no hypothesis was tested in developing the theory. The weight loss could have been caused by any number of things other than the CDs. Appeal to authority is evidence from an "expert" that is assumed to be valid and reliable simply because an expert says it is true. An expert may claim to have found a great weight-loss program but experts can be wrong and experts can have hidden agendas. It is important to see what the expert may have to gain by claiming an untested theory is true. Appeal to common sense is evidence that sounds like it must be true but hasn't necessarily been tested. A great example is that people long thought that the earth was stationary and the centre of the universe because this theory made sense based on their (limited) knowledge of the cosmos. The best theory is always based on the results of hypotheses tested using the scientific method. 3. Describe and compare correlational research designs and experimental research designs. Give one pro and one con for each type of design.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 02-2-03 Objective: 2.2e Analyze the pros and cons of descriptive, correlational, and experimental research designs. Answer: Correlational - Pro: Correlational research allows you to determine the relationship between two variables and investigate influencing factors that may not be possible to control or manipulate in an experimental design (for ethical or practical reasons). For example, scientists cannot assign research participants to a smoking group when they are teenagers and force them to smoke until they are in late adulthood to measure the effect of smoking on health. - Con: Correlational research shows you that a change in one variable will likely result in a change in another variable, but this type of research does not determine why that change occurs (i.e., cannot determine causation). A third variable could cause both variables to change. Experimental - Pro: Experimental research is designed to test a hypothesis in tightly controlled conditions so that a cause-and-effect relationship can be established. - Con: Although experimental research designs allow for strict control over the variables (and thus, the possibility of determining causation), this structure can also negatively impact the generalizability or ecological validity of the findings (this type of research may also not be as applicable to real-world scenarios). Fill-in-the-blank Questions 1. Before beginning an experiment, researchers use __________ to define exactly how variables like "intelligence" or "happiness" will be measured. QuestionID: 02-3-01 Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: a. operational definitions 2. are a major problem in psychological research, and can cause participants to change their behaviour based on how they think they are supposed to behave. QuestionID: 02-3-02 Objective: 2.1c Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study. Answer: a. Demand characteristics 3. Prior to publication in scholarly journals, papers go through a __________ process, in which they are read and critiqued by experts in the specific field of study. QuestionID: 02-3-03 Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: a. peer review 4. Tabitha is convinced that vaccines cause autism because her friend's child was diagnosed with autism only a week after being vaccinated. Tabitha's conclusions are based on __________ and as such, cannot be considered reliable. QuestionID: 02-3-04 Objective: 2.1e Analyze whether anecdotes, authority figures, and common sense are reliably truthful sources of information. Answer: a. anecdotal evidence 5. Case studies, naturalistic observations, surveys, and questionnaires are all types of __________ research, because they can only be used to collect observations.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 02-3-05 Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: a. descriptive 6. designs are the only research method that can provide strong evidence for cause-and-effect relationships. QuestionID: 02-3-06 Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: a. Experimental 7. To study the effect of subliminal advertising on consumer behaviour, participants were randomly assigned to watch a movie either with or without subliminal advertising. The group of participants that saw the movie without the ads is called the __________ . QuestionID: 02-3-07 Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: a. control group 8. Research participants must give __________ , meaning that they are told about the experiment—including any potential risks—and then freely agree to participate. QuestionID: 02-3-08 Objective: 2.3a Know the key terminology of research ethics. Answer: a. informed consent 9. A __________ distribution is characterized by its symmetrical shape with values clustered around a mean value. QuestionID: 02-3-09 Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: a. normal 10. If the difference between groups in an experiment is unlikely to have occurred by random chance alone, the difference is said to be __________ . QuestionID: 02-3-10 Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: a. statistically significant Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is subjective? A) the height of a tree B) the speed of a reflex C) the weight of a soil sample D) the value of a painting QuestionID: 02-4-01 Skill: Applied

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: D) the value of a painting 2. _______________assumes that there are facts about the world that can be observed and tested independently from the individual who describes them. A) Subjectivity B) Objectivity C) Validity D) Generalizability QuestionID: 02-4-02 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: B) Objectivity 3. Which of the following is one of the five characteristics of quality research listed in the textbook? A) using subjective measurements B) protecting the public from distressing results and keeping them secret C) making sure results can be replicated D) avoiding generalizing results QuestionID: 02-4-03 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.1b Understand the five characteristics of quality scientific research. Answer: C) making sure results can be replicated 4. In an effort to ensure objectivity, psychologists typically measure A) behaviour. B) introspection. C) thoughts. D) feelings. QuestionID: 02-4-04 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1b Understand the five characteristics of quality scientific research. Answer: A) behaviour. 5. A group of researchers are studying depression in a sample of patients. Each researcher independently assesses the level of depression in each patient, but find that their assessments are not the same. This suggests that A) depression cannot be studied scientifically. B) the researchers are not using a reliable measurement. C) the results are generalizable. D) the patients likely do not have depression. QuestionID: 02-4-05 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.1b Understand the five characteristics of quality scientific research. Answer: B) the researchers are not using a reliable measurement. 6. In research, the object, concept, or event being measured is called a

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

unit of data. population. variable. sample.

QuestionID: 02-4-06 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: C) variable. 7. A researcher measures participants' blood pressure while they are shown sexual, violent, or relaxing videos. The blood pressure measurement in this study is an example of A) a variable. B) a sample. C) self-reporting. D) a demand characteristic. QuestionID: 02-4-07 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: A) a variable. 8. In science, operational definitions are used to A) keep participants from knowing which treatment group they are in. B) reduce demand characteristics. C) increase ecological validity. D) define terms and variables so they can be objectively measured. QuestionID: 02-4-08 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: D) define terms and variables so they can be objectively measured. 9. Before beginning a study on the health effects of obesity, a group of researchers agree that, for the purposes of their study, anyone with a body mass index greater than 30 kg/m 2 will be considered obese. This is an example of a(n) A) control variable. B) operational definition. C) convenience sample. D) dependent variable. QuestionID: 02-4-09 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: B) operational definition. 10. __________ refers to the consistency of a measurement. A) Generalizability B) Validity C) Reliability D) Objectivity

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 02-4-10 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: C) Reliability 11. Dr. Sparks gave Julie a new intelligence test that he personally designed, but her scores are different each time he tests her. These results suggest that Dr. Sparks' intelligence test has poor A) validity. B) generalizability. C) reliability. D) social desirability. QuestionID: 02-4-11 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.1d Apply the concepts of reliability and validity to examples. Answer: C) reliability. 12. Dr. Hashmi is assessing patients' personalities using an "ink blot" test that she created, and is gaining confidence in the test's reliability. Which of the following is likely leading her to have increased confidence about the test's reliability? A) Her patients are reporting high levels of enjoyment with daily testing. B) Patients are generating approximately the same results each time they are tested. C) The test seems to be measuring what it is supposed to be measuring (personality). D) The test appears to be objective. QuestionID: 02-4-12 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.1d Apply the concepts of reliability and validity to examples. Answer: B) Patients are generating approximately the same results each time they are tested. 13. Brittany, a hockey player who plays for the local university, has finished the last three years with 8, 32, and 14 points. Considering her performance, what type of player would Brittany be considered? A) a valid player B) an objective player C) a reliable player D) not a reliable player QuestionID: 02-4-13 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.1d Apply the concepts of reliability and validity to examples. Answer: D) not a reliable player 14. __________ is the extent to which a measure assesses what it claims to measure. A) Generalizability B) Reliability C) Validity D) Objectivity QuestionID: 02-4-14 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: C) Validity 15. Jasmine took a self-administered online intelligence test three times yesterday and obtained scores of 124, 128, and 125. This made her feel great because the score she received from the psychologist last month at school was only a 95. What characteristic might the online test be lacking? A) reliability B) validity C) both reliability and validity D) nothing, the test appears to be both reliable and valid QuestionID: 02-4-15 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.1d Apply the concepts of reliability and validity to examples. Answer: B) validity 16. The degree to which one set of results can be applied to other situations, individuals, or events is called A) objectivity. B) reliability. C) validity. D) generalizability. QuestionID: 02-4-16 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: D) generalizability. 17. To increase the generalizability of their results, researchers try to study a ________ sample of participants. A) small B) large C) single-person D) convenience QuestionID: 02-4-17 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: B) large 18. Which of the following is TRUE? A) Researchers typically study whole populations because it the most efficient method for gathering data. B) Researchers typically study samples because it is often too difficult to study whole populations. C) Researchers typically aim to include both samples and populations in their research. D) Researchers typically avoid studying both populations and samples to avoid researcher bias. QuestionID: 02-4-18 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: B) Researchers typically study samples because it is often too difficult to study whole populations. 19. The most important factor to ensure that results from one study will generalize in other settings, is to use A) a convenience sample. B) small sample sizes. C) random assignment.

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D) a random sample. QuestionID: 02-4-19 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: D) a random sample. 20. Researchers at Universities often use Psychology students as their participants because they are readily available and eager to volunteer. This form of a sample is referred to as a(n) ____________ sample. A) random B) confound C) ecological D) convenience QuestionID: 02-4-20 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: D) convenience 21. Ecological validity refers to A) whether the results of a laboratory study can be applied to the real world. B) the impact of a scientific study on the environment. C) the degree to which animal research can be applied to humans. D) the degree to which naturalistic research techniques are used. QuestionID: 02-4-21 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: A) whether the results of a laboratory study can be applied to the real world. 22. Ursula works in an office. One day, her boss tells her that upper-management will be in the office to observe employee productivity. Because she knows she is being observed, Ursula works harder than she normally does, a phenomenon known as A) the placebo effect. B) the Heisenberg principle. C) ecological validity. D) the Hawthorne effect. QuestionID: 02-4-22 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.1c Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study. Answer: D) the Hawthorne effect. 23. The term demand characteristics refers to A) a set of personality traits that most good scientists share. B) unintended cues that suggest how study participants should behave. C) statements that describe the specific measures that are used to record observations. D) the specific set of instructions for an experiment. QuestionID: 02-4-23 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1c Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: B) unintended cues that suggest how study participants should behave. 24. Bandar is participating in a survey on undergraduate drug use. When the interviewer asks Bandar whether he has used illegal drugs in the last 6 months, he lies and says "no" because he knows drug use is frowned upon by many people. Bandar's response is an example of A) socially desirable responding. B) the Hawthorne effect. C) experimenter bias. D) over-generalization. QuestionID: 02-4-24 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.1c Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study. Answer: A) socially desirable responding. 25. Priya, a university student, wants to know how many of the students living in her residence have tried cannabis, so she decides to interview everyone in her building. Despite rumours to the contrary, the results suggest that fewer than five percent of her classmates have tried the drug. What is the most likely explanation for her findings? A) The student responses were influenced by social desirability. B) Priya's question was unclear. C) Priya miscalculated the results. D) Interviews often lead to exaggerated results. QuestionID: 02-4-25 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.1c Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study. Answer: A) The student responses were influenced by social desirability. 26. Eila is participating in a psychological experiment for one of the graduate students at her university. She is fairly certain that she knows the true intent of the study and is trying to answer the questions accordingly. Eila is adjusting her responses based on A) the Hawthorne effect. B) social desirability bias. C) observer bias. D) demand characteristics. QuestionID: 02-4-26 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.1c Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study. Answer: D) demand characteristics. 27. Why is bias in a research study a problem? A) Bias leads us to become anxious or depressed about our knowledge of the world. B) Bias leads us to draw incorrect conclusions and then become convinced that they are accurate. C) Bias leads us to doubt our intuition and gut feelings in important real-life circumstances. D) Bias leads us to underestimate our general levels of cognitive abilities and skills. QuestionID: 02-4-27 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1c Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: B) Bias leads us to draw incorrect conclusions and then become convinced that they are accurate. 28. One difficulty in conducting medical research is that participants often assume that the treatment will be effective in alleviating their symptoms, hence they report that their symptoms are alleviated. Therefore, a researcher must design an experiment that accounts for the possible influence of A) random selection. B) medical confounds. C) the Rosenthal effect. D) the placebo effect. QuestionID: 02-4-28 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1c Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study. Answer: D) the placebo effect. 29. When people report feeling better after taking medication even though it hasn't had time to exert any physical effects, they are experiencing A) the experimenter bias effect. B) low reliability. C) the placebo effect. D) confirmation bias. QuestionID: 02-4-29 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1c Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study. Answer: C) the placebo effect. 30. Dr. Wilkins randomly assigns subjects to one of two groups. He is interested in the effects of caffeine on anxiety levels. He gives subjects in the first group an extra two cups of coffee a day for six months. The second group receives an extra two cups of decaffeinated coffee a day for the same time period. Importantly, subjects do not know whether they are being given regular or decaffeinated coffee. By providing one group with decaffeinated coffee, Dr. Wilkins is trying to account for which potential element of the experiment? A) the Hawthorne effect B) generalizability C) the placebo effect D) variability QuestionID: 02-4-30 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.1c Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study. Answer: C) the placebo effect 31. Elle, a university student, had a great time at a party last night. She danced, sang karaoke, and played the Rock Band video game—all behaviours that she had never exhibited in public before. She had been drinking the "punch" all night long, which she was told contained a lot of alcohol. Elle was quite surprised to find out the next morning that the punch did NOT contain any alcohol. What may explain Elle's behaviour at the party? A) the Hawthorne effect B) confirmation bias C) the nocebo effect D) the placebo effect QuestionID: 02-4-31 Skill: Applied

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 2.1c Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study. Answer: D) the placebo effect 32. What is the best way to reduce the social desirability bias in research? A) use random sampling B) provide anonymity and confidentiality C) use random assignment D) submit the research to peer review QuestionID: 02-4-32 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1c Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study. Answer: B) provide anonymity and confidentiality 33. In a single-blind study, who is "blind" to the treatment? A) the peer reviewers B) the participants C) the experimenters D) both the experimenters and participants QuestionID: 02-4-33 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: B) the participants 34. An experiment is said to be __________ when neither researchers nor participants are aware of who is in the experimental or control group. A) single-blind B) generalizable C) peer reviewed D) double-blind QuestionID: 02-4-34 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: D) double-blind 35. Dr. Leblanc is conducting a clinical drug trial. She wants to reduce bias as much as possible, so she has her assistant label the different drug doses as A, B, or C. Neither Dr. Leblanc or her patients know which dose of the drug the patients are receiving. This experimental design is known as a _________ study. A) single-blind B) placebo C) peer-reviewed D) double-blind QuestionID: 02-4-35 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: D) double-blind 36. The process by which experts in a field carefully critique the work of their colleagues prior to publication, is

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

known as A) ecological validation. B) social desirability. C) peer review. D) replication. QuestionID: 02-4-36 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: C) peer review. 37. The peer review process is designed to A) limit alternative therapies from being made available to the general public. B) identify potential flaws in a research study's methods, findings, and conclusions. C) eliminate the placebo effect. D) translate scientific journal articles into easy-to-understand articles for social media. QuestionID: 02-4-37 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1b Understand the five characteristics of quality scientific research. Answer: B) identify potential flaws in a research study's methods, findings, and conclusions. 38. Without the process of replication as part of the scientific process, what would happen? A) Incorrect results would often go uncorrected. B) Demand characteristics would have a larger effect on data. C) The Hawthorne effect would increase. D) Samples would be less representative of the populations they came from. QuestionID: 02-4-38 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1b Understand the five characteristics of quality scientific research. Answer: A) Incorrect results would often go uncorrected. 39. The main purpose of replicating research is to A) keep the scientific community up-to-date on current findings. B) renew drug and technology patents based on the research. C) ensure that the findings are correct and not statistical flukes. D) increase a researcher's number of publications. QuestionID: 02-4-39 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1b Understand the five characteristics of quality scientific research. Answer: C) ensure that the findings are correct and not statistical flukes. 40. Chen believes that red cars are more likely to be stolen than non-red cars because one week after she bought a red car, it was stolen. This is an example of which type of evidence? A) anecdotal B) falsified C) common sense D) authoritative QuestionID: 02-4-40

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Applied Objective: 2.1e Analyze whether anecdotes, authority figures, and common sense are reliably truthful sources of information. Answer: A) anecdotal 41. Support for a claim that is based on a story about an individual or event is called ___________ evidence. A) anecdotal B) narrative C) objective D) socially desirable QuestionID: 02-4-41 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.1e Analyze whether anecdotes, authority figures, and common sense are reliably truthful sources of information. Answer: A) anecdotal 42. In general, which of the following is TRUE about anecdotal evidence? A) It is reliable as long as it comes from an expert. B) It is an efficient method for gathering complex data. C) It is the basis for most scientific conclusions. D) It is poor and unreliable evidence. QuestionID: 02-4-42 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1e Analyze whether anecdotes, authority figures, and common sense are reliably truthful sources of information. Answer: D) It is poor and unreliable evidence. 43. Appeals to authority are generally considered a(n) ____________ form of evidence because _______________________. A) reliable; expertise is equivalent to evidence B) reliable; experts would not present erroneous information C) unreliable; experts are unable to assess the quality of their research D) unreliable; expertise is not equivalent to evidence QuestionID: 02-4-43 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1e Analyze whether anecdotes, authority figures, and common sense are reliably truthful sources of information Answer: D) unreliable; expertise is not equivalent to evidence 44. Claims based on common sense A) are high in ecological validity. B) should be considered false, unless stated by a scientist. C) may be true, but require scientific evidence for support. D) should be considered true, but only if the majority of the public supports the claim. QuestionID: 02-4-44 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1e Analyze whether anecdotes, authority figures, and common sense are reliably truthful sources of information.

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Answer: C) may be true, but require scientific evidence for support. 45. Kia and her friend are discussing why so many child actors become troubled adults. Kia says, "Everyone knows that if a child is spoiled, they will not develop the coping skills needed in adulthood." From a scientific point of view, what is wrong with Kia's statement? A) It is based on anecdotal evidence. B) It is an appeal to authority. C) It is an appeal to common sense. D) Nothing; it is a well-supported conclusion. QuestionID: 02-4-45 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.1e Analyze whether anecdotes, authority figures, and common sense are reliably truthful sources of information. Answer: C) It is an appeal to common sense. 46. When designing a study, researchers must take into account all of the following factors EXCEPT A) how to best organize the stimuli to test the hypothesis. B) how to analyze the data to prove the hypothesis. C) how they will gather the data. D) how they will analyze and interpret the results. QuestionID: 02-4-46 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: B) how to analyze the data to prove the hypothesis. 47. _____________ research does not attempt to explain how or why something happened, but instead it is an opportunity to present observations about the characteristics of the subject. A) Descriptive B) Quasi-experimental C) Experimental D) Correlational QuestionID: 02-4-47 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: A) Descriptive 48. Which of the following is NOT a descriptive research method? A) case study B) naturalistic observation C) experiment D) survey QuestionID: 02-4-48 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: C) experiment 49. A(n) ____________ involves describing a single individual's behaviour in great detail, rather than testing a

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

specific hypothesis. A) case study B) correlational study C) experiment D) naturalistic observation study QuestionID: 02-4-49 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: A) case study 50. Fudah, a graduate student in psychology, just heard about a five-year-old child who has already learned calculus. She is thinking about conducting an in-depth study of the child for her thesis. What research method is Fudah considering? A) naturalistic observation B) experimental C) correlational D) case study QuestionID: 02-4-50 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: D) case study 51. Why is it difficult to make generalizations based on the results of case study research? A) Case studies are typically conducted over a very short period of time, making generalizations about long-term effects difficult. B) Case studies are conducted in strict laboratory environments, which reduces ecological validity. C) Participants in case studies may be atypical and not representative of population. D) The statistics involved in case study research do not allow one to draw larger conclusions about a population. QuestionID: 02-4-51 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.2e Analyze the pros and cons of descriptive, correlational, and experimental research designs. Answer: C) Participants in case studies may be atypical and not representative of population. 52. Which of the following statements is TRUE about naturalistic observation? A) It recreates natural conditions in the laboratory as closely as possible to make an experiment more ecologically valid. B) It involves observing behaviour of organisms in their natural environment. C) It focuses on environmental research. D) It involves observing behaviour in the lab without the use of technological instruments. QuestionID: 02-4-52 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: B) It involves observing behaviour of organisms in their natural environment. 53. Measuring or recording behaviour in a real-world setting is known as A) a case study. B) a correlational study. C) naturalistic observation.

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D) a self-report. QuestionID: 02-4-53 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: C) naturalistic observation. 54. Dr. Deska was interested in social hierarchies in teenagers, so he went to the local high school and observed students' interactions during break periods. Dr. Deska is using ____________ to gather his data. A) a case study B) naturalistic observation C) an experimental design D) a peer review process QuestionID: 02-4-54 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: B) naturalistic observation 55. A researcher is interested in determining how frequently bullying behaviour occurs in real-life settings. This researcher would best be advised to use a(n) _______ design. A) case study B) correlational C) experimental D) naturalistic observation QuestionID: 02-4-55 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: D) naturalistic observation 56. ______________ is a method where researchers typically use interviews, phone surveys, and questionnaires to directly collect responses from the people being studied. A) Naturalistic observation B) Random sampling C) Self-reporting D) Blind sampling QuestionID: 02-4-56 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: C) Self-reporting 57. Dr. Potter, a psychology professor, is curious about his students' attitudes toward marginalized populations. What research method is he most likely to use to gather information about this topic? A) naturalistic observation B) survey C) experiment D) correlational study QuestionID: 02-4-57 Skill: Applied

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Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: B) survey 58. If you are interested in examining the relationship between a student's grade and the number of classes they missed, you would likely use a(n) ________ to study this relationship. A) case study design B) correlational design C) experimental design D) naturalistic observation design QuestionID: 02-4-58 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: B) correlational design 59. Two variables are said to be correlated when scores on one variable A) do not increase or decrease with the scores on the second variable. B) increase or decrease with the scores on the second variable. C) directly cause the scores on the second variable. D) differ from the scores on the second variable. QuestionID: 02-4-59 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2b Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated. Answer: B) increase or decrease with the scores on the second variable. 60. "As one variable increases, the other decreases." This statement describes a ________ correlation. A) positive B) weak C) strong D) negative QuestionID: 02-4-60 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2b Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated. Answer: D) negative 61. As the average daily temperature in Edmonton, Alberta, decreases the number of persons who are observed drinking iced coffee decreases. This is an example of a(n) ________ correlation. A) unrelated B) negative C) positive D) strong QuestionID: 02-4-61 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2b Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated. Answer: C) positive 62. Often, the amount of time a student spends studying is __________ correlated with the student's grades. A) negatively

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B) not C) positively D) inversely QuestionID: 02-4-62 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2b Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated. Answer: C) positively 63. There is a negative correlation between wearing one's seat belt and the severity of injuries received during an accident. Which statement correctly illustrates this correlation? A) The more often you wear your seat belt, the more serious the injury you are likely to receive in an accident. B) The more you wear your seat belt, the less likely you are to suffer serious injuries in an accident. C) Wearing your seatbelt prevents you from being injured in an accident. D) Failing to wear your seat belt increases the likelihood that you will sustain serious injuries in an accident. QuestionID: 02-4-63 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2b Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated. Answer: B) The more you wear your seat belt, the less likely you are to suffer serious injuries in an accident. 64. A graph that can be used to illustrate the pattern of the relationship between scores from two variables is called a A) bar graph. B) line graph. C) pie chart. D) scatterplot. QuestionID: 02-4-64 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: D) scatterplot. 65. Dr. Schott's scatterplot reveals no real patterns or clusters. In fact, the data points appear completely random on the graph. This pattern of results is most likely from which type of correlation? A) positive B) zero C) negative D) skewed QuestionID: 02-4-65 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2b Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated. Answer: B) zero 66. Dr. Oickle is trying to determine which type of correlation is represented on her scatterplot. She notes that nearly all the data are clustered along a diagonal line running from top left to bottom-right. What would be the correct interpretation of the data? A) There appears to be a positive correlation. B) There appears to be no correlation. C) There appears to be a negative correlation. D) We need more information to draw a conclusion.

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QuestionID: 02-4-66 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2b Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated. Answer: C) There appears to be a negative correlation. 67. Mr. Gauthier, a sixth-grade science teacher, has tried to predict his students' end-of-the-year grades by looking at their grades from the previous year. Unfortunately, there does not seem to be any systematic relationship between these two variables. Which of the following coefficients best fits this scenario? A) +.01 B) –.92 C) –.36 D) +.89 QuestionID: 02-4-67 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2b Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated. Answer: A) +.01 68. Which correlation coefficient is most likely to describe the relationship between brushing one's teeth and the number of cavities one gets? A) –.62 B) +.83 C) –.08 D) +.45 QuestionID: 02-4-68 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2b Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated. Answer: A) –.62 69. A correlation coefficient will always range between A) 0 and +1. B) –10 and +10. C) 0% and 100%. D) –1.0 and +1.0. QuestionID: 02-4-69 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2b Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated. Answer: D) –1.0 and +1.0. 70. Which of the following correlations represents the weakest degree of relation between two variables? A) Daily calcium intake and bone mass density = +.11 B) Degree of exposure to lead and IQ scores in children = –.12 C) Hours of exposure to media violence and aggressive behaviour = +.31 D) Number of cigarettes smoked per day and incidence of lung cancer = +.39 QuestionID: 02-4-70 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2b Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated.

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Answer: A) Daily calcium intake and bone mass density = +.11 71. Which of the following correlation coefficients represents the strongest degree of relation between two variables? A) +.19 B) –.25 C) +.43 D) –.47 QuestionID: 02-4-71 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.2b Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated. Answer: D) –.47 72. Correlational research designs are NOT appropriate for purposes of A) determining causation. B) describing relationships. C) predicting possible outcomes. D) understanding the association between two variables. QuestionID: 02-4-72 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2e Analyze the pros and cons of descriptive, correlational, and experimental research designs. Answer: A) determining causation. 73. The perception of a statistical association between two variables where none exists is known as ______________. A) confirmation bias B) an illusory correlation C) a negative correlation D) a third variable problem QuestionID: 02-4-73 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: B) an illusory correlation 74. When asked if there are more ice cream cones sold in November or July, Mary answers "July" immediately. Then, she is surprised to find out that there is little to no difference between the two months in terms of icecream-cone sales. Mary's error exemplifies A) an imaginary correlation. B) a negative correlation. C) a positive correlation. D) an illusory correlation. QuestionID: 02-4-74 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: D) an illusory correlation. 75. Dr. Janusz conducts a correlational study and finds a strong negative relationship between behavioural issues in children and the amount of time the parents spend with the child. Dr. Janusz immediately holds a press

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conference warning parents that spending less time with their children will cause behavioural issues. Was this the appropriate conclusion for Dr. Janusz to draw? A) Yes, researchers can conclude causation as long as it is a strong correlation. B) Yes, Dr. Janusz's results were strong and are in agreement with common sense. C) No, a third variable might be impacting both variables (e.g., poverty). D) No, Dr. Janusz is reporting on an illusory correlation. QuestionID: 02-4-75 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2e Analyze the pros and cons of descriptive, correlational, and experimental research designs. Answer: C) No, a third variable might be impacting both variables (e.g., poverty). 76. ____________ are the only form of research that allow one to make inferences about causation. A) Descriptive designs B) Correlational designs C) Experimental designs D) Naturalistic observations QuestionID: 02-4-76 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: C) Experimental designs 77. What is the main difference between an experiment and a correlational study? A) A correlational study involves the manipulation of variables, while an experiment does not. B) An experiment uses random sampling, while a correlational study uses random assignment. C) A correlational study looks at the relationship between independent and dependent variables, while an experiment looks at the relationship between confounding variables. D) An experiment involves the manipulation of variables, while a correlational study does not. QuestionID: 02-4-77 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: D) An experiment involves the manipulation of variables, while a correlational study does not. 78. One key aspect of an experiment that is missing in other research designs is A) the ability to test predictions. B) the use of variables. C) the use of operational definitions. D) random assignment. QuestionID: 02-4-78 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: D) random assignment. 79. A research design characterized by the random assignment of participants to conditions is called a(n) A) quasi-experimental design. B) random sample. C) experimental design. D) correlational design.

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QuestionID: 02-4-79 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: C) experimental design. 80. Professor Golder is studying hyperactivity in preschool-age children. She is concerned that differences in child rearing, diet, and home environment may affect her results. To minimize these potential pre-existing variables, she should be sure to do which of the following? A) Use random assignment when forming her groups. B) Include more than one independent variable. C) Only measure a single dependent variable. D) Only select children from homes with a high socioeconomic status (SES). QuestionID: 02-4-80 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: A) Use random assignment when forming her groups. 81. Why is it important to make sure that different participant groups are roughly equivalent in terms of personal characteristics (e.g., age, gender) before any independent variable is introduced? A) It is important to treat all research participants equally so that they feel that they are not being manipulated. B) Research ethics forbid any experiment to take place when the participant groups are fundamentally different from each other. C) It is important so that no major differences between the groups inadvertently bias the results of the experiment. D) Research ethics required all participants in a sample to have the same personal characteristics. QuestionID: 02-4-81 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: C) It is important so that no major differences between the groups inadvertently bias the results of the experiment. 82. The __________ variable is what the experimenter manipulates (or varies). A) confounding B) dependent C) experimental D) independent QuestionID: 02-4-82 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: D) independent 83. The variable that an experimenter measures is called the A) control variable. B) confounding variable. C) dependent variable. D) independent variable. QuestionID: 02-4-83 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs.

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Answer: C) dependent variable. 84. An administrator believes that the placement of motivational posters on the walls in classrooms of academic buildings will lead to better grades at his school. To test his theory, he randomly assigns certain classrooms within the university's Faculty of Science to have the posters while others do not. None of the remaining four faculties will have any posters placed in their classrooms. What is the independent variable in this study? A) the five different faculties B) the presence or absence of classroom posters C) the classrooms D) student grades QuestionID: 02-4-84 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: B) the presence or absence of classroom posters 85. A medical doctor believes that the presence of aromatherapy candles will reduce the anxiety of first-time mothers-to-be during labour and will increase their reported satisfaction with their care at his hospital. He randomly assigns mothers to give birth in a room either with or without aromatherapy candles. What is the independent variable in this example? A) anxiety levels during labour B) labour duration C) room environment (presence or absence of candles) D) reported satisfaction with hospital care QuestionID: 02-4-85 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: C) room environment (presence or absence of candles) 86. Professor McCormick decides to test her hypothesis that eating chocolate prior to exams increases students' test scores. She randomly assigns students to two groups at the beginning of the semester. One group receives a bar of chocolate before each test, while the other group receives another type of candy. She compares their scores at the end of the year and finds that the students who ate the chocolate scored an average of ten points higher on their exams. What is the dependent variable in this experiment? A) students' test scores B) chocolate bars C) the students themselves D) the exams themselves QuestionID: 02-4-86 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: A) students' test scores 87. Professor McCormick decides to test her hypothesis that eating chocolate prior to exams increases students' test scores. She randomly assigns students to two groups at the beginning of the semester. One group receives a bar of chocolate before each test, while the other group receives another type of candy. She compares their scores at the end of the year, and finds that the students who ate the chocolate scored an average of ten points higher on their exams. What is a fair conclusion that can be drawn from this experiment? A) Eating chocolate causes students' test scores to increase. B) Eating chocolate is negatively correlated with students' test scores.

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C) Eating chocolate likely increases students' level of happiness. D) Eating chocolate increases general intelligence. QuestionID: 02-4-87 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: A) Eating chocolate causes students' test scores to increase. 88. A(n) _____ variable is one that is outside of the experimenter's control. A) confounding B) dependent C) independent D) random QuestionID: 02-4-88 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: A) confounding 89. In an experiment, the __________ group receives no manipulation. A) control B) dependent C) independent D) experimental QuestionID: 02-4-89 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: A) control 90. A researcher wants to see whether she can make the typical administrative assistant job more motivating at Acme, Inc. To experimentally investigate this possibility, she randomly assigns administrative assistants to one of the following conditions: (I) doing the job as it has always been done, (II) having a computer performance monitoring device installed, (III) receiving feedback about their performance on a weekly basis, or (IV) being given a say in how one's workload is structured and done. Which of the preceding conditions is an example of a control group? A) being given a say in how one's workload is structured and done B) doing the job as it has always been done C) having a computer performance monitoring device installed D) receiving feedback on a weekly basis QuestionID: 02-4-90 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: B) doing the job as it has always been done 91. Ryan, a professional bass fisherman, is trying to determine which lure is most effective: the scented silicone worm he normally uses or the new minnow-style lure he bought yesterday. Based on this scenario, what would constitute the control? A) the new minnow lure B) the scented silicone worm C) both the minnow lure and the silicone worm

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D) there is no control in this example QuestionID: 02-4-91 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: B) the scented silicone worm 92. Dr. Johansen randomly assigned subjects to three different groups during her last experiment. She then proceeded to give all the participants in the experiment a new study technique designed to enhance their learning for the upcoming test. What critical error did she make during her experiment? A) She failed to identify the independent variable. B) She failed to identify the dependent variable. C) She failed to include an experimental group. D) She failed to include a control group. QuestionID: 02-4-92 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: D) She failed to include a control group. 93. The group that receives the manipulation of an independent variable is called the A) control group. B) dependent group. C) experimental group. D) independent group. QuestionID: 02-4-93 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: C) experimental group. 94. Quasi-experimental designs are similar to experimental designs, except in quasi-experimental designs A) random assignment is not possible. B) there is more than one independent variable. C) there is more than one dependent variable. D) there is no dependent variable. QuestionID: 02-4-94 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: A) random assignment is not possible. 95. If researchers wanted to study the effect of various factors on reaction time, which factor would require the researchers to use a quasi-experimental design instead of an experimental design? A) alcohol B) sleep deprivation C) gender D) caffeine QuestionID: 02-4-95 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs.

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Answer: C) gender 96. The MKUltra project is often cited as an example of A) unethical research on animals. B) unethical research on humans. C) necessary deception in research. D) the effective use of strict ethical guidelines in research. QuestionID: 02-4-96 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.3d Apply the ethical principles of scientific research to examples. Answer: B) unethical research on humans. 97. What is the purpose of a research ethics board? A) to help protect research participants from unnecessary risk B) to slow the research process by placing hurdles in the way of researchers C) to help protect universities and institutions from lawsuits D) to raise funds for ongoing research QuestionID: 02-4-97 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.3a Know the key terminology of research ethics. Answer: A) to help protect research participants from unnecessary risk 98. Kendra serves on a committee whose job is to review proposed psychology studies. The committee refuses to approve one study because it feels the possible benefit from the research is too little given the potential risk to the participants. Kendra's committee is most accurately called A) an ethics commission. B) the psychological harm board. C) the academic safety advisory committee. D) the research ethics board. QuestionID: 02-4-98 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.3a Know the key terminology of research ethics. Answer: D) the research ethics board. 99. According to the textbook, which of the following is true about studies that potentially increase mortality salience in participants? A) Studies that increase mortality salience increase the incidence of suicide in their participants. B) Studies that increase mortality salience are considered unethical. C) Stress from mortality salience is typically short term and can be considered an acceptable risk. D) Studies that increase mortality salience are always acceptable. QuestionID: 02-4-99 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.3a Know the key terminology of research ethics. Answer: C) Stress from mortality salience is typically short term and can be considered an acceptable risk. 100. What is informed consent? A) Volunteers agree to participate in a study after the purpose, tasks, and risks of the study are explained to them.

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B) Research ethics boards (REBs) must be informed about the purpose, tasks, and risks of a study before they approve it. C) Researchers agree to be legally responsible for the physical and psychological safety of their participants. D) Participants must be informed of the results of the study they participated in and give their consent before the research is published. QuestionID: 02-4-100 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.3a Know the key terminology of research ethics. Answer: A) Volunteers agree to participate in a study after the purpose, tasks, and risks of the study are explained to them. 101. Which of these is an essential component of ethical human research? A) Research participants must give informed consent. B) Research participants must personally benefit from the research. C) Research participants must be compensated (paid) for their participation. D) By providing informed consent, participants must complete the experiment in its entirety. QuestionID: 02-4-101 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.3a Know the key terminology of research ethics. Answer: A) Research participants must give informed consent. 102. What effect does the planned use of deception have on the approval of a study by a research ethics board (REB)? A) Studies with deception can be approved, but only if the deception is necessary and the risk to participants is minimal. B) The use of deception has no effect on the whether the study will be approved by the REB. C) Studies that involve deception go through a much more rigorous approval process as compared to those that don't involve deception. D) Studies with deception are considered unethical and are rarely approved. QuestionID: 02-4-102 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.3e Analyze the role of using deception in psychological research. Answer: A) Studies with deception can be approved, but only if the deception is necessary and the risk to participants is minimal. 103. Professor Wagner has just completed an experiment. He is now explaining to his subjects the purpose behind the experiment and giving them a general description of the results. Professor Wagner is engaging in what aspect of a research study? A) debriefing B) informed consent C) ethical review D) deception QuestionID: 02-4-103 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.3a Know the key terminology of research ethics. Answer: A) debriefing 104. Participants in modern psychology experiments are given the right to

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A) B) C) D)

select which treatment group they are in. withdraw from a study or withhold responses to questions they feel uncomfortable answering. review the results of the study before they are published and change any aspect of it if they want. write a formal response to the published paper.

QuestionID: 02-4-104 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.3d Apply the ethical principles of scientific research to examples. Answer: B) withdraw from a study or withhold responses to questions they feel uncomfortable answering. 105. Confidentiality requires researchers to do which of the following? A) Provide complete anonymity when collecting data. B) Erase all confidential data as soon as the results of the study are published. C) Use a double-blind procedure. D) Remove any specific information that can be connected with a participant when sharing data. QuestionID: 02-4-105 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.3d Apply the ethical principles of scientific research to examples. Answer: D) Remove any specific information that can be connected with a participant when sharing data. 106. Dr. Novella wants to know the effects of removing portions of one's hippocampi (an area of the brain) on long-term memory, in the hopes of one day finding a cure for patients with Alzheimer's disease. The subjects for his study are most likely to be A) humans. B) nonhuman animals. C) robots. D) insects. QuestionID: 02-4-106 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.3c Understand why animals are often used in scientific research. Answer: B) nonhuman animals. 107. According to the textbook, which of the following is true of the use of animal research in psychology? A) Animal research is important for several reasons and requires attention to many of the same ethical issues that apply to human research. B) Animal research is generally regarded as cruel and unnecessary. C) Animal research does not help the advancement of our understanding of human behaviour. D) Animal research is useful because risk and discomfort to nonhuman subjects does not need to go through ethical review. QuestionID: 02-4-107 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.3c Understand why animals are often used in scientific research. Answer: A) Animal research is important for several reasons and requires attention to many of the same ethical issues that apply to human research. 108. Which of the following is an advantage of using nonhuman subjects in psychological research? A) Research on nonhumans does not have to be reviewed by ethics committees. B) Many lab animals have relatively short life spans, so several generations can be observed. C) Researchers do not have to justify risk and discomfort with the potential scientific value of the research.

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D) There are no advantages of animal research over human research. QuestionID: 02-4-108 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.3c Understand why animals are often used in scientific research. Answer: B) Many lab animals have relatively short life spans, so several generations can be observed. 109. In general, what should researchers do with data after the results of a study have been published? A) Destroy it immediately. B) Keep it forever. C) Keep it secure for around 25 to 50 years. D) Keep it secure for around 3 to 5 years. QuestionID: 02-4-109 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.3b Understand the importance of reporting and storing data. Answer: D) Keep it secure for around 3 to 5 years. 110. _______________ are a set of techniques used to organize, summarize, and interpret data. A) Central tendencies B) Inferential statistics C) Distributions D) Descriptive statistics QuestionID: 02-4-110 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: D) Descriptive statistics 111. To organize and summarize a large set of data, researchers use a set of mathematical techniques called A) distribution statistics. B) inferential statistics. C) descriptive statistics. D) variability tests. QuestionID: 02-4-111 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: C) descriptive statistics. 112. Which of the following is the correct description of frequency? A) the number of observations that fall within a certain category or range of scores B) a measure of how spread out values are within a distribution C) a measure of the central point of a distribution D) the distance between the highest and lowest value in a distribution QuestionID: 02-4-112 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: A) the number of observations that fall within a certain category or range of scores

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113. What does the height of the bars on a histogram indicate? A) mean B) range C) frequency D) score or value QuestionID: 02-4-113 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.4c Apply your knowledge to interpret the most frequently used types of graphs. Answer: C) frequency 114. The scores on most standardized tests have a _____________ distribution. A) normal B) positively skewed C) negatively skewed D) bimodal QuestionID: 02-4-114 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: A) normal 115. A teacher is disappointed to find that most of her students' test scores are clustered together at the low end of the grading scale, with only a few students having high grades. If she were to graph the distribution, what shape would you expect it to have? A) normal B) positively skewed C) negatively skewed D) central QuestionID: 02-4-115 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.4c Apply your knowledge to interpret the most frequently used types of graphs. Answer: B) positively skewed 116. A frequency distribution with a cluster of scores on the far right and a long tail to its left is a ________________ distribution. A) negatively skewed B) positively skewed C) normal D) biased QuestionID: 02-4-116 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: A) negatively skewed 117. Which of the following is a measure of central tendency? A) mode B) variability C) range D) standard deviation

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QuestionID: 02-4-117 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: A) mode 118. A university president asks the head of the data analytics department if more students come from cities or rural locales. What measure of central tendency is she asking about? A) mean B) median C) mode D) range QuestionID: 02-4-118 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: C) mode 119. If a set of data has a perfectly normal distribution, which measure of central tendency should be used? A) mean B) median C) mode D) It doesn't matter; they will be the same. QuestionID: 02-4-119 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.4d Analyze the choice of central tendency statistics based on the shape of the distribution. Answer: D) It doesn't matter; they will be the same. 120. If a set of data has a skewed distribution, which measure of central tendency should be used? A) mean B) median C) mode D) standard deviation QuestionID: 02-4-120 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.4d Analyze the choice of central tendency statistics based on the shape of the distribution. Answer: B) median 121. If all the scores in a distribution are clustered closely together, the distribution has A) low variability. B) high variability. C) a positive skew. D) a negative skew. QuestionID: 02-4-121 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: A) low variability.

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122. Conceptually, the standard deviation for a distribution can be thought of as A) the centre of the distribution. B) the average frequency for each category. C) the average distance from the mean. D) the distance between the highest and lowest values. QuestionID: 02-4-122 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: C) the average distance from the mean. 123. Standard deviation is a measure of A) central tendency. B) variability. C) statistical significance. D) correlation. QuestionID: 02-4-123 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: B) variability. 124. Ada's professor tells her class that the average score on the last test was 72 points. Ada wants to know if most students actually scored near 72, or if the grades were more spread out, with many students doing much better or worse than a 72. What statistic could Ada ask her professor to calculate to help answer her question? A) standard deviation B) median C) mode D) correlation coefficient QuestionID: 02-4-124 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: A) standard deviation 125. The term statistically significant implies that the results are A) important. B) reliable. C) valid. D) not likely due to chance. QuestionID: 02-4-125 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.4b Understand how and why psychologists use significance tests. Answer: D) not likely due to chance. 126. Dr. Kwan hypothesizes that allowing factory employees to listen to music while working will improve productivity. After conducting his experiment, Dr. Kwan finds that the group of participants that was allowed to listen to music was more productive than the group that did not, but this difference was not statistically significant. What should Dr. Kwan conclude about the difference between the two groups? A) His results support his hypothesis. B) He is likely to find the same effect if he replicated the study.

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C) It is possible that the difference was due to random chance. D) Music improves productivity in factory settings. QuestionID: 02-4-126 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.4b Understand how and why psychologists use significance tests. Answer: C) It is possible that the difference was due to random chance. 127. Researchers use _____________ to determine whether the difference between groups is statistically significant. A) correlation coefficients B) descriptive statistics C) hypothesis testing D) vector analysis QuestionID: 02-4-127 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.4b Understand how and why psychologists use significance tests. Answer: C) hypothesis testing 128. The ____________ assumes that any differences between groups is due to chance. A) null hypothesis B) p-value C) experimental hypothesis D) central tendency QuestionID: 02-4-128 Skill: Factual Objective: 2.4b Understand how and why psychologists use significance tests. Answer: A) null hypothesis 129. A(n) ________ represents the probability that the results from an experiment are due to chance. A) hypothesis test B) standard deviation C) p-value D) normal distribution QuestionID: 02-4-129 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.4b Understand how and why psychologists use significance tests. Answer: C) p-value 130. Dr. Googoo compares the results of experimental and control groups, then calculates the p-value for his results as p = 0.63. What is the appropriate conclusion for him to make? A) There is likely no difference between his two groups. B) There is a statistically significant difference between the two groups. C) Dr. Googoo can reject the null hypothesis. D) The two groups are strongly correlated. QuestionID: 02-4-130 Skill: Applied Objective: 2.4b Understand how and why psychologists use significance tests.

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Answer: A) There is likely no difference between his two groups. 131. Which of the followings especially makes science an ongoing and self-correcting process? A) replication B) determination C) double-blind method D) managing demand characteristics QuestionID: 02-4-131 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1b Understand the five characteristics of quality scientific research. Answer: A) replication 132. In psychology, novel and successful results are often communicated in journal and major media outlets (e.g., TED talks) but studies without significant results are not. This phenomenon is also an obstacle in front of replication of novel findings. What is this called? A) replication bias B) significance bias C) publication bias D) presentation bias QuestionID: 02-4-132 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.1b Understand the five characteristics of quality scientific research. Answer: C) publication bias 133. Some researcher use social media platforms like Facebook in order to collect human behaviour data. Which of the followings is the most critical issue emerging in social media research? A) hypothesis testing B) not receiving informed consent C) the use of deception D) difficulty in replication QuestionID: 02-4-133 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.3d Apply the ethical principles of scientific research to examples. Answer: B) not receiving informed consent 134. Human beings are imperfect and intuitive, for example, when it comes to making a guess on how frequently an event or a behaviour occurs. Scientists have a set of tools to protect us against our own quantitative biases. What is that set of tools called? A) hypothesis testing B) central tendency C) statistics D) estimation QuestionID: 02-4-134 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.3d Apply the ethical principles of scientific research to examples. Answer: C) statistics

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135. Hussein is interested in testing the hypothesis that being in nature increases well-being. Which of the following would be the best to test this idea? A) Conduct an observation in nature with participants who report high level of stress before being exposed to nature; measure their stress scores after exposing them to the nature. B) Conduct an experiment with two conditions using random assignment; use virtual reality to expose participants to nature or not; measure their stress scores. C) Conduct an interview with stressed students and asked them if they think nature increases their well-being. D) Find a group healthy volunteers; expose them to unnatural environment and measure their stress level. QuestionID: 02-4-135 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: B) Conduct an experiment with two conditions using random assignment; use virtual reality to expose participants to nature or not; measure their stress scores. Supplementary Questions 1. A large group of people whom you want to know about is called a A) control group. B) treatment group. C) population. D) sample. QuestionID: 02-5-01 Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: C) population. 2. A psychologist is studying pilot trainees. She picks a select group of trainees that she hopes is representative of all other trainees. The group of trainees being studied by this psychologist is collectively known to researchers as a A) sample. B) population. C) target group. D) control group. QuestionID: 02-5-02 Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: A) sample. 3. A subset of cases selected from a larger population is a A) control group. B) target group. C) treatment group. D) sample. QuestionID: 02-5-03 Objective: 2.1a Know the key terminology related to the principles of scientific research. Answer: D) sample. 4. A scientist is conducting a research study on sleep and learning. She questions her own objectivity and decides to let a third person, who is not associated with conducting the experiment, score the tests. The scientist is probably trying to eliminate

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A) B) C) D)

researcher bias. sample bias. control bias. treatment bias.

QuestionID: 02-5-04 Objective: 2.1c Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study. Answer: A) researcher bias. 5. Expectations by the experimenter that might influence the results of an experiment or their interpretation are called A) experimental blinds. B) researcher bias. C) sample bias. D) treatment bias. QuestionID: 02-5-05 Objective: 2.1c Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study. Answer: B) researcher bias. 6. Dr. Welsh is doing experiments using drugs. He is concerned that his subjects will respond to demand characteristics. He may want to control for this by using which of the following strategies? A) stratification B) two independent variables C) a placebo D) randomization QuestionID: 02-5-06 Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: C) a placebo 7. Mr. Marshall hired June to collect data from a group of subjects. Neither June nor the subjects were aware of the independent variable that Mr. Marshall had manipulated. This is an example of A) randomization. B) a placebo. C) double-blind control. D) experimenter bias. QuestionID: 02-5-07 Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: C) double-blind control. 8. A "fake treatment" is one way to define a A) decoy. B) demand characteristic. C) control group. D) placebo. QuestionID: 02-5-08 Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: D) placebo.

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9. Researcher bias can best be controlled by using A) a placebo. B) double-blind control. C) randomization. D) subjects who do not know the purpose of the study. QuestionID: 02-5-09 Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: B) double-blind control. 10. A research method in which the real-life behaviour of a pre-selected person or a group is studied in depth for some time through the use of observation, interviews, and writings (such as letters) is the _____________ method of research. A) survey B) psychometric C) case study D) naturalistic observation QuestionID: 02-5-10 Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: C) case study 11. Observing behaviour as it happens in real-life, natural settings without imposing laboratory controls is known as the A) naturalistic observation method. B) experimental method. C) correlational method. D) psychometric approach. QuestionID: 02-5-11 Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: A) naturalistic observation method. 12. Naturalistic observation is A) recreating natural conditions in the laboratory as closely as possible to make an experiment more valid. B) studying behaviour in its natural context. C) basically the same process as objective introspection. D) observing behaviour in the lab without taking formal notes or using technological equipment to measure the experiment findings. QuestionID: 02-5-12 Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: B) studying behaviour in its natural context. 13. Collecting objective data without interference in the subject's normal environment is associated with A) survey research. B) applied research. C) laboratory research. D) naturalistic observation. QuestionID: 02-5-13

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Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: D) naturalistic observation. 14. As part of an assignment, Bill's class was asked to complete an anonymous questionnaire on prejudice. Which research method was Bill's professor using? A) field experiment B) survey C) naturalistic observation D) laboratory experiment QuestionID: 02-5-14 Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: B) survey 15. Positive correlation shows A) the extent to which two independent variables change together. B) that as one independent variable increases, another decreases. C) that as one variable changes, another changes in the same direction. D) that as one variable changes, another changes in the opposite direction. QuestionID: 02-5-15 Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: C) that as one variable changes, another changes in the same direction. 16. Sasha read about a study in the newspaper that reported a relationship between schizophrenia and crime. What type of research design was most likely used in this study? A) naturalistic observation B) case study design C) correlational design D) experimental design QuestionID: 02-5-16 Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: C) correlational design 17. A researcher wished to study the relationship between high school grades and post-secondary grades. Of the following research methods, which would be the most appropriate? A) case study B) correlation C) experiment D) survey QuestionID: 02-5-17 Objective: 2.2e Analyze the pros and cons of descriptive, correlational, and experimental research designs. Answer: B) correlation 18. A correlation of.00 means A) you made a mistake in calculation. B) you did not find out anything about the relationship between the two variables. C) the two variables are unrelated. D) everyone who scored low on one variable scored high on the other variable, and vice versa.

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QuestionID: 02-5-18 Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: C) the two variables are unrelated. 19. A correlation tells us A) whether a cause–effect relationship exists. B) whether two variables are related. C) whether or not a test is efficient. D) if people are responding to demand characteristics. QuestionID: 02-5-19 Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: B) whether two variables are related. 20. A psychologist uses the correlational method to A) explain the effects of one variable on another. B) compare two groups of subjects. C) determine what causes a variable to change. D) identify relationships between variables. QuestionID: 02-5-20 Objective: 2.2e Analyze the pros and cons of descriptive, correlational, and experimental research designs. Answer: D) identify relationships between variables. 21. Which term best describes the correlation between the full moon and violent crime? A) positive B) negative C) zero D) illusory QuestionID: 02-5-21 Objective: 2.2b Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated. Answer: D) illusory 22. In psychological studies, random assignment is used to ensure that A) there will be an independent and a dependent variable. B) each person has an equal chance of being assigned to each group. C) the control group does not know the purpose of the study. D) the experimenter won't know who is in each group. QuestionID: 02-5-22 Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: B) each person has an equal chance of being assigned to each group. 23. Which of the following is a strength of experiments? A) They cannot be repeated by anyone other than the experimenter. B) They allow for the establishment of cause–effect relationships. C) They are not subject to demand characteristics since the subjects do not know they are being observed. D) They allow us to draw definitive conclusions about behaviour in the natural environment based on subjects' behaviour in the laboratory.

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QuestionID: 02-5-23 Objective: 2.2e Analyze the pros and cons of descriptive, correlational, and experimental research designs. Answer: B) They allow for the establishment of cause–effect relationships. 24. If explanation of the causes of thoughts, feelings, and behaviour is a psychologist's goal, then the __________ method of research should be used. A) correlational B) experimental C) survey D) naturalistic observation QuestionID: 02-5-24 Objective: 2.2e Analyze the pros and cons of descriptive, correlational, and experimental research designs. Answer: B) experimental 25. The process of establishing causal relationships is associated most with A) naturalistic observation. B) experiments. C) correlation. D) surveys. QuestionID: 02-5-25 Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: B) experiments. 26. Cause-and-effect conclusions can be drawn from the results of an experiment because A) it is almost always performed in a laboratory setting. B) statistical analysis can be applied to data from an experiment. C) the independent variable is manipulated while other possible causes of change in the dependent variable are held constant. D) several groups of subjects, not just one sample, are typically investigated in a laboratory experiment. QuestionID: 02-5-26 Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: C) the independent variable is manipulated while other possible causes of change in the dependent variable are held constant. 27. In a test of the effects of sleep deprivation on problem-solving skills, research participants are allowed to sleep either four or eight hours on each of three consecutive nights. This research is an example of A) naturalistic observation. B) survey research. C) a case study. D) an experiment. QuestionID: 02-5-27 Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: D) an experiment. 28. To determine if sugar-rich diets affect hyperactivity in kids, a researcher prepared two daily menus that children would receive for a 30-day period. A high-sugar diet was given to the boys, while the girls had a menu

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that seemed identical but was not a high-sugar diet. At the end of 30 days, the boys and girls were evaluated to determine their levels of hyperactivity. In the study, the high-sugar diet is the A) placebo. B) independent variable. C) dependent variable. D) control group. QuestionID: 02-5-28 Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: B) independent variable. 29. In an experiment to test the effects of anxiety on performance, the dependent variable is the A) amount of anxiety. B) age of the person. C) person's performance. D) cause of the anxiety. QuestionID: 02-5-29 Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: C) person's performance. 30. In an experiment, a researcher manipulates one variable to see how it affects a second variable. The second variable, which is observed for any possible effects, is called the A) dependent variable. B) control variable. C) independent variable. D) hypothetical variable. QuestionID: 02-5-30 Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: A) dependent variable. 31. In a controlled experiment, the group subjected to a change in the independent variable is called the __________ group. A) independent B) experimental C) dependent D) control QuestionID: 02-5-31 Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: B) experimental 32. In a controlled experiment, the group not subjected to a change in the independent variable, and used for comparison with the group receiving the experimental change, is the __________ group. A) independent B) experimental C) dependent D) control QuestionID: 02-5-32 Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships.

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Answer: D) control 33. In an experiment, a researcher manipulates one variable to see how it affects a second variable. The manipulated variable is called the A) dependent variable. B) experimental variable. C) independent variable. D) placebo. QuestionID: 02-5-33 Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: C) independent variable. 34. A researcher, based on her review of relevant scientific studies, believes that there is a relationship between the frequency of a baby's crying and whether it was nursed at set intervals or on a demand schedule. If this belief were tested by experimentally manipulating feeding schedules, the feeding schedule would be called the A) independent variable. B) dependent variable. C) extraneous variable. D) control factors. QuestionID: 02-5-34 Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: A) independent variable. 35. A researcher, based on her review of relevant scientific studies, believes that there is a relationship between the frequency of a baby's crying and whether it was nursed at set intervals or on a demand schedule. If this belief were tested by experimentally manipulating feeding schedules, frequency of crying would be called the A) latent factor. B) dependent variable. C) independent variable. D) control factor. QuestionID: 02-5-35 Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: B) dependent variable. 36. A researcher tests the hypothesis that students who study in the room where they take their tests will perform better on the tests than students who study in other rooms. She requires one group to study in the classroom where the exam is given and another group to study in the library. All students take the test in the classroom, and their test performance is compared. In this example, the location that students study is the A) independent variable. B) dependent variable. C) manipulation. D) hypothesis. QuestionID: 02-5-36 Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: A) independent variable. 37. Professor McSpell designed an experiment to test her hypothesis that exercise will increase spelling ability.

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She divided children into three groups and had one group do 10 minutes of exercises, one group do 30 minutes of exercises, and the third group do no exercise. She then tested all three groups of children to see how many words they could spell correctly on a spelling test. In this experiment, the scores on the spelling test serve as the A) dependent variable. B) independent variable. C) control group. D) reliability measure. QuestionID: 02-5-37 Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: A) dependent variable. 38. In an experiment, the "measurable aspect of the behaviour of the subject" is called the __________ variable. A) dependent B) focal C) independent D) control QuestionID: 02-5-38 Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: A) dependent 39. The purpose of an experiment is to discover whether there is a relationship between the ___________ and the ___________. A) independent variable; control variable B) dependent variable; control variable C) control group; experimental group D) independent variable; dependent variable QuestionID: 02-5-39 Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: D) independent variable; dependent variable 40. In an experiment on the effects of level of motivation on the performance of typists, the researcher randomly assigned one-third of her subjects to each of three levels of motivation (and then induced different levels of motivation in the three groups). She measured the average words typed per minute by each group, and found that performance was highest under medium motivation, average under low motivation, and worst under high motivation. What was the independent variable in this experiment? A) motivation B) typing speed C) variation in typing speed D) manipulation of typing speed QuestionID: 02-5-40 Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: A) motivation 41. A psychologist wanted to see if people were more prone to seek the company of others when anxious than when calm. He randomly assigned half of his subjects to an anxiety group and then told them that, as part of the study, they would receive electric shocks. He did not frighten the other group of subjects. Finally, he recorded how many subjects in each group chose to be "tested" in a group setting and how many chose to be "tested" alone. What was the independent variable in this study?

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A) B) C) D)

tendency to desire the company of others level of shock level of anxiety the anxious group

QuestionID: 02-5-41 Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: C) level of anxiety 42. In an experiment, four groups of college students used different memorizing strategies to learn the material in one chapter of a textbook. Then each group was given the same multiple-choice test on the material. What was the dependent variable in this study? A) the students' performance on the test B) the four different groups C) the four different memorizing strategies D) manipulation of memorizing strategies QuestionID: 02-5-42 Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: A) the students' performance on the test 43. A psychologist wanted to see if people were more prone to seek the company of others when anxious than when calm. He randomly assigned half of his subjects to an anxiety group and then told them that, as part of the study, they would receive electric shocks. He did not frighten the other group of subjects. Finally, he recorded how many subjects in each group chose to be "tested" in a group setting and how many chose to be "tested" alone. What was the dependent variable in this study? A) the two groups B) the level of anxiety C) preference for being alone or in a group D) manipulation of anxiety QuestionID: 02-5-43 Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: C) preference for being alone or in a group 44. A psychologist wanted to see if people were more prone to seek the company of others when anxious than when calm. He randomly assigned half of his subjects to an anxiety group and then told them that, as part of the study, they would receive electric shocks. He did not frighten the other group of subjects. Finally, he recorded how many subjects in each group chose to be "tested" in a group setting and how many chose to be "tested" alone. In this study, the group that was not frightened would be called the ____________ group. A) experimental B) control C) placebo D) test QuestionID: 02-5-44 Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: B) control 45. The purpose of a control group in an experiment is to A) serve as a check on the interpretation of results. B) increase the ability to generalize the findings.

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C) manipulate the dependent variable. D) represent the general, nonlaboratory population. QuestionID: 02-5-45 Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: A) serve as a check on the interpretation of results. 46. In an experiment concerning the effect of auditory feedback on accuracy in writing computer programs, one group hears a computer-simulated voice say each character or symbol that they type in as they are writing their programs. The second group does not receive the auditory feedback as they type their program code. This second group is the ___________ group. A) experimental B) control C) placebo D) confederate QuestionID: 02-5-46 Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: B) control 47. Why is it essential that the experimental and control groups be treated identically in every respect but one? A) so that the dependent variable can be accurately measured B) so that the results will apply outside the laboratory setting C) so that if the behaviour of the two groups differs, the difference can be credited to the one thing that distinguished the groups from one another D) so that if the behaviour of the two groups differs, that difference can be used to establish a functional relationship between the independent and dependent variables QuestionID: 02-5-47 Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: D) so that if the behaviour of the two groups differs, that difference can be used to establish a functional relationship between the independent and dependent variables 48. In an experiment, group A was given 3 minutes to study a word list, while group B was given 10 minutes to study the same list. Later, both groups were asked to recall words from the list. In this study, the number of words recalled was the A) independent variable. B) dependent variable. C) placebo. D) control group. QuestionID: 02-5-48 Objective: 2.2c Understand how experiments help demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: B) dependent variable. 49. To obtain objective information, researchers must sometimes deceive their subjects. Ethically, researchers using deception must always A) pay participants, because being deceived is an emotionally difficult experience. B) maintain subject anonymity so that participants are assured of their privacy. C) use double-blind control. D) explain the deception to the subjects after the data are collected and obtain their informed consent to use the data.

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QuestionID: 02-5-49 Objective: 2.3e Analyze the role of using deception in psychological research. Answer: D) explain the deception to the subjects after the data are collected and obtain their informed consent to use the data. 50. Under which circumstance is the use of deception justified by ethics review boards? A) when the study could not have been conducted without deception B) when the research involves a medical or therapeutic intervention C) when participants might not agree to participate unless deception is used D) when the placebo effect is likely to occur QuestionID: 02-5-50 Objective: 2.3e Analyze the role of using deception in psychological research. Answer: A) when the study could not have been conducted without deception 51. When plotting data, Dr. Ryeburn notes that the distribution has an elongated tail to the right. Which descriptive statistic would offer the best measure of central tendency in this case? A) mean B) median C) standard deviation D) range QuestionID: 02-5-51 Objective: 2.4d Analyze the choice of central tendency statistics based on the shape of the distribution. Answer: B) median True-False Questions 1. Good scientific research is based on measurements that are objective, valid, and reliable. a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-01 Objective: 2.1b Understand the five characteristics of quality scientific research. Answer: a. True 2. If someone takes an intelligence test several times and receives the same score, the test is considered to have high validity. a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-02 Objective: 2.1d Apply the concepts of reliability and validity to examples. Answer: b. False 3. Using random sampling increases the likelihood that the results from a sample will generalize to the population. a True b False

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QuestionID: 02-6-03 Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: a. True 4. In a double-blind experiment, neither the participant nor the researcher knows which treatment group the participant is in. a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-04 Objective: 2.1c Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study. Answer: a. True 5. Once the results of a study have been peer reviewed and published, they are considered accurate, even if other researchers cannot replicate them. a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-05 Objective: 2.1c Understand how biases might influence the outcome of a study. Answer: b. False 6. Surveys and questionnaires are used to collect self-report data. a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-06 Objective: 2.2a Know the key terminology related to research designs. Answer: a. True 7. A correlation coefficient of –.80 represents a stronger relationship than a correlation coefficient of +.50. a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-07 Objective: 2.2b Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated. Answer: a. True 8. If researchers find that the number of books read by fifth-grade students is positively correlated with their scores on an intelligence test, it would be correct to conclude that having children read more increases their intelligence. a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-08 Objective: 2.2b Understand what it means when variables are positively or negatively correlated. Answer: b. False 9. Emmerson designs an experiment to test whether drinking a protein shake after weightlifting increases muscle development. The independent variable in Emmerson's experiment is the protein shake.

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a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-09 Objective: 2.2d Apply the terms and concepts of experimental methods to research examples. Answer: a. True 10. Asking participants to write about upsetting or traumatic experiences can put them at risk for cognitive and emotional stress. However, there might also be potential benefits of coping through expression. Research ethics boards (REB) weigh the risks and benefits of research. a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-10 Objective: 2.3a Know the key terminology of research ethics. Answer: a. True 11. Researchers are NOT allowed to deceive participants about the purpose of a study. a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-11 Objective: 2.3e Analyze the role of using deception in psychological research. Answer: b. False 12. The right to give informed consent stays with a volunteer throughout the entire study, and they should be able to withdraw at any point. a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-12 Objective: 2.3a Know the key terminology of research ethics. Answer: a. True 13. Researchers must give participants total anonymity. a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-13 Objective: 2.3a Know the key terminology of research ethics. Answer: b. False 14. For security and confidentiality reasons, once the results of a study are reported in a journal or at a conference, the data should be destroyed. a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-14 Objective: 2.3b Understand the importance of reporting and storing data. Answer: b. False

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15. A negatively skewed distribution has a long tail on the right of the cluster. a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-15 Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: b. False 16. The mean, median, and mode are all measures of central tendency. a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-16 Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics. Answer: a. True 17. When a distribution is skewed, the median is a better measure of the "average" than the mean. a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-17 Objective: 2.4d Analyze the choice of central tendency statistics based on the shape of the distribution. Answer: a. True 18. If the distribution of quiz scores for a class has high variability, most of the students scored within a few points of each other. a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-18 Objective: 2.4d Analyze the choice of central tendency statistics based on the shape of the distribution. Answer: b. False 19. If researchers find a statistically significant result, they would be likely to find the same result if they replicated the study again. a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-19 Objective: 2.4b Understand how and why psychologists use significance tests. Answer: a. True 20. If researchers calculate a large standard deviation, it indicates that there is a low level of variability in the data. a True b False QuestionID: 02-6-20 Objective: 2.4a Know the key terminology of statistics.

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Answer: b. False

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Chapter 3 : Biological Psychology Chapter Quiz Questions 1. _________ are composed of segments of DNA and guide in the process of protein creation. A) Phenotypes B) Nucleotides C) Genes D) Genotypes QuestionID: 03-1-01 Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: C) Genes 2. Suppose a researcher studied the occurrence rates of a specific mental illness in monozygotic and dizygotic twins. She finds that in monozygotic twins, if one twin suffers from mental illness, the other twin is also likely to have the mental illness. However, this does not appear to apply to dizygotic twins. What conclusion should the researcher draw from this evidence? A) The incidence of this type of mental illness is strongly influenced by genetics. B) The incidence of this type of mental illness is primarily influenced by environmental factors. C) Monozygotic twins are at an increased risk of developing mental illness. D) Dizygotic twins are at an increased risk of developing mental illness. QuestionID: 03-1-02 Objective: 3.1b Understand how twin and adoption studies reveal relationships between genes and behaviour. Answer: A) The incidence of this type of mental illness is strongly influenced by genetics. 3. When behavioural geneticists use adoption studies to estimate the heritability of a behaviour, the adoptive family can be thought of as representing ________, while the biological family can be thought of as representing ________. A) phenotype; genotype B) genotype; phenotype C) nature; nurture D) nurture; nature QuestionID: 03-1-03 Objective: 3.1b Understand how twin and adoption studies reveal relationships between genes and behaviour. Answer: D) nurture; nature 4. Organisms that express traits conducive to survival are more likely to mate and pass on those traits than organisms that do not possess the same favourable traits. This concept is known as A) the nature–nurture debate. B) evolution. C) natural selection. D) evolutionary psychology. QuestionID: 03-1-04 Objective: 3.1c Apply your knowledge of genes and behaviour to hypothesize why a trait might be adaptive. Answer: C) natural selection.

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5. In general, the ________ of a neuron receives messages from other cells, while the __________ transports messages to the end of the neuron. A) axon; dendrites B) dendrites; axon C) axon terminals; soma D) soma; myelin sheath QuestionID: 03-1-05 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: B) dendrites; axon 6. What is a synapse? A) the space where neurotransmitters are transmitted from one nerve cell to another B) a chemical substance that is released by a transmitting neuron C) a fatty coating that increases the rate at which messages travel through neurons D) a wave of electrical activity that travels down the length of the axon QuestionID: 03-1-06 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: A) the space where neurotransmitters are transmitted from one nerve cell to another 7. Which type of drug would a doctor give a patient to decrease the activity of the neurotransmitter dopamine in the brain? A) a dopamine reuptake inhibitor B) Botox C) a dopamine antagonist D) a dopamine agonist QuestionID: 03-1-07 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: C) a dopamine antagonist 8. The branch of the autonomic nervous system that prepares the body for quick action in an emergency is the ___________ division. A) central B) somatic C) sympathetic D) parasympathetic QuestionID: 03-1-08 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) sympathetic 9. Reggie suffered brain damage in a car accident. As a result, he can no longer breathe on his own and needs the help of a respirator. Which structure of his brain was most likely damaged? A) pons B) medulla C) cerebellum D) reticular formation QuestionID: 03-1-09 Objective: 3.3c Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is .

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injured or diseased. Answer: B) medulla 10. Dr. Stearns is studying what happens behaviourally when she temporarily inactivates a brain region. Which method is she most likely to be using? A) functional MRI B) PET scan C) transcranial magnetic stimulation D) brain lesioning QuestionID: 03-1-10 Objective: 3.4a Know the key terminology associated with measuring and observing brain activity. Answer: C) transcranial magnetic stimulation Essay Questions 1. What are genes? Explain how they influence our physical and psychological traits. QuestionID: 03-2-01 Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: Genes are the basic units of heredity. Genes are responsible for regulating the process of creating the proteins that make up our physical structure (genotype) and regulate development and physiological processes throughout the lifespan. Some of these physiological processes in turn influence behaviour (as a part of phenotype). 2. Describe neuronal communication, beginning with the stimulation of a presynaptic cell and ending with the initial stimulation of the postsynaptic cell. QuestionID: 03-2-02 Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: When a neuron is positively stimulated, there is a surge of positive ions into the cell that changes the potential of the neuron (e.g., changing from –70 mV to –68 mV). These charges flow down the dendrites and cross the cell body to the axon hillock, where the cell body meets the axon. If enough positively charged ions reach the axon hillock to push its charge past that cell's firing threshold (e.g., –55 mV), the neuron will then initiate an action potential, a wave of electrical activity that originates at the base of the axon and rapidly travels down its length. When an action potential occurs, the charge of that part of the axon changes from approximately –70 mV to approximately 35 mV; in other words, the cell changes from being negatively to positively charged. When the action potential reaches the axon terminal, it triggers the release of that cell's neurotransmitters into the synapses, the microscopically small spaces that separate individual nerve cells. The cell that releases these chemicals is known as the presynaptic cell ("before the synapse") whereas the cell that receives this input is known as the postsynaptic cell (or "after the synapse"). The dendrites of the postsynaptic cell contain specialized receptors that are designed to hold specific molecules, including neurotransmitters. Then, this process of neural communication will begin again. 3. Select three neuroimaging techniques outlined in the textbook. Describe each technique and provide one benefit and one drawback of each. QuestionID: 03-2-03 Objective: 3.4a Know the key terminology associated with measuring and observing brain activity. Answer: Student could select any three from the list below. Computerized tomography (CT) scan: 3D image created using multiple X-rays. Benefit: Cheap, no issues with metal in the body. Drawback: Lower resolution than other techniques (e.g., MRI). .

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Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI): 3D image created by measuring how different areas of the brain absorb and release energy while in a magnetic field. Benefit: High-resolution. Drawback: Use of magnetics means individuals with metal embedded or surgically inserted into their bodies may not be able to be scanned or are at risk for injury. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI): measures white matter pathways in the brain. Benefit: White matter tends to be implicated in many diseases and disorders. Drawback: Doesn't image grey matter (cortex). Electroencephalogram (EEG): Measures patterns of brain activity. Benefit: High temporal resolution—can indicate when brain activity is occurring. Drawback: Low spatial resolution—not very precise in determining where activity is originating. Magnetoencephalography (MEG): Measures electrical activity associated with active neurons. Benefit: Better spatial resolution than EEGs and good temporal resolution (speed). Drawback: Although better than EEGs, still not very high spatial resolution (hard to pinpoint specific brain area). Positron emission tomography (PET) scan: Measures activity in the brain by measuring levels of radioactive isotope (often glucose). Benefit: Allows researchers to see metabolic activity in the brain and measure involvement of specific receptors. Drawback: PET scans are very slow which means it is difficult to measure quick changes in brain activity. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI): measures brain activity by detecting oxygen consumption in brain areas. Benefit: Allows for accurate measurements of specific active brain areas, easy to use, does not involve radioactivity. Drawback: Correlational, meaning causation cannot be derived from the results. Fill-in-the-blank Questions 1. Rod inherited two different versions of a gene for hair colour from his parents, meaning that he can be described as __________ for that trait. QuestionID: 03-3-01 Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: a. heterozygous 2. is the process in which the frequency of genes changes over many generations in an interbreeding population. QuestionID: 03-3-02 Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: a. Evolution 3. The activity of neurons is highly dependent on the support of __________ cells, which surprisingly outnumber neurons 10 to 1 in the brain. QuestionID: 03-3-03 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: a. glial 4. Lasting only a few milliseconds, the __________ is the brief period following an action potential when a neuron is unable to fire. QuestionID: 03-3-04 Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: a. refractory period

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

5. Because __________ is an inhibitory neurotransmitter, it facilitates sleep and reduces arousal of the nervous system. QuestionID: 03-3-05 Objective: 3.2c Understand the ways that drugs and other substances affect the brain. Answer: a. GABA 6. Ava has a paper due for a class in two days and she hasn't started working on it yet. When Ava realizes how much work she still needs to do, her __________ are stimulated to start producing stress hormones, such as cortisol and epinephrine, to help mobilize her body. QuestionID: 03-3-06 Objective: 3.2d Understand the roles that hormones play in our behaviour. Answer: a. adrenal glands 7. Part of the thrill some people feel from riding roller coasters comes from their increased heart rate and arousal as the roller coaster slowly climbs the first hill. These physiological responses are all caused by the __________ division of the autonomic nervous system. QuestionID: 03-3-07 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: a. sympathetic nervous system 8. The amygdala and the hippocampus are two of the interconnected structures that form the __________ , which is involved in emotion and memory. QuestionID: 03-3-08 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: a. limbic system 9. Sapna's grandmother had a stroke that damaged tissue in one of her occipital lobes. Sapna is told to expect that her grandmother might have difficulty __________ , even after she recovers. QuestionID: 03-3-09 Objective: 3.3c Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased. Answer: a. seeing 10. Dr. Rimsha is performing a study to determine which brain regions are most active when participants recall traumatic events. To do this, he injects them with radioactive glucose. The slight radioactivity allows him to track the glucose using a __________ scan to determine which brain regions are using glucose at a fast rate. QuestionID: 03-3-10 Objective: 3.4d Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries. Answer: a. PET Multiple-Choice Questions 1. ________ are composed of segments of DNA and guide in the process of protein creation. A) Phenotypes .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) Nucleotides C) Genotypes D) Genes QuestionID: 03-4-01 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: D) Genes 2. Observable traits, such as physical and behavioural characteristics, make up an organism's A) genotype. B) phenotype. C) genetic profile. D) heredity. QuestionID: 03-4-02 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: B) phenotype. 3. The most basic units of heredity that regulate development and physiological processes are called A) proteins. B) genes. C) phenotypes. D) amino acids. QuestionID: 03-4-03 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: B) genes. 4. ___________ are structures in the cellular nucleus that are lined with all of the genes an individual inherits. A) Nucleotides B) DNA C) Amino acids D) Chromosomes QuestionID: 03-4-04 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: D) Chromosomes 5. Approximately how many genes do humans have? A) 23 B) 46 C) 20,000–25,000 D) 100 billion QuestionID: 03-4-05 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: C) 20,000–25,000 6. Kendra (female) and Robert (male) are the biological parents of a male child. Which of the following correctly describes how their son inherited his genes? A) All 23 pairs of chromosomes were contributed by Robert. B) All 23 pairs of chromosomes were contributed by Kendra. C) 23 single chromosomes came from Kendra and 23 single chromosomes came from Robert. D) 24 pairs of chromosomes came from Robert and 22 pairs of chromosomes came from Kendra. QuestionID: 03-4-06 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: C) 23 single chromosomes came from Kendra and 23 single chromosomes came from Robert. 7. The sequence of nucleotides in DNA represents a code that cells can use to create A) amino acids. B) chromosomes. C) proteins. D) genes. QuestionID: 03-4-07 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: C) proteins. 8. The sequence of letters TATAAGGCACCC most likely represents A) the order of genes on a chromosome. B) the order of chromosomes in a nucleus. C) the order of nucleotides in a gene. D) the types of DNA in a gene. QuestionID: 03-4-08 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: C) the order of nucleotides in a gene. 9. Yani inherited the gene for blue eyes from his mother, but he actually has brown eyes. What is his eye colour phenotype? A) brown B) blue C) recessive D) dominant QuestionID: 03-4-09 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: A) brown 10. Our genetic code usually determines whether we have typically male or female bodies. Occasionally however, individuals are born who are genetically male, but who physically appear female. These children are ______________ male, but __________________ female. A) heterozygous; homozygous

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) homozygous; heterozygous C) phenotypically; genotypically D) genotypically; phenotypically QuestionID: 03-4-10 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: D) genotypically; phenotypically 11. Having a dimple on your chin is determined by a single gene pair. If you inherited one dimple gene and one non-dimple gene from your parents, you could be described as ____________ for this trait. A) heterozygous B) homozygous C) phenotypical D) genotypical QuestionID: 03-4-11 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: A) heterozygous 12. If two corresponding genes at a given location on a pair of chromosomes are the same, they are referred to as A) genotyped. B) homozygous. C) phenotyped. D) heterozygous. QuestionID: 03-4-12 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: B) homozygous. 13. For a simple trait with one dominant and one recessive gene, a person will display the recessive trait A) if they are heterozygous or homozygous for the recessive trait. B) only if they are homozygous for the recessive trait. C) only if they are heterozygous for the recessive trait. D) as long as they inherit one copy of the recessive trait. QuestionID: 03-4-13 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: B) only if they are homozygous for the recessive trait. 14. Behavioural genetics is the study of A) DNA and the ways specific genes relate to behaviour. B) how different behaviours lead to permanent changes in the genetic code. C) how genes and environment influence behaviour. D) genetic mutations and inheritance. QuestionID: 03-4-14 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: C) how genes and environment influence behaviour. 15. Which of these research methods would a behavioural geneticist be likely to employ to study the influence of genetics on personality? A) examining heritability in twins and adopted individuals B) interviewing people who have mental health issues C) administering paper-and-pencil or computerized questionnaires to hundreds of people D) examining the changes in the expression of the genetic code over the lifespan QuestionID: 03-4-15 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.1b Understand how twin and adoption studies reveal relationships between genes and behaviour. Answer: A) examining heritability in twins and adopted individuals 16. Which of these sibling pairs will share the greatest number of genes? A) two brothers, born 18 months apart, who have the same two parents B) a brother and sister who are fraternal twins C) two brothers who developed from the same fertilized egg D) two sisters who are fraternal twins QuestionID: 03-4-16 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.1b Understand how twin and adoption studies reveal relationships between genes and behaviour. Answer: C) two brothers who developed from the same fertilized egg 17. What is the maximum value for heritability? A) –1.0 B) +1.0 C) +.01 D) –0.1 QuestionID: 03-4-17 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: B) +1.0 18. Dr. Kurz is studying twins where at least one twin suffers from depression. She finds that both twins are much more likely to share the disorder if they are monozygotic rather than dizygotic twins. What should Dr. Kurz conclude based on her findings? A) Depression is entirely genetic. B) The heritability of depression is high. C) The heritability of depression is low. D) Monozygotic twins are at a higher risk for depression than non-twins. QuestionID: 03-4-18 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.1b Understand how twin and adoption studies reveal relationships between genes and behaviour. Answer: B) The heritability of depression is high. 19. If dizygotic twins both share a trait 13% of the time while monozygotic twins share the trait 14% of the time, the heritability for this trait would be close to

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

0 0.13 0.14 0.135

QuestionID: 03-4-19 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.1b Understand how twin and adoption studies reveal relationships between genes and behaviour. Answer: A) 0 20. What is the maximum value for heritability? A) –1.0 B) +1.0 C) –.10 D) +.10 QuestionID: 03-4-20 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: B) +1.0 21. What does heritability of.37 indicate about a specific trait? A) 0.37% of individual differences in the trait can be attributed to environmental factors. B) 0.37% of individual differences in the trait can be attributed to genetic factors in the population. C) 37% of individual differences in the trait can be attributed to environmental factors within the population. D) 37% of individual differences in the trait can be attributed to genetic factors within the population. QuestionID: 03-4-21 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: D) 37% of individual differences in the trait can be attributed to genetic factors within the population. 22. If a trait has high heritability, then adopted children are more likely to share the trait with A) their biological parents. B) their adoptive parents. C) their adoptive siblings. D) other children of the same age range. QuestionID: 03-4-22 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.1b Understand how twin and adoption studies reveal relationships between genes and behaviour. Answer: A) their biological parents. 23. A researcher is studying factors that influence political beliefs (conservative or liberal). She finds that adopted children are more likely to share their political beliefs with their adoptive parents than their biological parents. Which of the following should she conclude? A) Genes have no influence on political beliefs. B) Adoptive parents are more likely to express their political beliefs to their children. C) Political beliefs have high heritability. D) Political beliefs have low heritability. QuestionID: 03-4-23

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Applied Objective: 3.1b Understand how twin and adoption studies reveal relationships between genes and behaviour. Answer: D) Political beliefs have low heritability. 24. Gi works in a laboratory that identifies which genes are present among individuals with particular traits. The goal of the lab is to understand how specific genes are related to behaviour. Gi likely works in which field? A) eugenics B) DNA phenotyping C) behavioural genomics D) psychobehavioural genetics QuestionID: 03-4-24 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: C) behavioural genomics 25. Which of the following is a limitation associated with behavioural genomics? A) Most traits are not controlled by single genes. B) Most diseases are not caused or affected by genes. C) The Human Genome Project did not lead to any new information about genes. D) It places too much emphasis on environmental factors. QuestionID: 03-4-25 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: A) Most traits are not controlled by single genes. 26. Which of the following is true? A) Most phenotypic traits are controlled by a single gene. B) Diseases are often found to be caused by single, specific genes. C) The same gene can often be a risk factor for several different disorders. D) No trait is determined by a single gene. QuestionID: 03-4-26 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.1d Analyze claims that scientists have located a specific gene that controls a single trait or behaviour. Answer: C) The same gene can often be a risk factor for several different disorders. 27. Aaron is working at his job as an editor of a science magazine when a reporter places an article on his desk entitled "Gene for Optimism Found." To avoid confusing the readers about the actual scientific findings, how could Aaron change the title? A) "Pessimists Could Be Missing a Crucial Gene" B) "Scientists Find Gene's Purpose Is to Increase Optimism" C) "Scientists Find the Single Gene for Optimism" D) "Gene Found to be a Factor in Optimism" QuestionID: 03-4-27 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.1d Analyze claims that scientists have located a specific gene that controls a single trait or behaviour. Answer: D) "Gene Found to be a Factor in Optimism"

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

28. Organisms that express traits conducive to survival are more likely to mate and pass on those traits than organisms that do not possess the same favourable traits. This concept is known as A) the nature–nurture debate. B) evolution. C) natural selection. D) evolutionary psychology. QuestionID: 03-4-28 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: C) natural selection. 29. The multi-generational change in the frequency of genes within an interbreeding population is known as A) heritability. B) evolutionary psychology. C) evolution. D) sexual selection. QuestionID: 03-4-29 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: C) evolution. 30. To date, which of the following traits has been the most evidently adaptive for humans? A) hiccups B) the fight-or-flight response C) schizophrenia D) red hair QuestionID: 03-4-30 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.1c Apply your knowledge of genes and behaviour to hypothesize why a trait might be adaptive. Answer: B) the fight-or-flight response 31. Which best describes the current understanding of sex differences in cognitive abilities? A) There are no sex differences in cognitive abilities. B) There is currently a debate about whether these differences are genetic or the result of cultural and environmental factors. C) There is no evidence that these differences are biological. D) There is no evidence that cultural and environmental factors can affect these differences. QuestionID: 03-4-31 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.1e Analyze explanations for cognitive gender differences that are rooted in genetics. Answer: B) There is currently a debate about whether these differences are genetic or the result of cultural and environmental factors. 32. Researchers have found that the male advantage in mental rotation tasks is related to A) cultural factors. B) estrogens. C) testosterone levels. D) educational factors.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 03-4-32 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.1e Analyze explanations for cognitive gender differences that are rooted in genetics. Answer: C) testosterone levels. 33. Robert is out for a walk in the woods when he sees two male deer charging at each other, butting heads, and locking antlers. Robert knows that the winner of this fight will be more likely to mate with the nearby female deer. This fight is an example of A) intersexual selection. B) evolutionary psychology. C) adaptation. D) intrasexual selection. QuestionID: 03-4-33 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.1e Analyze explanations for cognitive gender differences that are rooted in genetics. Answer: D) intrasexual selection. 34. Peahens are more attracted to (and thus, more likely to mate with) male peacocks with brightly coloured plumage. This is an example of A) intersexual selection. B) evolutionary psychology. C) adaptation. D) intrasexual selection. QuestionID: 03-4-34 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.1e Analyze explanations for cognitive gender differences that are rooted in genetics. Answer: A) intersexual selection. 35. ___________ are responsible for sending and receiving messages throughout the body. A) Glial cells B) Neurons C) Neurotransmitters D) Dendrites QuestionID: 03-4-35 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: B) Neurons 36. Neurons are A) specialized cells that help to clean and feed brain cells. B) cells that send and receive information. C) bundles of nerves. D) chemical transmitters found throughout the nervous system. QuestionID: 03-4-36 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: B) cells that send and receive information. 37. The ___________ is the central region of the neuron that contains genes responsible for synthesizing the proteins that allow the neuron to function. A) myelin sheath B) dendrite C) axon D) soma QuestionID: 03-4-37 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: D) soma 38. Which part of the neuron is responsible for manufacturing proteins? A) axon B) cell body C) dendrite D) axon terminals QuestionID: 03-4-38 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: B) cell body 39. The branchlike structures that receive messages from other neurons are called A) axons. B) axon terminals. C) dendrites. D) synapses. QuestionID: 03-4-39 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: C) dendrites. 40. Which part of the neuron typically receives messages from other neurons? A) myelin sheath B) dendrites C) axon D) axon terminals QuestionID: 03-4-40 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: B) dendrites 41. Which part of a neuron transmits information to other neurons through an electrochemical signal? A) soma B) axon C) dendrites D) cell membrane

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 03-4-41 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: B) axon 42. If neuronal communication were compared to radio, the _______________ would be the transmitter at the radio station and the _______________ would be the antenna on your car. A) cell bodies; axons B) dendrites; axons C) axon terminals; axons D) axons; dendrites QuestionID: 03-4-42 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: D) axons; dendrites 43. The structures at tips of the axon (i.e., furthest from the soma) are called A) axon terminals. B) dendrites. C) neurotransmitters. D) axon hillocks. QuestionID: 03-4-43 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: A) axon terminals. 44. Kerry works as a messenger for a business. His job is to carry messages between different buildings. Kerry's role for the company is similar to the function of ______________ in neuronal communication. A) neurotransmitters B) axons C) dendrites D) somas QuestionID: 03-4-44 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: A) neurotransmitters 45. The tiny space between the axon terminal of one cell and the dendrites of the next cell is called the A) receptor site. B) synapse. C) dendrite spine. D) terminal button. QuestionID: 03-4-45 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: B) synapse.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

46. Mary put her hand on a hot stove. Which type of neuron is responsible for sending a pain message toward her spinal cord? A) motor neuron B) interneuron C) sensory neuron D) messenger neuron QuestionID: 03-4-46 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: C) sensory neuron 47. What is the function of the myelin sheath? A) to serve as a support structure for neurons B) to process neural activity C) to speed up the neural impulse D) to synthesize neurotransmitters QuestionID: 03-4-47 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: C) to speed up the neural impulse 48. The __________ speeds up the passage of electrical messages by acting as an insulator of the neuronal signal. A) blood–brain barrier B) terminal button C) myelin D) axon QuestionID: 03-4-48 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: C) myelin 49. Kalika is told by her physician that her symptoms are caused by a loss of myelin. Her diagnosis would most likely be A) Parkinson's disease. B) multiple sclerosis. C) early stage Alzheimer's disease. D) epilepsy. QuestionID: 03-4-49 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: B) multiple sclerosis. 50. What type of cell in the nervous system is responsible for mounting immune responses in the brain, removing wastes, and increasing the efficiency of neural communication? A) white blood cells B) motor neurons

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) glial cell D) interneurons QuestionID: 03-4-50 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: C) glial cell 51. What is the approximate ratio of glial cells to neurons in the brain? A) 1:10 B) 10:1 C) 100:1 D) 1000:1 QuestionID: 03-4-51 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: B) 10:1 52. What do we call the state of a neuron when it is not transmitting or receiving messages? A) action potential B) resting potential C) stable state D) neutral state QuestionID: 03-4-52 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: B) resting potential 53. The voltage of a neuron's ______________ is typically around –70 millivolts. A) postsynaptic potential B) resting potential C) refractory period D) action potential QuestionID: 03-4-53 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: B) resting potential 54. During an action potential, the electrical charge inside the neuron is _________ compared to the electrical charge outside the neuron. A) positive B) balanced C) negative D) neutral QuestionID: 03-4-54 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: A) positive 55. When a neuron becomes sufficiently depolarized, it A) becomes more negatively charged relative to outside of the cell. B) initiates an action potential. C) becomes less likely to initiate an action potential. D) closes all of its ion channels. QuestionID: 03-4-55 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: B) initiates an action potential. 56. "All-or-none" is the principle stating that A) a neuron always fires at the same strength. B) the potential inside a neuron must increase from 0mV to +100mV to initiate an action potential. C) all dendrites on a neuron must be receiving depolarizing signals in order to initiate an action potential. D) during the refractory period a neuron will not fire. QuestionID: 03-4-56 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: A) a neuron always fires at the same strength. 57. When Julia's parents go out for the night, she turns the volume on her music up as high as it will go. Although the stimulus (sound) is now much louder, Julia's neurons are still firing with the same intensity. This is known as the A) action potential theory. B) resting potential. C) refractory period. D) all-or-none principle. QuestionID: 03-4-57 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: D) all-or-none principle. 58. ____________ is the formation of new neurons. A) Neurogenesis B) Neural plasticity C) Long-term potentiation D) Synaptogenesis QuestionID: 03-4-58 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2f Analyze the claim that we are born with all the nerve cells we will ever have. Answer: A) Neurogenesis 59. ____________ are cells that do not have a predetermined function and can develop into new neurons. A) Glial cells B) Interneurons C) Stem cells

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) Neurotransmitters QuestionID: 03-4-59 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2f Analyze the claim that we are born with all the nerve cells we will ever have. Answer: C) Stem cells 60. Which structures are like locks that only certain neurotransmitters ("keys") can unlock? A) synapses B) receptors C) axon terminals D) clefts QuestionID: 03-4-60 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: B) receptors 61. ____________neurotransmitters make it more likely that a neuron will generate action potentials, whereas _____________ neurotransmitters make it less likely that a neuron will do so. A) Excitatory; inhibitory B) Inhibitory; excitatory C) Postsynaptic; presynaptic D) Presynaptic; postsynaptic QuestionID: 03-4-61 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: A) Excitatory; inhibitory 62. After neurotransmitter molecules are released, they may be broken down by enzymes or they may be reabsorbed back into the axon, a process known as A) inhibition. B) degradation. C) refraction. D) reuptake. QuestionID: 03-4-62 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: D) reuptake. 63. Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in voluntary movement, processing rewards, and mood? A) serotonin B) dopamine C) acetylcholine D) GABA QuestionID: 03-4-63 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: B) dopamine 64. Which neurotransmitter is associated with sleep, mood, and appetite? A) GABA B) serotonin C) dopamine D) acetylcholine QuestionID: 03-4-64 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: B) serotonin 65. Andy has decided to seek medical help for mood disturbances and appetite problems. Which neurotransmitter is most likely involved in the problems Andy is experiencing? A) GABA B) dopamine C) serotonin D) acetylcholine QuestionID: 03-4-65 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: C) serotonin 66. Elizabeth was driving on the highway when an oncoming car crossed the centre line and almost hit her. As a result of the stress, her heart rate increased and she felt "on edge." Which of the following neurotransmitters is likely responsible for Elizabeth's response? A) serotonin B) dopamine C) GABA D) norepinephrine QuestionID: 03-4-66 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: D) norepinephrine 67. __________ plays a critical role as a neurotransmitter that stimulates voluntary muscle movement directly at the junction between nerves and muscles. A) Acetylcholine B) GABA C) Dopamine D) Norepinephrine QuestionID: 03-4-67 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: A) Acetylcholine 68. The main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the nervous system is A) glutamate.

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B) GABA. C) acetylcholine. D) serotonin. QuestionID: 03-4-68 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: B) GABA. 69. The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the nervous system, that plays a role in memory and learning, is A) glutamate. B) GABA. C) acetylcholine. D) serotonin. QuestionID: 03-4-69 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: A) glutamate. 70. Drugs that block neurotransmitter activity are called A) agonists. B) antagonists. C) excitatory. D) reuptake inhibitors. QuestionID: 03-4-70 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2c Understand the ways that drugs and other substances affect the brain. Answer: B) antagonists. 71. Luisa is diagnosed with a medical disorder caused by too much dopamine activity in certain brain regions. To reduce her levels of dopamine, her doctor is likely to prescribe a dopamine A) reuptake inhibitor. B) synthesizing drug. C) agonist. D) antagonist. QuestionID: 03-4-71 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.2c Understand the ways that drugs and other substances affect the brain. Answer: D) antagonist. 72. Sinan suffers from high anxiety. His doctor prescribes him Xanax, a drug that increases the activity of GABA. Xanax is considered a(n) A) GABA antagonist. B) GABA agonist. C) excitatory neurotransmitter. D) inhibitory neurotransmitter. QuestionID: 03-4-72 Skill: Applied

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 3.2c Understand the ways that drugs and other substances affect the brain. Answer: B) GABA agonist. 73. Hormones are chemicals that are secreted directly into A) the bloodstream. B) the synapse. C) the neuronal cell body. D) the axon terminals. QuestionID: 03-4-73 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2d Understand the roles that hormones play in our behaviour. Answer: A) the bloodstream. 74. The ________ regulates and maintains constant internal bodily states by stimulating the pituitary gland. A) thalamus B) hypothalamus C) amygdala D) hippocampus QuestionID: 03-4-74 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: B) hypothalamus 75. Which endocrine gland controls all of the other glands in the body? A) thyroid gland B) adrenal gland C) hypothalamus D) pituitary gland QuestionID: 03-4-75 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2d Understand the roles that hormones play in our behaviour. Answer: D) pituitary gland 76. The pituitary gland is known as the _______ gland because it controls the other glands in the body. A) master B) alpha C) dominant D) dorsal QuestionID: 03-4-76 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2d Understand the roles that hormones play in our behaviour. Answer: A) master 77. Which of the following is a likely effect of damage to the hypothalamus? A) reduced use of left arm B) deregulation of hormones C) loss of muscle tone

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D) reduced ability to reason QuestionID: 03-4-77 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 3.2d Understand the roles that hormones play in our behaviour. Answer: B) deregulation of hormones 78. While running a marathon, Alain stumbled and fell. Despite feeling a sharp pain initially, he got up and continued to run until he completed the race. Upon crossing the finish line, he fell down writhing in pain. When examined, it was discovered that Alain had broken his leg. He was able to run the remainder of the marathon relatively pain-free due to the release of A) serotonin. B) cortisol. C) testosterone. D) endorphins. QuestionID: 03-4-78 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.2d Understand the roles that hormones play in our behaviour. Answer: D) endorphins. 79. Due to their similar chemical structures, morphine and other opiates are able to bind to _________ receptor sites. A) GABA. B) serotonin. C) dopamine. D) endorphin. QuestionID: 03-4-79 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2d Understand the roles that hormones play in our behaviour. Answer: D) endorphin. 80. _____________ has been scientifically linked to dominance and aggression in both human and animal studies. A) Cortisol B) Testosterone C) Dopamine D) Glutamate QuestionID: 03-4-80 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2d Understand the roles that hormones play in our behaviour. Answer: B) Testosterone 81. The two main divisions of the nervous system are the __________ and the __________. A) brain; spinal cord B) autonomic nervous system; somatic nervous system C) peripheral nervous system; central nervous system D) endocrine system; neurotransmitter system QuestionID: 03-4-81

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Skill: Factual Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) peripheral nervous system; central nervous system 82. The peripheral nervous system consists of the __________ and the __________ nervous systems. A) autonomic; somatic B) autonomic; sympathetic C) parasympathetic; autonomic D) parasympathetic; sympathetic QuestionID: 03-4-82 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: B) autonomic; sympathetic 83. The brain and spinal cord make up the A) central nervous system. B) autonomic nervous system. C) peripheral nervous system. D) somatic nervous system. QuestionID: 03-4-83 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: A) central nervous system. 84. As she walks out of the living room, Gloriann reaches up and turns out the light. In this example (walking and moving her arm), Gloriann's __________ nervous system is active. A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) autonomic D) somatic QuestionID: 03-4-84 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: D) somatic 85. The subdivision of the peripheral nervous system that consists of nerves that control organs and glands is called the ___________ nervous system. A) somatic B) autonomic C) sympathetic D) parasympathetic QuestionID: 03-4-85 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: B) autonomic 86. The fight-or-flight response is mobilized by the

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A) B) C) D)

central nervous system. somatic nervous system. sympathetic nervous system. parasympathetic nervous system.

QuestionID: 03-4-86 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) sympathetic nervous system. 87. As Indigo is walking across campus, a car swerves toward her. Her heart races and sweat breaks out as she jumps out of harm's way. These symptoms (racing heart and sweating) are due to the action of Indigo's A) somatic nervous system. B) central nervous system. C) parasympathetic nervous system. D) sympathetic nervous system. QuestionID: 03-4-87 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: D) sympathetic nervous system. 88. Ahmed is studying alone in his room late at night when he hears a loud noise downstairs. His heartbeat increases significantly and his breathing becomes shallow. He wonders if a burglar has entered the house and decides to investigate. When he gets downstairs he discovers his cat has knocked over a plant stand. His body begins to relax and return to normal. Which part of his nervous system is responsible for returning Ahmed to a normal state? A) spinal cord B) somatic nervous system C) sympathetic nervous system D) parasympathetic nervous system QuestionID: 03-4-88 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: D) parasympathetic nervous system 89. There are approximately __________ individual neurons in the brain alone. A) 10 million B) 100 million C) 100 billion D) 10 trillion QuestionID: 03-4-89 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) 100 billion 90. A car accident rendered Sanford's nervous system unable to send messages for him to breathe, so he is now on a respirator. Which brain structure was likely damaged in the accident? A) pons B) medulla

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) cerebellum D) reticular formation QuestionID: 03-4-90 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.3c Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased. Answer: B) medulla 91. The _______________ is a structure in the brain stem responsible for life-sustaining functions, such as breathing and heart rate. A) reticular formation B) pons C) medulla D) cingulate gyrus QuestionID: 03-4-91 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) medulla 92. Damage to the cerebellum is likely to disrupt which of the following? A) playing basketball B) sleeping C) homeostasis D) recalling memories QuestionID: 03-4-92 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.3c Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased. Answer: A) playing basketball 93. The hindbrain is composed of several different structures. Which part of the brain listed below is located in the hindbrain? A) amygdala B) occipital lobe C) cerebellum D) thalamus QuestionID: 03-4-93 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) cerebellum 94. Which of the following would most likely involve the midbrain? A) raising your body temperature on a cold night B) deciding to bet all of your chips in a poker game C) remembering where you left your keys D) ducking just in time to avoid being hit by a sudden foul ball at a baseball game QuestionID: 03-4-94

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Applied Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: D) ducking just in time to avoid being hit by a sudden foul ball at a baseball game 95. Tourette's syndrome—a condition marked by erratic and repetitive facial and muscle movements (called tics) and frequent noise making such as grunting, snorting, or sniffing—is believed to be caused by excess _________ in the __________. A) dopamine; hippocampus B) acetylcholine; medulla C) dopamine; basal ganglia D) acetylcholine; thalamus QuestionID: 03-4-95 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.3c Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased. Answer: C) dopamine; basal ganglia 96. A researcher implants an electrode in a rat's brain, and then wires the electrode so that it stimulates a specific brain region every time the rat presses a lever. The rat finds the stimulation so rewarding that it does nothing but press the lever all day. Which of the following brain regions does the electrode most likely stimulate? A) nucleus accumbens B) amygdala C) cerebellum D) thalamus QuestionID: 03-4-96 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: A) nucleus accumbens 97. The ________ consists of a set of structures involved with motivation, emotion, and memory. A) basal ganglia B) limbic system C) reticular formation D) superior colliculus QuestionID: 03-4-97 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: B) limbic system 98. Emre has been extremely afraid of cats since he was scratched as a 5-year-old. Whenever he sees a cat, he starts to feel afraid. If a cat comes toward him, he often runs away immediately, as he is afraid of being scratched again. The __________, in the limbic system, is likely involved with Emre's fear response toward cats. A) hippocampus B) thalamus C) amygdala D) medulla QuestionID: 03-4-98 Skill: Applied

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) amygdala 99. As Joe walks to his car late at night, he hears footsteps behind him. Feeling afraid, Joe grips his keys and quickens his pace. It is likely that Joe's ____________ has been activated. A) hypothalamus B) hippocampus C) amygdala D) thalamus QuestionID: 03-4-99 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) amygdala 100. Eating, drinking, sexual behaviour, and body temperature control are most strongly influenced by the A) hippocampus. B) thalamus. C) hypothalamus. D) amygdala. QuestionID: 03-4-100 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) hypothalamus. 101. What part of the brain acts as a relay station for incoming sensory information? A) hypothalamus B) thalamus C) hippocampus D) amygdala QuestionID: 03-4-101 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: B) thalamus 102. Most of the higher functions of the brain, such as reasoning and language, are located in the A) limbic system. B) midbrain. C) cerebral cortex. D) hypothalamus. QuestionID: 03-4-102 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) cerebral cortex. 103. "Wow!" says 4-year-old Tristan when he sees an actual human brain on display at the science museum, "I didn't realize how wrinkly it would be." Because he can only see the outer layer of the brain, Tristan is actually describing only the

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

cerebral cortex. white matter. ventricles. cerebellum.

QuestionID: 03-4-103 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: A) cerebral cortex. 104. The wrinkling of the surface of the brain serves what purpose? A) It cushions the brain and protects it from trauma. B) It increases blood flow that brings oxygen and nutrients to neurons. C) It allows heat to radiate away from the brain more effectively. D) It increases the surface area without increasing the size of the brain. QuestionID: 03-4-104 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: D) It increases the surface area without increasing the size of the brain. 105. Neuroscientists often categorize parts of the brain into grey matter and white matter. What makes the white matter regions appear white? A) It contains only dendrites. B) It is composed of myelinated axons. C) It contains a high level of connective tissue. D) It contains only cell bodies. QuestionID: 03-4-105 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: B) It is composed of myelinated axons. 106. Which lobes are associated with higher cognitive functions, such as planning, inhibiting impulses and emotion, language production, and voluntary movement? A) frontal B) parietal C) temporal D) occipital QuestionID: 03-4-106 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: A) frontal 107. Marta was in a skiing accident and suffered an injury to her brain resulting in paralysis of her left arm. What part of Marta's brain was likely injured? A) auditory association area B) primary motor cortex C) somatosensory cortex D) Broca's area

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 03-4-107 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.3c Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased. Answer: B) primary motor cortex 108. Which lobes are involved in our experiences of touch as well as bodily awareness? A) frontal B) parietal C) temporal D) occipital QuestionID: 03-4-108 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: B) parietal 109. Darla suffered from a stroke that left her with an impaired sense of touch. Which part of the brain is the most likely site of the damage? A) frontal lobe B) temporal lobe C) occipital lobe D) parietal lobe QuestionID: 03-4-109 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.3c Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased. Answer: D) parietal lobe 110. While playing hockey, Ryan fell and hit his head on the ice. Afterwards, he reported that he was unable to see although doctors confirmed that his eyes were uninjured. Which area of his brain was likely injured in his fall? A) occipital B) parietal C) temporal D) frontal QuestionID: 03-4-110 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.3c Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased. Answer: A) occipital 111. Which lobes are primarily involved in hearing, language, and object and face recognition? A) frontal B) parietal C) temporal D) occipital QuestionID: 03-4-111 Skill: Factual

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) temporal 112. Which of the following is true about the two hemispheres of the brain? A) Generally, the right hemisphere is more specialized for visual skills and music processing, while the left hemisphere is more specialized for language and math. B) People with analytical personalities rely almost exclusively on the right hemisphere of their brain. C) Creative artists are accurately described as being "right-brained" because they primarily rely on their right hemisphere in their day-to-day lives. D) The two hemispheres are mirror images of each other, each performing the same functions as the other. QuestionID: 03-4-112 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: A) Generally, the right hemisphere is more specialized for visual skills and music processing, while the left hemisphere is more specialized for language and math. 113. Darren is right-handed. If his brain is like that of most other right-handed people, then he likely uses his _________ to process and produce language. A) corpus callosum. B) parietal lobe. C) right cerebral hemisphere. D) left cerebral hemisphere. QuestionID: 03-4-113 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: D) left cerebral hemisphere. 114. Shyanne was admitted to the hospital last week after she fell. When Shyanne's son visited, he found his mother was unable to get words out in a smooth, connected fashion. If Shyanne's difficulty speaking is due to brain damage, what is the likely location of the damage? A) Broca's area B) Gall's area C) Wernicke's area D) Korsakoff's area QuestionID: 03-4-114 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.3c Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased. Answer: A) Broca's area 115. The corpus callosum A) is a bundle of nerves that connects the two halves of the cerebral cortex. B) is made of ligaments that hold the hemispheres together. C) causes a vegetative state if severed. D) is a bundle of nerves that connects the brainstem and the reticular formation. QuestionID: 03-4-115 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 3.3b Understand how studies of split-brain patients reveal the workings of the brain.

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Answer: A) is a bundle of nerves that connects the two halves of the cerebral cortex. 116. Under special circumstances, doctors may decide to severe a person's corpus callosum. This procedure is primarily done to A) study the separate functions of the brain's two hemispheres. B) reduce aggression and violent outbursts in a patient. C) study the separate functions of the somatosensory and motor cortices. D) lessen the severity of epileptic seizures. QuestionID: 03-4-116 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 3.3b Understand how studies of split-brain patients reveal the workings of the brain. Answer: D) lessen the severity of epileptic seizures. 117. Tareq suffered a brain injury when he hit his head waterskiing. Following the accident, Tareq required extensive speech therapy to regain his ability to pronounce words correctly. Now Tareq can speak as he did before his accident. This is an example of _____________, which allowed the structure and function of Tareq's brain cells to change to adjust to the trauma. A) split-brain syndrome B) neural pruning C) neuroplasticity D) Wernicke's aphasia QuestionID: 03-4-117 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.4a Know the key terminology associated with measuring and observing brain activity. Answer: C) neuroplasticity 118. Researchers have developed a therapy for stroke patients with Broca's aphasia that uses ________________ to encourage neuroplasticity. A) electrical stimulation B) singing strings of words C) neurotrophic drugs D) physical exercise QuestionID: 03-4-118 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.4a Know the key terminology associated with measuring and observing brain activity. Answer: B) singing strings of words 119. Dr. Kakembo is interested in the area of the brain responsible for spatial memory. She decides that the best process is to train a group of rats to navigate a maze, then intentionally remove specific areas of their brains, and finally test their spatial memory to see which rats have memory impairments. This technique, intentionally damaging an area of the brain, is known as A) transcranial magnetic stimulation. B) structural neuroimaging. C) electroencephalography. D) lesioning. QuestionID: 03-4-119 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.4d Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries.

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Answer: D) lesioning. 120. Small electrodes are pasted onto Miranda's scalp and are connected by wire to a machine that translates the electrical energy from her brain into wavy lines on a moving piece of paper. From this description, it is evident that Miranda's brain is being studied through the use of A) a computerized tomography (CT) scan. B) functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI). C) diffusion tensor imaging (DTI). D) an electroencephalogram (EEG). QuestionID: 03-4-120 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.4d Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries. Answer: D) an electroencephalogram (EEG). 121. Libby's physician refers her to a medical centre to have the biochemical activity in her brain analyzed. She is given an injection of a radioactive glucose-like substance and then is told to lie down with her head in a scanner. Libby's physician has referred her to have a(n) ____________ scan. A) positron emission tomography (PET) B) functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) C) magnetoencephalography (MEG) D) electroencephalogram (EEG) QuestionID: 03-4-121 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.4d Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries. Answer: A) positron emission tomography (PET) 122. A drawback associated with PET scans is that A) they are not accurate. B) they are more dangerous than other types of neuroimaging techniques. C) they take a long time to acquire data. D) they cannot detect which brain regions are active during a task. QuestionID: 03-4-122 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.4d Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries. Answer: C) they take a long time to acquire data. 123. A brain-imaging method using magnetic fields to measure the spinning of hydrogen atoms in the brain is called A) electroencephalography (EEG). B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). C) positron emission tomography (PET). D) computerized tomography (CT). QuestionID: 03-4-123 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.4d Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries. Answer: B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

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124. Dr. D'Arcy wants to know what brain areas are active when people recall pleasant memories. He knows he needs a test that allows him to see the structure of the brain in high-definition, but also needs to see which structures are active during memory recall. Dr. D'Arcy should likely use a(n) _______________ to gather this type of data. A) electroencephalogram (EEG) B) positron emission tomography (PET) scan C) diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) machine D) functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) machine QuestionID: 03-4-124 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.4d Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries. Answer: D) functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) machine 125. Which technique measures the electrical activity of brain cells directly? A) MRI B) fMRI C) PET scan D) MEG QuestionID: 03-4-125 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.4d Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries. Answer: D) MEG 126. An area of damage in the brain is called a(n) A) sham. B) lesion. C) dark spot. D) degraded mass. QuestionID: 03-4-126 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.4d Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries. Answer: B) lesion. 127. Which technique for investigating the function of brain regions is similar to lesioning, but has no ill effects? A) transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) B) functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) C) positron emission tomography (PET) D) Magnetoencephalography (MEG) QuestionID: 03-4-127 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 3.4d Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries. Answer: A) transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) 128. In what way is transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) different than other techniques researchers use to study brain activity, such as PET scans, fMRIs, and MEG? A) TMS requires the use of radioactive materials. B) Other techniques take much longer to acquire data compared to TMS. C) TMS records the activity of glial cells as well as neurons.

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D) TMS is used to change the activity in the brain by either stimulating or disrupting activity. QuestionID: 03-4-128 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 3.4d Analyze whether neuroimaging can be used to diagnose brain injuries. Answer: D) TMS is used to change the activity in the brain by either stimulating or disrupting activity. 129. Jenya has been working with a technique called CRISPR. Which of the following is true based on this information? A) She can remove or add new genetic material into the genome or alter the genome. B) She can remove genetic material from the genome but can not add any new material. C) She can alter the genetic material but cannot remove genes. D) She can only add new genetic material into the genome but cannot remove genetic material or alter the genome. QuestionID: 03-4-129 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: A) She can remove or add new genetic material into the genome or alter the genome. 130. For decades, scientists believed that we are born with all the brain cells we will ever have and there is no process in which new brain cells emerge. What proved this particular view to be wrong? A) stem cells B) neural action potential C) neurogenesis D) epigenetics QuestionID: 03-4-130 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: C) neurogenesis 131. What makes neurogenesis possible? A) stem cells B) neural action potential C) natural selection D) epigenetics QuestionID: 03-4-131 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: A) stem cells 132. What do we a cell that divides and can then become part of any part of the body, such as bones, kidneys, or brain tissue? A) nucleus B) neurotransmitter C) stem cell D) neuron QuestionID: 03-4-132 Skill: Factual Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning.

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Answer: C) stem cell 133. In an experiment, a group of university students were not allowed to use their vision for about 5 days. As expected, their visual cortexes were not active on the first day. However, after 5 days, their brain areas normally dedicated to vision became active during touch and hearing tasks. What is this evidence of? A) split-brain syndrome B) neural pruning C) neuroplasticity D) Wernicke's aphasia QuestionID: 03-4-133 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.4a Know the key terminology associated with measuring and observing brain activity. Answer: C) neuroplasticity 134. Hailey plays action video games (AVGs) every day. According to recent evidence, she may have enhanced attentional ability, hand-eye coordination, and reactivity to visual stimulus, as well as improved grey matter in the memory formation areas of her brain. What is this an example of? A) Broca's aphasia B) neural pruning C) neuroplasticity D) Wernicke's aphasia QuestionID: 03-4-134 Skill: Applied Objective: 3.4a Know the key terminology associated with measuring and observing brain activity. Answer: C) neuroplasticity Supplementary Questions 1. Eli has brown eyes and black hair. Which term best reflects these traits? A) genotype B) phenotype C) genome D) recessive QuestionID: 03-5-01 Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: B) phenotype 2. What number reflects the amount of differences in a population attributable to genetic influences? A) concordance B) heritability C) eugenics index D) correlation coefficient QuestionID: 03-5-02 Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: B) heritability 3. Neurons are

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

cells in the brain that are believed to help clean and feed brain cells. cells that send and receive information. bundles of nerves. chemical transmitters found in the hypothalamus.

QuestionID: 03-5-03 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: B) cells that send and receive information. 4. Specialized cells in the brain that send and receive information are called A) limbic cells. B) neurons. C) ganglia. D) gonads. QuestionID: 03-5-04 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: B) neurons. 5. The cell that underlies the activity of the entire nervous system is the A) transmitter cell. B) amoeba. C) neuron. D) carcinoma. QuestionID: 03-5-05 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: C) neuron. 6. Dendrites A) may be up to a quarter of a mile long. B) carry messages to cell bodies. C) are primarily responsible for the hypothalamic functions of regulation and motivation of sexual functions. D) are contained within the cell nucleus. QuestionID: 03-5-06 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: B) carry messages to cell bodies. 7. The short fibres that extend from the neurons, allowing them to receive messages from other neurons, are A) axons. B) dendrites. C) nerve bundles. D) synapses. QuestionID: 03-5-07 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: B) dendrites. 8. Axons A) receive/detect neural impulses. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) carry messages away from a cell body. C) secrete chemicals to lubricate the cell body. D) are found in the cell body. QuestionID: 03-5-08 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: B) carry messages away from a cell body. 9. A young woman returns from a day at the beach to find she has developed a severe sunburn. Which neurons are sending the messages from her burned skin to her brain informing her of the pain from the burn? A) sensory neurons B) motor neurons C) synaptic neurons D) association neurons QuestionID: 03-5-09 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: A) sensory neurons 10. Most axon terminals contain a number of tiny oval sacs called A) synaptic vesicles. B) synaptic knobs. C) neurotransmitters. D) receptor sites. QuestionID: 03-5-10 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: A) synaptic vesicles. 11. A long structure leaving the cell body that the action potential travels along is called the A) cell membrane. B) dendrite. C) axon. D) myelin sheath. QuestionID: 03-5-11 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: C) axon. 12. The part of the neuron that carries outgoing messages either to another neuron or to a muscle or gland is the A) myelin sheath. B) axon. C) dendrite. D) cell body. QuestionID: 03-5-12 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: B) axon. 13. When a neural impulse reaches the end of an axon, it causes the tiny oval sacs at the end of the axon to release chemicals called .

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A) B) C) D)

effectors. neurotransmitters. stimulants. ions.

QuestionID: 03-5-13 Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: B) neurotransmitters. 14. What kinds of neurons are connected to receptor cells in the skin, muscles, and joints? A) peripheral neurons B) interneurons C) sensory neurons D) motor neurons QuestionID: 03-5-14 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: C) sensory neurons 15. Which neural structure is essentially a "little bag of molecules"? A) synapse B) synaptic vesicle C) axon terminal D) dendrite QuestionID: 03-5-15 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: B) synaptic vesicle 16. How does communication between neurons occur? A) through graded potentials B) through action potentials C) through neurotransmitters D) through axons QuestionID: 03-5-16 Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: C) through neurotransmitters 17. Which neurological disorder is caused by degeneration of the myelin sheath? A) multiple sclerosis B) cystic fibrosis C) Parkinson's disease D) Alzheimer's disease QuestionID: 03-5-17 Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: A) multiple sclerosis 18. The myelin sheath A) is a fatty substance protecting the dendrites. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) helps to speed up neural messages within the cell. C) is found in all neurons. D) protects the cell's vesicles. QuestionID: 03-5-18 Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: B) helps to speed up neural messages within the cell. 19. A nerve impulse from one neuron affects the activity of a neighbouring neuron at a point of interaction called the A) corpuscle. B) synapse. C) transmission cleft. D) neuronal junction. QuestionID: 03-5-19 Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: B) synapse. 20. A synapse is most important in A) separating the medulla from the hindbrain. B) regulating the parasympathetic nervous system. C) the process of transmitting messages between neurons. D) connecting the basal ganglia. QuestionID: 03-5-20 Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: C) the process of transmitting messages between neurons. 21. The small gap between adjacent neurons is the A) glia. B) myelin sheath. C) synaptic cleft. D) terminal. QuestionID: 03-5-21 Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: C) synaptic cleft. 22. Which of the following is NOT true of all neurotransmitters? A) They are chemicals. B) They are stored in synaptic vesicles. C) They are released across the synaptic space. D) They increase the likelihood that the next neuron will fire. QuestionID: 03-5-22 Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: D) They increase the likelihood that the next neuron will fire. 23. The glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream are called A) lymph glands. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) exocrine glands. C) hippocampal glands. D) endocrine glands. QuestionID: 03-5-23 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: D) endocrine glands. 24. Endocrine glands are glands that secrete A) excitatory neurotransmitters. B) inhibitory neurotransmitters. C) hormones. D) enzymes. QuestionID: 03-5-24 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: C) hormones. 25. Chemical substances released by the endocrine glands to help regulate bodily functions are A) enzymes. B) neurotransmitters. C) antigens. D) hormones. QuestionID: 03-5-25 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: D) hormones. 26. The thyroid and pituitary glands are parts of the _______ system. A) gonad B) endocrine C) steroid D) lymphatic QuestionID: 03-5-26 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: B) endocrine 27. The endocrine system is made up of A) special centres that control our language functions. B) neurons that transmit electrically charged messages. C) glands that release hormones into the bloodstream. D) none of the above QuestionID: 03-5-27 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: C) glands that release hormones into the bloodstream. 28. Which of the following is NOT a part of the endocrine system? A) thyroid B) pons .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) pituitary D) pancreas QuestionID: 03-5-28 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: B) pons 29. Eating, drinking, sexual behaviour, temperature control, and sleeping are most strongly influenced by the A) medulla. B) cerebral cortex. C) thalamus. D) hypothalamus. QuestionID: 03-5-29 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: D) hypothalamus. 30. Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus? A) regulating eating B) regulating sleeping C) relaying sensory inputs to the higher centres in the brain D) regulating the "restorative" functioning of the autonomic nervous system after an emergency has passed QuestionID: 03-5-30 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) relaying sensory inputs to the higher centres in the brain 31. The endocrine system is to _________________ as the nervous system is to ________________. A) glands; muscles B) autonomic system; somatic system C) hormones; neurotransmitters D) hypothalamus; pituitary gland QuestionID: 03-5-31 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) hormones; neurotransmitters 32. Which of the following most directly controls bodily reflexes? A) peripheral nervous system B) brainstem C) spinal cord D) hindbrain QuestionID: 03-5-32 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) spinal cord 33. The system that relays messages in the form of electrochemical impulses throughout the body is called A) the arousal system. B) the nervous system. C) the limbic system. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) the endocrine system. QuestionID: 03-5-33 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: B) the nervous system. 34. All nerve cells and fibres that are NOT in the brain or spinal cord make up the __________ nervous system. A) central B) peripheral C) autonomic D) sympathetic QuestionID: 03-5-34 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: B) peripheral 35. The two major divisions of the central nervous system are A) left and right hemispheres. B) the brain and autonomic systems. C) brain and spinal cord. D) peripheral and autonomic systems. QuestionID: 03-5-35 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) brain and spinal cord. 36. The branch of the autonomic nervous system that prepares the body for quick action in an emergency is the __________ division. A) central B) secondary C) sympathetic D) parasympathetic QuestionID: 03-5-36 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) sympathetic 37. The autonomic nervous system is responsible for A) controlling the skeletal muscles. B) sending sensory input to the brain. C) making choices and decisions. D) the activity of internal organs and glands. QuestionID: 03-5-37 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: D) the activity of internal organs and glands. 38. The part of the nervous system that allows the brain to regulate digestion, heart rate, and respiration without our conscious attention is the A) autonomic nervous system. B) central nervous system. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) somatic nervous system. D) spinal cord. QuestionID: 03-5-38 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: A) autonomic nervous system. 39. Calm is to aroused as __________ is to __________. A) parasympathetic; sympathetic B) autonomic; motor C) sympathetic; parasympathetic D) central; peripheral QuestionID: 03-5-39 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: A) parasympathetic; sympathetic 40. One evening Betty was walking to the dorm from the gym when she was stopped by two men who demanded her money. Because she was a good athlete, Betty decided to make a run for it. Pretending to open her purse, she suddenly turned and dashed off. Although pursued, Betty outran her assailants. During this incident, which part of Betty's nervous system was most directly responsible for her successful escape? A) midbrain B) parasympathetic nervous system C) forebrain D) sympathetic nervous system QuestionID: 03-5-40 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: D) sympathetic nervous system 41. The parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions make up the A) motor cortex. B) endocrine system. C) autonomic nervous system. D) neocortex. QuestionID: 03-5-41 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) autonomic nervous system. 42. When the sympathetic nervous system assumes control of the involuntary bodily processes during a stressful situation, which of the following changes is likely to occur? A) digestion slows down B) less blood is pumped to muscles C) air passages become smaller D) sweat glands are less active QuestionID: 03-5-42 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: A) digestion slows down

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

43. The part of the brain that controls breathing, heartbeat, and posture is the A) pituitary gland. B) neocortex. C) hypothalamus. D) medulla. QuestionID: 03-5-43 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: D) medulla. 44. Damage to the medulla can seriously impair one's ability to A) sing. B) write. C) breathe. D) metabolize food. QuestionID: 03-5-44 Objective: 3.3c Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased. Answer: C) breathe. 45. The medulla, pons, and cerebellum are all part of the A) midbrain. B) hindbrain. C) spinal cord. D) forebrain. QuestionID: 03-5-45 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: B) hindbrain. 46. The structure in the hindbrain that controls certain reflexes and coordinates the body's movements is the A) medulla. B) cerebellum. C) pons. D) reticular formation. QuestionID: 03-5-46 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: B) cerebellum. 47. The cerebellum A) controls blood pressure. B) is involved in emotional behaviour. C) coordinates actions so that movements are efficient. D) relays messages from the sensory receptors. QuestionID: 03-5-47 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) coordinates actions so that movements are efficient.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

48. Joey is about to eat his lunch. What part of Joey's brain is primarily responsible for helping him make the movements he needs to perform to eat his sandwich? A) substantia nigra B) basal ganglia C) basal forebrain D) thalamus QuestionID: 03-5-48 Objective: 3.3c Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased. Answer: B) basal ganglia 49. The limbic system is responsible for A) filtering incoming messages to the brain. B) connecting the brain to most of the rest of the body. C) fighting disease organisms that attempt to infect the brain. D) controlling learning and emotional behaviour. QuestionID: 03-5-49 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: D) controlling learning and emotional behaviour. 50. If the limbic system were destroyed, which of the following structures would be damaged? A) cerebellum and corpus callosum B) cerebellum and amygdala C) amygdala and hippocampus D) hippocampus and corpus callosum QuestionID: 03-5-50 Objective: 3.3c Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased. Answer: C) amygdala and hippocampus 51. Marlen suffered damage to his hippocampus. What is Marlen most likely to have difficulty with as a result? A) expressing negative emotions B) remembering previous experiences C) controlling his voluntary movements on the right side D) forming new memories QuestionID: 03-5-51 Objective: 3.3c Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased. Answer: D) forming new memories 52. The outer surface of the two cerebral hemispheres that regulate most complex behaviour is called the A) cerebellum. B) corpus callosum. C) cerebral cortex. D) substantia nigra. QuestionID: 03-5-52 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. .

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Answer: C) cerebral cortex. 53. A brain tumour's growth has caused Dick's vision to suffer. Which lobe of the brain is being affected by the tumour's growth? A) frontal B) occipital C) parietal D) temporal QuestionID: 03-5-53 Objective: 3.3c Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased. Answer: B) occipital 54. The part of the brain that receives sensations of touch, balance, and bodily position and oversees spatial abilities is the A) occipital lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) parietal lobe. D) frontal lobe. QuestionID: 03-5-54 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) parietal lobe. 55. The part of the brain that interprets visual information is the A) occipital lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) parietal lobe. D) frontal lobe. QuestionID: 03-5-55 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: A) occipital lobe. 56. The part of the brain that helps process hearing and gives meaning to words is the A) occipital lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) parietal lobe. D) frontal lobe. QuestionID: 03-5-56 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: B) temporal lobe. 57. The somatosensory cortex is located in the _______ lobe of the brain. A) frontal B) occipital C) parietal D) temporal

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 03-5-57 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: C) parietal 58. The motor cortex is located in the _______ lobe of the brain. A) frontal B) occipital C) parietal D) temporal QuestionID: 03-5-58 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: A) frontal 59. The site of many mental processes that are unique to humans (self-awareness, initiative, planning ability, and goal-directed behaviour) is the A) occipital lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) parietal lobe. D) frontal lobe. QuestionID: 03-5-59 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: D) frontal lobe. 60. The motor impulses/commands associated with the muscular coordination and movements necessary for one to write originate in which lobe of the cerebral cortex? A) temporal B) parietal C) occipital D) frontal QuestionID: 03-5-60 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: D) frontal 61. Which hemisphere of the cerebral cortex is usually dominant in language tasks? A) the front hemisphere B) the rear hemisphere C) the left hemisphere D) the right hemisphere QuestionID: 03-5-61 Objective: 3.3b Understand how studies of split-brain patients reveal the workings of the brain. Answer: C) the left hemisphere 62. Which of the following is NOT a lobe of the brain? A) corpus callosum B) frontal C) occipital D) parietal .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 03-5-62 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: A) corpus callosum 63. Which hemisphere of the cerebral cortex is usually dominant in spatial tasks? A) the front hemisphere B) the rear hemisphere C) the left hemisphere D) the right hemisphere QuestionID: 03-5-63 Objective: 3.3b Understand how studies of split-brain patients reveal the workings of the brain. Answer: D) the right hemisphere 64. "Split-brain" patients are patients who have had A) a prefrontal lobotomy. B) their cerebellum split in the middle. C) their corpus callosum cut. D) a fractured skull and bone fragments penetrated into the brain. QuestionID: 03-5-64 Objective: 3.3b Understand how studies of split-brain patients reveal the workings of the brain. Answer: C) their corpus callosum cut. 65. The structure that connects the two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex is the A) corpus callosum. B) pineal gland. C) pons. D) reticular formation. QuestionID: 03-5-65 Objective: 3.3b Understand how studies of split-brain patients reveal the workings of the brain. Answer: A) corpus callosum. 66. A "split-brain" patient is asked to stare at a spot on a screen. When a picture of an object is shown to the left of the spot, the patient can A) identify the object verbally and pick it out of a group of hidden objects using her right hand. B) identify the object verbally and pick it out of a group of hidden objects using her left hand. C) pick the object out of a group of hidden objects using her left hand, but cannot identify it verbally. D) pick the object out of a group of hidden objects using her right hand, but cannot identify it verbally. QuestionID: 03-5-66 Objective: 3.3b Understand how studies of split-brain patients reveal the workings of the brain. Answer: C) pick the object out of a group of hidden objects using her left hand, but cannot identify it verbally. 67. The left cerebral hemisphere primarily controls A) the right side of the body. B) the left side of the body. C) all motor functions. D) spatial reasoning. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 03-5-67 Objective: 3.3b Understand how studies of split-brain patients reveal the workings of the brain. Answer: A) the right side of the body. 68. The right cerebral hemisphere primarily controls A) the right side of the body. B) the left side of the body. C) speech and language. D) rationality and decision making. QuestionID: 03-5-68 Objective: 3.3b Understand how studies of split-brain patients reveal the workings of the brain. Answer: B) the left side of the body. 69. Which hemisphere of the brain is specialized for cognitive tasks that involve visual and spatial skills, recognition of visual stimuli, and musical processing. A) the front hemisphere B) the rear hemisphere C) the left hemisphere D) the right hemisphere QuestionID: 03-5-69 Objective: 3.3b Understand how studies of split-brain patients reveal the workings of the brain. Answer: D) the right hemisphere 70. Assume that you are testing a split-brain human subject whose language centre is in his left hemisphere. If you place a house key into his left hand, he will A) not be able to later select the object he was holding from a group of various objects. B) not be able to tell you what object he is presently holding. C) immediately be able to tell you what he is holding. D) be able to tell you what he is presently holding if allowed to think about it for several seconds. QuestionID: 03-5-70 Objective: 3.3b Understand how studies of split-brain patients reveal the workings of the brain. Answer: B) not be able to tell you what object he is presently holding. 71. When Emily was a young child, a blood clot severely damaged her left cerebral hemisphere. Emily is now a successful college student who lives a normal life. Her success best illustrates the importance of A) aphasia. B) hemispherectomy. C) tomography. D) neuroplasticity. QuestionID: 03-5-71 Objective: 3.3c Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased. Answer: D) neuroplasticity. 72. Carmen, who is right-handed, sustained a head injury and is now unable to speak smoothly. Which brain structure was most likely injured? .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

Wernicke's area Broca's area the cerebellum the thalamus

QuestionID: 03-5-72 Objective: 3.3c Apply your knowledge of brain regions to predict which abilities might be affected when a specific area is injured or diseased. Answer: B) Broca's area 73. The area in the back of the temporal lobe that is important in our ability to listen and in processing and understanding what others are saying is A) Korsakoff's area. B) Wernicke's area. C) Broca's area. D) Sach's area. QuestionID: 03-5-73 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: B) Wernicke's area. True-False Questions 1. Humans have 46 pairs of chromosomes. a True b False QuestionID: 03-6-01 Objective: 3.1a Know the key terminology related to genes, heredity, and evolutionary psychology. Answer: b. False 2. Dizygotic twins are more likely to share a trait with high heritability than are non-twin siblings. a True b False QuestionID: 03-6-02 Objective: 3.1b Understand how twin and adoption studies reveal relationships between genes and behaviour. Answer: b. False 3. A heritability estimate around 0.53 for a trait indicates that 53% of an individual's trait can be attributed to genetic factors in that particular study. a True b False QuestionID: 03-6-03 Objective: 3.1b Understand how twin and adoption studies reveal relationships between genes and behaviour. Answer: b. False 4. Neurons greatly outnumber glial cells in the brain. a True b False .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 03-6-04 Objective: 3.2a Know the key terminology associated with nerve cells, hormones, and their functioning. Answer: b. False 5. An action potential is a chemical substance that alters the polarization of a receiving neuron. a True b False QuestionID: 03-6-05 Objective: 3.2b Understand how nerve cells communicate. Answer: b. False 6. Serotonin affects neurons involved in sleep, appetite, and mood. a True b False QuestionID: 03-6-06 Objective: 3.2c Understand the ways that drugs and other substances affect the brain. Answer: a. True 7. The autonomic nervous system controls skeletal muscles. a True b False QuestionID: 03-6-07 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: b. False 8. The brain stem's two main structures are the medulla and the pons. a True b False QuestionID: 03-6-08 Objective: 3.3a Know the key terminology associated with the structure and organization of the nervous system. Answer: a. True 9. After surgery severing the corpus callosum, patients are unable to walk or to care for the physical needs of everyday life. a True b False QuestionID: 03-6-09 Objective: 3.3b Understand how studies of split-brain patients reveal the workings of the brain. Answer: b. False 10. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) uses a powerful magnetic field to temporarily stimulate or inactivate neural circuits. a True b False

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 03-6-10 Objective: 3.4a Know the key terminology associated with measuring and observing brain activity. Answer: a. True

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Chapter 4 : Sensation and Perception Chapter Quiz Questions 1. Which of the following requires the greatest amount of cognitive processing? A) transduction B) sensation C) perception D) sensory adaptation QuestionID: 04-1-01 Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: C) perception 2. Research into subliminal perception has found that A) human beings are not affected by subliminal stimuli. B) subliminal advertising is an effective way to influence purchasing habits. C) human beings can be affected by subliminal stimuli, but the effect is small. D) subliminal stimuli can be used to induce a form of "mind control." QuestionID: 04-1-02 Objective: 4.1b Understand what stimulus thresholds are. Answer: C) human beings can be affected by subliminal stimuli, but the effect is small. 3. When Keith had to give a presentation to the entire class, his classmate Daniel decided to wear a large fake moustache to make Keith laugh. To Daniel's disappointment, when Keith gave his presentation, he seemed completely unaffected, despite looking at Daniel several times. Afterward, Keith said that he was so focused on the presentation that he didn't even notice the moustache! This scenario is an example of A) inattentional blindness. B) a blind spot. C) top-down processing. D) sensory adaptation. QuestionID: 04-1-03 Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: A) inattentional blindness. 4. Within the visual system, where does the transduction of light occur first? A) retina B) optic nerve C) lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) D) lens QuestionID: 04-1-04 Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: A) retina 5. Which of the following statements regarding colour vision is correct? A) Research has shown that the trichromatic theory is incorrect and the opponent-process theory is correct. B) Research has shown that the opponent-process theory is incorrect and the trichromatic theory of correct. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) Both trichromatic and opponent-process theories are correct; they simply describe colour processing at different steps in the visual system. D) Researchers have shown that neither the trichromatic theory nor the opponent-process theory are correct and are still investigating the processes underlying colour processing. QuestionID: 04-1-05 Objective: 4.2c Understand the theories of colour vision. Answer: C) Both trichromatic and opponent-process theories are correct; they simply describe colour processing at different steps in the visual system. 6. Which of the following depth cues requires two eyes? A) motion parallax B) retinal disparity C) linear perspective D) relative size QuestionID: 04-1-06 Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: B) retinal disparity 7. The place theory of hearing states that A) the place or location from which a sound is originating is identified based on the difference in intensity between the two ears. B) the location along the basilar membrane that is stimulated by the sound wave determines how we perceive the sound's pitch. C) the same frequency soundwave will result in the perception of a different pitch depending on the location of the sound source relative to the head. D) the primary auditory cortex is located in the same place in all human brains (regardless of handedness). QuestionID: 04-1-07 Objective: 4.3b Understand different characteristics of sound and how they correspond to perception. Answer: B) the location along the basilar membrane that is stimulated by the sound wave determines how we perceive the sound's pitch. 8. Sound waves are converted to neural signals through A) bending of the pinna. B) vibrations in the ossicles. C) bending of the hair cells. D) vibration of the semicircular canal. QuestionID: 04-1-08 Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: C) bending of the hair cells. 9. Sally is a ballet dancer. Although she often practices with her eyes closed, she is always aware of exactly where her arms and legs are and how her knees and elbows are bent. This is an example of which bodily sense? A) nociception B) gustation C) haptics D) kinesthesis QuestionID: 04-1-09 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 4.4a Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses. Answer: D) kinesthesis 10. What do taste and smell have in common? A) Both senses rely on receptors located in structures called papillae. B) Both senses rely on receptors located on the tongue and in the back of the throat. C) Both senses involve mechanical transduction. D) Both senses involve chemical transduction. QuestionID: 04-1-10 Objective: 4.4a Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses. Answer: D) Both senses involve chemical transduction. Essay Questions 1. When interacting with the world around us, we use our two eyes to perceive depth. However, when looking at flat, two-dimensional photographs or paintings, we cannot rely on the same tools that we use in our 3D environment. Name and describe four pictorial depth cues. QuestionID: 04-2-01 Objective: 4.2d Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field. Answer: A good answer will include four of the following key points. - Interposition—Closer objects partially block our view of more distant objects. - Linear perspective—When two parallel lines are viewed receding into the distance, they appear to converge. - Light and shadow—Light and shadow give objects the appearance of three dimensions. - Relative size—The smaller an object's image on the retina, the farther away the object appears. - Texture gradients—Distant parts of a uniform surface appear denser; that is, its elements seem spaced more closely together. - Height in plane—Objects that are higher in our visual field are perceived as further away than objects low in our visual field. 2. Beginning with the pinna, describe the major structures of the ear and describe the role each plays in the process of hearing. QuestionID: 04-2-02 Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - A sound wave enters the outer ear (pinna) and strikes the eardrum, causing it to vibrate. - This vibration is passed along to three tiny bones in the middle ear called the ossicles. - The innermost bone transfers the vibrations to the fluid-filled cochlea of the inner ear. - The hair cells on the basilar membrane in the cochlea bend back and forth as the fluid in the cochlea moves. - This causes the hair cells to initiate a signal that is passed along to the auditory nerve, which carries the signal to the brain. 3. Humans can recognize approximately 10 000 different smells. Explain how this is possible, including a general description of the olfactory process. QuestionID: 04-2-03 Objective: 4.4c Understand the relationship between smell, taste, and food flavour experience. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Olfaction begins with nasal airflow bringing in molecules that bind with receptors at the top of the nasal cavity. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

- Within the nasal cavity is the olfactory epithelium, a thin layer of cells that are lined by sensory receptors called cilia, which are tiny hair-like projections that contain specialized proteins that bind with the airborne molecules that enter the nasal cavity. - Despite the fact that we have only about 1000 different types of receptors, we can detect many more distinct odours. This is because odour molecules can simultaneously stimulate several receptors at once. It is the pattern of the stimulation, involving more than one receptor, which gives rise to the experience of a particular smell. - The information is transmitted to the olfactory bulb, which is the brain's central region for processing smell. The olfactory bulb connects with several regions of the brain through the olfactory tract, including the limbic system (emotion) as well as regions of the cortex where subjective experience of pleasure (or disgust) occurs. Fill-in-the-blank Questions 1. The role of the photoreceptors in the eye is to convert the physical stimulus of light into a nerve impulse that can be relayed to the brain. This process is known as __________ . QuestionID: 04-3-01 Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: a. transduction 2. In order to detect a noticeable difference between two similar stimuli, the difference between the two stimuli must be above the __________ . QuestionID: 04-3-02 Objective: 4.1b Understand what stimulus thresholds are. Answer: a. difference threshold 3. Mohamed is home alone one evening when he thinks he hears a voice. He investigates and finds that there's no one there. In signal detection theory, this would be considered a __________ . QuestionID: 04-3-03 Objective: 4.1d Apply your knowledge of signal detection theory to identify hits, misses, and correct responses in examples. Answer: a. false alarm 4. When we look directly at an object, the light focuses on the central region of the retina, called the __________ , which allows us to see it clearly and in full colour. QuestionID: 04-3-04 Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: a. fovea 5. The __________ theory explains why we see a yellow afterimage after staring at a blue wall. QuestionID: 04-3-05 Objective: 4.2c Understand the theories of colour vision. Answer: a. opponent-process 6. If Orion enters a room filled with close family members and friends, he is unable to identify them (despite having seen them hundreds of times). It's often not until they speak that he is able to determine who they are. Orion has "face-blindness," a condition known as __________ .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 04-3-06 Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: a. prosopagnosia 7. Freya looks at the textbooks on her shelf. Because her statistics book is covering part of her psychology book's cover, her brain can use the concept of __________ to know that the statistics book is closer to her. QuestionID: 04-3-07 Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: a. interposition 8. Special devices called __________ consist of a microphone, speech processor, and electrodes, which can restore some hearing by artificially stimulating intact nerve endings in the ear. QuestionID: 04-3-08 Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: a. cochlear implants 9. is a primary taste associated with high-protein foods and the seasoning MSG. QuestionID: 04-3-09 Objective: 4.4c Understand the relationship between smell, taste, and food flavour experience. Answer: a. Umami 10. The __________ system involves the detection of airborne particles with specialized receptors located in the nose. QuestionID: 04-3-10 Objective: 4.4a Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses. Answer: a. olfactory Multiple-Choice Questions 1. The ability to detect the external environment through our sensory systems is known as A) accommodation. B) perception. C) sensation. D) psychophysics. QuestionID: 04-4-01 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: C) sensation. 2. Sensation is to _______ as perception is to _______. A) psychological; physical B) detecting; interpreting C) cognition; synthesizing D) interpreting; detecting

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 04-4-02 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: B) detecting; interpreting 3. Reading words on a page and understanding their meaning is an example of A) accommodation. B) perception. C) sensation. D) sensory adaptation. QuestionID: 04-4-03 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: B) perception. 4. __________ involves the detection of energy, whereas __________ involves organizing and interpreting incoming neural signals. A) Perception; sensation B) Adaptation; perception C) Sensation; perception D) Sensation; adaptation QuestionID: 04-4-04 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: C) Sensation; perception 5. The conversion of external energy into a neural signal is known as A) accommodation. B) perception. C) sensation. D) transduction. QuestionID: 04-4-05 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: D) transduction. 6. When Bethany steps on her digital scale, a mechanism in it measures the physical pressure pushing down on the scale and converts it into an electrical signal that can be read by the scale. The conversion of the physical pressure on the scale caused by Bethany's weight into an electrical signal is similar to the process of A) transduction. B) bottom-up processing. C) top-down processing. D) perception. QuestionID: 04-4-06 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: A) transduction. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

7. When she walks into her mother's kitchen, Amelia doesn't know how long she will be able to stay in the room because of the overpowering smell of onions. But when her sister comes home an hour later and complains about the smell, Amelia realizes that she no longer smells the onions at all. This is an example of A) sensory adaptation. B) just noticeable difference. C) psychophysics. D) a false alarm. QuestionID: 04-4-07 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: A) sensory adaptation. 8. When first exposed to a stimulus, our sensory receptors tend to respond strongly. However, if the stimulus remains unchanged, the activity of the receptors tends to decrease. This process is called A) selective attention. B) top-down processing. C) sensory adaptation. D) transduction. QuestionID: 04-4-08 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: C) sensory adaptation. 9. One reason sensory adaptation can be beneficial is that it allows us to A) shift our focus to more important events. B) detect visual stimuli in low-light conditions. C) detect a stimulus 50% of the time. D) convert external energy into nerve impulses. QuestionID: 04-4-09 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: A) shift our focus to more important events. 10. The study of how physical energy such as light and sound and their intensities relate to psychological experience is called A) psychophysics. B) Gestalt psychology. C) signal detection theory. D) haptics. QuestionID: 04-4-10 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: A) psychophysics. 11. The lowest intensity at which a stimulus can be detected 50 percent of the time is the A) difference threshold. B) just noticeable difference. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) sensory adaptation. D) absolute threshold. QuestionID: 04-4-11 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.1b Understand what stimulus thresholds are. Answer: D) absolute threshold. 12. Grace visited an audiologist to have her hearing checked. During the test, the audiologist played tones of varying intensities. Grace was asked to raise her arm whenever she could detect (hear) the tone. During this test, the audiologist was testing Grace's A) orienting response. B) sound localization. C) absolute threshold. D) difference threshold. QuestionID: 04-4-12 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1b Understand what stimulus thresholds are. Answer: C) absolute threshold. 13. A single eyelash lands on Neil's hand, but because the pressure is __________________, he does not notice it. A) above the difference threshold B) below the difference threshold C) above the absolute threshold D) below the absolute threshold QuestionID: 04-4-13 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1b Understand what stimulus thresholds are. Answer: D) below the absolute threshold 14. The difference threshold is A) the minimum amount of energy, or quantity of a stimulus, required for it to be reliably detected at least 50% of the time it is presented. B) the smallest difference in stimulation that can be detected by an observer when two stimuli are compared. C) the difference in absolute thresholds between individuals with normal sensory abilities and those who have limitations in one or more senses. D) the smallest amount of stimulation that can be detected after sensory adaptation. QuestionID: 04-4-14 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.1b Understand what stimulus thresholds are. Answer: B) the smallest difference in stimulation that can be detected by an observer when two stimuli are compared. 15. ___________ could be generally defined as, "the more intense the original stimulus, the larger (proportionally) the difference must be for an individual to detect a change." A) Weber's law B) The absolute threshold C) Psychophysics D) Sensation .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 04-4-15 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.1b Understand what stimulus thresholds are. Answer: A) Weber's law 16. Keegan notices that his favourite personal-sized bag of chips seems lighter than usual. He checks the label and finds that the bag contains 10g less than it used to. He decides instead to buy a family-sized bag of chips and doesn't notice that the family-sized bag is also 10g lighter. Keegan's inability to detect the difference in the larger bag demonstrates that A) the just noticeable difference is not a reliable measure of psychophysiological judgment. B) sensory adaptation can occur in the short time between holding one bag of chips and then the other. C) difference thresholds are continually changing. D) the larger a weight is, the greater the change must be before one can detect a difference. QuestionID: 04-4-16 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1b Understand what stimulus thresholds are. Answer: D) the larger a weight is, the greater the change must be before one can detect a difference. 17. ___________ was developed to isolate separate measures of sensory experience and the decision process of the person being tested. A) The absolute threshold B) The difference threshold C) Signal detection theory D) Psychophysics QuestionID: 04-4-17 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.1b Understand what stimulus thresholds are. Answer: C) Signal detection theory 18. In addition to the stimulus intensity, an individual's response is also impacted by many psychological factors. Researchers proposed the ____________ to study the perception of stimuli, while taking into consideration the judgment of the individual. A) signal detection theory B) difference threshold C) absolute threshold D) intensity theory QuestionID: 04-4-18 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.1b Understand what stimulus thresholds are. Answer: A) signal detection theory 19. In a signal detection task, the participant says that he detects a signal when no signal is present. This is called a A) hit. B) false alarm. C) miss. D) correct rejection.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 04-4-19 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1d Apply your knowledge of signal detection theory to identify hits, misses, and correct responses in examples. Answer: B) false alarm. 20. In a signal detection task, the participant says that she detected a signal and a signal was present. This is called a A) hit. B) false alarm. C) miss. D) correct rejection. QuestionID: 04-4-20 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1d Apply your knowledge of signal detection theory to identify hits, misses, and correct responses in examples. Answer: A) hit. 21. In a signal detection task, the participant says that he didn't detect a signal but a signal was present. This is called a A) hit. B) false alarm. C) miss. D) correct rejection. QuestionID: 04-4-21 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1d Apply your knowledge of signal detection theory to identify hits, misses, and correct responses in examples. Answer: C) miss. 22. Greg is a diagnostic cytologist (reviews cell samples from patients to detect cancer). Sometimes Greg makes a mistake and identifies a perfectly healthy sample as having signs of cancer. In signal detection theory, this type of mistake would be known as a A) hit. B) false alarm. C) miss. D) correct rejection. QuestionID: 04-4-22 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1d Apply your knowledge of signal detection theory to identify hits, misses, and correct responses in examples. Answer: B) false alarm. 23. Miley is concerned that advertisers are using subliminal messages to make her buy their products. Based on the information in your textbook, what should you tell her? A) You're right, subliminal messages are very powerful. B) It's unclear; almost no research has been done on subliminal perception. C) Don't worry; people cannot perceive subliminal stimuli at all. D) There is little evidence that subliminal messages can be used to persuade people to do anything. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 04-4-23 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1e Analyze claims that subliminal advertising and backward messages can influence your behaviour. Answer: D) There is little evidence that subliminal messages can be used to persuade people to do anything. 24. Which approach states that visual perception occurs in terms of whole objects rather than individual parts? A) Psychometrics B) Gestalt psychology C) Bottom-up processing D) Continuity QuestionID: 04-4-24 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: B) Gestalt psychology 25. Which saying captures the principle emphasized by the Gestalt psychologists? A) The whole is greater than the sum of its parts. B) Perception is a result of the integration of raw sensory information. C) Perception is part sensory experience and part judgment. D) All individuals perceive the world in their own way. QuestionID: 04-4-25 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: A) The whole is greater than the sum of its parts. 26. As we listen to music, we often are more aware of the melody than the individual notes that comprise the melody. This auditory perception is compatible with the principles established by A) psychometric psychologists. B) Gestalt psychologists. C) proponents of bottom-up processing. D) the signal detection theory. QuestionID: 04-4-26 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: B) Gestalt psychologists. 27. According to the ________________ principle, when we look at an image, we tend to perceive some parts as standing out and other parts as being part of the background. A) figure–ground B) closure C) proximity D) continuity QuestionID: 04-4-27 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: A) figure–ground .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

28. As she watches her granddaughter's dance recital, Patty perceives two separate groups of dancers. Her granddaughter's group wears bright turquoise costumes with gold accents and the other group wears bright gold costumes with turquoise accents. Patty perceives the girls as belonging to two different groups due to the Gestalt principle of A) proximity. B) continuity. C) similarity. D) closure. QuestionID: 04-4-28 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: C) similarity. 29. Elements that share common features such as size, shape, or colour are viewed as a set. This defines which Gestalt law of organization? A) figure–ground B) similarity C) proximity D) closure QuestionID: 04-4-29 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: B) similarity 30. Athena notices some coins on the table, clustered into a group of 6 and a group of 10. Athena perceives the coins as two groups rather than as one group of 16 coins. This is an example of the Gestalt law of A) figure–ground. B) similarity. C) proximity. D) closure. QuestionID: 04-4-30 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: C) proximity. 31. As illustrated in the example below, ______________ refers to the perceptual rule that lines and other objects tend to be continuous, rather than abruptly changing direction.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

figure–ground continuity proximity closure

QuestionID: 04-4-31 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: B) continuity 32. When you look at the drawing below, your brain fills in the gaps so that you perceive a complete form—in this case, a rectangle.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

This occurs due to the principle of A) proximity. B) continuity. C) similarity. D) closure. QuestionID: 04-4-32 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: D) closure. 33. In __________ processing, we construct a whole stimulus from its basic parts. A) parallel B) bottom-up C) continuous D) top-down QuestionID: 04-4-33 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: B) bottom-up 34. __________ is conceptually driven and influenced by our beliefs and expectations. A) Bottom-up processing B) Weber's law .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) Top-down processing D) Sensory adaptation QuestionID: 04-4-34 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: C) Top-down processing 35. Shanice visits an art exhibit of abstract paintings. One painting is composed of seemingly random lines and shapes. However, because Shanice knows and expects that the painting is supposed to be a portrait, she perceives the various lines and shapes as forming a face. Which type of perceptual processing is Shanice most likely using? A) top-down B) parallel C) bottom-up D) sensory QuestionID: 04-4-35 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: A) top-down 36. Which of the following accurately describes how we perceive and interpret the world around us? A) Perception is the direct result of external energy converted into neural signals. B) Bottom-up processing incorporates prior experiences and expectations. C) Top-down processing is the perception of individual units of sensory information. D) Perception is a combination of both expectations and raw sensory information. QuestionID: 04-4-36 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: D) Perception is a combination of both expectations and raw sensory information. 37. The process of selecting one stimulus or task to focus on and ignoring or minimizing others is called A) divided attention. B) selective attention. C) inattentional blindness. D) perceptual adaptation. QuestionID: 04-4-37 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: B) selective attention. 38. Clay has played professional soccer for seven years and is easily able to tune out the sound of the crowd and all other irrelevant sensory information during the game. Bruce is a rookie and is often distracted by what his opponents are saying and the mood of the crowd. Clay and Bruce are showing differing levels of A) absolute thresholds. B) parallel processing. C) selective attention. D) top-down processing.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 04-4-38 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: C) selective attention. 39. Ophelia often messages her friends and plans her weekend activities during her history lectures at school. Paying attention to more than one event at a time is known as __________ and has been shown to have negative effects on performance (e.g., on history tests). A) selective attention B) divided attention C) sustained attention D) inattentional blindness QuestionID: 04-4-39 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: B) divided attention 40. During a break from his job as a waiter, Bernardo begins to read Hamlet and is so engrossed in the play that he fails to notice the clattering of dishes all around him. This is an example of A) feature detection. B) absolute threshold. C) bottom-up processing. D) selective attention. QuestionID: 04-4-40 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: D) selective attention. 41. Failure to consciously perceive something you are looking at because your attention is directed elsewhere is called A) sensory adaptation B) selective attention C) inattentional blindness D) divided attention QuestionID: 04-4-41 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: C) inattentional blindness 42. Akon is looking for his girlfriend in a large crowd of people. Because he is so focused on finding her, he fails to notice when a man in a clown costume walks right up next to him. This is an example of A) divided attention. B) sustained attention. C) sensory adaptation. D) inattentional blindness. QuestionID: 04-4-42 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: D) inattentional blindness. 43. Light, a central player in our visual perception of the world, is a form of A) chemical energy. B) mechanical energy. C) vibration. D) electromagnetic energy. QuestionID: 04-4-43 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: D) electromagnetic energy. 44. Visible light with a short wavelength and a high amplitude would be perceived as A) reddish and dim. B) bluish and dim. C) reddish and bright. D) bluish and bright. QuestionID: 04-4-44 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: D) bluish and bright. 45. Visible light with a long wavelength and a low amplitude would be perceived as A) reddish and dim. B) bluish and dim. C) reddish and bright. D) bluish and bright. QuestionID: 04-4-45 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: A) reddish and dim. 46. When scuba divers take red objects underwater, they appear to lose their colour, but this does not happen to bluish objects. This demonstrates that water filters out light waves that have A) long wavelengths. B) short wavelengths. C) a high amplitude. D) a low amplitude. QuestionID: 04-4-46 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: A) long wavelengths. 47. Interestingly, bees can detect ultraviolet light rays, which have ________ compared to visible light. A) longer wavelengths B) lower amplitude C) shorter wavelengths .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) higher amplitude QuestionID: 04-4-47 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: C) shorter wavelengths 48. The intensity of the reflected light that reaches our eyes is known as A) hue. B) contrast. C) brightness. D) saturation. QuestionID: 04-4-48 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: C) brightness. 49. When light enters the eye, which structure does it pass through first? A) cornea B) lens C) pupil D) sclera QuestionID: 04-4-49 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: A) cornea 50. When you enter a dim room, the _______________ widens to let in more light. A) pupil B) lens C) iris D) fovea QuestionID: 04-4-50 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: A) pupil 51. When Skye walks out of the theatre into the glare of the sun, her ___________ constrict to reduce the amount of light entering her eyes. A) pupils B) lenses C) irises D) foveas QuestionID: 04-4-51 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: A) pupils .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

52. The sclera is the A) coloured part of the eye. B) white, outer surface of the eye. C) clear layer that covers the eye. D) lining of specialized cells at the back of the eye. QuestionID: 04-4-52 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: B) white, outer surface of the eye. 53. In his love letter, Michael describes his girlfriend Rebecca's eyes as "a warm, green meadow." To which part of Rebecca's eyeball is Michael referring? A) sclera B) fovea C) iris D) cornea QuestionID: 04-4-53 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: C) iris 54. Which of the following is the correct order in which light passes through the structures of the eye? A) lens, pupil, cornea B) lens, cornea, pupil C) cornea, lens, pupil D) cornea, pupil, lens QuestionID: 04-4-54 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: D) cornea, pupil, lens 55. The lens A) is the transparent outer membrane of the eye that covers the pupil and iris. B) focuses light onto the retina. C) contains a concentration of cone cells. D) controls the amount of light entering the eye. QuestionID: 04-4-55 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: B) focuses light onto the retina. 56. What structure is primarily responsible for focusing light onto the back of the eye? A) cornea B) fovea C) lens D) pupil

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 04-4-56 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: C) lens 57. Photoreceptors are located in the A) lens. B) optic disc. C) optic nerve. D) retina. QuestionID: 04-4-57 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: D) retina. 58. When light enters the eye and travels to the back of the retina, what is the order of the cells through which it passes? A) ganglion cells, bipolar cells, photoreceptors B) bipolar cells, ganglion cells, photoreceptors C) photoreceptors, bipolar cells, ganglion cells D) photoreceptors, ganglion cells, bipolar cells QuestionID: 04-4-58 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: A) ganglion cells, bipolar cells, photoreceptors 59. Visual transduction begins in the A) optic disc. B) optic nerve. C) ganglion cells. D) photoreceptors. QuestionID: 04-4-59 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: D) photoreceptors. 60. The portion of the retina that contains a large proportion of cones is the A) fovea. B) optic disc. C) optic nerve. D) sclera. QuestionID: 04-4-60 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: A) fovea. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

61. _____________ are sensitive to the different wavelengths of light, which is what allows us to detect colour. ______________ do not detect colour, but can work under low-light conditions. A) Bipolar cells; Rods B) Rods; Bipolar cells C) Cones; Rods D) Rods; Cones QuestionID: 04-4-61 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: C) Cones; Rods 62. Which of the following is true of the fovea? A) It contains the highest concentration of rods. B) It contains the highest concentration of cones. C) It contains no photoreceptors. D) It is also known as the optic disc. QuestionID: 04-4-62 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: B) It contains the highest concentration of cones. 63. Duncan is trying to find a constellation of dim stars in the night sky. You recommend that he not to look directly at the stars. By using this approach, the light will fall ________ and on the part of the retina that has a higher concentration of _______, which are better at detecting dim light. A) directly on the fovea; rods B) directly on the fovea; cones C) away from the fovea; cones D) away from the fovea; rods QuestionID: 04-4-63 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: D) away from the fovea; rods 64. The process by which rods and cones become more sensitive to light in response to lowered levels of illumination is called A) dark transduction. B) light adaptation. C) dark adaptation. D) sensory adaptation. QuestionID: 04-4-64 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: C) dark adaptation. 65. The ______________ carries sensory information from the retina to the brain areas where visual perception will occur. A) fovea .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) layer of photoreceptors C) optic nerve D) optic disc QuestionID: 04-4-65 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: C) optic nerve 66. The optic nerve creates the _______, an area of the retina that contains no photoreceptors. A) fovea B) sclera C) optic disc D) optic tract QuestionID: 04-4-66 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: C) optic disc 67. Although she is normally not aware of its existence, Ingrid discovers that she has a blind spot in her vision by closing one eye and focusing on a fixed point. What explains why Ingrid has this blind spot in her vision? A) She is likely suffering from severe retinal degeneration. B) She is experiencing sensory adaptation. C) No photoreceptors are located where the optic nerve leaves the eye. D) She has likely suffered damage to her occipital cortex. QuestionID: 04-4-67 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: C) No photoreceptors are located where the optic nerve leaves the eye. 68. Why are we normally unaware of the blind spot in our vision? A) Light does not normally fall on the blind spot. B) Our brains "fill in" the missing visual information for us. C) Despite the name, the blind spot does not actually prevent light in our visual field from being detected. D) The blind spot is only an issue in very low-light conditions. QuestionID: 04-4-68 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: B) Our brains "fill in" the missing visual information for us. 69. Jan can see objects well when they are close, but they appear blurry from afar. The likely explanation for this issue is that A) Jan is focusing the objects on her blind spot. B) Jan is nearsighted. C) Jan is farsighted. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) Jan is developing a cataract. QuestionID: 04-4-69 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: B) Jan is nearsighted. 70. Visual information is sent from both eyes to both hemispheres in the brain. Half of the information remains on the same side (e.g., right eye, right hemisphere), while the other half crosses to the contralateral hemisphere at the A) optic disc B) optic chiasm C) lateral geniculate nucleus D) visual cortex QuestionID: 04-4-70 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: B) optic chiasm 71. Visual information is sent to a part of the thalamus called the A) left visual cortex. B) right visual cortex. C) lateral geniculate nucleus. D) optic chiasm. QuestionID: 04-4-71 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: C) lateral geniculate nucleus. 72. In what order does visual information travel through the structures of the brain? A) lateral geniculate nucleus; optic chiasm; occipital lobe B) optic chiasm; occipital lobe; lateral geniculate nucleus C) lateral geniculate nucleus; occipital lobe; optic chiasm D) optic chiasm; lateral geniculate nucleus; occipital lobe QuestionID: 04-4-72 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: D) optic chiasm; lateral geniculate nucleus; occipital lobe 73. Feature detection cells in the visual cortex respond selectively to features such as A) colour and brightness. B) size and distance. C) angles and edges. D) facial features. QuestionID: 04-4-73 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: C) angles and edges. 74. The processing of visual information occurs in two separate streams in the brain. The ventral stream is responsible for _________, while the dorsal stream is responsible for ________________. A) object recognition; depth and movement perception B) depth and movement perception; object recognition C) colour perception; control of eye movements D) control of eye movements; colour perception QuestionID: 04-4-74 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: A) object recognition; depth and movement perception 75. The ventral stream of the visual pathway extends from the ______________, while the dorsal stream extends from the _____________. A) visual cortex to the temporal lobe; visual cortex to the parietal lobe B) visual cortex to the parietal lobe; visual cortex to the temporal lobe C) optic chiasm to the lateral geniculate nucleus; visual cortex to the lateral geniculate nucleus D) visual cortex to the lateral geniculate nucleus; optic chiasm to the lateral geniculate nucleus QuestionID: 04-4-75 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: A) visual cortex to the temporal lobe; visual cortex to the parietal lobe 76. Our ability to see objects as relatively stable and unchanging despite changing sensory information is called A) the law of closure. B) perceptual constancy. C) the perception of relative size. D) the law of continuity. QuestionID: 04-4-76 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: B) perceptual constancy. 77. When we look at a white house, we can recognize it as a white house by day or night and from any angle. This is due to A) the law of closure. B) perceptual constancy. C) the perception of relative size. D) the law of continuity. QuestionID: 04-4-77 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: B) perceptual constancy. 78. People with normal vision will perceive a door as a rectangle whether they view it when it is fully closed or partially open, as long as the door is, in fact, a rectangle. This is an example of A) shape constancy. B) size constancy. C) closure. D) continuity. QuestionID: 04-4-78 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: A) shape constancy. 79. Stewart is sitting in his office, which is lit with a bluish neon light, eating a red apple. Even though the apple is bathed in bluish light, he continues to perceive it as red. This illustrates A) the trichromatic theory. B) colour continuity. C) the opponent-process theory. D) colour constancy. QuestionID: 04-4-79 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: D) colour constancy. 80. Sun watches as his wife Tamara walks toward the house. Even though Tamara fills more and more of Sun's visual field as she approaches, she does not appear to be growing larger as she moves closer toward Sun. This illustrates A) relative size. B) size constancy. C) height in plane. D) linear perspective. QuestionID: 04-4-80 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: B) size constancy. 81. Prosopagnosia is defined as A) difficulty seeing objects at a distance. B) difficulty seeing objects up close. C) the inability to perceive depth. D) the inability to recognize faces. QuestionID: 04-4-81 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: D) the inability to recognize faces. 82. Tyrone has good vision and can easily recognize common objects. However, he often relies on the sound of .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

voices, rather than facial appearance, to be certain he is talking to one of his friends or family. Tyrone suffers from a rare disease called A) face pareidolia. B) prosopagnosia. C) perceptual constancy deficit. D) fusiform degradation. QuestionID: 04-4-82 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: B) prosopagnosia. 83. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the normal perception of faces? A) Faces are processed by their individual components, one at a time. B) The perception of faces is no different than the perception of any other object. C) Faces are processed as a whole rather than by their individual components. D) Faces cannot be perceived when viewed upside down. QuestionID: 04-4-83 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: C) Faces are processed as a whole rather than by their individual components. 84. Visual distance and depth cues that require the use of both eyes are called A) monocular cues. B) pictorial depth cues. C) binocular cues. D) perceptual cues. QuestionID: 04-4-84 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: C) binocular cues. 85. When focusing on a close object that is directly in front of you, eye muscles contract to turn your eyes inward toward the nose. This is called A) convergence. B) retinal disparity. C) interposition. D) relative size. QuestionID: 04-4-85 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: A) convergence. 86. When Adler looks at his lamp alternately with his left eye and right eye, the image seems to jump from one position to another. This phenomenon illustrates A) retinal disparity. B) convergence. C) linear perspective. D) interposition. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 04-4-86 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: A) retinal disparity. 87. ___________ describes the fact that each of our eyes receives a slightly different image of an object. A) Retinal disparity B) Linear perspective C) Convergence D) Interposition QuestionID: 04-4-87 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: A) Retinal disparity 88. Which of the following depth cues requires the use of both eyes? A) interposition B) motion parallax C) retinal disparity D) linear perspective QuestionID: 04-4-88 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: C) retinal disparity 89. While riding on a train, David notices that the trees and telephone poles close to the tracks seem to flash by, while the buildings, trees, and mountains that are farther away seem to move by more slowly. This phenomenon is called A) size constancy. B) retinal disparity. C) motion parallax. D) motion differential. QuestionID: 04-4-89 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: C) motion parallax. 90. Changing the shape of the lens to focus on objects near or far is called A) convergence. B) accommodation. C) constriction. D) dilation. QuestionID: 04-4-90 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: B) accommodation. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

91. Shane is looking at a photograph taken by his friend Lise. The image shows a long straight road, with the edges of the road appearing to converge at the horizon. This illustrates A) linear perspective. B) interposition. C) height in plane. D) relative size. QuestionID: 04-4-91 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: A) linear perspective. 92. The distance cue in which two parallel lines extend into the distance and seem to come together at one point is called A) linear perspective. B) interposition. C) height in plane. D) relative size. QuestionID: 04-4-92 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: A) linear perspective. 93. When viewing a painting, if a bowl of apples appeared to be blocking a vase, the viewer would interpret the vase as being further away than the bowl of apples. This describes the depth cue of A) interposition. B) light and shadow. C) linear perspective. D) relative size. QuestionID: 04-4-93 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: A) interposition. 94. Jaxon spent the morning taking pictures in the small coves of a local lake. What cue is providing the perception of depth when the near objects in his photographs appear much larger than those on the opposite shore of the cove? A) height in plane B) interposition C) linear perspective D) relative size QuestionID: 04-4-94 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: D) relative size 95. The trichromatic theory states that A) humans can perceive colour due to three types of cones, each of which responds to a pair of opposing colours. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) three types of feature detectors in the visual cortex are responsible for colour perception. C) three types of cones exist, each sensitive to a certain range of wavelengths. D) three types of rods exist, each sensitive to a certain range of wavelengths. QuestionID: 04-4-95 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.2c Understand the theories of colour vision. Answer: C) three types of cones exist, each sensitive to a certain range of wavelengths. 96. The ___________ theory states that colour vision is the result of three opposing pairs of colours. A) opponent-process B) Young-Helmholtz C) trichromatic D) primary colour QuestionID: 04-4-96 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.2c Understand the theories of colour vision. Answer: A) opponent-process 97. Ashley stares at a green square; after 30 seconds, she looks at a white sheet of paper. What colour will Ashley perceive? A) red B) blue C) yellow D) green QuestionID: 04-4-97 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.2c Understand the theories of colour vision. Answer: A) red 98. The trichromatic and opponent-process theories of colour vision are considered to be complementary because A) each theory explains the processing of different wavelengths of light. B) the trichromatic theory explains sensation while the opponent-process theory explains perception. C) the trichromatic theory explains night vision (dim light) while the opponent-process theory explains daytime vision (bright light). D) each theory explains colour processing as a different stage of the visual system. QuestionID: 04-4-98 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.2c Understand the theories of colour vision. Answer: D) each theory explains colour processing as a different stage of the visual system. 99. The frequency of a soundwave is perceived as the A) decibel. B) loudness. C) amplitude. D) pitch. QuestionID: 04-4-99 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Factual Objective: 4.3b Understand different characteristics of sound and how they correspond to perception. Answer: D) pitch. 100. An increase in the frequency of sound waves will correspond most directly to an increase in A) amplitude. B) pitch. C) loudness. D) decibels. QuestionID: 04-4-100 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.3b Understand different characteristics of sound and how they correspond to perception. Answer: B) pitch. 101. Brightness refers to the intensity of light. The corresponding term when discussing sound is A) frequency. B) loudness. C) pitch. D) cycles. QuestionID: 04-4-101 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.3b Understand different characteristics of sound and how they correspond to perception. Answer: B) loudness. 102. Loudness is associated with a sound wave's A) amplitude. B) length. C) pitch. D) frequency. QuestionID: 04-4-102 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.3b Understand different characteristics of sound and how they correspond to perception. Answer: A) amplitude. 103. Humans can hear sounds ranging from about A) 20 to 2000 dB. B) 20 to 2000 Hz. C) 20 to 20 000 dB. D) 20 to 20 000 Hz. QuestionID: 04-4-103 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.3b Understand different characteristics of sound and how they correspond to perception. Answer: D) 20 to 20 000 Hz. 104. The part of the ear we see on the side of the head is called the A) cochlea. B) pinna. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) auditory canal. D) exterior membrane. QuestionID: 04-4-104 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: B) pinna. 105. The malleus, incus, and stapes comprise the A) inner ear. B) ossicles. C) auditory canal. D) components of the basilar membrane. QuestionID: 04-4-105 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: B) ossicles. 106. Which represents the correct order in which vibrations pass from the outer to the inner ear? A) cochlea; auditory canal; ossicles B) ossicles; auditory canal; cochlea C) auditory canal; cochlea; ossicles D) auditory canal; ossicles; cochlea QuestionID: 04-4-106 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: D) auditory canal; ossicles; cochlea 107. Auditory transduction occurs in the A) ossicles. B) cochlea. C) ear drum. D) semicircular canal. QuestionID: 04-4-107 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: B) cochlea. 108. The auditory sensory receptors in the ear are located in the A) cochlea. B) semicircular canal. C) ossicles. D) pinna. QuestionID: 04-4-108 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: A) cochlea. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

109. Once sound waves have been converted into neural activity, the ___________ carry them to the brain for auditory perception. A) auditory nerves B) basilar membranes C) vestibular nerves D) ampullas QuestionID: 04-4-109 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: A) auditory nerves 110. Uri is walking home alone on a dark night. He hears a stick breaking and immediately turns to his right to see what made the noise. What cue did Uri's brain use to tell where the sound came from? A) the location along the basilar membrane stimulated by the soundwaves B) the slight time difference between when the sound reached each ear C) the overall amplitude of the sound D) the frequency of the sound QuestionID: 04-4-110 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.3d Apply your knowledge of sound localization. Answer: B) the slight time difference between when the sound reached each ear 111. The head can block some of the sound reaching one ear, which makes the sound more intense in one ear than the other. The brain can use this phenomenon—known as ____________—to determine the location of a sound's source. A) place theory B) a sound shadow C) frequency theory D) the volley principle QuestionID: 04-4-111 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.3d Apply your knowledge of sound localization. Answer: B) a sound shadow 112. The __________ is the midbrain structure involved with sound localization. A) inferior colliculus B) auditory cortex C) vestibular sac D) ampulla QuestionID: 04-4-112 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.3d Apply your knowledge of sound localization. Answer: A) inferior colliculus 113. The _______________ states that we perceive pitch based on the location along the basilar membrane that sound stimulates. A) frequency theory .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) sound localization principle C) place theory D) volley principle QuestionID: 04-4-113 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: C) place theory 114. The ________________ states that the perception of pitch is related to the frequency at which the basilar membrane vibrates. A) frequency theory B) sound localization principle C) place theory D) volley principle QuestionID: 04-4-114 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: A) frequency theory 115. The ___________ explains how the frequency theory can still be used to explain sounds over 1000Hz. A) basilar stimulation theory B) opponent-process theory C) alternating principle D) volley principle QuestionID: 04-4-115 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: D) volley principle 116. According to the textbook, which of the following is true regarding cochlear implants? A) They can greatly improve language comprehension and expression in young children. B) Due to the auditory sensitive period, adults cannot benefit at all from cochlear implants. C) They are most effective for the perception of high-frequency sounds. D) They are only successful at restoring hearing in 2–5% of the population. QuestionID: 04-4-116 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: A) They can greatly improve language comprehension and expression in young children. 117. Duncan loves when his dad swings him upside down. When Duncan is swinging, the ___________ in the inner ear help to signal where he is in space. A) ossicles B) cochlea C) inferior colliculus D) semicircular canals QuestionID: 04-4-117 Skill: Applied .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 4.3c Understand how the vestibular system affects our sense of balance. Answer: D) semicircular canals 118. The __________ is responsible for providing information about the orientation and motion of the head. A) auditory cortex B) inferior colliculus C) vestibular system D) putamen QuestionID: 04-4-118 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: C) vestibular system 119. Sarah is a pianist who reports that she sees musical tones as colours. This is one example of A) haptics. B) kinesthesis. C) autonomous sensory meridian response (ASMR). D) synesthesia. QuestionID: 04-4-119 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.4a Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses. Answer: D) synesthesia. 120. The skin covering which part of the body would have the LOWEST acuity? A) lips B) palms C) fingertips D) lower back QuestionID: 04-4-120 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.4d Apply your knowledge about touch to describe the acuity of different areas of skin. Answer: D) lower back 121. A researcher uses a device to press two closely-spaced pins onto various places on participants' bodies. Each time, the research asks the participant to say whether they feel two distinct points or only one. The researcher is testing the _____________ of the skin on the different body parts. A) gate threshold B) kinesthesis C) acuity D) nociception QuestionID: 04-4-121 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.4d Apply your knowledge about touch to describe the acuity of different areas of skin. Answer: C) acuity 122. To help identify objects with our sense of touch, we move the object in our hands and actively explore it. This is known as .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

acuity. haptics. kinesthesis. nociception.

QuestionID: 04-4-122 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.4a Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses. Answer: B) haptics. 123. _________ describes our sense of body position or movement. A) Haptics B) Kinesthesis C) Nociception D) Homuncular awareness QuestionID: 04-4-123 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.4a Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses. Answer: B) Kinesthesis 124. Without ________________, we could cut our arm with a knife and feel nothing more than the slight pressure of the blade. A) acuity B) haptics C) kinesthesis D) nociception QuestionID: 04-4-124 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.4a Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses. Answer: D) nociception 125. The gate-control theory of pain suggests that A) the perception of pain determined by the interplay between small pain fibres and larger inhibitory fibres in the spinal cord. B) for pain to be perceived, it must have a high-enough intensity to open mechanical channels (gates) in the skin. C) pain is contagious and seeing someone else in pain leads to the perception of pain in our own bodies. D) in patients with phantom limb syndrome, the best treatment is to surgically insert a gate into the patient's spinal cord to block the pain. QuestionID: 04-4-125 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.4b Understand how pain messages travel to the brain. Answer: A) the perception of pain determined by the interplay between small pain fibres and larger inhibitory fibres in the spinal cord. 126. According to the gate-control theory of pain, which of the following would be an effective way to decrease the pain of banging your elbow? A) jumping up and down B) rubbing the area around it C) seeing someone else in pain .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) thinking happy thoughts QuestionID: 04-4-126 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.4b Understand how pain messages travel to the brain. Answer: B) rubbing the area around it 127. Ursula is an army veteran who had to have her leg amputated after an explosive device detonated near her. Surprisingly, she still awakens in the middle of the night and feels her missing leg itching, twitching, or even hurting. Ursula is experiencing _________________ sensations. A) kinesthesis B) gate-control C) phantom limb D) post-traumatic stress disorder QuestionID: 04-4-127 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.4a Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses. Answer: C) phantom limb 128. A leading theory of phantom limb pain holds that this experience is due to A) memories of previous pain. B) leftover nerve endings in the missing body part. C) the rewiring of the brain after the loss of input from the lost limb. D) the release of inflammatory substances that trigger the pain response. QuestionID: 04-4-128 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.4b Understand how pain messages travel to the brain. Answer: C) the rewiring of the brain after the loss of input from the lost limb. 129. Karen has suffered from phantom limb pain for several years. She visits a neurologist who proposes trying a therapeutic treatment that has been proven to be effective. Karen is surprised that this simple treatment uses A) a bucket of ice and a bucket of warm water. B) a mirror box. C) mental visualization and guided meditation. D) acupuncture needles. QuestionID: 04-4-129 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.4a Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses. Answer: B) a mirror box. 130. Bumps on the tongue called __________ contain numerous __________. A) mechanoreceptors; taste buds B) papillae; taste buds C) taste buds; mechanoreceptors D) taste buds; papillae QuestionID: 04-4-130 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.4a Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: B) papillae; taste buds 131. We are sensitive to _________ basic tastes. A) 3 B) 5 C) 2500 D) 9000 QuestionID: 04-4-131 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.4c Understand the relationship between smell, taste, and food flavour experience. Answer: B) 5 132. _________ is responsible for our perception of savoury tastes. A) Olfaction B) Salt C) Umami D) Sucrose QuestionID: 04-4-132 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.4c Understand the relationship between smell, taste, and food flavour experience. Answer: C) Umami 133. Which of the following is true regarding supertasters? A) Supertasters have many more taste buds than non-supertasters. B) Less than 1% of the population are supertasters. C) Supertasters prefer sweet and fatty foods. D) The tongues of supertasters are physiologically identical to non-supertasters. QuestionID: 04-4-133 Skill: Factual Objective: 4.4e Apply your knowledge to determine whether you or someone you know is a "supertaster." Answer: A) Supertasters have many more taste buds than non-supertasters. 134. Tory finds foods like broccoli and coffee too bitter to consume. She also does not like fatty or sweet foods. It is likely that Tory is a A) supertaster. B) picky eater. C) gustatory consumer. D) synesthesiac. QuestionID: 04-4-134 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.4e Apply your knowledge to determine whether you or someone you know is a "supertaster." Answer: A) supertaster. 135. The complex flavours we experience when we bite into a great sandwich are due to A) the gustatory system. B) the olfactory system. C) synesthesia. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) the interaction between the gustatory and olfactory systems. QuestionID: 04-4-135 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.4c Understand the relationship between smell, taste, and food flavour experience. Answer: D) the interaction between the gustatory and olfactory systems. 136. Why might food taste bland if your nose were congested due to a cold or allergies? A) Mucus coats the papillae and renders them ineffective. B) Approximately 80% of our taste buds are located in the back of the throat and nasal cavities. C) Approximately 80% of our information about flavour comes from olfaction. D) The increased oxygen from primarily breathing through your mouth interacts with the papillae and reduces their functioning. QuestionID: 04-4-136 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.4c Understand the relationship between smell, taste, and food flavour experience. Answer: C) Approximately 80% of our information about flavour comes from olfaction. 137. Suzanne belongs to an internet community of people who report experiencing some tingling sensations, especially on their scalp and neck, when they watch videos that contain whispering. This phenomenon is called A) autonomous sensory meridian response. B) synesthesia. C) kinesthesis. D) olfaction. QuestionID: 04-4-137 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.4f Analyze how different senses are combined together. Answer: A) autonomous sensory meridian response. 138. Psychological experiments indicate that most magicians utilize a perceptual phenomenon called A) top-down processing. B) bottom-up processing. C) autonomous sensory meridian response. D) inattentional blindness. QuestionID: 04-4-138 Skill: Applied Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: D) inattentional blindness. 139. What could lead to permanent hearing loss, depending on its volume, duration, and frequency of occurrence? A) bottom-up processing dysfunction B) noise exposure C) vestibular system damage D) primary auditory cortex malfunction QuestionID: 04-4-139 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: B) noise exposure 140. What is the best way to prove the opponent-process theory? A) using a visual process that results in an afterimage B) using an auditory process with different sounds C) using an olfactory process with different odours D) using a tactile process with sensory adaptation QuestionID: 04-4-140 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 4.2c Understand the theories of colour vision. Answer: A) using a visual process that results in an afterimage Supplementary Questions 1. The process whereby we receive information from the environment through our receptors is A) encoding. B) perception. C) sensation. D) transduction. QuestionID: 04-5-01 Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: C) sensation. 2. Sensation is A) the organization of stimuli to create meaningful patterns. B) the stimulation of the senses. C) the presence of sensory cell activity in the absence of external stimulation. D) the result of activity in the efferent nervous system. QuestionID: 04-5-02 Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: B) the stimulation of the senses. 3. Experiencing MEANINGFUL patterns in the jumble of sensory information received by the brain is A) sensation. B) perception. C) adaptation. D) transduction. QuestionID: 04-5-03 Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: B) perception. 4. Perceptions differ from sensations in that A) perceptions depend as much on prior experience as they do on neural cues travelling between receptors and the brain. B) perceptions are purely psychological, whereas sensations are purely neural. C) each sensation is actually a large set of perceptions. D) sensations depend mostly on learning, whereas perceptions are innate processes. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 04-5-04 Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: A) perceptions depend as much on prior experience as they do on neural cues travelling between receptors and the brain. 5. Sensory adaptation is the process in which A) receptor cells become linked to one another. B) receptor sensitivity changes depending upon the intensity of the stimulus. C) visual acuity improves as one centres an object's light on the fovea. D) nonspectral colours can be seen. QuestionID: 04-5-05 Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: B) receptor sensitivity changes depending upon the intensity of the stimulus. 6. The minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensations at all in a person is the A) absolute threshold. B) difference threshold. C) minimum threshold. D) noticeable threshold. QuestionID: 04-5-06 Objective: 4.1b Understand what stimulus thresholds are. Answer: A) absolute threshold. 7. Which of the following statements is true? A) Only the difference threshold varies from person to person. B) Only the absolute threshold is constant for all people. C) Both the difference threshold and the absolute threshold are constant for all people at all times. D) Both the absolute threshold and the difference threshold vary from person to person over time. QuestionID: 04-5-07 Objective: 4.1b Understand what stimulus thresholds are. Answer: D) Both the absolute threshold and the difference threshold vary from person to person over time. 8. The smallest change in stimulation that can be detected 50% of the time is called the A) separation threshold. B) difference threshold. C) response threshold. D) absolute threshold. QuestionID: 04-5-08 Objective: 4.1b Understand what stimulus thresholds are. Answer: B) difference threshold. 9. When Ann went to her doctor, he gave her a hearing test. During the test, the doctor struck several tuning forks, each of which vibrated at a distinct pitch, and asked her to choose two tones that sounded almost the same in pitch. The doctor was testing Ann's A) auditory convergence. B) refractory threshold. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) absolute threshold. D) difference threshold. QuestionID: 04-5-09 Objective: 4.1b Understand what stimulus thresholds are. Answer: D) difference threshold. 10. The relation between the amount of physical energy in a stimulus and the sensory experience of that stimulus is studied by A) encoding psychology. B) psychophysics. C) sensory physiology. D) transduction psychology. QuestionID: 04-5-10 Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: B) psychophysics. 11. _______ theory was developed to isolate separate measures of sensory sensitivity and decision criteria used. A) Method of limits B) Method adjustment C) Signal detection D) Method of constant stimuli QuestionID: 04-5-11 Objective: 4.1d Apply your knowledge of signal detection theory to identify hits, misses, and correct responses in examples. Answer: C) Signal detection 12. Perceiving incomplete objects as complete defines A) figure–ground. B) similarity. C) proximity. D) closure. QuestionID: 04-5-12 Objective: 4.1c Understand the principles of Gestalt psychology. Answer: D) closure. 13. Gestalt theorists propose that much of what we see is divided into A) proximal and distal. B) figure and ground. C) standard and deviant. D) chromatic and monocular. QuestionID: 04-5-13 Objective: 4.1c Understand the principles of Gestalt psychology. Answer: B) figure and ground. 14. How do researchers in perception explain "backward messaging"? A) through top-down processing .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) through activation of neuronal patterns specific to an object C) through the process of transduction D) through the raw sensory data QuestionID: 04-5-14 Objective: 4.1c Understand the principles of Gestalt psychology. Answer: A) through top-down processing 15. David is attempting to assemble a jigsaw puzzle without ever having seen the picture on the box. Which type of information processing is David most likely utilizing? A) bottom-up processing B) top-down processing C) cross-modal processing D) parallel processing QuestionID: 04-5-15 Objective: 4.1c Understand the principles of Gestalt psychology. Answer: A) bottom-up processing 16. Carrie misread the number 13 as the letter B because she was expecting to see a letter rather than a number. Which term best characterizes this phenomenon? A) perceptual constancy B) selective attention C) feature binding D) perceptual set QuestionID: 04-5-16 Objective: 4.1c Understand the principles of Gestalt psychology. Answer: D) perceptual set 17. The range of electromagnetic wavelengths that we can see is called the A) visible spectrum. B) acuity range. C) visual field. D) visual angle. QuestionID: 04-5-17 Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: A) visible spectrum. 18. The wavelength of the light to reach your eyes determines what __________ you see. A) brightness B) hue C) saturation D) fine detail QuestionID: 04-5-18 Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: B) hue 19. The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by the .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

cornea pupil lens retina

QuestionID: 04-5-19 Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: B) pupil 20. The pupil is the A) opening in the centre of the iris. B) coloured part of the eye. C) white of the eye. D) lining in the back of the eyeball. QuestionID: 04-5-20 Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: A) opening in the centre of the iris. 21. The inner lining on the back of the eyeball that is sensitive to light is called the A) fovea. B) retina. C) iris. D) optic nerve. QuestionID: 04-5-21 Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: B) retina. 22. Light is focused on the retina by the A) cornea. B) pupil. C) iris. D) lens. QuestionID: 04-5-22 Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: D) lens. 23. The shape of the lens adjusts in order to A) protect the eye from too much light. B) let in more light when it is dark. C) focus on different objects at different distances. D) allow time for the eye to adjust to bright light. QuestionID: 04-5-23 Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. .

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Answer: C) focus on different objects at different distances. 24. Rods and cones are found in the A) retina. B) iris. C) optic nerve. D) cornea. QuestionID: 04-5-24 Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: A) retina. 25. The aspect of colour that corresponds to names such as red, green, and blue is A) brightness. B) hue. C) saturation. D) fine detail. QuestionID: 04-5-25 Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: B) hue. 26. The purity, richness, or vividness of a hue is known as its A) brightness. B) saturation. C) additive mix. D) depth. QuestionID: 04-5-26 Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: B) saturation. 27. The opponent-process theory of colour vision contends that colour vision is a result of A) lateral inhibition on the retina itself. B) lateral inhibition in the visual cortex. C) calculation of differences in the firing rates of three types of retinal cells. D) competition between three types of rods and three types of cones. QuestionID: 04-5-27 Objective: 4.2c Understand the theories of colour vision. Answer: C) calculation of differences in the firing rates of three types of retinal cells. 28. In which scenario would the pupils most likely constrict? A) Danilla rubs belladonna juice on her eyes and goes to see her lover. B) Sally is working hard to solve some chemistry equations for a class she is taking. C) Janelle is just walking outside from an afternoon movie she went to see. D) Tanya is in a dimly lit bar and is very attracted to the person that is sitting next to her. QuestionID: 04-5-28 Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

sight. Answer: C) Janelle is just walking outside from an afternoon movie she went to see. 29. The depressed spot in the retina that occupies the centre of the visual field in which images are focused MOST sharply is called the A) fovea. B) cornea. C) iris. D) optic nerve. QuestionID: 04-5-29 Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: A) fovea. 30. Photo receptors that see best at night are the A) foveas. B) cones. C) shafts. D) rods. QuestionID: 04-5-30 Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: D) rods. 31. Damage to the fovea would have the greatest effect on A) night vision. B) peripheral vision. C) visual acuity. D) sensory adaptation. QuestionID: 04-5-31 Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: C) visual acuity. 32. Which type of receptor cell is associated with seeing colours? A) ganglia B) bipolar C) rods D) cones QuestionID: 04-5-32 Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: D) cones 33. ________ are receptors that are best for seeing details. A) Cones B) Rods C) Bipolar cells D) Ganglion cells

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 04-5-33 Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: A) Cones 34. The Young-Helmholtz theory of colour vision assumes that A) colour receptors exist in opposing pairs. B) colour perception is determined by differences in the firing rates of three types of retinal cells. C) there are three different types of cones. D) all of the above are true. QuestionID: 04-5-34 Objective: 4.2c Understand the theories of colour vision. Answer: C) there are three different types of cones. 35. People with normal vision will perceive a pyramid whether they see the object from the side, top, or any other angle as long as the object is, in fact, a pyramid. This is the law of A) shape constancy. B) size constancy. C) figure–ground. D) visual angle. QuestionID: 04-5-35 Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: A) shape constancy. 36. You are seated opposite a friend at a small table. Your friend is drinking coffee. As she lifts the cup off the saucer and raises it to her mouth, the image made on your retina by the bottom of the cup actually changes shape, but you still "see" it as round due to A) good continuation. B) movement parallax. C) perceptual constancy. D) proximity. QuestionID: 04-5-36 Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: C) perceptual constancy. 37. Size constancy explains why A) objects are perceived as having constant dimensions regardless of distance. B) perception of size is inversely related to distance. C) closer objects are perceived as smaller than far-away objects. D) distance affects perceived size. QuestionID: 04-5-37 Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: A) objects are perceived as having constant dimensions regardless of distance. 38. Whether you are standing right next to it or a mile away from it, you know a tree is the same size because of A) the figure–ground distinction. B) the phi phenomenon. C) perceptual constancy. .

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D) retinal disparity. QuestionID: 04-5-38 Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: C) perceptual constancy. 39. When you stand to the side of a window frame, it casts a trapezoidal (nonrectangular) image on your retina. It still seems rectangular to you, though, because of A) size constancy. B) shape constancy. C) figure–ground constancy. D) the phi phenomenon. QuestionID: 04-5-39 Objective: 4.2e Analyze how we perceive objects and faces. Answer: B) shape constancy. 40. If perceptual information aiding in depth perception must be drawn simultaneously from both eyes, it is referred to as A) a monocular cue. B) a binocular cue. C) contralateral input. D) a duoretinal image. QuestionID: 04-5-40 Objective: 4.2d Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field. Answer: B) a binocular cue. 41. Single-eye vision is to _______ as double-eye vision is to _______. A) kinetic; monocular B) monocular; kinetic C) monocular; binocular D) binocular; monocular QuestionID: 04-5-41 Objective: 4.2d Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field. Answer: C) monocular; binocular 42. Which of the following is an example of a monocular cue? A) far objects looking clear, and near ones looking blurry B) the trees in a forest converging in the distance C) the double image of a finger held in front of one eye D) the appearance of a small light making movements against a dark background QuestionID: 04-5-42 Objective: 4.2d Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field. Answer: B) the trees in a forest converging in the distance 43. Which of the following is NOT a monocular cue? A) clearness B) linear perspective .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) retinal disparity D) texture QuestionID: 04-5-43 Objective: 4.2d Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field. Answer: C) retinal disparity 44. The distance cue in which objects at greater distances appear to be smoother is A) linear perspective. B) aerial perspective. C) texture gradient. D) motion parallax. QuestionID: 04-5-44 Objective: 4.2d Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field. Answer: C) texture gradient. 45. An object's elevation is a perspective cue to A) distance. B) shape. C) shadowing. D) size. QuestionID: 04-5-45 Objective: 4.2d Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field. Answer: A) distance. 46. How blurry-looking an object appears and linear perspective are cues associated with _______ depth perception. A) binocular disparity B) kinesthetic C) monocular D) binocular QuestionID: 04-5-46 Objective: 4.2d Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field. Answer: C) monocular 47. Shadowing is a cue to A) linear perspective. B) width perception. C) depth perception. D) colour perception. QuestionID: 04-5-47 Objective: 4.2d Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field. Answer: C) depth perception. 48. A drawing of a gravel road depicts the tiny rocks as becoming smaller and less distinct as one looks "down the lane." This simulation of depth on a two-dimensional sheet of paper is an example of the _______ cue. A) interposition .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) texture gradient C) elevation D) shadowing QuestionID: 04-5-48 Objective: 4.2d Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field. Answer: B) texture gradient 49. Which of the following is an example of a monocular cue? A) far objects looking clear, and near ones looking blurry B) when in motion, far-away objects appearing to move more slowly than objects that are close C) the double image of a finger held in front of one eye D) the appearance of a small light making movements against a dark background QuestionID: 04-5-49 Objective: 4.2d Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field. Answer: B) when in motion, far-away objects appearing to move more slowly than objects that are close 50. When you look out the window of a car that is travelling 100 km/h, objects at different locations appear to move in different directions and different speeds. This apparent motion is known as A) the kinetic depth effect. B) motion parallax. C) movement illusion. D) linear perspective. QuestionID: 04-5-50 Objective: 4.2d Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field. Answer: B) motion parallax. 51. When you look out the window of a car that is travelling 100 km/h, close objects appear A) to be moving faster than far ones. B) to be moving slower than far ones. C) to be moving at the same speed as far ones. D) to be stationary and the far ones appear to be moving in the opposite direction as the car. QuestionID: 04-5-51 Objective: 4.2d Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field. Answer: A) to be moving faster than far ones. 52. The monocular distance cue in which objects closer than the point of visual focus seem to move in the direction opposite to the viewer's moving head, and objects beyond the viewing point move in the same direction as the viewer's head, is A) retinal disparity. B) motion parallax. C) subliminal motion. D) motion differential. QuestionID: 04-5-52 Objective: 4.2d Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field. Answer: B) motion parallax.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

53. Hertz is a unit of measurement of A) frequency. B) amplitude. C) loudness. D) overtones. QuestionID: 04-5-53 Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: A) frequency. 54. The middle ear includes the A) ear canal. B) round window. C) hammer. D) basilar membrane. QuestionID: 04-5-54 Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: D) basilar membrane. 55. As sounds become louder, their ______ increases. A) frequency B) pitch C) amplitude D) hertz QuestionID: 04-5-55 Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: C) amplitude 56. Frequency determines A) pitch. B) amplitude. C) timbre. D) overtones. QuestionID: 04-5-56 Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: A) pitch. 57. The height of a sound wave represents its A) pitch. B) amplitude. C) timbre. D) overtones. QuestionID: 04-5-57 Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: B) amplitude. 58. Decibels are used to measure .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

frequency. amplitude. loudness. overtones.

QuestionID: 04-5-58 Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: C) loudness. 59. The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are the A) three components of the eardrum. B) three tiny bones in the middle ear. C) membranes in the oval window. D) three components of the basilar membrane cochlea. QuestionID: 04-5-59 Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: B) three tiny bones in the middle ear. 60. Hearing begins when sound waves bump against the A) earlobe. B) eardrum. C) oval window. D) round window. QuestionID: 04-5-60 Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: B) eardrum. 61. Which aspect of the sound wave is related to the pitch of a tone? A) timbre B) frequency C) intensity D) amplitude QuestionID: 04-5-61 Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: B) frequency 62. The flexible membrane inside the cochlea is called the A) round window. B) eardrum. C) oval window. D) basilar membrane. QuestionID: 04-5-62 Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: D) basilar membrane. 63. The structures in the inner ear that are particularly sensitive to body rotation are the A) vestibular sacs. .

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B) saccules. C) semicircular canals. D) papillae. QuestionID: 04-5-63 Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: C) semicircular canals. 64. Which of the following plays the biggest role in our feeling dizzy and unbalanced after a thrilling roller coaster ride? A) striate cortex B) ganglion cells C) basilar membranes D) semicircular canals QuestionID: 04-5-64 Objective: 4.3c Understand how the vestibular system affects our sense of balance. Answer: D) semicircular canals 65. With her eyes closed, Sandra can accurately touch her mouth, nose, and chin with her index finger. Sandra's accuracy illustrates the importance of A) accommodation. B) kinesthesis. C) sensory adaptation. D) feature detectors. QuestionID: 04-5-65 Objective: 4.3c Understand how the vestibular system affects our sense of balance. Answer: B) kinesthesis. 66. Taste buds are contained in the tongue's A) papillae. B) hair cells. C) underside. D) saccules. QuestionID: 04-5-66 Objective: 4.4a Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses. Answer: A) papillae. 67. The patch of nasal membrane tissue that houses receptor cells for smell is the A) olfactory bulb. B) Golgi tendon organ. C) olfactory epithelium. D) olfactory mucosa. QuestionID: 04-5-67 Objective: 4.4a Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses. Answer: C) olfactory epithelium. 68. Flavour is .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

taste. smell. a combination of taste and smell. a combination of touch and taste.

QuestionID: 04-5-68 Objective: 4.4a Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses. Answer: C) a combination of taste and smell. 69. The first location to receive smell information in the brain is the A) olfactory bulb. B) olfactory epithelium. C) thalamus. D) vomeronasal organ. QuestionID: 04-5-69 Objective: 4.4a Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses. Answer: A) olfactory bulb. 70. Which phenomenon is an example of multi-modal processing? A) the perception of phosphenes B) the McGurk effect C) the moon illusion D) the Ponzo illusion QuestionID: 04-5-70 Objective: 4.4a Know the key terminology of touch and chemical senses. Answer: B) the McGurk effect True-False Questions 1. The terms sensation and perception refer to the same processes and are interchangeable. a True b False QuestionID: 04-6-01 Objective: 4.1a Know the key terminology of sensation and perception. Answer: b. False 2. When measuring absolute threshold, reliable detection is said to occur when a person can detect a signal 99 percent of the time. a True b False QuestionID: 04-6-02 Objective: 4.1b Understand what stimulus thresholds are. Answer: b. False 3. The intensity or brightness of light corresponds to the amplitude of the light wave. a True b False .

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QuestionID: 04-6-03 Objective: 4.2a Know the key terminology relating to the eye and vision. Answer: a. True 4. Dark adaptation is the process by which visual receptors become increasingly sensitive to dim light. a True b False QuestionID: 04-6-04 Objective: 4.2b Understand how visual information travels from the eye through the brain to give us the experience of sight. Answer: a. True 5. There are three basic types of cones in the retina, each of which responds maximally to a different wavelength. a True b False QuestionID: 04-6-05 Objective: 4.2c Understand the theories of colour vision. Answer: a. True 6. Depth can be interpreted from a photograph using convergence as a cue. a True b False QuestionID: 04-6-06 Objective: 4.2d Apply your knowledge to explain how we perceive depth in our visual field. Answer: b. False 7. The amplitude of a wave corresponds to a sound's pitch—the higher the amplitude, the higher the pitch. a True b False QuestionID: 04-6-07 Objective: 4.3a Know the key terminology relating to the ear, hearing, and the vestibular system. Answer: b. False 8. A sound coming from your left will reach your left ear faster and with more intensity than it will reach your right ear. Your brain can use these two facts to determine the location from which the sound is originating. a True b False QuestionID: 04-6-08 Objective: 4.3d Apply your knowledge of sound localization. Answer: a. True 9. Despite extensive research, no effective treatment for the symptoms of phantom limb pain have been found. a True b False

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 04-6-09 Objective: 4.4b Understand how pain messages travel to the brain. Answer: b. False 10. Although humans have only about 1000 different types of receptors, we can detect about 10 000 different odours. a True b False QuestionID: 04-6-10 Objective: 4.4c Understand the relationship between smell, taste, and food flavour experience. Answer: a. True

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Chapter 5 : Consciousness Chapter Quiz Questions 1. REM sleep is sometimes referred to as paradoxical sleep because A) the more sleep deprived a person is, the less REM sleep she experiences. B) REM sleep is not technically a sleep stage, and the body doesn't move. C) electrical activity in the brain completely shuts down during REM sleep, so the body doesn't move. D) EEG activity in the brain during REM is similar to awake state, but the body doesn't move. QuestionID: 05-1-01 Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: D) EEG activity in the brain during REM is similar to awake state, but the body doesn't move. 2. Which of the following statements supports the "preserve and protect" hypothesis of sleep? A) People tend to require more sleep after a hard day of work. B) Sleep deprivation can lead to impaired cognitive abilities due to lack of active involvement with outside world. C) Jet lag is usually worse when travelling east than it is when travelling west. D) Many small animals sleep during the day, when they could be easily seen by a predator. QuestionID: 05-1-02 Objective: 5.1c Understand theories of why we sleep. Answer: D) Many small animals sleep during the day, when they could be easily seen by a predator. 3. Erica tells her friend that last night she dreamed she was asking her boss for a promotion. If Erica's friend believes in the activation-synthesis hypothesis of dreaming, which of the following is she likely to say about the dream? A) "The latent content of the dream is more important than the manifest content and it is inherently meaningful." B) "The dream is the result of random activity in the brain and has no deep symbolic meaning." C) "The dream indicates that your brain is trying to figure out how to get you promoted." D) "The dream is your brain's way of forming new memories." QuestionID: 05-1-03 Objective: 5.1c Understand theories of why we sleep. Answer: B) "The dream is the result of random activity in the brain and has no deep symbolic meaning." 4. Affecting approximately one in seven Canadians, _____ is the most widely recognized sleeping problem. A) sleep apnea B) insomnia C) night terrors D) somnambulism QuestionID: 05-1-04 Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: B) insomnia 5. Recently, Zane has been very tired during the day and feels like he hasn't been sleeping well. His wife mentions that he often makes a strange gasping noise several times during the night. Which sleep disorder does Zane most likely have? A) sleep apnea

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B) narcolepsy C) night terrors D) somnambulism QuestionID: 05-1-05 Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: A) sleep apnea 6. Hypnosis is best thought of as A) a trance. B) a state of increased suggestibility. C) mind control. D) a myth. QuestionID: 05-1-06 Objective: 5.2a Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, mind-wandering, and disorders of consciousness. Answer: B) a state of increased suggestibility. 7. Which of the following statements is true about the use of hypnosis to recover memories? A) It is generally ineffective, but poses no risks and is harmless. B) Research has shown hypnosis to be an effective way to recover memories. C) Research indicates that hypnosis does not work, and that it can potentially create false memories. D) While some debate persists regarding the technique's effectiveness, most U.S. courts accept testimony obtained from a person who is placed under hypnosis. QuestionID: 05-1-07 Objective: 5.2c Apply your knowledge of hypnosis to identify what it can and cannot do. Answer: C) Research indicates that hypnosis does not work, and that it can potentially create false memories. 8. Which of the following definitions accurately describes the state of coma? A) a prolonged state of consciousness similar to non-REM sleep B) a state marked by a complete loss of consciousness C) a disordered state of consciousness marked by the ability to show some behaviours that suggest at least partial consciousness, even if on an inconsistent basis D) a state of minimal consciousness, where the patient's eyes may be open, and he or she experiences a sleepwake cycle QuestionID: 05-1-08 Objective: 5.2a Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, mind-wandering, and disorders of consciousness. Answer: B) a state marked by a complete loss of consciousness 9. Opiates create their euphoric effects by stimulating receptors for A) GABA. B) endorphins. C) anandamide. D) dopamine. QuestionID: 05-1-09 Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: B) endorphins.

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10. Repeated use of drugs over a period of time can result in a need for a higher dose to achieve the intended effect. This condition is known as A) addiction. B) dependence. C) withdrawal. D) tolerance. QuestionID: 05-1-10 Objective: 5.3b Understand drug tolerance and dependence. Answer: D) tolerance. Essay Questions 1. Describe a full, typical sleep cycle, beginning with falling asleep and ending with the completion of the first full cycle. Make sure to describe the EEG and physiological characteristics associated with each stage. QuestionID: 05-2-01 Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: In stage 1, brain waves become higher amplitude (theta waves), while breathing, blood pressure and heart rate decrease. In stage 2, which begins 10 to 15 minutes after stage 1, brain waves continue to slow and sleep spindles first appear, as do K complexes. As stage 2 progresses, the individual responds to fewer and fewer external stimuli. Stage 3, which begins about 20 minutes after stage 2, is characterized by very slow brain waves called 'delta waves' that are high amplitude and low frequency. Stage 4 usually begins within an hour of stage 1, and is a time when the sleeper is difficult to awaken. After stage 4, the sleeper enters REM sleep for the first time, where brain wave activity increases and resembles wakefulness. During REM sleep, eyelids may flicker. 2. Compare and contrast the two theories outlined in the textbook that attempt to explain why we sleep. Describe the theories and explain the evidence of each. QuestionID: 05-2-02 Objective: 5.1c Understand theories of why we sleep. Answer: The most intuitive explanation for why we sleep is probably the "restore and repair" hypothesis: the idea that the body needs to restore energy levels and repair any wear and tear experienced during the day's activities. Research on sleep deprivation clearly shows that sleep is a physical and psychological necessity, not just a pleasant way to relax. A lack of sleep eventually leads to cognitive decline, emotional disturbances, and impaired functioning of the immune system. It appears that sleeping helps animals, including humans, clear waste products and excess proteins from the brain. In a study using rodents, the researchers found that the pathways of the brain's waste removal system were enlarged during sleep, making the removal of these waste products more efficient. A second explanation for sleep, the "preserve and protect" hypothesis, suggests that two more adaptive functions of sleep are preserving energy and protecting the organism from harm. To support this hypothesis, researchers note that the animals most vulnerable to predators sleep in safe hideaways during the time of day when their predators are most likely to hunt. Because humans are quite dependent upon vision, it made sense for us to sleep at night, when we would be at a disadvantage compared to nocturnal predators. 3. There are many factors that influence drug dependence. Choose three factors from those outlined in your textbook (physical, psychological, biological, cognitive, social, personality) and explain how they may interact to influence drug dependence. QuestionID: 05-2-03 Objective: 5.3b Understand drug tolerance and dependence. Answer: A good answer will include three of the following key points.

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- Physical dependence is the need to take a drug to ward off unpleasant physical withdrawal symptoms. - Psychological dependence occurs when emotional need for a drug develops without any underlying physical dependence. Many people use drugs to ward off negative emotions. When they no longer have this defence mechanism, they experience the negative emotions they have been avoiding, such as stress, depression, shame, or anxiety. - At the biological level, researchers are attempting to identify the specific genes—or groups of genes—that make someone prone to becoming addicted to different drugs. For example, some genes have been shown to increase the chances of becoming addicted to drugs (e.g., the A1 allele of the DRD2 gene), while others have been shown to decrease the chances (e.g., CYP2A6 gene). - Cognitive factors are related to the fact that drugs are often taken in the same situations, such as a cup of coffee to start your day or alcohol whenever you see particular friends. Eventually, taking the drug becomes linked in your memory to that setting or that group of people. When you next see those people or enter that environment, thoughts of the drug will often resurface, making it more likely that you will use, or at least crave, that drug. - Social factors, like the culture in which a person lives, can influence dependence. For instance, alcoholism rates are lower in religious and social groups that prohibit drinking even though these groups are genetically similar to the rest of the population. Family attitudes toward drugs is a factor as well, as early experiences with different drugs can shape our attitudes toward them and influence how we consume those drugs later in life. - Social supports also play a role, as has been shown with rats. Isolated rats are more likely to press a lever to receive morphine than non-isolated rats. This suggests that a key factor in drug dependence is a feeling of isolation. - A person's personality can also influence dependence—individuals with impulsive personality traits are more likely to become addicted to drugs regardless of their early experiences or cultural setting. Fill-in-the-blank Questions 1. Receiving the signal from SCN, the __________ releases a hormone called melatonin, which is critical to maintaining the sleep-wake cycle. QuestionID: 05-3-01 Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: a. pineal gland 2. An EEG recording showing __________ waves would indicate that the subject is in either stage 3 or 4 sleep. QuestionID: 05-3-02 Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: a. delta 3. Sleep researchers use the term __________ (NREM) sleep to collectively refer to sleep stages 1–4. QuestionID: 05-3-03 Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: a. non-REM 4. Young children sometimes experience __________ , which can cause them to wake from NREM sleep screaming. QuestionID: 05-3-04 Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: a. night terrors 5. is simply defined as a highly suggestible state, and is not able to increase recall of forgotten events.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 05-3-05 Objective: 5.2a Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, mind-wandering, and disorders of consciousness. Answer: a. Hypnosis 6. A patient with severe brain injury would be diagnosed as being in a __________ if all signs pointed to a complete loss of consciousness. QuestionID: 05-3-06 Objective: 5.2a Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, mind-wandering, and disorders of consciousness. Answer: a. coma 7. Opiates bind to receptors for __________ , which are neurotransmitters that reduce pain and produce pleasurable sensations. QuestionID: 05-3-07 Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: a. endorphins 8. Because barbiturates can fatally suppress breathing and heart rate at high doses, __________ are generally considered a safer alternative drug. QuestionID: 05-3-08 Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: a. benzodiazepines 9. When Jenna started using heroin, a small amount had a huge effect on her. Now she requires a much larger dose to get the same effect. This is an example of the process known as __________ . QuestionID: 05-3-09 Objective: 5.3b Understand drug tolerance and dependence. Answer: a. tolerance 10. The active ingredient in cannabis mimics the endogenous compound, __________ , and leads to a feeling of euphoria, relaxation, and reduced pain. QuestionID: 05-3-10 Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: a. anandamide Multiple-Choice Questions 1. A person's subjective awareness, including thoughts, perceptions, experiences of the world, and selfawareness is called A) intelligence. B) consciousness. C) mindfulness. D) creativity.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 05-4-01 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: B) consciousness. 2. What term do psychologists use to designate our personal awareness of feelings, sensations, and thoughts? A) thinking B) cognition C) conscience D) consciousness QuestionID: 05-4-02 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: D) consciousness 3. Our sleep-wake cycle follows a(n) __________ rhythm. A) infradian B) circadian C) circannual D) ultradian QuestionID: 05-4-03 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: B) circadian 4. A circadian cycle is about ______ long. A) 90–100 minutes B) 28 days C) 1 year D) 24 hours QuestionID: 05-4-04 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: D) 24 hours 5. A biological cycle, or rhythm, that is approximately 24 hours long is called a(n) ___________ cycle. A) infradian B) circadian C) circannual D) ultradian QuestionID: 05-4-05 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: B) circadian 6. Which of the following is true of circadian rhythms?

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

They are artificial inventions of timekeepers. They are internally driven and externally regulated cycles. They are sequences of events that occur once a month. They occur on the same schedule regardless of the changes from day to night.

QuestionID: 05-4-06 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: B) They are internally driven and externally regulated cycles. 7. The menstrual cycle is an example of a(n) ________ rhythm. A) infradian B) circadian C) circannual D) ultradian QuestionID: 05-4-07 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: A) infradian 8. Every fall, black bears move into dens and hibernate until the spring. This is an example of a(n) _________ rhythm. A) seasonal B) circadian C) circannual D) ultradian QuestionID: 05-4-08 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: C) circannual 9. Heart rate and urination are examples of a(n) __________ rhythm. A) infradian B) circadian C) circannual D) ultradian QuestionID: 05-4-09 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: D) ultradian 10. The sleep-wake cycle is ultimately controlled by the part of the brain called the A) optic nerve. B) substantia nigra. C) suprachiasmatic nucleus. D) median forebrain bundle. QuestionID: 05-4-10 Skill: Factual

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: C) suprachiasmatic nucleus. 11. While university students may sometimes be an exception, most humans sleep at night and are awake during the day. What maintains this relationship? A) The eye relays messages to the brain about light levels, which synchronizes the circadian rhythms to the daynight cycle. B) People get more exercise during daylight, which promotes alertness and wakefulness. C) Ambient air temperature is cooler at night, which triggers the body to sleep. D) Our internal biological clock is synchronized with the day-night cycle when we are born. QuestionID: 05-4-11 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: A) The eye relays messages to the brain about light levels, which synchronizes the circadian rhythms to the daynight cycle. 12. ______ levels of light lead to ________ levels of melatonin. A) low; high B) low; low C) high; high D) high; low QuestionID: 05-4-12 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: A) low; high 13. Where is the suprachiasmatic nucleus located? A) thalamus B) hippocampus C) retina D) hypothalamus QuestionID: 05-4-13 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: D) hypothalamus 14. _______________, a hormone involved in the regulation of circadian rhythms, is secreted by the pineal gland. A) Cortisol B) Melanin C) Estrogen D) Melatonin QuestionID: 05-4-14 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: D) Melatonin 15. The hormone melatonin reaches peak levels in the body during the

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

morning. early evening. afternoon. night.

QuestionID: 05-4-15 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: D) night. 16. What is the primary stimulus that regulates the "biological clock" that controls circadian rhythms? A) light B) time C) pheromones D) hormones QuestionID: 05-4-16 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: A) light 17. When endogenous rhythms are studied by removing all external time cues, what duration of circadian rhythm do most people adopt? A) approximately 23–24 hours long B) approximately 24–25 hours long C) approximately 25–26 hours long D) Humans are unable to maintain a normal circadian rhythm when external cues are removed. QuestionID: 05-4-17 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: B) approximately 24–25 hours long 18. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the relationship of the amount of sleep that an individual receives as a function of age? A) We require more sleep as we age. B) As we age, we tend to need less sleep. C) We require much sleep during infancy and early childhood, less sleep in adolescence and early adulthood, and then more sleep in middle and older age. D) The amount of sleep we require does not follow a consistent pattern as we age. QuestionID: 05-4-18 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: B) As we age, we tend to need less sleep. 19. Kendra is on a camping trip with several generations of her family. One night, the group decides to wake up the next morning at first light and go on a sunrise hike. If the sleep habits of her family members are typical for their ages, what should happen on the morning of the hike? A) The middle-aged adults will be groggier and less alert than the teenagers. B) The middle-aged adults will be more alert and function better than the teenagers. C) The youngest children in the group will be the most alert because they require the least amount of sleep.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) Everyone will be equally alert, regardless of age. QuestionID: 05-4-19 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: B) The middle-aged adults will be more alert and function better than the teenagers. 20. Youssef spends a night at a sleep clinic. The technicians at the clinic hook Youssef up to sensors to measure respiration, body temperature, muscle movements, and brain activity while he sleeps. What technique is the clinic using to study Youssef's sleep pattern? A) positive sleep state analysis (PSSA) B) somnambulism C) polysomnography D) biofeedback QuestionID: 05-4-20 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: C) polysomnography 21. Which device would a sleep researcher use to monitor a sleeping person's brain waves? A) electromyogram (EMG) B) electrocardiogram (EKG) C) electro-oculogram (EOG) D) electroencephalogram (EEG) QuestionID: 05-4-21 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: D) electroencephalogram (EEG) 22. If conducting sleep research, what brain waves would you expect to observe as the person becomes drowsy and then enters the first stage of sleep? A) alpha, then delta B) delta, then theta C) alpha, then theta D) delta, then alpha QuestionID: 05-4-22 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: C) alpha, then theta 23. Emily is currently in stage 1 sleep. This means she is A) experiencing theta waves and light sleep. B) experiencing delta waves and walking in her sleep. C) relaxed but awake. D) hard to waken and her muscles are completely relaxed. QuestionID: 05-4-23 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: A) experiencing theta waves and light sleep. 24. Emilio is currently in stage 2 sleep. This means his EEG is showing __________ waves. A) only delta B) occasional delta C) occasional bursts of rapid, high-peaking D) only small, irregular QuestionID: 05-4-24 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: C) occasional bursts of rapid, high-peaking 25. Brain activity during sleep A) is relatively uniform, does not change throughout the night, and is not correlated with physiological changes in body. B) is identical to activity during the waking state. C) is almost nonexistent. D) is correlated with changes in muscle tension, breathing, and other physiological responses. QuestionID: 05-4-25 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: D) is correlated with changes in muscle tension, breathing, and other physiological responses. 26. From which stage of sleep would it be the easiest to wake someone up? A) stage 1 B) stage 2 C) stage 3 D) REM QuestionID: 05-4-26 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: A) stage 1 27. Which stage of sleep is characterized by sleep spindles? A) stage 1 B) stage 2 C) stage 3 D) REM QuestionID: 05-4-27 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: B) stage 2 28. Short, rhythmic bursts of brainwave activity that appear during stage 2 sleep are called A) delta waves. B) sleep spindles. C) paradoxical sleep waves.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) beta waves. QuestionID: 05-4-28 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: B) sleep spindles. 29. Maxine is currently sleeping. She is experiencing delta waves and is very hard to waken. Maxine is in __________ sleep. A) stage 1 B) stage 2 C) stage 4 D) REM QuestionID: 05-4-29 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: C) stage 4 30. Mukisa is a participant in a sleep study. After about 30 minutes of sleep, she enters stage 4. What are the researchers most likely to observe when studying Mukisa during this period? A) slow, rolling eye movements B) reports of vivid, unrealistic dreams if Mukisa is awakened C) slow brain waves called delta waves D) fast brain waves called alpha waves QuestionID: 05-4-30 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: C) slow brain waves called delta waves 31. REM sleep has been called "paradoxical sleep" because A) the brain is very active, yet the body is entirely inactive. B) the body is very active and restless, but the brain is very inactive. C) the eyes are closed even though the person is technically awake. D) colourful dreams occur, in contrast to the black-and-white dreams of NREM sleep. QuestionID: 05-4-31 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: A) the brain is very active, yet the body is entirely inactive. 32. What term do sleep researchers use to designate stages 1–4 of sleep? A) REM sleep B) non-REM sleep C) deep sleep D) paradoxical sleep QuestionID: 05-4-32 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: B) non-REM sleep 33. A full sleep cycle (from stage 1 to REM) lasts approximately A) 20 minutes. B) 90–100 minutes. C) 6–8 hours. D) 8–10 hours. QuestionID: 05-4-33 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: B) 90–100 minutes. 34. John will likely experience REM rebound tonight if he A) takes a sleeping pill before bed. B) drinks too much caffeine prior to sleeping. C) did not sleep much last night. D) had vivid dreams last night. QuestionID: 05-4-34 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: C) did not sleep much last night. 35. A person who gets very little sleep one night is likely to spend an increased amount in ____________ sleep, relative to the other stages, the following night. A) NREM B) stage 2 C) stage 4 D) REM QuestionID: 05-4-35 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: D) REM 36. The ________ hypothesis states that sleep is necessary for fixing the wear and tear caused to the body during the day. A) restore and repair B) activation-synthesis C) preserve and protect D) waste removal QuestionID: 05-4-36 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.1c Understand theories of why we sleep. Answer: A) restore and repair 37. Which hypothesis predicts that long-term sleep deprivation would cause cognitive decline and physical problems, such as an impaired immune system? A) preserve and protect B) activation-synthesis

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) restore and repair D) problem-solving QuestionID: 05-4-37 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.1c Understand theories of why we sleep. Answer: C) restore and repair 38. Which of the following statements supports the "preserve and protect" hypothesis of sleep? A) People tend to require more sleep after a hard day of work. B) Sleep deprivation can lead to impaired cognitive abilities. C) Jet lag is usually worse when travelling east than it is when travelling west. D) Many small animals sleep during the day, when they could be easily seen by a predator. QuestionID: 05-4-38 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.1c Understand theories of why we sleep. Answer: D) Many small animals sleep during the day, when they could be easily seen by a predator. 39. Kendra stays up all night partying with her friends. Based on sleep deprivation research, what is she likely to experience the next day? A) normal levels of wakefulness B) sleepiness for the entire day C) periods of sleepiness and periods of normal wakefulness D) severe cognitive impairment for the entire day QuestionID: 05-4-39 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: C) periods of sleepiness and periods of normal wakefulness 40. _____________ is the discomfort one feels when sleep cycles are out of synchronization with light and darkness. A) REM rebound B) Jet lag C) Sleep displacement D) Sleep deprivation QuestionID: 05-4-40 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: B) Jet lag 41. Jet lag is typically the worst when travelling A) north. B) south. C) east. D) west. QuestionID: 05-4-41 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: C) east. 42. Freud called the hidden meaning of a dream its __________ content. A) surface B) manifest C) unconscious D) latent QuestionID: 05-4-42 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1e Analyze different theories about why we dream. Answer: D) latent 43. Dr. Sanchez is a psychoanalyst who is interested in analyzing dreams using Freud's perspective. As a psychoanalyst, he focuses on interpreting the __________ content of his clients' dreams in an attempt to understand their unconscious wishes and thoughts that may be expressed symbolically in their dreams. A) latent B) patent C) manifest D) marginal QuestionID: 05-4-43 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1e Analyze different theories about why we dream. Answer: A) latent 44. According to Freud, the visible or directly observable content of a dream is its __________ content. A) primary B) secondary C) manifest D) latent QuestionID: 05-4-44 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.1e Analyze different theories about why we dream. Answer: C) manifest 45. Steve is currently undergoing psychoanalysis. His therapist asks him to write down everything he remembers about his dreams upon awakening. According to Freud's theory of dreaming, Steve is writing about the __________ content of his dreams. A) latent B) activation-synthesis C) manifest D) unconscious QuestionID: 05-4-45 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1e Analyze different theories about why we dream. Answer: C) manifest 46. The psychoanalytic theory of dreaming states that

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

the purpose of dreaming is to express unconscious wishes and urges. there is no purpose to dreaming; dreams occur because of random brainstem signals. the purpose of dreaming is to resolve current concerns and problems that we are conscious of. dreaming is a by-product of a process of eliminating or strengthening neural connections.

QuestionID: 05-4-46 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.1e Analyze different theories about why we dream. Answer: A) the purpose of dreaming is to express unconscious wishes and urges. 47. Interpretation of the ________ content of a dream is expected to reveal the ________ content. A) latent; manifest B) manifest; latent C) manifest; sublimated D) metaphorical; denotative QuestionID: 05-4-47 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.1e Analyze different theories about why we dream. Answer: B) manifest; latent 48. If Alice's strange adventures in Wonderland were actually the dreams of a young girl, they probably occurred when she was in __________ sleep. A) stage 1 B) stage 2 C) stage 4 D) REM QuestionID: 05-4-48 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1e Analyze different theories about why we dream. Answer: D) REM 49. During which part of sleep are you most likely to dream? A) stage 1 B) NREM C) stage 4 D) REM sleep QuestionID: 05-4-49 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.1e Analyze different theories about why we dream. Answer: D) REM sleep 50. According to the activation-synthesis theory of dreaming, the source of a dream is neuronal firing in the A) occipital lobe. B) frontal lobe. C) thalamus. D) brainstem. QuestionID: 05-4-50 Skill: Factual

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 5.1e Analyze different theories about why we dream. Answer: D) brainstem. 51. The activation-synthesis hypothesis of dreaming states that A) the purpose of dreaming is to express unconscious wishes, thoughts, and conflicts. B) dreams occur because of random brainstem signals and cortical activity trying to make sense of the signals. C) dreaming is a by-product of waste removal and restoration in the brain. D) dreaming is a by-product of a process of eliminating or strengthening neural connections. QuestionID: 05-4-51 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1e Analyze different theories about why we dream. Answer: B) dreams occur because of random brainstem signals and cortical activity trying to make sense of the signals. 52. The synthesis aspect of the activation-synthesis hypothesis of dreaming relates to A) the unconscious effort to make sense of repressed urges and emotions. B) brain activity associated with problem-solving. C) brainstem activity attempting to make sense of random neuronal firing. D) cortical activity attempting to make sense of random neuronal firing. QuestionID: 05-4-52 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1e Analyze different theories about why we dream. Answer: D) cortical activity attempting to make sense of random neuronal firing. 53. The activation-synthesis theory proposes that A) the brain tries to make sense of random neural activity by creating dream narratives. B) the cortex is inactive during dreaming, so dreaming is completely controlled by the brainstem. C) the activity in the brainstem constructs or synthesizes dream narratives. D) dreams are active attempts to synthesize solutions to problems. QuestionID: 05-4-53 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.1e Analyze different theories about why we dream. Answer: A) the brain tries to make sense of random neural activity by creating dream narratives. 54. The ________theory suggests that dreams may function to facilitate finding solutions to problems encountered while awake. A) problem-solving B) manifest content C) restoration D) activation-synthesis QuestionID: 05-4-54 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1e Analyze different theories about why we dream. Answer: A) problem-solving 55. The problem-solving explanation of dreaming suggests that A) the symbols and metaphors in a dream disguise a person's true unresolved problems. B) dreams are usually about our everyday problems and may even help us to solve those problems.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) dreams occur because of cortical activity trying to make sense of random brainstem signals. D) individuals with superior critical-thinking skills dream more often than others. QuestionID: 05-4-55 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.1e Analyze different theories about why we dream. Answer: B) dreams are usually about our everyday problems and may even help us to solve those problems. 56. The _________approach to dreaming suggests that our dreams are simply a modification of the thinking that occurs when we are awake. A) problem-solving B) psychoanalytic C) cortical processing D) activation-synthesis QuestionID: 05-4-56 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.1e Analyze different theories about why we dream. Answer: A) problem-solving 57. Which approach to explaining dreams is best supported by the fact that students who are worried about getting a good grade in a class often have recurring dreams of running out of time on exams, oversleeping and missing class, or suddenly realizing that a paper deadline was just missed? A) The wish-fulfillment theory B) The problem-solving approach C) The dream-learning theory D) The activation-synthesis approach QuestionID: 05-4-57 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.1e Analyze different theories about why we dream. Answer: B) The problem-solving approach 58. One criticism of the _______________ theory is that there is little to no evidence that the brain can find solutions to our concerns while we sleep. A) wish-fulfillment B) problem-solving C) dream-learning D) activation-synthesis QuestionID: 05-4-58 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.1e Analyze different theories about why we dream. Answer: B) problem-solving 59. Insomnia affects about _______________ Canadians. A) 1 in 3 B) 1 in 5 C) 1 in 7 D) 1 in 10 QuestionID: 05-4-59

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: C) 1 in 7 60. Individuals who are most likely to suffer from insomnia are A) young adults (18–25 year olds). B) infants (0–1 year olds). C) seniors (75+ year olds). D) middle-aged men (35–55 year olds). QuestionID: 05-4-60 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: C) seniors (75+ year olds). 61. A diagnosis of insomnia is based primarily on which of the following? A) number of hours of sleep on an average night B) a polysomnogram recording C) the degree to which a person feels rested during the day D) an EEG recording QuestionID: 05-4-61 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: C) the degree to which a person feels rested during the day 62. A sleep disorder characterized by difficulty in falling asleep or staying asleep throughout the night is known as A) somnambulism. B) cataplexy. C) narcolepsy. D) insomnia. QuestionID: 05-4-62 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: D) insomnia. 63. If you have been waking up too early for several weeks, you are probably suffering from _________ insomnia. A) terminal B) onset C) maintenance D) reverse QuestionID: 05-4-63 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: A) terminal 64. ______________ occur during REM sleep, while __________________ occur during NREM sleep. A) Night terrors; nightmares

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) Nightmares; night terrors C) Dreams; nightmares D) Nightmares; dreams QuestionID: 05-4-64 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: B) Nightmares; night terrors 65. Which of the following is true about nightmares and night terrors? A) They are interchangeable names for the same phenomenon. B) Night terrors reflect an individual's phobia, whereas nightmares involve fictional content such as monsters. C) Nightmares are a type of dream, whereas night terrors are not. D) Nightmares reflect an individual's phobia, whereas night terrors involve fictional content such as monsters. QuestionID: 05-4-65 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: C) Nightmares are a type of dream, whereas night terrors are not. 66. When he was a young child, Javier would sometimes wake up in the middle of the night screaming. He wouldn't remember having a bad dream, but would remember experiencing raw panic. Javier was most likely experiencing A) night terrors. B) somnambulism. C) REM behaviour disorder. D) nightmares. QuestionID: 05-4-66 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: A) night terrors. 67. Vanya's legs bother him while he tries to sleep, and he feels the need to constantly move them into different positions. Sometimes it even causes him to wake up in the middle of the night. Vanya would be most likely to be diagnosed with A) restless legs syndrome. B) terminal insomnia. C) REM behaviour disorder. D) somnambulism. QuestionID: 05-4-67 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: A) restless legs syndrome. 68. Octavia's muscle movements are not inhibited when she is dreaming. As a result, she literally acts out her dreams, sometimes injuring herself in the process. Octavia appears to suffer from A) restless legs syndrome. B) somnambulism. C) narcolepsy. D) REM behaviour disorder.

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QuestionID: 05-4-68 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: D) REM behaviour disorder. 69. REM behaviour disorder results from A) the body not inhibiting movement during NREM sleep. B) an imbalance in orexin. C) the body not inhibiting movement during REM sleep. D) deterioration of the medial hypothalamus. QuestionID: 05-4-69 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: C) the body not inhibiting movement during REM sleep. 70. Which sleep disorder involves people literally acting out their dreams? A) somnambulism B) REM rebound C) REM behaviour disorder D) restless legs syndrome QuestionID: 05-4-70 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: C) REM behaviour disorder 71. __________ involve(s) wandering during NREM sleep. A) Night terrors B) Somnambulism C) REM behaviour disorder D) Restless legs syndrome QuestionID: 05-4-71 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: B) Somnambulism 72. Which of the following is TRUE about sleepwalking? A) Waking a sleepwalker can cause severe psychological distress in the sleeping individual. B) Sleepwalking is a sign of an underlying emotional disturbance. C) Sleepwalking involves acting out dreams. D) Sleepwalking is more prevalent in childhood. QuestionID: 05-4-72 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: D) Sleepwalking is more prevalent in childhood. 73. Sleep apnea is a disorder in which

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

a person suddenly falls asleep without warning during the day. a person has difficulty remaining asleep. a person periodically stops breathing during sleep. a person experiences a persistent discomfort in their legs.

QuestionID: 05-4-73 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: C) a person periodically stops breathing during sleep. 74. ___________________ is a disorder in which breathing briefly stops during sleep, causing the person to gasp for air. A) Sleep apnea B) Insomnia C) Narcolepsy D) Non-REM sleep QuestionID: 05-4-74 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: A) Sleep apnea 75. _______ is a disorder that may require the use of a machine to force air gently into the nasal passages. A) Sleep apnea B) Terminal insomnia C) Narcolepsy D) Orexin-deficiency QuestionID: 05-4-75 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: A) Sleep apnea 76. If your physician says you need a treatment called a CPAP device, you are likely suffering from A) maintenance insomnia. B) narcolepsy. C) sleep apnea. D) terminal insomnia. QuestionID: 05-4-76 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: C) sleep apnea. 77. Narcolepsy involves A) unpredictable daytime attacks of sleep. B) brief interruptions in breathing during sleep. C) acting out dreams. D) the inability to get to sleep or maintain sleep. QuestionID: 05-4-77 Skill: Factual

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Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: A) unpredictable daytime attacks of sleep. 78. When Omercan was a teenager, he began experiencing periods when he had a lot of trouble staying awake during the day, even though he was getting enough sleep each night. He would also experience sudden sleep "attacks" where he would collapse to the floor in the middle of an activity. Omercan suffered from A) sleep apnea. B) terminal insomnia. C) narcolepsy. D) REM behaviour disorder. QuestionID: 05-4-78 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: C) narcolepsy. 79. _______________ is a sleep disorder involving excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden, unpredictable lapses into sleep. A) Sleep apnea B) Terminal insomnia C) Narcolepsy D) REM behaviour disorder QuestionID: 05-4-79 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: C) Narcolepsy 80. Sleep displacement would occur in which scenario? A) flying from Victoria, BC, to Moncton, NB B) flying from Toronto, ON, to Regina SK C) flying from Halifax, NS, to Calgary AB D) flying from St. John's, NL, to Montreal QC QuestionID: 05-4-80 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: A) flying from Victoria, BC, to Moncton, NB 81. Asha has had trouble sleeping for the last three nights. Tonight, she is planning on drinking a couple of glasses of wine before bed to help her get to sleep. Which of the following is true about Asha's plan? A) Although excessive alcohol use should be avoided, having one or two drinks is an effective way to get a good night's sleep. B) Drinking alcohol before bedtime can lead to increased arousal. C) Alcohol may encourage sleep, but it disrupts the quality of sleep, making people feel less rested the next day. D) Alcohol has no effect on sleep duration or quality. QuestionID: 05-4-81 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1d Apply your knowledge to identify and practise good sleep habits. Answer: C) Alcohol may encourage sleep, but it disrupts the quality of sleep, making people feel less rested the next day.

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82. Which of the following is a problem with many of the drugs used to treat insomnia? A) People can become dependent on the drugs and cannot sleep without them. B) They only work for terminal insomnia but not for onset insomnia. C) People tend to develop an increased sensitivity to the drugs (i.e., the same dose has a greater effect over time) which can lead to overdoses. D) Although they tend to cure insomnia, they can lead to other sleep disorders such as narcolepsy. QuestionID: 05-4-82 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1d Apply your knowledge to identify and practise good sleep habits. Answer: A) People can become dependent on the drugs and cannot sleep without them. 83. Your textbook recommends which of the following to improve sleep? A) exercising an hour before bedtime B) focus on thinking about falling asleep C) forcing yourself to stay in bed until you fall asleep D) waking up at the same time each morning QuestionID: 05-4-83 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.1d Apply your knowledge to identify and practise good sleep habits. Answer: D) waking up at the same time each morning 84. ________ is a procedure of inducing a heightened state of suggestibility. A) Hypnosis B) Mind-wandering C) Dissociation D) Psychoanalytic control QuestionID: 05-4-84 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.2c Apply your knowledge of hypnosis to identify what it can and cannot do. Answer: A) Hypnosis 85. Hypnosis can be best described as A) a subtle form of mind control. B) a window into the unconscious. C) inducing a heightened state of suggestibility. D) a trancelike state. QuestionID: 05-4-85 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.2a Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, mind-wandering, and disorders of consciousness. Answer: C) inducing a heightened state of suggestibility. 86. A hypnotist tells a subject that he will have trouble lifting his arms. This is an example of a(n) _______________suggestion. A) ideomotor B) challenge C) cognitive-perceptual D) paralysis

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QuestionID: 05-4-86 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.2a Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, mind-wandering, and disorders of consciousness. Answer: B) challenge 87. How does the dissociation theory explain hypnosis? A) Hypnosis is only as powerful as the individual believes it will be. B) People act out what they believe others are expecting. C) During hypnosis, the consciousness is divided into two parts. D) Hypnosis allows us to dissociate our values from our actions. QuestionID: 05-4-87 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.2b Understand the competing theories of hypnosis. Answer: C) During hypnosis, the consciousness is divided into two parts. 88. The __________________theory explains hypnosis by emphasizing the degree to which beliefs and expectations contribute to increased suggestibility. A) cognitive-perceptual B) dissociation C) placebo D) social-cognitive QuestionID: 05-4-88 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.2b Understand the competing theories of hypnosis. Answer: D) social-cognitive 89. Which of the following is true regarding the general effectiveness of hypnosis for the treatment of issues such as anxiety, depression, or addiction? A) Research suggests hypnosis may be more effective than many traditional forms of treatment. B) Hypnosis has been found to be equally as effective as cognitive-behavioural treatment. C) Although hypnosis is typically effective for approximately 80% of people, one-fifth do not show any improvement. D) Hypnosis shows some promise when combined with other proven treatments. QuestionID: 05-4-89 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.2c Apply your knowledge of hypnosis to identify what it can and cannot do. Answer: D) Hypnosis shows some promise when combined with other proven treatments. 90. The textbook authors argue that because of its relative safety and low cost, hypnosis might become a preferred method for A) treating acute pain. B) weight-loss. C) recovering lost memories. D) smoking cessation. QuestionID: 05-4-90 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.2c Apply your knowledge of hypnosis to identify what it can and cannot do.

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Answer: A) treating acute pain. 91. A study reported in your textbook found that hypnosis is generally more effective for ____________ pain than for treating ___________ pain. A) acute; chronic B) chronic; acute C) muscle; nerve D) nerve; muscle QuestionID: 05-4-91 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.2c Apply your knowledge of hypnosis to identify what it can and cannot do. Answer: A) acute; chronic 92. Why do responsible psychologists not use hypnotherapy? A) It is a technique that can only be used by trained interrogation officers. B) Individuals can recall repressed childhood memories which can be traumatic. C) People under hypnosis are vulnerable to prompts and suggestions, and can create a false memory. D) The recovery of repressed memories through the use of hypnosis can lead to additional psychological disorders, such as post-traumatic stress disorder. QuestionID: 05-4-92 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.2c Apply your knowledge of hypnosis to identify what it can and cannot do. Answer: C) People under hypnosis are vulnerable to prompts and suggestions, and can create a false memory. 93. An unintentional redirection of attention from one's current task to an unrelated train of thought is known as A) a trance. B) mind-wandering. C) hypnosis. D) a minimally conscious state. QuestionID: 05-4-93 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.2a Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, mind-wandering, and disorders of consciousness. Answer: B) mind-wandering. 94. Although Dena's Introduction to Psychology professor is very engaging, during the Friday lecture, Dena finds herself thinking about her weekend plans. This is an example of A) self-hypnosis. B) sustained attention. C) brain deactivation. D) mind-wandering. QuestionID: 05-4-94 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.2a Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, mind-wandering, and disorders of consciousness. Answer: D) mind-wandering. 95. The default mode network is most active when an individual is A) awake and responding to external stimuli. B) focused on a single task.

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C) awake but not responding to external stimuli. D) asked to memorize a list of random words. QuestionID: 05-4-95 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.2d Analyze the effectiveness of using neuroimaging to study mind-wandering. Answer: C) awake but not responding to external stimuli. 96. Omar is thinking about his plans after graduation. He's trying to determine if it's a good idea to take a year off and travel, or immediately start his Master's degree. If you were to image Omar's brain using an fMRI, you would likely see activation in the A) frontoparietal network. B) default mode network. C) temporal lobes. D) nucleus accumbens. QuestionID: 05-4-96 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.2d Analyze the effectiveness of using neuroimaging to study mind-wandering. Answer: A) frontoparietal network. 97. What is the correct order of disorders from the most to least severe? A) minimally conscious state, persistent vegetative state, coma B) coma, persistent vegetative state, minimally conscious state C) persistent vegetative state, coma, minimally conscious state D) minimally conscious state, coma, persistent vegetative state QuestionID: 05-4-97 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 5.2a Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, mind-wandering, and disorders of consciousness. Answer: B) coma, persistent vegetative state, minimally conscious state 98. Following a car accident, Missy has only minimal consciousness. Sometimes her eyes may open, and she spends part of her time seemingly awake (i.e., not sleeping), but there are no clear signs of consciousness. Medical professionals would most accurately describe her condition as a A) minimally conscious state. B) coma. C) persistent vegetative state. D) dissociative state. QuestionID: 05-4-98 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.2a Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, mind-wandering, and disorders of consciousness. Answer: C) persistent vegetative state. 99. The most common assessment tool to measure an individual's state of consciousness is A) the Global Consciousness Scale. B) the Glasgow Coma Scale. C) functional magnetic resonance imaging. D) positron emission tomography. QuestionID: 05-4-99

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Skill: Factual Objective: Analyze the ability of researchers to detect consciousness in brain-damaged patients. Answer: B) the Glasgow Coma Scale. 100. Following a severe stroke, Adam can no longer move his body at all. Although he can hear, see, and understand those around him, he cannot speak and appears to be unconscious. Adam is likely in a A) minimally conscious state. B) coma. C) persistent vegetative state. D) locked-in state. QuestionID: 05-4-100 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.2a Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, mind-wandering, and disorders of consciousness. Answer: D) locked-in state. 101. THC, the active ingredient in marijuana, mimics the effects of the neurotransmitter anandamide. Thus, THC would be considered a(n) A) agonist. B) antagonist. C) excitatory drug. D) stimulant. QuestionID: 05-4-101 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: A) agonist. 102. Caffeine is considered a(n) ________ because it exerts its stimulant effects by blocking the receptors for adenosine. A) agonist B) antagonist C) reverse agonist D) therapeutic QuestionID: 05-4-102 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: B) antagonist 103. _________ is the neurotransmitter most often influenced by drugs. A) GABA B) Glutamate C) Adenosine D) Dopamine QuestionID: 05-4-103 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

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Answer: D) Dopamine 104. Activity in the ____________ and ___________ is related to the "high" associated with many drugs. A) nucleus accumbens; ventral tegmental area B) cerebellum; midbrain C) frontal cortex; brain stem D) prefrontal cortex; midbrain QuestionID: 05-4-104 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: A) nucleus accumbens; ventral tegmental area 105. Chemical substances that change emotions and perceptions are called __________ drugs. A) psychosomatic B) agonistic C) psychoactive D) therapeutic QuestionID: 05-4-105 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: C) psychoactive 106. Cocaine is an example of a(n) A) opiate. B) stimulant. C) barbiturate. D) hallucinogen. QuestionID: 05-4-106 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: B) stimulant. 107. A drug that speeds up activity of the nervous system would be classified as a(n) A) excitatory drug. B) agonist. C) stimulant. D) hallucinogen. QuestionID: 05-4-107 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: C) stimulant. 108. Ritalin and modafinil are both types of __________ and are classified as _________.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

amphetamines; stimulants amphetamines; hallucinogens methamphetamine; stimulants methamphetamine; hallucinogens

QuestionID: 05-4-108 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: B) amphetamines; hallucinogens 109. Which of the following drugs is a stimulant? A) OxyContin B) fentanyl C) crystal meth D) psilocybin QuestionID: 05-4-109 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: C) crystal meth 110. Despite its dangers, Jason continues to take cocaine because of the feeling of euphoria it produces for him. This powerful arousal of his nervous system is probably due to cocaine's ability to A) inhibit enzymes that break down endorphins. B) increase the release of dopamine. C) block the receptor sites for endorphins. D) prevent dopamine from being reabsorbed into presynaptic terminals. QuestionID: 05-4-110 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: D) prevent dopamine from being reabsorbed into presynaptic terminals. 111. Alexa is at a club dancing, when someone offers her a pill. Soon after taking the drug, she begins to start hugging her friends and telling them how close she feels to them. She also experiences some minor visual hallucinations before passing out from dehydration and heat stroke. What was the pill that Alexa most likely took? A) methamphetamine B) ecstasy (MDMA) C) ketamine D) salvia QuestionID: 05-4-111 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: B) ecstasy (MDMA) 112. Doug and his friends all take LSD. Which of the following effects are they likely to experience?

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

wakefulness, alertness, and shortened reaction time reduced anxiety and tension, and sedation a mixture of stimulant and narcotic effects powerful emotions and perceptual distortions

QuestionID: 05-4-112 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: D) powerful emotions and perceptual distortions 113. Which of the following drugs is known to induce perceptual distortions and dream-like states? A) ketamine B) barbiturates C) crystal meth D) heroin QuestionID: 05-4-113 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: A) ketamine 114. Which of the following statements about salvia is TRUE? A) There is no scientific evidence that salvia has any healing properties. B) The sale of salvia is legal in Canada. C) The use of salvia is decreasing among young Canadians. D) Salvia is classified as an opiate. QuestionID: 05-4-114 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3d Analyze the difference between spiritual and recreational drug use. Answer: A) There is no scientific evidence that salvia has any healing properties. 115. THC, the active ingredient in marijuana, exerts its effects by A) blocking the receptors for glutamate. B) binding to cannabinoid receptors. C) stimulating the release of serotonin. D) blocking the receptors for adenosine. QuestionID: 05-4-115 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: B) binding to cannabinoid receptors. 116. Long-term marijuana use has been linked to A) enhanced executive functions. B) a four-point increase in IQ scores. C) a decrease in both grey and white matter in the brain areas associated with memory. D) no serious cognitive consequences.

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QuestionID: 05-4-116 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: C) a decrease in both grey and white matter in the brain areas associated with memory. 117. Which of the following drugs is an opiate? A) mescaline B) psilocybin C) LSD D) heroin QuestionID: 05-4-117 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: D) heroin 118. __________ bind to endorphin receptors and mimic the action of endorphins. A) Barbiturates B) Opiates C) Sedatives D) Hallucinogens QuestionID: 05-4-118 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: B) Opiates 119. Elsa has just had major abdominal surgery and is in great pain. She asks her doctor if there is a medication that will relieve the pain from her injury. Which of the following is her doctor most likely to prescribe? A) a sedative B) amphetamine C) an opiate D) a hallucinogen QuestionID: 05-4-119 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: C) an opiate 120. Which of the following is a sedative? A) nicotine B) barbiturates C) heroin D) mescaline QuestionID: 05-4-120 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system

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and behaviour. Answer: B) barbiturates 121. Shateesh takes a moderate dose of a benzodiazepine. She is likely to experience A) wakefulness, alertness, and shortened reaction time. B) reduced anxiety and panic, and sedation. C) euphoria and relief from pain. D) exhilaration, visions, and hallucinations. QuestionID: 05-4-121 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: B) reduced anxiety and panic, and sedation. 122. The major difference between benzodiazepines and barbiturates is that A) barbiturates do not target the brain areas responsible for breathing, and so are safer than benzodiazepines. B) benzodiazepines target glutamate while barbiturates target GABA. C) benzodiazepines do not target the brain areas responsible for breathing, and so are safer than barbiturates. D) barbiturates increase REM sleep while benzodiazepines do not affect sleep quality. QuestionID: 05-4-122 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: C) benzodiazepines do not target the brain areas responsible for breathing, and so are safer than barbiturates. 123. Prescription drugs A) are only used by a small number of illicit users. B) are typically only used if "street" drugs are unavailable. C) are safer and less addictive than recreational drugs. D) are commonly used in Canada. QuestionID: 05-4-123 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: D) are commonly used in Canada. 124. Alcohol has a ______________ effect on the nervous system by _______________ the activity of GABA. A) depressing; facilitating B) stimulating; facilitating C) depressing; inhibiting D) stimulating; inhibiting QuestionID: 05-4-124 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: A) depressing; facilitating

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125. Compared to their peers who do not attend universities, university students drink _______________ alcohol. A) significantly less B) significantly more C) approximately the same amount of D) significantly less, but are more likely to binge when they do drink QuestionID: 05-4-125 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: B) significantly more 126. The phenomenon whereby higher doses of a drug are required to produce its original effects is known as A) physical dependence. B) psychological dependence. C) tolerance. D) withdrawal. QuestionID: 05-4-126 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3b Understand drug tolerance and dependence. Answer: C) tolerance. 127. The need to take a drug in order to avoid physical withdrawal symptoms is called A) psychological dependence. B) tolerance. C) physical anticipation. D) physical dependence. QuestionID: 05-4-127 Skill: Factual Objective: 5.3b Understand drug tolerance and dependence. Answer: D) physical dependence. 128. Dylan has been smoking marijuana whenever he feels stressed or anxious, for the last 8 years. He finds that if he doesn't use marijuana, he can't cope with his negative emotions. Dylan has likely developed a(n) A) tolerance to marijuana. B) psychological dependence for marijuana. C) physical dependence for marijuana. D) an insensitivity to marijuana. QuestionID: 05-4-128 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.3b Understand drug tolerance and dependence. Answer: B) psychological dependence for marijuana. 129. Bella uses her cell phone in bed, right before she falls asleep. Which of the following hormones would decrease in her body when she uses the cell phone? A) adrenaline B) melatonin C) orexin D) adenosine

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QuestionID: 05-4-129 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: B) melatonin 130. David wants to change his e-reader settings because the light the e-reader emits has an influence on his sleep. Which of the following is most likely true? A) His e-reader emits blue light and he will change it to orange. B) His e-reader emits orange light and he will change it to blue. C) His e-reader emits red light and he will change it to orange. D) His e-reader emits orange light and he will change it to red. QuestionID: 05-4-130 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: A) His e-reader emits blue light and he will change it to orange. 131. Pam has developed a habit of using her tablet before sleeping and she has a difficult time falling asleep. A part of her hypothalamus is triggered by the blue light emitted by the screen and a particular hormone level declines as a consequence. Which part of her hypothalamus is triggered and what is the hormone? A) paraventricular nucleus; orexin B) ventromedial nucleus; melatonin C) anterior hypothalamic; orexin D) suprachiasmatic nucleus; melatonin QuestionID: 05-4-131 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: D) suprachiasmatic nucleus; melatonin 132. Which of the following is TRUE, according to your textbook, with regards to the decriminalization of drug use? A) Decriminalization has reduced drug use significantly. B) Decriminalization has increased drug use significantly. C) Decriminalization has not change drug use significantly. D) There is need for more research on decriminalization of drug use. QuestionID: 05-4-132 Skill: Applied Objective: 5.3e Analyze the short- and long-term effects of drug use. Answer: C) Decriminalization has not change drug use significantly. 133. Which of the following is TRUE, according to your textbook, with regards to the legalization of marijuana in Canada? A) Legalization has reduced marijuana use significantly. B) Legalization has increased marijuana use significantly. C) Legalization has not change marijuana use significantly. D) It remains to be seen whether legalization will affect the use of marijuana. QuestionID: 05-4-133 Skill: Applied

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Objective: 5.3e Analyze the short- and long-term effects of drug use. Answer: C) Legalization has not change marijuana use significantly. Supplementary Questions 1. Our awareness of various mental processes such as making decisions, daydreaming, reflecting, and concentrating is called A) intelligence. B) consciousness. C) self-awareness. D) creativity. QuestionID: 05-5-01 Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: B) consciousness. 2. The pea-sized gland that is stimulated by light and helps regulate activity levels over the course of a day is the __________ gland. A) adrenal B) pituitary C) pineal D) thyroid QuestionID: 05-5-02 Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: C) pineal 3. The low-voltage brain waves produced during relaxed wakefulness or the twilight stage between waking and sleeping are called __________ waves. A) alpha B) beta C) delta D) theta QuestionID: 05-5-03 Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: A) alpha 4. The deepest stage of sleep is __________ sleep. A) stage 1 B) stage 2 C) REM D) stage 4 QuestionID: 05-5-04 Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: D) stage 4 5. If Alice's strange adventures in Wonderland were actually the dreams of a young girl, they probably occurred when she was in __________ sleep. A) stage 1

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B) stage 2 C) stage 4 D) REM QuestionID: 05-5-05 Objective: 5.1b Understand how the sleep cycle works. Answer: D) REM 6. ________________ is to acting out your dreams as ________________ is to walking while asleep but engaging in relatively little activity otherwise. A) Somnambulism; cataplexy B) Restless legs syndrome; REM behaviour disorder C) REM behaviour disorder; somnambulism D) Cataplexy; restless legs syndrome QuestionID: 05-5-06 Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: C) REM behaviour disorder; somnambulism 7. The trancelike state in which a subject responds readily to suggestions is A) stage 4 sleep. B) hypnosis. C) coma. D) meditation. QuestionID: 05-5-07 Objective: 5.2a Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, mind-wandering, and disorders of consciousness. Answer: B) hypnosis. 8. Which statement reflects one of the misconceptions about hypnosis? A) Amazing experiences in hypnotized subjects are likely due to suggestibility and stage whispers. B) Brain waves of hypnotized subjects are different from those of subjects who are asleep. C) Hypnotized people are fully aware of their surroundings. D) Hypnosis improves memory and can help individuals recover memories of experiences they have forgotten. QuestionID: 05-5-08 Objective: 5.2c Apply your knowledge of hypnosis to identify what it can and cannot do. Answer: D) Hypnosis improves memory and can help individuals recover memories of experiences they have forgotten. 9. Amphetamines are A) barbiturates. B) stimulants. C) hallucinogens. D) opiates. QuestionID: 05-5-09 Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: B) stimulants. 10. Drugs that activate the sympathetic nervous system and produce feelings of optimism and boundless energy

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are called A) hallucinogens. B) opiates. C) barbiturates. D) stimulants. QuestionID: 05-5-10 Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: D) stimulants. 11. The active ingredient in marijuana is A) PCB. B) THC. C) LSD. D) PCP. QuestionID: 05-5-11 Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour. Answer: B) THC. True-False Questions 1. Melatonin, a hormone involved in the regulation of circadian rhythms, is secreted by the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the hypothalamus. a True b False QuestionID: 05-6-01 Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: b. False 2. Sigmund Freud would agree that the key to a dream's meaning will be found in its manifest content. a True b False QuestionID: 05-6-02 Objective: 5.1c Understand theories of why we sleep. Answer: b. False 3. The "preserve and protect" theory of dreaming states that the purpose of dreaming is to reduce the likelihood of people encountering predators. a True b False QuestionID: 05-6-03 Objective: 5.1c Understand theories of why we sleep. Answer: a. True 4. Insomnia is a disorder characterized by the temporary inability to breathe during sleep and results in the

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person gasping for air. a True b False QuestionID: 05-6-04 Objective: 5.1a Know the key terminology associated with sleep, dreams, and sleep disorders. Answer: b. False 5. One technique to improve sleep is to stay in bed for 30 minutes. If you are not asleep by then, get up and do something else until you are about to fall asleep, then return to bed. a True b False QuestionID: 05-6-05 Objective: 5.1d Apply your knowledge to identify and practise good sleep habits. Answer: a. True 6. Hypnosis has been shown to be an effective, long-term strategy to quit smoking for most people who tried the treatment. a True b False QuestionID: 05-6-06 Objective: 5.2c Apply your knowledge of hypnosis to identify what it can and cannot do. Answer: b. False 7. Hypnosis increases the overall accuracy of memory and can help individuals retrieve forgotten memories. a True b False QuestionID: 05-6-07 Objective: 5.2c Apply your knowledge of hypnosis to identify what it can and cannot do. Answer: b. False 8. There is hope for recovery if the patient improves within the first few months of persistent vegetative state (PVS), but the chances for recovery decrease sharply between 6 and 12 months. a True b False QuestionID: 05-6-08 Objective: 5.2a Know the key terminology associated with hypnosis, mind-wandering, and disorders of consciousness. Answer: a. True 9. Cocaine is a natural drug that is synthesized from leaves. a True b False QuestionID: 05-6-09 Objective: 5.3a Know the key terminology related to different categories of drugs and their effects on the nervous system and behaviour.

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Answer: a. True 10. Relatively few people use prescription drugs for nonmedical purposes. a True b False QuestionID: 05-6-10 Objective: 5.3d Analyze the difference between spiritual and recreational drug use. Answer: b. False

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Chapter 6 : Learning Chapter Quiz Questions 1. In classical conditioning, a(n) _____ becomes a(n) _____, which elicits a response. A) neutral stimulus; conditioned stimulus B) neutral stimulus; unconditioned stimulus C) unconditioned stimulus; conditioned stimulus D) unconditioned stimulus; neutral stimulus QuestionID: 06-1-01 Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: A) neutral stimulus; conditioned stimulus 2. Most mornings, Becky listens to her favourite song as she gets ready for work, including putting in her contact lenses. One afternoon, Becky hears her favourite song playing, and her eyes start watering—something that usually only happens when she puts in her contacts. If this is an example of classical conditioning, what is the unconditioned stimulus? A) eye watering B) Becky's contacts C) the song D) getting ready for work QuestionID: 06-1-02 Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: B) Becky's contacts 3. Salivating in response to the specific bell that was used during training, but not to any other bells, is an example of A) generalization. B) extinction. C) operant conditioning. D) discrimination. QuestionID: 06-1-03 Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: D) discrimination. 4. How would Watson have explained why many people have a phobia of flying on airplanes? A) Flying is unnatural for human beings. B) The brain has difficulty understanding how something heavy can fly. C) Extensive news coverage of airplane crashes cause people to associate airplanes with danger. D) People with a flying phobia are actually afraid of being trapped in small spaces. QuestionID: 06-1-04 Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: C) Extensive news coverage of airplane crashes cause people to associate airplanes with danger. 5. An important distinction between classical and operant conditioning is that A) classical conditioning involves voluntary responding to stimuli, while operant conditioning involves involuntary .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

responding to stimuli. B) classical conditioning involves reinforcement of behaviour, while operant conditioning involves punishment of behaviour. C) classical conditioning involves cognitive learning of behaviours, while operant conditioning involves associative learning of behaviours. D) responding does not affect the presentation of stimuli in classical conditioning, but in operant conditioning responding has consequences. QuestionID: 06-1-05 Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: D) responding does not affect the presentation of stimuli in classical conditioning, but in operant conditioning responding has consequences. 6. The word negative in the term negative reinforcement refers to A) the removal of a stimulus. B) an unwanted conditioned behaviour. C) the use of punishment. D) the use of an unpleasant stimulus. QuestionID: 06-1-06 Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: A) the removal of a stimulus. 7. A rat is conditioned to press a lever for food. One day, a food pellet jams in the automatic feeder and the rat no longer receives food after pressing the lever. After a few minutes, the rat eventually stops pressing the lever. This is an example of A) negative reinforcement. B) extinction. C) classical conditioning. D) avoidance learning. QuestionID: 06-1-07 Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: B) extinction. 8. All other things being equal, an animal trained on which of the following schedules of reinforcement should experience extinction most quickly when the reinforcement is removed? A) fixed-interval schedule B) fixed-ratio schedule C) variable-ratio schedule D) variable-interval schedule QuestionID: 06-1-08 Objective: 6.2c Understand how schedules of reinforcement affect behaviour. Answer: B) fixed-ratio schedule 9. Learning that occurs but is not expressed until later is called A) observational learning. B) classical conditioning. C) latent learning. D) discriminative learning.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 06-1-09 Objective: 6.3b Understand the concept of latent learning and its relevance to cognitive aspects of learning. Answer: C) latent learning. 10. Which of the following statements best describes our current understanding of the relationship between exposure to media violence and future aggression? A) There is no relationship between media violence and aggression. B) Media violence clearly causes aggression. C) There is a positive correlation between media violence and aggression. D) There is a negative correlation between media violence and aggression. QuestionID: 06-1-10 Objective: 6.3d Analyze the claim that viewing violent media increases violent behaviour. Answer: C) There is a positive correlation between media violence and aggression. Essay Questions 1. Suppose your friend owns a camera that makes a beeping noise one second before the flash goes off. After taking your photo many times, your friend starts to complain that you are always blinking in her photos. Explain what is likely happening using the following terminology: conditioned stimulus (CS), unconditioned stimulus (US), conditioned response (CR), and unconditioned response (UR). QuestionID: 06-2-01 Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: At first, the beep is a neutral stimulus that precedes the flash, which is a US that causes the UR of blinking. After a few trials, you learn that the beep predicts the flash and the neutral beep becomes a CS causing the CR of blinking. When this happens, you begin to blink as soon as you hear the beep (CS), causing your eyes to be closed (CR) when the flash goes off and the picture is taken. To summarize, the flash is the US that causes the UR of blinking. The beep becomes the CS that causes the CR of blinking. 2. How is it possible to tell the difference between examples of classical and operant conditioning? Describe the key differences between the two types of learning. QuestionID: 06-2-02 Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Classical conditioning is a form of learning that occurs when a neutral stimulus elicits a response that was originally caused by another stimulus. It has the following properties: * A response is not required for a reward (or unconditioned stimulus) to be presented. * The target response is automatic. * Behaviour tends to depend mostly on the autonomic nervous system or other reflexive systems. - Operant conditioning is a type of learning in which behaviour is influenced by consequence. It has the following properties: * Reinforcement (or punishment) is only presented if a specific response is made. * The target response is voluntary. * Behaviour tends to depend mostly on skeletal muscles. 3. Principles of operant conditioning have been used to help explain why people get attached to "lucky" hats, charms, and rituals. Using these principles, explain how an athlete might show this type of behaviour. How did Skinner demonstrate the phenomenon of superstitious behaviour with pigeons in his laboratory? QuestionID: 06-2-03 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: Athletes experience variable reinforcement when they pitch well or catch a fly ball. In cases where they are successful, they will be looking for a reason why they were successful that time (but not other times), and will look at things they did differently in the scenario where they found success. So, an article of clothing or a particular action that preceded the successful, reinforcing event may be mistakenly thought to have been somehow linked to the reinforcing event. If an athlete chooses a superstition and is successful, this just reinforces the superstition further and causes more attachment to the item or behaviour. Skinner demonstrated superstitious behaviour with pigeons by reinforcing the pigeons every 15 seconds, no matter what action they were doing. He noted that the pigeons tended to repeat the behaviour they were doing right before they were last reinforced, even though it was unrelated to reinforcement. Fill-in-the-blank Questions 1. Learning that involves processes such as reading, listening, and test taking is called __________ learning. QuestionID: 06-3-01 Objective: 6.3a Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning. Answer: a. cognitive 2. When one of Pavlov's dogs salivated in response to the food, the salivation was a(n) __________ , but when the dogs salivated to the sound of a metronome, the salivation should be called a(n) __________ . QuestionID: 06-3-02 Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: a. unconditioned response/b. conditioned response 3. Repeatedly presenting the conditioned stimulus in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus will eventually lead to __________ . QuestionID: 06-3-03 Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: a. extinction 4. John Watson and Rosalie Rayner demonstrated that people suffering from __________ may have been accidentally conditioned to have emotional responses to specific stimuli or situations. QuestionID: 06-3-04 Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: a. phobias 5. One reason why drug users increase their dosages over time is a classical conditioning phenomenon known as __________ , which involves physiological responses in preparation for drug administration. QuestionID: 06-3-05 Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: a. conditioned drug tolerance 6. Due to the evolutionary explanation known as __________ , humans are more likely to exhibit a fear response toward a picture of a snake compared to a picture of a gun, even though guns kill more people than snakes. QuestionID: 06-3-06 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 6.1c Understand the role of biological and evolutionary factors in classical conditioning. Answer: a. preparedness 7. When researchers want to use operant conditioning to train animals to perform complicated behaviours, they must use a step-by-step procedure called __________ . QuestionID: 06-3-07 Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: a. shaping 8. A slot machine is a classic example of a(n) __________ schedule of reinforcement because players never know how many times they will have to pull the arm before they win again. QuestionID: 06-3-08 Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: a. variable-ratio 9. The four processes involved in __________ include attention to the act or behaviour, memory of it, the ability to reproduce it, and the motivation to do so. QuestionID: 06-3-09 Objective: 6.3a Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning. Answer: a. observational learning 10. One of the primary mechanisms that allows observational learning to take place is __________ , the recreating of a motor behaviour or expression, often to accomplish a specific goal. QuestionID: 06-3-10 Objective: 6.3a Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning. Answer: a. imitation 11. One of the difficulties in demonstrating that exposure to media violence increases aggression is the fact that much of the research on media violence and aggression relies on __________ designs, which do not allow researchers to determine cause-and-effect relationships. QuestionID: 06-3-11 Objective: 6.3d Analyze the claim that viewing violent media increases violent behaviour. Answer: a. correlational Multiple-Choice Questions 1. __________ is a change in an organism's behaviour or knowledge brought about by experience. A) Learning B) Generalization C) Spontaneous recovery D) Accommodation QuestionID: 06-4-01 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: A) Learning 2. Which of the following is true of learning? A) Learning is the process that allows a species to slowly adapt over generations. B) All learning involves the acquisition of new knowledge and information. C) Learning involves a change in behaviour or knowledge as a result of experience. D) Humans are the only species known to be capable of true learning. QuestionID: 06-4-02 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: C) Learning involves a change in behaviour or knowledge as a result of experience. 3. Typically, studying for a test would be an example of ______________ learning. A) cognitive B) observational C) classical D) associative QuestionID: 06-4-03 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: A) cognitive 4. For Kyle, the smell of freshly baked cookies will always be connected to the memory of his grandmother. This is an example of which type of learning? A) cognitive B) observational C) latent D) associative QuestionID: 06-4-04 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: D) associative 5. __________ was the first scientist to describe learning as acquired through classical conditioning. A) John Watson B) Ivan Pavlov C) B. F. Skinner D) Albert Bandura QuestionID: 06-4-05 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: B) Ivan Pavlov 6. Pavlov received a Nobel Prize for his research on A) classical conditioning. B) operant conditioning. C) digestive processes. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) latent learning. QuestionID: 06-4-06 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: C) digestive processes. 7. In the field of learning, Ivan Pavlov is known for the discovery of A) observational learning. B) latent learning. C) operant conditioning. D) classical conditioning. QuestionID: 06-4-07 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: D) classical conditioning. 8. When a neutral stimulus elicits the same response that was originally elicited by another stimulus, it is known as A) cognitive learning. B) classical conditioning. C) operant conditioning. D) observational learning. QuestionID: 06-4-08 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: B) classical conditioning. 9. In classical conditioning, the term neutral is used to indicate that a stimulus A) will never be suitable to elicit a response. B) is a primary reinforcer. C) does not initially elicit a response. D) cannot be detected by the subject. QuestionID: 06-4-09 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: C) does not initially elicit a response. 10. Which of the following is considered to be a stimulus? A) blinking B) pain C) salivation D) fear QuestionID: 06-4-10 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: B) pain .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

11. In classical conditioning, the unconditioned stimulus is A) the stimulus that triggers a response after being paired with a conditioned stimulus. B) the stimulus that triggers a conditioned response. C) the stimulus that triggers a response after being paired with another stimulus. D) the stimulus that triggers a response without prior learning. QuestionID: 06-4-11 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: D) the stimulus that triggers a response without prior learning. 12. Each time Amelia feeds her pet parrot Pete, she walks into the room and says, "Good morning, Pete!" She now notices that as soon as Pete hears her say "Good morning!" he starts fluttering around his cage in excitement. In this example, the food is the A) conditioned stimulus. B) unconditioned response. C) conditioned response. D) unconditioned stimulus. QuestionID: 06-4-12 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: D) unconditioned stimulus. 13. Every week, Jade spends her allowance on sour lemon gummy candies, even though they always make her mouth water. One day, as she is walking down the street, Jade sees a girl carrying a little white bag that looks like a candy shop bag! Jade notices that her mouth starts to salivate. In this example, the unconditioned stimulus is the A) little white bag. B) walk to the store. C) salivation. D) sour lemon gummy candy. QuestionID: 06-4-13 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: D) sour lemon gummy candy. 14. Which of the following illustrates an unconditioned stimulus (US)? A) blinking when air is blown into your eye B) blinking when you hear your favourite song C) your favourite song D) a puff of air to your eye QuestionID: 06-4-14 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: D) a puff of air to your eye 15. When Kira kissed Laura, Laura's heart rate increased. Asha always wore vanilla-scented perfume. Whenever Laura smells vanilla, her heart races. Kira's kiss, in this example, was the .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

unconditioned stimulus. unconditioned response. conditioned stimulus. conditioned response.

QuestionID: 06-4-15 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: A) unconditioned stimulus. 16. Alan always turns the aquarium light on before putting fish food into the tank. After a while he notices that the fish swim to the top to look for the food as soon as he turns on the light. In this example, __________ is the unconditioned stimulus (US). A) Alan B) the opening of the tank C) the fish food D) the aquarium light QuestionID: 06-4-16 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: C) the fish food 17. Because dogs do not need to learn to salivate to food, salivation to food is a(n) A) conditioned response. B) conditioned reflex. C) unconditioned response. D) neutral response. QuestionID: 06-4-17 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: C) unconditioned response. 18. Salivation in response to food being placed in the mouth and an eye blink response to a puff of air are both examples of A) unconditioned stimuli. B) conditioned responses. C) conditioned stimuli. D) unconditioned responses. QuestionID: 06-4-18 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: D) unconditioned responses. 19. An experimenter finds that a male chimpanzee always has an increased heartbeat when he sees a picture of a female chimpanzee. The experimenter starts to present a buzzer just before presenting the picture of the female chimp. The experimenter repeats this procedure until the male chimp responds with an increased heartbeat to the sound of the buzzer alone. In this situation, the unconditioned response (UR) is the A) increased heartbeat. B) female's picture. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) sound of the buzzer. D) experimenter. QuestionID: 06-4-19 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: A) increased heartbeat. 20. The association between the___________ is, by definition, unlearned (that is, it doesn't require prior learning). A) CS and CR B) US and CR C) CS and UR D) US and UR QuestionID: 06-4-20 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: D) US and UR 21. Five-year-old Samantha is watching a storm from her window. A huge bolt of lightning is followed by a tremendous thunderclap. Startled, Samantha jumps at the noise. This happens several times. As the storm moves farther away, Samantha jumps at the sight of a lightning bolt but doesn't hear the thunder until after she jumps! In this example, the unconditioned stimulus is the _______________ and the conditioned stimulus is the _______________. A) thunder; lightning B) jumping; lightning C) lightning; thunder D) thunder; jumping QuestionID: 06-4-21 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: A) thunder; lightning 22. Of the four basic elements of classical conditioning, the _____ is the one the organism learns to respond to. A) US B) UR C) CS D) CR QuestionID: 06-4-22 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: C) CS 23. In Pavlov's "salivating dogs" studies, the CR was A) salivation. B) food. C) sound. D) biting. QuestionID: 06-4-23 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: A) salivation. 24. Each time Tamara's cat jumps on the kitchen counter, she sprays him with a water gun. Eventually, Tamara only has to grab the water gun and her cat will jump down from the counter. In this example, jumping off the counter is the A) conditioned stimulus. B) unconditioned response. C) conditioned response. D) unconditioned stimulus. QuestionID: 06-4-24 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: C) conditioned response. 25. Which of the following statements pertaining to the conditioned response is accurate? A) The conditioned response is elicited by the unconditioned stimulus. B) The conditioned response is an instinctual behaviour. C) The conditioned response is elicited by the conditioned stimulus. D) The conditioned response in classical conditioning is always salivation. QuestionID: 06-4-25 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: C) The conditioned response is elicited by the conditioned stimulus. 26. For several weeks, Matt had to clean the men's restroom at the restaurant where he worked. The task always made him nauseated. He has since gone on to better things, but still cannot walk by the door to a men's restroom without becoming slightly queasy. For Matt, the door to the men's room has become a(n) A) unconditioned stimulus. B) unconditioned response. C) conditioned response. D) conditioned stimulus. QuestionID: 06-4-26 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: D) conditioned stimulus. 27. How would you know if your attempts at classical conditioning have been successful? A) The presentation of the unconditioned stimulus alone, elicits the unconditioned response. B) The presentation of the unconditioned stimulus alone, elicits the conditioned response. C) The presentation of the conditioned stimulus alone, elicits the conditioned response. D) The presentation of the unconditioned response alone, elicits the conditioned response. QuestionID: 06-4-27 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: C) The presentation of the conditioned stimulus alone, elicits the conditioned response. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

28. The initial phase of learning in which a response is first established is known as A) generalization. B) acquisition. C) spontaneous recovery. D) extinction. QuestionID: 06-4-28 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: B) acquisition. 29. ________________is the loss or weakening of a conditioned response when a conditioned stimulus and unconditioned stimulus no longer occur together. A) Generalization B) Forgetting C) Reverse conditioning D) Extinction QuestionID: 06-4-29 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: D) Extinction 30. Extinction occurs in classical conditioning when the ________ no longer produces the ________. A) CS; US B) CS; CR C) US; CR D) US; UR QuestionID: 06-4-30 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: B) CS; CR 31. Tarik trained his pet turtle to snap his mouth in response to the command "snap!" by saying the word just before giving his turtle a treat. However, after saying "snap!" multiple times while showing off his turtle's new trick to all his friends and not giving him a treat, Tarik has noticed the turtle has stopped snapping. This change in behaviour is likely explained by A) extinction. B) spontaneous recovery. C) discrimination. D) generalization. QuestionID: 06-4-31 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: A) extinction. 32. Extinction is believed to be a form of A) learning. B) forgetting. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) operant conditioning. D) generalization. QuestionID: 06-4-32 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: A) learning. 33. Which phenomenon supports the theory that extinction is not a form of forgetting? A) conditioned emotional responding B) spontaneous recovery C) discrimination D) generalization QuestionID: 06-4-33 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: B) spontaneous recovery 34. The reappearance of a learned response after its apparent extinction is called A) generalization. B) reacquisition. C) spontaneous recovery. D) discrimination. QuestionID: 06-4-34 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: C) spontaneous recovery. 35. Alyssa is participating in an experiment. The researcher plays a sound and then applies a puff of air to Alyssa's eye. Eventually, Alyssa blinks when she hears the sound, before the puff of air is delivered. After a number of trials of the researcher presenting just the sound, Alyssa stops blinking. However, when Alyssa visits the lab the following week, the researcher plays the sound and Alyssa blinks. Alyssa's blinking in response to the sound on her return visit, is an example of A) extinction. B) discrimination. C) generalization. D) spontaneous recovery. QuestionID: 06-4-35 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: D) spontaneous recovery. 36. As a child, Blaine was attacked by a goose and subsequently developed a severe fear of waterfowl. As he got older, the fear gradually faded until it was all but forgotten. Blaine is now in his early twenties and recently went strolling through a park by the river where he came across a flock of geese. The geese stared at him and he felt slightly fearful, though not as afraid as he had been as a child. Blaine's fear response to the geese in the park is an example of A) stimulus discrimination. B) stimulus generalization. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) extinction. D) spontaneous recovery. QuestionID: 06-4-36 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: D) spontaneous recovery. 37. You train your dog Milo to salivate to the sound of a bell. Then you ring the bell every five minutes and don't follow the ringing with food for Milo. He salivates less and less and finally stops salivating at all when the bell rings. But the next morning, when you ring the bell, Milo salivates! What term is used to explain the reappearance of this response? A) latent learning B) spontaneous recovery C) extinction D) stimulus generalization QuestionID: 06-4-37 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: B) spontaneous recovery 38. The tendency to respond to a stimulus that is similar to the original conditioned stimulus is called A) generalization. B) adaptation. C) discrimination. D) acquisition. QuestionID: 06-4-38 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: A) generalization. 39. Ken's mouth waters every time he hears the ice-cream truck's familiar song in the distance. One day, a slightly different song is heard in the distance and Ken's mouth waters. Ken's behaviour illustrates A) generalization. B) assimilation. C) recovery. D) discrimination. QuestionID: 06-4-39 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: A) generalization. 40. Little Albert's fear of white rabbits and a Santa Claus mask is an example of A) discrimination. B) extinction. C) spontaneous recovery. D) generalization. QuestionID: 06-4-40 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: D) generalization. 41. You classically condition your dog Nancy to salivate when middle C is played on the piano, but you find that she also salivates when a high G is played. You make a point of playing high G and not giving Nancy any food afterward, whereas you do give her food after you play middle C. After a few days, Nancy stops salivating when high G is played but continues to salivate to middle C. This phenomenon is known as A) generalization. B) discrimination. C) acquisition. D) spontaneous recovery. QuestionID: 06-4-41 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: B) discrimination. 42. As an infant, Stephanie received many penicillin injections from the doctor. When she later saw a pharmacist in a white coat that was similar to the doctor's coat, she started to cry. This is an example of A) latent learning. B) observational learning. C) a conditioned emotional response. D) discrimination. QuestionID: 06-4-42 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: C) a conditioned emotional response. 43. Which of the following concepts was established through the experiment with Little Albert? A) For successful conditioning to occur, the presentation of the CS must precede the presentation of the US. B) Shaping is a useful technique for training animals to complete complex tricks. C) Humans are predisposed to fear some stimuli (e.g., snakes) more than other stimuli (e.g., guns), regardless of the level of threat they pose. D) Phobias may be learned responses to previous experiences. QuestionID: 06-4-43 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: D) Phobias may be learned responses to previous experiences. 44. Little Albert was initially not afraid of rats, but when a white rat and a loud noise were presented together, Albert learned to fear rats. In this famous example, the rat was the A) CS. B) US. C) CR. D) UR. QuestionID: 06-4-44 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: A) CS. 45. Temi has developed a fear of bridges due to a recent, graphic news story about people falling from a collapsed bridge. Which of the following is the CS in this example? A) bridges B) graphic news coverage C) people falling D) collapsed bridges QuestionID: 06-4-45 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: A) bridges 46. The results of Watson and Rayner's famous experiment with Little Albert provide a possible explanation for the development of A) depression. B) anxiety. C) phobias. D) psychopathy. QuestionID: 06-4-46 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: C) phobias. 47. People diagnosed with psychopathy show an impaired ability to learn to A) associate fear with faces when the faces are paired with a shock. B) extinguish responding after the removal of the US. C) associate tastes with illness. D) blink to a tone which precedes a puff of air to the eye. QuestionID: 06-4-47 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: A) associate fear with faces when the faces are paired with a shock. 48. Which of the following terms refers to the fact that animals and human beings may be evolutionarily predisposed to learn to fear certain stimuli that threaten their survival? A) instinctive drift B) conditioned emotional response C) emotional aversions D) preparedness QuestionID: 06-4-48 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1c Understand the role of biological and evolutionary factors in classical conditioning. Answer: D) preparedness 49. According to the concept of preparedness, which stimulus would make the most effective CS in a fear conditioning experiment? .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

gun spider flower airplane

QuestionID: 06-4-49 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1c Understand the role of biological and evolutionary factors in classical conditioning. Answer: B) spider 50. Last month, Walter became sick after eating two chili dogs, and he now finds the very thought of chili dogs to be repulsive. Walter has experienced A) discrimination. B) conditioned taste aversion. C) generalization. D) negative reinforcement. QuestionID: 06-4-50 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: B) conditioned taste aversion. 51. Taste aversions seem to be specific examples of what type of learning? A) classical conditioning B) insight learning C) vicarious learning D) operant conditioning QuestionID: 06-4-51 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: A) classical conditioning 52. People appear to have a biological predisposition to associate nausea with what type of stimuli? A) lights B) tastes C) sights D) sounds QuestionID: 06-4-52 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1c Understand the role of biological and evolutionary factors in classical conditioning. Answer: B) tastes 53. Which of the following is one of the ways in which conditioned taste aversions are NOT like other forms of classical conditioning? A) Conditioned taste aversions do not require a CS. B) Conditioned taste aversions only last one or two days. C) The CS and US can be separated by several hours. D) The subject does not have to respond to develop a taste aversion. QuestionID: 06-4-53 .

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Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1c Understand the role of biological and evolutionary factors in classical conditioning. Answer: C) The CS and US can be separated by several hours. 54. Which form of classical conditioning is most likely to occur with only a single CS-US pairing? A) stimulus discrimination B) conditioned emotional response C) conditioned taste aversion D) stimulus generalization QuestionID: 06-4-54 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.1c Understand the role of biological and evolutionary factors in classical conditioning. Answer: C) conditioned taste aversion 55. Grayson eats the same bologna sandwich every day for lunch. One day, Grayson gets very ill just after eating the bologna sandwich. Surprisingly, following the recovery from the illness, Grayson is still happy eating bologna sandwiches and continues to have them every day for lunch. Grayson's continued enjoyment of bologna is likely due to A) latent learning. B) latent inhibition. C) conditioned taste aversion. D) stimulus discrimination. QuestionID: 06-4-55 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.1c Understand the role of biological and evolutionary factors in classical conditioning. Answer: B) latent inhibition. 56. Which of the following would be an example of advertisers applying classical conditioning to the marketing of a product? A) The product is shown with stimuli that viewers already view positively, such as attractive people. B) A commercial shows individuals modelling the correct use of the product. C) Customers are rewarded with a free product for every five they purchase. D) Advertisers include the name of the product multiple times throughout the ad. QuestionID: 06-4-56 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: A) The product is shown with stimuli that viewers already view positively, such as attractive people. 57. During campaigning, a Conservative candidate airs ads that show her Liberal opponent making a "smug" facial expression. It is her hope that voters will see these ads and associate the negative feeling of being judged with her Liberal opponent (and thus, vote for the Conservative). In this example, the unconditioned response would be A) the "smug" image of the Liberal candidate. B) the viewer's negative emotional response to an unflattering photograph. C) the viewer's decision not to vote for the Liberal candidate. D) the Conservative candidate's decision to air the ad. QuestionID: 06-4-57 Skill: Conceptual .

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Objective: 6.1e Analyze the use of negative political advertising to condition emotional responses to candidates. Answer: B) the viewer's negative emotional response to an unflattering photograph. 58. Why are heroin users more likely to overdose when they inject heroin at a place other than their usual location? A) Heroin users tend to inject a larger dose in new locations because they get excited. B) Heroin users tend to employ 'safer' practices when using in their usual location. C) Heroin users find drug use more thrilling and, thus, more rewarding in new locations. D) Cues that normally trigger a conditioned response are missing in a new location. QuestionID: 06-4-58 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: D) Cues that normally trigger a conditioned response are missing in a new location. 59. Larry has been using heroin for several years and knows the exact amount needed for his desired 'high.' Normally, Larry injects the heroin in his basement, but while on vacation he injects the drug in a hotel. Although Larry used the same amount of heroin that he always does, he overdoses and dies. What phenomenon is likely responsible for this outcome? A) spontaneous recovery B) stimulus discrimination C) conditioned emotional response D) conditioned drug tolerance QuestionID: 06-4-59 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: D) conditioned drug tolerance 60. In which type of learning is an organism's behaviour influenced by the consequences of that behaviour? A) classical conditioning B) latent learning C) operant conditioning D) consequential learning QuestionID: 06-4-60 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: C) operant conditioning 61. The term operant refers to the fact that, in operant conditioning, A) the organism must operate on the environment before consequences can occur. B) reinforcers and punishers operate on the organism to change its behaviour. C) the US operates on the CS to change its association with the CR. D) the experimenter operates on the organism to change its behaviour. QuestionID: 06-4-61 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: A) the organism must operate on the environment before consequences can occur.

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62. In classical conditioning, the responses involved tend to be __________________, but in operant conditioning, they are __________________. A) punished; reinforced B) reinforced; punished C) reflexive; voluntary D) voluntary; reflexive QuestionID: 06-4-62 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: C) reflexive; voluntary 63. In operant conditioning, reinforcement is A) never presented (only punishment is involved). B) always presented, regardless of the organism's behaviour. C) presented as a consequence of the organism's behaviour. D) presented in order to elicit an organism's behaviour. QuestionID: 06-4-63 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: C) presented as a consequence of the organism's behaviour. 64. The process by which a stimulus strengthens or increases the probability of a response is called A) punishment. B) latent learning. C) Acquisition. D) reinforcement. QuestionID: 06-4-64 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: D) reinforcement. 65. The concept of contingency refers to the idea that A) a response will increase if followed by a reward. B) a consequence depends on an action. C) punishment is more effective at shaping behaviour than reinforcement. D) reinforcement is more effective at shaping behaviour than punishment. QuestionID: 06-4-65 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: B) a consequence depends on an action. 66. Thorndike was known for his work with A) puzzle boxes. B) observational learning. C) salivation in dogs. D) Skinner boxes. QuestionID: 06-4-66 .

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Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: A) puzzle boxes. 67. Thorndike was a pioneer in the field of ___________research. A) operant conditioning B) classical conditioning C) shaping D) higher-order conditioning QuestionID: 06-4-67 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: A) operant conditioning 68. ___________ is responsible for much of our understanding of the relationship between reinforcement and behaviour. A) John Watson B) Ivan Pavlov C) B. F. Skinner D) John Garcia QuestionID: 06-4-68 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: C) B. F. Skinner 69. A Skinner box is most likely to be used in research involving A) classical conditioning. B) operant conditioning. C) latent learning. D) observational learning. QuestionID: 06-4-69 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: B) operant conditioning. 70. A reinforcer is a consequence that ______________ the likelihood of a behaviour, whereas a punisher is a consequence that ____________ the likelihood of a behaviour. A) increases; increases B) decreases; decreases C) decreases; increases D) increases; decreases QuestionID: 06-4-70 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2b Understand the role that consequences play in increasing or decreasing behaviour. Answer: D) increases; decreases 71. A punisher is any outcome presented ___________ a behaviour that ___________ the likelihood of the .

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behaviour reoccurring. A) before; decreases B) before; increases C) after; decreases D) after; increases QuestionID: 06-4-71 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: C) after; decreases 72. Negative reinforcement is a stimulus that is__________ and thus __________the probability of a response. A) removed; increases B) removed; decreases C) presented; increases D) presented; decreases QuestionID: 06-4-72 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2b Understand the role that consequences play in increasing or decreasing behaviour. Answer: A) removed; increases 73. Which of the following is an example of positive reinforcement? A) Giving children candy for completing their homework. B) Removing a child's chores when they complete their homework. C) Ending class 10 minutes early if students work hard during class. D) Taking away privileges if a child does not follow classroom rules. QuestionID: 06-4-73 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: A) Giving children candy for completing their homework. 74. Bill hates to clean up after dinner. One night, he volunteers to bathe the dog before cleaning up. When he finishes with the dog and returns to the kitchen, his wife has cleaned everything up for him. Which of the following statements is most likely true? A) Bill will start cleaning up the kitchen before he bathes the dog. B) Bill's wife has positively reinforced him for bathing the dog. C) Bill's wife has negatively reinforced him for bathing the dog. D) Bill's wife has established bathing the dog as a secondary reinforcer. QuestionID: 06-4-74 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: C) Bill's wife has negatively reinforced him for bathing the dog. 75. Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement? A) A student is sent to detention for fighting. B) A student is exempted from a weekly quiz for exemplary homework. C) A student loses earned free time for playing with lab equipment. D) A student turns in neater homework when the teacher praises neatness.

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QuestionID: 06-4-75 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: B) A student is exempted from a weekly quiz for exemplary homework. 76. Nicky tends to bite his nails when he becomes nervous because it calms him down. Nicky's behaviour is an example of A) negative reinforcement. B) negative punishment. C) positive reinforcement. D) positive punishment. QuestionID: 06-4-76 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: A) negative reinforcement. 77. Checking the outside temperature and putting on a warm coat before leaving the house is an example of A) negative punishment. B) avoidance learning. C) escape learning. D) positive punishment. QuestionID: 06-4-77 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: B) avoidance learning. 78. Leaving the market on Saturday morning because you don't like how overcrowded it is this weekend is an example of A) negative punishment. B) avoidance learning. C) escape learning. D) positive punishment. QuestionID: 06-4-78 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: C) escape learning. 79. Kathy takes her 2-year-old son to the supermarket every Saturday. Each week, the same sequence of events unfolds: Her son screams, demanding that Kathy buy him treats. Although she refuses to give in to his demands, he continues to scream. Finally, Kathy yells at the top of her lungs, "QUIET!" He stops screaming instantly. What operant conditioning concepts are illustrated in this story? A) Kathy is using negative reinforcement to increase her son's screaming. B) Kathy is using punishment to suppress the screaming; her use of punishment is negatively reinforced by the cessation of screaming. C) Kathy's son probably learned how to scream by observing his parents at home, and now he is reinforced on a variable-interval schedule of reinforcement. D) Kathy's son probably learned how to scream by observing his parents at home, and now he is reinforced on a fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement.

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QuestionID: 06-4-79 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: B) Kathy is using punishment to suppress the screaming; her use of punishment is negatively reinforced by the cessation of screaming. 80. Presenting a stimulus to a person or animal that decreases the probability of a particular response is known as A) positive punishment. B) negative punishment. C) negative reinforcement. D) vicarious punishment. QuestionID: 06-4-80 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: A) positive punishment. 81. Which of the following will decrease the likelihood of behaviour reoccurring? A) negative punishment B) negative reinforcement C) positive reinforcement D) continuous reinforcement QuestionID: 06-4-81 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2b Understand the role that consequences play in increasing or decreasing behaviour. Answer: A) negative punishment 82. When a stimulus is removed from a person or animal resulting in a decrease in the probability of a response, it is known as A) positive punishment. B) negative punishment. C) positive reinforcement. D) negative reinforcement. QuestionID: 06-4-82 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: B) negative punishment. 83. Swatting a dog with a newspaper when it urinates on the floor, in an attempt to teach the dog not to urinate on the floor, is an example of A) positive punishment. B) negative punishment. C) positive reinforcement. D) negative reinforcement. QuestionID: 06-4-83 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

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Answer: A) positive punishment. 84. An animal trainer is trying to teach a lion to perform tricks for the circus. First, the lion is given food if he sits quietly on a chair. Next, the lion is given food if he raises one paw. Finally, the lion is given food if he gives the trainer a "high-five." In this example, the lion is being trained by A) negative reinforcement. B) generalization. C) punishment. D) shaping. QuestionID: 06-4-84 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: D) shaping. 85. ______________ is an operant conditioning procedure in which successive approximations of a desired response are reinforced. A) Shaping B) Positive punishment C) Primary reinforcement D) Discrimination QuestionID: 06-4-85 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: A) Shaping 86. A _____________ reinforcer is any reward that satisfies a basic motivational need to survive (for example, hunger or thirst). A) primary B) negative C) token D) secondary QuestionID: 06-4-86 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: A) primary 87. __________ is an example of a primary reinforcer, whereas __________ is an example of a secondary reinforcer. A) A cupcake; a certificate of achievement B) Money; receiving an A+ C) Water; pain D) Pain; cupcake QuestionID: 06-4-87 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: A) A cupcake; a certificate of achievement 88. Which of the following is a secondary reinforcer? .

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A) B) C) D)

water food pain money

QuestionID: 06-4-88 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: D) money 89. The rewarding property of reinforcing stimuli like food and sex is believed to be related to the activity of which brain structure? A) hippocampus B) nucleus accumbens C) amygdala D) thalamus QuestionID: 06-4-89 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: B) nucleus accumbens 90. A rat learns that pressing the lever in the operant chamber will only deliver food if a red light above the lever is on. In this scenario, the red light is acting as a A) discriminative stimulus. B) reinforce. C) conditioned stimulus (CS). D) punisher. QuestionID: 06-4-90 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: A) discriminative stimulus. 91. A pigeon learns to peck only at a red disc. It will not peck at another disc that is identical in shape and size but a different colour. This illustrates the concept of A) extinction. B) discrimination. C) avoidance training. D) desensitization. QuestionID: 06-4-91 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: B) discrimination. 92. Your dog, Zeus, learns to roll over every time you blow a whistle. One day, you take Zeus to a soccer match and he rolls over every time the referee blows the whistle. This illustrates the concept of A) spontaneous recovery. B) discrimination. C) generalization. D) desensitization. .

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QuestionID: 06-4-92 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: C) generalization. 93. Lim has learned that he can usually get what he wants from his parents if he keeps whining for something. One day, Lim starts whining in the toy store because he wants an action figure. His father refuses to give it to him and ignores his whining. What process is likely to happen as a result? A) generalization B) extinction C) spontaneous recovery D) negative reinforcement QuestionID: 06-4-93 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: B) extinction 94. Extinction in operant conditioning involves A) negative reinforcement. B) positive reinforcement. C) punishment. D) withholding reinforcement. QuestionID: 06-4-94 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: D) withholding reinforcement. 95. A child receives one homework pass—a coupon that allows her to skip a homework assignment—for every 10 word problems she completes during class. This is an example of both ___________ reinforcement and a ___________ schedule of reinforcement. A) negative; fixed-ratio B) positive; variable-ratio C) negative; variable-ratio D) positive; fixed-interval QuestionID: 06-4-95 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: A) negative; fixed-ratio 96. Julie is expected to cut the lawn weekly. Her parents only give her money once in a while after she cuts the lawn. Julie is being reinforced using a _____________ schedule of reinforcement. A) continuous B) partial C) fixed-ratio D) fixed-interval QuestionID: 06-4-96 Skill: Applied .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: B) partial 97. What kind of reinforcement is used if Munirah's parents give her $10 every time she receives six A's on her report card? A) fixed-interval B) variable-ratio C) continuous reinforcement D) fixed-ratio QuestionID: 06-4-97 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: D) fixed-ratio 98. A fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement involves giving reinforcement A) on the first response after a varied amount of time has elapsed. B) on the first response after a specific amount of time has elapsed. C) after a specific number of responses have been completed. D) after a varied number of responses have been completed. QuestionID: 06-4-98 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: C) after a specific number of responses have been completed. 99. When the number of responses is important to a schedule of reinforcement, that schedule is called a _____________ schedule. A) ratio B) interval C) conditioned D) primary QuestionID: 06-4-99 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: A) ratio 100. The broken vending machine in Cathy's office dispenses sodas inconsistently. Sometimes Cathy gets a soda after putting in two quarters, but sometimes she only gets a soda after putting in five or six quarters. In operant conditioning terms, Cathy is being reinforced on a ________________ schedule. A) fixed-ratio B) fixed-interval C) variable-ratio D) variable-interval QuestionID: 06-4-100 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: C) variable-ratio

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101. Kwan checks her email for new messages several times during the day. She realizes that because emails are sent on a ________________ schedule, checking her email more frequently will not increase the number of new emails she receives in a day. Furthermore, she knows that she cannot predict when people will email her, but if an email has been sent to her, she will receive it the next time she checks. A) fixed-ratio B) fixed-interval C) variable-ratio D) variable-interval QuestionID: 06-4-101 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: D) variable-interval 102. Learned behaviour is less prone to extinction if it is conditioned by ____________ reinforcement. A) partial B) negative C) delayed D) continuous QuestionID: 06-4-102 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2c Understand how schedules of reinforcement affect behaviour. Answer: A) partial 103. Which of the following statements is true about continuous reinforcement and partial reinforcement? A) Both partial and continuous reinforcement lead to behaviours that tend to extinguish quickly. B) Continuous reinforcement leads to behaviours that will persist longer than behaviour learned through partial reinforcement. C) Partial reinforcement leads to behaviours that will persist longer than behaviour learned through continuous reinforcement. D) Both continuous reinforcement and partial reinforcement lead to behaviours that persist for extremely long periods of time. QuestionID: 06-4-103 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2c Understand how schedules of reinforcement affect behaviour. Answer: C) Partial reinforcement leads to behaviours that will persist longer than behaviour learned through continuous reinforcement. 104. Which of the following is true concerning partial schedules of reinforcement? A) Interval schedules tend to yield higher rates of responding as compared to ratio schedules. B) Ratio schedules tend to yield higher rates of responding as compared to interval schedules. C) Fixed schedules tend to yield higher rates of responding as compared to variable schedules. D) All combinations of intermittent schedules tend to yield similar rates of responding. QuestionID: 06-4-104 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2c Understand how schedules of reinforcement affect behaviour. Answer: B) Ratio schedules tend to yield higher rates of responding as compared to interval schedules. 105. B.F. Skinner rigged the cages of pigeons so that food was delivered every 15 seconds. Within a short time, .

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most of the pigeons were practising some sort of consistent behaviour, even though the behaviour did not have any effect on the delivery of the reinforcer. The birds were A) demonstrating spontaneous recovery. B) developing phobias. C) demonstrating the partial reinforcement effect. D) behaving superstitiously. QuestionID: 06-4-105 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2c Understand how schedules of reinforcement affect behaviour. Answer: D) behaving superstitiously. 106. Which of the following statements is true regarding corporal punishment? A) Spanking is generally a very effective punisher when it is used for immediately stopping a behaviour. B) There is no evidence that spanking can lead to poor mental health and it can be used frequently. C) Corporal punishment teaches appropriate behaviours. D) Corporal punishment is illegal in Canada. QuestionID: 06-4-106 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2e Analyze the effectiveness of punishment on changing behaviour. Answer: A) Spanking is generally a very effective punisher when it is used for immediately stopping a behaviour. 107. The concept of latent learning was developed by A) Watson. B) Skinner. C) Tolman. D) Thorndike. QuestionID: 06-4-107 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.3b Understand the concept of latent learning and its relevance to cognitive aspects of learning. Answer: C) Tolman. 108. Learning that is not directly observable is called A) latent inhibition. B) innate learning. C) social learning. D) latent learning. QuestionID: 06-4-108 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.3b Understand the concept of latent learning and its relevance to cognitive aspects of learning. Answer: D) latent learning. 109. Studies of latent learning emphasize the importance of ______________ on learning. A) reinforcement B) associations C) cognitive processes D) punishment QuestionID: 06-4-109 .

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Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.3b Understand the concept of latent learning and its relevance to cognitive aspects of learning. Answer: C) cognitive processes 110. Which of the following is true concerning Tolman and Honzik's classic study of latent learning? A) Rats still learned to navigate a maze without receiving any reinforcement. B) Rats learned when receiving punishment but not when receiving reinforcement. C) Rats were not able to learn if reinforcement was withheld for long periods of time. D) Rats learned only when reinforcement was presented immediately following the desired behaviour. QuestionID: 06-4-110 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.3b Understand the concept of latent learning and its relevance to cognitive aspects of learning. Answer: A) Rats still learned to navigate a maze without receiving any reinforcement. 111. Sarah has just received her driver's licence and is now ready to drive to school. Although she's never driven to her school before, Sarah knows the way. The fact that Sarah can drive herself to school suggests that _________ has occurred. A) latent learning B) classical conditioning C) operant conditioning D) classical and operant conditioning QuestionID: 06-4-111 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.3b Understand the concept of latent learning and its relevance to cognitive aspects of learning. Answer: A) latent learning 112. You spend days wandering aimlessly around a park with many different paths that end at different parts of the park. One day when you arrive at the park, you get a call on your cell phone from your cousin whom you haven't seen for years, and she says she is waiting for you in a particular section of the park. Even though the paths are complicated and twisted, you quickly find and use the shortest route to your cousin. Tolman would explain your efficient passage through the park as an example of A) stimulus-response theory. B) the formation of a cognitive map. C) observational learning. D) social reinforcement. QuestionID: 06-4-112 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.3a Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning. Answer: B) the formation of a cognitive map. 113. Which type of learning occurs when we observe other people's behaviours? A) operant conditioning B) classical conditioning C) latent learning D) observational learning QuestionID: 06-4-113 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 6.3a Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning. .

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Answer: D) observational learning 114. After watching her teenage sister put on lipstick, Julie applies some to her own lips. Julie acquired this behaviour through A) classical conditioning. B) observational learning. C) operant conditioning. D) stimulus generalization. QuestionID: 06-4-114 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.3c Apply principles of observational learning outside of the laboratory. Answer: B) observational learning. 115. Which of the following is the best example of observational learning? A) Greg hears on the radio that a huge storm is approaching, so he cancels his trip. B) After several hours of staring at the computer screen, Marley suddenly realizes the solution to the puzzle he is trying to solve. C) Carey figures out if she doesn't give her boss a hard time, he's a lot nicer to be around. D) Ingrid swam poorly until she noticed the efficient stroke of the man in the next lane; now her swimming is greatly improved. QuestionID: 06-4-115 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.3c Apply principles of observational learning outside of the laboratory. Answer: D) Ingrid swam poorly until she noticed the efficient stroke of the man in the next lane; now her swimming is greatly improved. 116. John sees others being praised for using good penmanship and now he attempts to use good penmanship. This behaviour is reflective of ________ learning. A) observational B) conditional C) operant D) conformist QuestionID: 06-4-116 Skill: Applied Objective: 6.3c Apply principles of observational learning outside of the laboratory. Answer: A) observational 117. In a demonstration of observational learning, rats can identify food that is safe to eat by A) observing where humans place poison rat traps. B) feeding small pieces of the food to other rats and observing the result. C) smelling the breath of other rats. D) associating certain tastes with illness. QuestionID: 06-4-117 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.3a Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning. Answer: C) smelling the breath of other rats.

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118. Which of the following is NOT one of the processes Albert Bandura identified as supporting observational learning? A) memory B) attention C) motivation D) threat of danger QuestionID: 06-4-118 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.3a Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning. Answer: D) threat of danger 119. According to your textbook, which of the following is true about animals teaching other members of their species? A) Researchers have observed members of several different species transmitting new behaviours to others through imitation. B) Humans are the only species known to transmit information through demonstration and imitation. C) Several animals can imitate behaviours demonstrated by humans, but they cannot learn new behaviours from members of their own species. D) Only primates, the closest relative to humans, are capable of teaching. QuestionID: 06-4-119 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.3a Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning. Answer: A) Researchers have observed members of several different species transmitting new behaviours to others through imitation. 120. Which of the following is true concerning Bandura's classic "Bobo" doll study? A) Exposure to aggressive models led to increased aggression in children. B) Exposure to aggressive models did not influence levels of aggression in children. C) Exposure to aggressive models led to decreased levels of aggression in children. D) Exposure to nonaggressive models led to increased levels of aggression in children. QuestionID: 06-4-120 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.3d Analyze the claim that viewing violent media increases violent behaviour. Answer: A) Exposure to aggressive models led to increased aggression in children. 121. According to research presented in the textbook, which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Playing violent video games decreases a person's sensitivity to others' suffering. B) Listening to violent music may influence aggressive behaviour. C) Informing parents about how depictions of violence affect their children may be an important step in intervention. D) There is causal evidence that early exposure to violence turns children into violent adolescents and adults. QuestionID: 06-4-121 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.3d Analyze the claim that viewing violent media increases violent behaviour. Answer: D) There is causal evidence that early exposure to violence turns children into violent adolescents and adults. 122. Which of the following is TRUE about the relationship between media violence and aggression? A) Watching media violence definitely causes children to become more aggressive. B) Watching media violence is positively correlated with aggression, but it is difficult to establish a cause-and-effect .

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relationship. C) Media violence and aggression are unrelated. D) Having an aggressive temperament actually causes children to watch more violent media. QuestionID: 06-4-122 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.3d Analyze the claim that viewing violent media increases violent behaviour. Answer: B) Watching media violence is positively correlated with aggression, but it is difficult to establish a cause-andeffect relationship. 123. Skinner observed that his pigeons repeated particular behaviours, such turning counter clockwise, for the food that was delivered every 15 seconds no matter what behaviour the pigeon exhibited. What is this phenomenon called? A) superstitious behaviour B) positive reinforcement C) negative reinforcement D) latent learning QuestionID: 06-4-123 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: A) superstitious behaviour 124. Tom plays soccer and believes that if he wears the same pair of socks every time and kisses the ball before a game starts, he will play well. During his last game, he did not play well and his team lost the game. Despite this, he keeps believing in the power of his rituals. Why does he keep believing in his rituals, despite contrary evidence? A) negative reinforcement B) positive reinforcement C) confirmation bias D) latent learning QuestionID: 06-4-124 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: C) confirmation bias 125. Angela has been experiencing back pain that comes and goes. She tried a new and untested treatment and her pain went away for a short while, so she used that treatment the next time her pain returned. However, scientific studies have shown that the treatment is no different than a placebo and it has no effect on back pain. Why might Angela superstitiously believe that her behaviour (i.e., using treatment) causes a decrease in pain? A) latent learning B) illusion of control C) positive reinforcement D) negative reinforcement QuestionID: 06-4-125 Skill: Factual Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: B) illusion of control Supplementary Questions .

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1. The process by which experience or practice results in a relatively permanent change in behaviour or potential behaviour is known as A) learning. B) intelligence formation. C) imprinting. D) cognition. QuestionID: 06-5-01 Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: A) learning. 2. Learning is a process by which experience results in A) acquisition of motivation. B) relatively permanent change in behaviour. C) amplification of sensory stimuli. D) delayed genetic behavioural contributions. QuestionID: 06-5-02 Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: B) relatively permanent change in behaviour. 3. We associate the name of _______ most closely with classical conditioning. A) B. F. Skinner B) Robert Rescorla C) Albert Bandura D) Ivan Pavlov QuestionID: 06-5-03 Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: D) Ivan Pavlov 4. By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, the presentation of the meat was the A) unconditioned stimulus. B) unconditioned response. C) conditioned stimulus. D) conditioned response. QuestionID: 06-5-04 Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: A) unconditioned stimulus. 5. Most young children put their hands over their ears when they hear the loud boom of firecrackers at a Canada Day festival, but at first pay scant attention to the person lighting the firecrackers. However, after just a few firecrackers have been exploded, some of the children put their hands over their ears as soon as they see the person approach the firecracker with a match! What is the unconditioned stimulus? A) the person lighting the firecrackers B) the loud booming sound made by the firecrackers C) the children putting their hands over their ears when they see the person about to light the firecrackers D) the children putting their hands over their ears when the firecrackers explode

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 06-5-05 Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: B) the loud booming sound made by the firecrackers 6. Most young children put their hands over their ears when they hear the loud boom of firecrackers at a Canada Day festival, but at first pay scant attention to the person lighting the firecrackers. However, after just a few firecrackers have been exploded, some of the children put their hands over their ears as soon as they see the person approach the firecracker with a match! What is the unconditioned response? A) the person lighting the firecrackers B) the loud booming sound made by the firecrackers C) the children putting their hands over their ears when they see the person about to light the firecrackers D) the children putting their hands over their ears when the firecrackers explode QuestionID: 06-5-06 Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: D) the children putting their hands over their ears when the firecrackers explode 7. In classical conditioning, the stimulus that normally evokes an automatic response even without new learning is called the A) conditioned stimulus. B) reflexive stimulus. C) unconditioned stimulus. D) orienting stimulus. QuestionID: 06-5-07 Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: C) unconditioned stimulus. 8. Which scenario would result in the fastest acquisition of a classically conditioned response? A) Hugh repeatedly rings a bell after he gives his dog a bone, over multiple trials. B) Hugh rings a bell and then gives his dog a treat 30 minutes later, over multiple trials. C) Hugh makes his dog "play dead" and then gives him a treat if he has performed the behaviour. D) Hugh makes two pieces of toast every morning, and when they pop out of the toaster, he throws one of the pieces of toast to his dog. QuestionID: 06-5-08 Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: D) Hugh makes two pieces of toast every morning, and when they pop out of the toaster, he throws one of the pieces of toast to his dog. 9. What must be paired together for classical conditioning to occur? A) unconditioned stimulus and unconditioned response B) conditioned response and unconditioned response C) neutral stimulus and unconditioned stimulus D) neutral stimulus and conditioned stimulus QuestionID: 06-5-09 Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: C) neutral stimulus and unconditioned stimulus 10. When Ivan Pavlov presented meat powder, the dog salivated. The meat powder was the ________ and .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

salivation was the ________. A) UR, US B) US, UR C) CS, CR D) CR, CS QuestionID: 06-5-10 Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: B) US, UR 11. Which of the following is an example of classical conditioning? A) A child learns to blink her eyes to a bell because the ringing of the bell has been followed by a puff of air to the eye. B) A pigeon learns to peck at a disc in a Skinner box to get food. C) Rich saw that when Donna banged her fist against a particular vending machine, she got a free soft drink, so now he bangs his fist against that machine when he wants a free soft drink. D) A monkey learns to escape from a cage. QuestionID: 06-5-11 Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: A) A child learns to blink her eyes to a bell because the ringing of the bell has been followed by a puff of air to the eye. 12. Many individuals decide that they feel hungry and eat lunch when they see both hands of the clock on the 12, indicating that it is noontime. This may occur regardless of how recently they ate breakfast. In this example, the conditioned response is A) the act of eating breakfast. B) feeling hungry and the act of eating lunch. C) the counting of the number of hours since breakfast. D) the watching of the hands of the clock. QuestionID: 06-5-12 Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: B) feeling hungry and the act of eating lunch. 13. By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, the ringing of the bell was the A) unconditioned stimulus. B) unconditioned response. C) conditioned stimulus. D) conditioned response. QuestionID: 06-5-13 Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: C) conditioned stimulus. 14. Rachel has found that when she opens the cupboard door to get the cat food, the cats come running to the kitchen. Rachel knows that this is classical conditioning and that the conditioned stimulus is the A) cat food. B) cat. C) running of the cats. D) cupboard door opening. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 06-5-14 Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: D) cupboard door opening. 15. Most young children put their hands over their ears when they hear the loud boom of firecrackers at a Canada Day festival, but at first pay scant attention to the person lighting the firecrackers. However, after just a few firecrackers have been exploded, some of the children put their hands over their ears as soon as they see the person approach the firecracker with a match! What is the conditioned stimulus? A) the person lighting the firecrackers B) the loud booming sound made by the firecrackers C) the children putting their hands over their ears when they see the person about to light the firecrackers D) the children putting their hands over their ears when the firecrackers explode QuestionID: 06-5-15 Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: A) the person lighting the firecrackers 16. As she walked through her neighbourhood, Jodie, a 6-year-old girl, frequently saw a large brown dog. She repeatedly walked to the dog to pet it, but as her hand approached the animal, it barked and bit her. The bite was painful and caused her to cry. Now Jodie cries when she sees dogs of any colour or size. Jodie's crying when she sees dogs is the A) US. B) CS. C) UR. D) CR. QuestionID: 06-5-16 Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: D) CR. 17. As she walked through her neighbourhood, Jodie, a 6-year-old girl, frequently saw a large brown dog. She repeatedly walked to the dog to pet it, but as her hand approached the animal, it barked and bit her. The bite was painful and caused her to cry. Now Jodie cries when she sees dogs of any colour or size. The sight of dogs is the A) US. B) CS. C) UR. D) CR. QuestionID: 06-5-17 Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: B) CS. 18. Which of the following statements about classical conditioning is true? A) Most cases of classical conditioning require repeated trials. B) One trial is usually enough for conditioning to occur. C) Learning will continue to increase indefinitely. D) Learning is more effective if trials follow each other very quickly. QuestionID: 06-5-18 Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: A) Most cases of classical conditioning require repeated trials. 19. In the experiment with Little Albert, the unconditioned stimulus was A) the experimenter. B) the laboratory. C) the loud noise. D) the rat. QuestionID: 06-5-19 Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: C) the loud noise. 20. In the experiment with Little Albert, the conditioned response was A) the rat. B) the laboratory. C) the loud noise. D) fear. QuestionID: 06-5-20 Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: D) fear. 21. In the experiment with Little Albert, the unconditioned response was A) fear of the loud noise. B) fear of the rat. C) fear of the experimenter. D) fear of the laboratory. QuestionID: 06-5-21 Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: A) fear of the loud noise. 22. One of the best-known examples of classical conditioning in humans was the Little Albert study, conducted by A) Pavlov. B) Freud. C) Watson. D) Skinner. QuestionID: 06-5-22 Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: C) Watson. 23. A research participant hears a tone followed by a puff of air directed toward his eye. Later, he blinks when he hears the tone. Before ending the experiment, what could the researcher do in order to extinguish the blinking to that tone? A) present the tone alone repeatedly B) present the puff of air alone repeatedly C) increase the loudness of the tone D) increase the amount of air that is directed toward the eye QuestionID: 06-5-23 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: A) present the tone alone repeatedly 24. Repeatedly presenting a CS by itself will result in A) extinction. B) spontaneous recovery. C) stimulus discrimination. D) stimulus generalization. QuestionID: 06-5-24 Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: A) extinction. 25. Spontaneous recovery A) occurs before the pairing of the CS and US. B) occurs after a fixed-interval schedule of reinforcement. C) is an unlearned response. D) can occur once a response has been extinguished. QuestionID: 06-5-25 Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: D) can occur once a response has been extinguished. 26. If a rat has learned to press a lever to obtain pellets of food and, all of a sudden, the response permanently ceases to produce any food, then _______ will occur. A) shaping B) discrimination C) generalization D) extinction QuestionID: 06-5-26 Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: D) extinction 27. The process of presenting the conditioned stimulus alone so often that the learner no longer associates it with the unconditioned stimulus and stops making the conditioned response is called _________. A) extinction B) generalization C) spontaneous recovery D) shaping QuestionID: 06-5-27 Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: A) extinction 28. The process of learning to respond only to a single specific object or event is called _________. A) extinction B) inhibition C) stimulus generalization D) discrimination

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 06-5-28 Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: D) discrimination 29. Which two learning processes seem to be opposites? A) acquisition and generalization B) discrimination and extinction C) discrimination and generalization D) acquisition and discrimination QuestionID: 06-5-29 Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: C) discrimination and generalization 30. If a dog salivates when it sees a green light or a yellow light, it is exhibiting A) generalization. B) discrimination. C) higher-order conditioning. D) extinction. QuestionID: 06-5-30 Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: A) generalization. 31. Of the following phenomena, which one best explains the spreading of phobias to objects similar to the one to which the phobia was originally acquired? A) discrimination B) extinction C) generalization D) spontaneous recovery QuestionID: 06-5-31 Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: C) generalization 32. A small boy has just recently delighted his parents because he learned to call his father "daddy." However, it has now become an embarrassment to his mother when she takes him out with her because he keeps calling other men "daddy." This is an example of A) associative linkage. B) generalization. C) higher-order conditioning. D) spontaneous recovery. QuestionID: 06-5-32 Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: B) generalization. 33. As she walked through her neighbourhood, Jodie, a 6-year-old girl, frequently saw a large brown dog. She repeatedly walked to the dog to pet it, but as her hand approached the animal, it barked and bit her. The bite was painful and caused her to cry. Now Jodie cries when she sees dogs of any colour or size. This illustrates which of the following? .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

generalization discrimination extinction spontaneous recovery

QuestionID: 06-5-33 Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: A) generalization 34. Stimulus discrimination A) is a response followed by a reinforcer. B) occurs when responses are made to stimuli that are similar to the original CS. C) is the removal of a stimulus. D) occurs when responses are made to certain stimuli, but not to others. QuestionID: 06-5-34 Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: D) occurs when responses are made to certain stimuli, but not to others. 35. This is the first exam you have ever taken in Professor Smith's class. You know nothing about her tests, and she has never done anything harmful to you or anyone else. Nonetheless, you are anxious about the test. Your anxiety in this situation is an example of A) generalization. B) discrimination. C) backward conditioning. D) none of the above. QuestionID: 06-5-35 Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: A) generalization. 36. Corky's mouth waters when he sees Ball Park Franks, but not when he sees other brands of franks. This response is known as A) extinction. B) discrimination. C) generalization. D) intelligence. QuestionID: 06-5-36 Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: B) discrimination. 37. Which scenario is an example of classical conditioning? A) training a rat to run a maze by rewarding it with food once it reaches the end B) ignoring a patient who fakes anxiety attacks because the attacks normally result in attention from staff C) teaching a child to do her chores by giving her a cookie when she has completed them D) helping a patient's phobia of spiders by exposing him to the dangerous stimuli when he's in a relaxed state QuestionID: 06-5-37 Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: D) helping a patient's phobia of spiders by exposing him to the dangerous stimuli when he's in a relaxed state .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

38. Paul is coming down with the flu, but he eats spaghetti anyway and subsequently becomes violently ill. A month later, he sees that spaghetti is being served in the dining hall and is overcome by nausea. What type of learning is illustrated by this episode? A) operant conditioning B) cognitive learning C) latent learning D) classical conditioning QuestionID: 06-5-38 Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: D) classical conditioning 39. Taste aversions seem to be specific examples of what type of learning? A) classical conditioning B) insight learning C) vicarious learning D) operant conditioning QuestionID: 06-5-39 Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: A) classical conditioning 40. Operant conditioning assumes that A) events that follow behaviour affect whether the behaviour is repeated in the future. B) one's mental processes (e.g., memory and perception) mediate what behaviours one does in a situation. C) voluntary behaviours are reflexive. D) one learns by watching others' behaviour. QuestionID: 06-5-40 Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: A) events that follow behaviour affect whether the behaviour is repeated in the future. 41. Anything that follows a response, making that response more likely to recur, is A) an antecedent. B) an enhancement. C) reinforcement. D) consequence. QuestionID: 06-5-41 Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: C) reinforcement. 42. Thorndike's main apparatus in his operant conditioning research was A) a wire monkey. B) a cognitive map. C) a puzzle box. D) a buzzer. QuestionID: 06-5-42 Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: C) a puzzle box. 43. A woodchuck tries to crack a walnut shell in two different ways—with his paws and with his teeth. The last method worked and the first did not; hence, the woodchuck will be more likely to rely on his teeth for splitting the next nut. This observation illustrates the A) the discrimination principle. B) the law of practice. C) the law of effect. D) the Premack principle. QuestionID: 06-5-43 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: C) the law of effect. 44. The apparatus that has come to symbolize the theory of operant conditioning is the A) Rubik's cube. B) Skinner box. C) Pavlov bell. D) Thorndike puzzle. QuestionID: 06-5-44 Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: B) Skinner box. 45. What did Thorndike's research with cats lead him to conclude? A) Cats learn by insight and can grasp the nature of a problem. B) All animals are capable of experiencing an "aha reaction" when they solve a problem and respond correctly after that point. C) All learning, in animals and humans, occurs by trial and error. D) Learning that is strongly reinforced occurs faster and is less subject to extinction. QuestionID: 06-5-45 Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: C) All learning, in animals and humans, occurs by trial and error. 46. An example of a behaviour that is learned through operant conditioning is A) blinking in response to a flash of light. B) studying in order to get a teacher's approval. C) sneezing in response to dust. D) pulling one's hand away from a flame. QuestionID: 06-5-46 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: B) studying in order to get a teacher's approval. 47. The Canada Revenue Agency threatens Sue with a penalty if she fails to pay her back taxes. She pays, and the threat is withdrawn. In the future, she is more prompt in meeting her obligation. This is an example of the use of _______ to control behaviour. A) positive reinforcement B) negative reinforcement C) positive punishment D) negative punishment .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 06-5-47 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: B) negative reinforcement 48. A child is praised for using his fork instead of his fingers to eat some spaghetti. This is an example of __________ reinforcement. A) positive B) extrinsic C) higher-order D) secondary QuestionID: 06-5-48 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: A) positive 49. What has occurred when there is a decrease in the likelihood or rate of a target response? A) positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement B) negative reinforcement C) punishment D) positive reinforcement QuestionID: 06-5-49 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: C) punishment 50. Positive reinforcement takes place when a stimulus is ________ and thus ________ the probability of a response. A) removed; decreases B) presented; increases C) presented; decreases D) removed; increases QuestionID: 06-5-50 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: B) presented; increases 51. Nagging someone to do something until they do it is an example of A) negative reinforcement. B) aversive conditioning. C) punishment. D) positive reinforcement. QuestionID: 06-5-51 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: A) negative reinforcement. 52. A reinforcer that adds something rewarding to a situation is called a(n) __________ reinforcer. A) positive B) additive C) primary .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) secondary QuestionID: 06-5-52 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: A) positive 53. When someone uses negative reinforcement to change a behaviour, the behaviour is likely to __________. A) occur less frequently B) occur more frequently C) occur at the same rate D) completely stop QuestionID: 06-5-53 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: B) occur more frequently 54. Mary arrives home to find her son washing the dirty dishes left from his party the night before. When she discovers his first-semester grade report on the table and sees that he got straight A's, Mary rewards him by relieving him of the unpleasant task of finishing the dishes. Which operant process does the example illustrate? A) positive reinforcement B) negative reinforcement C) extinction D) punishment QuestionID: 06-5-54 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: B) negative reinforcement 55. Wearing sunglasses all the time because people tell you they make you look "irresistible" is an example of which of the types of punishment or reinforcement? A) aversive punishment B) negative reinforcement C) positive reinforcement D) response cost QuestionID: 06-5-55 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: C) positive reinforcement 56. Negative reinforcement is best thought of as A) reinforcement for an undesirable activity. B) punishment. C) something that was predicted to serve as reinforcement but did not do so. D) stimuli whose termination or removal increases behaviour. QuestionID: 06-5-56 Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: D) stimuli whose termination or removal increases behaviour. 57. Putting on sunglasses to relieve glare is an example of which of the types of punishment or reinforcement? A) aversive punishment .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) negative reinforcement C) positive reinforcement D) response cost QuestionID: 06-5-57 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: B) negative reinforcement 58. To avoid getting a headache, Lory always lets her dog outside when it sits by the door and howls. This is an example of which type of punishment or reinforcement? A) aversive punishment B) negative reinforcement C) positive reinforcement D) response cost QuestionID: 06-5-58 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: B) negative reinforcement 59. Training a rat to push a lever to escape from an electric shock is an example of A) aversive punishment. B) negative reinforcement. C) positive reinforcement. D) response cost. QuestionID: 06-5-59 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: B) negative reinforcement. 60. Which of the following statements about positive reinforcement is accurate? A) It is used in negative reinforcement. B) It weakens the behaviours that it follows. C) It strengthens the behaviours that it follows. D) It strengthens the behaviours that lead to its removal. QuestionID: 06-5-60 Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: C) It strengthens the behaviours that it follows. 61. Mom and Dad think it is really funny and laugh when their 2-year-old, Bruce, says dirty words. When Bruce is sent home from kindergarten because of swearing, they don't understand why he cusses. Now when he cusses at home, they ignore the cussing. (They don't think it's cute anymore.) Laughing, in this example, is A) positive reinforcement. B) a negative reinforcer. C) a primary reinforcer. D) a neutral stimulus. QuestionID: 06-5-61 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: A) positive reinforcement.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

62. Which of the following is NOT negative reinforcement? A) turning off an electric shock B) giving a spanking C) removing a noxious odour D) silencing a banging door QuestionID: 06-5-62 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: B) giving a spanking 63. The 5-year-old child of two very busy parents has been throwing tantrums. Whenever the child goes off the deep end, one or both of his parents immediately come to his side and fuss over and cajole him. Nevertheless, his tantrums do not diminish; they even seem to increase. We may assume that his parents' fussing over him serves as A) negative reinforcement. B) punisher. C) positive reinforcement. D) model. QuestionID: 06-5-63 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: C) positive reinforcement. 64. Negative reinforcement is negative in the sense that A) a consequence stimulus is delivered in a negative manner. B) it results in the removal of the behaviour. C) the behaviour results in the removal of a negative reinforcer. D) the behaviour is decreased/weakened. QuestionID: 06-5-64 Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: C) the behaviour results in the removal of a negative reinforcer. 65. Shaping is achieved through A) discrimination training. B) generalization. C) higher-order conditioning. D) successive approximations. QuestionID: 06-5-65 Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: D) successive approximations. 66. A camp leader repeatedly hugs a camper after she helps her friend. Each time, the camper is embarrassed and shies away from future acts of assistance. In the example, "hugging the camper" is A) a positive reinforcer. B) a primary reinforcer. C) a punishment. D) none of the above. QuestionID: 06-5-66 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: C) a punishment. 67. When you were first learning to make your bed, your parents told you that you did a good job when you got the bedspread pulled up, even though the bed was still a little messy. For the next week, they showed you how to be a little neater each time you made the bed. What operant conditioning procedure did your parents use? A) generalization B) extinction C) shaping D) punishment QuestionID: 06-5-67 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: C) shaping 68. At the local zoo, a polar bear suffered a broken tooth, and keepers needed a safe way of treating the problem. The bear was rewarded first for sticking its nose through a slot in the cage door, then for allowing a keeper to lift its lip and touch its teeth. Finally, a veterinarian was able to treat the damaged tooth while the bear waited placidly for its familiar reward. This is an example of A) modelling. B) shaping. C) negative reinforcement. D) secondary learning. QuestionID: 06-5-68 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: B) shaping. 69. Which of the following statements is true? A) Punishment does not always work. B) The effectiveness of punishment depends solely on its force. C) Punishment should be applied intermittently. D) Punishment usually enhances the learning process. QuestionID: 06-5-69 Objective: 6.2e Analyze the effectiveness of punishment on changing behaviour. Answer: A) Punishment does not always work. 70. The presentation of an aversive stimulus following a particular operant response is called A) negative reinforcement. B) discrimination training. C) aversion conditioning. D) punishment. QuestionID: 06-5-70 Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: D) punishment. 71. Billy throws rocks. Each time he throws a rock, he is immediately spanked. Spanking is a A) positive reinforcer. B) negative reinforcer. C) negative punishment. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) positive punishment. QuestionID: 06-5-71 Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: D) positive punishment. 72. Which of the following statements about punishment is NOT true? A) Punishment does not always work. B) Rewards should always immediately follow punishments. C) Effective punishment is consistent punishment. D) In itself, punishment serves to inhibit responses. QuestionID: 06-5-72 Objective: 6.2e Analyze the effectiveness of punishment on changing behaviour. Answer: B) Rewards should always immediately follow punishments. 73. To teach a tiger to jump through a flaming hoop, the tiger is first reinforced for jumping up on a certain pedestal, then for leaping from that pedestal to another. Next, the tiger has to jump through a hoop between the pedestals to get the reward. Finally, the hoop is set afire and the tiger must jump through it to get the reward. This is an example of A) modelling. B) shaping. C) negative reinforcement. D) secondary learning. QuestionID: 06-5-73 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: B) shaping. 74. A young girl is just learning to dress herself. At first, the parents call her a "big girl" just for putting on her clothes "frontwards," even if they are not buttoned. Then they call her a "big girl" if she tries to button them— even if the buttons are not in the right holes. Then, they call her a "big girl" only if she buttons them correctly. They have been using A) discrimination. B) generalization. C) higher-order conditioning. D) successive approximation. QuestionID: 06-5-74 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: D) successive approximation. 75. Peggy wanted to teach her dog how to roll over. She tried giving him instructions, but it didn't work. She tried waiting for him to roll over so she could reinforce the behaviour, but she had to go to bed before the dog rolled. Finally, she began reinforcing the dog when it made behaviours that more closely resembled rolling over. At last, using _______, she was able to teach the dog to do the trick. A) shaping B) positive reinforcement C) positive reinforcers D) secondary reinforcers QuestionID: 06-5-75 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: A) shaping 76. Elizabeth was given a $1000 raise after her last performance evaluation. Her raise is a A) primary reinforcer. B) punisher. C) negative reinforcer. D) secondary reinforcer. QuestionID: 06-5-76 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: D) secondary reinforcer. 77. Which learning principle is characterized by a less-pronounced response to stimuli that differ from the original stimulus? A) habituation B) stimulus generalization C) extinction D) stimulus discrimination QuestionID: 06-5-77 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: D) stimulus discrimination 78. On a variable-interval schedule, reinforcement is given for the A) first correct response after a fixed amount of time has passed. B) first correct response after varying amounts of time have passed. C) next correct response after a fixed number of responses have occurred. D) next correct response after a varying number of responses have occurred. QuestionID: 06-5-78 Objective: 6.2c Understand how schedules of reinforcement affect behaviour. Answer: B) first correct response after varying amounts of time have passed. 79. What do we call learning that has taken place but is not demonstrated? A) insight learning B) serial enumeration C) latent learning D) shaping QuestionID: 06-5-79 Objective: 6.3b Understand the concept of latent learning and its relevance to cognitive aspects of learning. Answer: C) latent learning 80. According to observational theory, a child who pretends she is smoking because she saw her favourite TV star smoking would be learning through A) reinforcement. B) punishment. C) imitation. D) practice.

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QuestionID: 06-5-80 Objective: 6.3a Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning. Answer: C) imitation. 81. Johnny watches as his older brother, Billy, jumps up and down on their parents' bed, squealing with delight. Johnny wants to join in but stops himself when he sees Billy fall off the bed and hurt his arm. From this experience, Johnny never ever wants to jump up and down on their parents' bed. Which term best explains Johnny's behaviour? A) reciprocal determinism B) reciprocal imitation C) social learning theory D) observational learning QuestionID: 06-5-81 Objective: 6.3c Apply principles of observational learning outside of the laboratory. Answer: D) observational learning 82. Dan and Joel, both four years old, have been watching reruns of Superman on television. Joel's mother recently found the boys standing on the garage roof, ready to try flying. What best accounts for the boys' behaviour? A) shaping B) delayed reinforcement C) observational learning D) immediate reinforcement QuestionID: 06-5-82 Objective: 6.3c Apply principles of observational learning outside of the laboratory. Answer: C) observational learning 83. A key to observational learning is A) insight learning. B) cognitive mapping. C) latent learning. D) imitation. QuestionID: 06-5-83 Objective: 6.3a Know the key terminology associated with cognitive and observational learning. Answer: D) imitation. 84. In Bandura's classic study (1965) of children exposed to a film of an adult hitting a Bobo doll, A) children who saw the model punished learned to be more aggressive than children who saw the model rewarded. B) children who saw the model rewarded learned to be more aggressive than children who saw the model punished. C) children who saw the model punished performed more aggressively in a free play situation than children who saw the model rewarded. D) children who saw the model rewarded performed more aggressively in a free play situation than children who saw the model punished. QuestionID: 06-5-84 Objective: 6.3c Apply principles of observational learning outside of the laboratory. Answer: D) children who saw the model rewarded performed more aggressively in a free play situation than children who saw the model punished. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

True-False Questions 1. An unconditioned stimulus is a stimulus that elicits a response automatically or reflexively. a True b False QuestionID: 06-6-01 Objective: 6.1a Know the key terminology involved in classical conditioning. Answer: a. True 2. Extinction is the result of forgetting a previously learned association. a True b False QuestionID: 06-6-02 Objective: 6.1b Understand how responses learned through classical conditioning can be acquired and lost. Answer: b. False 3. An example of discrimination would be developing a conditioned taste aversion to spearmint gum and then noticing that you had also developed a taste aversion to peppermint gum. a True b False QuestionID: 06-6-03 Objective: 6.1d Apply the concepts and terms of classical conditioning to new examples. Answer: b. False 4. Like other forms of classical conditioning, conditioned taste aversion requires multiple pairings of stimuli. a True b False QuestionID: 06-6-04 Objective: 6.1c Understand the role of biological and evolutionary factors in classical conditioning. Answer: b. False 5. Operant conditioning occurs when a stimulus similar to one that has already been conditioned elicits the same conditioned response. a True b False QuestionID: 06-6-05 Objective: 6.2a Know the key terminology associated with operant conditioning. Answer: b. False 6. Classical conditioning involves reflexive behaviours whereas operant conditioning involves voluntary behaviours. a True b False QuestionID: 06-6-06 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 6.2b Understand the role that consequences play in increasing or decreasing behaviour. Answer: a. True 7. To encourage Gwyneth to clean her room more often, her mother tells her that for each day her room remains dirty, she will lose a day of television privileges. This is an example of positive punishment. a True b False QuestionID: 06-6-07 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: b. False 8. Having a gold star placed on one's spelling quiz would be a secondary reinforcer. a True b False QuestionID: 06-6-08 Objective: 6.2d Apply your knowledge of operant conditioning to examples. Answer: a. True 9. In order for latent learning to occur, there must be reinforcement. a True b False QuestionID: 06-6-09 Objective: 6.3b Understand the concept of latent learning and its relevance to cognitive aspects of learning. Answer: b. False 10. The process of observational learning would explain how 3-year-old Ryan knows how to lather up his own face after watching his dad shave earlier that day. a True b False QuestionID: 06-6-10 Objective: 6.3c Apply principles of observational learning outside of the laboratory. Answer: a. True

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Chapter 7 : Memory Chapter Quiz Questions 1. Which type of memory can accurately hold information for only about 30 seconds? A) iconic memory B) short-term memory C) sensory memory D) long-term memory QuestionID: 07-1-01 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) short-term memory 2. Seven plus or minus two refers to A) the different types of memory stores in humans. B) the capacity of long-term memory. C) the number of seconds information can stay in iconic memory. D) the capacity of short-term memory. QuestionID: 07-1-02 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) the capacity of short-term memory. 3. Latasha remembers visiting Ottawa on a cloudy day when she was a child. She recalls being bored at the time, but now wishes she had paid more attention. Latasha's memory is an example of a(n )_____ memory. A) episodic B) semantic C) sensory D) implicit QuestionID: 07-1-03 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) episodic 4. Long-term potentiation (LTP) refers to A) damage to long-term memory stores. B) the inability to encode new information. C) a strengthening of signalling between neurons. D) a weakening of signalling between neurons. QuestionID: 07-1-04 Objective: 7.1c Apply your knowledge of the neural basis of memory to predict what types of memory would be affected by damage to different areas of the brain. Answer: C) a strengthening of signalling between neurons. 5. Damage to the hippocampus is most likely to lead to A) the inability to retrieve long-term memories. B) a loss in short-term memory. C) the inability to encode new long-term memories. .

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D) a loss in implicit memories. QuestionID: 07-1-05 Objective: 7.1c Apply your knowledge of the neural basis of memory to predict what types of memory would be affected by damage to different areas of the brain. Answer: C) the inability to encode new long-term memories. 6. According to the levels of processing (LOP) framework, how well we encode long-term information is most directly related to A) how frequently we encounter the information. B) how deeply we process the information. C) how long we are exposed to the information. D) how motivated we are to learn the information. QuestionID: 07-1-06 Objective: 7.1b Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form. Answer: B) how deeply we process the information. 7. Which of the following statements is true about flashbulb memories? A) They are far more accurate than standard memories. B) They are typically no more accurate than standard memories. C) They last for a much shorter period than standard memories. D) They contain fewer details than standard memories. QuestionID: 07-1-07 Objective: 7.2d Analyze whether emotional memories are more accurate than non-emotional ones. Answer: B) They are typically no more accurate than standard memories. 8. Early research into forgetting by Hermann Ebbinghaus found that forgetting occurs A) slowly over a long period of time. B) mostly between 12 and 24 hours after the learning event. C) slowly at first, but the rate of forgetting increases over time. D) quickly at first, but the rate of forgetting slows over time. QuestionID: 07-1-08 Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Answer: D) quickly at first, but the rate of forgetting slows over time. 9. What role are schemas believed to play in memory? A) Schemas store complete memories of events that can be "played back" at will. B) Schemas ensure that memories are highly accurate. C) Schemas help to organize information. D) Schemas help to reduce bias during recall. QuestionID: 07-1-09 Objective: 7.3b Understand how schemas serve as frameworks for encoding and constructing memories. Answer: C) Schemas help to organize information. 10. Terri was mugged one night while she was walking home. Later that same night, a police officer called to tell her that the police had arrested a man wearing a red baseball cap who was found in the area. Although Terri's .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

mugger was not wearing a hat when she was mugged, she now recalls the hat when she remembers the mugging. This is an example of the A) levels of processing effect. B) imagination inflation effect. C) Deese-Roediger-McDermott (DRM) effect. D) misinformation effect. QuestionID: 07-1-10 Objective: 7.3d Apply what you have learned to judge the reliability of eyewitness testimony. Answer: D) misinformation effect. Essay Questions 1. Patrick is picking up a foreign exchange student from France at the airport. Before he goes in, he focuses on a photo of the student so he can recognize him when he arrives, and looks up how to say "Hello. Welcome to Canada" in French. As Patrick scans the crowd for the student, he repeats the French phrase in his head. Using the working memory model, describe what each of the four components are likely doing as Patrick waits. QuestionID: 07-2-01 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: The phonological loop will be used to repeat the 'Hello. Welcome to Canada' phrase in French. As Patrick scans the crowd, the visuospatial sketchpad will be holding selected faces in the crowd in his short-term memory long enough for them to be compared to a representation in LTM. The central executive will be selecting faces from the crowd to be compared to long-term memory and ensuring that the phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad are doing their jobs. The episodic buffer will be putting together the sights and sounds of the airport and creating a memory of the episode. 2. Psychologists have identified several factors that can lead to strong encoding and recall of information. Using this information, describe four ways you could study material for this class that should help you in your next exam. QuestionID: 07-2-02 Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Answer: A good answer will include some of the following: - Levels of processing: processing the class material at a meaningful level will make it more likely to be recalled later. - Encoding specificity principle: retrieval is most effective when it occurs in the same context as encoding, so studying in an environment that is similar to your testing environment could help with retrieval. - Self reference: making material relevant to yourself will improve your memory for it. - The method of loci: associate concepts to be remembered with familiar locations, such as rooms in your house. - Acronyms or first-letter technique: use the first letter of concepts to create a word or sentence that is easy to remember (such as using the first letter for each part of the working memory model—V, P, C, and E—and memorizing "Vincent Price cracked eggs"). - Dual coding: memorize both a verbal and a visual depiction of a concept. - The testing effect: complete multiple practice tests to improve future test performance. 3. Many people think of memory as an accurate "recording" of past events. However, researchers have been able to demonstrate that it is fairly easy to make subjects misremember events or even remember events that did not occur (i.e., memory reconstruction). Explain three different techniques that researchers have used to create these false memories. Provide examples of each. QuestionID: 07-2-03 Objective: 7.3c Understand how psychologists can produce false memories in the laboratory.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: Examples include: - Changing words: by asking about a car 'crash' versus a car 'accident,' researchers have been able to make people falsely remember a more serious accident than the one they actually witnessed. - Providing misinformation after the event: when participants were quizzed about a 'yield sign' that was not in a car accident video they were shown, the participants falsely remembered the yield sign as being present. - "Imagination inflation" (making people imagine the event): having participants imagine an event that didn't really happen increased the likelihood that the participants would later report that the imagined event actually did happen to them. An example of this is providing a fake (doctored) photograph that shows the participants engaging in an activity they didn't actually ever experience. - Deese-Roediger-McDermott (DRM) procedure: seeing a list of highly related items can cause someone to 'remember' seeing an item presented even though it wasn't. Fill-in-the-blank Questions 1. Shyanne is headed downtown for dinner tonight and is trying to think about where she'll park her car, so she starts by picturing all the parking lots near the restaurant. In this example, Shyanne is using the __________ of her working memory. QuestionID: 07-3-01 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: a. visuospatial sketchpad 2. One type of declarative memory, called __________ memory, involves facts but does not revolve around specific events or personal experiences. QuestionID: 07-3-02 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: a. semantic 3. describes the process of neurons firing together and strengthening their connection. QuestionID: 07-3-03 Objective: 7.1b Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form. Answer: a. Long-term potentiation 4. Dimetri is in a car accident in which he loses consciousness after hitting his head on the steering wheel. When he awakens, he cannot remember leaving his house, getting in his car, or any of the events leading up to the accident. Dimetri is likely experiencing a mild case of __________ amnesia. QuestionID: 07-3-04 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: a. retrograde 5. Context-dependent, state-dependent, and mood-dependent learning effects are all examples of the __________ principle. QuestionID: 07-3-05 Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Answer: a. encoding specificity

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

6. Although they seem vivid and highly accurate, __________ memories of emotional events are no more accurate than other memories. QuestionID: 07-3-06 Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Answer: a. flashbulb 7. Hermann Ebbinghaus is famous for creating a __________ , which graphically displayed the results of his memory experiments. QuestionID: 07-3-07 Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Answer: a. forgetting curve 8. Using the mnemonic known as __________ , you could remember the order of the first 10 Canadian Prime Ministers by imagining yourself walking from room to room in your house, with a different Prime Minister sitting in each room. QuestionID: 07-3-08 Objective: 7.2c Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information. Answer: a. the method of loci 9. When details from an event fit our __________ for the situation, they tend to be easier to recall, although it may be more difficult to recognize or report the specifics. QuestionID: 07-3-09 Objective: 7.3b Understand how schemas serve as frameworks for encoding and constructing memories. Answer: a. schema 10. One technique for manipulating memories, known as __________ , involves a researcher giving instructions to participants to imagine certain events. QuestionID: 07-3-10 Objective: 7.3c Understand how psychologists can produce false memories in the laboratory. Answer: a. guided imagery Multiple-Choice Questions 1. According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin model, human memory consists of ____________ memory stores. A) two B) three C) seven plus or minus two D) a potentially infinite number of QuestionID: 07-4-01 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) three 2. The Atkinson-Shiffrin model of memory consists of ____________, which retain information, and .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

____________, which shift information from one type of memory to another. A) stores; episodic buffers B) control processes; central executives C) stores; control processes D) control processes; stores QuestionID: 07-4-02 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) stores; control processes 3. Carlos finds a friend on Facebook whom he has not talked to in years. As they reminisce about things that happened 10 years ago, the information from old memories is transferred from Carlos' long-term memory into his short-term memory. This process is known as A) storage. B) retrieval. C) attention. D) encoding. QuestionID: 07-4-03 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) retrieval. 4. ____________ describes the process of moving information from short-term to long-term memory, while ________ is the process of moving it from long-term back to short-term memory. A) Encoding; storage B) Encoding; retrieval C) Rehearsal; encoding D) Attention; storage QuestionID: 07-4-04 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) Encoding; retrieval 5. Which memory system holds information about all surrounding stimuli present at a particular moment? A) long-term memory B) sensory memory C) working memory D) short-term memory QuestionID: 07-4-05 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) sensory memory 6. Visual images remain in sensory memory for about A) 0.5–1 second. B) 2–3 seconds. C) 5–10 seconds. D) 30 seconds. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 07-4-06 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) 0.5–1 second. 7. The auditory form of sensory memory is known as __________ memory, while the visual form is known as _________. A) iconic; echoic B) phonological loop; visuospatial sketchpad C) visuospatial sketchpad; phonological loop D) echoic; iconic QuestionID: 07-4-07 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) echoic; iconic 8. Auditory information remains in the sensory store for about A) 0.5–1 second. B) 5–10 seconds. C) 30 seconds. D) 1 minute. QuestionID: 07-4-08 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) 5–10 seconds. 9. Why is studying sensory memory so difficult? A) Sensory stimuli are difficult to reproduce in a laboratory. B) Sensory memory is processed on an implicit level and cannot be verbalized. C) The capacity of sensory memory is too vast to be measured. D) Sensory memory disappears faster than an individual can report. QuestionID: 07-4-09 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) Sensory memory disappears faster than an individual can report. 10. Conrad is a participant in a memory experiment. He is shown a grid of letters for a fraction of a second, and then quickly asked to report the letters he saw either in the top, middle, or bottom row. The researchers conducting this experiment are most likely measuring Conrad's _____________ memory. A) short-term B) long-term C) sensory D) working QuestionID: 07-4-10 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: C) sensory 11. In the partial report method of Sperling's study of sensory memory, participants were asked to report A) only one of the three lines of letters. B) any letters they could remember. C) the first letter of each line. D) the last letter of each line. QuestionID: 07-4-11 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) only one of the three lines of letters. 12. Using the partial report method, Sperling found the capacity of iconic memory could hold A) only one line of letters (4). B) 5–10 letters. C) all the letters present (12). D) only 1–2 letters. QuestionID: 07-4-12 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) all the letters present (12). 13. _________ is required to move sensory information into short-term memory. A) Attention B) Encoding C) Retrieval D) Rehearsal QuestionID: 07-4-13 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) Attention 14. Alice was distracted when her friend asked her a question. She started to ask her friend to repeat the question, when she suddenly realized what her friend had been asking her. This is likely because the question was still stored in her A) working memory. B) short-term memory. C) long-term memory. D) sensory memory. QuestionID: 07-4-14 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) sensory memory. 15. What is the correct order for shortest to longest duration of memory? A) short-term, sensory, long-term B) sensory, short-term, long-term C) short-term, long-term, sensory .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) sensory, long-term, short-term QuestionID: 07-4-15 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) sensory, short-term, long-term 16. The 'magical' number that describes short-term memory capacity is A) fifteen plus or minus seven. B) thirty plus or minus seven. C) seven plus or minus five. D) seven plus or minus two. QuestionID: 07-4-16 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) seven plus or minus two. 17. When asked to recall single-digit numbers presented in various digit span sizes, the typical adult would probably start to encounter difficulty once they got past ________ digits. A) 3 B) 4 C) 7 D) 10 QuestionID: 07-4-17 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) 7 18. One way to store more information in short-term memory is called ____________, which involves organizing smaller units of information into larger, more meaningful units. A) rehearsal B) consolidation C) chunking D) dual coding QuestionID: 07-4-18 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) chunking 19. ________ is a technique used to increase the amount of information held in short-term memory. A) Chunking B) Decoding C) Rote rehearsal D) Consolidation QuestionID: 07-4-19 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: A) Chunking 20. Loni is asked to memorize the letters I K T E A L N in no particular order. She memorizes them by reorganizing them into the words INK and LATE. This tactic is called A) the method of loci. B) the serial position effect. C) rote rehearsal. D) chunking. QuestionID: 07-4-20 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) chunking. 21. Maria finds that it is easier to remember her student ID number if she thinks of it in segments, such as the first three digits, then the next two, and then the final four. This method is known as A) rote rehearsal. B) chunking. C) the method of loci. D) the serial position effect. QuestionID: 07-4-21 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) chunking. 22. Most people cannot store the following list of letters in short-term memory. PIOYELHOVSLYCOG However, if the letters are grouped meaningfully into words, they fit short-term's memory span: I love psychology. This illustrates A) chunking. B) attentional blindness. C) rote rehearsal. D) serial position effect. QuestionID: 07-4-22 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) chunking. 23. Devin is trying to remember the name of the cell body of a neuron. He can remember that it starts with an "s" and kind of sounds like aroma, but can't quite remember the term. This is an example of A) the serial position effect. B) the limits of sensory memory. C) the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon. D) retroactive amnesia. QuestionID: 07-4-23 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) the serial position effect.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

24. Amahl just began teaching a new class. After having all the students list off their names, which ones is he most likely to forget? A) the names of students from the middle of the list B) the names of students at the beginning of the list C) the names of students at the end of the list D) any student names that were strange to him QuestionID: 07-4-24 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) the names of students from the middle of the list 25. According to the serial position effect, if you are shown a list of items and then asked to immediately recall them, you will most easily recall items from the A) beginning and the middle of the list. B) beginning and the end of the list. C) middle of the list. D) end of the list. QuestionID: 07-4-25 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) beginning and the end of the list. 26. The tendency to recall items at the beginning of a list is known as the ___________ effect, and the tendency to recall items at the end of a list is known as the ___________ effect. A) recency; primacy B) primacy; recency C) serial position; primacy D) serial position; recency QuestionID: 07-4-26 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) primacy; recency 27. Adrianna is trying to memorize the names of the bones in the hand. She had gone through the whole list of them when her phone rang. After she gets off the phone, she is MOST likely to remember the first few bone names on the list because of the A) retroactive interference effect. B) recency effect. C) primacy effect. D) proactive interference effect. QuestionID: 07-4-27 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) primacy effect. 28. According to the recency effect, if your father read you a list of 10 items to pick up at the hardware store, you would most easily recall items A) from early in the list. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) in the middle of the list. C) from the end of the list. D) that are most distinctive. QuestionID: 07-4-28 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) from the end of the list. 29. Proactive interference refers to when A) older information interferes with the retrieval of newer information. B) newer information interferes with the retrieval of older information. C) information at the end of a list is more easily remembered. D) information in the middle of a list is more easily remembered. QuestionID: 07-4-29 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) older information interferes with the retrieval of newer information. 30. _______________ is when recently learned information interferes with previously learned information. A) The primacy effect B) Proactive interference C) Retroactive amnesia D) Retroactive interference QuestionID: 07-4-30 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) Retroactive interference 31. Isla is studying French and Spanish for two upcoming exams. She starts by studying French and then moves on to studying Spanish. However, when Isla goes to write her Spanish exam, she finds she keeps remembering French words rather than Spanish words. This is an example of A) retroactive interference. B) proactive interference. C) a shallow depth of processing. D) the recency effect. QuestionID: 07-4-31 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) proactive interference. 32. Tomlin is rehearsing with his band for an upcoming show; however, he's having a hard time remembering the lyrics to his songs. Each time he rehearses a new song, he forgets the lyrics to the songs they practised previously. This is an example of A) the recency effect. B) retroactive interference. C) anterograde amnesia. D) proactive interference.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 07-4-32 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) retroactive interference. 33. After working up the courage to ask Sam for her number, Alex repeats the number over and over in her head because she doesn't want to forget it. Alex's mental repetition is an example of A) chunking. B) deep processing. C) rehearsal. D) echoic memory. QuestionID: 07-4-33 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) rehearsal. 34. After you finish reading this sentence, the information will remain in your ________ as you consider each of the answers below. A) long-term memory B) echoic memory C) sensory memory D) working memory QuestionID: 07-4-34 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) working memory 35. Sarah is working on her calculus homework. To solve the equations, she needs to hold on to the information while she works through the problems. In this example, Sarah is using her A) sensory memory. B) nondeclarative memory. C) working memory. D) episodic memory. QuestionID: 07-4-35 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) working memory. 36. Which memory system can be divided into four interrelated systems: central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, episodic buffer, and the phonological loop? A) sensory memory B) working memory C) long-term memory D) episodic memory QuestionID: 07-4-36 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: B) working memory 37. As Katlin is learning a new language, she repeats the sound of the word over and over in her mind. Which component of working memory is primarily engaged during this task? A) phonological loop B) central executive C) episodic buffer D) visuospatial sketchpad QuestionID: 07-4-37 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) phonological loop 38. Recent research suggests that working memory includes a(n) _______________, which combines images and sounds into coherent, story-like episodes. A) phonological loop B) central executive C) episodic buffer D) visuospatial sketchpad QuestionID: 07-4-38 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) episodic buffer 39. Gillian is assembling a bookcase. She studies one of the diagrams in the instructions and then looks for the parts she needs and begins to put them together. Which part of Gillian's working memory is primarily engaged during this task? A) the phonological loop B) the central executive C) the episodic buffer D) the visuospatial sketchpad QuestionID: 07-4-39 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) the visuospatial sketchpad 40. Which part of working memory guides attention and ensures that the other components are working on the appropriate task? A) the phonological loop B) the central executive C) the episodic buffer D) the visuospatial sketchpad QuestionID: 07-4-40 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) the central executive 41. Similar to chunking, the visuospatial process of combining visual features (like shape and colour) into a .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

single unit is called A) feature binding. B) feature detection. C) episodic buffering. D) encoding. QuestionID: 07-4-41 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) feature binding. 42. Visuospatial memory can accurately retain approximately ________ whole objects. A) 3–4 B) 7 +/– 2 C) 7–10 D) 15–30 QuestionID: 07-4-42 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) 3–4 43. The provincial psychology association has invited teams from all the universities in the province to compete in a Psych Bowl. The teams will answer questions such as "Who founded the first psychology laboratory?" Where is this information stored in the participants' memory? A) long-term memory B) short-term memory C) sensory memory D) implicit memory QuestionID: 07-4-43 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) long-term memory 44. Memories that we are consciously aware of and can verbalize, including facts about the world and one's own personal experiences, are called ______________ memories. A) implicit B) procedural C) nondeclarative D) declarative QuestionID: 07-4-44 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) declarative 45. Which two types of memories are both considered to be forms of declarative memory? A) semantic and episodic B) semantic and procedural C) episodic and conditioning D) procedural and conditioning .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 07-4-45 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) semantic and episodic 46. ___________ memories can be told to someone, whereas____________ memories must be shown to someone. A) Procedural; declarative B) Nondeclarative; procedural C) Declarative; nondeclarative D) Nondeclarative; declarative QuestionID: 07-4-46 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) Declarative; nondeclarative 47. ____________ memories include actions or behaviours that can be remembered and performed without awareness. A) Declarative B) Nondeclarative C) Semantic D) Episodic QuestionID: 07-4-47 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) Nondeclarative 48. After Tanya has repeatedly practised her ballet performance, she feels as if her muscles know exactly what to do at each point in the piece. This is an example of a(n) _____________ memory. A) episodic B) semantic C) conditioning D) procedural QuestionID: 07-4-48 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) procedural 49. Cassondra is running a basketball clinic and is trying to explain how to complete a 'lay-up.' Cassondra knows the best way to teach this skill is to demonstrate it. In this example, Cassondra is relying on her _________ memory. A) procedural B) semantic C) declarative D) nondeclarative QuestionID: 07-4-49 Skill: Applied .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) procedural 50. Classical conditioning can occur without a person's knowledge, as such, it can be considered a type of ____________ memory. A) procedural B) semantic C) declarative D) nondeclarative QuestionID: 07-4-50 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) nondeclarative 51. You've been studying for days for your upcoming History exam. When completing the exam, you'll be relying on your________ memory. A) episodic B) semantic C) procedural D) conditional QuestionID: 07-4-51 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) semantic 52. When thinking back to your first day of university, which type of memory are you relying upon? A) nondeclarative memory B) semantic memory C) episodic memory D) procedural memory QuestionID: 07-4-52 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) episodic memory 53. Greg loves telling the story about how he met his boyfriend Asher while skydiving in New Zealand. In recalling how he and Asher first met, Greg is relying on his _______ memory. A) semantic B) nondeclarative C) procedural D) episodic QuestionID: 07-4-53 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) episodic 54. Our memories of general knowledge items such as the meanings of words or the dates of famous historical .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

events are stored in A) procedural memory. B) semantic memory. C) episodic memory. D) nondeclarative memory. QuestionID: 07-4-54 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) semantic memory. 55. On a TV game show, Jeannette is asked to name the 13 th Prime Minister of Canada. This information is most likely stored in Jeannette's A) procedural memory. B) semantic memory. C) episodic memory. D) nondeclarative memory. QuestionID: 07-4-55 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) semantic memory. 56. ___________ refers to the increased connectivity between neurons that fire together. A) Synaptic pruning B) Long-term potentiation C) Cellular potentiation D) Hippocampal potentiation QuestionID: 07-4-56 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1b Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form. Answer: B) Long-term potentiation 57. A researcher identifies a neuron in the brain that sends signals to a second neuron. After stimulating the neurons, the researcher finds that the signal being sent between the neurons is stronger than before. Which phenomenon can explain this result? A) synaptic pruning B) hippocampal potentiation C) long-term potentiation D) cellular encoding QuestionID: 07-4-57 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1b Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form. Answer: C) long-term potentiation 58. _______________ may represent the first stages of memory at the cellular level. A) Hippocampal potentiation B) Long-term potentiation .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) Cellular encoding D) Long-term encoding QuestionID: 07-4-58 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1b Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form. Answer: B) Long-term potentiation 59. ______________is the process of converting short-term memories into long-term memories in the brain. A) Retrieval B) Consolidation C) Long-term potentiation D) Short-term potentiation QuestionID: 07-4-59 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1b Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form. Answer: B) Consolidation 60. Immediately after class, Indigo remembered the definitions she had just learned in her psychology class. However, when completing a quiz a few days later, Indigo had trouble remembering most of the content. Which of the following is the most likely biological explanation for this? A) Indigo is suffering from hypothalamic damage. B) Long-term potentiation has occurred. C) Consolidation did not occur. D) Indigo is suffering from anterograde amnesia. QuestionID: 07-4-60 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1b Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form. Answer: C) Consolidation did not occur. 61. The case of H.M. helped researchers understand that the hippocampus is involved in A) storing long-term memories. B) processing information using working memory. C) transferring information from sensory to short-term memory. D) transferring information from short-term to long-term memory. QuestionID: 07-4-61 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.1b Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form. Answer: D) transferring information from short-term to long-term memory. 62. Hélène recently suffered a stroke. Although she is able to remember events that occurred prior to her stroke, she doesn't remember the doctors and nurses that she has met since being admitted to the hospital. Hélène is likely suffering from A) retrograde amnesia. B) infantile amnesia. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) anterograde amnesia. D) consolidation confusion. QuestionID: 07-4-62 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1b Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form. Answer: C) anterograde amnesia. 63. You train a rat to successfully navigate a maze, wait a week, and test him again. You note that the rat has remembered the successful path through the maze. You then lesion the rat's hippocampus. What results would you expect when testing the rat after the lesion has been performed? A) The rat will be unable to successfully navigate the maze. B) The rat's mobility will be too impaired to navigate the maze. C) The rat will require full re-training but will eventually learn to navigate the maze. D) The rat should have no problem successfully navigating the maze. QuestionID: 07-4-63 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1b Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form. Answer: D) The rat should have no problem successfully navigating the maze. 64. Following a car accident, Jane and Joan both suffer head injuries with resulting amnesia. Joan cannot remember events that occurred before the accident, while Jane cannot remember events that occurred after the accident. Joan is suffering from __________ amnesia, while Jane is suffering from __________ amnesia. A) anterograde; retrograde B) retrograde; anterograde C) proactive; retroactive D) retroactive; proactive QuestionID: 07-4-64 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) retrograde; anterograde 65. Damage to the hippocampus would most likely result in which disorder? A) anterograde amnesia B) retroactive interference C) retrograde amnesia D) proactive interference QuestionID: 07-4-65 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.1c Apply your knowledge of the neural basis of memory to predict what types of memory would be affected by damage to different areas of the brain. Answer: A) anterograde amnesia 66. The primary symptom experienced by Henry Molaison (H.M.) after his surgery was that he A) could not recall any memories from before the surgery. B) could form no new long-term memories of any type. C) could form nondeclarative, but not declarative memories. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) could form episodic, but not procedural memories. QuestionID: 07-4-66 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1c Apply your knowledge of the neural basis of memory to predict what types of memory would be affected by damage to different areas of the brain. Answer: C) could form nondeclarative, but not declarative memories. 67. ________ is an active process, taking place between encoding and retrieval. A) Consolidation B) Rehearsal C) Elaboration D) Storage QuestionID: 07-4-67 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) Storage 68. The order of the basic memory processes in which information enters the memory system and is later used is A) encoding, retrieval, and storage. B) encoding, storage, and retrieval. C) acquisition, elaboration, and storage. D) acquisition, encoding, and retrieval. QuestionID: 07-4-68 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Answer: B) encoding, storage, and retrieval. 69. __________ is the process of transforming sensory and perceptual information into memory traces, while __________ is the process of accessing memorized information. A) Retrieval; encoding B) Storage; retrieval C) Encoding; storage D) Encoding; retrieval QuestionID: 07-4-69 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Answer: D) Encoding; retrieval 70. Reading and re-reading your notes to study for an exam is known as A) deep processing. B) elaborative rehearsal. C) maintenance rehearsal. D) encoding specificity. QuestionID: 07-4-70 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.2b Understand how the type of cognitive processing employed can affect the chances of remembering what you encounter. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: C) maintenance rehearsal. 71. To better retain information for an exam, researchers would suggest using ________ rehearsal rather than ____________ rehearsal. A) maintenance; elaborative B) elaborative; maintenance C) rote; maintenance D) rote; elaborative QuestionID: 07-4-71 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.2b Understand how the type of cognitive processing employed can affect the chances of remembering what you encounter. Answer: B) elaborative; maintenance 72. Who is most likely to obtain the top score on his or her vocabulary test? A) James, who made term-definition flash cards of all his words and is going over and over them B) Cynthia, who has written down each word and definition five times in her notebook C) Callum, who has drawn a picture to illustrate each word D) Abbott, who says the words and definitions over and over to herself all day long QuestionID: 07-4-72 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.2b Understand how the type of cognitive processing employed can affect the chances of remembering what you encounter. Answer: C) Callum, who has drawn a picture to illustrate each word 73. Which of the following correctly describes the basic levels of processing (LOP) effect? A) The longer someone is exposed to information, the more they will encode. B) Long-term memories are processed at a deeper level than short-term memories. C) Thinking about the meaning of information leads to better encoding. D) Memories are easier to recall in the same context as they were originally encoded. QuestionID: 07-4-73 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.2b Understand how the type of cognitive processing employed can affect the chances of remembering what you encounter. Answer: C) Thinking about the meaning of information leads to better encoding. 74. On the first day of class, Sheila asked her professor the best way to learn and remember the material for the course. The professor responded, "Focus on identifying and understanding the meaning of the important terms and concepts." The instructor's advice supports the research on A) state-dependent memory. B) context-dependent memory. C) levels of processing. D) encoding specificity. QuestionID: 07-4-74 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.2c Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information. Answer: C) levels of processing. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

75. Assessing whether the word CONSOLIDATION is in all capital letters is an example of _________ processing, whereas assessing whether it means the same thing as "encoding" is an example of __________ processing. A) structural; declarative B) declarative; semantic C) deep; shallow D) shallow; deep QuestionID: 07-4-75 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.2b Understand how the type of cognitive processing employed can affect the chances of remembering what you encounter. Answer: D) shallow; deep 76. While studying about operant conditioning for his upcoming Psychology exam, Damien thinks about his job at the plastics factory. He realizes that he's paid on a fixed-ratio schedule. Personalizing the information in an effort to better retain it, is an example of A) the self-reference effect. B) elaborative rehearsal. C) state-dependent memory. D) context-dependent memory. QuestionID: 07-4-76 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.2c Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information. Answer: A) the self-reference effect. 77. Typical multiple-choice questions rely upon ________, whereas short answer questions rely on _________. A) recall; recognition B) recognition; recall C) maintenance rehearsal; elaborative rehearsal D) elaborative rehearsal; maintenance rehearsal QuestionID: 07-4-77 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.2c Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information. Answer: B) recognition; recall 78. Dr. James advises that if you study for your next psychology exam in the same room where you take the exam, your score will improve. He is basing this advice on A) state-dependent memory. B) the method of loci. C) context-dependent memory. D) deep processing. QuestionID: 07-4-78 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Answer: C) context-dependent memory. 79. If a researcher showed that people remember pleasant memories better when they are happy than when they are sad, this would demonstrate the concept of .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

context-dependent memory. state-dependent memory. mood-dependent memory. depth-dependent memory.

QuestionID: 07-4-79 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Answer: C) mood-dependent memory. 80. State-dependent memory refers to the superior retrieval of information when the organism A) is in the same environment as it was during encoding. B) is in the same mood as it was during encoding. C) is in the same physical location as it was during encoding. D) is in the same internal state as it was during encoding. QuestionID: 07-4-80 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Answer: D) is in the same internal state as it was during encoding. 81. Misty and her parents just got back from a vacation at Disney World, where they had a great time. Under which of the following circumstances is Misty likely to have more difficulty remembering what they did? A) while attending her grandmother's funeral B) at the park while playing with her friends C) at the beach with her family D) while attending the local fair QuestionID: 07-4-81 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Answer: A) while attending her grandmother's funeral 82. Finn is recovering from serious back surgery and has been taking pain medication for the last several days. During his recovery, he received multiple calls from friends and family. Later that week, off his medication, Finn can't seem to remember who called or what they said. Which of the following provides the best explanation for Finn's memory failure? A) context-dependent memory B) state-dependent memory C) mood-dependent memory D) depth-dependent memory QuestionID: 07-4-82 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Answer: B) state-dependent memory 83. Based on research outlined in the textbook that describes the influence of emotion on memory, which of the following orders is correct, from most likely to be recalled to least likely to be recalled? A) emotionally positive; neutral; emotionally negative B) emotionally positive; emotionally negative; neutral C) neutral; emotionally positive; emotionally negative .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) emotionally negative, emotionally positive, neutral QuestionID: 07-4-83 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.2b Understand how the type of cognitive processing employed can affect the chances of remembering what you encounter. Answer: D) emotionally negative, emotionally positive, neutral 84. Which of the following situations is most likely to create a flashbulb memory? A) watching a favourite movie for the second time B) playing tennis with a friend C) finding out that one's partner is pregnant D) attending a basketball game with one's father and grandfather QuestionID: 07-4-84 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.2b Understand how the type of cognitive processing employed can affect the chances of remembering what you encounter. Answer: C) finding out that one's partner is pregnant 85. You are telling your friend about a trip you took to Sea World when you were a child. During the middle of the show, the trainer slipped, fell into the water, and was nearly killed. You can remember the scene as if it happened yesterday. This is an example of which type of memory? A) unalterable B) semantic C) flashbulb D) procedural QuestionID: 07-4-85 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.2d Analyze whether emotional memories are more accurate than non-emotional ones. Answer: C) flashbulb 86. Flashbulb memories A) are not subject to periodic revision. B) concern events that are highly significant. C) are typically highly accurate. D) are typically emotionally neutral. QuestionID: 07-4-86 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.2d Analyze whether emotional memories are more accurate than non-emotional ones. Answer: B) concern events that are highly significant. 87. Which of the following statements about flashbulb memories is TRUE? A) Flashbulb memories are no more accurate than other types of memories. B) People are often unsure about their recall of flashbulb memories. C) A major news event automatically leads to the development of a flashbulb memory. D) After a flashbulb memory has formed, it cannot be altered. QuestionID: 07-4-87 Skill: Conceptual .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 7.2d Analyze whether emotional memories are more accurate than non-emotional ones. Answer: A) Flashbulb memories are no more accurate than other types of memories. 88. Emotional memories typically involve activation of the ________, whereas non-emotional memories do not. A) hippocampus B) amygdala C) thalamus D) temporal lobe QuestionID: 07-4-88 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.2b Understand how the type of cognitive processing employed can affect the chances of remembering what you encounter. Answer: B) amygdala 89. Ebbinghaus found that information is forgotten A) more rapidly as time goes by. B) gradually at first, then with increasing speed. C) quickly at first, then tapers off gradually. D) most quickly, one day after learning. QuestionID: 07-4-89 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Answer: C) quickly at first, then tapers off gradually. 90. As Dominique reviews the vocabulary terms for her French class, she is most likely to experience the greatest degree of forgetting A) immediately after learning the new words. B) immediately after finishing the semester. C) immediately after taking the test. D) immediately before taking the test. QuestionID: 07-4-90 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.2c Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information. Answer: A) immediately after learning the new words. 91. Sarah runs study-strategy workshops at the university. She teaches students different types of ________, techniques (e.g., method of loci, acronyms, and others) intended to help them improve their recall of specific information. A) coding B) serial positions C) testing effects D) mnemonics QuestionID: 07-4-91 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Answer: D) mnemonics

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

92. In order to help her music students learn the lines of the treble clef in musical notation, the teacher has them learn the sentence "Every Good Boy Does Fine." This is an example of the A) method of loci. B) first-letter technique. C) serial position effect. D) testing effect. QuestionID: 07-4-92 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.2c Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information. Answer: B) first-letter technique. 93. One way to improve memory is to use techniques that allow the information to be stored in more than one form. This is known as A) binary encoding. B) the testing effect. C) an acronym. D) dual coding. QuestionID: 07-4-93 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.2c Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information. Answer: D) dual coding. 94. Jasmine needs to remember an eight-line poem for her fifth-grade English class next week. Her mother suggests that she link the first few words from each line with a different part of their home, starting with the front door. This suggestion is most similar to the memory strategy known as A) an acronym. B) the first-letter technique. C) the method of loci. D) maintenance rehearsal. QuestionID: 07-4-94 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.2c Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information. Answer: C) the method of loci. 95. One potential drawback to the use of mnemonic devices is that they A) can help with rote memorization, but may not improve understanding. B) can lead to the formation of false memories. C) cannot be used to remember more than approximately 20 items. D) are usually only useful for remembering information for short periods of time. QuestionID: 07-4-95 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.2c Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information. Answer: A) can help with rote memorization, but may not improve understanding. 96. Which of the following is most likely to improve performance on an exam? A) using maintenance rehearsal instead of elaborative rehearsal B) taking a practice test beforehand C) studying for long, intense periods .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) studying from small stacks of flashcards instead of one big stack QuestionID: 07-4-96 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.2c Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information. Answer: B) taking a practice test beforehand 97. Aleixo just started his job as an advertising intern. When he arrived at the office, he was surprised that everyone was wearing jeans or other types of informal attire. The situation most likely violates Aleixo's __________ of office workers. A) reconstruction B) discrimination C) dual coding D) schema QuestionID: 07-4-97 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.3b Understand how schemas serve as frameworks for encoding and constructing memories. Answer: D) schema 98. A(n) __________ is an organized cluster of memories that constitutes one's knowledge about events, objects, and ideas. A) bias B) code C) implicit attitude D) schema QuestionID: 07-4-98 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.3b Understand how schemas serve as frameworks for encoding and constructing memories. Answer: D) schema 99. One reason for misremembering an event is that our __________ influence(s) what to pay attention to, and what we expect to happen in certain situations. A) subconscious B) schemas C) episodic buffer D) procedural memory QuestionID: 07-4-99 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.3b Understand how schemas serve as frameworks for encoding and constructing memories. Answer: B) schemas 100. How have clinical psychologists applied the concept of schemas to the treatment of psychological problems like depression? A) Abnormal schemas can be used as a diagnostic tool to identify depression in patients. B) Patients are encouraged to develop a "therapeutic process" schema that facilitates treatment. C) Schemas can be used by therapists to recover blocked memories which are causing the disorder. D) Some therapists attempt to change negative self-schemas which contribute to negative thoughts. QuestionID: 07-4-100 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Factual Objective: 7.3b Understand how schemas serve as frameworks for encoding and constructing memories. Answer: D) Some therapists attempt to change negative self-schemas which contribute to negative thoughts. 101. Mariska's parents often tell the story about how she broke her arm when she was two, but Mariska has no memory of the event at all. She is most likely experiencing A) anterograde amnesia. B) infantile amnesia. C) retrograde amnesia. D) hippocampal damage. QuestionID: 07-4-101 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.3a Know the key terminology used in discussing how memories are organized and constructed. Answer: B) infantile amnesia. 102. Which of the following do the textbook authors suggest might be a cause of infantile amnesia? A) hippocampal damage B) low IQ C) a lack of self-schemas D) repression QuestionID: 07-4-102 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.3b Understand how schemas serve as frameworks for encoding and constructing memories. Answer: C) a lack of self-schemas 103. Jermaine sees a car accident and initially estimates the offending driver to be travelling at 60 km/hr. However, after hearing another witness's report of the cars "bumping into each other" and answering a police officer's questions about the rate of speed when the cars "made contact," he subsequently revises his estimate to 50 km/hr and his memory of the accident changes. This is an example of A) retroactive interference. B) a flashbulb memory. C) imagination inflation. D) the misinformation effect. QuestionID: 07-4-103 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.3d Apply what you have learned to judge the reliability of eyewitness testimony. Answer: D) the misinformation effect. 104. Which of the following situations is most likely to lead to the misinformation effect? A) The detective asked Jade if the robber had a strange scar. B) Jared's mother asked him about his day at school. C) The Mountie asked Johanna to describe what happened. D) Josh asked his girlfriend what she had for dinner last night. QuestionID: 07-4-104 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.3d Apply what you have learned to judge the reliability of eyewitness testimony. Answer: A) The detective asked Jade if the robber had a strange scar. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

105. Benjamin is a participant in a lab experiment. He is shown a list of words that include: engine, tire, trunk, drive, gasoline, and steering wheel. When later asked, Benjamin says that "car" was one of the words he saw on the list, even though it was not there. This experiment is using __________ to study memory. A) guided imagery B) a recovered memory technique C) imagination inflation D) the DRM procedure QuestionID: 07-4-105 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.3c Understand how psychologists can produce false memories in the laboratory. Answer: D) the DRM procedure 106. The more times an individual imagines an event, the more likely he is to believe the event happened, even if it did not. This is known as A) the DRM procedure. B) the misinformation effect. C) imagination inflation. D) reality conflation. QuestionID: 07-4-106 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.3c Understand how psychologists can produce false memories in the laboratory. Answer: C) imagination inflation. 107. When meeting new people, Wanda breaks the ice by telling them that she once met the Queen, which is actually a lie. After years of retelling the same story, Wanda begins to believe that she really did meet the Queen. This is an example of A) the DRM procedure. B) imagination inflation. C) anterograde amnesia. D) the misinformation effect. QuestionID: 07-4-107 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.3d Apply what you have learned to judge the reliability of eyewitness testimony. Answer: B) imagination inflation. 108. In a study discussed in your textbook, volunteers were shown old childhood photos their parents had provided, including pictures that had been altered to show things that never happened. What did this study find? A) After several sessions, the photos began triggering repressed memories from some volunteers' childhoods. B) The volunteers could not remember any of the events that occurred before they were three years old. C) After several sessions, many volunteers 'remembered' situations that had never happened. D) The photographs that were in colour were more successful in cueing forgotten memories than the black-and-white photographs. QuestionID: 07-4-108 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.3c Understand how psychologists can produce false memories in the laboratory. Answer: C) After several sessions, many volunteers 'remembered' situations that had never happened.

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109. Which of the following statements about recovered memories is TRUE? A) All psychologists agree that trauma does not cause memories to be repressed. B) Recovery of traumatic memories has no therapeutic benefit. C) Techniques used to recover memories are the same ones used to create false memories. D) No one has ever claimed to have successfully recovered a repressed memory. QuestionID: 07-4-109 Skill: Factual Objective: 7.3e Analyze the arguments in the "recovered memory" debate. Answer: C) Techniques used to recover memories are the same ones used to create false memories. 110. Opponents of recovered memories argue that they are A) false memories of events that never happened. B) memories of everyday events that were simply forgotten. C) intentional lies created by an individual for attention. D) memories that were never repressed in the first place. QuestionID: 07-4-110 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.3e Analyze the arguments in the "recovered memory" debate. Answer: A) false memories of events that never happened. 111. Andy was wandering in a local nature reserve and his attention was focused on a beautiful fox, which is the emotional content of the scene. He will be more likely to remember this information (that is, the fox) than peripheral information, such us the trees near the fox. This particular phenomenon is more significant in the courtroom, and is known as A) false memory. B) weapon focus. C) consolidation. D) recovered memory. QuestionID: 07-4-111 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.2d Analyze whether emotional memories are more accurate than non-emotional ones. Answer: B) weapon focus. 112. Most psychology textbooks include quizzes and online tests to help students memorize the content and experience shows that they work. This phenomenon is called A) method of loci. B) dual coding. C) desirable difficulty. D) testing effect. QuestionID: 07-4-112 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.2c Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information. Answer: D) testing effect. 113. Sertan is given a task to learn a list of words while diving underwater. Nur is given the same task, but on the land. If Sertan is tested on the land or Nur is tested underwater, they might equally underperform. This is mainly due to A) encoding specificity. .

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B) dual coding. C) testing effect. D) mood-dependent memory. QuestionID: 07-4-113 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Answer: A) encoding specificity. 114. Jamie has been trying to apply techniques such as spaced learning, which makes her studying slower and more effortful. However, her recall of information has been getting better. This phenomenon is called A) encoding specificity. B) desirable difficulties. C) maintenance rehearsal. D) state-dependent memory. QuestionID: 07-4-114 Skill: Applied Objective: 7.2c Apply what you have learned to improve your ability to memorize information. Answer: B) desirable difficulties. 115. Research indicates that long-term declarative memories are distributed throughout the cortex of the brain. In other words, these long-term memories are not localized in one region. This phenomenon is known as A) reconsolidation. B) long-term potentiation (LTP). C) cross-cortical storage. D) feature binding. QuestionID: 07-4-115 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.1b Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form. Answer: C) cross-cortical storage. 116. Short-term memory research indicates that it is easier for people to remember one-syllable words (sum, pay, bar, etc.) than four- or five-syllable words (helicopter, university, alligator, etc.). This phenomenon is called A) serial position effect. B) working memory. C) retroactive interference. D) word-length effect. QuestionID: 07-4-116 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) word-length effect. Supplementary Questions 1. The step in the memory process that actually makes our memories available to us is A) retrieval. B) encoding. C) rehearsal. .

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D) storage. QuestionID: 07-5-01 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) retrieval. 2. Encoding is A) recalling information. B) recognizing information. C) representing information. D) remembering information. QuestionID: 07-5-02 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) representing information. 3. The process of getting information out of memory is known as A) retention. B) retrieval. C) reconstruction. D) reliable. QuestionID: 07-5-03 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) retrieval. 4. Sensory memory A) holds information for as long as you rehearse it. B) holds information for about 30 seconds. C) holds information for about 5 seconds. D) processes information for permanent encoding. QuestionID: 07-5-04 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) holds information for about 5 seconds. 5. Unprocessed stimulation from the environment is first held in A) short-term store. B) sensory memory. C) long-term store. D) intermediate store. QuestionID: 07-5-05 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) sensory memory. 6. How long do the contents of the sensory store normally last? A) about five seconds B) about four to twenty seconds C) about five to nine minutes D) up to a lifetime .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 07-5-06 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) about five seconds 7. What is the approximate duration of an iconic memory? A) half a second B) 5–10 seconds C) 20 seconds D) longer than 20 seconds QuestionID: 07-5-07 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) half a second 8. You looked up a friend's address for a letter you wrote. Suddenly the phone rings—wrong number. Even though you were interrupted for only a few seconds, you've forgotten the address. Which memory system failed you? A) permanent memory B) long-term memory C) sensory register D) short-term memory QuestionID: 07-5-08 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) short-term memory 9. The capacity of short-term memory is _______ items. A) unlimited B) 7 +/– 2 C) 12 D) 22 QuestionID: 07-5-09 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) 7 +/– 2 10. Chess grandmasters can recall the exact positions of most pieces on the board after a brief glance. This ability is best explained by which concept? A) flashbulb memory B) iconic memory C) the lack of retroactive interference D) chunking QuestionID: 07-5-10 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) chunking 11. Information is grouped for storage in short-term memory through the process of A) rote rehearsal. B) cueing. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) chunking. D) categorizing. QuestionID: 07-5-11 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) chunking. 12. Chunking is a means of A) immediately forgetting irrelevant details. B) organizing information into meaningful units. C) arranging details into a hierarchy from most important to least important. D) storing long-term memories. QuestionID: 07-5-12 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) organizing information into meaningful units. 13. Chunking aids A) understanding. B) perception. C) retention. D) encoding. QuestionID: 07-5-13 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) retention. 14. When Dana asked Rachel what she had for dinner last night, Rachel said that she couldn't remember because her short-term memory was poor. How should Dana respond to Rachel? A) "You should consider seeing your doctor to get your short-term memory assessed." B) "The duration of your short-term memory is really only about 30 seconds, so it's not likely the problem." C) "Your sensory memory is likely at fault—not your short-term memory." D) "Try not to be too hard on yourself. Most of us have difficulty with our short-term memories." QuestionID: 07-5-14 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) "The duration of your short-term memory is really only about 30 seconds, so it's not likely the problem." 15. If the capacity of short-term memory is so limited, how is it that individuals are able to remember as much information as they do? A) The information is transferred quickly and automatically to long-term memory. B) Processes such as chunking and rehearsal expand the capacity of short-term memory. C) Phonological analysis of information in short-term memory allows for deep processing. D) Increased production of GABA in the hippocampal area allows for better encoding. QuestionID: 07-5-15 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) Processes such as chunking and rehearsal expand the capacity of short-term memory. 16. Tim is studying for a test. After seven consecutive hours of studying, he finds he can remember what he just finished studying, but he can no longer remember what he studied five or six hours ago. Tim's memory problems .

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are BEST explained by A) proactive interference. B) retrograde amnesia. C) memory diffusion. D) retroactive interference. QuestionID: 07-5-16 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) retroactive interference. 17. Retroactive interference of long-term memory means A) new material interferes with memory of old material. B) new material has suppressed short-term memories. C) old material interferes with memory of new material. D) old material has eliminated memories of new material. QuestionID: 07-5-17 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) new material interferes with memory of old material. 18. "Old information inhibits one's ability to remember newer information" defines A) interference. B) retroactive inhibition. C) proactive interference. D) suppression. QuestionID: 07-5-18 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) proactive interference. 19. What kind of forgetting does the following incident illustrate? Ruth studied the names of learning theorists for her psychology class, after which she began studying the names of political theorists for her political science class. Much to her frustration, she found the names of the learning theorists were keeping her from being able to learn the names of the political theorists. A) decay B) proactive interference C) repression D) retroactive interference QuestionID: 07-5-19 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) proactive interference 20. Kerry's grandparents moved to a new neighbourhood last year. Today, Kerry can easily remember their address but messes up their old one. This illustrates A) trace decay. B) interference. C) retroactive interference. D) proactive inhibition. QuestionID: 07-5-20 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: C) retroactive interference. 21. Little Tammy is talking to her grandfather. She loves to listen to him tell stories about when he was a child. He has very vivid recollections of his youth and enjoys telling people about his fond memories. Unfortunately, grandpa has a difficult time remembering what happened within the last few days or weeks. If there are no physiological problems, grandpa's memory problems are best explained by A) proactive interference. B) memory diffusion. C) retroactive interference. D) retrograde amnesia. QuestionID: 07-5-21 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) proactive interference. 22. Your tutor has "one last word" for you before she ends today's session. She tells you to study material in the middle of your study session a little harder. What concept from memory research is the basis of her advice? A) serial position effect B) state-dependent learning C) transfer test D) imagery QuestionID: 07-5-22 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) serial position effect 23. The theory that states that we forget information because other information gets in the way is the _______ theory. A) signal detection B) trace decay C) interference D) inhibition QuestionID: 07-5-23 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) interference 24. The primacy effect is to _____________ as the recency effect is to _____________. A) phonological encoding; visual encoding B) long-term memory; short-term memory C) maintenance rehearsal; elaborative rehearsal D) short-term memory; sensory memory QuestionID: 07-5-24 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) long-term memory; short-term memory 25. Arnold so easily remembers his old girlfriend's telephone number that he finds it difficult to recall his new girlfriend's number. Arnold's difficulty best illustrates which concept? A) retroactive interference B) the next-in-line effect .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) proactive interference D) repression QuestionID: 07-5-25 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) proactive interference 26. After studying biology all afternoon, Abba is having difficulty remembering details of the chemistry lecture he heard that morning. Abba's difficulty best illustrates A) encoding failure. B) retroactive interference. C) the spacing effect. D) proactive interference. QuestionID: 07-5-26 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) retroactive interference. 27. The hippocampus is instrumental in A) the formation of short-term memory. B) the retrieval of memories from long-term memory. C) maintaining a constant level of information filtration by the sensory registers. D) transferring information from short-term to long-term memory. QuestionID: 07-5-27 Objective: 7.1b Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form. Answer: D) transferring information from short-term to long-term memory. 28. Which type of memory is concerned with remembering the day your parents bought you a car? A) implicit memory B) semantic memory C) episodic memory D) procedural memory QuestionID: 07-5-28 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) episodic memory 29. The type of memory that is most like an encyclopedia or a dictionary is A) emotional memory. B) episodic memory. C) procedural memory. D) semantic memory. QuestionID: 07-5-29 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) semantic memory. 30. The portion of long-term memory that stores specific information that has personal meaning is called __________ memory. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

emotional episodic semantic procedural

QuestionID: 07-5-30 Skill: Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) episodic 31. Your street address, telephone number, and social insurance number are stored in A) numerical memory. B) short-term memory. C) long-term memory. D) sensory memory. QuestionID: 07-5-31 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) long-term memory. 32. Steve was recalling his first day in university, including walking into the wrong class, dropping his books as he left, and the long line at the registrar's office he encountered when he had to switch classes. These memories are examples of A) semantic memory. B) implicit memory. C) procedural memory. D) episodic memory. QuestionID: 07-5-32 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) episodic memory. 33. An individual's semantic memory contains A) memories about events. B) background knowledge about words, symbols, concepts, and rules, arranged as hierarchies of information in categories and subordinate categories. C) autobiographical information about one's previous experiences. D) memories that are recalled from an "I" or "my" perspective. QuestionID: 07-5-33 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) background knowledge about words, symbols, concepts, and rules, arranged as hierarchies of information in categories and subordinate categories. 34. Connie lost her keys. She searches her memory for when she last had them, and goes to that place in the hope that it will help her remember where she misplaced them. Connie is ________ activating her _________. A) unconsciously; semantic memory B) consciously; semantic memory C) unconsciously; episodic memory D) consciously; episodic memory QuestionID: 07-5-34 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) consciously; episodic memory 35. Your memories of personal information such as what you wore to work yesterday or what you ate for breakfast this morning are stored in A) procedural memory. B) semantic memory. C) episodic memory. D) eidetic memory. QuestionID: 07-5-35 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: C) episodic memory. 36. Scott remembers all of the details of his wedding seven years ago. This information is most likely stored in _______ memory. A) iconic B) episodic C) semantic D) short-term QuestionID: 07-5-36 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) episodic 37. Which of the following is an example of semantic memory? A) events B) concepts C) time D) place QuestionID: 07-5-37 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) concepts 38. Which of the following is an example of episodic memory? A) words B) concepts C) symbols D) events QuestionID: 07-5-38 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) events 39. The concept of a house would be stored in A) the sensory registers. B) short-term memory. C) eidetic memory. D) long-term memory.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 07-5-39 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: D) long-term memory. 40. Our memories of general knowledge items such as the meanings of words or the dates of famous historical events are stored in A) procedural memory. B) semantic memory. C) episodic memory. D) eidetic memory. QuestionID: 07-5-40 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) semantic memory. 41. Which type of memory allows individuals to perform tasks automatically, such as driving, typing, or riding a bike? A) declarative memory B) nondeclarative memory C) episodic memory D) semantic memory QuestionID: 07-5-41 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: B) nondeclarative memory 42. Many people retain their classically conditioned fears without any conscious recollection of how or when those fears were learned. This fact best illustrates ______________ memory. A) implicit B) short-term C) sensory D) flashbulb QuestionID: 07-5-42 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: A) implicit 43. Which individual studying for a test will most likely be able to remember the information accurately? A) Dan is reciting definitions repeatedly to himself from cue cards. B) Nancy is trying to link the concepts to examples in her own life. C) Karen is looking at the concepts in her textbook and trying to recall how they look. D) Matt is focusing on how the concepts sound to him and trying to make them rhyme. QuestionID: 07-5-43 Objective: 7.2b Understand how the type of cognitive processing employed can affect the chances of remembering what you encounter. Answer: B) Nancy is trying to link the concepts to examples in her own life. 44. Retrieval cues A) are important in helping us remember items stored in long-term memory. B) are aids in rote rehearsal in short-term memory. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) can be helpful in both long-term and short-term memory. D) have been recently shown to be inefficient in accessing available information in memory. QuestionID: 07-5-44 Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Answer: A) are important in helping us remember items stored in long-term memory. 45. Godden and Baddeley conducted a classic study on learning and memory in scuba divers. What were the results of the study? A) Scuba divers who learned words underwater remembered them best when tested underwater. B) Scuba divers who learned words underwater remembered them best when tested on land. C) Scuba divers who learned words on land remembered them best when tested underwater. D) Scuba divers remembered the words similarly across both land and underwater learning conditions. QuestionID: 07-5-45 Objective: 7.2b Understand how the type of cognitive processing employed can affect the chances of remembering what you encounter. Answer: A) Scuba divers who learned words underwater remembered them best when tested underwater. 46. Memories that concern events that are highly significant and are vividly remembered are called A) elaborative rehearsals. B) flashbulb memories. C) eidetic images. D) eyewitness images. QuestionID: 07-5-46 Objective: 7.2d Analyze whether emotional memories are more accurate than non-emotional ones. Answer: B) flashbulb memories. 47. Hermann Ebbinghaus found that memory is best immediately after we learn information, and we gradually forget more as time passes. What name is given to this observation? A) serial position curve B) mirage effect C) free recall curve D) curve of forgetting QuestionID: 07-5-47 Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Answer: D) curve of forgetting 48. Last week, Lisa took an abnormal psychology test and did not miss a question. However, when a guest speaker came to class a week later to talk about schizophrenia, she had trouble remembering some of the relevant class material. She remembered even less about the topic when she saw a news report on schizophrenia a month later. What memory phenomenon explains what Lisa is experiencing? A) mirage effect B) serial position curve C) free recall curve D) forgetting curve QuestionID: 07-5-48 Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: D) forgetting curve 49. Which of the following is NOT true of schemas? A) They are a part of short-term memory. B) They can influence the amount of attention you pay to a given event. C) They help people retrieve information from memory. D) They help determine what you will recall. QuestionID: 07-5-49 Objective: 7.3b Understand how schemas serve as frameworks for encoding and constructing memories. Answer: A) They are a part of short-term memory. 50. Long-term memory is sometimes unreliable because of _______ of information. A) reconstruction B) retention C) coding D) chunking QuestionID: 07-5-50 Objective: 7.3a Know the key terminology used in discussing how memories are organized and constructed. Answer: A) reconstruction True-False Questions 1. In the Atkinson-Shiffrin model, incoming information moves from sensory memory into short-term memory through the process of rehearsal. a True b False QuestionID: 07-6-01 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: b. False 2. The tendency for superior recall of items in the middle of a list compared to items at the beginning and end of a list is called the serial position effect. a True b False QuestionID: 07-6-02 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: b. False 3. The capacity of short-term memory is limitless. a True b False QuestionID: 07-6-03 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: b. False 4. Declarative memories are the type of long-term memories that you are consciously aware of. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

a True b False QuestionID: 07-6-04 Objective: 7.1a Know the key terminology of memory systems. Answer: a. True 5. At the cellular level, long-term potentiation (LTP) may represent the first stages of memory. a True b False QuestionID: 07-6-05 Objective: 7.1b Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form. Answer: a. True 6. Elaborative rehearsal is defined as the rote repetition of material in order to prolong exposure. a True b False QuestionID: 07-6-06 Objective: 7.2a Know the key terminology related to forgetting, encoding, and retrieval. Answer: b. False 7. Flashbulb memories, unlike other memories, are extremely accurate records of the past. a True b False QuestionID: 07-6-07 Objective: 7.2d Analyze whether emotional memories are more accurate than non-emotional ones. Answer: b. False 8. Rather than remembering specific details, people tend to remember the 'gist' of an event or story. a True b False QuestionID: 07-6-08 Objective: 7.3a Know the key terminology used in discussing how memories are organized and constructed. Answer: a. True 9. In general, psychologists agree that the inability to remember experiences during the first years of life is due to the defence mechanism of repression. a True b False QuestionID: 07-6-09 Objective: 7.1b Understand which structures of the brain are associated with specific memory tasks and how the brain changes as new memories form. Answer: b. False

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

10. False memories are especially likely to occur if you have thought about the imagined event many times. a True b False QuestionID: 07-6-10 Objective: 7.3c Understand how psychologists can produce false memories in the laboratory. Answer: a. True

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Chapter 8 : Thought and Language Chapter Quiz Questions 1. According to classical categorization, people use specific _____ to decide if an object belongs to a specific category. A) prototypes B) schemas C) rules D) grades QuestionID: 08-1-01 Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: C) rules 2. The linguistic relativity hypothesis suggests that A) the way we think about categories affects the language we use. B) our perception influences the language we use. C) words are organized mentally based on their relationship to each other. D) the language that we use affects how we think about the world. QuestionID: 08-1-02 Objective: 8.1e Analyze the claim that the language we speak determines how we think. Answer: D) the language that we use affects how we think about the world. 3. When Kwan's computer stopped working, he called the company's technical support line. The technician followed a predetermined set of steps from a manual to diagnose and help Kwan fix his computer over the phone. The steps that the technician followed are an example of a(n) A) algorithm. B) mental set. C) semantic network. D) heuristic. QuestionID: 08-1-03 Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: A) algorithm. 4. People often overestimate the danger of shark attacks because it is often easy to think of news stories and reports of shark attacks. This is an example of how the _____ can sometimes lead to poor judgments. A) availability heuristic B) anchoring effect C) conjunction fallacy D) representativeness heuristic QuestionID: 08-1-04 Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: A) availability heuristic 5. Han and Bert both bought the same new cell phone. Han spent several weeks reviewing the dozens of different phones and reading reviews online, trying to find the best phone possible for his needs. Bert simply bought the .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

first phone that met his needs. Given the research on maximizers and satisficers, which is most likely to be the outcome? A) Han and Bert will end up equally satisfied about their purchases. B) Han will be more satisfied with his purchase than Bert. C) Bert will be more satisfied with his purchase than Han. D) Han will spend less time researching his purchase next time. QuestionID: 08-1-05 Objective: 8.2d Apply your knowledge to determine if you tend to be a maximizer or a satisficer. Answer: C) Bert will be more satisfied with his purchase than Han. 6. The smallest units of language that convey meaning are known as A) semantics. B) morphemes. C) phonemes. D) syntaxes. QuestionID: 08-1-06 Objective: 8.3a Know the key terminology from the study of language. Answer: B) morphemes. 7. Seth tells his friend that he got two tickets to a big concert next week, to which his friend replies, "Get out of town!" Because of the context, Seth knows his friend is expressing excitement and doesn't really want him to leave town. This is an example of A) pragmatics. B) linguistic relativity. C) semantics. D) syntax. QuestionID: 08-1-07 Objective: 8.3a Know the key terminology from the study of language. Answer: A) pragmatics. 8. Wernicke's area is most closely associated with A) speech production. B) muscle control of the mouth and tongue. C) cognitively composing words. D) understanding language. QuestionID: 08-1-08 Objective: 8.3c Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. Answer: D) understanding language. 9. The "sensitive period" for language refers to A) a period of time in our ancestral past when language first evolved. B) a period of time during gestation when the language areas of the brain develop. C) a time during which an individual is learning a new language. D) a time during childhood when children are especially wired to learn language. QuestionID: 08-1-09 Objective: 8.3a Know the key terminology from the study of language.

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Answer: D) a time during childhood when children are especially wired to learn language. 10. Studies in which researchers have attempted to teach language to non-human animals have generally found that A) chimpanzees and gorillas are the only animal species that can fully learn language. B) some animals are capable of learning elements of human language. C) animals are incapable of learning even the most basic elements of human language. D) dolphins are the only animal species that can fully learn language. QuestionID: 08-1-10 Objective: 8.3e Analyze whether species other than humans are able to use language. Answer: B) some animals are capable of learning elements of human language. Essay Questions 1. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of using heuristics for problem-solving. Within your explanation, be sure to include definitions of the following terms: heuristics, availability heuristic, and representativeness heuristic. QuestionID: 08-2-01 Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. Examples will vary (there are many excellent real-world examples). - Heuristics are problem-solving strategies that stem from prior experiences and provide an educated guess as to what is the most likely solution. - Heuristics are often quite efficient, usually accurate, and allow us to find solutions and make decisions quickly. There is nothing inherently wrong with using heuristics; they simply allow individuals to obtain quick answers based on readily available information. In fact, heuristics often lead to correct assumptions about a situation. - However, heuristics can lead to certain biases and mistakes. Two such errors stem from the availability heuristic and the representativeness heuristic. - The availability heuristic entails estimating the frequency of an event based on how easily examples of it come to mind. In other words, we assume that if examples are readily available, then they must be very frequent. - The representativeness heuristic involves making judgments of likelihood based on how well an example represents a specific category. 2. Describe the costs and benefits of bilingualism. Based on the information provided in the textbook, is it better to be bilingual or unilingual? QuestionID: 08-2-02 Objective: 8.3a Know the key terminology from the study of language. Answer: A good answer will include some of the following. It should outline at least a couple of costs and benefits and conclude that the benefits outweigh the costs. Costs: - Bilingual children tend to have a smaller vocabulary in each language than unilingual children. - In adulthood, compared to unilingual adults, bilingual adults are slower at naming pictures, have more difficulty on tests that ask them to list words starting with a particular letter, have more tip-of-the-tongue experiences in which they can't quite retrieve a word, and are slower and less accurate when making word/non-word judgments. Benefits: - Bilingual individuals are much better than their unilingual counterparts on tests that require them to control their attention or their thoughts. - Bilinguals score better than unilinguals on tests of executive control throughout their lifespan. - Bilingualism has also recently been shown to have important health benefits. Their brains have more back-up systems if damage occurs. In fact, being bilingual seems to help protect against the onset of dementia and Alzheimer's disease. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Conclusion: Benefits of bilingualism clearly outweigh the costs. 3. Using the information and examples from the textbook, describe four critical differences between humans and non-human primates, in terms of their language usage. QuestionID: 08-2-03 Objective: 8.3e Analyze whether species other than humans are able to use language. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. Some researchers who have worked closely with language-trained apes observed too many critical differences between humans and chimps to conclude that language extends beyond our species. For example: - One major argument is that apes are communicating only with symbols, not with the phrase-based syntax used by humans. Although some evidence of syntax has been reported, the majority of their "utterances" consist of single signs, a couple of signs strung together, or apparently random sequences. - There is little reputable experimental evidence showing that apes pass their language skills to other apes. - Productivity—creating new words (gestures) and using existing gestures to name new objects or events—is rare, if it occurs at all. - Some of the researchers become very engaged in the lives of these animals and talk about them as friends and family members. This tendency has left critics to wonder the extent to which personal attachments to the animals might interfere with the objectivity of the data. Fill-in-the-blank Questions 1. Many people mistake salamanders, a type of amphibian, for lizards. This is likely because salamanders share many features with most people's __________ for the category lizard. QuestionID: 08-3-01 Objective: 8.1b Understand theories of how people organize their knowledge about the world. Answer: a. prototype 2. According to the idea known as __________ , the vocabulary and grammar of the language you speak can affect the way you think about the world. QuestionID: 08-3-02 Objective: 8.1e Analyze the claim that the language we speak determines how we think. Answer: a. linguistic relativity 3. Problem-solving strategies based on prior experience that lead to an 'educated guess,' are known as __________ . QuestionID: 08-3-03 Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: a. heuristics 4. Dominica is trying to spoon soup from a big pot into a bowl, but does not have a ladle. Although a large coffee cup is sitting on the counter in front of her, she does not think of using it to transfer the soup from the pot to her bowl. This scenario illustrates an example of __________ . QuestionID: 08-3-04 Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: a. functional fixedness

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

5. An extreme __________ is an individual who attempts to evaluate every option for every choice until they find the perfect fit. QuestionID: 08-3-05 Objective: 8.2d Apply your knowledge to determine if you tend to be a maximizer or a satisficer. Answer: a. maximizer 6. provides the rules that allow words to be combined into almost infinite combinations to create entirely new meanings. QuestionID: 08-3-06 Skill: Objective: 8.3b Understand how language is structured. Answer: a. Syntax 7. Damage to the region of the cortex known as __________ area is most likely to produce difficulty speaking, but will have relatively little effect on understanding speech. QuestionID: 08-3-07 Objective: 8.3c Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. Answer: a. Broca's 8. Children's brains appear to go through a __________ , during which their brains are primed to acquire language. QuestionID: 08-3-08 Objective: 8.3c Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. Answer: a. sensitive period 9. Frida is a four-year-old child. One day, her mother points to an object and explains that it is a statue. Despite the fact that this is the first and only time someone explains what a statue is to Frida, she now understands the meaning of the word. Frida is demonstrating __________ , a process believed to help children learn language. QuestionID: 08-3-09 Objective: 8.3a Know the key terminology from the study of language. Answer: a. fast mapping 10. Research with the KE family has led scientists to hypothesize that the __________ gene is involved with coding for language function. QuestionID: 08-3-10 Objective: 8.3c Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. Answer: a. FOXP2 Multiple-Choice Questions 1. A _____________ is the mental representation of an object, event, or idea. A) mental set B) concept C) algorithm .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) prototype QuestionID: 08-4-01 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: B) concept 2. A group of interrelated concepts is a called a ____________. A) category B) super-concept C) mental set D) prototype QuestionID: 08-4-02 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: A) category 3. The concepts of dog, cat, and goldfish can be grouped together to form a _____________ called pets. A) prototype B) mental set C) super-concept D) category QuestionID: 08-4-03 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: D) category 4. Concepts and categories are important because they allow us to A) classify objects or ideas as belonging to one single group and no others. B) avoid using prototypes in most situations. C) develop mental sets which help us solve new problems. D) organize and manage tremendous amounts of information. QuestionID: 08-4-04 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: D) organize and manage tremendous amounts of information. 5. The use of specific rules to categorize objects is an example of A) graded membership. B) linguistic relativity. C) functional fixedness. D) classical categorization. QuestionID: 08-4-05 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: D) classical categorization.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

6. Mandi shares her frozen dessert with her sister. "Wow!" says her sister, "What type of ice-cream is this?" Mandi explains that, because it does not contain any dairy, the dessert is a sorbet and not an ice-cream. Mandi's use of the technical definition for ice-cream to classify the dessert is an example of A) graded membership. B) classical categorization. C) functional fixedness. D) linguistic relativity. QuestionID: 08-4-06 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.1b Understand theories of how people organize their knowledge about the world. Answer: B) classical categorization. 7. One problem with the theory of classical categorization is that it does not allow for A) formal definitions. B) basic-level categorization. C) graded membership. D) mental sets. QuestionID: 08-4-07 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: C) graded membership. 8. For most people, a dog is a better fit than a tarantula for the category of pets. This is an example of ____________. A) linguistic relativity B) graded membership C) classical categorization D) functional fixedness QuestionID: 08-4-08 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: B) graded membership 9. Classical categorization involves typically involves the use of ______________, while categorization using prototypes involves _____________. A) comparison; definitions B) definitions; comparison C) concepts; graded memberships D) graded memberships; concepts QuestionID: 08-4-09 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.1b Understand theories of how people organize their knowledge about the world. Answer: B) definitions; comparison 10. Many people categorize tomatoes as a vegetable, even though they technically meet the scientific definition for a fruit. A likely reason for this is that A) they are using classical categorization to define a vegetable. B) within their semantic network, tomatoes are a basic-level category. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) tomatoes are closer to most people's prototype for a vegetable than for a fruit. D) the tomato is a common prototype for fruit. QuestionID: 08-4-10 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.1d Apply your knowledge to identify prototypical examples. Answer: C) tomatoes are closer to most people's prototype for a vegetable than for a fruit. 11. Which example would most people take longest to identify as a fruit? A) banana B) apple C) raspberry D) olive QuestionID: 08-4-11 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.1d Apply your knowledge to identify prototypical examples. Answer: D) olive 12. Most people take longer to identify a platypus as a mammal than it takes them to identify a cat as a mammal. This is likely because a cat is closer to most people's _______________ for the concept of mammal. A) superordinate category B) prototype C) classical categorization D) basic-level category QuestionID: 08-4-12 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.1b Understand theories of how people organize their knowledge about the world. Answer: B) prototype 13. Mental representations of an average category member are called _____________ and allow for "classification by resemblance." A) classical categories B) semantic networks C) algorithms D) prototypes QuestionID: 08-4-13 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.1b Understand theories of how people organize their knowledge about the world. Answer: D) prototypes 14. Research indicates that people categorize concepts by using A) classical categorization, not prototypes. B) prototypes, not classical categorization. C) both classical categorization and prototypes. D) algorithms rather than classical categorization or prototypes. QuestionID: 08-4-14 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.1b Understand theories of how people organize their knowledge about the world. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: C) both classical categorization and prototypes. 15. In cognitive psychology, a(n) __________________ is an interconnected set of nodes (or concepts) and the links that join them to form a category. A) semantic network B) lexical decision tree C) algorithm D) representativeness heuristic QuestionID: 08-4-15 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: A) semantic network 16. In a semantic network, the ____________ represent concepts, and the _______________ represent the structure of a category. A) nodes; links B) links; nodes C) algorithms; prototypes D) prototypes; algorithms QuestionID: 08-4-16 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: A) nodes; links 17. In a semantic network, what is the correct hierarchical order from broad to the most specific? A) basic, subordinate, superordinate B) subordinate, basic, superordinate C) superordinate, basic, subordinate D) superordinate, subordinate, basic QuestionID: 08-4-17 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: C) superordinate, basic, subordinate 18. Because semantic networks are arranged ________________, they show which categories are more specific than others. A) algorithmically B) hierarchically C) categorically D) congruently QuestionID: 08-4-18 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: B) hierarchically 19. Which of the following is most likely to be a basic-level category? A) 1967 Ford Mustang .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) vehicle C) convertible D) car QuestionID: 08-4-19 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: D) car 20. Which of the following is NOT true of basic-level categories? A) They are the most general category in a semantic network. B) They are the level at which most thinking occurs in a semantic network. C) They are the level at which most prototypes exist in a semantic network. D) They are the most specific category in a semantic network. QuestionID: 08-4-20 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: A) They are the most general category in a semantic network. 21. Which of the following is most likely to be a basic-level category? A) animal B) striped C) cat D) Siamese QuestionID: 08-4-21 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: C) cat 22. When tested in a laboratory study, Reese identified the statement, "Cows make milk" as true, faster than she did the statement "Cows breathe air." What does this likely indicate about the relationship between categories in her semantic network? A) Cows and breathing air are closer together than milk and breathing air. B) Milk is a basic-level category. C) Cows and milk are closer together than cows and breathing air. D) Animals that breathe air is a basic-level category. QuestionID: 08-4-22 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.1b Understand theories of how people organize their knowledge about the world. Answer: C) Cows and milk are closer together than cows and breathing air. 23. On his way to work, Charlie sees a sign for an upcoming concert for the band Cake. Without even realizing it, the word cake has made Charlie think of baked sweets, which makes him think of getting a donut. This is an example of ______________. A) classical categorization B) priming C) the linguistic relativity hypothesis D) an availability heuristic

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 08-4-23 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: B) priming 24. If someone walked up to you and said, "Milk," and then asked you to quickly name an animal, you would likely say, "cow." This illustrates the concept of A) priming. B) classical categorization. C) hierarchies. D) the linguistic relativity hypothesis. QuestionID: 08-4-24 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: A) priming. 25. Which of the following is true about priming effects? A) Priming is an effective form of behaviour control. B) Priming effects can only be reproduced in a laboratory setting. C) Priming effects are ineffective at influencing behaviour. D) Priming can occur without conscious awareness. QuestionID: 08-4-25 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: D) Priming can occur without conscious awareness. 26. Individuals with category-specific visual agnosia (CSVA) lend support to which of the following statements? A) Specialized groups of circuits exist in the brain for each category a person has. B) Specialized groups of circuits exist in the brain for small groups of categories. C) Specialized groups of circuits exist in the brain for animal and vegetable categories only. D) Specialized groups of circuits exist in the brain for categories of other humans (e.g., races) only. QuestionID: 08-4-26 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.1c Understand how experience and culture can shape the way we organize our knowledge. Answer: B) Specialized groups of circuits exist in the brain for small groups of categories. 27. According to your textbook, in which way do Americans and the Japanese tend to differ? A) Americans tend to use basic-level categories whereas Japanese tend to focus on superordinate level categories. B) Americans tend to focus on a single characteristic, whereas Japanese people tend to view objects in relation to their environment. C) Japanese people tend to focus on a single characteristic, whereas Americans tend to view objects in relation to their environment. D) Americans tend to use prototypes, whereas the Japanese tend to use classical categorization. QuestionID: 08-4-27 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.1c Understand how experience and culture can shape the way we organize our knowledge. Answer: B) Americans tend to focus on a single characteristic, whereas Japanese people tend to view objects in relation .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

to their environment. 28. The ___________ hypothesis states that language influences how we view the world. A) classical categorization hypothesis B) cultural categorization hypothesis C) linguistic relativity hypothesis D) category-specific visual hypothesis QuestionID: 08-4-28 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.1e Analyze the claim that the language we speak determines how we think. Answer: C) linguistic relativity hypothesis 29. The linguistic relativity hypothesis suggests that A) an individual's language determines their pattern of thinking and view of the world. B) an individual's thinking and view of the world determines the structure of their language. C) within the animal kingdom, humans are uniquely suited to learn and produce language. D) our understanding of syntax is directly related to our use of semantic networks. QuestionID: 08-4-29 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.1e Analyze the claim that the language we speak determines how we think. Answer: A) an individual's language determines their pattern of thinking and view of the world. 30. Based on the linguistic relativity hypothesis, which of the following would most likely be true? A) People from New Brunswick and New Zealand think very differently. B) People from London, Ontario, and London, England, think very differently. C) People from Paris, France, and Paris, Ontario, think very differently. D) People from Canada and America think very differently. QuestionID: 08-4-30 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.1e Analyze the claim that the language we speak determines how we think. Answer: C) People from Paris, France, and Paris, Ontario, think very differently. 31. Research on the Inuit has revealed that A) they conceptualize different types of snow in the same way as English-speaking Canadians. B) they have a more complex understanding of snow than English-speaking Canadians. C) they have dozens of different words for snow. D) when taught English as a second language, their concepts for different types of snow change. QuestionID: 08-4-31 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.1e Analyze the claim that the language we speak determines how we think. Answer: A) they conceptualize different types of snow in the same way as English-speaking Canadians. 32. In the field of psychology, problem solving is defined as A) a cognitive obstacle that occurs when an individual is faced with a challenge. B) finding ways to cope with life stressors. C) accomplishing a goal when the solution is not clear. D) the use of formal, rules-based strategies to find precise solutions.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 08-4-32 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: C) accomplishing a goal when the solution is not clear. 33. A formula is an example of a(n) A) mental set. B) algorithm. C) fallacy. D) heuristic. QuestionID: 08-4-33 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: B) algorithm. 34. Talia is looking for her cat by methodically searching each room and then closing the door. She is using what type of problem solving strategy? A) an algorithm B) a heuristic C) a semantic network D) a mental set QuestionID: 08-4-34 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: A) an algorithm 35. ______________ are problem-solving strategies based on a series of rules, while ______________are more like educated guesses based on prior experience. A) Algorithms; heuristics B) Heuristics; algorithms C) Algorithms; mental sets D) Heuristics; mental sets QuestionID: 08-4-35 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: A) Algorithms; heuristics 36. Computers are particularly well-suited for using ________________ to solve problems. A) mental sets B) heuristics C) prototypes D) algorithms QuestionID: 08-4-36 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: D) algorithms

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

37. Kendra has been a professional chef for 20 years. Instead of following recipes step-by-step, she uses her experience to guide her cooking, adding a pinch of salt here, or a little extra oil there. Kendra's approach to cooking is an example of A) functional fixedness. B) using heuristics. C) using a mental set. D) using an algorithm. QuestionID: 08-4-37 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2e Analyze whether human thought is primarily logical or intuitive. Answer: B) using heuristics. 38. Which of the following is a heuristic-based approach to determining how many brownies to make for a party? A) Make the same number as you did for your last party because you recall that number being about right. B) Multiply the number of people invited by the number of brownies you want each person to have. C) Determine the number of brownies in each batch and then determine which multiple of that number is closest to the estimated number of brownies needed. D) Estimate the number of brownies each invitee will eat and then sum the estimates. QuestionID: 08-4-38 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2e Analyze whether human thought is primarily logical or intuitive. Answer: A) Make the same number as you did for your last party because you recall that number being about right. 39. Which of the following is true regarding cognitive obstacles? A) Cognitive obstacles are often self-imposed. B) Cognitive obstacles can be overcome by using a mental set. C) Cognitive obstacles can be overcome by using an algorithm. D) Cognitive obstacles can be overcome by using functional fixedness. QuestionID: 08-4-39 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.2c Understand how obstacles to problem solving are often self-imposed. Answer: A) Cognitive obstacles are often self-imposed. 40. In the nine-dot problem, the rules do not specify that the lines cannot extend beyond the dots; however, most people try to find a solution that follows this non-existent rule anyway. This is an example of A) the anchoring effect. B) the conjunction fallacy. C) an algorithm. D) a cognitive obstacle. QuestionID: 08-4-40 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.2c Understand how obstacles to problem solving are often self-imposed. Answer: D) a cognitive obstacle. 41. The tendency to solve problems using procedures or strategies that worked in the past with similar problems is called A) an availability heuristic. B) the anchoring effect. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) a mental set. D) the representativeness heuristic. QuestionID: 08-4-41 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: C) a mental set. 42. When Howie's old girlfriend used to get upset with him, he could smooth things over by buying flowers or chocolates for her. He keeps trying this strategy with his current girlfriend, but she gets angry with him each time. It appears that Howie has developed _______________, which is interfering with the development of a new relationship strategy. A) a mental set B) functional fixedness C) a prototype D) a representativeness heuristic QuestionID: 08-4-42 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: A) a mental set 43. Johannes has been a car mechanic for many years and is very good at diagnosing problems with cars. However, when an electric car comes into the garage, his approach to diagnosing the problem is unsuccessful. Johannes failure is likely the result of A) a conjunction fallacy. B) an availability heuristic. C) functional fixedness. D) a mental set. QuestionID: 08-4-43 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: D) a mental set. 44. When someone does not see that a tool can be used for something other than its intended purpose, they are likely experiencing ________________. A) a conjunction fallacy B) belief perseverance C) functional fixedness D) confirmation bias QuestionID: 08-4-44 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: C) functional fixedness 45. When Arya tries to hang her degree in her office, she realizes that she doesn't have a hammer to secure the nail to the wall. She thinks for a moment and then takes off her shoe and uses it to bang in the nail. Arya has overcome which cognitive obstacle? A) confirmation bias B) belief perseverance .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) a conjunction fallacy D) functional fixedness QuestionID: 08-4-45 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: D) functional fixedness 46. The television character MacGyver was famous for using everyday objects to get out of trouble. In one episode, for example, MacGyver used the aluminum foil wrapper from a stick of gum to replace a blown electrical fuse. The MacGyver character clearly did NOT suffer from what cognitive obstacle to problem solving? A) the anchoring effect B) confirmation bias C) functional fixedness D) the representative heuristic QuestionID: 08-4-46 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: C) functional fixedness 47. A loose screw on the glove compartment causes it to drop down while Ben drives, but he keeps forgetting to take a screwdriver out to the car to fix it. When the compartment falls open again, he reaches into his pocket for a dime to use to tighten the screw. What problem-solving difficulty did Ben overcome? A) belief perseverance B) functional fixedness C) conjunction fallacy D) the representative heuristic QuestionID: 08-4-47 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: B) functional fixedness 48. Research has shown that jokes often involve some form of problem solving. The initial step of identifying that some aspect of the set-up is unexpected is known as _________. A) incongruity resolution B) cognitive elaboration C) incongruity detection D) comprehension-elaboration QuestionID: 08-4-48 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: C) incongruity detection 49. Researchers have suggested that beyond simply comprehending a joke, a person must __________ to find it "humorous." A) elaborate or identify with it B) break it down and analyze its components C) observe someone else laughing at it D) be surprised by the outcome .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 08-4-49 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: A) elaborate or identify with it 50. A(n) _______________ occurs when an individual believes the probability of finding a specific member in two overlapping categories is more likely than finding any member of one of the larger, general categories. A) anchoring effect B) representativeness error C) confirmation bias D) conjunction fallacy QuestionID: 08-4-50 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: D) conjunction fallacy 51. In a research study, participants are told that Louis has lived in Boston his whole life. They are then asked which is more likely: A) Louis is a baseball fan, or B) Louis is a baseball fan who roots for the Boston Red Sox. Which of the following is true? A) Participants who answer "A" have committed an availability heuristic error. B) Participants who answer "A" have committed the conjunction fallacy. C) Participants who answer "B" have committed an availability heuristic error. D) Participants who answer "B" have committed the conjunction fallacy. QuestionID: 08-4-51 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: D) Participants who answer "B" have committed the conjunction fallacy. 52. Suppose 40% of all of the books in a library are fiction and 2% of all of the books are about the Roman Empire. Wanda is a big fan of historical fiction novels. Which of the following is she LEAST likely to leave the library with? A) a fiction book B) a book that involves the Roman Empire C) a fictional book that takes place in the Roman Empire D) the answer cannot be determined from the information given QuestionID: 08-4-52 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: C) a fictional book that takes place in the Roman Empire 53. When people make the conjunction fallacy, it is most likely because A) they are using an algorithmic approach. B) their judgment is being affected by an anchor. C) they are using the representativeness heuristic. D) they are using a mental set. QuestionID: 08-4-53 Skill: Factual .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: C) they are using the representativeness heuristic. 54. Which decision-making strategy involves making judgments of likelihood based on how well an example represents a specific category? A) an algorithm B) a conjunction heuristic C) the representativeness heuristic D) the availability heuristic QuestionID: 08-4-54 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: C) the representativeness heuristic 55. Seventy percent of the students in a classroom are women and 30 percent are men. One student is described as ambitious, athletic, and assertive. Why might people think this description refers to a male student? A) They are using a conjunction fallacy. B) They are using the representativeness heuristic. C) They are being influenced by framing effects. D) They are being influenced by confirmational biases. QuestionID: 08-4-55 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: B) They are using the representativeness heuristic. 56. Frank mistakenly believes that there are more words that begin with the letter "k" than there are with the letter "k" in the third position due to __________________. A) the representativeness heuristic B) the availability heuristic C) a conjunction fallacy D) confirmation bias QuestionID: 08-4-56 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: B) the availability heuristic 57. When using the availability heuristic, people tend to judge the probability of an event based on A) their previously existing beliefs about the likelihood of the event. B) their step-by-step analysis of the situation. C) how well the example represents a specific category. D) the ease with which they can think of examples. QuestionID: 08-4-57 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: D) the ease with which they can think of examples. 58. Nate thinks that Conservatives and the NDP almost never work together in the Senate. He believes this .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

because he finds it much easier to think of examples of politicians from the two parties not working together than to think of examples them working together. It is likely that the ______________ has caused Nate to underestimate how frequently Conservative Party and NDP politicians work together. A) availability heuristic B) confirmation bias C) representativeness heuristic D) anchoring effect QuestionID: 08-4-58 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: A) availability heuristic 59. When people attempt to solve a problem involving numbers, they may find themselves using another number called a(n)____________ to keep their response within a limited range. A) anchor B) mental set C) frame D) ground QuestionID: 08-4-59 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: A) anchor 60. When negotiating with a potential buyer, Tela always starts by suggesting a price that is much higher than she expects to receive. She's noticed that when she suggest a specific number, the buyer is likely to counter with an offer that is relatively close to her initial suggestion. This is an example of A) a framing effect. B) a mental set. C) an availability effect. D) an anchoring effect. QuestionID: 08-4-60 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: D) an anchoring effect. 61. A real-estate agent is asked by her clients how much they should ask for their house. She just sold a house for $300 000, so she finds herself suggesting an amount within the same range. This is an example of _____________. A) belief perseverance B) confirmation bias C) the representativeness heuristic D) the anchoring effect QuestionID: 08-4-61 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: D) the anchoring effect 62. Which of the following is an example of a framing effect? .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) Assuming a young, blonde woman is more likely to be from California and a surfer, rather than just a surfer or just from California. B) Being more worried about dying in a plane crash than in a car crash. C) A patient being more upset with a 60% chance of dying than a 40% chance of survival. D) Not using a cup to hold soup when a bowl isn't available. QuestionID: 08-4-62 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: C) A patient being more upset with a 60% chance of dying than a 40% chance of survival. 63. Belief perseverance states that A) if a person believes they have the correct answer they will maintain their belief even in the face of contradictory evidence. B) an individual will attempt to solve a numerical problem using previous knowledge to stay within a limited range. C) a person will make a decision based on how the question is framed (focusing on gains or losses). D) a person will search for (and attend to) only information that confirms their previously held beliefs. QuestionID: 08-4-63 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: A) if a person believes they have the correct answer they will maintain their belief even in the face of contradictory evidence. 64. When reading information that challenges one's beliefs, one tends to minimize the strengths of such claims. __________ accounts for this barrier to reasoning rationally. A) Belief perseverance B) The availability heuristic C) The framing effect D) The conjunction fallacy QuestionID: 08-4-64 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: A) Belief perseverance 65. What term do psychologists use to describe the tendency to search for evidence that supports one's beliefs and to ignore evidence that might disprove them? A) confirmation bias B) conjunction fallacy C) availability heuristic D) representativeness heuristic QuestionID: 08-4-65 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: A) confirmation bias 66. ________________ is the search for evidence that only supports a preexisting belief, whereas ______________ involves accepting preexisting evidence only if it confirms a belief. A) Confirmation bias; the representativeness heuristic B) Belief perseverance; the representativeness heuristic .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) Belief perseverance; confirmation bias D) Confirmation bias; belief perseverance QuestionID: 08-4-66 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: D) Confirmation bias; belief perseverance 67. Harmony believes that vaccines are dangerous. Rather than taking into consideration all of the evidence demonstrating their safety and efficacy, Harmony searches for the occasional studies that suggest that there may be risks associated with vaccines. This is an example of a A) a confirmation bias. B) a conjunction fallacy. C) belief perseverance. D) functional fixedness. QuestionID: 08-4-67 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: A) a confirmation bias. 68. Tim believes the attacks on 9/11 were an inside job. Although his friend Max, has shown him numerous studies, reviews, and assessments that suggest it could not have been an inside job, Tim rejects the validity of the research and holds firm in his beliefs. This is an example of A) a confirmation bias. B) a conjunction fallacy. C) belief perseverance. D) functional fixedness. QuestionID: 08-4-68 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: C) belief perseverance. 69. Satisficers are individuals who A) despite rigorous planning, are never satisfied with their decision. B) make decisions that are "good enough." C) evaluate every possible option prior to making a decision. D) attempt to please as many people as possible with their decisions. QuestionID: 08-4-69 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.2d Apply your knowledge to determine if you tend to be a maximizer or a satisficer. Answer: B) make decisions that are "good enough." 70. Maximizers are individuals who A) are only satisfied if their decision is perceived by others to be the "best." B) make decisions that are "good enough." C) evaluate every possible option prior to making a decision. D) select the fastest reasonable option in an effort to maximize their time. QuestionID: 08-4-70 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Factual Objective: 8.2d Apply your knowledge to determine if you tend to be a maximizer or a satisficer. Answer: C) evaluate every possible option prior to making a decision. 71. Kyle is buying a new mattress for his bed. Instead of spending hours or days finding the perfect mattress, Kyle buys the first mattress that is in his price range, and feels as though it's "good enough". Kyle's behaviour is typical of a(n) A) maximizer. B) true believer. C) denier. D) satisficer. QuestionID: 08-4-71 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2d Apply your knowledge to determine if you tend to be a maximizer or a satisficer. Answer: D) satisficer. 72. Jenny is deciding on which invitations to use for her wedding. If Jenny is a maximizer, she is most likely to: A) choose the invitation design that is the most extravagant. B) choose the design she thinks will impress the most people. C) choose the first invitation design she sees that she likes. D) weigh all her options prior to selecting an invitation design. QuestionID: 08-4-72 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2d Apply your knowledge to determine if you tend to be a maximizer or a satisficer. Answer: D) weigh all her options prior to selecting an invitation design. 73. Research indicates that ______________ are typically happier with their decisions than _______________. A) maximizers; satisficers B) satisficers; maximizers C) true believers; maximizers D) satisficers; true believers QuestionID: 08-4-73 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2d Apply your knowledge to determine if you tend to be a maximizer or a satisficer. Answer: B) satisficers; maximizers 74. One way to investigate the way language is processed in the brain is to study patients with ________________, language disorders caused by damage to the brain structures that support using and understanding language. A) agnosias B) apraxias C) aphasias D) ataxias QuestionID: 08-4-74 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.3a Know the key terminology from the study of language. Answer: C) aphasias .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

75. _________________ is involved in speech production, while ___________________ is associated with the meaning of words. A) Aphasia; agnosia B) Agnosia; aphasia C) Wernicke's area; Broca's area D) Broca's area; Wernicke's area QuestionID: 08-4-75 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.3c Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. Answer: D) Broca's area; Wernicke's area 76. Following a stroke, Rahul's grandfather lost the ability to understand when people would ask him questions. In addition, when his grandfather spoke, the individual words made sense, but the sentences did not. The stroke appears to have damaged which area of the brain? A) left frontal lobe B) FOXP2 receptors C) Wernicke's area D) Broca's area QuestionID: 08-4-76 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.3c Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. Answer: C) Wernicke's area 77. A person with damage to Broca's area is likely to have difficulty_______________, but should still be able to _____________ relatively well. A) speaking; understand the speech of others B) understanding the speech of others; speak normally C) learning a new language; speak normally in his or her native language D) using pragmatics; speak normally QuestionID: 08-4-77 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.3c Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. Answer: A) speaking; understand the speech of others 78. Asha was involved in a skiing accident that damaged her left frontal lobe. What symptoms is she likely experiencing? A) difficulty remember previously learned words B) difficulty producing words that others can understand C) difficulty comprehending what others are saying D) difficulty forming understandable sentences but the ability to produce clear words QuestionID: 08-4-78 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.3c Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. Answer: B) difficulty producing words that others can understand 79. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between language and communication? A) All forms of communication are examples of language. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) Only organisms with language are capable of communicating. C) Language is a special form of communication. D) Language involves the production of sounds, whereas communication involves specific sets of rules. QuestionID: 08-4-79 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.3a Know the key terminology from the study of language. Answer: C) Language is a special form of communication. 80. Which of the following is a unique property of language that helps to distinguish it from other forms of communication? A) Language can convey information about the past or future. B) Language uses combinations of sounds create meaning. C) Language can be used to pass on information between individuals. D) Without language, survival would be impossible. QuestionID: 08-4-80 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.3a Know the key terminology from the study of language. Answer: A) Language can convey information about the past or future. 81. The ability to communicate information about the past, future, and other locations is a unique property of A) syntax. B) pragmatics. C) communication. D) language. QuestionID: 08-4-81 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.3a Know the key terminology from the study of language. Answer: D) language. 82. The most basic of units of spoken language are called A) morphemes. B) phonemes. C) pragmatics. D) syntax. QuestionID: 08-4-82 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.3a Know the key terminology from the study of language. Answer: B) phonemes. 83. The sounds /t/, /th/, and /sh/ are examples of A) morphemes. B) pragmatics. C) syntax. D) phonemes. QuestionID: 08-4-83 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.3d Apply your knowledge to distinguish between units of language such as phonemes and morphemes. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: D) phonemes. 84. Language is based on basic sound units called ___________, which typically have no meaning by themselves. A) phonemes B) morphemes C) words D) syntax QuestionID: 08-4-84 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.3b Understand how language is structured. Answer: A) phonemes 85. What are the smallest meaningful units of language? A) words B) syntax C) phonemes D) morphemes QuestionID: 08-4-85 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.3b Understand how language is structured. Answer: D) morphemes 86. You are learning Russian in preparation for a trip next summer. You have gotten to the point where you can sound out the words written in the Cyrillic alphabet, but you do not understand what any of the words mean. It appears as though you have mastered the _______ but still need to work on the _________? A) syntax; morphemes B) phonemes; morphemes C) morphemes; phonemes D) morphemes; syntax QuestionID: 08-4-86 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.3d Apply your knowledge to distinguish between units of language such as phonemes and morphemes. Answer: B) phonemes; morphemes 87. Which of the following is an example of a morpheme? A) /th/ B) it's C) /-s/ D) cats QuestionID: 08-4-87 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.3d Apply your knowledge to distinguish between units of language such as phonemes and morphemes. Answer: C) /-s/ 88. Which of the following is both a phoneme AND a morpheme? A) the "th" at the beginning of think .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) the "s" at the end of cats C) the word "mom" D) the "psy" in psychology QuestionID: 08-4-88 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.3d Apply your knowledge to distinguish between units of language such as phonemes and morphemes. Answer: B) the "s" at the end of cats 89. Greta is an academic who studies how people come to understand meaning from words and how they are arranged. Greta's research likely focuses on ___________. A) semantics B) pragmatics C) sensitive periods D) Broca's area QuestionID: 08-4-89 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.3d Apply your knowledge to distinguish between units of language such as phonemes and morphemes. Answer: A) semantics 90. The rules for combining words and morphemes into meaningful phrases and sentences are called _________. A) syntax B) heuristics C) pragmatics D) algorithms QuestionID: 08-4-90 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.3b Understand how language is structured. Answer: A) syntax 91. The difference between a well-formed and an ill-formed sentence usually comes down to _____________. A) phonemes B) morphemes C) pragmatics D) syntax QuestionID: 08-4-91 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.3b Understand how language is structured. Answer: D) syntax 92. Lex is in the second grade. As part of a homework assignment, he is asked to write a sentence to describe a picture of a dog playing fetch. Lex writes the sentence, "Ball the dog has." Lex is clearly having trouble with A) phonemes. B) morphemes. C) pragmatics. D) syntax. QuestionID: 08-4-92 Skill: Applied .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 8.3d Apply your knowledge to distinguish between units of language such as phonemes and morphemes. Answer: D) syntax. 93. One interesting property of ___________ is that we usually know when it is not being used correctly, but people often cannot explain exactly why. A) phonemes B) morphemes C) syntax D) pragmatics QuestionID: 08-4-93 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.3a Know the key terminology from the study of language. Answer: C) syntax 94. ______________ is the study of nonlinguistic elements of language use. A) Semantics B) Aphasia C) Syntax D) Pragmatics QuestionID: 08-4-94 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.3a Know the key terminology from the study of language. Answer: D) Pragmatics 95. Young children sometimes literally interpret sentences like "Do you know where your mommy is?" by answering "Yes." They failed to understand the ________ of the question. A) pragmatics B) morphemes C) syntax D) semantics QuestionID: 08-4-95 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.3a Know the key terminology from the study of language. Answer: A) pragmatics 96. Miranda asks her teacher, "Can I go to the bathroom?" to which she replied, "I don't know, can you?" Miranda's teacher was purposely ignoring the ______________ of Miranda's question to make a point about grammar. A) pragmatics B) morphemes C) syntax D) semantics QuestionID: 08-4-96 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.3a Know the key terminology from the study of language. Answer: A) pragmatics

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

97. Humans appear to lose the ability to hear sounds related to a non-native language, around the age of A) 7 years old. B) 8–10 months old. C) 4–6 months old. D) 8–10 years old. QuestionID: 08-4-97 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.3c Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. Answer: B) 8–10 months old. 98. Why do young children appear to acquire language more easily than adults? A) There is a sensitive period during childhood during which children's brains are primed to develop language. B) Until around 12–16 years of age, children can hear sounds associated with languages of many different cultures, not just their own. C) Children are typically exposed to a greater variety of vocabulary words than adults. D) This is a common myth; children do not have an easier time learning language than adults do. QuestionID: 08-4-98 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.3c Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. Answer: A) There is a sensitive period during childhood during which children's brains are primed to develop language. 99. A child's ability to map words onto concepts or objects after only a single exposure to them is called ____________. A) semantic sensitivity B) pragmatic adjustment C) morpheme sensitivity D) fast mapping QuestionID: 08-4-99 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.3a Know the key terminology from the study of language. Answer: D) fast mapping 100. Brenda is worried about having her six-year-old daughter learn Spanish, because she fears that learning a second language will interfere with her daughter's mastery of English. What advice should you give Brenda? A) Children should not try to learn "opposing" languages (e.g., English and Chinese), but because Spanish and English are so similar, learning a second language should not have a negative effect. B) Learning a second language during childhood is actually beneficial to the development of language skills. C) Children younger than 8–10 months old should not be exposed to a second language, but there should be no negative effects on a six-year-old. D) Waiting is a good strategy; it is best for a child to master their native language first, then focus on learning a new language. QuestionID: 08-4-100 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.3c Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. Answer: B) Learning a second language during childhood is actually beneficial to the development of language skills. 101. What is FOXP2? A) A computer program that is capable of learning the pragmatics of language. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) A brain region involved in the comprehension of language. C) A gene believed to be involved in language production. D) A brain region involved in the language production. QuestionID: 08-4-101 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.3c Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. Answer: C) A gene believed to be involved in language production. 102. Some members of the KE family discussed in your textbook have trouble putting thoughts into words. This deficit appears to be caused by A) an inherited brain abnormality affecting the left frontal lobe. B) an inherited degenerative disease that targets Wernicke's area. C) an inherited degenerative disease that targets Broca's area. D) an inherited mutation of the FOXP2 gene. QuestionID: 08-4-102 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.3c Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. Answer: D) an inherited mutation of the FOXP2 gene. 103. Which of the following conclusions is the most logical to draw from the fact that mice and songbirds have versions of the FOXP2 gene that is very similar to the form found in humans? A) Mice and songbirds use language to communicate. B) The FOXP2 gene is likely involved with producing meaningful sounds. C) The FOXP2 gene is not involved in language, but likely in non-verbal communication. D) The FOXP2 gene is solely responsible for the ability of humans to communicate. QuestionID: 08-4-103 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.3c Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. Answer: B) The FOXP2 gene is likely involved with producing meaningful sounds. 104. A chimpanzee named _______________ learned to use approximately 200 signs from American Sign Language. A) Washoe B) Viki C) Kanzi D) Cheetah QuestionID: 08-4-104 Skill: Factual Objective: 8.3e Analyze whether species other than humans are able to use language. Answer: A) Washoe 105. Which of the following interpretations is consistent with results of many studies to teach human language to animals? A) Animals cannot learn to associate words, signs, and symbols with specific meanings. B) Animals are capable of learning human language, but are resistant to training. C) Animals do not appear to use syntax or create new words or phrases. D) When trained from birth, animals can learn language just as easily as a human child.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 08-4-105 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 8.3e Analyze whether species other than humans are able to use language. Answer: C) Animals do not appear to use syntax or create new words or phrases. 106. While searching for a French soup recipe on the internet, Mike remembered a scientific discovery that took place in 19th century France and started to read about it. Then he clicked on link about another scientific discovery that took place during the World War II in England. Finally, he ended up reading an article on recent changes in aviation technology. Why was Mike's internet experience shaped by these changes? A) Internet is designed to distract users from one topic with another. B) Although facts or bodies of knowledge exist separately, the internet connects them together. C) Even if an internet site is designed to keep user's attention focused, it is impossible to stay focused when reading on screen. D) All facts and bodies of knowledge are interconnected; Mike's experience reflects this. QuestionID: 08-4-106 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.1b Understand theories of how people organize their knowledge about the world. Answer: D) All facts and bodies of knowledge are interconnected; Mike's experience reflects this. 107. In general, Eric likes to find products in the market that are good enough and appeal to him, and then he buys those products. However, Bella spends time reviewing alternative products, visiting multiple stores, and finally purchases the best available product based on her detailed analysis. What can be predicted about their satisfaction levels after their different shopping experiences? A) Eric will likely be more satisfied than Bella because he doesn't have high expectations. B) Bella will likely be more satisfied than Eric because she found the best product in the market. C) Both will be equally satisfied. D) There is not enough information to make predictions about their satisfaction levels. QuestionID: 08-4-107 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2d Apply your knowledge to determine if you tend to be a maximizer or a satisficer. Answer: A) Eric will likely be more satisfied than Bella because he doesn't have high expectations. 108. In an experiment, medical students are taught to diagnose different skin conditions using written rules and photographs of those diseases. If their diagnostic skills are tested on a series of new skin conditions, which would they rely on more, written rules or photos? Why? A) They would rely on both sources of information, because of the time spent during training. B) They would be more likely to rely on the previously viewed photographs than the rules, because of to their experience and memory. C) They would be more likely to rely on the rules than the previously viewed photographs, because of their knowledge of rules. D) There is not enough information to make sound predictions about what they would rely on. QuestionID: 08-4-108 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.1c Understand how experience and culture can shape the way we organize our knowledge. Answer: B) They would be more likely to rely on the previously viewed photographs than the rules, because of to their experience and memory. 109. When asked how much they worry about the crime rates in their neighbourhoods, surveys indicate that residents in the safest neighbourhoods tend to worry more than residents in less safe neighbourhoods with .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

higher rates of crime. What BEST explains this surprising result, according to your textbook? A) Residents of unsafe neighbourhoods can be less sensitive to crimes as a cohort because of their upbringing and personalities. B) Residents of safe neighbourhoods can be more sensitive to crimes as a cohort because of their upbringing and personalities. C) Infrequent crimes in safe neighbourhoods can be more shocking and emotional, and thus may become psychologically available. D) Frequent crimes in unsafe neighbourhoods are emotionally overwhelming but people tend to deny their existence after a certain period of time. QuestionID: 08-4-109 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2c Understand how obstacles to problem solving are often self-imposed. Answer: C) Infrequent crimes in safe neighbourhoods can be more shocking and emotional, and thus may become psychologically available. 110. Question: Why can't university students take exams at the zoo? Answer: There are too many cheetahs. Most jokes like this one work within a process of A) illogical violation of expectations and resolving the violation. B) acceptable violation of expectations and being unable to resolve the violation. C) unacceptable violation of expectations and being unable to resolve the violation. D) benign violation of expectations and resolving the violation. QuestionID: 08-4-110 Skill: Applied Objective: 8.2b Understand the characteristics that problems have in common. Answer: D) benign violation of expectations and resolving the violation. Supplementary Questions 1. Why do individuals from Mexico easily categorize avocados as a fruit whereas western Europeans do not? A) What is considered to be typical of a category depends on cultural and social experience. B) Categorizations are somewhat independent of previous knowledge and experience. C) Familiarity with an item increases use of cognitive schemas and mental shortcuts. D) Taxonomic hierarchies are dependent on basic features of a category and may result in miscategorization. QuestionID: 08-5-01 Objective: 8.1b Understand theories of how people organize their knowledge about the world. Answer: A) What is considered to be typical of a category depends on cultural and social experience. 2. Which scenario challenges the Whorfian hypothesis of linguistic relativity? A) Some non-western cultures have few basic colour terms, yet they can distinguish among many shades of colour. B) Bilingual Japanese immigrants recall events that happened in Japan more accurately when speaking their native language. C) Koreans have terms for "tight fit" versus "loose fit," which allows them to better discriminate between the two. D) The Inuit have a greater number of words for snow, which allows them to perceive many more distinctions among types of snow. QuestionID: 08-5-02 Objective: 8.3b Understand how language is structured. Answer: A) Some non-western cultures have few basic colour terms, yet they can distinguish among many shades of colour. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

3. Rules of thumb that do not guarantee a solution but may help bring one within reach are called A) functional sets. B) heuristics. C) algorithms. D) problem states. QuestionID: 08-5-03 Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: B) heuristics. 4. Ivan is a consultant who has been asked to solve a technical problem for an electronics firm. When he arrives at the firm, he finds that the problem is exactly like a problem he has solved before. The first time he solved the problem, it took him 37 hours. This time, it takes him 26 hours. The MOST likely reason for his faster solution this time is A) means-end analysis. B) hill-climbing. C) mental set. D) creating subgoals. QuestionID: 08-5-04 Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: C) mental set. 5. By encouraging people to imagine their homes being destroyed by a fire, insurance salespeople are especially successful at selling large homeowners' policies. They are most clearly exploiting the influence of A) belief perseverance. B) the representativeness heuristic. C) overconfidence. D) the availability heuristic. QuestionID: 08-5-05 Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: D) the availability heuristic. 6. Julie is fairly quiet and shy. She enjoys reading in her spare time and loves researching the background information on many topics. She belongs to a social club that includes three librarians, nine business people, and eight social workers. A tendency to conclude that Julie must be one of the three librarians would illustrate the powerful influence of A) confirmation bias. B) the framing effect. C) the representativeness heuristic. D) the belief perseverance phenomenon. QuestionID: 08-5-06 Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: C) the representativeness heuristic. 7. Which scenario provides the strongest support for both the nature and nurture aspects of language acquisition? A) All babies have the innate capacity for language in the brain but are dependent on the environment to be able to express and produce any speech sounds or words. .

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B) Without attention and reinforcement from their parents, babies would fail to develop language past the point of non-specific babbling sounds. C) All babies initially share the same basic phoneme categories but only use phonemes specific to the language they have heard by about 10 months of age. D) Babies cannot process speech sounds and noise until approximately 5 months of age as their temporal lobes and auditory cortices are still forming and developing neural connections. QuestionID: 08-5-07 Objective: 8.3c Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. Answer: C) All babies initially share the same basic phoneme categories but only use phonemes specific to the language they have heard by about 10 months of age. 8. A baby's language that consists of repetition of consonant-vowel combinations is called A) cooing. B) telegraphic speech. C) holophrasing. D) babbling. QuestionID: 08-5-08 Answer: D) babbling. 9. Which individual would most likely be able to learn a second language more easily than the others? A) 27-year-old Zeke speaks Italian and is trying to learn Spanish. B) 14-year-old Carlos is trying to learn English and has only spoken Spanish until now. C) 9-year-old Chantelle speaks French and needs to learn Japanese because her family is moving to Japan. D) 5-year-old Luca speaks English and is trying to learn German. QuestionID: 08-5-09 Objective: 8.3a Know the key terminology from the study of language. Answer: D) 5-year-old Luca speaks English and is trying to learn German. True-False Questions 1. A concept is the mental representation of an object, event, or idea. a True b False QuestionID: 08-6-01 Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: a. True 2. One problem with the theory that individuals use prototypes to categorize is that it does not allow for the possibility of graded membership. a True b False QuestionID: 08-6-02 Objective: 8.1a Know the key terminology associated with concepts and categories. Answer: b. False 3. An example of a superordinate category would be golden retriever, while an example of a subordinate-level .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

category would be animal. a True b False QuestionID: 08-6-03 Objective: 8.1b Understand theories of how people organize their knowledge about the world. Answer: b. False 4. The Inuit's use of dozens of different words for snow is evidence that language determines how people categorize the world. a True b False QuestionID: 08-6-04 Objective: 8.1e Analyze the claim that the language we speak determines how we think. Answer: b. False 5. An algorithm is a problem-solving strategy based on a series of rules. a True b False QuestionID: 08-6-05 Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: a. True 6. People tend to judge the probability of an event by how easy it is to think of examples of the event. a True b False QuestionID: 08-6-06 Objective: 8.2a Know the key terminology of problem solving and decision making. Answer: a. True 7. Maximizers tend to be more satisfied than satisficers with their purchases because maximizers spend additional time making sure they find the best product. a True b False QuestionID: 08-6-07 Objective: 8.2d Apply your knowledge to determine if you tend to be a maximizer or a satisficer. Answer: b. False 8. All forms of communication can be considered types of language. a True b False QuestionID: 08-6-08 Objective: 8.3a Know the key terminology from the study of language. Answer: b. False

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

9. Children's brains appear to be especially primed to acquire language in a way that adult brains are not. a True b False QuestionID: 08-6-09 Objective: 8.3c Understand how genes and the brain are involved in language use. Answer: a. True 10. Research with chimpanzees has clearly demonstrated that nonhumans are capable of acquiring language. a True b False QuestionID: 08-6-10 Objective: 8.3e Analyze whether species other than humans are able to use language. Answer: b. False

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Chapter 9 : Intelligence Testing Chapter Quiz Questions 1. Which of the following is the best psychological definition of intelligence? A) how much information an individual can correctly recall B) the ability to think, understand, reason, and cognitively adapt to obstacles C) an individual's score on a standardized intelligence test D) the ability to quickly and efficiently learn new material in an unknown environment QuestionID: 09-1-01 Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: B) the ability to think, understand, reason, and cognitively adapt to obstacles 2. Using the original formula for the intelligence quotient, an 8-year-old child with a mental age of 10 would have an IQ that A) is exactly 100. B) is greater than 100. C) is less than 100. D) cannot be determined without more information. QuestionID: 09-1-02 Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: B) is greater than 100. 3. _________ was heavily influenced by the introduction of intelligence tests, and refers to the belief that some individuals have "superior" genes than others. A) Stereotype threat B) Anthropometrics C) Eugenics D) Ravens Progressive Matrices QuestionID: 09-1-03 Objective: 9.1b Understand the reasoning behind the eugenics movements and its use of intelligence tests. Answer: C) Eugenics 4. Carla is asked to take a math test by a job placement company. As she sits down to take the test, Carla begins to think about how women are often viewed as being worse at math than men. These thoughts cause Carla to experience discomfort and anxiety during the test, which then have a negative impact on her test result. Carla's dilemma is an example of what psychologists call A) the Flynn effect. B) covert discrimination. C) stereotype threat. D) confirmation bias. QuestionID: 09-1-04 Objective: 9.1d Analyze why it is difficult to remove all cultural bias from intelligence testing. Answer: C) stereotype threat. 5. Whereas _____ intelligence tends to decrease in later life, _____ intelligence generally does not decline, and .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

may even continue to increase. A) general; crystallized B) general; fluid C) crystallized; fluid D) fluid; crystallized QuestionID: 09-1-05 Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: D) fluid; crystallized 6. Heritability indicates the extent to which __________ of intelligence score(s) of a(n) _________ can be attributed to the differences in genes. A) variability; sample B) level; individual C) variability; individual D) level; sample QuestionID: 09-1-06 Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: A) variability; sample 7. What does the Flynn effect refer to? A) the increase in average IQ test scores over decades B) the decrease in average IQ test scores over decades C) the higher IQ test average scores for Asian Americans compared to European Americans D) the lower IQ test average scores for African Americans compared to European Americans QuestionID: 09-1-07 Objective: 9.3c Apply your knowledge of environmental and behavioural effects on intelligence to understand how to enhance your own cognitive abilities. Answer: A) the increase in average IQ test scores over decades 8. Differences between men and women on mental rotation and verbal fluency tests may reflect differences in _____ levels in the brain. A) testosterone B) estrogen C) serotonin D) dopamine QuestionID: 09-1-08 Objective: 9.2c Understand intelligence differences between males and females. Answer: A) testosterone 9. Which of the following statements supports the theory that intelligence is determined in part by genes? A) The correlation between IQ scores is stronger for fraternal twins than it is for identical twins. B) Diet and lifestyle factors have a substantial influence on intelligence. C) Offspring raised by their biological parents are more similar to them than when they are raised by foster parents. D) Identical twins separated by adoption still have highly correlated IQ scores. QuestionID: 09-1-09 Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: D) Identical twins separated by adoption still have highly correlated IQ scores. 10. Which of the following statements is true about the relationship between brain size and some aspects of intelligence? A) Brain size is moderately related to intelligence. B) There is no relationship between brain size and intelligence. C) Brain size is an almost perfect predictor of intelligence. D) The number and size of cerebral gyri, but not overall brain size, are related to intelligence. QuestionID: 09-1-10 Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: A) Brain size is moderately related to intelligence. Essay Questions 1. Alfred Binet's insight regarding a method of measuring achievement had an international impact in the twentieth century. What was the original purpose of his test and how did he quantify (measure) achievement? What scoring system did later researchers base on Binet's method, and how was it originally calculated? QuestionID: 09-2-01 Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: The French government asked Alfred Binet to develop a test that would assist with identifying school children who may need extra help. Binet thought that intelligence allows a person to think, understand, reason, and adapt to overcome obstacles. He also thought that it was the result of a complex interaction of processes including memory, attention, and comprehension. Binet and his colleague, Theodore Simon, developed thirty tasks of increasing difficulty that, when completed, would demonstrate the child's current abilities. The researchers gave the tests to children of different ages thus creating a "standard score" for each age. When the test was administered to a child, the score was compared to Binet's standards to determine the child's "mental age." The mental age was divided by the child's actual age to create an "intelligence quotient" (IQ). The notion of dividing a test score by a standard score was carried over to the United States in the form of the Stanford-Binet intelligence test. However, administrators of this test claimed it measured innate intelligence instead of current abilities (which was the premise of Binet's tests). 2. One reason individuals from certain populations underperform on aptitude tests is stereotype threat. Explain what stereotype threat is and then describe three different ways it can lower test scores. QuestionID: 09-2-02 Objective: 9.1d Analyze why it is difficult to remove all cultural bias from intelligence testing. Answer: Stereotype threat is the observation of lower test scores in a population where there is a commonly held belief that the members lack ability in the area being tested. A common example of stereotype threat is seen when girls believe that they are worse at math than boys and consequently do worse on math tests than boys. Stereotype threat can lower test scores in three ways. Firstly, the group may avoid the subject and thus perform worse on tests. Secondly, the evaluators may be biased against one group (e.g. girls) and mark tests lower as a result. Finally, the test taker may influence her own performance and do worse on a test simply because she does not believe she is capable of doing well. 3. Some researchers, including Howard Gardner, have proposed the idea that there are multiple types of intelligences. Explain Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences and give three examples of evidence that supports this theory. QuestionID: 09-2-03 Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences claims that there are different forms of intelligence, with each being independent from the others. Those intelligences include: verbal/linguistic, logical/mathematical, visual/spatial, .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

bodily/kinesthetic, musical/rhythmical, interpersonal, intrapersonal, naturalist, and existential. There are many individuals who show extreme abilities in a specific domain, such as music, art, math, memory, or sports, but display very limited abilities in other domains such as language, social skills, or the ability to care for oneself. Evidence for Gardner's theory can be found in: (1) savants, who have extraordinary abilities in limited domains, very poor abilities in many others, and low g; (2) cases of people with brain damage. This indicates that some specific abilities can be dramatically affected while others remained intact; and (3) normal people who differ widely in their abilities and talents, having a knack for some things but being hopeless at others (this doesn't fit the notion that intelligence is a single, overarching ability). Fill-in-the-blank Questions 1. Most intelligence tests are normed so that the average (mean) IQ is __________ . QuestionID: 09-3-01 Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: a. 100 2. Marcus is only 8 years old. However, his score on the Stanford-Binet test is the same as the average 10-yearold. Therefore, Marcus' __________ is 10. QuestionID: 09-3-02 Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: a. mental age 3. Children who hold a(n) __________ theory of intelligence are more likely than other children to give up in the face of highly challenging problems. QuestionID: 09-3-03 Objective: 9.1c Apply the concepts of entity theory and incremental theory to help kids succeed in school. Answer: a. entity 4. Charles Spearman used the letter g as an abbreviation for __________ . QuestionID: 09-3-04 Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: a. general intelligence factor 5. In healthy adults, __________ does not decline very much in later adulthood, and may even increase. QuestionID: 09-3-05 Objective: 9.2d Apply your knowledge to identify examples that reflect fluid vs. crystallized intelligence. Answer: a. crystallized intelligence 6. While women outperform men on __________ abilities, men outperform women on __________ abilities. QuestionID: 09-3-06 Skill: Objective: 9.2c Understand intelligence differences between males and females. Answer: a. verbal/b. visuospatial and b.mental rotation .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

7. Gardner proposed the theory of __________ , arguing that there are a number of different forms of intelligence. QuestionID: 09-3-07 Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: a. multiple intelligences 8. The __________ of intelligence is estimated to be between 40% and 80%. QuestionID: 09-3-08 Objective: 9.3a Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence. Answer: a. heritability 9. One way to determine how specific genes influence behaviour is to conduct a __________ study, in which mice are used that have had a gene removed from their genome. QuestionID: 09-3-09 Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: a. gene knockout 10. The __________ refers to the overall population increases in intelligence test scores over time. QuestionID: 09-3-10 Objective: 9.3a Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence. Answer: a. Flynn Effect Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Anthropometrics refers to the A) measurement of physical and mental variation in people. B) cultural and environmental influences on people's behaviour. C) tests used to measure Gardner's multiple intelligences. D) calculation of an individual's mental age. QuestionID: 09-4-01 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: A) measurement of physical and mental variation in people. 2. Which of the following is the best psychological description for intelligence? A) how much information an individual can correctly recall B) an individual's score on a standardized intelligence test C) how well a person can understand, reason, and cognitively adapt to obstacles D) the ability to quickly and efficiently learn new material in an unknown environment QuestionID: 09-4-02 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: C) how well a person can understand, reason, and cognitively adapt to obstacles

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

3. The average score on most IQ tests is A) 68. B) 100. C) 115. D) 85. QuestionID: 09-4-03 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: B) 100. 4. Francis has his intelligence tested and receives a score of 100. Given the normal distribution for most intelligence tests, Francis' score is A) extremely below average. B) slightly below average. C) average. D) above average. QuestionID: 09-4-04 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: C) average. 5. One advantage of using ___________ is that it avoids age-related changes because scores are always compared against the same age-group. A) the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) B) mental age C) Raven's Progressive Matrices D) deviation IQ QuestionID: 09-4-05 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: D) deviation IQ 6. Binet and Simon considered children behind in their schooling if their A) mental age equalled their chronological age. B) mental age was lower than their chronological age. C) mental age was higher than their chronological age. D) mental age did not equal their chronological age. QuestionID: 09-4-06 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: B) mental age was lower than their chronological age. 7. Binet and Simon measured children using what new concept? A) anthropometrics B) intelligence quotient (IQ) C) mental age D) deviation IQ

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 09-4-07 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: C) mental age 8. Binet and Simon originally developed their famous test to A) identify children who might have difficulty in school. B) identify children who might excel in school. C) measure the intelligence of adults. D) measure the intelligence of normal children. QuestionID: 09-4-08 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: A) identify children who might have difficulty in school. 9. ________, a professor of psychology at Stanford University, revised Binet and Simon's test so it could be used with American school children. A) Francis Galton B) Lewis Terman C) Charles Spearman D) David Wechsler QuestionID: 09-4-09 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: B) Lewis Terman 10. ________ devised a simple formula for calculating an index of intelligence, or intelligence quotient (IQ). A) David Wechsler B) Francis Galton C) Lewis Terman D) Charles Spearman QuestionID: 09-4-10 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: C) Lewis Terman 11. The formula that uses chronological age (CA) and mental age (MA) to calculate the intelligence quotient is A) (MA ÷ CA) × 100. B) CA ÷ MA × 100. C) (MA × CA) ÷ 100. D) 100 ÷ (MA + CA). QuestionID: 09-4-11 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: A) (MA ÷ CA) × 100. 12. Who has the highest IQ? .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

Clarissa, with a mental age of 9 and a chronological age of 9 Matt, with a mental age of 9 and a chronological age of 10 Cecilee, with a mental age of 9 and a chronological age of 7 Morgan, with a mental age of 7 and a chronological age of 7

QuestionID: 09-4-12 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: C) Cecilee, with a mental age of 9 and a chronological age of 7 13. Twelve-year-old Arnold received an IQ test score of 75. Using the original definition for IQ, what is his mental age? A) 9 B) 10 C) 5 D) 7 QuestionID: 09-4-13 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: A) 9 14. What is the IQ of a 10-year-old with a mental age of 8? A) 125 B) 80 C) 1.25 D) 0.8 QuestionID: 09-4-14 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: B) 80 15. Based on IQ score as calculated by Terman, Poonam has an IQ score of 120, so she is likely to answer IQ test questions like someone whose age is _____, even though Poonam is _____. A) 10; 12 B) 12; 6 C) 10; 8 D) 12; 10 QuestionID: 09-4-15 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: D) 12; 10 16. Binet and Simon's test was developed as a way to measure____________, but was adapted by others into a measure of ________________. A) academic achievement; innate intelligence B) innate intelligence; academic achievement C) chronological age; mental age D) mental age; chronological age

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 09-4-16 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: A) academic achievement; innate intelligence 17. What is the most commonly used intelligence for testing adolescents and adults? A) Stanford-Binet B) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) C) Binet-Simon D) Raven's Progressive Matrices QuestionID: 09-4-17 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: B) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) 18. The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) provides a Full Scale IQ measurement, but also breaks intelligence into which two indices? A) General Ability and Cognitive Proficiency B) Working Memory and Perceptual Speed C) Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning D) Vocabulary and Arithmetic QuestionID: 09-4-18 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: A) General Ability and Cognitive Proficiency 19. The ____________ are subset indices in the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) that do not place emphasis on how quickly an individual can solve a problem. A) Working Memory and Cognitive Proficiency B) Working Memory and Perceptual Speed C) Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning D) Digit Span and Arithmetic QuestionID: 09-4-19 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: C) Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning 20. Zoe wants to test the IQ of a group of ESL students who do not speak any English. What test might you recommend to her? A) Stanford-Binet B) Raven's Progressive Matrices C) WAIS D) Binet-Simon QuestionID: 09-4-20 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: B) Raven's Progressive Matrices .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

21. Which of the following items would most likely be found on a culture-free IQ test? A) visual pattern completion B) arithmetic questions C) vocabulary recognition D) digit span QuestionID: 09-4-21 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: A) visual pattern completion 22. The cousin of Charles Darwin who suggested that the unusual eminence of his own family was due to genetic gifts was A) Alfred Binet. B) Lewis Terman. C) Henri Simon. D) Sir Francis Galton. QuestionID: 09-4-22 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.1b Understand the reasoning behind the eugenics movements and its use of intelligence tests. Answer: D) Sir Francis Galton. 23. Which of the following is representative of Sir Francis Galton's perspective on intelligence? A) Galton believed that intelligence was determined 50% by environment and 50% by genes. B) Galton believed that genes significantly influenced intelligence. C) Galton and believed that social factors significantly influenced intelligence. D) Galton believed that intelligence was a trait that changed significantly over time. QuestionID: 09-4-23 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.1b Understand the reasoning behind the eugenics movements and its use of intelligence tests. Answer: B) Galton believed that genes significantly influenced intelligence. 24. IQ tests were often used to support _______ practices; supposedly demonstrating that some individuals were "superior" to others. A) anthropometric B) incremental theory C) stereotype threat D) eugenic QuestionID: 09-4-24 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.1b Understand the reasoning behind the eugenics movements and its use of intelligence tests. Answer: D) eugenic 25. Stereotype threat refers to A) poor performance on IQ tests by minorities. B) the influence of negative expectations on IQ test performance. C) the belief that individuals of European descent are superior to others. D) the belief that minorities are less intelligent than others. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 09-4-25 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: B) the influence of negative expectations on IQ test performance. 26. Carmen is taking an advanced math test and feels she will not perform well because she knows the negative stereotypes about women's abilities in mathematics. This feeling has been labelled as A) eugenics. B) entity theory. C) incremental theory. D) stereotype threat. QuestionID: 09-4-26 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: D) stereotype threat. 27. Mikom is a First Nations student and is about to write his MCAT for entrance into medical school. Mikom is very worried about his performance on the test because he has repeatedly head that First Nations individuals tend to do poorly on standardized tests. What concept is being represented in this example? A) between-group heritability B) confirmation bias C) stereotype threat D) test bias QuestionID: 09-4-27 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: C) stereotype threat 28. Which of the following is true about incremental theories of intelligence? A) Children who hold incremental views tend to give up when confronted with difficult problems in school. B) Children who hold incremental theories view their intelligence as something that cannot be changed. C) Children who hold incremental theories tend to do poorly academically compared to those who hold entity theories. D) Children can be taught incremental views which can lead to higher grades. QuestionID: 09-4-28 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.1c Apply the concepts of entity theory and incremental theory to help kids succeed in school. Answer: D) Children can be taught incremental views which can lead to higher grades. 29. When Dweck and her colleagues taught _____________ views to a group of junior high students, they found that the group's grades _____________. A) entity; improved B) entity; remained stable C) incremental; improved D) incremental; worsened QuestionID: 09-4-29 Skill: Factual .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 9.1c Apply the concepts of entity theory and incremental theory to help kids succeed in school. Answer: C) incremental; improved 30. __________ is a statistical method that compares results of different correlational measures to identify clusters of related variables. A) Entity theory B) Incremental theory C) Multi-correlation D) Factor analysis QuestionID: 09-4-30 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: D) Factor analysis 31. Who would have supported the notion that intelligence mostly resulted from a single ability and could be represented by a single test score? A) Gardner B) Spearman C) Sternberg D) Thurstone QuestionID: 09-4-31 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: B) Spearman 32. According to Spearman, it is one's ________ intelligence that produces the positive correlations found between math, reading scores, and visual perception tests. A) general B) mental C) crystallized D) fluid QuestionID: 09-4-32 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: A) general 33. Ms. Bouvier is a first grade teacher. She has just given Chelsea a reading test. Chelsea scored very high in word recognition, so Ms. Bouvier assumes she will score high on the rest of the test. It is likely that Ms. Bouvier believes in the ____________ factor of intelligence. A) g B) s C) a D) r QuestionID: 09-4-33 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: A) g .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

34. Terence is a skilled musician, writer, computer programmer, and problem solver. The fact that Terence is good at so many diverse activities supports the notion of _____________ intelligence. A) crystallized B) fluid C) transgenic D) general QuestionID: 09-4-34 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: D) general 35. Which of the following statements is not true? A) A higher "g" is correlated with higher divorce rates. B) A lower "g" is correlated with higher incarceration rates. C) A higher "g" is correlated with lower poverty rates. D) A higher "g" is correlated with more efficient neural conduction. QuestionID: 09-4-35 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: A) A higher "g" is correlated with higher divorce rates. 36. Because Ashley's history professor was a college student during the 1970s, he has extraordinary insight and knowledge of facts concerning the Vietnam War era. This knowledge is associated with the term A) crystallized intelligence. B) fluid intelligence. C) general intelligence. D) multiple intelligence. QuestionID: 09-4-36 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.2d Apply your knowledge to identify examples that reflect fluid vs. crystallized intelligence. Answer: A) crystallized intelligence. 37. Neebin can list all of the Canadian Prime Ministers, beginning with Sir John A. MacDonald. Which type of intelligence is she relying most on? A) semantic B) fluid C) crystallized D) static QuestionID: 09-4-37 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.2d Apply your knowledge to identify examples that reflect fluid vs. crystallized intelligence. Answer: C) crystallized 38. Megan is very good at solving problems, even though she has had very little formal training. For example, Megan was able to solve the Rubik's Cube puzzle the first time she tried. Megan clearly has a high degree of ____________ intelligence. A) general .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) fluid C) crystallized D) "s" QuestionID: 09-4-38 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.2d Apply your knowledge to identify examples that reflect fluid vs. crystallized intelligence. Answer: B) fluid 39. ____________ intelligence allows people to solve problems that they have not previously experienced, while _____________ intelligence involves applying previous experience and knowledge to solving a problem. A) Crystallized; fluid B) Fluid; crystallized C) General; specific D) Specific; general QuestionID: 09-4-39 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.2d Apply your knowledge to identify examples that reflect fluid vs. crystallized intelligence. Answer: B) Fluid; crystallized 40. Vocabulary tests primarily measure ________________ intelligence. A) crystallized B) fluid C) general D) spatial QuestionID: 09-4-40 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.2d Apply your knowledge to identify examples that reflect fluid vs. crystallized intelligence. Answer: A) crystallized 41. It is generally the case that most great scientists have their ground-breaking ideas when they are in early to middle adulthood, but rarely when they are older. What might explain this fact? A) White matter in the brain substantially decreases from middle to late adulthood. B) General intelligence declines steeply after middle adulthood. C) Fluid intelligence peaks in middle adulthood, and then declines in later life. D) Crystallized intelligence peaks in middle adulthood, and then declines in later life. QuestionID: 09-4-41 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.2d Apply your knowledge to identify examples that reflect fluid vs. crystallized intelligence. Answer: C) Fluid intelligence peaks in middle adulthood, and then declines in later life. 42. Which of the following typically happens to crystallized intelligence as healthy adults age? A) It peaks at middle age and then declines. B) It exponentially increases from middle to old-age. C) It remains stable or increases with experience. D) It steadily declines throughout the lifespan. QuestionID: 09-4-42 Skill: Conceptual .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 9.2d Apply your knowledge to identify examples that reflect fluid vs. crystallized intelligence. Answer: C) It remains stable or increases with experience. 43. Which of the following is a healthy older adult most likely to do as well as—or even better than—a younger adult? A) pattern recognition B) a geometric puzzle C) a vocabulary test D) a timed problem-solving task QuestionID: 09-4-43 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.2d Apply your knowledge to identify examples that reflect fluid vs. crystallized intelligence. Answer: C) a vocabulary test 44. Which of the following is a younger adult most likely to do better than a healthy older adult? A) naming the capitals of provinces B) solving a geometric puzzle C) defining vocabulary words D) calculating the area of a circle from the length of the radius QuestionID: 09-4-44 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.2d Apply your knowledge to identify examples that reflect fluid vs. crystallized intelligence. Answer: B) solving a geometric puzzle 45. Adira has an IQ score that is much lower than average and has been diagnosed as having a form of autism. Despite her disabilities, Adira can perform incredible feats of mental arithmetic, including finding the square root of five-digit numbers without a calculator or paper and pencil! Adira would be classified as a A) kinetic learner. B) crystallized thinker. C) fluid thinker. D) savant. QuestionID: 09-4-45 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: D) savant. 46. Which of the following does NOT support the idea of multiple intelligences? A) Head injury can lead to the loss of one ability but not others. B) People who score highly on intelligence tests often excel in a number of areas. C) Intelligent people vary a great deal in terms of physical, social, and artistic skills. D) Savants may have low mental capacities, but excel at specific abilities. QuestionID: 09-4-46 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: B) People who score highly on intelligence tests often excel in a number of areas. 47. A theory of intelligence with seven (now nine) components was first postulated by .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

Gardner. Spearman. Sternberg. Terman.

QuestionID: 09-4-47 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: A) Gardner. 48. Gardner and his associates are known for proposing A) the generalized theory of intelligence. B) the transgenic theory of intelligence. C) the theory of multiple intelligences. D) the theory of multiple learning styles. QuestionID: 09-4-48 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: C) the theory of multiple intelligences. 49. According to Gardner's most updated theory, there are ________ types of intelligence. A) two B) three C) six D) nine QuestionID: 09-4-49 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: D) nine 50. Which of these is one of Gardner's multiple intelligences? A) procedural B) active C) creative D) naturalist QuestionID: 09-4-50 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: D) naturalist 51. Corrie is well liked by all her classmates. She has lots of friends and is always one of the first people chosen whenever there are group projects. According to Gardner, at which type of intelligence does Corrie likely excel? A) interpersonal B) intrapersonal C) naturalistic D) kinesthetic QuestionID: 09-4-51 Skill: Applied .

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Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: A) interpersonal 52. Marcos, a geology professor, has always been fascinated by the study of fossils, shells, and rock formations. According to Gardner, Marcos is likely strong in the area of ________ intelligence. A) kinesthetic B) naturalist C) visuospatial D) logical QuestionID: 09-4-52 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: B) naturalist 53. Ms. Umar is an elementary school teacher. She tries to match her teaching style to the way in which each student seems to learn best. For example, she believes some of her students learn best when she illustrates ideas on the board, while other students appear to learn best when they perform hands-on actives. Ms. Umar likely believes in the idea of A) crystallized intelligence. B) general intelligence. C) fluid intelligence. D) learning styles. QuestionID: 09-4-53 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.2e Analyze whether teachers should spend time tailoring lessons to each individual student's learning style. Answer: D) learning styles. 54. The hypothesis that individuals are fundamentally different in how they optimally acquire information is associated with the concept of A) learning styles. B) crystallized intelligence. C) fluid intelligence. D) general intelligence. QuestionID: 09-4-54 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.2e Analyze whether teachers should spend time tailoring lessons to each individual student's learning style. Answer: A) learning styles. 55. Studies investigating the concept of learning styles have found A) that when teaching matches an individual's learning style, their ability to acquire information greatly increases. B) that children, but not adults, learn best when the teaching method matched their learning style. C) no evidence that individuals have specific learning styles. D) that all individuals learn better when taught using a visuospatial approach. QuestionID: 09-4-55 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.2e Analyze whether teachers should spend time tailoring lessons to each individual student's learning style. Answer: C) no evidence that individuals have specific learning styles. .

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56. When researchers compare the distribution of IQ scores for males to the one for females, which of the following differences is most consistently found? A) The mean score for the male distribution is greater than the one for the females. B) The mean score for the female distribution is greater than the one for the males. C) The variability among males is greater than it is among females. D) The variability among females is greater than it is among males. QuestionID: 09-4-56 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.2c Understand intelligence differences between males and females. Answer: C) The variability among males is greater than it is among females. 57. There is some evidence that women are, on average, better at ______________, while men, on average, are better at_______________. A) fluid intelligence; crystallized intelligence B) crystallized intelligence; fluid intelligence C) visuospatial manipulation; verbal fluency D) verbal fluency; visuospatial manipulation QuestionID: 09-4-57 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.2c Understand intelligence differences between males and females. Answer: D) verbal fluency; visuospatial manipulation 58. Which of the following is true concerning "twin study" research findings? A) Identical twins and fraternal twins share similarly high IQ correlations. B) Fraternal twins have more similar IQ scores than identical twins. C) Identical twins have more similar IQ scores than fraternal twins. D) Identical twins raised apart have more similar scores than identical twins raised together. QuestionID: 09-4-58 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: C) Identical twins have more similar IQ scores than fraternal twins. 59. If intelligence is determined primarily by heredity, which of the following pair-comparisons should show the same correlation in IQ scores? A) fraternal twins and biological siblings B) identical twins and fraternal twins C) identical twins and parents-children D) adopted twins and biological siblings QuestionID: 09-4-59 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: A) fraternal twins and biological siblings 60. In general, studies examining the correlations between intelligence scores for different family members indicate that __________________ is the greatest determinant for shared intelligence. A) education B) shared experience .

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C) biological relatedness D) shared environment QuestionID: 09-4-60 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.3a Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence. Answer: C) biological relatedness 61. The study of how specific genes interact with the environment to influence behaviour is called A) behavioural genomics. B) anthropometrics. C) psychometrics. D) transgenics. QuestionID: 09-4-61 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: A) behavioural genomics. 62. Dr. Ming hypothesizes that a particular gene is involved in intelligence. He breeds a strain of mice that have had this particular gene removed to see if they show an impaired ability to solve problems compared to mice that have not had this gene removed. This is an example of a(n) ______________ study. A) transgenic B) anthropometric C) psychometric D) gene knockout QuestionID: 09-4-62 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: D) gene knockout 63. _________________ involves breeding mice that have had a specific gene removed from their genome. In contrast, _________________ involves inserting a new gene into an animal's genome. A) Transgenics; gene knockout B) Gene knockout; transgenics C) Behavioural genomics; transgenics D) Transgenics; behavioural genomics QuestionID: 09-4-63 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: B) Gene knockout; transgenics 64. Which of the following best describes the relationship between a person's brain size, and his or her intelligence? A) There is no relationship between brain size and intelligence. B) Brain size is somewhat correlated with intelligence, but the relationship is complicated. C) Not surprisingly, large brain size is a consistent predictor of high intellectual ability. D) Surprisingly, small brain size is a consistent predictor of high intellectual ability. QuestionID: 09-4-64 .

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Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: B) Brain size is somewhat correlated with intelligence, but the relationship is complicated. 65. Which of the following is TRUE about the relationship between the brain and intelligence scores? A) Brain size is the strongest predictor of intelligence scores. B) Convolution is strongly correlated with intelligence scores. C) Brain size and the convolution of the brain equally predict intelligence scores. D) Neither the size, nor the degree of convolution of the cortex, are correlated with intelligence scores. QuestionID: 09-4-65 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: B) Convolution is strongly correlated with intelligence scores. 66. Which of the following was true about the brain of Albert Einstein? A) It was heavier than the average human brain. B) The frontal lobes contained extra convolutions. C) The temporal lobes were larger than average. D) It was similar to an average human brain on all measurements. QuestionID: 09-4-66 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: B) The frontal lobes contained extra convolutions. 67. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the relationship between nutrition and intelligence? A) There is no correlation between intelligence and nutrition. B) Diets high in saturated fats were correlated with higher intelligence scores. C) There is a positive correlation between low-fat diets and intelligence. D) There is a positive correlation between diets high in saturated fats and intelligence. QuestionID: 09-4-67 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.3a Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence. Answer: C) There is a positive correlation between low-fat diets and intelligence. 68. According to your textbook, a key factor in why growing up in a low-income family is associated with lower IQs is likely A) exposure to language. B) genetics. C) a lack of value placed on learning. D) environmental toxins. QuestionID: 09-4-68 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.3a Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence. Answer: A) exposure to language. 69. Rob, Matt, and Chris are brothers. Rob was born in 1985, Matt in 1988, and Chris in 1990. Statistically speaking, which sibling is slightly more likely to have the greatest IQ score? .

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A) B) C) D)

Rob Matt Chris They are all equally likely to have the equal IQ scores.

QuestionID: 09-4-69 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.3d Analyze the belief that older children are more intelligent than their younger siblings. Answer: A) Rob 70. Chronic stress has been shown to A) damage the prefrontal cortex and hippocampus. B) increase kinesthetic intelligence. C) improve resilience when faced with challenging tasks. D) increase the volume of areas involved with stress, such as the hypothalamus. QuestionID: 09-4-70 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.3a Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence. Answer: A) damage the prefrontal cortex and hippocampus. 71. The "Flynn effect" refers to A) the finding that IQ scores are positively correlated with nutrition. B) the finding that IQ scores have steadily increased over time. C) the finding that IQ scores have steadily decreased over time. D) the finding that IQ scores are negatively correlated with education levels. QuestionID: 09-4-71 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.3a Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence. Answer: B) the finding that IQ scores have steadily increased over time. 72. A study looking at the average IQ scores for military recruits found that over a period of 30 years A) scores decreases between 21 and 30 points. B) scores rose between 21 and 30 points. C) score rose, on average, 3 points every year. D) scores have remained relatively stable. QuestionID: 09-4-72 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.3a Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence. Answer: B) scores rose between 21 and 30 points. 73. Henrietta's grandfather used to be a psychologist in the 1950s. While going through his old papers, Henrietta finds an old intelligence test that was tested and normed over fifty years earlier. Just for fun, Henrietta decides to take the test, which gives her an IQ of 110. Which of the following is true? A) She would probably receive a similar score from a more recent test. B) The score is probably too high, because the average score on the test when it was normed is lower than it would be today. C) The score is probably too low, because the average score on the test when it was normed was lower than it would be today. D) The score is probably too high, because the average score on the test when it was normed was higher than it .

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would be today. QuestionID: 09-4-73 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.3a Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence. Answer: B) The score is probably too high, because the average score on the test when it was normed is lower than it would be today. 74. According to the Flynn effect, for at least several generations A) the IQ scores of the children are higher than those of their parents. B) the IQ scores of the children are lower than those of their parents. C) the IQ scores of both children and parents have remained about the same. D) there is no correlation between the IQ scores of children and their parents. QuestionID: 09-4-74 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.3a Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence. Answer: A) the IQ scores of the children are higher than those of their parents. 75. According to your textbook, which of the following is true regarding the population-level increases in intelligence test scores over time? A) The increase indicates that children today are actually smarter than their parents were. B) The increase is due to the fact that people are better test takers, not that they are smarter. C) The reasons for the increase are unclear, but may reflect the lower levels of stress experienced by today's youth compared to the youth of the 1930–1950's. D) The reasons for the increase are unclear, but may reflect the increased reliance on certain skills like abstract thinking and logical analysis. QuestionID: 09-4-75 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.3a Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence. Answer: D) The reasons for the increase are unclear, but may reflect the increased reliance on certain skills like abstract thinking and logical analysis. 76. Research into "brain-training" programs has shown that A) the games have a positive and lasting effect on general intelligence. B) the games rarely have an effect on real-world skills, outside of the laboratory. C) brain-training games have a positive impact multiple types of intelligence. D) the games have absolutely no effect on any type of skill or task. QuestionID: 09-4-76 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.3c Apply your knowledge of environmental and behavioural effects on intelligence to understand how to enhance your own cognitive abilities. Answer: B) the games rarely have an effect on real-world skills, outside of the laboratory. 77. __________ drugs are substances are believed to beneficially affect intelligence. A) N-back B) Brain-training C) Transgenic D) Nootropic

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QuestionID: 09-4-77 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.3a Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence. Answer: D) Nootropic 78. __________ has been shown to boost short-term memory and planning abilities, while ______ has been shown to increase overall cognitive functioning. A) Methylphenidate; modafinil B) Modafinil; methylphenidate C) Brain-training; nootropic D) Nootropic; brain-training QuestionID: 09-4-78 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.3c Apply your knowledge of environmental and behavioural effects on intelligence to understand how to enhance your own cognitive abilities. Answer: B) Modafinil; methylphenidate 79. Using a sample of adults, Professor Hue conducted a study of intelligence and she found that the heritability coefficient was around 45%. This means that A) 45 percent of intelligence is due to genetics for an average individual in the sample, and 55 percent is due to environment. B) 45 percent of intelligence is due to genetics for an average individual in the sample, and 55 percent is due to unspecified factors. C) intelligence is completely determined by the genes in 45 percent of the sample and it is completely determined by the environment in the other 55 percent. D) about 45 percent of the variability in intelligence scores in this sample can be explained by their genetic differences. QuestionID: 09-4-79 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: D) about 45 percent of the variability in intelligence scores in this sample can be explained by their genetic differences. 80. Which of the following is true about the concept of heritability coefficient? A) It is a constant that is relatively stable within a culture. B) It can only be applied to populations, not to individuals. C) It indicates how much of an individual's intelligence is due to her/his genetic make-up. D) It is a score that is larger among people living in poverty than people living in wealth. QuestionID: 09-4-80 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: B) It can only be applied to populations, not to individuals. 81. What does Spearman's g refer to? A) It is general intelligence as a single, general ability. B) It is a constant that varies among cultures based on genes. C) It indicates how much of the variability in intelligence scores is due to genes in a population. D) It is the genetic determinant of intelligence.

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QuestionID: 09-4-81 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: A) It is general intelligence as a single, general ability. 82. Which of the following statements about Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences is FALSE? A) Some dimensions are unfalsifiable and difficult to research. B) Despite its rarity in scientific literature, it exerts some influence in applied fields such as education. C) It claims that people can be good at multiple things and reminds us to appreciate the wide range of human abilities. D) It puts a strong genetic emphasis on what determines multiple intelligences. QuestionID: 09-4-82 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: D) It puts a strong genetic emphasis on what determines multiple intelligences. 83. Why were Binet and Simon asked by the French government to create an intelligence test? A) To identify children with average intelligence and see if they perform adequate in schools. B) To develop an objective assessment of children's intelligence. C) To identify the most intelligent children for a specialized education. D) To identify children who would benefit from specialized education. QuestionID: 09-4-83 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: D) To identify children who would benefit from specialized education. 84. Which of the following is the correct way to calculate the deviation IQ? A) Divide the average by the test score and multiply the result by 100. B) Divide a test score by the average and multiply the result by 100. C) Add the test score to the average and then subtract 100. D) Subtract the test score from the average and multiply the result by 100. QuestionID: 09-4-84 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: B) Divide a test score by the average and multiply the result by 100. 85. Which of the following statements about biological and environmental influences on IQ is TRUE? A) Heritability of IQ scores is higher among people living in wealth than people living in poverty. B) Similarity of IQ scores is higher among cousins than siblings. C) Genes directly and heavily determine intelligence levels regardless of population of study. D) Intelligence of people in impoverished communities can be better explained by their genetic differences. QuestionID: 09-4-85 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: A) Heritability of IQ scores is higher among people living in wealth than people living in poverty. 86. Which of the following statements about highly intelligent people compared to less intelligent people is .

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TRUE? A) They are slightly more stressed. B) They typically live longer. C) They are usually born second or after in their families. D) They are usually good-looking people. QuestionID: 09-4-86 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.3c Apply your knowledge of environmental and behavioural effects on intelligence to understand how to enhance your own cognitive abilities. Answer: B) They typically live longer. 87. If the test scores of ability A, ability B, and ability C correlate highly together; these would form a A) talent. B) data. C) entity. D) factor. QuestionID: 09-4-87 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: D) factor. 88. _________ intelligence produces new information, _____ intelligence uses the old information. A) Creative; fluid B) Crystallized; practical C) Fluid; crystallized D) Practical; creative QuestionID: 09-4-88 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.2d Apply your knowledge to identify examples that reflect fluid vs. crystallized intelligence. Answer: C) Fluid; crystallized 89. If __________________ are given a test and their intelligence scores scores will be very similar. In fact, their scores will be as similar as the scores of an individual taking the test twice. A) cousins reared together B) children and their biological parents living together C) fraternal twins reared together D) identical twins reared apart QuestionID: 09-4-89 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: D) identical twins reared apart 90. Considering the effect of genes and environment on intelligence, an analysis of intelligence scores of fraternal twins reared together would show intelligence scores that are less similar than the scores of A) children and their biological parents living together. B) adopted children reared together. C) identical twins reared apart. D) biological siblings reared together. .

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QuestionID: 09-4-90 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: C) identical twins reared apart. 91. In a hypothetical situation, if all the members of a community are raised in exactly the same environmental conditions, then the variability in intelligence scores in this population would be best explained by ____________ and the population would have a heritability index of ________. A) environment; 100% B) environment; 0% C) genes; 100% D) genes; 0% QuestionID: 09-4-91 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: C) genes; 100% 92. Twin studies on intelligence may __________________ the effects of ________, because two people in the same environment can have ________ experiences. A) underestimate; genes; very similar B) underestimate; environment; unique C) overestimate; genes; very similar D) overestimate; environment; unique QuestionID: 09-4-92 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: B) underestimate; environment; unique 93. Considering that foot length is a highly heritable trait, which of the following would be true for the foot length of an individual? A) Environmental factors such as diet would have zero contribution to foot length for an individual. B) Environment can maximize or minimize the genetic potential of foot length for an individual. C) Genes would dictate exactly the height of an individual. D) If an individual's parents are 6 feet tall, then he or she would be approximately 6 feet tall. QuestionID: 09-4-93 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: B) Environment can maximize or minimize the genetic potential of foot length for an individual. 94. Although certain dimensions of intelligence decline steadily with age, one dimension tends to decline the least. That dimension is A) abstract reasoning skills. B) visuospatial skills. C) verbal abilities. D) reaction time. QuestionID: 09-4-94 Skill: Factual .

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Objective: 9.2d Apply your knowledge to identify examples that reflect fluid vs. crystallized intelligence. Answer: C) verbal abilities. 95. Which of the following is specifically TRUE about the Flynn effect? A) There are significant generational differences in intelligence. B) Anxiety of performance actually reduces the test performance of individuals. C) Educational barriers in impoverished communities highly influence their intelligence levels. D) Breastfeeding positively influenced intelligence scores. QuestionID: 09-4-95 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.3a Know the key terminology related to heredity, environment, and intelligence. Answer: A) There are significant generational differences in intelligence. 96. Which of the following statements regarding biological determinants of intelligence is FALSE? A) Scientists cannot locate the genes that are specifically related to intelligence. B) Scientists use gene knockout techniques to observe the effects of genes on intelligence. C) Scientist use gene transplantation and insert genes to observe their effects on intelligence. D) Specific brain structures and functions are more important than overall brain size. QuestionID: 09-4-96 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: A) Scientists cannot locate the genes that are specifically related to intelligence. 97. Considering the perspective given in your textbook, what would be the MOST likely reason why the African American population may have lower intelligence scores than European Americans? A) The genetic makeup of these two groups are simply different. B) The socioeconomic environment of most African Americans is different than most European Americans. C) Current intelligence tests are biased toward African Americans in terms of their content. D) In general, African Americans are more anxious when they take the intelligence tests. QuestionID: 09-4-97 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.3c Apply your knowledge of environmental and behavioural effects on intelligence to understand how to enhance your own cognitive abilities. Answer: B) The socioeconomic environment of most African Americans is different than most European Americans. 98. What does the existence of savant syndrome best suggest about intelligence? A) Intelligence is a concept that is culturally and historically constructed. B) Intelligence depends on the quality of reaction time and cognitive processing. C) Intelligence can be defined by a diverse set of distinct abilities. D) Intelligence is largely unpredictable and unmeasurable. QuestionID: 09-4-98 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: C) Intelligence can be defined by a diverse set of distinct abilities. 99. Which of the following was suggested as the main cause of the negative Flynn effect and then proven to be wrong? .

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A) B) C) D)

failures in the standardization of intelligence tests parents with low IQ reproduce more than parents with high IQ deterioration of intelligence tests as a measure of multiple abilities declining parental involvement in children's development

QuestionID: 09-4-99 Skill: Factual Objective: 9.3d Analyze the belief that older children are more intelligent than their younger siblings. Answer: B) parents with low IQ reproduce more than parents with high IQ 100. If you wanted to understand the effects of environment on intelligence, which of following methods would you choose? A) comparing IQs of identical twins reared together to the IQs of fraternal twins reared together B) comparing IQs of children reared by their biological parents to the IQs of their biological parents C) comparing IQs of adopted children to their adoptive parents' IQ D) comparing IQs of adopted children to their biological parents' IQ QuestionID: 09-4-100 Skill: Applied Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: C) comparing IQs of adopted children to their adoptive parents' IQ Supplementary Questions 1. Galton's intelligence test items are to ________________ as Binet and Simon's intelligence test items are to ________________. A) abstract thinking; concrete thinking B) general intelligence; specific intelligences C) sensation; higher mental processes D) crystallized intelligence; fluid intelligence QuestionID: 09-5-01 Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: C) sensation; higher mental processes 2. The Binet scale was originally developed to A) identify children who might have difficulty in school. B) identify gifted children. C) measure scholastic achievement. D) measure the intelligence of normal children. QuestionID: 09-5-02 Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: A) identify children who might have difficulty in school. 3. A committee has been set up to identify young people who are likely to become great Olympics skaters. In addition to physical skills, the committee believes that an understanding of one's emotions is a plus because it will help the skaters through training and competitions. Using Howard Gardner's types of intelligences, which two should be the focus of their search? A) bodily kinesthetic and intrapersonal B) logical/mathematical and visual/spatial C) visual/spatial and interpersonal .

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D) verbal/linguistic and logical/mathematical QuestionID: 09-5-03 Objective: 9.2a Know the key terminology related to understanding intelligence. Answer: A) bodily kinesthetic and intrapersonal 4. Which individual is likely to have an IQ score that is most similar to Darrell's? A) Darrell's adopted brother Dave B) Darrell's cousin Sarah C) Darrell's sister Debra D) Darrell's cousin Derreck QuestionID: 09-5-04 Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: C) Darrell's sister Debra True-False Questions 1. Alfred Binet designed his famous test to measure innate intelligence. a True b False QuestionID: 09-6-01 Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: b. False 2. A 10-year-old child with a mental age of 9 would have an IQ of 90. a True b False QuestionID: 09-6-02 Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: a. True 3. The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) is the most commonly used intelligence test used on adolescents and adults. a True b False QuestionID: 09-6-03 Objective: 9.1a Know the key terminology associated with intelligence and intelligence testing. Answer: a. True 4. The solution to stereotype threat is education—if individuals in the group are aware of the stereotype, they are likely to behave in ways that contradict other's expectations. a True b False QuestionID: 09-6-04 Objective: 9.1d Analyze why it is difficult to remove all cultural bias from intelligence testing.

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Answer: b. False 5. Crystallized intelligence is used to solve problems without relying on previous knowledge. a True b False QuestionID: 09-6-05 Objective: 9.2d Apply your knowledge to identify examples that reflect fluid vs. crystallized intelligence. Answer: b. False 6. Scientists agree that a general intelligence underlies the specific abilities and talents measured by intelligence tests. a True b False QuestionID: 09-6-06 Objective: 9.2b Understand why intelligence is described as a hierarchy. Answer: b. False 7. There is little scientific support for the idea that individuals have distinct learning styles. a True b False QuestionID: 09-6-07 Objective: 9.2e Analyze whether teachers should spend time tailoring lessons to each individual student's learning style. Answer: a. True 8. In general, males tend to have a higher average IQ score than females. a True b False QuestionID: 09-6-08 Objective: 9.2c Understand intelligence differences between males and females. Answer: b. False 9. A transgenic animal is one that has had a specific gene removed so scientists can investigate the role of that particular gene. a True b False QuestionID: 09-6-09 Objective: 9.3b Understand different approaches to studying the genetic basis of intelligence. Answer: b. False 10. The birth order effect on intelligence test scores is likely due to genetic factors. a True b False QuestionID: 09-6-10 Objective: 9.3d Analyze the belief that older children are more intelligent than their younger siblings.

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Answer: b. False

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Chapter 10 : Lifespan Development Chapter Quiz Questions 1. To study the effect of daycare programs on academic performance, a researcher follows the same 30 children who did or did not attend daycare programs as they go through kindergarten to sixth grade. Which type of design is the researcher using? A) cross-sectional B) cohort C) latitudinal D) longitudinal QuestionID: 10-1-01 Objective: 10.1b Understand the pros and cons of different research designs in developmental psychology. Answer: D) longitudinal 2. Which of the following is true about the connection between the MMR vaccine and autism? A) There is no scientific evidence that the MMR vaccine causes autism. B) The connection between MMR and autism remains unclear. C) There is strong scientific evidence that the MMR vaccine causes autism. D) The MMR vaccine causes autism if administered more than once. QuestionID: 10-1-02 Objective: 10.1b Understand the pros and cons of different research designs in developmental psychology. Answer: A) There is no scientific evidence that the MMR vaccine causes autism. 3. The ______ reflex helps a newborn find and latch onto the breast to feed. A) Moro B) rooting C) grasping D) startle QuestionID: 10-1-03 Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: B) rooting 4. According to Piaget, the _____ stage of children's development is characterized by the understanding of symbols and pretend play. A) concrete operational B) sensorimotor C) preoperational operational D) formal operational QuestionID: 10-1-04 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: C) preoperational operational 5. Harry Harlow's research with infant monkeys demonstrated the importance of A) good nutrition for cognitive development. B) physical contact and the bond infants form with their mothers. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) punishment in shaping behaviour. D) self-esteem in socialization. QuestionID: 10-1-05 Objective: 10.2c Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. Answer: B) physical contact and the bond infants form with their mothers. 6. August is playing in a room with her mother present, although she does not pay attention to her. Both when her mother leaves her in the room with a stranger, and when she returns, August does not respond. What type of attachment does August likely have? A) anxious B) ambivalent C) disorganized D) avoidant QuestionID: 10-1-06 Objective: 10.2c Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. Answer: D) avoidant 7. The ongoing development of the _____ may explain why adolescents are known to make risky or poor decisions. A) hippocampus B) temporal lobe C) prefrontal cortex D) parietal lobe QuestionID: 10-1-07 Objective: 10.3a Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development. Answer: C) prefrontal cortex 8. According to your text, which of the following statements is TRUE regarding same-sex encounters? A) Most individuals who identify as heterosexual have never had a sexual encounter with a member of the same sex. B) If it does occur, sexual interest in members of the same sex is recognized during early adolescence. C) Most women who engage in same-sex encounters during adolescence have strictly heterosexual relationships during adulthood. D) The stigma of same-sex encounters prevents most adolescents from ever engaging in this behaviour. QuestionID: 10-1-08 Objective: 10.3b Understand the process of identity formation during adolescence. Answer: B) If it does occur, sexual interest in members of the same sex is recognized during early adolescence. 9. A healthy adult with no signs of dementia in his or her 80s is likely to have the most difficulty doing which of the following tasks? A) remembering how many feet are in a mile B) recalling the definition of the word "antepenultimate" C) knowing the names of his or her grandchildren D) solving a logic problem QuestionID: 10-1-09 Objective: 10.4d Understand how cognitive abilities change with age. Answer: D) solving a logic problem .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

10. Healthy older adults are A) more likely to develop depression than younger people. B) less likely to develop depression than younger people. C) no more likely than younger people are to develop depression. D) more likely to develop depression than younger people in the United States, although the opposite is true in China. QuestionID: 10-1-10 Objective: 10.4f Analyze the stereotype that old age is a time of unhappiness. Answer: C) no more likely than younger people are to develop depression. Essay Questions 1. At birth, there is a lot of variation in terms of the development of the sensory systems. Describe some of what is known about newborns' ability to hear, see, and smell. QuestionID: 10-2-01 Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: Hearing: Newborns recognize and show a preference for their mother's voice soon after birth. In addition, recent research has shown that infants may internalize sounds from their native language and actually cry with an 'accent' as a result. Vision: The visual system is not as well equipped at birth as the auditory system; newborns can only see clearly at distances of about 30 cm or less. Colour discrimination appears to develop at about two months of age, and shape discrimination develops at about 8 months of age. Smell: The sense of smell (olfaction) is well-developed at birth. An example of this is how newborns cringe at foul odours in much the same way as adults. It is possible that this acute sense of smell at birth helps ensure infants initiate nursing and get the nourishment they need. 2. Dr. Savory asks Annette, a 3-year-old child, if one of the two rows of coins (shown below) has more than the other. When Annette says that the two rows have the same number of coins, Dr. Savory spreads out one row (shown below). Once again, he asks Annette if one of the two rows has more. Dr. Savory repeats this task with Annette's 8-year-old sister, Rosie. Given your knowledge of Piaget's theory, compare and contrast the likely responses of each child. Incorporate Piaget's terms in your essay.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 10-2-02 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Annette will think that the second row contains more buttons. - Annette has not yet acquired the concept of conservation and does not understand that physical properties of objects do not change when their appearance changes. - Annette is in the preoperational stage, according to Piaget. - Conversely, Rosie will know that both rows of buttons have the same number. - Rosie is in the concrete operational stage and understands conservation. 3. Parents and researchers alike know that adolescents are prone to engaging in risky behaviour. Describe some .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

of the key factors that likely underlie some of the poor decision-making that occurs during this period of development. QuestionID: 10-2-03 Objective: 10.3f Analyze the relationship between brain development and adolescent judgment and risk taking. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - The prefrontal cortex, which is the area involved with inhibition, planning, and self-control, is still developing in adolescents and as such, likely isn't imposing the same level of control that might be seen in a fully developed adult - The limbic areas, involved with reward, are well-developed in adolescents and likely lead to increased value being placed on reward - Social factors (e.g., peer pressure) play a major role in the behaviour of adolescents. The presence or absence of other teenagers can greatly influence behaviour, leading individuals to engage in riskier behaviours than they might when acting alone. Fill-in-the-blank Questions 1. One disadvantage of cross-sectional studies is that the differences between ages may be due to __________ , and not developmental factors. QuestionID: 10-3-01 Objective: 10.1b Understand the pros and cons of different research designs in developmental psychology. Answer: a. cohort effects 2. A(n) __________ is created when a sperm and an ovum fuse together. QuestionID: 10-3-02 Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: a. zygote 3. According to Piaget, __________ occurs when children add new information, but interpret it based on what they already know. QuestionID: 10-3-03 Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: a. assimilation 4. According to Lev Vygotsky, if a child is unable to complete a task unassisted, but can complete the task with the help of a teacher, they are considered to be in the __________ . QuestionID: 10-3-04 Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: a. zone of proximal development 5. Sonya and her 12-month-old child are recruited to participate in a research study. Sonya is first instructed to sit in a room while her child plays. Then, Sonya is asked to leave her child in the room for several minutes before returning. The researchers in this study appear to be using the __________ protocol. QuestionID: 10-3-05 Objective: 10.2c Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. Answer: a. strange situation .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

6. The ability to understand that others may have their own thoughts and perspectives, different from our own, is known as __________ . QuestionID: 10-3-06 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: a. theory of mind 7. The __________ , which is involved in impulse control, regulates mood, and facilitates planning, organizing, and reasoning, is still developing during adolescence. QuestionID: 10-3-07 Objective: 10.3f Analyze the relationship between brain development and adolescent judgment and risk taking. Answer: a. prefrontal cortex 8. Frederique's 5-year-old son believes that people shouldn't steal because, "They might get in trouble!" This is consistent with the __________ stage of moral reasoning. QuestionID: 10-3-08 Objective: 10.3e Apply your understanding of the categories of moral reasoning. Answer: a. preconventional 9. Alzheimer's is a neurodegenerative disease that is associated with the abnormal buildup of __________ and __________ , which are two types of proteins that accumulate in the brain, causing a disruption in normal activity. QuestionID: 10-3-09 Objective: 10.4c Understand age-related disorders such as Alzheimer's disease. Answer: a. plaques/b. tangles 10. A healthy older adult is unlikely to forget how to ride a bike. This is because __________ memories do not decline with age the way some other types of memories do. QuestionID: 10-3-10 Objective: 10.4d Understand how cognitive abilities change with age. Answer: a. procedural Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Charmaine is interested in going to graduate school to gain expertise in the ways in which people experience physical, cognitive, social, and emotional changes over the course of their lives. The type of program that Charmaine should be applying to is __________ psychology. A) developmental B) child C) social D) cognitive QuestionID: 10-4-01 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: A) developmental 2. __________ studies observe different individuals at different ages at a single point in time. A) Longitudinal B) Cohort C) Sequential D) Cross-sectional QuestionID: 10-4-02 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1b Understand the pros and cons of different research designs in developmental psychology. Answer: D) Cross-sectional 3. Xiao is gathering research on the number of daily calories people typically consume at various ages. He gathers data about the number of calories eaten by 25 people in each of the following age categories: 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, and 70 years. What type of research design is Xiao using? A) continuous B) cross-sectional C) sequential D) longitudinal QuestionID: 10-4-03 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.1b Understand the pros and cons of different research designs in developmental psychology. Answer: B) cross-sectional 4. Daniel is interested in studying how children's behaviour changes when they grow up in high-risk environments. He enlists 500 children and their parents to take part in his research, and observes these children once a year for 20 years. This type of research is an example of a __________ study. A) sequential B) cross-sectional C) longitudinal D) continuous QuestionID: 10-4-04 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.1b Understand the pros and cons of different research designs in developmental psychology. Answer: C) longitudinal 5. In a __________design, one group of participants is followed and assessed as the group ages. A) cohort B) longitudinal C) lifetime D) cross-sectional QuestionID: 10-4-05 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1b Understand the pros and cons of different research designs in developmental psychology. Answer: B) longitudinal 6. In a cross-sectional study, subjects from the same age category are referred to as A) a cohort. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) an experimental group. C) a control group. D) a stage model. QuestionID: 10-4-06 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.1b Understand the pros and cons of different research designs in developmental psychology. Answer: A) a cohort. 7. Which of the following is true about longitudinal studies? A) The potential for cohort effects makes them difficult to interpret. B) They generally take less time than cross-sectional studies. C) They are more prone to errors and biases than cross-sectional studies. D) They often have more attrition than cross-sectional studies. QuestionID: 10-4-07 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.1b Understand the pros and cons of different research designs in developmental psychology. Answer: D) They often have more attrition than cross-sectional studies. 8. One advantage of using a longitudinal design over a cross-sectional design is that longitudinal designs A) are more prone to errors and biases. B) are less likely to be affected by attrition. C) avoid issues associated with cohort effects. D) require less time to perform. QuestionID: 10-4-08 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.1b Understand the pros and cons of different research designs in developmental psychology. Answer: C) avoid issues associated with cohort effects. 9. A researcher performs a study comparing the video-game playing ability of 20-year-olds to 60-year-olds. The results indicate that the 20-year-olds learned to play a new game much faster than the 60-year-olds. However, the researchers are uncertain whether this indicates that the 20-year-olds' ability will decrease over time, or whether the 60-year-olds had more difficulty because they grew up before there were video games. What issue is this an example of? A) cohort effects B) attrition C) stage model error D) experimenter expectancy effects QuestionID: 10-4-09 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.1b Understand the pros and cons of different research designs in developmental psychology. Answer: A) cohort effects 10. Developmental changes during childhood tend to occur A) in a linear fashion. B) in stages. C) gradually. D) smoothly over time.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 10-4-10 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.1b Understand the pros and cons of different research designs in developmental psychology. Answer: B) in stages. 11. A(n) _________ is formed when the sperm fuses with the nuclei of the egg. A) germinal B) embryo C) zygote D) fetus QuestionID: 10-4-11 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: C) zygote 12. The very beginning of development involves the _________ dividing into a ball of cells called the _________ and travelling down the fallopian tubes. A) blastocyst; zygote B) zygote; fetus C) blastocyst; embryo D) zygote; blastocyst QuestionID: 10-4-12 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: D) zygote; blastocyst 13. The germinal stage A) occurs from 0 to 2 weeks after fertilization. B) occurs from 2 to 8 weeks after fertilization. C) occurs from 8 weeks after fertilization to birth. D) occurs from 7 to 10 weeks after fertilization. QuestionID: 10-4-13 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: A) occurs from 0 to 2 weeks after fertilization. 14. Marisa is at a point in her pregnancy when the blastocyst is moving down from the fallopian tubes to her uterus. Which stage of prenatal development is Marisa currently experiencing? A) fetal B) embryonic C) placental D) germinal QuestionID: 10-4-14 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: D) germinal

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

15. The placenta A) is the tube through which a developing baby receives nourishment. B) is a group of cells within the blastocyst that develop into the fetus. C) passes oxygen, nutrients, and waste to and from the fetus. D) is the name for the developing organism until it is 8 weeks old. QuestionID: 10-4-15 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: C) passes oxygen, nutrients, and waste to and from the fetus. 16. Which of the following describes the embryonic period? A) The period during which the blastocyst moves down to the uterus and begins to implant in the lining. B) The period during which the major organs and structures of the organism first develop. C) The period during which the zygote is formed. D) The period during which the skeletal, organ, and nervous systems become more developed and specialized. QuestionID: 10-4-16 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: B) The period during which the major organs and structures of the organism first develop. 17. The heart and nervous system begin to form when the developing child is categorized as a(n) A) fetus. B) zygote. C) embryo. D) blastocyst. QuestionID: 10-4-17 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: C) embryo. 18. Tameeka is at a point in her pregnancy during which the major organs and structures of her baby are first developing. Which period of prenatal development is Tameeka currently experiencing? A) fetal B) embryonic C) placental D) germinal QuestionID: 10-4-18 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: B) embryonic 19. Which of the following is the correct order for the phases of prenatal development? A) germinal, embryonic, fetal B) germinal, fetal, embryonic C) fetal, germinal, embryonic D) fetal, embryonic, germinal QuestionID: 10-4-19 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: A) germinal, embryonic, fetal 20. The process of _________, in which fatty tissue builds up around neurons, begins around the end of the second trimester. A) synaptogenesis B) plasticity C) convolution D) myelination QuestionID: 10-4-20 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: D) myelination 21. At birth, newborns have approximately _________ neurons, and far more ________ than adults. A) 4000; synapses B) 100 billion; neural connections C) 100 billion; synapses D) 4000; neural connections QuestionID: 10-4-21 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: C) 100 billion; synapses 22. Although babies are born with most of the neurons they will need throughout their lives, they are still lacking A) the connections between the neurons. B) the myelin covering on the neuronal cells. C) the sulci and gyri of the cortex. D) any synapses in the cortex. QuestionID: 10-4-22 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: A) the connections between the neurons. 23. Which of the following terms is used to describe any substance (such as a drug, chemical, or virus) that can cause a birth defect? A) teratogen B) sensitive period C) carcinogen D) phocomelia QuestionID: 10-4-23 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: A) teratogen 24. _________ was prescribed for morning sickness but led to severe birth defects. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

Phocomelia Thalidomide Ginger Marijuana

QuestionID: 10-4-24 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1c Apply your understanding to identify the best ways expectant parents can ensure the health of their developing fetus. Answer: B) Thalidomide 25. Which of the following is NOT a known symptom of fetal alcohol syndrome? A) facial malformations B) respiratory difficulties C) deficits in mental functioning D) growth problems QuestionID: 10-4-25 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1c Apply your understanding to identify the best ways expectant parents can ensure the health of their developing fetus. Answer: B) respiratory difficulties 26. Greta's child has facial deformities, learning difficulties, and delayed growth. If these defects could be traced to a teratogen used by Greta when she was pregnant, which was she most likely consuming? A) nicotine B) cocaine C) marijuana D) alcohol QuestionID: 10-4-26 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.1c Apply your understanding to identify the best ways expectant parents can ensure the health of their developing fetus. Answer: D) alcohol 27. What are some of the common consequences to a child whose mother smoked while pregnant? A) increased birth weight and lethargy B) lower birth weight and premature birth C) severe hearing loss and heart defects D) severely deformed limbs and muscle spasms QuestionID: 10-4-27 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.1c Apply your understanding to identify the best ways expectant parents can ensure the health of their developing fetus. Answer: B) lower birth weight and premature birth 28. A friend of yours is pregnant and particularly afraid of her child dying from sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) after he is born. What should you tell your friend to avoid because it puts her child at greater risk of dying from SIDS? A) drinking alcohol .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) eating processed foods C) eating unpasteurized foods D) tobacco exposure QuestionID: 10-4-28 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.1c Apply your understanding to identify the best ways expectant parents can ensure the health of their developing fetus. Answer: D) tobacco exposure 29. While the chance of survival for infants born at 25 weeks is about 50%, the probability for survival is 95% by ________ weeks of gestation. A) 26 B) 30 C) 37 D) 40 QuestionID: 10-4-29 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1d Analyze the effects of preterm birth. Answer: B) 30 30. Which of the following is a key component of the Newborn Individualized Developmental Care and Assessment Program (NIDCAP) for preterm infants? A) exposing the infants to specific patterns of visual and auditory stimuli to promote brain development B) placing infants into a simulated womb, complete with placenta and amniotic fluid C) recreating the birthing experience at what would have been 37 weeks of gestation if the infant had been carried to full term D) minimizing exposure to light and sounds that can over-stimulate the developing brain QuestionID: 10-4-30 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.1d Analyze the effects of preterm birth. Answer: D) minimizing exposure to light and sounds that can over-stimulate the developing brain 31. ____________ for preterm babies involves skin-to-skin contact between infants and caregivers and encouraging breastfeeding. A) NIDCAP B) Kangaroo care C) Doula care D) Cuddle care QuestionID: 10-4-31 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1d Analyze the effects of preterm birth. Answer: B) Kangaroo care 32. Which of the following is true of the original research that suggested a relationship between the MMR vaccine and the development of autism? A) It has been discredited and retracted by the journal that published it. B) It won Andrew Wake the 1999 Nobel Prize for Medicine. C) It has been successfully replicated several times. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) While the original study has problems, the scientific community still supports the connection between vaccines and autism. QuestionID: 10-4-32 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: A) It has been discredited and retracted by the journal that published it. 33. By seven to eight months of gestation, not only can infants hear, but they also seem to be actively listening. According to your textbook, which of the following is one of the ways researchers know this? A) Infants in the womb will exhibit movement that matches the beat of external music. B) Infants in the womb show an increase in movement when hearing a story they've been read previously. C) Infants show a preference for stories read aloud to them prior to birth. D) Infants show knowledge of vocabulary words they heard while still in the womb. QuestionID: 10-4-33 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: C) Infants show a preference for stories read aloud to them prior to birth. 34. Which ability may take up to 2 months after birth to develop? A) discriminating between complex odours B) seeing objects at a distance of 30cm C) voluntary motor movements D) colour discrimination QuestionID: 10-4-34 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: D) colour discrimination 35. Newborns show the most preference for looking at A) faces and face-like stimuli. B) images of scrambled faces. C) images with multiple colours and shapes. D) familiar objects they've seen many times before. QuestionID: 10-4-35 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: A) faces and face-like stimuli. 36. In the presence of an unpleasant odour, newborns will A) turn toward the source of the smell. B) cringe. C) not react, as their olfactory system is not yet developed enough to detect most odours. D) seek out their primary caregiver. QuestionID: 10-4-36 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: B) cringe. 37. The involuntary muscular reactions to specific types of stimulation seen in newborns are referred to as A) tremors. B) reflexes. C) accommodations. D) preoperational movements. QuestionID: 10-4-37 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: B) reflexes. 38. The rooting reflex refers to a newborn's tendency to A) grimace and reach their arms outward and then inward. B) open the mouth to seek food when touched on the cheek. C) grab onto objects placed onto the centre of their palm. D) close the eyes when startled by loud noises. QuestionID: 10-4-38 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: B) open the mouth to seek food when touched on the cheek. 39. Elizabeth is nursing her newborn daughter and holds the baby up to her breast. When she strokes her baby's cheek, the child turns her head toward the breast and finds her mother's nipple. This is a demonstration of the __________ reflex. A) rooting B) suckling C) Moro D) grasping QuestionID: 10-4-39 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: A) rooting 40. The Moro reflex is most likely to be produced when A) someone lightly stokes the baby's cheek. B) the baby loses support of his or her head. C) the baby smells his mother's breast milk. D) the baby's palm is pressed. QuestionID: 10-4-40 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: B) the baby loses support of his or her head. 41. In cultures where mothers expect their children to reach motor-related milestones, like walking, earlier, researchers have found A) the children actually matured slower than the global average. B) the children matured at the same rate as the global average. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) the children reached the milestones at an earlier age than children from other cultures. D) the parents showed extreme anxiety if their child developed more slowly than they had expected. QuestionID: 10-4-41 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: C) the children reached the milestones at an earlier age than children from other cultures. 42. Cross-cultural studies show that children raised in different environments mature at slightly different rates. These variations in rate are likely due to differences in A) the age when infants begin practising motor skills. B) the genes they inherited from their parents. C) educational systems. D) nutrition. QuestionID: 10-4-42 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: A) the age when infants begin practising motor skills. 43. The loss of weak nerve cell connections in the brain is known as A) synaptogenesis. B) myelination. C) neurogenesis. D) synaptic pruning. QuestionID: 10-4-43 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1b Understand the pros and cons of different research designs in developmental psychology. Answer: D) synaptic pruning. 44. The creation of new synaptic connections between neurons is called ___________________, whereas the removal of weak connections is called _______________. A) myelination; neurogenesis B) neurogenesis; myelination C) synaptogenesis; synaptic pruning D) synaptic pruning; synaptogenesis QuestionID: 10-4-44 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.1b Understand the pros and cons of different research designs in developmental psychology. Answer: C) synaptogenesis; synaptic pruning 45. Times when certain internal and external influences have a major impact on development are called A) fetal periods. B) sensitive periods. C) Piaget's periods. D) assimilation. QuestionID: 10-4-45 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: B) sensitive periods. 46. Suppose a child were raised by abusive parents who kept her locked in a basement, completely separated from human contact for the first 7 years of her life. When she was finally rescued, case workers found that it was very difficult to teach her how to communicate. This would be because the child was not exposed to language during the A) sensitive period. B) sensorimotor stage. C) assimilation period. D) concrete operational stage. QuestionID: 10-4-46 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.1c Apply your understanding to identify the best ways expectant parents can ensure the health of their developing fetus. Answer: A) sensitive period. 47. A(n)__________ period refers to the optimal time period when the normal development of a particular skill must take place. A) accommodation B) assimilation C) sensitive D) imprinting QuestionID: 10-4-47 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: C) sensitive 48. Jean Piaget is best known for his pioneering work in the area of ________ development. A) social B) cognitive C) motor D) sensory QuestionID: 10-4-48 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: B) cognitive 49. The study of the changes in memory, thought, and reasoning processes that occur throughout the lifespan, is called A) gerontology. B) psychopathology. C) child psychology. D) cognitive development. QuestionID: 10-4-49 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: D) cognitive development. .

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50. According to Piaget, the process of absorbing new information into existing beliefs, is called A) theory of mind. B) assimilation. C) conservation. D) accommodation. QuestionID: 10-4-50 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: B) assimilation. 51. According to Piaget, the process of modifying existing cognitive structures in response to experience and new information is called A) theory of mind. B) assimilation. C) conservation. D) accommodation. QuestionID: 10-4-51 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: B) assimilation. 52. According to Piaget, knowledge accumulates and is modified by which two processes? A) sensation and perception B) assimilation and theory of mind C) accommodation and observation D) assimilation and accommodation QuestionID: 10-4-52 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: D) assimilation and accommodation 53. Janis sees a bat flying over the lake and says, "Birdie"! Her mother says, "That flies like a bird, Janis, but that is a bat." Janis begins pointing saying, "Bat! Bat! Bat!" Piaget would say that this is an example of A) accommodation. B) preoperational thought. C) assimilation. D) theory of mind. QuestionID: 10-4-53 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: A) accommodation. 54. Jerome has a black, fluffy pet cat. When he encounters a small fluffy black dog, he calls it a "cat". This is an example of Piaget's concept of A) accommodation. B) preoperational thought. C) assimilation. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) theory of mind. QuestionID: 10-4-54 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: C) assimilation. 55. Kisha understands her world by grasping, sucking, and physically handling objects in her path. Kisha is in Piaget's ________ stage of development. A) sensorimotor B) preoperational C) concrete operational D) formal operational QuestionID: 10-4-55 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: A) sensorimotor 56. The major developmental milestone of the _______________ stage is the achievement of object permanence. A) preoperational B) sensorimotor C) concrete operational D) formal operational QuestionID: 10-4-56 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: B) sensorimotor 57. __________ is a cognitive skill that refers to the understanding that an object continues to exist when it is no longer perceived. A) Theory of mind B) Conservation C) Transitivity D) Object permanence QuestionID: 10-4-57 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: D) Object permanence 58. When her older brother hides behind the sofa, Carmella looks behind the sofa to find him. Carmella appears to have developed A) object permanence. B) theory of mind. C) conservation of number. D) transitivity. QuestionID: 10-4-58 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: A) object permanence. 59. Which of the following is the correct order of stages in Piaget's theory of cognitive development, from birth to adulthood? A) formal operational, concrete operational, preoperational, sensory motor B) preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor C) sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational D) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational QuestionID: 10-4-59 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: D) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational 60. Which stage of cognitive development is characterized by understanding of symbols, pretend play, and mastery of the concept of conservation? A) formal operational B) preoperational C) concrete operational D) sensorimotor QuestionID: 10-4-60 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: B) preoperational 61. Alice is sitting at the table with her son Nikko. She takes his tall glass of milk and pours exactly half of it into a shorter wider glass. Then she says, "Honey, which glass has more milk?" Nikko immediately points to the taller glass. This demonstrates that Nikko has not yet mastered A) theory of mind. B) transitivity. C) object permanence. D) conservation. QuestionID: 10-4-61 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: D) conservation. 62. Ms. Johnson gave Mark and Tia equal-sized lumps of clay. Tia immediately rolled hers into a long shape. Mark cried and complained that Tia had received more clay. Mark's behaviour represents A) an inability to accommodate. B) an inability to conserve. C) difficulty with formal operational tasks. D) a lack of object permanence. QuestionID: 10-4-62 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: B) an inability to conserve.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

63. According to Piaget, a child in the _____________ stage of cognitive development should be able to think in a logical and organized manner, but is likely to have difficulty understanding the more abstract ideas, like those found in algebra. A) formal operational B) preoperational C) concrete operational D) sensorimotor QuestionID: 10-4-63 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: C) concrete operational 64. Hakim and his older sister, Nada, are at the kitchen table working on their homework. Nada reads Hakim one of the questions she's working on, "Imagine you want to test the hypothesis that warm water freezes faster than cold water. Design an experiment to test your hypothesis." Hakim is very confused and doesn't quite understand this approach to thinking. Given this example, Hakim is likely in the ________ stage, while Nada is likely in the _________ stage. A) formal operational; concrete operational B) concrete operational; formal operational C) preoperational; concrete operational D) concrete operational; preoperational QuestionID: 10-4-64 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: B) concrete operational; formal operational 65. During which of Piaget's stages does a child demonstrate the ability to reason about abstract ideas? A) sensorimotor B) preoperational C) concrete operational D) formal operational QuestionID: 10-4-65 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: D) formal operational 66. Asking students to predict how the course of Canadian history may have changed if the expulsion of the Acadians had not occurred, would likely be most comprehensively answered by students in which of Piaget's stages? A) sensorimotor B) preoperational C) concrete operational D) formal operational QuestionID: 10-4-66 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: D) formal operational

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

67. The core knowledge hypothesis suggests that A) infants have inborn abilities for understanding some key aspects of their environment. B) children do not develop true abstract thinking until after puberty. C) children must first develop an essential set of cognitive skills before they can develop abstract thinking. D) infants and children primarily learn through a process of accommodation and assimilation. QuestionID: 10-4-67 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: A) infants have inborn abilities for understanding some key aspects of their environment. 68. The first time Nova showed a toy panda to her infant son, he appeared very interested and stared at it for a long time. Over time, however, Nova has noticed that her son has become less interested in the toy and only looks at it briefly. This is an example of A) conservation. B) object permanence. C) dishabituation. D) habituation. QuestionID: 10-4-68 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: D) habituation. 69. Although not all psychologists agree, research using habituation and dishabituation, as discussed in your textbook, suggests that very young infants might A) understand the meaning of some simple words. B) demonstrate object permanence. C) recognize their parents. D) have a rudimentary appreciation for numbers. QuestionID: 10-4-69 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: D) have a rudimentary appreciation for numbers. 70. Abel's dad is playing with him by shaking a rattle in front of him. After some time, Abel loses interest and stops paying attention. Abel's dad then shows him a sock puppet and Abel is once again captivated. This example demonstrates the concept of A) conservation. B) object permanence. C) dishabituation. D) habituation. QuestionID: 10-4-70 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: D) habituation. 71. When a child cannot complete a task on their own, but is capable with the help of an adult, the child is said to be A) in the zone of proximal development. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) experiencing a teachable moment. C) demonstrating the core knowledge hypothesis. D) in the formal operational stage of development. QuestionID: 10-4-71 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.2d Apply the concept of scaffolding and the zone of proximal development to understand how to best promote learning. Answer: A) in the zone of proximal development. 72. Whereas Piaget saw cognitive development as a result of individual discovery and a child's interaction with objects, Vygotsky attributed cognitive development to A) biological changes in the brain. B) expectations from caregivers. C) completing activities independently, without help from others. D) interaction between a child and skilled people. QuestionID: 10-4-72 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.2d Apply the concept of scaffolding and the zone of proximal development to understand how to best promote learning. Answer: D) interaction between a child and skilled people. 73. Sparrow has just learned how to sound out each written letter in the alphabet. Her teacher, Ms. Lee, wants to use scaffolding to help Sparrow learn to read. What would be a good 'next step' for Ms. Lee to use? A) teach Sparrow how to print the letters she can now sound out B) teach Sparrow how to sound out simple words such as 'cat' and 'bat' C) teach Sparrow the difference between consonants and vowels D) teach Sparrow how to read a consonant and a letter put together such as 'ba' or 'da' QuestionID: 10-4-73 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.2d Apply the concept of scaffolding and the zone of proximal development to understand how to best promote learning. Answer: D) teach Sparrow how to read a consonant and a letter put together such as 'ba' or 'da' 74. The emotional bond that a newborn baby shares with his or her caregiver(s) is called A) maternal love. B) temperament. C) Harlow's Bond. D) attachment. QuestionID: 10-4-74 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2c Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. Answer: D) attachment. 75. Harlow's study of infant rhesus monkeys showed that A) surrogate mothers who were cold to the touch but provided food and water produced the strongest attachment responses. B) surrogate mothers who were soft to the touch but did not provide food and water produced the strongest attachment responses. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) the first surrogate mother to be presented to the infant monkeys, led to the strongest attachment responses. D) surrogate mothers who were inconsistent in providing food and water produced the weakest attachment responses. QuestionID: 10-4-75 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.2c Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. Answer: B) surrogate mothers who were soft to the touch but did not provide food and water produced the strongest attachment responses. 76. In Harlow's studies with young monkeys, the monkeys were exposed to a wire mother with a bottle and a cloth mother without a bottle. The young monkeys spent their non-feeding time A) with the wire mother. B) with both mothers equally. C) with the cloth mother. D) away from both mothers. QuestionID: 10-4-76 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2c Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. Answer: C) with the cloth mother. 77. Which of the following theories of attachment was effectively discredited by the work of Harry Harlow? A) Babies become attached to adults who are pleasant to touch. B) Babies become attached to adults who provide them with nourishment. C) Babies become attached to adults who smile at them. D) Babies become attached to adults who talk in quiet voices. QuestionID: 10-4-77 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.2c Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. Answer: B) Babies become attached to adults who provide them with nourishment. 78. Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the __________ test in order to assess the different types of attachment that might exist between a child and his or her primary caregiver. A) theory of mind B) separation C) strange situation D) stranger danger QuestionID: 10-4-78 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.2c Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. Answer: C) strange situation 79. Young Pemba is being observed as he plays in a room with his mother. Pemba plays with the toys in the room, but occasionally looks back at his mother to make sure she is there. When Pemba's mother leaves the room, he becomes moderately upset, but is easily soothed when she returns. Which type of attachment does Pemba seem to have with his mother? A) anxious B) secure C) ambivalent .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) avoidant QuestionID: 10-4-79 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.2c Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. Answer: B) secure 80. Piper is playing in the waiting room at the doctor's office with her mother present, although Piper isn't paying much attention to her. Piper does not respond in any way when her mother leaves her in the room with a stranger or when she returns. What type of attachment does Piper likely have? A) anxious B) disorganized C) ambivalent D) avoidant QuestionID: 10-4-80 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.2c Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. Answer: D) avoidant 81. Which of the following children is most likely to be upset when her father leaves the room? A) Ilsa, who has an anxious attachment to her father B) Nola, who has a secure attachment to her father C) Denia, who has a disorganized attachment to her father D) Lakesha, who has an avoidant attachment to her father QuestionID: 10-4-81 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.2c Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. Answer: A) Ilsa, who has an anxious attachment to her father 82. Some children do not demonstrate one consistent attachment style, but instead seem unable to decide how they should react to their caregiver and to new circumstances. Researchers have labelled this the __________ attachment style. A) anxious B) disorganized C) ambivalent D) avoidant QuestionID: 10-4-82 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.2c Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. Answer: B) disorganized 83. Aziz puts a dot of lipstick on his sons' foreheads and then places them in front of a mirror. His oldest son, Harjit, immediately touches his forehead to investigate the red dot, but his youngest son, Rohan, does not seem to recognize that the baby in the mirror with the dot on his head is him. It appears as though Harjit has developed _________, while Rohan has not. A) egocentrism B) theory of mind C) secure attachment D) self-awareness .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 10-4-83 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: D) self-awareness 84. According to Piaget, children are predominantly egocentric until the end of the ________ stage of development. A) sensorimotor B) preoperational C) concrete operational D) formal operational QuestionID: 10-4-84 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: B) preoperational 85. According to Piaget, egocentrism involves A) the perception that others view the world as you do. B) the perception that others view the world differently than you do. C) the perception that you might be incorrect in your judgments. D) the perception that you are better than others. QuestionID: 10-4-85 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: A) the perception that others view the world as you do. 86. What is meant by the term "egocentrism"? A) A child lacks the ability to consider perspectives other than his or her own. B) A child is extremely arrogant and feels that he or she is better than others. C) A child is very selfish and refuses to share his or her possessions with others. D) A child lacks the motivation do things for him- or herself and expects them to be done by others. QuestionID: 10-4-86 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: A) A child lacks the ability to consider perspectives other than his or her own. 87. Piaget mistakenly believed that A) children begin to grasp the concept of object permanence during the sensorimotor stage. B) during the stage of concrete operations, children understand conservation. C) an understanding of self-awareness does not appear until the formal operational stage. D) preoperational children cannot take another person's point of view. QuestionID: 10-4-87 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: D) preoperational children cannot take another person's point of view.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

88. A child's ability to understand that others' thoughts, beliefs, and expectations can differ from his or her own is called A) formal operational thinking. B) accommodation. C) theory of mind. D) egocentrism. QuestionID: 10-4-88 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: C) theory of mind. 89. At five years old, Ryker is better able to understand his friends' feelings as compared to when he was three years old. Ryker appears to be developing A) theory of mind. B) egocentrism. C) formal operational thinking. D) self-awareness. QuestionID: 10-4-89 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: A) theory of mind. 90. Theorist __________ believed that every stage of life has a conflict in need of resolution. A) Carl Jung B) Erik Erikson C) Lev Vygotsky D) Jean Piaget QuestionID: 10-4-90 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: B) Erik Erikson 91. According to Erikson, the crisis faced in infancy is A) trust vs. mistrust. B) autonomy vs. shame. C) initiative vs. guilt. D) egocentrism vs. self-awareness. QuestionID: 10-4-91 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: A) trust vs. mistrust. 92. According to Erikson, an individual who is focused on skill development and knowledge-building is likely in which stage of development? A) Infancy B) Childhood C) Toddlerhood D) Early childhood .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 10-4-92 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: B) Childhood 93. The _______ behavioural system focuses on meeting personal needs for security, while the ___________ behavioural system focuses on meeting the needs of others. A) altruistic; egocentric B) egocentric; altruistic C) care-giving; attachment D) attachment; care-giving QuestionID: 10-4-93 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2c Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. Answer: D) attachment; care-giving 94. Children whose parents use a conditional approach to parenting, tend to experience greater internal pressure to do well. This concept, known as _______ is linked to unstable self-esteem and poor coping skills. A) insecure attachment B) the care-giving behavioural system C) introjection D) inductive discipline QuestionID: 10-4-94 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.2c Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. Answer: D) inductive discipline 95. Research suggests that _________, which involves explaining the consequences of a child's actions, leads to moral development and healthy attachment. A) inductive discipline B) introjection C) conditional approach parenting D) external validation QuestionID: 10-4-95 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.2e Analyze how to effectively discipline children in order to promote moral behaviour. Answer: A) inductive discipline 96. ___________ marks the physical transition from childhood to adolescence. A) Experiencing sexual thoughts and feelings B) Mastering abstract thinking C) Puberty D) Reaching the age of 13 QuestionID: 10-4-96 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.3a Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: C) Puberty 97. Which of the following is an example of a primary sex characteristic? A) changes in vocal tone B) growth of the breasts C) growth of the genitals D) growth of facial hair QuestionID: 10-4-97 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.3a Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development. Answer: C) growth of the genitals 98. The body's reproductive organs are an example of A) adrenal glands. B) thyroid glands. C) primary sex traits. D) secondary sex traits. QuestionID: 10-4-98 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.3a Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development. Answer: C) primary sex traits. 99. Which is an example of a secondary sex trait? A) onset of menstruation B) ovaries C) voice change D) sperm QuestionID: 10-4-99 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.3a Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development. Answer: C) voice change 100. Puberty in girls is associated with the onset of A) spermarche. B) menarche. C) delayed gratification. D) egocentricism. QuestionID: 10-4-100 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.3a Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development. Answer: B) menarche. 101. __________ is to girls as __________ is to boys. A) Menarche; spermarche B) Spermarche; menarche C) Puberty; adolescence D) Adolescence; puberty

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 10-4-101 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.3a Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development. Answer: A) Menarche; spermarche 102. During menarche, adolescents experience A) the onset of menstruation. B) the first ejaculation. C) voice changes. D) the end of ovulation. QuestionID: 10-4-102 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.3a Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development. Answer: A) the onset of menstruation. 103. Lamar's friends want him to come out partying with them tonight, but Lamar has a big test tomorrow that he knows he needs to study for. He decides not to join his friends and instead study for the test, knowing that his grades are important for his future. Lamar has demonstrated A) that he is in the concrete operational stage of development. B) the implications of an underdeveloped prefrontal cortex. C) his ability to delay gratification. D) the implications of a well-developed reward system in his limbic area. QuestionID: 10-4-103 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.3a Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development. Answer: C) his ability to delay gratification. 104. Excessive risk taking during adolescence is caused, at least in part, by the fact that the _____________ is not fully developed. A) prefrontal cortex B) amygdala C) hippocampus D) limbic areas QuestionID: 10-4-104 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.3f Analyze the relationship between brain development and adolescent judgment and risk taking. Answer: A) prefrontal cortex 105. Kohlberg's moral development aligns with Piaget's _________ stage of development, and both forms of development rely on the development of the __________. A) concrete operational; limbic areas B) formal operational; limbic areas C) concrete operational; prefrontal cortex D) formal operational; prefrontal cortex QuestionID: 10-4-105 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.3d Understand the functions of moral emotions.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: D) formal operational; prefrontal cortex 106. According to Kohlberg, behaviour motivated by the avoidance of punishment represents ________ morality. A) preconventional B) conventional C) postconventional D) formal conventional QuestionID: 10-4-106 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.3d Understand the functions of moral emotions. Answer: A) preconventional 107. Karla can speed on a certain stretch of the interstate without being ticketed, yet she decides not to speed because it is unlawful. Karla's reasoning reflects ________ moral reasoning. A) preconventional B) conventional C) postconventional D) formal conventional QuestionID: 10-4-107 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.3e Apply your understanding of the categories of moral reasoning. Answer: B) conventional 108. The highest level of moral reasoning, called __________ morality, is based on internal principles that transcend society. A) conventional B) postconventional C) preconventional D) formal conventional QuestionID: 10-4-108 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.3d Understand the functions of moral emotions. Answer: B) postconventional 109. Young Jamal is asked whether it is right for a police officer to give a speeding ticket to a man who is driving his daughter to the hospital after a serious injury that left her with several broken bones. Which of the following answers would demonstrate the postconventional level of moral reasoning in Jamal? A) "He broke the rules. He should get a ticket, but should have to pay less than someone who was speeding for no good reason." B) "Everyone speeds and he has a good reason, so he shouldn't get a ticket." C) "Speeding is breaking the rules, and when you break the rules you deserve to be punished." D) "The man was trying to get his daughter to help, and he wasn't hurting anyone. As long as he doesn't normally speed, he should be let off with a warning." QuestionID: 10-4-109 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.3e Apply your understanding of the categories of moral reasoning. Answer: D) "The man was trying to get his daughter to help, and he wasn't hurting anyone. As long as he doesn't normally speed, he should be let off with a warning." .

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110. A major part of adolescence is the development of a self-image and a perception of one's unique and individual characteristics. This is referred to as one's A) morality. B) ego. C) personality. D) identity. QuestionID: 10-4-110 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.3b Understand the process of identity formation during adolescence. Answer: D) identity. 111. Raj is questioning who he is, what he wants in life, and what his goals are; Raj is likely experiencing A) a moral crisis. B) social intuition. C) an identity crisis. D) anxious attachment. QuestionID: 10-4-111 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.3b Understand the process of identity formation during adolescence. Answer: C) an identity crisis. 112. Which of the following is TRUE regarding same-sex sexual behaviour during adolescence? A) Females are more likely than males to describe adolescent same-sex experiences as just "experimentation." B) Sexual and emotional interest in members of the same sex generally appears during early childhood. C) A large percentage of adolescents who identify themselves as heterosexual have had at least one sexual experience with a same-sex person. D) The number of sexual experiences during adolescence with members of the same sex are probably over reported. QuestionID: 10-4-112 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.3c Understand the importance of relationships in adolescence. Answer: C) A large percentage of adolescents who identify themselves as heterosexual have had at least one sexual experience with a same-sex person. 113. Researchers believe that ________, the feeling that there is "something wrong with you" can lead to feelings of worthlessness, inferiority, and outbursts of violence. A) shame B) identity confusion C) role confusion D) disgust QuestionID: 10-4-113 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.3c Understand the importance of relationships in adolescence. Answer: A) shame 114. Which of the following marks the biological beginning of adulthood according to psychologists? A) the loss of virginity .

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B) turning 18 C) experiencing an identity crisis D) there are no strict biological markers for adulthood QuestionID: 10-4-114 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.4b Know the key areas of growth experienced by emerging adults. Answer: D) there are no strict biological markers for adulthood 115. __________ adulthood is a period during which individuals tend to face challenges related to living on their own, starting university or work, and becoming more financially responsible. A) Early B) Emerging C) Transitional D) Middle QuestionID: 10-4-115 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.4b Know the key areas of growth experienced by emerging adults. Answer: B) Emerging 116. The cessation of menstruation is called A) menopause. B) endometriosis. C) menarche. D) spermarche. QuestionID: 10-4-116 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.4a Know the key terminology concerning adulthood and aging. Answer: A) menopause. 117. According to Erikson's stages, a person who either becomes a productive and engaged member of society or becomes self-absorbed, is experiencing A) intimacy vs. isolation. B) generativity vs. stagnation. C) ego integrity vs. despair. D) industry vs. inferiority. QuestionID: 10-4-117 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.4a Know the key terminology concerning adulthood and aging. Answer: B) generativity vs. stagnation. 118. Compared to unmarried people, people who are married are likely to have A) poorer mental health, but greater physical health. B) lower levels of happiness, but greater health and longer lives. C) greater health, longer lives, and increased happiness. D) similar health, happiness, and life expectancy. QuestionID: 10-4-118 Skill: Conceptual .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 10.4a Know the key terminology concerning adulthood and aging. Answer: C) greater health, longer lives, and increased happiness. 119. Audrey and Sam are having an argument and Audrey has decided to use "the silent treatment" as a tactic for showing her anger. Which of the four unproductive approaches to conflict resolution discussed in your text is Audrey displaying? A) criticism B) contempt C) defensiveness D) stonewalling QuestionID: 10-4-119 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.4e Apply your attitudes about marriage. Answer: D) stonewalling 120. You don't like a supper your partner has prepared, but you decide to thank your partner for preparing it rather than stating your opinion. Which of the "Four Horsemen of the (Relationship) Apocalypse" have you just avoided? A) criticism B) contempt C) defensiveness D) stonewalling QuestionID: 10-4-120 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.4e Apply your attitudes about marriage. Answer: A) criticism 121. Your partner says he is hurt that you forgot your anniversary, and you reply, "Well, you forgot it last year!" Which one of the "Four Horseman of the (Relationship) Apocalypse" are you displaying? A) criticism B) contempt C) defensiveness D) stonewalling QuestionID: 10-4-121 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.4e Apply your attitudes about marriage. Answer: C) defensiveness 122. The __________ theory describes how older individuals tend to pay more attention to positive experiences than negative ones. A) psychosocial aging B) socioemotional selectivity C) Thich Nnat Hanh D) positive aging QuestionID: 10-4-122 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.4f Analyze the stereotype that old age is a time of unhappiness.

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Answer: B) socioemotional selectivity 123. Which of the following is TRUE of dementia? A) Dementia is another name for Alzheimer's disease. B) Dementia is a mild to severe disruption in fine motor skills and gait. C) Dementia is a normal part of aging that affects approximately 71% of all elderly adults. D) Dementia is a mild to severe disruption of mental functioning and memory loss. QuestionID: 10-4-123 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.4c Understand age-related disorders such as Alzheimer's disease. Answer: D) Dementia is a mild to severe disruption of mental functioning and memory loss. 124. One of the theories discussed in your textbook, states that Alzheimer's disease is involves A) the depletion of dopamine in the limbic system. B) the buildup of proteins called plaques and tangles. C) excessive pruning of synaptic connections. D) widespread loss of myelination in the cortex. QuestionID: 10-4-124 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.4c Understand age-related disorders such as Alzheimer's disease. Answer: B) the buildup of proteins called plaques and tangles. 125. One's accumulated knowledge gained over time is called A) crystallized intelligence. B) fluid intelligence. C) concrete intelligence. D) explicit intelligence. QuestionID: 10-4-125 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.4d Understand how cognitive abilities change with age. Answer: A) crystallized intelligence. 126. As people move into old age, the speed of cognitive processing A) slows down. B) increases. C) declines at the same rate as crystallized intelligence. D) remains stable. QuestionID: 10-4-126 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.4d Understand how cognitive abilities change with age. Answer: A) slows down. 127. Which of the following is an older adult most likely to have difficulty remembering? A) how to type on a keyboard without looking B) the name of the telephone's inventor C) how to change the oil on a car D) the specific events that occurred last Thanksgiving

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QuestionID: 10-4-127 Skill: Applied Objective: 10.4d Understand how cognitive abilities change with age. Answer: D) the specific events that occurred last Thanksgiving 128. In healthy adults, __________ memory tends to remain stable, while ___________ memory declines with age. A) semantic; working B) procedural; semantic C) episodic; working D) episodic; procedural. QuestionID: 10-4-128 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.4d Understand how cognitive abilities change with age. Answer: A) semantic; working 129. Which of the following statements about digital screen time and its effect on child development is FALSE? A) It limits face-to-face interaction with other human beings. B) There are definitive findings proving various long-term negative effects of screen time. C) Screen time is habit forming, even at the early stages of child development. D) The best designed apps can promote active, engaged, meaningful, and interactive learning. QuestionID: 10-4-129 Skill: Factual Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: B) There are definitive findings proving various long-term negative effects of screen time. 130. Which of the following statements about the ability to delay gratification is FALSE? A) It is the ability to put off immediate temptations to focus on longer-term goals. B) There are findings proving various long-term negative effects of delaying gratification. C) An inability to delay gratification is associated with addictions, unsafe sex, and other maladaptive behaviours. D) It is a temperamental and biological orientation, rather than a skill that can be learned. QuestionID: 10-4-130 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 10.3a Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development. Answer: D) It is a temperamental and biological orientation, rather than a skill that can be learned. Supplementary Questions 1. A group of psychologists studies how adults change and grow, both psychologically and physiologically, as they age. These psychologists are most likely A) personality psychologists. B) social psychologists. C) organizational psychologists. D) developmental psychologists. QuestionID: 10-5-01 Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: D) developmental psychologists.

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2. A developmental psychologist presents the conservation-of-liquid task to groups of three-, five-, and sevenyear-olds to measure the children's grasp of the concept of conservation. Which type of study is being described? A) cross-sectional B) longitudinal C) case D) naturalistic QuestionID: 10-5-02 Objective: 10.1b Understand the pros and cons of different research designs in developmental psychology. Answer: A) cross-sectional 3. A developmental psychologist is interested in the trait of neuroticism and wants to study how the trait develops over a particular person's lifespan. Which term best characterizes this type of study? A) longitudinal B) developmental C) cross-developmental D) cross-sectional QuestionID: 10-5-03 Objective: 10.1b Understand the pros and cons of different research designs in developmental psychology. Answer: A) longitudinal 4. The __________ roughly resembles a human being. A) zygote B) fetus C) embryo D) placenta QuestionID: 10-5-04 Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: B) fetus 5. Linda adopted a 1-week-old baby named Ben. Over the course of a few years, Linda observed the following symptoms in Ben despite her attempts to provide him with a healthy environment: his physical growth was stunted, his eyes and mouth looked abnormal, and he had trouble keeping up intellectually with the other children in his kindergarten class. What substance was Ben likely exposed to in utero? A) nicotine B) cocaine C) alcohol D) tetracycline QuestionID: 10-5-05 Objective: 10.1c Apply your understanding to identify the best ways expectant parents can ensure the health of their developing fetus. Answer: C) alcohol 6. What does research on the achievement of motor milestones in infants suggest? A) Motor development is primarily biological and reflects innately programmed changes consistent across cultures. B) Motor development is dependent on physical maturation, which is guided by biological changes. C) Motor development is largely an environmental process that is occasionally limited by physiological constraints. D) Motor development is heavily influenced by parenting styles and culture. .

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QuestionID: 10-5-06 Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: D) Motor development is heavily influenced by parenting styles and culture. 7. Adjusting behaviour or thoughts to fit new environmental demands is called A) schema. B) accommodation. C) assimilation. D) structure. QuestionID: 10-5-07 Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: B) accommodation. 8. _______ is most famous for his theory that all children go through a series of sequential intellectual stages. A) Ainsworth B) Bowlby C) Gesell D) Piaget QuestionID: 10-5-08 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: D) Piaget 9. The adage "Out of sight, out of mind" is most accurately applied to the early part of the _______ stage of development. A) formal operations B) concrete operations C) preoperational D) sensorimotor QuestionID: 10-5-09 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: D) sensorimotor 10. A child learns that his father is called "Daddy." The next day, he calls his uncle "Daddy." Which term best captures this behaviour? A) assimilation B) accommodation C) equilibration D) egocentrism QuestionID: 10-5-10 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: A) assimilation 11. A child and her mother are walking through an aquarium. The child knows there are such things as fish, but has never seen a starfish before. Upon seeing one, she says "See the fishie." Which term best explains the child's comment? A) assimilation .

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B) accommodation C) egocentrism D) equilibration QuestionID: 10-5-11 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: A) assimilation 12. When Angela plays the game "peek-a-boo!" with her infant, Michael, he cries every time, thinking his mom has disappeared. Which concept has Michael yet to develop? A) conservation B) object permanence C) symbolic thought D) assimilation QuestionID: 10-5-12 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: B) object permanence 13. The first time that four-year-old Sarah saw her older brother play a flute, she thought it was simply a large whistle. Sarah's initial understanding of the flute best illustrates the process of A) assimilation. B) egocentrism. C) conservation. D) accommodation. QuestionID: 10-5-13 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: A) assimilation. 14. Three-year-old Zara calls all four-legged animals "kitties." Her tendency to fit all four-legged animals into her existing conception of a kitten illustrates the process of A) conservation. B) assimilation. C) accommodation. D) egocentrism. QuestionID: 10-5-14 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: B) assimilation. 15. What event marks the end of the Piagetian stage of sensorimotor development? A) the ability to do abstract thinking B) the ability to do reversible thinking C) the development of conservation D) the development of object permanence QuestionID: 10-5-15 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: D) the development of object permanence

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16. Five-year-old Tammy mistakenly believes that her short, wide glass contains less soda than her brother's tall, narrow glass. Actually, both glasses contain the same amount of soda. This illustrates that Tammy lacks the concept of A) conservation. B) egocentrism. C) assimilation. D) object permanence. QuestionID: 10-5-16 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: A) conservation. 17. According to Piaget, the stage of cognitive development between two and seven years of age, in which the individual becomes able to use mental representations and language to describe, remember, and reason about the world, though only in an egocentric fashion, is the __________ stage. A) concrete operations B) preoperational C) sensorimotor D) formal operations QuestionID: 10-5-17 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: B) preoperational 18. The mother of a young child who didn't like to drink milk was trying to coax him to drink some. Taking the glass of milk, she poured it all into a smaller cup and said, "There! Now you won't have to drink so much." She would never have fooled the child if he had not been in the __________ stage. A) preconventional B) preoperational C) concrete operational D) formal operational QuestionID: 10-5-18 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: B) preoperational 19. In which stage of cognitive development does the conservation concept first appear? A) formal operations B) concrete operations C) preoperational D) sensorimotor QuestionID: 10-5-19 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: B) concrete operations 20. Piaget's stage theory assumes that A) all children pass through certain stages at a specified age. B) all children pass through a series of 6 stages. C) all children pass through stages in the same order. D) children often skip some of the stages.

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QuestionID: 10-5-20 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: C) all children pass through stages in the same order. 21. Three-year-old Nick agrees to trade his dime for a nickel because the nickel is bigger. Which stage of cognitive development is being characterized? A) concrete operational B) formal operational C) preoperational D) sensorimotor QuestionID: 10-5-21 Skill: Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: C) preoperational 22. A characteristic that first shows up in the concrete operations stage is A) irreversibility. B) abstract thinking. C) egocentrism. D) logical thinking. QuestionID: 10-5-22 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: D) logical thinking. 23. Most ten- and eleven-year-olds are at the level of thinking that Piaget described as A) formal operational. B) preoperational. C) sensorimotor. D) concrete operational. QuestionID: 10-5-23 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: D) concrete operational. 24. According to Piaget, what are the ages for the formal operational stage? A) birth to age two B) age two to seven C) age seven to eleven D) beyond age eleven or twelve QuestionID: 10-5-24 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: D) beyond age eleven or twelve 25. According to Piaget, children begin to develop concepts and the ability to think in terms of abstractions in the __________ stage. A) preoperational B) formal operational C) concrete operational .

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D) sensorimotor QuestionID: 10-5-25 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: B) formal operational 26. According to Piaget, children learn to retrace their thoughts, correct themselves, see more than one dimension to a problem, but cannot yet handle abstract concepts during the __________ stage. A) preoperational B) formal operational C) concrete operational D) sensorimotor QuestionID: 10-5-26 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: C) concrete operational 27. If a child can tell you what Y is equal to when you give her the equation X = Y + 10, then she is in the _______ stage of cognitive development. A) formal operations B) concrete operations C) preoperational D) sensorimotor QuestionID: 10-5-27 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: A) formal operations 28. Nathan is trying to build a castle out of building blocks. At his current stage of cognitive development, he is unable to successfully construct this himself, but is receptive to learning the skill with the assistance of others. Which term proposed by Vygotsky best captures Nathan's developmental stage? A) scaffolding stage B) concrete operations C) formal operations D) zone of proximal development QuestionID: 10-5-28 Objective: 10.2d Apply the concept of scaffolding and the zone of proximal development to understand how to best promote learning. Answer: D) zone of proximal development 29. In which way do most contemporary theories of cognitive development differ from Piagetian theory? A) Learning is constructivist in nature. B) Learning is gradual rather than stage-like. C) Learning is based on general domains. D) Learning is a function of acquired knowledge. QuestionID: 10-5-29 Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: B) Learning is gradual rather than stage-like.

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30. The emotional bond formed during the first year of life that makes human babies cling to their caretakers is called A) attachment. B) intimacy. C) socialization. D) imprinting. QuestionID: 10-5-30 Objective: 10.2c Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. Answer: A) attachment. 31. The tendency for young children to seek closeness to certain people is called A) caretaking. B) affiliation. C) social affinity. D) attachment. QuestionID: 10-5-31 Objective: 10.2c Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. Answer: D) attachment. 32. The strange situation procedure, in which researchers unobtrusively watch an infant in the presence or absence of several combinations of the child, caretaker, and stranger, is used to study A) social smiling. B) attachment. C) identification. D) dependence and independence. QuestionID: 10-5-32 Objective: 10.2c Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. Answer: B) attachment. 33. Tracy is nine months. She is growing and changing so quickly it is difficult for her parents to keep up with all the things she is learning. Her parents have lately noticed that Tracy is spending more and more time and energy trying to do things for herself. This is a sign she is beginning to develop A) self-recognition. B) self-attention. C) a sense of attachment. D) a sense of self-awareness. QuestionID: 10-5-33 Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: D) a sense of self-awareness. 34. A child thinks that the day turns to night just so that he can go to sleep at bedtime. Which term best characterizes this behaviour? A) egocentrism B) conservation C) deferred imitation D) assimilation QuestionID: 10-5-34 .

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Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: A) egocentrism 35. Piaget called the belief that one is the centre of the world A) "animism." B) "egocentrism." C) "self-centring." D) "centrismic thinking." QuestionID: 10-5-35 Objective: 10.2a Know the terminology associated with infancy and childhood. Answer: B) "egocentrism." 36. Which of the following theorists believe that people go through stages, each of which has a "crisis" associated with it? A) Bandura B) Kohlberg C) Piaget D) Erikson QuestionID: 10-5-36 Objective: 10.3b Understand the process of identity formation during adolescence. Answer: D) Erikson 37. Erik Erikson found that each stage in personality development has a particular A) crisis. B) conflict. C) identity. D) anxiety. QuestionID: 10-5-37 Objective: 10.3b Understand the process of identity formation during adolescence. Answer: A) crisis. 38. The most obvious change ushering in adolescence is A) voice change. B) intellectual growth. C) puberty. D) emotional upheaval. QuestionID: 10-5-38 Objective: 10.3a Know the key terminology concerning adolescent development. Answer: C) puberty. 39. Lawrence Kohlberg is noted for his theories of __________ development. A) cognitive B) social C) moral D) emotional QuestionID: 10-5-39 .

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Objective: 10.3d Understand the functions of moral emotions. Answer: C) moral 40. As children approach their teen years, contact with _______ becomes more important in their development. A) peers B) parents C) teachers D) adults QuestionID: 10-5-40 Objective: 10.3f Analyze the relationship between brain development and adolescent judgment and risk taking. Answer: A) peers 41. A gradual and inevitable decline in the life processes begins in A) adolescence. B) young adulthood. C) middle age. D) old age. QuestionID: 10-5-41 Objective: 10.4a Know the key terminology concerning adulthood and aging. Answer: C) middle age. 42. According to Erikson, a sense of producing and contributing to the world is called A) generativity. B) self-actualization. C) maturation. D) worthiness. QuestionID: 10-5-42 Objective: 10.4a Know the key terminology concerning adulthood and aging. Answer: A) generativity. 43. Generativity or stagnation are two feelings that may dominate a person's life during A) middle adulthood. B) young adulthood. C) late adulthood. D) the period after he is told that he has a terminal illness. QuestionID: 10-5-43 Objective: 10.4a Know the key terminology concerning adulthood and aging. Answer: A) middle adulthood. 44. According to Erikson, the last stage of development involves the crisis of A) identity vs. role confusion. B) generativity vs. stagnation. C) autonomy vs. doubt. D) ego integrity vs. despair. QuestionID: 10-5-44 Objective: 10.4a Know the key terminology concerning adulthood and aging. .

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Answer: D) ego integrity vs. despair. True-False Questions 1. During the embryonic stage, cellular divisions begin to take place which will eventually lead to multiple organ, nervous system, and skin tissues. a True b False QuestionID: 10-6-01 Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: b. False 2. At birth, the newborn has an estimated 100 billion neurons. a True b False QuestionID: 10-6-02 Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: a. True 3. Maternal use of cigarettes during pregnancy causes damage to the placenta but not to the baby itself. a True b False QuestionID: 10-6-03 Objective: 10.1c Apply your understanding to identify the best ways expectant parents can ensure the health of their developing fetus. Answer: b. False 4. There is no scientific evidence that vaccines can cause autism. a True b False QuestionID: 10-6-04 Objective: 10.1c Apply your understanding to identify the best ways expectant parents can ensure the health of their developing fetus. Answer: a. True 5. Habituation refers to the formation of new habits and reflexes. a True b False QuestionID: 10-6-05 Objective: 10.1a Know the key terminology related to prenatal and infant physical development. Answer: b. False 6. Babies become attached to their mothers because their mothers provide them with nourishment needed for survival. a True .

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b False QuestionID: 10-6-06 Objective: 10.2c Understand the importance of attachment and the different styles of attachment. Answer: b. False 7. Recent research has confirmed Piaget's belief that children are egocentric through the entire preoperational stage. a True b False QuestionID: 10-6-07 Objective: 10.2b Understand the cognitive changes that occur during infancy and childhood. Answer: b. False 8. Adolescents are more likely to engage in risky behaviour when they are in the presence of other adolescents. a True b False QuestionID: 10-6-08 Objective: 10.3f Analyze the relationship between brain development and adolescent judgment and risk taking. Answer: a. True 9. According to Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, the crisis often faced by young adults is focusing on personal and family needs and contributing to society. a True b False QuestionID: 10-6-09 Objective: 10.4a Know the key terminology concerning adulthood and aging. Answer: b. False 10. For adults, positive emotions decline with age while negative emotions increase. a True b False QuestionID: 10-6-10 Objective: 10.4f Analyze the stereotype that old age is a time of unhappiness. Answer: b. False

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Chapter 11 : Motivation and Emotion Chapter Quiz Questions 1. A(n) _________ is a biological trigger that helps us to seek out the necessities for survival. A) incentive B) impulse C) drive D) consequence QuestionID: 11-1-01 Objective: 11.1a Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. Answer: C) drive 2. What is the most likely outcome from stimulating the ventromedial hypothalamus in a rat? A) The rat would start to eat. B) The rat would stop eating. C) Glucose levels would decrease. D) Insulin levels would decrease. QuestionID: 11-1-02 Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: B) The rat would stop eating. 3. In general, what effect does the presence of other people have on the amount of food an individual eats? A) The presence of others makes people eat less. B) The presence of others makes people eat more. C) The presence of others has no effect on the amount people typically eat. D) The presence of others can make people eat more or less. QuestionID: 11-1-03 Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: D) The presence of others can make people eat more or less. 4. Alfred Kinsey is famous for being one of the first scientists to study A) human sexuality. B) obesity in children. C) peer pressure. D) facial expressions. QuestionID: 11-1-04 Objective: 11.2b Understand similarities and differences in sexual responses in men and women. Answer: A) human sexuality. 5. After experiencing an orgasm, males typically experience a(n) __________, during which an erection is not physically possible. A) plateau B) resolution C) refractory period D) hyperpolarization period .

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QuestionID: 11-1-05 Objective: 11.2b Understand similarities and differences in sexual responses in men and women. Answer: C) refractory period 6. Which of the following factors increases an individual's risk for illness, heart disease, and even cancer? A) mortality salience B) loneliness C) performance motives D) avoidance goals QuestionID: 11-1-06 Skill: Objective: 11.3b Understand how people experience a need to belong. Answer: B) loneliness 7. Louis practises shooting baskets after school because he doesn't want his friends to make fun of him for being bad at basketball. Louis's motivation to practice is most accurately described as driven by a(n) _____ goal. A) shame B) mastery C) avoidance D) approach QuestionID: 11-1-07 Objective: 11.3d Apply theories of motivation to understand different motivations for success in school or at work. Answer: C) avoidance 8. Gillian drinks a lot of coffee while studying all night. The caffeine in the coffee causes Gillian's heart to start racing and her hands to begin shaking. Suddenly, Gillian begins to feel fear and anxiety for no apparent reason. Gillian's experience is best explained by which theory of emotions? A) Maslow's hierarchy of needs B) James-Lange theory of emotion C) facial feedback D) Cannon-Bard theory QuestionID: 11-1-08 Objective: 11.4a Know the key terminology associated with emotion. Answer: B) James-Lange theory of emotion 9. Controlled studies of polygraph recordings indicate that they should be most accurately described as detecting A) parasympathetic activity. B) misleading or untruthful information. C) arousal. D) negative emotions. QuestionID: 11-1-09 Objective: 11.4b Understand how the nervous system responds to emotions. Answer: C) arousal. 10. Which of the following statements is true about how humans display emotions? .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

Cultural differences can affect how an individual expresses their emotions. All emotional displays are understood across all cultures. There are no emotional displays that are universally understood across all cultures. Emotional displays are determined by context, not by culture.

QuestionID: 11-1-10 Objective: 11.4c Understand cultural similarities and differences in emotional expressions. Answer: A) Cultural differences can affect how an individual expresses their emotions. Essay Questions 1. The "bottomless bowl" study described in your textbook is one example of creative ways researchers have investigated the factors that influence how much we eat. Describe this study, the results, and what concept can explain the results. QuestionID: 11-2-01 Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Volunteers were asked to eat soup until they had enough. - In the experimental condition, a tube continued to fill the soup bowl from the bottom so that it could not be detected by the volunteers. - The individuals in the experimental group stopped eating after consuming, on average, over 70% more than those participants who knowingly refilled their bowls. - Despite eating more food, these participants did not feel any more satiated, nor did they believe they had eaten any more than the individuals in the control group. - Unit bias, the tendency to assume that the unit of sale or portioning is an appropriate amount to consume, helps to explain the results of this experiment. Individuals tend to consume whatever the unit of food is, despite the actual size (e.g., if a "single serving" is large, people will consume the entire thing even if it's substantially larger than a "healthy" portion). 2. Research into the sexual response cycle of men and women has revealed some surprising similarities and differences. Describe some of these similarities and differences. QuestionID: 11-2-02 Objective: 11.2b Understand similarities and differences in sexual responses in men and women. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Similarities * Both men and women experience the four basic stages of the cycle (excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution). * Men and women appear to experience orgasms in a very similar way. - Differences * The sexual response cycle is much more variable for women than men. * The duration and experiences of each stage differ between men and women. * Men usually experience a single orgasm followed by a refractory period, a time period during which erection and orgasm are not physically possible. In contrast, some women experience multiple orgasms without a refractory period. 3. Research suggests that many emotions are expressed in the same way across cultures. However, there are also many differences in the display and interpretation of emotional expressions, especially between Western and Asian cultures. Compare and contrast the similarities and differences in display rules and interpreting emotions. QuestionID: 11-2-03 Objective: 11.4c Understand cultural similarities and differences in emotional expressions.

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Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Display rules refer to the unwritten expectations we have regarding when it is appropriate to show a certain emotion. - An example of a display rule is the expression of embarrassment—Westerners tend to blush while Japanese tend to smile. - Another example of a display rule involves low-intensity expressions. If a Westerner sees someone half-smiling, they assume that they are not as happy. If a Japanese person sees the same expression, they assume they are hiding their happiness. - Asian cultures have also been found to use more context when interpreting emotions—they will look to those around the individual to help determine the emotional state. However, North Americans tend to only look at the single individual, not taking into account those around them. Fill-in-the-blank Questions 1. Motivation that is caused by stress, rather than strictly our current needs, is known as __________ . QuestionID: 11-3-01 Objective: 11.1a Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. Answer: a. allostasis 2. One factor in hunger seems to be the increase in __________ released from the pancreas, which causes blood sugar levels to eventually drop several hours after we eat. QuestionID: 11-3-02 Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: a. insulin 3. Tina notices that she always eats two slices when her friends order pizza, despite the fact that the size of "a slice" varies greatly from restaurant to restaurant. This is an example of how the __________ can affect how much food we consume in a meal. QuestionID: 11-3-03 Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: a. unit bias 4. For people with bulimia nervosa, binge eating is usually followed by __________ , most commonly by inducing vomiting. QuestionID: 11-3-04 Objective: 11.1c Understand the causes of common eating disorders. Answer: a. purging 5. The ability of women to have multiple orgasms in a row is due to the absence of the __________ period, which occurs in men. QuestionID: 11-3-05 Objective: 11.2a Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation. Answer: a. refractory 6. According to the psychologist __________ humans have a "hierarchy of needs," such that basic needs must be met before higher needs can be addressed.

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QuestionID: 11-3-06 Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: a. Abraham Maslow 7. love is related to the physical and emotional longing one has for another person. QuestionID: 11-3-07 Objective: 11.3c Understand the different forms of love. Answer: a. Passionate 8. motives reflect a desire to understand or overcome a challenge for its own sake. QuestionID: 11-3-08 Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: a. Mastery 9. According to the __________ , cognitive appraisal of physical arousal comes before the experience of emotion. QuestionID: 11-3-09 Objective: 11.4b Understand how the nervous system responds to emotions. Answer: a. two-factor theory 10. A __________ is a device that can measure physiological arousal such as heart rate and palm sweat, but is not an accurate measure of lie detection. QuestionID: 11-3-10 Objective: 11.4b Understand how the nervous system responds to emotions. Answer: a. polygraph Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Motivation is best described as A) the physiological triggers that tell us we may be deprived of something and cause us to seek out what is needed, such as food. B) the body's physiological processes that allow it to maintain consistent internal states in response to the outer environment. C) the stimuli we seek to reduce the drives such as social approval and companionship, food, water, and other needs. D) the physiological and psychological processes underlying the initiation of behaviours that direct organisms toward specific goals. QuestionID: 11-4-01 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.1a Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. Answer: D) the physiological and psychological processes underlying the initiation of behaviours that direct organisms toward specific goals. 2. The psychology of motivation can be best summarized as the study of A) cause-and-effect decision-making. B) the processes underlying goal-directed behaviour. .

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C) the effect of psychological stress on behaviour. D) the effect of rewards and punishments on behaviour. QuestionID: 11-4-02 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.1a Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. Answer: B) the processes underlying goal-directed behaviour. 3. The tendency of the body to maintain a steady state of functioning is called A) stability. B) drive reduction. C) homeostasis. D) allostasis. QuestionID: 11-4-03 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.1a Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. Answer: C) homeostasis. 4. The chief function of homeostasis is to A) prepare for future events. B) maintain a steady state. C) regulate emotions. D) control sexual urges. QuestionID: 11-4-04 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.1a Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. Answer: B) maintain a steady state. 5. Luisa is working out at a gym and her body temperature begins to rise. To cool itself down, her body begins to sweat. After showering however, her body temperature drops below ideal, so her body begins to shiver to warm itself up. This example illustrates the concept of A) allostasis. B) homeostasis. C) satiation. D) motivation. QuestionID: 11-4-05 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.1a Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. Answer: B) homeostasis. 6. Hunger and thirst are examples of A) rewards. B) punishments. C) incentives. D) drives. QuestionID: 11-4-06 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.1a Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. .

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Answer: D) drives. 7. The goal of motivated behaviour is often to _____________ a drive. A) reduce B) maximize C) maintain D) reinforce QuestionID: 11-4-07 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.1a Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. Answer: A) reduce 8. A(n) _________ is a biological trigger that helps us to seek out the necessities for survival. A) incentive B) impulse C) drive D) consequence QuestionID: 11-4-08 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.1a Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. Answer: C) drive 9. Motivation that is influenced by stress, in addition to current needs, is known as A) allostasis. B) homeostasis. C) an incentive. D) a drive. QuestionID: 11-4-09 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.1a Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. Answer: A) allostasis. 10. Phyllis feels hungry even after she has eaten large meals and has been gaining weight. A doctor diagnoses her with a neurological disorder that affects a specific structure in the brain. Which brain region has likely been affected? A) thalamus B) basal ganglia C) hypothalamus D) insula QuestionID: 11-4-10 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: C) hypothalamus 11. The lateral hypothalamus is likely involved with A) the feeling of satiation. B) the onset of eating. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) increasing glucose levels. D) the reward pathway. QuestionID: 11-4-11 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: B) the onset of eating. 12. The _______ likely serves as the "on" switch for eating behaviour, while the ______ likely serves as the "off" switch. A) ventromedial hypothalamus; lateral hypothalamus B) lateral hypothalamus; ventromedial hypothalamus C) ventromedial hypothalamus; paraventricular nucleus D) paraventricular nucleus; lateral hypothalamus QuestionID: 11-4-12 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: B) lateral hypothalamus; ventromedial hypothalamus 13. Dr. Pourhamzeh lesions an area of the brain in a rat. He notices that after the procedure the rat eats almost continuously. It is likely that Dr. Pourhamzeh has lesioned the A) basal ganglia. B) insula. C) lateral hypothalamus. D) ventromedial hypothalamus. QuestionID: 11-4-13 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: D) ventromedial hypothalamus. 14. Glucostats are A) neurons that can detect glucose levels. B) weight-loss drugs that block the absorption of glucose. C) hormones that help cells store glucose for future use. D) a category of sugars used by the brain and body for energy. QuestionID: 11-4-14 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: A) neurons that can detect glucose levels. 15. When specialized cells detect __________ levels of ____________, they trigger an increase in hunger. A) high; insulin B) high; glucose C) low; insulin D) low; glucose QuestionID: 11-4-15 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: D) low; glucose 16. One factor in hunger seems to be the increase in __________, which causes blood sugar levels to eventually drop several hours after we eat. A) cholesterol B) lipoproteins C) insulin D) glucose QuestionID: 11-4-16 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: C) insulin 17. Insulin is responsible for A) converting fat stores into energy. B) stimulating stomach contractions and appetite. C) detecting blood sugar levels. D) helping cells store circulating glucose. QuestionID: 11-4-17 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: D) helping cells store circulating glucose. 18. As insulin levels _______, glucose levels ________. A) increase; decrease B) decrease; increase C) increase; increase D) decrease; decrease QuestionID: 11-4-18 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: A) increase; decrease 19. _______ is a hormone that is released in response to stress, but is also responsible for stomach contractions and appetite. A) CCK B) Glucose C) Ghrelin D) Insulin QuestionID: 11-4-19 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: C) Ghrelin 20. Jake is nervous about his upcoming curling match. Despite having just eaten a large meal, his stomach starts to growl. What hormone is likely responsible for Jake's current feeling of hunger? A) insulin .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) ghrelin C) glucose D) CCK QuestionID: 11-4-20 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: B) ghrelin 21. Saying "I'm full" at the end of a meal is a common way to let others know that you have reached the point of A) homeostasis. B) satiation. C) allostasis. D) unit bias. QuestionID: 11-4-21 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.1a Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. Answer: B) satiation. 22. Rested is to tired, as satiation is to A) stressed. B) hungry. C) aroused. D) full. QuestionID: 11-4-22 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.1a Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. Answer: B) hungry. 23. The hormone ______ signals feelings of fullness, while the hormone _______ signals hunger. A) CCK; ghrelin B) ghrelin; CCK C) insulin; glucose D) glucose; insulin QuestionID: 11-4-23 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: A) CCK; ghrelin 24. The orbitofrontal cortex is involved in A) signalling the feeling of satiation. B) linking food taste and texture with pleasure and reward. C) the release of ghrelin in response to stressful stimuli. D) the release of CCK in response to the filling of the stomach. QuestionID: 11-4-24 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: B) linking food taste and texture with pleasure and reward. 25. What do sugar and addictive drugs have in common? A) They create states of euphoria in high doses. B) They stimulate activity in the hypothalamus. C) They inhibit self-control by inhibiting the cingulate gyrus. D) They stimulate dopamine release in the nucleus accumbens. QuestionID: 11-4-25 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: D) They stimulate dopamine release in the nucleus accumbens. 26. Nila's younger brother does not like the meatloaf their mother made for dinner. When Nila is not looking, her brother secretly scoops some of his meatloaf onto her plate so that, although Nila is eating meatloaf, the amount on her plate remains about the same. Which of the following is most likely to happen? A) Nila will eat her normal amount and then stop when she feels full. B) Nila will eat less than she normally would. C) Nila will eat more than she normally would. D) Nila will develop an aversion for meatloaf. QuestionID: 11-4-26 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: C) Nila will eat more than she normally would. 27. In experiments where bowls of soup were secretly filled through a tube so that the soup never ran out, which of the following happened? A) Participants felt full at the same time as control participants, but continued to eat anyway. B) Participants ate significantly more than control participants, but did not feel more satiated. C) Participants felt full at the same time as control participants and stopped eating. D) Participants ate significantly less than control participants, but felt equally satiated. QuestionID: 11-4-27 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: B) Participants ate significantly more than control participants, but did not feel more satiated. 28. Which of the following is an example of the unit bias? A) Buying a second bottle of soda because the store has a "buy one, get one free" sale. B) Adding more sugar to a cup of coffee because the sweet taste is more rewarding. C) Eating less than normal because you are worried about others judging you. D) Eating more chips in one sitting from a family-sized bag than a regular-sized bag. QuestionID: 11-4-28 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: D) Eating more chips in one sitting from a family-sized bag than a regular-sized bag. 29. For years, Jenna ate one granola bar for breakfast. Then the company changed their packaging so that the granola bars were wrapped in sets of two. Ever since this change occurred, Jenna has had two bars for breakfast. This is an example of .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

social facilitation. trigger food. impression management. the unit bias.

QuestionID: 11-4-29 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: D) the unit bias. 30. Clover is trying to eat healthier, but when she visits her local coffee shop that displays all their homemade foods in a big glass case, Clover finds herself ordering a chocolate-filled pastry instead of the spinach and eggwhite wrap. The concept of _________ likely explains Clover's food selection. A) social facilitation B) trigger foods C) modelling D) unit bias QuestionID: 11-4-30 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: B) trigger foods 31. Freya goes to the cafeteria with her co-workers. She is not hungry, but eats because everyone else in the group is eating. This is an example of A) social facilitation. B) modelling. C) impression management. D) the unit bias. QuestionID: 11-4-31 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: B) modelling. 32. Petra is on a date. She really likes her food, but stops herself after eating only one-third because she doesn't want her date to think she is a glutton. Petra's behaviour is an example of A) social facilitation. B) modelling. C) impression management. D) the unit bias. QuestionID: 11-4-32 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: C) impression management. 33. Angus is visiting his grandmother for Thanksgiving. After finishing his plate, he's feeling very full but his grandmother encourages him to have seconds, so he does. This is an example of A) social facilitation. B) modelling. C) impression management. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) the unit bias. QuestionID: 11-4-33 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: A) social facilitation. 34. Samantha is currently in therapy for treatment of an eating disorder. She is dangerously thin but perceives herself as overweight. To control her weight she starves herself. Samantha likely has A) anorexia nervosa. B) minimal eating norm. C) bulimia nervosa. D) binge-eating disorder. QuestionID: 11-4-34 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.1c Understand the causes of common eating disorders. Answer: A) anorexia nervosa. 35. _______________ is an eating disorder characterized by a fear of being fat, a distorted body image, radically reduced consumption of food, and emaciation. A) Anorexia nervosa B) Binge-eating disorder C) Bulimia D) Minimal eating norm QuestionID: 11-4-35 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.1c Understand the causes of common eating disorders. Answer: A) Anorexia nervosa 36. ________ is an eating disorder characterized by episodes of excessive eating followed by forced vomiting or the use of laxatives. A) Anorexia nervosa B) Obesity C) Bulimia nervosa D) Body-dysmorphic disorder QuestionID: 11-4-36 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.1c Understand the causes of common eating disorders. Answer: C) Bulimia nervosa 37. Zulma is currently in therapy for treatment of an eating disorder. Every day she eats a box of doughnuts and an entire bag of chips and then makes herself vomit. Zulma most likely has which of the following disorders? A) binge-eating disorder B) body-dysmorphic disorder C) bulimia nervosa D) anorexia nervosa QuestionID: 11-4-37 Skill: Applied .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 11.1c Understand the causes of common eating disorders. Answer: C) bulimia nervosa 38. Eating disorders and body-image distortions among boys and men often take a different form than is typically seen with women. For example, they are more likely to A) starve themselves and exercise compulsively to be more muscular. B) binge on foods high in fat and starches. C) use inactivity to try to reduce the size of their bodies. D) eat normally, but also purge. QuestionID: 11-4-38 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.1c Understand the causes of common eating disorders. Answer: A) starve themselves and exercise compulsively to be more muscular. 39. Research has shown that ________ exposure to media is related to _______ satisfaction with one's body. A) increased; increased B) increased; decreased C) decreased; decreased D) moderate; moderate QuestionID: 11-4-39 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.1e Analyze the role of the media on people's body image. Answer: B) increased; decreased 40. Another term for a person's sex drive or desire for sexual activity is his or her A) sexual preference. B) sexual response cycle. C) sexual orientation. D) libido. QuestionID: 11-4-40 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2a Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation. Answer: D) libido. 41. The first systematic surveys of sexual behaviour were conducted by A) Masters and Johnson. B) Meston and Buss. C) Kinsey. D) Freud. QuestionID: 11-4-41 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2a Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation. Answer: C) Kinsey. 42. Kinsey believed that A) sexual orientation was an either/or situation. B) sexual orientation was on a continuum. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) sexual orientation was too sensitive to be studied. D) premarital sex was fundamentally destructive to society. QuestionID: 11-4-42 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2a Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation. Answer: B) sexual orientation was on a continuum. 43. Masters and Johnson's original subjects in the study of human sexual response were A) prostitutes. B) actors in pornographic movies. C) prisoners in the local jails. D) undergraduate U.S. college students. QuestionID: 11-4-43 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2a Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation. Answer: A) prostitutes. 44. Masters and Johnson famously observed volunteers ________ while specialized equipment monitored their physiological responses. A) masturbating B) thinking about sexual intercourse C) watching pornographic video clips D) performing oral sex QuestionID: 11-4-44 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2a Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation. Answer: A) masturbating 45. The___________ cycle describes the phases of physiological change during sexual activity. A) resolution B) sexual orientation C) psychosexual D) sexual response QuestionID: 11-4-45 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2a Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation. Answer: D) sexual response 46. The first phase of the sexual response cycle is A) excitement. B) plateau. C) orgasm. D) resolution. QuestionID: 11-4-46 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2a Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: A) excitement. 47. The second phase of the sexual response cycle is A) excitement. B) plateau. C) orgasm. D) resolution. QuestionID: 11-4-47 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2a Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation. Answer: B) plateau. 48. The final phase of the sexual response cycle is A) excitement. B) plateau. C) orgasm. D) resolution. QuestionID: 11-4-48 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2a Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation. Answer: D) resolution. 49. Ingrid and Arthur have just initiated sexual intercourse; which statement below best describes where each of them would likely fall in the sexual response cycle? A) Both Ingrid and Arthur are likely in the excitement phase. B) Ingrid is likely in the plateau phase while Arthur is likely in the excitement phase. C) Both Ingrid and Arthur are likely in the refractory period. D) Arthur is likely in the resolution phase while Ingrid is likely in the plateau phase. QuestionID: 11-4-49 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.2b Understand similarities and differences in sexual responses in men and women. Answer: A) Both Ingrid and Arthur are likely in the excitement phase. 50. Rashid has just had an orgasm. However, his partner is still excited and wants Rashid to continue his sexual activity. Unfortunately, Rashid has lost his erection. Rashid is probably experiencing A) the refractory period. B) the resting phase. C) erectile dysfunction. D) the plateau phase. QuestionID: 11-4-50 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.2a Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation. Answer: A) the refractory period. 51. Masters and Johnson reported that women, unlike men, A) can only achieve 1 orgasm in a 12-hour period. B) do not have a refractory period. C) need more stimulation to achieve an orgasm with oral sex. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) have a longer refractory period than men. QuestionID: 11-4-51 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.2b Understand similarities and differences in sexual responses in men and women. Answer: B) do not have a refractory period. 52. Which statement is consistent with Masters and Johnson's findings? A) Women respond more slowly but cannot stay aroused as long as men. B) Some women can have multiple orgasms. C) Women experience a refractory period prior to orgasm. D) Men and women differ very little in their sexual response profiles. QuestionID: 11-4-52 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.2b Understand similarities and differences in sexual responses in men and women. Answer: B) Some women can have multiple orgasms. 53. Blood levels of the hormone oxytocin surge in both men and women just after which phase of the sexual response cycle? A) excitement B) plateau C) orgasm D) resolution QuestionID: 11-4-53 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2b Understand similarities and differences in sexual responses in men and women. Answer: C) orgasm 54. Which of the following is the best definition of sexual orientation? A) It is a person's sex as determined by his or her genotype. B) It is a categorization based on the gender of a person's sexual partners. C) It is a consistent preference for sexual relations with members of the same sex, opposite sex, or both. D) It is a categorization based on whether a person's behaviour matches their biological sex or not. QuestionID: 11-4-54 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2d Analyze different explanations for what determines sexual orientation. Answer: C) It is a consistent preference for sexual relations with members of the same sex, opposite sex, or both. 55. Research supports the theory that homosexuality A) is a personal choice and not determined by genetic factors. B) is the result of an absent father. C) is determined by genetics. D) is complex and not yet fully understood. QuestionID: 11-4-55 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.2d Analyze different explanations for what determines sexual orientation. Answer: D) is complex and not yet fully understood. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

56. Research by LeVay suggested that an area of the _____________ is on average smaller in brains of gay males than heterosexual males. A) hippocampus B) thalamus C) amygdala D) hypothalamus QuestionID: 11-4-56 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2d Analyze different explanations for what determines sexual orientation. Answer: D) hypothalamus 57. Twin research suggests into the basis of homosexuality suggests that A) there appears to be no genetic influence on sexual orientation for males or females. B) genetics can account for approximately half of the determination of sexual orientation. C) sexual orientation is almost entirely determined by genetics. D) genes appear to determine sexual orientation in females, but not in males. QuestionID: 11-4-57 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.2d Analyze different explanations for what determines sexual orientation. Answer: B) genetics can account for approximately half of the determination of sexual orientation. 58. The term _________ refers to individuals who experience a mismatch between their biological sex and the gender with which they identify; while ________ refers to a subset of individuals who wish to undergo physical alterations to align their biological sex to their gender. A) transsexual; transgender B) transgender; bisexual C) transgender; transsexual D) bisexual; transsexual QuestionID: 11-4-58 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2d Analyze different explanations for what determines sexual orientation. Answer: C) transgender; transsexual 59. The societal expectations for the behaviour of an individual of a specific gender, are known as A) gender roles. B) sexual scripts. C) sexual expectations. D) gender identities. QuestionID: 11-4-59 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2a Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation. Answer: A) gender roles. 60. Over time, there have been many changes in ________, the set of "rules" surrounding the sexual behaviours of males and females. A) gender identities B) sexual orientation .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) gendered behaviour D) sexual scripts QuestionID: 11-4-60 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2a Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation. Answer: D) sexual scripts 61. Research into the use of sexual imagery to sell a product has found that A) using exceedingly skinny models tends to increase sales. B) blatant use of highly attractive models tends to lower evaluations of a product. C) using sex to sell a product helps people to remember the brand being advertised. D) regardless of the context, nudity in an advertisement tends to increase sales. QuestionID: 11-4-61 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.2c Apply your understanding of sex and technology to examine your attitudes toward different forms of digital and online sexual activity. Answer: B) blatant use of highly attractive models tends to lower evaluations of a product. 62. According to Abraham Maslow's hierarchy, which needs must be met first? A) esteem B) safety C) physiological D) belongingness and love QuestionID: 11-4-62 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: C) physiological 63. Which of the following shows a focus on the lowest of Maslow's hierarchy of needs? A) Joan wants to live in a house with all the modern conveniences so that she may have more time to seek fulfillment from her career and family. B) Frank feels that he is a good salesman because he likes what he does and knows how to do it well. C) Barbara knows that as a teacher she is a good person because she realizes the importance of imparting knowledge to society. D) Mark works hard so he can afford to move out of his crime-ridden neighbourhood. QuestionID: 11-4-63 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: D) Mark works hard so he can afford to move out of his crime-ridden neighbourhood. 64. Koa has felt isolated and like an "outsider" since coming to university in his first year. As a result, he decided to join a student society on campus. According to Maslow, Koa is likely attempting to meet the _________ need. A) aesthetic B) belonging C) cognitive D) physiological QuestionID: 11-4-64 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Applied Objective: 11.3b Understand how people experience a need to belong. Answer: B) belonging 65. A key element to satisfying the need to belong is A) a sense of permanence to our relationships. B) having a positive relationship with many people. C) making new friends on a regular basis. D) a sense that we are the most well liked person in a group. QuestionID: 11-4-65 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.3b Understand how people experience a need to belong. Answer: A) a sense of permanence to our relationships. 66. According to your textbook, ______________ is a risk factor for illnesses such as heart disease and cancer, and elevates a person's risk for having hypertension, a weaker immune system, and high levels of stress hormones. A) divorce B) loneliness C) low self-esteem D) only having 1-2 close friends QuestionID: 11-4-66 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.3e Analyze claims that a sense of belonging is something people need versus something they want. Answer: B) loneliness 67. Angus and Petra have recently started a new relationship. When Angus isn't around, Petra finds herself longing for Angus. According to Berscheid and Walter, what type of love is Petra likely experiencing? A) companionate love B) desirable love C) passionate love D) biological love QuestionID: 11-4-67 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.3c Understand the different forms of love. Answer: C) passionate love 68. Saskia and Mika have been in a relationship for 15 years. They share many of the same friends and have grown and changed together over time. According to Berscheid and Walter, Saskia and Mika likely share which type of love? A) companionate love B) desirable love C) passionate love D) committed love QuestionID: 11-4-68 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.3c Understand the different forms of love.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: A) companionate love 69. When viewing images of a significant other, researchers found participants had increased activation in the ________ compared to viewing images of other familiar faces. A) prefrontal cortex B) amygdala C) hippocampus D) caudate nucleus QuestionID: 11-4-69 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.3c Understand the different forms of love. Answer: D) caudate nucleus 70. The ___________ theory suggests that humans' desire to belong is driven by their fear of death. A) fleeting mortality B) terror management C) fear of the unknown D) finite lifespan QuestionID: 11-4-70 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: B) terror management 71. _______________motivation is the drive to perform at high levels and to accomplish significant goals. A) Reward B) Performance C) Achievement D) Approach QuestionID: 11-4-71 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: C) Achievement 72. _______________ goals are positive experiences that you seek directly. A) Approach B) Performance C) Self-efficacy D) Self-determination QuestionID: 11-4-72 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: A) Approach 73. Maxime is trying out for Team Canada in hockey. He thinks that if he doesn't make the team his family and friends will be disappointed and he'll be embarrassed that he "wasn't good enough." In this instance, Maxime wanting to make the team is an example of a(n) _______ goal. A) approach B) avoidance .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) mastery D) self-determination QuestionID: 11-4-73 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: B) avoidance 74. _________ refers to an individual's confidence that they have the ability to solve a problem or face a challenge. A) Autonomy B) Confidence-calibration C) Self-awareness D) Self-efficacy QuestionID: 11-4-74 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: D) Self-efficacy 75. Lamar knows he is a good basketball player and is confident that if given the chance, he will be able to carry his team to victory in the finals. Lamar likely has a high level of A) autonomy. B) mastery motivation. C) self-efficacy. D) conceit. QuestionID: 11-4-75 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: C) self-efficacy. 76. The __________ theory suggests that an individual's well-being is directly tied to the control they have over their own behaviours. A) mastery motivation B) performance motivation C) self-efficacy D) self-determination QuestionID: 11-4-76 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: D) self-determination 77. ____________motives are geared toward gaining rewards or public recognition. A) Mastery B) Performance C) Egocentric D) Approach QuestionID: 11-4-77 Skill: Factual .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: B) Performance 78. _______________ goals involve the effort to avoid unpleasant experiences. A) Avoidance B) Performance C) Mastery D) Approach QuestionID: 11-4-78 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: A) Avoidance 79. Matt is learning to play the guitar because he thinks girls will be more likely to go out with him if he plays in a band. This is an example of _______________ motivation and an __________________ goal. A) performance; avoidance B) performance; approach C) mastery; approach D) mastery; avoidance QuestionID: 11-4-79 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: B) performance; approach 80. Lixing has always enjoyed playing piano. In fact, Lixing practices for many hours every day and wants to master his skills. In this example, Lixing's behaviours are being driven by ___________ motivation. A) masochistic B) extrinsic C) intrinsic D) performance QuestionID: 11-4-80 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: C) intrinsic 81. The three major components that psychologists focus on when defining "emotion" are A) facial muscles, postural changes, and hormone fluctuations. B) thoughts, physical arousal, and expressions. C) genetics, expressions, and cognition. D) display rules, social rules, and relationship rules. QuestionID: 11-4-81 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.4a Know the key terminology associated with emotion. Answer: B) thoughts, physical arousal, and expressions. 82. Certain emotions are associated with certain patterns of _____________, which explains why our heart races and our palms sweat when we are nervous or fearful. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

autonomic nervous system activity visual and auditory stimulation activity in the occipital lobes hippocampal activity

QuestionID: 11-4-82 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.4a Know the key terminology associated with emotion. Answer: A) autonomic nervous system activity 83. In the brain, the ____________ is responsible for quickly assessing danger or threat. A) prefrontal cortex B) amygdala C) right hemisphere D) sympathetic nervous system QuestionID: 11-4-83 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.4a Know the key terminology associated with emotion. Answer: B) amygdala 84. Addy jumps with fear as she feels a hand on her shoulder while walking on a deserted path across campus. What brain structure played a key role in Addy's swift reaction? A) basal ganglia B) hippocampus C) cerebral cortex D) amygdala QuestionID: 11-4-84 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.4a Know the key terminology associated with emotion. Answer: D) amygdala 85. Which sequence of events in emotional responses is characteristic of the James-Lange theory of emotion? A) stimulus, emotion, physiological changes B) stimulus, physiological changes, emotion C) physiological changes, stimulus, emotion D) stimulus, simultaneous emotion and physiological changes QuestionID: 11-4-85 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.4d Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples. Answer: B) stimulus, physiological changes, emotion 86. Which statement best reflects the James-Lange theory of emotion? A) Our hearts race, we see a monster, we feel fear. B) We see a monster, we feel fear, our hearts race. C) We see a monster, our hearts race, we feel fear. D) We feel fear, our hearts race, we see the monster. QuestionID: 11-4-86 Skill: Conceptual .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 11.4d Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples. Answer: C) We see a monster, our hearts race, we feel fear. 87. Which theory of emotion states that your body reacts before you experience an emotion? A) James-Lange B) Cannon-Bard C) two-factor D) Schachter-Singer QuestionID: 11-4-87 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.4d Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples. Answer: A) James-Lange 88. Which statement is most consistent with the James-Lange theory of emotion? A) "I run because I'm afraid." B) "I'm happy because I laugh." C) "I'm crying because I'm sad." D) "I'm anxious because I perspire." QuestionID: 11-4-88 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.4d Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples. Answer: B) "I'm happy because I laugh." 89. What is the correct sequence of events in emotional response according to the Cannon-Bard theory? A) stimulus, emotion, physiological changes B) stimulus, physiological changes, emotion C) physiological changes, stimulus, emotion D) stimulus, simultaneous emotion and physiological changes QuestionID: 11-4-89 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.4d Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples. Answer: D) stimulus, simultaneous emotion and physiological changes 90. You are walking in the forest and see a bear. According to the Cannon-Bard theory, what happens next? A) You experience physiological changes followed by fear. B) You feel fear, followed by physiological changes. C) You experience physiological changes and a feeling of fear simultaneously. D) You experience physiological changes and context appraisal followed by fear. QuestionID: 11-4-90 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.4d Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples. Answer: C) You experience physiological changes and a feeling of fear simultaneously. 91. The ______ theory of emotion states that the experience of emotion occurs simultaneously with biological changes. A) Cannon-Bard theory B) James-Lange .

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C) Schachter-Singer D) two-factor QuestionID: 11-4-91 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.4a Know the key terminology associated with emotion. Answer: A) Cannon-Bard theory 92. Which statement reflects the core concept behind the facial feedback hypothesis? A) Facial expressions on those around us, change our own emotional experiences. B) Facial features are intentional forms of communication and not tied to the experience of emotion. C) Information from facial muscles intensifies emotional experiences. D) Facial expressions are entirely dictated by internal states rather than any conscious processes. QuestionID: 11-4-92 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.4d Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples. Answer: C) Information from facial muscles intensifies emotional experiences. 93. Which is an example of facial feedback hypothesis? A) smiling in order to draw a smile from a friend B) avoiding eye contact in order to avoid talking to someone C) making yourself smile, then finding that your mood is more positive D) trying to make eye contact in order to flirt with someone QuestionID: 11-4-93 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.4d Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples. Answer: C) making yourself smile, then finding that your mood is more positive 94. According to the facial feedback hypothesis, when Noah complies with instructions to "smile and look happy," it is most likely that A) he will begin to feel annoyed. B) he will begin to feel angry. C) his positive feelings will increase. D) his reaction will depend on his age. QuestionID: 11-4-94 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.4d Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples. Answer: C) his positive feelings will increase. 95. The ___________ theory proposes that physical arousal and the interpretation of that arousal combine to form our emotional experience. A) facial feedback B) James-Lange C) Cannon-Bard D) two-factor QuestionID: 11-4-95 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.4a Know the key terminology associated with emotion. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: D) two-factor 96. Sabina saw her old boyfriend and her heart began to race. According to the two-factor theory, is she happy to see him or frightened of him? A) She is frightened because her emotional reaction came before her heart began to race. B) She is happy to see him because when they were together, they shared passionate love. C) Her emotional reaction will depend on how she interprets her increased heart rate. D) She must be frightened because her heart began to race before she reacted emotionally. QuestionID: 11-4-96 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.4d Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples. Answer: C) Her emotional reaction will depend on how she interprets her increased heart rate. 97. According to the two-factor theory of emotion, appraisal of the situation would come _______ the physical arousal and _______ the experience of emotion. A) before; after B) after; before C) before; before D) after; after QuestionID: 11-4-97 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.4d Apply your knowledge of theories of emotion to new examples. Answer: B) after; before 98. The polygraph (lie detector) is based on the assumption that a person who is lying will have increased activity A) of the parasympathetic nervous system. B) of the Cannon-Bard pathway. C) of the autonomic nervous system. D) in the hippocampus. QuestionID: 11-4-98 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.4b Understand how the nervous system responds to emotions. Answer: C) of the autonomic nervous system. 99. Which of the following is true regarding lie detectors? A) Polygraphs are accepted as valid evidence in most Canadian courts. B) Research suggests that traditional polygraphs are about 78% accurate in detecting deceit. C) Polygraphs are able to detect arousal, but are not valid indicators of lying. D) Researchers have been unable to identify any techniques to measure deceit. QuestionID: 11-4-99 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.4b Understand how the nervous system responds to emotions. Answer: C) Polygraphs are able to detect arousal, but are not valid indicators of lying. 100. Ekman's research into emotional expressions suggests that A) cross-culturally, humans express basic emotions in very similar ways. B) humans only express three emotions: disgust, happiness, and anger. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) facial expressions vary widely between cultures, with very little similarities. D) language dictates the interpretation of facial expressions. QuestionID: 11-4-100 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.4c Understand cultural similarities and differences in emotional expressions. Answer: A) cross-culturally, humans express basic emotions in very similar ways. 101. _______________ can vary from culture to culture and are socially acceptable ways of showing emotion in public settings. A) Emotional boundaries B) Facial grids C) Display rules D) Expressional norms QuestionID: 11-4-101 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.4c Understand cultural similarities and differences in emotional expressions. Answer: C) Display rules 102. Display rules involve A) displaying an emotion that is not actually felt, often because of a role requirement. B) social guidelines that regulate when, how, and where a person may express emotion. C) emotions that are displayed, as a rule, only by certain cultures. D) universal, biologically based emotional displays evoked by particular emotional situations. QuestionID: 11-4-102 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.4c Understand cultural similarities and differences in emotional expressions. Answer: B) social guidelines that regulate when, how, and where a person may express emotion. 103. Devin is an American businessman working with a Japanese company. He accidently offended one of his Japanese co-workers when he affectionately slapped him on the back. This misunderstanding was likely caused by Devin not understanding Japanese A) biases. B) cognitive appraisals. C) emotions. D) display rules. QuestionID: 11-4-103 Skill: Applied Objective: 11.4c Understand cultural similarities and differences in emotional expressions. Answer: D) display rules. 104. Research has found that when interpreting emotional expressions on a single individual in a crowd of people, Western participants tend to look at __________, while Asian participants tend to look at ________. A) the entire picture; the central figure B) the central figure; the entire picture C) the eyes; the mouth D) the mouth; the eyes QuestionID: 11-4-104 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.4c Understand cultural similarities and differences in emotional expressions. Answer: B) the central figure; the entire picture 105. Which of the following best describes mindful eating? A) Analyzing and understanding what to eat using your mind. B) Eating together with other people and considering those people who experience hunger. C) Focusing your attention on the moment-by-moment experience of eating. D) An ethical commitment to have a balanced meal with right portions. QuestionID: 11-4-105 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: C) Focusing your attention on the moment-by-moment experience of eating. 106. Which of the following best describes the function of mindful eating? A) People analyze and understand the impact of what they eat, such as mood changes. B) People start considering motivational and physiological aspects hunger. C) People become more aware of vegetarian options, rather than choosing a sweet and/or fatty diet. D) People become less impulsive in eating, eat less food, and choose healthier snacks. QuestionID: 11-4-106 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: D) People become less impulsive in eating, eat less food, and choose healthier snacks. 107. Which of the following is FALS,E from the perspective of evolutionary influences on human sexual behaviour? A) In long-term relationships, women tend to choose men with higher SES. B) Due to risks associated with short-term relationships, women tend to choose long-term sexual relationship. C) Even in short-term relationships, women tend to choose men with strong financial prospects and status. D) Men tend to prefer physical beauty and youth more than women do. QuestionID: 11-4-107 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.2a Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation. Answer: C) Even in short-term relationships, women tend to choose men with strong financial prospects and status. 108. Among animals such as caribou and lions, members of one sex (usually male) compete against each other to sexually access members of the other sex. This phenomenon is called A) reproductive success. B) male competition. C) intersexual selection. D) intrasexual selection. QuestionID: 11-4-108 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.2a Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation. Answer: D) intrasexual selection. 109. Among birds of paradise, females select males based on traits such as attractive colours and other .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

desirable physical qualities. This phenomenon is called A) reproductive success. B) male fitness. C) intersexual selection. D) intrasexual selection. QuestionID: 11-4-108 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 11.2a Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation. Answer: C) intersexual selection. 110. The introduction of reliable birth control changed our society, but there are advantages and disadvantages for both women and men. From an evolutionary perspective on human sexual behaviour, which of the following is NOT a consequence of this change. A) Both women and men can enjoy sex without worrying as much about the consequences. B) It is much easier for women to find partners for long-term relationships, such as marriage. C) For men, marriage is no longer the easiest way to access sex. D) Because men tend to prefer short-term (sex-only) relationships more than women, gain an advantage. QuestionID: 11-4-110 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2a Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation. Answer: B) It is much easier for women to find partners for long-term relationships, such as marriage. 111. Which of the following statements about the biology of sexual orientation is TRUE? A) Greater prenatal exposure to testosterone causes male-typical brain development and male partner preference. B) Lower prenatal exposure to testosterone causes male-typical brain development and female partner preference. C) Lower levels of prenatal testosterone exposure cause female-typical brain development and female partner preference. D) Lower levels of prenatal testosterone exposure cause female-typical brain development and male partner preference. QuestionID: 11-4-111 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2a Know the key terminology associated with sexual motivation. Answer: D) Lower levels of prenatal testosterone exposure cause female-typical brain development and male partner preference. 112. Which of the following statements about internet pornography is FALSE? A) Viewers of pornography don't necessarily have difficulty time in becoming aroused when they are with their real partners. B) Having a similar attitude toward pornography with one's partner influences the quality of a romantic relationship. C) Internet pornography does not influence sexual attitudes and behaviours of adolescents. D) Internet pornography can become addictive. QuestionID: 11-4-112 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2c Apply your understanding of sex and technology to examine your attitudes toward different forms of digital and online sexual activity. Answer: C) Internet pornography does not influence sexual attitudes and behaviours of adolescents. 113. According to the discussion of sex education programs in your textbook, which of the following statements .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

about sex education is FALSE? A) U.S. programs that focus on abstinence (that is, not having sex) are effective in preventing teens becoming sexually active. B) Many students leave sex education programs in the U.S. with medically inaccurate information and stigmas about sex. C) A U.K. study suggested that sex education that promotes respectful interactions should be integrated into the school curriculum. D) A U.K. study suggested that sex education programs should also include some sex-positive information. QuestionID: 11-4-113 Skill: Factual Objective: 11.2c Apply your understanding of sex and technology to examine your attitudes toward different forms of digital and online sexual activity. Answer: A) U.S. programs that focus on abstinence (that is, not having sex) are effective in preventing teens becoming sexually active. Supplementary Questions 1. Dr. Newman lesioned the ventromedial hypothalamus in a group of rats. What behaviour should Dr. Newman expect to see? A) a reduction in the amount of food consumed B) a reduction in the desire to eat C) an increase in eating behaviour to the point of satiation D) an increase in eating behaviour beyond the point of satiation QuestionID: 11-5-01 Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: D) an increase in eating behaviour beyond the point of satiation 2. Maslow is associated with which of the following notions? A) when the body temperature falls, we are motivated to eat B) the motive to explore and manipulate is important for individual survival C) our motives are organized into a hierarchy D) some people are driven by the achievement motive QuestionID: 11-5-02 Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: C) our motives are organized into a hierarchy 3. For Maslow, the most highly evolved motive is A) esteem. B) physiological need. C) intellectual need. D) self-actualization. QuestionID: 11-5-03 Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: D) self-actualization. 4. The correct order of Maslow's hierarchy of motives from most primitive to the most complex and human is A) safety, physiological, belongingness, esteem, self-actualization. B) physiological, esteem, self-actualization, safety, belongingness. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) physiological, esteem, safety, belongingness, self-actualization. D) physiological, safety, belongingness, esteem, self-actualization. QuestionID: 11-5-04 Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: D) physiological, safety, belongingness, esteem, self-actualization. 5. "Becoming what one ought to be" is one way to define A) peak experience. B) self-actualization. C) achievement potential. D) self concept. QuestionID: 11-5-05 Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: B) self-actualization. 6. An example of intrinsic motivation is reading a textbook because A) you want to earn an A on a test. B) you want to avoid a D or F. C) you enjoy reading it. D) you are being paid to read it. QuestionID: 11-5-06 Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: C) you enjoy reading it. 7. Which scenario best supports the theory that emotional expressions are by-products of innate motor programs? A) Babies show the same emotional expressions that are displayed within their culture. B) Babies who are blind from birth smile in response to playing and tickling. C) Babies respond by mimicking emotional expressions in their caregivers. D) Babies respond well to operant conditioning and can be readily taught to laugh or frown. QuestionID: 11-5-07 Objective: 11.4b Understand how the nervous system responds to emotions. Answer: B) Babies who are blind from birth smile in response to playing and tickling. True-False Questions 1. Glucose is a hormone secreted by the pancreas that rises in response to consumption of a meal. a True b False QuestionID: 11-6-01 Objective: 11.1a Know the key terminology of motivation and hunger. Answer: b. False 2. Assuming that the packaged portion of a food or drink is the appropriate amount for one 'serving' is known as unit bias. a True .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

b False QuestionID: 11-6-02 Objective: 11.1b Understand the biological, cognitive, and social processes that shape eating patterns. Answer: a. True 3. Sexual orientation is defined primarily by the behaviour of an individual (e.g., whether they engage in same-sex behaviour). a True b False QuestionID: 11-6-03 Objective: 11.2d Analyze different explanations for what determines sexual orientation. Answer: b. False 4. Maslow hypothesized movement through a hierarchy of needs, beginning with survival needs for sleep, food, and water and reaching needs for self-actualization. a True b False QuestionID: 11-6-04 Objective: 11.3a Know the key terminology of social and achievement motivation. Answer: a. True 5. Loneliness is a risk factor for illnesses such as heart disease and cancer. a True b False QuestionID: 11-6-05 Objective: 11.3b Understand how people experience a need to belong. Answer: a. True 6. Children are most likely to succeed on a test when they have mastery motivation and an approach goal for studying. a True b False QuestionID: 11-6-06 Objective: 11.3d Apply theories of motivation to understand different motivations for success in school or at work. Answer: a. True 7. Children who are born both deaf and blind show the same facial expressions and emotions as people who see and hear. a True b False QuestionID: 11-6-07 Objective: 11.4e Analyze what purpose[s] facial expressions serve. Answer: a. True

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

8. The facial feedback hypothesis and the James-Lange theory are conceptually very similar. a True b False QuestionID: 11-6-08 Objective: 11.4e Analyze what purpose[s] facial expressions serve. Answer: a. True 9. The polygraph detects the physiological patterns of responses that are specific to lying. a True b False QuestionID: 11-6-09 Objective: 11.4b Understand how the nervous system responds to emotions. Answer: b. False 10. Display rules involve universal, biologically based emotional displays evoked by particular emotional situations. a True b False QuestionID: 11-6-10 Objective: 11.4c Understand cultural similarities and differences in emotional expressions. Answer: b. False

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Chapter 12 : Personality Chapter Quiz Questions 1. Some psychologists use a(n) _____ approach to studying personality, which is a person-centred method in which researchers focus on individual people and their unique personalities. A) nomothetic B) factor-analysis C) idiographic D) idiomorphic QuestionID: 12-1-01 Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: C) idiographic 2. Which of the following statements is true about personality traits over the life span? A) The first signs of personality do not appear until a child is approximately 2 years of age. B) Early temperament is not a useful predictor of adult personality. C) Young adults tend to experience more negative emotions compared to adolescents. D) By middle age, adult personality traits show very little change over time. QuestionID: 12-1-02 Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: D) By middle age, adult personality traits show very little change over time. 3. Unlike the strict behaviourists' view, Bandura's theory of reciprocal determinism emphasizes the A) importance of learning. B) interaction between person and environment. C) importance of traits. D) effect of reinforcement based on previous experience. QuestionID: 12-1-03 Objective: 12.1b Understand the behaviourist and social-cognitive views of personality. Answer: B) interaction between person and environment. 4. Kwan comes from an Asian country where the importance of family connections is emphasized and group success is generally considered more important than individual accomplishment. Kwan's culture appears to emphasize which view? A) individualism B) collectivism C) martyrism D) conformism QuestionID: 12-1-04 Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: B) collectivism 5. What do twin studies indicate about the role of genes in personality? A) Heredity plays an important role in personality. B) Dizygotic twins are more likely than monozygotic twins to share personality traits. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) Personality is almost entirely determined by parenting and other environmental factors. D) Personality appears to be related to two different copies of a serotonin transporter gene. QuestionID: 12-1-05 Objective: 12.2c Apply your knowledge to arrive at accurate conclusions about the influences of biological and cultural factors on personality. Answer: A) Heredity plays an important role in personality. 6. Research into animal personalities suggests that A) unlike human personality traits, animal personality traits have no genetic basis. B) humans are the only animals who have true emotions. C) the Big Five personality traits can be observed only in primates. D) the Big Five personality traits occur in many different types of animals. QuestionID: 12-1-06 Objective: 12.2c Apply your knowledge to arrive at accurate conclusions about the influences of biological and cultural factors on personality. Answer: D) the Big Five personality traits occur in many different types of animals. 7. Ancient scholars believed in the theory of humourism, which postulated that personality was controlled by the A) date and time of a person's birth. B) shape and contours of a person's skull. C) balance of four fluids in the body. D) balance of the right and left hemispheres of the brain. QuestionID: 12-1-07 Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: C) balance of four fluids in the body. 8. In cartoons, characters are sometimes shown with a devil on one shoulder telling them to do something selfish or immoral (such as stealing or lying) and an angel on the other shoulder, telling not to listen to the devil and to act morally instead. In Freudian terms, the angel represents which part of the character's psyche? A) ego B) superego C) id D) conscious QuestionID: 12-1-08 Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: B) superego 9. Daniel's psychiatrist shows him a series of ambiguous pictures and asks Daniel to tell a story about what he sees. When Daniel asks about the test, his psychiatrist explains that it is called the A) Rorschach inkblot test. B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI). C) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). D) figure-drawing test. QuestionID: 12-1-09 Objective: 12.3e Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality. Answer: C) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

10. As a response to both behaviourism and psychodynamic theory, Abraham Maslow (among others) initiated a movement called _____, which emphasized the unique and positive qualities of human experience and potential. A) phrenology B) humanistic psychology C) analytical psychology D) self-actualization QuestionID: 12-1-10 Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: B) humanistic psychology Essay Questions 1. Explain the Five Factor Model of personality. Describe each of the "Big Five" traits by explaining the characteristics of individuals with high and low scores on each of the traits. QuestionID: 12-2-01 Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: A good answer should include the following. The Five Factor model of personality is a trait-based theory that suggests that people vary along five major variables: openness, conscientiousness, extroversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. Each person will fall somewhere along the continuum for each of these variables; taken together, a good, predictive picture of their personality will emerge. - Openness * High scorer: creative, artistic, curious, imaginative, nonconforming * Low scorer: conventional, down-to-earth - Conscientiousness * High scorer: ambitious, organizes, reliable * Low scorer: unreliable, lazy, casual, spontaneous - Extraversion * High scorer: social, enjoy high levels of stimulation * Low scorer: reserved, enjoy low levels of stimulation - Agreeableness * High scorer: good-natured, trusting, supportive * Low scorer: rude, uncooperative, irritable, hostile, competitive - Neuroticism * High scorer: worried, insecure, anxiety-prone * Low scorer: tranquil, secure, emotionally stable 2. Describe two different techniques researchers use to investigate the relationship between genes and personality and give one example for each. QuestionID: 12-2-02 Objective: 12.2e Analyze the genetic basis of personality. Answer: To study genes and personality, one method is to compare responses on self-report questionnaires of people who have inherited different copies of a specific gene. For example, people who inherit short copies of the serotonin transporter gene from one or both parents seem predisposed to anxiety, shyness, and experiencing negative emotional reactions in interpersonal situations. Another method for studying genes and personality is to conduct experiments and compare the responses of people with different copies of a gene. For example, through DNA analysis and experimental testing, researchers discovered that inheriting short copies of a particular gene increases anxiety levels in general, and seems to steer people toward giving excessive attention to negative and threatening information. It is important to keep in mind that, in most cases, there is no single gene causing a single outcome in a person. Most .

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phenomena are understood to be caused by multiple genes interacting with the environment. 3. Describe what is meant by a "projective test" and give two examples of such tests. Explain what the research suggests about the reliability and validity of these tests. QuestionID: 12-2-03 Objective: 12.3e Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality. Answer: A good answer should include the following. Projective tests are personality tests in which ambiguous images are presented to an individual to elicit responses that reflect unconscious desires or conflicts. They are called "projective" because the image can be interpreted in different ways, and the particular interpretation a person chooses is thought to be a projection of her unconscious. Two examples of projective tests are the Rorschach inkblot test and the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). The inkblot test involves showing participants inkblots and asking them to explain what they see in the image. The TAT involves showing an ambiguous picture of a scene and asking the participant to tell a story about it. Research has shown that projective tests have low reliability and low validity, suggesting that they are not good measures of assessing the 'unconscious'. Fill-in-the-blank Questions 1. Researchers who look at large samples of people to better understand personality are using a __________ approach. QuestionID: 12-3-01 Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: a. nomothetic 2. One of the Big Five personality factors, emotional stability, is also referred to by the opposite quality, __________ . QuestionID: 12-3-02 Skill: Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: a. neuroticism 3. The idea that personality is the product of interactions between behaviour, the environment, and personal factors is known as __________ , and is a key component to the social-cognitive approach to personality. QuestionID: 12-3-03 Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: a. reciprocal determinism 4. People from highly developed Western countries such as Canada, the United States and Australia are described by the acronym __________ . QuestionID: 12-3-04 Skill: Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: a. WEIRD 5. Individuals in cultures that emphasize __________ tend to define themselves in terms of group membership and goals. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 12-3-05 Objective: 12.2c Apply your knowledge to arrive at accurate conclusions about the influences of biological and cultural factors on personality. Answer: a. collectivism 6. Freud believed the id was fuelled by an energy called __________ . QuestionID: 12-3-06 Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: a. libido 7. According to Freud's theories on psychosexual development, becoming preoccupied with a particular stage is known as __________ . QuestionID: 12-3-07 Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: a. fixation 8. The Rorschach inkblot test and the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) are both examples of __________ , a controversial category of personality tests. QuestionID: 12-3-08 Objective: 12.3e Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality. Answer: a. projective tests 9. The existence of __________ such as the Hero, explains why unrelated cultures have similar stories with recognizable characters. QuestionID: 12-3-09 Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: a. archetypes 10. Carl Rogers was a proponent for __________ , the idea that people are driven to grow and fulfill their own potential. QuestionID: 12-3-10 Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: a. self-actualization Multiple-Choice Questions 1. _______________is a characteristic pattern of thinking, interacting, and reacting that is unique to each individual, and remains relatively consistent over time and situations. A) Personality B) Idiography C) Conscientiousness D) A trait QuestionID: 12-4-01 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Factual Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: A) Personality 2. A psychologist who studies the unique personality characteristics of individuals is using a(n) __________________ approach to studying personality. A) trait B) factor analysis C) idiographic D) nomothetic QuestionID: 12-4-02 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: C) idiographic 3. Which of the following best illustrates the idiographic approach to personality research? A) identifying personality characteristics that are shared by large groups of people B) designing tests that characterize abnormal personality types C) performing a detailed study of the world's most successful business person D) using factor analysis to identify personality traits QuestionID: 12-4-03 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: C) performing a detailed study of the world's most successful business person 4. Dr. Mano is a personality researcher who is NOT interested in the characteristics that make individuals unique. Instead, her research involves studying large groups of people to make generalizations about the structure of personality. Dr. Mano's research is an example of A) the nomothetic approach. B) the humanistic approach. C) factor analysis. D) the idiographic approach. QuestionID: 12-4-04 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: A) the nomothetic approach. 5. "Creative," "fair-minded," and "impulsive" are examples of A) states. B) the Big Five personality dimensions. C) personality traits. D) idiographs. QuestionID: 12-4-05 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: C) personality traits.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

6. Traits are used to describe people because A) they help to easily identify individuals who will develop psychological disorders. B) they help to easily identify individuals who will develop physiological disorders. C) they are useful short-cuts to understanding a lot of information about an individual. D) they can tell a physician everything they need to know about a patient. QuestionID: 12-4-06 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: C) they are useful short-cuts to understanding a lot of information about an individual. 7. A technique called _____________ is used to group items that people respond to similarly. A) idiography B) factor analysis C) five factor D) HEXACO QuestionID: 12-4-07 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: B) factor analysis 8. Factor analysis is used to A) score the Five Factor personality test. B) process idiographic personality information. C) evaluate 'evil' personality traits. D) group similar items into clusters. QuestionID: 12-4-08 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: D) group similar items into clusters. 9. Raymond Cattell narrowed the list of key personality factors down to ____ traits. A) 5 B) 6 C) 3 D) 16 QuestionID: 12-4-09 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: D) 16 10. What researcher(s) is/are associated with the Five Factor Model, also known as the Big Five? A) McCrae and Costa B) Cattell C) Allport D) Erikson and Rogers QuestionID: 12-4-10 Skill: Factual .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: A) McCrae and Costa 11. The _______________ dimension of the Five Factor Model describes the extent to which people are outgoing or shy. A) agreeableness B) extraversion C) neuroticism D) openness QuestionID: 12-4-11 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.1c Apply self-report methods to understand your own personality. Answer: B) extraversion 12. Walter prefers to staying home on a Friday night and reading a good book to hanging out with other people. If Walter took the NEO Personality Inventory (NEO-PI-R), he would likely have a low score on the ____________ dimension. A) extraversion B) conscientiousness C) neuroticism D) openness QuestionID: 12-4-12 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.1c Apply self-report methods to understand your own personality. Answer: A) extraversion 13. Amir is constantly worrying about things, even though he really doesn't have anything to worry about. He is also very insecure and can become very upset when he thinks his friends are making a joke about him. If Amir took the NEO Personality Inventory (NEO-PI-R), he would likely have a ____________ score on the ____________ dimension. A) high; neuroticism B) high; conscientiousness C) low; neuroticism D) low; conscientiousness QuestionID: 12-4-13 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.1c Apply self-report methods to understand your own personality. Answer: A) high; neuroticism 14. Most of Candice's relationships with other people are hostile. She frequently gets in fights with strangers and even close friends. According to the Five Factor Model of personality, Candice is likely low on the ____________ dimension. A) openness B) conscientiousness C) neuroticism D) agreeableness QuestionID: 12-4-14 Skill: Applied .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 12.1c Apply self-report methods to understand your own personality. Answer: D) agreeableness 15. The _______________ factor of the Five Factor Model of personality describes the extent to which people are imaginative and curious, or conventional and "down-to-earth." A) agreeableness B) extraversion C) conscientiousness D) openness QuestionID: 12-4-15 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.1c Apply self-report methods to understand your own personality. Answer: D) openness 16. Marques loves to go to parties. While there, he can have a conversation with just about anyone, whether he knows them or not. Which of the following five factors would Marques probably rate highly on based on this information? A) neuroticism B) conscientiousness C) extraversion D) openness QuestionID: 12-4-16 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.1c Apply self-report methods to understand your own personality. Answer: C) extraversion 17. Which of these is an acronym that could help you remember the Big Five traits? A) NEO-PI-R B) TRIAD C) HEXACO D) OCEAN QuestionID: 12-4-17 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.1c Apply self-report methods to understand your own personality. Answer: D) OCEAN 18. Which of the following is NOT one of the dimensions of the Big Five? A) conscientiousness B) extraversion C) openness D) creativeness QuestionID: 12-4-18 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.1c Apply self-report methods to understand your own personality. Answer: D) creativeness 19. The HEXACO model of personality differs from the Five Factor Model, in that .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

it adds the trait of honesty-humility to the original five factors. it focuses on three "evil" traits: narcissism, psychopathy, and Machiavellianism. it adds the trait of authoritarianism. it focuses on "right-wing" versus "left-wing" political beliefs.

QuestionID: 12-4-19 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.1d Analyze the personality roots of violence and prejudice. Answer: A) it adds the trait of honesty-humility to the original five factors. 20. Donald is known as being selfish, believes that he is better than others, and is willing to do whatever it takes to get his own way. Donald would likely score ______ on the _________ factor of the HEXACO model of personality. A) high; narcissism B) low; honesty-humility C) high; Machiavellianism D) low; right-wing authoritarian QuestionID: 12-4-20 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.1d Analyze the personality roots of violence and prejudice. Answer: B) low; honesty-humility 21. The ___________ identifies traits believed to be the personality roots of evil. A) NEO-PI-R B) Psychopathic Tendencies Test C) Dark Triad D) OCEAN model QuestionID: 12-4-21 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.1d Analyze the personality roots of violence and prejudice. Answer: C) Dark Triad 22. Kelly isn't interested in the well-being of others, but is more focused on how she might use others to get ahead; she tends to lie and is primarily focused on her own interests. This set of personality traits, exhibited by Kelly, best reflects the ________ component of the Dark Triad. A) Machiavellianism B) psychopathy C) honesty-humility D) neuroticism QuestionID: 12-4-22 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.1d Analyze the personality roots of violence and prejudice. Answer: A) Machiavellianism 23. Individuals who are found to have high levels of Machiavellianism, psychopathy, and narcissism are A) more likely to become politicians. B) less likely to be imprisoned for crimes they commit. C) less likely to become successful. D) more likely to commit harm to others. .

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QuestionID: 12-4-23 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.1d Analyze the personality roots of violence and prejudice. Answer: D) more likely to commit harm to others. 24. Obeying orders, supporting aggression, and striving to maintain social order are all components of the ________ set of personality characteristics. A) Dark Triad B) Right-Wing Authoritarianism C) HEXACO D) Five Factor Model QuestionID: 12-4-24 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.1d Analyze the personality roots of violence and prejudice. Answer: B) Right-Wing Authoritarianism 25. In research conducted by Altemeyer, when individuals low in Right-Wing Authoritarianism were asked to play a game that simulated 40 years of time on Earth, by the end of the game A) all of the humans had been wiped out, but the Earth's ozone and natural environments were thriving. B) the world had been destroyed by nuclear war. C) food, health services, and jobs were provided for almost all humans on Earth. D) rampant starvation and pollution had occurred and only the elite had access to food, health services and employment. QuestionID: 12-4-25 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.1d Analyze the personality roots of violence and prejudice. Answer: C) food, health services, and jobs were provided for almost all humans on Earth. 26. While psychologists do not typically refer to infants as having "personalities," infants do display personalitylike attributes called A) states. B) moods. C) emotions. D) temperaments. QuestionID: 12-4-26 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: D) temperaments. 27. Sophia is a three month old infant. Compared to other infants her age, she is fussy and cries easily. Sophia's behaviours would most accurately be described as the result of her A) state. B) neuroticism. C) personality. D) temperament. QuestionID: 12-4-27 Skill: Applied .

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Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: D) temperament. 28. Which of the following statements describes the relationship between temperament and personality? A) Temperament and personality are interchangeable terms for the same concept. B) Personality, which we are born with, is the basis upon which one's temperament is built. C) Temperament, which we are born with, is the basis upon which one's personality is built. D) Temperament refers to negative personal characteristics, while personality refers to positive personal characteristics. QuestionID: 12-4-28 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: C) Temperament, which we are born with, is the basis upon which one's personality is built. 29. Which of the following best describes the personality of individuals as they age? A) Personality does not change; it is completely stable throughout the lifespan. B) Personalities are very stable in childhood and adolescence, but become less stable in later adulthood. C) The personalities of children and adolescents tend to change somewhat, but are very stable by middle age. D) Personality remains fluid and changes throughout the lifespan. QuestionID: 12-4-29 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: C) The personalities of children and adolescents tend to change somewhat, but are very stable by middle age. 30. One criticism of the trait theories of personality is that they A) place too much emphasis on states and situational factors. B) do not account for the influence of situational factors on behaviour. C) vary widely across cultures. D) do not allow for comparisons between individuals or groups of people. QuestionID: 12-4-30 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.1e Analyze the relative roles of personality traits and psychological and physical states in determining behaviour. Answer: B) do not account for the influence of situational factors on behaviour. 31. Research indicates that locations, associations, activities, and subjective states are four A) categories of personality traits. B) factors that influence the development of our personality traits. C) situations that influence our behaviour. D) changes in personality that occur over our lifespan. QuestionID: 12-4-31 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.1e Analyze the relative roles of personality traits and psychological and physical states in determining behaviour. Answer: C) situations that influence our behaviour. 32. Which perspective on personality development focused on one's learning from past experiences and the .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

influence on behaviour? A) behaviourist B) humanistic C) psychodynamic D) social-cognitive QuestionID: 12-4-32 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.1b Understand the behaviourist and social-cognitive views of personality. Answer: A) behaviourist 33. Allana is generally an outgoing person. A ____________ psychologist would be most likely to suggest that Allana's personality is the result of positive reinforcement she's received for being outgoing in the past. A) behaviourist B) humanistic C) psychodynamic D) social-cognitive QuestionID: 12-4-33 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.1b Understand the behaviourist and social-cognitive views of personality. Answer: A) behaviourist 34. The behaviourist approach to personality tends to focus on A) unconscious desires. B) learning. C) genetics. D) person-environment interactions. QuestionID: 12-4-34 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.1b Understand the behaviourist and social-cognitive views of personality. Answer: B) learning. 35. The role of reciprocal determinism in personality development was highlighted by the A) behaviourists. B) humanists. C) social-cognitive theorists. D) trait theorists. QuestionID: 12-4-35 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.1b Understand the behaviourist and social-cognitive views of personality. Answer: C) social-cognitive theorists. 36. ___________ describes the relationship between behaviour, personal factors, and situational factors. A) The Dark Triad B) The reward-punishment approach C) Reciprocal determinism D) The humanistic perspective QuestionID: 12-4-36 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Factual Objective: 12.1b Understand the behaviourist and social-cognitive views of personality. Answer: C) Reciprocal determinism 37. In the context of personality research, the acronym WEIRD stands for: A) Western, European, Indian, Russian, and Danish B) Western, Educated, Industrialized, Rich, and Democratic C) Western, Engaged, Introverted, Repressed, and Democratic D) Wonderer, Eccentric, Introverted, Restrained, and Dull QuestionID: 12-4-37 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: B) Western, Educated, Industrialized, Rich, and Democratic 38. A potential issue with the majority of the research on personality is that the results may only generalize to A) WEIRD people. B) individuals from Asian countries. C) Americans. D) males. QuestionID: 12-4-38 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: A) WEIRD people. 39. Research suggests that the Big Five personality traits are A) only found in WEIRD populations. B) only found in America. C) relatively consistent across cultures, with some concerns. D) different in every culture. QuestionID: 12-4-39 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: C) relatively consistent across cultures, with some concerns. 40. Which of the following is TRUE about cross-cultural differences in personality? A) Genetics are far more influential on personality than culture. B) Beyond North America, most cultures do not have the same Big Five personality factors. C) The only consistent personality trait found across cultures is extraversion-introversion. D) The prevalence of the Big Five factors varies across cultures. QuestionID: 12-4-40 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: D) The prevalence of the Big Five factors varies across cultures. 41. Which of the following is a potential issue associated with using standard tests for the Big Five in crosscultural personality research? A) The Big Five personality traits only exist in Western cultures. .

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B) Translating the NEO-PI-R would negatively impact its reliability and validity. C) Other personality factors, not found in Western cultures, may be missed. D) Most of the questions in the NEO-PI-R do not apply to individuals from other cultures. QuestionID: 12-4-41 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.2c Apply your knowledge to arrive at accurate conclusions about the influences of biological and cultural factors on personality. Answer: C) Other personality factors, not found in Western cultures, may be missed. 42. A concern with personal goals and a self-focused orientation are most characteristic of those from ________ cultures. A) collectivistic B) individualistic C) conscientious D) humanistic QuestionID: 12-4-42 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.2c Apply your knowledge to arrive at accurate conclusions about the influences of biological and cultural factors on personality. Answer: B) individualistic 43. Joe works hard to avoid embarrassing himself or his family. Given what researchers have found about people from different cultures, he is most likely from A) Canada. B) China. C) America. D) Great Britain. QuestionID: 12-4-43 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.2c Apply your knowledge to arrive at accurate conclusions about the influences of biological and cultural factors on personality. Answer: B) China. 44. Which of these research methods would a psychologist be likely to employ to study the influence of genetics on personality? A) examining correlations in personality between pairs of identical and fraternal twins B) interviewing people who were raised in similar environments C) measuring the physiological response of participants in different situations D) documenting the patterns of development and difficulties in infants QuestionID: 12-4-44 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.2e Analyze the genetic basis of personality. Answer: A) examining correlations in personality between pairs of identical and fraternal twins 45. The genetic correlation between identical twins raised in different households is typically around ______ for all of the Big Five personality factors. A) .10 B) .50 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) .80 D) .99 QuestionID: 12-4-45 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: B) .50 46. Which research approach is probably the best for exploring the genetic contribution to personality? A) comparing identical twins who were reared apart B) comparing fraternal twins who were reared apart C) comparing fraternal twins who were reared together D) comparing identical twins who were reared together QuestionID: 12-4-46 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.2e Analyze the genetic basis of personality. Answer: A) comparing identical twins who were reared apart 47. Identical twins reared apart tend to have A) no more in common than non-twin siblings reared together. B) very different personalities compared to identical twins reared together. C) personalities that are more similar than fraternal twins reared together. D) no more in common than fraternal twins reared apart. QuestionID: 12-4-47 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: C) personalities that are more similar than fraternal twins reared together. 48. According to your textbook, one possible way genes might influence personality is by affecting A) the development of specific brain structures. B) the release of pheromones. C) proteins and chemicals in the brain. D) how many offspring you are likely to have. QuestionID: 12-4-48 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: C) proteins and chemicals in the brain. 49. According to research discussed in your textbook, inheriting short copies of the ______________ gene predisposes people to anxiety, shyness, and negative emotional reactions in interpersonal situations. A) acetylcholine reuptake B) NMDA inhibitor C) dopamine transporter D) serotonin transporter QuestionID: 12-4-49 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: D) serotonin transporter 50. Which of the following is true about personality and nonhuman animals? A) Personality has only been observed in one species of bird, the Parus major. B) Several of the Big Five personality traits have been found in different species. C) Chimpanzees are the only other animal known to display personalities. D) Animals are known to have "temperaments" but not personalities. QuestionID: 12-4-50 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.2b Understand how evolutionary theories explain personality. Answer: B) Several of the Big Five personality traits have been found in different species. 51. On average, compared to men, women tend to report ___________ levels of extraversion, conscientiousness, agreeableness, and neuroticism. A) higher B) lower C) similar D) more variable QuestionID: 12-4-51 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.2d Analyze claims that males and females have fundamentally different personalities. Answer: A) higher 52. Research suggests that personality differences between men and women may be due to ___________ factors. A) genetic B) hormonal C) cultural D) economic QuestionID: 12-4-52 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.2d Analyze claims that males and females have fundamentally different personalities. Answer: D) economic 53. Levi lives in a relatively wealthy country, where most people have access to health care and education, whereas Tomas lives in a poorer country with fewer resources. Compared to Levi's country, the personality differences between men and women in Tomas' country are likely to be A) more pronounced. B) less pronounced. C) about the same. D) more pronounced, but only for the poorest individuals. QuestionID: 12-4-53 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.2c Apply your knowledge to arrive at accurate conclusions about the influences of biological and cultural factors on personality. Answer: B) less pronounced. 54. Which of the following is true about claims that women and men have different personalities? A) Gender differences in personality do not exist. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) Men and women have fundamentally different personalities. C) Gender differences in personality exist, but are small. D) Gender differences exist, but only in poor countries. QuestionID: 12-4-54 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.2d Analyze claims that males and females have fundamentally different personalities. Answer: C) Gender differences in personality exist, but are small. 55. An Ancient Roman physician, assessing a depressed patient, would be most likely to claim that the personality characteristic was A) due to repressed psychological trauma experienced as a child. B) caused by an imbalance in the bodily fluids known as humours. C) caused by a large bump on the patient's skull. D) inherited from the patient's parents. QuestionID: 12-4-55 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: B) caused by an imbalance in the bodily fluids known as humours. 56. Out of the following options, which is the oldest theory of personality? A) phrenology B) behaviourism C) the arousal theory D) humourism QuestionID: 12-4-56 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: D) humourism 57. How would a phrenologist access an individual's personality? A) collecting and examining the bodily fluids B) showing an individual inkblots on a piece of paper C) examining the bumps on the skull D) scanning their brain with a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) machine QuestionID: 12-4-57 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: C) examining the bumps on the skull 58. According to Eysenck, who would have the highest threshold of the ascending reticular activating system (ARAS)? A) Grace, who likes to read B) Tucker, who likes to fish C) Lily, who likes to talk D) Ben, who likes to surf QuestionID: 12-4-58 Skill: Applied .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: D) Ben, who likes to surf 59. According to Eysenck, ________ is determined by people's threshold for arousal. A) extraversion B) neuroticism C) openness D) conscientiousness QuestionID: 12-4-59 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: A) extraversion 60. According to the arousal theory of extraversion, the reason why some people seek out exciting new social and emotional experiences is that they A) require relatively high levels of stimulation to activate certain brain regions. B) have low baseline adrenaline levels. C) require relatively low levels of stimulation to activate certain brain regions. D) have high baseline adrenaline levels. QuestionID: 12-4-60 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: A) require relatively high levels of stimulation to activate certain brain regions. 61. The ___________ is responsive to rewards and associated with positive emotional responses. A) behavioural inhibition system (BIS) B) behavioural activation system (BAS) C) ascending reticular activating system (ARAS) D) ascending reticular inhibition system (ARIS) QuestionID: 12-4-61 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: B) behavioural activation system (BAS) 62. After completing a questionnaire, Ange is aware that she tends to score high on neuroticism. Based on this information, it is likely the Ange would have ______ activation of the _________. A) greater; behavioural activation system (BAS) B) lower; behavioural inhibition system (BIS) C) lower; behavioural activation system (BAS) D) greater; behavioural inhibition system (BIS) QuestionID: 12-4-62 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: D) greater; behavioural inhibition system (BIS) 63. As part of a research study, Imani discovers that she has larger brain volume in the left, medial frontal gyrus in the prefrontal cortex. Which of the Big Five personality factors does this brain difference correlated with? .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

neuroticism extraversion conscientiousness agreeableness

QuestionID: 12-4-63 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: C) conscientiousness 64. Neil participated in an experiment in which researchers measured various parts of his brain. He was informed that his dorsomedial prefrontal cortex and hippocampus were both smaller than average. If Neil were to complete the NEO-PI-R, which factor is he likely to score high on? A) agreeableness B) extraversion C) neuroticism D) openness QuestionID: 12-4-64 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: C) neuroticism 65. __________ is the personality theorist whose work is now reflected in the psychodynamic schools of thought. A) Bandura B) Freud C) Maslow D) Skinner QuestionID: 12-4-65 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: B) Freud 66. Which theory of personality is most concerned with understanding people's unconscious motivations? A) Socio-Cognitive B) Humanistic C) Psychodynamic D) Arousal QuestionID: 12-4-66 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.3d Apply both psychodynamic and humanistic perspectives to explain personality. Answer: C) Psychodynamic 67. Which aspect of the mind held the greatest fascination for Freud? A) the psychosexual mind B) the conscious mind C) the suppressed mind D) the unconscious mind QuestionID: 12-4-67 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.3d Apply both psychodynamic and humanistic perspectives to explain personality. Answer: D) the unconscious mind 68. Which of the following is NOT a key assumption shared by psychodynamic theories? A) Mental representations of the self and others shape how the individual acts. B) When basic needs for love are met, human beings seek to achieve their fullest potential. C) Unconscious thoughts, memories, and emotions operate simultaneously and are major influences on our behaviour. D) Personality takes shape in early childhood, and children learn to regulate their emotions during this period of development. QuestionID: 12-4-68 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: B) When basic needs for love are met, human beings seek to achieve their fullest potential. 69. Which of the following is NOT one of the three components of the Freudian personality structure? A) ego B) id C) collective unconscious D) superego QuestionID: 12-4-69 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: C) collective unconscious 70. The id is motivated by the desire for A) free will. B) instant gratification. C) self-actualization. D) moral standards. QuestionID: 12-4-70 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: B) instant gratification. 71. Jamal has a very bad temper. He is notorious for lashing out at his friends when he doesn't get his way. According to Freud, what is likely dominating Jamal's actions? A) ego B) id C) superego D) repressed memories QuestionID: 12-4-71 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.3d Apply both psychodynamic and humanistic perspectives to explain personality. Answer: B) id

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

72. The textbook depicts Freud's personality structure as an iceberg, illustrating that the __________ is completely submerged in our unconscious. A) id B) ego C) superego D) Oedipus QuestionID: 12-4-72 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: A) id 73. According to Freud, the ego is the __________ of personality. A) moral component B) realistic component C) primitive instinct D) libido QuestionID: 12-4-73 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: B) realistic component 74. Rena passes a parked car that she likes. According to Freud's view of the psyche, which part of Rena's personality convinces her to save her money for a few months so she can buy the car? A) unconscious B) superego C) id D) ego QuestionID: 12-4-74 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.3d Apply both psychodynamic and humanistic perspectives to explain personality. Answer: D) ego 75. What structure serves as the moral component of one's personality? A) the actual self B) ego C) id D) superego QuestionID: 12-4-75 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: D) superego 76. As you are preparing for your biology exam, you notice two of your classmates in the library. After going to talk with them, you discover they are planning to cheat during tomorrow's exam. What part of your personality would cause you to feel ashamed or guilty if you also cheated on the exam? A) the actual self B) the ego C) the id .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) the superego QuestionID: 12-4-76 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.3d Apply both psychodynamic and humanistic perspectives to explain personality. Answer: D) the superego 77. What is Freud's term for the unconscious efforts by the ego to deny or distort reality for the purpose of protecting itself when conflict becomes too intense? A) fixations B) coping techniques C) self-actualizations D) defence mechanisms QuestionID: 12-4-77 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.3b Understand how people use defence mechanisms to cope with conflicting thoughts and feelings. Answer: D) defence mechanisms 78. According to Freud, defence mechanisms are unconscious attempts to reduce our feelings of A) denial. B) anxiety. C) logic. D) depression. QuestionID: 12-4-78 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.3b Understand how people use defence mechanisms to cope with conflicting thoughts and feelings. Answer: B) anxiety. 79. Mahmoud was just told that his father has cancer. Mahmoud's first response is that there must be a mistake and he demands that the doctor repeat his tests. Which defence mechanism is at work here? A) reaction formation B) denial C) repression D) displacement QuestionID: 12-4-79 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.3b Understand how people use defence mechanisms to cope with conflicting thoughts and feelings. Answer: B) denial 80. When anxiety-provoking memories are prevented from reaching conscious awareness, such as not remembering lying to a parent, it is called A) denial. B) isolation. C) repression. D) reaction formation. QuestionID: 12-4-80 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.3b Understand how people use defence mechanisms to cope with conflicting thoughts and feelings. .

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Answer: C) repression. 81. In class, Temi is scolded for talking while the professor was lecturing. When she gets back to her dorm room, she yells at her roommate about the mess in the room. According to Freud, Temi is exhibiting A) sublimation. B) displacement. C) repression. D) reaction formation. QuestionID: 12-4-81 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.3b Understand how people use defence mechanisms to cope with conflicting thoughts and feelings. Answer: B) displacement. 82. Daniel is often angry and feels the need to act out aggressively (punching or kicking). To cope with these urges, Daniel becomes a mixed-martial arts fighter. According to Freud, this would be an example of A) displacement. B) rationalization. C) sublimation. D) projection. QuestionID: 12-4-82 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.3b Understand how people use defence mechanisms to cope with conflicting thoughts and feelings. Answer: C) sublimation. 83. If the frustration, conflict, and anxiety associated with a particular psychosexual stage are not properly resolved, Freud believed children may A) jump forward to the genital stage. B) become fixated, or stuck, at that stage. C) regress back to the oral stage. D) fail to develop a superego. QuestionID: 12-4-83 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.3c Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality. Answer: B) become fixated, or stuck, at that stage. 84. You notice your classmate Hannah chewing on her pencil as she takes her psychology final. According to Freud, which psychosexual stage may not have been resolved? A) genital B) phallic C) oral D) anal QuestionID: 12-4-84 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.3c Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality. Answer: C) oral 85. According to Freud, a newborn baby would be in which stage of psychosexual development? .

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A) B) C) D)

anal stage latency stage oral stage phallic stage

QuestionID: 12-4-85 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.3c Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality. Answer: C) oral stage 86. According to Freud, habits such as fingernail biting or gum chewing may be the result of a fixation in the __________ stage. A) oral B) anal C) genital D) phallic QuestionID: 12-4-86 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.3c Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality. Answer: A) oral 87. Beginning at birth, which order is correct for Freud's psychosexual stages of development? A) oral, phallic, genital, latent, anal B) anal, oral, genital, latent, phallic C) genital, anal, oral, phallic, latent D) oral, anal, phallic, latent, genital QuestionID: 12-4-87 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.3c Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality. Answer: D) oral, anal, phallic, latent, genital 88. According to Freud, the main conflict of the anal stage comes from A) the Oedipus complex. B) toilet training. C) sexual repression. D) weaning off the breast or bottle. QuestionID: 12-4-88 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.3c Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality. Answer: B) toilet training. 89. The Oedipus complex describes Freud's theory that A) girls become sexually attracted to their father and resent their mother. B) boys become sexually attracted to their father and want to become them. C) boys become sexually attracted to their mother and resent their father. D) girls become sexually attracted to their mother and want to become them. QuestionID: 12-4-89 Skill: Conceptual .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 12.3c Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality. Answer: C) boys become sexually attracted to their mother and resent their father. 90. According to Freud, the libido is deemphasized during the __________ stage. A) oral B) latent C) phallic D) anal QuestionID: 12-4-90 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.3c Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality. Answer: B) latent 91. According to Freud, appropriate sexual and romantic relationships are only possible when an individual has reached the ________ stage of psychosexual development. A) anal B) genital C) oral D) phallic QuestionID: 12-4-91 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.3c Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality. Answer: B) genital 92. A person's responses to a projective test are thought to reflect A) their plans for the future. B) the thoughts of the conscious mind. C) maladaptive patterns of behaviour. D) unconscious thoughts and feelings. QuestionID: 12-4-92 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.3e Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality. Answer: D) unconscious thoughts and feelings. 93. When Eisa looks at some modern artwork at the museum, he often thinks he sees human figures or faces and likes to make up stories about them. When he tells the stories to his friend, his friend says that the stories reflect Eisa's unconscious thoughts. In psychological terms, what Eisa does is most similar to _____________. A) phrenology B) a projective test C) a personality inventory D) a defence mechanism QuestionID: 12-4-93 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.3e Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality. Answer: B) a projective test 94. Tony has devised a test in which people look at clouds and talk about what they see. What type of test would .

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psychologists call this? A) valid B) projective C) objective D) predictive QuestionID: 12-4-94 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.3e Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality. Answer: B) projective 95. Which of the following is an example of a projective test? A) MRI B) HEXACO C) NEO-PI-R D) Rorschach Inkblot Test QuestionID: 12-4-95 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.3e Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality. Answer: D) Rorschach Inkblot Test 96. Which psychological test asks the subject to tell a story based on a picture of one or more people in which it is unclear what is going on? A) Rorschach test B) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) C) NEO-PI-R D) Dark Triad Test QuestionID: 12-4-96 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.3e Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality. Answer: B) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) 97. What is one criticism of projective tests? A) They are inappropriate for use with children. B) They are too complex in their scoring. C) They have low validity and reliability. D) They only apply to Western cultures. QuestionID: 12-4-97 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.3e Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality. Answer: C) They have low validity and reliability. 98. Which of the following psychologists did not subscribe to the psychodynamic perspective of personality? A) Carl Rogers B) Alfred Adler C) Sigmund Freud D) Carl Jung QuestionID: 12-4-98 .

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Skill: Factual Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: A) Carl Rogers 99. Freud placed much more emphasis on __________ than either Adler or Horney. A) the unconscious B) sexuality C) anxiety D) childhood QuestionID: 12-4-99 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: B) sexuality 100. Adler introduced the idea of the _________, which stems from experiences of helplessness and powerlessness during childhood. A) inferiority complex B) Oedipus complex C) archetype D) self-actualization QuestionID: 12-4-100 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: A) inferiority complex 101. Jung believed that there were two levels to the unconscious mind, the _______ and the __________. A) personal; collective B) id; superego C) heroic; mother D) individual; social QuestionID: 12-4-101 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: A) personal; collective 102. Jung's theory suggests that the __________ is a collection of archetypes that represent concepts or figures common to all cultures. A) superego B) collective unconscious C) personal unconscious D) inferiority complex QuestionID: 12-4-102 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: B) collective unconscious 103. What theorist suggested that men suffer from "womb envy"? .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

Adler Horney Jung Rorschach

QuestionID: 12-4-103 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: B) Horney 104. One of the most well-known humanistic theorists was A) Karen Horney. B) Carl Rogers. C) Carl Jung. D) Alfred Adler. QuestionID: 12-4-104 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: B) Carl Rogers. 105. According to the ________________ perspective, people are basically good, and given the right environment their personality will develop fully and normally. A) person-centred B) psychodynamic C) analytical D) positive QuestionID: 12-4-105 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: A) person-centred 106. Ahmed believes that people are generally good at heart and that they usually do the right thing if you give them a chance. Which psychological perspective is most likely to appeal to him? A) psychodynamic B) behavioural C) humanistic D) social-cognitive QuestionID: 12-4-106 Skill: Applied Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: C) humanistic 107. Rogers proposed that all humans have a desire for _________, which is the drive to grow and fulfill one's potential. A) humourism B) creativity and discovery C) arousal D) self-actualization

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 12-4-107 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: D) self-actualization 108. Personality research on internet trolls indicates that one of their dominant personality characteristics is A) being aggressive. B) being extroverted. C) being sadistic. D) being less agreeable. QuestionID: 12-4-108 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.1c Apply self-report methods to understand your own personality. Answer: C) being sadistic. 109. According to your textbook, a few personality characteristics positively predict employee and organizational success. Which of the following personality characteristics are three predictors of organizational success? A) conscientiousness, openness to new experiences, emotional stability B) conscientiousness, extraversion, openness to new experiences C) conscientiousness, introversion, openness to new experiences D) conscientiousness, agreeableness, emotional stability QuestionID: 12-4-109 Skill: Factual Objective: 12.1c Apply self-report methods to understand your own personality. Answer: D) conscientiousness, agreeableness, emotional stability Supplementary Questions 1. Collective personality characteristics are to ______________ as individual personality characteristics are to _______________. A) an idiographic approach; a nomothetic approach B) a nomothetic approach; an idiographic approach C) Freudian theories; humanistic theories D) humanistic theories; Freudian theories QuestionID: 12-5-01 Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: B) a nomothetic approach; an idiographic approach 2. Which option best exemplifies the P.T. Barnum effect? A) inkblots B) horoscopes C) graphology D) physiognomy QuestionID: 12-5-02 Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: B) horoscopes

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3. Which structure of personality houses one's instincts, according to Freud? A) ego-ideal B) ego C) id D) superego QuestionID: 12-5-03 Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: C) id 4. Which statement about the id is most accurate? A) It is in close contact with bodily needs. B) It follows the reality principle. C) It houses the conscience. D) It drives us to live up to our ideals. QuestionID: 12-5-04 Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: A) It is in close contact with bodily needs. 5. Six-year-old Suzie sees her younger brother approaching with the new toy he received for his birthday. Suzie suddenly decides she wants the toy, so she pushes her brother to the ground, grabs his toy, and rushes into the next room to play with it. During this situation, the part of Suzie's personality which is most likely in control is her _______. A) conscious B) superego C) ego D) id QuestionID: 12-5-05 Objective: 12.3d Apply both psychodynamic and humanistic perspectives to explain personality. Answer: D) id 6. Pleasure principle is to _______ as reality principle is to _______. A) id; superego B) superego; id C) id; ego D) ego; id QuestionID: 12-5-06 Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: C) id; ego 7. Which of the following Freudian concepts motivates us to better ourselves and live up to our ideals? A) id B) ego C) reality principle D) superego QuestionID: 12-5-07 Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: D) superego 8. Joe seems to be constantly condemning himself for being bad and "sinful." In psychoanalytic terms, we would say that Joe has an overdeveloped _______. A) libido B) id C) ego D) superego QuestionID: 12-5-08 Objective: 12.3d Apply both psychodynamic and humanistic perspectives to explain personality. Answer: D) superego 9. The superego is that part of the personality which represents the A) pleasure principle. B) reality principle. C) thanatos. D) conscience. QuestionID: 12-5-09 Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: D) conscience. 10. Behaving in ways that are the opposite of what one would unconsciously like to do defines A) sublimation. B) displacement. C) reaction formation. D) projection. QuestionID: 12-5-10 Objective: 12.3b Understand how people use defence mechanisms to cope with conflicting thoughts and feelings. Answer: C) reaction formation. 11. An orally fixated person would most likely A) be an only child. B) dislike his or her father. C) be a sloppy dresser. D) eat and smoke a great deal. QuestionID: 12-5-11 Objective: 12.3c Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality. Answer: D) eat and smoke a great deal. 12. The process of toilet training occurs during the _______ stage. A) phallic B) oral C) anal D) genital QuestionID: 12-5-12 Objective: 12.3c Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: C) anal 13. Identifying with one's opposite-sex parent occurs in which psychosexual stage? A) oral B) anal C) phallic D) genital QuestionID: 12-5-13 Objective: 12.3c Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality. Answer: C) phallic 14. The stage of personality development which lasts from about age 6 until puberty is known as the _______ stage. A) phallic B) anal C) genital D) latency QuestionID: 12-5-14 Objective: 12.3c Understand the developmental stages Freud used to explain the origins of personality. Answer: D) latency 15. According to Jung's psychoanalytic theory, each of us has ________, which are inherited predispositions to respond to certain concepts. A) drive B) instincts C) archetypes D) archegos QuestionID: 12-5-15 Objective: 12.3d Apply both psychodynamic and humanistic perspectives to explain personality. Answer: C) archetypes 16. According to Jung, our repressed thoughts, undeveloped ideas, and forgotten experiences are contained in the ____________________. A) persona B) archetype C) personal unconscious D) collective unconscious QuestionID: 12-5-16 Objective: 12.3f Analyze the strengths and weaknesses of psychodynamic perspectives. Answer: C) personal unconscious True-False Questions 1. The two broad approaches to personality measurement are humanistic and psychoanalytic. a True b False QuestionID: 12-6-01 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 12.1a Know the key terminology associated with contemporary approaches to personality. Answer: b. False 2. Individuals identified as having a "Right-Wing Authoritarianism" personality tend to hold strong beliefs and are generally more prejudiced. a True b False QuestionID: 12-6-02 Objective: 12.1d Analyze the personality roots of violence and prejudice. Answer: a. True 3. An infant's temperament is a useful predictor of his or her adult personality. a True b False QuestionID: 12-6-03 Objective: 12.2a Know the key terminology associated with cultural and biological approaches to personality. Answer: a. True 4. Most research on the Big Five personality factors has been only been conducted on people from WEIRD cultures. a True b False QuestionID: 12-6-04 Objective: 12.2c Apply your knowledge to arrive at accurate conclusions about the influences of biological and cultural factors on personality. Answer: a. True 5. On average, the personalities of fraternal twins are more alike than they are for identical twins. a True b False QuestionID: 12-6-05 Objective: 12.2e Analyze the genetic basis of personality. Answer: b. False 6. Research suggests that mammals—such as dogs, cats, and primates—are the only animals which demonstrate consistent personalities. a True b False QuestionID: 12-6-06 Objective: 12.2b Understand how evolutionary theories explain personality. Answer: b. False 7. While gender differences in personality exist, they are quite small and may be mostly explained by economic factors. a True

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b False QuestionID: 12-6-07 Objective: 12.2d Analyze claims that males and females have fundamentally different personalities. Answer: a. True 8. Freud believed that the influence of the superego is present at birth, whereas the id must develop with experience. a True b False QuestionID: 12-6-08 Objective: 12.3a Know the key terminology related to the psychodynamic and humanistic approaches to personality. Answer: b. False 9. While some mental health professionals still use the TAT and Rorschach test, their popularity appears to be declining. a True b False QuestionID: 12-6-09 Objective: 12.3e Analyze whether projective tests are valid measures of personality. Answer: a. True 10. The founders of humanistic psychology had a much more optimistic view of human personality than Freud and many of his followers did. a True b False QuestionID: 12-6-10 Objective: 12.3f Analyze the strengths and weaknesses of psychodynamic perspectives. Answer: a. True

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Chapter 13 : Social Psychology Chapter Quiz Questions 1. When making a difficult decision, group members sometimes strive for agreement so as to avoid arguments, a phenomenon known as A) social loafing. B) obedience. C) social facilitation. D) groupthink. QuestionID: 13-1-01 Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: D) groupthink. 2. In Solomon Asch's famous experiment in which participants were asked to visually judge the length of lines, why did many participants give the incorrect answer at least part of the time? A) The lines were too close in length to accurately judge their relative lengths. B) The participants conformed their answers to those offered by others in the room. C) The participants were influenced by experimenter expectancy effects. D) The participants believed they would be physically punished if they provided the correct answer. QuestionID: 13-1-02 Objective: 13.1b Understand why individuals conform to others' behaviours. Answer: B) The participants conformed their answers to those offered by others in the room. 3. Approximately what percentage of participants delivered the maximum possible shock in Milgram's obedience study? A) 0% B) 6% C) 15% D) 65% QuestionID: 13-1-03 Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: D) 65% 4. Amanda has been told by many other students that the Introduction to Psychology professor is a poor instructor. While attending her first lecture, Amanda barely pays attention and spends most of her time messaging her friends instead. Following the lecture, Amanda agrees with what she's heard—her professor must be a bad instructor because she barely learned anything. This example illustrates the concept of A) self-fulfilling prophecies. B) thin slices of behaviour. C) person perception. D) dual-process models. QuestionID: 13-1-04 Objective: 13.2a Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. Answer: A) self-fulfilling prophecies.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

5. The fundamental attribution error is the tendency to attribute the actions of others to _____, while ignoring the role of _____. A) ingroup factors; outgroup factors B) outgroup factors; ingroup factors C) their disposition; the situation D) the situation; their disposition QuestionID: 13-1-05 Objective: 13.2c Apply your knowledge of attributions and biases to better understand how you tend to perceive yourself and others. Answer: C) their disposition; the situation 6. Conceptually, _____ is the opposite of the fundamental attribution error. A) cognitive dissonance B) the self-fulfilling prophecy C) outgroup bias D) self-serving bias QuestionID: 13-1-06 Objective: 13.2a Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. Answer: D) self-serving bias 7. Which of the following is a criticism of the Implicit Associations Test (IAT)? A) The IAT may measure only familiarity with a stereotype, not actual prejudice. B) The IAT actually measures explicit prejudice, not implicit prejudice. C) The IAT is not reliable when subjects are retested. D) Subjects can change their responses to make themselves appear less prejudiced. QuestionID: 13-1-07 Objective: 13.2a Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. Answer: A) The IAT may measure only familiarity with a stereotype, not actual prejudice. 8. Jenny is concerned about the effects of vaccines on her infant son. Her friend, Neil, shows her the research that supports their effectiveness and safety and explains many of the misconceptions people hold about vaccines. After listening carefully to Neil, Jenny is convinced that vaccines are safe and agrees that vaccinating her son is a good idea. In this instance, Neil has used ___________ to change Jenny's mind. A) the peripheral route to persuasion B) the central route to persuasion C) identifiable victim effect D) the experiential system QuestionID: 13-1-08 Objective: 13.3a Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication. Answer: B) the central route to persuasion 9. Malcom wants to raise as much money as possible to help the victims of a local town that was destroyed by wildfires. Which of the following strategies is most likely to result in the largest donations? A) explaining that 2400 buildings were destroyed, including many residential homes B) describing that the fire spread across nearly 1.5 million acres of land before being contained C) describing the story of 3-year-old Gilly, who lost her house and most of her belongings D) explaining that close to 2000 people were left homeless due to the damage caused by the fire

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 13-1-09 Objective: 13.3b Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory. Answer: C) describing the story of 3-year-old Gilly, who lost her house and most of her belongings 10. Kyle is an independent filmmaker who has always believed that big Hollywood movies are garbage. Recently, however, he agreed to work on a big-budget Hollywood movie because the pay was very good. Now he tells his friends, "Not all Hollywood movies are that bad." Kyle's change in attitude is likely the result of A) cognitive dissonance. B) conformity. C) groupthink. D) group polarization. QuestionID: 13-1-10 Objective: 13.3b Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory. Answer: A) cognitive dissonance. Essay Questions 1. Group work is a common occurrence in university and in the workplace; however, not all groups work well together and sometimes they are less efficient than working alone. Describe the concept of social loafing and explain three factors that increase its likelihood of occurring. QuestionID: 13-2-01 Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: A good answer should include the following: Social loafing occurs when an individual puts less effort into working on a task with others. Multiple factors contribute to the likelihood of social loafing including: (answer should include 3 of the following 4) Low efficacy beliefs. This occurs if tasks are too difficult or complex, so people don't know where to start. Structure tasks so people know exactly what to do, provide clear deadlines, and give people feedback so they know how well they are doing and how they can improve. Believing that one's contributions are not important to the group. This occurs if people can't see how their own input matters to the group. Overcome this by helping people understand how group members rely on and affect each other, and assigning tasks to people that they feel are significant or which they've had some say in choosing (if possible). Not caring about the group's outcome. This occurs when a person is not personally identified with the group, perhaps feeling socially rejected from the group or perceiving the group as unsuccessful or unimportant. Overcome this by making the group's goals and values clear and explicit, encouraging friendships to form, and designing group activities to be fun and socially rewarding. Feeling like others are not trying very hard. As discussed earlier, people loaf if they feel others are loafing. Overcome this by providing feedback about the progress of group members on their individual tasks; strong groups often have regular meetings where people's progress is discussed and, ideally, celebrated! 2. The obedience research conducted by Stanley Milgram is one of the most famous psychological studies ever conducted. Explain, in detail, the method that Milgram used in the basic version of his study. What were the results? QuestionID: 13-2-02 Objective: 13.1d Apply your knowledge of being a passive bystander or active altruist to understand your own likeliness to help. Answer: Participants are told the study is about the effects of punishment on memory. They, and the other participant (who is actually a confederate, although the real participants don't know that), a friendly middle-aged man, draw slips of paper in order to determine who will play the role of 'teacher' and who will be the 'learner.' The draw is rigged so that the .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

real subjects are always the teacher (but again, they don't know that). The teacher's job is to read a series of word pairs to the learner, and then to test him on his memory of the word pairs. The learner will be in a separate room hooked up to an electric shock machine. Each time the learner gets an answer wrong, the teacher is to administer a shock, by flipping a switch on a panel in front of him, and increasing the voltage after each wrong answer. The switches go up by 15 volts until reaching a maximum of 450 volts, which is labelled "xxx." This process is watched by an "experimenter" wearing a lab coat. As the experiment progresses, the learner starts to make sounds of discomfort in the other room, grunting audibly as he is shocked. By 150 volts he is protesting loudly and saying that he no longer wants to continue in the study. If the subjects continue reading the word pairs and increasing the shock level, the learner gets to the point of screaming in pain, demanding and pleading, over and over again, to be let out, pleading that he can't take it anymore, even that his heart condition is bothering him and his heart is acting up. And then, at 330 volts, the learner falls silent and gives no further responses. If subjects still continue at this point, they are informed by the experimenter that a non-response is to be considered "wrong," and the punishing shock administered. If, at any point, subjects express concern for the learner, or say that they don't want to continue, the experimenter simply says a few stock responses, such as, "Please continue" or, "The experiment requires that you continue." Milgram's results were astounding... every single participant continued to administer "shocks" after this point in the experiment. The command of the authority figure was so compelling they could not say no. Although Milgram was able to reduce the obedience rates by having the experimenter wear street clothes, doing the experiment in a warehouse, and having the orders delivered over the telephone, people still obeyed the experimenter even when they believed they were harming other people. 3. Explain the concept of implicit prejudice and how it differs from explicit prejudice. Then describe how Implicit Associations Test (IAT) is used by some researchers to measure implicit prejudice. What is a critique of the IAT? QuestionID: 13-2-03 Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. Answer: Explicit prejudice is a prejudicial feeling that a person is consciously aware of and capable of stating outright. Implicit prejudice refers to feelings that we may not be aware of or not be willing to admit, but that nonetheless affect our behaviour. The Implicit Associations Test (IAT) is an attempt to view implicit prejudice. In this test, individuals are asked to make speedy responses in different conditions. In one condition they may press the button on the right if they see a Caucasian face or a positive word (like "happy") and press the left key when they see an African-American face or a negative word (such as "danger"). In other trials this is reversed. Researchers compare response times for the different types of trials and generally find that response times when a positive word and African-American face use the same key are SLOWER than when a negative word and an African-American face use the same key. This supposedly shows that people have trouble pairing African-American and positive views and demonstrates implicit prejudice. Although the data gathered with this instrument show reliable results, some psychologists have questioned the test's validity: Is the IAT really a measure of prejudice? Or is it possible that the IAT is merely measuring the extent to which people have been exposed to negative stereotypes, but have not necessarily developed prejudices? After all, simply knowing about a stereotype does not mean an individual believes it. Fill-in-the-blank Questions 1. The __________ occurs when we unconsciously mimic the behaviours and mannerisms of those around us for no apparent reason. QuestionID: 13-3-01 Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: a. chameleon effect 2. Not belching at the dinner table is an example of a(n) __________ , an unwritten rule about how to behave in a certain social context. QuestionID: 13-3-02 .

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Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: a. social norm 3. When group members believe that their effort will not significantly contribute to the group's overall performance, they are more likely to engage in __________ . QuestionID: 13-3-03 Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: a. social loafing 4. influence tends to lead to real change in behaviour because people feel they are getting useful information from a group. QuestionID: 13-3-04 Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: a. Informational 5. The __________ occurs when an individual in a group is less likely to provide help than he or she would be if they were alone. QuestionID: 13-3-05 Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: a. bystander effect 6. Individuals who do not consider themselves to be prejudiced, may still be affected in subtle ways by __________ prejudice. QuestionID: 13-3-06 Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. Answer: a. implicit 7. attribution is also known as situational attribution. QuestionID: 13-3-07 Objective: 13.2a Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. Answer: a. External 8. A(n) __________ might include your family, friends, co-workers and others from the same cultural background as you. QuestionID: 13-3-08 Objective: 13.2a Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. Answer: a. ingroup 9. The __________ hypothesis predicts that interacting with members from different groups is essential to overcoming prejudice. QuestionID: 13-3-09 Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: a. contact 10. The __________ route to persuasion is more likely to be persuasive with topics that are less important to an individual and when the decision is likely to be made quickly. QuestionID: 13-3-10 Objective: 13.3d Analyze the difficulties communicators face in trying to convince the public to take action on important social and political issues. Answer: a. peripheral Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Taking on the behaviours, emotional displays, and facial expressions of others, is known as A) mimicry. B) obedience. C) groupthink. D) social facilitation. QuestionID: 13-4-01 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: A) mimicry. 2. Wilhelm doesn't follow sports, but he agrees to go to a football game with a friend. Because he is unfamiliar with the rules, Wilhelm watches the other spectators around him carefully to see when they clap, stand, cheer, and boo and then copies their behaviour. Which strategy is Wilhelm using? A) groupthink B) social facilitation C) mimicry D) obedience QuestionID: 13-4-02 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: C) mimicry 3. The chameleon effect occurs when individuals A) unconsciously copy the behaviour of those around them. B) intentionally copy the behaviour of others to try to "fit in." C) show an improvement in performance in the presence of others. D) unquestioningly follow the demands of an authority figure. QuestionID: 13-4-03 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: A) unconsciously copy the behaviour of those around them. 4. Ginger's new roommate tends to wink a lot at the end of sentences to indicate that she is joking. After living together for a few weeks, Ginger unconsciously begins to wink when she makes a joke. This is an example of A) cognitive dissonance. B) the chameleon effect. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) social facilitation. D) groupthink. QuestionID: 13-4-04 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: B) the chameleon effect. 5. According to the textbook, one of the situations that produces more mimicry than others is when an individual A) is hanging out with old friends. B) is performing a familiar task. C) dislikes the person with whom they are interacting. D) wants to make a good impression. QuestionID: 13-4-05 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: D) wants to make a good impression. 6. In general, if an individual mimics aspects of our behaviour, we tend to A) like them less. B) categorize them as belonging to an outgroup. C) like them more. D) become irritated. QuestionID: 13-4-06 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: C) like them more. 7. The guidelines for how to behave in social contexts are called A) group dynamics. B) rules of conformity. C) social norms. D) mandates of authority. QuestionID: 13-4-07 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: C) social norms. 8. Doni enters an elevator and stands facing the back instead of turning around to face the elevator door. In this example, Doni is violating A) the rules of conformity. B) the mandates of authority. C) a social norm. D) a chameleon effect. QuestionID: 13-4-08 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: C) a social norm. 9. ________ occurs when an individual, who is part of a larger group, puts forth less effort than other group members. A) Social facilitation B) Social loafing C) Groupthink D) Discrimination QuestionID: 13-4-09 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: B) Social loafing 10. You and your group have had four weeks to complete a group project for your economics class. You are now four days away from the due date, and you and one other group member have been putting in all of the time and effort. The other two members come occasionally to group meetings and do the minimal work required. This unfortunate situation is known as A) social facilitation. B) groupthink. C) social loafing. D) the chameleon effect. QuestionID: 13-4-10 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: C) social loafing. 11. Which of the following is NOT likely to lead to social loafing? A) knowing that the group's performance will be rewarded B) taking on a complex or challenging task C) feeling as though one's contributions will not help the group D) feeling as though others in the group are not pulling their weight QuestionID: 13-4-11 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: B) taking on a complex or challenging task 12. What is the term for an improvement in performance caused by the perception that others are watching? A) groupthink B) chameleon effect C) social facilitation D) bystander effect QuestionID: 13-4-12 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: C) social facilitation 13. Marco has been running each afternoon trying to beat his school's record for the 400-metre sprint. Despite all his practising, he hasn't been able to come in under his usual time. There's a big fan turnout for the track meet on .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Saturday against the rival school and Marco not only beats the old record, but surpasses it. Marco's behaviour illustrates A) social facilitation. B) groupthink. C) social loafing. D) the bystander effect. QuestionID: 13-4-13 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: A) social facilitation. 14. Social facilitation is most likely to occur when individuals A) have had relatively little practice. B) are engaging in complex tasks. C) are learning a task for the first time. D) have mastered the task they are performing. QuestionID: 13-4-14 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: D) have mastered the task they are performing. 15. Which of the following is a decision-making process in which group members avoid arguments and strive for agreement? A) deindividuation B) social loafing C) obedience D) groupthink QuestionID: 13-4-15 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: D) groupthink 16. ________ can occur when individuals are more concerned with maintaining group harmony than expressing their true ideas. A) Social facilitation B) Groupthink C) Social loafing D) Bystander effect QuestionID: 13-4-16 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: B) Groupthink 17. Imitating the behaviour of one individual is called _____________, whereas changing your behaviour to fit in with a group is called _____________. A) mimicry; conformity B) conformity; mimicry C) obedience; conformity .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) conformity; obedience QuestionID: 13-4-17 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: A) mimicry; conformity 18. Which of the following is true about conformity? A) Conformity is often a conscious decision. B) Conformity is always caused by the desire to be liked by others. C) Conformity cannot be studied in the laboratory. D) People tend to be less likely to conform when responses are made publicly. QuestionID: 13-4-18 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1b Understand why individuals conform to others' behaviours. Answer: A) Conformity is often a conscious decision. 19. People tend to be more likely to conform when A) the group is comprised only of males. B) there are only strangers around. C) the task is clear and simple. D) there are friends of family nearby. QuestionID: 13-4-19 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1b Understand why individuals conform to others' behaviours. Answer: D) there are friends of family nearby. 20. In the experiments conducted by Solomon Asch, what was the main task that subjects had to perform? A) pretend they were prison guards B) identify line lengths C) help a stranger in distress D) deliver electric shocks to 'learners' QuestionID: 13-4-20 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1b Understand why individuals conform to others' behaviours. Answer: B) identify line lengths 21. In the famous experiment conducted by Solomon Asch, the concept of _______ was explored. A) diffusion of responsibility B) social loafing C) groupthink D) conformity QuestionID: 13-4-21 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: D) conformity

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

22. If you're like ___ percent of participants in the original Asch study, you would conform to the incorrect norm at least once during testing. A) 45 B) 55 C) 65 D) 75 QuestionID: 13-4-22 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1b Understand why individuals conform to others' behaviours. Answer: D) 75 23. Talal disagrees with many of the policies of the Conservative Party; however, most of Talal's friends support the party. Talal wants to fit in so he attends rallies in support of the Conservatives and when in public, makes statements that align with their platform. Talal's behaviour demonstrates the effect of _________ on behaviour. A) normative influence B) informational influence C) groupthink D) bystander effect QuestionID: 13-4-23 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1b Understand why individuals conform to others' behaviours. Answer: A) normative influence 24. Lyndsey used to consume animal products like meat and cheese. However, after spending time with a local vegan activist group, she felt as though the information she was learning about the impact on the environment was too important to ignore. Eventually, Lyndsey fully adopted a vegan lifestyle. Lyndsey's change in behaviour is an example of A) normative influence. B) informational influence. C) groupthink. D) bystander effect. QuestionID: 13-4-24 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1b Understand why individuals conform to others' behaviours. Answer: B) informational influence. 25. ___________ influence results from wanting to fit in, while _________ influence occurs when one feels as though the group is giving them useful guidance. A) Informational; normative B) Normative; groupthink C) Normative; informational D) Authoritarian; insightful QuestionID: 13-4-25 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.1b Understand why individuals conform to others' behaviours. Answer: C) Normative; informational 26. ___________ is likely to lead to an actual change in beliefs, rather than simply acting a certain way but .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

maintaining conflicting beliefs. A) Groupthink B) Normative influence C) Social loafing D) Informational influence QuestionID: 13-4-26 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1b Understand why individuals conform to others' behaviours. Answer: D) Informational influence 27. The Kitty Genovese case is a famous example of A) social loafing. B) groupthink. C) the bystander effect. D) obedience to authority. QuestionID: 13-4-27 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: C) the bystander effect. 28. The _________ describes the phenomenon that occurs when people are less likely to aid a person in trouble if there are other people around. A) bystander effect B) social loafing effect C) groupthink effect D) apathy effect QuestionID: 13-4-28 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: A) bystander effect 29. A car crash woke John from his afternoon nap. When he looked out his apartment window, he saw several people milling around two smashed cars. He decided not to dial 911 because he assumed someone had already called. John's reaction is an example of A) the bystander effect. B) social loafing. C) obedience to authority. D) conformity to social norms. QuestionID: 13-4-29 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1d Apply your knowledge of being a passive bystander or active altruist to understand your own likeliness to help. Answer: A) the bystander effect. 30. At a crowded park, Minera sees an old man clutching his heart and stumbling. Minera assumes that someone else will help the old man and walks past without helping. Minera's behaviour is an example of A) normative influence. B) social loafing. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) diffusion of responsibility. D) groupthink. QuestionID: 13-4-30 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1d Apply your knowledge of being a passive bystander or active altruist to understand your own likeliness to help. Answer: C) diffusion of responsibility. 31. Nabila was at a busy grocery store when she and many others saw a woman being forced into a car in the parking lot. She stopped to stare, acknowledging that this woman needed to be helped. She assumed that she was not the only one who noticed this happening and that someone had likely already called the police to help the woman. Nabila's decision not to call for help can be best explained by A) groupthink. B) the diffusion of responsibility. C) social facilitation. D) the fundamental attribution error. QuestionID: 13-4-31 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1d Apply your knowledge of being a passive bystander or active altruist to understand your own likeliness to help. Answer: B) the diffusion of responsibility. 32. The majority of players on the men's varsity football team consider themselves feminists. However, when they joke around in the locker room, many of them make crude or discriminatory comments about women because they think that their teammates find them funny. The players' behaviour in this situation is an example of A) social loafing. B) diffusion of responsibility. C) social facilitation. D) pluralistic ignorance. QuestionID: 13-4-32 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: D) pluralistic ignorance. 33. On a hot summer afternoon, Jamila and her friends are relaxing on her porch. Although Jamila would like to stay on the porch all afternoon, she thinks her friends might prefer to drive to the local waterpark. All of her friends would actually prefer to spend their afternoon on the porch, but each assumes that the others would prefer to go to the waterpark, so they all agree that they should go. This scenario demonstrates the concept of A) social loafing. B) pluralistic ignorance. C) social facilitation. D) diffusion of responsibility. QuestionID: 13-4-33 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: B) pluralistic ignorance. 34. __________ describe the specific set of expectations placed on an individual in a specific position, such as .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

"doctor," "policeman," or "politician." A) Social norms B) Explicit biases C) Social roles D) Implicit biases QuestionID: 13-4-34 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: C) Social roles 35. In the Stanford Prison Study, male college students agreed to participate in a two-week experiment to discover what would happen when they took on the roles of prisoners and guards. The researchers found that A) both prisoners and guards quickly fell into their roles and behaved accordingly. B) the majority of participants who were assigned to be prisoners, rebelled against the guards, refusing to follow their demands. C) the majority of guards engaged in fair and ethical treatment of the prisoners. D) when participants knew they were part of a study with no 'real-world' implications, they had difficulty taking on assigned roles. QuestionID: 13-4-35 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.1e Analyze whether people who harm others are fundamentally hurtful, mean people or if their behaviour is the product of social influences. Answer: A) both prisoners and guards quickly fell into their roles and behaved accordingly. 36. What does the Stanford Prison Study tell us about the relationship between social roles and behaviour? A) People who are naturally aggressive and authoritarian seek out social roles that allow them to behave in this way. B) "Good" people will refuse to behave according to the norms of a social role if they are required to be harsh or abusive to other people. C) When people are placed in social roles with a lot of power, their behaviour often changes to fit their new role. D) Inmates naturally take on different social roles in a prison, with some becoming aggressive and authoritarian, while others become passive and submissive. QuestionID: 13-4-36 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.1e Analyze whether people who harm others are fundamentally hurtful, mean people or if their behaviour is the product of social influences. Answer: C) When people are placed in social roles with a lot of power, their behaviour often changes to fit their new role. 37. The Stanford Prison Study demonstrates how a person's _______________ affect(s) their behaviour. A) social role B) moral values C) implicit beliefs D) explicit beliefs QuestionID: 13-4-37 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.1e Analyze whether people who harm others are fundamentally hurtful, mean people or if their behaviour is the product of social influences. Answer: A) social role

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

38. Complying with instructions or orders from an individual who is in a position of authority is called A) mimicry. B) conformity. C) groupthink. D) obedience. QuestionID: 13-4-38 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: D) obedience. 39. Stanley Milgram conducted one of the most well-known studies on A) conformity. B) bystander apathy. C) the effects of violent media. D) obedience to authority. QuestionID: 13-4-39 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: D) obedience to authority. 40. _______ found that normal people in normal times will often follow orders to hurt innocent people. A) Solomon Asch B) Kurt Lewin C) Carolyn Sherif D) Stanley Milgram QuestionID: 13-4-40 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: D) Stanley Milgram 41. Before Stanley Milgram conducted his study on obedience, he asked a number of psychiatrists and psychologists how many people would go all the way to the highest voltage under the instructions of the authority. Milgram found that A) the experts accurately predicted that about 45 percent of the participants would inflict what they thought were dangerous amounts of shock. B) the experts accurately predicted that about 65 percent of the participants would inflict what they thought were dangerous amounts of shock. C) the experts greatly underestimated how many participants would inflict what they thought were dangerous amounts of shock. D) the experts greatly overestimated how many participants would inflict what they thought were dangerous amounts of shock. QuestionID: 13-4-41 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: C) the experts greatly underestimated how many participants would inflict what they thought were dangerous amounts of shock. 42. About ____ of all participants in Milgram's study administered the highest level of shock to the learner. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

10% 25% 50% 65%

QuestionID: 13-4-42 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: D) 65% 43. When Milgram and his team set up several variations of his original study, they found that people were more likely to disobey when A) the experimenter wore a white lab coat instead of street clothes. B) a confederate acting as another teacher refused to comply. C) a second experimenter agreed the experiment should continue. D) they were only asked to read the word pairs, but someone else had to deliver the shocks. QuestionID: 13-4-43 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: B) a confederate acting as another teacher refused to comply. 44. William, a police officer, is instructed by a superior officer to physically harm a suspect in order to obtain a confession. According to research done on obedience, William is more likely to disobey this order if A) the superior officer is in the room with William and the suspect. B) another senior officer agrees that William should hurt the suspect. C) the suspect asks William to stop. D) William's partner refuses to physically harm the suspect. QuestionID: 13-4-44 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: D) William's partner refuses to physically harm the suspect. 45. Which statement best describes an important finding of Milgram's classic research? A) Individuals easily conform to group norms. B) The presence of other people makes aggression more likely. C) People will easily obey an authority figure and do harm to others. D) Agreeing to a small request makes it more likely you will agree to a big request. QuestionID: 13-4-45 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: C) People will easily obey an authority figure and do harm to others. 46. __________ processes are unconscious, fast, and automatic, whereas_________ processes are slower, intentional and within our conscious awareness. A) Explicit; implicit B) Implicit; explicit C) Conformity; obedience D) Obedience; conformity

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QuestionID: 13-4-46 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.2a Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. Answer: B) Implicit; explicit 47. When interpreting behaviour, if a social psychologist takes both conscious and unconscious processes into account, they are said to be using a(n) A) dual-process model. B) whole-person approach. C) person-centred approach. D) humanistic approach. QuestionID: 13-4-47 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.2a Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. Answer: A) dual-process model. 48. In social psychology, the term "person perception" refers to A) a set of beliefs about a group of people. B) the emotional concern one individual has for another's well-being. C) the act of attributing an individual's behaviour to some intrinsic quality or personality trait. D) the processes by which individuals form judgments and categorize other people. QuestionID: 13-4-48 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.2b Understand how we form first impressions and how these impressions influence us. Answer: D) the processes by which individuals form judgments and categorize other people. 49. Which of the following is a valid conclusion from the studies discussed in your textbook that used the thinslice of behaviour technique to investigate quick judgments about the personal qualities of others? A) Quick judgments are generally more accurate than judgments based on more information. B) Judgments based on a lot of information are generally more accurate than judgments based on "thin slices." C) Quick judgments and those made with more information are remarkably similar. D) Quick judgments tend to be more negative than judgments based on more information. QuestionID: 13-4-49 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.2b Understand how we form first impressions and how these impressions influence us. Answer: C) Quick judgments and those made with more information are remarkably similar. 50. Our impressions of people tend to be formed A) within seconds of meeting them. B) after approximately 30 minutes of interaction. C) after at least three separate encounters. D) very slowly over multiple interactions. QuestionID: 13-4-50 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.2b Understand how we form first impressions and how these impressions influence us. Answer: A) within seconds of meeting them.

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51. Thad believes Callum is a jerk, so Thad ignores Callum and does not invite him to any of his parties. Callum begins to be rude to Thad and talks about him behind his back. Assuming Callum's behaviour is only a reaction to how Thad treated him in the first place, this is an example of A) external attribution. B) a self-fulfilling prophecy. C) stereotyping. D) scapegoating. QuestionID: 13-4-51 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.2a Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. Answer: B) a self-fulfilling prophecy. 52. Assuming that others hold similar attitudes and opinions as our own, even if we know they are not popular, is known as A) naïve realism. B) person perception. C) stereotyping. D) the false consensus effect. QuestionID: 13-4-52 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.2a Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. Answer: D) the false consensus effect. 53. Augustus believes that dogs are the best pet. Most of Augustus' friends also think that dogs are the best pet. In Augustus' opinion, people who think otherwise are deluded and wrong. Augustus' skewed perception of reality is known as A) false consensus. B) implicit bias. C) naïve realism. D) fundamental attribution error. QuestionID: 13-4-53 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.2a Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. Answer: C) naïve realism. 54. Callie does poorly on an exam in one class but does very well on an exam in another class. She attributes her poor performance on the first exam to the fact that the professor is not a very good instructor. In contrast, she attributes her good performance on the second exam to the fact that she is a good student. This is most likely an example of A) the self-serving bias. B) stereotyping. C) deliberative thought. D) the fundamental attribution error. QuestionID: 13-4-54 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.2a Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. Answer: A) the self-serving bias.

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55. According to the self-serving bias concept, we tend to use ______________ attributions for ourselves when we do something well, and_______________ attributions when we fail or commit errors. A) external; internal B) internal; external C) dispositional; internal D) external; situational QuestionID: 13-4-55 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.2a Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. Answer: B) internal; external 56. The __________ is a phenomenon in which people make an attribution based on character, while simultaneously ignoring situational factors. A) self-serving bias B) naïve realism effect C) false consensus error D) fundamental attribution error QuestionID: 13-4-56 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. Answer: D) fundamental attribution error 57. The tendency to give too much emphasis to personal factors when accounting for other people's actions is called A) the self-serving bias. B) false consensus error. C) the fundamental attribution error. D) naïve realism effect. QuestionID: 13-4-57 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. Answer: C) the fundamental attribution error. 58. When people are trying to find reasons for someone else's behaviour, they tend to A) ignore dispositional attributions in favour of situational attributions. B) assume that people's behaviour corresponds to the context. C) think carefully about personality traits and the situation to derive an explanation. D) overestimate personality traits and underestimate the influence of the situation. QuestionID: 13-4-58 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. Answer: D) overestimate personality traits and underestimate the influence of the situation. 59. Janis, an administrative assistant at a large firm, is trying to find reasons for her boss' hostile behaviour. She is likely to A) underestimate her boss' personality traits and overestimate the influence of the situation. B) assume that her boss' behaviour corresponds to work demands. C) consider her boss' personality traits and the current situation. .

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D) overestimate her boss' personality traits and underestimate the influence of the situation. QuestionID: 13-4-59 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. Answer: D) overestimate her boss' personality traits and underestimate the influence of the situation. 60. The fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency of people to A) overestimate the role of situational factors in the behaviour of others. B) overestimate the role of dispositional factors in the behaviour of others. C) overestimate the role of situational factors in their own behaviour. D) overestimate the role of dispositional factors in their own behaviour. QuestionID: 13-4-60 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. Answer: B) overestimate the role of dispositional factors in the behaviour of others. 61. Groups that we identify with and feel close to, are known as ________, while groups that we feel we have little in common with are considered _______. A) ingroups; outgroups B) outgroups; ingroups C) explicit groups; implicit groups D) implicit groups; explicit groups QuestionID: 13-4-61 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. Answer: A) ingroups; outgroups 62. Hank is a Toronto Maple Leafs fan. Although he doesn't realize it, Hank tends to assume other Leafs fans are generally good people. This is an example of A) the fundamental attribution error. B) self-serving bias. C) discrimination. D) ingroup bias. QuestionID: 13-4-62 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. Answer: D) ingroup bias. 63. A belief about the characteristics of members of a group that are applied generally to most members of the group is known as a(n) A) fundamental attribution error. B) prejudice. C) stereotype. D) self-serving bias. QuestionID: 13-4-63 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.2a Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: C) stereotype. 64. Cynthia has recently begun a career with a Jewish-based agency. Up until this point in her life, she had not had any interaction with anyone who was Jewish. Based on the individuals she works with, she has found them to be a very close-knit group who care for their own folks in the community who may need assistance. Additionally, she has found them to be very educated and assertive. Cynthia now holds the view that all Jewish people are the same: educated, close-knit within their own group, assertive, and caring toward other Jewish folks who need help. Cynthia's view represents A) the ingroup perspective. B) social facilitation. C) a stereotype. D) discrimination. QuestionID: 13-4-64 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. Answer: C) a stereotype. 65. __________ describes a person's beliefs about a group of individuals, whereas ________ refers to the outward behaviour based on those beliefs. A) Discrimination; aggression B) Stereotypes; discrimination C) Prejudice; discrimination D) Discrimination; prejudice QuestionID: 13-4-65 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.2a Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. Answer: C) Prejudice; discrimination 66. Aleta is looking at a stack of applications for the open position she has at her bakery. She called all of the applicants to ask them "follow-up" questions about their application. Aleta wasn't concerned with their responses to her questions, but instead wanted to know who had an accent so she could put those applications in the "no" pile. Aleta's behaviour is an example of A) prejudice. B) cognitive dissonance. C) discrimination. D) the fundamental attribution error. QuestionID: 13-4-66 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.2a Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. Answer: C) discrimination. 67. Lucy is the hiring manager for a large company. She has never said anything negative about Hispanics, and honestly believes that everyone should be given an equal chance. Despite this, Lucy almost never hires Hispanics. Her behaviour might be explained by A) implicit prejudice. B) self-serving bias. C) explicit prejudice. D) naïve realism.

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QuestionID: 13-4-67 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. Answer: A) implicit prejudice. 68. Which of the following is a critique of the Implicit Associations Test (IAT) discussed in your textbook? A) The IAT measures explicit prejudice, not implicit prejudice. B) The IAT measures implicit discrimination, not implicit prejudice. C) The IAT may measure familiarity with stereotypes, rather than prejudice. D) The IAT does not produce reliable or consistent results. QuestionID: 13-4-68 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. Answer: C) The IAT may measure familiarity with stereotypes, rather than prejudice. 69. Interacting with members from outgroups is known to be a highly effective method for combatting prejudice. This concept is known as A) person-centred therapy. B) the contact hypothesis. C) discrimination defence. D) implicit bias reversal. QuestionID: 13-4-69 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. Answer: B) the contact hypothesis. 70. According to the elaboration likelihood model (ELM), if either __________ or ___________ is/are missing, people are unlikely to be persuaded by facts and substance. A) reward; punishment B) emotional pleas; personal connections C) serious threats; scientific evidence D) motivation; opportunity for careful processing QuestionID: 13-4-70 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.3a Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication. Answer: D) motivation; opportunity for careful processing 71. There are two alternative pathways to persuading others. One leads us to evaluate the merits of the persuasive arguments carefully and thoughtfully. This is known as the A) central route. B) peripheral route. C) indirect route. D) engaging route. QuestionID: 13-4-71 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.3a Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication. Answer: A) central route. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

72. There are two alternative pathways to persuading others. One leads us to respond to persuasive arguments on the basis of quick judgments. This is known as the A) central route. B) peripheral route. C) direct route. D) evidence-based route. QuestionID: 13-4-72 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.3a Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication. Answer: B) peripheral route. 73. When Sam went looking for a new car, he met a beautiful saleswoman who described the curves of the car and how good Sam would look driving it. She did not mention the poor gas mileage, high price, or poor road performance. Sam made a snap decision to buy the car from the persuasive saleswoman. In this example, Sam was likely persuaded through the A) central route. B) peripheral route. C) direct route. D) evidence-based route. QuestionID: 13-4-73 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.3d Analyze the difficulties communicators face in trying to convince the public to take action on important social and political issues. Answer: B) peripheral route. 74. Nabila can't decide whether to bother getting a flu shot. She doesn't like to wait in line and almost never gets the flu anyway. However, after reading a pamphlet outlining all the benefits, the decreased severity of symptoms, and the evidence in support of receiving a flu shot, Nabila decides it's a good idea and gets the vaccine. In this example, Nabila made her decision based on the __________ of persuasion. A) central route B) peripheral route C) indirect route D) engaging route QuestionID: 13-4-74 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.3d Analyze the difficulties communicators face in trying to convince the public to take action on important social and political issues. Answer: A) central route 75. Chang is watching television when an ad about climate change comes on. Normally, he doesn't pay much attention to these ads, but this time the ad features his home city of Victoria, BC. The ad's focus on Chang's city has a significant impact on him and he decides to sign up for his local environmental group to try and help out in any way he can. The idea that the ad impacted Chang due to its focus on something meaningful/close to him, is an example of the A) identifiable victim effect. B) peripheral route of persuasion. C) indirect route of persuasion. D) construal-level theory.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 13-4-75 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.3d Analyze the difficulties communicators face in trying to convince the public to take action on important social and political issues. Answer: D) construal-level theory. 76. Malcom wants to raise as much money as possible to help the victims of a local town that was destroyed by wildfires. Which of the following strategies is most likely to result in the largest donations? A) explaining that 2400 buildings were destroyed, including many residential homes B) describing that the fire spread across nearly 1.5 million acres of land before being contained C) describing the story of 3-year-old Gilly, who lost her house and most of her belongings D) explaining that close to 2000 people were left homeless due to the damage caused by the fire QuestionID: 13-4-76 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.3a Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication. Answer: C) describing the story of 3-year-old Gilly, who lost her house and most of her belongings 77. When trying to understand why some strategies, like the identifiable victim technique are effective at persuading individuals, psychologists often rely on dual-process models. One system, which relies on intuition and feeling, is known as the ________ system, while the other system, known as the _______ system is based on understanding and reasoning. A) analytic; experiential B) experiential; analytic C) explicit; implicit D) logical; emotional QuestionID: 13-4-77 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.3a Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication. Answer: B) experiential; analytic 78. When trying to convince his mom that the family should adopt a new puppy, Abdullah explained both the pros and the cons of getting a new pet. He then followed up all the cons with solutions as to why they won't be major issues. This method of presenting both sides of the story (pros and cons) is known as A) the identifiable victim technique. B) the central route of persuasion. C) the foot-in-the-door technique. D) attitude inoculation. QuestionID: 13-4-78 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.3a Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication. Answer: D) attitude inoculation. 79. Which of the following is NOT one of the methods of the peripheral route of persuasion listed in the textbook? A) reciprocity B) authority C) creativity D) consistency QuestionID: 13-4-79 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Factual Objective: 13.3a Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication. Answer: C) creativity 80. ________ involves making a small request before asking for a bigger one. A) The foot-in-the-door technique B) The door-in-the-face technique C) The low-ball technique D) The bait-and-switch technique QuestionID: 13-4-80 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.3a Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication. Answer: A) The foot-in-the-door technique 81. A local charity sends you return mailing labels and asks you to contribute whatever you can. You go ahead and send $5. A month later, you receive another request, but this time for $10, along with numerous other charities to contribute to. While you feel good that you contributed, this charity may be using the A) foot-in-the-mouth technique. B) foot-in-the-door technique. C) door-in-the-face technique. D) door-in-the-foot technique. QuestionID: 13-4-81 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.3a Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication. Answer: B) foot-in-the-door technique. 82. The ________ technique involves asking for an unreasonably large request before asking for the small request you are hoping to have granted. A) foot-in-the-door B) door-in-the-face C) low-ball D) bait-and-switch QuestionID: 13-4-82 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.3a Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication. Answer: B) door-in-the-face 83. Miranda received a phone call from a telemarketer for a local charity. The telemarketer asked for a $1000 donation. When Miranda refused, the telemarketer then asked for $25, to which Miranda agreed. This is an example of the A) foot-in-the-door technique. B) door-in-the-face technique. C) low-ball technique. D) bait-and-switch technique. QuestionID: 13-4-83 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.3a Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: B) door-in-the-face technique. 84. Your friend asks to borrow $50 from you. You tell him no. Then he asks for a mere $10, which you gladly give him. It's possible that your friend just used the A) foot-in-the-mouth technique. B) foot-in-the-door technique. C) door-in-the-face technique. D) door-in-the-foot technique. QuestionID: 13-4-84 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.3a Know the key terminology in research on attitudes, behaviour, and effective communication. Answer: C) door-in-the-face technique. 85. When we experience an unpleasant state of tension between two or more conflicting thoughts, we are experiencing A) a self-fulfilling prophecy. B) obedience. C) the fundamental attribution error. D) cognitive dissonance. QuestionID: 13-4-85 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.3b Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory. Answer: D) cognitive dissonance. 86. Whenever a person has two contradictory cognitions at the same time, a state of _____________ exists. A) naïve realism B) false consensus C) cognitive dissonance D) self-determinism QuestionID: 13-4-86 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.3b Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory. Answer: C) cognitive dissonance 87. Cognitive dissonance is A) a state of tension that occurs when a person simultaneously holds two cognitions that are psychologically inconsistent. B) the tendency of members of a group to avoid taking responsibility for their actions because they assume that others will do so. C) the tendency for members of a close-knit group to think alike for the sake of harmony and to suppress disagreement. D) a belief that a statement is true just because the person has heard it repeated over and over again. QuestionID: 13-4-87 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.3b Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory. Answer: A) a state of tension that occurs when a person simultaneously holds two cognitions that are psychologically inconsistent.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

88. When an individual's attitudes do not match up with his/her behaviours, ________ is likely to occur. A) compliance B) discrimination C) cognitive dissonance D) prejudice QuestionID: 13-4-88 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 13.3b Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory. Answer: C) cognitive dissonance 89. A female Canadian Member of Parliament (MP) believes in the reproductive rights and welfare of women, but voted to review the legislature surrounding abortions. The MP feels very uneasy about the conflict between her beliefs and her behaviour. She is most likely experiencing A) fundamental attribution. B) cognitive resolution. C) cognitive dissonance. D) naïve realism. QuestionID: 13-4-89 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.3b Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory. Answer: C) cognitive dissonance. 90. Darnel believes very strongly that large corporations are evil and are destroying society. One day, however, a large corporation releases a new tablet computer that Darnel runs out to buy. When asked about his purchase of a product made by a large corporation, Darnel says, "Well, I suppose not all corporations are evil." Darnel's change in attitude is likely an attempt to A) reduce cognitive dissonance. B) avoid making the fundamental attribution error. C) reduce naïve realism. D) avoid a false consensus. QuestionID: 13-4-90 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.3b Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory. Answer: A) reduce cognitive dissonance. 91. The #MeToo movement revealed that millions had been living with painful secrets, not knowing that so many others had similar stories. Clearly, humans can suppress their painful experiences for a long time for some reason. However, for the same reason, human may be willing to share their stories, especially after a few others share theirs. This demonstrates how ______________can have both negative and positive consequences. A) obedience B) social influence C) groupthink D) social facilitation QuestionID: 13-4-91 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: B) social influence

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

92. When a person completely excludes a friend from any form of digital contact without any explanation, effectively ending the relationship, they are engaging in a form of cyberostracism known as A) subjective influence. B) individual exclusion. C) cyberbullying. D) ghosting. QuestionID: 13-4-92 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: D) ghosting. 93. Sexual violence is common among the post-secondary student population; approximately one in five women on university campuses report having been the victim of a sexual assault. Statistics also show that many incidents happen at parties and other social settings. From the perspective of social psychology, what is the most effective way to reduce occurrence of sexual violence? A) Police presence: When police are present on campus and at social events, sexual violence is prevented. B) Reducing alcohol intake: Alcohol is an important factor, hence reducing alcohol should result with lower cases of sexual assaults. C) Raising awareness: Teaching students how to identify risks, to respond effectively, and to foster a climate where intervening is expected. D) Increasing punishment for sexual violators: It is known that punishment can discourage and reduce unwanted behaviour. QuestionID: 13-4-93 Skill: Factual Objective: 13.1d Apply your knowledge of being a passive bystander or active altruist to understand your own likeliness to help. Answer: C) Raising awareness: Teaching students how to identify risks, to respond effectively, and to foster a climate where intervening is expected. 94. In 2007, Wesley Autrey jumped in front of a New York City subway train to save a complete stranger, who had fallen onto the tracks after having a seizure. Wesley Autrey's behaviour is an example of A) social influence. B) diffusion of responsibility. C) bystander effect. D) altruism. QuestionID: 13-4-94 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1d Apply your knowledge of being a passive bystander or active altruist to understand your own likeliness to help. Answer: D) altruism. 95. Pamela is usually a fair employer; however, she believes that applicants coming from STEM programs are smarter than applicants with a background in the humanities. This illustrates A) discrimination. B) normative influence. C) informational influence. D) prejudice. QuestionID: 13-4-95 Skill: Applied .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. Answer: D) prejudice. 96. Why can groupthink be dangerous for group success? A) Members may overthink available options of action and may not be able to make a decision. B) Members may produce too many solutions to process for a particular problem. C) Members may avoid a sound discussion of all the action options in order to achieve consensus. D) Members may be unable to produce a single effective solution that would work in different situations. QuestionID: 13-4-96 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: C) Members may avoid a sound discussion of all the action options in order to achieve consensus. 97. After an explosion in Syria, people entered the burning buildings to rescue strangers—people to whom they have no connection or relationship. This is an example of the phenomenon called A) informational influence. B) reciprocal altruism. C) altruism. D) normative influence. QuestionID: 13-4-97 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1d Apply your knowledge of being a passive bystander or active altruist to understand your own likeliness to help. Answer: C) altruism. 98. Michael joined a political party in which members are expected to follow the direction of the party leaders without question or dissent. This is an example of the phenomenon called A) persuasion. B) obedience. C) conformity. D) groupthink. QuestionID: 13-4-98 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: B) obedience. 99. While normative influence causes ____________, informational influence causes ___________. A) a quick change in behaviour; a slow change in behaviour. B) a slow change in behaviour; a quick change in behaviour. C) public compliance; private acceptance. D) private acceptance; public compliance. QuestionID: 13-4-99 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: C) public compliance; private acceptance. 100. Imagine your parents want you to major in computer science and use a peripheral route to persuasion. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Which of the following tactics might they use to convince you? A) Talking about famous computer scientists who have had very attractive lifestyles. B) Discussing how computer science can be applied to newly emerging alternative career pathways. C) Listing all the reasons why computer science is great for a meaningful career that contributes to the community. D) Talking about the content of computer science and its application in other scientific disciplines. QuestionID: 13-4-100 Skill: Applied Objective: 13.3d Analyze the difficulties communicators face in trying to convince the public to take action on important social and political issues. Answer: A) Talking about famous computer scientists who have had very attractive lifestyles. Supplementary Questions 1. When a group exerts such strong pressure to conform that it prevents people from expressing critical ideas, the group is suffering from A) groupthink. B) polarization. C) risky shift. D) deindividuation. QuestionID: 13-5-01 Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: A) groupthink. 2. Which of the following conditions is conducive to creating a groupthink effect? A) the illusion of disagreement B) a weak leader C) failing to critically evaluate ideas D) members who do not like each other QuestionID: 13-5-02 Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: C) failing to critically evaluate ideas 3. Groupthink can be avoided by A) having a strong leader. B) inviting outsiders to give their opinions. C) striving for a consensus among members. D) having bright, well-informed members. QuestionID: 13-5-03 Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: B) inviting outsiders to give their opinions. 4. Even though he thought the Army Reserve's short hair regulation was silly, Ted really wanted the extra money Reserve duty provided to him, so he kept his hair short. This is an example of A) conformity. B) reactance. C) private acceptance. D) a role.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 13-5-04 Objective: 13.1b Understand why individuals conform to others' behaviours. Answer: A) conformity. 5. Asch (1951) used __________ to study informational conformity. A) the "kinetic effect" B) the latency of response C) social loafing in a tug of war group D) line lengths QuestionID: 13-5-05 Objective: 13.1b Understand why individuals conform to others' behaviours. Answer: D) line lengths 6. Which of the following is an example of conformity? A) A soldier shoots enemy women and children on orders from his commanding officer. B) A policeman beats a prisoner to force a confession on orders of his commanding officer. C) Passengers move to the back of the bus as soon as the driver tells them to. D) Stan has thrown away all of his old ties and bought new ones to be "in style." QuestionID: 13-5-06 Objective: 13.1b Understand why individuals conform to others' behaviours. Answer: D) Stan has thrown away all of his old ties and bought new ones to be "in style." 7. In which scenario would an individual be most likely to conform by giving the same response as the confederates? A) 12 confederates give the same answer and one confederate provides the correct response. B) 8 confederates give the same answer and one provides a different but also incorrect response. C) 4 confederates give the same answer and all of the responses are the same. D) 2 confederates give the same answer and one provides another answer that is incorrect. QuestionID: 13-5-07 Objective: 13.1b Understand why individuals conform to others' behaviours. Answer: C) 4 confederates give the same answer and all of the responses are the same. 8. To conform is to yield to A) social norms. B) cognitive dissonance. C) secondary processes. D) response cues. QuestionID: 13-5-08 Objective: 13.1b Understand why individuals conform to others' behaviours. Answer: A) social norms. 9. When 68-year-old Mrs. Blake had a flat tire on a fairly isolated highway, she received help from a passerby in less than 10 minutes. One year later, she had a flat tire on a busy freeway and an hour elapsed before someone finally stopped to offer assistance. Mrs. Blake's experience best illustrates A) the fundamental attribution error. B) the mere exposure effect. C) group polarization. .

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D) the bystander effect. QuestionID: 13-5-09 Objective: 13.1d Apply your knowledge of being a passive bystander or active altruist to understand your own likeliness to help. Answer: D) the bystander effect. 10. People won't help when there are many bystanders because A) of diffusion of responsibility. B) people are egoistic. C) people like to see others hurt. D) people are not altruistic. QuestionID: 13-5-10 Objective: 13.1d Apply your knowledge of being a passive bystander or active altruist to understand your own likeliness to help. Answer: A) of diffusion of responsibility. 11. According to research, the larger the group, the A) safer you are. B) more likely you are to receive help. C) more likely you are to give assistance. D) less likely you are to give or receive help. QuestionID: 13-5-11 Objective: 13.1d Apply your knowledge of being a passive bystander or active altruist to understand your own likeliness to help. Answer: D) less likely you are to give or receive help. 12. The Stanford Prison Study has been criticized on the basis of A) methodological weaknesses. B) inability to replicate it. C) lack of real-life application. D) ethics. QuestionID: 13-5-12 Objective: 13.1e Analyze whether people who harm others are fundamentally hurtful, mean people or if their behaviour is the product of social influences. Answer: D) ethics. 13. In the famous Milgram experiment on obedience, who received a shock? A) the "learner" B) no one C) the confederate D) the subject QuestionID: 13-5-13 Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: B) no one 14. In the Milgram experiment on obedience, the _______ was a confederate of the experimenter. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

subject female subject learner normal person

QuestionID: 13-5-14 Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: C) learner 15. In the Milgram experiment on obedience, the dependent variable was the A) learner's incorrect responses. B) intensity of shock delivered. C) learner's screams of pain. D) number of mistakes made by the learner. QuestionID: 13-5-15 Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: B) intensity of shock delivered. 16. Most people are likely to be surprised by the results of Milgram's initial obedience experiment because A) the "learners" made so few learning errors under stressful circumstances. B) the "teachers" actually enjoyed shocking another person. C) the "teachers" were more obedient than most people would have predicted. D) the "learners" obediently accepted painful shocks without any protest. QuestionID: 13-5-16 Objective: 13.1e Analyze whether people who harm others are fundamentally hurtful, mean people or if their behaviour is the product of social influences. Answer: C) the "teachers" were more obedient than most people would have predicted. 17. Which scenario best demonstrates the fundamental attribution error? A) Dorothy thinks that a co-worker is late because he overslept. B) Craig thinks that his classmate must have gotten a poor grade on an exam because the exam was too difficult. C) Blanche believes that the driver of the speeding vehicle must be responding to an emergency situation. D) Tom laughs at a friend who trips over a shoe because she falls in such a dramatic way. QuestionID: 13-5-17 Objective: 13.2a Know the key terminology associated with social cognition. Answer: A) Dorothy thinks that a co-worker is late because he overslept. 18. Freire did very poorly on his last arithmetic test. The tendency to make the fundamental attribution error might lead his sixth-grade teacher to conclude that Freire did poorly because A) he is unmotivated to do well in school. B) the test covered material that had not been adequately covered in class. C) his parents had an argument that evening before the test. D) he was not given enough time to complete the test. QuestionID: 13-5-18 Objective: 13.2c Apply your knowledge of attributions and biases to better understand how you tend to perceive yourself and others. Answer: A) he is unmotivated to do well in school. .

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19. Colin and Erin are waiting to meet with their caterer so that they can discuss the menu for their wedding. The caterer is thirty minutes late and still hasn't arrived. Colin suggests the caterer is probably delayed because of traffic. Colin's attribution can be characterized as a A) personal attribution. B) situational attribution. C) counterfactual attribution. D) correspondent attribution. QuestionID: 13-5-19 Objective: 13.2c Apply your knowledge of attributions and biases to better understand how you tend to perceive yourself and others. Answer: B) situational attribution. 20. During a Girl Scout picnic, Lavinia was randomly selected to be on one baseball team and Carla on the opposing team. Before the game started, both Lavinia and Carla were convinced that their own team was the better one. The girls' reactions best illustrate A) the fundamental attribution error. B) deindividuation. C) the reciprocity norm. D) ingroup bias. QuestionID: 13-5-20 Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. Answer: D) ingroup bias. 21. Over-simplified generalizations about the characteristics of a group are called A) prejudices. B) stereotypes. C) biases. D) discrimination. QuestionID: 13-5-21 Objective: 13.2c Apply your knowledge of attributions and biases to better understand how you tend to perceive yourself and others. Answer: B) stereotypes. 22. _______ puts people into categories with each category having its own set of characteristics. A) Stereotyping B) Prejudice C) Discrimination D) Bias QuestionID: 13-5-22 Objective: 13.2c Apply your knowledge of attributions and biases to better understand how you tend to perceive yourself and others. Answer: A) Stereotyping 23. Which of the following is a negative, often aggressive behaviour aimed at the target of prejudice? A) stereotypes B) bias C) discrimination .

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D) reactance QuestionID: 13-5-23 Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. Answer: C) discrimination 24. Prejudice differs from discrimination in that it is A) unjustified. B) a behaviour. C) an attitude. D) negative. QuestionID: 13-5-24 Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. Answer: C) an attitude. 25. According to research, prejudice is reduced when people must A) come into contact with one another. B) change their attitudes and behaviours. C) cooperate with one another to achieve a goal. D) live together. QuestionID: 13-5-25 Objective: 13.2d Analyze whether people who commit discriminatory acts are explicitly prejudiced. Answer: C) cooperate with one another to achieve a goal. 26. What theory was advanced by Festinger? A) balance B) cognitive heuristic C) cognitive dissonance D) confirmation bias QuestionID: 13-5-26 Objective: 13.3b Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory. Answer: C) cognitive dissonance 27. According to Festinger, the feeling of discomfort that results from the realization that our beliefs and our behaviours are discrepant is called A) attribution. B) balance theory. C) cognitive dissonance. D) confirmation bias. QuestionID: 13-5-27 Objective: 13.3b Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory. Answer: C) cognitive dissonance. True-False Questions 1. Social norms are specific sets of behaviours that are associated with a position within a group. a True .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

b False QuestionID: 13-6-01 Objective: 13.1a Know the key terminology associated with social influence. Answer: b. False 2. Conformity is sometimes a conscious decision. a True b False QuestionID: 13-6-02 Objective: 13.1b Understand why individuals conform to others' behaviours. Answer: a. True 3. If an individual had a seizure in a public place, he would be more likely to get help if there were five people around, rather than only one person. a True b False QuestionID: 13-6-03 Objective: 13.1d Apply your knowledge of being a passive bystander or active altruist to understand your own likeliness to help. Answer: b. False 4. Diffusion of responsibility describes the reduced personal responsibility that a person feels when more people are present in a situation. a True b False QuestionID: 13-6-04 Objective: 13.1d Apply your knowledge of being a passive bystander or active altruist to understand your own likeliness to help. Answer: a. True 5. In variations of Stanley Milgram's study on obedience, "teachers" were more likely to disobey and refuse to continue when they were in the presence of others who refused. a True b False QuestionID: 13-6-05 Objective: 13.1c Understand how individuals and groups can influence behaviours. Answer: a. True 6. Quick impressions of people we meet tend to change after we have been around them for a longer period of time. a True b False QuestionID: 13-6-06 Objective: 13.2b Understand how we form first impressions and how these impressions influence us.

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Answer: b. False 7. Assuming that the driver who cut you off is a jerk, rather than rushing to the hospital to see his father, is an example of a fundamental attribution error. a True b False QuestionID: 13-6-07 Objective: 13.2c Apply your knowledge of attributions and biases to better understand how you tend to perceive yourself and others. Answer: a. True 8. Unlike stereotypes based on negative characteristics, stereotypes based on positive characteristics are harmless. a True b False QuestionID: 13-6-08 Objective: 13.2b Understand how we form first impressions and how these impressions influence us. Answer: b. False 9. The identifiable victim effect describes how people are more likely to help those in their ingroup rather than their outgroup. a True b False QuestionID: 13-6-09 Objective: 13.3d Analyze the difficulties communicators face in trying to convince the public to take action on important social and political issues. Answer: b. False 10. A child asks her parents to buy her a pony. While the parents refuse, they do agree to buy her a new bike when she asks a short time later. This is an example of the door-in-the-face technique. a True b False QuestionID: 13-6-10 Objective: 13.3b Understand how behaviours influence attitudes in terms of cognitive dissonance theory. Answer: a. True

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Chapter 14 : Health, Stress, and Coping Chapter Quiz Questions 1. Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between media that features smoking and adolescent smoking behaviour? A) The more adolescents are exposed to movies featuring smoking, the less likely they are to have tried smoking. B) The more adolescents are exposed to movies featuring smoking, the more likely they are to have tried smoking. C) Although smoking in movies has remained relatively stable, smoking rates among Canadian adolescents has been steadily increasing. D) Although smoking in movies has been steadily decreasing, smoking rates among Canadian adolescents has remained relatively stable. QuestionID: 14-1-01 Objective: 14.1d Analyze whether media depictions of smoking affect smoking in adolescents. Answer: B) The more adolescents are exposed to movies featuring smoking, the more likely they are to have tried smoking. 2. What effect does watching food commercials have on the eating habits of viewers? A) Food commercials generally have little to no effect on eating habits. B) People are more likely to eat the specific product being advertised in the commercial, but not other unrelated foods. C) Snacking in general is more likely after viewers watch a food commercial. D) The eating habits of adults are influenced more by food commercials than are the eating habits of children. QuestionID: 14-1-02 Objective: 14.1b Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. Answer: C) Snacking in general is more likely after viewers watch a food commercial. 3. High rates of heart disease in socioeconomically disadvantaged communities are likely due to a combination of poor diet and which other factor? A) stress B) drug use C) lead exposure D) education QuestionID: 14-1-03 Objective: 14.2b Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. Answer: A) stress 4. Shelagh and Henry are two married adults. Statistically speaking, how is their marriage most likely to affect their health? A) Both are likely to experience health benefits from being married, but Henry will probably benefit more than Shelagh. B) Both are likely to experience health benefits from being married, but Shelagh will probably benefit more than Henry. C) Shelagh will likely have poorer health outcomes due to being married, while Henry will experience health benefits. D) Henry will likely have poorer health outcomes due to being married, while Shelagh will experience health benefits. QuestionID: 14-1-04 Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: A) Both are likely to experience health benefits from being married, but Henry will probably benefit more than Shelagh. 5. The HPA axis involves which three structures? A) Hippocampus, pituitary gland, adrenal glands B) Hypothalamus, pineal gland, adenoids C) Hippocampus, pineal gland, adrenal glands D) Hypothalamus, pituitary gland, adrenal glands QuestionID: 14-1-05 Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: D) Hypothalamus, pituitary gland, adrenal glands 6. The health benefits of close social relationships, such as marriage, appear to be due in part to a hormone called A) epinephrine. B) cortisol. C) oxytocin. D) norepinephrine. QuestionID: 14-1-06 Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: C) oxytocin. 7. Which aspect of Type A personality is most closely correlated with increased risk for heart disease? A) competitiveness B) anger and hostility C) high motivation D) worrying about time QuestionID: 14-1-07 Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: B) anger and hostility 8. Meditation is a relaxation and stress-reduction technique that involves A) focusing on a specific thought or sensation, such as an image or a repeated sound. B) attending to all thoughts, sensations, and feelings without attempting to judge or control them. C) the use of physiological recording instruments to provide feedback that increases awareness of bodily responses. D) bodily interaction with thinking and emotion. QuestionID: 14-1-08 Objective: 14.3a Know the key terminology associated with coping and well-being. Answer: B) attending to all thoughts, sensations, and feelings without attempting to judge or control them. 9. What is the benefit of brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF)? A) It increases stamina during intense exercise. B) It promotes the formation of new brain synapses. C) It severely increases the effects of stress on the body. D) It leads to moderate to severe cognitive impairment. QuestionID: 14-1-09 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 14.3a Know the key terminology associated with coping and well-being. Answer: B) It promotes the formation of new brain synapses. 10. Gretta is in an abusive relationship with her boyfriend. Although leaving her boyfriend is an obvious way to end the abuse, Gretta has been in this situation for so long that she no longer feels that she has any control over it. Gretta's situation illustrates the concept of A) compensatory control. B) learned helplessness. C) resilience. D) post-traumatic growth. QuestionID: 14-1-10 Objective: 14.3a Know the key terminology associated with coping and well-being. Answer: B) learned helplessness. Essay Questions 1. The causes of obesity and being overweight are complicated. Explain the role of genetics as well as one other factor that influences obesity rates in Canada. QuestionID: 14-2-01 Objective: 14.1b Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. Answer: A good answer should include the information about genetics, along with one other topic listed below: Genes: Twin studies indicate that genes are responsible for 50% to 90% of variation in body weight. A person is thought to inherit a "set point" which is the default weight their body will go to without lifestyle extremes such as excessive eating (which will put them over this weight) or regular exercise (which may bring them below this weight). Variation around the set point is thought to be about 10% to 20%, so a person whose genetic set point is 100 kg could weigh between 80 kg and 120 kg depending on lifestyle. Thus, lifestyle factors clearly interact with genetic factors. Sociocultural factors: Cultural influences include advertising for foods that may cause weight gain. Lifestyle: A sedentary lifestyle can cause weight gain both by a person eating more and by a person exercising less (e.g., playing video games and watching television). Poverty and discrimination: Lower socioeconomic status often means that individuals are eating more fast food (more fast food restaurants in lower SES areas with food that is cheaper and higher in fat and calories). People who are in a lower SES or who are discriminated against also tend to experience higher levels of stress—higher levels of stress are related to higher rates of obesity. Marriage: Marriage tends to have a protective effect, with men and women in heterosexual marriages typically being heathier than their single counterparts. 2. The idea that stress leads to stomach ulcers is a commonly held belief. Explain the primary cause of ulcers and the connection to stress (if any). QuestionID: 14-2-02 Objective: 14.2e Analyze the claim that ulcers are caused by stress. Answer: Most ulcers are caused by a bacterium, Helicobacter pylori, which can cause inflammation of the lining of various regions of the digestive tract. This bacterium is surprisingly common, and approximately 10% to 15% of people who are exposed to it will develop an ulcer resulting from inflammation. Thus, stress does not cause ulcers, although it can worsen their symptoms. Also, smoking, alcohol, pain relievers, and a poor diet—anything that can irritate the digestive system—increases problems associated with ulcers. 3. Almost everyone is aware of the physical benefits of exercise, but fewer people are aware of the short- and long-term benefits of exercise. Describe some of these benefits.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 14-2-03 Objective: 14.3e Analyze whether activities such as relaxation techniques and meditation actually help people cope with stress and problems. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Researchers have demonstrated that intense exercise can boost cognitive performance immediately. - This effect may be due to an increase in dopamine, epinephrine, and BDNF. - Exercise has also been shown to increase processing speed immediately. - When sedentary adults between 60 and 85 years of age take up weekly exercise, they show improved brain functioning and cognitive performance. - Regular exercise can also preserve cognitive functioning in older adults. - Researchers have found that older people who are at genetic risk for developing Alzheimer's disease and who show cognitive impairments can slow the rate of memory decline by exercising. Fill-in-the-blank Questions 1. is the leading cause of preventable disease and death in Canada. QuestionID: 14-3-01 Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: a. Smoking 2. The __________ is a statistic used to estimate healthy weight based on the height of an individual. QuestionID: 14-3-02 Skill: Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: a. body mass index and b.BMI 3. Events or stimuli which trigger a stress response are called __________ . QuestionID: 14-3-03 Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: a. stressors 4. The __________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome involves recognizing a threat and the immediate physiological reaction to that threat. QuestionID: 14-3-04 Objective: 14.2b Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. Answer: a. alarm 5. The __________ is the neural and endocrine circuit that causes cortisol levels to increase when it is activated by stress. QuestionID: 14-3-05 Objective: 14.2b Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. Answer: a. HPA axis 6. Having a Type A personality is a risk factor for developing __________ .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 14-3-06 Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: a. coronary heart disease 7. The bacterium Helicobacter pylori is known to be the cause of __________ . QuestionID: 14-3-07 Objective: 14.2e Analyze the claim that ulcers are caused by stress. Answer: a. ulcers 8. describes the ability to grow and experience long-term positive effects in response to negative events. QuestionID: 14-3-08 Objective: 14.3c Understand positive and negative styles of coping. Answer: a. Post-traumatic growth 9. Levels of dopamine, epinephrine, and brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) have all been shown to increase following __________ . QuestionID: 14-3-09 Objective: 14.3b Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. Answer: a. intense exercise 10. When an animal or person develops __________ , they will endure pain even when it is possible to avoid or escape it. QuestionID: 14-3-10 Objective: 14.3b Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. Answer: a. learned helplessness Multiple-Choice Questions 1. _____________ psychologists study both positive and negative impacts of human behaviour and decisions on health, survival, and well-being. A) Psychiatric B) Developmental C) Health D) Humanistic QuestionID: 14-4-01 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: C) Health 2. Unlike in the past, most premature deaths in Canada today can be attributed to A) lifestyle factors. B) genetic disorders. C) contagious diseases. D) criminal activity.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 14-4-02 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: A) lifestyle factors. 3. According to some research, the average smoker dies ____ years earlier than the average nonsmoker. A) 1 to 3 B) 4 to 6 C) 7 to 14 D) 15 to 20 QuestionID: 14-4-03 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: C) 7 to 14 4. _________ is the leading cause of preventable disease and death in Canada. A) Obesity B) Drug use C) Alcohol use D) Smoking QuestionID: 14-4-04 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: D) Smoking 5. Which of the following best describes the current research on whether smoking in movies contributes to adolescent smoking? A) As smoking in the movies increases, adolescent smoking decreases. B) As smoking in the movies decreases, adolescent smoking increases. C) As smoking in the movies increases, adolescent smoking increases. D) All research, to date, has found no relationship between smoking in the movies and adolescent smoking rates. QuestionID: 14-4-05 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.1d Analyze whether media depictions of smoking affect smoking in adolescents. Answer: C) As smoking in the movies increases, adolescent smoking increases. 6. While most students have heard of the "freshman 15," in reality, students who gain weight when they enter university put on an average of _____ pounds. A) 6 B) 10 C) 20 D) 25 QuestionID: 14-4-06 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: A) 6

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

7. Kendra goes to the doctor's office for a physical. After measuring Kendra's weight and height, the doctor enters the data into a mathematical formula and then tells Kendra that she is overweight. The doctor most likely used the formula to calculate Kendra's A) body mass index. B) body-metric indicator. C) set point. D) obesity index. QuestionID: 14-4-07 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: A) body mass index. 8. Which statistic is commonly used to determine whether someone is considered normal weight, underweight, overweight, or obese, by comparing their weight to their height? A) set point B) body-metric indicator C) body mass index D) obesity index QuestionID: 14-4-08 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: C) body mass index 9. The body mass index allows people to A) calculate how many calories they should eat each day. B) calculate a healthy body weight based on their height. C) determine whether they are genetically more likely to become obese. D) determine their set point. QuestionID: 14-4-09 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: B) calculate a healthy body weight based on their height. 10. According to Statistics Canada, approximately ______ of Canadians are considered obese. A) 15% B) 51% C) 24% D) 5% QuestionID: 14-4-10 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: C) 24% 11. What do twin and adoption studies indicate about the role of genes in body weight? A) Genes account for between 50% and 90% of the variation in body weight. B) Genes account for a moderate 15–20% of the variation in body weight. C) Genes account for only 5–10% of the variation in body weight. D) Body weight is not influenced by genes. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 14-4-11 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1b Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. Answer: A) Genes account for between 50% and 90% of the variation in body weight. 12. Some researchers believe that the body has a mechanism known as a(n) ________, that serves to keep your body weight within a small range. A) mass index B) set point C) energy balance D) weight restriction QuestionID: 14-4-12 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1b Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. Answer: B) set point 13. Patrick decided to lose weight by dieting. He found that it was relatively easy to lose the first 18 pounds or so, but after that, he felt his body was fighting his effort to lose more weight. Patrick's experience is consistent with the concept of A) weight resilience. B) the general adaptation syndrome. C) habituation. D) a set point. QuestionID: 14-4-13 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.1b Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. Answer: D) a set point. 14. According to set point theory, the set point is initially set by _______________, but can be modified by ______________. A) genetic factors; environmental factors B) environmental factors; genetic factors C) exercise; caloric intake D) caloric intake; exercise QuestionID: 14-4-14 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.1b Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. Answer: A) genetic factors; environmental factors 15. According to the set point theory, which of the following could cause a person's set point to change? A) exposure to food advertising B) stress C) deciding to lose weight D) gaining a large amount of weight QuestionID: 14-4-15 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.1b Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: D) gaining a large amount of weight 16. According to your textbook, why do some researchers question the role of a physiological set point being responsible for the difficulty some people have when trying to lose excess weight? A) The body's metabolic rate is fixed and does not change. B) The difficulty in losing excess weight is greatly exaggerated. C) Lower activity levels appear to be able to explain the difference. D) Set point theory assumes that a person's set point cannot change. QuestionID: 14-4-16 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.1b Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. Answer: C) Lower activity levels appear to be able to explain the difference. 17. Research discussed in your textbook indicates that television advertisements can have a significant impact on A) the choice to smoke. B) snacking. C) stress levels. D) activity level. QuestionID: 14-4-17 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1b Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. Answer: B) snacking. 18. Jim likes to watch TV and Jim's twin brother, John, likes to play games on his computer. What is likely to be true of the two brothers? A) They will weigh the same. B) John will weigh more than Jim, but they will both be overweight. C) Jim is more likely to be obese than John. D) John is more likely to be obese than Jim. QuestionID: 14-4-18 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.1b Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. Answer: C) Jim is more likely to be obese than John. 19. The increase in the number of children living sedentary lifestyles is likely due in part to A) video games. B) increased time spent in school. C) an increase in school-related stress. D) eating habits portrayed in movies. QuestionID: 14-4-19 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1b Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. Answer: A) video games. 20. According to your textbook, people who __________ have less brain tissue and older-looking brains than is typical for their age. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

are obese have lower income are thin play video games

QuestionID: 14-4-20 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: A) are obese 21. The health problems of children growing up in poverty are thought to be further compounded by _________, which can lead to an increased risk for heart disease. A) absent parents B) stress C) time spent watching television D) cultural backgrounds QuestionID: 14-4-21 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: B) stress 22. High stress levels and poor nutrition put children who grow up in low socioeconomic status communities at a greater risk of developing ___________ as adults. A) schizophrenia B) heart disease C) post-traumatic growth D) social contagion QuestionID: 14-4-22 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: B) heart disease 23. Which of the following is true about discrimination? A) Experiencing discrimination has short-, but not long-term effects on health. B) Discrimination has a long-term effect on mental health, but not physical health. C) Discrimination has a long-term effect on physical health, but not mental health. D) Discrimination has a long-term effect on both physical and mental health. QuestionID: 14-4-23 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: D) Discrimination has a long-term effect on both physical and mental health. 24. _____________ is as great a mortality risk as smoking, obesity, and high blood pressure. A) Poor job satisfaction B) Chronic social isolation C) Being married D) Experiencing an episode of discrimination QuestionID: 14-4-24 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: B) Chronic social isolation 25. _________ describes the ability to endure and recover from life stressors, and can protect an individual from negative health outcomes caused by those stressors. A) Social resilience B) Social isolation C) Marriage D) Social contagion QuestionID: 14-4-25 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: A) Social resilience 26. Although Kassie has had a very stressful year—losing her whole family in a car crash—she has managed to remain positive and optimistic about the future. It is likely that Kassie has strong _________, which will protect her from the negative outcomes of the stress she has been enduring. A) stress appraisal B) social isolation C) social resilience D) social contagion QuestionID: 14-4-26 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: C) social resilience 27. Which of the following is TRUE about health effects of marriage? A) Both men and women receive equal health benefits from marriage. B) While both men and women benefit from marriage, men typically experience the greater health benefits. C) While both men and women benefit from marriage, women typically experience the greater health benefits. D) Men are more likely to benefit, while women are more likely to have a decrease in health as a result of marrying. QuestionID: 14-4-27 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: B) While both men and women benefit from marriage, men typically experience the greater health benefits. 28. Jonah (male) and Lacey (female) just got married. Although every marriage is different, how is their marriage most likely to affect their health? A) Jonah's health will benefit from the marriage while Lacey's health with suffer. B) Lacey's health will benefit from the marriage while Jonah's health with suffer. C) Both Jonah and Lacey will benefit, but Jonah will benefit more. D) Both Jonah and Lacey will benefit, but Lacey will benefit more. QuestionID: 14-4-28 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: C) Both Jonah and Lacey will benefit, but Jonah will benefit more. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

29. Which of the following may explain why the health benefit of heterosexual marriage is different for men versus women? A) Women tend to recognize and support the health of others more than men. B) Men tend to be more protective of their spouse than women. C) Men tend to recognize and support the health of others more than women. D) Women are less likely to seek medical attention if they are married. QuestionID: 14-4-29 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: A) Women tend to recognize and support the health of others more than men. 30. The unintentional spreading of a behaviour, as a result of social interactions is referred to as A) social resilience. B) social contagion. C) social spreading. D) viral marketing. QuestionID: 14-4-30 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: B) social contagion. 31. When Wally decided to quit smoking, several of his friends began smoking less. Over time, most of Wally's friends eventually stopped smoking as well. This is an example of A) social contagion. B) discrimination. C) coercion. D) habituation. QuestionID: 14-4-31 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: A) social contagion. 32. Over time, groups of people who interact regularly can become increasingly similar in terms of body weight, smoking habits, and even happiness. This increased similarity is likely due to A) viral susceptibility. B) social contagion. C) set point changes. D) coercion. QuestionID: 14-4-32 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: B) social contagion. 33. Felicia was always a good student, earning mostly B's in high-school. When she arrived at university, she was paired with Amelia, a straight-A student. Over the semester, Felicia and Amelia spent a lot of time together studying, talking, and hanging out. At the end of the term, Felicia noticed that most of her grades had started improving. Felicia's academic success might be attributed to .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

social resilience. coercion. set point changes. social contagion.

QuestionID: 14-4-33 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: D) social contagion. 34. ________ occurs when the demands of a situation exceed our ability to cope effectively. A) Stress B) Social isolation C) Resilience D) Appraisal QuestionID: 14-4-34 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: A) Stress 35. ________ are the events that lead to the experience of stress. A) Repressed stimuli B) Negative reinforcers C) Traumas D) Stressors QuestionID: 14-4-35 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: D) Stressors 36. Which of the following would most likely be an acute stressor? A) growing up in poverty B) long-term unemployment C) having a fight with your partner D) having a relative with mental illness QuestionID: 14-4-36 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: C) having a fight with your partner 37. According to Lazarus and Folkman, our first task when faced with a potential stressor is to determine whether it is a challenge or threat. This evaluation is referred to as A) primary appraisal. B) secondary appraisal. C) a daily hassle appraisal. D) a social readjustment rating. QuestionID: 14-4-37 Skill: Conceptual .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: A) primary appraisal. 38. Miranda is questioning whether her upcoming business trip, where she must travel through an area affected by the Zika virus, will pose a danger for her. As such, this example illustrates A) a social readjustment rating. B) coping. C) primary appraisal. D) secondary appraisal. QuestionID: 14-4-38 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: C) primary appraisal. 39. Imagine that you have just flunked a class. You evaluate this situation and decide that flunking a class is stressful and important enough to be upset about. Next you decide to repeat the class in summer school. You have made A) a primary appraisal only. B) both a primary and a secondary appraisal. C) a social readjustment. D) a daily hassle coping decision. QuestionID: 14-4-39 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: B) both a primary and a secondary appraisal. 40. After we have decided that a certain event is a stressor, we must decide how we will deal with it and what resources are available for coping. This process is called A) primary appraisal. B) secondary appraisal. C) social readjustment rating. D) daily hassle appraisal. QuestionID: 14-4-40 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: B) secondary appraisal. 41. According to its developers, a person who has a higher score on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale is more likely than people with lower scores to A) be protected from negative health outcomes. B) file for divorce from their spouse. C) engage in criminal activity. D) develop significant illnesses and infections. QuestionID: 14-4-41 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: D) develop significant illnesses and infections. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

42. The Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS) was designed to measure change due to A) positive life events. B) major life events. C) minor daily stressors. D) negative life events. QuestionID: 14-4-42 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: B) major life events. 43. ______________ measures the amount of stress in a person's life resulting from major life changes. A) Daily Hassles Scale B) An electrocardiogram C) The Social Readjustment Rating Scale D) NEO-PI-R QuestionID: 14-4-43 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: C) The Social Readjustment Rating Scale 44. Which of the following is true about stress? A) Any amount of stress is undesirable and should be avoided. B) High levels of stress typically lead to improved performance on difficult tasks. C) Stress facilitates performance on complex tasks more than it does on simple tasks. D) Moderate levels of stress can be beneficial for motivation. QuestionID: 14-4-44 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: D) Moderate levels of stress can be beneficial for motivation. 45. Gracious is experiencing absolutely no stress while taking a test. What effect could this have on his performance, and why? A) It will improve his grade because he will experience less distraction. B) It will improve his grade because he will be able to recall information more easily. C) It will lower his grade because his arousal level will not be optimal. D) It will lower his grade because suppressing stress taxes cognitive resources. QuestionID: 14-4-45 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: C) It will lower his grade because his arousal level will not be optimal. 46. Generally speaking, lower levels of arousal facilitate ______________, while higher levels of arousal facilitate ______________. A) studying; test taking B) test taking; studying C) solving complex tasks; solving simple tasks D) solving simple tasks; solving complex tasks .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 14-4-46 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: C) solving complex tasks; solving simple tasks 47. The term "fight-or-flight response" was coined by A) William James. B) Walter Cannon. C) Francis Sumner. D) Mary Carver. QuestionID: 14-4-47 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: B) Walter Cannon. 48. According to Cannon, the "fight-or-flight response" is A) a general response to many different types of stressors. B) a negative response to physical stressors such as illness or injury. C) an extreme form of the stress response that only occurs in life-threatening emergencies. D) a coping strategy for psychological stressors. QuestionID: 14-4-48 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: A) a general response to many different types of stressors. 49. Which psychologist is credited with proposing the general adaptation syndrome? A) Selye B) Berkowitz C) Holmes and Rahe D) Lazarus QuestionID: 14-4-49 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.2b Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. Answer: A) Selye 50. What is the correct sequence of stages in the general adaptation syndrome? A) resistance, alarm, exhaustion B) exhaustion, resistance, alarm C) alarm, exhaustion, resistance D) alarm, resistance, exhaustion QuestionID: 14-4-50 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.2b Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. Answer: D) alarm, resistance, exhaustion 51. Adelaida hears a rattling sound as she hikes through the desert. Her muscles tense and her blood pressure .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

rises. According to Hans Selye, she is in the A) fight phase. B) alarm phase. C) exhaustion phase. D) resistance phase. QuestionID: 14-4-51 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.2b Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. Answer: B) alarm phase. 52. In which stage of the general adaptation syndrome has the body reached the limits of its ability to adapt to stress and may result in the development of stress-related diseases? A) alarm B) collapse C) exhaustion D) resistance QuestionID: 14-4-52 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.2b Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. Answer: C) exhaustion 53. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome might explain why college students tend to experience a higher rate of absenteeism from class around midterm and final exam time each semester? A) resistance B) exhaustion C) alarm D) flight QuestionID: 14-4-53 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.2b Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. Answer: B) exhaustion 54. For the past six months, Dahlia's job has been extremely stressful, but she doesn't feel that she can quit because she needs the money for tuition. Dahlia has been having chronic headaches and is behind in all of her classes. According to Hans Selye, Dahlia is in the ______ stage of the general adaptation syndrome. A) alarm B) flight C) exhaustion D) resistance QuestionID: 14-4-54 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.2b Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. Answer: C) exhaustion 55. When you are under stress, the _______________ sends messages to the endocrine glands along two major pathways. A) amygdala B) hippocampus .

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C) hypothalamus D) corpus callosum QuestionID: 14-4-55 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.2b Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. Answer: C) hypothalamus 56. When a person is under stress, the hypothalamus activates the __________ nervous system, producing the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine into the body. A) somatic B) central C) autonomic D) endocrine QuestionID: 14-4-56 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.2b Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. Answer: C) autonomic 57. Which of the following is a key stress hormone released by the adrenal cortex? A) cortisol B) epinephrine C) norepinephrine D) oxytocin QuestionID: 14-4-57 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.2b Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. Answer: A) cortisol 58. The activation of the HPA axis allows the body to A) repair and recover after experiencing chronic stress. B) rest and digest. C) prepare to respond to stressors. D) lower its internal temperature and conserve energy. QuestionID: 14-4-58 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.2b Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. Answer: C) prepare to respond to stressors. 59. The "HPA" axis is an abbreviation for A) hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal. B) hormonal–pubertal–adrenal circuit. C) hippocampus–pituitary–amygdala circuit. D) heritable–peripheral–adrenal cortex. QuestionID: 14-4-59 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.2b Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress.

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Answer: A) hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal. 60. Jamie has worked for the Jones & Miller law firm for the past five years. The firm is in the process of downsizing and laying off employees. Jamie is afraid that she may lose her job. To help deal with this stressful situation, Jamie tends to rely on her social contacts for support, in addition to nurturing those around her. This is known as _____________ response. A) fight-or-flight B) tend-and-befriend C) caring-and-coping D) friending-and-mending QuestionID: 14-4-60 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: B) tend-and-befriend 61. ____________ is the primary hormone thought to be involved with the 'tend-and-befriend' stress response. A) Oxytocin B) Cortisol C) Epinephrine D) Norepinephrine QuestionID: 14-4-61 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: A) Oxytocin 62. Vasopressin and oxytocin have been found to __________ the release of cortisol and _________ inflammation. A) increase; increase B) increase; reduce C) decrease; increase D) decrease; reduce QuestionID: 14-4-62 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: D) decrease; reduce 63. The field of __________ studies the relationship between immune and nervous system functioning. A) health psychology B) medical psychology C) psychoneuroimmunology D) stress psychology QuestionID: 14-4-63 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.2c Understand how the immune system is connected to stress responses. Answer: C) psychoneuroimmunology 64. People living under chronic stressful conditions tend to get sick more often than they would otherwise. How do researchers explain this phenomenon? .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

Chronic stress tends to reduce immune system functioning, thus making us more vulnerable to diseases. Chronic stress leads to a lowering of the heart rate, which makes the heart inefficient. Acute stress makes muscles stronger, which places a greater burden on the heart and respiratory system. The body tends to adapt to the constant call for the stress response and, thus, future responses are not as strong as before.

QuestionID: 14-4-64 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.2c Understand how the immune system is connected to stress responses. Answer: A) Chronic stress tends to reduce immune system functioning, thus making us more vulnerable to diseases. 65. Men who experience ongoing stress are at a much higher risk of developing coronary heart disease compared to other men. What is the connection between chronic stress and heart disease? A) Stress hormones slow down heart rate, decreasing circulation and allowing plaques to build up. B) Stress overstimulates heart tissue, which leads to damage. C) Stress hormones block the absorption of oxygen into the blood, leading to enlargement of the heart. D) Stress triggers the inflammatory response, which leads to the development of plaques. QuestionID: 14-4-65 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.2c Understand how the immune system is connected to stress responses. Answer: D) Stress triggers the inflammatory response, which leads to the development of plaques. 66. Andre is the type of person who wants everything done perfectly the first time. When playing a game, he feels like he must win. He is easily provoked to anger, but he is also readily ambitious. Based on these traits, Andre might be categorized as having a ____________ personality. A) neurotic B) Type A C) Type B D) conscientious QuestionID: 14-4-66 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: B) Type A 67. Aviana has a Type A personality. Which of the following traits are descriptive of her personality? A) competitive and impatient B) negative and distressed C) relaxed and easygoing D) obsessive and neat QuestionID: 14-4-67 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: A) competitive and impatient 68. Rosalie is a rather easygoing kind of woman. She works hard when she's at the office, but she refuses to do more than 40 hours of work per week. She knows that she could earn more money if she worked harder but she really values time at home with her husband and children. She likes to garden, listen to music, and sip wine while sitting on her deck during a sunset. Rosalie even turns off her cell phone during the weekends so that she won't be bothered. Rosalie likely has a __________ personality. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

Type A creative Type B extrovert

QuestionID: 14-4-68 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: C) Type B 69. Leyson has a Type B personality. Which of the following is most likely? A) Leyson is determined to achieve. B) Leyson is competitive. C) Leyson gets easily upset. D) Leyson is slow to anger. QuestionID: 14-4-69 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: D) Leyson is slow to anger. 70. The Type A behaviour pattern is a significant predictor of A) mental illness. B) coronary heart disease. C) cancer. D) respiratory illnesses. QuestionID: 14-4-70 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: B) coronary heart disease. 71. Which Type A personality characteristic is the key trait that is linked to heart disease? A) hostility B) compulsiveness C) competitiveness D) chronic irritability QuestionID: 14-4-71 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: A) hostility 72. Which of the following statements regarding ulcers is true? A) Helicobacter pylori is the primary cause of stomach ulcers. B) Chronic stress is the primary cause of stomach ulcers. C) Spicy foods and an unhealthy diet are the primary causes of stomach ulcers. D) Ulcers are uniquely genetic and stress has nothing to do with the symptoms of ulcers. QuestionID: 14-4-72 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.2e Analyze the claim that ulcers are caused by stress. .

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Answer: A) Helicobacter pylori is the primary cause of stomach ulcers. 73. Aurora has a serious disorder known as __________, in which the human immunodeficiency virus attacks and damages the immune system. A) multiple sclerosis (MS) B) Alzheimer's disease (AD) C) acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) D) Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD) QuestionID: 14-4-73 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.2c Understand how the immune system is connected to stress responses. Answer: C) acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) 74. Which of the following is true about HIV/AIDS and stress? A) Stress can reduce the effectiveness of vaccination and antiretroviral treatments for HIV/AIDS. B) Surprisingly, moderate stress has been found to suppress HIV in the body. C) Stress can affect those who have AIDS, but has little effect on people who are only HIV positive. D) Stress has little to no effect on HIV/AIDS. QuestionID: 14-4-74 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.2c Understand how the immune system is connected to stress responses. Answer: A) Stress can reduce the effectiveness of vaccination and antiretroviral treatments for HIV/AIDS. 75. Research suggests that two ways in which cancer patients can potentially slow the disease's progression are A) stimulating the body's fight-or-flight response and guided imagery. B) strenuous exercise and injections of norepinephrine. C) participating in stressful events (e.g., public speaking). D) learning anger management techniques and being optimistic. QuestionID: 14-4-75 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.2c Understand how the immune system is connected to stress responses. Answer: D) learning anger management techniques and being optimistic. 76. ____________ refers to the processes used to manage demands, stress, and conflict. A) Reliance B) Coping C) Affectivity D) Biofeedback QuestionID: 14-4-76 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.3a Know the key terminology associated with coping and well-being. Answer: B) Coping 77. A(n) ___________ coping strategy is more suited to situations with identifiable solutions. In contrast, a(n) ___________ coping strategy is more suited to situations without clear solutions. A) negative; positive B) positive; negative .

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C) emotional; problem-solving D) problem-solving; emotional QuestionID: 14-4-77 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.3c Understand positive and negative styles of coping. Answer: D) problem-solving; emotional 78. Which area of psychology specifically studies human strengths and potential? A) positive psychology B) optimism psychology C) resilience psychology D) biofeedback psychology QuestionID: 14-4-78 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.3a Know the key terminology associated with coping and well-being. Answer: A) positive psychology 79. When looking at a glass that is neither completely full nor completely empty, a(n) __________ might say "that glass is half full," while a(n) ____________ might say "no, that glass is half empty!" A) pessimist; optimist B) realist; pessimist C) optimist; realist D) optimist; pessimist QuestionID: 14-4-79 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.3a Know the key terminology associated with coping and well-being. Answer: D) optimist; pessimist 80. Adena looks on the bright side of life. When a situation is not going well, she is able to bring to light something positive. This is known as A) optimism. B) pessimism. C) resiliency. D) affectivity. QuestionID: 14-4-80 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.3c Understand positive and negative styles of coping. Answer: A) optimism. 81. Orson just received his calculus final exam mark back and sees that he failed. He immediately comes to the conclusion that he failed because he's stupid and will always fail everything. Orson's explanation of his performance is an example of A) a pessimistic explanatory style. B) negative affectivity. C) a neurotic personality style. D) post-traumatic growth. QuestionID: 14-4-81 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Applied Objective: 14.3c Understand positive and negative styles of coping. Answer: A) a pessimistic explanatory style. 82. When bad things happen to some people, they tend to blame it on themselves and fail to realize that things are likely to get better. This is known as A) a pessimistic explanatory style. B) learned helplessness. C) compensatory control. D) resilience. QuestionID: 14-4-82 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.3c Understand positive and negative styles of coping. Answer: A) a pessimistic explanatory style. 83. Optimism is linked with A) better physical health. B) higher mortality rate. C) genetic inheritance. D) racial and ethnic background. QuestionID: 14-4-83 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.3c Understand positive and negative styles of coping. Answer: A) better physical health. 84. Petra has suffered several setbacks in the last year, including breaking up with her boyfriend and losing her job. Petra did not let these setbacks negatively affect her life for long and recovered from them quickly. Which trait does Petra best illustrate? A) learned helplessness B) resilience C) optimism D) negative affectivity QuestionID: 14-4-84 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.3c Understand positive and negative styles of coping. Answer: B) resilience 85. The ability to grow and experience long-term positive effects in response to negative events is known as A) resilience. B) post-traumatic growth. C) optimism. D) psychoneuroimmunology. QuestionID: 14-4-85 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.3c Understand positive and negative styles of coping. Answer: B) post-traumatic growth.

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86. Derek sits in his therapist's office while attached to a heart rate monitor with a digital display. When Derek becomes anxious and his heart rate increases, his therapist instructs him to concentrate on lowering the rate displayed on the device. This is an example of using ________________ as part of anxiety therapy. A) integrated mind-body training B) concentrative meditation C) biofeedback D) mindfulness QuestionID: 14-4-86 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.3e Analyze whether activities such as relaxation techniques and meditation actually help people cope with stress and problems. Answer: C) biofeedback 87. According to your textbook, which of the following is true about the use of biofeedback for reducing stress? A) Biofeedback is not effective for reducing stress. B) Biofeedback is the most effective therapy for reducing stress. C) Simple relaxation techniques appear to be just as effective as biofeedback. D) Biofeedback is effective for reducing stress, but is considered unethical by many therapists. QuestionID: 14-4-87 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.3e Analyze whether activities such as relaxation techniques and meditation actually help people cope with stress and problems. Answer: C) Simple relaxation techniques appear to be just as effective as biofeedback. 88. Guadalupe has been having a lot of stress at work recently, and has spoken to a therapist about how to better handle her anxiety. Her therapist suggests that she try _________ meditation, which involves focusing exclusively on a single object, internal sound, or her own breathing. A) focused attention B) open monitoring C) mind-body D) biofeedback QuestionID: 14-4-88 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.3e Analyze whether activities such as relaxation techniques and meditation actually help people cope with stress and problems. Answer: A) focused attention 89. ________ meditation involves narrowing one's focus to a single event, while _______ involves allowing attention to flow freely and focusing on whatever comes to mind. A) Open monitoring; focused attention B) Mind-body; biofeedback C) Biofeedback; mind-body D) Focused attention; open monitoring QuestionID: 14-4-89 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.3e Analyze whether activities such as relaxation techniques and meditation actually help people cope with stress and problems. Answer: D) Focused attention; open monitoring .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

90. In a brain imaging study in which participants learned integrated mind-body training, increased activity in the anterior cingulate gyrus was associated with A) a feeling of floating. B) a heightened sense of relaxation. C) increased skin conductance (sweating). D) increased calming visual imagery. QuestionID: 14-4-90 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.3e Analyze whether activities such as relaxation techniques and meditation actually help people cope with stress and problems. Answer: B) a heightened sense of relaxation. 91. Research suggests that people who are involved in a religion and attend services regularly are more likely to A) live a shorter life than are those who do not have religious beliefs. B) have elevated levels of cortisol due to chronic stress. C) live longer than do those who do not have religious beliefs. D) have a pessimistic explanatory style. QuestionID: 14-4-91 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.3a Know the key terminology associated with coping and well-being. Answer: C) live longer than do those who do not have religious beliefs. 92. In comparison to nonreligious people, religious individuals have higher mortality rates and higher blood pressure. lower mortality rates and lower levels of depression. lower mortality rates and lower blood pressure. lower mortality rates and higher levels of depression. QuestionID: 14-4-92 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.3a Know the key terminology associated with coping and well-being. Answer: B) lower mortality rates and lower levels of depression. 93. ________________ is a protein in the nervous system that promotes survival, growth, and formation of new synapses. A) Cortisol B) Vasopressin C) Oxytocin D) Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) QuestionID: 14-4-93 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.3b Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. Answer: D) Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) 94. What is brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF)? A) a stress hormone with similar properties to cortisol B) a nutrient found in fruits and vegetables C) a protein linked to the formation of new synapses .

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D) an essential oil found in fatty fish QuestionID: 14-4-94 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.3b Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. Answer: C) a protein linked to the formation of new synapses 95. One way in which exercise is believed to improve cognitive functioning is by increasing levels of ____________ in the brain. A) cortisol B) brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) C) oxytocin D) norepinephrine QuestionID: 14-4-95 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.3b Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. Answer: B) brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) 96. Which of the following is NOT associated with exercise? A) increased BDNF release B) the release of cortisol C) improved brain functioning and cognitive performance D) increased production of new neurons in the hippocampus QuestionID: 14-4-96 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.3b Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. Answer: B) the release of cortisol 97. In a study described in your textbook, researchers randomly assigned participants to sprint, jog, or do nothing and then memorize a vocabulary list. Which group was able to learn the most words on average? A) the group that sprinted B) the group that jogged C) the group that did nothing D) There was no significant difference between the groups. QuestionID: 14-4-97 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.3b Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. Answer: A) the group that sprinted 98. Which of the following is true about the benefits of exercise? A) Exercise has long-term, but no short-term effects on cognition. B) Exercise has short-term (e.g., memorizing word lists), but no long-term effects on cognition. C) Exercising has physical effects on the body, but does not affect cognition. D) Exercising can slow the memory declines associated with Alzheimer's disease. QuestionID: 14-4-98 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.3b Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook.

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Answer: D) Exercising can slow the memory declines associated with Alzheimer's disease. 99. What is the relationship between perceived control and the experience of stress? A) Research has not revealed any relationship between stress and perceived control. B) Stress and control are directly related, meaning that the more control we perceive we have, the more stress we tend to experience. C) Experiencing stress in a given situation lowers our perception of the control we have over that stressor. D) The perception that one has control over a situation helps reduce the stress caused by that situation. QuestionID: 14-4-99 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 14.3b Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. Answer: D) The perception that one has control over a situation helps reduce the stress caused by that situation. 100. In a famous study, Seligman and his colleagues trained dogs that a tone predicted an inescapable shock. When the dogs were put into a situation where they could avoid the shock simply by moving to a "safe zone," they would simply lie down and receive the shock. This phenomenon is called A) animal pessimism. B) learned helplessness. C) a pessimistic response pattern. D) negative affectivity. QuestionID: 14-4-100 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.3b Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. Answer: B) learned helplessness. 101. When Franz was young his older brother would beat him up. Franz is now stronger than his brother and could stop him; however, Franz simply curls up into a ball and lets his brother beat him up. This might be an example of A) pessimism. B) learned helplessness. C) a pessimistic response pattern. D) negative affectivity. QuestionID: 14-4-101 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.3b Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. Answer: B) learned helplessness. 102. Many people cope with stressful life events through _______________, which refers to psychological strategies people use to preserve a sense of nonrandom order when personal control is compromised. A) compensatory control B) post-traumatic growth C) pessimistic explanatory styles D) negative affectivity QuestionID: 14-4-102 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.3b Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. Answer: A) compensatory control

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103. Nelson has recently begun to feel that he has no control over his life. Which of the following is he most likely to do as a result? A) abandon his religious beliefs B) adapt through post-traumatic growth C) develop a negative affectivity toward the world D) adopt superstitious beliefs to explain events QuestionID: 14-4-103 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.3b Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. Answer: D) adopt superstitious beliefs to explain events 104. Sometimes people demonstrate a heightened need for structure in their personal and social lives. For example, they may perceive patterns in abstract images, believe in superstition, or endorse conspiracy theories. Which of the following BEST reflects the main reason people seek patterns? A) Abstract scenes such as clouds, superstitious beliefs, and conspiracy theories are inherently meaningful. B) Lack of structure is the main reason why people create healthy cultures that provide psychological protection. C) Randomness in life creates anxiety and a need for a compensatory sense of control. D) When people are physically threatened, they can first defend themselves symbolically by mobilizing their worldviews. QuestionID: 14-4-104 Skill: Applied Objective: 14.3b Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. Answer: C) Randomness in life creates anxiety and a need for a compensatory sense of control. 105. According to recent research in mental health, about 90% of _____________ circulating in our brain is manufactured by _____________. A) dopamine; kidneys. B) serotonin; intestinal microbes. C) epinephrine; liver. D) norepinephrine; pancreas. QuestionID: 14-4-105 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: B) serotonin; intestinal microbes. 106. Which of the following statements about the impact of social media on overall physical health is FALSE? A) Information on social media can be outright false (e.g., vaccines cause autism). B) Information on social media can be based on mistakes of scientists (e.g., statin drugs cause major adverse side effects). C) Cause and effect relationships can be overstated on social media (e.g., consumption of organic food causes physical health). D) About 95% of the articles on social media (e.g., Facebook and Twitter) overinterpret or incorrectly interpret the results of the scientific articles. QuestionID: 14-4-106 Skill: Factual Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: D) About 95% of the articles on social media (e.g., Facebook and Twitter) overinterpret or incorrectly interpret the results of the scientific articles. .

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Supplementary Questions 1. According to set point theory, a person's initial weight is determined by A) heredity. B) eating habits during adolescence and adulthood. C) diet during the first two years of life. D) the mother's diet before birth of the child. QuestionID: 14-5-01 Objective: 14.1b Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. Answer: A) heredity. 2. Darren lost his job last week. At first, he was very upset, but now he is doing his best to find a new job. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is Darren most likely experiencing? A) alarm B) resistance C) exhaustion D) fight-or-flight QuestionID: 14-5-02 Objective: 14.2b Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. Answer: B) resistance 3. Dr. Ellis works in the emergency room (ER) of Toronto East General Hospital. For years, Dr. Ellis has been able to cope with the daily stressors that come with working in the ER, and has only ever been diagnosed with high blood pressure. One day, however, Dr. Ellis has a sudden heart attack. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is Dr. Ellis most likely experiencing? A) alarm B) resistance C) exhaustion D) fight-or-flight QuestionID: 14-5-03 Objective: 14.2b Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. Answer: C) exhaustion 4. Without any warning, David's wife told him she was divorcing him to be with another man. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is David most likely experiencing? A) alarm B) resistance C) exhaustion D) fight-or-flight QuestionID: 14-5-04 Objective: 14.2b Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. Answer: A) alarm 5. A student is very stressed because of her upcoming final exams. She does her best to study day and night, but near the end of the exam period, she begins to get sick with a runny nose, cough, and fever. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is this student most likely experiencing? A) alarm .

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B) resistance C) exhaustion D) fight-or-flight QuestionID: 14-5-05 Objective: 14.2b Understand the physiological reactions that occur under stress. Answer: C) exhaustion 6. Type A behaviour is characterized by A) learned helplessness. B) relaxed attitude. C) anger and impatience. D) lack of competitiveness. QuestionID: 14-5-06 Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: C) anger and impatience. 7. Which statement concerning psychoneuroimmunology is accurate? A) Positive thinking can reverse serious illnesses such as cancer. B) Significant psychological stressors can be predictive of who develops a cold. C) Psychotherapy appears to prolong the survival of people diagnosed with cancer. D) Negative thinking can stimulate the development of an illness. QuestionID: 14-5-07 Objective: 14.2c Understand how the immune system is connected to stress responses. Answer: B) Significant psychological stressors can be predictive of who develops a cold. 8. Animals exposed to unavoidable, uncontrollable aversive stimulation exhibit _______ when later trained in an avoidance procedure. A) experimental neurosis B) better learning C) learned helplessness D) enhanced performance QuestionID: 14-5-08 Objective: 14.3b Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. Answer: C) learned helplessness True-False Questions 1. The leading cause of preventable death in Canada today is obesity. a True b False QuestionID: 14-6-01 Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: b. False 2. According to set point theory, the body tries to maintain body weight within a relatively small range. a True .

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b False QuestionID: 14-6-02 Objective: 14.1b Understand how genetic and environmental factors influence obesity. Answer: a. True 3. In terms of health, both spouses benefit equally from marriage. a True b False QuestionID: 14-6-03 Objective: 14.1a Know the key terminology related to health psychology. Answer: b. False 4. A moderate amount of stress can be beneficial for motivation. a True b False QuestionID: 14-6-04 Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: a. True 5. The hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine are released from the adrenal cortex in response to stress and are associated with the HPA axis. a True b False QuestionID: 14-6-05 Objective: 14.2a Know the key terminology associated with stress and illness. Answer: b. False 6. Most ulcers are caused by stress. a True b False QuestionID: 14-6-06 Objective: 14.2e Analyze the claim that ulcers are caused by stress. Answer: b. False 7. Optimists are better protected against coronary heart disease than are pessimists. a True b False QuestionID: 14-6-07 Objective: 14.3d Apply your knowledge of the beneficial effects of optimism to help you reframe stressful situations as positive opportunities. Answer: a. True 8. Contrary to widespread beliefs, meditation has NOT been found to be beneficial for coping with stress. a True

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b False QuestionID: 14-6-08 Objective: 14.3e Analyze whether activities such as relaxation techniques and meditation actually help people cope with stress and problems. Answer: b. False 9. Circumstances in which people have little or no control are less stressful because they do not require decisions or choices. a True b False QuestionID: 14-6-09 Objective: 14.3b Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. Answer: b. False 10. When people feel their sense of control is undermined, they compensate by heightening their search for structure in the world. a True b False QuestionID: 14-6-10 Objective: 14.3b Understand how control over the environment influences coping and outlook. Answer: a. True

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Chapter 15 : Psychological Disorders Chapter Quiz Questions 1. Psychologists and psychiatrists use the criteria laid out in the most recent edition of the _____ to diagnose psychological disorders. A) Dimensional and Categorical Atlas of Mental Health B) International Diagnostic Guidelines C) Disorders, Syndromes, and Mental Health Manual D) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual for Mental Disorders QuestionID: 15-1-01 Objective: 15.1a Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: D) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual for Mental Disorders 2. Carefully prescribed doses of _________ have shown promise in treating PTSD. A) MDMA B) LSD C) Cannabis D) Heroin QuestionID: 15-1-02 Objective: 15.1a Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: A) MDMA 3. Megan's few friends complain that she is often melodramatic and emotionally immature. Megan loves attention (especially from men) and is constantly flirting, often inappropriately. If Megan was diagnosed with a psychological disorder, which of the following would be the most likely candidate? A) narcissistic personality disorder B) borderline personality disorder C) histrionic personality disorder D) antisocial personality disorder QuestionID: 15-1-03 Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: C) histrionic personality disorder 4. Which of the following disorders do many psychologists believe is not a valid diagnosis? A) dissociative identity disorder B) schizophrenia C) histrionic personality disorder D) post-traumatic stress disorder QuestionID: 15-1-04 Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: A) dissociative identity disorder 5. In addition to suffering from panic attacks, people with panic disorder often develop an intense fear of A) having a panic attack when they are alone. B) public places. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) germs. D) leaving the stove on. QuestionID: 15-1-05 Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: B) public places. 6. Andrew washes his hands 100 or more times each day. The constant washing causes the skin on his hands to dry and crack, yet he continues to engage in this behaviour. Andrew's behaviour is an example of A) an obsession. B) agoraphobia. C) a compulsion. D) a phobia. QuestionID: 15-1-06 Objective: 15.3d Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders in order to identify which behavioural symptoms are associated with each disorder. Answer: C) a compulsion. 7. All other things equal, a person living in a _____ neighbourhood, who also inherited the _____ copy of the 5HTT gene, would have the greatest risk of developing depression. A) middle-class; long B) poor; short C) middle-class; short D) poor; long QuestionID: 15-1-07 Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: B) poor; short 8. _____ are false beliefs about reality, whereas _____ are false perceptions of reality, such as hearing internal voices. A) Positive symptoms; negative symptoms B) Negative symptoms; positive symptoms C) Hallucinations; delusions D) Delusions; hallucinations QuestionID: 15-1-08 Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: D) Delusions; hallucinations 9. Which of the following statements about individuals with schizophrenia is true? A) Individuals with schizophrenia tend to score higher on IQ tests than an average person. B) Individuals with schizophrenia are prone to violent outbursts. C) Individuals with schizophrenia are 10 times more likely to be the victims of crime. D) Individuals with schizophrenia have split personalities. QuestionID: 15-1-09 Objective: 15.4c Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: C) Individuals with schizophrenia are 10 times more likely to be the victims of crime.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

10. Which of the following statements is true about the average brain of individuals with schizophrenia compared to the brains of persons who do not have the disorder? A) They have decreased firing of dopaminergic cells. B) Glutamate is overactive in the hippocampus. C) They have increased activity in their frontal lobes. D) Their ventricles are 20–30% larger. QuestionID: 15-1-10 Objective: 15.4c Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: D) Their ventricles are 20–30% larger. Essay Questions 1. Explain how anxiety disorders tend to be self-perpetuating and what type of treatment is necessary to break the cycle. QuestionID: 15-2-01 Objective: 15.3c Understand how anxiety or depressive disorders can be self-perpetuating. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. Anxiety disorders tend to be self-perpetuating with anxiety leading to circumstances that provoke further anxiety. For example, people who are anxious about interacting with others may avoid many social situations because they feel awkward and insecure and don't want to embarrass themselves. As a result, they become even less confident about their ability to interact with people, making them even more likely to avoid social contact in the future. If a social event is unavoidable, they may be so anxious and incapable of functioning effectively that the social opportunity turns into a negative experience, further reinforcing the anxiety. Avoiding or interrupting this vicious cycle is central to the treatment of anxiety disorders. Instead of trying to minimize contact with feared situations, which only serves to reinforce the fear, the person must begin to practise confronting the fear. Only through exposing themselves to fear can people learn how to manage their responses or learn how to effectively manage the feared situation. The most important part of psychological therapy for anxiety disorders is exposure, in which the person is repeatedly (in stages) exposed to the object of his fear so that he can work past his emotional reactions. 2. Explain the diathesis–stress model with regard to the serotonin transporter gene (5-HTT). QuestionID: 15-2-02 Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - Research has shown that individuals who inherit two short copies of the serotonin transporter gene (5-HTT) are more likely to develop depression than those who inherit two long copies. - The relationship between inheriting two short copies of the gene and developing depression is dependent on the environment (i.e., the amount of stress experienced by the individual). - Inheritance of short or long copies of 5-HTT does not impact the development of depression if only 1–2 stressful life events occur, but research does show that after chronic or multiple successive stressful events, those with two copies of the short gene are much more likely to develop depression than those with two long copies of the gene. 3. Why do many researchers consider schizophrenia a brain disorder? QuestionID: 15-2-03 Objective: 15.4c Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: A good answer will include the following key points. - The disease is associated with many abnormalities in the brain, including: * Enlarged ventricles (20–30%) and reduced overall brain volume (–2%) .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

* Lower level of activity in frontal lobes * Abnormalities in the neurotransmitters dopamine and glutamate * Smaller amygdala and hippocampal regions Fill-in-the-blank Questions 1. was the widespread movement of psychiatric patients from care facilities to regular society. QuestionID: 15-3-01 Objective: 15.1a Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: a. Deinstitutionalization 2. A central idea behind the __________ is that a defendant is not legally responsible for a crime if they could not differentiate between right and wrong when the crime was committed. QuestionID: 15-3-02 Objective: 15.1c Apply your knowledge of the mental disorders defence to decide if defendants are criminally responsible for their actions. Answer: a. mental disorder defence 3. People with __________ often act as if they are deserving of praise and admiration, but in reality they often suffer from intense self-doubt and feelings of inadequacy. QuestionID: 15-3-03 Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: a. narcissistic personality disorder 4. Research indicates that people with __________ do not respond as strongly to startling stimuli, such as loud noises or disturbing images. QuestionID: 15-3-04 Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: a. antisocial personality disorder 5. experiences are characterized by a sense of separation between you and your surroundings, for example while day dreaming. QuestionID: 15-3-05 Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: a. Dissociative 6. involves frequently elevated anxiety in response to everyday life and experiences. QuestionID: 15-3-06 Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: a. Generalized anxiety disorder 7. are sudden, intense episodes of anxiety that rarely last for more than 10 minutes. QuestionID: 15-3-07 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders.. Answer: a. Panic attacks 8. The disorder that was formally known as manic depression is more accurately referred to today as __________ . QuestionID: 15-3-08 Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: a. bipolar disorder 9. Miley is taking a pottery class. She tries to make a vase on the potter's wheel, but it keeps collapsing on her. "You see!" she says, "I can't do anything right! I'm a failure at everything!" This type of thinking is an example of the __________ explanatory style that is often seen with depression. QuestionID: 15-3-09 Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: a. globalizing 10. An individual claim that the FBI and the CIA are following him because he is the only person who knows the true location of the Holy Grail. This person is most likely suffering from __________ schizophrenia. QuestionID: 15-3-10 Objective: 15.4d Apply your knowledge to identify key features of schizophrenia. Answer: a. paranoid Multiple-Choice Questions 1. As the understanding of mental illness shifted from superstitious beliefs to physical ailments, _________ were built to house and treat patients. A) hospitals B) asylums C) prisons D) outpatient clinics QuestionID: 15-4-01 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.1a Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: B) asylums 2. The introduction, and success, of chlorpromazine was one of the major factors that led to A) the development of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM). B) the creation of asylums. C) deinstitutionalization. D) the labelling of disorders. QuestionID: 15-4-02 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.1a Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: C) deinstitutionalization.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

3. If a therapist thinks about psychological disorders in the same general way a physician thinks about diseases, the therapist is primarily applying the ______________ model to understand mental illness. A) diagnostic B) biopsychosocial C) maladaptive D) medical QuestionID: 15-4-03 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.1a Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: D) medical 4. Jonah's therapist tells him that his depression is likely the result of several factors, including having a genetic predisposition to depression, a pessimistic personality, and a chaotic family life. This view of depression is an example of the _______________ model. A) many-factor B) biopsychosocial C) maladaptive D) medical QuestionID: 15-4-04 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.1a Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: B) biopsychosocial 5. The major determining factor that differentiates normal behaviour from "disordered" behaviour is whether or not it is A) different. B) unusual. C) maladaptive. D) excessive. QuestionID: 15-4-05 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.1a Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: C) maladaptive. 6. Behaviour that causes people significant distress, increases the risk of injury or death, and/or impairs their ability to function in daily life is considered to be A) maladaptive. B) excessive. C) unusual. D) adaptive. QuestionID: 15-4-06 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.1a Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: A) maladaptive. 7. DSM stands for the A) Diagnostic and Screening Model. B) Disorders and Syndromes Manual. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual. D) Disordered Syndrome Model. QuestionID: 15-4-07 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.1b Understand advantages and criticisms associated with the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders [DSM-5]. Answer: C) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual. 8. The primary purpose of the DSM-5 is to A) outline medical treatments for psychological disorders. B) keep the number of diagnostic categories of mental disorders to a minimum. C) help mental health professionals diagnose psychological disorders. D) describe the causes of common physiological disorders. QuestionID: 15-4-08 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.1b Understand advantages and criticisms associated with the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders [DSM-5]. Answer: C) help mental health professionals diagnose psychological disorders. 9. Which of the following is NOT one of the three important pieces of information outlined by the DSM-5 for each disorder? A) guide for treating symptoms B) set of symptoms C) cause of symptoms D) prediction as to how the symptoms will change over time QuestionID: 15-4-09 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.1b Understand advantages and criticisms associated with the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders [DSM-5]. Answer: A) guide for treating symptoms 10. The etiology of a psychological disorder refers to its A) formal classification. B) symptoms. C) origins or causes. D) treatment. QuestionID: 15-4-10 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.1a Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: C) origins or causes. 11. Stigmatization can be an unintended result of A) outpatient treatment for psychological disorders. B) using the medical model instead of the biopsychosocial model to understand mental illness. C) using the mental disorder defence in a criminal trial. D) labelling individuals as suffering from a psychological disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-11 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.1d Analyze whether the benefits of labelling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages. Answer: D) labelling individuals as suffering from a psychological disorder. 12. Melissa was recently diagnosed as suffering from bipolar disorder. When her coworkers find out, they stop inviting her to get drinks after work, and her boss promotes several less qualified employees ahead of her. The most likely cause of the behaviour of Melissa's colleagues is A) the M'Naghten effect. B) the stigma associated with mental illness. C) her coworkers confusing "unusual" behaviour for "abnormal" behaviour. D) her coworkers confusing bipolar disorder and schizophrenia. QuestionID: 15-4-12 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.1d Analyze whether the benefits of labelling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages. Answer: B) the stigma associated with mental illness. 13. In a famous study discussed in your textbook, eight normal individuals were committed to a psychiatric hospital after claiming that they were experiencing hallucinations. Which of the following happened next? A) The hospital staff continued to view them as abnormal, despite the fact that they had no symptoms. B) The hospital staff realized that they had been faking their original symptoms and the patients were discharged immediately. C) Being in the psychiatric hospital caused them to develop real psychological symptoms after several days. D) They quickly quit the study because the conditions in the psychiatric hospital were so poor. QuestionID: 15-4-13 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.1d Analyze whether the benefits of labelling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages. Answer: A) The hospital staff continued to view them as abnormal, despite the fact that they had no symptoms. 14. Which of the following best describes the argument for the use of labels applied to psychological disorders? A) There are no recognized negative side-effects associated with the use of labels for psychological disorders. B) Labels provide an alternative to the DSM system for diagnosing mental illness. C) Using labels reduces the stigma associated with mental illness. D) Labels are often necessary for identifying and treating specific psychological disorders. QuestionID: 15-4-14 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.1d Analyze whether the benefits of labelling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages. Answer: D) Labels are often necessary for identifying and treating specific psychological disorders. 15. Research indicates that one way to reduce the stigma associated with mental illness is to A) remove individuals with mental illness from the general population. B) educate individuals on first-person experiences of mental illness. C) reduce unnecessary concern by limiting the public's exposure to topics related to mental illness. D) require people diagnosed with mental illness to notify their employers. QuestionID: 15-4-15 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.1d Analyze whether the benefits of labelling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages. Answer: B) educate individuals on first-person experiences of mental illness. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

16. When comparing individuals from a variety of cultures who have been diagnosed with PTSD, researchers have found that A) individuals from Western and Eastern cultures experience the same physiological, cognitive, and emotional symptoms. B) individuals from Western cultures experience different physiological, cognitive, and emotional symptoms, compared to those from Eastern cultures. C) individuals from Western cultures experience the same physiological symptoms as those from Eastern cultures, but experience different cognitive and emotional symptoms. D) individuals from Western cultures experience the same cognitive and emotional symptoms as those from Eastern cultures, but experience different physiological symptoms. QuestionID: 15-4-16 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.1d Analyze whether the benefits of labelling psychological disorders outweigh the disadvantages. Answer: C) individuals from Western cultures experience the same physiological symptoms as those from Eastern cultures, but experience different cognitive and emotional symptoms. 17. The ________ rule is a test of legal insanity that came from a British legal trial in 1843. A) British Insanity B) Campione C) M'Naghten D) Psychiatric Disorder QuestionID: 15-4-17 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.1c Apply your knowledge of the mental disorders defence to decide if defendants are criminally responsible for their actions. Answer: C) M'Naghten 18. In Canada, the legal defence that implies that an individual was in such an abnormal state of mind that they didn't know if their actions were legally or morally wrong, is officially referred to as the A) insanity defence. B) M'Naghten rule. C) British insanity plea. D) mental disorder defence. QuestionID: 15-4-18 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.1c Apply your knowledge of the mental disorders defence to decide if defendants are criminally responsible for their actions. Answer: D) mental disorder defence. 19. Which of the following statements is most accurate? A) The mental disorder defence is raised in less than 1% of all criminal trials, and is only successful less than 25% of the time. B) Most criminal lawyers attempt to use the mental disorder defence to clear their clients. C) Although the mental disorder defence is rare, when it is used it is almost always successful (>80% success rate). D) The mental disorder defence states that an individual who has been diagnosed with a psychological disorder cannot be found criminally responsible for their actions. QuestionID: 15-4-19 Skill: Conceptual .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 15.1c Apply your knowledge of the mental disorders defence to decide if defendants are criminally responsible for their actions. Answer: A) The mental disorder defence is raised in less than 1% of all criminal trials, and is only successful less than 25% of the time. 20. People with _________ disorders have an excessively rigid, maladaptive pattern of behaviour and ways of relating to others. A) personality B) mood C) affective D) schizophrenic QuestionID: 15-4-20 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: A) personality 21. Antisocial, paranoid, and schizoid are all types of ________ disorders. A) mood B) dissociative C) personality D) anxiety QuestionID: 15-4-21 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: C) personality 22. Which cluster of personality disorders contains paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal personality disorders? A) anxious, fearful, and inhibited B) odd and eccentric C) dramatic, emotional, and erratic D) erratic and dissociative QuestionID: 15-4-22 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: B) odd and eccentric 23. A person who has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder is most likely to exhibit A) a charming, self-centred, and manipulative interpersonal style. B) an unstable sense of self and volatility in his or her relationships. C) intense discomfort in most social situations and odd thinking and behaviour patterns. D) a strong need to be the centre of attention in all social situations. QuestionID: 15-4-23 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: B) an unstable sense of self and volatility in his or her relationships. 24. Gabriel is moody, often switching from one extreme emotion to its opposite. He wants to have close .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

relationships but is unable to do so because he is untrusting of others. Gabriel is most likely suffering from ______ personality disorder. A) antisocial B) avoidant C) dependent D) borderline QuestionID: 15-4-24 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: D) borderline 25. When Julia meets a potential mate, she often falls "madly in love" and is completely obsessed with the other person; however, the moment something goes wrong, she immediately turns on them, often commenting on how much she hates them and is disgusted by them. Based on this description, Julia may be diagnosed with A) antisocial personality disorder. B) borderline personality disorder. C) paranoid schizophrenia. D) a dissociative fugue. QuestionID: 15-4-25 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: B) borderline personality disorder. 26. Self-injury, such as the intentional cutting of one's self, is most closely associated with which personality disorder? A) antisocial B) avoidant C) dependent D) borderline QuestionID: 15-4-26 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: D) borderline 27. Cindy craves the attention of everyone around her. The few friends that she has would describe Cindy as being "full of herself," and acts like she is better than everyone else. When Cindy had sex with her best friend's boyfriend, she felt no remorse. Which personality disorder would Cindy be most likely to be diagnosed with? A) borderline B) avoidant C) narcissistic D) dependent QuestionID: 15-4-27 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: C) narcissistic 28. Which personality disorder is characterized by excessive attention seeking and dramatic behaviour, including being overly flirtatious? .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

histrionic borderline narcissistic dependent

QuestionID: 15-4-28 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: A) histrionic 29. Christian has made a career of stealing elderly people's retirement money by taking advantage of their trust and selling them phony retirement investments. Christian has no remorse about his actions and feels as though he deserves the money more than his 'clients.' Christian's behaviour and attitude are typical of someone with ________ personality disorder. A) borderline B) schizotypal C) histrionic D) antisocial QuestionID: 15-4-29 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: D) antisocial 30. People with which personality disorder are most likely to be arrested for violent or destructive crimes? A) antisocial B) borderline C) histrionic D) schizoid QuestionID: 15-4-30 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: A) antisocial 31. A psychiatric patient repeatedly breaks the law, behaves impulsively, and generally demonstrates a disregard for, and violation of, the rights of others. It is most likely that this patient will be diagnosed with A) borderline personality disorder. B) antisocial personality disorder. C) bipolar disorder. D) schizophrenia. QuestionID: 15-4-31 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: B) antisocial personality disorder. 32. When people diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder (APD) are exposed to stressful stimuli, such as loud noises or the sudden appearance of an angry face, they show __________ responses than people without APD. A) stronger B) weaker .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) similar D) more hostile QuestionID: 15-4-32 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.2c Apply your knowledge of antisocial personality disorder to identify which maladaptive behaviour is consistent with each disorder. Answer: B) weaker 33. The emotional reactivity in individuals with antisocial personality disorder (APD) has been linked to A) hyperactivity in the amygdala and increased grey matter in the frontal lobes. B) hyperactivity in the amygdala and reduced grey matter in the frontal lobes. C) low amygdala activity and increased grey matter in the frontal lobes. D) low amygdala activity and reduced grey matter in the frontal lobes. QuestionID: 15-4-33 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.2c Apply your knowledge of antisocial personality disorder to identify which maladaptive behaviour is consistent with each disorder. Answer: D) low amygdala activity and reduced grey matter in the frontal lobes. 34. Which of the following statements about individuals with antisocial personality disorder (APD) is TRUE? A) All individuals with APD are known to be violent toward others and animals. B) Emotional detachment may allow individuals with APD to become quite successful in society. C) Individuals with APD have overactive connections between the amygdala and the frontal lobes. D) Thankfully, individuals with APD tend to respond well to psychological treatment and therapies. QuestionID: 15-4-34 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.2c Apply your knowledge of antisocial personality disorder to identify which maladaptive behaviour is consistent with each disorder. Answer: B) Emotional detachment may allow individuals with APD to become quite successful in society. 35. Some psychologists believe that histrionic personality disorder occurs when an individual engages in attention seeking to avoid the negative feelings they associate with being unnoticed. This is an example of a ___________ explanation for personality disorders. A) biological B) psychological C) sociocultural D) comorbid QuestionID: 15-4-35 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: B) psychological 36. Which of the following would be considered a sociocultural explanation for the development of antisocial personality disorder (APD)? A) Individuals with APD tend to be resistant to psychological therapies. B) Individuals with APD have reduced grey matter in the frontal lobes. C) Adults with APD often have difficulty with decision-making tasks. D) Individuals with APD have often experienced trauma or abuse. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 15-4-36 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: D) Individuals with APD have often experienced trauma or abuse. 37. What general category of psychological disorders is characterized by a split between a person's conscious awareness and their feelings, memory, and identity? A) anxiety disorders B) dissociative disorders C) personality disorders D) schizophrenia QuestionID: 15-4-37 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: B) dissociative disorders 38. Ned seeks therapy after having recurrent episodes of feeling "detached from himself" for several months, but he has not lost his self-awareness or memory. He notes that he feels like a robot, disconnected from his movements and actions. He also says that sometimes he feels like he "is no longer real." He is most likely suffering from A) dissociative fugue. B) dissociative amnesia. C) dissociative identity disorder. D) depersonalization disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-38 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: D) depersonalization disorder. 39. After being passed over for a promotion and then getting into a heated argument with his son, a man disappears. He shows up two weeks later in another town with no memory of who he is or how he got there. He appears to be suffering from A) depersonalization disorder. B) dissociative identity disorder. C) a dissociative fugue. D) histrionic personality disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-39 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: C) a dissociative fugue. 40. A dissociative disorder characterized by a partial or complete loss of memory for personal information that is usually associated with a stressful or emotionally traumatic experience is known as A) dissociative identity disorder. B) depersonalization disorder. C) dissociative amnesia. D) dissociative fugue.

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QuestionID: 15-4-40 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: C) dissociative amnesia. 41. The presence of at least two distinct personalities is characteristic of A) schizoid personality disorder. B) dissociative amnesia. C) dissociative identity disorder. D) schizophrenia. QuestionID: 15-4-41 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: C) dissociative identity disorder. 42. Which of the following disorders is the most controversial diagnosis? A) dissociative identity disorder B) histrionic personality disorder C) narcissistic personality disorder D) schizophrenia QuestionID: 15-4-42 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.2d Analyze the status of dissociative identity disorder as a legitimate diagnosis. Answer: A) dissociative identity disorder 43. Which of the following is most likely to be cited by psychologists as a reason to be skeptical about dissociative identity disorder (DID)? A) PET scan studies of people diagnosed with DID B) a steep increase in DID rates from the 1970s to 1990s C) evidence for memory dissociation in those diagnosed with DID D) the association between DID and stressful events QuestionID: 15-4-43 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.2d Analyze the status of dissociative identity disorder as a legitimate diagnosis. Answer: B) a steep increase in DID rates from the 1970s to 1990s 44. Skeptics of dissociative identity disorder (DID) argue that A) DID is just a subtype of schizophrenia. B) evidence clearly contradicts the existence of DID. C) DID is likely caused by traumatic experiences. D) DID may be the product of techniques used by therapists. QuestionID: 15-4-44 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.2d Analyze the status of dissociative identity disorder as a legitimate diagnosis. Answer: D) DID may be the product of techniques used by therapists. 45. Anthony fears leaving his apartment during daylight hours even for a short walk to get his mail. His diagnosis .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

would most likely belong in the category of __________ disorders. A) mood B) personality C) anxiety D) impulse-control QuestionID: 15-4-45 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: C) anxiety 46. ______________ disorders are characterized by fear or nervousness that is excessive, irrational, and maladaptive. A) Anxiety B) Personality C) Mood D) Dissociative QuestionID: 15-4-46 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: A) Anxiety 47. Dikeshia is giving a presentation in her Abnormal Psychology class on the prevalence of psychological disorders. If you were a student in this class, what general category of disorder would you expect her to mention as one of the most frequently diagnosed psychological disorders? A) anxiety disorders B) dissociative disorders C) personality disorders D) schizophrenia QuestionID: 15-4-47 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: A) anxiety disorders 48. Anxiety is associated with physiological responses such as a racing heart and increased respiration. Which of the following is true about these physiological changes? A) They are always a sign of mental illness. B) They are always maladaptive. C) They are part of the fight-or-flight response. D) They are always adaptive. QuestionID: 15-4-48 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: C) They are part of the fight-or-flight response. 49. What separates an anxiety disorder from normal anxiety? A) Anxiety disorders engage the HPA axis while normal anxiety engages the fight-or-flight response. B) Anxiety disorders are characterized by higher intensity and longer duration of anxiety. C) Anxiety disorders engage the fight-or-flight response whereas normal anxiety does not. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) Anxiety disorders are characterized by short bursts of anxiety, while normal anxiety tends to last longer. QuestionID: 15-4-49 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: B) Anxiety disorders are characterized by higher intensity and longer duration of anxiety. 50. Shelby is concerned that she is spending too much of her day worrying about things that are out of her control. She often feels tense, even in situations where there is nothing that is directly threatening her safety. Based on her behaviour, Shelby may be experiencing A) agoraphobia. B) generalized anxiety disorder. C) major depression. D) a social phobia. QuestionID: 15-4-50 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: B) generalized anxiety disorder. 51. Rob worries all of the time. He worries about his money, his children, and his dog. He cannot identify the specific source of his worry, but rather feels an overall sense of constant concern. Rob's symptoms sound most like A) panic disorder. B) obsessive–compulsive disorder. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) agoraphobia. QuestionID: 15-4-51 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: C) generalized anxiety disorder. 52. Haley is sitting at her desk in her office one day when, without warning, her heart begins racing rapidly, she starts sweating profusely, and she is gripped with a terrifying fear that she is about to die. Nothing she is doing seems to have caused such an episode. Her symptoms most resemble A) a phobic disorder. B) a panic attack. C) post-traumatic stress. D) generalized anxiety disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-52 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: B) a panic attack. 53. While each panic attack is different, symptoms of a panic attack rarely continue for more than A) 3 minutes. B) 10 minutes. C) 30 minutes. D) 45 minutes.

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QuestionID: 15-4-53 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: B) 10 minutes. 54. People who suffer from panic attacks can often develop A) obsessions. B) paranoia. C) agoraphobia. D) compulsions. QuestionID: 15-4-54 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: C) agoraphobia. 55. Agoraphobia is an intense fear of A) crowds. B) having a panic attack in a public place. C) leaving the house. D) speaking to other people. QuestionID: 15-4-55 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: B) having a panic attack in a public place. 56. Benjamin has such an intense fear of flying insects that he hardly ever goes outside his house during the summer months. He is probably suffering from A) panic disorder. B) generalized anxiety disorder. C) agoraphobia. D) a specific phobia. QuestionID: 15-4-56 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: D) a specific phobia. 57. Davis has such an intense, irrational fear of clowns that he cannot take his daughters to see the circus when it is in town. Davis would be most correctly diagnosed as living with A) generalized anxiety disorder. B) panic disorder. C) a specific phobia. D) post-traumatic stress disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-57 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.3d Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders in order to identify which behavioural symptoms are associated with each disorder. Answer: C) a specific phobia. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

58. What is the main difference between generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and phobias? A) Phobias are linked to specific triggers while GAD is not linked to a specific trigger. B) GAD is linked to a specific trigger while phobias are not linked to a specific trigger. C) GAD is an anxiety disorder, while phobias are not classified as a 'disorder.' D) GAD is an anxiety disorder, while phobias are considered personality disorders. QuestionID: 15-4-58 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: A) Phobias are linked to specific triggers while GAD is not linked to a specific trigger. 59. From an evolutionary perspective, humans would be most likely to develop a phobia to which of the following? A) atomic weapons B) guns C) snakes D) cars QuestionID: 15-4-59 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.3e Analyze whether maladaptive aspects of specific phobias might arise from perfectly normal, healthy behaviours. Answer: C) snakes 60. People who have a __________ are afraid of being evaluated in some negative way by others, so they tend to avoid situations that can be embarrassing. A) generalized anxiety disorder B) social phobia C) specific phobia D) panic disorder QuestionID: 15-4-60 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: B) social phobia 61. An intense fear of being in public or performing behaviours in public is a characteristic of A) generalized anxiety disorder. B) obsessive–compulsive disorder. C) panic disorder. D) social anxiety disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-61 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: D) social anxiety disorder. 62. Sydney's therapist is trying to help her overcome her phobia of spiders. She starts by showing her pictures of spiders, then has Sydney sit in the same room as a spider in a box, and eventually touch a spider. This form of treatment is known as _________ therapy. A) torture .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) exposure C) gene D) panic QuestionID: 15-4-62 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.3c Understand how anxiety or depressive disorders can be self-perpetuating. Answer: B) exposure 63. ___________ therapy involves the patient facing their fear by interacting with it. A) Exposure B) Mood C) Gene D) Panic QuestionID: 15-4-63 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3c Understand how anxiety or depressive disorders can be self-perpetuating. Answer: B) Mood 64. During the day, Maria suffers from frequent, unwanted thoughts that she has left her front door unlocked and recurrent images that all her belongings have been taken. These thoughts and images are what psychologists refer to as A) compulsions. B) delusions. C) hallucinations. D) obsessions. QuestionID: 15-4-64 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.3d Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders in order to identify which behavioural symptoms are associated with each disorder. Answer: D) obsessions. 65. Sierra is constantly worried that everyone with whom she comes in contact is full of germs, so she is constantly rushing off to wash her hands. Sierra may suffer from which psychological disorder? A) panic disorder B) obsessive–compulsive disorder C) social anxiety disorder D) paranoid schizophrenia QuestionID: 15-4-65 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.3d Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders in order to identify which behavioural symptoms are associated with each disorder. Answer: B) obsessive–compulsive disorder 66. Mr. Carpenter is constantly afraid that he is going to oversleep and be late for work. As a result, he spends nearly an hour each night making certain that his alarm clock is correctly set and saying "It's set, it's set, it's set" each of the times he checks it. This repetitive action is what clinical psychologists refer to as a(n) A) compulsion. B) delusion. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) hallucination. D) obsession. QuestionID: 15-4-66 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.3d Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders in order to identify which behavioural symptoms are associated with each disorder. Answer: A) compulsion. 67. Sid continually thinks about germs—at work, at home, before bed—during almost all his waking hours. Due to these thoughts, Sid washes his hands close to 100 times a day. Sid probably suffers from A) obsessive–compulsive disorder. B) panic disorder. C) social anxiety disorder. D) generalized anxiety disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-67 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.3d Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders in order to identify which behavioural symptoms are associated with each disorder. Answer: A) obsessive–compulsive disorder. 68. People with OCD often develop ____________ in response to ______________. A) agoraphobia; social anxiety B) anxiety; agoraphobia C) an obsession; a specific compulsion D) a compulsion; a specific obsession QuestionID: 15-4-68 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: D) a compulsion; a specific obsession 69. Prolonged periods of sadness, feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, social withdrawal, and cognitive and physical sluggishness best describe which disorder? A) major depression B) obsessive–compulsive disorder C) bipolar disorder D) agoraphobia QuestionID: 15-4-69 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: A) major depression 70. Research into demographic differences in the rates of major depression suggests that A) men and woman have similar rates of diagnosis. B) men are three times more likely than women to be diagnosed with the disorder. C) women are twice as likely as men to be diagnosed with the disorder. D) there are no age, gender, or racial differences in the prevalence of the disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-70 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3d Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders in order to identify which behavioural symptoms are associated with each disorder. Answer: C) women are twice as likely as men to be diagnosed with the disorder. 71. Which of the following statements accurately describes the connection between poverty and depression? A) Rates of depression are three times more likely among individuals living in poverty. B) Rates of depression are three times lower among individuals living in poverty. C) Surprisingly, there is no difference in rates of depression based on socioeconomic status. D) Rates of depression are ten times more likely among individuals living in poverty. QuestionID: 15-4-71 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3d Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders in order to identify which behavioural symptoms are associated with each disorder. Answer: A) Rates of depression are three times more likely among individuals living in poverty. 72. Emma has started to withdraw from her close friends, spends most of her time sleeping, and feels sad all the time. It's possible that Emma is suffering from A) generalized anxiety disorder. B) social anxiety disorder. C) bipolar disorder. D) major depression. QuestionID: 15-4-72 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.3d Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders in order to identify which behavioural symptoms are associated with each disorder. Answer: D) major depression. 73. What mood disorder is characterized by alterations between periods of extremely high levels and extremely low levels of activity? A) bipolar disorder B) major depression C) obsessive–compulsive disorder D) schizophrenia QuestionID: 15-4-73 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: A) bipolar disorder 74. Kayla has experienced a decrease in the need for sleep for the past three nights, is extremely talkative and sexually charged, and has been very irresponsible with money lately. Kayla is likely in the midst of a(n) A) compulsive episode. B) major depressive episode. C) manic episode. D) obsessive episode. QuestionID: 15-4-74 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.3d Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders in order to identify .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

which behavioural symptoms are associated with each disorder. Answer: C) manic episode. 75. A person who suffers from bipolar disorder alternates between A) depression and mania. B) major depression and unipolar depression. C) mania and social anxiety disorder. D) generalized anxiety disorder and mania. QuestionID: 15-4-75 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: A) depression and mania. 76. __________ is a disorder in which a person experiences episodes of mania and depression. A) Generalized anxiety disorder B) Major depression C) Bipolar disorder D) Borderline personality disorder QuestionID: 15-4-76 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: C) Bipolar disorder 77. Which of the following is a mood disorder? A) obsessive–compulsive disorder B) generalized anxiety disorder C) narcissistic personality disorder D) bipolar disorder QuestionID: 15-4-77 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: D) bipolar disorder 78. The pessimistic explanatory style is characterized by which three elements? A) externalizing, destabilizing, globalizing B) internalizing, stabilizing, globalizing C) externalizing, stabilizing, localizing D) internalizing, destabilizing, localizing QuestionID: 15-4-78 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: B) internalizing, stabilizing, globalizing 79. Jordan is suffering from major depression. She is convinced that she will always be unhappy and her life will never change. Which of the three elements of the pessimistic explanatory style does this illustrate? A) globalizing B) internalizing .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) stabilizing D) externalizing QuestionID: 15-4-79 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.3d Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders in order to identify which behavioural symptoms are associated with each disorder. Answer: C) stabilizing 80. One biological explanation for depression is that an overactive ______________ responds strongly to emotions and sends signals that lead to a decrease in ______________ activity. A) temporal lobe; amygdala B) amygdala; temporal lobe C) limbic system; frontal lobe D) frontal lobe; limbic system QuestionID: 15-4-80 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3c Understand how anxiety or depressive disorders can be self-perpetuating. Answer: C) limbic system; frontal lobe 81. Which neurotransmitters appear to be most important in the development of depression? A) GABA, endorphins, and serotonin B) acetylcholine, serotonin, and GABA C) dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine D) norepinephrine, acetylcholine, and serotonin QuestionID: 15-4-81 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: C) dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine 82. Research into the genetic influence on the development of depression has found that: A) individuals who inherit one copy of the short (serotonin transporter) gene and one copy of the long gene are protected from developing depression. B) individuals who inherit two copies of the long (serotonin transporter) gene are at a greater risk to develop depression. C) individuals who inherit two copies of the short (serotonin transporter) gene are protected from developing depression. D) individuals who inherit two copies of the short (serotonin transporter) gene are at a greater risk to develop depression. QuestionID: 15-4-82 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: D) individuals who inherit two copies of the short (serotonin transporter) gene are at a greater risk to develop depression. 83. The interaction between genetic predisposition and environmental effects is known as the A) diathesis–stress model. B) biopsychological model. C) medical model. .

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D) sociocultural model. QuestionID: 15-4-83 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: A) diathesis–stress model. 84. The _________ model explains how inheritance of short or long copies of the serotonin transporter gene and socioeconomic status might interact to influence the risk of developing depression. A) medical model B) diathesis–stress model C) biopsychological model D) sociocultural model QuestionID: 15-4-84 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: B) diathesis–stress model 85. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding suicide? A) Suicide is four times more likely among men than it is among women. B) Suicide is four times more likely among adolescents than it is among adults. C) Suicide is twice as likely among women as it is among men. D) Suicide among aboriginal populations is lower than the national average. QuestionID: 15-4-85 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3d Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders in order to identify which behavioural symptoms are associated with each disorder. Answer: A) Suicide is four times more likely among men than it is among women. 86. For young individuals, the risk for suicide increases when they are A) the victim of bullying. B) female. C) from a middle-income family. D) transitioning from elementary to middle school. QuestionID: 15-4-86 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3d Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders in order to identify which behavioural symptoms are associated with each disorder. Answer: A) the victim of bullying. 87. The rate of schizophrenia in the general population is A) <1%. B) 5%. C) 10%. D) 20%. QuestionID: 15-4-87 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: 88. A patient in a psychiatric hospital exhibits disordered thinking, bizarre behaviour, and hallucinations. This person is probably suffering from A) schizophrenia. B) bipolar disorder. C) a dissociative disorder. D) major depression. QuestionID: 15-4-88 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: A) schizophrenia. 89. Most individuals with schizophrenia experience three distinct phases of the disorder: A) schizoid, schizotypal, and schizophrenia. B) hallucinations, delusions, and catatonia. C) prodromal, active, and residual. D) paranoia, disorganization, and undifferentiated. QuestionID: 15-4-89 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: C) prodromal, active, and residual. 90. Zach has started withdrawing from his family and friends, has lost interest in others, and is having trouble organizing his thoughts. He has not experienced any hallucinations or delusions. Zach is most likely in the ________ phase of schizophrenia. A) prodromal B) active C) negative D) residual QuestionID: 15-4-90 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: A) prodromal 91. Isaiah has recently started experiencing hallucinations and delusions and doesn't seem to be able to organize his thoughts or behaviours. It seems as though Isaiah may be entering the _________ phase of schizophrenia. A) prodromal B) active C) negative D) residual QuestionID: 15-4-91 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: B) active 92. False beliefs held by a person who has no evidence to support such beliefs are known as .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

delusions. hallucinations. obsessions. compulsions.

QuestionID: 15-4-92 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: A) delusions. 93. Gigi, who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia, believes that she was sent by God to one day rule the world. Her belief is an example of a(n) A) negative symptom. B) delusion. C) disorganized behaviour. D) hallucination. QuestionID: 15-4-93 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: B) delusion. 94. False sensory perceptions that often take the form of hearing voices are called A) delusions. B) hallucinations. C) obsessions. D) compulsions. QuestionID: 15-4-94 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: B) hallucinations. 95. Shreen is diagnosed with schizophrenia. She believes that she is a powerful person who can save the world. Shreen is experiencing A) delusions of persecution. B) delusions of grandeur. C) delusions of reference. D) delusions of paranoia. QuestionID: 15-4-95 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: B) delusions of grandeur. 96. The belief that one is the Prime Minister of Canada is an example of which schizophrenic symptom? A) a delusion B) a hallucination C) an obsession D) disorganized thinking QuestionID: 15-4-96 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: A) a delusion 97. Feeling insects crawling on your skin (when there are none) or hearing voices (when no one is talking) would be examples of what symptom of schizophrenia? A) compulsions B) delusions C) hallucinations D) obsessions QuestionID: 15-4-97 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: C) hallucinations 98. Experiencing extended periods of immobility is associated with A) catatonic schizophrenia. B) disorganized schizophrenia. C) paranoid schizophrenia. D) undifferentiated schizophrenia. QuestionID: 15-4-98 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4d Apply your knowledge to identify key features of schizophrenia. Answer: A) catatonic schizophrenia. 99. While doing volunteer work at a mental hospital, Mary is put on a ward for adults with severe mental disorders. One patient remains in the same position for hours at a time and never talks. The doctors tell Mary this patient suffers from A) residual schizophrenia. B) catatonic schizophrenia. C) disorganized schizophrenia. D) paranoid schizophrenia. QuestionID: 15-4-99 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.4d Apply your knowledge to identify key features of schizophrenia. Answer: B) catatonic schizophrenia. 100. Laurie, a 30-year-old homemaker, has delusions and hallucinations, often makes odd or inappropriate gestures, and does not bathe or change her clothes regularly. Her symptoms indicate she is suffering from ______ schizophrenia. A) disorganized B) catatonic C) residual D) paranoid QuestionID: 15-4-100 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.4d Apply your knowledge to identify key features of schizophrenia.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: A) disorganized 101. ______ schizophrenia is characterized by delusions that the person is being watched, followed, or persecuted in some way. A) Disorganized B) Paranoid C) Residual D) Catatonic QuestionID: 15-4-101 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4d Apply your knowledge to identify key features of schizophrenia. Answer: B) Paranoid 102. Dr. Knight is trying to diagnosis a patient suffering from what appears to be a form of schizophrenia. The patient appears to have symptoms from several different types of schizophrenia. Dr. Knight is most likely to conclude that the patient should be classified as suffering from _________________ schizophrenia. A) disorganized B) undifferentiated C) residual D) catatonic QuestionID: 15-4-102 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.4d Apply your knowledge to identify key features of schizophrenia. Answer: B) undifferentiated 103. A hospital patient was diagnosed as suffering from schizophrenia because she was having both delusions and hallucinations. What type of symptoms are these? A) atypical B) positive C) negative D) a mix of positive and negative QuestionID: 15-4-103 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: B) positive 104. What is the best way to describe the positive symptoms of schizophrenia? A) behaviours that are maladaptive B) behaviours that are correlated with genius C) behaviours that should not normally occur D) the absence of adaptive behaviours QuestionID: 15-4-104 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: C) behaviours that should not normally occur 105. Which pair consists of negative symptoms of schizophrenia? A) flat emotions and low motivation .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

B) flat emotions and delusions C) low motivation and hallucinations D) delusions and hallucinations QuestionID: 15-4-105 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: A) flat emotions and low motivation 106. According to the authors of your textbook, schizophrenia is often confused with which other psychological disorder? A) schizoid personality disorder B) dissociative identity disorder C) bipolar disorder D) agoraphobia QuestionID: 15-4-106 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: B) dissociative identity disorder 107. A neighbour of yours is upset that a community treatment centre for mental illness is opening nearby. She is worried that crime rates will increase with the increase in individuals with schizophrenia. What should you tell her? A) People with schizophrenia are 10 times more likely to be the victim of crime compared to the general population. B) People with schizophrenia are incapable of committing violent crimes due to catatonia. C) She is correct; the majority of people with schizophrenia are dangerous. D) Undifferentiated schizophrenia is the only dangerous form of the disorder and it is quite rare. QuestionID: 15-4-107 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.4e Analyze claims that schizophrenia is related to genius or violent behaviour. Answer: A) People with schizophrenia are 10 times more likely to be the victim of crime compared to the general population. 108. Sam's brother has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He knows his brother has always been good at math and wonders if his brother will now become a math genius. What should you tell Sam? A) People with schizophrenia are known to significantly improve their math and problem-solving skills. B) Unfortunately, people with schizophrenia tend to become violent rather than geniuses. C) Schizophrenia is not associated with genius. In fact, most individuals with schizophrenia have average or below average IQs. D) Most individuals with schizophrenia would be geniuses, but of the side-effects of the treatment for the disorder is a decrease in intelligence. QuestionID: 15-4-108 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 15.4e Analyze claims that schizophrenia is related to genius or violent behaviour. Answer: C) Schizophrenia is not associated with genius. In fact, most individuals with schizophrenia have average or below average IQs. 109. Janelle is a 23-year-old woman who is living happily in Canada. She has a relative who recently developed the symptoms of schizophrenia. Janelle has the highest chance of developing the illness if that relative is .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

A) B) C) D)

her fraternal twin. her biological mother. her identical twin. her grandmother.

QuestionID: 15-4-109 Skill: Applied Objective: 15.4c Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: C) her identical twin. 110. According to family, twin, and adoption studies, a person is at greatest risk for developing schizophrenia if he or she has a(n) A) identical twin diagnosed with the disorder. B) fraternal twin diagnosed with the disorder. C) biological parent diagnosed with the disorder. D) non-twin sibling diagnosed with the disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-110 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4c Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: A) identical twin diagnosed with the disorder. 111. One biological explanation for the symptoms of schizophrenia is that the __________ are 20–30% larger in individuals with schizophrenia compared to the rest of the population. A) frontal lobes B) synapses C) vesicles D) ventricles QuestionID: 15-4-111 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4c Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: D) ventricles 112. The ventricles, spaces in the brain that are filled with cerebrospinal fluid, are typically larger than normal in the brains of individuals suffering from A) schizophrenia. B) antisocial personality disorder. C) major depression. D) bipolar disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-112 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4c Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: A) schizophrenia. 113. Researchers have discovered that in individuals with schizophrenia, the _________ is/are larger, while the _________ is smaller. A) total brain volume; size of the ventricles B) ventricles; total brain volume C) size of the amygdala; hippocampus D) size of the hippocampus; amygdala .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 15-4-113 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: B) ventricles; total brain volume 114. Research indicates that some people's schizophrenia may result from abnormalities in the brain's receptor sites for what neurotransmitter? A) acetylcholine B) dopamine C) serotonin D) epinephrine QuestionID: 15-4-114 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4b Understand how different neurotransmitters affect individuals with schizophrenia. Answer: B) dopamine 115. Some of the symptoms of schizophrenia appear to be caused by excess _______________ activity, and too little _____________ activity. A) dopamine; glutamate B) glutamate; dopamine C) serotonin; acetylcholine D) acetylcholine; serotonin QuestionID: 15-4-115 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4b Understand how different neurotransmitters affect individuals with schizophrenia. Answer: A) dopamine; glutamate 116. Excess dopamine activity in the brains of individuals with schizophrenia is believed to produce ______________, but not ________________. A) positive symptoms; negative symptoms B) negative symptoms; positive symptoms C) delusions; hallucinations D) hallucinations; delusions QuestionID: 15-4-116 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4b Understand how different neurotransmitters affect individuals with schizophrenia. Answer: A) positive symptoms; negative symptoms 117. People diagnosed with schizophrenia are more likely to have been born during the winter months. One explanation for this phenomenon is that A) children born during these months are more likely to be exposed to the flu during the second trimester. B) cold temperatures slow down neuronal development, leading to a reduction in brain volume. C) summer heat negatively affects the genetic material in sperm at the time of conception (9 months earlier). D) eggs released during the summer—9 months earlier—are more likely to contain genetic errors. QuestionID: 15-4-117 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4c Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: A) children born during these months are more likely to be exposed to the flu during the second trimester. 118. Which of the following best describes the neurodevelopmental hypothesis of schizophrenia? A) The environmental conditions of childhood cause the brain to deteriorate and produce schizophrenic symptoms. B) Schizophrenia is the result of biological and environmental factors that interact during brain development during gestation. C) Schizophrenia is a reaction to psychologically traumatic events. D) Symptoms of schizophrenia will not occur until after the brain is fully developed (late adolescence into adulthood). QuestionID: 15-4-118 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4c Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: B) Schizophrenia is the result of biological and environmental factors that interact during brain development during gestation. 119. When psychologists viewed home movies of infants and children who subsequently developed schizophrenia, what did they find? A) nothing unusual B) all of the symptoms associated with schizophrenia C) evidence for a "splitting" of personality D) unusual motor patterns QuestionID: 15-4-119 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4c Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: D) unusual motor patterns 120. The schizophrenia prodrome refers to A) a traumatic events that can trigger a schizophrenic episode. B) a collection of mild symptoms that precede the development of schizophrenia. C) a controversial treatment for the disorder. D) the disruption in cognitive ability associated with the disorder. QuestionID: 15-4-120 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4c Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: B) a collection of mild symptoms that precede the development of schizophrenia. 121. According to your textbook, research has linked all of the following to an increase in the risk of developing schizophrenia, EXCEPT A) heavy marijuana use in adolescence. B) receiving a head injury prior to age 10. C) growing up in poverty or experiencing social isolation at a young age. D) being raised in an extremely strict religious environment. QuestionID: 15-4-121 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.4c Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: D) being raised in an extremely strict religious environment. 122. The DSM has been criticized for its approach to defining and classifying psychological disorders. Which of .

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the following is NOT one of those critiques? A) Cultural influences on psychological disorders are not considered in the most recent DSM-5, thus it lacks validity. B) Clinician still have to subjectively decide whether something is a particular symptom or just a normal experience. C) Different disorders often share many common symptoms, thus specific diagnosis can be difficult. D) Sometimes a doctor's diagnosis may depend on the existence of just one additional symptom, which makes the diagnosis arbitrary. QuestionID: 15-4-122 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.1b Understand advantages and criticisms associated with the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders [DSM-5]. Answer: A) Cultural influences on psychological disorders are not considered in the most recent DSM-5, thus it lacks validity. 123. Using DSM-5 and offering a diagnosis can be beneficial for both the professional and the client in many ways. Which of following is NOT one of those ways? A) Receiving a diagnosis may make people more likely to seek and receive effective treatment. B) A diagnosis facilitates communication among different mental health professionals. C) Labelling, stigma, and negative attitudes can further reduce the well-being of the person who receives the diagnosis. D) It is often clear whether a behaviour is maladaptive or not and thus the diagnosis is usually easy. QuestionID: 15-4-123 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.1b Understand advantages and criticisms associated with the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders [DSM-5]. Answer: D) It is often clear whether a behaviour is maladaptive or not and thus the diagnosis is usually easy. 124. Which of the following is an example of cultural bias in the DSM? A) Classification of mental disorders is difficult and it makes diagnosis arbitrary. B) Homosexuality was listed as a mental disorder until 1980. C) Different disorders may still share the same symptoms. D) Early classification of mental disorders offered limited categories. QuestionID: 15-4-124 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.1b Understand advantages and criticisms associated with the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders [DSM-5]. Answer: B) Homosexuality was listed as a mental disorder until 1980. 125. There are challenges and issues in the diagnosis of ADHD. Which of following statements is NOT a critique of ADHD diagnosis? A) Unnecessary medication based on false positive diagnosis can harm children. B) Children are sometimes diagnosed and labelled for disruptive behaviours that are within normal range. C) The diagnosis of ADHD has been steady after its inclusion in DSM in 1980. D) It may be natural that kids sometimes act out due to their underdeveloped frontal lobes. QuestionID: 15-4-125 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.1a Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: C) The diagnosis of ADHD has been steady after its inclusion in DSM in 1980.

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126. Personality disorders are classified into three main groups. Which of the following personality disorders is grouped under Cluster A (odd; eccentric)? A) Histrionic Personality Disorder: Excessive attention seeking; flamboyant, dramatic behaviour. B) Antisocial Personality Disorder: Impulsive and prone to risk-taking; reduced concern for the needs of others. C) Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder: A need for order and high expectations for oneself and for others; very upset if these needs aren't met. D) Schizoid Personality Disorder: Difficulty forming close relationships with other people; desire to be left alone, if possible. QuestionID: 15-4-126 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: D) Schizoid Personality Disorder: Difficulty forming close relationships with other people; desire to be left alone, if possible. 127. Personality disorders are classified into three main groups. Which of the following personality disorders is grouped under Cluster C (anxious; fearful; inhibited)? A) Schizotypal Personality Disorder: Odd or eccentric way of thinking and expressing oneself; difficulty forming close relationships. B) Borderline Personality Disorder: Impulsive, manipulative, and an unstable sense of self; volatile relationships. C) Dependent Personality Disorder: Difficulty functioning or making decisions without the help of others; very low self-confidence. D) Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder: A need for order and high expectations for oneself and for others; very upset if these needs aren't met. QuestionID: 15-4-127 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: C) Dependent Personality Disorder: Difficulty functioning or making decisions without the help of others; very low self-confidence. 128. There are important neurological differences between criminal psychopaths and healthy people, especially when observing someone who is assaulted or under attack. Which of the following options reflects two of those differences in brain activation? A) Criminal psychopaths tend to have lower activation in the amygdala and higher activation in the frontal lobe than healthy people. B) Criminal psychopaths tend to have higher activation in the amygdala and lower activation in the frontal lobe than healthy people. C) Criminal psychopaths tend to have lower activation in the hippocampus and higher activation in the basal ganglia than healthy people. D) Criminal psychopaths tend to have higher activation in the hippocampus and lower activation in the basal ganglia than healthy people. QuestionID: 15-4-128 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: A) Criminal psychopaths tend to have lower activation in the amygdala and higher activation in the frontal lobe than healthy people. 129. There are a number of neurological causes or consequences of depression. Which of the following is NOT one of those causes or consequences? A) The amygdala of a depressed brain is usually overreactive. B) HPA axis is often stimulated and cortisol hormone is secreted in a depressed brain. .

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C) In a depressed brain, higher cortisol levels cause growth of neurons in the hippocampus. D) In a depressed brain, the nucleus accumbens becomes less active and the medial part of the prefrontal cortex becomes more active. QuestionID: 15-4-129 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: C) In a depressed brain, higher cortisol levels cause growth of neurons in the hippocampus. 130. Which of the following is FALSE in terms of the negative effects of social media on mental health? A) Higher the exposure to social media, higher the mood disorders. B) People who make more upward social comparisons when viewing other people's posts tend to experience more depressive symptoms. C) It cannot be concluded that social media exposure causes depression or that depression causes people to overuse social media. D) Exposure to social media has a larger effect on depression than genetics. QuestionID: 15-4-130 Skill: Factual Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: D) Exposure to social media has a larger effect on depression than genetics. Supplementary Questions 1. The medical model views abnormal behaviour as resulting from A) drug interactions. B) exposure to teratogens. C) poor nutritional habits. D) underlying organic causes. QuestionID: 15-5-01 Objective: 15.1a Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: D) underlying organic causes. 2. The latest version of the classification system used by psychologists is the A) DSM-3. B) DSM-4. C) DSM-4-TR. D) DSM-5. QuestionID: 15-5-02 Objective: 15.1a Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: D) DSM-5. 3. The DSM-5 includes a description of the ___________________ of each mental disorder. A) symptoms, duration, and severity B) symptoms, cause, and severity C) symptoms, cause, and progress D) symptom, cause, and treatment options QuestionID: 15-5-03 Objective: 15.1a Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. .

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Answer: C) symptoms, cause, and progress 4. Destruction of one's home or community is MOST likely to result in which of the following? A) PTSD B) a phobia C) a panic disorder D) an obsession QuestionID: 15-5-04 Objective: 15.1a Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: A) PTSD 5. Re-experiencing a traumatic event long after the event occurred is associated with A) generalized anxiety. B) panic disorder. C) phobic disorder. D) PTSD. QuestionID: 15-5-05 Objective: 15.1a Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: D) PTSD. 6. People who act impulsively, don't tolerate frustration, want their desires satisfied immediately, fail to develop emotional attachments, and show no remorse would be diagnosed with what personality disorder? A) narcissistic B) antisocial C) histrionic D) schizotypal QuestionID: 15-5-06 Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: B) antisocial 7. Which of the following best describes the antisocial personality? A) low intelligence B) lack of remorse or guilt C) depression D) paranoid schizophrenic tendencies QuestionID: 15-5-07 Objective: 15.2c Apply your knowledge of antisocial personality disorder to identify which maladaptive behaviour is consistent with each disorder. Answer: B) lack of remorse or guilt 8. Which of the following statements about antisocial personality is TRUE? A) It is a relatively rare disorder. B) People with antisocial personalities seek professional help because their distress level is high. C) It is more common in women than in men. D) It is a relatively common disorder. QuestionID: 15-5-08 .

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Objective: 15.2c Apply your knowledge of antisocial personality disorder to identify which maladaptive behaviour is consistent with each disorder. Answer: D) It is a relatively common disorder. 9. Randy has a grandiose sense of himself, fantasizes about being successful, lacks empathy for others, and has a need for constant admiration from others. What type of personality disorder is Randy most likely exhibiting? A) narcissistic B) borderline C) antisocial D) obsessive–compulsive QuestionID: 15-5-09 Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: A) narcissistic 10. Following a stressful event, a man cannot remember his past. He adopts a new identity, relocates, and starts a new family and career. Which diagnosis would be most appropriate? A) conversion disorder B) dissociative amnesia C) dissociative identity disorder D) dissociative fugue QuestionID: 15-5-10 Objective: 15.2a Know the key terminology associated with personality and dissociative disorders. Answer: D) dissociative fugue 11. A person who is constantly "on edge" and always apprehensive most likely suffers from A) phobic disorder. B) panic disorder. C) obsessive–compulsive disorder. D) generalized anxiety disorder. QuestionID: 15-5-11 Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: D) generalized anxiety disorder. 12. Allen is in a constant state of dread. He has trouble sleeping, feels tense, and cannot concentrate. Allen will likely be diagnosed as having which anxiety disorder? A) phobia B) generalized anxiety C) panic D) obsessive–compulsive QuestionID: 15-5-12 Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: B) generalized anxiety 13. Feeling fearful but not knowing why is characteristic of A) phobias. B) anxiety disorders. C) dissociative neurosis. .

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D) amnesia. QuestionID: 15-5-13 Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: B) anxiety disorders. 14. June often experiences episodes during which her heart rate accelerates by more than 50 beats per minute despite encountering no emergency. June suffers from A) obsessive–compulsive disorder. B) generalized anxiety disorder. C) acrophobia. D) panic disorder. QuestionID: 15-5-14 Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: D) panic disorder. 15. An irrational fear of an object or event is called a(n) A) phobia. B) compulsion. C) panic. D) obsession. QuestionID: 15-5-15 Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: A) phobia. 16. Sudden, paralyzing episodes of fear describe which type of anxiety disorder? A) phobia B) generalized anxiety C) panic D) obsessive–compulsive QuestionID: 15-5-16 Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: C) panic 17. Thoughts that repeatedly intrude into consciousness against one's will are called A) compulsions. B) loose associations. C) neologisms. D) obsessions. QuestionID: 15-5-17 Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: D) obsessions. 18. Martha vacuums the carpet in her living room 15 times a day. It is very likely that she is suffering from which of the following disorders? A) obsessive–compulsive B) conversion .

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C) PTSD D) somatoform QuestionID: 15-5-18 Objective: 15.3d Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders in order to identify which behavioural symptoms are associated with each disorder. Answer: A) obsessive–compulsive 19. In an obsessive–compulsive reaction, the _______ is the thought and the _______ is the action caused by the thought. A) compulsion; obsession B) obsession; compulsion C) compulsion; panic D) obsession; anxiety QuestionID: 15-5-19 Objective: 15.3d Apply your knowledge of anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders in order to identify which behavioural symptoms are associated with each disorder. Answer: B) obsession; compulsion 20. Ritualistic behaviour is associated with which of the following disorders? A) anxiety B) obsessive–compulsive C) somatoform D) conversion QuestionID: 15-5-20 Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: B) obsessive–compulsive 21. A recurring, irrational thought that cannot be controlled or banished from one's mind is called a(n) A) phobia. B) obsession. C) hypnagogic image. D) compulsion. QuestionID: 15-5-21 Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: B) obsession. 22. Acts that "must be done" are called A) compulsions. B) obsessions. C) motor impulses. D) preservative impulses. QuestionID: 15-5-22 Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: A) compulsions. 23. Obsessions and compulsions .

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A) B) C) D)

appear to be based on very different psychodynamics. always occur together. often occur together. rarely occur together.

QuestionID: 15-5-23 Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: C) often occur together. 24. Arlene has an intense, irrational fear of flying in airplanes. She is probably suffering from a A) somatoform disorder. B) neurotic depression. C) phobic disorder. D) conversion reaction. QuestionID: 15-5-24 Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: C) phobic disorder. 25. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of depression? A) hallucinations B) loss of appetite C) inability to sleep properly D) self-blame QuestionID: 15-5-25 Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: A) hallucinations 26. Last month Pam was giddy, impulsive, and talkative; this month she is sad, silent, and almost motionless. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case? A) severe depression B) anxiety disorder C) somatoform disorder D) bipolar disorder QuestionID: 15-5-26 Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: D) bipolar disorder 27. An episode of intense sadness that may last for several months is called A) bipolar disorder. B) hypomania. C) major depressive disorder. D) dysthymia. QuestionID: 15-5-27 Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: C) major depressive disorder. 28. A patient in a mental hospital exhibits disordered thinking, perceptual abnormalities, unusual emotions, and .

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suspiciousness. This person is probably suffering from A) schizophrenia. B) bipolar disorder. C) passive-aggressive personality. D) a dissociative disorder. QuestionID: 15-5-28 Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: A) schizophrenia. 29. The belief that you are a special agent for the Intergalactic Supernova is an example of a A) loose association. B) neologism. C) delusion. D) negative symptom. QuestionID: 15-5-29 Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: C) delusion. 30. False sensory perceptions that often take the form of hearing voices are called A) hallucinations. B) obsessions. C) delusions. D) compulsions. QuestionID: 15-5-30 Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: A) hallucinations. 31. Nancy smells smoke when there is no fire. This is an example of A) a delusion. B) a hallucination. C) paranoia. D) olfactory inhibition. QuestionID: 15-5-31 Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: B) a hallucination. 32. Calvin tells everyone that he is Superman when he meets them. Which type of delusion is Calvin most likely experiencing? A) grandeur B) reference C) persecution D) control QuestionID: 15-5-32 Objective: 15.4d Apply your knowledge to identify key features of schizophrenia. Answer: A) grandeur

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33. A schizophrenic characterized by alternating periods of mute immobility and excited motor activity is referred to as a(n) A) disorganized schizophrenic. B) undifferentiated schizophrenic. C) paranoid schizophrenic. D) catatonic schizophrenic. QuestionID: 15-5-33 Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: D) catatonic schizophrenic. 34. Of the following, which would provide the strongest evidence for a genetic component to schizophrenia? A) a higher concordance rate for fraternal twins than for other siblings B) a higher concordance rate for fraternal twins than for identical twins C) a high concordance rate among identical twins raised apart D) a high concordance rate among the general population QuestionID: 15-5-34 Objective: 15.4c Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: C) a high concordance rate among identical twins raised apart True-False Questions 1. Any unusual behaviour should be considered maladaptive. a True b False QuestionID: 15-6-01 Objective: 15.1a Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: b. False 2. Flashbacks are a culturally universal symptom associated with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). a True b False QuestionID: 15-6-02 Objective: 15.1a Know the key terminology associated with defining and classifying psychological disorders. Answer: b. False 3. Dissociative identity disorder is a well-established disorder supported by scientific research. a True b False QuestionID: 15-6-03 Objective: 15.2d Analyze the status of dissociative identity disorder as a legitimate diagnosis. Answer: b. False 4. Generalized anxiety disorder is an anxiety disorder marked by repeated episodes of sudden, very intense fear. a True b False

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QuestionID: 15-6-04 Objective: 15.3b Understand the different types of anxiety disorders. Answer: b. False 5. Obsessions are persistent, unwanted thoughts experienced by individuals with obsessive–compulsive disorder. a True b False QuestionID: 15-6-05 Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: a. True 6. Major depression occurs twice as often among women as among men. a True b False QuestionID: 15-6-06 Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: a. True 7. Suicide rates are nearly 60% higher among the elderly than they are for adolescents. a True b False QuestionID: 15-6-07 Objective: 15.3a Know the key terminology related to anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, and depressive disorders. Answer: a. True 8. Any maladaptive or unwanted symptom of schizophrenia is, by definition, a negative symptom. a True b False QuestionID: 15-6-08 Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: b. False 9. Residual schizophrenia refers to individuals who show a combination of symptoms from more than one type of schizophrenia. a True b False QuestionID: 15-6-09 Objective: 15.4a Know the key terminology associated with schizophrenia. Answer: b. False 10. Children with one parent with schizophrenia have a lifetime risk of developing schizophrenia of about 80%. a True b False

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QuestionID: 15-6-10 Objective: 15.4c Understand the genetic and environmental contributions to schizophrenia. Answer: b. False

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Chapter 16 : Therapies Chapter Quiz Questions 1. Which of the following is believed to be the key reason why men in Canada often go without psychological treatment? A) Psychotherapy is less effective for men than it is for women. B) Psychological problems tend to be less severe for men than for women. C) Men often believe that seeking treatment conflicts with masculinity. D) Psychological problems are more likely to resolve on their own for men than for women. QuestionID: 16-1-01 Objective: 16.1b Understand the major barriers to seeking help for psychological disorders. Answer: C) Men often believe that seeking treatment conflicts with masculinity. 2. Rita is a mental health professional who has a Master's degree. She generally works with people who are having difficulty dealing with mild depression or anxiety, or are generally having trouble with stress or coping; she does not work with individuals who have more severe mental disorders such as schizophrenia or major depression. Rita is most likely a A) counselling psychologist. B) psychiatrist. C) clinical psychologist. D) forensic psychologist. QuestionID: 16-1-02 Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: A) counselling psychologist. 3. According to the text, the rigorous testing of specific psychotherapies is difficult, in part because A) clients do not want to receive experimental treatments. B) most people prefer self-help treatments. C) therapists cannot be blind to the type of therapy they are administering. D) few therapists are willing to participate in such studies. QuestionID: 16-1-03 Objective: 16.1d Apply your knowledge to suggest what approach to therapy is likely most appropriate for a given situation. Answer: C) therapists cannot be blind to the type of therapy they are administering. 4. The psychologist Carl Rogers developed a type of therapy called _____, which focuses on individuals' abilities to solve their own problems and reach their full potential with the encouragement of the therapist. A) object relations therapy B) psychoanalysis C) insight therapy D) client-centred therapy QuestionID: 16-1-04 Objective: 16.2a Know the key terminology related to psychological therapies. Answer: D) client-centred therapy

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5. To treat his fear of spiders, in their first session, Nate's therapist has him lie still for 30 minutes while several tarantulas crawl on him. This extreme therapy is an example of A) aversive conditioning. B) flooding. C) systematic desensitization. D) virtual reality exposure. QuestionID: 16-1-05 Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: B) flooding. 6. Family therapists take a _____ approach, an orientation toward family therapy that involves identifying and understanding what each individual family member contributes to the entire family dynamic. A) client-centred B) decentring C) systems D) mindfulness-based cognitive QuestionID: 16-1-06 Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: C) systems 7. In general, antidepressant drugs are believed to work by A) decreasing monoamine activity in the brain. B) increasing monoamine activity in the brain. C) increasing GABA activity in the brain. D) decreasing GABA activity in the brain. QuestionID: 16-1-07 Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: B) increasing monoamine activity in the brain. 8. Research into the effectiveness of antidepressants indicates that A) the most effect form of treatment is taking antidepressant drugs alone. B) psychotherapy works best without any pharmaceutical therapy. C) taking antidepressants combined with antipsychotic drugs is the most effective form of treatment. D) combining antidepressant drugs with psychotherapy is the most effective form of treatment. QuestionID: 16-1-08 Objective: 16.3d Apply your knowledge of different therapies to different psychological conditions. Answer: D) combining antidepressant drugs with psychotherapy is the most effective form of treatment. 9. In the middle of the 20th century, Walter Freeman and others infamously treated thousands of patients with a procedure known as A) shock therapy. B) frontal lobotomy. C) deep brain stimulation. D) anterior cingulotomy. QuestionID: 16-1-09 Objective: 16.3c Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy.

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Answer: B) frontal lobotomy. 10. Which of the following statements is TRUE about electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? A) ECT can be an effective treatment for severe cases of depression. B) ECT is no longer considered a valid or ethical form of treatment. C) ECT is still performed in the same way it was delivered in the 1930s and 1940s. D) ECT triggers a controlled stroke. QuestionID: 16-1-10 Objective: 16.3a Know the key terminology associated with biological treatments. Answer: A) ECT can be an effective treatment for severe cases of depression. Essay Questions 1. The scientific method is one of the foundational pillars of the field of psychology. However, empirically testing psychological therapies is very difficult. Describe two barriers to scientifically testing the effectiveness of psychological therapies. QuestionID: 16-2-01 Objective: 16.1d Apply your knowledge to suggest what approach to therapy is likely most appropriate for a given situation. Answer: A good answer should contain TWO of the following points: - Ethics—One common problem is that it is ethically problematic to place people into a control group that receives no treatment of any kind, because it effectively denies them treatment that they need. - Double-blind experiments are impossible—given that a therapist must know which type of treatment she is administering, and many clients likely know what kind of therapy they are receiving as well. - Variation among therapists—it can be very difficult to assess the general effectiveness of a therapeutic approach if therapists themselves differ widely in their own level of relevant skills. - Relationship between client and therapist can influence outcome—the specific type of therapy used is actually less important than the "common factors" of empathy, trust, and the like, which allow the therapist and client to build an appropriately supportive relationship. Establishing a positive relationship therefore depends on various qualities of the therapist and client, as well as the "fit" between the two. 2. Select a phobia (other than public speaking) and outline the THREE main steps involved in systematic desensitization of that phobia, ensuring to fully explain the anxiety hierarchy in step one. QuestionID: 16-2-02 Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: A good answer should include similar information to that laid out in Table 16.3, but that is relevant to the phobia they have selected. For example, if they select arachnophobia, they should have items like "thinking about a picture of a spider," and "drawing a picture of a spider," etc. 3. Describe the procedure of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), including its history, perceptions of it in society, its use in modern treatment regimes, and how its effects may be achieved. QuestionID: 16-2-03 Objective: 16.3a Know the key terminology associated with biological treatments. Answer: A good answer should include much of the following: - Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) involves passing an electrical current through the brain in order to induce a temporary seizure. This procedure was introduced in the 1930s and has been viewed negatively for much of its history, in part because in its early days it was generally unsafe and easily abused. - Many people believe that ECT causes lasting cognitive impairments, but the majority of research on people who have .

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been treated with it suggests that this is not true. - ECT techniques have improved dramatically in recent years. Patients' experiences are much less negative; they are now given sedatives and muscle relaxants to reduce the discomfort they may experience and to prevent injury related to the convulsions. - ECT is now considered a relatively safe procedure, although it is still reserved for the most severe cases of disorders such as depression and bipolar disorder. Side effects typically consist of some amnesia for events occurring around the time of the treatment. - Neuroimaging research suggests that ECT might alter how different brain areas work together as networks. These changes are most pronounced in the frontal lobes. ECT may alter the patient's tendency to habitually engage in negative thoughts, thereby disrupting the dysfunctional thinking patterns that are characteristic of depression. Fill-in-the-blank Questions 1. A(n) __________ is a type of mental health professional who typically has a Master's or PhD and typically works with people experiencing common problems, such as stress, anxiety, or depression. QuestionID: 16-3-01 Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: a. counselling psychologist 2. The relationship that develops between a therapist and their client is known as the __________ . QuestionID: 16-3-02 Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: a. therapeutic alliance 3. After a few unsuccessful attempts at finding a clinical psychologists that he could trust, Greg sought help and advice from his local library. He began reading all the self-help books he could find on treating depression—an approach formally known as __________ . QuestionID: 16-3-03 Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: a. bibliotherapy 4. The most extreme form of exposure therapy is called __________ , which requires the client to experience a great amount of fear all at once. QuestionID: 16-3-04 Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: a. flooding 5. Psychologists have had some success treating soldiers suffering from PTSD, using __________ , which simulates actual environments to help the soldiers face their fears. QuestionID: 16-3-05 Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: a. virtual reality exposure 6. Family therapists take a(n) __________ approach to therapy, meaning that they try to understand how each family member contributes to the overall family dynamic.

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QuestionID: 16-3-06 Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: a. systems 7. SSRIs have been shown to increase __________ , the growth of brand-new neurons, in the hippocampus. QuestionID: 16-3-07 Objective: 16.3d Apply your knowledge of different therapies to different psychological conditions. Answer: a. neurogenesis 8. There is evidence that __________ , a popular over-the-counter herbal treatment for depression is as effective as antidepressants and more effective that placebos. QuestionID: 16-3-08 Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: a. St. John's wort 9. One of the side effects of early (first-generation) antipsychotic medications was __________ , a condition that involved involuntary movements and facial tics. QuestionID: 16-3-09 Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: a. tardive dyskinesia 10. does not involve surgery or invasive procedures, but instead uses a powerful magnetic field to affect specific areas of the brain. QuestionID: 16-3-10 Objective: 16.3c Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. Answer: a. Transcranial magnetic stimulation Multiple-Choice Questions 1. According to your textbook, two of the major logistical barriers to psychological treatment are A) time and money. B) a lack of available trained mental health professionals. C) rigid diagnostic criteria for mental illness. D) negative side effects from drug treatments. QuestionID: 16-4-01 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.1b Understand the major barriers to seeking help for psychological disorders. Answer: A) time and money. 2. Gender roles often result in A) men seeking help for mental illness less frequently than women. B) women seeking help for mental illness less frequently than men. C) men experiencing more severe symptoms of mental illness than women. D) women experiencing more severe symptoms of mental illness than men.

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QuestionID: 16-4-02 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.1b Understand the major barriers to seeking help for psychological disorders. Answer: A) men seeking help for mental illness less frequently than women. 3. Which of the following is TRUE regarding court-ordered treatments in the U.S.? A) Individuals with schizophrenia are more likely to receive involuntary treatment. B) Individuals who are lower in socioeconomic status are more likely to receive involuntary treatment. C) Individuals who are higher in socioeconomic status are more likely to receive involuntary treatment. D) Individuals from African-American or Latino backgrounds are less likely to receive involuntary treatment. QuestionID: 16-4-03 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.1c Understand the arguments for and against involuntary treatment. Answer: B) Individuals who are lower in socioeconomic status are more likely to receive involuntary treatment. 4. Which of the following mental health professionals is most likely to have a PhD (rather than a medical degree) and diagnose and treat a wide range of mental health issues (from mild to severe)? A) clinical psychologist B) research psychologist C) psychiatrist D) counselling psychologist QuestionID: 16-4-04 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: A) clinical psychologist 5. Dr. Snider has a PhD and works in a hospital (without a medical degree), where she diagnoses and treats patients with severe psychological disorders, such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. Dr. Snider is likely a A) psychiatrist. B) research psychologist. C) clinical psychologist. D) counselling psychologist. QuestionID: 16-4-05 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: C) clinical psychologist. 6. If you or a family member were suffering from a severe mental illness, you would most likely be treated by a(n) _____________ psychologist. A) research B) counselling C) academic D) clinical QuestionID: 16-4-06 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: D) clinical .

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7. Physicians who specialize in mental health and diagnose and treat mental disorders primarily by prescribing medications are called A) psychiatrists. B) clinical psychologists. C) counselling psychologists. D) experimental psychologists. QuestionID: 16-4-07 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: A) psychiatrists. 8. Rihanna goes to a mental health professional for help with her depression. At the end of her session, the therapist writes Rihanna a prescription for an antidepressant drug. Rihanna's therapist is likely a A) clinical social worker. B) psychiatrist. C) clinical psychologist. D) counselling psychologist. QuestionID: 16-4-08 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: B) psychiatrist. 9. Thanks to the _________________ movement, the majority of mental institutions in the Canada have been closed. A) deinstitutionalization B) inpatient C) involuntary treatment D) community psychology QuestionID: 16-4-09 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: A) deinstitutionalization 10. The development of successful medications to treat psychological disorders allowed many patients to return to regular society and caused a shift away from inpatient facilities; a movement known as A) deinstitutionalization. B) inpatient mobilization. C) institutionalization. D) therapeutic alliance. QuestionID: 16-4-10 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: A) deinstitutionalization. 11. Today, people in need of serious, long-term care often live in _________________, which are a humane alternative to the institutions of the past. A) deinstitutionalized homes .

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B) residential treatment centres C) asylums D) high-security prisons QuestionID: 16-4-11 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: B) residential treatment centres 12. A major goal of modern inpatient psychiatric treatment is A) keeping people with mental illness out of the community. B) permanently curing a patient's mental illness. C) helping residents become reintegrated into society. D) administering more invasive therapy techniques (e.g., electroconvulsive therapy). QuestionID: 16-4-12 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: C) helping residents become reintegrated into society. 13. Which area of psychology focuses on identifying how an individual's mental health is influenced by factors such as the neighbourhood, economics, and social groups? A) socioeconomic psychology B) holistic psychology C) family psychology D) community psychology QuestionID: 16-4-13 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: D) community psychology 14. Empirically supported treatments refer to treatments A) that are used by largest number of therapists. B) that encourage a therapeutic alliance. C) that have been tested and evaluated. D) which have been shown to be effective 100% of the time. QuestionID: 16-4-14 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: C) that have been tested and evaluated. 15. Empirically supported treatments are also known as: A) bibliotherapies. B) evidence-based therapies. C) psychotherapies. D) insight therapies. QuestionID: 16-4-15 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: B) evidence-based therapies. 16. Which of the following is NOT an issue with testing the effectiveness of a psychological treatment? A) Randomly assigning participants to a control group can be considered unethical. B) Double-blind experiments are impossible. C) Therapists can vary in their relevant skills and approaches. D) It is difficult to find large enough sample sizes to test most psychological treatments. QuestionID: 16-4-16 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: D) It is difficult to find large enough sample sizes to test most psychological treatments. 17. Therapeutic alliance refers to A) the combined effectiveness of psychotherapy and drug treatments. B) the professional organization of psychologists, counsellors, and therapists. C) the relationship that emerges between patient and therapist during therapy. D) the organization tasked with empirically testing the effectiveness of psychological treatments. QuestionID: 16-4-17 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: C) the relationship that emerges between patient and therapist during therapy. 18. Lindsay has been experiencing a great deal of stress during her first year of college. She checks out a book from the library which promises to help people find strategies for reducing stress. Lindsay is using __________ to help her learn to cope with her stress. A) bibliotherapy B) community psychology C) a systems approach D) psychoanalysis QuestionID: 16-4-18 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.1e Analyze whether self-help options, such as popular books, are a useful therapy option. Answer: A) bibliotherapy 19. A(n) _____________ is a statistical method that helps researchers to combine the findings from several research studies. A) meta-analysis B) experimental design C) correlation D) factor analysis QuestionID: 16-4-19 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.1e Analyze whether self-help options, such as popular books, are a useful therapy option. Answer: A) meta-analysis 20. According to your textbook, analysis of several studies investigating the effectiveness of the self-help book Feeling Good, suggests that self-help books have _________ on well-being. .

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A) B) C) D)

no effects at all a detrimental effect a large beneficial effect potential beneficial effects

QuestionID: 16-4-20 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.1e Analyze whether self-help options, such as popular books, are a useful therapy option. Answer: D) potential beneficial effects 21. Starting in the 1970s, a program called Scared Straight exposed at-risk youth to the harsh reality of prison life. According to your textbook, which of the following is true about this program? A) It significantly reduced crime rates among troubled youth. B) The program did not reduce the risk of incarceration among the participants. C) The majority of participants went on to commit violent crimes. D) The program worked, but the effect was small. QuestionID: 16-4-21 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: B) The program did not reduce the risk of incarceration among the participants. 22. The main objective of insight therapies is to give people A) feedback from their biologically controlled responses. B) help in understanding perceptual processes. C) basic training in observational learning and practice. D) an understanding of their psychological problems. QuestionID: 16-4-22 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: D) an understanding of their psychological problems. 23. In which type of psychotherapy would a therapist attempt to uncover and resolve underlying unconscious conflicts? A) behavioural B) cognitive-behavioural C) humanistic D) psychodynamic QuestionID: 16-4-23 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: D) psychodynamic 24. Carlita has just come from her first therapy session. To better understand Carlita's generalized anxiety, the therapist asked her to talk about her childhood experiences and interactions with her parents and has asked her to keep a dream journal for the next several weeks. Which type of therapy does her therapist appear to be using? A) cognitive-behavioural B) existential C) humanistic D) psychodynamic .

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QuestionID: 16-4-24 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: D) psychodynamic 25. Freud believed that patients could not resolve their psychological conflicts without the help of a therapist. This was primarily because Freud believed that A) non-psychologists do not have the training to understand their own thoughts. B) psychological conflicts are located in the unconscious mind and are difficult to access. C) although most people are consciously aware of their inner conflicts, they are not willing to admit them. D) people with psychological issues are not in the right mindset to appraise their internal feelings. QuestionID: 16-4-25 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: B) psychological conflicts are located in the unconscious mind and are difficult to access. 26. Laura has had many different jobs, but she always does something to get herself fired. After about fifteen therapy sessions, during which she explores her earliest memories, she has an insight. She comes to believe that sabotaging her jobs is her way of expressing anger toward her father, who had always put his job before his family. What method of therapy is Laura most likely engaged in? A) psychoanalysis B) behavioural therapy C) cognitive therapy D) humanist therapy QuestionID: 16-4-26 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: A) psychoanalysis 27. Bart is asked by his psychotherapist to close his eyes. After a few minutes of relaxing, the therapist asks Bart to discuss whatever comes to mind and to continue without censoring any of the ideas or thoughts he experiences. Bart is participating in A) dream analysis. B) transference. C) free association. D) object relations therapy. QuestionID: 16-4-27 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: C) free association. 28. Free association is a technique used in ___________ therapy. A) psychodynamic B) family C) person-centred D) cognitive-behavioural QuestionID: 16-4-28 .

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Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: A) psychodynamic 29. Julio tells his therapist that he dreamt of a large blue monster that was about to eat him. His therapist interpreted this dream as representing Julio's abusive father. According to dream analysis, the manifest content is A) Julio. B) Julio's father. C) the abuse. D) the large blue monster. QuestionID: 16-4-29 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: D) the large blue monster. 30. According to Freud, when you awaken in the morning and remember a dream, you recall the dream's A) latent content. B) deep meaning. C) surface meaning. D) manifest content. QuestionID: 16-4-30 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: D) manifest content. 31. In interpreting a dream, a psychoanalyst would attempt to discover/unveil the dream's _________ content. A) latent B) manifest C) conscious D) insight QuestionID: 16-4-31 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: A) latent 32. According to Freud, the ___________ content of the dream refers to the hidden, symbolic meaning of the dream. A) manifest B) idiographic C) latent D) insightful QuestionID: 16-4-32 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: C) latent

.

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33. After many sessions of psychodynamic therapy, Dan begins to experience reluctance to cooperate with his therapist and tends to avoid questions from the therapist. According to Freud, Dan is experiencing A) resistance. B) object relations. C) transference. D) free association. QuestionID: 16-4-33 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: A) resistance. 34. Shondra has been in therapy with Dr. Williams for two months when she suddenly starts making jokes, avoiding his questions, and skipping appointments. Shondra is likely experiencing A) free association. B) resistance. C) transference. D) working through. QuestionID: 16-4-34 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: B) resistance. 35. Amal begins to project his anxieties and unresolved feelings about his mother onto his therapist. This is what Freud would have called A) free association. B) resistance. C) transference. D) therapeutic alliance. QuestionID: 16-4-35 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: C) transference. 36. Maureen is in therapy because she is very frightened of her father. After a few months, she begins to feel frightened of her therapist also. According to Freud, this is an example of A) therapeutic alliance. B) resistance. C) transference. D) free association. QuestionID: 16-4-36 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: C) transference. 37. ____________ is a type of psychodynamic therapy that focuses primarily on how early childhood experiences and emotional attachments influence later psychological functioning. A) Object relations therapy B) Systems therapy .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) Family therapy D) Client-centred therapy QuestionID: 16-4-37 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: A) Object relations therapy 38. An object relations therapist would be least likely to emphasize the importance of unconscious ________ impulses and needs in a therapeutic setting. A) dependence B) sexual C) social D) status QuestionID: 16-4-38 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: B) sexual 39. Which of the following does humanistic therapy emphasize? A) unconscious thoughts and desires B) personal growth and strengths C) abnormal thought processes D) family dynamics QuestionID: 16-4-39 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: B) personal growth and strengths 40. The ultimate goal of humanistic psychotherapy is for people to A) change their maladaptive behaviours and reactions to challenging situations. B) change their maladaptive thoughts about themselves and their life circumstances. C) gain insight and move forward in achieving self-actualization. D) uncover the hidden motivations that impact their thoughts and behaviours. QuestionID: 16-4-40 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: C) gain insight and move forward in achieving self-actualization. 41. A(n) _________ approach refers to the process of dealing with thoughts and feelings in the moment, rather than looking to the past. A) phenomenological B) insightful C) transference D) behavioural QuestionID: 16-4-41 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: A) phenomenological 42. Client-centred therapy is a type of ______ therapy. A) insight B) behaviour C) cognitive D) psychodynamic QuestionID: 16-4-42 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: A) insight 43. ________ developed client-centred therapy, which focuses on the patient's goals and ways of solving problems. A) Rogers B) Freud C) Beck D) Ellis QuestionID: 16-4-43 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: A) Rogers 44. Gavi's mother acts as if she will be very disappointed in him if he does not become a doctor or a lawyer. Carl Rogers would refer to this as A) resistance. B) a condition of worth. C) unconditional positive regard. D) transference. QuestionID: 16-4-44 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: B) a condition of worth. 45. Which of the following is a key component of Rogers's client-centred therapy? A) transference B) free association C) dream analysis D) unconditional positive regard QuestionID: 16-4-45 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2a Know the key terminology related to psychological therapies. Answer: D) unconditional positive regard 46. In client-centred therapy, the nonjudgmental acceptance of all feelings the patient expresses is known as A) conditions of worth. B) self-actualization. .

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C) unconditional positive regard. D) the phenomenological approach. QuestionID: 16-4-46 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: C) unconditional positive regard. 47. Rogers asserted that an effective psychotherapist would A) actively confront and challenge a client's erroneous beliefs. B) interpret important transference and resistance behaviours for a client. C) provide unconditional positive regard toward their client. D) facilitate the exploration of a client's unconscious thoughts and feelings. QuestionID: 16-4-47 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: C) provide unconditional positive regard toward their client. 48. Carl Rogers believed that _____________ was the cause of psychological health issues, and therefore ____________ was the key to helping clients get over them. A) unconditional positive regard; conditions of worth B) conditions of worth; unconditional positive regard C) repression; transference D) repression; free association QuestionID: 16-4-48 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: B) conditions of worth; unconditional positive regard 49. According to your textbook, which of the following is TRUE regarding the effectiveness of psychodynamic therapies? A) Psychodynamic therapies are not effective for treating any psychological disorders. B) Psychodynamic therapies are effective at treating severe depression and schizophrenia. C) The effectiveness of psychodynamic therapies has never been scientifically tested. D) Psychodynamic therapies may be effective at treating panic and borderline personality disorders. QuestionID: 16-4-49 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2d Analyze the pros and cons of the major types of psychological therapy. Answer: D) Psychodynamic therapies may be effective at treating panic and borderline personality disorders. 50. According to the textbook, research into the effectiveness of person-centred therapy has found A) inconsistent and mixed results. B) it to be consistently more effective than no treatment at all. C) it to be consistently as effective as cognitive-behavioural therapy. D) it to be effective for the treatment of severe anxiety, but little else. QuestionID: 16-4-50 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2d Analyze the pros and cons of the major types of psychological therapy. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Answer: A) inconsistent and mixed results. 51. Psychologists who practice __________ therapy focus on the client's problem behaviours and the environmental factors that trigger them. A) person-centred B) insight C) systems D) behavioural QuestionID: 16-4-51 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: D) behavioural 52. Which type of therapy is based on using learning principles, such as classical conditioning? A) behavioural B) insight C) psychoanalysis D) client-centred QuestionID: 16-4-52 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: A) behavioural 53. In behaviour therapy, maladaptive behaviours are seen as A) the result of learning. B) the result of unconscious thoughts. C) the result of a neuro-chemical imbalance. D) an indicator of neurophysiological abnormalities. QuestionID: 16-4-53 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: A) the result of learning. 54. Amira was bitten by a dog when she was younger. As an adult, Amira has an extreme phobia of dogs, and begins to shake if she even sees a dog. A behavioural therapist would suggest that Amira's phobia is a result of A) conditions of worth. B) unconditional positive regard. C) classical conditioning. D) repressed negative emotions. QuestionID: 16-4-54 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: C) classical conditioning. 55. Systematic desensitization is specifically designed to help a person to deal with his or her A) depression. B) schizophrenic symptoms. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) phobia. D) addiction. QuestionID: 16-4-55 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: C) phobia. 56. Cherise finds out that she is being transferred to an office located on the tenth floor of a building. The problem is that she fears heights so much that she never goes above the third floor in any building. Her therapist teaches her how to relax deeply while imagining looking out over a balcony. As her therapy progresses, Cherise imagines herself on higher and higher floors. This technique is called A) systematic desensitization. B) aversive conditioning. C) flooding. D) classical conditioning. QuestionID: 16-4-56 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: A) systematic desensitization. 57. Mahdi attempts to overcome his fear of clowns by learning how to shift from a feeling of tension to one of calm and relaxation. Next, he imagines different situations, each more anxiety-provoking than the previous. He only proceeds to the next situation if he can maintain his feeling of relaxation. Mahdi's therapist is using ________ to remove his fear. A) systems therapy B) conditioning C) flooding D) systematic desensitization QuestionID: 16-4-57 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: D) systematic desensitization 58. Which method of treating phobias involves relaxation and a step-wise progression to the feared object? A) aversive conditioning B) punishment C) flooding D) systematic desensitization QuestionID: 16-4-58 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: D) systematic desensitization 59. For which of these patients would systematic desensitization most likely be used? A) Joe, who has been depressed for two years and has frequent suicidal thoughts. B) Abner, who is sexually attracted to young children. C) Yara, who does not interact with members of her family due to her schizophrenia. D) Alice, who will only attend classes if they take place on the ground floor of a building. .

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QuestionID: 16-4-59 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: D) Alice, who will only attend classes if they take place on the ground floor of a building. 60. Rhona's therapist is attempting to treat her agoraphobia by riding the subway with her during rush hour on the first day of treatment. The therapist is most likely doing this as part of a treatment known as A) systematic desensitization. B) aversive conditioning. C) flooding. D) resistance. QuestionID: 16-4-60 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: C) flooding. 61. Estella is afraid of cats. To help her overcome her fear, her mother calmly pets and strokes a cat while Estella is watching. Her mother encourages her to imitate her behaviour. Estella's mother is likely using ______ to help her overcome her fear. A) systematic desensitization B) aversive conditioning C) flooding D) modelling QuestionID: 16-4-61 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: D) modelling 62. Jad is so afraid of germs that he wears gloves when opening doors. He is encouraged by his therapist to imitate a person in a video who demonstrates opening a door, step-by-step, without wearing gloves. Which technique is his therapist likely using? A) flooding B) modelling C) systematic desensitization D) aversive conditioning QuestionID: 16-4-62 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: B) modelling 63. ________ allows psychotherapists to place persons in situations that would be difficult or impossible to do in real life in order to confront and eliminate their fears. A) Systems therapy B) Flooding C) Aversive conditioning D) Virtual reality exposure therapy QuestionID: 16-4-63 .

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Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: D) Virtual reality exposure therapy 64. Thanks to new computer technology, virtual reality devices permit behaviour therapists to conduct _______________ in their offices. A) free association B) transference C) exposure therapy D) unconditional positive regard QuestionID: 16-4-64 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: C) exposure therapy 65. One study outlined in the textbook suggested that virtual reality exposure therapy might help A) suicidal adolescents. B) girls and young women with negative body-image issues. C) people with substance abuse problems. D) soldiers returning from combat with PTSD. QuestionID: 16-4-65 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: D) soldiers returning from combat with PTSD. 66. Miranda is in therapy for alcoholism, and her doctor has prescribed a treatment which will make her vomit after drinking alcohol. Why might this be an ineffective treatment for Miranda? A) Miranda has a strong desire to quit drinking. B) The treatment is very expensive. C) Miranda likely has unresolved unconscious thoughts. D) Miranda can simply not take the treatment. QuestionID: 16-4-66 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: D) Miranda can simply not take the treatment. 67. ____________ is a drug commonly used to treat alcoholism through aversive conditioning. A) Xanax B) Narcan C) Antabuse D) Prozac QuestionID: 16-4-67 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: C) Antabuse 68. The use of Antabuse to induce vomiting when combined with alcohol, is a form of .

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A) B) C) D)

aversive conditioning. resistance. insight therapy. exposure therapy.

QuestionID: 16-4-68 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: A) aversive conditioning. 69. Which therapeutic technique uses punishment and other strategies to create a negative response to a stimulus? A) flooding B) aversive conditioning C) systematic desensitization D) electroconvulsive therapy QuestionID: 16-4-69 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: B) aversive conditioning 70. Cognitive-behavioural therapists would argue that anxiety and mood disorders are largely the result of A) conditions of worth. B) negative cognitions. C) maladaptive behaviours. D) unresolved childhood issues. QuestionID: 16-4-70 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: B) negative cognitions. 71. Cognitive restructuring and stress inoculation training are techniques associated with A) cognitive-behavioural therapy. B) client-centred therapy. C) family therapy. D) psychodynamic therapy. QuestionID: 16-4-71 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: A) cognitive-behavioural therapy. 72. _________________ involves helping clients identify and change irrational and self-defeating ways of thinking. A) Exposure B) The systems approach C) Cognitive restructuring D) Stress inoculation training QuestionID: 16-4-72 .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: C) Cognitive restructuring 73. Franco feels like he fails at everything he tries. His cognitive-behavioural therapist helps Franco change this overly pessimistic view of himself and helps Franco to focus on more productive and rational thoughts. This part of cognitive-behavioural therapy is called A) cognitive restructuring. B) stress inoculation training. C) transference. D) exposure. QuestionID: 16-4-73 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: A) cognitive restructuring. 74. Within the scope of mindfulness, COAL stands for A) cognitive, objective, applied, and learning. B) curious, open, accepting, and loving. C) classical, operant, applied, and learning. D) cold, offensive, angry, and lying. QuestionID: 16-4-74 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2a Know the key terminology related to psychological therapies. Answer: B) curious, open, accepting, and loving. 75. According to Siegel, mindfulness focuses on developing ___________, which refers to the relationship between oneself and oneself (i.e., knowing yourself). A) decentring B) stable attributions C) interpersonal attunement D) intrapersonal attunement QuestionID: 16-4-75 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2a Know the key terminology related to psychological therapies. Answer: D) intrapersonal attunement 76. Dylan regularly tries to step back and examine his behaviour in an objective manner, as if he is an observer looking in on himself. Within the scope of mindfulness, this behaviour is known as A) decentring. B) interpersonal attunement. C) a systems approach. D) aversive conditioning. QuestionID: 16-4-76 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2a Know the key terminology related to psychological therapies. Answer: A) decentring. .

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77. Which of the following is TRUE of group therapy? A) It is widely regarded as the most effective form of therapy. B) It is typically ineffective for most psychological disorders. C) It is usually much cheaper than individual therapy. D) Brining patients with similar disorders together can increase the severity of their symptoms. QuestionID: 16-4-77 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: C) It is usually much cheaper than individual therapy. 78. Instead of focusing just on individual family members, family therapists usually try to understand how each family member interacts with, and contributes to, the overall family dynamic. This is referred to as A) the therapeutic alliance. B) the systems approach. C) insight therapy. D) object relations therapy. QuestionID: 16-4-78 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: B) the systems approach. 79. Cognitive-behavioural therapies have been found to be especially helpful in the treatment of A) schizophrenia. B) depression. C) borderline personality disorder. D) substance abuse. QuestionID: 16-4-79 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2d Analyze the pros and cons of the major types of psychological therapy. Answer: B) depression. 80. The most effective treatment for the long-term treatment of anxiety disorders is A) psychodynamic therapy. B) treatment with anti-anxiety medications. C) insight therapy. D) cognitive-behavioural therapy. QuestionID: 16-4-80 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2d Analyze the pros and cons of the major types of psychological therapy. Answer: D) cognitive-behavioural therapy. 81. Which form of biological therapy would a psychiatrist be most likely to suggest for a client? A) electroconvulsive therapy B) psychopharmacotherapy C) psychosurgery D) deep brain stimulation

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QuestionID: 16-4-81 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.3a Know the key terminology associated with biological treatments. Answer: B) psychopharmacotherapy 82. Medications that affect psychological function are collectively referred to as ______________ drugs. A) psychotropic B) tricyclic C) psychedelic D) antipsychotic QuestionID: 16-4-82 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3a Know the key terminology associated with biological treatments. Answer: A) psychotropic 83. To have an effect, drugs used to treat psychological disorders must be able to A) reduce neurotransmitter activity in the brain. B) increase neurotransmitter activity in the brain. C) cross from one side of a synapse to the other. D) cross the blood-brain barrier. QuestionID: 16-4-83 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.3a Know the key terminology associated with biological treatments. Answer: D) cross the blood-brain barrier. 84. Antidepressant drugs typically affect which type of neurotransmitters? A) amino acids B) monoamines C) oxidases D) endorphins QuestionID: 16-4-84 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: B) monoamines 85. A drug that elevates the levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain by inhibiting an enzyme that metabolizes these neurotransmitters would most likely be used to treat A) psychosis. B) anxiety. C) bipolar disorder. D) depression. QuestionID: 16-4-85 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3d Apply your knowledge of different therapies to different psychological conditions. Answer: D) depression. 86. Which of the following is true about MAOIs and tricyclics? .

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A) B) C) D)

They are both effective treatments for schizophrenia. Research has shown that they are no more effective than placebos. They are not widely used because of their negative side effects. They work by affecting the activity of GABA.

QuestionID: 16-4-86 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: C) They are not widely used because of their negative side effects. 87. A frequently prescribed drug therapy for managing depression is A) Antabuse. B) lithium. C) Prozac. D) Clozapine. QuestionID: 16-4-87 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3d Apply your knowledge of different therapies to different psychological conditions. Answer: C) Prozac. 88. Prozac (fluoxetine) works by A) deactivating monoamine oxidase. B) increasing dopamine in the synapse. C) affecting the activity of GABA. D) blocking the reuptake of serotonin. QuestionID: 16-4-88 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: D) blocking the reuptake of serotonin. 89. Many people believe that St. John's wort can be used to treat depression. Researchers studying the effectiveness of this treatment have found A) that St. John's wort is not an effective treatment for depression. B) that St. John's wort is an exceptionally effective treatment for depression. C) that St. John's wort is effective, but not as effective as SSRIs. D) mixed results, with some studies finding an effect while others do not. QuestionID: 16-4-89 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: D) mixed results, with some studies finding an effect while others do not. 90. Which of the following is TRUE of the herbal remedy St. John's wort? A) St. John's wort should never be taken to treat even mild depression. B) St. John's wort is regulated by the FDA as a drug. C) St. John's wort can produce unfavourable reactions with other medications. D) St. John's wort is a more effective mood enhancer than SSRIs. QuestionID: 16-4-90 Skill: Factual .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: C) St. John's wort can produce unfavourable reactions with other medications. 91. Who is most likely to be prescribed lithium to treat their symptoms? A) Zara, who is near death from starving herself due to her anorexia. B) Dmitri, who swings from mania to thoughts of suicide. C) Josh, who has hallucinations and delusions. D) Batul, who experiences excessive worry and anxiety. QuestionID: 16-4-91 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.3d Apply your knowledge of different therapies to different psychological conditions. Answer: B) Dmitri, who swings from mania to thoughts of suicide. 92. Ativan, Valium, and Xanax are types of _______________ drugs. A) antipsychotic B) antidepressant C) antianxiety D) mood stabilizing QuestionID: 16-4-92 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3a Know the key terminology associated with biological treatments. Answer: C) antianxiety 93. A drug that increases the activity of the neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is likely to A) reduce feelings of anxiety. B) reduce psychotic episodes. C) reduce feelings of sadness and improve mood. D) stabilize severe fluctuations in mood. QuestionID: 16-4-93 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: A) reduce feelings of anxiety. 94. How are atypical antipsychotics different from traditional antipsychotic medications? A) Atypical antipsychotics were developed earlier. B) Atypical antipsychotics work by increasing GABA activity in the brain. C) Atypical antipsychotics only treat negative symptoms. D) Atypical antipsychotics are less likely to cause tardive dyskinesia. QuestionID: 16-4-94 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: D) Atypical antipsychotics are less likely to cause tardive dyskinesia. 95. In general, typical antipsychotic drugs work by A) inhibiting the reuptake process of serotonin. B) increasing the amount of acetylcholine in the brain. C) blocking dopamine receptors in the brain. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) inhibiting monoamine oxidase. QuestionID: 16-4-95 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: C) blocking dopamine receptors in the brain. 96. Gary takes antipsychotic drugs to control the symptoms of schizophrenia. After taking the drug for some time, he begins exhibiting repetitive, involuntary jerks and movements of his face, lips, and legs. This is a sideeffect known as A) delirium tremens. B) tardive dyskinesia. C) a clozapine overdose. D) off-label toxicity. QuestionID: 16-4-96 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: B) tardive dyskinesia. 97. A patient is presenting with the classic signs and symptoms of schizophrenia. Which of the following is an atypical antipsychotic that might be prescribed? A) Ativan B) Clozapine C) Lithium D) Zoloft QuestionID: 16-4-97 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3d Apply your knowledge of different therapies to different psychological conditions. Answer: B) Clozapine 98. Suppose a friend asks you about the general effectiveness of psychopharmacotherapy. Which of the following would be the most accurate response? A) "Drug treatments are often more effective when combined with psychotherapy." B) "Drug treatments are always more effective than traditional psychotherapy." C) "Drug treatments are typically less effective than traditional psychotherapy." D) "There are almost no empirical studies on the effectiveness of drug therapies." QuestionID: 16-4-98 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.3a Know the key terminology associated with biological treatments. Answer: A) "Drug treatments are often more effective when combined with psychotherapy." 99. In the 1950s, Terence had a procedure done to him where the doctor used an instrument to cut the nerve fibres connecting his prefrontal cortex to the rest of the brain. This procedure, called _____________, left him withdrawn and unable to care for himself. A) electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) B) deep brain stimulation C) a frontal lobotomy D) transcranial magnetic stimulation

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

QuestionID: 16-4-99 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3c Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. Answer: C) a frontal lobotomy 100. Originally developed by a Portuguese surgeon, the lobotomy procedure was "refined" and popularized in the United States by A) Antonio Moniz. B) Walter Freeman. C) Henry Stack Sullivan. D) Aaron Beck. QuestionID: 16-4-100 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3c Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. Answer: B) Walter Freeman. 101. Which treatment is LEAST likely to be used today? A) transcranial magnetic stimulation B) frontal lobotomy C) electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) D) deep brain stimulation QuestionID: 16-4-101 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3c Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. Answer: B) frontal lobotomy 102. Which brain region are neurosurgeons most likely to lesion to treat severe cases of depression and obsessive–compulsive disorder? A) prefrontal cortex B) hippocampus C) cerebellum D) anterior cingulate cortex QuestionID: 16-4-102 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3c Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. Answer: D) anterior cingulate cortex 103. Electroconvulsive (ECT) therapy is used today primarily to alleviate A) obsessive–compulsive disorder. B) generalized anxiety disorder. C) antisocial personality disorder. D) severe depression. QuestionID: 16-4-103 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3c Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. Answer: D) severe depression.

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

104. Balthazar's depression is being treated through a procedure in which electrodes are placed on both sides of his head and a brief current is turned on. The current triggers a seizure that lasts about a minute, causing his body to convulse. This treatment is known as A) transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS). B) deep brain stimulation (DBS). C) electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). D) focal lesions. QuestionID: 16-4-104 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.3c Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. Answer: C) electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). 105. One of the side effects of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is A) short-term amnesia. B) tardive dyskinesia. C) temporary blindness. D) severe depression. QuestionID: 16-4-105 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3c Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. Answer: A) short-term amnesia. 106. Imani is trying a relatively new treatment for her major depression. When she visits the doctor, he puts a machine against her head that stimulates specific regions in her brain. The treatment is painless and does not cause seizures. Imani is likely receiving A) focal lesion therapy. B) deep brain stimulation. C) electroconvulsive therapy. D) transcranial magnetic stimulation. QuestionID: 16-4-106 Skill: Applied Objective: 16.3c Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. Answer: D) transcranial magnetic stimulation. 107. ______________ requires surgery to implant electrodes into the brain and embed a power supply under the skin. A) Deep brain stimulation B) Electroconvulsive therapy C) A focal lesion D) Transcranial magnetic stimulation QuestionID: 16-4-107 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.3c Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. Answer: A) Deep brain stimulation 108. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the use of MDMA for the treatment of PTSD? A) The patient has to take the party drug ecstasy, which is dangerous. B) MDMA increases empathy, trust, and alliance with therapist, which helps therapeutic process. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) The healing effect of MDMA is only marginal and years of research are needed before its legalization. D) MDMA stimulates the release of epinephrine which has similar effects to opiates. QuestionID: 16-4-108 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3e Analyze whether MDMA [Ecstasy] is an effective treatment for posttraumatic stress disorder [PTSD]. Answer: B) MDMA increases empathy, trust, and alliance with therapist, which helps therapeutic process. 109. There are a number of difficulties in accessing mental health services in rural setting such as Northern Canada. Which of the following is NOT one of those difficulties? A) Mental health problems are mostly associated with isolation, poverty, and the loss of Indigenous ways of life. B) It is hard to attract and keep mental health professionals in rural areas. C) In small communities, mental health professionals are in multiple roles (e.g., therapist, neighbour, friend). D) There is a shortage of medicine such anti-depressants and anti-anxiety drugs in rural areas. QuestionID: 16-4-109 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.1b Understand the major barriers to seeking help for psychological disorders. Answer: D) There is a shortage of medicine such anti-depressants and anti-anxiety drugs in rural areas. 110. With the development of online communication, there are now internet-based therapy programs. Which of the following is FALSE in the context of internet-based CBT? A) It is an especially useful method of therapy that overcomes geographical obstacles. B) Females tend to benefit more from internet-based CBT than do males. C) It is not useful in treating adult problem drinking. D) It is more useful treating moderate depression than anxiety disorders. QuestionID: 16-4-110 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: C) It is not useful in treating adult problem drinking. 111. Which of the following drugs blocks the gates of the presynaptic neuron so that molecules cannot be absorbed back and their transmission to the postsynaptic neuron is increased? A) SSRI B) MAOIs C) Tricyclic antidepressants D) MDMA QuestionID: 16-4-111 Skill: Factual Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: A) SSRI 112. One of the key effects of SSRIs and SNRIs is that they A) decrease the activity of the hippocampus. B) increase neurogenesis and neuroplasticity. C) decrease the activity of the nucleus acumen. D) increase the activity in the amygdala. QuestionID: 16-4-112 Skill: Factual .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: B) increase neurogenesis and neuroplasticity. 113. Deep brain stimulation is especially effective in the treatment of severe cases of A) anxiety. B) psychosis. C) depression. D) bipolar disorder. QuestionID: 16-4-113 Skill: Conceptual Objective: 16.3c Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. Answer: C) depression. Supplementary Questions 1. Physicians who are trained to treat psychological disorders are called A) clinicians. B) counsellors. C) psychiatrists. D) psychiatric psychologists. QuestionID: 16-5-01 Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: C) psychiatrists. 2. John dreamed that he was in a train that entered a tunnel. If a psychologist believed that the dream expressed John's unconscious sexual desires, the psychologist would likely be a A) humanist. B) learning theorist. C) personologist. D) psychoanalyst. QuestionID: 16-5-02 Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: D) psychoanalyst. 3. The term "free association" is associated with which of the following therapeutic endeavours? A) applied behaviour analysis B) analytical analysis C) specific therapies D) psychoanalysis QuestionID: 16-5-03 Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: D) psychoanalysis 4. What is the process by which a patient projects feelings about other individuals onto the psychoanalyst? A) resistance B) reactance C) countertransference .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

D) transference QuestionID: 16-5-04 Objective: 16.2a Know the key terminology related to psychological therapies. Answer: D) transference 5. According to Rogers, all people have a need for A) superiority. B) sex and aggression. C) positive regard. D) anxiety reduction. QuestionID: 16-5-05 Objective: 16.2a Know the key terminology related to psychological therapies. Answer: C) positive regard. 6. According to Rogers, people brought up with conditional positive regard A) tend to be vain and narcissistic B) tend to act as if they were orally fixated C) feel valued regardless of their attitudes and behaviours D) live lives directed toward what others want and value QuestionID: 16-5-06 Objective: 16.2a Know the key terminology related to psychological therapies. Answer: C) feel valued regardless of their attitudes and behaviours 7. Unconditional positive regard was most important to A) Freud. B) Jung. C) Maslow. D) Rogers. QuestionID: 16-5-07 Objective: 16.2a Know the key terminology related to psychological therapies. Answer: D) Rogers. 8. Billie is using an anxiety hierarchy to help eliminate her fear of cats. What type of treatment approach is Billie most likely implementing? A) systematic desensitization B) dismantling C) experiential therapy D) aversion therapy QuestionID: 16-5-08 Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: A) systematic desensitization 9. Which of the following techniques would behaviour therapists most likely use to help people overcome a fear of flying? A) aversive conditioning B) eclectic therapy .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

C) systematic desensitization D) transference QuestionID: 16-5-09 Objective: 16.2a Know the key terminology related to psychological therapies. Answer: C) systematic desensitization 10. Making someone who is afraid of snakes handle dozens of snakes in an effort to get him to overcome his fear is called A) systematic desensitization. B) aversive conditioning. C) flooding. D) paradoxical intent. QuestionID: 16-5-10 Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: C) flooding. 11. A young boy has been told by his dentist to stop eating candy because the sugar is ruining his teeth. The boy still cannot help himself. Whenever he finds candy in his house, he quickly devours it all. To help stop the boy from eating the candy, his mother allows him to "find" several candy pieces that she has dipped in hot chili sauce. Which type of treatment approach is the mother using? A) aversion therapy B) implosion therapy C) client-centred therapy D) systematic desensitization QuestionID: 16-5-11 Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: A) aversion therapy 12. Sally's therapist wants her to bring her parents and siblings to counselling sessions with her. Sally is going through A) social skills training. B) family therapy. C) assertiveness training. D) client-centred therapy. QuestionID: 16-5-12 Objective: 16.2c Apply your knowledge to identify major therapeutic techniques. Answer: B) family therapy. 13. Lithium is a naturally occurring A) drug. B) enzyme. C) salt. D) plant. QuestionID: 16-5-13 Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: C) salt. .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

14. Which of the following has been fairly effective in treating bipolar disorder? A) cingulotomy B) valium C) lithium D) ECT QuestionID: 16-5-14 Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: C) lithium 15. Tardive dyskinesia is a side-effect of A) barbiturate use B) psychosurgery C) ECT D) antipsychotic drugs QuestionID: 16-5-15 Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: D) antipsychotic drugs 16. Systematic desensitization is especially useful as a treatment for A) panic disorders. B) schizophrenia. C) depression. D) phobias. QuestionID: 16-5-16 Objective: 16.2a Know the key terminology related to psychological therapies. Answer: D) phobias. True-False Questions 1. Men are less likely than women to seek treatment for psychological issues. a True b False QuestionID: 16-6-01 Objective: 16.1b Understand the major barriers to seeking help for psychological disorders. Answer: a. True 2. Psychiatrists typically have a Master's or PhD in psychology. a True b False QuestionID: 16-6-02 Objective: 16.1a Know the key terminology associated with mental health treatment. Answer: b. False 3. Most psychological treatments used by therapists have been empirically tested through experimental design. a True .

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

b False QuestionID: 16-6-03 Objective: 16.1e Analyze whether self-help options, such as popular books, are a useful therapy option. Answer: b. False 4. Freud believed that with insight and better understanding of past experiences, his patients' symptoms would improve. a True b False QuestionID: 16-6-04 Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: a. True 5. A psychodynamic therapist would terminate therapy if a client reported that they had fallen in love with the therapist. a True b False QuestionID: 16-6-05 Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: b. False 6. In client-centred therapy, the therapist provides empathy and unconditional positive regard to the client. a True b False QuestionID: 16-6-06 Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: a. True 7. A key part of cognitive-behavioural therapy is identifying and changing irrational, unproductive ways of thinking. a True b False QuestionID: 16-6-07 Objective: 16.2b Understand the general approaches to conducting major types of psychological therapy. Answer: a. True 8. MAOIs are among the most commonly prescribed type of antidepressants. a True b False QuestionID: 16-6-08 Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: b. False 9. Research has shown that St. John's wort, an herbal remedy, is no more effective than a placebo at treating

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Test Bank for Krause/Corts/Smith, An Introduction to Psychological Science, 3Ce

depression. a True b False QuestionID: 16-6-09 Objective: 16.3b Understand how the drugs described in this module affect brain functioning. Answer: b. False 10. Despite the massive controversy surrounding the practice of frontal lobotomies, the basic practice of therapeutically destroying small areas of brain tissue is still used today for some severe cases. a True b False QuestionID: 16-6-10 Objective: 16.3c Understand the other major medical approaches to therapy. Answer: a. True

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