Introductory Chemistry, 6th Edition Authors Nivaldo J Tro Test Bank

Introductory Chemistry, 6th Edition By Nivaldo J. Tro

Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 1 The Chemical World 1.1 True/False Questions 1) Chemicals make up everything around you, including your own body.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.1 Learning Outcome: 1.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Chemists study the properties of substances and the particles that compose those substances.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.1 Learning Outcome: 1.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) When a sealed can of soda pop is opened, the carbon dioxide gas fizzes out because the pressure is released.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.1 Learning Outcome: 1.2 Global Outcome: G2

4) Different molecules can have different shapes.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.1 Global Outcome: G1

5) The properties of water do not depend on how the atoms are bonded together in the molecule.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.1 Learning Outcome: 1.2 Global Outcome: G1

6) Both carbon dioxide molecules and water molecules consist of three atoms bonded together in a straight line.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.1 Learning Outcome: 1.2 Global Outcome: G1

7) Molecules are responsible for scattering light which causes the colors of the sunset.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.2 Global Outcome: G1

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8) All things are made of atoms or molecules.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.2 Global Outcome: G1

9) Atoms and molecules determine how matter behaves.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.2 Global Outcome: G1

10) Chemistry is the science that seeks to understand what matter does by studying living organisms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

11) The scientific method emphasizes reason as the way to understand the world.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G5

12) A hypothesis can never be proven as wrong.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

13) A theory is always true and can never be proven as wrong.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Global Outcome: G1

14) Theories can be tested and validated through experimentation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Global Outcome: G9

15) If experimental results contradict a hypothesis, the hypothesis must be either revised or discarded.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Global Outcome: G1

16) The Greek philosophers used observation and experimentation to understand the world.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Global Outcome: G1

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17) A scientific law is a brief statement that summarizes past observations and predicts future ones.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Global Outcome: G1

18) The law of conservation of mass states, "In a chemical reaction matter can be created and destroyed."

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Global Outcome: G1

19) Antoine Lavoisier observed that burning objects in a closed container resulted in a loss of mass.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Global Outcome: G1

20) A scientific theory describes the underlying reasons for observations and laws.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

21) The scientific method ensures that poor theories are eliminated over time and good theories remain.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

22) A theory is the equivalent of an opinion.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

23) Antoine Lavoisier proposed the atomic theory.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

24) John Dalton proposed the atomic theory.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

25) The first step in acquiring scientific knowledge is often the observation or measurement of some aspect of nature.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

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26) If a hypothesis is falsifiable, it means that the hypothesis was once considered true but is now considered false.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

27) Observations from experiments are used to test theories.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

28) A theory can only exist after many experiments have validated a hypothesis.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

29) Scientific theories are also called models.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

30) The atomic theory explains why the law of conservation of mass is true.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G2

31) An established theory is the pinnacle of scientific understanding.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

32) Quantification is an important tool in understanding chemistry.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

33) Lavoisier developed the law of conservation of mass.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

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34) Combustion means burning.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

35) The phlogiston theory of combustion is still considered correct today.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

36) Quantification involves measurement as part of an observation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

1.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements about soda pop is FALSE? A) Soda pop is a chemical mixture of mostly sugar, water and carbon dioxide.

B) The molecules important to fizzing are carbon dioxide and water.

C) The carbon dioxide is forced to mix with the water by the presence of sugars.

D) When a can is opened, the pressure release allows carbon dioxide to form bubbles.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.1 Learning Outcome: 1.2 Global Outcome: G2

2) Which of the following items does NOT contain chemicals?

A) drain cleaner B) organically grown vegetables C) air D) insecticides E) All of the above contain chemicals.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 1.2 Global Outcome: G2

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3) A good definition of chemistry is: A) the science that seeks to understand what matter does by studying what atoms and molecules do.

B) the science that seeks to understand what living organisms do by studying the molecules that make up the organism.

C) the science that seeks to understand what the universe does by studying interactions of molecules with atoms.

D) the science that seeks to understand the interactions of molecules for the sake of advancing human control over nature.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G2

4) Which statement about the scientific method is TRUE? A) The scientific method emphasizes reason as the way to understand the world.

B) The scientific method emphasizes observation and reason as the way to understand the world.

C) The scientific method emphasizes observation and experimentation as the way to understand the world.

D) The scientific method emphasizes scientific laws as the way to understand the world.

E) All of the above statements are false.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G2

5) Which of the statements below is NOT part of the scientific method?

A) observation and measurement B) formation of a hypothesis C) testing of a hypothesis by experimentation D) refinement of a hypothesis as needed E) All of the above steps are part of the scientific method.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

6) Which statement about a hypothesis is TRUE? A) It is a tentative interpretation or explanation.

B) It has the potential to be proven wrong.

C) It can be tested by experiments.

D) It is part of the scientific method.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

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7) The definition of a scientific law is: A) the same as a hypothesis.

B) a way of learning that emphasizes observation and experimentation.

C) the underlying reason for a scientific theory.

D) a number of similar observations generalized into a brief statement summarizing past observations and predicting new ones.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

8) What term best describes a brief statement that summarizes many past observations and predicts new ones?

A) experiment B) hypothesis C) scientific law D) theory E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

9) Who discovered the law of conservation of mass?

A) John Dalton B) Antoine Lavoisier C) Nivaldo Tro D) John Dalton and Antoine Lavoisier E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.2 Global Outcome: G1

10) Which of the following is an example of a scientific law?

A) All matter is composed of small, indestructible particles called atoms.

B) In a chemical reaction, matter is neither created nor destroyed.

C) When a can of soda pop is opened, a fizzing sound is heard.

D) Flammable objects contain phlogiston.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G2

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11) What is the definition of a scientific theory?

A) a brief statement that summarizes past observations and predicts future ones B) a model that explains the underlying reasons for observations and laws C) the equivalent of a scientific opinion which others may disagree with D) a method of learning that emphasizes reason as the way to understand the world E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G5

12) Who discovered the atomic theory?

A) John Dalton B) Antoine Lavoisier C) Nivaldo Tro D) John Dalton and Antoine Lavoisier E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.2 Global Outcome: G1

13) Which of the following is an example of an observation?

A) All matter is composed of small, indestructible particles called atoms.

B) Reactions occur due to the transfer of electrons.

C) When a can of soda pop is opened, a fizzing sound is heard.

D) Flammable objects contain phlogiston.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G2

14) A sample of wood with a mass of 3.0 grams was burned in an open dish. The ashes weighed 1.2 grams. What happened to the rest of the wood?

A) The remaining mass was destroyed.

B) The remaining 1.8 grams was converted into gaseous compounds.

C) Nothing, the burned wood simply has a mass of 1.2 grams.

D) The remaining 1.8 grams was converted into heat.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.2 Global Outcome: G9|G4

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15) Which statement accurately describes the purpose of experiments?

A) Experiments are designed to produce the results predicted by a theory.

B) Experiments can be replaced by a simple, logical reasoning of known facts.

C) Experiments are designed to produce unexplainable results for further investigation.

D) Experiments look for other observable predictions of a theory.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G9

16) Which of the following would be considered a theory?

A) Glass is fragile.

B) Hot air rises.

C) Gasoline has a very strong odor.

D) Helium balloons float because helium is less dense than air.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G2

17) Which of the following is considered a hypothesis (as opposed to an observation)?

A) Spiders have eight legs.

B) Birds can fly because they have hollow bones.

C) Fresh lava from a volcano is hot.

D) The Washington Monument is 555 feet tall.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G2

18) The key to success in chemistry is: A) curiosity.

B) mathematical skills.

C) commitment.

D) practice.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

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19) Which statement would NOT be an example of "quantification"?

A) The newest model of that car gets five more miles per gallon than last year's model.

B) The price of milk went up ten cents per gallon.

C) The average high temperature this July was two degrees higher than last year's average high temperature.

D) The water in the swimming pool feels colder than it was yesterday.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G1

1.3 Essay Questions 1) What is chemistry?

Answer: Chemistry is branch of science that explains the properties and behavior of different forms of matter, in the broadest sense, by helping us understand the atoms and molecules that compose them.

Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G8

2) What are the important characteristics of the scientific method?

Answer: The important characteristics of the scientific method include the observation of phenomena, the formulation of a hypothesis to explain the observed phenomena, the testing of the hypothesis by experiment, and the formulation of laws and theories.

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G8

3) What is the difference between a scientific law and a scientific theory?

Answer: A statement based on a number of similar observations that may predict future outcomes of similar experiments is a scientific law. Laws are subject to further experiments and may be proven wrong or be validated. Theories are models of the way nature behaves, and are the products of several wellestablished and tested scientific laws.

Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: G8

4) Charcoal was burned in a barbecue grill. The ashes that remained weighed considerably less than the charcoal that was burned. Does this mean that the law of conservation of mass is wrong? Explain.

Answer: No. The gaseous products formed during the combustion of charcoal escaped into the air and are not accounted for. If all those products could have been collected and weighed along with the ashes, the total mass of the products would have been equal to the mass of the charcoal.

Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 1.4 Learning Outcome: 1.2 Global Outcome: G8

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Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 2 Measurement and Problem Solving 2.1 True/False Questions 1) Numbers are usually written so that the uncertainty is in the last reported digit.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 2.2 Global Outcome: G1

2) The decimal number 0.0000010 expressed in scientific notation is 1.0 × 10 6.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global Outcome: G4

3) The decimal number 0.0210 expressed in scientific notation is 2.10 × 10-2.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.2 Global Outcome: G4

4) The mass of an object, 4.55 × Answer: FALSE

g, expressed in decimal notation is 0.000455 g.

Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.2 Global Outcome: G4

5) If you count 7 pennies, you can only report one significant figure in that measurement.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G4

6) Exact numbers have an unlimited number of significant figures.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G1

7) Zeros located between two numbers are not significant.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G1

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8) Zeros located after a number and after a decimal point are significant.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G1

9) Trailing zeros at the end of a number, but before an implied decimal point, are ambiguous.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G1

10) Trailing zeros before a decimal point but after a non-zero number are considered significant figures.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G1

11) The number 0.010100 has five significant figures.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G4

12) The number 4,450,000.0 has 3 significant figures.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G4

13) The number 7.20 × 103 contains three significant figures.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G4

14) When the temperature of an object is reported as 23.7°C, the actual temperature can be assumed to be between 23.6°C and 23.8°C. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.2 Global Outcome: G4

15) Scientific numbers are reported so that every digit is certain except the last, which is estimated.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.2 Global Outcome: G1

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16) When the number 65.59 is rounded to contain 2 significant figures, it becomes 66.0.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G4

17) When the number 2.35 is rounded to contain 2 significant figures it becomes 2.4.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G4

18) In multiplication and division calculations, the answer will have the same number of decimal places as the number carrying the fewest decimal places.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.4 Global Outcome: G1

19) In multiplication or division calculations, the answer will have the same number of decimal places as the number carrying the most decimal places.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.4 Global Outcome: G1

20) In addition or subtraction, the result carries the same number of decimal places as the quantity carrying the fewest decimal places.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global Outcome: G1

21) The mass of an object depends on gravity.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G1

22) The base unit of length in the SI system is the cm.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G1

23) The base unit of mass in the SI system is the kg.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G1

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24) The prefix nano represents the multiplier 0.000000001.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G4

25) The prefix micro represents the multiplier 0.001.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G4

26) A nine gigagram mass is heavier than a nine nanogram mass.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G4

27) The prefix in the name of a polygon indicates how many sides this geometric figure has, so a "decagon" would have ten sides.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G2

28) There are 1000 kilometers in one meter.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G4

29) You do not need to write units in calculations as long as you can remember them.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G1

30) Conversion factors are constructed from any two quantities known to be equivalent.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G1

31) A conversion factor is a fraction with one unit on top and a different unit on the bottom.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G1

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32) A solution map diagrams the steps required to get from the starting point to the end point of a calculation problem.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G1

33) A solution map is the section near the back of the textbook that provides the answers to assigned problems.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G1

34) One mile measures 5,280 feet long, so one square mile is equivalent to 5,280 square feet.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.8 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G4

35) Given that 1 inch equals 2.54 centimeters, then 1 cubic inch equals 16.387 cubic centimeters.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.8 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G4

36) All solids have the same density.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.9 Global Outcome: G7

37) Suppose a symmetrical metal rod of the element lead has a density of 11.4 g/cm 3. If this rod is cut in half, the density of each piece is now 5.7 g/cm3.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.10a Global Outcome: G9

38) If you are given the mass and density of an object, you can calculate the volume by using the equation: V = m/d.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.10a Global Outcome: G1

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39) If you know the density of a liquid and its volume, the mass of the liquid may be calculated using the equation: m = V/d.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.10a Global Outcome: G1

40) The density of iron is 7.86 g/cm3 while the density of lead is 11.4 g/cm3. If you had one cm3 of each metal, the piece of iron would have a greater mass.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.10a Global Outcome: G2

2.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The correct scientific notation for the number 0.00050210 is: A) 5.0210 × 104 B) 5.021 × 10-4 C) 5.021 × 104 D) 5.0210 × 10-4 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global Outcome: G4

2) The correct scientific notation for the number 500.0 is: A) 5 × 102 B) 5.00 × 102 C) 5.000 × 102 D) 5 × 10-2 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global Outcome: G4

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3) The distance between the two hydrogen atoms in a molecule of water is 0.000000000172 m. Express this distance in scientific notation.

A) 1.72 × m B) 1.72 ×

m

C) 0.172 ×

m

D) 17.2 ×

m

E) 1.72 × Answer: B

m

Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global Outcome: G4

4) The wavelength of blue light is 0.00000045 m. Express this wavelength in scientific notation.

A) 4.5 × m B) 4.5 ×

m

C) 4.5 ×

m

D) 4.5 ×

m

E) 0.45 × Answer: C

m

Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global Outcome: G4

5) The correct decimal representation of 1.201 × 10 -7 is: A) 12010000 B) 0.0001201 C) 0.0000001201 D) 1201.000 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global Outcome: G4

6) The correct decimal representation of 6.453 × 10 3 is: A) 6,453 B) 0.006453 C) 6.5 × 103 D) 6.453 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global Outcome: G4

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7) Suppose a thermometer has marks at every one degree increment and the mercury level on the thermometer is exactly between the 25 and 26 degree Celsius marks. We should properly report the temperature measurement as: A) 25°C B) 26°C C) 25.5°C D) 25.50°C E) 25.55°C Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.2 Global Outcome: G3

8) In the number 48.93, which digit is estimated?

A) 4 B) 8 C) 9 D) 3 E) None of the above, all digits are certain.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.2 Global Outcome: G1

9) There are exactly 2.54 centimeters in 1 inch. When using this conversion factor, how many significant figures are you limited to?

A) 1 B) 3 C) ambiguous D) depends on if you are using it in multiplication/division or addition/subtraction E) infinite number of significant figures Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G4

10) The correct number of significant figures in the number 865,000 is: A) 3 B) 6 C) 4 D) ambiguous E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G4

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11) The correct number of significant figures in the number 1.250100 is: A) 5 B) 7 C) 4 D) ambiguous E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G4

12) The correct number of significant figures in the number 0.027090 is: A) 7 B) 6 C) 5 D) ambiguous E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G4

13) The correct number of significant figures in the number A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) ambiguous E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G4

14) The correct number of significant figures in the number 4.0 × 10-2 is: A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) ambiguous.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G4

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is:

15) The correct number of significant figures in the number 0.002320 is: A) 7 B) 4 C) 3 D) ambiguous E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G4

16) Which of the following statements is NOT part of the rules for determining significant figures?

A) Non-zero digits at the end of a number are not significant.

B) Zeroes between two numbers are significant.

C) Zeroes to the left of the first non-zero number are not significant.

D) Trailing zeroes at the end of a number, but before an implied decimal point are ambiguous.

E) All of the above statements are part of the rules.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G1

17) When the value 4.449 is rounded to two significant figures, the number should be reported as: A) 4.4 B) 4.5 C) 4.44 D) 4.45 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G4

18) How many significant digits should be reported in the answer to the following calculation?

(4.3 - 3.7) × 12.3 = A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.6 Global Outcome: G4

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19) Determine the answer for the equation below with correct number of significant figures: 3.215 × 13.2 ÷ 0.218 = ________ A) 194.669 B) 195 C) 194.7 D) 194.67 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.6 Global Outcome: G4

20) Determine the answer for the equation below with correct number of significant figures: 1.2 × 1.79 = ________ A) 2.148 B) 2.15 C) 2.1 D) 2.2 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.4 Global Outcome: G4

21) Determine the answer to the following equation with correct number of significant figures: 106 ÷ 9.02 × 1.9 = ________ A) 22.32816 B) 22.328 C) 22.3 D) 22 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.4 Global Outcome: G4

22) Determine the answer to the following equation with correct number of significant figures: 2.02 + 8.102 - 0.0297 = ________ A) 10.0923 B) 10.09 C) 10.1 D) 10.092 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global Outcome: G4

11 .

23) Determine the answer to the following equation with correct number of significant figures: 13.96 - 4.9102 + 71.5 = ________ A) 80.5498 B) 81 C) 80.5 D) 80.55 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global Outcome: G4

24) Determine the answer to the following equation with correct number of significant figures: (4.123 × 0.12) + 24.2 = ________ A) 25 B) 24.695 C) 24.70 D) 24.7 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.6 Global Outcome: G4

25) Determine the answer to the following equation with correct number of significant figures: (17.103 + 2.03) × 1.02521 = ________ A) 19.6153 B) 19.62 C) 19.6 D) 20 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.6 Global Outcome: G4

26) The correct prefix for the multiplier 1,000,000 is: A) mega.

B) milli.

C) micro.

D) nano.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G4

12 .

27) The correct prefix for the multiplier 1,000 is: A) mega.

B) milli.

C) micro.

D) nano.

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G4

28) The correct prefix for the multiplier 0.1 is: A) tera.

B) deci.

C) femto.

D) pico.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G4

29) The correct prefix for the multiplier 0.000001 is: A) mega.

B) milli.

C) micro.

D) nano.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G4

30) The correct prefix for the multiplier 100 is: A) mega.

B) hecto.

C) centi.

D) nano.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G1

13 .

31) The correct prefix for the multiplier 10 is: A) deca.

B) deci.

C) tera.

D) centi.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G1

32) The correct prefix for the multiplier 1,000,000,000 is: A) mega.

B) milli.

C) tera.

D) giga.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G4

33) The correct multiplier for the prefix pico is: A) 10-3 B) 10-6 C) 10-9 D) 10-12 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G4

34) The correct multiplier for the prefix femto is: A) 10-15 B) 10-12 C) 1012 D) 109 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G4

14 .

35) The correct multiplier for the prefix milli is: A) 10-3 B) 10-6 C) 10-9 D) 10-12 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G4

36) The correct multiplier for the prefix micro is: A) 103 B) 10-6 C) 10-9 D) 106 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G4

37) What is the base SI unit for length?

A) mile B) centimeter C) foot D) meter E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G1

38) What is the base SI unit for mass?

A) kilogram B) gram C) pound D) ton E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G1

15 .

39) The base SI unit for temperature is: A) Fahrenheit.

B) Kelvin.

C) Celsius.

D) atmospheres.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G1

40) Which measurement below represents the heaviest mass?

A) 1 mg B) 1 kg C) 1 pg D) 1 Mg E) 1 dg Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G2

41) Which of the following sets of units is NOT in the order of increasing size?

A) μg < g < kg B) mL < dL < L C) ns < ms < s D) cm < μm < km E) μmol < mmol < mol Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G2

42) An American nickel five cent coin has a mass of approximately 5 grams. Five grams is equivalent to which term?

A) 5000 kilograms B) 5000 milligrams C) 50 centigrams D) 5000 micrograms E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G2|G4

16 .

43) Which of the following would NOT be considered a correct conversion factor?

A) 1 dozen eggs = 12 eggs B) 12 eggs = 1 dozen eggs C) 1 pair of shoes = 1 shoe D) 100 pennies = 1 dollar E) 5 cents = 1 nickel Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G2

44) The common English unit in which the speed of an automobile is expressed is miles/hr. What is the set of base SI units for speed?

A) mile/s B) km/hr C) km/s D) m/s E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G1

45) The typical problem-solving procedure involves four steps in the order: A) sort, strategize, solve, check.

B) strategize, solve, sort, check.

C) check, strategize, sort, solve.

D) solve, sort, check, strategize.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G9

46) How many inches are in 25.8 cm?

A) 0.10 B) 28.3 C) 0.0984 D) 10.2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G4

17 .

47) How many inches are in 2.80 ft?

A) 34 B) 33.6 C) 0.233 D) 4.29 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G4

48) How many grams are in 1.48 × 107 μg?

A) 1.48 × 103 B) 1.48 × 1013 C) 1.48 D) 14.8 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G4

49) How many milliliters are in 17.5 L? A) 175 B) 1.75 × 10-2 C) 1.75 × 103 D) 1.75 × 104 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G4

50) How many microliters are in 41.0 mL? A) 4.1 × 103 B) 4.1 × 1010 C) 0.041 D) 4.10 × 104 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G4

18 .

51) How many liters are in 333 mL? A) 3.33 × 105 B) 0.333 C) 33.3 D) 3.33 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G4

52) How many low dose 81 mg aspirin tablets can be made from 1.21 kg of aspirin?

A) 1.5 × tablets B) 1.5 ×

tablets

C) 1.5 ×

tablets

D) 1.21 ×

tablets

E) 1.21 × tablets Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.7 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G4

53) A 12-oz can of soda pop costs eighty-nine cents. A 2.00 L bottle of the same variety of soda pop costs $2.29. How many times more expensive it is to buy the 12-oz can of pop compared to buying it in a 2.00 L bottle? (1.00 L = 1.057 quart and 1 quart contains 32 oz) A) 1.9 B) 2.2 C) 2.6 D) 2.8 E) 4.2 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.7 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G4

54) How many cm3 are there in 2.5 m3?

A) 2.5 × 106 B) 2.5 × 10-2 C) 2.5 × 102 D) 2.5 × 10-6 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.8 Learning Outcome: 2.9 Global Outcome: G4

19 .

55) How many cm3 are there in 1.25 ft3?

A) 38.1 B) 5.49 × 103 C) 246 D) 3.54 × 104 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.8 Learning Outcome: 2.9 Global Outcome: G4

56) A room has dimensions of 10.0 ft × 20.0 ft × 8.00 ft. Given that there are three feet in a yard, what is the volume of the room in yd3?

A) 178 B) 59.3 C) 1.60 × 103 D) 533 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.8 Learning Outcome: 2.9 Global Outcome: G4

57) What is the volume of a cube with dimensions 11.0 cm × 11.0 cm × 11.0 cm in m 3?

A) 1.331 × 10-3 B) 1.33 × 103 C) 1.33 × 10-3 D) 1.3 × 103 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.8 Learning Outcome: 2.9 Global Outcome: G4

58) Which term below is equivalent to one milliliter?

A) 1 cc B) 1 mL C) 1 cm3 D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.8 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G4

20 .

59) A plastic block has dimensions of 2.2 cm × 3.0 cm × 1.5 cm and a mass of 12.4 grams. Will the block float in water and why?

A) Yes, because the density of the block is 1.3 g/mL which is less than the density of water.

B) Yes, because the density of the block is 0.80 g/mL which is less than the density of water.

C) No, because the density of the block is 1.3 g/mL which is greater than the density of water.

D) No, because the density of the block is 0.80 g/mL which is greater than the density of water.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.10a Global Outcome: G9

60) Suppose a boat engine leaks 938 milliliters of oil into a lake. The mass of this spilled oil is The oil will not mix with the lake water. Which statement is true?

A) The oil will sink because its density of 0.877 g/mL is greater than the density of water.

B) The oil will float because its density of 0.877 g/mL is less than the density of water.

C) The oil will sink because its density of 1.14 g/mL is greater than the density of water.

D) The oil will float because its density of 1.14 g/mL is less than the density of water.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.10a Global Outcome: G7

61) A lead ball has a mass of 55.0 grams and a density of 11.4 g/cm 3. What is the volume of the ball?

A) 0.207 mL B) 0.207 L C) 4.82 mL D) 4.82 L E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.11 Global Outcome: G4

62) Given the density of Au is 19.3 g/cm3, determine the mass of gold (in grams) in an ingot with the dimensions of 10.0 in × 4.00 in × 3.00 in.

A) 3.80 × 104 B) 102 C) 2.32 × 103 D) 0.161 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.11 Global Outcome: G4

21 .

63) What is the density (g/mL) of an object that has a mass of 14.01 grams and, when placed into a graduated cylinder, causes the water level to rise from 25.2 mL to 33.6 mL? A) 0.60 B) 1.7 C) 1.8 D) 2.4 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.10a Global Outcome: G9

64) An object weighing 1.840 kg has a volume of 0.0015 m 3. What is the density of the object in g/cm3?

A) 1.2 B) 0.0012 C) 0.82 D) 0.0028 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.10a Global Outcome: G4

65) Given the following list of densities, which materials would float in a molten vat of lead provided that they do not themselves melt? Densities (g/mL): lead = 11.4, glass = 2.6, gold = 19.3, charcoal = 0.57, platinum = 21.4.

A) gold and platinum B) glass and charcoal C) gold, platinum, glass and coal D) gold and charcoal E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.10a Global Outcome: G9

22 .

66) A popular science demonstration is to take several liquids that will not mix together and "stack" these liquids in a tall glass cylinder. Suppose the following three liquids were placed in the same tall, narrow glass cylinder: SUBSTANCE DENSITY g/mL vinegar 1.01 motor oil 0.87 corn syrup 1.36 These liquids would stack in which order?

A) corn syrup on top, motor oil in the middle, vinegar on the bottom B) vinegar on top, motor oil in the middle, corn syrup on the bottom C) motor oil on top, corn syrup in the middle, vinegar on the bottom D) corn syrup on top, vinegar in the middle, motor oil on the bottom E) motor oil on top, vinegar in the middle, corn syrup on the bottom Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.10a Global Outcome: G3|G9

67) The distance from New York City to Washington, DC is approximately 235 miles. Identify the correct solution map to convert from miles to kilometers using the prefix multipliers and the given conversion factors: 1 mile = 5280 ft; 1 ft = 12 in; 1 in = 2.54 cm.

A) 235 mile ×

×

×

×

B) 235 mile ×

×

×

×

C) 235 mile ×

×

×

D) 235 mile ×

×

×

×

E) 235 mile ×

×

×

×

× ×

×

×

Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G4

23 .

68) The Olympic Games shot put field event uses a 16 pound (lb) shot. Identify the correct solution map to convert from pounds to kilograms using prefix multipliers and the given conversions of and .

A) 16 lb ×

×

×

B) 16 lb ×

×

×

C) 16 lb ×

×

×

D) 16 lb ×

×

×

Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.10 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G4

69) Metals expand to a larger volume when heated. If a piece of metal was heated, which one of the following statements would be TRUE? A) The newly calculated density value of the metal would not change from the initial value.

B) The newly calculated density value would decrease.

C) The newly calculated density value would increase.

D) The mass of the metal would also increase.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.10a Global Outcome: G2

70) The jet fuel in an airplane has a mass of 97.5 kg and a density of 0.804 g/cm 3. What is the volume of this jet fuel?

A) 7.84 × cm3 B) 7.84 × C) 1.21 ×

cm3 cm3

D) 1.21 × cm3 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.11 Global Outcome: G2

24 .

2.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) The exponential A) 10,000 B) 1 C) 10 D) 100 E) none of the above Answer: A

is equal to which decimal number?

Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global Outcome: G4

2) The decimal value 10 is equal to which exponential?

A) B) C) D) E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global Outcome: G4

3) The decimal value 0.01 is equal to which exponential?

A) B) C) D) E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global Outcome: G4

4) The exponential A) 0.1 B) 0.001 C) -0.00001 D) -0.0001 E) none of the above Answer: B

is equal to which decimal number?

Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global Outcome: G4

25 .

5) How would the number 8,155 be written in scientific notation?

A) B) C) D) E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global Outcome: G4

6) How would the number A) 109 B) 0.109 C) 1.09 D) 10.9 E) none of the above Answer: D

be expressed in decimal form?

Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 2.2 Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global Outcome: G4

7) How many significant figures are in the number 2903?

A) 2 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 2.3 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G1

8) How many significant figures are represented by the following number that is written in scientific notation? 2.5 × A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 2.3, 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G4

26 .

9) When rounding the number 2.348615 to 4 significant figures, what is the correct value?

A) 2.3490 B) 2.340 C) 2.349 D) 2.348 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Outcome: G1

10) How many significant figures should be reported in the answer to the following calculation?

(1.40) × (17.1) = A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.4 Global Outcome: G4

11) How many significant figures should be reported in the answer to the following calculation?

(8.50) × (29.0) × (1.0947) = A) 3 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.4 Global Outcome: G4

12) How many significant figures should be reported in the answer to the following calculation? = A) 3 B) 4 C) 2 D) 5 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.4 Global Outcome: G4

27 .

13) How many significant figures should be reported in the answer to the following calculation?

(4.921) + (16.2) = A) 3 B) 2 C) 1 D) 4 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 25 Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.5 Global Outcome: G4

14) How many significant figures should be reported in the answer to the following calculation?

(43.980) × (19.0023 + 25) = A) 3 B) 2 C) 4 D) 1 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 2.6 Global Outcome: G4

15) The prefix micro represents which multiplier?

A) 0.000001 B) 1,000,000 C) 0.001 D) 1,000 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G1

16) The multiplier 0.01 is represented by which prefix?

A) kiloB) deciC) centiD) milliE) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 2.5 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G1

28 .

17) The metric prefix k would be presented as 10 to the power of: A) -3 B) 3 C) 12 D) -9 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.7 Global Outcome: G1

18) How many inches are in 6.32 cm?

A) 16.1 B) 2.49 C) 3.78 D) 8.86 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 2.6 Learning Outcome: 2.8 Global Outcome: G4

19) How many are in 2.20 A) 36.1 B) 10.6 C) 0.1340 D) 7.45 E) none of the above Answer: C

?

Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: 2.8 Learning Outcome: 2.9 Global Outcome: G4

20) What is the density of 96 mL of a liquid that has a mass of 90.5 g?

A) 0.94 g/mL B) 1.1 g/mL C) 186.5 g/mL D) 28.4 g/mL E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.10a Global Outcome: G4

29 .

21) What is the volume of 19.6 g of a liquid that has a density of 0.967 g/mL? A) 16.9 mL B) 20.3 mL C) 14.7 mL D) 17.9 mL E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 2.9 Learning Outcome: 2.11 Global Outcome: G4

30 .

Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 3 Matter and Energy 3.1 True/False Questions 1) Matter is defined as anything that is visible to the human eye.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Even with the most recent advances in microscopy, it is impossible to image an atom.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) An amorphous solid has long range, repeating order.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global Outcome: G1

4) Gases are the only form of matter that is easily compressible.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global Outcome: G1

5) Liquids have definite volume and indefinite shape.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global Outcome: G1

6) Solids have indefinite shape and volume.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global Outcome: G1

7) In a solid substance, the atoms or molecules oscillate and vibrate about a fixed point.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global Outcome: G1

1 .

8) Liquid and gas molecules can easily be compressed, while in a solid the molecules are incompressible.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global Outcome: G1

9) A compound is a substance that cannot be broken down into a simpler substance.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.3 Global Outcome: G1

10) If a pure material decomposes when heated into simpler substances, this proves that the material was a compound.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.3 Global Outcome: G1

11) Water is a mixture.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.3 Global Outcome: G1

12) Saltwater is a homogeneous mixture.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.3 Global Outcome: G1

13) Skim milk is a heterogeneous mixture.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.3 Global Outcome: G1

14) Air is a pure substance.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.3 Global Outcome: G1

15) Sugar is a pure substance.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.3 Global Outcome: G1

2 .

16) Chemical properties of a substance are those that can be observed without changing the composition of a substance.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.5 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global Outcome: G1

17) Flammability of gasoline is a chemical property.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.5 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global Outcome: G1

18) The odor of gasoline is a chemical property.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.5 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global Outcome: G1

19) In a chemical reaction, the substances present after the chemical change are called reactants.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global Outcome: G1

20) The melting of ice is a physical change.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global Outcome: G1

21) Mixtures of miscible liquids that differ in their boiling points may be separated by distillation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global Outcome: G1

22) The corrosion of iron is a physical change.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global Outcome: G1

23) An example of a chemical change is burning a wood log to give a pile of ashes.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global Outcome: G1

3 .

24) In physical changes, the atoms or molecules that compose the matter do not change their identity, even though the matter may change its appearance.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global Outcome: G1

25) When you dissolve solid sugar into water, this new solution will taste sweet. The sugar went through a chemical change.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global Outcome: G1

26) A chemical change occurs when matter does not change its composition.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global Outcome: G1

27) Matter can be destroyed in a combustion reaction (such as burning fuel).

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.6 Global Outcome: G1

28) Like mass, energy can neither be created nor destroyed.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 Global Outcome: G1

29) The energy of position is called kinetic energy.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global Outcome: G1

30) A moving bowling ball has kinetic energy.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global Outcome: G1

31) Electrical energy is associated with the flow of electrical charge.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global Outcome: G1

4 .

32) A melting scoop of ice cream is an example of an exothermic process.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.9 Learning Outcome: 3.9 Global Outcome: G1

33) When a chemical "cold pack" is activated, the chemical reactants absorb heat from the surroundings.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.9 Learning Outcome: 3.9 Global Outcome: G1

34) The process of boiling water is an endothermic process.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.9 Learning Outcome: 3.9 Global Outcome: G1

35) A chemical change that will lower the potential energy of the chemical results in an endothermic reaction.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.9 Learning Outcome: 3.9 Global Outcome: G1

36) An energy diagram that shows the products having higher energy than the reactants illustrates an endothermic reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.9 Learning Outcome: 3.9 Global Outcome: G1

37) Temperature is simply a measure of the motion of atoms and molecules.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G1

38) Temperature is defined as the transfer of thermal energy caused by a temperature difference.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global Outcome: G1

39) When a cold ice cube is dropped into a warm cup of water, energy is transferred as heat from the ice to the water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G1

5 .

40) The coldest temperature possible is 0 K. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G1

41) Temperatures reported in the Kelvin scale cannot be negative.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G1

42) When a temperature in degrees Celsius is converted to kelvins, the Kelvin value will have the same number of decimal places as the Celsius value.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G1

43) Absolute zero is equivalent to a temperature of -273 K. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G1

44) A kelvin degree is the same size as a Celsius degree.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G1

45) The temperature of 0°F is colder than the temperature of 0°C. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G1

46) The amount of heat energy needed to increase the temperature of an object will vary depending on the heat capacity of the object.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global Outcome: G1

47) The heat capacity of a substance is the quantity of thermal heat required to change the temperature of a given amount of the substance by 100°C. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global Outcome: G1

6 .

48) The large heat capacity of water limits large fluctuations in temperature near bodies of water during the summer months.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global Outcome: G5

3.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements about matter is FALSE? A) Matter occupies space and has mass.

B) Matter exists in either a solid, liquid or gas state.

C) Matter is ultimately composed of atoms.

D) Matter is smooth and continuous.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Which of the following is NOT an example of matter?

A) a pencil eraser B) a balloon full of helium C) a dust particle D) heat from a burning candle E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.2 Learning Outcome: 3.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) A solid form of matter in which there is long range repeating order is called ________.

A) amorphous B) rigid C) crystalline D) fixed E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global Outcome: G1

7 .

4) Which state of matter has atomic spacing that is close together and indefinite shape?

A) liquid B) solid C) gas D) plasma E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global Outcome: G1

5) Which state of matter has indefinite shape and is compressible?

A) liquid B) solid C) gas D) plasma E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global Outcome: G1

6) Which state of matter has atomic spacing that is close together and definite shape?

A) liquid B) solid C) gas D) plasma E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global Outcome: G1

7) Which among the following statements is FALSE? A) A solid has a definite shape and a definite volume.

B) A liquid has a definite volume; but it has no definite shape.

C) A gas has neither definite volume nor definite shape.

D) Both solids and liquids are incompressible while gases are compressible.

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global Outcome: G1

8 .

8) Which state of matter has atomic spacing that is far apart and definite shape?

A) liquid B) solid C) gas D) plasma E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global Outcome: G1

9) Which of the following is an example of a crystalline solid that shows an arrangement of long-range, repeating order?

A) glass B) salt C) plastic D) rubber E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global Outcome: G1

10) A pure substance is: A) composed of two or more different types of atoms or molecules combined in variable proportions.

B) composed of only one type of atom or molecule.

C) composed of two or more regions with different compositions.

D) composed of two or more different types of atoms or molecules that has constant composition.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.3 Global Outcome: G1

11) Which of the following items is a pure substance?

A) air B) seawater C) brass D) ice E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.3 Global Outcome: G1

9 .

12) Which of the following items is a mixture?

A) water B) helium C) brass D) sugar E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.3 Global Outcome: G1

13) Which of the following is a heterogenous mixture?

A) milk B) sugar water C) raisin bran D) air E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.3 Global Outcome: G1

14) Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?

A) trail mix B) stainless steel C) water D) molten iron E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.3 Global Outcome: G1

15) Which of the following statements about compounds is TRUE? A) A substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances.

B) A pure substance that has variable composition throughout.

C) A substance composed of two or more elements in fixed, definite proportions.

D) A substance that is not as common as pure elements.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.3 Global Outcome: G1

10 .

16) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Matter may be a pure substance or it may be a mixture.

B) A pure substance may either be an element or a compound.

C) A mixture may be either homogeneous or heterogeneous.

D) Mixtures may be composed of two or more elements, two or more compounds, or a combination of both.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.3 Global Outcome: G1

17) How would you classify salt water?

A) pure substance-compound B) mixture-heterogeneous C) pure substance-element D) mixture-homogeneous E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.3 Global Outcome: G1

18) How would you classify raisin bran?

A) pure substance-compound B) mixture-heterogeneous C) pure substance-element D) mixture-homogeneous E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.3 Global Outcome: G1

19) How would you classify sugar?

A) pure substance-compound B) mixture-heterogeneous C) pure substance-element D) mixture-homogeneous E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.3 Global Outcome: G1

11 .

20) A solution is an example of a (an): A) pure substance.

B) element.

C) compound.

D) homogeneous mixture.

E) heterogeneous mixture.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 3.3 Global Outcome: G1

21) Physical properties are: A) those that a substance displays only through changing its composition.

B) those that cause atoms and molecules to change.

C) those that a substance displays without changing its composition.

D) identical for all solid matter.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.5 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global Outcome: G1

22) All of the following can be considered physical properties EXCEPT: A) taste.

B) color.

C) flammability.

D) density.

E) boiling point.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.5 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global Outcome: G1

23) Which of the following items is a physical property?

A) the corrosive action of acid rain on granite B) the odor of spearmint gum C) the combustion of gasoline D) the tarnishing of a copper statue E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.5 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global Outcome: G1

12 .

24) Which of the following is NOT an example of a physical property?

A) Solid ice can be very brittle.

B) Water can freeze solid at 32 degrees Fahrenheit.

C) Water can form hydrogen and oxygen gas under electrolysis conditions.

D) Liquid water can turn into steam in a heated tea kettle.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.5 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global Outcome: G1

25) Which of the following items is a chemical property?

A) the paint color on a new red Corvette B) the odor of spearmint gum C) the melting and boiling point of water D) the tarnishing of a copper statue E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.5 Learning Outcome: 3.4 Global Outcome: G1

26) Which of the following statements about physical and chemical changes is FALSE? A) In a chemical change, matter changes its composition.

B) In a physical change, matter does not change its composition.

C) Phase changes are always physical changes.

D) Chemical reactions are chemical changes.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global Outcome: G1

27) If you hold a solid piece of pure gallium metal in your hand, your body heat will melt the gallium into its liquid form. This illustrates which of the following?

A) distillation B) physical change C) chemical change D) chemical property E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global Outcome: G1

13 .

28) Which of the following is NOT a technique that could be used to separate a mixture into its components?

A) stirring B) decanting C) filtration D) distillation E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.6 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global Outcome: G1

29) When methane is burned with oxygen the products are carbon dioxide and water. If you produce 36 grams of water and 44 grams of carbon dioxide from 16 grams of methane, how many grams of oxygen were needed for the reaction?

A) 32 B) 80 C) 96 D) 64 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.6 Global Outcome: G4

30) When methane is burned with oxygen, the products are carbon dioxide and water. If you produce 18 grams of water from 8 grams of methane and 32 grams of oxygen, how many grams of carbon dioxide were produced in the reaction?

A) 40 B) 22 C) 58 D) 18 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.6 Global Outcome: G4

31) When methane is burned with oxygen, the products are carbon dioxide and water. If you produce 9 grams of water and 11 grams of carbon dioxide from 16 grams of oxygen, how many grams of methane were needed for the reaction?

A) 4 B) 20 C) 31 D) 40 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.7 Learning Outcome: 3.6 Global Outcome: G4

14 .

32) Which of the following statements about energy is FALSE? A) An object possessing energy can do work on another object.

B) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.

C) Energy is the single main component of the universe.

D) Energy is the capacity to do work.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 Global Outcome: G1

33) Which type of energy is associated with motion?

A) chemical B) electrical C) potential D) kinetic E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global Outcome: G1

34) Which type of energy is associated with position?

A) chemical B) electrical C) potential D) kinetic E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global Outcome: G1

35) What type of energy is associated with the burning of gasoline?

A) kinetic B) potential C) electrical D) chemical E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global Outcome: G1

15 .

36) Which of the following items is NOT a common unit of energy?

A) joule B) torr C) calorie D) kilowatt-hour E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 Learning Outcome: 3.7 Global Outcome: G1

37) How many calories are there in a 255 Calorie snack bar?

A) 2.55 × 105 B) 1.07 × 103 C) 60.9 D) 1 × 103 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 Learning Outcome: 3.8 Global Outcome: G4

38) How many joules are there in a 255 calorie snack bar?

A) 2.55 × 105 B) 1.07 × 106 C) 1.07 × 103 D) 6.09 × 104 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 Learning Outcome: 3.8 Global Outcome: G4

39) How many kilojoules are there in 95.0 Calories?

A) 2.27 × 107 B) 3.97 × 10-4 C) 397 D) 22.7 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.8 Learning Outcome: 3.8 Global Outcome: G4

16 .

40) If a particular process is endothermic, the reverse process must be a (an): A) chemical change.

B) isothermal process.

C) exothermic process.

D) endothermic process.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.9 Learning Outcome: 3.9 Global Outcome: G1

41) An energy diagram that shows the reactants having greater energy than the products illustrates an: A) endothermic reaction.

B) exothermic reaction.

C) isothermic reaction.

D) impossible reaction.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.9 Learning Outcome: 3.9 Global Outcome: G1

42) If a solid piece of shiny sodium metal is exposed to chlorine gas, a large amount of heat is released and the white solid sodium chloride (table salt) forms. Based on this information, which of the following statements is TRUE? A) This process represents a physical change.

B) Mass is lost during this process.

C) Sodium chloride is an element.

D) This process was exothermic.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.9, 3.4, 3.6 Learning Outcome: 3.3|3.5|3.6|3.9 Global Outcome: G7

43) In order, what is the freezing point, room temperature and boiling point of water according to the Fahrenheit scale?

A) 32-75-212 B) 0-75-100 C) 0-25-100 D) 0-298-373 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G4

17 .

44) In order, what is the freezing point, room temperature and boiling point of water according to the Celsius scale?

A) 32-75-212 B) 0-75-100 C) 0-25-100 D) 0-298-373 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G4

45) Which of the following is NOT true?

A) The degree "symbol" is not used with the Kelvin scale.

B) A kelvin degree is the same size as a Celsius degree.

C) The Kelvin temperature scale avoids use of negative numbers.

D) Water boils at the same temperature value on both the Kelvin and Celsius scales.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G1

46) The boiling point of water is: (1) 212 °F (2) 0°C A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) all of 1, 2, and 3 E) none of 1, 2, and 3 Answer: C

(3) 373 K

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G4

47) What is the value of 27°C on the Kelvin temperature scale?

A) 273 B) 246 C) 300 D) 81 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G4

18 .

48) What is the value of 27°C on the Fahrenheit temperature scale?

A) -6.8 B) 106 C) 300 D) 81 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G4

49) What is the value of 98 °F in units of °C? A) 72 B) 37 C) 371 D) 22 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G4

50) What is the value of 335 K on the Celsius temperature scale?

A) 62 B) 167 C) 608 D) 66.4 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G4

51) Melting point can be defined as the temperature when a solid becomes a liquid. The melting point of the chemical acetone is -95°C. Which state of matter would you expect to exist for acetone at a temperature of -94°C? A) solid B) liquid C) gas D) plasma Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G7

19 .

52) In calculating the relationship between the amount of heat added to a substance and the corresponding temperature change, the specific heat capacity is usually represented by which symbol?

A) C B) q C) ΔT D) m E) K Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global Outcome: G1

53) A 15.0 gram lead ball at 25.0°C was heated with 40.5 joules of heat. Given the specific heat of lead is 0.128 J/g∙°C, what is the final temperature of the lead?

A) 21.1°C B) 46.1°C C) 77.8°C D) 0.844°C E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global Outcome: G4

54) What is the specific heat (J/g∙°C) of a metal object whose temperature increases by 3.0°C when 17.5 g of metal was heated with 38.5 J? A) 4.18 B) 0.15 C) 0.73 D) 1.4 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global Outcome: G4

55) How much heat (kJ) is needed to raise the temperature of 100.0 grams of water from 25.0°C to A) 10450 B) 0.598 C) 1.05 D) 10.5 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global Outcome: G4

20 .

?

56) From the following list of substances and heat capacities, choose the one that will have the lowest temperature after absorbing 100.0 kJ of heat. Assume identical masses of each substance start at the same initial temperature.

A) lead-0.128 J/g∙°C B) copper-0.385 J/g∙°C C) ethanol-2.42 J/g∙°C D) water-4.18 J/g∙°C E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global Outcome: G4

57) Consider the following specific heats of metals.

Metal Aluminum Copper Gold Iron Silver

Specific Heat (J/g∙°C) 0.903 0.385 0.128 0.449 0.235

If the same amount of heat is added to 50.0 g samples of each of the metals, which are all at the same temperature, which metal will reach the highest temperature?

A) aluminum B) copper C) gold D) iron E) silver Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global Outcome: G3

58) When 49.5 J of heat was transferred to 7.3 g iron at 22°C, the temperature of iron increases to 37°C. What is the specific heat of iron in J/g∙°C? A) 4.5 B) 0.45 C) 2.2 D) 24 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global Outcome: G4

21 .

59) Suppose it took 108 joules of energy to raise a bar of gold from 25.0°C to 29.7°C. Given that the specific heat capacity of gold is , what is the mass (in grams) of the bar of gold?

1 A) 6.5 × 10 g B) 1.8 × 102 g C) 1.28 × 102 g D) 1.08 × 102 g E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 3.12 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global Outcome: G4

3.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) A sample of 508.4 grams of copper completely reacted with oxygen to form 572.4 grams of a copper oxide product. How many grams of oxygen must have reacted?

A) 636.4 B) 64.0 C) 32.0 D) 572.4 E) 508.4 F) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.6 Global Outcome: G4

2) How many Calories are in 575.0 calories?

A) 575,000 B) 0.5750 C) 137.6 D) 2,404 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 3.8 Learning Outcome: 3.8 Global Outcome: G4

3) How many joules are in 55.2 calories?

A) 13,200 B) 55,200 C) 13.2 D) 231 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 3.8 Learning Outcome: 3.9 Global Outcome: G4

22 .

4) What is the value of -25°C on the Kelvin scale?

A) 248 B) -32 C) -13 D) -298 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G4

5) What is the value of 23°C on the Fahrenheit scale?

A) 73 B) 52 C) 59 D) 81 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G4

6) What is the value of 783 K in units of °C? A) 417 B) 1441 C) 510.

D) 1056 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 3.10 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G4

7) The temperature of 390 kelvin is warmer than which one of the following temperatures?

A) 250 deg F B) 135 deg C C) 109 deg C D) 44 deg F E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G4

23 .

8) Given the table of specific heat values below, what is the identity of a 10.0 g metal sample that increases by when of energy is absorbed?

Element Au Ag Cu Fe Al

Specific Heat(J/g°C) 0.128 0.235 0.385 0.449 0.903

A) Fe B) Al C) Au D) Ag E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global Outcome: G3

9) Given the table of specific heat values below, what is the identity of a 26.2 g metal sample that increases by 8.5°C when 100.0 J of energy is absorbed?

Element Au Ag Cu Fe Al

Specific Heat(J/g°C) 0.128 0.235 0.385 0.449 0.903

A) Fe B) Al C) Au D) Ag E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global Outcome: G3

24 .

10) How much heat (kJ) is absorbed by 948.0 g of water in order for the temperature to increase from to A) 7.5 B) 31.4 C) 30.2 D) 29.7 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global Outcome: G4

11) What is the final temperature of 25.0 grams of water at 22.0°C after it absorbs A) 17.7 B) 4.29 C) 26.3 D) 15.8 E) none of the above Answer: C

of heat?

Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global Outcome: G4

12) How many grams of water when supplied with A) 15 B) 17 C) 19 D) 16 E) none of the above Answer: D

of heat will gain a temperature of 5.2°C?

Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 3.11 Learning Outcome: 3.11 Global Outcome: G4

25 .

Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 4 Atoms and Elements 4.1 True/False Questions 1) The smell of the ocean is caused by atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.1 Learning Outcome: 4.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) The atom is the fundamental building block of everything we hear, feel, see, and experience.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.1 Learning Outcome: 4.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) An atom is the smallest identifiable unit of a compound.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.1 Learning Outcome: 4.1 Global Outcome: G1

4) John Dalton was the first person recorded as thinking that matter was ultimately composed of atoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.1 Global Outcome: G1

5) John Dalton formalized an atomic theory that gained acceptance in the early 19th century.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.1 Global Outcome: G1

6) You can continually divide matter into smaller and smaller pieces without ever coming to an end.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.1 Global Outcome: G1

7) The plum pudding model proposed that negatively charged electrons were held in a sphere of positive charge.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.2 Global Outcome: G1

1 .

8) All of the positive charge of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.2 Global Outcome: G1

9) J.J. Thomson discovered the existence of protons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.2 Global Outcome: G1

10) Ernest Rutherford proved the existence of electrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.2 Global Outcome: G1

11) The gold foil experiment proved that large regions of the atoms consisted of empty space.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.2 Global Outcome: G1

12) The nucleus of an atom is a very small, dense region that contains over 99.9% of the atomic mass.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.2 Global Outcome: G1

13) Protons and electrons each have a mass of 1 amu.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global Outcome: G1

14) A positive charge attracts negative charges and repels other positive charges.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global Outcome: G1

15) The mass of a proton is exactly the same as the mass of a neutron.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global Outcome: G1

2 .

16) The charges on electrons and neutrons cancel each other to give neutral atoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global Outcome: G1

17) Protons and neutrons have similar masses and similar electrical charges.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global Outcome: G1

18) An atom containing 8 protons, 9 neutrons, and 8 electrons would be considered charge-neutral.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global Outcome: G1

19) The number of protons in an atom's nucleus defines the element.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 4.4 Global Outcome: G1

20) If two atoms each contain different numbers of protons, the atoms must be from different elements.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 4.4 Global Outcome: G1

21) All elemental symbols are comprised of a two-letter abbreviation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 4.4 Global Outcome: G1

22) The elemental symbol for manganese is Mg. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 4.4 Global Outcome: G1

23) All carbon atoms have exactly 6 protons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 4.4 Global Outcome: G1

3 .

24) The atomic number of nitrogen is 14.01.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 4.4 Global Outcome: G1

25) Mendeleev is best remembered for his pioneering work on determining atomic structure.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

26) Mendeleev's early periodic table predicted the existence of elements that had yet to be discovered.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

27) In the modern periodic table, elements are listed in order of increasing atomic number rather than increasing relative mass.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

28) Metals are located on the left side of the periodic table.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

29) The elements within a group on the periodic table tend to have similar properties.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

30) Group 2A elements are called alkali metals.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

31) Aluminum is one of the most commonly used metalloids.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

4 .

32) An element is discovered that is a solid, has one valence electron, and readily forms a 1+ ion. This element would be correctly classified as a nonmetal.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 and 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Outcome: G1

33) Main-group elements tend to form ions that have the same number of total electrons as the nearest halogen.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Outcome: G1

34) A cation forms when an atom gains an electron.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Outcome: G1

35) Halogens form anions with a 1- charge.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Outcome: G2

36) Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have a different numbers of neutrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global Outcome: G1

37) The atomic mass of individual atoms of an element may vary.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global Outcome: G1

38) The relative amount of each different isotope in a naturally occurring sample of an element is always the same.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global Outcome: G1

39) All elements have three or more naturally occurring isotopes.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global Outcome: G1

5 .

40) The atomic mass of a single carbon atom is equal to exactly 12.011 amu.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.9 Learning Outcome: 3.10a Global Outcome: G1

4.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements about atoms is FALSE? A) Atoms compose all matter.

B) Atoms are responsible for the sensation of smell.

C) Atoms are the basic building block of nature.

D) An atom is the smallest identifiable unit of an element.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.1 Learning Outcome: 4.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Which statement below accurately describes the contributions of Democritus?

A) ancient Greek philosopher who proposed that matter was not continuous B) created the modern periodic table C) proposed the modern Atomic Theory D) discovered the existence of electrons E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) Which statement below accurately describes the contributions of Dalton?

A) ancient Greek philosopher who proposed that matter was continuous B) created the modern periodic table C) proposed the modern Atomic Theory D) discovered the existence of electrons E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.1 Global Outcome: G1

6 .

4) Which of the following is NOT part of Dalton's Atomic Theory?

A) Each element is composed of tiny indestructible particles called atoms.

B) All atoms of a given element have the same mass and other properties that distinguish them from the atoms of other elements.

C) Atoms combine in simple, whole-number ratios to form compounds.

D) Most of the atom's mass and all of its positive charge is contained in a small core called the nucleus.

E) All of the above are part of the atomic theory.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 4.1 Global Outcome: G1

5) Which statement below accurately describes the contributions of Thomson?

A) ancient Greek philosopher who proposed that matter was continuous B) created the modern periodic table C) proposed the modern Atomic Theory D) discovered the existence of electrons E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.2 Global Outcome: G1

6) Which of the statements about the discovery of electrons is FALSE? A) Because atoms are neutral, the existence of a negatively charged particle implied there must be a positively charged component of an atom.

B) Thomson proposed that electrons were small particles held within a positively charged sphere.

C) Rutherford proved the plum-pudding model correct.

D) The negatively charged electron is located outside the nucleus.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.2 Global Outcome: G1

7) Which statement below is NOT consistent with the nuclear theory of the atom as proposed by Rutherford?

A) Most of the atom's mass and all of its positive charge is contained in a small core called the nucleus.

B) Electrical charge is a fundamental property of protons and electrons in which like charges repel and opposite charges attract.

C) Most of the volume of the atom is empty space occupied by tiny, negatively charged electrons.

D) There are as many electrons outside the nucleus as there are protons inside the nucleus in a neutral atom.

E) All of the above statements are consistent.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.2 Global Outcome: G1

7 .

8) Which statement reflects the results of Rutherford's gold foil experiments?

A) Almost all of the alpha particles were deflected back in the direction from which they came.

B) Almost all of the alpha particles sputtered gold atoms off of the surface of the foil.

C) Almost all of the alpha particles were deflected while passing through the foil.

D) Almost all of the alpha particles passed directly through the foil.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.2 Global Outcome: G1

9) An atom containing 7 protons, 8 neutrons, and 7 electrons: A) is charge-neutral.

B) is an ion.

C) is an oxygen atom.

D) cannot exist.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.3 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global Outcome: G2

10) The atomic mass unit is defined as: A) the mass of the hydrogen atom containing only one proton.

B) the mass of electrons found in a carbon atom containing six protons and neutrons.

C) 1/12 the mass of a carbon atom containing six protons and six neutrons.

D) 1/14 the mass of a nitrogen atom containing 7 protons and 7 neutrons.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global Outcome: G1

11) Which of the following statements about the nature of electrical charge is FALSE? A) Electrical charge is a fundamental property of protons and electrons.

B) Positive and negative electrical charges attract each other.

C) Positive-positive or negative-negative charges repel each other.

D) Positive and negative charges cancel each other so that a proton and electron, when paired, are charge neutral.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global Outcome: G1

8 .

12) Which of the following subatomic particles has a mass of 1.67 × 10 -27 kg?

A) electrons only B) protons only C) neutrons only D) protons and neutrons E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.4 Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global Outcome: G1

13) Which of the following elements has an atomic number of 4?

A) H B) C C) He D) Be E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 4.4 Global Outcome: G2

14) Which of the following elements has only 12 protons?

A) C B) Zn C) Mg D) O E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 4.4 Global Outcome: G2

15) What is the atomic symbol for silver?

A) S B) Ag C) Au D) Si E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 4.4 Global Outcome: G1

9 .

16) What is the atomic symbol for tin?

A) Sn B) Ti C) Tn D) Si E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 4.4 Global Outcome: G1

17) What is the correct chemical symbol for mercury?

A) Hm B) Hy C) Me D) My E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 4.4 Global Outcome: G1

18) Which of the following is NOT a correct name, symbol combination?

A) beryllium, Be B) magnesium, Mg C) iron, I D) manganese, Mn E) silicon, Si Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 4.4 Global Outcome: G1

19) Which of the following is NOT a correct name, symbol combination?

A) beryllium, Be B) phosphorus, P C) iron, Fe D) manganese, Mg E) silicon, Si Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 4.4 Global Outcome: G1

10 .

20) Which of the following is NOT a correct name, symbol combination?

A) calcium, Ca B) gold, Au C) manganese, Mn D) chromium, Cr E) potassium, P Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 4.4 Global Outcome: G1

21) The names of the elements whose symbols are Si, P, Mn, and S are respectively: A) silicon, potassium, magnesium, and sulfur.

B) silver, phosphorus, magnesium, and sulfur.

C) silicon, phosphorus, manganese, and sulfur.

D) silicon, phosphorus, magnesium, and sulfur.

E) silicon, potassium, magnesium, and sodium.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 4.4 Global Outcome: G1

22) Which one of the following is a main-group element?

A) Ce B) Co C) Cu D) Cs E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

23) Metals are located where on the periodic table?

A) left side B) right side C) middle D) zig-zag diagonal line E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

11 .

24) Nonmetals are located where on the periodic table?

A) left side B) right side C) middle D) zig-zag diagonal line E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

25) Metalloids are located where on the periodic table?

A) left side B) right side C) middle D) zig-zag diagonal line E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

26) Group 1A elements are also called: A) noble gases.

B) halogens.

C) alkaline earth metals.

D) alkali metals.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

27) Group 7A elements are also called: A) noble gases.

B) halogens.

C) alkaline earth metals.

D) alkali metals.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

12 .

28) Group 8A elements are also called: A) noble gases.

B) halogens.

C) alkaline earth metals.

D) alkali metals.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

29) Group 2A elements are also called: A) noble gases.

B) halogens.

C) alkaline earth metals.

D) alkali metals.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

30) Mg is a member of which family?

A) noble gases B) halogens C) alkaline earth metals D) alkali metals E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

31) Xe is a member of which family?

A) noble gases B) halogens C) alkaline earth metals D) alkali metals E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

13 .

32) Examine the elements listed below and identify the one element that is from a different periodic table group than the others.

A) Si B) Sn C) Ti D) Ge E) All of these are from the same group.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

33) Cr is a member of which family?

A) noble gases B) halogens C) alkaline earth metals D) alkali metals E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

34) All of the following statements about different elements are true EXCEPT: A) Barium is an alkaline earth metal.

B) Manganese is a transition metal.

C) Sulfur is considered a metalloid.

D) Krypton is one of the noble gases.

E) Iodine is a halogen.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

35) Identify the element that is a nonmetal, a gas, and has an elemental symbol that starts with the letter "A." A) Ac B) Ar C) Au D) Al E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G2

14 .

36) Ions are formed when atoms: A) gain or lose protons.

B) gain or lose electrons.

C) gain or lose neutrons.

D) Each of these results in ion formation.

E) None of these results in ion formation.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Outcome: G2

37) When an atom loses an electron, the resulting particle is called: A) a proton.

B) an anion.

C) a cation.

D) an isotope.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Outcome: G2

38) When an atom gains an electron, the resulting particle is called: A) a proton.

B) an anion.

C) a cation.

D) an isotope.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Outcome: G2

39) Which of the following statements about ions is INCORRECT? A) Cations are positive ions and anions are negative ions.

B) Cations are formed when an atom loses electrons.

C) Anions are formed when an atom gains electrons.

D) Cations always have the same number of protons as electrons.

E) All statements are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Outcome: G2

15 .

40) What is the correct formula for a potassium ion with 18 electrons?

A) P+ B) K+ C) KD) PE) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Outcome: G2

41) How many electrons are in Br-?

A) 4 B) 7 C) 34 D) 36 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.7 Global Outcome: G2

42) How many protons and electrons are present in O2-?

A) 8 protons and 8 electrons B) 10 protons and 8 electrons C) 8 protons and 10 electrons D) 16 protons and 8 electrons E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.7 Global Outcome: G2

43) What is the charge on the barium ion?

A) 1B) 2C) 1+ D) 2+ E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Outcome: G2

16 .

44) What is the charge on the ion formed by selenium?

A) 1B) 2C) 1+ D) 2+ E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Outcome: G2

45) There is very little of the element astatine (symbol = At) on earth. If astatine formed an ion, it would most likely have the charge of: A) 1+ B) 1C) 2+ D) 2E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Outcome: G2

46) What is the charge on the ion formed by aluminum?

A) 5B) 3C) 13+ D) 3+ E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Outcome: G2

47) What is the charge on the cesium ion?

A) 1B) 2C) 1+ D) 2+ E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Outcome: G2

17 .

48) How many electrons would be in a -2 charged anion of sulfur?

A) 2 B) 16 C) 18 D) 36 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.7 Global Outcome: G2

49) Isotopes are: A) atoms of the same element that have different number of neutrons.

B) atoms of the same element that have different number of protons.

C) atoms of the same element that have different number of electrons.

D) atoms of the same element that have the same number of neutrons.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global Outcome: G2

50) The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom: A) is called the atomic number.

B) is given the symbol "Z." C) identifies the atom as a particular element.

D) is the same for all isotopes of an element.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global Outcome: G2

51) The nucleus of an atom consists mainly of: A) neutrons and electrons.

B) protons and electrons.

C) protons and neutrons.

D) protons, neutrons, and electrons.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 Learning Outcome: 4.7 Global Outcome: G1

18 .

52) How many neutrons are present in Ne-22?

A) 12 B) 10 C) 22 D) 32 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global Outcome: G2

53) How many neutrons are present in C-14?

A) 14 B) 12 C) 6 D) 8 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global Outcome: G2

54) What is the mass number of the hydrogen isotope that contains 2 neutrons?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 Learning Outcome: 4.7 Global Outcome: G2

55) How many protons and neutrons are in Cl-37?

A) 20 protons, 17 neutrons B) 17 protons, 37 neutrons C) 17 protons, 20 neutrons D) 37 protons, 17 neutrons E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global Outcome: G4

19 .

56) An isotope represented as S-34: A) is an isotope of sodium.

B) contains exactly 18 neutrons.

C) has 34 protons.

D) must have exactly 18 electrons.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global Outcome: G2

57) An atom of a carbon-14 isotope would contain: A) 6 protons, 8 neutrons, and 6 electrons.

B) 8 protons, 6 neutrons, and 8 electrons.

C) 6 protons, 8 neutrons, and 8 electrons.

D) 14 protons, 6 neutrons, and 6 electrons.

E) 20 protons, 6 neutrons, and 20 electrons.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global Outcome: G4

58) An atom that has the same number of neutrons as A)

Cs

B)

Ba

C)

La

D)

Xe

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global Outcome: G4

20 .

Ba is:

59) A specific isotope of an element is known to have 15 protons and 16 neutrons. Which symbol would properly represent this isotope?

A)

Ga

B)

P

C)

X

D)

S

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.8 Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global Outcome: G2

60) The only known atom that does not contain a neutron is one of the isotopes of hydrogen. The mass number, symbolized as "A" in the text, of this hydrogen isotope must be: A) 1.01 B) 0 C) 1 D) 2 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.9 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global Outcome: G3

61) A fictional element has two naturally occurring isotopes with the natural abundances shown here: ISOTOPE 16 18

ABUNDANCE 50.0% 50.0%

Which statement is TRUE for this element?

A) The atomic mass would be 16.

B) The atomic mass would be less than 16.

C) The atomic mass would be 18.

D) The atomic mass would be more than 18.

E) The atomic mass would be 17.

Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.9 Learning Outcome: 4.10a Global Outcome: G3

21 .

62) A fictional element has two naturally occurring isotopes with the natural abundances shown here: ISOTOPE 18 20

ABUNDANCE 40.0% 60.0%

Which statement is TRUE for this element?

A) The atomic mass would be less than 18.

B) The atomic mass would be closer to 18 than to 20.

C) The atomic mass would be exactly 19.

D) The atomic mass would be closer to 20 than to 18.

E) The atomic mass would be greater than 20.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.9 Learning Outcome: 4.10a Global Outcome: G3

63) A fictional element has two isotopes, each making up 50% of the population. Isotope 1 has a mass of 80.0 amu, Isotope 2 has a mass of 85.0 amu. Calculate the atomic mass of the fictional element.

A) 82.5 amu B) 42.5 amu C) 40 amu D) 165 amu E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.9 Learning Outcome: 4.10a Global Outcome: G3

64) A fictional element has two isotopes and an atomic mass of 87.08 amu. If the first isotope is 86 amu and the second isotope has a mass of 90 amu. Which isotope has the greatest natural abundance?

A) 86 amu B) 90 amu C) There are equal amounts.

D) Not enough information provided.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.9 Learning Outcome: 4.10a Global Outcome: G3

22 .

65) A fictional element named Nivadium is found to have three naturally occurring isotopes with the natural abundances shown here: MASS (amu) 22.1760 23.1847 24.1934

ABUNDANCE 45.00% 45.00% 10.00%

The calculated atomic mass of Nivadium is: A) 7.61 amu B) 22.83 amu C) 23.18 amu D) 69.55 amu E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.9 Learning Outcome: 4.10a Global Outcome: G4

66) Chlorine has two stable isotopes, Cl-35 and Cl-37. If their exact masses are 34.9689 amu and 36.9695 amu, respectively, what is the natural abundance of Cl-35? (The atomic mass of chlorine is 35.45 amu.)

A) 75.95% B) 24.05% C) 50.00% D) 35.00% E) 37.00% Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 4.9 Learning Outcome: 4.10a Global Outcome: G4

23 .

4.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) The elemental symbol Mn represents the element ________.

A) mendelevium B) magnesium C) molybdenum D) manganese E) meitnerium F) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 4.4 Global Outcome: G1

2) Which one of the following is a main-group nonmetal element in period number 3 of the periodic table?

A) bromine B) selenium C) sodium D) gallium E) sulfur F) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 4.6 Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Outcome: G1

3) What is the charge on an ion that has an atomic number of 24 and contains 22 A) 2+ B) 2C) 1+ D) 1E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Outcome: G4

4) What is the charge on a calcium atom that contains 18 ?

A) 1+ B) 20+ C) 2+ D) 2E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 4.7 Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Outcome: G4

24 .

?

5) How many neutrons are found in Ne-21?

A) 11 B) 21 C) 10 D) 0 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 4.8 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global Outcome: G2

6) How many protons are found in C-14?

A) 8 B) 14 C) 6 D) 0 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 4.8 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global Outcome: G2

7) If an isotope of an element has 27 neutrons and a mass number of 52 , how many electrons must it have?

A) 25 B) 27 C) 52 D) 79 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 4.8 Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global Outcome: G2

8) Given that the molecular mass of bromine is 79.90 grams, which of the following isotopes would you expect to have the greatest natural abundance?

A) Br-79 B) Br-80 C) Br-81 D) Br-82 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 4.9 Learning Outcome: 4.10a Global Outcome: G4

25 .

Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 5 Molecules and Compounds 5.1 True/False Questions 1) When elements combine to form compounds, their properties only change slightly.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.1 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) The properties of a compound are an average of the properties of the individual elements.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.1 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) Life could not exist with just 91 elements if they did not combine to form compounds.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.1 Global Outcome: G1

4) Although some substances we encounter in our routine lives are elements, most occur in the combined state.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.2 Global Outcome: G1

5) The law of constant composition states: All samples of a given compound have the same proportions of their constituent elements.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global Outcome: G1

6) The fact that water has an oxygen-to-hydrogen mass ratio of 8.0 illustrates the law of conservation of mass.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global Outcome: G2

7) The ratio in a chemical formula is a ratio of atoms, not a ratio of masses.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global Outcome: G1

1 .

8) The subscripts in a chemical formula represent the relative mass of each atom in a chemical compound.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global Outcome: G1

9) The subscripts in a chemical formula do not change for a given compound.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global Outcome: G1

10) Chemical formulas normally list the most metallic elements first.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global Outcome: G1

11) The formula of a compound comprised of two nitrogen atoms and one oxygen atom should be written properly as ON2.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global Outcome: G2

12) Molecular elements do not exist in nature.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global Outcome: G1

13) The element nitrogen normally exists in nature as a diatomic molecule.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global Outcome: G1

14) If a chemical reaction produces the molecular element oxygen, the formula of oxygen should be written as O2 .

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global Outcome: G1

15) Carbon dioxide is an example of a molecular compound.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global Outcome: G2

2 .

16) The basic unit of an ionic compound is called the formula unit.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.5 Global Outcome: G1

17) SO2 is an ionic compound.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.5 Global Outcome: G2

18) Ionic compounds have a net charge of zero.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global Outcome: G1

19) Ionic compounds always contain positive and negative ions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global Outcome: G1

20) In ionic compounds the net positive charge always equals the net negative charge.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global Outcome: G1

21) The ionic compound that forms between aluminum and oxygen is AlO. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global Outcome: G2

22) The ionic compound that forms between Mg and O is MgO. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global Outcome: G2

23) The correct formula for calcium fluoride is CaF3.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global Outcome: G2

3 .

24) Ionic compounds are usually made up of a metal and a nonmetal.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.5 Global Outcome: G1

25) The ionic compound MgO is named manganese oxide.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global Outcome: G2

26) The name of KNO3 is potassium nitratide.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.10a Global Outcome: G2

27) The correct formula for sodium permanganate is NaMgO4.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.10a Global Outcome: G2

28) Metal cations that form more than one type of ion are usually found in the section of the periodic table known as the transition metals.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.9 Global Outcome: G1

29) If there are two ions in a series of oxoanions, the one with more oxygen is given the ending "-ite."

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.10a Global Outcome: G1

30) The proper name for SF6 is sulfur tetrafluoride.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.8 Learning Outcome: 5.11 Global Outcome: G2

31) The proper name for the acid HF is hydrofluoric acid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.12 Global Outcome: G2

4 .

32) The proper name for HI is hydroiodic acid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.12 Global Outcome: G2

33) The correct name for HNO3 is hydronitric acid.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.13 Global Outcome: G2

34) Carbonic acid, H2CO3 , contains the carbonate oxyanion.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Learning Outcome: 5.13 Global Outcome: G2

35) If an oxyacid contains the sulfate oxyanion, then this acid has the name sulfurous acid.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.13 Global Outcome: G2

36) The correct name for H2SO3 is sulfurous acid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.14 Global Outcome: G2

5 .

5.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) When elements combine to form compounds: A) their properties are an average of all elements in the compound.

B) their properties change completely.

C) their properties do not change.

D) their properties are completely random.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.1 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) The first chemist to formally state the law of constant composition was: A) Dalton.

B) Mendeleev.

C) Rutherford.

D) Proust.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) The law of constant composition states: A) Matter cannot be either created or destroyed in a chemical reaction.

B) The nucleus is a dense region of positive charge that always contains protons and neutrons.

C) All samples of a given compound have the same proportions of their constituent elements.

D) All atoms of a given element have a constant composition and are different than atoms of any other element.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global Outcome: G1

4) The oxygen-to-hydrogen mass ratio of water is always 8.0 is an example of what fundamental law?

A) Law of Constant Composition B) Law of Constant Mass Ratio C) Law of Conservation of Mass D) Law of Constant Whole Number Ratio E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global Outcome: G2

6 .

5) What is the oxygen-to-hydrogen mass ratio for H2O2?

A) 0.125 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global Outcome: G4

6) The phosphorous-to-hydrogen mass ratio is 10.2 for a compound. This ratio could correspond to the compound: A) PH. B) PH2.

C) PH3.

D) PH6.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global Outcome: G4

7) What is the oxygen-to-sulfur mass ratio of sulfur dioxide?

A) 0.5 B) 1.0 C) 2.0 D) 16 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global Outcome: G4

8) Suppose an unknown compound XY has an X-to-Y mass ratio of 4.0. If decomposition of compound XY gives 12.0 grams of X, then how many grams of Y must form?

A) 48.0 grams B) 12.0 grams C) 4.0 grams D) 3.0 grams E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global Outcome: G4

7 .

9) Which of the following statements about chemical formulas is FALSE? A) The subscripts represent the relative number of each type of atom in the compound.

B) The subscripts represent the relative mass of each type of atom in the compound.

C) The subscripts do not change for a given compound.

D) Different compounds made of the same elements have different subscripts.

E) All of the statements are true.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global Outcome: G1

10) How many total atoms are in the formula Al2(CO3)3?

A) 8 B) 9 C) 12 D) 14 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global Outcome: G4

11) How many carbon atoms are in the formula Al2(CO3)3?

A) 3 B) 9 C) 1 D) 6 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global Outcome: G4

12) How many oxygen atoms are in the formula Al2(CO3)3?

A) 3 B) 9 C) 1 D) 6 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global Outcome: G4

8 .

13) Which formula shows the proper use of parentheses?

A) Ca(F)2 B) Ca(SO4) C) (NH4)3(PO4) D) Ca(NO3)2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global Outcome: G4

14) How many of each type of atoms are there in the formula NH 4C2H3O2?

A) N = 4, H = 7, C = 2, O = 2 B) N = 1, H = 4, C = 2, O = 2 C) N = 1, H = 3, C = 2, O = 2 D) N = 1, H = 7, C = 2, O = 2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global Outcome: G4

15) How many of each type of atom are there in the formula Ca 3(PO4)2?

A) Ca = 3, P = 1, O = 4 B) Ca = 3, P = 2, O = 4 C) Ca = 3, P = 2, O = 8 D) Ca = 3, P = 1, O = 8 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global Outcome: G4

16) How many of each type of atom are there in the formula (NH 4)2HPO4?

A) N = 2, H = 9, P = 1, O = 4 B) N = 1, H = 5, P = 1, O = 4 C) N = 2, H = 5, P = 1, O = 4 D) N = 2, H = 8, P = 1, O = 4 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global Outcome: G4

9 .

17) What is the correct formula for a compound that has three oxygen atoms and one sulfur atom?

A) O3S B) SO3 C) 3OS D) SO3 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.5 Global Outcome: G2

18) What is the correct formula of a compound that has ten oxygen atoms and four phosphorus atoms?

A) O10P4 B) 10OP4 C) 4PO10 D) P4O10 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.3 Learning Outcome: 5.11 Global Outcome: G2

19) Carbon is considered which of the following?

A) atomic element B) molecular element C) molecular compound D) ionic compound E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global Outcome: G2

20) Which among the following elements does NOT exist as a diatomic molecule in nature?

A) hydrogen B) nitrogen C) fluorine D) neon E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global Outcome: G1

10 .

21) Carbon monoxide is considered which of the following?

A) atomic element B) molecular element C) molecular compound D) ionic compound E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global Outcome: G2

22) Fluorine is considered which of the following?

A) atomic element B) molecular element C) molecular compound D) ionic compound E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.5 Global Outcome: G2

23) Ammonium fluoride is considered which of the following?

A) atomic element B) molecular element C) molecular compound D) ionic compound E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.5 Global Outcome: G2

24) Which of the following species is a molecular element?

A) neon B) sodium C) chlorine D) carbon dioxide E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global Outcome: G2

11 .

25) Which of the following is a molecular compound?

A) barium sulfide B) calcium acetate C) potassium hydroxide D) nitrogen monoxide E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 5.5 Global Outcome: G2

26) What is the formula for an ionic compound made of barium and nitrogen?

A) Ba3N2 B) Ba2N3 C) BaN D) Ba2N4 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global Outcome: G2

27) What is the formula for an ionic compound made of magnesium and sulfur?

A) MgS B) MgS2 C) Mg2S D) Mg2S3 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global Outcome: G2

28) What is the formula for an ionic compound made of carbon and oxygen?

A) CO2 B) C2O C) CO D) CO3 E) Carbon and oxygen do not form an ionic compound.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global Outcome: G2

12 .

29) The ionic compound that forms between potassium and oxygen is: A) K2O. B) KO. C) KO2.

D) K2O2.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global Outcome: G2

30) What is the formula for an ionic compound made of aluminum and oxygen?

A) AlO2 B) Al2O3 C) Al3O2 D) AlO E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global Outcome: G2

31) A student wrote the formula for the compound aluminum phosphate as AlPO 4. What is wrong with this formula?

A) The compound is not charge-neutral.

B) Aluminum is a nonmetal so it cannot form an ionic compound.

C) The formula should be Al(PO4).

D) There cannot be three different atom types in a chemical formula.

E) Nothing is wrong with the formula.

Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5-6|5-10a Global Outcome: G7

32) What is the name of the ionic compound made of beryllium and chlorine?

A) beryllium(II) chloride B) beryllium dichloride C) beryllium chloride D) monoberyllium dichloride E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global Outcome: G2

13 .

33) What is the name of the compound made from lithium and oxygen?

A) lithium dioxide B) lithium(I) oxide C) oxygen lithide D) lithium oxide E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global Outcome: G2

34) Which metal atom below cannot form a cation of several different charges?

A) Cr B) Mn C) Fe D) Ba E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.9 Global Outcome: G2

35) What is the name of CoS? A) cobalt(II) sulfide B) cobalt sulfide C) cobalt monosulfide D) cobaltous sulfur E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.9 Global Outcome: G2

36) What is the name of Ca(NO3)2?

A) calcium dinitrite B) calcium nitrate C) calcium nitride D) calcium nitrite E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.10a Global Outcome: G2

14 .

37) Which formula shown is incorrect for the name given?

A) magnesium nitrite: Mg(NO2)3 B) calcium carbonate: CaCO3 C) aluminum sulfate: Al2(SO4)3 D) sodium hydrogen carbonate: NaHCO3 E) potassium hydroxide: KOH Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.10a Global Outcome: G2

38) Which formula shown is incorrect for the name given?

A) strontium carbonate: SrCO3 B) ammonium cyanide: NH4CN C) potassium acetate: KC2H3O2 D) calcium nitrate: Ca(NO3)2 E) lithium sulfate: LiSO4 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.10a Global Outcome: G2

39) What is the name of the compound whose formula is Na 2O? A) sodium monoxide B) disodium oxide C) disodium monoxide D) sodium oxide E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global Outcome: G2

40) What is the formula for the acetate polyatomic ion?

A) C3H2O3B) C2H3O22C) C2H3O2D) C2H3OE) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.13 Global Outcome: G2

15 .

41) What is the correct formula for potassium dichromate?

A) K(CrO4)2 B) KCr2O7 C) K2CrO4 D) K2Cr2O7 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.13 Global Outcome: G2

42) What is the correct formula for ammonium hydrogen sulfate?

A) NH4HSO4 B) (NH4)2HSO4 C) (NH4)2SO4 D) Am2HSO4 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.10a Global Outcome: G2

43) The formula for potassium chlorate is KClO3. The formula for magnesium chloride is MgCl2. What is the formula for magnesium chlorate?

A) MgClO3 B) Mg2ClO3 C) Mg(ClO3)2 D) Mg2(ClO3)3 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.10a Global Outcome: G2

44) The charge of a vanadium ion in the compound V 2O5 is: A) 5+ B) 2+ C) 10+ D) 10E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global Outcome: G1

16 .

45) What is the correct formula for the hypochlorite polyatomic ion?

A) ClOB) ClO2C) ClO3D) ClO4E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.14 Global Outcome: G1

46) What is the correct name for the BrO4 1- ion?

A) hypobromite B) perbromate C) bromite D) bromate E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.13 Global Outcome: G1

47) Choose the pair of names and formulas that do NOT match.

A) copper(I) nitrate: CuNO3 B) copper(II) nitride: Cu3N2 C) copper(II) nitrate: Cu(NO3)2 D) copper(II) nitrite: Cu(NO2)2 E) all of these are correct Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.13 Global Outcome: G7

48) The name trisodium phosphate is incorrect for the compound Na3PO4 because: A) this compound should be called trisodium monophosphate.

B) the sodium has a negative 3 charge.

C) you cannot use a prefix for the first element in a molecular compound.

D) you cannot use a prefix for the first element of an ionic compound.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.7 and 5.8 Learning Outcome: 5.13 Global Outcome: G7

17 .

49) What is the name of the molecular compound SF5?

A) sulfur hexafluoride B) sulfur heptafluoride C) monosulfur tetrafluoride D) sulfur pentafluoride E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.8 Learning Outcome: 5.11 Global Outcome: G2

50) What is the name of the molecular compound SO3?

A) sulfur oxide B) sulfur(IV) oxide C) sulfur trioxide D) sulfur tetraoxide E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.8 Learning Outcome: 5.11 Global Outcome: G2

51) What is correct name of the compound whose formula is N2O4?

A) nitrogen dioxide B) nitrogen tetroxide C) dinitrogen oxide D) dinitrogen tetroxide E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.8 Learning Outcome: 5.11 Global Outcome: G2

52) What is correct name of the compound whose formula is BF3?

A) boron trifluoride B) boron fluoride C) monoboron trifluorine D) boron(III) fluoride E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.8 Learning Outcome: 5.11 Global Outcome: G2

18 .

53) What would the formula of diiodine pentasulfide be?

A) I5S2 B) I2S5 C) I4S9 D) I2S7 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.8 Learning Outcome: 5.11 Global Outcome: G2

54) What is the correct formula for the molecular compound heptaphosphorus octafluoride?

A) P5F8 B) P 7F6 C) P6F7 D) P7F8 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.8 Learning Outcome: 5.11 Global Outcome: G2

55) What is the proper name for HBr (aq)?

A) hydrobromous acid B) hydrousbromic acid C) hydrobromic acid D) bromous acid E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.12 Global Outcome: G2

56) What is the name of HI (aq)?

A) hydroiodous acid B) hydroiodic acid C) iodic acid D) iodous acid E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.12 Global Outcome: G2

19 .

57) What is the name of HIO3?

A) iodic acid B) hydroioidic acid C) hydroiodous acid D) iodous acid E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.13 Global Outcome: G2

58) What is the name of HNO2?

A) nitric acid B) nitrous acid C) hydronitrous acid D) hydronitric acid E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.14 Global Outcome: G2

59) A certain oxyacid is derived from the oxyanion SO 32-. The formula for the oxyacid is: A) H2SO4.

B) HSO3.

C) H2SO3.

D) H3SO3.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 5.13 Global Outcome: G2

60) What is the formula mass of sulfurous acid?

A) 82.08 amu B) 98.08 amu C) 83.09 amu D) 66.08 amu E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.11 Learning Outcome: 5.15 Global Outcome: G4

20 .

61) What is the formula mass for potassium nitrate?

A) 92.99 amu B) 117.11 amu C) 85.11 amu D) 101.10 amu E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.11 Learning Outcome: 5.15 Global Outcome: G4

62) What is the formula mass for diboron tetrachloride?

A) 127.98 amu B) 198.89 amu C) 234.34 amu D) 163.43 amu E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.11 Learning Outcome: 5.15 Global Outcome: G4

63) What is the formula mass of copper(II) fluoride?

A) 101.55 B) 146.10 C) 90.00 D) 165.10 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.11 Learning Outcome: 5.15 Global Outcome: G4

64) Which of the following has the largest formula mass?

A) CO2 B) SO2 C) NO2 D) SiO2 E) H2O Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.11 Learning Outcome: 5.15 Global Outcome: G4

21 .

65) Which of the following compounds have the smallest formula mass?

A) CO2 B) SO2 C) NO2 D) SiO2 E) H2O Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.11 Learning Outcome: 5.15 Global Outcome: G4

66) A compound has a formula mass of 61.98 amu and is comprised of atoms of sodium and oxygen in a definite ratio. The name of the compound described here is: A) sodium monoxide.

B) disodium oxide.

C) sodium oxide.

D) sodium dioxide.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 5.11 Learning Outcome: 5.15 Global Outcome: G7

5.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) What is the mass ratio of Na to S in sodium sulfide?

A) 7.17 B) 55.06 C) 0.717 D) 1.43 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global Outcome: G4

2) If the mass ratio of K to F in a compound is 2.06:1, how many grams of F are needed to react with of K? A) 0.877 B) 1.12 C) 0.112 D) 8.77 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 5.2 Learning Outcome: 5.1 Global Outcome: G4|G7

22 .

3) Suppose that in an ionic compound, "M" represents a metal that could form more than one type of ion.

In the formula MP , the charge of the M ion would be: A) +1 B) -1 C) +2 D) -3 E) +3 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global Outcome: G2

4) Suppose that in an ionic compound, "M" represents a metal that could form more than one type of ion.

In the formula MF2 , the charge of the M ion would be: A) +2 B) -1 C) +4 D) -2 E) +1 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: 5.5 Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global Outcome: G2

5) How many C atoms are in ammonium acetate?

A) 5 B) 2 C) 1 D) 3 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global Outcome: G4|G7

6) How many O atoms are present in sodium chlorite?

A) 2 B) 6 C) 4 D) 1 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: 5.7 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global Outcome: G4|G7

23 .

7) What is the formula mass of magnesium nitride?

A) 38.32 B) 90.65 C) 100.95 D) 116.33 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 5.11 Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global Outcome: G4|G7

8) Oxyacids contains at least one H+ and an oxyanion. The " nitrous " oxyacid contains the oxyanion ________.

A) nitrite B) nitrate C) nitride D) nitric E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 6 Page Ref: 5.9 Learning Outcome: 3.5 Global Outcome: G2

24 .

Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 6 Chemical Composition 6.1 True/False Questions 1) The chemical formula clearly indicates the relationship between the mass of each element in the formula.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.1 Learning Outcome: 6.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Mass is used as a method of counting atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.2 Learning Outcome: 6.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) One hundred nickels must have the same mass as one hundred pennies.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.2 Learning Outcome: 6.1 Global Outcome: G2

4) The numerical value of the mole is defined as being equal to the number of atoms in exactly 12 grams of pure carbon-12.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.1 Global Outcome: G1

5) The mole has a value of 6.023 × 1022.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G1

6) Avogadro's Number is 6.022 × 1023.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G1

7) The number 6.022 × Answer: FALSE

is six times larger than the number 6.022 ×

Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G1

1 .

.

8) The lighter the atom, the less mass in one mole of that atom.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G1

9) One mole of argon has more atoms in it than one mole of neon.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G1

10) One mole of nitrogen gas contains (2) × (6.022 × 1023) nitrogen atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G1

11) One mole of zinc contains 65.39 zinc atoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G1

12) One mole of copper atoms is 6.022 × 10 23 copper atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G1

13) The mass of 2.0 moles of H2O is greater than the mass of 1.0 mole of CO2.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global Outcome: G4

14) One mole of chlorine gas has a mass of 35.45 grams.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global Outcome: G1

15) Two moles of cobalt atoms have a mass of 117.87 grams.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global Outcome: G4

2 .

16) Six grams of carbon contains 3.008 × 10 23 atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Global Outcome: G4

17) One mole of I2 has more atoms in it than one mole of Na. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G1

18) One mole of CO2 gas contains 1 mole of carbon atoms and 2 moles of oxygen atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G2

19) The molar mass of a compound in grams per mole is numerically equal to the formula mass of the compound in atomic mass units.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G1

20) One mole of water contains 16 grams of oxygen atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global Outcome: G4

21) One mole of water contains 6.022 × 1023 hydrogen atoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Global Outcome: G2

22) There are 6 grams of carbon in 22 grams of carbon dioxide.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.5 Global Outcome: G4

23) The molar mass of a compound serves as a conversion factor between grams and moles.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.5 Global Outcome: G1

3 .

24) One mole of lead(II) nitrate contains six moles of oxygen atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global Outcome: G4

25) The chemical formula CuBr2 indicates that this compound is composed of 1 gram of copper and of bromine.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.8 Global Outcome: G2

26) The correct formula for calculating mass percent of X in compound XY is: = Mass % X Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.9 Global Outcome: G1

27) Water is 11.2% hydrogen by mass.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.7 Learning Outcome: 6.10a Global Outcome: G4

28) C2H3O2 could be an empirical formula.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global Outcome: G2

29) C2H6O3 could be an empirical formula.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global Outcome: G2

30) C2H6O4 could be an empirical formula.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global Outcome: G2

4 .

31) An empirical formula gives the specific number of each type of atom in a molecule.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global Outcome: G1

32) An empirical formula gives the smallest whole number ratio of each type of atom in a molecule.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global Outcome: G1

33) The empirical formula for C6H6 is C3H3.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global Outcome: G2

34) The molecular formula is equal to the empirical formula multiplied by a whole number integer.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.9 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global Outcome: G2

35) A molecule that has an empirical formula of HO and a molar mass of 34.02 gram must have a molecular formula of H2O2.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.9 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global Outcome: G4

36) The empirical formula mass is 18.0 and the molecular formula mass is 90, therefore n = 5.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.9 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global Outcome: G4

37) The empirical formula mass must be 25.0 if the molecular formula mass is 250 and n = 5.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.9 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global Outcome: G4

5 .

6.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) What is the correct value for Avogadro's number?

A) 6.022 × 1023 B) 6.022 × 1033 C) 6.023 × 1022 D) 6.022 × 102.3 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G1

2) One half of a mole of atoms would contain how many atoms?

A) 0.5 B) 3.011 × 1023 C) 6.022 × 1023 D) 6.022 × 1011.5 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G4

3) Which of the following statements about the mole is FALSE? A) One mole of atoms makes up an amount of atoms that can be seen with the naked eye.

B) A mole of a monatomic element corresponds to one Avogadro's number of atoms.

C) One mole of a monatomic element has a mass equal to its atomic mass expressed in grams.

D) One mole of water contains 1/2 mole of oxygen atoms.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G1

4) How many atoms are in 5.80 moles of He? A) 6.02 × 1023 B) 1.03 × 1023 C) 4.00 D) 3.49 × 1024 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G4

6 .

5) How many atoms are in 1.50 moles of fluorine gas?

A) 6.022 × 1023 B) 9.03 × 1023 C) 18.98 D) 1.81 × 1024 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G4

6) How many moles of Cu are in 1.48 × 1025 Cu atoms?

A) 0.0408 B) 24.6 C) 1.54 × 1025 D) 6.022 × 1023 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G4

7) One mole of boron has a mass of ________ g.

A) 9.012 B) 6.022 × 1023 C) 5 D) 10.811 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global Outcome: G4

8) One mole of oxygen gas has a mass of ________ g.

A) 16.0 B) 32.0 C) 6.022 × 1023 D) 8 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global Outcome: G4

7 .

9) What is the mass in grams of 5.40 moles of lithium?

A) 6.94 B) 37.5 C) 1.29 D) 3.25 × 1024 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global Outcome: G4

10) What is the mass of 0.560 moles of chlorine gas?

A) 19.9 B) 63.3 C) 127 D) 39.7 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global Outcome: G4

11) You have 10.0 g each of Na, C, Pb, Cu and Ne. Which contains the largest number of moles?

A) Na B) C C) Pb D) Cu E) Ne Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global Outcome: G4

12) You have 10.0 g each of Na, C, Pb, Cu and Ne. Which contains the smallest number of moles?

A) Na B) C C) Pb D) Cu E) Ne Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global Outcome: G4

8 .

13) How many moles of iron are contained in 1.75 kg of iron?

A) 3.13 × 10-2 B) 3.13 × 10-4 C) 31.3 D) 3.13 × 104 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global Outcome: G4

14) How many moles are there in 17.5 grams of sodium?

A) 22.99 B) 1.05 × 1025 C) 0.761 D) 1.31 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global Outcome: G4

15) How many moles are there in 82.5 grams of iron?

A) 4.97 × 1025 B) 55.85 C) 0.677 D) 1.48 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global Outcome: G4

16) How many moles of bromine gas are in 37.7 grams?

A) 0.236 B) 0.472 C) 3.01 × 103 D) 79.9 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global Outcome: G4

9 .

17) How many atoms are in 15.6 grams of silicon?

A) 2.64 × 1026 B) 3.34 × 1023 C) 0.555 D) 438 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Global Outcome: G4

18) How many hydrogen atoms are in 35.0 grams of hydrogen gas?

A) 4.25 × 1025 B) 2.09 × 1025 C) 2.12 × 1025 D) 1.05 × 1025 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Global Outcome: G4

19) What is the mass of 3.09 × 1024 atoms of sulfur in grams?

A) 9.64 × 1022 B) 9.91 × 1025 C) 165 D) 0.160 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Global Outcome: G4

20) How many moles of Pb are in 4.71 × 1021 Pb atoms?

A) 0.00782 B) 2.84 × 1045 C) 207.2 D) 6.022 × 1023 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Global Outcome: G4

10 .

21) What is the mass of 1.56 × 1021 atoms of magnesium in grams?

A) 4.72 × 10-5 B) 0.0630 C) 0.142 D) 1.07 × 10-4 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Global Outcome: G4

22) In comparing a balloon containing 25 grams of helium to a balloon containing 25 grams of neon, which one of the following statements is TRUE? A) Each balloon has an equal number of atoms.

B) The helium balloon has more atoms.

C) The neon balloon has more atoms.

D) This scenario cannot happen because gases have no mass.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Global Outcome: G2

23) In comparing 1 mole of carbon atoms to one mole of magnesium atoms, which statement is TRUE? A) The mass of 1 mole of carbon is greater than the mass of 1 mole of magnesium.

B) The mass of 1 mole of magnesium is greater than the mass of 1 mole of carbon.

C) The mass of 1 mole of carbon is the same as the mass of 1 mole of magnesium.

D) There are more atoms in 1 mole of magnesium than in 1 mole of carbon.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.5 Global Outcome: G2

24) Which of the following contains 9.02 × 10 23 atoms?

A) 4.00 g H2 B) 9.00 g H2O C) 28.0 g N2 D) 32.0 g O2 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Global Outcome: G4

11 .

25) The mass of one mole of carbon dioxide is ________ g.

A) 28.01 B) 384.4 C) 32.00 D) 44.01 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.5 Global Outcome: G4

26) What is the molar mass of aluminum sulfate?

A) 123.0 g/mol B) 278.0 g/mol C) 306.2 g/mol D) 315.2 g/mol E) 342.2 g/mol Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.5 Global Outcome: G4

27) Calculate the molar mass of ammonium carbonate.

A) 78.05 g/mol B) 88.05 g/mol C) 96.09 g/mol D) 112.09 g/mol E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.5 Global Outcome: G4

28) Calculate the molar mass of calcium nitrate.

A) 136.03 g/mol B) 102.09 g/mol C) 132.10 g/mol D) 164.10 g/mol E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.5 Global Outcome: G4

12 .

29) How many molecules of sulfur trioxide are in 78.0 grams?

A) 5.87 × 1023 B) 7.33 × 1023 C) 3.76 × 1027 D) 0.974 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.6 Global Outcome: G4

30) How many molecules of nitrogen monoxide are in a 22.5 gram sample?

A) 5.86 × 1023 B) 7.33 × 1023 C) 4.51 × 1023 D) 4.06 × 1023 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.6 Global Outcome: G4

31) If 3.011 × molecules have a mass of 20.04 grams, what is the molar mass of this substance?

A) 40.08 g/mol B) 10.02 g/mol C) 20.04 g/mol D) 6.658 × g/mol E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.6 Global Outcome: G4

32) If 2.01 × atoms of an element from Group IA of the periodic table has a mass of 7.675 grams, this element is most likely: A) Li. B) Na. C) K. D) Rb. E) Cs. Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.6 Global Outcome: G4

13 .

33) One mole of (NH4)2HPO4 contains how many moles of hydrogen atoms?

A) 4 B) 2 C) 8 D) 9 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global Outcome: G4

34) One mole of ammonium nitrate contains: A) 3 moles of hydrogen.

B) 2 moles of oxygen.

C) 2 moles of nitrogen.

D) 1 mole of nitrogen.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global Outcome: G4

35) One mole of ammonium nitrite contains: A) 2 moles of nitrogen atoms.

B) 4 moles of hydrogen atoms.

C) 2 moles of oxygen atoms.

D) All of A, B, and C. E) None of A, B, and C. Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global Outcome: G4

36) One mole of potassium sulfate contains: A) 4 moles of oxygen.

B) 2 moles of sulfur.

C) 1 mole of potassium.

D) 3 moles of potassium.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global Outcome: G4

14 .

37) How many moles of carbon are in 3.5 moles of calcium carbonate?

A) 10.5 B) 3.5 C) 7 D) 100.09 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global Outcome: G4

38) How many moles of fluorine are in 3.2 moles of xenon hexafluoride?

A) 22.4 B) 12.8 C) 19.2 D) 16 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global Outcome: G4

39) If a sample of carbon dioxide contains 3.8 moles of oxygen atoms, how many moles of carbon dioxide are in the sample?

A) 1.9 B) 3.8 C) 7.6 D) 11.4 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global Outcome: G4

40) A 15.5 gram sample of diphosphorous pentoxide contains how many grams of phosphorous?

A) 3.38 B) 1.69 C) 6.76 D) 13.5 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.8 Global Outcome: G4

15 .

41) A 42.7 gram sample of potassium nitrate contains how many grams of potassium?

A) 39.1 B) 16.5 C) 21.4 D) 8.54 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.8 Global Outcome: G4

42) An iron ore sample is found to be 35.00% Fe by mass. How many grams of ore are needed to obtain of Fe? A) 1297 B) 158.9 C) 295.1 D) 350.0 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.9 Global Outcome: G4

43) A 500. gram iron ore sample was determined to contain 242 grams of iron. What is the mass percent of iron in the ore?

A) 93.7 B) 48.4 C) 51.6 D) 32.6 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.10a Global Outcome: G4

44) Bauxite is an ore that contains the element aluminum. If you obtained 108 grams of aluminum from an ore sample that initially weighed 204 grams, what is the mass percent of aluminum in this bauxite ore?

A) 52.9 B) 15.6 C) 0.53 D) 47.1 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.10a Global Outcome: G4

16 .

45) What is the mass percent of hydrogen in water?

A) 33.3 B) 88.8 C) 5.60 D) 11.2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.10a Global Outcome: G4

46) What is the mass percent of chlorine in hydrochloric acid?

A) 2.8 B) 35.5 C) 97.2 D) 70.1 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.10a Global Outcome: G4

47) What is the mass percent of carbon in oxalic acid, H2C2O4?

A) 2.24 B) 13.3 C) 26.7 D) 34.5 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.10a Global Outcome: G4

48) Which of the following compounds has the highest mass percent of "O"?

A) MnO B) MnO2 C) Mn2O3 D) Mn3O2 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.7 Learning Outcome: 6.10a Global Outcome: G4

17 .

49) Which of the following statements about empirical formulas is incorrect?

A) An empirical formula represents a molecule.

B) An empirical formula gives the smallest whole number ratio of each type of atom in a molecule.

C) An empirical formula must be multiplied by an integer to obtain the molecular formula.

D) The molecular formula can be the same as the empirical formula in some situations.

E) All statements are correct.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global Outcome: G1

50) The empirical formula of a compound: A) describes the mass relationships in a molecule.

B) is the same as the molecular formula.

C) indicates the structure of the molecule.

D) indicates the simplest ratio of atoms in the compound.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global Outcome: G1

51) The simplest formula for hydrogen peroxide is HO. To determine its molecular formula, it is necessary to know: A) the properties of hydrogen peroxide.

B) the density of hydrogen peroxide.

C) the molar mass of hydrogen peroxide.

D) the number of moles of hydrogen peroxide in 1.00 g of the substance.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global Outcome: G2

52) Which of the following is already in its empirical formula?

A) C22H34O10 B) C6H6 C) C6H12O3 D) C5H12O2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global Outcome: G2

18 .

53) The chemical formula CH2O can be classified as: A) molecular only.

B) empirical only.

C) empirical, possibly molecular.

D) not enough information E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.11 Global Outcome: G2

54) A chromium oxide compound contains 104.0 grams of chromium and 48.0 grams of oxygen. What is the most likely empirical formula of this compound?

A) CrO B) CrO2 C) CrO3 D) Cr2O3 E) Cr3O2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global Outcome: G4

55) An iron chloride compound contains 55.85 grams of iron and 106.5 grams of chlorine. What is the most likely empirical formula for this compound?

A) FeCl B) FeCl2 C) Fe2Cl D) FeCl3 E) Fe3Cl Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global Outcome: G4

56) A 7.96 gram sample of silver reacts with oxygen to form 8.55 gram of the metal oxide. What is the formula of the oxide?

A) AgO B) AgO2 C) Ag2O D) Ag3O E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global Outcome: G4

19 .

57) Determine the empirical formula of a compound containing 60.3% magnesium and 39.7% oxygen.

A) MgO B) MgO2 C) Mg2O3 D) Mg2O E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global Outcome: G4

58) Determine the empirical formula of a compound containing 83% potassium and 17.0% oxygen.

A) KO B) KO2 C) K2O3 D) K2O E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global Outcome: G4

59) Vitamin C is known chemically by the name ascorbic acid. Determine the empirical formula of ascorbic acid if it is composed of 40.92% carbon, 4.58% hydrogen, and 54.50% oxygen.

A) CHO B) CH2O C) C2H3O2 D) C3H4O3 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global Outcome: G4

60) Determine the correct empirical formula of a compound containing 26.68% carbon, 2.24% hydrogen, and 71.08% oxygen.

A) CHO B) CHO2 C) C0.5H0.5O1 D) C2H2O4 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global Outcome: G4

20 .

61) A compound composed of only carbon and hydrogen is 25.2% hydrogen by mass. The empirical formula for this compound is: A) CH0.25 B) C3H C) CH4 D) C2H8 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.8 Learning Outcome: 6.12 Global Outcome: G4

62) What is the molecular formula of a compound given the molar mass of the compound is and the empirical formula is C2H7?

A) C4H14 B) C3H21 C) C2H7 D) C2H14 E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.9 Learning Outcome: 6.13 Global Outcome: G4

63) An estrogen compound with the empirical formula C12H17O2 has a molecular mass of 386.6 g/mol.

What is the value of n necessary to find the molecular formula?

A) 0.2 B) 1 C) 2 D) 20 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.9 Learning Outcome: 6.13 Global Outcome: G4

64) What is the value of n when the empirical formula is C3H5 and the molecular mass is A) 0.02 B) 5 C) 10 D) 140 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.9 Learning Outcome: 6.13 Global Outcome: G4

21 .

?

65) What would the empirical formula be for the molecular compound C 6H9O4?

A) C2H3O2 B) CH3O2 C) C3H6O2 D) C3H9O4 E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.9 Learning Outcome: 6.13 Global Outcome: G4

66) What is the molecular formula of a compound given the molar mass of the compound is 30.04 gram and the empirical formula is NH? A) NH B) N2H2 C) N2H6 D) N4H4 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.9 Learning Outcome: 6.13 Global Outcome: G4

67) A compound has a molar mass of 180.18 g/mol. Given the following percent composition, calculate the molecular formula: 39.99% C, 6.73% H, 53.28% O. A) CH3O2 B) CH2O C) C3H6O3 D) C6H12O6 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.9 Learning Outcome: 6.13 Global Outcome: G4

68) An unknown acid has a molar mass of 60.06 g/mol. Given the following percent composition, what is the molecular formula? .

A) C3H4O3 B) CH2O C) C2H4O2 D) C6H12O6 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.9 Learning Outcome: 6.13 Global Outcome: G4

22 .

69) A compound composed of only hydrogen and oxygen is 5.94% hydrogen by mass. The molar mass of this compound is 34.02 g/mol. What is the compound's molecular formula?

A) 34.02 B) H2O2 C) HO D) H6O E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 6.9 Learning Outcome: 6.13 Global Outcome: G7

6.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) Bananas cost 33¢ per pound. If you spent $0.77, how many pounds of bananas did you purchase?

A) 2.33 B) 1.73 C) 0.429 D) 2.01 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 6.2 Learning Outcome: 6.1 Global Outcome: G4

2) How many atoms are present in 4.5 moles?

A) B) C) D) E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G4

3) If you have A) 0.250 B) 4.00 C) 0.600 D) 3.00 E) none of the above Answer: B

atoms of copper, how many moles of copper do you have?

Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Outcome: G4

23 .

4) How many moles of potassium are in 156.4 g?

A) 39.10 B) 4.000 C) 0.2500 D) 5.050 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global Outcome: G4

5) What is the mass of A) 208 B) 4.93 C) 155 D) 32.07 E) none of the above Answer: A

sulfur atoms?

Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Global Outcome: G4

6) How many atoms of lithium are in 18.7 g?

A) B) C) D) E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Global Outcome: G4

7) What is the mass (in grams) of 1.95 moles of water ?

A) 18.02 B) 9.24 C) 35.1 D) 6.022 × 1023 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.5 Global Outcome: G4

24 .

8) What is the mass (in grams) of 3.03 × 1024 molecules of carbon dioxide molecules?

A) 221 B) 0.114 C) 1.33 D) 44.01 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: 6.4 Learning Outcome: 6.6 Global Outcome: G4

9) How many moles of oxygen are in 3.30 moles of NaC

?

A) 3.30 B) 0.303 C) 19.0 D) 13.2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 6.5 Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global Outcome: G4

10) Given that sodium chloride is 39.0% sodium by mass, how many grams of sodium chloride are needed to have of Na present?

A) 2.44 B) 0.371 C) 2,430 D) 37.1 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.8 Global Outcome: G4

11) What is the mass percent of Na in sodium chloride?

A) 58.4 B) 60.7 C) 39.3 D) 47.5 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.10a Global Outcome: G4

25 .

12) What is the mass percent of oxygen in sodium oxide?

A) 37.1 B) 25.8 C) 74.2 D) 62.0 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: 6.6 Learning Outcome: 6.10a Global Outcome: G4

26 .

Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 7 Chemical Reactions 7.1 True/False Questions 1) The reaction of baking soda and vinegar to produce carbon dioxide gas is an example of a precipitation reaction.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.7 Global Outcome: G1

2) The reaction of carbonate ion with magnesium ion to form solid magnesium carbonate is an example of an oxidation reduction reaction.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global Outcome: G1

3) Combustion reactions are a subcategory of oxidation-reduction reactions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.9 Global Outcome: G1

4) Color change is evidence that a chemical reaction has occurred.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global Outcome: G1

5) The formation of a gas is evidence of a chemical reaction while the emission of light is not.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global Outcome: G1

6) The formation of a new solid or gas is evidence of a chemical reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global Outcome: G1

7) Bubbles in water that appear during boiling show that a chemical reaction is occurring.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global Outcome: G1

1 .

8) When balancing a chemical equation you may alter the coefficients but not the subscripts in the equation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.3 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G1

9) The following equation IS balanced: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + H2O Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G2

10) The following reaction IS balanced: BaCl2 + H2SO4 → 2HCl + BaSO4 Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G2

11) The following equation IS balanced: 2 C4H10O + 13 O2 → 8 CO2 + 10 H2O Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G2

12) The following reaction IS balanced: AgNO3 + 2NH4Cl → AgCl + (NH4)2NO3 Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G2

13) The following equation IS balanced: HNO3 + NaHSO3 → NaNO3 + H2O + SO2 Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G2

14) All ionic compounds dissolve in water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global Outcome: G1

15) An aqueous solution is a homogeneous mixture of a substance with water and should be designated with the (l) abbreviation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global Outcome: G1

2 .

16) A strong electrolyte solution contains ionic compounds that completely dissociate in water.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global Outcome: G1

17) An insoluble compound will completely dissolve in water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global Outcome: G1

18) When compounds containing polyatomic ions dissolve, the polyatomic ions usually dissolve as intact units.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global Outcome: G1

19) Li+, Na+, K+ and NH4+ compounds are soluble.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global Outcome: G1

20) Cl-, Br-, and I- are mostly insoluble.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global Outcome: G1

21) Precipitation reactions always occur when two aqueous solutions are mixed.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.6 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global Outcome: G1

22) Mixing two aqueous solutions will always result in formation of a precipitate.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.6 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global Outcome: G1

23) A precipitation reaction occurs when water is formed as a product.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.6 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global Outcome: G1

3 .

24) The key to predicting a precipitation reaction is the formation of an insoluble compound from soluble compounds.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.6 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global Outcome: G1

25) A precipitation reaction will occur when sodium chloride is mixed with potassium nitrate.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.6 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global Outcome: G2

26) A precipitate will form when you mix solutions of potassium chloride and lead nitrate.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.6 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global Outcome: G2

27) We remove the spectator ions from the complete ionic equation to form the net ionic equation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Outcome: G1

28) A net ionic equation shows all ionic species that are present in solution.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Outcome: G1

29) A spectator ion is one that does not actively participate in a chemical reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Outcome: G1

30) Mixing HNO3 (aq) and NaHCO3 (aq) will produce carbon dioxide gas as a product.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global Outcome: G2

31) One of the characteristics of an acid-base reaction is that this type of reaction forms water.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global Outcome: G1

4 .

32) An acid-base reaction always produces a salt plus carbon dioxide.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global Outcome: G2

33) Carbon dioxide gas is a product when an acid reacts with a carbonate or a bicarbonate.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 Learning Outcome: 7.7 Global Outcome: G2

34) The net ionic equation for the reaction of sodium hydroxide plus hydrochloric acid is .

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Outcome: G2

35) An oxidation-reduction reaction must involve reaction with oxygen.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.9 Learning Outcome: 7.8 Global Outcome: G1

36) Evidence of a redox reaction is when a substance reacts with elemental oxygen.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.9 Learning Outcome: 7.8 Global Outcome: G1

37) Evidence of a redox reaction is when one substance transfers protons to another substance.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.9 Learning Outcome: 7.8 Global Outcome: G1

38) In an oxidation-reduction reaction, if one substance loses electrons, then another substance must gain electrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.9 Learning Outcome: 7.8 Global Outcome: G2

39) Combustion reactions emit heat and so can be classified as endothermic.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.9 Learning Outcome: 7.9 Global Outcome: G1

5 .

40) Decomposition reactions usually require energy to initiate the reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.10 Learning Outcome: 7.10a Global Outcome: G1

41) The reaction 2 KClO3 → 2 KCl + 3 O2 would be correctly classified as a decomposition reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.10 Learning Outcome: 7.10a Global Outcome: G2

42) It has been shown that the ozone molecule (O3) can be formed when a single oxygen atom (O) adds to a molecule of oxygen (O2), so this type of reaction is known as a double displacement reaction.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.10 Learning Outcome: 7.10a Global Outcome: G2

7.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A reaction which forms a gaseous product is an example of a(n)________.

A) oxidation-reduction reaction B) combustion reaction C) precipitation reaction D) gas evolution reaction E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global Outcome: G7

2) A reaction which forms a solid product is an example of a(n): A) oxidation-reduction reaction.

B) combustion reaction.

C) precipitation reaction.

D) gas evolution reaction.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global Outcome: G7

6 .

3) A reaction in which a substance reacts with oxygen, emitting heat and forming oxygen-containing compounds is an example of a(n): A) acid-base reaction.

B) combustion reaction.

C) precipitation reaction.

D) gas evolution reaction.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.1 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global Outcome: G7

4) Which of the following is NOT evidence that a chemical reaction has occurred?

A) color change when chemicals are contacted with each other B) solid formation when chemicals are contacted with each other C) gas formation when chemicals are contacted with each other D) emission of light when chemicals are contact with each other E) All of the above are evidence of a chemical reaction.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global Outcome: G7

5) Which of the following is NOT typically a sign of a chemical reaction?

A) absorbing heat when chemicals are contacted with each other B) emission of heat when chemicals are contacted with each other C) emission of light when chemicals are contacted with each other D) absorbing light when chemicals are contacted with each other E) All of the above are signs of a chemical reaction.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global Outcome: G7

6) When water is heated, bubbles form in the water. Is this evidence of a chemical reaction? Why? A) No, boiling water is a physical change.

B) Yes, the formation of a gas is evidence of a chemical reaction.

C) No, the formation of gas bubbles is a secondary chemical reaction which is ignored.

D) Yes, the formation of a gas is proof a new compound has been made.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.2 Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global Outcome: G7

7 .

7) Which of the following statements about balancing reactions is FALSE? A) If there is no coefficient or subscript, a one is implied.

B) When coefficients are added the type of compounds is changed in the chemical reaction.

C) Subscripts are multiplied by the coefficients to determine the number of atoms in a compound.

D) Coefficients are added to compounds to ensure both sides of the reaction have equal numbers of each atom.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.3 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G1

8) Before a chemical equation can be written, one must know: A) the atomic mass of all the elements involved.

B) the molar mass of all the compounds.

C) the symbols and formulas of all reactants and products.

D) the number of moles of all reactants and products.

E) none of the above.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.3 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G1

9) When the equation, ___N2 + ___H2 → ___NH3 is balanced, the coefficient of hydrogen is: A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G2

10) When the equation, ___O2 + ___C5H12 → ___CO2 + ___H2O is balanced, the coefficient: of O2 is: A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 8 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G2

8 .

11) What are the coefficients for the following reaction when it is properly balanced? ___HCl + ___Mg → ___MgCl2 + ___H2 A) 2, 1, 1, 1 B) 2, 1, 2, 2 C) 1, 2, 1/2, 1 D) 1, 1, 1, 2 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G2

12) What are the coefficients for the following reaction when it is properly balanced? ___O2 + ___CH4 → ___CO2 + ___H2O A) 2, 1, 3, 1 B) 2, 3, 2, 2 C) 1, 3, 2, 1 D) 2, 1, 1, 2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G2

13) What are the coefficients for the following reaction when it is properly balanced? ___Na3PO4 + ___Ba(NO3)2 → ___NaNO3 + ___Ba3(PO4)2 A) 2, 1, 1, 3 B) 2, 3, 1, 6 C) 2, 3, 6, 1 D) 6, 1, 3, 2 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G2

9 .

14) What are the coefficients for the following reaction when it is properly balanced? ___nitric acid + ___sodium hydroxide → ___sodium nitrate + ___water A) 2, 1, 1, 1 B) 2, 3, 2, 2 C) 5, 2, 2, 1 D) 1, 1, 1, 1 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G2

15) What are the coefficients for the following reaction when it is properly balanced? ___potassium iodide + ___lead (II) acetate → ___lead (II) iodide +___potassium acetate A) 2, 1, 1, 1 B) 2, 1, 1, 2 C) 3, 2, 2, 1 D) 1, 1, 2, 2 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G2

16) What are the coefficients for the following reaction when it is properly balanced? ___nitrogen monoxide + ___carbon monoxide → ___nitrogen +___carbon dioxide A) 2, 1, 1, 2 B) 2, 2, 1, 2 C) 2, 2, 2, 1 D) 1, 1, 2, 2 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G2

10 .

17) When the equation __Ca3N2 + __H2O → __Ca(OH)2 + __NH3 is balanced, the coefficient of H2O is: A) 2 B) 3 C) 6 D) 12 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G2

18) When the equation __NO2 + __H2O + __O2 → __HNO3 is balanced, the coefficient of HNO3 is: A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G2

19) Which of the following equations is NOT balanced properly?

A) 2Cr + 6HCl → 2CrCl3 + 3H2 B) 2NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O C) Cr2(SO4)3 + 6KOH → 2Cr(OH)3 + 3 K2SO4 D) 4NH3 + 14O2 → 4NO2 + 6H2O E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G2

20) Sodium metal reacts with water to form aqueous sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. Which equation below best describes the balanced equation for this reaction?

A) Na + H2O → NaOH (aq) + H (g) B) S + H2O → SOH (aq) + H (g) C) Na + H2O → NaOH (aq) + H2 (g) D) 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH (aq) + H2 (g) E) 2Na + H2O → Na2OH (aq) + H (g) Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.4 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G2

11 .

21) An aqueous solution is: A) any liquid with another compound dissolved in it.

B) an ionic compound with water dissolved in it.

C) water with a molecular compound dissolved in it.

D) water with another compound dissolved in it.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global Outcome: G1

22) Which of the following compounds is INSOLUBLE? A) potassium acetate B) lithium carbonate C) magnesium bromide D) aluminum sulfide E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global Outcome: G2

23) Which of the following compounds is INSOLUBLE? A) magnesium phosphate B) magnesium sulfate C) magnesium iodide D) magnesium nitrate E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global Outcome: G2

24) Which of the following compounds is SOLUBLE? A) copper carbonate B) calcium carbonate C) potassium carbonate D) strontium carbonate E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global Outcome: G2

12 .

25) Which of the following compounds is SOLUBLE? A) aluminum hydroxide B) aluminum sulfide C) aluminum carbonate D) aluminum sulfate E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global Outcome: G2

26) All of the following compounds are soluble in water EXCEPT: A) NaCl. B) CaCl2.

C) FeCl3.

D) NH4Cl. E) PbCl2.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global Outcome: G2

27) The compound sodium sulfate is soluble in water. When this compound dissolves in water, which ion listed below would be present in solution?

A) SO42B) S2C) O2D) Na22+ E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global Outcome: G2

28) When solid NaCl is stirred into water, which of the following is NOT true?

A) Individual sodium and chloride ions are present.

B) The solution will conduct electricity.

C) The solution will taste salty.

D) The NaCl will fail to dissociate.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global Outcome: G2

13 .

29) Several grams of sodium chloride are stirred into a glass of water and are no longer visible to the eye.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The sodium chloride solid has dissociated into its component ions.

B) An aqueous solution has been prepared.

C) No precipitate has formed.

D) Sodium chloride is insoluble in water.

E) All of the statements are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global Outcome: G9

30) If you had an aqueous mixture that contained Ag+, K+, and Pb2+ cations, how many different solids could precipitate if a chloride solution was added?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) no solids will precipitate Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.5 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global Outcome: G2

31) In writing the chemical equation for a precipitation reaction, what abbreviation of the physical state must appear with one of the products?

A) (s) B) (g) C) (l) D) (w) E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.6 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global Outcome: G1

32) What type of a reaction occurs when a potassium nitrate solution is mixed with a barium acetate solution?

A) precipitation B) acid-base neutralization C) oxidation-reduction D) gas evolution E) no reaction Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.6 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global Outcome: G2

14 .

33) A precipitate is expected to be formed when an aqueous solution of sodium sulfate is added to an aqueous solution of: A) iron(III) chloride.

B) potassium chloride.

C) magnesium chloride.

D) barium chloride.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.6 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global Outcome: G2

34) What would be the formula of the precipitate that forms when Pb(NO 3)2 (aq) and K2SO4 (aq) are mixed?

A) K(NO3)2 B) PbSO4 C) PbK2 D) H2O E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.6 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global Outcome: G2

35) Considering the following precipitation reaction: Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq) Which compound would not form ions in the complete ionic equation?

A) PbI2 B) KNO3 C) Pb(NO3)2 D) KI E) All compounds form ions in the complete ionic equation.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Outcome: G2

15 .

36) Considering the following precipitation reaction: Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq) Which ion would NOT be present in the complete ionic equation?

A) Pb2+ B) K+ C) NO3D) IE) All the above ions are in the complete ionic equation.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Outcome: G2

37) Considering the following precipitation reaction: Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq) Which ion(s) would NOT be present in the net ionic equation?

A) Pb2+, NO3B) K+, NO3C) K+, Pb2+ D) K+, IE) All the above ions are in the net ionic equation.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Outcome: G2

38) Considering the following precipitation reaction: Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq) Which ion(s) would NOT be spectator ions?

A) Pb2+, NO3B) K+, IC) NO3-, Pb2+ D) Pb2+, I E) All the above ions are in the net ionic equation.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Outcome: G2

16 .

39) Considering the following precipitation reaction: Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq) What is the correct complete ionic equation?

A) Pb2+ + (NO3)2- + 2K+ + 2I- → PbI2(s) + 2K+ + 2NO3B) Pb2+ + 2NO3- +2K+ + I- → PbI2(s) + 2K+ + NO3C) Pb2+ + 2NO3- + 2K+ + 2I- → PbI2(s) + 2K+ + 2NO3D) Pb2+ + 2NO3- + 2K+ + 2I- → Pb2+ + 2I- + 2K+ + 2NO3E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Outcome: G2

40) Considering the following precipitation reaction: Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq) What is the correct net ionic equation?

A) Pb2+ + I2- → PbI2(s) B) 2NO3- + 2K+ → 2KNO3 C) Pb2+ + 2NO3- + 2K+ + 2I- → PbI2(s) + 2K+ + 2NO3D) Pb2+ + 2I- → PbI2(s) E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Outcome: G2

41) Which of the following statements about writing molecular, complete and net ionic equations is FALSE? A) A molecular equation is a chemical equation showing the complete, neutral formulas for every compound in a reaction.

B) A complete ionic equation is a chemical equation showing all of the species as they are actually present in solution.

C) A net ionic equation is an equation showing only the species that actually participate in the reaction.

D) A spectator ion remains unchanged in the reaction and appears on both sides of the equation.

E) All of the statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Outcome: G1

17 .

42) Which is a spectator ion from the following complete ionic equation: Ag+(aq) + NO3-(aq) + K+ (aq) + Br-(aq) → AgBr(s) + K+(aq) + NO3- (aq) A) Ag+ B) BrC) K+ D) AgBr E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Outcome: G2

43) Which is a spectator ion from the following complete ionic equation: H+(aq) + Br-(aq) + K+ (aq) + OH-(aq) → H2O(l) + K+(aq) + Br- (aq) A) K+ B) H+ C) OHD) H2O E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.7 Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Outcome: G2

44) Which of the following everyday substances does NOT typically contain an acid?

A) lemons B) vinegar C) soap D) limes E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global Outcome: G1

45) Which of the following is NOT an acid?

A) HClO4 B) HNO3 C) HC2H3O2 D) H2SO4 E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global Outcome: G1

18 .

46) What type of a reaction occurs when a silver nitrate solution is mixed with sodium chloride solution?

A) precipitation B) acid-base neutralization C) oxidation-reduction D) gas evolution E) no reaction Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global Outcome: G7

47) What type of a reaction occurs when a sodium hydroxide solution is mixed with an acetic acid solution?

A) precipitation B) acid-base neutralization C) oxidation-reduction D) gas evolution E) no reaction Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global Outcome: G7

48) What is the net ionic equation for the reaction of hydrochloric acid with potassium hydroxide?

A) H+ + Cl- + K+ + OH- → H2O + K+ + ClB) HCl + KOH → H2O + KCl C) H+ + OH- → H2O D) 2H+ +2Cl- + K2+ + 2OH- → H2O + K2+ +2 ClE) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global Outcome: G7

49) What is the molecular equation for the reaction of hydrochloric acid with potassium hydroxide?

A) H2Cl + 2KOH → H2O +2KCl B) 2HCl + K(OH)2 → 2H2O + KCl2 C) H+ + OH- → H2O D) HCl + KOH → H2O + KCl E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global Outcome: G7

19 .

50) What is the complete ionic equation for the reaction of hydrochloric acid with potassium hydroxide?

A) H+ + Cl- + K+ + OH- → H2O + K+ + ClB) H+ + Cl- + K+ + OH- → 2H+ + O2- + K+ + ClC) H+ + OH- → H2O D) 2H+ +2Cl- + K2+ + 2OH- → H2O + K2+ +2 ClE) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global Outcome: G7

51) When a solution of MgCl2 and one of AgNO3 are mixed, the net ionic equation is: A) Mg2+(aq) + 2Cl-(aq) + 2Ag+(aq) + 2NO3- (aq) → Mg2+(aq) + 2NO3-aq) + 2AgCl(s) B) Mg2+(aq) + 2Cl-(aq) + 2Ag+(aq) + 2NO3- (aq) → Mg(NO3)2 (aq) + 2 AgCl(s) C) Mg2+(aq) + 2NO3-(aq) → Mg(NO3)2(aq) D) Cl-(aq) + Ag+(aq) → AgCl(s) E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global Outcome: G7

52) Which of the following types of compounds will NOT undergo a gas evolution reaction when acid is added?

A) sulfides B) carbonates C) hydroxides D) bisulfites E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 Learning Outcome: 7.7 Global Outcome: G1

53) What is the gas produced when hydrochloric acid is reacted with ammonium carbonate?

A) ammonia B) chlorine C) hydrogen D) carbon dioxide E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 Learning Outcome: 7.7 Global Outcome: G2

20 .

54) What type of a reaction occurs when a hydrochloric acid solution is mixed with a sodium bicarbonate solution?

A) precipitation B) acid-base neutralization C) oxidation-reduction D) gas evolution E) no reaction Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global Outcome: G2

55) Which of the following would NOT be a product from mixing hydrochloric acid with a solution of sodium sulfite?

A) H2O (l) B) SO2 (g) C) NaCl (aq) D) H2 (g) E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 Learning Outcome: 7.7 Global Outcome: G2

56) As defined in the text, identify the "gas evolution" reactions among the following: 1.

2HCl(aq) + K2CO3(aq) → H2O(l) + CO2(g) + 2KCl(aq)

2.

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) 2HCl(aq) + K2S(aq) → H2S(g) + 2KCl(aq)

3.

A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) None of 1, 2, and 3 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.8 Learning Outcome: 7.7 Global Outcome: G7

21 .

57) What type of a reaction occurs when potassium metal reacts with fluorine gas?

A) precipitation B) acid-base neutralization C) oxidation-reduction D) gas evolution E) no reaction Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.9 Learning Outcome: 7.8 Global Outcome: G7

58) Identify the oxidation-reduction reactions among the following: 1.

2.

Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s) 2 Na(s) + Cl2(aq) → 2NaCl(s)

3.

2 Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2 MgO

A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) None of 1, 2, and 3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.9 Learning Outcome: 7.8 Global Outcome: G2

59) Methane gas (CH4), on complete combustion in air, produces: 1.

2.

CO2 H2

3.

H2O

A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1 and 2 only E) None of Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.9 Learning Outcome: 7.9 Global Outcome: G2

22 .

60) A redox reaction has occurred ________.

A) when a substance reacts with elemental oxygen B) when an alkali metal reacts with an alkaline earth metal C) when one substance transfers protons to another D) when one substance forms a solid E) when all of the above occur Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.9 Learning Outcome: 7.8 Global Outcome: G1

61) Which of the following statements about redox reactions is FALSE? A) Oxidation is the loss of electrons.

B) Reduction is the gain of electrons.

C) A reaction can result in either oxidation or reduction, not both.

D) A reaction involving elemental oxygen is a redox reaction.

E) All of the above statement are true.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.9 Learning Outcome: 7.8 Global Outcome: G1

62) The reaction CH4 (g) + 2 O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2 H2O (g) is: A) a combustion reaction.

B) a redox reaction.

C) an exothermic reaction.

D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.9 Learning Outcome: 7.9 Global Outcome: G7

63) What type of reaction is the generic equation A) synthesis/combination B) decomposition C) single displacement D) double-displacement E) none of the above Answer: A

?

Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.10 Learning Outcome: 7.10a Global Outcome: G7

23 .

64) What type of reaction is the generic equation A + BC → AC + B? A) synthesis/combination B) decomposition C) single displacement D) double-displacement E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.10 Learning Outcome: 7.10a Global Outcome: G7

65) What type of reaction is the generic equation A) synthesis/combination B) decomposition C) single displacement D) double-displacement E) none of the above Answer: D

?

Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.10 Learning Outcome: 7.10a Global Outcome: G7

66) What type of reaction is the generic equation A) synthesis/combination B) decomposition C) single displacement D) double-displacement E) none of the above Answer: B

?

Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.10 Learning Outcome: 7.10a Global Outcome: G7

67) What must be supplied for a decomposition reaction to happen?

A) energy B) heat C) electrical current D) light E) any of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.10 Learning Outcome: 7.10a Global Outcome: G1

24 .

68) Identify the double displacement reactions among the following: 1.

KCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq) → AgCl(s) + KNO3(aq)

2.

Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl(aq)

3.

H2SO4((aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na2SO4((aq) + 2H2O(l)

A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) None of 1, 2, and 3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.10 Learning Outcome: 7.10a Global Outcome: G7

69) Which statement about ozone is TRUE? A) Ozone normally forms in the upper atmosphere.

B) Chlorofluorocarbons deplete the ozone layer.

C) Ozone protects life on Earth from harmful ultraviolet light.

D) None of the above statements are true.

E) All the of the first three statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 7.10 Global Outcome: G1

7.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) The mixing of sodium metal and chlorine gas would be the type of reaction known as: A) oxidation-reduction B) gas evolution C) neutralization D) precipitation E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: 7.9 Learning Outcome: 7.8 Global Outcome: G2

2) When the equation, ___O2 + ___C6 H14 → ___CO2 + ___H2O is balanced, the coefficient of O2 is: A) 3 B) 10 C) 19 D) 38 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 7.3 Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Outcome: G2

25 .

Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 8 Quantities in Chemical Reactions 8.1 True/False Questions 1) Greenhouse gases affect the temperature of the earth by blocking sunlight from reaching earth.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.1 Global Outcome: G1|G5

2) Global warming is due to the greenhouse gases preventing heat from Earth escaping into space.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.1 Global Outcome: G1|G5

3) The primary greenhouse gas is carbon dioxide.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.1 Global Outcome: G1|G5

4) The primary source for the rising carbon dioxide levels is respiration of the Earth's growing population.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.1 Global Outcome: G1|G5

5) One of the advantages of burning fossil fuels is that it produces O 2 for humans to breathe.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.1 Global Outcome: G1|G5

6) Stoichiometry is a chemist's version of following a recipe.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.2 Learning Outcome: 8.1 Global Outcome: G1

7) Given the recipe: 2 cups flour + 1 egg + 3 oz blueberries → 4 muffins.

You can make 9 muffins from 3.5 cups of flour.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.2 Learning Outcome: 8.1 Global Outcome: G2

8) Given the recipe: 2 cups flour + 1 egg + 3 oz blueberries → 4 muffins.

You can make 1 dozen muffins from 3 eggs.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.2 Learning Outcome: 8.1 Global Outcome: G2

1 .

9) If it takes 2 cups of milk and 1 cup of cocoa mix to make three servings of hot chocolate, and you only have 1 cup of each, then you cannot make any hot chocolate.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.2 Learning Outcome: 8.1 Global Outcome: G2

10) Given the reaction: 2 Na(s) + Cl2(g) → 2 NaCl(s) The conversion factor for chlorine gas to sodium metal is: 2 mol Cl ≡ 2 mol Na Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Outcome: G2

11) Given the reaction: 2 Na(s) + Cl2(g) → 2 NaCl(s) The conversion factor for chlorine gas to sodium chloride is: 1 mol Cl2 ≡ 2 mol NaCl Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Outcome: G2

12) Given the chemical equation: 2 Ca + O2 → 2 CaO, if 2 moles of CaO are formed in this reaction, then 2 moles of O2 must have reacted.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Outcome: G2

13) Before determining conversion factors, it is necessary to make sure the equation is properly balanced.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Outcome: G1

14) The conversion factor between mass and moles for a compound is the molar mass.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Outcome: G1

15) The conversion factor for moles of carbon dioxide to mass of carbon dioxide is: 1 mole CO2 ≡ 44.01 g.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.3 Global Outcome: G4

2 .

16) The limiting reactant is the reactant that produces the maximum amount of product.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G1

17) The theoretical yield is the amount of each reactant needed in order to make the maximum amount of product.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G1

18) The limiting reactant is the product that is completely consumed in a chemical reaction.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G1

19) The actual yield is the amount of product actually produced by a chemical reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G1

20) The percent yield is calculated by dividing the actual yield by the theoretical yield times 100.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G1

21) Given the recipe: 2 cups flour + 1 egg + 3 oz blueberries → 4 muffins If you have 5 cups of flour, 3 eggs and plenty of blueberries, the limiting reactant is the eggs.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

22) Given the recipe: 2 cups flour + 1 egg + 3 oz blueberries → 4 muffins If you have 9 cups of flour, 4 eggs and plenty of blueberries, the theoretical yield of muffins is 16.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

23) The actual yield is the same as the theoretical yield if the reaction goes to completion and there is no loss of product.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G1

3 .

24) The limiting reactant determines what the actual yield is.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G1

25) The limiting reactant is not necessarily the reactant with the least mass.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G1

26) When viewing a chemical equation, the limiting reactant can never be a chemical on the product side of the equation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

27) The percent yield can never be greater than 100%.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

28) For the following reaction you have 8 grams of hydrogen and 2 grams of oxygen.

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O The limiting reagent is the oxygen.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

29) For the following reaction you have 8 grams of hydrogen and 2 grams of oxygen.

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O The theoretical yield of the reaction is 4 grams of water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

4 .

30) For the following reaction you have 8 grams of hydrogen and 2 grams of oxygen.

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O The excess reactant is the oxygen.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

31) If the theoretical yield of a reaction is 144 grams and the actual yield of the reaction is 72 grams, the percent yield of the reaction is 200%.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

32) The enthalpy of reaction, △H rxn, is the amount of thermal energy that flows when a reaction occurs at constant temperature.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.7 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global Outcome: G1

33) Thermal energy flows into the reaction and out of the surroundings in an endothermic reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.7 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global Outcome: G1

34) An exothermic reaction has a negative enthalpy of reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.7 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global Outcome: G1

35) Since heat must be supplied to melt ice, the melting of ice is an endothermic process and so has a positive enthalpy value.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.7 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global Outcome: G2

36) Given the following generic equation, 2 A + 3B → A2B3 △H rxn = +444 kJ, if you completely reacted 1 mole of compound A, the amount of heat absorbed would be 222 kJ. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.7 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global Outcome: G4

5 .

8.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The average global temperature depends on all factors EXCEPT what?

A) the amount of incoming sunlight B) the amount of outgoing heat lost to space C) the amount of greenhouse gases D) the angle of the earth's surface in relation to the incoming sunlight E) All of the above are factors.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Which of the below statements about global warming is FALSE? A) Some greenhouses gases are needed to keep the proper temperature balance.

B) Greenhouse gases prevent heat from leaving the earth.

C) Greenhouse gases allow sunlight to reach and heat the earth.

D) If the level of greenhouse gases increases, the temperature will decrease.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.1 Global Outcome: G5

3) The primary cause of increasing greenhouse gases is: A) the burning of vast amounts of rain forests.

B) the production of CO2 by respiration.

C) the increased use of natural gas, petroleum and coal.

D) the release of CO2 by decreasing solubility in the ocean.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.1 Global Outcome: G5

4) Which of the following is TRUE? A) Stoichiometry shows the numerical relationship between chemical quantities in a balanced chemical equation.

B) Stoichiometry allows prediction of the amounts of products that form in a chemical reaction based on the amounts of reactants.

C) Stoichiometry allows prediction of how much of the reactants are necessary to form a given amount of product.

D) All of the above are true.

E) None of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.1 Global Outcome: G1

6 .

5) How many waffles can be made from 1 dozen eggs, assuming you have enough of all other ingredients?

Given: 2 cups flour + 3 eggs + 1 tbs oil → 4 waffles A) 48 B) 12 C) 4 D) 16 E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.2 Learning Outcome: 8.1 Global Outcome: G2

6) How many eggs are needed to make 1 dozen waffles, assuming you have enough of all other ingredients?

Given: 2 cups flour + 3 eggs + 1 tbs oil → 4 waffles A) 48 B) 9 C) 12 D) 16 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.2 Learning Outcome: 8.1 Global Outcome: G2

7) Diatomic N2 can react with diatomic H2 to form ammonia (NH3). The balanced chemical equation is: If 6 moles of H2 totally reacted with more than enough N2, how many moles of ammonia would be expected to form?

A) 2 moles B) 3 moles C) 4 moles D) 6 moles E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Outcome: G4

7 .

8) Diatomic O2 can react with the element magnesium to form magnesium oxide (MgO). The balanced chemical equation is: If 4 moles of magnesium totally reacted with more than enough O2, how many moles of MgO would be expected to form?

A) 1 mole B) 2 moles C) 4 moles D) 8 moles E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Outcome: G4

9) How many moles of water are made from complete reaction of 2.2 moles of oxygen gas with hydrogen gas?

Given the reaction: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O A) 4.4 B) 1.1 C) 2.2 D) 3.3 E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Outcome: G4

10) How many moles of water are made from complete reaction of 1.4 moles of hydrogen gas?

Given the reaction: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O A) 2.8 B) 0.7 C) 1.4 D) 2.1 E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Outcome: G4

8 .

11) How many moles of H2 can be made from complete reaction of 3.0 moles of Al? Given: 2 Al + 6 HCl → 2 AlCl3 + 3 H2 A) 3 moles B) 3.0 moles C) 4.5 moles D) 9.0 moles E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Outcome: G4

12) How many moles of aluminum are needed to make 9 moles of molecular hydrogen?

Given the reaction: 2 Al + 6 HCl → 2 AlCl3 + 3H2 A) 2 moles B) 3 moles C) 4 moles D) 6 moles E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Outcome: G4

13) How many moles of chlorine gas are needed to make 0.6 moles of sodium chloride?

Given the reaction: 2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl A) 0.6 B) 0.3 C) 1.2 D) 3.6 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Outcome: G4

14) How many moles of sodium metal are needed to make 3.6 moles of sodium chloride?

Given the reaction: 2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl A) 0.9 B) 7.2 C) 1.8 D) 3.6 E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Outcome: G4

9 .

15) Suppose two chemical reactions are linked together in a way that the O2 produced in the first reaction goes on to react completely with Mg to form MgO in the second reaction.

Reaction one: 2 KClO3 → 3 O2 + 2 KCl Reaction two: 2 Mg + O2 → 2 MgO If you start with 4 moles of KClO3, how many moles of MgO could eventually form?

A) 2 moles B) 4 moles C) 6 moles D) 12 moles E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Outcome: G4

16) Given the balanced equation CH4 + 2 O2 → CO2 + 2 H2O, which of the following is NOT a correct conversion factor?

A) 2 mole H2O = 18.02 g B) 1 mole O2 = 32.00 g C) 1 mole CH4

2 mole H2O

D) 2 mole O2

1 mole CO2

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.3 Global Outcome: G2

17) How many grams of water are made from the reaction of 4.0 grams of hydrogen gas?

Given the reaction: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O A) 18 B) 72 C) 36 D) 4.5 E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.3 Global Outcome: G4

10 .

18) How many grams of water are made from the reaction of 16.0 grams of oxygen gas?

Given the reaction: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O A) 18 B) 9 C) 36 D) 16 E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.3 Global Outcome: G4

19) How many grams of chlorine gas are needed to make 117 grams of sodium chloride?

Given the reaction: 2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl A) 71.0 B) 142 C) 35.5 D) 48.2 E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.3 Global Outcome: G4

20) How many grams of sodium metal are needed to make 29.3 grams of sodium chloride?

Given the reaction: 2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl A) 46.0 B) 5.75 C) 23.0 D) 11.5 E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.3 Global Outcome: G4

21) Given that 4 NH3 + 5 O2 → 4 NO + 6 H2O, when 4.50 mol of H2O are formed, the amount of NO formed is: A) 1.50 mol.

B) 3.00 mol.

C) 4.50 mol.

D) 6.75 mol.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.3 Global Outcome: G4

11 .

22) Given that 4 NH3 + 5 O2 → 4 NO + 6 H2O, if 3.00 mol NH3 were made to react with excess of oxygen gas, the amount of H2O formed would be: A) 2.00 mol.

B) 3.00 mol.

C) 4.50 mol.

D) 6.00 mol.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.3 Global Outcome: G4

23) Iron metal reacts with oxygen to produce iron(III) oxide. If you have 12.0 moles of iron for complete reaction, you need: A) 9.0 moles of O2 and produce 3.0 moles of Fe2O3.

B) 12.0 moles of O2 and produce 24.0 moles of Fe2O3.

C) 9.0 moles of O2 and produce 6.0 moles of Fe2O3.

D) 4.5 moles of O2 and produce 3.0 moles of Fe2O3.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.3 Global Outcome: G4

24) Many metals react with halogens to give metal halides. For example, 2 Al (s) + 3 Cl2(g) → 2 AlCl3 (s) If you begin with 13.5 g of aluminum: A) you will need 23.6 g Cl2 for complete reaction and will produce 66.7 g of AlCl3.

B) you will need 53.2 g Cl2 for complete reaction and will produce 66.7 g of AlCl3.

C) you will need 26.6 g Cl2 for complete reaction and will produce 49.0 g of AlCl3.

D) you will need 11.8 g Cl2 for complete reaction and will produce 49.0 g of AlCl3.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.3 Global Outcome: G4

12 .

25) A chemist wishes to perform the following reaction: N 2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3 If only 14.0 g of N2 is available, what is the minimum amount, in grams, of H2 needed to completely react with this quantity of N2?

A) 1.01 g B) 1.51 g C) 3.03 g D) 6.06 g E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.3 Global Outcome: G4

26) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The limiting reactant is completely consumed in a chemical reaction.

B) The theoretical yield is the amount of product that can be made based on the amount of limiting reagent.

C) The actual yield is the amount of product actually produced by a chemical reaction.

D) The percent yield =

× 100%.

E) All of the above are true statements.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G1

27) Which ingredient is the limiting reactant if you have 5 cups of flour, 9 eggs and 3 tbs of oil?

Given: 2 cups flour + 3 eggs + 1 tbs oil → 4 waffles A) flour B) eggs C) oil D) waffles E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

28) What is the theoretical yield of waffles if you have 5 cups of flour, 9 eggs and 3 tbs of oil?

Given: 2 cups flour + 3 eggs + 1 tbs oil → 4 waffles A) 10 B) 12 C) 6 D) 4 E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

13 .

29) Which ingredient is the limiting reactant if you have 6 cups of flour, 9 eggs and 2 tbs of oil?

Given: 2 cups flour + 3 eggs + 1 tbs oil → 4 waffles A) flour B) eggs C) oil D) waffles E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

30) A tricycle factory uses the following items to produce one tricycle: 3 tires, 1 frame, and 2 pedals.

If the factory has available 270 tires, 90 frames, and 170 pedals, which item would limit the amount of complete tricycles that can be assembled?

A) tires B) frames C) pedals D) both tires and frames are limiting E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

31) What is the theoretical yield of waffles if you have 6 cups of flour, 9 eggs and 2 tbs of oil?

Given: 2 cups flour + 3 eggs + 1 tbs oil → 4 waffles A) 10 B) 12 C) 8 D) 4 E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

32) Consider the following generic chemical equation: 2A + 5B → C + 3D If you react 4 units of A with 10 units of B, which statement is TRUE? A) Substance A will be the limiting reactant.

B) Substance B will be the limiting reactant.

C) There is just enough of A and B so that everything reacts completely.

D) Substance C cannot be formed from this reaction.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

14 .

33) Consider the following generic chemical equation: 2W + 3X → 3Y + Z When 5 units of W and 6 units of X are allowed to react, the limiting reactant would be: A) W B) X C) Y D) Z E) There is no limiting reactant in this situation.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

34) Determine the theoretical yield of C when 3 units of A and 10 units of B are reacted in the following generic chemical equation: 2A + 5B → 4C. A) 3 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

35) Given the balanced equation CO2 + Si → SiO2 + C, if you were to react 1 mole of CO2 with 1 mole of Si, which statement is TRUE? A) The CO2 is the limiting reactant.

B) The Si is the limiting reactant.

C) The SiO2 is the limiting reactant.

D) You have equal stoichiometric amounts of reactants.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

15 .

36) A balanced chemical equation used to prepare ammonium carbonate, (NH 4)2CO3 , is: Which choice of reactant quantities shown below would result in the greatest amount of ammonium carbonate being formed?

A) React 2 moles NH3 , 1 mole CO2 , and 1 mole H2O B) React 2 moles NH3 , 8 moles CO2 , and 8 moles H2O C) React 4 moles NH3 , 1 mole CO2 , and 2 moles H2O D) React 4 moles NH3 , 2 moles CO2 , and 2 moles H2O E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

37) If the theoretical yield of a reaction is 42.0 grams of product and the percent yield is 75%. How many grams were actually produced?

A) 5400 B) 56 C) 32 D) 1.8 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

38) The theoretical yield of a reaction is 75.0 grams of product and the actual yield is 42.0g. What is the percent yield?

A) 75.0 B) 56.0 C) 31.5 D) 178 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

39) What is the theoretical yield of a reaction if 25.0 grams of product were actually produced from a reaction that has a 88% yield?

A) 28.4 B) 22.0 C) 3.52 D) 352 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

16 .

40) What is the limiting reactant for the following reaction given we have 3.4 moles of Ca(NO 3)2 and 2.4 moles of Li3PO4?

Reaction: 3Ca(NO3)2 + 2Li3PO4 → 6LiNO3 + Ca3(PO4)2 A) Ca(NO3)2 B) Li3PO4 C) LiNO3 D) Ca3(PO4)2 E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

41) What is the excess reactant for the following reaction given we have 3.4 moles of Ca(NO 3)2 and 2.4 moles of Li3PO4?

Reaction: 3Ca(NO3)2 + 2Li3PO4 → 6LiNO3 + Ca3(PO4)2 A) Ca(NO3)2 B) Li3PO4 C) LiNO3 D) Ca3(PO4)2 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

42) How many moles of lithium nitrate are theoretically produced if we start with 3.4 moles of Ca(NO 3)2 and 2.4 moles of Li3PO4?

Reaction: 3Ca(NO3)2 + 2Li3PO4 → 6LiNO3 + Ca3(PO4)2 A) 7.2 B) 6.8 C) 1.2 D) 1.1 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

17 .

43) How many grams of calcium phosphate are theoretically produced if we start with 3.40 moles of Ca(NO3)2 and 2.40 moles of Li3PO4?

Reaction: 3Ca(NO3)2 + 2Li3PO4 → 6LiNO3 + Ca3(PO4)2 A) 310 B) 248 C) 1054 D) 351 E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

44) How many grams of NO2 are theoretically produced if we start with 1.20 moles of S and 9.90 moles of HNO3?

Reaction: S + 6HNO3 → H2SO4 + 6NO2 + 2H2O A) 7.20 B) 331 C) 455 D) 786 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

45) What is the limiting reactant for the following reaction given we have 2.6 moles of HCl and of Ca(OH)2?

Reaction: 2HCl + Ca(OH)2 → 2H2O + CaCl2 A) Ca(OH)2 B) HCl C) H2O D) CaCl2 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

18 .

46) What is the excess reactant for the following reaction given we have 2.6 moles of HCl and Ca(OH)2?

of

Reaction: 2HCl + Ca(OH)2 → 2H2O + CaCl2 A) Ca(OH)2 B) HCl C) H2O D) CaCl2 E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

47) How many moles of calcium chloride are theoretically produced for the following reaction given we have 2.6 moles of HCl and 1.4 moles of Ca(OH)2?

Reaction: 2HCl + Ca(OH)2 → 2H2O + CaCl2 A) 0.7 B) 1.0 C) 1.4 D) 1.3 E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

48) How many grams of water are theoretically produced for the following reaction given we have 2.6 moles of HCl and 1.4 moles of Ca(OH)2?

Reaction: 2HCl + Ca(OH)2 → 2H2O + CaCl2 A) 25.2 B) 50.4 C) 46.8 D) 103.6 E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

19 .

49) In order to determine the limiting reactant in a particular reaction, one must know each of the following EXCEPT: A) the mass of each reactant present.

B) the molar mass of each reactant present.

C) the coefficient of each reactant in a balanced equation.

D) the mass of each product formed.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

50) What is the limiting reactant for the reaction below given that you start with 2.50 grams C and 2.50 grams SiO2?

Reaction: C + SiO2 → SiC + O2 A) C B) SiO2 C) SiC D) O2 E) There is no limiting reactant.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

51) What is the limiting reactant for the reaction below given that you start with 10.0 grams of Al and 19.0 grams of O2?

Reaction: 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3 A) Al B) O2 C) Al2O3 D) both Al and O2 E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

20 .

52) What is the excess reactant for the reaction below given that you start with 10.0 grams of Al and of O2?

Reaction: 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3 A) Al B) O2 C) Al2O3 D) both Al and O2 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

53) How many moles of aluminum oxide are produced according to the reaction below given that you start with 10.0 grams of Al and 19.0 grams of O2?

Reaction: 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3 A) 0.396 B) 0.185 C) 0.741 D) 5.00 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

54) How many grams of aluminum oxide are produced according to the reaction below given that you start with 10.0 grams of Al and 19.0 grams of O2?

Reaction: 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3 A) 40.4 B) 5.00 C) 0.185 D) 18.9 E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

21 .

55) If 16.0 grams of aluminum oxide were actually produced, what is the percent yield of the reaction below given that you start with 10.0 g of Al and 19.0 grams of O2?

Reaction: 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3 A) 75.0% B) 100% C) 84.7% D) 39.6% E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

56) A sample of 8.5 g NH3 on oxidation produces 4.5 g of NO. Calculate the percent yield.

Reaction: 4 NH3 + 5 O2 → 4 NO + 6 H2O A) 15 % B) 30% C) 60% D) 70% E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

57) The reaction for the oxidation of NH3 is given as: 4 NH3 + 5 O2 → 4 NO + 6 H2O Under certain conditions the reaction will proceed at 29.8% yield of NO. How many grams of NH 3 must be made to react with excess oxygen to yield 70.5 g of NO? A) 134 B) 237 C) 21.0 D) 2.37 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

22 .

58) How many grams of the excess reactant are left over according to the reaction below given that you start with 10.0 g of Al and 19.0 grams of O2?

Reaction: 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3 A) 8.90 B) 10.1 C) 1.1 D) 14.6 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

59) How many moles of NH3 can be produced by the reaction of 2.00 g of N2 with 3.00 g H2?

Reaction: N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g) A) 0.143 B) 0.0567 C) 0.235 D) 1.00 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

60) Calculate the maximum number of grams of NH3 that can be produced by the reaction of with 3.00 g H2.

Reaction: N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g) A) 0.964 B) 2.43 C) 4.00 D) 17.0 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

23 .

of N2

61) A 24.0 g sample of nitrogen gas reacts with an excess of hydrogen gas to give an actual yield of NH3. What is the percent yield for this reaction?

Reaction: N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g) A) 86.8% B) 73.6% C) 26.4% D) 13.2% E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

62) Which is the excess reactant in the following reaction given that you start with 15.5 g of Na 2S and CuSO4?

Reaction: Na2S + CuSO4 → Na2SO4 + CuS A) Na2S B) CuSO4 C) Na2SO4 D) CuS E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

63) Which is the limiting reactant in the following reaction given that you start with CuSO4?

Reaction: Na2S + CuSO4 → Na2SO4 + CuS A) Na2S B) CuSO4 C) Na2SO4 D) CuS E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

24 .

of Na2S and

64) Which is the limiting reactant in the following reaction given that you start with

of CO2 and

KOH? Reaction: CO2 + 2KOH → K2CO3 + H2O A) K2CO3 B) H2O C) CO2 D) KOH E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

65) What is the theoretical yield in grams of CuS for the following reaction given that you start with of Na2S and CuSO4?

Reaction: Na2S + CuSO4 → Na2SO4 + CuS A) 0.0758 B) 0.198 C) 18.93 D) 7.25 E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

66) What is the percent yield of CuS for the following reaction given that you start with and

CuSO4? The actual amount of CuS produced was Reaction: Na2S + CuSO4 → Na2SO4 + CuS A) 16.1% B) 42.1% C) 18.93% D) 7.25% E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

25 .

.

of Na2S

67) How many grams of the excess reactant remain assuming the reaction goes to completion and that you start with of Na2S and CuSO4?

Reaction: Na2S + CuSO4 → Na2SO4 + CuS A) 0.05 B) 15.45 C) 9.58 D) 5.92 E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

68) Consider the reaction: 2 Al + 3Br2 → 2 AlBr3 Suppose a reaction vessel initially contains 5.0 mole Al and 6.0 mole Br 2. What is in the reaction vessel once the reaction has occurred to the fullest extent possible?

A) 1.0 mole Al; 0 mole Br2; 4.0 mole AlBr3 B) 0 mole Al; 0 mole Br2; 11.0 mole AlBr3 C) 2.0 mole Al; 3.0 mole Br2; 2.0 mole AlBr3 D) 0 mole Al; 1.0 mole Br2; 4.0 mole AlBr3 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.6 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

69) The reaction of one mole of nitrogen gas with three moles of hydrogen gas releases 92 kJ of thermal energy to the surroundings. Which of the following is TRUE? A) This reaction is exothermic.

B) This reaction has a negative enthalpy of reaction.

C) Complete reaction of two moles of nitrogen gas would release 184 kJ of thermal energy in this reaction.

D) All of the above are true.

E) None of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.7 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global Outcome: G7

26 .

70) Consider the following reaction: 2 Mg + O2 → 2 MgO △H rxn = -1203 kJ Calculate the amount of heat (in kJ) associated with complete reaction of 4 moles of Mg. A) -1203 kJ B) -2406 kJ C) -601.5 kJ D) -4812 kJ E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.7 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global Outcome: G4

71) Consider the following equation: CO + 2 H2 → CH3OH △H rxn = -128 kJ Calculate the amount of heat (in kJ) associated with complete reaction of 8.08 g H 2.

A) -1024 kJ B) -1034 kJ C) -256 kJ D) -512 kJ E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 8.7 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global Outcome: G4

27 .

8.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) Suppose a computer manufacturer can build circuit boards according to the following process: 12 resistors + 20 insulators + 8 memory chips → 4 circuit boards.

How many circuit boards could you make using 30 insulators, assuming you have enough of all the other parts?

A) 20 B) 4 C) 10 D) 6 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 8.2 Learning Outcome: 8.1 Global Outcome: G2

2) How many moles of water are needed to react with 2.2 moles of Given:

O+

O?

O → 2 LiOH

A) 4.4 B) 1.1 C) 1.5 D) 2.2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 8.3 Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Outcome: G4

3) How many grams of water are needed to react with 27.2 grams of Given:

O+

O → 2 LiOH

A) 0.910 B) 16.4 C) 1.51 D) 38.94 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 8.4 Learning Outcome: 8.3 Global Outcome: G4

28 .

O?

4) If the theoretical yield of the reaction below corresponds to calculate the percent yield.

Given: O+ O → 2 LiOH

and the actual yield was 60.9 g,

A) 16.0 % B) 71.8 % C) 38.0 % D) 61.4 % E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

5) If the theoretical yield of the reaction below corresponds to 25.3 g and the percent yield of the reaction is known to be reproducibly 81.1%, calculate the actual yield.

Given: O+ O → 2 LiOH A) 20.5 g B) 48.9 g C) 45.8 g D) 81.1 g E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

6) Consider a reaction of chemicals depicted as A + B → C + D. Suppose reaction of 17.8 grams of A with 29.5 grams of B gave 24.7 grams of C. However, the theoretical yield of C for this reaction was 33.3 grams.

What was the percent yield of chemical C? A) 74.2 B) 47.3 C) 11.7 D) 135 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G2

29 .

7) Starting with 156 g Given:

O+

O and 33.3 g

O, decide which reactant is present in limiting quantities.

O → 2 LiOH

A) lithium oxide B) water C) lithium hydroxide D) insufficient data E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 8.5 Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Outcome: G4

8) Hydrochloric acid reacts with barium hydroxide according to the equation: Calculate the heat (in kJ) associated with the complete reaction of 18.2 grams of HCl (aq).

A) -58.9 B) +58.9 C) -29.5 D) -236 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: 8.7 Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global Outcome: G4

30 .

Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 9 Electrons in Atoms and the Periodic Table 9.1 True/False Questions 1) When the elements are arranged in order of increasing number of protons, certain sets of properties recur periodically.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) The early scientists who developed the quantum-mechanical model were bewildered by the model and it altered our fundamental view of matter.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) Light is a type of matter.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Outcome: G1

4) Light travels through space at a speed of 3.00 × 10 8 m/s.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Outcome: G1

5) A red shirt appears red to our eyes because the shirt absorbs the red wavelengths of visible light.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Outcome: G1

6) A particle of light is called a packet.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Outcome: G1

7) A photon represents the mass of a single particle of light.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Outcome: G1

1 .

8) Blue light travels at a faster speed than red light.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Outcome: G1

9) A photon of red light contains the same amount of energy as a photon of blue light.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Outcome: G1

10) The shorter the wavelength of light, the more energy it has.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Outcome: G1

11) Wavelength of visible light determines color.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Outcome: G1

12) The most energetic photons are gamma rays.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global Outcome: G1

13) Visible light makes up the largest portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global Outcome: G1

14) Photons of ultraviolet radiation contain more energy than do photons of violet visible light.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global Outcome: G1

15) X-rays damage biological molecules.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global Outcome: G1

2 .

16) Ultraviolet light produces suntans and sunburns.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global Outcome: G1

17) The heat you feel when you place your hand near a hot object is ultraviolet radiation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global Outcome: G1

18) In order for a substance to be heated in a microwave, it must contain water.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global Outcome: G1

19) The great success of the Bohr model of the atom is that it predicted the emission spectrum lines of multi-electronic elements like helium.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global Outcome: G1

20) Bohr showed that the emission spectrum of hydrogen was continuous with no interruption across the entire visible wavelength range.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global Outcome: G1

21) Each element produces its own unique and distinctive emission spectrum.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global Outcome: G1

22) An emission spectrum results when light emitted by glowing gas is passed through a prism.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global Outcome: G1

23) When an atom absorbs energy, it often re-emits that energy as heat.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global Outcome: G1

3 .

24) The energy of an electron orbit is quantized.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global Outcome: G1

25) The energy of each Bohr orbit increases with increasing value of "n," but levels become more closely spaced as "n" increases.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global Outcome: G1

26) Electrons behave like particles and we can describe their exact paths.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global Outcome: G1

27) An orbital is a probability map showing exactly where an electron can be found in an atom.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Outcome: G1

28) The higher the principal quantum number, the lower the orbital energy.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G1

29) The possible values for the principal quantum numbers are: Answer: FALSE

.

Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G1

30) The subshells of the orbital are represented by the possible letters: s, p, d, or f.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G1

31) A principal shell with a value of n=3 would contain s, p, d, and f orbitals.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G1

4 .

32) The subshells s, p, d, and f all have the same energy as long as they are in the same principal shell.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G1

33) The ground state is when an electron in an atom is excited into the lowest possible vacant orbital.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G1

34) The correct electron configuration for fluorine is: 1s 22s22p5.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G1

35) Transition metal elements always contain at least one "d" block electron.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G1

36) The Pauli exclusion principle states that orbitals may hold no more than two electrons of identical spins.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G1

37) The orbital diagram for fluorine shows 1 unpaired electron in a p orbital.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G1

38) The correct electron configuration for magnesium is: 1s22s22p63s3.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.7 Global Outcome: G2

39) The element manganese (symbol = Mn) has five valence electrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global Outcome: G2

5 .

40) Bromine has 17 valence electrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global Outcome: G2

41) Bromine has 28 core electrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global Outcome: G2

42) The elements will lose or gain electrons as needed to have an electron configuration that matches a noble gas.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.8 Learning Outcome: 9.8 Global Outcome: G2

43) The ionization energy of lithium is higher than that of fluorine.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global Outcome: G2

44) The atomic size of lithium is larger than the atomic size of nitrogen.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global Outcome: G2

45) Based on relative location on the periodic table, a carbon atom is larger in atomic size than a phosphorous atom.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global Outcome: G2

46) Based on relative location on the periodic table, vanadium (symbol = V) is expected to have more metallic character than selenium (symbol = Se).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global Outcome: G2

6 .

9.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the statements about light is FALSE? A) Light travels through space at a speed of 3.00 × 10 8 m/s.

B) Light travels much faster than sound.

C) A packet of light energy is called a photon.

D) A characteristic feature of light that determines its color is its wavelength.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) The distance between adjacent wave crests is called: A) wavelength.

B) frequency.

C) trough.

D) nu.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) The number of cycles of a wave that passes a stationary point in one second is called its: A) wavelength.

B) frequency.

C) crest.

D) trough.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Outcome: G1

4) Which among the following statements is TRUE? A) The wavelength of light is inversely related to its energy.

B) As the energy increases, the frequency of radiation decreases.

C) As the wavelength increases, the frequency also increases.

D) Red light has a shorter wavelength than violet light.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Outcome: G1

7 .

5) How are wavelength and frequency of light related?

A) Wavelength is one-half of the frequency.

B) Wavelength is double the frequency.

C) Wavelength increases as frequency increases.

D) Wavelength increases as the frequency decreases.

E) Wavelength is independent of frequency.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Outcome: G1

6) Which color of the visible spectrum has the shortest wavelength (400 nm)?

A) red B) orange C) green D) violet E) yellow Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global Outcome: G1

7) Which color of the visible spectrum has the longest wavelength (750 nm)?

A) red B) orange C) green D) violet E) yellow Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global Outcome: G1

8) Which color of the visible spectrum has photons with the most energy?

A) red B) orange C) green D) violet E) yellow Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Outcome: G1

8 .

9) What is the correct order of the electromagnetic spectrum from shortest wavelength to longest?

A) Gamma Rays→X-rays→Ultraviolet Radiation→Visible Light→Infrared Radiation→Microwaves→Radio Waves B) Visible Light→Infrared Radiation→Microwaves→Radio Waves→Gamma Rays→X-rays→Ultraviolet Radiation C) Radio Waves→X-rays→Ultraviolet Radiation→Visible Light→Infrared Radiation→Microwaves→Gamma Rays D) Gamma Rays→X-rays→Visible Light→Ultraviolet Radiation→Infrared Radiation→Microwaves→Radio Waves E) Gamma Rays→X-rays→Infrared Radiation→Visible Light→Ultraviolet Radiation→Microwaves→Radio Waves Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global Outcome: G1

10) Which form of electromagnetic radiation has the shortest wavelength?

A) Radio Waves B) Microwaves C) X-rays D) Gamma Rays E) Infrared Radiation Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global Outcome: G1

11) Which form of electromagnetic radiation has the longest wavelength?

A) Radio Waves B) Microwaves C) X-rays D) Gamma Rays E) Infrared Radiation Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global Outcome: G1

12) Which form of electromagnetic radiation has the highest frequency?

A) Radio Waves B) Microwaves C) X-rays D) Gamma Rays E) Infrared Radiation Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global Outcome: G1

9 .

13) Which form of electromagnetic radiation has the lowest frequency?

A) Radio Waves B) Microwaves C) X-rays D) Gamma Rays E) Infrared Radiation Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global Outcome: G1

14) Which form of electromagnetic radiation has photons with the highest energy?

A) Radio Waves B) Microwaves C) X-rays D) Gamma Rays E) Infrared Radiation Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global Outcome: G1

15) Which form of electromagnetic radiation has photons with the lowest energy?

A) Radio Waves B) Microwaves C) X-rays D) Gamma Rays E) Infrared Radiation Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global Outcome: G1

16) What happens to an atom when it absorbs energy?

A) The atom stores the energy for later use.

B) The extra energy increases the speed of the electrons in their orbitals.

C) The atom re-emits the energy as heat.

D) The atom re-emits the energy as light.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global Outcome: G1

10 .

17) When sunlight is passed through a prism, what is observed?

A) continuous spectrum B) nothing C) bright spots and lines D) white light E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global Outcome: G1

18) When neon light is passed through a prism, what is observed?

A) continuous spectrum B) nothing C) bright spots or lines D) white light E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global Outcome: G1

19) Which statement below does NOT follow the Bohr Model?

A) When energy is absorbed by atoms, the electrons are promoted to higher-energy orbits.

B) When an atom emits light, electrons fall from a higher orbit into a lower orbit.

C) The energy emitted from a relaxing electron can have any wavelength.

D) Electrons exist in specific, quantized orbits.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.4 Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global Outcome: G1

20) Which of the following statements about the quantum-mechanical model is FALSE? A) Orbitals are a probability map of finding electrons.

B) Electrons do not behave as particles.

C) Orbitals are specific paths electrons follow.

D) Electron paths cannot be described exactly.

E) All of the above are correct statements.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.5 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Outcome: G1

11 .

21) The principal quantum number (n): A) specifies the 3-D shape of the orbital.

B) specifies the subshell of the orbital.

C) specifies the maximum number of electrons.

D) specifies the principal shell of the orbital.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Outcome: G1

22) The subshell letter: A) specifies the 3-D shape of the orbital.

B) specifies the principal quantum number of the orbital.

C) specifies the maximum number of electrons.

D) specifies the principal shell of the orbital.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Outcome: G1

23) How many subshells are there in the n = 4 principal shell?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Outcome: G1

24) How many subshells are there in the n = 2 principal shell?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Outcome: G1

12 .

25) The n = ________ principal shell is the lowest that may contain a d-subshell.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Outcome: G1

26) Which subshell letter corresponds to a spherical orbital?

A) s B) p C) d D) f E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Outcome: G1

27) Which subshell letter corresponds to a 4-leaf clover orbital pattern?

A) s B) p C) d D) f E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Outcome: G1

28) Which statement is NOT true about "p" orbitals?

A) A subshell contains three "p" orbitals.

B) These orbitals are shaped like dumbbells.

C) A 3p orbital has a higher energy than a 2p orbital.

D) All three of these statements are true.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Outcome: G1

13 .

29) The "d" subshell can hold a maximum of ________ electrons.

A) 2 B) 5 C) 6 D) 10 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Outcome: G1

30) How many electrons can exist in an orbital?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Outcome: G1

31) The lowest energy orbital in the quantum-mechanical model is the: A) zero orbital.

B) 1a orbital.

C) 1p orbital.

D) 1s orbital.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Outcome: G1

32) "When filling orbitals of equal energy, electrons fill them singly first with parallel spins." This is known as: A) Hund's rule.

B) Pauli exclusion principle.

C) Bohr's model.

D) Ground state.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Outcome: G1

14 .

33) The subshell that has three orbitals and can hold up to six electrons is the: A) s subshell B) p subshell C) d subshell D) f subshell E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Outcome: G1

34) The subshell that has five orbitals and can hold up to ten electrons is the: A) d subshell B) f subshell C) s subshell D) p subshell E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Outcome: G1

35) Which orbital would the electron of a ground state hydrogen atom occupy?

A) 1s B) 2p C) 0s D) 1p E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G2

36) How many electrons are unpaired in the orbitals of carbon?

A) 12 B) 6 C) 4 D) 2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G2

15 .

37) How many electrons are unpaired in the orbitals of nitrogen?

A) 14 B) 5 C) 9 D) 3 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G2

38) An accepted abbreviation format is to write an electron configuration that includes a noble gas symbol in brackets. If you were writing an electron configuration for a bromine atom, which elemental symbol would you place in the bracket?

A) He B) Ne C) Ar D) Kr E) Xe Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G2

39) Which element is represented by the electron configuration 1s22s22p2?

A) C B) He C) Be D) O E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G2

40) What is the electron configuration for Kr? A) 1s22s22p63s23p43d104s24p6 B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d24p6 C) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p6 D) 1s22s22p63s23p24s23d104p6 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G2

16 .

41) What is the electron configuration for Ga? A) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p6 B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p1 C) 1s22s22p63s23p53d104s24p1 D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s24d104p1 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G2

42) What is the electron configuration for P? A) [Ar]3s23p64s23d104p3 B) [Ne]1s21p62s22p3 C) [Ne]3s23p3 D) [Ar]3s23p3 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G2

43) Which one of the following is the correct orbital diagram for nitrogen?

A) ↑↓ ↓ ↓ ↑ B) ↓ ↑ ↑ C) ↑ ↑ ↑ D) ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑ E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.6 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G2

44) The element with a completely filled p-subshell is: A) Na. B) Al. C) P. D) Ar. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G2

17 .

45) What is the element in which at least one electron is in the d-orbital?

A) Ar B) K C) Ca D) Sc E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G2

46) How many core electrons are in a chlorine atom?

A) 1 B) 17 C) 10 D) 7 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global Outcome: G2

47) How many valence electrons are in a chlorine atom?

A) 1 B) 17 C) 10 D) 7 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global Outcome: G2

48) What do the alkali metals all have in common?

A) They all undergo similar reactions.

B) They all have similar physical properties.

C) They all form +1 ions.

D) They all have the same number of valence electrons.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.7 Global Outcome: G2

18 .

49) Which of the following elements has the electron configuration of 3s 23p4 in its outermost shell?

A) Al B) Si C) S D) Cl E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global Outcome: G2

50) Chlorine and bromine have very similar chemical properties. This is best explained by the fact that both elements: A) are gases.

B) are in period 3 of the Periodic Table.

C) have the same number of valence electrons.

D) have equal number of protons and electrons.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.8 Learning Outcome: 9.8 Global Outcome: G2

51) Consider the electron configuration of the ion to determine which ion shown below has an incorrect ionic charge?

A) Al3B) Se2C) Rb+ D) Ba2+ E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.8 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G2

52) Which one of the following species has the electron configuration of 1s22s22p6?

1. Na+ 2. O23. FA) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) Neither 1, 2, or 3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.8 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G2

19 .

53) If the electron configuration of a ground state sodium atom is 1s22s22p63s1, the electron configuration of the sodium cation (Na+) would be: A) 1s22s22p63s2 B) 1s22s22p6 C) 1s22s22p63s1 D) 1s12s22p63s1 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.8 Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Outcome: G2

54) Choose the answer that best completes the following statement: When an aluminum atom reacts so as to attain a noble gas electron configuration, A) the atom gains five electrons.

B) the result is a configuration of 1s22s22p6.

C) a 3- ion forms.

D) the noble gas configuration of argon is achieved.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.8 Learning Outcome: 9.8 Global Outcome: G2

55) The size of an atom generally increases: A) down a group and from right to left across a period.

B) up a group and from left to right across a period.

C) down a group and from left to right across a period.

D) up a group and from right to left across a period.

E) up a group and diagonally across the Periodic Table.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global Outcome: G2

56) Which of the following elements has the lowest ionization energy?

A) Rb B) Na C) C D) F E) He Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global Outcome: G2

20 .

57) Which of the following elements has the highest ionization energy?

A) Ba B) Ca C) Al D) Cl E) Ne Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global Outcome: G2

58) Which of the following atoms is the largest?

A) Li B) Na C) K D) Rb E) Cs Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global Outcome: G2

59) Which of the following atoms is the smallest?

A) Li B) Be C) B D) O E) Ne Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global Outcome: G2

60) Which of the following atoms has the least metallic character?

A) Li B) Na C) K D) Rb E) Cs Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global Outcome: G2

21 .

61) Which of the following atoms has the greatest metallic character?

A) Cs B) Be C) Cu D) Ti E) Au Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global Outcome: G2

9.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) Which color of visible light has a wavelength in between that of blue and violet light?

A) green B) yellow C) red D) indigo E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 9.2 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global Outcome: G1

2) Which one of the following types of electromagnetic radiation has a higher energy per photon than visible radiation?

A) microwave B) ultraviolet C) radio D) infrared E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: 9.3 Learning Outcome: 9.2 Global Outcome: G1

3) How many core electrons are in a ground state atom of arsenic?

A) 15 B) 33 C) 28 D) 5 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 9.7 Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global Outcome: G2

22 .

4) Which of the atoms represented below is the largest in size?

A) N B) As C) Sb D) Bi E) P Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 9.9 Learning Outcome: 9.9 Global Outcome: G2

23 .

Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding 10.1 True/False Questions 1) Bonding theories are used to predict how atoms bond together to form molecules.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Drugs to fight HIV have been developed using bonding theory models.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) Li : is the proper Lewis structure (dot structure) for lithium.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.2 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global Outcome: G1

4) A chemical bond is classified as a covalent bond if it involves the transfer of electrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.2 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global Outcome: G1

5) The Lewis structure of oxygen should have 8 valence electrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.2 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global Outcome: G1

6) Lewis structures only use the valence electrons in determining the bonding.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.2 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global Outcome: G1

7) Having eight valence electrons is very stable and is called an octet.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.2 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global Outcome: G1

8) A correct Lewis structure for an atom of carbon would have eight dots surrounding the symbol of the element.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.2 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global Outcome: G1

1 .

9) The correct Lewis structure for potassium in KCl is K+.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.3 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global Outcome: G2

10) Chlorine has 8 valence electrons in the Lewis structure for KCl. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.3 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global Outcome: G2

11) The Lewis theory predicts that the formula for a compound of magnesium and sulfur is MgS 2.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.3 Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global Outcome: G2

12) The Lewis theory predicts that the formula for a compound made of sodium and fluorine is NaF. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.3 Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global Outcome: G2

13) Lewis theory predicts that the formula for a compound made of aluminum and phosphorus is AlP. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.3 Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global Outcome: G2

14) The Lewis structure of water has two sets of lone pair electrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

15) The structure

is a proper representation of the bonding in the H2 molecule.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

16) The Lewis structure for O2 contains a triple bond.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

2 .

17) The double bond is shorter and stronger than a single bond.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G1

18) The triple bond present in diatomic nitrogen, N2, is what makes this molecule so reactive.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G1

19) When calculating the number of electrons for the Lewis structure of a polyatomic ion, subtract one electron for each negative charge.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G1

20) The correct Lewis structure for

shows that the molecule contains two double bonds.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

21) The correct Lewis structure for CO2 shows that the carbon atom has two sets of lone pair electrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

22) When calculating the number of electrons for the Lewis structure of a polyatomic ion, you must add one electron for each negative charge and subtract one electron for each positive charge.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G1

23) The sulfate ion contains 28 valence electrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

24) The ammonium ion contains 10 valence electrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

3 .

25) Boron forms compounds that violate the octet rule.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

26) Resonance structures are the best representation we can draw but do not accurately reflect the true structure.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.6 Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global Outcome: G1

27) Carbon monoxide contains resonance Lewis structures.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.6 Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global Outcome: G2

28) The VSEPR theory predicts that the angle between the central carbon atom and the two oxygen atoms in CO2 measures 180°.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G2

29) The VSEPR theory predicts that the H-C-H angle in CH4 measures 120°.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G2

30) It is important to identify lone pairs around a central atom because they do not repel other electron groups.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G1

31) The electron geometry of a molecule is never the same as its molecular geometry.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G1

32) When you have 2 electron groups and none are lone pairs, the molecular geometry is linear.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G1

4 .

33) When you have 4 electron groups and 1 of them is a lone pair, the molecular geometry is bent.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G1

34) When you have 4 electron groups and none of them are lone pairs, the molecular geometry is trigonal pyramidal.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G1

35) When you have 4 electron groups, the electron geometry is tetrahedral.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G1

36) The compound H2S contains polar bonds but the molecule is nonpolar.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G2

37) Water and oil do not mix because water molecules are nonpolar and molecules that compose oil are generally polar.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G1

5 .

10.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements about Lewis structures is FALSE? A) An octet is when an atom has 8 valence electrons.

B) A duet is a stable electron configuration for helium.

C) An ionic bond occurs when electrons are transferred.

D) A covalent bond occurs when electrons are shared.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.2 Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Which Lewis structure below correctly represents KCl? A) K⁺ [

]⁻

B) K⁺ [:

:]⁻

C) K :

D) :

:

::

:

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.3 Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global Outcome: G2

3) Which Lewis structure below correctly represents the compound formed between magnesium and sulfur?

A) Mg⁺ [:

:]⁻

B) Mg⁺ [:

:]⁻2 Mg⁺

C) [:

:]⁻ Mg⁺2 [:

D) Mg⁺2 [:

:]⁻

:]⁻2

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.3 Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global Outcome: G2

6 .

4) The Lewis model predicts that the formula of a compound formed between bromine and aluminum is: A) AlBr B) Al2Br C) AlBr3 D) AlBr2 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.3 Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global Outcome: G2

5) The Lewis model predicts that the formula for a compound between fluorine and calcium is: A) CaF B) Ca2F C) CaF2 D) CaF3 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.3 Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global Outcome: G2

6) The Lewis model predicts that the formula for a compound between barium and sulfur is: A) BaS B) Ba2S C) BaS2 D) BaS3 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.3 Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global Outcome: G2

7) The Lewis model predicts that the formula for a compound between potassium and sulfur is: A) KS B) K2S C) KS2 D) K3S E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.3 Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global Outcome: G2

7 .

8) When a nonmetal bonds with a nonmetal: A) a molecular compound forms.

B) a covalent bond is involved.

C) electrons are shared.

D) all of the above are true E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G1

9) What is the correct Lewis structure for water?

A) H-:

B) :

:-H

-

-

C) H=

=H

D) H-

-H

:

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

10) What is the correct Lewis structure for Br2?

A) Br-Br B) :

-

C)

=

:

D) : Br≡ Br : E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

8 .

11) What is the correct Lewis structure for O2?

A) O-O B) :

-

C)

=

:

D) : O ≡ O : E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

12) What is the correct Lewis structure for N2?

A) N-N B) :

-

C)

=

:

D) : N ≡ N : E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

13) How many bonding electrons are in the Lewis structure of N 2?

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

9 .

14) How many bonding electrons are in the Lewis structure of carbon monoxide, CO? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

15) The Lewis structure for carbon monoxide is A) 4 lone pairs and 1 bonding pair.

B) 4 lone pairs and 3 bonding pairs.

C) 2 lone pairs and 3 bonding pairs.

D) 2 lone pairs and 1 bonding pair.

E) none of the above Answer: C

This structures shows:

Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

16) Which sequence below represents the proper order of increasing bond strength?

A) single < double < triple B) double < single < triple C) single < triple < double D) triple < double < single E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.4 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G1

17) How many valence electrons are in the nitrate ion?

A) 18 B) 22 C) 23 D) 24 E) 26 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

10 .

18) The total number of electrons to be counted for the Lewis structure of the PO 43- polyatomic ion is: A) 8.

B) 26.

C) 29.

D) 32.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

19) The central atom in the chlorate anion, ClO3- is surrounded by: A) two bonding and two unshared pairs of electrons.

B) one bonding and three unshared pairs of electrons.

C) three bonding and one unshared pair of electrons.

D) two double bonds and no unshared pairs of electrons.

E) none of the above.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

20) The central atom in the chlorite anion, ClO2- is surrounded by: A) one bonding and three unshared pairs of electrons.

B) two bonding and two unshared pairs of electrons.

C) two bonding and one unshared pair of electrons.

D) two double bonds and no unshared pairs of electrons.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

21) What is the correct Lewis structure for CO2?

A) :

-

-

:

B) :

=

=

:

C) :

= C=

:

D) :

= C=

:

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

11 .

22) The Lewis structure, [:

-

=

] best represents:

A) NO2+ B) NO2C) NO2 D) both NO2+ and NO2E) answers A, B, and C Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

23) What is the correct Lewis structure for CN⁻?

A) [C-N]⁻ B) [:

-

:]⁻

C) [

=

:]⁻

D) [: C≡ N :]⁻ E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

24) The correct Lewis structure for BF3 would have exactly: A) 1 double bond.

B) 2 double bonds.

C) 1 triple bond.

D) no double bonds.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

12 .

25) Which molecule below would have a Lewis structure that is an exception to the octet rule?

A) BH3 B) NO C) SI6 D) PF5 E) all of these Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

26) Which symbol should be used between two structures that represent resonance structures?

A) → B) ← C) ↔ D) ≡ E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.6 Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global Outcome: G1

27) Which set shows the correct resonance structures for SeO2?

A) :

-

-

:↔

=

=

B) :

=

-

:↔:

-

=

C) :

=Se=

D)

=

-

:

↔ : O≡ Se-

:↔ :

:↔:

=

-

-Se≡ O :

E) SeO2 does not have a resonance structure.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.6 Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global Outcome: G2

13 .

28) Which of the following compounds have resonance structures?

A) CH4 B) H2O C) NH3 D) O3 E) None of the compounds have resonance structures.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.6 Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global Outcome: G2

29) Consider the Lewis structures for the compound SO3 and the polyatomic ions SO32- and SO42-.

Which of these must exist as a set of resonance structures?

A) SO3 only B) SO32- only C) SO42- only D) all of these show resonance E) none of these show resonance Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.6 Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global Outcome: G2

30) Which one of the following molecules is NOT capable of having resonance structures?

A) SeO2 B) H2O C) SO2 D) O3 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.6 Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global Outcome: G2

31) What is the angle between electron groups in the linear electron geometry?

A) 90° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) 180° E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G1

14 .

32) What is the angle between electron groups in the trigonal planar electron geometry?

A) 90° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) 180° E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G1

33) What is the angle between electron groups in the tetrahedral geometry?

A) 90° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) 180° E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G1

34) Which of the following is considered a single electron group?

A) a lone pair of electrons B) a single bond C) a double bond D) a triple bond E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G1

35) What is the electron geometry if you have 4 electron groups around the center atom?

A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) trigonal bipyramidal E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G1

15 .

36) What is the electron geometry if you have 2 electron groups around the center atom?

A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) trigonal bipyramidal E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G1

37) What is the electron geometry if you have 3 electron groups around the center atom?

A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) trigonal bipyramidal E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G1

38) What is the molecular geometry if you have 3 single bonds and 1 lone pair around the central atom?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G1

39) What is the molecular geometry if you have 4 single bonds around the central atom?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G1

16 .

40) What is the molecular geometry if you have a double bond, a single bond and 1 lone pair around the central atom?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G1

41) What is the molecular geometry of ozone, O3?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G2

42) Which of the following compounds would have a linear molecular geometry?

1. N2 2. H2S 3. CO2 A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3 E) neither 1, 2,or 3 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G2

43) What is the molecular geometry of carbon dioxide, A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G2

17 .

?

44) What is the molecular geometry of PH3?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G2

45) What is the molecular geometry of SiH4?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G2

46) What is the molecular geometry of CCl4?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G2

47) What is the molecular geometry of SCl2?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G2

18 .

48) What is the molecular geometry of NH4+?

A) bent B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G2

49) The electron geometry and the molecular geometry of ammonia (NH3) are, respectively: A) trigonal planar, bent.

B) tetrahedral, tetrahedral.

C) tetrahedral, trigonal pyramidal.

D) tetrahedral, bent.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G2

50) The electron geometry and the molecular geometry of water are, respectively: A) trigonal planar, bent.

B) tetrahedral, tetrahedral.

C) tetrahedral, trigonal pyramidal.

D) tetrahedral, bent.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G2

51) Which of the following has a tetrahedral electron geometry and a trigonal pyramidal molecular geometry?

A) Br2O B) GeH4 C) SO2 D) PF3 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G2

19 .

52) Which term matches the definition: A separation of charge within a bond?

A) coulombic attraction B) dipole moment C) pure covalent D) nonpolar covalent E) electronegativity Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G1

53) The elements with the highest electronegativity values tend to be found in the: A) upper right-side of the periodic table.

B) lower right-side of the periodic table.

C) upper left-side of the periodic table.

D) lower left-side of the periodic table.

E) center of the periodic table.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G1

54) Which term matches the definition: The ability of an element to attract electrons within a covalent bond?

A) coulombic attraction B) dipole moment C) polar covalent D) nonpolar covalent E) electronegativity Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G1

55) Which molecule listed below has a nonpolar covalent bond?

A) NaCl B) H2O C) H2 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G2

20 .

56) Which molecule listed below has a polar covalent bond?

A) NaCl B) H2O C) H2 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G2

57) Which molecule listed below is a polar molecule?

A) NH3 B) H2O C) HCN D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G2

58) Which substance listed below is a polar molecule?

A) NH4+ B) Cl2O C) SiCl4 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G2

59) Which molecule listed below is a nonpolar molecule?

A) CCl4 B) CO2 C) BH3 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G2

21 .

60) Which compound listed below will dissolve in water?

A) CCl4 B) SiO2 C) NH3 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G2

61) Which compound listed below will dissolve in NH 3?

A) H2S B) CO2 C) O2 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G2

62) Which compound listed below will dissolve in carbon tetrachloride, CCl 4?

A) NaCl B) CS2 C) NH3 D) all of the compounds E) none of the compounds Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G2

63) Which of the following statements is TRUE for the covalent molecule HCl? A) Chlorine is more electronegative and the shared electron pair is likely to be found on the hydrogen atom.

B) Chlorine is more electronegative and the shared electron pair is likely to be found on the chlorine atom.

C) Hydrogen is more electronegative and the shared electron pair is likely to be found on the hydrogen atom.

D) Hydrogen is more electronegative and the shared electron pair is likely to be found on the chlorine atom.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G2

22 .

64) Which of the following statements about the water molecule is TRUE? A) A water molecule has two dipole moments and they cancel each other.

B) A water molecule is symmetrical and therefore is nonpolar.

C) A water molecule is asymmetric and therefore is polar.

D) The electronegativities of hydrogen and oxygen are equal and therefore a water molecule is nonpolar.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G2

65) Which of the following statements are TRUE about the BF 3 molecule?

A) BF3 has a trigonal planar molecular geometry.

B) BF3 violates the octet rule for the central atom.

C) BF3 is nonpolar.

D) All of the above statements are true.

E) None of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G2

66) The electronegativity value for N is 3.0 and that for O is 3.5. Based on these values, which of the following statements is TRUE about the compound NO? A) NO is an ionic compound.

B) NO is a pure covalent compound.

C) NO is a polar covalent compound.

D) There is not enough enough information to determine the nature of NO. E) None of the above statements is true.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G2

67) The electronegativity value for Mg is 1.2 and the value for O is 3.5. Based on these values, what type of bond is expected for a compound formed between Mg and O? A) ionic B) pure covalent C) polar covalent D) not enough information E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G2

23 .

68) Consider the following electronegativity values: Which molecule below would you expect to have the more polar bond?

A) H2 B) Cl2 C) F2 D) HCl E) HF Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G2

69) Which compound below is a polar molecule AND has a linear molecular geometry?

A) CO B) CO2 C) CH4 D) H2O E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G7

70) How does soap work?

A) Soap works by breaking grease molecules into smaller molecules that dissolve in water.

B) Soap works by making water into a nonpolar liquid which grease can dissolve in.

C) Soap works by having a polar end and a nonpolar end which allows the water and oil to interact indirectly.

D) Soap works by having a polar end which attaches to the grease molecule and polarizes it and turns the grease molecule into another soap molecule. This is a chain reaction.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 10.8 Learning Outcome: 10.6 Global Outcome: G1

24 .

10.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) How many lone electron pairs does the ClO (-1 charged) polyatomic anion have?

A) one B) three C) six D) two E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: 10.5 Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Outcome: G2

2) When a molecule has four electron groups with none of them lone pairs, the molecular geometry will be: A) linear B) bent C) trigonal pyramidal D) tetrahedral E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 10.7 Learning Outcome: 10.5 Global Outcome: G2

25 .

Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 11 Gases 11.1 True/False Questions 1) Straws work because sucking creates a pressure difference.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.1 Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Gases are a collection of particles in constant, unpredictable motion.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) Gas particles act independently of each other.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global Outcome: G1

4) Gas particles lose energy every time they collide with each other or the container wall.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global Outcome: G1

5) There is a large distance between gas particles as compared to their relative size.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global Outcome: G1

6) As you increase temperature, you increase the average energy of the gas particles.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global Outcome: G1

7) Gases and liquids are compressible, but solids are not.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global Outcome: G1

1 .

8) Gases fill the entire volume of their container.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global Outcome: G1

9) The expected order of density for matter is gases < liquids < solids.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global Outcome: G1

10) Pressure is calculated by: P =

.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global Outcome: G1

11) The unit of pressure known as the atmosphere (atm) is defined as the average pressure found at the top of Mount Everest.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global Outcome: G1

12) Pressure depends on how many gas particles are in a container.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global Outcome: G1

13) As we climb a mountain to a higher altitude, we experience a pressure decrease.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global Outcome: G1

14) If the column of mercury in a barometer drops to a lower reading, this means the measured pressure has decreased.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global Outcome: G1

15) A pedometer is a device created by Torricelli to measure pressure.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.2 Global Outcome: G1

2 .

16) The conversion factor for pressure is 1 mm Hg = 1 atm.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global Outcome: G1

17) One atmosphere of pressure is equivalent to 760 psi.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global Outcome: G1

18) Boyle's law states that as the volume of a gas increases so does the pressure.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.4 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global Outcome: G1

19) A sealed bag of potato chips will expand when taken to a higher altitude. This is an example of Boyle's law.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.4 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global Outcome: G2

20) The volume of a gas is independent of the temperature.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Outcome: G1

21) For all gas law calculations, the temperature must be in kelvins.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Outcome: G1

22) Charles's Law provides an explanation of why hot air balloons float.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Outcome: G1

23) Absolute zero refers to 0°C. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Outcome: G1

3 .

24) If the kelvin temperature of a gas is doubled, the volume is doubled provided that the pressure and the number of particles remains constant.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Outcome: G2

25) The volume of a gas and the number of particles is inversely proportional.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.7 Global Outcome: G1

26) One mole of F2 gas at STP would take up twice the volume of one mole of Ar gas at STP. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.7 Global Outcome: G2

27) If the number of gas particles is halved, the volume of the gas will be halved given that the temperature and pressure do not change.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.7 Global Outcome: G2

28) If the number of gas particles is tripled, the volume will be 1/3 of the original given that temperature and pressure do not change.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.7 Global Outcome: G2

29) If a slow leak in an inner tube has reduced the volume of the tube to one-third its original inflated volume, this means that one-third of the moles of gas have escaped the tube. (Assume constant temperature and pressure.)

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.7 Global Outcome: G2

30) If you had a five liter balloon of argon gas and a five liter balloon of xenon gas, and you removed 10 grams of gas from each balloon, the balloons would both shrink down to the same size.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.7 Global Outcome: G2

4 .

31) Aerosol spray cans contain gas trapped in a fixed volume and cans of this type can explode if heated to high temperature. This illustrates that pressure and temperature are directly proportional.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.8 Global Outcome: G1

32) A gas may not behave ideally under conditions of low pressure or high temperature.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.8 Global Outcome: G1

33) "Molar Mass" can be calculated using the formula: Molar mass =

.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.8 Global Outcome: G1

34) The main component of the air we breathe is oxygen gas.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 Global Outcome: G1

35) Using pure oxygen in scuba diving tanks is a good method of preventing the nitrogen bends.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.9 Global Outcome: G1

36) Dalton's law of partial pressure is: P =

.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.9 Global Outcome: G1

37) If some argon gas at 400 mm Hg pressure is forced into a gas cylinder that already contained only neon gas at 400 mm Hg pressure, the total pressure in the cylinder would now be 800 mm Hg. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.9 Global Outcome: G4

38) Vapor pressure of water increases with increasing temperature because the higher temperature causes more water molecules to evaporate.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.9 Global Outcome: G2

5 .

39) The vapor pressure of water is independent of temperature.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.9 Global Outcome: G1

40) The molar volume of any gas at conditions of standard temperature and pressure is 22.4 liters.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.10 Learning Outcome: 11.10 Global Outcome: G1

41) A 22.4 liter sample of gas at standard temperature and pressure conditions contains 1 mole of gas particles.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.10 Learning Outcome: 11.10 Global Outcome: G4

42) STP conditions are 273 K and 760 mm Hg. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.10 Learning Outcome: 11.10 Global Outcome: G1

43) The volume of 9.00 grams of water vapor at STP is 11.2 L. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.10 Learning Outcome: 11.10 Global Outcome: G4

6 .

11.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements about pressure is FALSE? A) Pressure is caused by gas molecules colliding with surfaces.

B) The atmosphere has a pressure as the components of air collide with surfaces.

C) After creating a pressure difference, the atmospheric pressure can push liquid up a straw.

D) A deep well dug in the ground must have the pump located at the bottom of well in order to have the water come to the surface.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Which of the following is NOT part of the Kinetic Molecular Theory?

A) Gas particles do not repel each other.

B) There is a large distance between gas particles as compared to their relative size.

C) The size of the actual gas particles is small compared to the volume of the whole gas.

D) The average energy of the particles is dependent on the molecular mass of the particle.

E) All of the above statements are part of the Kinetic Molecular Theory.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) Which of following statements are consistent with the Kinetic Molecular Theory?

A) Gases are compressible because the volume taken up by the gas is almost entirely open space.

B) Gases assume the shape and volume of their container because they are in constant, straight-line motion.

C) Gases have a low density because there is so much empty space between the particles.

D) Gas particles collide with each other and surfaces without losing any energy.

E) All of the above statements are consistent with the Kinetic Molecular Theory.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global Outcome: G1

4) All of the following statements are consistent with the kinetic molecular theory of gases EXCEPT: A) The size of the gas molecules is negligible compared to the total volume of the gas.

B) The average kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas is proportional to the temperature of the gas in kelvins.

C) The gas molecules collide with each other and with the surfaces around them.

D) Strong attractive forces hold the gas molecules together.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.2 Learning Outcome: 11.1 Global Outcome: G1

7 .

5) 1 atm is equal to: A) 760 mm Hg. B) 760 torr.

C) 101,325 Pa. D) 14.7 psi.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global Outcome: G1

6) 1 torr is equal to: A) 760 mm Hg. B) 1 mm Hg. C) 1 Pa. D) 14.7 psi.

E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global Outcome: G1

7) A barometer uses mercury because: A) it is a convenient, safe, lightweight material.

B) the density of mercury is very large which allows the barometer to be short.

C) it is the traditional substance used, water could be as easily used.

D) it is the only liquid metal at room temperature.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 Global Outcome: G1

8) What is the equivalent pressure of 0.905 atm in units of mm Hg? A) 688 B) 840 C) 0.905 D) 13.3 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global Outcome: G4

8 .

9) What is the equivalent pressure of 1520 torr in units of atm?

A) 203,000 B) 380.

C) 2.00 D) 1520 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global Outcome: G4

10) What is the equivalent pressure of 760 torr in units of mm Hg? A) 760 B) 1 C) 14.7 D) 29.92 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global Outcome: G4

11) What is the equivalent pressure of 968 mm Hg in units of atm?

A) 1.27 atm B) 0.785 atm C) 968 atm D) 1.30 atm E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global Outcome: G4

12) Boyle's Law is expressed as: A) V is proportional to B) P is proportional to V C) V is proportional to D) V is proportional to T E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.4 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global Outcome: G1

9 .

13) To solve problems using Boyle's Law, which mathematical equation should be used?

A)

=

B) C) D)

= = =

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.4 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global Outcome: G1

14) One liter of a gas is in a sealed chamber containing a moveable piston. If the piston is moved so that the volume of the gas is compressed to a volume of one-half liter, what will happen to the pressure on the gas? (Assume the temperature is constant and no gas particles are lost.)

A) The pressure will remain the same.

B) The pressure will be half of the original value.

C) The pressure will be twice the original value.

D) It would be impossible to move the piston since gases are not compressible.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.4 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global Outcome: G2

15) A balloon filled with 0.500 L of air at sea level is submerged in the water to a depth that produces a pressure of . What is the volume of the balloon at this depth?

A) 1.63 L B) 0.154 L C) 6.50 L D) 0.615 L E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.4 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global Outcome: G4

10 .

16) Divers often inflate heavy duty balloons attached to salvage items on the sea floor. If a balloon is filled to a volume of at a pressure of , what is the volume of the balloon when it reaches the surface?

A) 7.50 L B) 1.20 L C) 0.833 L D) 5.50 L E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.4 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global Outcome: G4

17) The initial volume of a gas cylinder is 750.0 mL. If the pressure of a gas inside the cylinder changes from to , what is the final volume the gas occupies?

A) 3.151 L B) 630.0 mL C) 1.750 L D) 321.4 mL E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.4 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global Outcome: G4

18) Charles's Law is expressed as: A) V is proportional to B) P is proportional to V C) V is proportional to D) V is proportional to T E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Outcome: G1

11 .

19) To solve problems using Charles's Law, which mathematical equation should be used?

A)

=

B) C)

= =

D)

=

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Outcome: G1

20) Which one of the following is impossible for an ideal gas?

A)

=

B)

=

C) V2 = (

(

)

) V1

D) V1T1 = V2T2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Outcome: G2

21) When must temperature values in gas law calculations be expressed in kelvin units?

A) only for Charles's law B) only for the Ideal Gas law C) only for the Combined Gas law D) never E) always Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Outcome: G1

12 .

22) A 5.00 liter balloon of gas at 25°C is cooled to 0°C. What is the new volume (liters) of the balloon?

A) 0 liters B) 22.4 liters C) 5.46 liters D) 4.58 liters E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Outcome: G4

23) A gas sample occupies 3.50 liters of volume at 20.°C. What volume will this gas occupy at 100°C (reported to three significant figures)?

A) 0.224 L B) 2.75 L C) 4.46 L D) 17.5 L E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Outcome: G4

24) What is the final volume of a balloon that was initially 500.0 mL at 25°C and was then heated to 50°C? A) 461 mL B) 193 mL C) 1.00 L D) 542 mL E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Outcome: G4

25) If the volume of a gas container at 32.0°C changes from 1.55 L to 755 mL, what will the final temperature be?

A) 149°C B) 353°C C) 273°C D) -124°C E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Outcome: G4

13 .

26) What is the initial temperature of a gas if the volume changed from 1.00 L to 1.10 L and the final temperature was determined to be 255.0°C? A) 480°C B) -41°C C) 232°C D) 207°C E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Outcome: G4

27) A balloon originally had a volume of 0.439 L at 44°C and a pressure of 729 torr. To what temperature must the balloon be cooled to reduce its volume to 378 mL if the pressure remained constant?

A) 0°C B) 38°C C) 95°C D) 273°C E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Outcome: G4

28) Gas density can be calculated by dividing the mass of gas by its volume. If you took a balloon of gas and then warmed the balloon in a sunny window, what can now be said about the density of the gas in the balloon?

A) The gas density will remain the same.

B) The gas density will increase.

C) The gas density will decrease.

D) The density of gases is independent of temperature.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Outcome: G2

29) Which of the following statements is TRUE for gases?

1. The temperature of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.

2. The volume of a gas is directly proportional to the pressure in torr.

3. The pressure of a gas is due to collisions of the gas molecules.

A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 only E) 1 and 3 only Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.6 Global Outcome: G1

14 .

30) What is the proper form of the combined gas law?

A)

=

B)

=

C)

=

D)

=

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.6 Global Outcome: G1

31) A certain volume of gas was confined in a rigid container. If the pressure of the gas sample in the container was doubled, what happened to the temperature?

A) The Kelvin temperature decreased by one-half.

B) The Kelvin temperature doubled.

C) The Kelvin temperature increased four times.

D) The Kelvin temperature decreased one-third.

E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.6 Global Outcome: G2

32) Suppose a balloon was released from the ground and rose to such a height that both the atmospheric pressure and atmospheric temperature decreased. Which statement is TRUE? A) Both the temperature and pressure changes act to increase the balloon's volume.

B) Both the temperature and pressure changes act to decrease the balloon's volume.

C) The temperature change acts to increase the balloon's volume.

D) The pressure change acts to decrease the balloon's volume.

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.6 Global Outcome: G2

15 .

33) If the initial pressure of a system was 1.00 atm and the volume was halved and the kelvin temperature was tripled, what is the final pressure?

A) 2.00 atm B) 0.667 atm C) 1.50 atm D) 6.00 atm E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.6 Global Outcome: G4

34) A 325 mL sample of gas is initially at a pressure of 721 torr and a temperature of 32°C. If this gas is compressed to a volume of 286 mL and the pressure increases to 901 torr, what will be the new temperature of the gas (reported to three significant figures in °C)?

A) 35.2°C B) 335°C C) 62.4°C D) 215°C E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.6 Global Outcome: G4

35) A sample of helium gas initially at 37.0°C, 785 torr and expanded to . What is the final pressure in atm?

A) 517 B) 0.681 C) 1.79 D) 3.21 E) none of the above Answer: B

was heated to 58.0°C while the volume

Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.6 Global Outcome: G4

36) What is the final volume of a 500.0 mL gas container that increased in temperature from while the pressure increased from to ?

A) 0.691 L B) 2.77 L C) 0.362 L D) 1.45 L E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.6 Global Outcome: G4

16 .

to

37) What is the initial temperature (°C) of a system that has the pressure decreased by 10 times while the volume increased by 5 times with a final temperature of ?

A) 27 B) 75 C) -198 D) 300 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.6 Global Outcome: G4

38) Avogadro's Law is expressed as: A) V is proportional to B) P is proportional to n C) n is proportional to D) V is proportional to n E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.7 Global Outcome: G1

39) To solve problems using Avogadro's Law, which mathematical equation should be used?

A)

=

B) C) D)

= = =

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.7 Global Outcome: G1

17 .

40) What happens to the volume of a gas when you double the number of moles of gas while keeping the temperature and pressure constant?

A) The volume is halved.

B) The volume doubles.

C) The volume decreases, but more information is needed.

D) The volume increases, but more information is needed.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.7 Global Outcome: G2

41) How many moles of gas were added to a balloon that started with 2.3 moles of gas and a volume of given that the final volume was ?

A) 9.5 B) 4.4 C) 12 D) 0.085 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.7 Global Outcome: G4

42) If each of the following gas samples have the same temperature and pressure, which sample has the greatest volume?

A) 1 gram of O2 B) 1 gram of Ar C) 1 gram of H2 D) all have the same volume E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.7 Global Outcome: G4

43) Which of the following gas law relationships is true?

A) V α 1/P B) V α T C) V α n D) all of the above are true E) none of the above are true Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.8 Global Outcome: G1

18 .

44) For an ideal gas, which of the following pairs of variables are inversely proportional to each other (if all other factors remain constant)?

A) P, V B) P, T C) V, T D) n, P E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.8 Global Outcome: G1

45) The ideal gas law is: A) PV = nRT B) P = C) T = D) V = E) All of the above are forms of the ideal gas law.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.8 Global Outcome: G1

46) A sample of 0.255 mole of gas has a volume of 748 mL at 28°C. Calculate the pressure of this gas. (R= 0.0821 L ∙ atm / mol ∙ K) A) 8.42 atm B) 0.784 atm C) 0.00842 atm D) 7.84 × 10-4 atm E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.8 Global Outcome: G4

47) What is the pressure of a 3.00 L gas vessel that has 18.0 grams of helium at (R= 0.0821 L atm/ mol K) A) 147 atm B) 36.7 atm C) 32.6 atm D) 1.81 atm E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.8 Global Outcome: G4

19 .

?

48) What is the temperature (°C) of 2.48 moles of gas stored in a (R= 0.0821 L atm/ mol K) A) 302 B) 189 C) 29 D) -84 E) none of the above Answer: C

container at

?

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.8 Global Outcome: G4

49) Which conditions can cause nonideal gas behavior by 1) decreasing the space between gas particles or 2) by slowing gas particles so that interactions are significant?

A) 1) high pressure; 2) high temperature B) 1) high pressure; 2) low temperature C) 1) low pressure; 2) high temperature D) 1) low pressure; 2) low temperature E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.8 Global Outcome: G2

50) A 3.76 g sample of a noble gas is stored in a 2.00 L vessel at 874 torr and 25°C. What is the noble gas?

(R= 0.0821 L atm/ mol K) A) He B) Ne C) Ar D) Kr E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.8 Global Outcome: G4

51) Which of the following diatomic elements would have a mass of 19.08 grams stored in a container at and 100°C? (R= 0.0821 L atm/ mol K) A) B) C) D) E) not enough information.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.8 Global Outcome: G4

20 .

52) What is the major component of the air we breathe?

A) nitrogen B) oxygen C) argon D) carbon dioxide E) smog Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 Global Outcome: G1

53) What is the third most abundant component of dry air?

A) carbon dioxide B) oxygen C) nitrogen D) argon E) smog Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 Global Outcome: G1

54) If a mixture of gases contained 78% nitrogen at a pressure of , what is the total pressure of the system?

A) 1,329 atm B) 17.5 cm Hg C) 639 torr D) 1.75 atm E) none of the above Answer: D

and 22% carbon dioxide at

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.9 Global Outcome: G4

55) A gas cylinder contains only the gases radon, nitrogen, and helium. The radon has a pressure of 222 torr while the nitrogen has a pressure of 446 torr. If the total pressure inside the cylinder is 771 torr, what is the pressure that is due to the helium?

A) 771 torr B) 668 torr C) 549 torr D) 103 torr E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.9 Global Outcome: G4

21 .

56) A "shielding gas" mixture of argon and carbon dioxide is sometimes used in welding to improve the strength of the weld. If a gas cylinder of this two-part mixture was at 4.0 atm pressure and this mixture was 90.% argon, what would be the pressure due to the carbon dioxide gas component?

A) 3.6 atm B) 0.40 atm C) 10. atm D) 4.0 atm E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.9 Global Outcome: G4

57) What problem could happen if deep sea divers used pure oxygen in their tanks?

A) hypoxia B) oxygen toxicity C) nitrogen narcosis D) rapture of oxygen E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.9 Global Outcome: G1

58) Human lungs have evolved to breathe oxygen at a pressure as that in the atmosphere, 0.21 atm. If a particular heliox mixture to be carried by a scuba diver is at a pressure of 7.00 atm, what should be the partial pressure due to helium in order to maintain the pressure due to oxygen at 0.21 atm?

A) 0.21 atm B) 7.00 atm C) 6.79 atm D) 7.21 atm E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.9 Global Outcome: G4

59) The vapor pressure of water at 20.0°C is . If the pressure of a gas collected over water was measured to be . What is the pressure of the pure gas?

A) 0.0230 atm B) 0.619 atm C) 0.573 atm D) 0.596 atm E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.9 Global Outcome: G4

22 .

60) Hydrogen gas produced in the laboratory by the reaction of zinc and hydrochloric acid was collected over water at 25°C. The barometric pressure at the time was 742.5 mm Hg. What is the pressure of dry hydrogen gas if the vapor pressure of water at 25°C is 23.8 mm Hg? A) 742.5 mm Hg B) 718.7 mm Hg C) 766.3 mm Hg D) 760.0 mm Hg E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.9 Learning Outcome: 11.9 Global Outcome: G4

61) Suppose a chemical reaction generated a 50% nitrogen/50% oxygen (by volume) mixture of gas that had a total volume of 22.4 liters at STP. This gas sample is composed of: A) 1 mole of nitrogen and 1 mole of oxygen.

B) 0.5 mole of nitrogen and 0.5 mole of oxygen.

C) 50 mole of nitrogen and 50 mole of oxygen.

D) 28 mole of nitrogen and 32 mole of oxygen.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.10 Learning Outcome: 11.9|11.10 Global Outcome: G4

62) Which set of conditions reflect STP? A) 298 K, 1 atm B) 25°C, 14.7 psi C) 373 K, 760 torr D) 273 K, 1 Pa E) 273 K, 760 mm Hg Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.10 Learning Outcome: 11.10 Global Outcome: G4

63) At STP, 12.69 g of a noble gas occupies 14.09 L. What is the identity of the noble gas?

(R= 0.0821 L atm/ mol K) A) He B) Ne C) Ar D) Kr E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.10 Learning Outcome: 11.10 Global Outcome: G4

23 .

64) Suppose you had a balloon containing 1 mole of helium at STP and a balloon containing 1 mole of oxygen at STP. Which statement is TRUE? A) The balloons will have the same volume.

B) The balloons will have the same mass.

C) Both A and B are true.

D) Neither A nor B are true.

E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.10 Learning Outcome: 11.10 Global Outcome: G2

65) Ammonia gas decomposes according to the equation: 2NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g) If 15.0 L of nitrogen is formed at STP, how many liters of hydrogen will be produced (also measured at STP)?

A) 15.0 L B) 30.0 L C) 45.0 L D) 90.0 L E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.10 Learning Outcome: 11.10 Global Outcome: G4

66) Water can be formed according to the equation: 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (g) If 8.0 L of hydrogen is reacted at STP, exactly how many liters of oxygen at STP would be needed to allow complete reaction?

A) 4.0 L B) 2.0 L C) 1.0 L D) 8.0 L E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.10 Learning Outcome: 11.10 Global Outcome: G4

24 .

67) How many liters of O2 (g) are needed to react completely with 56.0 L of CH 4 (g) at STP to produce CO2 (g) and H2O (g)?

Given: CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + H2O (g) A) 28.0 L B) 56.0 L C) 84.0 L D) 112. L E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 11.10 Learning Outcome: 11.10 Global Outcome: G4

11.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) What is the pressure of 760 mm Hg when expressed in units of in Hg? A) 29.92 in Hg B) 101,325 in Hg C) 760 in Hg D) 1 in Hg E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 11.3 Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global Outcome: G4

2) What is the final pressure of a system (atm) that has the volume increased from initial pressure of A) 1.1 B) 0.85 C) 1.8 D) 1.2 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 11.4 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global Outcome: G4

3) What is the final volume (L) of a 10.0 L system that has the pressure quartered?

A) 0.250 B) 17.1 C) 2.50 D) 40.0 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 11.4 Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global Outcome: G4

25 .

to

with an

4) What is the final volume of a gas that initially occupies 2.50 L at

and is subsequently heated to

A) 2.69 L B) 2.96 L C) 2.23 L D) 2.32 L E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Outcome: G4

5) What is the change in temperature of a 2.50 L system when its volume is reduced to temperature was A) 209 K B) 290 K C) -89 K D) -98 K E) none of the above Answer: C

if the initial

Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 11.5 Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Outcome: G4

6) What is the final volume (L) of a 1.00 L system at 315 K and 1.10 atm if STP conditions are established?

A) 1.05 B) 0.935 C) 1.50 D) 0.953 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.6 Global Outcome: G4

7) What is the final pressure (expressed in atm) of a 3.05 L system initially at compressed to a final volume of at A) 1.06 B) 1.60 C) 806 D) 860 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.6 Global Outcome: G4

26 .

and

that is

8) A rigid cylinder contains 2.00 liters of gas at a temperature of 25°C. If the pressure of this gas is changed from 0.500 atmospheres to 1.50 atmospheres, what will be the new temperature (in Kelvin, reported to three significant figures) of the gas? (The volume is constant.)

A) 99.3 K B) 75.0 K C) 8.33 K D) 894 K E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 11.6 Learning Outcome: 11.6 Global Outcome: G4

9) If the number of moles of a gas initially contained in a 2.10 L vessel is doubled, what is the final volume of the gas in liters? (Assume the pressure and temperature remain constant.)

A) 6.30 B) 1.05 C) 4.20 D) 8.40 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: 11.7 Learning Outcome: 11.7 Global Outcome: G4

10) What is the volume (in liters) of 1.00 mole of krypton gas that has a pressure of 1140 mm Hg and a temperature of 25.0°C? (R= 0.0821 L atm/ mol K) A) 1.37 B) 16.3 C) 0.0215 D) 0.00180 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.8 Global Outcome: G4

11) What is the molecular weight of a gas if a 21.0 g sample has a pressure of flask? (R= 0.0821 L atm/ mol K) A) 243 amu B) 1.89 amu C) 234 amu D) 11.1 amu E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.8 Global Outcome: G4

27 .

at

in a

12) What is the pressure of a 1.0 L flask containing A) 98 atm B) 3.7 atm C) 7.3 atm D) 15 atm E) none of the above Answer: B

of He at 25°C? (R= 0.0821 L atm/ mol K)

Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 11.8 Learning Outcome: 11.8 Global Outcome: G4

13) What is the volume of 28.0 g of nitrogen gas at STP? A) 33.6 L B) 11.2 L C) 22.4 L D) 44.8 L E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 11.10 Learning Outcome: 11.10 Global Outcome: G4

28 .

Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 12 Liquids, Solids, and Intermolecular Forces 12.1 True/False Questions 1) Intermolecular forces are the attractive forces between atoms within a compound.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.1 Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) The shapes of protein molecules are determined by intermolecular forces.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.1 Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) Intermolecular forces determine if a substance is a solid, liquid or gas at room temperature.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.1 Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global Outcome: G1

4) Gases typically have high densities in comparison to solids.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global Outcome: G1

5) Liquids can be easily compressed.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global Outcome: G1

6) Atoms in a solid are always arranged in a well-ordered pattern.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global Outcome: G1

7) Solids usually have much greater densities than gases because molecules of a solid are much farther apart.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global Outcome: G1

1 .

8) Without intermolecular forces, solids and liquids would not exist and all matter would be gaseous.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global Outcome: G1

9) The strength of the surface tension is inversely related to the strength of the intermolecular forces.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global Outcome: G1

10) Liquids that are viscous flow more slowly than liquids that are not viscous.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global Outcome: G1

11) Viscosity increases with increased intermolecular force because the molecules attract each other strongly which hinders the flow.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global Outcome: G2

12) Evaporation is decreased by increasing the intermolecular forces.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G2

13) Compounds with very high vapor pressures must have very minimal intermolecular forces.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G2

14) The rate of evaporation will increase if you pour a liquid out onto a large surface.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G2

15) Increasing the temperature increases the vaporization rate of a liquid because the excess energy is used to break covalent bonds.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G2

2 .

16) Oil would be considered a nonvolatile liquid while gasoline would be considered volatile.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G2

17) The boiling point is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a solution is equal to the intermolecular forces.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G1

18) Evaporation is an endothermic process.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G2

19) Evaporation and condensation are opposite processes.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G2

20) The process of heating a pot of water from room temperature to boiling temperature is an exothermic process.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G2

21) Water has a heat of vaporization of 44.0 kJ/mol while the chemical diethyl ether has a heat of vaporization of 27.1 kJ/mol. This shows that one mole of water would vaporize more easily than would one mole of diethyl ether.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global Outcome: G2

22) When one mole of water vapor at 100°C condenses, it will release an amount of energy equivalent to its heat of vaporization (40.7 kJ).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G2

3 .

23) All intermolecular forces are broken when a liquid vaporizes into a gas.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Outcome: G2

24) Intermolecular forces hold atoms and molecules in place in a solid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Outcome: G1

25) The melting point is reached when sufficient energy has been added to the molecules in a substance to overcome the intermolecular forces holding them stationary.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Outcome: G1

26) Heat is released when a liquid freezes into a solid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Outcome: G1

27) A glass of ice water containing nine ice cubes will be colder than a similar-size glass of ice water containing only three ice cubes.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Outcome: G2

28) Sublimation is the process of a liquid being converted directly to a gas.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Outcome: G1

29) The heat of fusion for water is significantly more than the heat of vaporization for water because fusion requires complete separation of one molecule from another.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Outcome: G2

30) Dispersion forces result from the temporary distortion of the electron cloud in an atom or molecule which increases in magnitude with increasing size.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global Outcome: G1

4 .

31) Dipole-dipole forces are weaker than dispersion forces.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global Outcome: G1

32) Ion-dipole forces occur in mixtures of ionic compounds and polar compounds.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Outcome: G1

33) Hydrogen bonding occurs whenever hydrogen is present.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Outcome: G1

34) For hydrogen bonding to occur, a molecule must have a hydrogen atom bonded directly to a fluorine, oxygen, or nitrogen atom.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Outcome: G1

35) Ion-dipole force is considered the weakest of the different types of intermolecular forces.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Outcome: G1

36) H2 boils at a higher temperature than He because H2 undergoes hydrogen bonding.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global Outcome: G2

37) Ice is an example of a molecular solid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.10a Global Outcome: G1

38) Ionic solids tend to have higher melting points than molecular solids.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.10a Global Outcome: G1

5 .

39) Atomic solids, such as graphite, have a weak dispersion force holding them together.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.10a Global Outcome: G1

40) Attraction between the Na+ cation and Cl- anion holds the solid lattice of sodium chloride together.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.10a Global Outcome: G1

41) Water has unusual physical properties which enable life to exist on earth.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.8 Learning Outcome: 12.11 Global Outcome: G1

42) Ice can float in a glass of liquid water because the solid form of water is more dense than the liquid form.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.8 Learning Outcome: 12.11 Global Outcome: G2

43) Compounds that are similar to water in molecular mass all exist as solids.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.8 Learning Outcome: 12.11 Global Outcome: G1

6 .

12.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Intermolecular forces are responsible for: A) the taste sensations.

B) the shape of protein molecules.

C) the function of DNA. D) the existence of liquids and solids.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Which state of matter has a high density and an indefinite shape?

A) solids B) liquids C) gases D) both solids and liquids E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) Which state of matter has a high density and a definite volume?

A) solids B) liquids C) gases D) both solids and liquids E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global Outcome: G1

4) Which state of matter has a low density and an indefinite volume?

A) solids B) liquids C) gases D) both solids and liquids E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global Outcome: G1

7 .

5) Which state of matter has a low density and is easily compressed?

A) solids B) liquids C) gases D) both solids and liquids E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.2 Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global Outcome: G1

6) Which statement about surface tension is FALSE? A) Liquids tend to minimize their surface area.

B) Molecules on the surface of the liquid have fewer molecules to interact with.

C) Increased intermolecular forces increase surface tension.

D) Items with densities lower than water will sink due to surface tension.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global Outcome: G1

7) The tendency of a liquid to minimize its surface area is called: A) capillary action.

B) viscosity.

C) surface tension.

D) vaporization.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global Outcome: G1

8) The measure of the resistance to the flow of a liquid is called: A) vapor pressure.

B) sublimation.

C) viscosity.

D) condensation.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.3 Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global Outcome: G1

8 .

9) The change of a substance from a liquid to a gaseous form is called: A) dynamic equilibrium.

B) heat of fusion.

C) condensation.

D) vaporization.

E) volatile.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G1

10) A situation where two opposite processes are occurring at equal rates, and no net change is taking place, is called: A) vaporization.

B) condensation.

C) evaporation.

D) dynamic equilibrium.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G1

11) Increasing the intermolecular forces of a liquid will do which of the following?

A) increase the viscosity B) decrease the evaporation rate C) increase the surface tension D) decrease the vapor pressure E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G7

12) You can increase the vapor pressure of a liquid by: A) increasing temperature.

B) increasing the viscosity.

C) establishing dynamic equilibrium.

D) using a nonvolatile compound.

E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G7

9 .

13) Which statement about boiling point is FALSE? A) The boiling point is higher for compounds with strong intermolecular forces.

B) The boiling point is higher for compounds with a high viscosity.

C) The boiling point of a compound is an absolute constant.

D) The boiling point of a compound is higher for nonvolatile compounds.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G7

14) Evaporation is: A) increased by increasing temperature.

B) an endothermic process.

C) the opposite process to condensation.

D) a cooling process for humans when they sweat.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G1

15) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Evaporation is an endothermic process.

B) A puddle of water cools down as it evaporates.

C) As a liquid is converted into a gas, the liquid absorbs heat.

D) All of the above are true.

E) None of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G1

16) The opposite process of freezing is: A) evaporation.

B) sublimation.

C) boiling.

D) condensation.

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G1

10 .

17) The rate of vaporization of a liquid can be increased by: 1. increasing the surface area 2. increasing the temperature 3. increasing the strength of the intermolecular forces A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 only E) 2 and 3 only Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G7

18) Liquids that have high vapor pressure and low boiling points are called: A) abnormal liquids.

B) volatile liquids.

C) non-volatile liquids.

D) viscous liquids.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G2

19) The amount of heat required to melt one mole of a solid is called the: A) heat of vaporization.

B) heat of fusion.

C) heating curve.

D) cooling curve.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G1

20) Compare a small pot of water that is boiling vigorously to a large pot of water that is boiling gently.

Which statement is TRUE? A) The small pot is boiling at higher temperature than the large pot.

B) The large pot is boiling at a higher temperature than the small pot.

C) Both pots are boiling at the same temperature.

D) The vapor pressure of the liquid is greater than the pressure above the pot in each case.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G2

11 .

21) When sufficient quantity of heat has been added to reach the boiling point of a solution, what happens to any additional heat added?

A) Additional heat is used to evaporate the liquid as the process is endothermic and requires continued input of energy.

B) Additional heat raises the temperature of the liquid which in turn increases the rate at which boiling occurs.

C) Additional heat lowers the intermolecular forces of the liquid which in turn increases the volatility of the liquid.

D) Additional heat alters the viscosity and the surface tension of the liquid which raises the vapor pressure and increases the boiling point which is why you must continually heat the solution.

E) None of the above are correct statements.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Outcome: G2

22) What is the heat of vaporization(kJ/mol) if it takes the liquid at its boiling point?

A) 1288 B) 1.29 C) 0.776 D) 12.2 E) none of the above Answer: B

of heat to completely vaporize

of

Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global Outcome: G4

23) How many joules of heat are needed to completely vaporize Given = 40.6 kJ/mol A) 54.97 B) C) 29.98 D) E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global Outcome: G4

12 .

of water at its boiling point?

24) How many kilojoules of heat are needed to completely vaporize point?

Given

of

at its boiling

= 26.5kJ/mol

A) 74.12 B) 9.49 C) 15.3 D) 16.3 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global Outcome: G4

25) What happens as you start to add heat to a solid substance?

A) Thermal energy causes the components of the solid to vibrate faster.

B) When the melting point is reached, the thermal energy is sufficient to overcome intermolecular forces holding the components at their stationary points.

C) Increasing the rate of heating of a substance at its melting point only causes more rapid melting.

D) If a liquid forms, continued heating results in increasing the liquid temperature.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Outcome: G2

26) If we supply additional heat to a solid in equilibrium with its liquid at the melting point, the thermal energy added is used to: A) overcome the intermolecular forces that hold the solid together.

B) expand the solid.

C) change the liquid back to solid.

D) change solid to liquid.

E) raise the temperature of the solid above its melting point.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Outcome: G2

27) When you make ice cubes: A) it is an endothermic process.

B) it is an exothermic process.

C) the heat of vaporization must be removed.

D) the process is referred to scientifically as sublimation.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Outcome: G2

13 .

28) Which statement is TRUE in describing what occurs when a solid melts to a liquid?

A) The process is endothermic and the heat of fusion is positive.

B) The process is endothermic and the heat of fusion is negative.

C) The process is exothermic and the heat of fusion is positive.

D) The process is exothermic and the heat of fusion is negative.

E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Outcome: G2

29) Gaseous water vapor can frost the windows of a car on a cold morning. This process of a gas changing directly into a solid is known as: A) deposition.

B) melting.

C) condensation.

D) sublimation.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Outcome: G2

30) Paradichlorobenzene, a material used in "moth balls," is known to go directly from a solid form to a gaseous form. This process is known as: A) melting B) evaporation C) condensation D) boiling E) sublimation Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Outcome: G2

31) How much energy does it take to melt a 16.87 g ice cube? = 6.02 kJ/mol A) 102 kJ B) 108 kJ C) 936 J D) 5.64 kJ E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.6 Global Outcome: G4

14 .

32) How many grams of Given

3 J?

O can be melted by

=7.27 kJ/mol

A) 14.5 B) 3.64 C) 20.4 D) 74.1 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.6 Global Outcome: G4

33) In northern climates, it is common to have a layer of frost form on cars that have been out overnight in the winter. During the day the frost layer disappears despite the temperature of the ice remaining below freezing. How? A) The frost melts due to the sun heating the surface of the car above the melting point.

B) The frost evaporates due to the sun heating the solid.

C) The frost cycles as does the saturation level of moisture in the winter air does from night to day.

D) The frost sublimes directly from solid ice to water vapor.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Outcome: G2

34) Which intermolecular force is present in all molecules and atoms?

A) dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole forces C) hydrogen bonding D) X-forces E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global Outcome: G1

35) Which intermolecular force is due to the formation of an instantaneous dipole?

A) dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole forces C) hydrogen bonding D) X-forces E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global Outcome: G1

15 .

36) The ability of sodium chloride to mix with water is most likely due to: A) dispersion force B) ion-dipole force C) dipole-dipole force D) hydrogen bonding E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global Outcome: G2

37) Which substance below has dipole-dipole forces?

A) CH4 B) CO2 C) F2 D) H2S E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global Outcome: G7

38) Which intermolecular force increases with increasing molar mass?

A) dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole forces C) hydrogen bonding D) X-forces E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global Outcome: G1

39) Which noble gas has the highest boiling point?

A) He B) Ne C) Ar D) Kr E) Xe Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global Outcome: G7

16 .

40) Assuming that the molecules carbon monoxide (CO) and nitrogen (N 2) have similar electron clouds, which statement below is TRUE? A) CO has the higher boiling point because it experiences dipole-dipole forces.

B) N2 has the higher boiling point because it experiences dipole-dipole forces.

C) The N2 has the higher boiling point because it has greater dispersion forces.

D) Both CO and N2 must have the same boiling point.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global Outcome: G7

41) Which intermolecular force is common to all polar molecules but NOT nonpolar molecules?

A) dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole forces C) hydrogen bonding D) X-forces E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global Outcome: G2

42) Substance A is a molecular compound that dissolves in gasoline but not in water. The molecules of A are very likely: A) metallic.

B) nonmetallic.

C) polar.

D) nonpolar.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global Outcome: G2

43) Which substance is most likely to be miscible with water?

A) CF4 B) Br2 C) CS2 D) CHCl3 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global Outcome: G2

17 .

44) Which statement below is FALSE? A) A hydrogen bond is the strongest of the intermolecular forces.

B) A hydrogen atom must be bonded directly to fluorine, oxygen, or nitrogen to exhibit hydrogen bonding.

C) The large electronegativity difference between hydrogen and an F, O, or N atom is essential for the formation of a hydrogen bond.

D) A hydrogen bond is only 2-5% the strength of a typical covalent bond.

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global Outcome: G1

45) Which molecule below has hydrogen bonding?

A) C B) HCl C) D)

C

OH

E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Outcome: G7

46) Which molecule below has hydrogen bonding?

A) N B)

OH

C)

O

D) HF E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Outcome: G7

47) Which compound in liquid form will have the highest vapor pressure?

A) C B) C

C

C) C

C(O)C

D)

C

OH

E) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Outcome: G7

18 .

48) Which intermolecular force is the strongest?

A) dispersion force B) dipole-dipole force C) hydrogen bonding D) ion-dipole force E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Outcome: G1

49) Which intermolecular forces are found in

?

A) dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole forces C) hydrogen bonding D) X-forces E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Outcome: G7

50) Which intermolecular forces are found in CO2?

A) dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole forces C) hydrogen bonding D) dispersion forces and dipole-dipole forces E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Outcome: G7

51) What types of forces exist between I2 molecules?

A) dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole forces C) hydrogen bonding D) ion-dipole forces E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Outcome: G7

19 .

52) Which intermolecular force found in

is the strongest?

A) dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole forces C) hydrogen bonding D) X-forces E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Outcome: G7

53) Consider the three compounds below, then choose the compound(s) that have hydrogen bonding.

1. H2 2. CH4 3. HF A) Only compound 1 has hydrogen bonding.

B) Only compound 2 has hydrogen bonding.

C) Only compound 3 has hydrogen bonding.

D) All three of these compounds have hydrogen bonding.

E) None of these compounds have hydrogen bonding.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Outcome: G7

54) Which compound will have the highest boiling point?

A) C B) C

C

C) C

C(O)C

D)

C

OH

E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global Outcome: G7

55) Which substance would be expected to have the highest boiling point?

A) N2 B) O2 C) CO2 D) CO E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global Outcome: G7

20 .

56) Rank the compounds NH3, CH4, and PH3 in order of increasing boiling point.

A) NH3 < CH4< PH3 B) CH4< NH3 < PH3 C) NH3 < PH3< CH4 D) CH4 < PH3 < NH3 E) PH3< NH3 < CH4 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.6 Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global Outcome: G7

57) Dry ice (solid C

) is which type of solid?

A) molecular solid B) ionic solid C) covalent atomic solid D) nonbonding atomic solid E) metallic atomic solid Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.10a Global Outcome: G2

58) Which substance below is an ionic solid?

A) Cu (s) B) H2O (s) C) MgO (s) D) C6H12O6 (s) E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.10a Global Outcome: G2

59) NaCl is which type of solid?

A) molecular solid B) ionic solid C) covalent atomic solid D) nonbonding atomic solid E) metallic atomic solid Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.10a Global Outcome: G2

21 .

60) Silicon is which type of solid?

A) molecular solid B) ionic solid C) covalent atomic solid D) nonbonding atomic solid E) metallic atomic solid Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.10a Global Outcome: G2

61) Copper is which type of solid?

A) molecular solid B) ionic solid C) covalent atomic solid D) nonbonding atomic solid E) metallic atomic solid Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.10a Global Outcome: G2

62) Which atomic solid has the highest melting point?

A) Cu B) Si C) Xe D) Fe E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.10a Global Outcome: G2

63) What are the principal forces holding ice together?

A) dispersion forces only B) electrostatic attraction C) intermolecular forces D) sea of electrons E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.7 Learning Outcome: 12.11 Global Outcome: G1

22 .

64) Why is water considered an unusual molecule?

A) No molecule of similar size is a liquid at room temperature.

B) No molecule of similar size has as high a boiling point.

C) Water can dissolve many polar and ionic compounds.

D) Water expands upon freezing.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.8 Learning Outcome: 12.11 Global Outcome: G1

65) The reason for many of the unique properties of water is: A) dispersion forces.

B) the ability to form hydrogen bonds.

C) high surface tension and low volatility.

D) moderate viscosity and expanding upon freezing.

E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.8 Learning Outcome: 12.11 Global Outcome: G1

66) Which sequence correctly shows the increasing density of the three phases of water?

A) solid < liquid < gas B) gas < liquid < solid C) gas < solid < liquid D) liquid < gas < solid E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 12.8 Learning Outcome: 12.11 Global Outcome: G2

23 .

12.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) How many kJ of heat are needed to completely vaporize 3.30 moles of

O? The heat of vaporization

for water at the boiling point is A) 12.3 B) 134 C) 67.0 D) 2.26 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global Outcome: G4

2) How many kJ of heat are needed to completely vaporize 23.4 g of

O? The heat of vaporization for

water at the boiling point is A) 31.2 B) 52.8 C) 23.4 D) 2.26 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global Outcome: G4

3) A 250 gram sample of water at the boiling point had 45.0 kJ of heat added. How many grams of water were vaporized? Heat of vaporization for water is A) 1.11 B) 20.0 C) 0.902 D) 16.2 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 12.4 Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global Outcome: G4

4) How many kJ of heat are needed to completely melt 1.70 moles of melting point? The heat of fusion for water is A) 30.6 B) 10.2 C) 3.54 D) 63.7 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.6 Global Outcome: G4

24 .

O, given that the water is at its

5) How many kJ of heat are needed to completely melt 17.3 g of

O, given that the water is at its melting

point? The heat of fusion for water is A) 0.961 B) 5.79 C) 1.04 D) 6.26 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.6 Global Outcome: G4

6) How many kJ of heat are needed to completely melt 95.3 g of copper metal, given that the metal is at its melting point? The heat of fusion for this metal is 13.1 A) 19.6 B) 43.0 C) 1250 D) 0.114 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: 12.5 Learning Outcome: 12.6 Global Outcome: G4

25 .

Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 13 Solutions 13.1 True/False Questions 1) The tragedy at Lake Nyos in Cameroon, West Africa was due to the sudden release of excessive amounts of nitrogen dissolved in the lake water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) The tragedy at Lake Nyos in Cameroon, West Africa, was due to the sudden release of excessive amounts of carbon monoxide dissolved in the lake water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global Outcome: G1

4) Air is an example of a gaseous solution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global Outcome: G2

5) Steel is an example of a solid solution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global Outcome: G2

6) The minor component in a solution is called the solvent.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global Outcome: G1

7) The major component in a solution is called the solute.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global Outcome: G1

1 .

8) The fact that the oceans contain salt water shows that polar solvents dissolve ionic solutes.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global Outcome: G2

9) Ionic solutes typically dissolve in nonpolar solvents.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global Outcome: G1

10) Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin, so it is likely that this vitamin is polar.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global Outcome: G1

11) It would be expected that methanol (CH3OH) would be more soluble in water than methane (CH 4) would be.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global Outcome: G2

12) When a chunk of gold is melted and poured into the shape of an ingot, an aqueous solution of gold has been created.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global Outcome: G1

13) Solubility is formally defined as the amount of a compound that can be dissolved in water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G1

14) A saturated solution holds the maximum amount of solute under the solution conditions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G1

15) A supersaturated solution is unstable and crystallization usually occurs.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G1

2 .

16) Salt water is an example of a strong electrolyte solution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G2

17) A sugar solution is an example of a weak electrolyte solution.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G2

18) The solubility of solids in water generally increases with increasing temperature.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G1

19) Sugar solutions conduct electricity because the dissolved particles are molecules.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.3 Global Outcome: G2

20) Tap water contains dissolved nitrogen and oxygen.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.4 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G1

21) The solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.4 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G2

22) Warm beer goes flat quicker than cold beer.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.4 Learning Outcome: 13.3 Global Outcome: G1

23) The solubility of gases in water increases with increasing pressure above the water.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.4 Learning Outcome: 13.3 Global Outcome: G1

3 .

24) A solution that is 35 percent by mass NaCl contains Answer: FALSE

of NaCl dissolved in

of water.

Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global Outcome: G4

25) A solution that is 13.58 percent by mass of sugar contains of water.

Answer: TRUE

of sugar dissolved in

Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.5 Global Outcome: G4

26) Molarity is defined as the moles of solute per liter of solution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global Outcome: G1

27) The molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving Answer: FALSE

of NaCl in 1000 mL water is

.

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global Outcome: G4

28) One liter of 6.0 M HNO3 contains the same number of H+ ions as does one liter of 6.0 M H2SO4.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.8 Global Outcome: G4

29) One liter of a 2.0 M NaOH (aq) solution contains the same number of Na + ions as does one liter of a 1.0 M Na2CO3 (aq) solution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.8 Global Outcome: G7

30) If 50 grams of salt dissolves into 250 grams of water, the resulting solution must have a mass of 300 grams.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.5 Global Outcome: G4

4 .

31) A stock solution is a more concentrated form than what is typically used in a lab. It often requires further dilution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.9 Global Outcome: G1

32) Upon completing a dilution from a stock solution, you will always have more volume of solution than you started with and it will have a lower concentration than the stock solution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.9 Global Outcome: G2

33) Molality is calculated by dividing grams of solute by kilograms of solution.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.9 Learning Outcome: 13.11 Global Outcome: G1

34) The terms "molarity"and "molality" are considered identical and can always be used interchangeably.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.9 Learning Outcome: 13.11 Global Outcome: G1

35) Colligative properties are independent of the amount of solute in solution.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.9 Learning Outcome: 13.12 Global Outcome: G1

36) Adding a nonvolatile solute to a liquid will cause boiling point depression and freezing point elevation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.9 Learning Outcome: 13.12 Global Outcome: G1

37) A sample of salt water will freeze at a higher temperature than a sample of pure water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.9 Learning Outcome: 13.12 Global Outcome: G2

38) A 0.10 molality solution of the sugar glucose (molecular weight = 180.10 g/mol) and a 0.10 molality solution of sucrose (molecular weight = 342.34 g/mol) would both boil at the same temperature.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.9 Learning Outcome: 13.12 Global Outcome: G7

5 .

39) A semipermeable membrane allows only half the amount of a substance to pass through it.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.10 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global Outcome: G1

40) Osmosis is the process in which a solvent moves from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.10 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global Outcome: G1

41) If you put a living cell into seawater containing a higher concentration of sodium chloride, the cell loses water through osmosis.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.10 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global Outcome: G2

42) Osmotic pressure is the pressure required to completely reverse the direction of solvent movement in osmosis.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.10 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global Outcome: G1

6 .

13.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The tragedy at Lake Nyos in Cameroon, West Africa, was caused by: A) the release of excessive amounts of nitrogen gas that had been dissolved in the water at the bottom of the lake.

B) the release of excessive amounts of oxygen gas that had been dissolved in the water at the bottom of the lake.

C) the release of excessive amounts of carbon dioxide that had been dissolved in the water at the bottom of the lake.

D) the release of excess water stored in the volcanic lake which flooded the village below.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Which of the following substances is NOT a solution?

A) air B) brass C) vodka D) copper E) All of the above are solutions.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global Outcome: G2

3) Which of the following substances is NOT a solution?

A) humid air B) beer C) oxygen D) steel E) All of the above are solutions.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global Outcome: G2

4) Which of the following substances is NOT a solution?

A) homogenized milk B) bronze C) sea water D) soda E) All of the above are solutions.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global Outcome: G2

7 .

5) Suppose a vodka martini contains 30% alcohol with the remaining portion of the drink composed of water. What is the solute in this type of martini?

A) water B) alcohol C) ice D) olive E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global Outcome: G2

6) The oxygen in the air we breath is classified as: A) the solute in a homogeneous gas mixture.

B) the solvent in a homogeneous gas mixture.

C) the solute in a heterogeneous gas-liquid mixture.

D) the solvent in a simple mixture.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global Outcome: G2

7) Hexane, a nonpolar solvent, will dissolve which of the following substances?

A) sodium chloride B) oil C) ammonium acetate D) vinegar (acetic acid) E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global Outcome: G2

8) Which of these compounds would you expect to be least soluble in water?

A) CH3OH B) NaCl C) N2 D) NH3 E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.2 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global Outcome: G2

8 .

9) Which compound below forms an electrolyte solution when dissolved in water?

A) Cl2 B) KOH C) CH3CH2OH D) C12H22O11 (sucrose) E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.1 Global Outcome: G2

10) In order for a solute to dissolve in solution: A) the solute-solvent forces must be greater than the solute-solute forces.

B) the solute-solute forces must be greater than the solute-solvent forces.

C) the solute-solvent forces must equal the solute-solute forces.

D) the polarity of the solute and solvent must be opposite.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G2

11) If the solubility of sodium acetate (Molar mass = 82 g/mol) is 76 grams per 100 grams of water, which of the following solutions would be considered supersaturated?

A) 8.5 moles of sodium acetate dissolved in 1 L of water B) 5.5 moles of sodium acetate dissolved in 500 mL of water C) 1.8 moles of sodium acetate dissolved in 300 mL of water D) 1.2 moles of sodium acetate dissolved in 200 mL of water E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G4

12) If the solubility of sodium chloride is 36 grams per 100 grams of water, which of the following solutions would be considered unsaturated?

A) 5.8 moles of NaCl dissolved in 1 L of water B) 3.25 moles of NaCL dissolved in 500 ml of water C) 1.85 moles of NaCl dissolved in 300 ml of water D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G4

9 .

13) The solubility of Pb(NO3)2 is 55 grams per 100 g H2O at 20°C. Which term would properly describe a solution where 44 grams of Pb(NO3)2 is added to 100 grams of water at this temperature?

A) insoluble B) unsaturated C) saturated D) supersaturated E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G4

14) If you prepare a solution by adding sufficient amount of solute so that after heating and cooling the solution there is a visible amount of solid solute left in the bottom of the beaker, the solution would be considered ________.

A) unsaturated B) saturated C) supersaturated D) thermally saturated E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G2

15) Which of the following compounds is a strong electrolyte?

A) HCl B) NaCl C) N Cl D) Na E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G2

16) Which of the following compounds is a strong electrolyte?

A) B) C) D) Na E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G2

10 .

17) The solubility of solids in water: A) is independent of the temperature.

B) increases with increasing temperature.

C) decreases with increasing temperature.

D) Solids are not soluble in water.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G2

18) The solubility of solids in water: A) is independent of pressure above solution.

B) increases with increasing pressure above solution.

C) decreases with increasing pressure above solution.

D) Solids are not soluble in water.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G2

19) When an ionic compound dissolves in water: A) the solvent-solute attractive forces overcome the solute-solute attractions.

B) the positive end of water dipoles attract the negative ions.

C) the negative end of water dipoles attract the positive ions.

D) each of the above (A, B, and C) occurs.

E) none of the above (A, B, or C) occurs.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G2

20) Which among the following is NOT true about the solubility of a solid in water?

A) The solubility is not affected by pressure.

B) The solubility generally increases as temperature increases.

C) Solid crystallizes when a saturated solution is prepared at a higher temperature and then cooled.

D) A saturated solution prepared at a lower temperature becomes unsaturated when heated to a higher temperature.

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.3 Learning Outcome: 13.2 Global Outcome: G7

11 .

21) Solubility of gases in water: A) is independent of pressure above solution.

B) increases with increasing pressure above solution.

C) decreases with increasing pressure above solution.

D) Gases are not soluble in water.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.4 Learning Outcome: 13.3 Global Outcome: G2

22) The solubility of gases in water: A) is independent of temperature.

B) increases with increasing temperature.

C) decreases with increasing temperature.

D) gases are not soluble in water.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.4 Learning Outcome: 13.3 Global Outcome: G2

23) The solubility of a gas in a liquid can always be increased by: A) increasing the temperature of the solvent.

B) decreasing the polarity of the solvent.

C) decreasing the pressure of the gas above the solvent.

D) increasing the pressure of the gas above the solvent.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.4 Learning Outcome: 13.3 Global Outcome: G2

24) A solution is saturated in both nitrogen gas (N2) and sodium iodide (NaI) at 50°C. When the solution is cooled to 25°C, which of the following is most likely to occur?

A) Some nitrogen gas bubbles out of solution.

B) Some sodium iodide will precipitate out of solution.

C) Both A and B will happen.

D) Nothing will happen.

E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.4 Learning Outcome: 13.3 Global Outcome: G2

12 .

25) When preparing sodium hydroxide solution, it is best to use water that does not contain any dissolved carbon dioxide as it reacts with the sodium hydroxide. Removing the carbon dioxide can be accomplished by: A) vigorously stirring the solution.

B) using water fresh out of the purification system.

C) boiling the water.

D) Nothing can be done to remove dissolved gases.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.4 Learning Outcome: 13.3 Global Outcome: G7

26) We dissolve 2.45 g of sugar in 200.0 g water. What is the mass percent of sugar in the solution?

A) 1.21% B) 1.23% C) 2.42% D) 123% E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global Outcome: G4

27) A solution contains 100.0 g water, 10.0 g NaCl, and 15.0 g methanol. What is the mass percent of methanol in the solution?

A) 8.00% B) 10.0% C) 12.0% D) 15.0% E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global Outcome: G4

28) What is the mass percent of a solution prepared by dissolving water?

A) 47.8% B) 58.4% C) 32.4% D) The identity of the compound must be known.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global Outcome: G4

13 .

of solid into

of

29) What is the mass percent of an ammonium carbonate solution prepared by dissolving solid into of water?

A) 84.1% B) 72.7% C) 45.7% D) 54.3% E) none of the above Answer: C

of

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global Outcome: G4

30) What is the mass percent of a sodium fluoride solution prepared by dissolving fluoride into of water?

A) 26.9% B) 42.3% C) 70.3% D) 29.7% E) none of the above Answer: D

of sodium

Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global Outcome: G4

31) How many grams of a 23.4% by mass NaF solution is needed if you want to have A) 55.9 B) 31.1 C) 13.1 D) 239 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.5 Global Outcome: G4

32) How many moles of NaF are in 34.2 grams of a 45.5% by mass NaF solution?

A) 0.814 B) 75.2 C) 15.6 D) 0.371 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.5 Global Outcome: G4

14 .

of NaF?

33) What is the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving A) 42.8 B) 0.0714 C) 2.86 D) 0.286 E) none of the above Answer: D

NaI in

?

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global Outcome: G4

34) You need to prepare 2.00 L of 0.100 M Na 2CO3 solution. The best procedure is to weigh out: A) 10.6 g Na2CO3 and add 2.00 L of water to it.

B) 21.2 g Na2CO3 and add 2.00 L of water to it.

C) 10.6 g Na2CO3 and add water until the final solution has a volume of 2.00 L. D) 21.2 g Na2CO3 and add water until the final solution has a volume of 2.00 L. Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global Outcome: G4

35) Given that you wished to use exactly 0.325 mole of NaCl to prepare a 2.50 M NaCl solution, how many milliliters of solution must you prepare?

A) 130. mL B) 0.130 mL C) 7.69 mL D) 0.813 mL E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.7 Global Outcome: G4

36) How many moles of KOH are contained in 750. mL of 5.00 M KOH solution?

A) 6.67 mol B) 3.75 × mol C) 56.1 mol D) 3.75 mol E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.7 Global Outcome: G4

15 .

37) What is the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving

of Ca(N

into

of water?

A) 0.331 M B) 0.932 M C) 0.117 M D) 1.99 M E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global Outcome: G4

38) How many grams of KCl are needed to make A) 9.13 B) 1.52 C) 91.3 D) 0.123 E) none of the above Answer: A

of

KCl?

Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.7 Global Outcome: G4

39) How many grams of LiF would be present in 575 mL of 0.750 M LiF solution?

A) 11.2 B) 0.0338 C) 1.12 × 104 D) 19.9 E) 33.8 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.7 Global Outcome: G4

40) What mass (in grams) of fructose (C6H12O6) is contained in 125 mL of a 0.500 M fructose solution?

A) 11.3 B) 11300 C) 721 D) 0.0625 E) 180.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.7 Global Outcome: G4

16 .

41) Oftentimes solubility of a compound limits the concentration of the solution that can be prepared. Use the solubility data given with each compound shown below to determine which compound would allow the preparation of a 10.0 Molar solution.

A) AgNO3 (solubility = 122 g/100 g H2O) B) KCl (solubility = 34.0 g/100 g H2O) C) NaNO3 (solubility = 89.0 g/100 g H2O) D) NH4Cl (solubility = 41.1 g/100 g H2O) E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.7 Global Outcome: G4

42) A 0.15 M solution of BaCl2 contains: A) 0.15 M Ba2+ ions and 0.15 M Cl- ions.

B) 0.15 M Ba2+ ions and 0.30 M Cl- ions.

C) 0.30 M Ba2+ ions and 0.15 M Cl- ions.

D) 0.30 M Ba2+ ions and 0.30 M Cl- ions.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.8 Global Outcome: G4

43) What are the ion concentrations in a 0.12 M solution of AlCl 3?

A) 0.36 M Al3+ ions and 0.12 M Cl- ions B) 0.12 M Al3+ ions and 0.040 M Cl- ions C) 0.12 M Al3+ ions and 0.36 M Cl- ions D) 0.040 M Al3+ ions and 0.040 M Cl- ions E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.8 Global Outcome: G4

44) Which one of the following aqueous solutions would have the higher concentration of K + (aq) ions?

(Assume total solubility in water.)

A) 1.0 M KC2H3O2 B) 1.0 M KNO3 C) 1.0 M K2CO3 D) 1.0 M K3PO4 E) All of these solutions have the same concentration of K+ (aq).

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.8 Global Outcome: G7

17 .

45) Which solution below contains the highest total quantity of dissolved sodium ions?

A) 100. mL of 4.0 M NaCl B) 75.0 mL of 3.0 M Na2SO4 C) 50.0 mL of 8.0 M NaOH D) 50.0 mL of 2.0 M Na3PO4 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.8 Global Outcome: G4

46) How many liters of a 2.18 M solution can be made from

S?

A) 0.832 B) 1.81 C) 0.252 D) 1.20 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.9 Global Outcome: G4

47) After you have completed the task of diluting a solution, which statement below must be TRUE? A) The new solution has more volume but has a lower concentration than before.

B) The new solution has more volume but has a higher concentration than before.

C) The new solution has less volume but has a lower concentration than before.

D) The new solution has less volume but has a higher concentration than before.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.9 Global Outcome: G2

48) A 90.0 g sample of NaOH is dissolved in water and the solution is diluted to give a final volume of 3.00 liters. The molarity of the final solution is ________.

A) 0.500 M B) 0.750 M C) 1.00 M D) 2.25 M E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.9 Global Outcome: G4

18 .

49) What is the final concentration of a solution prepared by diluting volume of ?

A) 0.504 M B) 3.50 M C) 0.420 M D) 0.350 M E) none of the above Answer: D

of

HCl to a final

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.9 Global Outcome: G4

50) What volume of 12.0 M HCl is required to make 75.0 mL of 3.50 M HCl? A) 21.9 mL B) 0.560 mL C) 257 mL D) 560. mL E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.9 Global Outcome: G4

51) What volume of 9.00 M nitric acid is needed to make A) 903 mL B) 1.73 L C) 1.10 L D) 748 mL E) none of the above Answer: A

of

solution?

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.9 Global Outcome: G4

52) What molarity should the stock solution be if you want to dilute concentration be ?

A) 0.206 M B) 8.24 M C) 4.12 M D) 0.243 M E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.9 Global Outcome: G4

19 .

to

and have the final

53) If you add 4.00 mL of pure water to 6.00 mL of 0.750 M NaCl solution, what is the concentration of sodium chloride in the diluted solution?

A) 0.250 M B) 0.450 M C) 0.500 M D) 1.13 M E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.9 Global Outcome: G4

54) How much water would you ADD to 175 mL of 6.00 M hydrochloric acid to prepare a 2.00 M solution of this acid?

A) 525 mL B) 350 mL C) 58.3 mL D) 700. mL E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.9 Global Outcome: G4

55) How many grams of barium sulfate are produced if the reaction: Ba

(aq) + N

S

(aq) → BaS

(s) + 2NaCl (aq)

A) 5.90 B) 26.3 C) 1039 D) 0.668 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.10a Global Outcome: G4

20 .

of

BaC

completely react given

56) What is the concentration of sodium chloride in the final solution if completely reacts and the total volume of the reaction is Ba

(aq) + N

S

(aq) → BaS

of

BaC

, given the reaction:

(s) + 2NaCl (aq)

A) 0.226 B) 0.0259 C) 0.0519 D) 0.667 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.10a Global Outcome: G4

57) How many mL of 0.218 M sodium sulfate react with exactly

of

BaC

given the

reaction: Ba

(aq) + N

S

(aq) → BaS

(s) + 2NaCl (aq)

A) 13.1 B) 5.52 C) 24.6 D) 2.86 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.10a Global Outcome: G4

58) How many milliliters of 0.755 M H2SO4 solution is needed to react with 55.0 mL of 2.50 M KOH solution?

Given: 2 KOH (aq) + H2SO4 (aq) → 2 H2O (l) + K2SO4 (aq) A) 51.9 mL B) 182 mL C) 91.1 mL D) 17200 mL E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.10a Global Outcome: G4

21 .

59) In comparing a 0.25 molality aqueous NaCl solution to a 0.25 molality aqueous CaCl 2 solution: A) the NaCl solution has the higher boiling point and the lower freezing point.

B) the CaCl2 solution has the higher boiling point and the lower freezing point.

C) the NaCl solution has the higher boiling point and the CaCl 2 solution has the lower freezing point.

D) the CaCl2 solution has the higher boiling point and the NaCl solution has the lower freezing point.

E) both solutions have the same boiling point and the same freezing point.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.9 Learning Outcome: 13.11 Global Outcome: G2

60) What is the molality of a solution made by dissolving Assume the density of water is A) 0.544 B) 0.0816 C) 10.2 D) 0.980 E) none of the above Answer: A

of

into

of water?

.

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.9 Learning Outcome: 13.11 Global Outcome: G4

61) Which of the following statements about colligative properties is FALSE? A) The boiling point of a solution is increased by the addition of salt.

B) The freezing point of a solution is lowered by the addition of salt.

C) The change in temperature is proportional to the molality.

D) The identity of the solute is not a factor.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.9 Learning Outcome: 13.12 Global Outcome: G2

62) Which of the following aqueous solutions would be expected to freeze at the lowest temperature?

A) 1 molal KNO3 B) 1 molal NaCl C) 1 molal CaCl2 D) 1 molal C6H12O6 (fructose) E) All of these solutions would freeze at the same temperature.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.9 Learning Outcome: 13.12 Global Outcome: G2

22 .

63) What is the change in the boiling point of a solution made by dissolving 14.7 g of C 6H12O6 into of water? The density of water is

and

.

A) 0.502°C B) 5.22°C C) 0.0418°C D) 0.279°C E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.9 Learning Outcome: 13.12 Global Outcome: G4

64) What is the change in the freezing point of a solution made by dissolving of water? The density of water is

of C6H12O6 into

and

A) 0.152°C B) 1.01°C C) 18.97°C D) 1.82°C E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.9 Learning Outcome: 13.12 Global Outcome: G4

65) Why is it NOT a good idea to drink seawater when people are lost at sea?

A) The high concentration of salt forces water out of the cells lining your stomach and intestine.

B) The osmotic pressure builds up in the cells of your intestine until they potentially rupture.

C) The semipermeable membrane protecting your stomach is ruptured during osmosis.

D) The seawater has fish urine in it and who wants to drink that?

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.10 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global Outcome: G1

66) What will happen if a healthy red blood cell is placed into a container of pure water?

A) The cell will totally dissolve in the water.

B) The cell will remain unchanged.

C) The cell will become swollen.

D) The cell will shrink.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.10 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global Outcome: G2

23 .

67) Solution A has a concentration of 0.10 M sugar and Solution B has a concentration of 0.20 M sugar. If the two solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane, which of the following occurs during osmosis?

A) Solvent molecules move from B into A. B) Sugar molecules move from B into A. C) The molarity of A increases.

D) The molarity of B increases.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.10 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global Outcome: G2

68) An osmosis cell is constructed of a "U" shaped tube with a semipermeable membrane separating the two arms of the tube. Suppose a concentrated solution is placed in the left arm of the U-tube, and a dilute concentration of the same substance is poured into the other arm to the same height. After a period of time has elapsed, you would expect to find that: A) the level of liquid in the left arm is now higher.

B) the level of the liquid in the right arm is now higher.

C) the levels in both arms stay at the same height.

D) no molecules of any type cross the membrane.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.10 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global Outcome: G2

69) Osmotic pressure is: A) the pressure required to stop the flow of solvent from a region of high solute concentration to a region of low solute concentration.

B) the pressure required to stop the rupture of the semipermeable membrane.

C) the pressure required to reverse the flow of solvent through a semipermeable membrane during osmosis.

D) the pressure required to stop the flow of solvent from a region of low solute concentration through a semipermeable membrane into a region of high solute concentration.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 13.10 Learning Outcome: 13.13 Global Outcome: G1

24 .

13.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) Calculate the mass percent of a NaCl solution prepared by mixing 47.0 g NaCl with water.

A) 27.3 B) 72.3 C) 47.0 D) 37.6 E) none of the above Answer: A

of pure

Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 13.5 Learning Outcome: 13.4 Global Outcome: G4

2) Calculate the molarity of a KCl solution prepared by dissolving 0.525 moles of KCl in A) 0.476 B) 0.00210 C) 2.10 D) 2.02 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global Outcome: G4

3) Calculate the molarity of a KCl solution made by dissolving 24.7 g of KCl in a total volume of A) 0.331 B) 0.663 C) 0.166 D) 6.04 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.6 Global Outcome: G4

4) How many moles of KCl are present in 95.3 mL of A) 0.0500 B) 5.00 C) 20.0 D) 0.200 E) none of the above Answer: D

KCl?

Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.7 Global Outcome: G4

25 .

.

5) How many grams of KCl are present in 75.0 mL of A) 5.59 B) 117 C) 2.66 D) 11.7 E) none of the above Answer: D

?

Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.7 Global Outcome: G4

6) What volume (L) of 2.00 M KCl solution contains 25.0 g of KCl? A) 0.335 B) 0.168 C) 0.672 D) 1.49 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.7 Global Outcome: G4

7) Which of the following aqueous solutions has the highest molar concentration of Na + (aq)?

(Assume each compound is fully dissolved in water.)

A) 3.0M NaCl (sodium chloride) B) 3.0M NaC2H3O2 (sodium acetate) C) 1.5M Na2SO4 (sodium sulfate) D) 1.0M Na3PO4 (sodium phosphate) E) All of these solutions have the same concentration of Na + (aq).

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 13.6 Learning Outcome: 13.8 Global Outcome: G7

8) What is the final concentration (M) of a solution prepared by diluting 50.0 mL of a to a volume of A) 1.67 B) 0.600 C) 0.0167 D) 3.0 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 13.7 Learning Outcome: 13.9 Global Outcome: G4

26 .

solution

9) How many mL of 0.112 M Pb(N Given: Pb(N

are needed to completely react with

(aq) + 2KI(aq) → Pb (s) + 2KN

of

?

(aq)

A) 11.7 B) 23.4 C) 0.147 D) 5.85 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.10a Global Outcome: G4

10) Determine the volume (liters) of 0.500M NaOH solution required to neutralize 1.50L of 0.750M H2SO4.

The neutralization reaction is: H2SO4 (aq) + 2NaOH (aq) → Na2SO4 (aq) + 2 H2O (l) A) 2.25 B) 1.13 C) 2.00 D) 4.50 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 13.8 Learning Outcome: 13.10a Global Outcome: G4

11) Calculate the molality of a solution prepared by dissolving 19.9 g of KCl in A) 0.200 B) 0.356 C) 4.99 D) 0.267 E) none of the above Answer: B

of water.

Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 13.9 Learning Outcome: 13.11 Global Outcome: G4

12) Given that the freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86°C kg/mol, calculate the change in freezing point for a sugar solution.

A) 0.488°C B) 2.05°C C) 0.592°C D) 1.69°C E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 13.9 Learning Outcome: 13.12 Global Outcome: G4

27 .

Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 14 Acids and Bases 14.1 True/False Questions 1) Acids have a bitter taste.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.1 Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Acids produce H⁺ ions in solution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.1 Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) Acids turn litmus paper blue.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global Outcome: G1

4) The main component of stomach acid is sulfuric acid.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global Outcome: G1

5) The main component of vinegar is acetic acid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global Outcome: G1

6) Bases have a bitter taste.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global Outcome: G1

7) Bases feel slippery.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global Outcome: G1

1 .

8) Bases feel slippery because they react with oils on your skin to form soap-like substances.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global Outcome: G1

9) Sodium hydroxide is often used in the manufacturing of soap.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global Outcome: G1

10) The sour taste of bases warns humans against eating poisonous alkaloids found in some plants.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global Outcome: G1

11) An Arrhenius base is a proton acceptor.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global Outcome: G1

12) A Bronsted-Lowry acid is a proton donor.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global Outcome: G1

13) H⁺ is called the hydronium ion.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global Outcome: G1

14) A conjugate acid-base pair are two substances related to each other by the transfer of a proton.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global Outcome: G1

15) The conjugate base to HSO4- is SO42-.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global Outcome: G2

2 .

16) H2SO3 and H2SO4 are considered a conjugate acid-base pair.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global Outcome: G2

17) NH4+ and NH3 are considered a conjugate acid-base conjugate pair.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global Outcome: G2

18) The products of a neutralization reaction are carbon dioxide and water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.5 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global Outcome: G1

19) The salt that forms due to neutralization of phosphoric acid by calcium hydroxide has the formula Ca3P2.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.5 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global Outcome: G1

20) When a metal reacts with an acid it produces salt and water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.5 Learning Outcome: 14.6 Global Outcome: G1

21) Aluminum is one of the few metals that dissolves in a strong base.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.5 Learning Outcome: 14.6 Global Outcome: G1

22) In a titration, the indicator is used to signal when the endpoint has been reached.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.7 Global Outcome: G1

23) A 100 mL sample of 4.0 M H2SO4 could be neutralized by 100 mL of 4.0 M NH3.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.7 Global Outcome: G4

3 .

24) A strong acid is one that completely dissociates into ions in solution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global Outcome: G1

25) The equation HCl (aq) + H2O (l) ↔ H3O+ (aq) + Cl- (aq) properly depicts the behavior of hydrochloric acid in water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global Outcome: G2

26) A strong acid must also be a strong electrolyte.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global Outcome: G1

27) A strong acid is one that is very concentrated.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global Outcome: G1

28) A weak acid is a dilute acid that is not very powerful.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global Outcome: G1

29) Since diprotic acids such as H2CO3 have two ionizable protons, they will always behave as strong acids compared to monoprotic acids.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global Outcome: G2

30) In general, the stronger the acid, the weaker is its conjugate base.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global Outcome: G1

31) Water always acts as an acid in reactions.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global Outcome: G1

4 .

32) A neutral solution does not contain any H⁺ or OH⁻.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global Outcome: G1

33) The ion product constant for water (Kw) is best stated as Kw = [H2O] [H+].

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global Outcome: G1

34) A solution of pH 2 contains ten times more H3O+ than a solution of pH 3.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.12 Global Outcome: G2

35) The pH of 0.001 M HCl is 3.0.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.12 Global Outcome: G2

36) A 1.0 M [H3O+] solution of a strong acid would have a pH equal to zero.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.12 Global Outcome: G2

37) A solution with a concentration of 0.000 000 1 M HCl would be an acidic solution.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.12 Global Outcome: G2

38) The pH of a 0.0001 M NaOH solution is 4.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.12 Global Outcome: G2

39) A solution that has a pH of 8.5 is considered a weak base.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.12 Global Outcome: G2

5 .

40) A pH of 7 is equivalent to a pOH of 7.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.15 Global Outcome: G2

41) A solution that has a pH of 10 would also have a pOH of 4.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.15 Global Outcome: G2

42) A buffer resists a change in pH by being able to react with an acid or a base.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.10 Learning Outcome: 14.16 Global Outcome: G1

43) A simple buffer can be prepared by mixing significant amounts of a weak acid and its conjugate base.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.10 Learning Outcome: 14.16 Global Outcome: G1

44) The burning of fossil fuels produces nitrogen oxides and sulfur oxides which can react to form acid rain (nitric and sulfuric acids).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.11 Global Outcome: G1

45) Rain is naturally somewhat acidic because of atmospheric carbon dioxide.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.11 Global Outcome: G1

6 .

14.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is NOT a property of acids?

A) Acids have a slippery feel.

B) Acids have a sour taste.

C) Acids turn litmus paper red.

D) Acids dissolve many metals.

E) All of the above are properties of acids.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Which of the following statements about acids are TRUE? 1. An acid is used in car batteries.

2. A component of vinegar is an acid.

3. Acids are used for cleaning metals.

A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) Neither 1, 2, or 3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) Carboxylic acids can be found in: A) grapes.

B) apples.

C) lemons.

D) all of the above E) none of these Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global Outcome: G1

4) Which among the following acids is commonly used for etching and frosting glass?

A) hydrochloric acid B) nitric acid C) hydrofluoric acid D) hydrobromic acid E) All of the above are used.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global Outcome: G1

7 .

5) Which of the following acids is commonly used for manufacturing fertilizer?

A) HCl B) HN C) HF D) HBr E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.2 Learning Outcome: 14.1 Global Outcome: G1

6) Which of the following is NOT a property of bases?

A) Bases have a slippery feel.

B) Bases have a bitter taste.

C) Bases turn litmus paper blue.

D) Bases dissolve many metals.

E) All of the above are properties of bases.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global Outcome: G1

7) Which of the following statements about a base are TRUE? 1. Bases are used in the manufacturing of soap.

2. Bases have a sour taste.

3. Fertilizer manufacture and cotton processing use bases.

A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) Neither 1, 2, or 3 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global Outcome: G1

8) Which of the following common bases is commonly used for manufacturing fertilizer?

A) NH3 B) NaHC C) KOH D) NaOH E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global Outcome: G1

8 .

9) Which of the following is the active ingredient of baking soda?

A) NH3 B) NaHC C) KOH D) NaOH E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.3 Learning Outcome: 14.2 Global Outcome: G1

10) The Arrhenius definition of an acid is: A) a proton donor.

B) a proton acceptor.

C) produces H⁺ in solution.

D) produces OH⁻ in solution.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.3 Global Outcome: G1

11) The Bronsted-Lowry definition of a base is: A) a proton donor.

B) a proton acceptor.

C) produces H⁺ in solution.

D) produces OH⁻ in solution.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global Outcome: G1

12) The Bronsted-Lowry definition of an acid is: A) a proton donor.

B) a proton acceptor.

C) produces H⁺ in solution.

D) produces OH⁻ in solution.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global Outcome: G1

9 .

13) Which of the following is NOT true?

A) The Bronsted-Lowry Model applies to a wider range of acid-base phenomena than does the Arrhenius Model.

B) The Arrhenius Model of acids and bases was developed before the Bronsted-Lowry Model.

C) The Bronsted-Lowry Model can apply to bases that do not contain hydroxide ions.

D) The Arrhenius Model of acids and bases applies toward substances that are nonaqueous.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.3|14.4 Global Outcome: G1

14) In examining the formula for acetic acid, HC2H3O2, the ionizable hydrogen atom(s) is/are: A) the H on the left.

B) one of the H's on the right-side.

C) all of the H's on the right-side.

D) all four H's.

E) none of the above.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global Outcome: G1

15) What is the conjugate acid of OH⁻?

A) B) O C) NaOH D) OH⁻ E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global Outcome: G2

16) What is the conjugate base of

O?

A) B) C) NaOH D) OH⁻ E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global Outcome: G2

10 .

17) Which of the following is NOT an acid-base conjugate pair?

A) H2CO3 and HCO3B) H2O and OHC) H2S and OHD) NH4+ and NH3 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global Outcome: G2

18) In the following reaction: HCO3- (aq) + H2O (aq) → H2CO3 (aq) + OH- (aq) A) HCO3- is an acid and H2CO3 is its conjugate base.

B) H2O is an acid and OH- is its conjugate base.

C) HCO3- is an acid and OH- is its conjugate base.

D) H2O is an acid and H2CO3 is its conjugate base.

E) H2O is an acid and HCO3- is its conjugate base.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global Outcome: G2

19) In the following reaction: NH4+ (aq) + H2O (aq) → NH3 (aq) + H3O+ (aq) A) NH4+ is an acid and H2O is its conjugate base.

B) H2O is a base and NH3 is its conjugate acid.

C) NH4+ is an acid and H3O+ is its conjugate base.

D) H2O is a base and H3O+ is its conjugate acid.

E) NH4+ is a base and H2O is its conjugate acid.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global Outcome: G2

20) Which of the following statements about water are TRUE? A) Water can act as an acid.

B) Water can act as a base.

C) The conjugate base of water is OH-.

D) The conjugate acid of water is H3O+.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global Outcome: G2

11 .

21) A substance that acts as an acid OR a base is called: A) isoprotic.

B) a salt.

C) amphoteric.

D) hydrophillic.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.4 Learning Outcome: 14.4 Global Outcome: G1

22) What are the products of a neutralization reaction?

A) salt and carbon dioxide B) carbon dioxide and water C) water and salt D) oil and water E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.5 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global Outcome: G1

23) A neutralization reaction between an acid and sodium hydroxide formed water and the salt named sodium sulfate. What was the formula of the acid that was neutralized?

A) H2S B) H2SO4 C) HCl D) Na2SO4 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.5 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global Outcome: G7

24) A neutralization reaction between KOH (aq) and H2SO4 (aq) would give which two products?

A) H2O (l) and H2S (g) B) H2O (l) and KSO4 (aq) C) H2O (l) and K2SO4 (aq) D) SO2 (g) and KH2 (g) E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.5 Learning Outcome: 14.5 Global Outcome: G2

12 .

25) When an acid reacts with a metal, what is one of the usual products?

A) water B) salt C) carbon dioxide D) hydrogen gas E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.5 Learning Outcome: 14.6 Global Outcome: G1

26) A 25.0 mL sample of 0.105 M HCl was titrated with NaOH? A) 0.0833 M B) 0.132 M C) 0.105 M D) 0.075 M E) none of the above Answer: A

of NaOH. What is the concentration of the

Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.7 Global Outcome: G4

27) A 35.0 mL sample of 0.225 M HBr was titrated with 42.3 mL of KOH. What is the concentration of the KOH? A) 0.157 M B) 0.303 M C) 0.272 M D) 0.186 M E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.7 Global Outcome: G4

28) Exactly 17.0 mL of a H2SO4 solution was required to neutralize 45.0 mL of 0.235 M NaOH. What was the concentration of the H2SO4 solution?

Given: H2SO4 (aq) + 2NaOH (aq) → 2H2O (l) + Na2SO4 (aq) A) 5.63 M B) 0.622 M C) 0.00529 M D) 0.311 M E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.7 Global Outcome: G4

13 .

29) Pure water cannot conduct electricity so why do we have to be careful with electrical appliances near water?

A) OSHA regulations B) Water can be broken down by electricity.

C) Water always has some ions dissolved in it.

D) Water dissociates fully into its ions.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 Global Outcome: G1

30) Which of the following acids is diprotic?

A) HCl B) HN C) HI D) E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global Outcome: G1

31) Which of the following acids is a diprotic, weak acid?

A) sulfuric acid B) phosphoric acid C) hydrobromic acid D) carbonic acid E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global Outcome: G1

32) Which of the following acids is a monoprotic, strong acid?

A) sulfuric acid B) phosphoric acid C) hydrobromic acid D) carbonic acid E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global Outcome: G1

14 .

33) Which of the following is a weak base?

A) calcium hydroxide B) sodium fluoride C) potassium hydroxide D) ammonia E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global Outcome: G1

34) In which solution is the [H3O+] less than 0.250 M? A) 0.250 M HC2H3O2 (aq) B) 0.250 M HF (aq) C) 0.250 M HCO2 (aq) D) all of these E) none of these Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.8 Global Outcome: G2

35) A 0.10 M solution of an electrolyte has a pH of 4.5. The electrolyte is: A) a strong acid.

B) a strong base.

C) a weak acid.

D) a weak base.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global Outcome: G2

36) What is the concentration of H⁺ in 2.0 M acetic acid, HC 2H3O2?

A) 1.0 M B) 2.0 M C) >2.0 M D) < 2.0 M E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global Outcome: G4

15 .

37) What is the concentration of H⁺ in 0.50 M hydroiodic acid?

A) 0.50 M B) 1.0 M C) <0.50 M D) 1.50 M E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global Outcome: G4

38) Ammonia (NH3) ionizes in water to form a basic solution. What is the concentration of OH- ions in a 0.75 M NH3 solution?

A) 0.75 M B) < 0.75 M C) > 0.75 M D) No OH- ions exist in a solution of NH3.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.10a Global Outcome: G4

39) Consider a 1.6 × 10-3 M solution of HNO3. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A) This solution would turn litmus to red.

B) This solution could neutralize a base.

C) This solution has a pH of 11.20.

D) This solution could dissolve metal.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.2|14.12 Global Outcome: G7

40) Substances that can act both as an acid and as a base are called: A) neutral.

B) buffers.

C) indicators.

D) amphoteric.

E) none of these Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.11 Global Outcome: G1

16 .

41) What is the value of the ion product constant for water (

)?

A) 0.0 B) 1.0 C) 1.0 D) 1.0 E) 1.0 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.11 Global Outcome: G4

42) What is the concentration of the hydroxide ion given that the concentration of the hydronium ion is ?

A) 6.7 × B) 1.5 C) 1.0

M M M

D) 1.0 M E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.11 Global Outcome: G4

43) What is the concentration of the hydronium ions in an acidic solution?

A) 0.0 M B) 1.0 M C) 1.0

M

D) > 1.0

M

E) < 1.0 Answer: D

M

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.13 Global Outcome: G4

44) The pH of a solution is 5.00. Which of the following is TRUE about the solution?

A) Its [H3O+] is 1.0 × 10-9 M B) Its [H3O+] is 1.0 × 10-5 M C) Its [H3O+] is 1.0 × 105 M D) It is more acidic than a solution whose pH is 4.00.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.13 Global Outcome: G4

17 .

45) What is the concentration of the hydronium ions in a neutral solution?

A) 0.0 M B) 1.0 M C) 1.0

M

D) > 1.0

M

E) < 1.0 Answer: B

M

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.13 Global Outcome: G4

46) What is the concentration of hydronium ions in a solution given that the concentration of hydroxide ions is 2.31 × 10-4 M? A) 4.33 × 10-11 M B) 2.31 × 1010 M C) 2.31 × 10-18 M D) 1.01 × 10-5 M E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.14 Global Outcome: G4

47) Which solution below has the highest concentration of hydroxide ions?

A) pH = 3.21 B) pH = 12.49 C) pH = 7.00 D) pH = 10.12 E) pH = 7.93 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.14 Global Outcome: G4

48) In order for a solution to be acidic: A) [H3O+] < [OH-] B) [H3O+] > [OH-] C) [H3O+] = [OH-] D) pH = pOH E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.15 Global Outcome: G4

18 .

49) In order for a solution to be basic: A) [H3O+] > [OH-] B) [H3O+] < [OH-] C) [H3O+] = [OH-] D) pH = pOH E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.15 Global Outcome: G2

50) What is the concentration of the hydroxide ions in an acidic solution?

A) 0.0 M B) 1.0 M C) 1.0

M

D) > 1.0

M

E) < 1.0 Answer: E

M

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.15 Global Outcome: G4

51) In a solution that has a pH = 7.0: A) [H3O+] > [OH-] B) [H3O+] < [OH-] C) [H3O+] = [OH-] D) [H3O+] + [OH-] = Kw E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.15 Global Outcome: G2

52) A solution at 25°C has a hydrogen ion concentration of 2.6 × 10 -5 M. Which of the following is TRUE? A) [H3O+] > [OH-] B) [H3O+] < [OH-] C) [H3O+] = [OH-] D) [H3O+] = E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.15 Global Outcome: G2

19 .

53) What is the pH of a solution that has a H⁺ concentration equal to A) 4.77 B) 5.20 C) 0.22 D) 10.20 E) none of the above Answer: A

?

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.12 Global Outcome: G4

54) Consider a 1.0 M HCl solution and a 1.0 true?

A) The HCl solution is acidic.

B) The NaOH solution is basic.

C) Only the HCl solution is neutral.

D) Only the NaOH solution is neutral.

E) Both of these solutions are neutral.

Answer: E

M NaOH solution. Which statement below is

Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.12 Global Outcome: G2

55) If the pH of an aqueous solution changed from 9.10 to 4.67, what happened to the hydronium ion concentration?

A) It decreased.

B) It became zero.

C) It became less than zero.

D) It increased.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.13 Global Outcome: G2

56) What is the [H⁺] in a solution that has a pH of 3.35?

A) 1 × M B) 2.2 ×

M

C) 4.5 ×

M

D) 3.35 × M E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.13 Global Outcome: G4

20 .

57) What is the pOH of a solution that has a OH- concentration equal to A) 9.89 B) 4.29 C) -4.3 D) 4.12 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.14 Global Outcome: G4

58) What is the [OH-] in a solution that has a pOH of 9.65?

A) 4.5 × M B) 4.5 ×

M

C) 9.8 ×

M

D) 2.2 × M E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.14 Global Outcome: G4

59) Which solution below is considered to have basic character?

A) pOH = 7 B) pH = 2 C) pOH = 4 D) pOH = 13 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.15 Global Outcome: G2

60) Which of the following is TRUE of alkaloid compounds?

A) Alkaloids are organic bases.

B) Alkaloids occur naturally in many plants.

C) Some narcotic drugs are alkaloids.

D) Some alkaloids are addictive.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.10 Global Outcome: G1

21 .

?

61) A buffer solution is all of the following EXCEPT: A) a solution that resists a change in pH when a base is added.

B) a solution that resists a change in pH when an acid is added.

C) a solution that contains both a weak acid and its conjugate base.

D) a solution that regulates pH because it is such a strong acid or base.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.10 Learning Outcome: 14.16 Global Outcome: G1

62) Which of the following statements are TRUE of buffer solutions?

1. A buffer solution can be made by mixing equal concentrations of acetic acid and sodium acetate.

2. A buffer solution can be made by mixing equal concentrations of hydrochloric acid and sodium chloride.

3. A buffer solution resists changes in pH when small quantities of acid or base are added.

A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) None of 1, 2, and 3 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.10 Learning Outcome: 14.16 Global Outcome: G1

63) Which combination below will be a buffer solution?

A) HCl and Cl⁻ B) HN and NaN C) H

and Na

D) NaBr and NaOH E) All of the above are true.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.10 Learning Outcome: 14.16 Global Outcome: G2

64) Which of the following contributes to acid rain?

A) The use of volatile acids in industry.

B) The reaction of metal oxides with water.

C) The reaction of nonmetal oxides with water.

D) The reaction of alkali metals with water.

E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.11 Global Outcome: G1

22 .

65) Acid rain legislation targeted the release of which compound by industry?

A) C B) S C) dioxin D) benzene E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 14.11 Global Outcome: G1

14.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) The titration of 25.00 mL a 0.125 M HCl

solution required 21.37 mL of KOH to reach the endpoint.

What is the concentration of the KOH? A) 0.292 M B) 0.0668 M C) 0.146 M D) 0.134 M E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 14.6 Learning Outcome: 14.7 Global Outcome: G4

2) What is the concentration of

in a 0.121 M HCl solution?

A) 1.0 M B) < 0.121 M C) 0.121 M D) not enough information E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 14.7 Learning Outcome: 14.9 Global Outcome: G4

3) What is the concentration of A) 3.94 ×

M

B) 2.54 ×

M

in solution given the [OH⁻] = 2.54 ×

C) 1.0 × M D) not enough information E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 14.8 Learning Outcome: 14.10a Global Outcome: G4

23 .

?

4) What is the pH of a solution that has a [ A) 1.35 B) 2.35 C) 3.35 D) 7.0045 E) none of the above Answer: B

] = 0.0045 M?

Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.12 Global Outcome: G4

5) What is the pH of a solution that has a [ A) 2.48 B) 7.0033 C) 11.52 D) 3.3 E) none of the above Answer: C

] = 0.0033 M?

Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.12 Global Outcome: G4

6) Which solution below would be considered the most acidic?

A) 2.9 × 10 -4 M HCl B) 4.5 × 10 -5 M HNO3 C) 1.0 × 10 -7 M NaCl D) 1.5 × 10 -2 M KOH E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.12 Global Outcome: G4

7) What is the concentration of A) 4.5 M B) 1.3 M C) 0.0032 M D) 0.40 M E) none of the above Answer: C

in a solution with pH = 2.50?

Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 14.9 Learning Outcome: 14.13 Global Outcome: G4

24 .

Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 15 Chemical Equilibrium 15.1 True/False Questions 1) Equilibrium involves the ideas of sameness and constancy.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Living things are in equilibrium with their surroundings.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) The rate of a chemical reaction is the amount of reactant that changes to product in a specific amount of time.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.2 Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global Outcome: G1

4) Collisions between reactant molecules do not always lead to the formation of product molecules.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.2 Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global Outcome: G1

5) Reaction rates generally increase as a reaction proceeds.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.2 Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global Outcome: G1

6) The rate of a chemical reaction always remains the same from start to finish.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.2 Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global Outcome: G1

7) The rate of a reaction increases with increasing concentrations of reactants because you have more collisions occurring in a given time period.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.2 Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global Outcome: G1

1 .

8) The rate of a chemical reaction is inversely proportional to the temperature.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.2 Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global Outcome: G1

9) A reversible reaction is one that can be stopped and then restarted as needed.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global Outcome: G1

10) Dynamic equilibrium occurs when the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global Outcome: G1

11) Dynamic equilibrium is established when the rate of the forward reaction goes to zero.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global Outcome: G1

12) When dynamic equilibrium is achieved, the concentrations of reactants is equal to the concentrations of the products.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global Outcome: G1

13) When dynamic equilibrium is achieved, the rates of the forward and backward reactions go to zero.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global Outcome: G1

14) The Equilibrium Constant,

, is a way to quantify the relative concentrations of the reactants and

products of a reaction at equilibrium.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G1

15) It is not necessary to have a balanced equation before writing an equilibrium constant expression.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G1

2 .

16) The larger the equilibrium constant, the greater is the concentration of reactants relative to products at equilibrium.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G1

17) As long as

> 1, all reactants will eventually be consumed and leave us exclusively with product

molecules.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G2

18) Placing a [ ] around the formula of a chemical means that we are referring to the molar concentration of that chemical.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G1

19) A large equilibrium constant

indicates that the forward reaction is largely favored.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G1

20) Since the equilibrium constant ( products,

) is calculated using the numerical concentrations of reactants and

can never be a negative value.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G2

21) If

equals about ≈1, then neither direction is favored and significant amounts of both reactants and

products are present at equilibrium.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G1

22) A reaction that has

= 2.0 × 1

will have high concentrations of products.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G2

3 .

23) A reaction that has

= 2.0 × 1

will have high concentrations of products.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G2

24) For a given chemical equation, the coefficients for each substance become the exponents for each substance in the written equilibrium expression.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G1

25) If

= 2 for the reaction X ⇌ Y, then the

for Y ⇌ X will be 1/2 (or 0.5).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G2

26) The equilibrium expression for the reaction:

.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.5 Learning Outcome: 15.4 Global Outcome: G4

27) The equilibrium expression for the reaction:

.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.5 Learning Outcome: 15.4 Global Outcome: G2

28) The equilibrium expression for the reaction:

.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.5 Learning Outcome: 15.4 Global Outcome: G2

29) The equilibrium constant,

, for an equilibrium reaction will always be the same (at a given

temperature) regardless of what the initial concentrations of reactants and products were.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global Outcome: G1

4 .

30) Le Chatelier's principle states that a chemical system must have a shift in direction in order to force the system to reach equilibrium.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.7 Learning Outcome: 15.7 Global Outcome: G1

31) Le Chatelier's principle states that when a chemical system at equilibrium is disturbed, the system shifts in a direction that minimizes the disturbance.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.7 Learning Outcome: 15.7 Global Outcome: G1

32) Increasing the amount of carbon in the reaction below will cause the reaction to proceed to the left so that equilibrium will be restored.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.8 Learning Outcome: 15.8 Global Outcome: G2

33) Decreasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the reaction below will cause the reaction to proceed to the right so that equilibrium will be restored.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.8 Learning Outcome: 15.8 Global Outcome: G2

34) If you have a chamber of gases at equilibrium, compressing the gases to half the original volume would have the same effect as doubling the pressure.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.9 Global Outcome: G2

35) Decreasing the volume of the system below causes the reaction to shift towards the right.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.9 Global Outcome: G2

5 .

36) Increasing the volume of the system below causes the reaction to shift towards the right.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.9 Global Outcome: G2

37) In an exothermic reaction, you can consider the emitted heat as a reactant in this system.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.10 Learning Outcome: 15.10a Global Outcome: G2

38) Adding heat to an endothermic reaction causes the reaction to shift to the right.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.10 Learning Outcome: 15.10a Global Outcome: G2

39) Adding heat to an exothermic reaction will cause the reaction to remain unchanged.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.10 Learning Outcome: 15.10a Global Outcome: G2

40) If the equilibrium constant,

, for a reaction increases upon heating, the reaction must have been

endothermic.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.10 Learning Outcome: 15.10a Global Outcome: G2

41) If an equilibrium reaction shifts to the right when the system is cooled, this indicates that the reaction is endothermic.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.10 Learning Outcome: 15.10a Global Outcome: G2

42) A compound with a relatively small

value indicates that the compound is only partially soluble.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global Outcome: G2

6 .

43) A compound with a very large

value is generally considered to be only partially soluble.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global Outcome: G2

44) Dissolving the compound PbCl2 into water can be represented as , so the equilibrium expression is Ksp =

.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global Outcome: G4

45) Iron(II) carbonate (

= 3.07 × 10-11) is more soluble than calcium fluoride (

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global Outcome: G2

46) A catalyst speeds up a chemical reaction as it is being consumed.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.12 Learning Outcome: 15.13 Global Outcome: G1

7 .

= 1.46 × 10-10).

15.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A description of life is: A) Living things maintain and control their sameness.

B) Living things maintain and control their changelessness.

C) Living things maintain and control their equilibrium.

D) Living things maintain and control their disequilibrium.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) According to the collision theory of chemical reactions: A) high energy collisions result in few successful reactions as there isn't sufficient time for the products to react.

B) low energy collisions result in many successful reactions as there is sufficient time for the reactants to form products.

C) high energy collisions lead to the successful formation of products.

D) low energy collisions do not occur in the gas phase.

E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.2 Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) Which of the following changes will increase the reaction rate?

A) an increase in the concentration of the products B) a decrease of the reaction temperature C) allowing more time for the reaction D) an increase in the concentration of reactants E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.2 Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global Outcome: G7

4) Which of the following changes will increase reaction rate?

1. An increase in the concentration of reactants 2. An increase in temperature 3. Higher-energy collisions between reacting molecules A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) Neither 1, 2, or 3 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.2 Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global Outcome: G7

8 .

5) Why does the rate of the reaction decrease over time?

A) Exothermic reactions lose heat which cools the reaction which decreases reaction rate.

B) As the reaction proceeds, the concentration of the products results in fewer collisions.

C) As the reaction proceeds, a decrease in the concentration of reactants results in fewer successful collisions.

D) Not all molecules will react and some choose to stay in their present form.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.2 Learning Outcome: 15.1 Global Outcome: G7

6) Which of the following is TRUE for a system that is in dynamic equilibrium?

A) The forward reaction goes to 100% completion.

B) The reaction rate of the forward reaction approaches zero.

C) The concentration of products is equal to the concentration of the reactants.

D) Both the forward and reverse reactions come to a halt.

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global Outcome: G7

7) Which of the following is TRUE about a chemical system in equilibrium?

A) No reaction takes place.

B) Temperature changes have no effect on reaction rate.

C) Addition of more reactants have no effect on reaction rate.

D) Reaction rate remains stable as long as temperature and pressure are stable.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global Outcome: G7

8) Suppose a wall divides a playground, and twenty balls lie on the ground on the east side, while forty balls lie on the west side. If a child on the east side of the wall always tosses a ball over the wall at the same time a child on the west side tosses a ball over the wall, then: A) equilibrium has been established.

B) all balls will eventually end up on one side.

C) equilibrium will be established once thirty balls are on each side.

D) this system can never reach equilibrium.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global Outcome: G2

9 .

9) A chemical equilibrium exists when: A) reactants are completely changed to products.

B) there are equal amounts of reactants and products.

C) the rate at which reactants form products becomes zero.

D) the sum of reactant and product concentrations equals one mole.

E) the rate at which reactants form products is the same as the rate at which products form reactants.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global Outcome: G7

10) A system is said to be in dynamic equilibrium when: A) there is no longer any net change in the concentrations of products or reactants.

B) the forward and reverse reactions come to a halt.

C) the sum of the concentrations of the reactants is equal to the sum of the concentrations of the products.

D) you have let the reaction proceed for approximately 30 minutes and can assume there will be no more changes.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global Outcome: G7

11) Given N2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) ⇌ 2 NH3 (g), which scenario will allow you to eventually reach an equilibrium mixture involving these chemicals?

A) Place only N2 into a sealed vessel.

B) Place only H2 into a sealed vessel.

C) Place only NH3 into a sealed vessel.

D) All of the above scenarios.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.3 Learning Outcome: 15.2 Global Outcome: G7

10 .

12) For the reaction aA + bB ⇌ cC + dD, the equilibrium expression is: A)

=

B)

=

C)

=

D)

=

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G4

13) For the reaction 2A + B ⇌ 2C + 3D, the equilibrium expression is: A)

=

B)

=

C)

=

D)

=

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G4

14) The chemical equation that would generate the equilibrium expression (Assume all substances are gases in this reaction.)

A) C + 2B ⇌ 3A B) 3A ⇌ 2B + C C) A ⇌ B + C D) 1/2 B + C ⇌ 1/3 A E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G4

11 .

is ________.

15) For the reaction A)

=

B)

=

C)

=

D)

=

⇌ 2S

+

, the equilibrium expression is:

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G4

16) Which equilibrium constant represents a reaction that favors the formation of the products to the greatest extent?

A) = 100 B)

= 1.0 ×

C)

= 1.0 ×

D)

= 1.0 ×

E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G2

17) Which equilibrium constant represents a reaction that favors the reactants to the greatest extent?

A) = 100 B)

= 1.0 ×

C)

= 1.0 ×

D)

= 1.0 ×

E) not enough information Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G2

12 .

18) Which of the following is TRUE of a system for which

<< 1?

A) It will take a long time to reach equilibrium.

B) It will take a short time to reach equilibrium.

C) The equilibrium favors the reverse reaction.

D) The equilibrium favors the forward reaction.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G2

19) Which of the following is TRUE of a system for which

>> 1?

A) It will take a short time to reach equilibrium.

B) It will take a long time to reach equilibrium.

C) The equilibrium favors the reverse reaction.

D) The equilibrium favors the forward reaction.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G2

20) Identify the equation for which S(s) ⇌

(aq) + 2

(aq)

B) CuS(s) ⇌

(aq) +

(aq)

A)

C)

S(s) ⇌

(aq) +

D)

S(s) ⇌ 2

(aq) +

=[

]2 [

].

(aq) (aq)

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G4

21) What must be TRUE for a reaction possessing a large equilibrium constant?

A) The reaction rate is fast.

B) The reaction rate is slow.

C) The forward reaction is favored.

D) The reverse reaction is favored.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.4 Learning Outcome: 15.3 Global Outcome: G2

13 .

22) When writing the expression for an equilibrium constant, which type of substance IS included?

A) solids B) pure liquids C) gases D) all of the above E) none of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.5 Learning Outcome: 15.4 Global Outcome: G1

23) For the reaction 2 H2O (l) ⇌ 2H2 (g) + O2 (g), the equilibrium expression is: A)

= [H2O]2

B)

= [H2]2 [O2]

C)

=

D)

=

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.5 Learning Outcome: 15.4 Global Outcome: G4

S(s) ⇌ 2

24) For the reaction A)

=

B)

=

C)

=[

]2 [

D)

=[

S]

(aq) +

(aq), the equilibrium expression is:

]

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.5 Learning Outcome: 15.4 Global Outcome: G4

14 .

25) For the reaction 2 A ⇌ B, the equilibrium concentrations are as follows: [A] = 0.056 M and [B] = 0.12 M. Calculate the equilibrium constant ( ) for the reaction.

A) 2.6 × 10-2 B) 0.26 C) 2.1 D) 38 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global Outcome: G4

26) For the reaction

[

] = 0.12 M,

.The

equilibrium constant is: A) 0.44 B) 0.15 C) 2.3 D) 6.7 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global Outcome: G4

27) For the reaction follows:

, the equilibrium concentrations are as ,

,

. The equilibrium constant is:

A) 7.53 × B) 1.19 × C) 8.43 D) 1.33 × E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global Outcome: G4

28) For the reaction M, A) 1.0 × B) 1.0 × C) 1.0 ×

, the equilibrium concentrations are as follows: M. The equilibrium constant is:

. . .

D) 1.0 × .

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global Outcome: G4

15 .

29) For the reaction LiOH (s) ⇌ Li+ (aq) + OH- (aq),

= 4.6 ×

, and the equilibrium concentration for

hydroxide ion is [OH-] = 0.042 M. What is [Li+] at equilibrium?

A) 0.11 M B) 0.0046 M C) 0.042 M D) An answer cannot be determined without [LiOH] value.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.6 Global Outcome: G4

30) For the reaction silver ion is A) 0.0038 B) 9.6

,

and the equilibrium concentration of

,

, and the equilibrium concentration of

M. What is

C) 2.6 × D) 1.0 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.6 Global Outcome: G4

31) For the reaction sulfide ion is A) 0.052 M B) 0.32 M C) 0.015 M D) 0.10 M E) none of the above Answer: B

. What is

Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.6 Global Outcome: G4

32) Le Chatelier's Principle states that: A) a disturbing force must be applied to a system in order for it to reach equilibrium.

B) when a system at equilibrium is disturbed, a new equilibrium constant is established.

C) when a chemical system at equilibrium is disturbed, the system shifts in order to minimize the effect.

D) when a chemical system is at equilibrium it is no longer possible to alter the system.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.7 Learning Outcome: 15.7 Global Outcome: G1

16 .

33) For the reaction

S(s) ⇌ 2

(aq) +

(aq), what happens to the equilibrium position if aqueous

(aq) +

(aq), what happens to the equilibrium position if

(aq) +

(aq), what happens to the equilibrium position if the

ammonium sulfide is added?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.8 Learning Outcome: 15.8 Global Outcome: G7

34) For the reaction

S(s) ⇌ 2

ammonium sulfate is added?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.8 Learning Outcome: 15.8 Global Outcome: G7

35) For the reaction

S(s) ⇌ 2

amount of solid silver sulfide is doubled?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.8 Learning Outcome: 15.8 Global Outcome: G7

36) For the reaction

S(s) ⇌ 2

(aq) +

(aq), what happens to the equilibrium position if the

amount of silver ion is halved?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.8 Learning Outcome: 15.8 Global Outcome: G7

17 .

37) Consider the reaction: 2

O(g) ⇌

(g) + 2

(g). Which of the following will cause a shift in the

O(g) ⇌

(g) + 2

(g). Which of the following will cause a shift in the

equilibrium to the right?

1. Add more O 2. Remove 3. Remove A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) Neither 1, 2, or 3 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.8 Learning Outcome: 15.8 Global Outcome: G7

38) Consider the reaction: 2 equilibrium to the left?

1. Remove O 2. Remove 3. Add A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) Neither 1, 2, or 3 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.8 Learning Outcome: 15.8 Global Outcome: G7

39) We have the following reaction at equilibrium in a flask, CaSO4(s) ⇌ Ca2+(aq) + SO42+(aq) What will happen to [Ca2+] if additional CaSO4 is added to the flask?

A) It will decrease.

B) It will increase.

C) It will not change.

D) Cannot tell with the information provided.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.8 Learning Outcome: 15.8 Global Outcome: G7

18 .

40) Which of the following equilibrium systems will shift to the right (towards products) when pressure is increased.

A) 2 PbS (s) + 3O2 (g)⇌ 2PbO (s) + 2 SO2 (g) B) PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) C) H2 (g) + CO2 (g)⇌

O (g) + CO (g)

D) all of these E) none of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.9 Global Outcome: G2

41) For the reaction 2

O(g) ⇌

(g) + 2

(g), what happens to the equilibrium position if the pressure

increases?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.9 Global Outcome: G2

42) For the reaction H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) ⇌ 2 HCl (g), what happens to the equilibrium position if the pressure increases?

A) shifts to the right B) shifts to the left C) does nothing D) doubles E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.9 Global Outcome: G2

43) For the reaction 2

O(g) ⇌

(g) + 2

(g), what happens to the equilibrium position if the pressure

decreases?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.9 Global Outcome: G2

19 .

44) For the reaction 2

O(g) ⇌

(g) + 2

(g), what happens to the equilibrium position if the volume

(g) + 2

(g), what happens to the equilibrium position if the volume

decreases?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.9 Global Outcome: G2

45) For the reaction 2

O(g) ⇌

increases?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.9 Learning Outcome: 15.9 Global Outcome: G2

46) What happens to the equilibrium position of an exothermic reaction when you add heat?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.10 Learning Outcome: 15.10a Global Outcome: G2

47) What happens to the equilibrium position of an exothermic reaction when you remove heat?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.10 Learning Outcome: 15.10a Global Outcome: G2

20 .

48) What happens to the equilibrium position of an endothermic reaction when you add heat?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.10 Learning Outcome: 15.10a Global Outcome: G2

49) What happens to the equilibrium position of an endothermic reaction when you remove heat?

A) shifts to the left B) shifts to the right C) does nothing D) doubles E) halves Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.10 Learning Outcome: 15.10a Global Outcome: G2

50) Consider the following endothermic equilibrium reaction: Fe2O3 (s) + 3H2 (g)⇌ 2Fe (s) + 3 O (g) Which of the following actions will result in a shift to the left (towards reactants)?

A) increasing the temperature B) increasing the pressure in the container C) removing H2O (g) D) all of these E) none of these Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.10 Learning Outcome: 15.8|15.9|15.10a Global Outcome: G7

51) Which compound below is the most soluble in water based on its A) CuS,

= 1.27

B) PbS,

= 9.04

C) AgCl,

= 1.77

D) AgI,

= 8.51

E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global Outcome: G2

21 .

value?

52) Which compound below is the most soluble in water based on its A) CaCO3,

= 4.96

B) MgCO3,

= 6.82

C) Fe(OH)2,

= 4.87

D) AgI,

value?

= 8.51

E) FeCO3,

= 3.07

Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global Outcome: G2

53) Given the choice of adding ions of Mg 2+ (aq), Ca 2+ (aq), Sr 2+ (aq) or Ba 2+ (aq) to a solution of carbonate ions, CO3 2-, which choice would precipitate an insoluble carbonate compound first?

Use the following

data:

MgCO3

= 6.82

CaCO3

= 4.96

SrCO3

= 9.30

BaCO3

= 5.00

A) Mg 2+ B) Ca 2+ C) Sr 2+ D) Ba 2+ E) none of these will give a precipitate Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global Outcome: G2

54) What is the molar solubility, (S), of FeS if the A) 1.2 ×

M

B) 5.9 ×

M

C) 7.7 ×

M

for this substance?

D) 3.5 × M E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global Outcome: G4

22 .

55) What is the molar solubility, (S), of FeCO3 if the A) 9.42 × B) 5.54×

for this substance?

M M

C) 3.07 ×

M

D) 1.54 × M E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global Outcome: G4

56) What is the [ A) 1.27

M

B) 6.35

M

C)

M

] at equilibrium, given CuS,

?

D) 1.61 M E) not enough information Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global Outcome: G4

57) What is the [ A) 1.77 ×

M

B) 1.33 ×

M

C) 8.85 ×

M

] at equilibrium, given AgCl,

?

D) 3.54 × M E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global Outcome: G4

58) What is the

expression for the ionic compound Li2CO3?

A)

= [Li+] [CO32-]

B)

= [Li+]2 [CO32-]

C)

= 2[Li+] [CO32-]

D)

= [Li2CO3]3

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.12 Global Outcome: G4

23 .

59) What is the

expression for the ionic compound barium phosphate, Ba 3(PO4)2?

A)

= [Ba2+] 2 [PO43-]3

B)

= [Ba2+]3 [PO43-]4

C)

= [Ba2+]3 [PO43-]2

D)

= [Ba2+] [PO43-]

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.12 Global Outcome: G4

60) Which statement about activation energy is FALSE? A) Activation energy is an energy hump that normally exists between reactants and products.

B) The higher the activation energy, the slower the reaction rate.

C) The lower the activation energy, the faster the reaction rate.

D) Increasing the temperature lowers the activation energy.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.12 Learning Outcome: 15.13 Global Outcome: G1

61) The effect of a catalyst is to: A) increase the number of collisions between reactants.

B) increase the temperature of the reactants whereby more products are formed.

C) change the position of the equilibrium.

D) change the stoichiometry of the reaction.

E) lower the activation energy of a reaction whereby making it easier for the reactants to get over the energy hump.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.12 Learning Outcome: 15.13 Global Outcome: G1

62) Comparing a reaction with a catalyst to the same reaction without the catalyst, each of the following statements is true EXCEPT: A) The rate for the reaction with a catalyst is faster.

B) The products are the same.

C) The catalyzed reaction follows a different pathway.

D) Both reactions would have the same value for the equilibrium constant.

E) The activation energy is the same for both the catalyzed and uncatalyzed reaction.

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.12 Learning Outcome: 15.13 Global Outcome: G1

24 .

63) Which statement below is FALSE? A) The rate of a reaction can be increased by increasing concentrations of reactants.

B) The rate of a reaction can be increased by altering the temperature.

C) The rate of a reaction can be increased by adding a catalyst.

D) A catalyst alters the equilibrium constant.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.12 Learning Outcome: 15.13 Global Outcome: G7

64) What happens to the equilibrium constant when a catalyst is added to the reaction mixture?

A) increases B) decreases C) does not change D) varies E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.12 Learning Outcome: 15.13 Global Outcome: G2

65) Which of the following is FALSE about enzymes?

A) They act as biological catalysts.

B) They lower the activation energy of biological reactions.

C) They increase the temperature of biological reactions to speed them up.

D) They are highly specific in their catalytic activity.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 15.12 Learning Outcome: 15.13 Global Outcome: G1

25 .

15.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction below given that Given:

at equilibrium. (g) + (g) ⇌ 2HCl(g)

A) 0.017 B) 0.018 C) 58 D) 55 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global Outcome: G4

2) Calculate the equilibrium constant (Keq) for the reaction 1A (aq) + 1B (aq) ⇌ 2C (aq) given that and at equilibrium.

A) 9.9 B) 0.40 C) 2.5 D) 20.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.5 Global Outcome: G4

3) Calculate the concentration of N and

in an equilibrium mixture given that the concentration of

for the reaction:

A) 0.0663 M B) 0.00440 M C) 227.3 M D) 15.1 M E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 15.6 Learning Outcome: 15.6 Global Outcome: G4

26 .

and

4) Calculate [ ] at equilibrium given that the A) 0.0185 M B) 0.0 M C) 0.19 M D) not enough information given E) none of the above Answer: C

for the reaction

Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global Outcome: G4

5) What is the concentration of the

ion in solution when [

] = 0.25 M given that the

for the following reaction: A) 5.2 × B) 3.7 × C) 2.7 × D) 19.2 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.11 Global Outcome: G4

6) What is the value for the

for a compound MX(s) if at equilibrium

A) 0.0020 B) 1.0 × C) 1.0 × D) not enough information E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.12 Global Outcome: G4

7) What is the value for the

for a compound MX2(s) if at equilibrium

?

A) 0.011 B) 1.1 × C) 2.3 × D) 1.7 × E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: 15.11 Learning Outcome: 15.12 Global Outcome: G4

27 .

and

Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 16 Oxidation and Reduction 16.1 True/False Questions 1) Cars are being developed that run on hydrogen gas and the only emission is water.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Fuel cells are based on the tendency of some elements to gain electrons from gasoline.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) Reactions involving the transfer of electrons are called redox reactions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.1 Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global Outcome: G1

4) Oxidation can be defined as the gain of oxygen atoms by another element.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global Outcome: G1

5) Reduction can be defined as the gain of oxygen atoms by another element.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global Outcome: G1

6) Redox reactions must involve the gain or loss of oxygen atoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global Outcome: G1

7) Oxidation and reduction cannot both occur in the same chemical reaction.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global Outcome: G1

8) Reduction is the gain of electrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global Outcome: G1

1 .

9) Oxidation is the loss of electrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global Outcome: G1

10) The oxidizing agent is the substance being reduced.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global Outcome: G1

11) The reducing agent is reduced during the reaction.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global Outcome: G1

12) The substance being reduced is the oxidizing agent while the substance being oxidized is the reducing agent.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global Outcome: G1

13) In the reaction S + O2 → SO2 , the O2 is being oxidized.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global Outcome: G1

14) The sum of the oxidation numbers of all atoms in K2Cr2O7 equals zero.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G1

15) The oxidation number of a chlorine atom is -1.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

16) The oxidation number of sodium in NaI is +1.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

2 .

17) The oxidation number of sulfur in S

is -6.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

18) The oxidation number of manganese in MnO41- is +7.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

19) The reaction 2 NO2 → N2O4 would not be considered a redox reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.4 Global Outcome: G2

20) The half-reaction 2 Br 1- → Br2 + 2 e- is balanced with respect to mass but it is not balanced with respect to charge.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global Outcome: G2

21) Given that the Activity Series shown below is accurate, then Li(s) + spontaneous reaction.

Activity Series =

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global Outcome: G2

3 .

(aq) →

(aq) + K(s) is a

22)

(aq) + 2Na (s) → Ca (s) +

(aq) is a spontaneous reaction.

Activity Series =

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global Outcome: G2

23) Most acids dissolve metals by the oxidation of H+ ions to hydrogen gas.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global Outcome: G1

24) Gold metal is found at the bottom of the activity series of metals since it is the most difficult metal to oxidize.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global Outcome: G2

25) It can be shown that copper metal lies below H2 on the activity series of metals. This means that copper will dissolve in hydrochloric acid.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global Outcome: G2

26) Electrons flowing through a wire is an example of electrical current.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.8 Global Outcome: G1

27) An electrochemical cell is based on the coupling of a spontaneous redox reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.8 Global Outcome: G1

28) Oxidation occurs at the cathode.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.8 Global Outcome: G1

4 .

29) The cathode is the electrode at which reduction occurs.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.8 Global Outcome: G1

30) Electrical current can be used to drive a nonspontaneous redox reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.8 Global Outcome: G1

31) A galvanic cell is a spontaneous electrochemical cell.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.8 Global Outcome: G1

32) The driving force that causes electrons to flow through a wire is called current.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.8 Global Outcome: G1

33) Flashlight batteries are called dry cells.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.9 Global Outcome: G1

34) Alkaline batteries are used in automobiles.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.9 Global Outcome: G1

35) To achieve the largest battery voltage possible, the battery should be assembled from a metal high on the activity series list with a metal ion low on the activity series list.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.9 Global Outcome: G2

36) An electrolytic cell is a spontaneous redox reaction.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.10a Global Outcome: G1

5 .

37) A spontaneous redox reaction can be used to produce electrical current.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.10a Global Outcome: G1

38) Electrolysis is used to recover many metals from their oxide ores.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.10a Global Outcome: G1

39) Corrosion can be defined as the reduction of metals.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.8 Global Outcome: G1

40) Corrosion of metals may be prevented by keeping them dry at all times.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.8 Global Outcome: G1

41) The rusting of iron is an example of the process known as corrosion.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.8 Global Outcome: G1

42) Rusting of iron requires the presence of both oxygen and water.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.8 Global Outcome: G1

43) A sacrificial electrode works by being reduced which prevents the metal from being oxidized.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.8 Global Outcome: G1

6 .

16.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which fact about fuel cells is FALSE? A) Fuel cell automobiles are powered by water and the only emission is hydrogen.

B) Fuel cells are based on the tendency of some elements to gain electrons from other elements.

C) Fuel cell automobiles are whisper quiet.

D) Fuel cell automobiles are environmentally friendly.

E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Oxidation typically involves: A) the loss of electrons.

B) the loss of oxygen.

C) the gain of electrons.

D) the gain of water.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) Oxidation involves which of the following?

1. Loss of electron(s).

2. Gain of electron(s).

3. Increase in oxidation state.

A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 only E) 2 and 3 only Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global Outcome: G2

4) Reduction typically involves: A) the loss of electrons.

B) the gain of oxygen.

C) the gain of electrons.

D) the gain of water.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global Outcome: G1

7 .

5) Reduction involves which of the following?

1. Loss of electron(s).

2. Gain of electron(s).

3. Decrease in oxidation state.

A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 only E) 2 and 3 only Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.1 Global Outcome: G2

6) The reducing agent typically: A) gains electrons.

B) always remains unchanged during a reaction.

C) is the oxidized substance.

D) is itself reduced.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global Outcome: G1

7) The oxidizing agent typically: A) loses electrons.

B) gains oxygen.

C) is the reactant that is reduced.

D) is oxidized.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global Outcome: G1

8) Which of the following are typically TRUE of an oxidizing agent?

1. It causes oxidation.

2. It gains electron(s).

3. It is the reduced substance.

A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) Neither 1, 2, or 3 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global Outcome: G2

8 .

9) Which of the following are typically TRUE of a reducing agent?

1. It causes reduction.

2. It gains electron(s).

3. It is the oxidized substance.

A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) Neither 1, 2 or 3 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global Outcome: G2

10) Identify the substance being oxidized in the following reaction:

.

A) C B) C) C D)

O

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global Outcome: G2

11) Identify the substance being reduced in the following reaction:

.

A) C B) C) C D)

O

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global Outcome: G2

12) Identify the reducing agent in the following reaction: A) C B) C) C D)

O

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global Outcome: G2

9 .

.

13) Identify the oxidizing agent in the following reaction: A) C B) C) C D)

O

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global Outcome: G2

14) For the reaction Si (s) + O2 (g) → SiO2 (g), the reducing agent is: A) Si. B) O2.

C) SiO2.

D) O. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global Outcome: G2

15) In the following reaction, Mg (s) + (aq) → (aq) + Cu (s): A) Mg is the reducing agent and Cu is the oxidizing agent.

B) is the reducing agent and Cu is the oxidizing agent.

C) Cu is the reducing agent and D)

is the oxidizing agent.

is the reducing agent and Mg is the oxidizing agent.

E) Mg is the reducing agent and Answer: E

is the oxidizing agent.

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global Outcome: G2

16) In the following reaction, Zn (s) + CuSO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu (s): A) Zn is the reducing agent and CuSO4 is the oxidizing agent.

B) CuSO4 is the reducing agent and Zn is the oxidizing agent.

C) ZnSO4 is the reducing agent and Cu is the oxidizing agent.

D) is the reducing agent and Zn2+ is the oxidizing agent.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.2 Learning Outcome: 16.2 Global Outcome: G2

10 .

.

17) The oxidation number of Cr in Cr2O7 2- is: A) +2.

B) -2.

C) +7.

D) +6.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

18) What is the oxidation state of the underlined atom in the compound:

S

?

S

?

A) +1 B) +2 C) -2 D) +6 E) +4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

19) What is the oxidation state of the underlined atom in the compound: A) +1 B) +2 C) -2 D) +6 E) +4 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

20) What is the oxidation state of the underlined atom in the compound: C A) +1 B) +2 C) -2 D) +4 E) +6 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

11 .

?

21) What is the oxidation state of the underlined atom in the reaction: A) 0 B) +1 C) -1 D) +2 E) -2 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

22) What is the oxidation state of the underlined atom in the reaction: A) 0 B) +1 C) -1 D) +2 E) -2 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

23) What is the oxidation state of the underlined atom in the reaction: A) 0 B) +1 C) -1 D) +2 E) -2 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

24) What is the oxidation state of the underlined atom in the reaction: A) 0 B) +2 C) -2 D) +4 E) -4 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

12 .

25) What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in N2O3?

A) 0 B) +1 C) +2 D) +3 E) +6 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

26) What is the oxidation state of sulfur in SO32-?

A) 0 B) -2 C) +3 D) +4 E) +6 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

27) The oxidation state of Na in Na2SO4 is: A) +1 B) +2 C) +4 D) -1 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

28) The oxidation state of Mn in KMnO4 is: A) +1 B) -1 C) +5 D) +7 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

13 .

29) The oxidation number of P in PO4 3- is: A) -3 B) -5 C) +5 D) +8 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

30) In which compound does manganese have the highest oxidation state?

A) Mn B) Mn2O3 C) KMnO4 D) MnO2 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

31) Which substance below would contain a nitrogen atom with the highest oxidation number of all those shown?

A) NH4 1+ B) N2 C) NO2 D) NO3 1E) NH3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

32) Assign the oxidation state of each atom in potassium chlorate, KClO 3.

A) K = +1, Cl = +1, O = -2 B) K = -1, Cl = -1, O = +2 C) K = +1, Cl = +5, O = -2 D) K = +1, Cl = -1, O = 0 E) K = -1, Cl = +1, O = 0 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

14 .

33) Assign the oxidation state of each atom in sodium sulfate, Na 2SO4.

A) Na = +1, S = +4, O = -2 B) Na = +1, S = -2, O = +4 C) Na = +2, S = +6, O = -2 D) Na = +1, S = +6, O = -2 E) Na = +2, S = -2, O = 0 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.3 Global Outcome: G2

34) For the reaction Co + Cl2 → CoCl2 , which statement is TRUE? A) The cobalt is oxidized because its oxidation state changed from 0 to +2.

B) The cobalt is oxidized because it gained two electrons.

C) The oxidation state of each chlorine atom in Cl2 is -1.

D) Each chlorine atom is oxidized.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.4 Global Outcome: G2

35) For the reaction KMnO4 + Li → LiMnO4 + K , which atom is being reduced?

A) Li B) Mn C) O D) K E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.3 Learning Outcome: 16.4 Global Outcome: G2

36) What must be done to the following half-reactions before they can be added together?

Mn (s) → Mn 2+(aq) + 2eFe 3+ (aq) + 3 e- → Fe (s) A) Double the Mn half-reaction.

B) Double the Mn half-reaction and triple the Fe half-reaction.

C) Triple the Mn half-reaction and double the Fe half-reaction.

D) Add H+ ions to the left-side of the Mn reaction.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global Outcome: G2

15 .

37) What is the balanced oxidation half-reaction for the following unbalanced redox reaction: A) Ca →

+2

B)

→ Ag +

C) 2

+ Ca →

D) + 2 → 2Ag E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global Outcome: G2

38) What is the balanced reduction half-reaction for the following unbalanced redox reaction: A) Ca →

+2

B)

→ Ag + 1

C) 2

+ Ca →

D) + 2 → 2Ag E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global Outcome: G2

39) Balance the redox reaction in acid solution:

(l)

A) 4

+

2- + 7

→2

+2

+7

O

B) 6

+

2- + 14

→2

+3

+7

O

C) 2

+

2- + 14

→2

+

+7

O

D) 2

+2

2- + 14

→4

+

+ 14

O

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global Outcome: G7

40) If you properly balance the following half reaction in acid solution, how many electrons would appear on the product side of the equation? NO (g) → NO31- (aq) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global Outcome: G2

16 .

41) Balance the following half reaction in acid solution: A)

→

B)

+8

→

+4

O

C)

+8

→

+4

O +5

D)

+8

+5 →

(aq)

+3

+4

O

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global Outcome: G2

42) Balance the redox reaction in acid solution: A)

+ O 2- (aq)

B)

+ H2O (l)

C)

+ H2O (l)

D)

+ OH- (aq)

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global Outcome: G7

43) How many electrons are exchanged when the following reaction is balanced?

Zn (s) + Ni 3+ (aq) → Zn 2+ (aq) + Ni (s) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 6 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global Outcome: G2

44) If you properly balance the following half reaction in base solution, how many electrons would appear on the product side of the equation? Al (s) → Al(OH)41- (aq) A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global Outcome: G2

17 .

45) Balance the following half reaction in base solution: H20 (l) → H2 (g) A) 2H2O (l) + 2 e- → H2 (g) + 2 OH- (aq) B) 2H2O (l) → 2H2 (g) + 2 e- + O2 C) 2H2O (l) → H2 (g) + 2 H+ + 2eD) H2O (l) → 2H+ + 2OHE) 2H2O (l) → H2 (g) + 2OH- (aq) + 5 eAnswer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global Outcome: G2

46) What is the balanced oxidation half-reaction for the following unbalanced redox reaction?

A) Ca →

+2

B)

→ Ag +

C) 2

+ Ca →

D) + 2 → 2Ag E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.4 Learning Outcome: 16.5 Global Outcome: G2

47) From the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion is the most easily oxidized?

Activity Series =

A) Na B) Ca C) D) Li E) Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global Outcome: G2

18 .

48) From the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion is the most difficult to oxidize?

Activity Series =

A) Na B) Ca C) D) Li E) Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global Outcome: G2

49) From the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion is the most difficult to reduce?

Activity Series =

A) Na B) Ca C) D) Li E) Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global Outcome: G2

19 .

50) From the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion is the easiest to reduce?

Activity Series =

A) Na B) Ca C) D) Li E) Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global Outcome: G2

51) From the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion will spontaneously react with

Activity Series =

A) Na B) Ca C) D) Li E) Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global Outcome: G2

20 .

?

52) From the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion will spontaneously react with Ca?

Activity Series =

A) Na B) C) D) Li E) Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global Outcome: G2

53) From the activity list included in this problem, which element will not dissolve in dilute hydrochloric acid?

Activity Series =

A) Sn B) Pb C) D) Cu E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global Outcome: G2

21 .

54) From the activity list included in this problem, which element will displace

ions from solution?

Activity Series =

A) Sn B) Pb C) D) Cu E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global Outcome: G2

55) From the activity list included in this problem, which element will react with Cu?

Activity Series =

A) Sn B) Pb C) D) Cu E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global Outcome: G2

22 .

56) Using the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion listed below is the most easily oxidized?

Activity Series =

A) B) Pb C) D) E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global Outcome: G2

57) Using the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion is the most resistant to oxidation?

Activity Series =

A) B) Pb C) D) E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global Outcome: G2

23 .

58) Using the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion is the most resistant to reduction?

Activity Series =

A) B) Pb C) D) E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global Outcome: G2

59) From the activity list included in this problem, which element/ion is the easiest to reduce?

Activity Series =

A) B) Pb C) D) E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.7 Global Outcome: G2

60) In an electrochemical cell, which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The anode is the electrode where oxidation occurs.

B) A salt bridge provides electrical contact between the half-cells.

C) The cathode is the electrode where reduction occurs.

D) A spontaneous electrochemical cell is called a galvanic cell.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.8 Global Outcome: G7

24 .

61) In an electrochemical cell, which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Oxidation occurs at the anode.

B) Reduction occurs at the cathode.

C) Electrons flow through the salt bridge to complete the cell.

D) A spontaneous electrochemical cell is called a voltaic cell.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.8 Global Outcome: G7

62) Which battery system is based on half reactions involving zinc metal and manganese dioxide?

A) alkaline batteries B) fuel cells C) lead-acid storage batteries D) dry-cell batteries E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.9 Global Outcome: G1

63) Which battery system is completely rechargeable?

A) alkaline batteries B) fuel cells C) lead-acid storage batteries D) dry-cell batteries E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.6 Learning Outcome: 16.9 Global Outcome: G1

64) In electrolysis: A) a spontaneous redox reaction produces electricity.

B) a nonspontaneous redox reaction is forced to occur by applying an electric current.

C) only pure, drinkable water is produced.

D) you have a cell which reverses the flow of ions.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.7 Global Outcome: G2

25 .

65) Corrosion is the: A) oxidation of nonmetals.

B) loss of electrons.

C) oxidation of metals.

D) formation of an insoluble hydroxide.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.8 Global Outcome: G1

66) Corrosion can be prevented by all of the following EXCEPT: A) painting.

B) galvanizing.

C) sacrificial anode.

D) sacrificial cathode.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.8 Global Outcome: G1

67) From the activity list included in this problem, which element below would serve as a sacrificial electrode for iron?

Activity Series =

A) Zn B) Fe C) Ni D) all of these E) none of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.8 Global Outcome: G2

26 .

16.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) Examine the activity list given below to answer this question: Which element is most easily oxidized, Mg , Cu, or K ?

Activity Series =

Cu(s) →

(aq) + 2 e-

A) Mg B) Cu C) K D) all of these elements oxidize equally well E) none of these elements can be oxidized Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: 16.5 Learning Outcome: 16.6 Global Outcome: G2

16.4 Essay Questions 1) Distinguish between a galvanic (voltaic) cell and an electrolytic cell.

Answer: In a galvanic (voltaic)cell, an electric current is produced as a result of a spontaneous redox reaction.

An electrolytic cell uses electric current to produce a redox reaction. The resulting reaction is nonspontaneous.

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.6, 16.7 Learning Outcome: 16.10a Global Outcome: G8

2) Suggest two methods to reduce corrosion of a metal such as iron and briefly explain how each method works.

Answer: 1. Galvanizing: This is a process in which the metal such as iron is coated with zinc. Zinc is higher on the activity series than iron and is more readily oxidized than iron. The zinc oxide formed also acts as a protective coating.

2. Sacrificial anode: These are metals that are more readily oxidized than iron which in turn prevent iron from being oxidized.

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 16.8 Global Outcome: G8

27 .

Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 17 Radioactivity and Nuclear Chemistry 17.1 True/False Questions 1) Radioactivity is the emission of tiny, invisible radio signals by the nuclei of certain atoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Radioactive particles can pass through matter.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) Antoine-Henri Becquerel discovered X-rays.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.2 Learning Outcome: 17.1 Global Outcome: G1

4) Madam Curie discovered two new elements.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.2 Learning Outcome: 17.1 Global Outcome: G1

5)

F contains 11 protons and 9 neutrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Global Outcome: G1

6) The alpha particle (α) is:

He.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global Outcome: G1

7) When an atom emits an alpha particle, it becomes a different element.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global Outcome: G1

1 .

8) Alpha particles have lower penetrating power than the other types of radioactive emissions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global Outcome: G1

9) A beta particle can also be called an electron.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global Outcome: G1

10) During beta decay, neutrons are converted to protons and electrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global Outcome: G1

11) When an atom emits a beta particle, its atomic number increases by one because it now has one additional proton.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global Outcome: G1

12) A gamma ray is a high energy photon.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global Outcome: G1

13) A gamma ray has no charge and no mass.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global Outcome: G1

14) The symbol for a positron is

e.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global Outcome: G1

15) A positron particle comes from the decay of a proton into a neutron and a positron.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global Outcome: G1

2 .

16) Nuclear equations do not need to be balanced since a new element forms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global Outcome: G2

17) Radioactive elements become stable isotopes after emitting one of the radioactive particles Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2|17.3|17.4 Global Outcome: G1

18) A nuclear reaction typically changes the identity of the element involved.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global Outcome: G2

19) In a Geiger-Muller counter, radioactive particles pass through NaI which emits UV-Vis light.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.4 Learning Outcome: 17.5 Global Outcome: G1

20) All elements with atomic numbers above bismuth are naturally radioactive.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global Outcome: G1

21) All unstable elements have the same rates of radioactive decay.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global Outcome: G1

22) Nuclides that decay slowly have long half-lives.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global Outcome: G2

23) A nuclide with a shorter half-life would be considered more active than a nuclide with a longer halflife.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global Outcome: G2

3 .

24) Phosphorous-32 has a half-life of 14.3 days while radon-222 has a half-life of 3.8 days, so phosphorous-32 is considered more active.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global Outcome: G2

25) During the first half-life you lose half of the radioactive material, during the second half life you lose the remaining half.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global Outcome: G1

26) Carbon-14 dating is based on the fact that C-14 is continuously being made in the upper atmosphere.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global Outcome: G1

27) C-14 dating has been verified using old iron ore samples of known age.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global Outcome: G1

28) Carbon-14 dating is not dependable when attempting to date objects that are more than 50,000 years old.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global Outcome: G1

29) Uranium-235 is capable of undergoing a fission chain reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.8 Global Outcome: G1

30) The effort to build an atomic bomb during WWII was prompted by a fear that Germany was already working on nuclear weapons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.8 Global Outcome: G1

31) Nuclear power plants produce energy by fission reactions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.8 Learning Outcome: 17.9 Global Outcome: G1

4 .

32) The reaction

H+

H→

He +

neutron is an example of nuclear fission.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.9 Learning Outcome: 17.10a Global Outcome: G2

33) One danger of a nuclear power plant is that a chain reaction could produce a bomb.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.8 Learning Outcome: 17.9 Global Outcome: G1

34) The hydrogen isotope known as tritium contains three neutrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.9 Learning Outcome: 17.9 Global Outcome: G1

35) The energy of the sun comes from fusion reactions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.9 Learning Outcome: 17.10a Global Outcome: G1

36) The combination of two light nuclei to form a heavier one is known as nuclear fission.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.9 Learning Outcome: 17.10a Global Outcome: G1

37) A fusion reaction emits large amounts of energy while a fission reaction absorbs large amounts of energy.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.9 Learning Outcome: 17.10a Global Outcome: G1

38) Nuclear fission reactions produce ten times more energy per gram than fusion reactions.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.9 Learning Outcome: 17.10a Global Outcome: G1

39) A major natural source of radiation is due to the radon gas in our environment.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.10 Learning Outcome: 17.11 Global Outcome: G1

5 .

40) Exposure to nuclear radioactivity can produce genetic defects in offspring.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.10 Learning Outcome: 17.11 Global Outcome: G1

41) One method of nuclear medicine uses radioactive isotopes to scan specific regions of the body.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.11 Learning Outcome: 17.12 Global Outcome: G1

42) A patient having radiotherapy uses radioactivity to kill infected cells while trying to minimize the effect on the healthy cells.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.11 Learning Outcome: 17.12 Global Outcome: G1

17.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Radioactive elements are used for: A) medical diagnosis.

B) medical treatment.

C) determining age of fossils and rocks.

D) generating electricity.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Who discovered radioactivity?

A) Antoine Becquerel B) Pierre Curie C) Marie Curie D) Ernest Rutherford E) Benjamin Franklin Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.2 Learning Outcome: 17.1 Global Outcome: G1

6 .

3) How was radioactivity discovered?

A) Rutherford was investigating the structure of Au atoms and discovered alpha particles.

B) Marie Curie was investigating the existence of uranic rays that occurred in some minerals.

C) Becquerel was studying X-rays and phosphorescence to see if they were related.

D) Benjamin Franklin was studying the creation of electrical current from the ionization of gases due to radioactive particles.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.2 Learning Outcome: 17.1 Global Outcome: G1

4) During the career of Marie Curie, she: A) won a Nobel prize in chemistry.

B) won a Nobel prize in physics.

C) discovered the element polonium.

D) discovered the element radium.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.2 Learning Outcome: 17.1 Global Outcome: G1

5) Which of the following isotopes contains the most number of neutrons?

A)

Rn

B)

Bi

C)

Fr

D)

Po

E)

Rn

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Global Outcome: G2

6) How many protons and neutrons are in

S?

A) 16 p and 34 n B) 16 n and 34 p C) 16 n and 18 p D) 16 p and 18 n E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Global Outcome: G2

7 .

7) How many protons and neutrons are in

U?

A) 92 p and 235 n B) 92 n and 235 p C) 92 n and 143 p D) 92 p and 143 n E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Global Outcome: G2

8) How many protons and neutrons are in

Sn?

A) 50 p and 169 n B) 50 n and 69 p C) 50 n and 119 p D) 50 p and 69 n E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Global Outcome: G2

9) In a nuclear equation: A) the daughter nuclide appears on the right-side of the arrow.

B) the sum of the atomic numbers on both sides must be equal.

C) the sum of the mass numbers on both sides must be equal.

D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2|17.3|17.4 Global Outcome: G2

10) Which statement about alpha particles is FALSE? A) symbol is:

He

B) has high ionization power C) has low penetrating power D) are a harmless form of radiation E) All of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global Outcome: G1

8 .

11) The first experiment that converted one element to another was performed in 1919 by Ernest Rutherford. An isotope of nitrogen was bombarded with a type of particle to get an oxygen atom as shown: N+? →

O+

H

Which type of particle was used to bombard the nitrogen atom?

A) alpha B) beta C) positron D) gamma E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global Outcome: G2

12) If the

Th isotope emits an alpha particle, what would be the atomic number of the

resulting atom?

A) 90 B) 88 C) 92 D) 228 E) 236 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global Outcome: G2

13) What happens to the mass number of a nucleus that emits an alpha particle?

A) It remains the same.

B) It decreases by two.

C) It decreases by four.

D) It increases by two.

E) It increases by four.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global Outcome: G2

9 .

14) What is the main product when A)

Am

B)

Th

C)

U

D)

Th

U undergoes alpha decay?

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global Outcome: G2

15) What is the missing particle?

A) positron B) beta particle C) alpha particle D) gamma particle E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global Outcome: G2

16) What is the missing particle?

A) positron B) beta particle C) alpha particle D) gamma particle E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global Outcome: G2

10 .

17) What is the main product when A)

Pu

B)

Ac

C)

Ac

D)

Ac

Pa undergoes alpha decay?

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global Outcome: G2

18) Which of the following statements about beta particles is FALSE? A) The symbol is:

e.

B) Beta particles are created when neutrons become protons and electrons.

C) They have intermediate ionizing power.

D) They have intermediate penetrating power.

E) They are a safe form of radioactivity.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global Outcome: G2

19) Which type of emission has a negative charge?

A) alpha B) beta C) positron D) gamma E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global Outcome: G1

20) What happens to the atomic number of a nucleus that emits a beta particle?

A) It remains the same.

B) It increases by one.

C) It decreases by one.

D) It increases by two.

E) It decreases by two.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global Outcome: G2

11 .

21) What is the main product when A)

Ra

B)

Ac

C)

Pa

D)

Th

Th undergoes beta decay?

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global Outcome: G2

22) What is the main product when A)

Th

B)

Np

C)

Pa

D)

Th

U undergoes beta decay?

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global Outcome: G2

23) Which of the following nuclides will undergo beta decay to produce A)

Bk

B)

Np

C)

Pu

D)

Cm

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global Outcome: G2

12 .

Am?

24) What is the missing particle?

A) positron B) beta particle C) alpha particle D) gamma particle E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global Outcome: G2

25) Which statement about gamma radiation is FALSE? A) The symbol is:

γ.

B) They have low ionization energy.

C) They have high penetrating power.

D) They are high energy photons.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global Outcome: G1

26) What type of radioactive decay produces a daughter nuclide that is the same element as the parent nuclide?

A) alpha B) beta C) gamma D) positron E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global Outcome: G1

27) How does the emission of a gamma particle effect the radioactive atom?

A) The atom has a lower amount of energy.

B) The atomic number decreases.

C) The atomic mass increases.

D) The atom gains energy for further radioactive particle emission.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global Outcome: G2

13 .

28) What is the main product when A)

Bk

B)

Am

C)

Cm

D)

Cf

Bk emits a gamma ray?

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2|17.3|17.4 Global Outcome: G2

29) Which statement about positron emission is FALSE? A) occurs when a proton is converted into a neutron and a positron B) symbol is:

e

C) occurs with alpha and beta decay D) alternative symbol is β+ E) All of the above are true.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global Outcome: G2

30) What happens to the atomic number of a nucleus that emits a positron?

A) It remains the same.

B) It increases by one.

C) It decreases by one.

D) It increases by two.

E) It decreases by two.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global Outcome: G2

31) What happens to the mass number of a nucleus that emits a positron?

A) It remains the same.

B) It increases by one.

C) It decreases by one.

D) It increases by two.

E) It decreases by two.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global Outcome: G2

14 .

32) The emitted particle with the mass of an electron but carrying a 1+ charge is named the: A) proton.

B) proelectron.

C) positron.

D) plusion.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global Outcome: G1

33) Which of the following types of radiation has the highest penetrating power?

A) alpha particles B) beta particles C) gamma rays D) positrons E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2|17.3|17.4 Global Outcome: G1

34) Which of the following is NOT a type of radioactive emission?

A) alpha rays B) beta rays C) gamma rays D) positrons E) All of the above are types of radioactive emissions.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2|17.3|17.4 Global Outcome: G1

35) Radon-219 decays to radon-218 by releasing: A)

e.

B) gamma rays.

C)

n.

D)

e.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2|17.3|17.4 Global Outcome: G2

15 .

36) Which type of particle can be emitted by an unstable nucleus?

A)

He

B)

e

C)

e

D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2|17.3|17.4 Global Outcome: G1

37) A Geiger-Muller counter detects radioactivity by: A) developing film which is exposed by radioactive particles.

B) emission of light from a NaI crystal when radioactivity passes through the crystal.

C) ionization of argon gas in a chamber which produces an electrical signal.

D) analyzing the mass and velocity of each particle.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.4 Learning Outcome: 17.5 Global Outcome: G1

38) A scintillation counter detects radioactivity by: A) developing film which is exposed by radioactive particles.

B) emission of light from a NaI crystal when radioactivity passes through the crystal.

C) ionization of argon gas in a chamber which produces an electrical signal.

D) analyzing the mass and velocity of each particle.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.4 Learning Outcome: 17.5 Global Outcome: G1

39) Beyond which element in the periodic table (based on atomic number) are the successive elemental nuclei considered to be radioactive?

A) Uranium B) Radium C) Barium D) Bismuth E) Lead Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global Outcome: G1

16 .

40) Which of the following statements regarding radiation are FALSE? A) Radioactivity is a natural part of our environment.

B) All elements heavier than bismuth are radioactive.

C) All radioactive elements are spontaneously decaying towards formation of a stable element.

D) The time for half of the original sample to spontaneously decay is called the half-life E) All of the above are true.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global Outcome: G2

41) The rate of spontaneous nuclear decay: A) can be increased by increasing the temperature.

B) can be increased by increasing the concentration of the radioactive element.

C) is independent of concentration or temperature.

D) can be increased by addition of a nuclear catalyst.

E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global Outcome: G2

42) If the half-life of a radioactive isotope is 32 days, how many half-lives must pass before a sample is less than ?

A) 2 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9 E) More information is needed.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global Outcome: G4

43) Iodine-131 has a half-life of 8 days. How much of a 1000 milligram sample of iodine-131 would be left after 32 days?

A) 500 milligram B) 250 milligram C) 125 milligram D) 62.5 milligram E) 31.25 milligram Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global Outcome: G4

17 .

44) Tritium (

H ) is an isotope of hydrogen that is sometimes used to make the hands of watches glow in

the dark. The half-life of tritium is 12.3 years. After 49 years, approximately how much of the original tritium remains?

A) 50% B) 25% C) 12.5% D) 6.25% E) 3.12% Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global Outcome: G4

45) The radioactive gas radon: A) is a product of the radioactive decay series of uranium.

B) is the single greatest source of human radiation exposure.

C) is more hazardous for smokers than nonsmokers.

D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.5 Global Outcome: G1

46) Which fact about carbon-14 dating is FALSE? A) C-14 is formed by neutron bombardment of nitrogen in the upper atmosphere.

B) C-14 dating can only work on items that come from a living source.

C) C-14 dating only works as far back as 50,000 years.

D) C-14 accuracy is verified by dating antique items of a known age.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global Outcome: G1

47) If an object has 6.25% of the C-14

activity as a living organism, the age of the item is:

A) 11,460 years.

B) 17,190 years.

C) 22,920 years.

D) 28,650 years.

E) More information is needed.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global Outcome: G4

18 .

48) If an object has 25% of the C-14

activity as a living organism, the age of the item is:

A) 11,460 years.

B) 17,190 years.

C) 22,920 years.

D) 28,650 years.

E) More information is needed.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global Outcome: G4

49) If an object is 28,650 yrs old, how many C-14

half-lives have occurred as compared to

a living organism?

A) 6 half-lives B) 5 half -lives C) 4 half-lives D) 3 half-lives E) More information is needed.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global Outcome: G4

50) If an object is 17,190 yrs old, how many C-14

half-lives have occurred as compared to

a living organism?

A) 6 half-lives B) 5 half-lives C) 4 half-lives D) 3 half-lives E) More information is needed.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global Outcome: G4

51) The first person to artificially cause a nucleus to undergo a fission reaction was: A) Otto Hahn.

B) Lise Meitner.

C) Fritz Strassman.

D) Enrico Fermi.

E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.8 Global Outcome: G1

19 .

52) The self-amplifying reaction in which neutrons produced by the fission of one nucleus would induce fission in other nuclei is called: A) critical mass.

B) chain reaction.

C) nuclear fusion.

D) positron emission.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.9 Global Outcome: G1

53) Why can U-235 produce a chain reaction?

A) Extremely high amounts of energy are released in the reaction.

B) Neutrons produce the fission reaction and are also a product of the reaction.

C) All elements above bismuth (#83) can undergo fission based chain reactions.

D) Chain reactions merely need sufficient mass (critical mass) to start.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.9 Global Outcome: G2

54) Which of the following statements about the creation of the nuclear bomb is FALSE? A) Einstein lobbied President Roosevelt to pursue creation of the bomb.

B) American war intelligence feared the Germans were ahead of the Allies in developing nuclear weapons in WWII. C) J.R. Oppenheimer headed the Manhattan Project.

D) The Germans were defeated by the time the bomb had been developed.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.7 Learning Outcome: 17.9 Global Outcome: G1

55) Nuclear power: A) generates 20% of the electricity needed in the U.S. B) generates heat which boils water and turns a steam turbine to produce electricity.

C) generates no air pollution or greenhouse gases.

D) uses almost no fuel compared to fossil fuel plants.

E) All of the above are true.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.8 Learning Outcome: 17.10a Global Outcome: G1

20 .

56) The control rods of a nuclear reactor: A) regulate the chain reaction because they contain catalysts.

B) regulate the chain reaction because they absorb the U-235 atoms.

C) regulate the chain reaction because they absorb the neutrons.

D) regulate the chain reaction because they produce positrons.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.8 Learning Outcome: 17.10a Global Outcome: G1

57) Nuclear power is criticized because: A) of long term storage issues of radioactive wastes.

B) it is an expensive form of energy.

C) it is not as efficient as burning fossil fuels.

D) of the danger of detonation into a nuclear bomb.

E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.8 Global Outcome: G1

58) Nuclear fusion: A) is the formation of heavier elements from lighter ones.

B) releases a larger amount of heat than nuclear fission.

C) is the energy source of the sun and stars.

D) produces non-radioactive elements.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.9 Learning Outcome: 17.10a Global Outcome: G1

59) Nuclear fusion: A) requires intense temperatures that make it impossible to harness as an energy source with our current technology.

B) is the basis of the hydrogen bomb.

C) can be done but requires the detonation of a traditional fission bomb.

D) is a possible energy source of the future.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.9 Learning Outcome: 17.10a Global Outcome: G1

21 .

60) Which of the following is NOT a unit used for expressing radioactivity: A) roentgen B) geiger C) rem D) curie E) All of the above are units used to express radioactivity.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.10 Learning Outcome: 17.11 Global Outcome: G1

61) Acute radiation damage: A) results from lower doses of radiation over extended periods of time.

B) results from exposure to lower amounts of radiation in a short period of time.

C) can result in death.

D) results in an increased chance of cancer.

E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.10 Learning Outcome: 17.11 Global Outcome: G1

62) Isotope scanning involves: A) radioactive isotopes that are used in place of x-rays.

B) radioactive isotopes that are absorbed by specific organs.

C) destroying cancerous cells by intense radiation levels.

D) acute radiation exposure.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.11 Learning Outcome: 17.12 Global Outcome: G1

63) What symptoms can be experienced from exposure to dangerous levels of radiation?

A) decreased white blood cell count B) skin burns C) hair loss D) vomiting E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.11 Learning Outcome: 17.12 Global Outcome: G1

22 .

64) Radiation therapy involves: A) radioactive isotopes that are used in place of x-rays.

B) radioactive isotopes that are absorbed by specific organs.

C) destroying cancerous cells by intense radiation levels.

D) acute radiation exposure.

E) none of the above.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.12 Learning Outcome: 17.12 Global Outcome: G1

17.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) When

Th undergoes alpha decay, what is the atomic mass of the element that is produced?

A) 88 B) 228 C) 236 D) 92 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global Outcome: G2

2) Suppose a

Po daughter nuclide was obtained after the alpha decay of a parent nuclide. The symbol

of the original parent element is: A) Po B) Pb C) Ra D) Rn E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.2 Global Outcome: G2

3) When

Ac undergoes beta decay, what is the atomic number of the element that is produced?

A) 87 B) 90 C) 88 D) 91 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.3 Global Outcome: G2

23 .

4) When

Ac undergoes positron emission, what is the atomic number of the element that is

produced?

A) 87 B) 90 C) 88 D) 91 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 17.3 Learning Outcome: 17.4 Global Outcome: G2

5) A 1.2 kg sample of Th-228 has a half-life of 1.9 years. How many grams of Th is left after 5.7 years?

A) 150 B) 75 C) 300 D) 0 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global Outcome: G4

6) A 3.6 mole sample of Co-60 has a half-life of 5.2 years. How many moles of Co is left after A) 0.056 B) 0.11 C) 0.23 D) 0 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: 17.5 Learning Outcome: 17.6 Global Outcome: G4

7) A C-14 dating experiment revealed that an artifact had 50.0% of the activity of a modern organism.

Given the half-life of C-14 is 5730 years, approximately how old is the artifact?

A) 28,650 B) 34,380 C) 22,920 D) 5,730 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 17.6 Learning Outcome: 17.7 Global Outcome: G4

24 .

17.4 Essay Questions 1) Briefly describe the main features of the three types of radiation: alpha, beta, and gamma. Also explain what happens to the nucleus of an atom when it is exposed to each of these.

Answer: 1. Alpha radiation occurs when the nucleus of an atom emits a particle that consists of two protons and two neutrons (mass number = 4) and an atomic number 2. An alpha particle is a helium nucleus. When the nucleus undergoes alpha decay, its mass number decreases by four and its atomic number decreases by two.

2. Beta radiation occurs when an unstable nucleus emits an electron. A beta particle has a mass number of 0 and an atomic number of -1. When a nucleus undergoes beta decay, its mass number remains the same and its atomic number increases by one.

3. Gamma rays consist of high energy photons. Since gamma radiation which is simply electromagnetic radiation has neither mass number nor atomic number, it does not change the mass number or the atomic number of the atom.

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.3 Global Outcome: G8

2) Briefly distinguish between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.

Answer: Nuclear Fission is the splitting of an atom such as Uranium-238 by bombarding it with neutrons. Two or more smaller nuclei and additional neutrons are produced during fission. The neutrons set off a chain reaction which results in the emission of enormous amounts of energy. These reactions have been used in nuclear reactors and in atom bombs.

Nuclear fusion is the combination of two lighter nuclei to produce a heavier nucleus. Nuclear fusion results in the production of enormous amounts of energy. These reactions have been used in hydrogen bombs. However, scientists have not been able to successfully harness nuclear fusion to produce electrical energy.

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 17.9 Global Outcome: G8

25 .

Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 18 Organic Chemistry 18.1 True/False Questions 1) All organic molecules contain carbon but not all carbon compounds are organic compounds.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) The study of carbon-containing compounds and their reactions is called carbonyl chemistry.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) It was originally thought that organic compounds had to come from living things.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.2 Global Outcome: G1

4) Organic compounds have to come from living things.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.2 Global Outcome: G1

5) Carbon must always form four bonds in stable compounds.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.1 Global Outcome: G1

6) Hydrocarbons contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.2 Global Outcome: G1

7) Molecules containing carbon always assume a tetrahedral molecular geometry since carbon forms four bonds.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.1 Global Outcome: G1

8) An open -chain (noncyclic) hydrocarbon will always have exactly twice as many hydrogen atoms as carbon atoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.2 Global Outcome: G2

1 .

9) A noncyclical alkane hydrocarbon containing eight carbon atoms should also contain eighteen hydrogen atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.2 Global Outcome: G2

10) An alkane would be considered a saturated compound.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.5 Learning Outcome: 18.3 Global Outcome: G2

11) Alkanes contain double and single bonds.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.5 Learning Outcome: 18.3 Global Outcome: G1

12) The formula of n-octane is: C

C

C

C

C

C

.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.5 Learning Outcome: 18.3 Global Outcome: G2

13) As the number of carbon atoms increases in n-alkanes, so does their boiling point.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.5 Global Outcome: G1

14) Isomerism is very rare in organic compounds.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.6 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global Outcome: G1

15) Isomers are compounds with the same structures but different formulas.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.6 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global Outcome: G1

16) Isomers have the same molecular formula but have different properties.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.6 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global Outcome: G1

2 .

17) The compound with the formula CH4 has four possible isomers.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.6 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global Outcome: G2

18) An ethyl group can be symbolized as -CH3.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.7 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global Outcome: G1

19) Alkynes are compounds with at least one triple bond.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.6 Global Outcome: G1

20) Alkenes and alkynes are unsaturated hydrocarbons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.6 Global Outcome: G1

21) The compound CH3CH2CH=CHCH3 is named 3-pentene.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.6 Global Outcome: G2

22) 1-hexene and 1-hexyne are isomers.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.6 Global Outcome: G2

23) Combustion reactions always produce water and carbon monoxide.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global Outcome: G1

24) Hydrocarbon combustion reactions are highly endothermic - they absorb large amounts of heat.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global Outcome: G1

3 .

25) Alkanes cannot undergo addition reactions because they do not have a multiple bond.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global Outcome: G1

26) When an alkene undergoes an addition reaction to form an alkane, a saturated compound has been converted to an unsaturated compound.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global Outcome: G2

27) Aromatic compounds contain a benzene ring.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.10 Learning Outcome: 18.8 Global Outcome: G1

28) Even though the aromatic ring of the compound benzene can be drawn with alternating single and double bonds, all the carbon to carbon bonds are the same.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.10 Learning Outcome: 18.8 Global Outcome: G1

29) R— OH is an ether functional group.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global Outcome: G1

30) R—O—R is an ether functional group.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global Outcome: G1

31) C

C

C

C

C

OH is named 5-pentanol.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.12 Learning Outcome: 18.10a Global Outcome: G2

32) The formula for ethyl propyl ether is: C

C

OC

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.13 Learning Outcome: 18.11 Global Outcome: G2

4 .

C

C

.

33) Aldehydes and ketones both contain a carbonyl group.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.14 Learning Outcome: 18.12 Global Outcome: G1

34) The generic condensed structural formula for carboxylic acids is RCOOH. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.15 Learning Outcome: 18.13 Global Outcome: G2

35) The formula of propanoic acid is: C

C

COOH.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.15 Learning Outcome: 18.13 Global Outcome: G2

36) The formula of methyl propanoate is: C

C

COOC

.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.15 Learning Outcome: 18.13 Global Outcome: G2

37) Esters are best known for their awful odors such as that associated with the smell of rotten fish.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.16 Learning Outcome: 18.13 Global Outcome: G1

38) Amines are nitrogen- containing organic compounds.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.16 Learning Outcome: 18.14 Global Outcome: G1

39) The compound C

N

can be classified as an amine.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.16 Learning Outcome: 18.14 Global Outcome: G2

40) A polymer is a long chainlike compound containing a random arrangement of organic molecules called monomers.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.17 Learning Outcome: 18.15 Global Outcome: G1

5 .

41) Production of the synthetic polymer "polyethylene" uses an alkene as a starting monomer unit.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.17 Learning Outcome: 18.15 Global Outcome: G1

18.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) What chemical reaction was used by the German chemist Friedrich Wohler to synthesize urea for the first time?

A) evaporating urine B) heating ammonium cyanate C) heating ammonium cyanide D) combining the elements carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.2 Global Outcome: G1

2) Which of the following statements about carbon is FALSE? A) Carbon must always have four bonds.

B) Carbon can bond to itself.

C) Carbon can have either a tetrahedral, trigonal planar or linear geometry.

D) Carbon can form into linear, branched and cyclic compounds.

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) What is the molecular geometry of the underlined carbon atom in the following compound, ?

A) tetrahedral B) trigonal planar C) linear D) bent E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.1 Global Outcome: G2

6 .

4) What is the molecular geometry of the underlined carbon atom in the following compound, ?

A) tetrahedral B) trigonal planar C) linear D) bent E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.1 Global Outcome: G2

5) What is the molecular geometry of the underlined carbon atom in the following compound, ?

A) tetrahedral B) trigonal planar C) linear D) bent E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.1 Global Outcome: G7

6) What will be the molecular geometry of an open-chain noncyclical hydrocarbon with the generic molecular formula CnH2n-2?

A) linear B) tetrahedral C) trigonal planar D) trigonal pyramidal E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.3 Learning Outcome: 18.1 Global Outcome: G7

7) Based on the molecular formulas shown below, which compound shown below could be classified as a cyclical alkane?

A) C4H10 B) C3H8 C) C5H12 D) C12H24 E) C9H20 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.2 Global Outcome: G2

7 .

8) Compare a six-carbon open-chain (noncyclic) hydrocarbon alkane, alkene, and alkyne. Which of these compounds would have the fewest number of hydrogen atoms?

A) the alkane B) the alkyne C) the alkene D) all of these have the same number of hydrogen atoms E) none of these contain hydrogen atoms Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.2 Global Outcome: G2

9) Hydrocarbons are commonly used for: A) fuel.

B) wax.

C) fabrics.

D) plastics.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.4 Global Outcome: G1

10) Which type of hydrocarbon is classified as being saturated?

A) alkanes B) alkenes C) alkynes D) all of these E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.2 Global Outcome: G1

11) Which compound below is an alkane?

A) B) C

C

C

C

C

C) D) C

C

C

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.5 Learning Outcome: 18.2 Global Outcome: G2

8 .

12) Consider the following n-alkanes: CH4, C2H6, C3H8, C4H10 Which of these would you expect to have the highest boiling point?

A) CH4 B) C2H6 C) C3H8 D) C4H10 E) all n-alkanes have the same boiling point Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.5 Global Outcome: G2

13) Which of the following is the formula for heptane?

A) B) C) D) E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.5 Learning Outcome: 18.3 Global Outcome: G2

14) Which formula represents butane?

A) B) C) D) E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.5 Learning Outcome: 18.3 Global Outcome: G2

15) Which is the name of

?

A) n-butane B) n-hexane C) n-heptane D) n-pentane E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.5 Learning Outcome: 18.3 Global Outcome: G2

9 .

16) Which is the name of

?

A) n-butane B) n-hexane C) n-heptane D) n-pentane E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.5 Learning Outcome: 18.3 Global Outcome: G2

17) A straight chain saturated hydrocarbon has eight carbon atoms. Its molecular formula is: A) C8H14.

B) C8H16.

C) C8H18.

D) C8H24.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.5 Learning Outcome: 18.3 Global Outcome: G2

18) Which of the following is not a proper condensed structural formula for a normal alkane?

A) CH3CH2CH2CH3 B) CH2CH3CH3 C) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 D) CH3CH3 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.5 Learning Outcome: 18.3 Global Outcome: G2

19) Two compounds are considered as isomers if they have the: A) same molecular formula AND different structure.

B) same molecular formula AND same structure.

C) different molecular formula AND different structure.

D) different molecular formula AND same structure.

E) same molecular formula OR same structure.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.6 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global Outcome: G1

10 .

20) Which of the following structural formulas is an isomer to n-hexane?

A) C— C— C— C— —C

B) C—

— C— C—

C) C—

— C—

D)

— C—

—C

—C

—C

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.6 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global Outcome: G2

21) How many isomers exist for the alkane whose molecular formula is C 4H10?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) none Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.6 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global Outcome: G2

22) Which of the following structural formulas is an isomer to n-nonane?

A) C— C— C— C— —C

B) C—

— C—

—C—

C) C—

— C—

— C— C

D)

— C—

—C

— C— C— C

E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.6 Learning Outcome: 18.4 Global Outcome: G2

11 .

23) Name the following alkane:

— CH2 —

— CH2 — CH2 — CH3

A) 1,3-dimethylhexane B) 4-methylheptane C) 2-propylpentane D) 1-methyl-1-propylbutane E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.7 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global Outcome: G2

24) The prefix "but-" means that the base chain contains how many carbon atoms?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.7 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global Outcome: G2

25) Which condensed structural formula is known as the propyl group?

A) -CH2CH2CH2CH3 B) -CH2CH3 C) -CH2CH2CH3 D) -CH3 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.7 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global Outcome: G2

26) The compound named 2,3-dimethylpentane would have how many total number of carbons?

A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 8 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.7 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global Outcome: G2

12 .

27) Name the following alkane: CH3 —

—

— CH2 — CH3

A) 3-isopropylbutane B) 3,4-dimethylpentane C) 2,3-dimethylpentane D) 2-isopropylbutane E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.7 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global Outcome: G2

28) Which of the following compounds is an alkene?

A) C2H6 B) C3H6 C) C4H6 D) C5H12 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.5 Global Outcome: G2

29) Which of the following compounds is an alkyne?

A) C2H6 B) C3H6 C) C2H2 D) C5H12 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.6 Global Outcome: G2

30) What is the formula for propene?

A) C3H8 B) C3H6 C) C3H4 D) C3H3 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.6 Global Outcome: G2

13 .

31) What is the formula for propyne?

A) C3H8 B) C3H6 C) C3H4 D) C3H3 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.6 Global Outcome: G2

32) What is the name of the following compound:

?

A) 4-pentane B) 4-ene-pentane C) 1-pentene D) 2-pentane E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.6 Global Outcome: G2

33) What is the name of the following compound:

?

A) 3-butene B) 1-butyne C) 2-butene D) 1-butene E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.8 Learning Outcome: 18.6 Global Outcome: G2

34) Name the following alkene: CH3 — CH = C — CH — CH3 | CH3

| CH3

A) 2-propyl-2-isobutene B) 1-propyl-2-butene C) 1,1,3-trimethyl-1-pentene D) 3,4-dimethyl-2-pentene E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.8 Global Outcome: G2

14 .

35) What are the products from the combustion of 2-methyl-3-ethyloctane?

A) variety of small hydrocarbons B) carbon monoxide, carbon trioxide and water C) carbon dioxide and water D) carbon monoxide and water E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global Outcome: G2

36) The combustion of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes produces: A) water and carbon.

B) oxygen and hydrogen.

C) carbon dioxide and hydrogen.

D) hydrogen and water.

E) carbon dioxide and water.

Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global Outcome: G2

37) Which of the following compounds will undergo a substitution reaction?

A) B) C) D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global Outcome: G7

38) Which of the following compounds will undergo an addition reaction?

A) B) C) D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global Outcome: G7

15 .

39) What are the product(s) of: A) B)

+

C)

Cl + HCl

D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global Outcome: G7

40) What will be the major product(s) when A)

Cl

B) C) D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global Outcome: G7

41) What will be the major product(s) when A)

H

+ HCl

B) C)

+

D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global Outcome: G7

42) The reaction CH3CH3 + Br2 → CH3CH2Br + HBr would best be described as: A) substitution.

B) combustion.

C) addition.

D) hydrogenation.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global Outcome: G7

16 .

43) The reaction CH2=CH2 + H2 → CH3CH3 would best be described as: A) substitution.

B) combustion.

C) addition.

D) hydrogenation.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global Outcome: G7

44) The reaction CH2=CH2 + Br2 → CHBrCHBr would best be described as: A) substitution.

B) combustion.

C) addition.

D) hydrogenation.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.9 Learning Outcome: 18.7 Global Outcome: G7

45) Name the aromatic compound shown below:

A) Phenyl bromide B) Benzyl bromide C) Bromobenzene D) Phenol E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.10 Learning Outcome: 18.8 Global Outcome: G2

46) How many carbon atoms would be in the compound named chlorobenzene?

A) 1 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.10 Learning Outcome: 18.8 Global Outcome: G2

17 .

47) In naming disubstituted benzenes, "1,2" substitution is also known as: A) ortho substitution.

B) meta substitution.

C) para substitution.

D) isomer substitution.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.10 Learning Outcome: 18.8 Global Outcome: G2

48) Which of the following are correct names for the compound shown in the figure?

1. 1,2-Dibromobenzene 2. 1,3-Dibromobenzene 3. m-Dibromobenzene A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) All of 1, 2, and 3 E) None of 1, 2, and 3 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.10 Learning Outcome: 18.8 Global Outcome: G2

18 .

49) Which of the following functional groups represents an alcohol?

A) R—

B) R —

—R

C) R —

— OH

D) R — —O R E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global Outcome: G2

50) Which of the following functional groups represents an ester?

A) R—

B) R —

—R

C) R —

— OH

D) R — —O R E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global Outcome: G2

19 .

51) Which of the following functional groups represents a ketone?

A) R—

B) R —

—R

C) R —

— OH

D) R — —O R E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global Outcome: G2

52) Which of the following functional groups represents an aldehyde?

A) R—

B) R —

—R

C) R —

— OH

D) R — —O R E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global Outcome: G2

20 .

53) Which compound below represents isopropyl alcohol?

A) C

—

—C

B) C

—C

—

C) HO—C

—C

D) C

—OH—C

—C

—C

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.12 Learning Outcome: 18.10a Global Outcome: G2

54) Name the following compound: A) butyl ethyl ether B) hexyl ether C) ethyl butylone D) 2-hexone Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.13 Learning Outcome: 18.11 Global Outcome: G2

55) Name the following compound: A) propanone B) 2-methyl-2-ethanone C) propanal D) isopropanol E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.14 Learning Outcome: 18.12 Global Outcome: G2

56) A compound named "propanal" would be classified as an: A) alcohol.

B) amine.

C) aldehyde.

D) ether.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.14 Learning Outcome: 18.12 Global Outcome: G2

21 .

57) Provide the systematic name of the following compound: A) ethanoate B) ethanoic acid C) ethanal D) ethanone E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.15 Learning Outcome: 18.13 Global Outcome: G2

58) Ethyl propanoate is a(n): A) ether.

B) carboxylic acid.

C) ester.

D) ketone.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.15 Learning Outcome: 18.13 Global Outcome: G2

59) Which of the following terms could NOT be applied to the compound CH 2=CHCH2CH2OH? A) unsaturated B) an alcohol C) an alkene D) a carboxylic acid E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.12 Learning Outcome: 18.10a Global Outcome: G7

60) Amines are: A) organic compounds containing nitrogen.

B) known for their awful odors.

C) named according to the hydrocarbon groups attached to nitrogen.

D) based on N with hydrogen groups being replaced by alkyl groups.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.16 Learning Outcome: 18.14 Global Outcome: G1

22 .

61) Which of the following terms could NOT be applied to the compound: CH3 —

—

— CH2 — NH2

A) saturated B) amine C) branched D) all of these terms apply to this structure E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.16 Learning Outcome: 18.14 Global Outcome: G2

62) Which of the following is NOT considered a type of polymer?

A) addition polymer B) condensation polymer C) natural polymer D) synthetic polymer E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.17 Learning Outcome: 18.15 Global Outcome: G1

63) Which of the following is an example of a polymer?

A) DNA B) protein C) nylon D) plexiglass E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.17 Learning Outcome: 18.15 Global Outcome: G1

64) Which of the following statements is FALSE about polymers?

A) Several monomer units link together without eliminating any atom or group to form addition polymers.

B) During condensation polymerization an atom or group is eliminated.

C) Copolymers contain more than one kind of monomer.

D) Nylon 6,6 and polyurethane are examples of copolymers.

E) none of the above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.17 Learning Outcome: 18.15 Global Outcome: G1

23 .

18.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) How many total hydrogen atoms would be in a five carbon noncyclical alkane?

A) 10 B) 8 C) 5 D) 12 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.2 Global Outcome: G2

2) The compound nonene would consist of how many carbon atoms?

A) zero B) nine C) one D) seven E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.5|18.6 Global Outcome: G2

3) The compound propyne would consist of how many carbon atoms and how many hydrogen atoms?

A) 3C,4H B) 2C,2H C) 3C,2H D) 3C,6H E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.5|18.6 Global Outcome: G2

24 .

18.4 Matching Questions Match the following:

A) — CH2 —

B) R —

— OR'

C) R —

—R

— CH3

D) —CH2 — CH3 E) —

— CH2— CH3

F) R — O — R' G) —CH2 — CH2 — CH3 H) —

— CH3

I) —CH2CH2CH2CH3 J) R— OH K) — CH2 —

— CH3

L) — CH3

M) R— N) —

— CH3

O) R —

— OH

25 .

1) sec-butyl Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.4 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global Outcome: G2

2) methyl Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.7 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global Outcome: G2

3) ethyl Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.7 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global Outcome: G2

4) propyl Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.7 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global Outcome: G2

5) isopropyl Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.7 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global Outcome: G2

6) butyl Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.7 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global Outcome: G2

7) isobutyl Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.7 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global Outcome: G2

8) alcohol Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global Outcome: G2

9) ester Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global Outcome: G2

10) aldehyde Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global Outcome: G2

26 .

11) ketone Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global Outcome: G2

12) carboxylic acid Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 18.11 Learning Outcome: 18.9 Global Outcome: G2

Answers: 1) E 2) L 3) D 4) G 5) N 6) I 7) K 8) J 9) B 10) M 11) C 12) O

27 .

Introductory Chemistry, 6e (Tro) Chapter 19 Biochemistry 19.1 True/False Questions 1) The human genome project was embarked upon in the late 1970s with the goal of mapping the entire DNA molecule.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) Biochemistry is the study of chemical substances and processes that occur in plants, animals and microorganisms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) The four main classes of biochemical compounds are carbohydrates, lipids, proteins and nucleic acids.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.2 Global Outcome: G1

4) The smallest structural unit of a living organism is the cell nucleus.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.2 Learning Outcome: 19.1 Global Outcome: G1

5) Carbohydrates provide short term energy storage in cells.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G1

6) Carbohydrates have the general formula of (CH2O) n.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G1

7) The structure of a carbohydrate shows that water molecules are connected to carbon atoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G1

8) A carbohydrate that cannot be broken down into simpler carbohydrates is called a monosaccharide.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G1

1 .

9) A disaccharide is composed of two monosaccharides connected together by a glycosidic linkage.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G1

10) The only structural difference between starch and cellulose is the type of linkage between glucose units.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G1

11) If a polysaccharide is digested in the body, it will yield many monosaccharide units.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G2

12) Glucose is an example of a monosaccharide.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G1

13) Monosaccharides typically rearrange in aqueous solution to form double helix structures.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G1

14) Fructose is an example of a hexose, a six-carbon sugar.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G2

15) A pentose sugar contains more carbon atoms than does a hexose sugar.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G2

16) The many OH groups present in carbohydrates such as glucose make them quite insoluble in water and blood.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G1

2 .

17) Humans are better able to digest cellulose rather than starch because of differences in the link between the glucose units in the polysaccharide.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G1

18) Lipids are soluble in aqueous solutions such as blood and cytoplasm.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global Outcome: G1

19) Lipids are considered to be more soluble in water than in other solvents.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global Outcome: G1

20) The term hydrophilic indicates a substance is repelled by water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global Outcome: G1

21) The polar section of a phospholipid is said to be hydrophobic.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global Outcome: G1

22) The nonpolar part of a phospholipid is repelled by water and is said to be hydrophilic.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global Outcome: G2

23) Fatty acids differ only in their "R" group.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global Outcome: G1

24) A fatty acid has a long chain of carbon atoms that ends with a carboxylic acid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global Outcome: G1

3 .

25) A triglyceride is a fat or oil that contains a fatty acid bonded to three glycerol molecules.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global Outcome: G1

26) Saturated fats tend to be solid at room temperature.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.4 Global Outcome: G1

27) Enzymes that act as catalysts are called proteins.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global Outcome: G1

28) Proteins are polymers of amino acids.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global Outcome: G1

29) Amino acids are molecules that contain a side chain, a main chain, an amine group, a carboxylic acid group and a protein group.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global Outcome: G1

30) Amino acids link together to form a peptide bond because the amine end of one amino acid reacts with the carboxylic acid of another amino acid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.6 Global Outcome: G1

31) A tripeptide consists of three steroids linked together.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.6 Global Outcome: G2

32) Protein structures are expressed in terms of amino acid sequence, the short-term repeating pattern, the long-term bend and folds and finally how proteins structures interact with themselves.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G1

4 .

33) Peptide bonds are responsible for the primary protein structure.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G7

34) In the formation of a secondary protein structure, the primary protein structure is destroyed.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G2

35) The exact shape that a protein takes depends on the types of amino acids and their sequence in the protein chain.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G1

36) Pleated sheet is a tertiary protein structure.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G1

37) Quaternary protein structure is simply the sequence of amino acids in that protein's chain.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G1

38) The pattern Gly-Val-Gln-Cys-Cys-Ala-Ser-Val is an example of a primary protein structure.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G2

39) Nucleic acids contain a chemical code that ensures the correct amino acid sequence for proteins.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.7 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global Outcome: G1

40) DNA and RNA are the two types of nucleic acids.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.7 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global Outcome: G2

5 .

41) Nucleotides contain a phosphate, a sugar and an amino acid.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.7 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global Outcome: G1

42) A gene is a portion of DNA that codes for a single protein.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.7 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global Outcome: G1

43) DNA contained within the nucleus of most cells contains a complete set of instructions to make all of the proteins in the human body.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.8 Learning Outcome: 19.9 Global Outcome: G1

44) Protein synthesis occurs at the ribosome.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.8 Learning Outcome: 19.9 Global Outcome: G1

45) Humans must synthesize some of the proteins they need because they cannot obtain them from the foods they eat.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.8 Learning Outcome: 19.9 Global Outcome: G1

46) The complementary strand of DNA to the pattern GAATC is TCCGA. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.8 Learning Outcome: 19.9 Global Outcome: G2

47) The bases on one strand of DNA pair with bases on the other strand of DNA through hydrogen bonding.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.8 Learning Outcome: 19.9 Global Outcome: G1

48) A codon is a section of DNA that specifies a single amino acid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.8 Learning Outcome: 19.9 Global Outcome: G1

6 .

19.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The human genome project showed that humans have approximately ________ genes.

A) 46 B) 20,000 C) 36,000 D) 3 Million E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.1 Global Outcome: G1

2) A roundworm has approximately ________ genes.

A) 46 B) 20,000 C) 32,000 D) 3 Million E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.1 Global Outcome: G1

3) The human genome project is expected to: A) help identify people who are susceptible to certain diseases.

B) produce important drugs in the lab by using the blueprint our body provides.

C) help develop new drugs to fight genetic diseases.

D) help understand the genetic basis for intelligence.

E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.1 Global Outcome: G1

4) The portion of the cell that contains the genetic information is called ________.

A) cytoplasm B) membrane C) nucleus D) mitochondria E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.2 Learning Outcome: 19.1 Global Outcome: G1

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5) The region of the cell that contains specialized structures that carry out the cell's work is called ________.

A) nucleus B) cell wall C) cell membrane D) cytoplasm E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.2 Learning Outcome: 19.1 Global Outcome: G1

6) The region of the cell that holds the contents of the cell together is called ________.

A) nucleus B) mitochondria C) cell membrane D) cytoplasm E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.2 Learning Outcome: 19.1 Global Outcome: G1

7) Which sequence below lists the order of the components of a cell, listed in order from inside to outside?

A) nucleus, cell membrane, cytoplasm B) cytoplasm, nucleus, cell membrane C) nucleus, cytoplasm, cell membrane D) cell membrane, nucleus, cytoplasm E) cell membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.2 Learning Outcome: 19.1 Global Outcome: G2

8) The main chemical components of the cell are ________.

A) carbohydrates, alcohols, proteins and amines B) alcohols, proteins, amines and nucleic acids C) proteins, nucleic acids, lipids, and carbohydrates D) amines, lipids, nucleic acids and proteins E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.2 Learning Outcome: 19.1 Global Outcome: G1

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9) An example of a monosaccharide is ________.

A) glucose B) sucrose C) cellulose D) glycogen E) both C and D Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G2

10) A seven-carbon sugar is known as: A) tetrose.

B) sevose.

C) hexose.

D) heptose.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G2

11) An example of a disaccharide is: A) glucose.

B) sucrose.

C) cellulose.

D) glycogen.

E) both C and D Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G1

12) Which of the following is NOT true regarding disaccharides?

A) The disaccharide link is so strong that it cannot be broken during digestion.

B) The link between the monosaccharides is called a glycosidic linkage.

C) Water is eliminated when two monosaccharides react to form a disaccharide.

D) A disaccharide is a carbohydrate composed of two simpler carbohydrates.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G2

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13) During digestion, sucrose breaks down into ________.

A) glucose and galactose B) galactose and fructose C) fructose and lactose D) glucose and fructose E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G2

14) An example of a polysaccharide is: A) glucose.

B) sucrose.

C) cellulose.

D) glycogen.

E) both C and D Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G1

15) Which of the following statements is FALSE about polysaccharides?

A) They are long chain structures containing large number of repeating monosaccharide units.

B) Starch, cellulose, and glycogen are polysaccharides.

C) Table sugar is a polysaccharide.

D) They break down to produce monosaccharides during digestion.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G7

16) All of the following carbohydrates can be digested by humans EXCEPT: A) glucose.

B) sucrose.

C) cellulose.

D) glycogen.

E) both C and D Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G1

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17) Which of the following is a complex carbohydrate?

A) monosaccharide B) disaccharide C) polysaccharide D) all of these E) none of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G1

18) All of the carbohydrates below are hexoses EXCEPT: A) glucose.

B) fructose.

C) galactose.

D) both A and B E) Glucose, fructose and galactose are all hexoses.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G2

19) The only difference between starch and cellulose is: A) starch is a linear arrangement of glucose units and cellulose is a branched arrangement of glucose units.

B) starch is a linear arrangement of sucrose units and cellulose is a linear arrangement of glucose units.

C) starch is a linear arrangement of fructose units and cellulose is a branched arrangement of fructose units.

D) starch is a linear arrangement of glucose units with alpha linkages and cellulose is a linear arrangement of glucose units with beta linkages.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.3 Learning Outcome: 19.2 Global Outcome: G7

20) A lipid is a chemical component of the cell that is: A) insoluble in water but soluble in methanol.

B) soluble in nonpolar solvents and insoluble in water.

C) soluble in water and insoluble in nonpolar solvents.

D) soluble in both water and nonpolar solvents.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global Outcome: G7

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21) Lipids include all of the following compounds EXCEPT: A) fatty acids.

B) fats.

C) oils.

D) amino acids.

E) All of the above are lipids.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global Outcome: G2

22) Lipids include all of the following compounds EXCEPT: A) phospholipids.

B) glycolipids.

C) carboxylic acids.

D) steroids.

E) All of the above are lipids.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global Outcome: G2

23) The type of lipid that contains a four-ring structure and does not contain fatty acids is: A) glycolipid.

B) steroid.

C) triglyceride.

D) phospholipid.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global Outcome: G2

24) Which of the statements regarding phospholipids is FALSE? A) A phospholipid has nearly the same structure as a triglyceride.

B) Unlike triglycerides, phospholipids have a polar region.

C) Phospholipids are common in the cell membrane.

D) A cell membrane is a bilayer of phospholipids and glycolipids.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.3 Global Outcome: G7

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25) Which of the following is a saturated fatty acid?

A) oleic acid B) linoleic acid C) linolenic acid D) capric acid E) All of the above are saturated fatty acids.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.4 Global Outcome: G7

26) Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?

A) oleic acid B) palmitic acid C) myristic acid D) butyric acid E) All of the above are saturated fatty acids.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.4 Global Outcome: G7

27) Which of the following statements about fats and oils is FALSE? A) Fats and oils are made of a fatty acid with three glycerides bonded to it.

B) The bonds between the fatty acids and the glycerol is an ester linkage.

C) A saturated fatty acid contains only single bonds between carbon atoms.

D) An unsaturated fatty acid contains some double or triple bonds.

E) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.4 Global Outcome: G7

28) Which of the following statements about proteins is FALSE? A) Proteins are polymers of amino acids.

B) Proteins can act as biological catalysts.

C) Proteins are the structural component of muscle and cartilage.

D) Proteins are a main source of energy for cells.

E) All of the statements are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.5 Global Outcome: G7

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29) Which of the following statements about amino acids is FALSE? A) Amino acids are the monomers of protein molecules.

B) Amino acids all have an amine group, a side chain, and a carboxylic acid.

C) Amino acids bond to each other through a peptide bond.

D) Amino acids all have very similar physical properties.

E) All of the statements are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.6 Global Outcome: G7

30) Amino acids contain a(n): A) amine group.

B) carboxylic acid group.

C) "R" side chain.

D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.6 Global Outcome: G1

31) Which factor causes the main difference in chemical properties between different amino acids?

A) amine group B) carboxylic acid group C) R group (side chain) D) molecular weight E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.6 Global Outcome: G1

32) Which of the following statements correctly explains the formation of a peptide bond between two amino acids?

A) The amine end of one links with the amine end of the other.

B) The carboxylic acid end of one links with the carboxylic acid end of the other.

C) The amine end of one links with the carboxylic acid end of the other and eliminates a water molecule.

D) The carboxylic acid end of one links with the carboxylic acid end of the other and eliminates a water molecule.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.5 Learning Outcome: 19.6 Global Outcome: G7

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33) Which protein structure provides the amino acid sequence?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G1

34) Which protein structure provides the arrangement of polypeptides?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G1

35) Which protein structure provides the large-scale bends and folds in the protein?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G1

36) Which protein structure provides the short-range repeating patterns?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G1

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37) The most common repeating pattern that is found along the secondary structure of a protein chain is: A) α-helix.

B) β-pleated sheet.

C) β-turn.

D) random coil.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G1

38) The primary interactions that determine the tertiary structure of proteins include: A) hydrogen bonds.

B) disulfide linkages.

C) hydrophobic interactions.

D) all of A, B, and C E) none of A, B, and C Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G2

39) Cys-Ala-Val-Cys-Gln is an example of which type of structure?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G2

40) A globular shape is an example of which type of structure?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G1

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41) An alpha helix is an example of which type of structure?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G1

42) Which type of structure is maintained by interaction between R-groups on amino acids that are separated by long distances on the same chain?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G1

43) Which type of structure is maintained by interaction between R-groups on amino acids that are on separate chains?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G1

44) Which type of structure is maintained by interaction between R-groups on amino acids that are separated by short distances on the same chain?

A) Primary Structure B) Secondary Structure C) Tertiary Structure D) Quaternary Structure E) Pental Structure Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G1

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45) Which of the following statements about nucleic acids is FALSE? A) Nucleic acids contain the code to make lipids.

B) Nucleic acids specify the order of amino acids in proteins.

C) Nucleic acids are either DNA or RNA. D) Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides.

E) All of the statements are true.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.7 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global Outcome: G7

46) Which base is found in RNA but NOT in DNA? A) uracil B) thymine C) guanine D) cytosine E) adenine Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.7 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global Outcome: G2

47) A nucleotide contains: A) phosphate, sugar, amino acid.

B) phosphate, lipid, base.

C) phosphate, lipid, amino acid.

D) phosphate, sugar, base.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.7 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global Outcome: G1

48) A codon is: A) a series of three bases that specifies one of the twenty amino acids.

B) a series of three phosphates that specifies one of the twenty amino acids.

C) a series of three sugars that specifies one of the twenty amino acids.

D) a series of three proteins that specify one of the twenty amino acids.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.7 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global Outcome: G1

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49) A gene is: A) a structure within the cell nucleus that houses DNA. B) a portion of DNA that codes for a single protein.

C) a sequence of three nucleotides that codes for a single amino acid.

D) a portion of a protein that codes for a single amino acid.

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.7 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global Outcome: G1

50) A chromosome is: A) a structure within the cell nucleus that houses genes.

B) a portion of DNA that codes for a single protein.

C) a sequence of three nucleotides that codes for a single amino acid.

D) a portion of a protein that codes for a single amino acid.

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.7 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global Outcome: G1

51) Which sequence below represents the correct base pairs that can exist in DNA? A) A with T and C with G B) A with C and T with G C) A with G and C with T D) A with U and T with G E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.8 Learning Outcome: 19.9 Global Outcome: G2

52) The complementary base sequence to GTAGCT is: A) CATCGA. B) ACGATC. C) GCAGTA. D) AGTCGA. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.8 Learning Outcome: 19.9 Global Outcome: G2

19 .

53) The structure of DNA is: A) the pleated sheet.

B) the alpha helix.

C) the beta helix.

D) the double helix.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.8 Learning Outcome: 19.9 Global Outcome: G2

54) The synthesis of a protein involves: A) DNA transfers the code to m-RNA which then goes to the nucleus to synthesize the protein.

B) DNA transfers the code to m-RNA which then goes to the mitochondria to synthesize the protein.

C) DNA transfers the code to m-RNA which then goes to the ribosome to synthesize the protein.

D) DNA transfers the code to m-RNA which then goes to the codon to synthesize the protein.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.8 Learning Outcome: 19.9 Global Outcome: G2

55) The two strands that form the double helix of DNA are held to each other by: A) peptide bonds.

B) covalent bonds.

C) hydrogen bonds.

D) ester linkages.

E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.8 Learning Outcome: 19.9 Global Outcome: G1

56) If a segment of the double helix of DNA is analyzed and is found to contain 10,000 units of the base adenine (A), then this segment must also contain: A) 10,000 units of the base uracil (U).

B) 10,000 units of the base thymine (T).

C) 10,000 units of the base cytosine (C).

D) 5,000 units of the base thymine (T).

E) 5,000 units of the base cytosine (C).

Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.8 Learning Outcome: 19.9 Global Outcome: G2

20 .

57) The "m" in the term mRNA represents: A) meta.

B) mini.

C) mitosis.

D) messenger.

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.8 Learning Outcome: 19.9 Global Outcome: G1

19.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) How many total number of DNA bases are needed to code for the amino acids in a protein containing 27 amino acids?

A) 9 B) 27 C) 81 D) 4 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: 19.7 Learning Outcome: 19.8 Global Outcome: G7

2) A section of DNA contains the bases ACGTC, so the correct sequence in the complementary strand is: A) CATGA B) UGCAG C) TGCAG D) GTACT E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: 19.8 Learning Outcome: 19.9 Global Outcome: G2

21 .

19.4 Essay Questions 1) It is expected that the Human Genome Project, by mapping DNA, can lead to the development of new drugs in two ways. Briefly explain how new drugs can be developed as a result of the Human Genome Project.

Answer: 1. Understanding of the function of specific genes will allow scientists to design drugs that will carry out the functions related to the genes.

2. Scientists can also take the blueprints contained in human genes and put them in bacteria which will synthesize the needed drugs. Such drugs are then isolated from the bacteria and given to patients.

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.1 Global Outcome: G8

2) What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids?

Answer: The carbon chains in saturated fatty acids do not contain double bonds while unsaturated fatty acids contain at least one double bond.

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.4 Learning Outcome: 19.4 Global Outcome: G8

3) Summarize the main features of the four categories of protein structure.

Answer: 1. Primary structure is the sequence of amino acids in the protein chain.

2. Secondary structure refers to the short-range repeating patterns found along the protein chain.

3. Tertiary structure consists of large-scale twists and folds within the protein due to the interactions between the of amino acids that are separated by large distances in the protein sequence.

4. Quaternary structure refers to the arrangement of chains in proteins. Quaternary structure is maintained by interactions between amino acids on the individual chains.

Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: 19.6 Learning Outcome: 19.7 Global Outcome: G8

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