Law and Ethics for Health Professions 7th Edition by Ace Test Banks

Law and Ethics for Health Professions 7th Edition

By Karen Judson, Carlene Harrison

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 1 Introduction to Law and Ethics 1) Law may be defined as A) a moral code. B) good manners. C) rules of conduct. D) protocol. E) behavior guidelines. 2) Etiquette rules used in the workplace are called A) protocol. B) ethics. C) policies. D) morals. E) beliefs. 3) Which of the following is/are not enacted by government? A) Laws B) Statutes C) Legislation D) Medical practice acts E) Etiquette rules 4) What do professional organizations create to govern their members? A) Laws B) Codes of ethics C) Statutes D) Procedure manuals E) Etiquette standards 5) What is the purpose of formalized codes of ethics in the health care professions? A) To increase the competence within the profession. B) To revoke the licenses of unethical practitioners. C) To provide a consistent guide for protocol. D) To relieve the lawmaking bodies of their legal responsibilities. E) To establish formal standards for membership in a group. 6) Which document serves as a guideline about professional behavior and etiquette for employees? A) The AMA's Code of Ethics. B) The office policy manual. C) Medical practice acts. D) Emily Post's Guide to Etiquette. E) The statutes of the city where the organization is located.

7) What is the meaning of the term litigious? A) Higher number of practicing lawyers. B) Decreased legal liability. C) Increase in the number of lawsuits. D) Increase in consumer awareness of health care. E) Increase in laws covering error. 8) The plaintiff in a lawsuit is the A) party against whom criminal or civil charges have been filed. B) party filing the civil charges. C) party held liable. D) party that testifies. E) party that dismisses the suit. 9) A pledge for physicians that remains influential today is A) Code of Hammurabi. B) Babylonian Ethics Code. C) Hippocratic oath. D) Socrates' pledge. E) Percival's Ethics. 10) The defendant in a lawsuit is the A) party against whom criminal or civil charges have been filed. B) party filing the civil charges. C) party held liable. D) party that testifies. E) party that dismisses the suit. 11) An attorney files a motion that pleads there is no basis for a trial. This is called A) acceptance. B) precedent. C) summary judgment. D) administrative law. E) liability. 12) Another term for legal responsibility is A) liability. B) litigious. C) testimony. D) defense. E) precedent.

13) Ethics may be defined as A) a standard of competence. B) principles, standards, and a guide to conduct. C) courtesy and manners. D) beliefs formed through the influence of family, culture, and society. E) rules of etiquette. 14) Bioethics is concerned with A) etiquette in medical research. B) health care law. C) the ethics of scientists doing research in a university. D) ethical implications of biological research methods and results. E) moral values of the scientists. 15) Which of the following is a synonym for "good manners"? A) Protocol B) Etiquette C) Morals D) Laws E) Ethics 16) The first step in a critical thinking problem solving is to A) evaluate the evidence. B) gather information. C) identify and clarify the problem. D) consider alternatives. E) implement the right decision. 17) A medical-surgical nurse is going off shift and giving her report to the nurse coming on duty. She is clearly and accurately describing the conditions of the patients she cared for during her shift. Which skill is an example of this? A) People skills. B) Critical thinking skills. C) Technical skills. D) Moral values skills. E) Problem solving skills. 18) Which of the following is an example of a healthcare practitioner displaying compassion for a patient? A) A physician making rounds in a hospital asks a patient how he is doing. B) A nurse feels sorry for a patient who was just diagnosed with cancer. C) A medical assistant inquires about a patient's children. D) An LPN helps an elderly person walk through the hallways. E) A physician sits down with a patient and addresses all the concerns of the patient.

19) A radiologic technologist approaches a new patient and states, "I am Jennifer and I will be taking care of you today." Which of the three "Cs" is an example of this? A) Common sense B) Compassion C) Commitment D) Coordination E) Courtesy 20) Laws applying specifically to the practice of medicine in a certain state are called A) Protocol Acts. B) Civil Licensing Acts. C) State Medical Guidelines. D) Medical Practice Acts. E) Administrative Medical Law. 21) A student medical assistant doing his or her internship in a physician's office refuses to wipe up a spilled drink in the exam room hallway because he or she believes housekeeping is not part of his or her job description. The student is demonstrating the absence of which quality deemed necessary for successful health care practitioners? A) Compassion B) Technical skill C) Common sense D) Courtesy E) Etiquette 22) Formed through the influences of family, culture, and society, which of these serve as the basis for ethical conduct? A) Moral values B) Code of etiquette C) Protocol standards D) Laws E) Policies and procedures 23) A health care practitioner completes a course in law and ethics. In this field of study, which of the following is the most important reason health care professionals should be familiar with? A) To promote patient and employee safety. B) To help explain the process of informed consent to patients. C) To help avoid legal entanglements. D) To learn the inner workings of the healthcare system. E) To better supervise other healthcare practitioners. 24) Unlawful acts are always A) unacceptable. B) unethical. C) punishable by legal means. D) punishable by professional groups. E) those that require time in jail. 4 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

25) Unethical behavior is always A) unacceptable. B) illegal. C) punishable by legal means. D) punishable by professional groups. E) behavior that requires time in jail. 26) Which of the following is considered a technical skill? A) Tact B) Problem-solving C) Common sense D) Gathering information E) Computer literacy 27) A precedent is a(n) A) law enacted by the federal government. B) case that serves as a model for future cases. C) protocol rule. D) summary judgment. E) policy or procedure. 28) Written codes of ethics for health care practitioners A) evolved primarily to serve as moral guidelines for those who provide care. B) are legally binding. C) did not exist in ancient times. D) are used in legal cases. E) are enforced by hospitals. 29) The health care professional who studies law and ethics gains perspective on current issues that affect health care practice. Which of the following accurately describes one of those issues? A) A decrease in health care costs makes health care more affordable. B) The media has ensured that everyone has the same access to medical care. C) With the advancement of medical technology, patients expect favorable outcomes. D) Healthcare professionals should not be involved in the legal issues of patients. E) The role of the private sector in health care. 30) A new employee in a large medical practice is looking for the professional etiquette staff members are expected to follow. Which would be the best source for learning these rules? A) The employee's professional code of ethics. B) The state's medical practice acts. C) The bulletin board in the employee lounge. D) The office policy manual. E) A search on the Internet for office etiquette.

31) Dishonest or deceitful practices in depriving, or attempting to deprive, another of his or her rights is considered 32) Standards of behavior, developed as a result of one's concept of right and wrong, is known as 33) A specialist who consults with physicians, researchers, and others to help them make difficult decisions is known as 34) Rules of etiquette applicable to one's place of employment are known as

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 1 Introduction to Law and Ethics 1) Law may be defined as A) a moral code. B) good manners. C) rules of conduct. D) protocol. E) behavior guidelines. Answer: C Explanation: Laws are rules that require everyone to behave the same way or face formal punishment. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Comparing Aspects of Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.6 Compare criminal law and civil law as they apply to health care providers 2) Etiquette rules used in the workplace are called A) protocol. B) ethics. C) policies. D) morals. E) beliefs. Answer: A Explanation: Different offices may follow different etiquette rules. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Comparing Aspects of Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

3) Which of the following is/are not enacted by government? A) Laws B) Statutes C) Legislation D) Medical practice acts E) Etiquette rules Answer: E Explanation: Etiquette changes depending on the organization and situation. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Comparing Aspects of Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.6 Compare criminal law and civil law as they apply to health care providers 4) What do professional organizations create to govern their members? A) Laws B) Codes of ethics C) Statutes D) Procedure manuals E) Etiquette standards Answer: B Explanation: A code of ethics allows standards to be set to define competency. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Comparing Aspects of Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.g. Display compliance with Code of Ethics of the profession Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.1 Define ethics

5) What is the purpose of formalized codes of ethics in the health care professions? A) To increase the competence within the profession. B) To revoke the licenses of unethical practitioners. C) To provide a consistent guide for protocol. D) To relieve the lawmaking bodies of their legal responsibilities. E) To establish formal standards for membership in a group. Answer: A Explanation: A code of ethics allows standards to be set to define competency. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Comparing Aspects of Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.g. Display compliance with Code of Ethics of the profession Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.1 Define ethics 6) Which document serves as a guideline about professional behavior and etiquette for employees? A) The AMA's Code of Ethics. B) The office policy manual. C) Medical practice acts. D) Emily Post's Guide to Etiquette. E) The statutes of the city where the organization is located. Answer: B Explanation: Most organizations have a policy manual that provides employees with guidance as to how to act in certain situations. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Comparing Aspects of Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

7) What is the meaning of the term litigious? A) Higher number of practicing lawyers. B) Decreased legal liability. C) Increase in the number of lawsuits. D) Increase in consumer awareness of health care. E) Increase in laws covering error. Answer: C Explanation: A litigious society is one in which patients, relatives, and others are inclined to sue healthcare practitioners, health care facilities, manufacturers of medical equipment and products, and others when medical outcomes are not acceptable. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Why Study Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.6 Compare criminal law and civil law as they apply to health care providers 8) The plaintiff in a lawsuit is the A) party against whom criminal or civil charges have been filed. B) party filing the civil charges. C) party held liable. D) party that testifies. E) party that dismisses the suit. Answer: B Explanation: The plaintiff is the person(s) filing the law suit. A defendant is the person being sued. Witnesses testify in court, and judges preside over lawsuits. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Why Study Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.k Define the following medical legal terms: defendant-plaintiff

9) A pledge for physicians that remains influential today is A) Code of Hammurabi. B) Babylonian Ethics Code. C) Hippocratic oath. D) Socrates' pledge. E) Percival's Ethics. Answer: C Explanation: Hippocrates created an oath that is still in use today. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Comparing Aspects of Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.g. Display compliance with Code of Ethics of the profession Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.1.a Define ethics 10) The defendant in a lawsuit is the A) party against whom criminal or civil charges have been filed. B) party filing the civil charges. C) party held liable. D) party that testifies. E) party that dismisses the suit. Answer: A Explanation: A defendant is the person being sued and who must defend himself or herself in court. Witnesses testify in court, and judges preside over lawsuits. The plaintiff is the person(s) filing the lawsuit. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Why Study Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.k Define the following medical legal terms: defendant-plaintiff

11) An attorney files a motion that pleads there is no basis for a trial. This is called A) acceptance. B) precedent. C) summary judgment. D) administrative law. E) liability. Answer: C Explanation: Summary judgment states that one party is entitled to win as a matter of law and no trial is necessary. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Why Study Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.6 Compare criminal law and civil law as they apply to health care providers 12) Another term for legal responsibility is A) liability. B) litigious. C) testimony. D) defense. E) precedent. Answer: A Explanation: Legal responsibility is also known as legal liability. A person(s) or organization may be found legally responsible for an action. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Why Study Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: Compare criminal law and civil law as they apply to health care providers

13) Ethics may be defined as A) a standard of competence. B) principles, standards, and a guide to conduct. C) courtesy and manners. D) beliefs formed through the influence of family, culture, and society. E) rules of etiquette. Answer: B Explanation: Ethics and moral values are sometimes confused. Ethics are a guide to conduct, while moral values are the beliefs formed through the influence of family culture and society. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Comparing Aspects of Law and Ethics Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.g. Display compliance with Code of Ethics of the profession Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.1.a Define ethics 14) Bioethics is concerned with A) etiquette in medical research. B) health care law. C) the ethics of scientists doing research in a university. D) ethical implications of biological research methods and results. E) moral values of the scientists. Answer: D Explanation: Bioethics is the study of how biological research and ethical guidelines are established. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Comparing Aspects of Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.1.a Define ethics

15) Which of the following is a synonym for "good manners"? A) Protocol B) Etiquette C) Morals D) Laws E) Ethics Answer: B Explanation: Etiquette is the basic rules of behavior usually known as good manners. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Qualities of Successful Health Care Practitioners Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 7.g Display professionalism through written and verbal communication Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: V.C.1 Identify style and types of verbal behavior 16) The first step in a critical thinking problem solving is to A) evaluate the evidence. B) gather information. C) identify and clarify the problem. D) consider alternatives. E) implement the right decision. Answer: C Explanation: Identifying and clarifying the problem is the first step in critical thinking. It is followed by gathering information, evaluating the evidence, considering the alternatives, and implementing the decision. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Qualities of Successful Health Care Practitioners Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 7.g Display professionalism through written and verbal communication Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: V.P.11 Report relevant information concisely and accurately

17) A medical-surgical nurse is going off shift and giving her report to the nurse coming on duty. She is clearly and accurately describing the conditions of the patients she cared for during her shift. Which skill is an example of this? A) People skills. B) Critical thinking skills. C) Technical skills. D) Moral values skills. E) Problem solving skills. Answer: A Explanation: People skills include good communication skills. Critical thinking is a problem solving skill, and technical skills may include proficiencies in working with equipment. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Qualities of Successful Health Care Practitioners Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 7.g Display professionalism through written and verbal communication Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: V.C.1 Identify style and types of verbal behavior 18) Which of the following is an example of a healthcare practitioner displaying compassion for a patient? A) A physician making rounds in a hospital asks a patient how he is doing. B) A nurse feels sorry for a patient who was just diagnosed with cancer. C) A medical assistant inquires about a patient's children. D) An LPN helps an elderly person walk through the hallways. E) A physician sits down with a patient and addresses all the concerns of the patient. Answer: E Explanation: Compassion is empathy—the identifying and understanding another's situation, feelings, and motives. This occurs when the physician takes the time to listen to the patient and answer questions. Sympathy is when one feels sorry for another. Asking about a patient's family is courtesy, and helping a patient walk is a work-related task. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Qualities of Successful Health Care Practitioners Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 5.h Display effective interpersonal skills with patients and health care team members Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.A.1. Demonstrate sensitivity to patient rights

19) A radiologic technologist approaches a new patient and states, "I am Jennifer and I will be taking care of you today." Which of the three "Cs" is an example of this? A) Common sense B) Compassion C) Commitment D) Coordination E) Courtesy Answer: E Explanation: The simple definition of courtesy is good manners, as is displayed when the technologist introduces herself to the patient. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Qualities of Successful Health Care Practitioners Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 5.h Display effective interpersonal skills with patients and health care team members Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 20) Laws applying specifically to the practice of medicine in a certain state are called A) Protocol Acts. B) Civil Licensing Acts. C) State Medical Guidelines. D) Medical Practice Acts. E) Administrative Medical Law. Answer: D Explanation: Every state enacts a medical practice act to provide laws to govern the practice of medicine. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Comparing Aspects of Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.2 Compare and contrast provider and medical assistant roles in terms of standard of care

21) A student medical assistant doing his or her internship in a physician's office refuses to wipe up a spilled drink in the exam room hallway because he or she believes housekeeping is not part of his or her job description. The student is demonstrating the absence of which quality deemed necessary for successful health care practitioners? A) Compassion B) Technical skill C) Common sense D) Courtesy E) Etiquette Answer: C Explanation: All health care personnel are responsible for maintaining a safe workplace. If a patient or another employee were to slip and fall because the student thought it was not his or her job, it demonstrates a lack of common sense. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Qualities of Successful Health Care Practitioners Bloom's: Apply ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XII.P.5 Evaluate the work environment to identify unsafe working conditions 22) Formed through the influences of family, culture, and society, which of these serve as the basis for ethical conduct? A) Moral values B) Code of etiquette C) Protocol standards D) Laws E) Policies and procedures Answer: A Explanation: Our values are determined by a variety of influences including our family, culture, and society. Sometimes, one of these influences has more weight than others. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Comparing Aspects of Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.g. Display compliance with Code of Ethics of the profession Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.1.b Define morals

23) A health care practitioner completes a course in law and ethics. In this field of study, which of the following is the most important reason health care professionals should be familiar with? A) To promote patient and employee safety. B) To help explain the process of informed consent to patients. C) To help avoid legal entanglements. D) To learn the inner workings of the healthcare system. E) To better supervise other healthcare practitioners. Answer: C Explanation: By studying law and ethics, understanding informed consent and promoting safety may be facilitated. They are not the primary reason health care professionals should be familiar with law and ethics. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Why Study Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.6 Compare criminal and civil law as it applies to the practicing medical assistant 24) Unlawful acts are always A) unacceptable. B) unethical. C) punishable by legal means. D) punishable by professional groups. E) those that require time in jail. Answer: B Explanation: An illegal act is always considered unethical, which may be punishable by legal means. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Comparing Aspects of Law and Ethics Bloom's: Apply ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: IX.C.6. Compare criminal and civil law as it applies to the practicing medical assistant

25) Unethical behavior is always A) unacceptable. B) illegal. C) punishable by legal means. D) punishable by professional groups. E) behavior that requires time in jail. Answer: A Explanation: Although unethical behavior is wrong, it is not necessarily illegal. For example, some providers believe that it is unethical to perform an abortion; however, it is not illegal. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Comparing Aspects of Law and Ethics Bloom's: Apply ABHES: 4.g. Display compliance with Code of Ethics of the profession Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.1.a Define ethics 26) Which of the following is considered a technical skill? A) Tact B) Problem-solving C) Common sense D) Gathering information E) Computer literacy Answer: E Explanation: Technical skills include those abilities acquired in a course of study, such as computer skills. Tact is a people skill, and common sense, problem solving, and gathering information are critical thinking skills. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Qualities of Successful Health Care Practitioners Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 7.h Perform basic computer skills Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: V.C.8 Discuss applications of electronic technology in professional communications

27) A precedent is a(n) A) law enacted by the federal government. B) case that serves as a model for future cases. C) protocol rule. D) summary judgment. E) policy or procedure. Answer: B Explanation: In case law, previous cases often serve as guidance for the court. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Why Study Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.6 Compare criminal and civil law as it applies to the practicing medical assistant 28) Written codes of ethics for health care practitioners A) evolved primarily to serve as moral guidelines for those who provide care. B) are legally binding. C) did not exist in ancient times. D) are used in legal cases. E) are enforced by hospitals. Answer: A Explanation: Although codes of ethics are important and have been around for a long time, they are not legally binding. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Why Study Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.g. Display compliance with Code of Ethics of the profession Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.1.a Define ethics

29) The health care professional who studies law and ethics gains perspective on current issues that affect health care practice. Which of the following accurately describes one of those issues? A) A decrease in health care costs makes health care more affordable. B) The media has ensured that everyone has the same access to medical care. C) With the advancement of medical technology, patients expect favorable outcomes. D) Healthcare professionals should not be involved in the legal issues of patients. E) The role of the private sector in health care. Answer: C Explanation: As medical technology has advanced, patients have come to expect favorable outcomes from medical treatment. Rising costs lead to questions concerning access to care, and health care practitioners need to be concerned about how law and ethics may affect the patients they treat. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Why Study Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 5.h Display effective interpersonal skills with patients and health care team members Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: V.C.6.e Define coaching a patient as it relates to adaptations relevant to individual patient needs 30) A new employee in a large medical practice is looking for the professional etiquette staff members are expected to follow. Which would be the best source for learning these rules? A) The employee's professional code of ethics. B) The state's medical practice acts. C) The bulletin board in the employee lounge. D) The office policy manual. E) A search on the Internet for office etiquette. Answer: D Explanation: Most healthcare facilities have their own policies concerning etiquette that staff members are expected to follow. These manuals may serve as both a permanent record, and guidelines, for employees. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Comparing Aspects of Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

31) Dishonest or deceitful practices in depriving, or attempting to deprive, another of his or her rights is considered Answer: Fraud or intentional deceit. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Comparing Aspects of Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.6 Compare criminal and civil law as it applies to the practicing medical assistant 32) Standards of behavior, developed as a result of one's concept of right and wrong, is known as Answer: ethics, which is concerned with the concept of right or wrong over and above that which is legal in a given situation. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Comparing Aspects of Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.1.a Define ethics 33) A specialist who consults with physicians, researchers, and others to help them make difficult decisions is known as Answer: a medical ethicist or bioethicist. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Comparing Aspects of Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.1.a Define ethics 34) Rules of etiquette applicable to one's place of employment are known as Answer: protocol, which is a set of rules that everyone must follow within an organization. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Comparing Aspects of Law and Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 2 Making Ethical Decisions 1) In Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of human needs, the need for basic life (food, shelter), a safe environment, and to belong and be loved are designated "D" needs. What does "D" stand for? A) Deficiency B) Deprivation C) Destitute D) Demanding E) Decisive 2) Which of the following is known as a B-need in Maslow's hierarchy of human needs? A) A patient with cancer needs chemotherapy. B) A medical assistant needs to be respected by his/her fellow medical assistants. C) A child in the waiting room needs a safe play area. D) A family needs food from the food bank. E) A health care provider needs assistance with their own addiction problem. 3) Psychologists question how individuals develop values that guide them in ethical decision making. Which of the following reflects current thought on value development? A) Individuals move from a personal value system to a needs-based motivation. B) Value development is the same for all people regardless of culture. C) Value development is not influenced by economic status. D) When people are born, they have no values in place. E) Once developed, values cannot change. 4) A health practitioner is interviewing a 6-year-old male child who is in Piaget's preoperational stage. Which of the following is characteristic of this stage? A) The child views the world from his own perspective. B) The child is totally self-centered. C) The child tends to see things as either right or wrong. D) The child begins to develop abstract thought. E) The child sees adults as powerful and controlling. 5) A child life specialist caring for children in the pediatric ward plays a game with a young patient who is enjoying the game, but makes up the rules as she goes along. This behavior is characteristic of what stage of moral development? A) Sensorimotor stage B) Preoperational stage C) Concrete operational stage D) Formal operational stage E) Post-operational stage

6) A child tells a nurse that he stole money from his mother's purse because he needed to buy some candy. He also states that he knows what he did was wrong and will not do it again. Based on this conversation, what stage of moral development would this child be experiencing? A) sensorimotor stage B) preoperational stage C) concrete operational stage D) formal operational stage E) post-operational stage 7) Which of the following theorists believed that human behavior is based on specific human needs that must often be met in a specific order? A) Abraham Maslow B) Jean Piaget C) Lawrence Kohlberg D) Immanuel Kant E) Alasdair MacIntyre 8) Lawrence Kohlberg modified and expanded Piaget's work, laying the groundwork for modern studies on moral development. On which of the following tenets did the two disagree? A) That children under 12 years of age could develop moral values. B) That children form ways of thinking through their experiences. C) That the process of moral maturity took longer than 12 years. D) That children under 12 years of age could understand moral concepts. E) That all moral values are determined at birth. 9) A person who makes a commitment to universal principles such as social justice, equal rights, and respect for the dignity of all people is in what stage of Kohlberg's developmental theory? A) Preconventional morality, Stage 1 B) Preconventional morality, Stage 2 C) Conventional morality D) Postconventional morality, Stage 1 E) Postconventional morality, Stage 2 10) Jean Piaget is one of the most famous researchers in value development. How did Piaget formulate that there are four levels of moral development? A) By interviewing families with children. B) By interviewing grandparents. C) By observing male children in the classroom. D) By researching the discipline patterns of parents. E) By observing children at play.

11) A hospital administrator makes a decision to shut down a wing due to budget cuts even though some people will lose their jobs. The decision is based on results that will produce the greatest balance of good over evil, everyone considered. What type of framework is the administrator employing to make this value decision? A) Duty-oriented theory B) Deontological theory C) Rule-utilitarianism D) Act-utilitarianism E) Virtue ethics 12) A nurse manager determines the work shifts for the staff based on a predetermined health care facility guidelines. This is an example of what type of decision making? A) Rule-utilitarianism B) Act-utilitarianism C) Duty-oriented D) Deontological E) Virtue ethics 13) When using the utilitarianism method of problem solving, which of the following do proponents of this method indicate should be the solution of choice? A) The option with the earliest solution to the problem. B) The option that reflects the decider's highest principles. C) The solution that provides happiness over pain for those involved. D) The solution that has the best long-term results. E) The option that is absolutely right. 14) A health care facility administrator considers the principle of utility when making decisions that affect the employees of the facility. Which of the following describes this principle? A) It is based upon absolute truths applied in other situations. B) It brings about positive results when generalized to a wide variety of situations. C) It is the decision that is desired by the majority. D) It is the decision that has the fewest adverse effects on the facility as a whole. 15) Immanuel Kant defined categorical imperative as the guiding principle for all decisionmaking. What is the meaning of this principle? A) There are no exceptions to the rule. B) It is imperative to solve problems in a timely fashion. C) All categories of decision-making are subject to the same scrutiny. D) The consequence of the act is more important than whether it was right or wrong. E) All categories should be considered when making a decision.

16) A physician running a busy practice makes decisions for his employees on a regular basis. The physician would describe himself as a "moral man with common sense, a sense of justice, and courage who makes the right decisions in life by focusing on these moral traits." What theory of decision making is being employed by this physician? A) Deontological B) Utilitarian C) Virtue ethics D) Consequence-oriented theory E) Duty-oriented theory 17) Virtue ethics focuses on the traits, characteristics, and virtues that a moral person should have. Who is the most well-known ethicist to write about this ethical decision making process? A) Lawrence Kohlberg B) Immanuel Kant C) Abraham Maslow D) Jean Piaget E) Alasdair MacIntyre 18) According to MacIntyre's theory of virtue ethics, what principle helps the decision maker arrive at a decision? A) Belief in a higher being. B) Loyalty to the role he or she plays. C) Belief in the golden rule. D) Looking to the future. E) Looking to religion. 19) What basic flaw do critics cite as the major problem with using value ethics as a decisionmaking tool? A) The decision-making framework to too rigid. B) People in different walks of life would come to different decisions. C) Not all people are moral or use common sense. D) The past may not provide the right answer. E) The decision-making framework is difficult to understand. 20) A housekeeper at a local hospital has worked her way up to housekeeping supervisor. But as she thinks about her future, she realizes that she only works to be recognized and have responsibility. She determines that she is not recognized for her work and decides to go to a nursing school. At what stage might she be in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs? A) Esteem stage. B) Safe and secure environment stage. C) Concrete operational stage. D) Conventional morality stage. E) Basic life stage.

21) Autonomy is considered one of the seven universal principles of health care ethics. Which of the following is an example of autonomy? A) A physician performs health care screenings for impoverished patients. B) A housekeeper in the hospital performs duties following safety procedures. C) A health care practitioner makes competent decisions related to patient care. D) An x-ray technician follows HIPAA regulations when displaying x-rays. E) A surgeon tells the patient that the surgery could result in death. 22) A patient undergoing surgery signs an informed consent for the procedure. Which of the following principles of health care ethics does informed consent protect? A) Autonomy B) Role fidelity C) Confidentiality D) Nonmaleficence E) Veracity 23) A patient who was injured in a fall in a health care facility due to the negligence of the nurse is filing a medical malpractice lawsuit. Which ethical principle applies in this situation? A) Autonomy B) Role fidelity C) Veracity D) Justice E) Beneficence 24) In health care practices, ethics, and laws often interconnect with risk management measures. Which of the following accurately describes one of these concepts? A) Ethics is the expression of values in social rules. B) Law is described as a "choose to" activity. C) Risk management is a mandatory practice. D) Risk management involves choices to reduce potential liability. E) Ethics involve mandatory practices. 25) An x-ray technician witnesses a nurse diagnosing a medical problem for a patient. Which of the seven principles of health care ethics has this nurse violated? A) Justice B) Nonmaleficence C) Role fidelity D) Veracity E) Beneficence 26) A doctor prescribes a placebo for a patient who he feels is complaining of pain that is not there. This is an example of a violation of what principle of health care ethics? A) Justice B) Veracity C) Role fidelity D) Beneficence E) Autonomy 5 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

27) A nurse caring for older adults in a nursing home has a paternalistic view about telling patients the truth about their conditions. Which of the following best describes the practice of paternalism? A) Thinking that "I know what is best for the patient." B) Being a strong patient advocate. C) Acting like a parent to the patient. D) Forcing patients to do things against their will. E) Providing patients with a number of options. 28) A lab technician is speaking loudly about the reason a patient is having a blood test outside the patient's door. What principle of health care ethics has the tech violated? A) Justice B) Veracity C) Confidentiality D) Role fidelity E) Beneficence 29) A physician is caring for an indigent 37-year-old male patient with no health insurance, who is admitted to the hospital with acute pancreatitis related to alcohol abuse. The administrator questions whether this patient is entitled to health care because he did not take responsibility for his actions leading to this condition and he has no health insurance plan. What is the ethical principle guiding the physician's actions? A) Nonmaleficence B) Veracity C) Justice D) Confidentiality E) Role fidelity 30) What is the unique focus of health care providers that challenges them to make sound ethical decisions? A) The administration of medications. B) The performance of medical procedures. C) The offering of health care to all. D) The allocation of scarce resources. E) The health and well-being of the patient. 31) The need for a person to develop a sense of self-worth is part of Maslow's hierarchy of needs. Which need is it? 32) In Jean Piaget's stages of development, in what age range is a child in the egocentric stage? 33) This value choices theory states that decisions should be made by determining what will produce the best outcome. 34) This theory focuses on the essential rightness or wrongness of an act, not the consequence of the act. 6 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

35) An act performed by a health care practitioner to help a patient stay healthy or recover from illness is which principle of health care ethics?

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 2 Making Ethical Decisions 1) In Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of human needs, the need for basic life (food, shelter), a safe environment, and to belong and be loved are designated "D" needs. What does "D" stand for? A) Deficiency B) Deprivation C) Destitute D) Demanding E) Decisive Answer: A Explanation: Maslow defined needs 1 to 3 as deficiency or D-needs. Needs 1 to 3 include the physiological needs of water and food, the safety needs of shelter, and the love and belongingness needs of obtaining and giving affection. Needs 4 and 5 are growth needs, also known as being or B-needs. Esteem needs are at level 4 and self-actualization is at level 5. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Value Development Theories Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: V.C.17.a Discuss the theories of Maslow 2) Which of the following is known as a B-need in Maslow's hierarchy of human needs? A) A patient with cancer needs chemotherapy. B) A medical assistant needs to be respected by his/her fellow medical assistants. C) A child in the waiting room needs a safe play area. D) A family needs food from the food bank. E) A health care provider needs assistance with their own addiction problem. Answer: B Explanation: The need for esteem and respect is a B-need. The need for chemotherapy and food along with the assistance with a medical problem are D-needs. Safety needs would include a safe play area for children in the physician's office. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Value Development Theories Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: V.C.17.a Discuss the theories of Maslow

3) Psychologists question how individuals develop values that guide them in ethical decision making. Which of the following reflects current thought on value development? A) Individuals move from a personal value system to a needs-based motivation. B) Value development is the same for all people regardless of culture. C) Value development is not influenced by economic status. D) When people are born, they have no values in place. E) Once developed, values cannot change. Answer: D Explanation: People are born without values. Many psychologists believe that individuals move from needs-based motivation to a personal value system that develops from childhood. The value system people develop as they grow and mature is dependent on the cultural framework and economic situation in which they live. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Value Development Theories Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.2 Differentiate between personal and professional ethics 4) A health practitioner is interviewing a 6-year-old male child who is in Piaget's preoperational stage. Which of the following is characteristic of this stage? A) The child views the world from his own perspective. B) The child is totally self-centered. C) The child tends to see things as either right or wrong. D) The child begins to develop abstract thought. E) The child sees adults as powerful and controlling. Answer: A Explanation: During the preoperational stage (2 to 7 years), the child views the world from his or her own perspective. In the sensorimotor stage (birth to 2 years), the child is totally selfcentered. In the concrete operational stage (7 to 12 years), the child tends to see things as either right or wrong, and in the formal operational stage, children develop abstract thought and begin to understand there may be varying degrees of wrongdoing. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Value Development Theories Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

5) A child life specialist caring for children in the pediatric ward plays a game with a young patient who is enjoying the game, but makes up the rules as she goes along. This behavior is characteristic of what stage of moral development? A) Sensorimotor stage B) Preoperational stage C) Concrete operational stage D) Formal operational stage E) Post-operational stage Answer: B Explanation: The child in the preoperational stage of moral development views the world from his or her own perspective. For example, when playing a game, the child is not particularly concerned with the rules of play, rather the focus is on fun. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Value Development Theories Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 6) A child tells a nurse that he stole money from his mother's purse because he needed to buy some candy. He also states that he knows what he did was wrong and will not do it again. Based on this conversation, what stage of moral development would this child be experiencing? A) sensorimotor stage B) preoperational stage C) concrete operational stage D) formal operational stage E) post-operational stage Answer: D Explanation: During the formal operational stage, children develop abstract thought and begin to understand that there may be different degrees of wrongdoing. During this stage, intentions, such as lying (I intend to deceive you) and stealing (I intend to take that money) are central to the decisions made. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Value Development Theories Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

7) Which of the following theorists believed that human behavior is based on specific human needs that must often be met in a specific order? A) Abraham Maslow B) Jean Piaget C) Lawrence Kohlberg D) Immanuel Kant E) Alasdair MacIntyre Answer: A Explanation: Abraham Maslow is the best known psychologist for the needs-based motivation theory. By observing children at play, Piaget described four levels of moral development. Lawrence Kohlberg modified and expanded Piaget's work, laying the groundwork for modern studies on moral development. Immanuel Kant is considered the father of duty-oriented theory. Alasdair MacIntyre is a major theorist who writes about virtue ethics. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Value Development Theories Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: V.C.17.a Discuss the theories of Maslow 8) Lawrence Kohlberg modified and expanded Piaget's work, laying the groundwork for modern studies on moral development. On which of the following tenets did the two disagree? A) That children under 12 years of age could develop moral values. B) That children form ways of thinking through their experiences. C) That the process of moral maturity took longer than 12 years. D) That children under 12 years of age could understand moral concepts. E) That all moral values are determined at birth. Answer: C Explanation: Consistent with Piaget, Lawrence Kohlberg proposed that children form ways of thinking through their experiences that include understanding of moral concepts such as justice, rights, equality, and human welfare. Kohlberg differed from Piaget in that he followed the development of moral judgment beyond the ages studied by Piaget, and he determined that the process of attaining moral maturity took longer and was more gradual than Piaget had proposed. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Value Development Theories Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

9) A person who makes a commitment to universal principles such as social justice, equal rights, and respect for the dignity of all people is in what stage of Kohlberg's developmental theory? A) Preconventional morality, Stage 1 B) Preconventional morality, Stage 2 C) Conventional morality D) Postconventional morality, Stage 1 E) Postconventional morality, Stage 2 Answer: E Explanation: The second stage of postconventional morality is called universal principles. In this stage, an individual makes a personal commitment to universal principles such as social justice, equal rights, and respect for the dignity of all people and realizes that conventional norms and conventions are necessary to uphold society. If there is a conflict between these values and the social contract, the individual follows his or her basic principles. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Value Development Theories Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.2 Differentiate between personal and professional ethics 10) Jean Piaget is one of the most famous researchers in value development. How did Piaget formulate that there are four levels of moral development? A) By interviewing families with children. B) By interviewing grandparents. C) By observing male children in the classroom. D) By researching the discipline patterns of parents. E) By observing children at play. Answer: E Explanation: A variety of theories exist about how people develop values. Most focus on the stages of development from childhood to adulthood. By observing children at play, Piaget described four levels of moral development. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Value Development Theories Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

11) A hospital administrator makes a decision to shut down a wing due to budget cuts even though some people will lose their jobs. The decision is based on results that will produce the greatest balance of good over evil, everyone considered. What type of framework is the administrator employing to make this value decision? A) Duty-oriented theory B) Deontological theory C) Rule-utilitarianism D) Act-utilitarianism E) Virtue ethics Answer: D Explanation: Teleological or consequence-oriented theory judges the rightness of a decision based on the outcome or predicted outcome of the decision. Utilitarianism is the most wellknown of these theories. In act-utilitarianism, a person makes value decisions based on results that will produce the greatest balance of good over evil. In rule-utilitarianism, a person makes value decisions based on a rule that if generally followed would produce the greatest balance of good over evil. Deontological or duty-oriented theory focuses on the essential rightness or wrongness of an act, not the consequences of the act. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Value Choices Theories Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.3 Identify the effect of personal morals on professional ethics 12) A nurse manager determines the work shifts for the staff based on a predetermined health care facility guidelines. This is an example of what type of decision making? A) Rule-utilitarianism B) Act-utilitarianism C) Duty-oriented D) Deontological E) Virtue ethics Answer: A Explanation: In rule-utilitarianism, a person makes value decisions based on a rule that if generally followed would produce the greatest balance of good over evil, everyone considered. In act-utilitarianism, a person makes value decisions based on results that will produce the greatest balance of good over evil, everyone considered. Deontological or duty-oriented theory focuses on the essential rightness or wrongness of an act, not the consequences of the act. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Value Development Theories Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

13) When using the utilitarianism method of problem solving, which of the following do proponents of this method indicate should be the solution of choice? A) The option with the earliest solution to the problem. B) The option that reflects the decider's highest principles. C) The solution that provides happiness over pain for those involved. D) The solution that has the best long-term results. E) The option that is absolutely right. Answer: C Explanation: Often when describing utilitarianism, writers indicate that the solution that provides happiness or a net increase in pleasure over pain for those involved should be selected. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Value Choices Theories Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 14) A health care facility administrator considers the principle of utility when making decisions that affect the employees of the facility. Which of the following describes this principle? A) It is based upon absolute truths applied in other situations. B) It brings about positive results when generalized to a wide variety of situations. C) It is the decision that is desired by the majority. D) It is the decision that has the fewest adverse effects on the facility as a whole. Answer: B Explanation: Supporters of the utilitarian theory have created a principle of utility. The principle of utility requires that the rule used to make the decision be a rule that brings about positive results when generalized to a wide variety of situations. There are, however, no absolute truths in utilitarianism. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Value Choices Theories Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.3 Identify the effect of personal morals on professional ethics

15) Immanuel Kant defined categorical imperative as the guiding principle for all decisionmaking. What is the meaning of this principle? A) There are no exceptions to the rule. B) It is imperative to solve problems in a timely fashion. C) All categories of decision-making are subject to the same scrutiny. D) The consequence of the act is more important than whether it was right or wrong. E) All categories should be considered when making a decision. Answer: A Explanation: Deontological or duty-oriented theory focuses on the essential rightness or wrongness of an act, not the consequences of the act. Immanuel Kant is considered the father of duty-oriented theory. He defined the categorical imperative as the guiding principle for all decision making. This principle means that there are no exceptions (categorical) from the rule (imperative). The right action is the one based on a determined principle, regardless of outcome. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Value Choices Theories Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.3 Identify the effect of personal morals on professional ethics 16) A physician running a busy practice makes decisions for his employees on a regular basis. The physician would describe himself as a "moral man with common sense, a sense of justice, and courage who makes the right decisions in life by focusing on these moral traits." What theory of decision making is being employed by this physician? A) Deontological B) Utilitarian C) Virtue ethics D) Consequence-oriented theory E) Duty-oriented theory Answer: C Explanation: Rather than focusing on decision making or reasoning to arrive at a right action, virtue ethics focuses on the traits, characteristics, and virtues that a moral person should have. Virtue ethicists believe that someone who has appropriate moral virtues such as practical wisdom (common sense), a sense of justice, and courage will make the right decision. Deontological or duty-oriented theory focuses on the essential rightness or wrongness of an act, not the consequences of the act. Utilitarianism is a consequence-oriented theory which states that decisions should be made by determining what results will produce the best outcome for the most people. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Value Choices Theories Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.3 Identify the effect of personal morals on professional ethics 8 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

17) Virtue ethics focuses on the traits, characteristics, and virtues that a moral person should have. Who is the most well-known ethicist to write about this ethical decision making process? A) Lawrence Kohlberg B) Immanuel Kant C) Abraham Maslow D) Jean Piaget E) Alasdair MacIntyre Answer: E Explanation: MacIntyre argued that the practice of medicine has traditions and standards of practice that apply to every health care practitioner and which may be used to follow the dictates of an idealized role. Immanuel Kant is considered the father of duty-oriented theory. He defined the categorical imperative as the guiding principle for all decision making. Abraham Maslow identified a hierarchy of needs that motivates our actions. By observing children at play, Piaget described four levels of moral development. Lawrence Kohlberg laid the ground for studies of moral development. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Value Choices Theories Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 18) According to MacIntyre's theory of virtue ethics, what principle helps the decision maker arrive at a decision? A) Belief in a higher being. B) Loyalty to the role he or she plays. C) Belief in the golden rule. D) Looking to the future. E) Looking to religion. Answer: B Explanation: In virtue ethics, the loyalty to the role the decision maker plays helps make the decision. The decision maker looks to what has been done in the past, assuming that it represents the right answer. Belief in a higher being and the golden rule are characteristics of deontological or duty-oriented theory. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Value Choices Theories Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

19) What basic flaw do critics cite as the major problem with using value ethics as a decisionmaking tool? A) The decision-making framework to too rigid. B) People in different walks of life would come to different decisions. C) Not all people are moral or use common sense. D) The past may not provide the right answer. E) The decision-making framework is difficult to understand. Answer: D Explanation: Like the other theories, virtue ethics has its critics, especially because the past may not provide the right answer. Situations that were appropriate in health care 10 years ago may not apply today. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Value Choices Theories Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 20) A housekeeper at a local hospital has worked her way up to housekeeping supervisor. But as she thinks about her future, she realizes that she only works to be recognized and have responsibility. She determines that she is not recognized for her work and decides to go to a nursing school. At what stage might she be in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs? A) Esteem stage. B) Safe and secure environment stage. C) Concrete operational stage. D) Conventional morality stage. E) Basic life stage. Answer: A Explanation: Maslow's hierarchy recognizes the esteem stage as the stage where status, responsibility, and recognition are most important. The safe and secure environment and basic life stage come before the esteem stage. The concrete operational stage is a stage for Piaget's theories. The conventional morality stage is from Kohlberg's research. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Value Choices Theories Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: V.C.17.a Discuss the theories of Maslow

21) Autonomy is considered one of the seven universal principles of health care ethics. Which of the following is an example of autonomy? A) A physician performs health care screenings for impoverished patients. B) A housekeeper in the hospital performs duties following safety procedures. C) A health care practitioner makes competent decisions related to patient care. D) An x-ray technician follows HIPAA regulations when displaying x-rays. E) A surgeon tells the patient that the surgery could result in death. Answer: C Explanation: Autonomy is characterized by competency, ability to act on decisions, and respect for the autonomy of others. Performing screenings for impoverished patients is an example of beneficence. Keeping patients safe is an example of nonmaleficence. Confidentiality is protected when the HIPAA act is followed. The surgeon being very straightforward is an example of veracity. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Seven Principles of Health Care Ethics Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 5.g Partner with health care teams to attain optimal patient outcomes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: I.A.2 Incorporate critical thinking skills when performing patient care 22) A patient undergoing surgery signs an informed consent for the procedure. Which of the following principles of health care ethics does informed consent protect? A) Autonomy B) Role fidelity C) Confidentiality D) Nonmaleficence E) Veracity Answer: A Explanation: Informed consent is vital to preserving a health care consumer's autonomy. Role fidelity refers to a health care practitioner being true to his role. Confidentiality involves keeping the patient information private. Nonmaleficence, as paraphrased from the Hippocratic Oath, means the duty to "do no harm." Veracity is telling the truth. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Seven Principles of Health Care Ethics Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: V.A.4 Explain to a patient the rationale for performance of a procedure

23) A patient who was injured in a fall in a health care facility due to the negligence of the nurse is filing a medical malpractice lawsuit. Which ethical principle applies in this situation? A) Autonomy B) Role fidelity C) Veracity D) Justice E) Beneficence Answer: D Explanation: Providing a patient with what they are due is justice. When a patient is injured due to the negligence of their care giver, they are due justice. In the medical setting, this usually involves filing a medical malpractice lawsuit. Autonomy is self-determination, role fidelity refers to a healthcare practitioner being true to his or her role, veracity is truth-telling, and beneficence is the act of helping people stay healthy. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: The Seven Principles of Health Care Ethics Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 24) In health care practices, ethics, and laws often interconnect with risk management measures. Which of the following accurately describes one of these concepts? A) Ethics is the expression of values in social rules. B) Law is described as a "choose to" activity. C) Risk management is a mandatory practice. D) Risk management involves choices to reduce potential liability. E) Ethics involve mandatory practices. Answer: D Explanation: Ethics and laws often interconnect. A third element interconnecting with ethics and the law in health care is risk management—taking steps to minimize danger, hazard, and liability. Risk management is an important concept in the prevention of medical lawsuits and is a "choose to" activity. Law is the expression of values in social rules and is a "have to" component. Ethics is the identification of values, or what ought to be. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: The Seven Principles of Health Care Ethics Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: I.C.12 Identify quality assurance practices in health care

25) An x-ray technician witnesses a nurse diagnosing a medical problem for a patient. Which of the seven principles of health care ethics has this nurse violated? A) Justice B) Nonmaleficence C) Role fidelity D) Veracity E) Beneficence Answer: C Explanation: All health care practitioners have a specific scope of practice for which they are licensed, certified, or registered, and from which the law says they may not deviate. In addition to the laws that affect scope of practice, it is a basic ethical principle that a practitioner must be true (have fidelity) to his or her role. Justice refers to what is due to an individual. Nonmaleficence means doing no harm to the patient. Veracity is truth-telling. Beneficence is helping people stay healthy. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Seven Principles of Health Care Ethics Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.5 Discuss licensure and certification as they apply to health care providers 26) A doctor prescribes a placebo for a patient who he feels is complaining of pain that is not there. This is an example of a violation of what principle of health care ethics? A) Justice B) Veracity C) Role fidelity D) Beneficence E) Autonomy Answer: B Explanation: Veracity or truth-telling has always had an ambiguous place in the health care practitioner's world. Because medical providers want to do what is best for the patient, they may not always tell the whole truth, as is the case in this example. Justice refers to what is due to an individual. Role fidelity is being faithful to the healthcare role, and beneficence means helping people stay healthy. Autonomy is self-determination. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Seven Principles of Health Care Ethics Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.A.1 Recognize the impact personal ethics and morals may have on the delivery of health care

27) A nurse caring for older adults in a nursing home has a paternalistic view about telling patients the truth about their conditions. Which of the following best describes the practice of paternalism? A) Thinking that "I know what is best for the patient." B) Being a strong patient advocate. C) Acting like a parent to the patient. D) Forcing patients to do things against their will. E) Providing patients with a number of options. Answer: A Explanation: Some medical providers take a paternalistic view about truth telling, determining that what the patient doesn't know won't hurt them. This practice does not always involve advocacy (acting in a patient's best interest) and is not always acting like a parent to a child. Forcing patients to do things against their will is a form of bullying or abuse. "Providing patients with a number of options" is a form of autonomy-the capacity of a person to make their own decisions. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: The Seven Principles of Health Care Ethics Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.2 Differentiate between personal and professional ethics 28) A lab technician is speaking loudly about the reason a patient is having a blood test outside the patient's door. What principle of health care ethics has the tech violated? A) Justice B) Veracity C) Confidentiality D) Role fidelity E) Beneficence Answer: C Explanation: Health care practitioners mindful of protecting privacy and confidentiality do not conduct conversations about patients in the hospital hallway, in the medical office break room, or with an acquaintance on the street or in any other public place. Justice refers to what is due to an individual, veracity refers to truth-telling, and role fidelity is being faithful to the healthcare role. Beneficence includes the acts performed by a health care practitioner to help people stay healthy or recover from illness. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Seven Principles of Health Care Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2.a Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy

29) A physician is caring for an indigent 37-year-old male patient with no health insurance, who is admitted to the hospital with acute pancreatitis related to alcohol abuse. The administrator questions whether this patient is entitled to health care because he did not take responsibility for his actions leading to this condition and he has no health insurance plan. What is the ethical principle guiding the physician's actions? A) Nonmaleficence B) Veracity C) Justice D) Confidentiality E) Role fidelity Answer: C Explanation: Justice is defined as what is due to an individual. However, there is a debate over whether the distribution of scarce resources and the expense of providing them should allow us to provide all care for all patients. Others argue that people must take responsibility for their actions, such as not abusing alcohol, before assuming they can have justice. Nonmaleficence refers to doing no harm, veracity is truth telling, and confidentiality involves protection of privacy and confidentiality for patients. Role fidelity is being faithful to your scope of practice as a practitioner. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Seven Principles of Health Care Ethics Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

30) What is the unique focus of health care providers that challenges them to make sound ethical decisions? A) The administration of medications. B) The performance of medical procedures. C) The offering of health care to all. D) The allocation of scarce resources. E) The health and well-being of the patient. Answer: E Explanation: Health care ethics are drawn from the same pool of basic ethical principles that might be listed for any profession, but the nature of health care provides a unique focus. Primarily because a person's health is paramount to his or her living a successful and satisfying life, health care practitioners are routinely challenged to make sound decisions—concerning not only the appropriate medical care for each patient's condition but also the patient's future health and well-being, and sometimes the health and well-being of the patient's family. Administering medications, performing medical procedures, and allocating resources are integral parts of the decision-making process, but the health of the patient is the main focus. Providers sometimes do have to allocate care and may not be able to provide care to all. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: The Seven Principles of Health Care Ethics Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.3 Identify the effect of personal morals on professional ethics 31) The need for a person to develop a sense of self-worth is part of Maslow's hierarchy of needs. Which need is it? Answer: Esteem, The need for esteem, where status, responsibility, and recognition are important. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Value Development Theories Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: V.C.17.a Discuss the theories of Maslow 32) In Jean Piaget's stages of development, in what age range is a child in the egocentric stage? Answer: Ages 2 to 7. During this time period, the child views the world from his or her own perspective. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Value Development Theories Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 16 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

33) This value choices theory states that decisions should be made by determining what will produce the best outcome. Answer: Utilitarianism, which is a consequence-oriented theory. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Value Choices Theories Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.P.1 Develop a plan for separation of personal and professional ethics 34) This theory focuses on the essential rightness or wrongness of an act, not the consequence of the act. Answer: Duty-oriented theory, which states the rightness or wrongness of an act. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Value Choices Theories Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.P.1 Develop a plan for separation of personal and professional ethics 35) An act performed by a health care practitioner to help a patient stay healthy or recover from illness is which principle of health care ethics? Answer: Beneficence. Beneficence is defined as acts of charity and mercy but it means more for healthcare workers. Beneficence is acts performed by a healthcare practitioner to help people stay healthy or recover from illness. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Seven Principles of Health Care Ethics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.P.1 Develop a plan for separation of personal and professional ethics

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 3 Working in Health Care 1) A valid out-of-state license is accepted as the basis for issuing a license in a second state without reexamination. This is called A) Certification. B) Accreditation. C) Registration. D) Reciprocity. E) Endorsement. 2) Which of the following credentials is a voluntary, national examination that shows the level of competency for an individual? A) Certification B) Accreditation C) Registration D) Reciprocity E) Endorsement 3) Which of these credentials is mandatory for certain health professionals to practice in their field? A) Certification B) Accreditation C) Registration D) Reciprocity E) Licensure 4) A healthcare provider is explaining to staff members about the accreditation process. Which of the following may be accredited? A) A pharmacist B) A hospital C) A pharmaceutical company D) A pharmacy E) A medical supply company 5) A new long-term care facility is applying for accreditation of the facility. To which of the following organizations should the facility submit the accreditation application? A) The American Health Care Association. B) The National Committee for Quality Assurance. C) The Joint Commission. D) The Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs. E) The National Association for the Support of Long Term Care.

6) The statutes in all 50 states that govern the practice of medicine are called A) medical practice acts. B) medical licensing acts. C) occupational statutes. D) physician licensing acts. E) national board of medical licensing. 7) Which of the following is not sufficient grounds for revoking a medical license? A) Conviction of a felony B) Falsifying medical records C) Misdiagnosis D) Personal incapacity E) Unprofessional conduct 8) Medical practices are being consolidated in many forms. Which of the following is not one of those forms? A) Associate practice B) Partnership C) Sole proprietorship D) Group practice E) Corporation 9) A copayment is A) a percentage of the fee for services provided that the patient pays. B) a set amount that each patient pays for each office visit. C) a portion of the fee that the physician must write off. D) the actual payment the insurance company makes to the provider. E) a capitation payment. 10) When physicians, hospitals, and other healthcare providers contract with one or more HMOs or directly with employers to provide care, it is called a(n) A) health maintenance plan. B) physician hospital organization. C) fee-for-service plan. D) indemnity plan. E) open access plan. 11) A patient is established with a physician in a primary care group practice that provides a long-term partnership between the patient and providers in the group practice and also provides enhanced access for patients. This is known as a(n): A) Health maintenance plan. B) Primary care medical home. C) Patient-centered medical home. D) Independent practice home. E) Open access plan.

12) Coinsurance is A) a percentage of the fee-for-services provided that the patient pays. B) a set amount that each patient pays for each office visit. C) a portion of the fee that the physician must write off. D) the actual payment the insurance company makes to the provider. E) a capitation payment. 13) A method used by a health plan to measure the amount and appropriateness of health services used by its members is called a(n) A) coinsurance review. B) capitation review. C) accountable care review. D) formulary review. E) utilization review. 14) Under which type of plan, a patient may see providers outside the plan, but the patient pays a higher portion of the fees? A) Health maintenance plan. B) Indemnity plan. C) Fee-for-service plan. D) Preferred provider plan. E) Open access plan. 15) What federal legislation created health insurance exchanges that provide individuals with an ability to purchase insurance? A) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act B) Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act C) Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank Act D) Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act E) Health Care Quality Improvement Act 16) What federal legislation provided employees the ability to keep health insurance coverage when transferring to another job? A) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act B) Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act C) Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank Act D) Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act E) Health Care Quality Improvement Act 17) The National Practitioner Data Bank may disclose information to which of the following groups? A) Medical malpractice insurers. B) Defense attorneys. C) State licensing boards. D) The general public. E) State legislators. 3 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

18) As a provision of the Accountable Care Act, healthcare insurers were encouraged to unite with health care providers to form what type of an organization? A) Health maintenance organization. B) Preferred provider organization. C) Open access plan. D) Accountable care organization. E) Indemnity plan. 19) Under the provisions in the Affordable Care Act, insurance companies must cover dependent children under the age of ________. A) 22 B) 23 C) 24 D) 25 E) 26 20) A physician is undergoing professional peer review related to an incident of fraud in his practice. Which federal law requires that professional peer review action be taken in this case and also limits the damages for the professional review? A) Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act B) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act C) Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank Act D) Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act E) Health Care Quality Improvement Act 21) Which of the following is not true about certification? A) If you lose your certification, you cannot work in your profession B) If you lose your certification, you can continue to work in your profession C) Certification is voluntary D) Certification requires an exam E) Certification is the same as registration 22) Reciprocity may apply to A) certified professionals. B) licensed professionals. C) licensed and certified professionals. D) licensed and registered professionals. E) registered professionals only. 23) The Joint Commission accredits A) Educational institutions. B) Managed care organizations. C) Hospitals and other patient care organizations. D) Professional associations like the College of Health Care Executives. E) None of these.

24) The Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP) oversees the accreditation process of a variety of individual allied health educational programs. Which of the following educational programs is not accredited by the CAAHEP? A) Medical assisting B) Respiratory Therapists C) Emergency Medical Technicians D) Registered Nurses E) Anesthesiologist assistants 25) What is the difference between licensure and certification? 26) The term that refers to a process for officially authorizing or approving health care practitioners, education programs, healthcare facilities, and managed care plans is called 27) When an organization is formed and authorized by law to act as a single person and legally endowed with specific rights and duties, it is known as a 28) Health insurance that covers the insured against a potential loss of money from medical expenses resulting from an illness or accident is known as 29) What is the purpose of a medical practice act? 30) Identify at least three reasons a physician's license may be revoked. 31) Group practices and hospitals need to provide good patient care. What types of nonpatient care professionals might be needed in a group practice? 32) Who may own a healthcare corporation?

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 3 Working in Health Care 1) A valid out-of-state license is accepted as the basis for issuing a license in a second state without reexamination. This is called A) Certification. B) Accreditation. C) Registration. D) Reciprocity. E) Endorsement. Answer: D Explanation: Reciprocity is when a second state accepts the first state's credentials for licensing a healthcare provider. Certification, registration, and accreditation are not licensure methods. Endorsement is on a case-by-case basis and infrequently used. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Licensure, Certification, and Registration Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.5. Discuss licensure and certification as it applies to health care providers 2) Which of the following credentials is a voluntary, national examination that shows the level of competency for an individual? A) Certification B) Accreditation C) Registration D) Reciprocity E) Endorsement Answer: A Explanation: Certification and registration are both voluntary, but certification will require an exam. Reciprocity is when a second state accepts the first state's credentials for licensing a health care provider. Licensure is a mandatory process. Accreditation is used for organizations, not individuals. Endorsement is on a case-by-case basis and infrequently used. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Licensure, Certification, and Registration Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 1.c. Describe and comprehend medical assisting credentialing requirements, the process to obtain the credential and the importance of credentialing Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.5. Discuss licensure and certification as it applies to health care providers

3) Which of these credentials is mandatory for certain health professionals to practice in their field? A) Certification B) Accreditation C) Registration D) Reciprocity E) Licensure Answer: E Explanation: Licensure is a mandatory process. Reciprocity is when a second state accepts the first state's credentials for licensing a healthcare provider. Certification, registration, and accreditation are not licensure methods. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Licensure, Certification, and Registration Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.5. Discuss licensure and certification as it applies to health care providers 4) A healthcare provider is explaining to staff members about the accreditation process. Which of the following may be accredited? A) A pharmacist B) A hospital C) A pharmaceutical company D) A pharmacy E) A medical supply company Answer: B Explanation: Accreditation is the process by which healthcare practitioner education programs, health care facilities, and managed care plans are officially authorized. It is the official approval for conforming to specific standards. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Accreditation Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

5) A new long-term care facility is applying for accreditation of the facility. To which of the following organizations should the facility submit the accreditation application? A) The American Health Care Association. B) The National Committee for Quality Assurance. C) The Joint Commission. D) The Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs. E) The National Association for the Support of Long Term Care. Answer: C Explanation: The Joint Commission accredits healthcare organizations that meet certain standards. The National Committee for Quality Assurance is a recognized accrediting agency for management care plans. An accrediting agency for healthcare practitioner education programs is the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs. The American Health Care Association and the National Association for the Support of Long Term Care are industryspecific professional organizations. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Accreditation Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 6) The statutes in all 50 states that govern the practice of medicine are called A) medical practice acts. B) medical licensing acts. C) occupational statutes. D) physician licensing acts. E) national board of medical licensing. Answer: A Explanation: A medical practice act is established in each state to govern not just licensing but other practice standards. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Medical Practice Acts Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

7) Which of the following is not sufficient grounds for revoking a medical license? A) Conviction of a felony B) Falsifying medical records C) Misdiagnosis D) Personal incapacity E) Unprofessional conduct Answer: C Explanation: In the options provided, a physician may, depending on the state medical practice act, lose his or her license for conviction of a felony, falsifying medical records, incapacity, or unprofessional conduct. A misdiagnosis is not grounds for revoking a license but that does not mean that the physician won't be sued for the misdiagnosis. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Medical Practice Acts Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.5. Discuss licensure and certification as it applies to health care providers 8) Medical practices are being consolidated in many forms. Which of the following is not one of those forms? A) Associate practice B) Partnership C) Sole proprietorship D) Group practice E) Corporation Answer: C Explanation: Sole proprietorships are no longer a popular way to practice medicine. In an associate practice, space and staff may be shared, but not profits or liabilities. Partnerships, group practices, and corporations share not only profits but also losses and liabilities. Because of higher technology costs, more managed care, and reduced reimbursements, most physicians practice in some kind of group arrangement. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Medical Practices Management Systems Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

9) A copayment is A) a percentage of the fee for services provided that the patient pays. B) a set amount that each patient pays for each office visit. C) a portion of the fee that the physician must write off. D) the actual payment the insurance company makes to the provider. E) a capitation payment. Answer: B Explanation: A copay and coinsurance are both related to what the patient pays. However, coinsurance is always a percentage, not a set fee. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Types of Managed Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VII.C.6. Explain patient financial obligations for services rendered 10) When physicians, hospitals, and other healthcare providers contract with one or more HMOs or directly with employers to provide care, it is called a(n) A) health maintenance plan. B) physician hospital organization. C) fee-for-service plan. D) indemnity plan. E) open access plan. Answer: B Explanation: In many areas, physicians and hospitals join forces to negotiate with the HMOs or large employers to provide care. A fee-for-service plan and an open access plan focus on patient choice, while an indemnity plan is a more traditional insurance plan, sometimes called fee-forservice. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Types of Managed Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VIII.C.1. Types of third party plans

11) A patient is established with a physician in a primary care group practice that provides a long-term partnership between the patient and providers in the group practice and also provides enhanced access for patients. This is known as a(n): A) Health maintenance plan. B) Primary care medical home. C) Patient-centered medical home. D) Independent practice home. E) Open access plan. Answer: C Explanation: A patient-centered medical home (PCMH) provides the patient with a team of physicians and other staff whose focus is on coordination of care and shared decision making. This is a relatively new concept in managed care. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Types of Managed Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VIII.C.4. Define a patient-centered medical home 12) Coinsurance is A) a percentage of the fee-for-services provided that the patient pays. B) a set amount that each patient pays for each office visit. C) a portion of the fee that the physician must write off. D) the actual payment the insurance company makes to the provider. E) a capitation payment. Answer: A Explanation: A copay and co-insurance are both related to what the patient pays. Coinsurance is always a percentage, not a set fee. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Types of Managed Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VII.C.6. Explain patient financial obligations for services rendered

13) A method used by a health plan to measure the amount and appropriateness of health services used by its members is called a(n) A) coinsurance review. B) capitation review. C) accountable care review. D) formulary review. E) utilization review. Answer: E Explanation: A utilization review is the method used by health plans to measure appropriate services. A formulary is a list of approved prescriptions for which it will reimburse subscribers. Capitation is a set advance payment made to providers, and coinsurance refers to the amount of money that insurance plan members pay out of pocket. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Types of Managed Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 14) Under which type of plan, a patient may see providers outside the plan, but the patient pays a higher portion of the fees? A) Health maintenance plan. B) Indemnity plan. C) Fee-for-service plan. D) Preferred provider plan. E) Open access plan. Answer: D Explanation: In a preferred provider plan, patients have a monetary incentive to stay within the preferred provider plan, but they have a choice of seeking care outside the plan and can seek some reimbursement. An HMO-enrolled patient is prohibited from going outside the plan. Indemnity plans, fee-for-service plans, and open access plans allow patients to see physicians of their choosing. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Types of Managed Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VII.C.2. Identify models of managed care

15) What federal legislation created health insurance exchanges that provide individuals with an ability to purchase insurance? A) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act B) Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act C) Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank Act D) Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act E) Health Care Quality Improvement Act Answer: D Explanation: The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, passed in 2010, better known as the Affordable Care Act, provided for a health insurance exchange process that was put into place in 2014. This process allowed many individuals to purchase low-cost health insurance subsidized by the federal government based on income status. The Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act had a variety of student loan provisions and support for training programs. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Legislation Affecting Health Care Plans Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 16) What federal legislation provided employees the ability to keep health insurance coverage when transferring to another job? A) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act B) Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act C) Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank Act D) Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act E) Health Care Quality Improvement Act Answer: A Explanation: While most people know that the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is known for its privacy and security provisions, it is also responsible for creating the law that allows individuals to keep health insurance coverage when moving from job to job. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, better known as the Affordable Care Act, provided for a variety of new opportunities to purchase health insurance. The Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act had a variety of student loan provisions and support for training programs. The Health Care Quality Improvement Act created the national Practitioner Data Bank. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Legislation Affecting Health Care Plans Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.3. Describe components of HIPAA

17) The National Practitioner Data Bank may disclose information to which of the following groups? A) Medical malpractice insurers. B) Defense attorneys. C) State licensing boards. D) The general public. E) State legislators. Answer: C Explanation: State licensing boards are entitled to the information. Only hospitals conducting professional review and other health care entities with formal peer review programs, a selfquery, and some plaintiffs' attorneys under certain circumstances may access the information. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Legislation Affecting Health Care Plans Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 18) As a provision of the Accountable Care Act, healthcare insurers were encouraged to unite with health care providers to form what type of an organization? A) Health maintenance organization. B) Preferred provider organization. C) Open access plan. D) Accountable care organization. E) Indemnity plan. Answer: D Explanation: The Affordable Care Act created opportunities to form Accountable Care Organizations. These ACOs make a commitment to help specific patients with chronic illnesses. The ACOs were in their beginning stages when the book was published. Health maintenance organizations, preferred providers, open access, and indemnity plans are all forms of provider reimbursement plans that were in place before the ACA became law. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Legislation Affecting Health Care Plans Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

19) Under the provisions in the Affordable Care Act, insurance companies must cover dependent children under the age of ________. A) 22 B) 23 C) 24 D) 25 E) 26 Answer: E Explanation: The Affordable Care Act requires insurance companies to cover dependent children until age 26, as long as the parents have coverage. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Legislation Affecting Health Care Plans Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 20) A physician is undergoing professional peer review related to an incident of fraud in his practice. Which federal law requires that professional peer review action be taken in this case and also limits the damages for the professional review? A) Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act B) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act C) Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank Act D) Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act E) Health Care Quality Improvement Act Answer: E Explanation: The Health Care Quality Improvement Act requires that professional peer review be done in certain cases. It also created the National Practitioner Data Bank. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, better known as the Affordable Care Act, provided for a variety of new opportunities to purchase health insurance. The Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act had a variety of student loan provisions and support for training programs. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is known for its privacy and security provisions. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Legislation Affecting Health Care Plans Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

21) Which of the following is not true about certification? A) If you lose your certification, you cannot work in your profession B) If you lose your certification, you can continue to work in your profession C) Certification is voluntary D) Certification requires an exam E) Certification is the same as registration Answer: A Explanation: Certification is voluntary and requires an exam. However, if you lose your certification or never take the exam, you can still work in field. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Licensure, Certification, and Registration Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.5. Discuss licensure and certification as it applies to health care providers 22) Reciprocity may apply to A) certified professionals. B) licensed professionals. C) licensed and certified professionals. D) licensed and registered professionals. E) registered professionals only. Answer: B Explanation: Reciprocity may be granted to individuals who are licensed in one state to practice in a second state. Most certification and registration processes are national in scope. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Licensure, Certification, and Registration Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.5. Discuss licensure and certification as it applies to health care providers

23) The Joint Commission accredits A) Educational institutions. B) Managed care organizations. C) Hospitals and other patient care organizations. D) Professional associations like the College of Health Care Executives. E) None of these. Answer: C Explanation: The Joint Commission accredits hospitals, ambulatory care facilities, home care facilities, as well as other institutional providers of health care. Educational institutions are accredited by a variety of organizations and the National Committee on Quality Assurance accredits managed care organizations. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Accreditation Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 24) The Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP) oversees the accreditation process of a variety of individual allied health educational programs. Which of the following educational programs is not accredited by the CAAHEP? A) Medical assisting B) Respiratory Therapists C) Emergency Medical Technicians D) Registered Nurses E) Anesthesiologist assistants Answer: D Explanation: The nursing profession has several different accreditation agencies that are specific to nursing. CAAHEP accredits 28 different health care educational programs. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Accreditation Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

25) What is the difference between licensure and certification? Answer: Licensure is a mandatory credentialing process, and certification is a voluntary credentialing process. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Licensure, Certification, and Registration Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: IX.C.5. Discuss licensure and certification as it applies to health care providers 26) The term that refers to a process for officially authorizing or approving health care practitioners, education programs, healthcare facilities, and managed care plans is called Answer: Accreditation is official authorization or approval for conforming to a specified standard. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Licensure, certification, Registration, and Accreditation Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 27) When an organization is formed and authorized by law to act as a single person and legally endowed with specific rights and duties, it is known as a Answer: corporation. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Medical Practices Management Systems Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 28) Health insurance that covers the insured against a potential loss of money from medical expenses resulting from an illness or accident is known as Answer: Indemnity insurance. Indemnity is a traditional form of health insurance. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Types of Managed Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VII.C.2. Identify models of managed care

29) What is the purpose of a medical practice act? Answer: The purpose of a medical practice act is to define what is meant by "practice of medicine" in each state, explain requirements and methods for licensure, provide for the establishment of medical licensing boards, establish grounds for suspension or revocation of license, and to identify conditions for license renewal. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Medical Practice Acts Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.5. Discuss licensure and certification as it applies to health care providers 30) Identify at least three reasons a physician's license may be revoked. Answer: While laws vary in different states, a physician's license may be revoked for prescribing drugs in excessive amounts or without legitimate reason, impaired ability to practice due to addiction or physical or mental illness and conviction of a felony. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Medical Practice Acts Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.5. Discuss licensure and certification as it applies to health care providers 31) Group practices and hospitals need to provide good patient care. What types of nonpatient care professionals might be needed in a group practice? Answer: Group practices and other healthcare facilities need to hire individuals who are familiar with federal healthcare law, state and local healthcare regulations, employee management, case and utilization management, practice guidelines, disease management protocols, clinical reporting practices, and managed care protocol for reimbursement. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Medical Practices Management Systems Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

32) Who may own a healthcare corporation? Answer: Ownership of healthcare corporations may be traced to any number of sources, such as groups of physicians, healthcare professionals practicing the same medical specialty, groups of investors (e.g., Hospital Corporation of America, Ardent, Capella, and Cirrus Health), religious groups (e.g., Catholic or Jewish hospitals), state or local governments, university-affiliated medical schools, or insurance companies and managed care organizations (MCOs), where physicians and other health care practitioners are often salaried employees. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Medical Practices Management Systems Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 4 Law, the Courts, and Contracts 1) The highest law in our country is A) the Bill of Rights. B) the U.S. Constitution. C) the doctrine of respondeat superior. D) a Supreme Court decision. E) an executive order. 2) Laws enacted by state or federal legislatures are called A) case law. B) bills. C) amendments. D) statutes. E) common law. 3) The president of the United Sates exercises limited legislative powers when issuing A) fines. B) public notices. C) statutes. D) common law. E) executive orders. 4) A court of last resort is commonly known as a A) federal court. B) supreme court. C) county court. D) state court. E) district court. 5) Broad enabling statutes defining an agency's powers and procedures are known as A) administrative laws. B) common laws. C) substantive laws. D) acts. E) precedents. 6) Those responsibilities not set by the United States Constitution are left to the states. Which of the following is an exclusive power of state governments? A) Establish post offices. B) Issue licenses. C) Print money. D) Nominate judges for the federal courts. E) Make laws controlling trade between states.

7) There are ________ branches of the federal government. A) five B) two C) three D) four E) six 8) A felony is A) a less serious criminal act. B) a federal violation of the law. C) punishable by less than one year in prison. D) a civil offense. E) a more serious criminal act. 9) Practicing medicine without a license is an example of which of the following types of laws? A) criminal law B) common law C) administrative law D) civil law E) substantive law 10) A nurse who steals drugs from a medication cart is committing an offense under what kind of law? A) Common law B) Criminal law C) Administrative law D) Civil law E) Substantive law 11) A misdemeanor is A) punishable by at least one year in prison. B) a federal violation of the law. C) a less serious criminal act. D) a more serious criminal act. E) a civil offense. 12) Battery is defined as A) publicly damaging another's reputation. B) the action that causes bodily harm to someone. C) needless or willful damage. D) the open threat of bodily harm. E) needless or willful violence.

13) Assault is defined as A) publicly damaging another's reputation. B) the action that causes bodily harm to someone. C) needless or willful damage. D) the open threat of bodily harm. E) needless or willful violence. 14) Unintentionally, a health care provider fails to exercise what is considered ordinary care. This is called ________ and the provider may be sued by the patient. A) a mistake B) precedent C) criminal D) negligence E) assault 15) A state court would have jurisdiction in which of the following cases? A) Copyright infringement B) Antitrust C) Admiralty law D) Bankruptcy E) License revocation 16) The relatives of a patient in a nursing home have been prevented from seeing their family member by one of the staff in the nursing home. The patient had filed a complaint about the staff member, so the staff member thought it appropriate to prevent visitors. Which of the following torts might the staff member be convicted of? A) False imprisonment B) Conversion C) Invasion of privacy D) Deceit E) Trespass 17) If a mentally incompetent person enters into a contract, the agreement may be set aside or validated at a later date. In this case, the agreement is said to be A) voidable. B) nullified. C) enforced. D) breached. E) violated. 18) When entering into a contract, certain conditions must pertain to the offer. Which of the following accurately describes one of these conditions? A) It may only relate to the future. B) It must be communicated. C) It must be made under duress. D) It must be clearly understood by at least one of the parties. E) Its value must be at least $100. 3 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

19) Which list describes the elements of a contract? A) Agreement, subject matter, legality, and contractual capacity. B) Agreement, consideration, trade, and contractual capacity. C) Agreement, accounting, legality, and subject matter. D) Agreement, consideration, legal subject matter, and contractual capacity. E) Agreement, precedent, legality, and contractual capacity. 20) A physician assistant provides treatment to a person who has come to the emergency room for treatment of a painful rash. This is an example of a(n) A) written contract. B) limited contract. C) verbal contract. D) implied contract. E) implied limited contract. 21) Dr. Giles and his practice manager are considering charging interest on unpaid balances. Which law says the doctor must first tell the patients of this change in policy? A) Fair Debt Collection Practices Act B) Regulation Z of the Consumer Protection Act C) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act D) Health Collection Act E) Statute of Frauds 22) The Easy Collection Agency continues to call Susan at work to talk to her about her past due account at St. John's Hospital. The Easy Collection Agency is violating which law? A) Fair Debt Collection Practices Act B) Regulation Z of the Consumer Protection Act C) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act D) Health Collection Act E) Statute of Frauds 23) From which of the following does an implied contract result? A) The terms of the spoken agreement. B) The legally worded contract. C) The oral agreement of the parties involved. D) The written contract. E) The actions of the parties involved. 24) Which of the following must be in writing? A) Third-party contract for health care coverage. B) Implied contract. C) Expressed contract. D) Employment contract. E) Termination contract.

25) A patient has not paid the balance due after insurance payments. The practice manager has sent numerous reminders and the patient has not contacted the practice. At this point, the practice manager A) may sue the patient for the balance. B) may have the physician sign a letter of dismissal with 30 days to find a new physician. C) can do nothing; the practice is out the money owed. D) may begin calling the patient at work. E) can report the patient to the Better Business Bureau. 26) Both parties in the physician-patient relationship have certain rights and responsibilities. Which of the following is a physician responsibility? A) Exercise his or her best professional judgment in all cases. B) Treat every patient who seeks medical care. C) Restore the patient to his or her original state of health. D) Possess the highest skills possible within the profession. E) Guarantee successful results. 27) Which brochure applies to both hospital and health care visits and encourages high qualify care? A) Patient Care Partnership: Understanding Expectations, Rights, and Responsibilities. B) Patient information. C) DASH-Direct Admit System for Hospitals. D) Hospital Plan Plus. E) Professional Practice in Healthcare. 28) A patient leaves the hospital before their physician discharges them. This is referred to as leaving A) against hospital advice. B) against insurance company advice. C) against nonmedical advice. D) against medical advice. E) against hospital policy. 29) According to the AHRQ, patients who are most likely to leave the hospital against physician's orders are A) those who do not like injections. B) those who believe they are no longer ill. C) those who dislike the food in the hospital. D) those who have to get back to work. E) those who are worried about paying the medical bills. 30) Which of the following is not a patient responsibility in the physician-patient relationship? A) Follow instructions given by the physician B) Give relevant information to the physician and staff C) Refer other patients to the physician D) Pay the fees for services rendered E) Follow orders for further patient treatment 5 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 4 Law, the Courts, and Contracts 1) The highest law in our country is A) the Bill of Rights. B) the U.S. Constitution. C) the doctrine of respondeat superior. D) a Supreme Court decision. E) an executive order. Answer: B Explanation: The U.S. Constitution serves as the highest law. The Bill of Rights is included in the Constitution, and the Supreme Court was created to uphold the Constitution. The doctrine of respondeat superior is case law. An executive order may be issued by the president, but does not always carry the full force and effect of law. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Basis of and Primary Sources of Law Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 2) Laws enacted by state or federal legislatures are called A) case law. B) bills. C) amendments. D) statutes. E) common law. Answer: D Explanation: A law is a statute. Case law is established in the courts, bills are proposed laws, amendments are changes to laws, and common law is based on custom and tradition. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Basis of and Primary Sources of Law Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

3) The president of the United Sates exercises limited legislative powers when issuing A) fines. B) public notices. C) statutes. D) common law. E) executive orders. Answer: E Explanation: Presidents may issue executive orders. Statutes are laws. Fines are monetary amounts for violating the law. Public notices simply notify the public of certain things. Common law is based on custom and tradition. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Basis of and Primary Sources of Law Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 4) A court of last resort is commonly known as a A) federal court. B) supreme court. C) county court. D) state court. E) district court. Answer: B Explanation: By definition, a supreme court is the court of last resort, the highest court. There are supreme courts in each state, but the federal supreme court is the court of last resort. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Basis of and Primary Sources of Law Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

5) Broad enabling statutes defining an agency's powers and procedures are known as A) administrative laws. B) common laws. C) substantive laws. D) acts. E) precedents. Answer: A Explanation: An agency is given power to set policy and procedure by the use of administrative law. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Basis of and Primary Sources of Law Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 6) Those responsibilities not set by the United States Constitution are left to the states. Which of the following is an exclusive power of state governments? A) Establish post offices. B) Issue licenses. C) Print money. D) Nominate judges for the federal courts. E) Make laws controlling trade between states. Answer: B Explanation: Issuing licenses is an exclusive power of state government. Printing money, nominating judges for federal courts, establishing post offices, and making laws controlling trade between the states are all powers of the federal government. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Basis of and Primary Sources of Law Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

7) There are ________ branches of the federal government. A) five B) two C) three D) four E) six Answer: C Explanation: The three branches of the federal government are the judicial, the executive, and the legislative. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Basis of and Primary Sources of Law Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 8) A felony is A) a less serious criminal act. B) a federal violation of the law. C) punishable by less than one year in prison. D) a civil offense. E) a more serious criminal act. Answer: E Explanation: A felony is a serious crime punishable by more than a year in prison. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Classifications of Law Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.6. Compare criminal and civil law as it applies to the practicing medical assistant

9) Practicing medicine without a license is an example of which of the following types of laws? A) criminal law B) common law C) administrative law D) civil law E) substantive law Answer: A Explanation: Criminal law is a law that involves crimes against the state. Practicing medicine without a license is a form of criminal law because serious harm could be done. Civil law, administrative law, and common law are not considered as criminal law. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Classifications of Law Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.6. Compare criminal and civil law as it applies to the practicing medical assistant 10) A nurse who steals drugs from a medication cart is committing an offense under what kind of law? A) Common law B) Criminal law C) Administrative law D) Civil law E) Substantive law Answer: B Explanation: Stealing drugs is considered an offense under criminal law, particularly if they are narcotic drugs. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Classifications of Law Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.6. Compare criminal and civil law as it applies to the practicing medical assistant

11) A misdemeanor is A) punishable by at least one year in prison. B) a federal violation of the law. C) a less serious criminal act. D) a more serious criminal act. E) a civil offense. Answer: C Explanation: A misdemeanor is a less serious criminal act that is punishable by a fine and/or less than a year in prison. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Classifications of Law Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.6. Compare criminal and civil law as it applies to the practicing medical assistant 12) Battery is defined as A) publicly damaging another's reputation. B) the action that causes bodily harm to someone. C) needless or willful damage. D) the open threat of bodily harm. E) needless or willful violence. Answer: B Explanation: Battery is the action that causes bodily harm. Assault is the open threat of bodily harm. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Tort Liability Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.6. Compare criminal and civil law as it applies to the practicing medical assistant

13) Assault is defined as A) publicly damaging another's reputation. B) the action that causes bodily harm to someone. C) needless or willful damage. D) the open threat of bodily harm. E) needless or willful violence. Answer: D Explanation: Assault is the open threat of bodily harm. People often confuse this term with battery, which is the actual act of bodily harm. Raising a fist may be considered assault, while actually hitting the person with the fist is battery. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Tort Liability Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.6. Compare criminal and civil law as it applies to the practicing medical assistant 14) Unintentionally, a health care provider fails to exercise what is considered ordinary care. This is called ________ and the provider may be sued by the patient. A) a mistake B) precedent C) criminal D) negligence E) assault Answer: D Explanation: The tort of negligence is when a health care provider does not exercise what is considered ordinary care. It is a part of civil law. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Tort Liability Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.a. Define negligence

15) A state court would have jurisdiction in which of the following cases? A) Copyright infringement B) Antitrust C) Admiralty law D) Bankruptcy E) License revocation Answer: E Explanation: State courts have jurisdiction over the licensing and revocation of licenses of health care workers. The federal courts have jurisdiction in antitrust, bankruptcy, patients, copyright, and areas of admiralty law (pertaining to the sea). Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Tort Liability Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 16) The relatives of a patient in a nursing home have been prevented from seeing their family member by one of the staff in the nursing home. The patient had filed a complaint about the staff member, so the staff member thought it appropriate to prevent visitors. Which of the following torts might the staff member be convicted of? A) False imprisonment B) Conversion C) Invasion of privacy D) Deceit E) Trespass Answer: E Explanation: Trespass is wrongful injury or interference with another person's property. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Tort Liability Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: IX.A.3. Recognize the importance of local, state, and federal legislation and regulations in the practice setting

17) If a mentally incompetent person enters into a contract, the agreement may be set aside or validated at a later date. In this case, the agreement is said to be A) voidable. B) nullified. C) enforced. D) breached. E) violated. Answer: A Explanation: If either of the concerned parties is incompetent at the time a contract is made, the agreement may be voidable, and able to be set aside or validated at a later date. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Contracts Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 18) When entering into a contract, certain conditions must pertain to the offer. Which of the following accurately describes one of these conditions? A) It may only relate to the future. B) It must be communicated. C) It must be made under duress. D) It must be clearly understood by at least one of the parties. E) Its value must be at least $100. Answer: B Explanation: Certain conditions must be met in the offer. It must relate to the present or the future, it must be communicated, it must be made in good faith and not under duress, it must be understood by both parties, and it must define what both parties will do if the offer is accepted. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Contracts Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

21) Dr. Giles and his practice manager are considering charging interest on unpaid balances. Which law says the doctor must first tell the patients of this change in policy? A) Fair Debt Collection Practices Act B) Regulation Z of the Consumer Protection Act C) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act D) Health Collection Act E) Statute of Frauds Answer: B Explanation: It is legal under Regulation Z of the Consumer Protection Act to charge interest. However, the patient must be notified in advance of the interest charges. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Contracts Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: IX.P.8. Apply local, state, and federal health care legislation and regulation appropriate to the medical assisting practice setting 22) The Easy Collection Agency continues to call Susan at work to talk to her about her past due account at St. John's Hospital. The Easy Collection Agency is violating which law? A) Fair Debt Collection Practices Act B) Regulation Z of the Consumer Protection Act C) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act D) Health Collection Act E) Statute of Frauds Answer: A Explanation: Calling a patient at work is considered harassment under the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Contracts Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VII.C.6. Explain patient financial obligations for services rendered

23) From which of the following does an implied contract result? A) The terms of the spoken agreement. B) The legally worded contract. C) The oral agreement of the parties involved. D) The written contract. E) The actions of the parties involved. Answer: E Explanation: An implied contract is an unwritten and unspoken agreement whose terms result from the actions of the parties involved. An expressed contract may be written or oral, but all terms of the contract are explicitly stated. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Contracts Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.b. Define implied consent 24) Which of the following must be in writing? A) Third-party contract for health care coverage. B) Implied contract. C) Expressed contract. D) Employment contract. E) Termination contract. Answer: A Explanation: An implied contract is an unwritten and unspoken agreement whose terms result from the actions of the parties involved. An expressed contract may be written or oral, but all terms of the contract are explicitly stated. Not all employment arrangements or termination notices are in contractual form. Because a third-party contract for health care is very detailed and involves at least three different parties, it is usually in writing. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Contracts Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.a. Define expressed consent

25) A patient has not paid the balance due after insurance payments. The practice manager has sent numerous reminders and the patient has not contacted the practice. At this point, the practice manager A) may sue the patient for the balance. B) may have the physician sign a letter of dismissal with 30 days to find a new physician. C) can do nothing; the practice is out the money owed. D) may begin calling the patient at work. E) can report the patient to the Better Business Bureau. Answer: B Explanation: A provider has a responsibility to notify the patient about the reason for discontinuing care and give the patient time, usually 30 days, to find a new physician. While the physician may eventually sue the patient for the balance, notice of discontinuance of care must be done first. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Contracts Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VII.C.6. Explain patient financial obligations for services rendered 26) Both parties in the physician-patient relationship have certain rights and responsibilities. Which of the following is a physician responsibility? A) Exercise his or her best professional judgment in all cases. B) Treat every patient who seeks medical care. C) Restore the patient to his or her original state of health. D) Possess the highest skills possible within the profession. E) Guarantee successful results. Answer: A Explanation: A physician is expected to use their best professional judgment in all cases. Physicians are free to choose their own patients, unless they are working in the emergency room. It is not always possible to restore patients to their original state of health or to guarantee successful results and physicians are not expected to possess the highest skills possible within the profession. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Physicians' and Patients' Rights and Responsibilities Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: IX.C.7. Compare and contrast physician and medical assistant roles in terms of standard of care

27) Which brochure applies to both hospital and health care visits and encourages high qualify care? A) Patient Care Partnership: Understanding Expectations, Rights, and Responsibilities. B) Patient information. C) DASH-Direct Admit System for Hospitals. D) Hospital Plan Plus. E) Professional Practice in Healthcare. Answer: C Explanation: A variety of attempts were made to make the AHA Bill of Rights a federal law, but none succeeded. In 2003, the AHA dropped the Bill of Rights and created a brochure entitled "Patient Care Partnership: Understanding Expectations, Rights and Responsibilities" for hospitals, medical offices, and other health care facilities to use at their discretion. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Physicians' and Patients' Rights and Responsibilities Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.4. Summarize the patients' bill of rights 28) A patient leaves the hospital before their physician discharges them. This is referred to as leaving A) against hospital advice. B) against insurance company advice. C) against nonmedical advice. D) against medical advice. E) against hospital policy. Answer: D Explanation: When a patient leaves the hospital before the physician has discharged them it is known as against medical advice. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Physicians' and Patients' Rights and Responsibilities Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

29) According to the AHRQ, patients who are most likely to leave the hospital against physician's orders are A) those who do not like injections. B) those who believe they are no longer ill. C) those who dislike the food in the hospital. D) those who have to get back to work. E) those who are worried about paying the medical bills. Answer: E Explanation: A study done by the AHRQ indicates that the top three reasons for a patient to leave the hospital against medical advice are those who are worried about paying the bill, those with substance abuse problems, and those who have nonspecific chest pain complaints or complications from diabetes. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Physicians' and Patients' Rights and Responsibilities Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 30) Which of the following is not a patient responsibility in the physician-patient relationship? A) Follow instructions given by the physician B) Give relevant information to the physician and staff C) Refer other patients to the physician D) Pay the fees for services rendered E) Follow orders for further patient treatment Answer: C Explanation: A patient is under no obligation to refer other people to the physician. However, the patient is responsible for following doctors' orders and paying the bill. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Physicians' and Patients' Rights and Responsibilities Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 5 Professional Liability and Medical Malpractice 1) The definition of liability is A) the legal responsibility of competent adults for their own acts. B) applied only to on-the-job acts. C) duty of care. D) standard of care. E) confidentiality. 2) As employers, physicians have general liability for many aspects of their business. Which of the following does not fall under the responsibility of the employers? A) The practice's buildings and grounds B) Automobiles used in the practice C) Employee safety D) Employees driving to and from the workplace E) Building damage due to bad weather 3) A physician working in an emergency room is obligated to treat all the patients who come through the door. This is an example of which of the following concepts? A) Standard of care B) Duty of care C) Reasonable person standard D) Reasonable person care E) Performance standard 4) A physician working in a nursing home warns the residents of an outbreak of a communicable disease and takes measures to protect them from exposure. This is an example of what principle? A) Standard of care B) Reasonable person care C) Reasonable person standard D) Duty of care E) Performance standard 5) A medical assistant takes universal precautions while drawing blood for analysis. This is an example of A) Standard of care. B) Reasonable person care. C) Reasonable person standard. D) Duty of care. E) Performance standard.

6) If a patient is injured because a health care professional failed to exercise the care and expertise that under the circumstances could reasonably be expected of a professional with similar experience and training, then that professional may be liable for A) standard of care. B) fraud. C) reasonable person standard. D) duty of care. E) negligence. 7) A physician is a specialist in obstetrics. Which of the following is true regarding the standard of care expected of this physician? A) The physician will be held to the same standard of care as a general practitioner. B) The physician will be held to the same standard of care as other obstetricians. C) The physician will be held to a lower standard of care than a gynecologist. D) The physician will be held to the same standard as a gynecologist. E) The physician will be held to a standard of care only for direct patient contact. 8) In a hospital, a certain standard of care is expected of health care practitioners. Which of the following best describes this concept? A) Legal responsibility. B) Minimum care as needed. C) An expected level of performance. D) Obligation to care. E) Reasonable person standard. 9) A medical assistant who is recording data in a patient's medical record maintains confidentiality at all times. Which of the following describes this practice? A) Not allowing the patient to see the medical record. B) Not conferring with other health care professionals about the patient. C) Not releasing patient information to unauthorized individuals. D) Releasing patient information to unauthorized individuals. E) Releasing information to the insurance company. 10) Which of the following is an example of a privileged communication? A) A patient tells her physician that she uses illegal drugs. B) A custodian speaks with a nurse about a problem with a disinfectant. C) Parents discuss treatment options for their child who has autism. D) A nurse practitioner explains a procedure to a patient. E) An office clerk calls a patient by name at the checkout desk. 11) Which of the following is not a violation of patient confidentiality? A) While the patient is in the waiting room, a nurse tells a patient his diagnosis. B) Medical assistants are discussing a patient by name outside the exam room. C) A nurse leaves a detailed message about his/her diagnosis on the patient's voice mail. D) A radiology technician discusses with the patient results of the x-rays. E) An office clerk calls a patient by name at the checkout desk. 2 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

12) The failure to act when one should is called A) malfeasance. B) nonfeasance. C) damages. D) dereliction. E) misfeasance. 13) A provider breaches duty of care to a patient. This element of negligence is defined as A) malfeasance. B) nonfeasance. C) damages. D) dereliction. E) misfeasance. 14) A patient is properly cared for by the nurse practitioner. Which of the following describes one of the elements that the nurse practitioner has successfully met? A) Dereliction B) Defense C) Damages D) Direct cause E) Duty 15) A surgeon removes the wrong kidney from a patient. The patient can sue under which of the following legal doctrines? A) Res judicata B) Respondeat superior C) Res ipsa loquitur D) Caveat emptor E) Qui tam 16) A patient was harmed when the oxygen tank she was using exploded. When filing a lawsuit, what type of damages might this patient be awarded? A) General compensatory B) Consequential C) Special compensatory D) Punitive E) Nominal 17) A patient's mammogram is reviewed and the radiologist reports a normal exam. Six months later, the patient finds a lump in her breast. The patient has a lumpectomy and makes a full recovery. It was determined that the mass was present and visible in the original mammogram. The patient sued claiming mental anguish. What type of damages might she be awarded? A) General compensatory B) Consequential C) Special compensatory D) Punitive E) Nominal 3 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

18) Those damages awarded by the court to punish the defendant are called A) general compensatory. B) consequential. C) special compensatory. D) punitive. E) nominal. 19) According to Medscape, which of the following medical specialties is most likely to be sued? A) General surgery B) Ob/gyn C) Internal medicine D) Orthopedics E) Oncology 20) The family of a patient sues for wrongful death when the patient's death was judged to have been due to the negligence of the health care practitioners. What might the family collect from a settlement of this case? A) An award to punish the healthcare provider. B) An award totaling one year of earnings of the deceased. C) An award covering medical costs for the patient. D) An award providing health care for the family. E) An award for the loss to the patient's estate for future earnings. 21) A plea made for a case to be reviewed by the higher court occurs in the ________ phase of a lawsuit. A) trial B) interrogatory C) appeal D) mediation E) pretrial 22) A jury is selected in the ________ stage of a lawsuit. A) trial B) interrogatory C) appeal D) pretrial E) mediation 23) A(n) ________ is issued by the clerk of the court and is delivered with a copy of the complaint to the defendant. A) trial B) summons C) appeal D) interrogatory E) mediation

24) What is the difference between a subpoena and subpoena duces tecum A) There is no difference. B) Subpoena duces tecum is just an old-fashioned term for subpoena. C) A subpoena duces tecum requires that documents and records be brought to court. D) A subpoena requires that an individual appear in court. E) A subpoena requires that an individual serve on the jury. 25) A deposition may be taken in which phase of the lawsuit? A) Trial B) Jury selection C) Pleadings D) Summons E) interrogatory 26) Instead of going to court, two parties in dispute agree to a neutral third party listening to both sides of the argument and helping to resolve the dispute. What is the term for this type of dispute resolution? A) Med-arb B) Discovery C) Pleadings D) Arbitration E) Mediation 27) Alternative dispute resolution has become increasingly popular over the years. What is the reason for this increase? A) Shortage of attorneys to represent clients B) ease of proceedings C) better overall results D) overcrowding of court calendars E) shortage of court rooms to hold trials 28) Some states require mediation and/or arbitration for certain civil cases, while in other states alternative dispute resolution methods are voluntary. Under the terms of a written contract, who chooses an arbitrator? A) Both parties B) The defendant C) The plaintiff D) The American Mediation Association E) The American Arbitration Association

29) In an informal proceeding of arbitration, each side presents evidence and witnesses. In the dispute resolution method, referred to as med-arb, who resolves the dispute if the two parties are unable to reach an agreement after mediation? A) The mediator B) The jury C) The judge D) The court E) Arbitrator 30) When no written contract exists, who chooses an arbitrator to resolve disputes? A) The American Arbitration Association. B) The two parties select an arbitrator and the two arbitrators select a third to act. C) The two parties select an arbitrator and the court decides. D) The court selects an arbitrator of its choosing. E) Arbitration. 31) All of the following guidelines are in place to help health care practitioners stay within their scope of practice and operate within the law except A) following an employer's established policies dealing with the healthcare contract. B) maintaining and disposing of regulated substances in compliance with government guidelines. C) maintaining confidentiality. D) documenting care accurately for a fellow medical assistant. E) practicing within the scope of your training and education. 32) The law of ________ makes employers liable for the actions of their employees. A) liability B) expression C) the agent D) agency E) corporate action 33) Amanda is a nurse in Dr. Smith's pediatric practice. She accidentally gives a patient the wrong medication. Dr. Smith is held responsible under A) res ipsa loquitur. B) duces tecum. C) implied contract. D) expressed contract. E) respondeat superior. 34) For which of the following actions would an employer be responsible under respondeat superior? A) An employee assaults a patient in the parking lot. B) An employee steals narcotic drugs from the medication room. C) An employee accidentally prescribes the wrong medication. D) An employee knowingly defames the character of a patient. E) An employee gets into an auto accident on their way home from work. 6 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

35) Patient safety checklists are established nationally by 36) Identify at least three safety goals established for hospital care.

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 5 Professional Liability and Medical Malpractice 1) The definition of liability is A) the legal responsibility of competent adults for their own acts. B) applied only to on-the-job acts. C) duty of care. D) standard of care. E) confidentiality. Answer: A Explanation: Liability is the legal responsibility of all competent adults to be responsible for their own acts, both on the job and in their private lives. Duty of care is the legal obligation of healthcare workers to patients, and sometimes to nonpatients. Standard of care is the level of performance expected of a health care professional, and confidentiality is the act of holding information in confidence. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Liability Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.6. Compare criminal law and civil law as it applies to practicing medical assistant 2) As employers, physicians have general liability for many aspects of their business. Which of the following does not fall under the responsibility of the employers? A) The practice's buildings and grounds B) Automobiles used in the practice C) Employee safety D) Employees driving to and from the workplace E) Building damage due to bad weather Answer: D Explanation: Employers are not responsible for employees traveling to and from work. However, if the employee must use their personal automobile for the employer's purposes during the day, then the employer is liable. Employers are also responsible for the building and grounds and employee safety. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Liability Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.6. Compare criminal law and civil law as it applies to practicing medical assistant 1 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

3) A physician working in an emergency room is obligated to treat all the patients who come through the door. This is an example of which of the following concepts? A) Standard of care B) Duty of care C) Reasonable person standard D) Reasonable person care E) Performance standard Answer: B Explanation: Duty of care is the obligation of health care workers to patients, and in some cases, nonpatients. Physicians have a duty of care to patients with whom they have established a doctor-patient relationship, or in the case above been hired to treat. Standard of care refers to the level of performance expected of a health care practitioner in carrying out his or her professional duties. The reasonable person standard or care means the physician or other provider may be charged with negligence if someone is injured because he or she failed to perform an act that a reasonable person, in similar circumstances, would perform. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Standard of Care and Duty of Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.c. Follow established policies when initiating or terminating medical treatment Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.1. Differentiate between scope of practice and standards of care for medical assistants 4) A physician working in a nursing home warns the residents of an outbreak of a communicable disease and takes measures to protect them from exposure. This is an example of what principle? A) Standard of care B) Reasonable person care C) Reasonable person standard D) Duty of care E) Performance standard Answer: D Explanation: Duty of care is the obligation of health care workers to patients, and in some cases, nonpatients. Physicians have a duty of care to patients with whom they have established a doctor-patient relationship, or in the case above been hired to treat. Standard of care refers to the level of performance expected of a health care practitioner in carrying out his or her professional duties. The reasonable person standard or care means the physician or other provider may be charged with negligence if someone is injured because he or she failed to perform an act that a reasonable person, in similar circumstances, would perform. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Standard of Care and Duty of Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.1. Differentiate between scope of practice and standards of care for medical assistants 2 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

5) A medical assistant takes universal precautions while drawing blood for analysis. This is an example of A) Standard of care. B) Reasonable person care. C) Reasonable person standard. D) Duty of care. E) Performance standard. Answer: A Explanation: Standard of care refers to the level of performance expected of a health care practitioner in carrying out his or her professional duties. The reasonable person standard or care means that an individual would be charged with negligence if someone is injured because he or she failed to perform an act that a reasonable person, in similar circumstances, would perform. It is reasonable to assume that universal precautions are necessary when drawing blood. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Standard of Care and Duty of Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.2. Compare and contrast provider and medical assistant roles in terms of standard of care 6) If a patient is injured because a health care professional failed to exercise the care and expertise that under the circumstances could reasonably be expected of a professional with similar experience and training, then that professional may be liable for A) standard of care. B) fraud. C) reasonable person standard. D) duty of care. E) negligence. Answer: E Explanation: Health care professionals are expected to behave as a reasonable person would in order to avoid liability for negligence. Standard of care refers to the level of performance expected and duty of care is a legal obligation. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Standard of Care and Duty of Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.a. Define negligence

7) A physician is a specialist in obstetrics. Which of the following is true regarding the standard of care expected of this physician? A) The physician will be held to the same standard of care as a general practitioner. B) The physician will be held to the same standard of care as other obstetricians. C) The physician will be held to a lower standard of care than a gynecologist. D) The physician will be held to the same standard as a gynecologist. E) The physician will be held to a standard of care only for direct patient contact. Answer: B Explanation: An obstetrician will be held to the same standard of care as other obstetricians. Direct patient contact is not always necessary for establishing a duty. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Standard of Care and Duty of Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.2. Compare and contrast provider and medical assistant roles in terms of standard of care 8) In a hospital, a certain standard of care is expected of health care practitioners. Which of the following best describes this concept? A) Legal responsibility. B) Minimum care as needed. C) An expected level of performance. D) Obligation to care. E) Reasonable person standard. Answer: C Explanation: An expected level of performance is referred to as a standard of care. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Standard of Care and Duty of Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: IX.C.2. Compare and contrast physician and medical assistant roles in terms of standard of care

9) A medical assistant who is recording data in a patient's medical record maintains confidentiality at all times. Which of the following describes this practice? A) Not allowing the patient to see the medical record. B) Not conferring with other health care professionals about the patient. C) Not releasing patient information to unauthorized individuals. D) Releasing patient information to unauthorized individuals. E) Releasing information to the insurance company. Answer: C Explanation: All health care professionals have a legal duty to safeguard a patient's privacy and maintain confidentiality. Confidentiality is the act of holding information in confidence, not to be released without authorization from the patient. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Privacy, Confidentiality, and Privileged Communication Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2.a. Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy 10) Which of the following is an example of a privileged communication? A) A patient tells her physician that she uses illegal drugs. B) A custodian speaks with a nurse about a problem with a disinfectant. C) Parents discuss treatment options for their child who has autism. D) A nurse practitioner explains a procedure to a patient. E) An office clerk calls a patient by name at the checkout desk. Answer: A Explanation: Privileged communication refers to information held confidential within a protected relationship. Explaining a procedure to a patient is an example of informed consent. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Privacy, Confidentiality, and Privileged Communication Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2.a. Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy

11) Which of the following is not a violation of patient confidentiality? A) While the patient is in the waiting room, a nurse tells a patient his diagnosis. B) Medical assistants are discussing a patient by name outside the exam room. C) A nurse leaves a detailed message about his/her diagnosis on the patient's voice mail. D) A radiology technician discusses with the patient results of the x-rays. E) An office clerk calls a patient by name at the checkout desk. Answer: E Explanation: Addressing a patient by name in a public place is not a violation of patient confidentiality, as long as no medical information is shared. Discussing a patient's care when others may hear it, including leaving voice mail messages are violations of confidentiality. A radiology technician's discussion of results is a violation of both confidentiality and the technician's scope of practice. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Privacy, Confidentiality, and Privileged Communication Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2.a. Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy 12) The failure to act when one should is called A) malfeasance. B) nonfeasance. C) damages. D) dereliction. E) misfeasance. Answer: B Explanation: Nonfeasance is the failure to act. Malfeasance is to act in a wrongful or unlawful way. Damages are the legally recognizable injury to a patient. Dereliction is when the health care provider breached duty of care. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Tort of Negligence Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.a. Define negligence

13) A provider breaches duty of care to a patient. This element of negligence is defined as A) malfeasance. B) nonfeasance. C) damages. D) dereliction. E) misfeasance. Answer: D Explanation: Dereliction is when the health care provider breached duty of care. Nonfeasance is the failure to act. Malfeasance is to act in a wrongful or unlawful way. Damages are the legally recognizable injury to a patient. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Tort of Negligence Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.a. Define negligence 14) A patient is properly cared for by the nurse practitioner. Which of the following describes one of the elements that the nurse practitioner has successfully met? A) Dereliction B) Defense C) Damages D) Direct cause E) Duty Answer: E Explanation: Duty is the provision of care. Dereliction is when the health care provider breached duty of care. Damages are the legally recognizable injury to a patient. Direct cause is when the provider's actions were a direct cause of the patient's injury. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Tort of Negligence Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.2. Compare and contrast provider and medical assistant roles in terms of standard of care

15) A surgeon removes the wrong kidney from a patient. The patient can sue under which of the following legal doctrines? A) Res judicata B) Respondeat superior C) Res ipsa loquitur D) Caveat emptor E) Qui tam Answer: C Explanation: Res ipsa loquitur is also known as the doctrine of common knowledge, meaning that the mistake is so obvious that negligence is obvious. Res judicata is the Latin term for the thing has been decided, that is, a claim cannot be retried if it has been legally resolved. Respondeat superior is Latin for let the master answer, which means that the employer is responsible for the acts of the employee. Caveat emptor is Latin for buyer beware. Qui tam refers to a doctrine whereby a private individual who assists a prosecution can receive all or part of any penalty imposed. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Tort of Negligence Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.i. Define the following medical legal term: res ipsa loquitur 16) A patient was harmed when the oxygen tank she was using exploded. When filing a lawsuit, what type of damages might this patient be awarded? A) General compensatory B) Consequential C) Special compensatory D) Punitive E) Nominal Answer: B Explanation: Consequential damages are used to compensate for losses caused indirectly by a product defect. General compensatory damages are used to compensate for injuries or losses due to violation of patient's rights. Special compensatory damages are awarded for losses not directly caused by the wrong. Punitive damages are awarded to punish the offender, and nominal damages are to recognize the rights of the patient were violated, though no actual loss was proved. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Tort of Negligence Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

17) A patient's mammogram is reviewed and the radiologist reports a normal exam. Six months later, the patient finds a lump in her breast. The patient has a lumpectomy and makes a full recovery. It was determined that the mass was present and visible in the original mammogram. The patient sued claiming mental anguish. What type of damages might she be awarded? A) General compensatory B) Consequential C) Special compensatory D) Punitive E) Nominal Answer: A Explanation: General compensatory damages are used to compensate for injuries or losses due to violation of patient's rights, including mental anguish. Consequential damages are used to compensate for losses caused indirectly by a product defect. Special compensatory damages are awarded for losses not directly caused by the wrong. Punitive damages are awarded to punish the offender, and nominal damages are to recognize the rights of the patient were violated, though no actual loss was proved. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Tort of Negligence Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 18) Those damages awarded by the court to punish the defendant are called A) general compensatory. B) consequential. C) special compensatory. D) punitive. E) nominal. Answer: D Explanation: Punitive damages are awarded to punish the offender, and nominal damages are to recognize the rights of the patient were violated, though no actual loss was proved. General compensatory damages are used to compensate for injuries or losses due to violation of patient's rights, including mental anguish. Consequential damages are used to compensate for losses caused indirectly by a product defect. Special compensatory damages are awarded for losses not directly caused by the wrong. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Tort of Negligence Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: IX.C.10.a. Explain how the following impact the medical assistant's practice and give examples: negligence

19) According to Medscape, which of the following medical specialties is most likely to be sued? A) General surgery B) Ob/gyn C) Internal medicine D) Orthopedics E) Oncology Answer: B Explanation: According to a survey of 1,000 physicians in 2015 in the online publication Medscape, ob/gyn specialties were more likely to be sued than any other specialty. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Tort of Negligence Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 20) The family of a patient sues for wrongful death when the patient's death was judged to have been due to the negligence of the health care practitioners. What might the family collect from a settlement of this case? A) An award to punish the healthcare provider. B) An award totaling one year of earnings of the deceased. C) An award covering medical costs for the patient. D) An award providing health care for the family. E) An award for the loss to the patient's estate for future earnings. Answer: E Explanation: When it is determined that there was a wrongful death due to negligence, the court will award damages to the patient's estate for future earnings. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Tort of Negligence Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.8.b. Describe the following types of insurance: professional (malpractice)

21) A plea made for a case to be reviewed by the higher court occurs in the ________ phase of a lawsuit. A) trial B) interrogatory C) appeal D) mediation E) pretrial Answer: C Explanation: An appeal is heard after the lower court makes a decision. A trial is when the plaintiff's and defendant's positions are heard in open court. Interrogatories are a written set of questions from a plaintiff or defendant under oath. Mediation is a form of alternative dispute resolution. Pretrial is activity, such as interrogatories that come before the trial. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Elements of a Lawsuit Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 22) A jury is selected in the ________ stage of a lawsuit. A) trial B) interrogatory C) appeal D) pretrial E) mediation Answer: A Explanation: A trial is when the plaintiff's and defendant's positions are heard in open court. If a jury is to be selected, it is at the beginning of this stage. An appeal is heard after the lower court makes a decision. Interrogatories are a written set of questions from a plaintiff or defendant under oath. Mediation is a form of alternative dispute resolution. Pretrial is an activity, such as interrogatories, that come before the trial. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Elements of a Lawsuit Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

23) A(n) ________ is issued by the clerk of the court and is delivered with a copy of the complaint to the defendant. A) trial B) summons C) appeal D) interrogatory E) mediation Answer: B Explanation: A summons is issued by the court and delivered to the defendant along with a copy of the complaint. A trial is when the plaintiff's and defendant's positions are heard in open court. An appeal is heard after the lower court makes a decision. Interrogatories are a written set of questions from a plaintiff or defendant under oath. Mediation is a form of alternative dispute resolution. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Elements of a Lawsuit Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 24) What is the difference between a subpoena and subpoena duces tecum A) There is no difference. B) Subpoena duces tecum is just an old-fashioned term for subpoena. C) A subpoena duces tecum requires that documents and records be brought to court. D) A subpoena requires that an individual appear in court. E) A subpoena requires that an individual serve on the jury. Answer: C Explanation: A subpoena requires the recipient to appear in court as a witness. A subpoena duces tecum requires the individual to bring certain records and documents to court. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Elements of a Lawsuit Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.g. Define the following medical legal term: subpoena duces tecum

25) A deposition may be taken in which phase of the lawsuit? A) Trial B) Jury selection C) Pleadings D) Summons E) interrogatory Answer: E Explanation: In the interrogatory phase of a lawsuit, a court order may be issued commanding the presence of an individual to provide sworn testimony outside the court. A trial is when the plaintiff's and defendant's positions are heard in open court. A summons is an order for the court to appear, but it could be to appear in court during the trial. Pleadings are documents filed with the court before the trial. Juries are selected just before the trial begins. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Elements of a Lawsuit Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.l. Define the following medical legal term: deposition 26) Instead of going to court, two parties in dispute agree to a neutral third party listening to both sides of the argument and helping to resolve the dispute. What is the term for this type of dispute resolution? A) Med-arb B) Discovery C) Pleadings D) Arbitration E) Mediation Answer: E Explanation: Mediation is a method in which a neutral third party listens to both sides of the argument and then helps resolve the dispute. Med-arb is a combination of both mediation and arbitration. Discovery is a phase of a lawsuit. Arbitration is a method of settling a dispute where both parties agree to abide by the decision of an arbitrator and is usually established by contract. Pleadings are documents filed with court before the trial. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Alternative Dispute Resolution Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.m. Define the following medical legal term: arbitration-mediation

27) Alternative dispute resolution has become increasingly popular over the years. What is the reason for this increase? A) Shortage of attorneys to represent clients B) ease of proceedings C) better overall results D) overcrowding of court calendars E) shortage of court rooms to hold trials Answer: D Explanation: Alternative dispute resolution has become popular over the years because the court calendars have become overcrowded. The process is not always easy and, depending on which side you are on, the better overall results could be disputed. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Alternative Dispute Resolution Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.m. Define the following medical legal term: arbitration-mediation 28) Some states require mediation and/or arbitration for certain civil cases, while in other states alternative dispute resolution methods are voluntary. Under the terms of a written contract, who chooses an arbitrator? A) Both parties B) The defendant C) The plaintiff D) The American Mediation Association E) The American Arbitration Association Answer: E Explanation: Under the terms of a written contract, either the American Arbitration Association or the court chooses an arbitrator. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Alternative Dispute Resolution Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.m. Define the following medical legal term: arbitration-mediation

29) In an informal proceeding of arbitration, each side presents evidence and witnesses. In the dispute resolution method, referred to as med-arb, who resolves the dispute if the two parties are unable to reach an agreement after mediation? A) The mediator B) The jury C) The judge D) The court E) Arbitrator Answer: A Explanation: In the alternative dispute resolution method called med-arb, the mediator resolves the dispute if the two parties are unable to reach an agreement after mediation. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Alternative Dispute Resolution Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.m. Define the following medical legal term: arbitration-mediation 30) When no written contract exists, who chooses an arbitrator to resolve disputes? A) The American Arbitration Association. B) The two parties select an arbitrator and the two arbitrators select a third to act. C) The two parties select an arbitrator and the court decides. D) The court selects an arbitrator of its choosing. E) Arbitration. Answer: B Explanation: If no contract exists, each of the two parties selects an arbitrator and the two arbitrators select a third arbitrator who works the case. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Alternative Dispute Resolution Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.m. Define the following medical legal term: arbitration-mediation

31) All of the following guidelines are in place to help health care practitioners stay within their scope of practice and operate within the law except A) following an employer's established policies dealing with the healthcare contract. B) maintaining and disposing of regulated substances in compliance with government guidelines. C) maintaining confidentiality. D) documenting care accurately for a fellow medical assistant. E) practicing within the scope of your training and education. Answer: D Explanation: Following an employer's established policies dealing with the health care contract, maintaining and disposing of regulated substances in compliance with government guidelines, maintaining confidentiality, and practicing within the scope of your training and education are all guidelines established to help health care practitioners stay within their scope of practice and operate within the law. Documenting, although accurately, for a fellow medical assistant is not lawful. Only the practitioner who provides patient care should document services rendered. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Standard of Care and Duty of Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.c. Follow established policies when initiating or terminating medical treatment Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.1. Differentiate between scope of practice and standards of care for medical assistants 32) The law of ________ makes employers liable for the actions of their employees. A) liability B) expression C) the agent D) agency E) corporate action Answer: D Explanation: The law of agency makes employers liable for the actions of their employees. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Liability Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: assistant.C.13.h. Define the following medical legal terms: respondeat superior

33) Amanda is a nurse in Dr. Smith's pediatric practice. She accidentally gives a patient the wrong medication. Dr. Smith is held responsible under A) res ipsa loquitur. B) duces tecum. C) implied contract. D) expressed contract. E) respondeat superior. Answer: E Explanation: Respondeat superior is the Latin term for "let the master answer." Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Liability Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: assistant.C.13.h. Define the following medical legal terms: respondeat superior 34) For which of the following actions would an employer be responsible under respondeat superior? A) An employee assaults a patient in the parking lot. B) An employee steals narcotic drugs from the medication room. C) An employee accidentally prescribes the wrong medication. D) An employee knowingly defames the character of a patient. E) An employee gets into an auto accident on their way home from work. Answer: C Explanation: Employers are liable for the acts of their employees performed "within the course and scope" of employment if two elements are present. The employee must be engaged in the furtherance of the employer's business and must be acting within the scope of the business. If the act committed is purely personal, the employer is not liable. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Liability Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: assistant.C.13.h. Define the following medical legal terms: respondeat superior

35) Patient safety checklists are established nationally by Answer: The Joint Commission (JTC). The Joint Commission established a variety of safety checklists for different health care settings. Individual organizations may also establish lists, but the JTC is considered the standard. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Patient Safety Standards Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: I.C.12. Identify quality assurance practices in health care

36) Identify at least three safety goals established for hospital care. Answer: 1. Identify patients correctly. Use at least two ways to identify a patient, such as the patient's name and date of birth. 2. Make sure patients receiving blood transfusions get the correct blood. 3. Get important test results to the right staff person on time. 4. Before a procedure, label all medicines in all containers—syringes, cups, and basins—located in the area where medicines and supplies are set up. 5. Find out what medicines the patient is taking. Take extra care with patients who take bloodthinning medications. Compare all medicines the patient has been taking to new medicines given to the patient. Are there contraindications? Make sure the patient knows which medicines to take when they are at home. Tell the patient it is important to bring their up-to-date list of medicines every time they visit a doctor. Record and pass along correct information about a patient's medicines. 6. Check alarms on all medical equipment and make sure that they can be heard and are responded to on time. 7. Use the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention or the World Health Organization guidelines for hand cleaning. Set and disseminate goals for improving hand cleaning. 8. Use proven guidelines to prevent: a. Infections that are difficult to treat. b. Blood infections from central lines. c. Infection after surgery. d. Infections of the urinary tract caused by catheters. 9. Find out which patients are most likely to commit suicide, and be sure others treating such a patient are aware. 10. Make sure the correct surgery is done on the correct patient and at the correct place on the patient's body. a. Mark the correct place on the patient's body where the surgery is to be done. b. Pause before the patient's surgery to make sure that no mistakes are being made. It helps if the surgeon calls out, "We are performing ________ on the (right hand) of patient, ________, birth date ________." Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Patient Safety Standards Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: I.C.12. Identify quality assurance practices in health care

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 6 Defenses to Liability Suits 1) A health care practitioner who practices the "four Cs of medical malpractice prevention" finds two important benefits related to one of the "Cs"—that is, improvement in patients' medical conditions and the decreased likelihood that they will sue. Which "C" is most likely to provide these benefits? A) Caring B) Communication C) Control D) Competence E) Charting 2) A certified medical assistant is constantly updating her knowledge and skills by attending inservices and seminars. This person is practicing which of the "4 Cs of medical malpractice prevention"? A) Caring B) Competence C) Charting D) Communication E) Control 3) For legal purposes, the healthcare professional should know that if it isn't in writing and explained completely and accurately, it wasn't done. To which of the following "4 Cs of medical malpractice prevention" does this statement refer? A) Caring B) Competence C) Control D) Communication E) Charting 4) Patients sue for a variety of reasons. Which of the following is not one of the top recurring reasons patients sue? A) Failure to diagnose B) Failure to treat C) Correction of a mistake D) Poor documentation E) Failure to follow safety procedures 5) Enterprise risk management A) is done on a department by department basis. B) focuses on clinical departments. C) is the responsibility of only a few individuals in the organization. D) looks at total value of organization. E) looks only at communication between the patient and the provider.

6) Which of the following is a recommended communication technique to prevent medical malpractice lawsuits? A) Avoid statements that could be construed as an admission of fault. B) Do not advise patients over the phone. C) Do not insist on a professional consult if the patient is not doing well. D) Do not allow patients to participate in decision-making. E) Stand while talking to the patient. 7) What would be the best advice for a nurse caring for patients who have complained about their treating physician? A) Verbally agree with them. B) Steer the conversation to something else. C) Listen carefully and see that the comments reach the physician. D) Tell the patient they are wrong. E) Ignore the patients' comments. 8) Which doctrine says a lawsuit cannot move forward if a certain period of time has elapsed? A) Res judicata B) Release of tortfeasor C) Good Samaritan statutes D) Statute of limitations E) Res ipsa loquitur 9) A patient sues a physician for negligence and loses. The patient then sues the physician for breach of contract. The second suit is dismissed under what doctrine? A) Res ipsa loquitur B) Release of tortfeasor C) Good Samaritan statutes D) Statute of limitations E) Res judicata 10) Release of tortfeasor is a(n) A) affirmative defense. B) technical defense. C) denial defense. D) contributory negligence defense. E) comparative negligence defense. 11) When the defense claims that the patient's actions caused or contributed to the injury, this is called a(n) A) positive defense. B) technical defense. C) denial defense. D) contributory negligence defense. E) assumption of risk defense.

12) Which of the following is not a form of an affirmative defense to a professional liability suit? A) Contributory negligence B) Denial C) Comparative negligence D) Emergency E) Assumption of risk 13) One of the most common occurrences for marking the beginning of the statutory period for medical malpractice includes A) the day a lawsuit was filed. B) the time a patient recovers from injury. C) the day the alleged negligent act was committed. D) the day the patient dies. E) the day the patient is at full medical recovery. 14) A physician assistant (PA) accused of medical malpractice claims that the charge does not meet all of the elements of the theory of recovery. Which of the following defenses is being used by the PA? A) Denial B) Assumption of risk C) Comparative negligence D) Technical negligence E) Contributory negligence 15) The health care practitioner who comes to the aid of an accident victim at the scene may not be held liable under which type of defense? A) Tortfeasor release B) Denial C) Emergency D) Contributory negligence E) Assumption of risk 16) If the patient knew the ________ before treatment, the defendant may use contributory negligence as a defense in a lawsuit. A) cause and effect of care B) diagnosis C) prognosis D) inherent risk E) statute of limitations 17) The statute of limitations is A) a federal law. B) the same law in every state. C) determined by when the negligence occurred. D) determined by the courts. E) different depending on the state. 3 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

18) Using the process of comparative negligence, a judge determines that the patient contributed 35% to the injury and the physician contributed 65%. Which of the following is the outcome of the case? A) No damages would be awarded. B) The patient would be given 35% of the damage award. C) The patient would be awarded full damages since the percentage is under 50%. D) The patient's damage award would be reduced by 35%. E) The patient's damage award would be 50% since the percentage is under 50%. 19) A medical malpractice lawsuit has been decided under the doctrine of res judicata. What does this Latin term mean? A) The tortfeasor has been released. B) The thing has been decided. C) The statute of limitations is up. D) The thing speaks for itself. E) The buyer should beware. 20) What instrument of risk management is particularly beneficial for following coding and billing regulations for Medicare, Medicaid, and other government plans? A) Credentialing B) Quality improvement C) Compliance plan D) Quality assurance E) Quality management 21) A physician joins a group practice and is applying at the local hospital for admission privileges, also known as credentialing. Which of the following is the final step in verifying the physician's credentials? A) The National Practitioner Data Bank checks sanctions and malpractice history. B) A peer review committee completes the process. C) Listed sources are checked. D) Provider presents copies of requested credentials. E) Findings are presented to a peer review committee. 22) The employer physician puts a plan in place to ensure that all government regulations are enforced in the practice. This is referred to as a ________ plan. A) Credentialing B) Quality improvement C) Quality management D) Quality assurance E) Compliance

23) Which of the following is an example of a physician using risk management to reduce the likelihood of a malpractice lawsuit against his office? A) Removing standard office procedures manuals from the employees' desks. B) Providing time off for employees. C) Providing free lunches for employees. D) Reducing the incidence of telephone conversations. E) Providing written job descriptions for employees. 24) Risk management is a process to A) minimize danger, hazard, and liability. B) assess liability insurance. C) manage difficult patients. D) manage billing and coding to ensure the best reimbursement. E) assess insurance plans. 25) Methods used to manage risk are considered a part of which of the following? A) assumption of risk B) telemedicine C) quality assurance D) comparative negligence E) occurrence assessment 26) Medical malpractice insurance that covers the insured only for those claims made while the policy is in force is called A) prior acts coverage. B) self-insured coverage. C) claims-made coverage. D) occurrence coverage. E) liability coverage. 27) Medical malpractice insurance that covers the insured only for any claims arising from an incident that occurred, or is alleged to have occurred, during the time the policy was in force, regardless of when the claim is made is called A) prior acts coverage. B) self-insured coverage. C) claims-made coverage. D) occurrence coverage. E) liability coverage. 28) Which of the following insurance policies cover incidents that occurred before the beginning of the new insurance relationship but that have not yet been brought to the insured's attention as a claim? A) Prior acts coverage B) Self-insured coverage C) Claims-made coverage D) Occurrence coverage E) Liability coverage 5 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

29) A physician who owns a medical practice decides his malpractice insurance is too expensive and drops the policy. Which of the following aspects of this physician's practice will impact the physician the most? A) Attracting new patients. B) Attracting competent staff. C) Receiving payment from insurance companies for services provided for patients. D) Maintaining membership in physician organizations. E) Having hospital privileges. 30) The cost of malpractice liability insurance is based upon which of the following? A) Physician specialty and dollar amount covered by the policy. B) Physician credentials and ability to pay the policy. C) Number of employees and number of incidences that will be covered. D) Government agencies regulating the purchase of liability insurance by all physicians. E) The age of the physician and where the practice is located. 31) When a physician has malpractice insurance, who should they contact first when faced with a malpractice lawsuit? A) The patient B) The office manager C) The insurance company D) The lawyers E) The patient's lawyer 32) What are the two limitations to a physician choosing to be covered by a self-insurance malpractice plan? A) State law limitation and type of medical practice. B) Hospitals not allowing privileges to physician with this type of insurance policy plan and the AMA. C) Raising cost of insurance premiums and state law limitations. D) State law limitation and hospital not allowing privileges to physician with this type of insurance policy. E) The AMA and the rising cost of malpractice insurance premiums. 33) What are the two factors that would influence the cost of premiums for a malpractice insurance policy? A) Size of the practice and the number of staff members. B) The requirements of the staff to be registered or certified and the type of practice. C) The length of time the physician has been a specialist and the dollar amount covered. D) Whether the physician has hospital admitting privileges and the type of practice. E) The dollar amount covered by the insurance policy and the physician's specialty. 34) Explain several steps office staff could take to document missed appointments in an attempt to reduce the possibility of a malpractice lawsuit.

35) A physician decides to retire and move to another state. The physician is going to cancel their claims-made policy. What type of policy may the physician choose to purchase to cover any future claims from when the physician carried the claims-made policy?

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 6 Defenses to Liability Suits 1) A health care practitioner who practices the "four Cs of medical malpractice prevention" finds two important benefits related to one of the "Cs"—that is, improvement in patients' medical conditions and the decreased likelihood that they will sue. Which "C" is most likely to provide these benefits? A) Caring B) Communication C) Control D) Competence E) Charting Answer: A Explanation: There are two important benefits in showing patients a caring attitude. First is improvement in their medical condition. A secondary benefit is the decreased likelihood that patients will feel the need to sue if treatment has unsatisfactory results, or if adverse events occur. The practitioner should be sincere, because others often quickly sense insincerity. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Preventing Liability Suits Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.b. Define malpractice 2) A certified medical assistant is constantly updating her knowledge and skills by attending inservices and seminars. This person is practicing which of the "4 Cs of medical malpractice prevention"? A) Caring B) Competence C) Charting D) Communication E) Control Answer: B Explanation: In order to be competent, the health care professional should stay informed about general medical and scientific progress by reading professional journals, attending seminars and professional association meetings, and fulfilling continuing education requirements. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Preventing Liability Suits Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.5. Discuss licensure and certification as they apply to health care providers

3) For legal purposes, the healthcare professional should know that if it isn't in writing and explained completely and accurately, it wasn't done. To which of the following "4 Cs of medical malpractice prevention" does this statement refer? A) Caring B) Competence C) Control D) Communication E) Charting Answer: E Explanation: For legal purposes, if it isn't in writing and explained completely and accurately, it wasn't done. This is called charting and includes all types of records related to the patient's health. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Preventing Liability Suits Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.a. Follow documentation guidelines Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: record.P.3. Document patient care accurately in the medical record 4) Patients sue for a variety of reasons. Which of the following is not one of the top recurring reasons patients sue? A) Failure to diagnose B) Failure to treat C) Correction of a mistake D) Poor documentation E) Failure to follow safety procedures Answer: C Explanation: When a mistake is made, but corrected, patients are not as likely to sue. The failure to diagnose, failure to treat, poor documentation, and failure to follow safety procedures are some of the top reasons patients sue. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Preventing Liability Suits Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

5) Enterprise risk management A) is done on a department by department basis. B) focuses on clinical departments. C) is the responsibility of only a few individuals in the organization. D) looks at total value of organization. E) looks only at communication between the patient and the provider. Answer: D Explanation: Enterprise risk management (ERM) is a concept that has been used in business for many years. The concepts of enterprise risk management for use in health care are now being used in many organizations. Risk management has traditionally been overseen by a specific department within an organization. ERM in healthcare links risk management and quality improvement with an organization-wide framework, rather than a departmental focus. ERM looks at risk management and total value of the organization. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Risk Management Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.11. Describe the process in compliance reporting 6) Which of the following is a recommended communication technique to prevent medical malpractice lawsuits? A) Avoid statements that could be construed as an admission of fault. B) Do not advise patients over the phone. C) Do not insist on a professional consult if the patient is not doing well. D) Do not allow patients to participate in decision-making. E) Stand while talking to the patient. Answer: A Explanation: Health care professionals should avoid statements that could be construed as an admission of fault on the physician's part. All healthcare professionals should allow time for telephone consultations, allow patients to participate in the decision-making process, and insist on a professional consult if the patient is not doing well, and should sit while talking with a patient. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Preventing Liability Suits Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.b. Define malpractice

7) What would be the best advice for a nurse caring for patients who have complained about their treating physician? A) Verbally agree with them. B) Steer the conversation to something else. C) Listen carefully and see that the comments reach the physician. D) Tell the patient they are wrong. E) Ignore the patients' comments. Answer: C Explanation: While listening carefully to a patient, a provider should not verbally agree with them, ignore them, or steer the conversation to something else. They should listen carefully to complaints and see that the comments reach the appropriate person. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Preventing Liability Suits Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 8) Which doctrine says a lawsuit cannot move forward if a certain period of time has elapsed? A) Res judicata B) Release of tortfeasor C) Good Samaritan statutes D) Statute of limitations E) Res ipsa loquitur Answer: D Explanation: The statute of limitations sets the time period in which a party may be sued for negligence. The Good Samaritan statute protects individuals who act in an emergency. Release of tortfeasor is a technical defense in an already filed lawsuit. Res judicata means the claim cannot be retried, and res ipsa loquitur is the doctrine of common knowledge. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Types of Defenses Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.c. Define statute of limitations

9) A patient sues a physician for negligence and loses. The patient then sues the physician for breach of contract. The second suit is dismissed under what doctrine? A) Res ipsa loquitur B) Release of tortfeasor C) Good Samaritan statutes D) Statute of limitations E) Res judicata Answer: E Explanation: Res judicata means the claim cannot be retried. The statute of limitations sets the time period in which a party may be sued for negligence. The Good Samaritan statute protects individuals who act in an emergency. Release of tortfeasor is a technical defense in an already filed lawsuit. Res ipsa loquitur is the doctrine of common knowledge. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Types of Defenses Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 10) Release of tortfeasor is a(n) A) affirmative defense. B) technical defense. C) denial defense. D) contributory negligence defense. E) comparative negligence defense. Answer: B Explanation: Release of tortfeasor is a technical defense in an already-filed lawsuit. An affirmative defense is one in which factual evidence is produced by the defendant that the patient's condition was caused by some factor other than the defendant's negligence. Denial, contributory negligence, and comparative negligence are all forms of an affirmative defense. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Types of Defenses Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

11) When the defense claims that the patient's actions caused or contributed to the injury, this is called a(n) A) positive defense. B) technical defense. C) denial defense. D) contributory negligence defense. E) assumption of risk defense. Answer: D Explanation: Contributory negligence is when the defense claims that the patient contributed to the injuries. A technical defense is one in which the defendant claims on technical grounds, not factual evidence, that the suit may not move forward. In assumption of risk, the defendant is alleging that the patient knew of and accepted beforehand any risks involved. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Types of Defenses Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 12) Which of the following is not a form of an affirmative defense to a professional liability suit? A) Contributory negligence B) Denial C) Comparative negligence D) Emergency E) Assumption of risk Answer: B Explanation: Denial is an assertion of innocence. Contributory negligence is when the defense claims that the patient contributed to the injuries. In comparative negligence, it is alleged that the patient contributed to the injuries to a certain degree. In assumption of risk, the defendant is alleging that the patient knew of and accepted beforehand any risks involved. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Types of Defenses Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

13) One of the most common occurrences for marking the beginning of the statutory period for medical malpractice includes A) the day a lawsuit was filed. B) the time a patient recovers from injury. C) the day the alleged negligent act was committed. D) the day the patient dies. E) the day the patient is at full medical recovery. Answer: C Explanation: The statutory time period is usually marked by when the alleged negligent act was committed. In some cases, the alleged malpractice may not be discovered until years later, so this can sometimes create problems. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Types of Defenses Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 14) A physician assistant (PA) accused of medical malpractice claims that the charge does not meet all of the elements of the theory of recovery. Which of the following defenses is being used by the PA? A) Denial B) Assumption of risk C) Comparative negligence D) Technical negligence E) Contributory negligence Answer: A Explanation: Denial of wrongdoing, or the assertion of innocence, may be used as a defense in professional liability suits. In other words, the charge may be missing one of the four Ds of negligence. Contributory negligence is an affirmative defense that alleges that the plaintiff, through a lack of care, caused or contributed to his or her own injury. Comparative negligence is an affirmative defense claimed by the defendant, alleging that the plaintiff contributed to the injury by a certain degree. Assumption of risk is a defense based on the contention that the patient knew of the inherent risks before treatment was performed and agreed to those risks. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Types of Defenses Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

15) The health care practitioner who comes to the aid of an accident victim at the scene may not be held liable under which type of defense? A) Tortfeasor release B) Denial C) Emergency D) Contributory negligence E) Assumption of risk Answer: C Explanation: Under the emergency defense, if a true emergency existed and was not caused by the defendant, and if the appropriate standard of care was met, then the provider may claim emergency. Release of tortfeasor is a technical defense in an already-filed lawsuit. Denial is an assertion of innocence. Contributory negligence is when the defense claims that the patient contributed to the injuries. In assumption of risk, the defendant is alleging that the patient knew of and accepted beforehand any risks involved. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Types of Defenses Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 16) If the patient knew the ________ before treatment, the defendant may use contributory negligence as a defense in a lawsuit. A) cause and effect of care B) diagnosis C) prognosis D) inherent risk E) statute of limitations Answer: D Explanation: By providing informed consent for the patient, the inherent risks are presented to the patient before care is provided. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Types of Defenses Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

17) The statute of limitations is A) a federal law. B) the same law in every state. C) determined by when the negligence occurred. D) determined by the courts. E) different depending on the state. Answer: E Explanation: Statutes of limitation are determined by each state. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Types of Defenses Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.c. Define statute of limitations 18) Using the process of comparative negligence, a judge determines that the patient contributed 35% to the injury and the physician contributed 65%. Which of the following is the outcome of the case? A) No damages would be awarded. B) The patient would be given 35% of the damage award. C) The patient would be awarded full damages since the percentage is under 50%. D) The patient's damage award would be reduced by 35%. E) The patient's damage award would be 50% since the percentage is under 50%. Answer: D Explanation: In some states, damages are awarded according to the degree to which a plaintiff contributed to the injury. In this instance, the court decided that through the patient's own negligence, the patient contributed 35% to the problem, so the damages awarded would be reduced by 35%. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Types of Defenses Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

19) A medical malpractice lawsuit has been decided under the doctrine of res judicata. What does this Latin term mean? A) The tortfeasor has been released. B) The thing has been decided. C) The statute of limitations is up. D) The thing speaks for itself. E) The buyer should beware. Answer: B Explanation: Under the doctrine of res judicata, "The thing has been decided," a claim cannot be retried between the same parties if it has already been legally resolved. Res ipsa loquitur is Latin for "the thing speaks for itself." Statute of limitations and release of tortfeasor are separate defenses. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Types of Defenses Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 20) What instrument of risk management is particularly beneficial for following coding and billing regulations for Medicare, Medicaid, and other government plans? A) Credentialing B) Quality improvement C) Compliance plan D) Quality assurance E) Quality management Answer: C Explanation: A compliance plan is developed to help ensure that all governmental regulations are followed. Such a plan is especially beneficial for following coding and billing regulations for Medicare, Medicaid, and other government plans. These plans are one aspect of quality improvement/quality assurance or quality management. Credentialing is the process of verifying a health care provider's credentials. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Risk Management Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.11. Describe the process in compliance reporting

21) A physician joins a group practice and is applying at the local hospital for admission privileges, also known as credentialing. Which of the following is the final step in verifying the physician's credentials? A) The National Practitioner Data Bank checks sanctions and malpractice history. B) A peer review committee completes the process. C) Listed sources are checked. D) Provider presents copies of requested credentials. E) Findings are presented to a peer review committee. Answer: B Explanation: Credentialing usually consists of the following: (1) A provider fills out an application and attaches copies of his or her medical license, proof of malpractice insurance coverage, and other requested credentials; (2) The listed sources are asked to verify the information; (3) Medicare and Medicaid sanctions and malpractice history are checked via the National Practitioner Data Bank; (4) The findings are presented to a credentialing committee; and (5) A peer review process completes the credentialing procedure. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Risk Management Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 22) The employer physician puts a plan in place to ensure that all government regulations are enforced in the practice. This is referred to as a ________ plan. A) Credentialing B) Quality improvement C) Quality management D) Quality assurance E) Compliance Answer: E Explanation: A compliance plan is developed to help ensure that all governmental regulations are followed. Such a plan is especially beneficial for following coding and billing regulations for Medicare, Medicaid, and other government plans. These plans are one aspect of quality improvement, quality assurance, or quality management. Credentialing is the process of verifying a health care provider's credentials. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Risk Management Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.11. Describe the process in compliance reporting

23) Which of the following is an example of a physician using risk management to reduce the likelihood of a malpractice lawsuit against his office? A) Removing standard office procedures manuals from the employees' desks. B) Providing time off for employees. C) Providing free lunches for employees. D) Reducing the incidence of telephone conversations. E) Providing written job descriptions for employees. Answer: E Explanation: Risk management activities that may help avoid litigation include providing written job descriptions and procedure manuals to all employees. Free lunches and paid time off are human resource policies. Communicating with patients by telephone is also important in reducing risk. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Risk Management Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 24) Risk management is a process to A) minimize danger, hazard, and liability. B) assess liability insurance. C) manage difficult patients. D) manage billing and coding to ensure the best reimbursement. E) assess insurance plans. Answer: A Explanation: Risk management is an approach to minimize liability by assessing danger, hazards, and employee behavior. It includes things like assessing documentation, having policy and procedure manuals, and providing employees with job descriptions. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Risk Management Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

25) Methods used to manage risk are considered a part of which of the following? A) assumption of risk B) telemedicine C) quality assurance D) comparative negligence E) occurrence assessment Answer: C Explanation: Methods used to manage risk are part of quality assurance (QA) or quality improvement (QI). QA and/or QI are programs of practices performed by healthcare professionals to uphold the quality of care (QA/QI) programs, and will assess performance by auditing charts and observing behavior. Areas of weakness are identified and processes put in place to strengthen performance. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Risk Management Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 26) Medical malpractice insurance that covers the insured only for those claims made while the policy is in force is called A) prior acts coverage. B) self-insured coverage. C) claims-made coverage. D) occurrence coverage. E) liability coverage. Answer: C Explanation: Claims-made insurance covers the insured only for those claims made (not for any injury occurring) while the policy is in force. With this kind of insurance, the determining factor is when the claim is made, not when the injury occurs. Occurrence insurance (also known as claims-incurred insurance) covers the insured for any claims arising from an incident that occurred or is alleged to have occurred while the policy is in force, regardless of when the claim is made. Liability coverage is a general term regarding coverage for negligence. Self-insurance is when a provider uses a trust fund for coverage. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Professional Liability Insurance Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.8.b. Describe the following types of insurance: professional (malpractice)

27) Medical malpractice insurance that covers the insured only for any claims arising from an incident that occurred, or is alleged to have occurred, during the time the policy was in force, regardless of when the claim is made is called A) prior acts coverage. B) self-insured coverage. C) claims-made coverage. D) occurrence coverage. E) liability coverage. Answer: D Explanation: Occurrence insurance (also known as claims-incurred insurance) covers the insured for any claims arising from an incident that occurred or is alleged to have occurred while the policy is in force, regardless of when the claim is made. Claims-made insurance covers the insured only for those claims made (not for any injury occurring) while the policy is in force. Liability coverage is a general term regarding coverage for negligence. Self-insurance is when a provider uses a trust fund for coverage. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Professional Liability Insurance Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.8.b. Describe the following types of insurance: professional (malpractice) 28) Which of the following insurance policies cover incidents that occurred before the beginning of the new insurance relationship but that have not yet been brought to the insured's attention as a claim? A) Prior acts coverage B) Self-insured coverage C) Claims-made coverage D) Occurrence coverage E) Liability coverage Answer: A Explanation: Prior acts coverage, also known as "nose" coverage, covers incidents that occurred prior to the beginning of the new insurance relationship but that have not yet been brought to the insured's attention as a claim. Occurrence insurance covers the insured for any claims arising from an incident that occurred or is alleged to have occurred while the policy is in force, regardless of when the claim is made. Claims-made insurance covers the insured only for those claims made (not for any injury occurring) while the policy is in force. Liability coverage is a general term regarding coverage for negligence. Self-insurance is when a provider uses a trust fund for coverage. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Professional Liability Insurance Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.8.b. Describe the following types of insurance: professional (malpractice) 14 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

29) A physician who owns a medical practice decides his malpractice insurance is too expensive and drops the policy. Which of the following aspects of this physician's practice will impact the physician the most? A) Attracting new patients. B) Attracting competent staff. C) Receiving payment from insurance companies for services provided for patients. D) Maintaining membership in physician organizations. E) Having hospital privileges. Answer: E Explanation: Some physicians drop malpractice insurance coverage when rates become too high. However, this can adversely affect a physician's practice, since most hospitals require proof of coverage up to a predetermined minimum amount to grant hospital privileges. In addition, managed care organizations require physicians to provide proof of liability insurance coverage as a prerequisite for entering into a contractual agreement and as a component of their credentialing process. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Professional Liability Insurance Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.8.b. Describe the following types of insurance: professional (malpractice) 30) The cost of malpractice liability insurance is based upon which of the following? A) Physician specialty and dollar amount covered by the policy. B) Physician credentials and ability to pay the policy. C) Number of employees and number of incidences that will be covered. D) Government agencies regulating the purchase of liability insurance by all physicians. E) The age of the physician and where the practice is located. Answer: A Explanation: The cost of liability insurance premiums for a physician is based on the physician's specialty and the dollar amount covered by the policy. Insurance for those physicians in the least risky insurance risk class (e.g., family practitioners and specialists who do not perform surgery) is generally less costly than insurance for those in specialties considered riskier (e.g., orthopedic surgeons and obstetricians). Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Professional Liability Insurance Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.e. Perform risk management procedures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.8.b. Describe the following types of insurance: professional (malpractice)

31) When a physician has malpractice insurance, who should they contact first when faced with a malpractice lawsuit? A) The patient B) The office manager C) The insurance company D) The lawyers E) The patient's lawyer Answer: C Explanation: The physician should contact the malpractice insurance company. Sometimes the insurance company will provide their own lawyer to help with the defense of the case. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Professional Liability Insurance Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.8.b. Describe the following types of insurance: professional (malpractice) 32) What are the two limitations to a physician choosing to be covered by a self-insurance malpractice plan? A) State law limitation and type of medical practice. B) Hospitals not allowing privileges to physician with this type of insurance policy plan and the AMA. C) Raising cost of insurance premiums and state law limitations. D) State law limitation and hospital not allowing privileges to physician with this type of insurance policy. E) The AMA and the rising cost of malpractice insurance premiums. Answer: D Explanation: Some states have insurance laws and regulations that limit this type of insurance policy, thus physicians cannot utilize this type of coverage. Additionally, hospitals that extend admitting privileges may not accept physicians with this type of plan because they pose a higher insurance risk. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Professional Liability Insurance Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.8.b. Describe the following types of insurance: professional (malpractice)

33) What are the two factors that would influence the cost of premiums for a malpractice insurance policy? A) Size of the practice and the number of staff members. B) The requirements of the staff to be registered or certified and the type of practice. C) The length of time the physician has been a specialist and the dollar amount covered. D) Whether the physician has hospital admitting privileges and the type of practice. E) The dollar amount covered by the insurance policy and the physician's specialty. Answer: E Explanation: The type of specialty and the dollar amount of coverage are two factors that will increase the cost of premiums for malpractice insurance. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Professional Liability Insurance Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.8.b. Describe the following types of insurance: professional (malpractice) 34) Explain several steps office staff could take to document missed appointments in an attempt to reduce the possibility of a malpractice lawsuit. Answer: An office should designate one individual to gather all missed appointment records and documents so that notes can be made concerning missed appointments. The physician should review the record to determine if a follow-up visit is required. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Types of Defenses Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.a. Follow documentation guidelines Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VI.P.1. Manage appointment schedule, using established procedures 35) A physician decides to retire and move to another state. The physician is going to cancel their claims-made policy. What type of policy may the physician choose to purchase to cover any future claims from when the physician carried the claims-made policy? Answer: The physician may decide to carry tail coverage to cover any claims covering the time the physician carried the claims-made policy. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Professional Liability Insurance Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.8.b. Describe the following types of insurance: professional (malpractice)

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 7 Medical Records and Informed Consent 1) Medical records are A) legal documents. B) not legal documents if kept electronically. C) always the property of the patient. D) never the property of the patient. E) legal documents only when a subpoena has been issued. 2) To correct an error discovered after the patient's written copy of his or her medical records has been recorded, a medical assistant should A) erase the mistake and type in the correction. B) get written consent from the patient to correct the error. C) draw a line through the mistake, make and label it as a correction, initial and date it. D) draw a line through the error and enter the new information. E) destroy the entry and start over. 3) An addendum to an electronic health record (EHR) is a A) note made after the patient's visit which is entered into the EHR. B) surgical report added to the EHR. C) part of the financial information for payment of services. D) lab report added to the EHR. E) significant change or addition to the EHR. 4) Which of the following observations should not be included in a patient's medical record? A) Notes regarding reaction to anesthesia. B) Change of marital status. C) Change in weight. D) Notes regarding patient's participation in a rally. E) Notes regarding patient's reaction to a new prescription. 5) A plastic surgeon routinely photographs patients to document care. Which of the following accurately describes information that should be included on the consent form for this type of photography? A) The patient understands that ownership rights to the photos belong to the patient. B) The patient understands that the photos will be kept for an undetermined time period. C) The patient understands that he or she cannot view the photographs. D) The patient understands that authorization must be given to release photos outside the facility. E) The patient understands that he or she will be paid for use of the photos in marketing for the practice.

6) The five Cs are used to describe the attributes of entries into patients' medical records. Which of the following is not one of the five Cs? A) Clean B) Complete C) Clear D) Correct E) Chronologically ordered 7) Allison is required to have a physical before starting her job as a nurse. Her employer pays for the physical. The employer should A) keep the physical exam records in Allison's personnel records. B) keep the physical exam records in a separate file from general personnel records. C) review the physical exam records and destroy them. D) review the physical exam records and return them to the provider. E) review the physical exam records and return them to Allison. 8) A hospital maintains medical records on all patients treated in the hospital. Who owns the information in the hospital records? A) The treating physician B) The patient C) The hospital D) The insurance company paying the bills E) The surgeon 9) A physician has a private practice employing a physician assistant, a nurse, and a medical assistant. The physician also has hospital privileges at a nearby facility. Who owns the medical records generated by him and the staff at the practice? A) The public health department. B) The physician assistant if he or she treated the patient. C) The hospital. D) The insurance company paying the bills. E) The physician. 10) The doctrine of professional discretion pertains to medical record keeping. Which of the following describes this doctrine in more detail? A) Patients should be able to obtain access to or copies of their medical records. B) It is up to the discretion of the physician whether or not to allow all patients access to their medical records. C) It is up to the discretion of the patient whether or not he or she may see the records. D) It is up to the insurance company's discretion as to whether or not a patient may see his or her records. E) It is up to the discretion of the facility whether or not to allow patients access to their medical records.

11) The law that mandated electronic health records and provides the rules for patient access to their records is A) OSHA. B) JCAHO. C) FDA. D) DOJ. E) HIPAA. 12) Medical records should be kept until the applicable statute of limitations period has elapsed. What is the usual time frame for this period? A) 1-3 years B) 1-5 years C) 2-10 years D) 2-7 years E) 3-20 years 13) A medical clinic does preemployment physicals for a local employer. The employer pays for the physical exams. Who is the owner of the medical record in this case? A) The employer. B) The patient. C) The medical clinic. D) The physician who did the physical. E) The government. 14) A patient brings a medical malpractice suit against a hospital. The hospital claims that they have lost the records. What is the likely decision on the part of the court? A) The case will be dismissed because there is no evidence. B) It is up to the discretion of the physician whether or not to allow all patients access to their medical records. C) A default judgment will be issued in favor of the plaintiff. D) A default judgment will be issued in favor of the defendant. E) The case will go to trial and testimony will be taken. 15) Which of the following describes the proper protocol for the release of medical records? A) Medical records may be released to third-party payers without patient consent. B) When medical records are subpoenaed, the patient should be notified in writing. C) Signed consent for medical records is not required for use in a lawsuit. D) When medical records are released, the entire medical record should be released. E) Only one year of a medical record should be released. 16) A medical malpractice case has gone to trial. Which of the following types of testimony will prevail? A) The written documentation in the medical record. B) A physician assistant's oral recollection of events. C) A physician's testimony. D) The patient's recollection of events. E) The patient's family members' recollection of events. 3 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

17) In which of the following examples would patient authorization for release of his or her medical record be waived? A) For an insurance claim. B) For medical injuries sustained in an auto accident. C) When a subpoena duces tecum is issued. D) When a patient dies. E) When transferring to another physician. 18) Which of the following is not true about authorizations for release of records? A) All patient authorizations should be witnessed by a notary public. B) Patient authorizations should be witnessed. C) Authorizations should be in writing. D) Authorizations should be dated. E) Authorizations should identify what information should be released. 19) A subpoena duces tecum is issued for medical records of a patient who is suing the physician for malpractice. Which of the following is a guideline for sending this information? A) Verify that the patient named was not a patient of the physician. B) Notify the insurance company. C) Review the record closely for any incriminating information and delete incriminating information. D) Finish updating the record. E) Offer sworn testimony regarding the record if instructed to do so by the court. 20) Which of the following information is the federal statute known as the Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse Patient Records designed to protect? A) Victims of crimes committed by drug addicts. B) Patient convictions. C) Patient behavior. D) Patient treatment. E) Physician liability. 21) The doctrine of informed consent is the legal basis for advising patients regarding certain aspects of care. Under which of the following is this doctrine usually outlined? A) Local government regulations B) Hospital policy C) State medical practice acts D) Federal medical practice acts E) The American Medical Association 22) For which of the following examples would implied consent not be legally appropriate? A) A physician treating a patient for lung cancer. B) A patient providing a urine specimen to check for a UTI. C) A nurse taking a blood pressure in the exam room. D) A patient agrees to a test for HIV. E) A patient agrees to a chest x-ray. 4 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

23) Which of the following is an example of a patient who usually cannot give informed consent? A) An emancipated minor. B) A married minor. C) A mature minor. D) An elderly patient. E) An adult who is mentally incompetent. 24) Which of the following aspects of patient care is the most vital factor in the issue of informed consent? A) Patient care B) Patient education C) Patient compliance D) Patient maturity E) Patient's age 25) Which of the following information is not usually included in the process of the doctrine of informed consent? A) Reputation of the physician performing the procedure. B) Risks involved in the procedure. C) Proposed modes of treatment. D) Available alternative modes of treatment. E) Why the treatment is necessary. 26) A nurse stops by the scene of an auto accident. She helps a conscious patient to remain calm and provides basic first aid to the patient. The patient later sues the nurse for malpractice. What state law will probably be used in the nurse's defense? A) Informed consent rules B) Nursing practice act C) Emergency rules of the road D) Good Samaritan Act E) Medical practice act 27) Which of the following cases, decided at the Supreme Court level, legalized abortion? A) Jones v. Wade B) Roe v. Wade C) Wade v. Rose D) Wade v. Davis E) Roe v. Davis

28) A physician stops to aid the driver of a truck that overturned on the side of the road. Which of the following actions may negate the immunity that would otherwise be provided by the Good Samaritan Act? A) Providing care in good faith. B) Using due care under the circumstances. C) Billing for services delivered at the site of the accident. D) Acting within the scope of training. E) Consulting with the EMTs on site. 29) The person in charge of medical records for a physician's office is preparing to release medical records requested by an insurance company. Which of the following is a recommended guideline for this procedure? A) Release the entire record, not just the information requested. B) Include the patient's name, address, and date of birth on the authorization. C) Warn the patient that once authorization is given, it cannot be rescinded. D) Receive a verbal authorization from the patient prior to release of the record. E) Receive specific approval from the patient, even with a general authorization on file. 30) A remote consultation with physicians or other health care professionals is called A) social media. B) patient monitoring. C) open access. D) telemedicine. E) closed-circuit television. 31) A patient portal is A) online access to a variety of healthcare services and communications with providers. B) an educational program for patients. C) an educational program for providers. D) a medical device to provide nutrients to patients. E) an educational program for family members of dying patients. 32) Facebook, Twitter, and blogs are examples of A) wikis. B) discussion sites. C) social media. D) telemedicine. E) closed-circuit television. 33) Which of the following is not a best practice guideline for maintaining confidentiality? A) Discard faxed copies in the recycle bin. B) Verify fax telephone numbers before sending. C) Use a fax cover sheet that states "Confidential: to addressee only." D) Do not leave a computer monitor unattended while confidential information is displayed. E) Print confidential information to specific printers that are not in general use.

34) Which of the following is not a purpose of social media? A) Emotional support for patients with similar illnesses. B) Clinical research insights. C) Awareness of causes or personal health crises. D) Capture patient satisfaction and feedback. E) All of these are purposes of social media. 35) Describe the process to correct an error in a written medical record. 36) List the five C's that describe the attributes of a good entry into the medical record. 37) Describe the process a provider should take to ensure confidentiality before photographing a patient. 38) What is an addendum to an electronic health record? 39) Identify five purposes for the medical record. 40) Discuss the statute of limitations as it relates to the retention of medical records. 41) A physician is employed by a group practice. The physician decides to leave the practice and open his own private practice. May he have the records of the patients he is currently seeing? Why or why not? 42) Describe the doctrine of professional discretion as used by physicians and other health care providers. 43) What are the elements of the doctrine of informed consent? 44) What is the purpose of the federal statute entitled Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse Patient Records? 45) Identify those individuals who may not give informed consent. 46) Describe the purpose of a Good Samaritan Act. 47) Describe the circumstances where the Good Samaritan principles are used as a defense in a medical negligence lawsuit. 48) Define meaningful use. 49) Identify at least four guidelines that should be in place to ensure that confidentiality is not breached when employees use photocopiers and printers. 50) Define health information technology.

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 7 Medical Records and Informed Consent 1) Medical records are A) legal documents. B) not legal documents if kept electronically. C) always the property of the patient. D) never the property of the patient. E) legal documents only when a subpoena has been issued. Answer: A Explanation: A medical record is a legal document, whether on paper or electronic format. Although the patient has a right to a copy of the record, the record is the property of the provider(s). Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Medical Records Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.a. Follow documentation guidelines Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: IX.P.7. X.P.3. Document patient care accurately in medical record 2) To correct an error discovered after the patient's written copy of his or her medical records has been recorded, a medical assistant should A) erase the mistake and type in the correction. B) get written consent from the patient to correct the error. C) draw a line through the mistake, make and label it as a correction, initial and date it. D) draw a line through the error and enter the new information. E) destroy the entry and start over. Answer: C Explanation: Standard practice in written medical records requires that the error be acknowledged and corrected. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Medical Records Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.a. Follow documentation guidelines Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.3. Document patient care accurately in the medical record

3) An addendum to an electronic health record (EHR) is a A) note made after the patient's visit which is entered into the EHR. B) surgical report added to the EHR. C) part of the financial information for payment of services. D) lab report added to the EHR. E) significant change or addition to the EHR. Answer: E Explanation: An addendum to the EHR is a significant change or addition to the record. Although it could be something simple like a date change, it is more often completion of information. It must be signed and dated by the provider. While notes added after a visit, a surgical procedure, or lab report may be considered addendums, they are not limited to just those items. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Medical Records Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.a. Follow documentation guidelines Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.3. Document patient care accurately in the medical record 4) Which of the following observations should not be included in a patient's medical record? A) Notes regarding reaction to anesthesia. B) Change of marital status. C) Change in weight. D) Notes regarding patient's participation in a rally. E) Notes regarding patient's reaction to a new prescription. Answer: D Explanation: All notes in the medical record should be pertinent to the patient's care. His or her participation in a rally is not related to care. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Medical Records Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.a. Follow documentation guidelines Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.3. Document patient care accurately in the medical record

5) A plastic surgeon routinely photographs patients to document care. Which of the following accurately describes information that should be included on the consent form for this type of photography? A) The patient understands that ownership rights to the photos belong to the patient. B) The patient understands that the photos will be kept for an undetermined time period. C) The patient understands that he or she cannot view the photographs. D) The patient understands that authorization must be given to release photos outside the facility. E) The patient understands that he or she will be paid for use of the photos in marketing for the practice. Answer: D Explanation: If a health care facility routinely photographs patients to document care, a special consent form should be signed stating that (1) the patient understands that photographs, videotapes, and digital or other images may be taken to document care, (2) the patient understands that ownership rights to the images will be retained by the health care facility, but that he or she will be allowed to view them or to obtain copies, (3) the images will be securely stored and kept for the time period prescribed by law or outlined in the health care facility's policy, and (4) images of the patient will not be released and/or used outside the healthcare facility without written authorization from the patient or his or her legal representative. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Medical Records Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.a. Follow documentation guidelines Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2.b. Apply HIPAA rules in regard to release of information 6) The five Cs are used to describe the attributes of entries into patients' medical records. Which of the following is not one of the five Cs? A) Clean B) Complete C) Clear D) Correct E) Chronologically ordered Answer: A Explanation: The five Cs of charting are (1) concise, (2) complete (and objective), (3) clear (and legibly written), (4) correct, and (5) chronologically ordered. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Medical Records Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.a. Follow documentation guidelines Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.3. Document patient care accurately in the medical record

7) Allison is required to have a physical before starting her job as a nurse. Her employer pays for the physical. The employer should A) keep the physical exam records in Allison's personnel records. B) keep the physical exam records in a separate file from general personnel records. C) review the physical exam records and destroy them. D) review the physical exam records and return them to the provider. E) review the physical exam records and return them to Allison. Answer: B Explanation: An employer should never keep employees' medical records in the general personnel records. This avoids a potential HIPAA violation. The record technically belongs to the physician, but the record sent would not be an original, as the physician must keep the record. If Allison would like a copy, she should contact the physician. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Medical Records, Ownership, Retention, Storage, and Destruction Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2.b. Apply HIPAA rules in regard to release of information 8) A hospital maintains medical records on all patients treated in the hospital. Who owns the information in the hospital records? A) The treating physician B) The patient C) The hospital D) The insurance company paying the bills E) The surgeon Answer: B Explanation: The facility where the medical records were created own the documents, but the patient owns the information they contain. On signing a release, patients may usually obtain access to or copies of their medical record. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Medical Records, Ownership, Retention, Storage, and Destruction Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.A.2. Protect the integrity of the medical record

9) A physician has a private practice employing a physician assistant, a nurse, and a medical assistant. The physician also has hospital privileges at a nearby facility. Who owns the medical records generated by him and the staff at the practice? A) The public health department. B) The physician assistant if he or she treated the patient. C) The hospital. D) The insurance company paying the bills. E) The physician. Answer: E Explanation: Patients' medical records are considered the property of the owners of the facility where they were created. For example, a physician in private practice owns his or her records; records in a clinic are the property of the clinic. Hospital records are the property of the admitting hospital. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Medical Records, Ownership, Retention, Storage, and Destruction Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.A.2. Protect the integrity of the medical record 10) The doctrine of professional discretion pertains to medical record keeping. Which of the following describes this doctrine in more detail? A) Patients should be able to obtain access to or copies of their medical records. B) It is up to the discretion of the physician whether or not to allow all patients access to their medical records. C) It is up to the discretion of the patient whether or not he or she may see the records. D) It is up to the insurance company's discretion as to whether or not a patient may see his or her records. E) It is up to the discretion of the facility whether or not to allow patients access to their medical records. Answer: B Explanation: On signing a release, patients may usually obtain access to or copies of their medical records. However, under the doctrine of professional discretion, courts have held that in some cases, patients treated for mental or emotional conditions may be harmed by seeing their own records. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Medical Records, Ownership, Retention, Storage, and Destruction Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.A.2. Protect the integrity of the medical record

11) The law that mandated electronic health records and provides the rules for patient access to their records is A) OSHA. B) JCAHO. C) FDA. D) DOJ. E) HIPAA. Answer: E Explanation: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is a federal law providing privacy and other healthcare rights of patients, including seeing or copying their medical record. The FDA (Federal Drug Administration) works to ensure safe medications. The Joint Commission (JCAHO) is involved in licensing and credentialing of health care facilities. OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) deals with safety in the workplace. The Department of Justice (DOJ) enforces federal law. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Medical Records, Ownership, Retention, Storage, and Destruction Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.b. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.3. Describe components of HIPAA 12) Medical records should be kept until the applicable statute of limitations period has elapsed. What is the usual time frame for this period? A) 1-3 years B) 1-5 years C) 2-10 years D) 2-7 years E) 3-20 years Answer: D Explanation: As a protection in the event of litigation, records should be kept until the applicable statute of limitations period has elapsed, which generally ranges from two to seven years. In some cases, this involves keeping the medical records of minor patients for a specified length of time after they reach legal age. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Medical Records, Ownership, Retention, Storage, and Destruction Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.A.2. Protect the integrity of the medical record

13) A medical clinic does preemployment physicals for a local employer. The employer pays for the physical exams. Who is the owner of the medical record in this case? A) The employer. B) The patient. C) The medical clinic. D) The physician who did the physical. E) The government. Answer: C Explanation: When a medical clinic provides services, the clinic is the owner of the record even though the employer paid for the services. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Medical Records, Ownership, Retention, Storage, and Destruction Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: IX.P.8. X.A.2. Protect the integrity of the medical record 14) A patient brings a medical malpractice suit against a hospital. The hospital claims that they have lost the records. What is the likely decision on the part of the court? A) The case will be dismissed because there is no evidence. B) It is up to the discretion of the physician whether or not to allow all patients access to their medical records. C) A default judgment will be issued in favor of the plaintiff. D) A default judgment will be issued in favor of the defendant. E) The case will go to trial and testimony will be taken. Answer: C Explanation: The hospital's loss of medical records is an egregious error, and the likelihood is that a default judgment in favor of the plaintiff will be issued. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Medical Records, Ownership, Retention, Storage, and Destruction Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

15) Which of the following describes the proper protocol for the release of medical records? A) Medical records may be released to third-party payers without patient consent. B) When medical records are subpoenaed, the patient should be notified in writing. C) Signed consent for medical records is not required for use in a lawsuit. D) When medical records are released, the entire medical record should be released. E) Only one year of a medical record should be released. Answer: B Explanation: Medical records should not be released to a third party without written permission, signed by the patient or the patient's legal representative. Only the information requested should be released. When medical records are requested for use in a lawsuit, a signed consent for the release of the records must be obtained from the patient, unless a court subpoenas the records. In this case, the patient should be notified in writing that the records have been subpoenaed and released. All records, appropriately requested, should be released regardless of the time frame. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Confidentiality Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2.a. Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy 16) A medical malpractice case has gone to trial. Which of the following types of testimony will prevail? A) The written documentation in the medical record. B) A physician assistant's oral recollection of events. C) A physician's testimony. D) The patient's recollection of events. E) The patient's family members' recollection of events. Answer: A Explanation: The written medical record is the evidence that must be used to determine a case. Because everyone remembers a situation differently, verbal testimony is rarely prevailing. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Confidentiality Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

17) In which of the following examples would patient authorization for release of his or her medical record be waived? A) For an insurance claim. B) For medical injuries sustained in an auto accident. C) When a subpoena duces tecum is issued. D) When a patient dies. E) When transferring to another physician. Answer: C Explanation: When a subpoena duces tecum is issued, the patient's consent is not necessary. Patients must authorize release of medical records for other purposes. In the event, a patient has died, the executor of the estate may authorize release, but it is best to consult with an attorney in those cases. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Confidentiality Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2.a. Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy 18) Which of the following is not true about authorizations for release of records? A) All patient authorizations should be witnessed by a notary public. B) Patient authorizations should be witnessed. C) Authorizations should be in writing. D) Authorizations should be dated. E) Authorizations should identify what information should be released. Answer: A Explanation: Patient authorizations do not need to be witnessed by a notary public. Patient authorizations are normally in writing, have a witness, are dated, and identify what information should be released. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Confidentiality and Informed Consent Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2.a. Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy

19) A subpoena duces tecum is issued for medical records of a patient who is suing the physician for malpractice. Which of the following is a guideline for sending this information? A) Verify that the patient named was not a patient of the physician. B) Notify the insurance company. C) Review the record closely for any incriminating information and delete incriminating information. D) Finish updating the record. E) Offer sworn testimony regarding the record if instructed to do so by the court. Answer: E Explanation: The person in charge of records should offer sworn testimony regarding the record, if so instructed by the court; verify that the patient named was a patient of the physician named; notify the physician that a subpoena was received, and then notify the physician's insurance company or attorney, if so directed; and check all subpoenaed records to be sure they are complete, but never alter them in any way. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Confidentiality and Informed Consent Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: Define the following medical legal term: subpoena duces tecum 20) Which of the following information is the federal statute known as the Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse Patient Records designed to protect? A) Victims of crimes committed by drug addicts. B) Patient convictions. C) Patient behavior. D) Patient treatment. E) Physician liability. Answer: D Explanation: The federal statute known as Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse Patient Records protects patients with histories of substance abuse regarding the release of information about treatment. Under no circumstances should information of this type be released without specific, written permission from the patient to do so. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Confidentiality and Informed Consent Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2.a. Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy

21) The doctrine of informed consent is the legal basis for advising patients regarding certain aspects of care. Under which of the following is this doctrine usually outlined? A) Local government regulations B) Hospital policy C) State medical practice acts D) Federal medical practice acts E) The American Medical Association Answer: C Explanation: Informed consent involves the patient's right to receive all information relative to his or her condition and then to make a decision regarding treatment based on that knowledge. The legal basis for informed consent is usually outlined in a state's medical practice acts. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Informed Consent Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.c. Follow established policy when initiating or terminating treatment Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.a. Define the following medical legal term: informed consent 22) For which of the following examples would implied consent not be legally appropriate? A) A physician treating a patient for lung cancer. B) A patient providing a urine specimen to check for a UTI. C) A nurse taking a blood pressure in the exam room. D) A patient agrees to a test for HIV. E) A patient agrees to a chest x-ray. Answer: D Explanation: By giving consent, the patient gives permission, either expressed (orally or in writing) or implied, for the physician to examine him or her, to perform tests that aid in diagnosis, and/or to treat for a medical condition. When the patient makes an appointment for an examination, that patient has given implied consent for the physician to perform the exam. Likewise, when he or she cooperates with various diagnostic testing procedures, implied consent for the tests has been given. However, testing for HIV must have written consent from the patient. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Informed Consent Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.a. Define the following medical legal term: informed consent

23) Which of the following is an example of a patient who usually cannot give informed consent? A) An emancipated minor. B) A married minor. C) A mature minor. D) An elderly patient. E) An adult who is mentally incompetent. Answer: E Explanation: Individuals judged by the court to be insane, senile, mentally challenged, or under the influence of drugs or alcohol cannot give informed consent. In these cases, a competent person may be designated by the court to act as the patient's agent. Minors cannot generally give informed consent unless they are emancipated, married, or mature. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Informed Consent Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.c. Follow established policy when initiating or terminating treatment Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.a. Define the following medical legal term: informed consent 24) Which of the following aspects of patient care is the most vital factor in the issue of informed consent? A) Patient care B) Patient education C) Patient compliance D) Patient maturity E) Patient's age Answer: B Explanation: Patient education is vital to the issue of informed consent. Patients who sue have successfully claimed lack of informed consent because they did not read the consent form they signed or did not read brochures handed to them. Health care personnel should be sure that patients understand all forms and all treatments/surgeries to be performed before signing. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Informed Consent Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.c. Follow established policy when initiating or terminating treatment Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.a. Define the following medical legal term: informed consent

25) Which of the following information is not usually included in the process of the doctrine of informed consent? A) Reputation of the physician performing the procedure. B) Risks involved in the procedure. C) Proposed modes of treatment. D) Available alternative modes of treatment. E) Why the treatment is necessary. Answer: A Explanation: Informed consent implies that the patient understands the following: proposed modes of treatment, why the treatment is necessary, risks involved in the proposed treatment, available alternative modes of treatment, risks of alternative modes of treatment, and risks involved. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Informed Consent Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.c. Follow established policy when initiating or terminating treatment Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.a. Define the following medical legal term: informed consent 26) A nurse stops by the scene of an auto accident. She helps a conscious patient to remain calm and provides basic first aid to the patient. The patient later sues the nurse for malpractice. What state law will probably be used in the nurse's defense? A) Informed consent rules B) Nursing practice act C) Emergency rules of the road D) Good Samaritan Act E) Medical practice act Answer: D Explanation: All 50 states have passed Good Samaritan Acts, intended to protect providers from charges of negligence or abandonment if they stop to help the victim of an accident or other emergency. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Informed Consent Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.d. Define Good Samaritan Act(s)

27) Which of the following cases, decided at the Supreme Court level, legalized abortion? A) Jones v. Wade B) Roe v. Wade C) Wade v. Rose D) Wade v. Davis E) Roe v. Davis Answer: B Explanation: The Court ruled in Roe v. Wade in 1973 that a woman has a constitutional right to privacy in the decision to terminate a pregnancy during the first trimester (three months), but that states could impose restrictions and regulate abortion after the first trimester. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Informed Consent Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 28) A physician stops to aid the driver of a truck that overturned on the side of the road. Which of the following actions may negate the immunity that would otherwise be provided by the Good Samaritan Act? A) Providing care in good faith. B) Using due care under the circumstances. C) Billing for services delivered at the site of the accident. D) Acting within the scope of training. E) Consulting with the EMTs on site. Answer: C Explanation: If a physician treats a patient as a "Good Samaritan" and later bills the patient for services, he or she may be held as having established a physician-patient relationship and may not have the immunity from civil damages that a Good Samaritan law would otherwise provide. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Confidentiality and Informed Consent Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.d. Define Good Samaritan Act(s)

29) The person in charge of medical records for a physician's office is preparing to release medical records requested by an insurance company. Which of the following is a recommended guideline for this procedure? A) Release the entire record, not just the information requested. B) Include the patient's name, address, and date of birth on the authorization. C) Warn the patient that once authorization is given, it cannot be rescinded. D) Receive a verbal authorization from the patient prior to release of the record. E) Receive specific approval from the patient, even with a general authorization on file. Answer: B Explanation: Guidelines for authorization for releasing patient information include (1) authorizations should be in writing; (2) authorizations should include the patient's name, address, and date of birth; (3) the patient should sign a general authorization, unless he or she is not a legal, competent adult. In that case, parents or guardians should sign authorizations. (4) Only the information specifically requested should be released, and (5) the patient has the right to rescind a consent to release information, in which case information should not be released. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Confidentiality Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.A.2. Protect the integrity of the medical record 30) A remote consultation with physicians or other health care professionals is called A) social media. B) patient monitoring. C) open access. D) telemedicine. E) closed-circuit television. Answer: D Explanation: Telemedicine refers to remote consultations with physicians or other health care professionals. Social media began as social networking, but is also now being used with health care. Patient monitoring may be done by closed-circuit television as a form of telemedicine. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Health Information Technology Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

31) A patient portal is A) online access to a variety of healthcare services and communications with providers. B) an educational program for patients. C) an educational program for providers. D) a medical device to provide nutrients to patients. E) an educational program for family members of dying patients. Answer: A Explanation: A patient portal is a secure online Web site that gives patients 24-hour availability to health care providers. Educational programs are one feature of a patient portal, but there are many others. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Health Information Technology Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 32) Facebook, Twitter, and blogs are examples of A) wikis. B) discussion sites. C) social media. D) telemedicine. E) closed-circuit television. Answer: C Explanation: According to a 2012 report from the Health Research Institute, the various types of social media have become a part of our health care delivery system. Wikis and discussion sites are two other examples of social media. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Health Information Technology Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

33) Which of the following is not a best practice guideline for maintaining confidentiality? A) Discard faxed copies in the recycle bin. B) Verify fax telephone numbers before sending. C) Use a fax cover sheet that states "Confidential: to addressee only." D) Do not leave a computer monitor unattended while confidential information is displayed. E) Print confidential information to specific printers that are not in general use. Answer: A Explanation: The key to maintaining confidentiality is to remember that all medical records are considered confidential and precautions must be taken to keep unauthorized individuals from seeing them. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Health Information Technology Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: C.3. Describe components of HIPAA 34) Which of the following is not a purpose of social media? A) Emotional support for patients with similar illnesses. B) Clinical research insights. C) Awareness of causes or personal health crises. D) Capture patient satisfaction and feedback. E) All of these are purposes of social media. Answer: E Explanation: Social media provides information for Internet users in a variety of ways including emotional support for patients with similar illness, clinical research insights, awareness of causes, and capturing of patient satisfaction and feedback. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Health Information Technology Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

35) Describe the process to correct an error in a written medical record. Answer: Standard practice in written medical records requires the error to be acknowledged and corrected by drawing a line through the error, writing or typing in the correction, noting why the correction was made, entering the date and time, and initialing the correction. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Medical Records Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.3. Document patient care accurately in the medical record 36) List the five C's that describe the attributes of a good entry into the medical record. Answer: Entries in a patient record must be concise, complete and objective, clear and legibly written, correct, and chronologically ordered. They should never contain inappropriate judgments or observations or attempts at humor. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Medical Records Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.3. Document patient care accurately in the medical record 37) Describe the process a provider should take to ensure confidentiality before photographing a patient. Answer: Patients should sign a detailed release regarding the use of the photographs. Photographing or otherwise recording a patient's image without proper consent may be interpreted in a court of law as invasion of privacy. Invasion of privacy charges are most often upheld in court if the patient's image was used for commercial purposes, but such claims have also been upheld under public disclosure of embarrassing private facts. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Medical Records Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2.b. Apply HIPAA rules in regard to release of information

38) What is an addendum to an electronic health record? Answer: An addendum is a significant change or addition to an electronic health record. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Medical Records Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.3. Document patient care accurately in the medical record 39) Identify five purposes for the medical record. Answer: (1) Required by licensing authorities and provides a format for tracking, documenting, and maintaining a patient's communication; (2) documentation of continuing health care; (3) provides a foundation for managing a patient's health care; (4) serves as a legal document in lawsuits, and (5) provides clinical data for education, research, statistical tracking, and assessing the quality of health care. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Medical Records Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.3. Document patient care accurately in the medical record 40) Discuss the statute of limitations as it relates to the retention of medical records. Answer: As a protection in the event of litigation, records should be kept until the applicable statute of limitations period has elapsed, which generally ranges from two to seven years. In some cases, this involves keeping the medical records for minor patients for a specified length of time after they reach legal age. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Medical Records, Ownership, Retention, Storage, and Destruction Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7. Define statute of limitations

41) A physician is employed by a group practice. The physician decides to leave the practice and open his own private practice. May he have the records of the patients he is currently seeing? Why or why not? Answer: The facility where the medical records were created owns the documents, but the patient owns the information they contain. A patient may sign a release, allowing the records to be transferred to the new practice. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Medical Records, Ownership, Retention, Storage, and Destruction Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.3. Describe components of HIPAA 42) Describe the doctrine of professional discretion as used by physicians and other health care providers. Answer: Under the doctrine of professional discretion, courts have held that in some cases, patients treated for mental or emotional conditions may be harmed by seeing their own records. It is up to the discretion of the physician whether or not to allow all patients access to their medical records. On signing a release, patients may usually obtain access to or copies of their medical records. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Medical Records, Ownership, Retention, Storage, and Destruction Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.3. Describe components of HIPAA 43) What are the elements of the doctrine of informed consent? Answer: Proposed modes of treatment; why the treatment is necessary; the risks involved in the proposed treatment; the available alternative modes of treatment; the risks of alternative modes of treatment; and the risks involved if treatment is refused. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Informed Consent Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.a. Define the following medical legal term: informed consent

44) What is the purpose of the federal statute entitled Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse Patient Records? Answer: This statute protects patients with histories of substance abuse regarding the release of information about treatment. It requires that a separate authorization be done by the patient. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Informed Consent Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: assistant.A.2. Protect the integrity of the medical record 45) Identify those individuals who may not give informed consent. Answer: Minors, the mentally incompetent, and persons who do not speak English, unless an interpreter is present. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Informed Consent Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.13.a. Define the following medical legal term: informed consent 46) Describe the purpose of a Good Samaritan Act. Answer: A Good Samaritan Act protects physicians and possibly other providers and laypersons from charges of negligence or abandonment if they stop to help the victim of an accident or other emergency. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Informed Consent Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.d. Define Good Samaritan Act(s)

47) Describe the circumstances where the Good Samaritan principles are used as a defense in a medical negligence lawsuit. Answer: The care must be given in good faith. The individual must act within the scope of their training and knowledge. The individual must use due care under the circumstances and they must not bill for their services. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Informed Consent Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.d. Define Good Samaritan Act(s) 48) Define meaningful use. Answer: Meaningful use is a process where health care providers use an electronic health record under federal guidelines. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Health Information Technology Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 49) Identify at least four guidelines that should be in place to ensure that confidentiality is not breached when employees use photocopiers and printers. Answer: When using a photocopier, do not leave confidential papers on the copier. Shred discarded copies and be sure to appropriately destroy copies that may have caused a jam in the machine. When using a printer, be certain to use specified printers for confidential material. Be certain to collect all printed material from the copier. Shred discarded copies. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Health Information Technology (HIT) Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.A.2. Protect the integrity of the medical record

50) Define health information technology. Answer: The application of information processing, involving both computer hardware and software, which deals with the storage, retrieval, sharing, and use of health care information, data, and knowledge for communication and decision-making. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Health Information Technology Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

6) Which HIPAA standard requires providers to protect electronically transmitted and otherwise stored personal health information? A) Standard 1 B) Standard 2 C) Standard 3 D) Standard 4 E) Standard 5 7) Which HIPAA standard requires that all providers secure a unique provider identity number? A) Standard 1 B) Standard 2 C) Standard 3 D) Standard 4 E) Standard 5 8) Which HIPAA standard requires providers and their business associates to put in place policies and procedures that ensure privacy of the health record? A) Standard 1 B) Standard 2 C) Standard 3 D) Standard 4 E) Standard 5 9) Which of the following statements is true about HIPAA Standard 2? A) All providers must have a unique identifier number for submittal of claims for payment. B) All providers must have policies to secure health records from unauthorized disclosures. C) Protected Health Information (PHI) covers only electronic records. D) Protected Health Information (PHI) covers only written records. E) Protected Health Information (PHI) is any written, spoken, or electronic form. 10) How many HIPAA defined permissions exist? A) Three B) Four C) Five D) Six E) Seven 11) A permission is defined as A) a request for records. B) a covered entity. C) a de-identifier. D) a reason under HIPAA to delete the record. E) a reason under HIPAA for disclosing patient information.

12) A provider may release information about a victim of abuse, neglect, or domestic violence under which permission of HIPAA? A) Treatment, payment, or health care operations. B) Incidental use. C) Public interest and benefit activities. D) Limited data set. E) Disclosures with opportunity to agree or object. 13) In a physician's office, a sign-in sheet is permissible to use as long as A) the receptionist immediately crosses off the name. B) the sign-in sheet is a peel-off label for each patient. C) the actual time of the appointment is not recorded. D) you do not ask for the reason for the visit. E) the patient signs their name, and doesn't just print it. 14) A patient believes her privacy rights have been violated by a local hospital. Under HIPAA, the patient A) may immediately file a lawsuit in federal court. B) may immediately file a lawsuit in a small claims court. C) must first file a written complaint with the local medical society. D) must first file a written complaint with the local district attorney. E) must first file a written complaint with the Secretary of Health and Human Services through the Office of Civil Rights. 15) A breach under HIPAA A) is an unauthorized acquisition, access, use, or disclosure of personal health information. B) is a use of a firewall. C) is the transfer of records by e-mail. D) is an unauthorized use of the medical record that is not disclosed. E) is similar to meaningful use. 16) The difference between an electronic medical record (EMR) and an electronic health record (EHR) is A) EMRs are protected by HIPAA, EHRs are not. B) EHRs are protected by HIPAA and EMRs are not. C) the EMR is a record from a single provider, an EHR is a more comprehensive record from all providers of care. D) the EHR is a record from a single provider, an EMR is a more comprehensive record from all providers of care. E) EMRs exist in written form; EHRs do not exist in written form. 17) What is a Covered Entity? A) Rehabilitation facilities B) Hospitals C) Physician offices D) Insurance companies E) All of these 3 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

18) Under the Security Rule, Covered Entities must A) ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of all PHI they create, receive, maintain, or transmit. B) identify and protect against reasonably anticipated threats to the security or integrity of the information. C) protect against reasonably anticipated, impermissible uses or disclosures. D) Ensure compliance by their workforce. E) All of these. 19) As of February 2016, there have been ________ breaches of PHI affecting individuals. A) 113 million B) 93 million C) 73 million D) 53 million E) 33 million 20) Any breach of over 500 records requires the Covered Entity to A) do a memo to staff. B) shut down their EMR software. C) notify the FBI. D) notify all their colleagues. E) notify the media. 21) The Security Rule requires Covered Entities to A) ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of all records they create. B) identify and protect against threats to security or integrity of records. C) 867 protect against reasonable anticipated impermissible uses or disclosures. D) ensure compliance by the staff. E) all of these. 22) Which law made significant changes to provisions in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act? A) Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act B) Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act C) Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act D) American Recovery and Reinvestment Act E) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act 23) The Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act (HITECH) was part of what other law? A) Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act B) Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act C) Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act D) American Recovery and Reinvestment Act E) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

24) As of June 2016, the Medicare Fraud Strike Force had initiated how many criminal actions? A) 472 B) 622 C) 722 D) 1,122 E) 1,522 25) Which of the following is not a reason that Medicare fraud is difficult to estimate? A) Health care claims are destroyed after 2 years. B) Fraud is hard to detect. C) Sometimes a claim is partially fraudulent and partially accurate. D) Dollar amounts spent in a single incident of fraud are increasing. E) Statistics from prior years are not always accurate. 26) The Health Care Fraud Prevention and Enforcement Action Team (HEAT) is made up of representative from which agencies? A) Department of Justice and Homeland Security B) Office of the HHS Secretary and Department of Justice C) Office of the Inspector General, FBI and Homeland Security D) Medicare Fraud Strike Force only E) DOJ, Medicare Fraud Strike Force, FBI, and Office of the Inspector General 27) Under the Federal False Claims Act, a citizen may A) file a claim on behalf of the federal government for false claims made for payment of health services. B) pay someone else's medical bill. C) file criminal charges against someone who has filed false claims. D) repay claims made erroneously. E) file a claim alleging violations of privacy. 28) An orthopedic surgeon refers his patients to a radiology facility owned by his brother. What law is potentially being violated? A) Federal Anti-Kickback law B) Stark Law C) Federal False Claims Act D) HIPAA E) HITECH 29) Which of the following statements is true about the Patients' Bill of Rights? A) The Patients' Bill of Rights is the fifteenth amendment to the U.S. Constitution. B) The Patients' Bill of Rights is part of HITECH. C) No one universal government statute exists. D) The American Hospital Association has a Patients' Bill of Rights that became federal law. E) The Bipartisan Patient Protection Act of 2001 was passed as a Patients' Bill of Rights.

30) Under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010, insurance companies must do all of the following except A) phase out annual and lifetime limits to coverage. B) no longer limit or deny coverage to patients under 19 with preexisting conditions. C) phase out arbitrary withdrawals of insurance coverage. D) remove insurance company barriers to emergency service. E) cover children up to age 30 on their parents' health insurance policy. 31) HIPAA allows a state preemption. What does that mean? 32) Of the four standards set forth in HIPAA which two are concerned with privacy and security? 33) What was the first federal law that covered privacy and security for healthcare information? 34) What is Protected Health Information (PHI)? 35) What is a permission under HIPAA? 36) Identify the six HIPAA-defined permissions. 37) Before filing a lawsuit, what must a patient do when they believe their health information privacy has been violated? 38) What is the difference between an electronic medical record (EMR) and an electronic health record (EHR)? 39) What is the purpose of a risk analysis of a provider's Electronic Health Record system? 40) What is a breach under HIPAA? 41) Why was the Medicare Strike Force established? 42) What is a Covered Entity? 43) Give several examples of how the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act (HITECH) strengthened privacy and security. 44) What is the purpose of the Federal False Claims Act? 45) What is the difference between the Federal Anti-Kickback Law and the Stark Law? 46) What is the Criminal Health Care Fraud Statute? 47) Describe patients' rights to be provided by insurance companies as defined by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act. 6 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

48) Describe the Patients' Bill of Rights as adopted by Congress.

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 8 Privacy, Security, and Fraud 1) While privacy is not directly expressed in the amendments to the Constitution, which of the following is one of the amendments that the U.S. Supreme Court has used to cover privacy issues? A) Second B) Third C) Sixth D) Eighth E) Fifteenth Answer: B Explanation: Contrary to popular belief, the term privacy (freedom from unauthorized intrusion) does not appear in the U.S. Constitution or the Bill of Rights. However, the U.S. Supreme Court, the court responsible for determining constitutional issues, has ruled in favor of privacy interests (and occasionally against them), deriving the right to privacy from the First, Third, Fourth, Fifth, Ninth, and Fourteenth Amendments to the Constitution. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The United States Constitution and Privacy Laws Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.A.2. Protect the integrity of the medical record 2) Which of the following court cases first declared that a constitutional right to privacy was implied? A) Griswold v. Connecticut B) OPIS v. Florida Agency for Health Care Administration C) Roe v. Wade D) Board of Education v. Earls E) Eisenstadt v. Baird Answer: A Explanation: As a result of the Supreme Court's decision in Griswold v. Connecticut, patients possess certain rights, which affect the delivery of medical services and health care. OPIS v. Florida AHCA determined that HIPAA preempts state law in certain cases. Roe v. Wade legalized abortion in the United States. In the case Board of Education v. Earls, the U.S. Supreme Court held that drug testing of student athletes (and others) was not a violation of the Fourth Amendment. In Eisenstadt v. Baird, the Supreme Court held that it is the right of the individual to decide whether or not to bear a child under the Fourteenth Amendment (a private decision). Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The United States Constitution and Privacy Laws Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.A.2. Protect the integrity of the medical record 1 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

3) Which of the following court cases held that federal privacy laws like HIPAA may preempt stricter state privacy laws? A) Griswold v. Connecticut B) OPIS v. Florida Agency for Health Care Administration C) Roe v. Wade D) Board of Education v. Earls E) Eisenstadt v. Baird Answer: B Explanation: OPIS v. Florida AHCA determined that HIPAA preempts state law in certain cases. Under Griswold v. Connecticut, patients possess certain rights, which affect the delivery of medical services and health care. Roe v. Wade legalized abortion in the United States. In the case Board of Education v. Earls, the U.S. Supreme Court held that drug testing of student athletes (and others) was not a violation of the Fourth Amendment. In Eisenstadt v. Baird, the Supreme Court held that it is the right of the individual to decide whether or not to bear a child under the Fourteenth Amendment (a private decision). Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The United States Constitution and Privacy Laws Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2. a and b Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy and release of information 4) The first federal law to specifically deal with the privacy of health care records was A) Electronic Communication Privacy Act. B) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act. C) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. D) Computer Abuse Amendments Act. E) Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act. Answer: C Explanation: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, passed in 1996, was the first federal law to specifically address the privacy and security of the medical record. The Electronic Communication Privacy Act passed in 1986 addresses general electronic communications. The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act passed in 1999 requires privacy policies for financial institutions and insurance companies. The Computer Abuse Amendments Act of 1994 makes the transmission of harmful computer code such as viruses illegal, and The Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act authorizes HHS to impose civil monetary fines for violations of patient safety confidentiality. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The United States Constitution and Privacy Laws Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines, the ADA Amendments Act and the Health Information Act (HITECH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2. a and b Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy and release of information 2 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

5) Which federal law made substantive changes to HIPAA? A) HITECH Act B) Graham-Leach-Bliley Act C) Electronic Communication Act D) Patient Safety and Quality Act E) Health Care and Education Act Answer: A Explanation: The HITECH Act made substantive changes to HIPAA. The other laws also impacted privacy but were not as specific to privacy. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The United States Constitution and Privacy Laws Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines, the ADA Amendments Act and the Health Information Act (HITECH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.10. Identify HITECH 6) Which HIPAA standard requires providers to protect electronically transmitted and otherwise stored personal health information? A) Standard 1 B) Standard 2 C) Standard 3 D) Standard 4 E) Standard 5 Answer: C Explanation: There are four standards set forth in HIPAA. Standard 3 is the Security Rule, which requires that all health records be secured and protected from unauthorized use. Standard 1 Transactions and Code Sets requires providers to use specific code sets such as Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) and the International Classifications of Diseases. Standard 2 is HIPAA's privacy rule. Standard 4 required national identifier standards. There is no Standard 5. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The United States Constitution and Privacy Laws Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines, the ADA Amendments Act and the Health Information Act (HITECH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.3. Describe the components of HIPAA

7) Which HIPAA standard requires that all providers secure a unique provider identity number? A) Standard 1 B) Standard 2 C) Standard 3 D) Standard 4 E) Standard 5 Answer: D Explanation: There are four standards set forth in HIPAA. Standard 4 required national identifier standards. Standard 1 Transactions and Code Sets requires providers to use specific code sets such as Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) and the International Classifications of Diseases. Standard 2 is HIPAA's privacy rule. Standard 3 is the Security Rule. There is no Standard 5. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The United States Constitution and Privacy Laws Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines, the ADA Amendments Act and the Health Information Act (HITECH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.3. Describe the components of HIPAA 8) Which HIPAA standard requires providers and their business associates to put in place policies and procedures that ensure privacy of the health record? A) Standard 1 B) Standard 2 C) Standard 3 D) Standard 4 E) Standard 5 Answer: B Explanation: There are four standards set forth in HIPAA. Standard 2 is HIPAA's privacy rule. Standard 1 Transactions and Code Sets requires providers to use specific code sets such as Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) and the International Classifications of Diseases. Standard 3 is the Security Rule and Standard 4 required national identifier standards. There is no Standard 5. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The United States Constitution and Privacy Laws Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines, the ADA Amendments Act and the Health Information Act (HITECH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.3. Describe the components of HIPAA

9) Which of the following statements is true about HIPAA Standard 2? A) All providers must have a unique identifier number for submittal of claims for payment. B) All providers must have policies to secure health records from unauthorized disclosures. C) Protected Health Information (PHI) covers only electronic records. D) Protected Health Information (PHI) covers only written records. E) Protected Health Information (PHI) is any written, spoken, or electronic form. Answer: E Explanation: HIPAA's Standard 2 covers Protected Health Information (PHI) in any written, spoken, or electronic form. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: HIPAA's Requirements for Disclosing Protected Health Information Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines, the ADA Amendments Act and the Health Information Act (HITECH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.3. Describe the components of HIPAA 10) How many HIPAA defined permissions exist? A) Three B) Four C) Five D) Six E) Seven Answer: D Explanation: There are six HIPAA defined permissions used to disclose Protected Health Information (PHI): (1) disclosures to patients; (2) for treatment, payment, or health care operations; (3) disclosures with opportunity to agree or object; (4) limited incidental disclosures; (5) public interest and benefit activities; and (6) in a limited data set. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: HIPAA's Requirements for Disclosing Protected Health Information Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines, the ADA Amendments Act and the Health Information Act (HITECH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.3. Describe the components of HIPAA

11) A permission is defined as A) a request for records. B) a covered entity. C) a de-identifier. D) a reason under HIPAA to delete the record. E) a reason under HIPAA for disclosing patient information. Answer: E Explanation: A permission is a reason under HIPAA to disclose patient information. There are six HIPAA defined permissions used to disclose Protected Health Information (PHI): (1) disclosures to patients; (2) for treatment, payment, or healthcare operations; (3) disclosures with opportunity to agree or object; (4) limited incidental disclosures; (5) public interest and benefit activities; and (6) in a limited data set. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: HIPAA's Requirements for Disclosing Protected Health Information Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines, the ADA Amendments Act and the Health Information Act (HITECH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.3. Describe the components of HIPAA 12) A provider may release information about a victim of abuse, neglect, or domestic violence under which permission of HIPAA? A) Treatment, payment, or health care operations. B) Incidental use. C) Public interest and benefit activities. D) Limited data set. E) Disclosures with opportunity to agree or object. Answer: C Explanation: The provider may be able to release information under public interest and benefit activities in the event the injuries have been reported to local law enforcement. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: HIPAA's Requirements for Disclosing Protected Health Information Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines, the ADA Amendments Act and the Health Information Act (HITECH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.3. Describe the components of HIPAA

13) In a physician's office, a sign-in sheet is permissible to use as long as A) the receptionist immediately crosses off the name. B) the sign-in sheet is a peel-off label for each patient. C) the actual time of the appointment is not recorded. D) you do not ask for the reason for the visit. E) the patient signs their name, and doesn't just print it. Answer: D Explanation: A sign-in sheet is acceptable in a physician or other health care office as long as the reason for the visit is not part of the sign-in sheet. Various organizations do have staff immediately cross the name off, use a peel-off label, or record the time of arrival and appointment but are not required to do so. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: HIPAA's Requirements for Disclosing Protected Health Information Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines, the ADA Amendments Act and the Health Information Act (HITECH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2. a and b Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy and release of information 14) A patient believes her privacy rights have been violated by a local hospital. Under HIPAA, the patient A) may immediately file a lawsuit in federal court. B) may immediately file a lawsuit in a small claims court. C) must first file a written complaint with the local medical society. D) must first file a written complaint with the local district attorney. E) must first file a written complaint with the Secretary of Health and Human Services through the Office of Civil Rights. Answer: E Explanation: The HIPAA Privacy Rule does not give patients the express right to sue when they believe their privacy has been violated. They must first file a written complaint with the Secretary of Health and Human Services through the Office of Civil Rights. The HHS Secretary determines whether or not to investigate the complaint. Patients may have other legal standing to sue under state privacy laws in state courts. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: HIPAA's Requirements for Disclosing Protected Health Information Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

15) A breach under HIPAA A) is an unauthorized acquisition, access, use, or disclosure of personal health information. B) is a use of a firewall. C) is the transfer of records by e-mail. D) is an unauthorized use of the medical record that is not disclosed. E) is similar to meaningful use. Answer: A Explanation: A breach under HIPAA is an unauthorized acquisition, access, use, or disclosure of personal health information that compromises the security or privacy of such information. Lack of compliance to the security rules can lead to substantial fines. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Laws Implemented to Protect the Security of health care Information Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines, the ADA Amendments Act and the Health Information Act (HITECH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2. a and b Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy and release of information 16) The difference between an electronic medical record (EMR) and an electronic health record (EHR) is A) EMRs are protected by HIPAA, EHRs are not. B) EHRs are protected by HIPAA and EMRs are not. C) the EMR is a record from a single provider, an EHR is a more comprehensive record from all providers of care. D) the EHR is a record from a single provider, an EMR is a more comprehensive record from all providers of care. E) EMRs exist in written form; EHRs do not exist in written form. Answer: C Explanation: The EMR is usually from a single provider and/or practice and reflects only care provided by that practice or hospital. The EHR is a more comprehensive record focusing on the total health of the patient and may travel with the patient. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Laws Implemented to Protect the Security of health care Information Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VI.P.6. Utilize an Electronic Medical Record (EMR).

17) What is a Covered Entity? A) Rehabilitation facilities B) Hospitals C) Physician offices D) Insurance companies E) All of these Answer: E Explanation: A Covered Entity is any organization that has and maintains personal health information. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Laws Implemented to Protect the Security of health care Information Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines, the ADA Amendments Act and the Health Information Act (HITECH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2. a and b Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy and release of information 18) Under the Security Rule, Covered Entities must A) ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of all PHI they create, receive, maintain, or transmit. B) identify and protect against reasonably anticipated threats to the security or integrity of the information. C) protect against reasonably anticipated, impermissible uses or disclosures. D) Ensure compliance by their workforce. E) All of these. Answer: E Explanation: Covered entities are responsible for maintaining and protecting the electronic medical record. This includes identifying and protection against reasonably anticipated threats and ensuring compliance by their workforce. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Laws Implemented to Protect the Security of health care Information Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines, the ADA Amendments Act and the Health Information Act (HITECH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2. a and b Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy and release of information

19) As of February 2016, there have been ________ breaches of PHI affecting individuals. A) 113 million B) 93 million C) 73 million D) 53 million E) 33 million Answer: A Explanation: Based on the data collected by the HHS OCR, as of February 1, 2016, protected health information breaches affected over 113 million individuals in 2015. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Laws Implemented to Protect the Security of health care Information Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 20) Any breach of over 500 records requires the Covered Entity to A) do a memo to staff. B) shut down their EMR software. C) notify the FBI. D) notify all their colleagues. E) notify the media. Answer: E Explanation: Covered entities are required to notify the media of any breach of more than 500 records. This is so that individuals who may be affected can take any necessary action to protect their privacy. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Laws Implemented to Protect the Security of health care Information Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines, the ADA Amendments Act and the Health Information Act (HITECH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2. a and b Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy and release of information

21) The Security Rule requires Covered Entities to A) ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of all records they create. B) identify and protect against threats to security or integrity of records. C) 867 protect against reasonable anticipated impermissible uses or disclosures. D) ensure compliance by the staff. E) all of these. Answer: B Explanation: The Security Rule requires that all Covered Entities ensure confidentiality, protect against threats to security, protect against reasonable anticipated impermissible uses, and ensure compliance by the staff. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Laws Implemented to Protect the Security of health care Information Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines, the ADA Amendments Act and the Health Information Act (HITECH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2. a and b Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy and release of information 22) Which law made significant changes to provisions in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act? A) Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act B) Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act C) Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act D) American Recovery and Reinvestment Act E) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act Answer: D Explanation: The American Recovery and Reinvestment Act made substantial changes to HIPAA, including privacy and security regulations, enforcement of the HIPAA regulations, and other provisions regarding health information. The changes were found as part of the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act which was part of the ARRA. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Laws Implemented to Protect the Security of health care Information Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines, the ADA Amendments Act and the Health Information Act (HITECH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.10. Identify HITECH

23) The Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act (HITECH) was part of what other law? A) Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act B) Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act C) Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act D) American Recovery and Reinvestment Act E) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act Answer: D Explanation: The Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act (HITECH) was part of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act (ARRA). HITECH made substantial changes to HIPAA, including privacy and security regulations, enforcement of the HIPAA regulations, and other provisions regarding health information. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Laws Implemented to Protect the Security of health care Information Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines, the ADA Amendments Act and the Health Information Act (HITECH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.10. Identify HITECH 24) As of June 2016, the Medicare Fraud Strike Force had initiated how many criminal actions? A) 472 B) 622 C) 722 D) 1,122 E) 1,522 Answer: E Explanation: The Strike Force had initiated 1,522 criminal actions—cases against possible fraud. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Controlling Fraud and Abuse Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VII.C.5. Differentiate between fraud and abuse

25) Which of the following is not a reason that Medicare fraud is difficult to estimate? A) Health care claims are destroyed after 2 years. B) Fraud is hard to detect. C) Sometimes a claim is partially fraudulent and partially accurate. D) Dollar amounts spent in a single incident of fraud are increasing. E) Statistics from prior years are not always accurate. Answer: A Explanation: Medicare fraud is often difficult to detect because of the size of the system, which leads to partially accurate and partially fraudulent claims. While records are kept for many years, the actual statistics are not as reliable because more and more ways are found to defraud Medicare. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Controlling Fraud and Abuse Bloom's: Evaluate ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VII.C.5. Differentiate between fraud and abuse 26) The Health Care Fraud Prevention and Enforcement Action Team (HEAT) is made up of representative from which agencies? A) Department of Justice and Homeland Security B) Office of the HHS Secretary and Department of Justice C) Office of the Inspector General, FBI and Homeland Security D) Medicare Fraud Strike Force only E) DOJ, Medicare Fraud Strike Force, FBI, and Office of the Inspector General Answer: E Explanation: The HEAT Team is made up of representatives from DOJ, Medicare Fraud Strike Force, FBI, and Office of the Inspector General. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Controlling Fraud and Abuse Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VII.C.5. Differentiate between fraud and abuse

27) Under the Federal False Claims Act, a citizen may A) file a claim on behalf of the federal government for false claims made for payment of health services. B) pay someone else's medical bill. C) file criminal charges against someone who has filed false claims. D) repay claims made erroneously. E) file a claim alleging violations of privacy. Answer: A Explanation: The Federal False Claims Act is a law that allows for individuals to bring civil actions on behalf of the U.S. government for false claims made to the federal government, under a provision of the law call qui tam from the Latin meaning "to bring an action for the kind and for oneself." Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Controlling Fraud and Abuse Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VII.C.5. Differentiate between fraud and abuse 28) An orthopedic surgeon refers his patients to a radiology facility owned by his brother. What law is potentially being violated? A) Federal Anti-Kickback law B) Stark Law C) Federal False Claims Act D) HIPAA E) HITECH Answer: B Explanation: The Stark Law prohibits physicians or their family members who own health care facilities from referring patients to those entities if the federal government is paying for the treatment. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Controlling Fraud and Abuse Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VII.C.5. Differentiate between fraud and abuse

29) Which of the following statements is true about the Patients' Bill of Rights? A) The Patients' Bill of Rights is the fifteenth amendment to the U.S. Constitution. B) The Patients' Bill of Rights is part of HITECH. C) No one universal government statute exists. D) The American Hospital Association has a Patients' Bill of Rights that became federal law. E) The Bipartisan Patient Protection Act of 2001 was passed as a Patients' Bill of Rights. Answer: C Explanation: Currently, no official federal government statute exists that tells health care consumers exactly what their rights are. While HIPAA provides a list of rights in its Privacy Rule, those rights cover privacy issues only. Some individual states have passed a Patients' Bill of Rights. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Patients' Bill of Rights Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.4. Summarize the Patient Bill of Rights 30) Under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010, insurance companies must do all of the following except A) phase out annual and lifetime limits to coverage. B) no longer limit or deny coverage to patients under 19 with preexisting conditions. C) phase out arbitrary withdrawals of insurance coverage. D) remove insurance company barriers to emergency service. E) cover children up to age 30 on their parents' health insurance policy. Answer: E Explanation: Under the PPACA, insurance companies must cover children up to age 26 on their parents' health insurance policy. Insurance companies must also phase out annual and lifetime limits to coverage, no longer limit or deny coverage to patients under 19 with preexisting conditions, phase out arbitrary withdrawals of insurance coverage, and remove insurance company barriers to emergency service. There are additional privacy rights contained in the PPACA. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Patients' Bill of Rights Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

31) HIPAA allows a state preemption. What does that mean? Answer: If a state's privacy laws are stricter than HIPAA, the state laws may take precedence. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The United States Constitution and Privacy Laws Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2. a and b Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy and release of information 32) Of the four standards set forth in HIPAA which two are concerned with privacy and security? Answer: Standard 2 is HIPAA's privacy rule. Standard 3 is the security rule. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The United States Constitution and Privacy Laws Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2. a and b Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy and release of information 33) What was the first federal law that covered privacy and security for healthcare information? Answer: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) was passed in 1996 and was the first federal law to deal explicitly with the privacy of medical records. Both civil and criminal sanctions are part of the law. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The United States Constitution and Privacy Laws Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.3. Describe the components of HIPAA

34) What is Protected Health Information (PHI)? Answer: Protected Health Information (PHI) is any information that contains one or more patient identifiers. Examples are date of birth, Social Security number, e-mail address, copy of driver's license, and photos of the patient. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: HIPAA's Requirements for Disclosing Protected Health Information Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.2. a and b Apply HIPAA rules in regard to privacy and release of information 35) What is a permission under HIPAA? Answer: Under HIPAA, a permission is a reason for disclosing patient information. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: HIPAA's Requirements for Disclosing Protected Health Information Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.3. Describe the components of HIPAA 36) Identify the six HIPAA-defined permissions. Answer: The six HIPAA-defined permissions used to disclose Protected Health Information (PHI) are (1) disclosures to patients; (2) for treatment, payment, or health care operations; (3) disclosures with opportunity to agree or object; (4) limited incidental disclosures; (5) public interest and benefit activities; and (6) in a limited data set. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: HIPAA's Requirements for Disclosing Protected Health Information Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.b. Institute federal and state guidelines when releasing medical records or information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.3. Describe the components of HIPAA

37) Before filing a lawsuit, what must a patient do when they believe their health information privacy has been violated? Answer: The patient must first file a written complaint with the Secretary of Health and Human Services through the Office of Civil Rights. The HHS Secretary determines whether or not to investigate the complaint. Patients may have another legal standing to sue under state privacy laws in state courts. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: HIPAA's Requirements for Disclosing Protected Health Information Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 38) What is the difference between an electronic medical record (EMR) and an electronic health record (EHR)? Answer: The EMR is usually from a single provider and/or practice and reflects only care provided by that practice or hospital. The EHR is a more comprehensive record focusing on the total health of the patient and may travel with the patient. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: HIPAA's Requirements for Disclosing Protected Health Information Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 7.b. Navigate electronic health records systems and practice management systems Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VI. P.6. Utilize an EMR 39) What is the purpose of a risk analysis of a provider's Electronic Health Record system? Answer: Risk analysis helps to identify possible opportunities for breaches, thus allowing the provider to fix these problems. Documentation of the risk analysis process is important. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Laws Implemented to Protect the Security of health care Information Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 7.c. Comply with federal, state, and local laws relating to exchange of information and describe elements of meaningful use and reports generated Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VI.C.12. Explain meaningful use as it applies to the EMR

40) What is a breach under HIPAA? Answer: A breach under HIPAA is an unauthorized acquisition, access, use, or disclosure of personal health information which compromises the security or privacy of such information. Lack of compliance to the security rules can lead to substantial fines. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Laws Implemented to Protect the Security of health care Information Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 7.c. Comply with federal, state, and local laws relating to exchange of information and describe elements of meaningful use and reports generated Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.A.2. Protect the integrity of the medical record 41) Why was the Medicare Strike Force established? Answer: In 2007, a Medicare Fraud Strike Force was established to combine the resources of federal, state, and local law enforcement entities to prevent and combat health care fraud, waste, and abuse. As of June 2016, the Strike Force had initiated 1,522 criminal actions, had 2,185 indictments, and recovered $1.98 billion. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Controlling Fraud and Abuse Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 7.c. Comply with federal, state, and local laws relating to exchange of information and describe elements of meaningful use and reports generated Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VII.C.5. Differentiate between fraud and abuse 42) What is a Covered Entity? Answer: Healthcare providers who conduct administrative and financial transactions in electronic form are called Covered Entities. This includes all employees, volunteers, trainees, and all others who are under the control of the entity. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Laws Implemented to Protect the Security of health care Information Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 7.c. Comply with federal, state, and local laws relating to exchange of information and describe elements of meaningful use and reports generated Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.3. Describe the components of HIPAA

43) Give several examples of how the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act (HITECH) strengthened privacy and security. Answer: HITECH extended compliance with HIPAA privacy and security to business associates and their subcontractors, prohibited the sale of protected health information without appropriate authorization, expanded individual rights to electronically access one's PHI, and prohibited the use of genetic information for insurance underwriting purposes. In addition, HITECH finalized the breach notification requirements, expanded individuals' rights to obtain restrictions on certain PHI if services are paid for out of pocket, and established new limitations on the use and disclosure of protected health information for marketing and fund-raising purposes. Finally, HITECH made it easier for schools to access immunization records and removed restrictions of the privacy rule if an individual had been deceased for more than 50 years. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Laws Implemented to Protect the Security of health care Information Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 4.h. Demonstrate compliance with HIPAA guidelines, the ADA Amendments Act and the Health Information Act (HITECH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.10. Identify HITECH 44) What is the purpose of the Federal False Claims Act? Answer: The Federal False Claims Act is a law that allows for individuals to bring civil actions on behalf of the U.S. government for false claims made to the federal government. This is under a provision of the law call qui tam from the Latin meaning "to bring an action for the kind and for oneself." Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Controlling Fraud and Abuse Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VII.C.5. Differentiate between fraud and abuse 45) What is the difference between the Federal Anti-Kickback Law and the Stark Law? Answer: The Federal Anti-Kickback Law covers activities where one person is paid a fee for referring patients to another entity. The Stark Law prohibits physicians or their family members who own healthcare facilities from referring patients to those entities. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Controlling Fraud and Abuse Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VII.C.5. Differentiate between fraud and abuse 20 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

46) What is the Criminal Health Care Fraud Statute? Answer: The Criminal Health Care Fraud Statute is a section of the United States Code that prohibits fraud against any healthcare benefit program at the federal level. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Controlling Fraud and Abuse Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 4.f. Comply with federal, state, and local health laws and regulations as they relate to health care settings Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: VII.C.5. Differentiate between fraud and abuse 47) Describe patients' rights to be provided by insurance companies as defined by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act. Answer: Under the PPACA, insurance companies must cover children up to age 26 on their parents' health insurance policy. Insurance companies must also phase out annual and lifetime limits to coverage, no longer limit or deny coverage to patients under 19 with preexisting conditions, phase out arbitrary withdrawals of insurance coverage, and remove insurance company barriers to emergency service. There are additional privacy rights contained in the PPACA. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Patients' Bill of Rights Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.4. Summarize the Patient Bill of Rights 48) Describe the Patients' Bill of Rights as adopted by Congress. Answer: There is no federal legislation that is a clearly defined Patients' Bill of Rights. While the PPACA provided for additional rights for patients as part of their insurance coverage, and the HIPAA Privacy Rule enacted as part of changes to HIPAA enforced privacy provisions, there is no clearly defined Patients' Bill of Rights at the federal level. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Patients' Bill of Rights Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.4. Summarize the Patient Bill of Rights

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 9 Physicians' Public Duties and Responsibilities 1) The states and the federal government collect vital statistics in the United States that include births, deaths, marriages, divorces, and changes in civil status. What is the main purpose for collection of this information? A) To assess population trends and needs. B) To distribute goods and services fairly. C) To control population growth or decline. D) To provide information to marketing services. E) To determine who should receive public assistance. 2) Who is responsible for gathering and filing many of the vital statistics collected by the states and the federal government? A) School administrators B) Financial executives C) County commissioners D) Health care practitioners E) Religious leaders 3) Examples of public data collected by law from physicians include A) murders and child abuse incidents. B) felonies. C) incidents of allergic reaction to drugs. D) auto accidents where the physician was attending. E) births, deaths, rapes, and assaults. 4) If a patient dies of natural causes while under his or her physician's care, who is responsible for completion of the medical portion of the death certificate? A) Morgue attendant B) Attending physician C) Medical examiner D) Any health care practitioner in attendance at the time of death E) Coroner 5) Which of the following is not required on a death certificate? A) Date of death B) Time of death C) Decedent's complete medical history D) Cause of death E) Place of death

6) The public official who investigates and holds inquests concerning those who die from unknown or violent causes is the A) Morgue attendant. B) Attending physician. C) Medical examiner. D) Forensic pathologist. E) Coroner. 7) An obstetrician who delivers babies knows that all live births need to be recorded. To which of the following agencies should these births be reported? A) Local county registrar B) State registrar C) Federal registrar D) Census bureau E) Medical examiner 8) Generally, birth and death certificates are not required for fetal deaths occurring prior to what week of gestation? A) 15th B) 16th C) 17th D) 18th E) 20th 9) In which of the following cases would it be legal for a physician to sign a death certificate? A) If the physician attended to the deceased before the death. B) If the death was possibly due to criminal causes. C) If the cause of death was undetermined by the physician. D) If the cause of death was violent. E) If the cause of death was suspicious. 10) A person dies as a result of a carjacking. Who is responsible for signing the death certificate for this individual? A) The chief of police B) The mortician C) The next of kin D) The coroner E) The physician 11) A death has occurred under normal circumstances and the body released to the funeral home. Who is responsible for filing the death certificate with the state? A) The mortician B) The physician C) The coroner D) The hospital E) The police chief 2 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

12) Which of the following accurately describes the role of the coroner or medical examiner in the event of a violent death? A) A coroner, who is always a physician, holds an inquest to determine cause of death. B) A coroner or medical examiner conducts a trial to determine the cause of death. C) A medical examiner, who is frequently a pathologist, may order and perform an autopsy. D) A coroner investigates the crime scene and presents medical proof at a trial. E) A police chief orders an autopsy and the coroner performs the autopsy. 13) A division of medicine that incorporates law and medicine and involves medical issues or medical proof at trials having to do with malpractice, crimes, or accidents is called A) Criminal medicine. B) Investigative medicine. C) Examiner medicine. D) Forensic medicine. E) Statistical medicine. 14) Which of the following is not a purpose of public health statutes? A) Checking water quality. B) Requiring physicians to take public health courses. C) Inspecting restaurants and other facilities that serve food. D) Exterminating pest and vermin that can spread disease. E) Guarding against unsanitary conditions in public facilities. 15) The power of the states to initiate public health statutes is inferred from which amendment to the U.S. Constitution? A) First Amendment B) Second Amendment C) Sixth Amendment D) Ninth Amendment E) Tenth Amendment 16) Which of the following is an example of federalism? A) A state retains police powers not expressively granted to the federal government. B) The federal government has more powers than the state government. C) If state and federal government statutes conflict, the federal statute takes precedence. D) If state and federal government statutes conflict, the state statute takes precedence. E) Local legislation takes precedence over state or federal legislation. 17) The state of Virginia checks all restaurants to make sure the conditions are sanitary. This is an example of which of the following? A) Criminal law B) Civil statutes C) Federal health law D) Public health statutes E) Civilian protection acts

18) Which of the following is an example of a state law that requires behavioral changes on the part of the public? A) Vaccinations to enter school. B) Spraying communities for mosquito control. C) Promoting the use of child safety seats. D) Inspecting restaurants for sanitary conditions. E) Fluoridation of the public water supply. 19) Which of the following examples of public health statutes is enforced by citations for noncompliance? A) Vaccinations to enter school. B) Spraying communities for mosquito control. C) Smoking bans. D) Fluoride in the public water supply. E) Food supply inspections. 20) Certain sexually transmitted infections (STIs) must be reported whenever diagnosed. Which of the following is not a reportable STI? A) Syphilis B) Cervical cancer C) Public lice D) Scabies E) Trichomoniasis 21) What is the main reason for health care practitioners to report sexually transmitted infections (STIs) to the state health department? A) To quarantine the individual with the infection. B) To impose a fine on the individual. C) To track the incidence of STIs in communities. D) To arrest the individual with the infection. E) To treat others who may be infected. 22) Which of the following individuals with a sexually transmitted disease would be required by all states to tell a sexual partner of this disease? A) A person with syphilis. B) A person with gonorrhea. C) A person with HIV. D) A person with genital warts. E) A person with scabies. 23) Which of the following individuals would probably have more stringent reporting requirements if they have a communicable disease? A) A stay-at-home parent B) A lawyer C) An office manager D) A waitress E) A file clerk 4 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

24) The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986 created the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (VICP). Which of the following was this legislation created to protect? A) Vaccine manufacturers B) Parents of children with vaccination injuries C) Schools requiring vaccinations for entrance D) Children injured by vaccinations E) State governments 25) Who decides who gets compensation as a result of problems caused by vaccines? A) U.S. Supreme Court B) individual state Supreme Court C) National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program D) U.S. Court of Federal Claims E) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid 26) In most states, which of the following cases is not mandated as a reportable injury? A) A physician suspects child abuse in a child with multiple fractures. B) A physician suspects spousal abuse, however the patient does not admit it occurred. C) A physician treats a patient who states that she was raped. D) A physician treats a person who was assaulted in a parking lot. E) A physician treats an elderly patient who fails to take his medicine. 27) Samantha lives next door to a ninety-year-old woman named Ruth. She usually sees Ruth every couple of days in her garden. Recently, Ruth's son Joseph moved in with his mother. Samantha has heard yelling and screaming coming from Ruth's house and has not seen Ruth in several weeks. When she goes over to visit Ruth, Joseph answers the door and will not let Samantha in the house. What should Samantha consider as a first step? A) Nothing. It is not her business. B) Call the police. C) Talk to another neighbor. D) Demand that Joseph let her in the house. E) Report the problem to the elder abuse hotline. 28) Which of the following victims was the Laci and Conner's Act passed to protect? A) Vulnerable adults B) Older adults C) Children D) Fetuses E) Infants 29) Which agency tests and approves prescription drugs before releasing them for public use? A) Drug Enforcement Administration B) Food and Drug Administration C) Controlled Substances Agency D) Centers for Disease Control E) Federal Drug Safety Administration 5 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

30) Which of the following agencies registers physicians for the writing of prescriptions of controlled substances? A) Drug Enforcement Administration B) Food and Drug Administration C) Controlled Substances Agency D) Centers for Disease Control E) Federal Drug Safety Administration 31) General regulations mandated by the Controlled Substances Act require physicians who purchase, prescribe, dispense, administer, or in any way handle controlled drugs to follow certain procedures. Which of the following accurately describes one of these procedures? A) A physician who registers with the Drug Enforcement Administration may store controlled substances in multiple locations within the division office region. B) The physician must keep records concerning the administering or dispensing of a controlled drug on file for two years. C) The physician must make a written inventory of drug supplies every five years, and keep such records an additional two years. D) The physician must keep drugs in an unlocked storage room and report any thefts immediately to the nearest DEA office and the local police. E) The physician must keep drugs in his or her office and keep logs for five years. 32) A physician issues a medical prescription for a patient. The correct term for this practice is A) dispense. B) administer. C) prescribe. D) register. E) write. 33) Marijuana is listed as a ________ drug. A) Schedule I B) Schedule II C) Schedule III D) Schedule IV E) Schedule V 34) A physician prescribes Oxycodone for a patient who is experiencing severe back pain. Oxcodone is an example of what schedule of drug? A) Schedule I B) Schedule II C) Schedule III D) Schedule IV E) Schedule V

35) Which of the following is an example of a Schedule V drug? A) Ativan® B) Ritalin® C) Lyrica® D) Darvon® E) Xanax® 36) Discuss the procedure for the attending physician after a person is pronounced dead. 37) Define autopsy. 38) What is forensic medicine? 39) What is the difference between a coroner and a medical examiner? 40) Who must sign a death certificate when the person died from a fatal shooting? 41) If a death did not occur because of suspicious circumstances, who must give consent for an autopsy to be performed? 42) What is the process for reporting all live births in the hospital? 43) What is federalism? 44) Explain the relationship between the 10th Amendment of the U.S. Constitution and public health statutes. 45) What medical treatment must children have in order to enter public schools? 46) What program is a no-fault system designed to compensate those individuals, or families of individuals, who have been injured by childhood vaccines? 47) What law created the Administration on Aging and outlined 10 objectives aimed at preserving the rights and dignity of older citizens? 48) Define the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act. 49) Discuss the role of the Food and Drug Administration as it relates to prescription drugs. 50) Discuss the role of the federal Drug Enforcement Agency as it relates to prescription drugs.

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 9 Physicians' Public Duties and Responsibilities 1) The states and the federal government collect vital statistics in the United States that include births, deaths, marriages, divorces, and changes in civil status. What is the main purpose for collection of this information? A) To assess population trends and needs. B) To distribute goods and services fairly. C) To control population growth or decline. D) To provide information to marketing services. E) To determine who should receive public assistance. Answer: A Explanation: To assess population trends and needs, states and the federal government collect vital statistics. Vital events for which statistics are collected include live births, deaths, fetal deaths, marriages, divorces, induced terminations of pregnancy, and any change in civil status that occurs during an individual's lifetime. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 2) Who is responsible for gathering and filing many of the vital statistics collected by the states and the federal government? A) School administrators B) Financial executives C) County commissioners D) Health care practitioners E) Religious leaders Answer: D Explanation: Vital events for which statistics are collected include live births, deaths, fetal deaths, marriages, divorces, induced terminations of pregnancy, and any change in civil status that occurs during an individual's lifetime. Health care practitioners help in gathering this information and in filling out forms for filing with the appropriate state and federal agencies. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

3) Examples of public data collected by law from physicians include A) murders and child abuse incidents. B) felonies. C) incidents of allergic reaction to drugs. D) auto accidents where the physician was attending. E) births, deaths, rapes, and assaults. Answer: E Explanation: Physicians are required to report basic vital statistics such as births and deaths, as well as possible criminal activities such as rape. Although physicians are required to report child abuse, all citizens are required to report murders. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 4) If a patient dies of natural causes while under his or her physician's care, who is responsible for completion of the medical portion of the death certificate? A) Morgue attendant B) Attending physician C) Medical examiner D) Any health care practitioner in attendance at the time of death E) Coroner Answer: B Explanation: If a patient dies of natural causes while under his or her physician's care, the attending physician is responsible for the medical portion of the death certificate. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

5) Which of the following is not required on a death certificate? A) Date of death B) Time of death C) Decedent's complete medical history D) Cause of death E) Place of death Answer: C Explanation: A death certificate requires date and time, place, and cause of death. To include a medical history would create more information than necessary. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 6) The public official who investigates and holds inquests concerning those who die from unknown or violent causes is the A) Morgue attendant. B) Attending physician. C) Medical examiner. D) Forensic pathologist. E) Coroner. Answer: E Explanation: The coroner is the individual who investigates and holds the inquest. A medical examiner, forensic pathologist, morgue attendant, or attending physician may be called to testify, but those individuals are not responsible for holding an inquest. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

7) An obstetrician who delivers babies knows that all live births need to be recorded. To which of the following agencies should these births be reported? A) Local county registrar B) State registrar C) Federal registrar D) Census bureau E) Medical examiner Answer: B Explanation: All live births must be reported to the state registrar. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 8) Generally, birth and death certificates are not required for fetal deaths occurring prior to what week of gestation? A) 15th B) 16th C) 17th D) 18th E) 20th Answer: E Explanation: In some states, separate birth and death certificates must be filed for stillbirths, while in others there are special forms for stillbirths that include both birth and death information. Generally, birth and death certificates are not required for fetal deaths in which the fetus has not passed the 20th week of gestation. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

9) In which of the following cases would it be legal for a physician to sign a death certificate? A) If the physician attended to the deceased before the death. B) If the death was possibly due to criminal causes. C) If the cause of death was undetermined by the physician. D) If the cause of death was violent. E) If the cause of death was suspicious. Answer: A Explanation: In most states, it is against the law for an attending physician to sign a death certificate if the death was possibly due to criminal causes, not attended by a physician within a specified length of time before death, due to causes undetermined by the physician, or violent or otherwise suspicious. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 10) A person dies as a result of a carjacking. Who is responsible for signing the death certificate for this individual? A) The chief of police B) The mortician C) The next of kin D) The coroner E) The physician Answer: D Explanation: In most states, it is against the law for an attending physician to sign a death certificate if the death was possibly due to criminal causes, not attended by a physician within a specified length of time before death, due to causes undetermined by the physician, or violent or otherwise suspicious. In any of these cases, a coroner or medical examiner must sign the death certificate. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

11) A death has occurred under normal circumstances and the body released to the funeral home. Who is responsible for filing the death certificate with the state? A) The mortician B) The physician C) The coroner D) The hospital E) The police chief Answer: A Explanation: When death has occurred under normal circumstances, after authorization has been obtained from the next of kin or from a legally responsible party, the body can be removed to a funeral home. The mortician or undertaker (person trained to attend to the dead) files the death certificate with the state. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 12) Which of the following accurately describes the role of the coroner or medical examiner in the event of a violent death? A) A coroner, who is always a physician, holds an inquest to determine cause of death. B) A coroner or medical examiner conducts a trial to determine the cause of death. C) A medical examiner, who is frequently a pathologist, may order and perform an autopsy. D) A coroner investigates the crime scene and presents medical proof at a trial. E) A police chief orders an autopsy and the coroner performs the autopsy. Answer: C Explanation: A medical examiner is a physician, frequently a pathologist, who investigates suspicious or unexplained deaths in a community. As a physician, the medical examiner can order and perform autopsies. A coroner is a public official who investigates and holds inquests over those who die from unknown or violent causes; he or she may or may not be a physician, depending on state law. The purpose of a coroner's inquest is to gather evidence that may be used by the police in the investigation of a violent or suspicious death. It is not a trial, but it is a criminal proceeding, in the nature of a preliminary investigation. Forensic scientists investigate crime scenes and present medical proof at trials and hearings. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

13) A division of medicine that incorporates law and medicine and involves medical issues or medical proof at trials having to do with malpractice, crimes, or accidents is called A) Criminal medicine. B) Investigative medicine. C) Examiner medicine. D) Forensic medicine. E) Statistical medicine. Answer: D Explanation: Forensic medicine is a division of medicine that incorporates law and medicine and involves medical issues or medical proof at trials having to do with malpractice, crimes, or accidents. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 14) Which of the following is not a purpose of public health statutes? A) Checking water quality. B) Requiring physicians to take public health courses. C) Inspecting restaurants and other facilities that serve food. D) Exterminating pest and vermin that can spread disease. E) Guarding against unsanitary conditions in public facilities. Answer: B Explanation: The licensing board for a physician or other healthcare provider sets the continuing education requirements for their specific profession. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Public Health Statutes Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

15) The power of the states to initiate public health statutes is inferred from which amendment to the U.S. Constitution? A) First Amendment B) Second Amendment C) Sixth Amendment D) Ninth Amendment E) Tenth Amendment Answer: E Explanation: The power of the states to initiate public health statutes is inferred from the Tenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution, included in the Bill of Rights. The amendment states "The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States, respectively, or to the people." In other words, states retain police powers and all other powers not expressively granted to the federal government. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Public Health Statutes Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 16) Which of the following is an example of federalism? A) A state retains police powers not expressively granted to the federal government. B) The federal government has more powers than the state government. C) If state and federal government statutes conflict, the federal statute takes precedence. D) If state and federal government statutes conflict, the state statute takes precedence. E) Local legislation takes precedence over state or federal legislation. Answer: A Explanation: States retain police powers and all other powers not expressly granted to the federal government—a practice referred to as "federalism"—the sharing of power among national, state, and local governments. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Public Health Statutes Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

17) The state of Virginia checks all restaurants to make sure the conditions are sanitary. This is an example of which of the following? A) Criminal law B) Civil statutes C) Federal health law D) Public health statutes E) Civilian protection acts Answer: D Explanation: In all states, public health statues help guarantee the health and well-being of citizens. All public health statutes provide for guarding against unsanitary conditions in public facilities, inspecting establishments where food and drink are processed and sold, exterminating pests and vermin that can spread disease, checking water quality, setting up measures of control for certain diseases, and requiring physicians, school nurses, and other health care workers to file certain reports for the protection of citizens. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Public Health Statutes Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 18) Which of the following is an example of a state law that requires behavioral changes on the part of the public? A) Vaccinations to enter school. B) Spraying communities for mosquito control. C) Promoting the use of child safety seats. D) Inspecting restaurants for sanitary conditions. E) Fluoridation of the public water supply. Answer: C Explanation: Child safety seat laws require behavioral changes on the part of the parents using them. Vaccinations require parental cooperation, and spraying for mosquitoes, fluoridating the water supply, and inspecting restaurants requires no participation on the part of the public. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Public Health Statutes Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

19) Which of the following examples of public health statutes is enforced by citations for noncompliance? A) Vaccinations to enter school. B) Spraying communities for mosquito control. C) Smoking bans. D) Fluoride in the public water supply. E) Food supply inspections. Answer: C Explanation: Smoking bans may be enforced by citations for noncompliance. Fluoridation of the public water supply is enforced by periodic checking of the public water supply. Vaccinations for school entry are enforced by requiring proof of vaccination when children enter school. Food supply inspections may be enforced by the FDA initiating civil action or criminal prosecution. Fluoride in the public water supply is a decision made at the local level. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Public Health Statutes Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 20) Certain sexually transmitted infections (STIs) must be reported whenever diagnosed. Which of the following is not a reportable STI? A) Syphilis B) Cervical cancer C) Public lice D) Scabies E) Trichomoniasis Answer: B Explanation: Reportable STIs differ among states but generally include gonorrhea, syphilis, chlamydia, lymphogranuloma venereum, chancroid, granuloma inguinale (genital warts), scabies, pubic lice, and trichomoniasis. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Reportable Diseases and Injuries Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

21) What is the main reason for health care practitioners to report sexually transmitted infections (STIs) to the state health department? A) To quarantine the individual with the infection. B) To impose a fine on the individual. C) To track the incidence of STIs in communities. D) To arrest the individual with the infection. E) To treat others who may be infected. Answer: E Explanation: Public health practitioners use reported cases of STIs to find and treat others who may have been infected through sexual contact with the named individual. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Reportable Diseases and Injuries Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 22) Which of the following individuals with a sexually transmitted disease would be required by all states to tell a sexual partner of this disease? A) A person with syphilis. B) A person with gonorrhea. C) A person with HIV. D) A person with genital warts. E) A person with scabies. Answer: C Explanation: All 50 states require that individuals infected with HIV notify past and present sexual partners. The other diseases listed should be reported to the state public health departments. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Reportable Diseases and Injuries Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

23) Which of the following individuals would probably have more stringent reporting requirements if they have a communicable disease? A) A stay-at-home parent B) A lawyer C) An office manager D) A waitress E) A file clerk Answer: D Explanation: Reporting requirements for communicable diseases are usually more stringent for patients who are employed in restaurants, cafeterias, day care centers, schools, health care facilities, and other places where contagion can be rampant. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Reportable Diseases and Injuries Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 24) The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986 created the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (VICP). Which of the following was this legislation created to protect? A) Vaccine manufacturers B) Parents of children with vaccination injuries C) Schools requiring vaccinations for entrance D) Children injured by vaccinations E) State governments Answer: A Explanation: The reason for creating the VICP system was to relieve vaccine manufacturers and providers from having to pay judgments for vaccine injuries that, in turn, could lead to a shortage of vaccines due to the disincentive of legal liability. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Reportable Diseases and Injuries Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

25) Who decides who gets compensation as a result of problems caused by vaccines? A) U.S. Supreme Court B) individual state Supreme Court C) National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program D) U.S. Court of Federal Claims E) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Answer: D Explanation: The VICP is a no-fault system designed to compensate those individuals, or families of individuals, who have been injured by childhood vaccines. The program serves as an alternative to suing vaccine manufacturers and providers, but does not take away an injured person's right to sue vaccine manufacturers and providers. The U.S. Court of Federal Claims decides who will get compensation as the result of problems. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Reportable Diseases and Injuries Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 26) In most states, which of the following cases is not mandated as a reportable injury? A) A physician suspects child abuse in a child with multiple fractures. B) A physician suspects spousal abuse, however the patient does not admit it occurred. C) A physician treats a patient who states that she was raped. D) A physician treats a person who was assaulted in a parking lot. E) A physician treats an elderly patient who fails to take his medicine. Answer: B Explanation: In all states, physicians must immediately report to law enforcement officials medical treatment of patients whose injuries resulted from certain acts of violence, such as assault, rape, or domestic violence, so that authorities can investigate the incident. However, in many states, spousal abuse is reportable only if the patient says his or her injuries are due to spousal abuse. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Reportable Diseases and Injuries Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

27) Samantha lives next door to a ninety-year-old woman named Ruth. She usually sees Ruth every couple of days in her garden. Recently, Ruth's son Joseph moved in with his mother. Samantha has heard yelling and screaming coming from Ruth's house and has not seen Ruth in several weeks. When she goes over to visit Ruth, Joseph answers the door and will not let Samantha in the house. What should Samantha consider as a first step? A) Nothing. It is not her business. B) Call the police. C) Talk to another neighbor. D) Demand that Joseph let her in the house. E) Report the problem to the elder abuse hotline. Answer: E Explanation: This is a difficult situation. At a minimum, Samantha should find out about the reporting systems in place to report this possible abuse. Most of them do not require that you leave a name. Many states require health professionals, particularly physicians to report suspected elder abuse. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Reportable Diseases and Injuries Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 28) Which of the following victims was the Laci and Conner's Act passed to protect? A) Vulnerable adults B) Older adults C) Children D) Fetuses E) Infants Answer: D Explanation: The Laci and Conner's Act, also called the Unborn Victims of Violence Act, is a 2004 federal law that provides for the prosecution of anyone who causes injury to, or the death of, a fetus in utero. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Reportable Diseases and Injuries Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

29) Which agency tests and approves prescription drugs before releasing them for public use? A) Drug Enforcement Administration B) Food and Drug Administration C) Controlled Substances Agency D) Centers for Disease Control E) Federal Drug Safety Administration Answer: B Explanation: The Food and Drug Administration (FDA), an agency within the Department of Health and Human Services, tests and approves drugs before releasing them for public use. This agency also oversees drug quality and standardization. The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), a branch of the Department of Justice, regulates the sale and use of drugs by the authority granted in the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970, commonly called the Controlled Substances Act. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Drug Regulations Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 30) Which of the following agencies registers physicians for the writing of prescriptions of controlled substances? A) Drug Enforcement Administration B) Food and Drug Administration C) Controlled Substances Agency D) Centers for Disease Control E) Federal Drug Safety Administration Answer: A Explanation: The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), a branch of the Department of Justice, regulates the sale and use of drugs by the authority granted in the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970, commonly called the Controlled Substances Act. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Drug Regulations Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

31) General regulations mandated by the Controlled Substances Act require physicians who purchase, prescribe, dispense, administer, or in any way handle controlled drugs to follow certain procedures. Which of the following accurately describes one of these procedures? A) A physician who registers with the Drug Enforcement Administration may store controlled substances in multiple locations within the division office region. B) The physician must keep records concerning the administering or dispensing of a controlled drug on file for two years. C) The physician must make a written inventory of drug supplies every five years, and keep such records an additional two years. D) The physician must keep drugs in an unlocked storage room and report any thefts immediately to the nearest DEA office and the local police. E) The physician must keep drugs in his or her office and keep logs for five years. Answer: B Explanation: The physician must keep records concerning the administering or dispensing of a controlled drug on file for two years. The physician is issued a DEA number for a specific physician in a specific location. That location is the only one at which the physician may store controlled substances, including salespeople's samples. The physician must make a written inventory of drug supplies every two years, and keep such records an additional two years. The physician must also keep drugs in a locked cabinet or safe, and report any thefts to the DEA office and local police. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Drug Regulations Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 32) A physician issues a medical prescription for a patient. The correct term for this practice is A) dispense. B) administer. C) prescribe. D) register. E) write. Answer: C Explanation: To prescribe is to issue a medical prescription for a patient. To dispense is to deliver controlled substances in some type of bottle, box, or other container to a patient. To administer is to instill a medication into the body of a patient. A physician registers with the Drug Enforcement Administration through a division office to store and prescribe controlled substances. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Drug Regulations Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 16 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

33) Marijuana is listed as a ________ drug. A) Schedule I B) Schedule II C) Schedule III D) Schedule IV E) Schedule V Answer: A Explanation: Marijuana is listed as a Schedule I drug as of the end of 2017. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Drug Regulations Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 34) A physician prescribes Oxycodone for a patient who is experiencing severe back pain. Oxcodone is an example of what schedule of drug? A) Schedule I B) Schedule II C) Schedule III D) Schedule IV E) Schedule V Answer: B Explanation: With Schedule II drugs, potential for abuse of these narcotic drugs is high, but there are currently accepted medical uses for the drug or substance in the United States, often with severe restrictions. Examples of such drugs include Dexedrine®, Desoxyn®, Preludin®, Ritalin®. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Drug Regulations Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

35) Which of the following is an example of a Schedule V drug? A) Ativan® B) Ritalin® C) Lyrica® D) Darvon® E) Xanax® Answer: C Explanation: Schedule V drugs have a low potential for abuse relative to the drugs or other substances in Schedule IV, and currently are accepted for medical use in the United States. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Drug Regulations Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 36) Discuss the procedure for the attending physician after a person is pronounced dead. Answer: After a person is pronounced dead, the attending physician must complete the medical portion of the certificate of death, and state the cause, date and time, place, gender, and whether or not an autopsy was performed. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 37) Define autopsy. Answer: An autopsy is a postmortem examination to determine the cause of death or to obtain physiological evidence, as in the case of a suspicious death. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

38) What is forensic medicine? Answer: Forensics is a division of medicine that incorporates law and medicine and involves medical issues or medical proof at trials having to do with malpractice, crimes, and accidents. Forensic scientists investigate crime scenes and present medical proof at trials and hearings. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 39) What is the difference between a coroner and a medical examiner? Answer: A medical examiner is a physician, frequently a pathologist, who investigates suspicious or unexplained deaths in a community. As a physician, the medical examiner can order and perform autopsies. A coroner is a public official who investigates and holds inquests concerning those who die from unknown or violent causes. Coroners may or may not be physicians, depending on state law. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 40) Who must sign a death certificate when the person died from a fatal shooting? Answer: If a death was due to criminal causes, was not attended by a physician within a specified length of time after death, was due to causes undetermined by the physician, or was violent or suspicious, the coroner or medical examiner must sign the death certificate. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

41) If a death did not occur because of suspicious circumstances, who must give consent for an autopsy to be performed? Answer: If the death did not occur under suspicious circumstances, consent from the next of kin or a legally responsible party must be obtained for an autopsy to be performed. If a death occurs under suspicious circumstances, permission from the next of kin is not needed for an autopsy to be performed. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 42) What is the process for reporting all live births in the hospital? Answer: Hospitals file birth certificates with the state registrar for babies born to mothers who have been admitted as patients. The attending physician must verify all medical information contained in the birth certificate. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Vital Statistics Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 43) What is federalism? Answer: Federalism is the sharing of power among national, state, and local governments. States retain police powers and all other powers not expressly granted to the federal government. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Public Health Statutes Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

44) Explain the relationship between the 10th Amendment of the U.S. Constitution and public health statutes. Answer: The power of the states to initiate public health statutes is inferred from the Tenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution, included in the Bill of Rights. The amendment states "The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States, respectively, or to the people." Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Public Health Statutes Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 45) What medical treatment must children have in order to enter public schools? Answer: Parents usually begin programs of vaccination against certain communicable diseases for their children when they are infants. When children reach school age, most states ask for proof of vaccination for children entering the public school system for the first time. Medical and religious reasons may be considered as reasons to opt out of vaccinations. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Reportable Diseases and Injuries Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 46) What program is a no-fault system designed to compensate those individuals, or families of individuals, who have been injured by childhood vaccines? Answer: The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986 created the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (VICP). The reason for creating the VICP system was to relieve vaccine manufacturers and providers from having to pay judgments for vaccine injuries that, in turn, could lead to a shortage of vaccines due to the disincentive of legal liability. The VICP is a no-fault system designed to compensate those individuals, or families of individuals, who have been injured by childhood vaccines. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Reportable Diseases and Injuries Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

47) What law created the Administration on Aging and outlined 10 objectives aimed at preserving the rights and dignity of older citizens? Answer: The Older Americans Act was signed into law by President Lyndon B. Johnson in 1965. The act created the Administration on Aging and outlined 10 objectives aimed at preserving the rights and dignity of older adults. It has been amended several times. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Reportable Diseases and Injuries Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 48) Define the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act. Answer: The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986 created the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (VICP). The reason for creating the VICP system was to relieve vaccine manufacturers and providers from having to pay judgments for vaccine injuries that, in turn, could lead to a shortage of vaccines due to the disincentive of legal liability. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Reportable Diseases and Injuries Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 49) Discuss the role of the Food and Drug Administration as it relates to prescription drugs. Answer: The Food and Drug Administration (FDA), an agency within the Department of Health and Human Services, tests and approves drugs before releasing them for public use. This agency also oversees drug quality and standardization. The FDA also has responsibility for major product recalls—a function vital to maintaining public health. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Drug Regulations Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

50) Discuss the role of the federal Drug Enforcement Agency as it relates to prescription drugs. Answer: At the federal level, the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), a branch of the Department of Justice, regulates the sale and use of drugs by the authority granted in the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Drug Regulations Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 10 Workplace Legalities 1) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 covers which of the following? A) Makes discrimination in the workplace illegal. B) Applies to businesses with 25 employees or more. C) Does not cover discrimination with respect to gender. D) Applies only to the hiring and firing of employees. E) Applies to safety in the workplace. 2) A practice manager fires a medical assistant and cannot provide a legal reason for the dismissal. This is an example of which of the following? A) Employment-at-will B) Wrongful discharge C) Just cause D) Discrimination E) Public policy 3) Which of the following may be used as evidence of just cause for termination, should a wrongful discharge lawsuit be filed against an employer? A) The employee speaks out against discrimination in the workplace. B) The employee is a whistle-blower. C) The employee is disabled. D) The employee is sexually harassing another employee. E) When the discharge applies to safety in the workplace. 4) Quid pro quo is prohibited under the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) definition of sexual harassment. Which of the following is an example of this type of harassment? A) A physician makes a nurse feel uncomfortable by constantly commenting on her attire and physical appearance. B) A practice manager constantly talks about her sexual activities in the office. C) A nurse in a nursing home sexually harasses physically disabled patients whom she is helping to take a shower. D) A physician constantly talks about his "love life" in front of the office staff. E) A surgical resident is offered opportunities to scrub in on a procedure if he dates the surgeon. 5) Which of the following federal laws makes it illegal to discriminate in hiring or firing because of union membership or organizational activities? A) Civil Rights Act of 1964 B) Civil Rights Act of 1991 C) Wagner Act of 1935 D) Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act of 2009 E) Rehabilitation Act of 1973

6) A nursing home administrator sets up programs to give preferential treatment for minorities. This is being done because the current workforce at the nursing home is predominantly white. What is the term for this policy? A) Equal opportunity B) Fair labor standards C) Wage and hour laws D) Affirmative action E) Civil rights 7) Which of the following wage and hour laws provides for overtime pay and a minimum wage? A) Civil Rights Act of 1964 B) Fair Labor Standard Act of 1938 C) Wagner Act of 1935 D) Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act of 2009 E) Rehabilitation Act of 1973 8) The primary source of information for OSHA standards is A) the medical office policy handbook. B) hospital policies and procedures. C) OSHA state law. D) OSHA federal law. E) OSHA Web site. 9) OSHA has five priorities. Which of the following lists those priorities in order? A) Imminent danger situations, investigating fatalities, employee complaints, programmed inspections, and follow-up inspections. B) Investigating fatalities, imminent danger situations, employee complaints, programmed inspections, and follow-up inspections. C) Employee complaints, investigating fatalities, imminent danger situations, programmed inspections, and follow-up inspections. D) Programmed inspections, investigating fatalities, imminent danger situations, employee complaints, and follow-up inspections. E) Imminent danger situations, employee complaints, investigating fatalities, programmed inspections, and follow-up inspections. 10) An OSHA inspector finds that a hospital lab is operating under unsafe conditions that could endanger the lives of employees. What is the initial action that would be taken by the inspector? A) Apply to the federal district court for an injunction. B) Close down the lab until the unsafe condition is remedied. C) Report the problem to an OSHA compliance officer. D) Immediately fine the employer. E) Ask the employer to remedy the situation.

11) Many states have right-to-know laws. These laws offer employees A) protection from unsafe work environments. B) protection from discrimination. C) protection from sexual harassment. D) protection from required union membership. E) protection from work stoppages. 12) Which of the following occurs when an OSHA compliance officer informs an employer the business is subject to "failure to abate" alleged violations? A) The business is permanently shut down. B) The business is subject to daily penalties. C) The business is temporarily shut down. D) The business is featured on the evening news. E) The business is asked to correct the violation. 13) Safety Data Sheets (SDS) are A) only used in hospitals. B) only used in medical labs. C) sometimes used in medical offices. D) only required after an OSHA violation. E) required in any business that has any hazardous material. 14) The Bloodborne Pathogen Standard is designed to protect health care workers against which of the following? A) any contagious disease B) Cancer causing agents C) contagious diseases like HBV D) contagious diseases like the flu E) contagious diseases like rabies 15) OSHA standards for medical settings and health care workers are often influenced by, or associated with, guidelines issued by A) JCAHO. B) CMS. C) CLIA. D) CDC. E) HCS. 16) Employees in medical facilities often use hazardous materials in their workplace. Which of the following is a guideline for safely handling these materials? A) Only licensed health care workers may handle hazardous substances. B) Supervisors must read new Safety Data Sheets to employees. C) Each hazardous product must have a poison label on the packaging. D) Safety Data Sheets must be filed in a locked drawer in the main office. E) The employer must provide a Safety Data Sheet for each hazardous chemical.

17) Which of the following specifically states that any equipment that may pose a health risk is included as a hazard? A) CDC guidelines B) Chemical Hygiene Plan C) General Duty Clause D) Medical Waste Tracking Act E) Bloodborne Pathogens Standard 18) Which of the following acts mandated that employers maintain a sharps injury log and involved nonmanagerial employees in selecting safer medical devices? A) Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Standard B) Chemical Hygiene Plan C) General Duty Clause D) Medical Waste Tracking Act E) CDC Isolation Precautions 19) In 2012, OSHA published the first major revision to the Hazard Communication Standard. What was the main purpose of the revision? A) Require better labels on all items in a healthcare facility. B) Transform the right of employees to know about workplace hazards to the "right to understand" workplace hazards. C) Require employees to maintain a sharps injury log. D) Require employees to double glove when handling toxic materials. E) Transform the right of employees to understand workplace hazards to a "right to know" workplace hazards. 20) The CDC publishes an online guide for preventing transmissions of infectious agents. This guide is intended for A) epidemiologists. B) health care administrators. C) physicians. D) ancillary health care personnel. E) all of these. 21) In the revision to the Hazard Communication Standard, OSHA created a new name for Material Safety Data Sheets. What is the new acronym? A) CDC B) CHP C) BPS D) SDS E) OSHA did not create a new acronym.

22) The OSHA Ionizing Radiation Standard applies to all medical and dental offices that have A) hazardous chemicals. B) blood draw stations. C) centrifuges. D) x-ray machines. E) autoclaves. 23) Sarah is starting a new job as a medical assistant at a local clinic. Under OSHA regulations, what must her employer offer her as part of her employment? A) Free lunches at least once a week B) Uniforms C) No-cost hepatitis B vaccinations D) No-cost flu vaccinations E) Annual physical 24) Which of the following is an OSHA guideline for disposal of medical waste material? A) Dispose of chemicals in a glass or metal container. B) Dispose of sharp objects in a glass container. C) Do not flush any chemicals down the drain. D) Do not incinerate medical wastes. E) Licensed medical waste handlers are not necessary for medical offices. 25) Which of the following is not a requirement of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)? A) Obtain certification. B) Follow minimum regulations regarding quality control. C) Follow maximum quality standards for lab testing. D) Pay applicable fees. E) Follow regulations regarding test controls. 26) Federal and state workers' compensation laws establish procedures for compensating workers who are injured on the job. Which of the following accurately describes an aspect of these laws? A) The employee pays the cost of the insurance premium. B) State laws cover workers in Washington, DC and maritime workers. C) The injured employee may file other claims, as well as accept workers' compensation. D) Only injuries are covered by workers' compensation, diseases are not. E) The injured employee can file a claim with the government instead of suing. 27) An employee of a hospital is injured on the job and files for workers' compensation. Which of the following type of state compensation benefits would be available to this injured worker? A) Permanent disability indemnity in the form of weekly cash payments. B) A lump sum for a temporary disability. C) Weekly cash payments for living expenses. D) Salary replacement. E) Rehabilitation benefits paid in a lump sum.

28) An employee of a nursing home is injured on the job while lifting patients. She believes her back has been injured, but not badly. What is the initial action she should be taking after hurting her back? A) Tell her coworkers to call an ambulance. B) Report the injury to a supervisor. C) Report the injury to the Workers' Compensation agency. D) Report the injury to the human resources department. E) Wait 24 hours; it may just be temporary. 29) An employee who is laid off from his job files for unemployment insurance. Which of the following accurately describes the management of unemployment funds available to this worker? A) The funds are managed solely by the state government. B) The funds are managed solely by the federal government. C) Employees contribute to a fund that is paid out to eligible unemployed workers. D) In all but a few states, the total cost is covered by the employer. E) The funds are managed solely by the county government. 30) Which of the following is needed for a claimant to file for unemployment benefits? A) Birth certificate. B) Employee's ID badge. C) Employers' names and addresses for the past 18 months. D) W-2s for five years. 31) Which of the following information should not be included on an employee's W-2 form? A) Employer tax ID number. B) Employee's Social Security number. C) Amounts deducted for life insurance. D) Total earnings paid by the employer. E) Amounts deducted for income tax and Social Security. 32) A practice manager is interviewing a medical assistant for a new position in the office. Which of the following information can an employer legally ask of a prospective employee? A) Religion B) Political affiliation C) Marital status D) Number of children E) Education 33) A practice manager is interviewing medical assistants for several new positions in an expanding medical practice. Which of the following is not a recommended guideline for conducting the interviews? A) Stick to a list of questions for all candidates that relate to the job description. B) Do not rush the interview; allow it to last as long as the candidate prefers. C) Do not ask why the person is leaving his or her current position. D) Always ask about child care arrangements. E) Do not promise to inform the candidate when a decision has been made. 6 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

34) A bonded employee in a medical office embezzles money from the employers. In most situations, from whom will the money ultimately be recovered? A) The employee B) The insurance carrier C) The employee's family D) The government E) The medical malpractice insurance 35) Which of the following is not an area of questioning appropriate for the employer to ask a job applicant? A) Work experience B) Hours available to work C) Birth date D) Social Security number E) Licenses/certifications 36) What does the term "wrongful discharge" mean? 37) What does the term "employment-at-will" mean? 38) Discuss the concept of public policy as it relates to the hiring and firing of employees. 39) Identify at least three employment activities that are considered discrimination under federal law. 40) Describe the circumstances of the Lily Ledbetter case. 41) What is the major responsibility for the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)? 42) Identify, in order, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration's (OSHA's) five priorities for workplace inspections. 43) What responsibilities do employees have under OSHA standards? 44) What is the purpose of the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard? 45) What is the purpose of the Hazard Communication Standard? 46) Discuss the changes made in 2012 to the Hazard Communication Standard. 47) What is the purpose of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act of 1988? 48) What are the five types of state workers' compensation benefits? 49) Identify the specific areas of discrimination in hiring, promoting, and firing. 7 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

50) What is the purpose of an I-9 form?

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 10 Workplace Legalities 1) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 covers which of the following? A) Makes discrimination in the workplace illegal. B) Applies to businesses with 25 employees or more. C) Does not cover discrimination with respect to gender. D) Applies only to the hiring and firing of employees. E) Applies to safety in the workplace. Answer: A Explanation: Title VII applies to businesses with 15 or more employees, covers discrimination, and is focused on a much broader area than simply hiring and firing. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: How the Law Affects the Workplace Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 2) A practice manager fires a medical assistant and cannot provide a legal reason for the dismissal. This is an example of which of the following? A) Employment-at-will B) Wrongful discharge C) Just cause D) Discrimination E) Public policy Answer: B Explanation: Wrongful discharge is a concept established by precedent that says an employer risks litigation if he or she does not have just cause (a legal reason) for firing an employee. Discrimination in the workplace is treating employees differently in hiring, firing, work assignments, or other aspects of employment because of personal traits or practices. Discrimination may be a cause of wrongful discharge. Public policy in the context of employment refers to the idea that the employee terminated was acting in the common good by challenging workplace policies. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: How the Law Affects the Workplace Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

3) Which of the following may be used as evidence of just cause for termination, should a wrongful discharge lawsuit be filed against an employer? A) The employee speaks out against discrimination in the workplace. B) The employee is a whistle-blower. C) The employee is disabled. D) The employee is sexually harassing another employee. E) When the discharge applies to safety in the workplace. Answer: D Explanation: If a nonsupervisory employee sexually harasses another worker, the employer is held liable only if he or she knew or should have known about the offense and did nothing to stop it. Sexual harassment of another employee would constitute just cause for dismissing the offending employee. Federal laws prohibit employers from firing or otherwise discriminating against employees for any of the following reasons: belonging to a particular race or religion; being male or female; being a particular age or having a disability; joining a union or engaging in political activity; preventing the collection of retirement benefits; reporting company safety violations (whistle-blowing); exercising the right to free speech; or refusing to take drug or lie detector tests (with some exceptions). Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: How the Law Affects the Workplace Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

4) Quid pro quo is prohibited under the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) definition of sexual harassment. Which of the following is an example of this type of harassment? A) A physician makes a nurse feel uncomfortable by constantly commenting on her attire and physical appearance. B) A practice manager constantly talks about her sexual activities in the office. C) A nurse in a nursing home sexually harasses physically disabled patients whom she is helping to take a shower. D) A physician constantly talks about his "love life" in front of the office staff. E) A surgical resident is offered opportunities to scrub in on a procedure if he dates the surgeon. Answer: E Explanation: Unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature constitute sexual harassment when (1) submission to such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or condition of an individual's employment; (2) submission to or rejection of such conduct by an individual is used as a basis for employment decisions affecting such individual; or (3) such conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual's work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment. While the other examples are possible forms of sexual harassment, they are not examples of quid pro quo. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: How the Law Affects the Workplace Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

5) Which of the following federal laws makes it illegal to discriminate in hiring or firing because of union membership or organizational activities? A) Civil Rights Act of 1964 B) Civil Rights Act of 1991 C) Wagner Act of 1935 D) Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act of 2009 E) Rehabilitation Act of 1973 Answer: C Explanation: The Wagner Act of 1935 makes it illegal to discriminate in hiring or firing because of union membership or organizational activities. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prevents employers from discriminating in hiring or firing on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 provided two new important benefits for employees who prove discrimination: (1) employees may collect punitive damages; (2) employees may collect damages for emotional distress associated with incidents of discrimination. The Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act revised other legislation by providing statutes of limitation trigger dates, extending the class of plaintiffs to any individual who is "affected by" unlawful discrimination, and providing recovery of back pay. The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 prohibits companies with federal contracts from discriminating against disabled individuals. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: How the Law Affects the Workplace Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 6) A nursing home administrator sets up programs to give preferential treatment for minorities. This is being done because the current workforce at the nursing home is predominantly white. What is the term for this policy? A) Equal opportunity B) Fair labor standards C) Wage and hour laws D) Affirmative action E) Civil rights Answer: D Explanation: Affirmative action involves programs that use goals and quotas to provide preferential treatment for minority persons determined to have been underutilized in the past. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: How the Law Affects the Workplace Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

7) Which of the following wage and hour laws provides for overtime pay and a minimum wage? A) Civil Rights Act of 1964 B) Fair Labor Standard Act of 1938 C) Wagner Act of 1935 D) Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act of 2009 E) Rehabilitation Act of 1973 Answer: B Explanation: The 1938 Fair Labor Standards Act prohibits child labor and the firing of employees for exercising their rights under the act's wage and hour standards. It also provides for overtime pay and a minimum wage. The Wagner Act of 1935 makes it illegal to discriminate in hiring or firing because of union membership or organizational activities. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prevents employers from discriminating in hiring or firing on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. The Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act revised other legislation by providing statutes of limitation trigger dates, extending the class of plaintiffs to any individual who is "affected by" unlawful discrimination, and providing recovery of back pay. The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 prohibits companies with federal contracts from discriminating against disabled individuals. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: How the Law Affects the Workplace Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 8) The primary source of information for OSHA standards is A) the medical office policy handbook. B) hospital policies and procedures. C) OSHA state law. D) OSHA federal law. E) OSHA Web site. Answer: E Explanation: Employers and employees may review all standards at OSHA's Web site— www.osha.gov. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Employee Welfare and Safety Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: III.C.4. Identify personal safety precautions as established by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

9) OSHA has five priorities. Which of the following lists those priorities in order? A) Imminent danger situations, investigating fatalities, employee complaints, programmed inspections, and follow-up inspections. B) Investigating fatalities, imminent danger situations, employee complaints, programmed inspections, and follow-up inspections. C) Employee complaints, investigating fatalities, imminent danger situations, programmed inspections, and follow-up inspections. D) Programmed inspections, investigating fatalities, imminent danger situations, employee complaints, and follow-up inspections. E) Imminent danger situations, employee complaints, investigating fatalities, programmed inspections, and follow-up inspections. Answer: A Explanation: The five priorities in order for OSHA are imminent danger situations, investigating fatalities, employee complaints, programmed inspections, and follow-up inspections. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Employee Welfare and Safety Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: III.C.4. Identify personal safety precautions as established by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) 10) An OSHA inspector finds that a hospital lab is operating under unsafe conditions that could endanger the lives of employees. What is the initial action that would be taken by the inspector? A) Apply to the federal district court for an injunction. B) Close down the lab until the unsafe condition is remedied. C) Report the problem to an OSHA compliance officer. D) Immediately fine the employer. E) Ask the employer to remedy the situation. Answer: E Explanation: Initially, if an OSHA inspector finds an imminent danger situation, he or she will ask the employer to voluntarily remedy the situation so that employees are no longer exposed to the dangerous situation. If the employer fails to do this, an OSHA compliance officer may apply to the federal district court for an injunction to stop work until unsafe conditions are corrected. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Employee Welfare and Safety Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: III.C.4. Identify personal safety precautions as established by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

11) Many states have right-to-know laws. These laws offer employees A) protection from unsafe work environments. B) protection from discrimination. C) protection from sexual harassment. D) protection from required union membership. E) protection from work stoppages. Answer: A Explanation: Right-to-know laws are state laws that allow employees access to information about toxic or hazardous substances, employer duties, employee rights, and other workplace health and safety issues. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Employee Welfare and Safety Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 12) Which of the following occurs when an OSHA compliance officer informs an employer the business is subject to "failure to abate" alleged violations? A) The business is permanently shut down. B) The business is subject to daily penalties. C) The business is temporarily shut down. D) The business is featured on the evening news. E) The business is asked to correct the violation. Answer: B Explanation: If an employer has failed to abate a violation, the OSHA compliance officer informs the employer that he or she is subject to "failure to abate" alleged violations. This involves proposed additional daily penalties until the employer corrects the violation. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Employee Welfare and Safety Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: III.C.3. Discuss infection control procedures

13) Safety Data Sheets (SDS) are A) only used in hospitals. B) only used in medical labs. C) sometimes used in medical offices. D) only required after an OSHA violation. E) required in any business that has any hazardous material. Answer: E Explanation: Safety Data Sheets are required in any business that has hazardous materials. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: OSHA, CDC and CLIA Regulations Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 9.c. Dispose of hazardous material Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: III.P.10. Demonstrate proper disposal of biohazardous waste 14) The Bloodborne Pathogen Standard is designed to protect health care workers against which of the following? A) any contagious disease B) Cancer causing agents C) contagious diseases like HBV D) contagious diseases like the flu E) contagious diseases like rabies Answer: C Explanation: The Standard was designed to protect health care workers against those contagious diseases that remain active while in the blood or other human tissue. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: OSHA, CDC and CLIA Regulations Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 8.a. Practice Standard Precautions and perform disinfection/sterilization techniques Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: III.P.2. Select appropriate barrier/personal protective equipment (PPE)

15) OSHA standards for medical settings and health care workers are often influenced by, or associated with, guidelines issued by A) JCAHO. B) CMS. C) CLIA. D) CDC. E) HCS. Answer: D Explanation: OSHA standards for medical settings and health care workers often are influenced by and/or closely associated with, guidelines issued by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). JCAHO is involved with licensing and certification of medical facilities. The Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) is an OSHA standard that is intended to increase health care practitioners' awareness of risk, improve work practices and appropriate use of personal protective equipment, and reduce injuries and illnesses. The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) act established minimum quality standards for all laboratory testing. CMS is the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: OSHA, CDC and CLIA Regulations Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 16) Employees in medical facilities often use hazardous materials in their workplace. Which of the following is a guideline for safely handling these materials? A) Only licensed health care workers may handle hazardous substances. B) Supervisors must read new Safety Data Sheets to employees. C) Each hazardous product must have a poison label on the packaging. D) Safety Data Sheets must be filed in a locked drawer in the main office. E) The employer must provide a Safety Data Sheet for each hazardous chemical. Answer: E Explanation: Under the Hazardous Communication Standard (HCS), medical facilities must have a written hazard communication program. A list of all office hazards must be compiled, posted on bulletin boards, and placed in a hazard communication manual. Each hazardous product in use must have a hazard label, which is a condensed version of the SDS. Employees must determine what hazardous chemicals are used, initial and date new SDSs as they are read, and initial and date records of safety training. Health care practitioners should see that a hazard communication manual is kept up to date and is accessible to all coworkers. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: OSHA, CDC and CLIA Regulations Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 8.a. Practice Standard Precautions and perform disinfection/sterilization techniques Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: III.P.2. Select appropriate barrier/personal protective equipment (PPE) 9 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

17) Which of the following specifically states that any equipment that may pose a health risk is included as a hazard? A) CDC guidelines B) Chemical Hygiene Plan C) General Duty Clause D) Medical Waste Tracking Act E) Bloodborne Pathogens Standard Answer: C Explanation: Under the General Duty Clause of the HCS, any equipment that may pose a health risk is included as a hazard. This clause covers all areas for which OSHA has not developed specific standards and holds the employer ultimately responsible for the safety of employees. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: OSHA, CDC and CLIA Regulations Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 18) Which of the following acts mandated that employers maintain a sharps injury log and involved nonmanagerial employees in selecting safer medical devices? A) Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Standard B) Chemical Hygiene Plan C) General Duty Clause D) Medical Waste Tracking Act E) CDC Isolation Precautions Answer: A Explanation: As mandated by the Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act, passed by Congress in 2000, the Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogen Standard was revised in 2001 to include new provisions requiring employers to maintain a harps injury log and to involve nonmanagerial employees in selecting safer medical devices. The Chemical Hygiene Plan is the Standard for Occupational Exposures to Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories, which clarifies the handling of hazardous chemicals in medical laboratories. The Medical Waste Tracking Act is the federal law that authorizes OSHA to inspect hazardous medical wastes and to cite offices for unsafe or unhealthy practices regarding these wastes. The CDC publishes a comprehensive online guide for all health care workers titled Guideline for Isolation Precautions: Preventing Transmission of Infectious Agents in Healthcare Settings. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: OSHA, CDC and CLIA Regulations Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: III.P.1. Participate in Blood-borne Pathogen training

19) In 2012, OSHA published the first major revision to the Hazard Communication Standard. What was the main purpose of the revision? A) Require better labels on all items in a healthcare facility. B) Transform the right of employees to know about workplace hazards to the "right to understand" workplace hazards. C) Require employees to maintain a sharps injury log. D) Require employees to double glove when handling toxic materials. E) Transform the right of employees to understand workplace hazards to a "right to know" workplace hazards. Answer: B Explanation: The revision to the Hazard Communication Standard done in 2012 aligned the standard with the United Nations Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS). The alignment is intended to transform the workers' right to know to the workers' right to understand workplace hazard. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: OSHA, CDC and CLIA Regulations Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XII.P.1.a.b.c. Comply with safety signs, symbols, and labels 20) The CDC publishes an online guide for preventing transmissions of infectious agents. This guide is intended for A) epidemiologists. B) health care administrators. C) physicians. D) ancillary health care personnel. E) all of these. Answer: E Explanation: The CDC publishes a comprehensive online guide for all health care workers entitled Guideline for Isolation Precautions: Preventing Transmission of Infectious Agents in Healthcare Settings, available at http://www.cdc.gov/hicpac/pubs.html. The document "is intended for use by infection control staff, health care epidemiologists, health care administrators, nurses, other health care providers, and persons responsible for developing, implementing, and evaluating infection control programs for health care settings across the continuum of care." Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: OSHA, CDC and CLIA Regulations Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.4. Identify safety signs, symbols and labels

21) In the revision to the Hazard Communication Standard, OSHA created a new name for Material Safety Data Sheets. What is the new acronym? A) CDC B) CHP C) BPS D) SDS E) OSHA did not create a new acronym. Answer: D Explanation: The "new" acronym is SDS or Safety Data Sheet. CDC is the Centers for Disease Control, CHP is the Chemical Hygiene Plan, and BPS is the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: OSHA, CDC and CLIA Regulations Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XI.C.4. Identify safety signs, symbols and labels 22) The OSHA Ionizing Radiation Standard applies to all medical and dental offices that have A) hazardous chemicals. B) blood draw stations. C) centrifuges. D) x-ray machines. E) autoclaves. Answer: D Explanation: All medical and dental offices that have x-ray machines must comply with the OSHA Ionizing Radiation Standard. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: OSHA, CDC and CLIA Regulations Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

23) Sarah is starting a new job as a medical assistant at a local clinic. Under OSHA regulations, what must her employer offer her as part of her employment? A) Free lunches at least once a week B) Uniforms C) No-cost hepatitis B vaccinations D) No-cost flu vaccinations E) Annual physical Answer: C Explanation: OSHA requires medical offices to provide no-cost hepatitis B vaccinations for employees at risk of exposure to HEP B. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: OSHA, CDC and CLIA Regulations Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 24) Which of the following is an OSHA guideline for disposal of medical waste material? A) Dispose of chemicals in a glass or metal container. B) Dispose of sharp objects in a glass container. C) Do not flush any chemicals down the drain. D) Do not incinerate medical wastes. E) Licensed medical waste handlers are not necessary for medical offices. Answer: A Explanation: OSHA requires medical offices to dispose of chemicals in a glass or metal container. Sharp objects should be disposed of in a leak-proof container. Some chemicals may be washed down the drain with large quantities of water. Medical waste may be incinerated by appropriate licensed medical waste handlers. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: OSHA, CDC and CLIA Regulations Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XII.P.2.c. Demonstrate proper use of sharps disposal containers

25) Which of the following is not a requirement of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)? A) Obtain certification. B) Follow minimum regulations regarding quality control. C) Follow maximum quality standards for lab testing. D) Pay applicable fees. E) Follow regulations regarding test controls. Answer: C Explanation: The CLIA is a federal statute passed in 1988 that established minimum quality standards for all laboratory testing. The law requires that laboratories obtain certification, pay applicable fees, and follow regulations concerning testing, personnel, inspections, test management, quality control, and quality assurance. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: OSHA, CDC and CLIA Regulations Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 26) Federal and state workers' compensation laws establish procedures for compensating workers who are injured on the job. Which of the following accurately describes an aspect of these laws? A) The employee pays the cost of the insurance premium. B) State laws cover workers in Washington, DC and maritime workers. C) The injured employee may file other claims, as well as accept workers' compensation. D) Only injuries are covered by workers' compensation, diseases are not. E) The injured employee can file a claim with the government instead of suing. Answer: E Explanation: Workers' compensation laws allow the injured worker to file a claim for compensation with the state or the federal government instead of suing. However, the laws require workers to accept workers' compensation as the exclusive remedy for on-the-job injuries. The employer pays the cost of the insurance premium for the employee. Federal laws cover the following employees: workers in Washington, DC, coal miners, maritime workers, and federal employees. State laws cover those workers not protected under federal statutes. Occupational diseases contracted as a result of workplace exposure are covered. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Workers' Compensation and Unemployment Insurance Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

27) An employee of a hospital is injured on the job and files for workers' compensation. Which of the following type of state compensation benefits would be available to this injured worker? A) Permanent disability indemnity in the form of weekly cash payments. B) A lump sum for a temporary disability. C) Weekly cash payments for living expenses. D) Salary replacement. E) Rehabilitation benefits paid in a lump sum. Answer: A Explanation: Workers who are injured on the job or who contract an occupational disease may apply for five types of state compensation benefits: (1) medical treatment, including hospital, medical and surgical services, medications, and prosthetic devices; (2) temporary disability indemnity, in the form of weekly cash payments made directly to the injured or ill employee; (3) permanent disability indemnity, which can be a lump sum award or a weekly or monthly cash payment; (4) death benefits for survivors, which consist of cash payments to dependents of employees killed on the job; and (5) rehabilitation benefits, which are paid for medical or vocational rehabilitation. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Workers' Compensation and Unemployment Insurance Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 28) An employee of a nursing home is injured on the job while lifting patients. She believes her back has been injured, but not badly. What is the initial action she should be taking after hurting her back? A) Tell her coworkers to call an ambulance. B) Report the injury to a supervisor. C) Report the injury to the Workers' Compensation agency. D) Report the injury to the human resources department. E) Wait 24 hours; it may just be temporary. Answer: B Explanation: Employees who are injured on the job or become ill due to work-related causes must immediately report the injury or illness to a supervisor. An injury report and claim for compensation are then filed with the appropriate state workers' compensation agency. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Workers' Compensation and Unemployment Insurance Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.P.1. Report illegal and/or unsafe activities and behaviors that affect health, safety and welfare of others to proper authorities

29) An employee who is laid off from his job files for unemployment insurance. Which of the following accurately describes the management of unemployment funds available to this worker? A) The funds are managed solely by the state government. B) The funds are managed solely by the federal government. C) Employees contribute to a fund that is paid out to eligible unemployed workers. D) In all but a few states, the total cost is covered by the employer. E) The funds are managed solely by the county government. Answer: D Explanation: Unemployment insurance (sometimes called reemployment insurance) funds are managed jointly by state and federal governments. Under the Federal Unemployment Tax Act (FUTA), employers contribute to a fund that is paid out to eligible unemployed workers. Each state also provides unemployment insurance, and credit is given employers against the FUTA tax for amounts paid to the state unemployment fund. The total cost is borne by the employer in all but a few states. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Workers' Compensation and Unemployment Insurance Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 30) Which of the following is needed for a claimant to file for unemployment benefits? A) Birth certificate. B) Employee's ID badge. C) Employers' names and addresses for the past 18 months. D) W-2s for five years. Answer: C Explanation: Individuals may file for unemployment benefits at state unemployment offices. A claimant needs: a Social Security card, state identification (usually a driver's license), wage records for the past 18 months, employers' names and addresses for the past 18-month employment period, and the employer's unemployment insurance account number, if available. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Workers' Compensation and Unemployment Insurance Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

31) Which of the following information should not be included on an employee's W-2 form? A) Employer tax ID number. B) Employee's Social Security number. C) Amounts deducted for life insurance. D) Total earnings paid by the employer. E) Amounts deducted for income tax and Social Security. Answer: C Explanation: The W-2 shows the following information: employer's tax identification number, employee's Social Security number, total earnings (wages and other compensation) paid by the employer, amounts deducted for income tax and Social Security, and amount of advance earned income credit payment, if any. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Hiring and the New Employee Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 32) A practice manager is interviewing a medical assistant for a new position in the office. Which of the following information can an employer legally ask of a prospective employee? A) Religion B) Political affiliation C) Marital status D) Number of children E) Education Answer: E Explanation: An employer may ask a prospective employee about education, but not about religion, political affiliation, marital status, or number of children. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Hiring and the New Employee Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.9. List and discuss legal and illegal interview questions

33) A practice manager is interviewing medical assistants for several new positions in an expanding medical practice. Which of the following is not a recommended guideline for conducting the interviews? A) Stick to a list of questions for all candidates that relate to the job description. B) Do not rush the interview; allow it to last as long as the candidate prefers. C) Do not ask why the person is leaving his or her current position. D) Always ask about child care arrangements. E) Do not promise to inform the candidate when a decision has been made. Answer: D Explanation: The following guidelines can help those employees who are responsible for conducting preemployment interviews: (1) make a list of questions that relate specifically to the job description of the position to be filled, and stick to them; (2) do not rush the interview, nor let it drag on beyond reasonable time limits; (3) use general questions such as "Why are you leaving your present position?"; and (4) indicate when a decision will be made and follow through on a promise to inform the applicant of the decision. Do not ask questions about child care arrangements. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Hiring and the New Employee Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.9. List and discuss legal and illegal interview questions 34) A bonded employee in a medical office embezzles money from the employers. In most situations, from whom will the money ultimately be recovered? A) The employee B) The insurance carrier C) The employee's family D) The government E) The medical malpractice insurance Answer: A Explanation: If a bonded employee should embezzle or otherwise absconds with funds, the employer can collect from the insurance carrier up to the amount of the bond. However, the employer must have filed a complaint against the alleged dishonest employee in order to collect on the bond. If the insurance company pays the bond, it will then seek to recover the amount from the offending employee. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Hiring and the New Employee Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

35) Which of the following is not an area of questioning appropriate for the employer to ask a job applicant? A) Work experience B) Hours available to work C) Birth date D) Social Security number E) Licenses/certifications Answer: C Explanation: Questions concerning one's Social Security number, qualifications (including license or certificate), and job experience are proper, and they should be answered as thoroughly and truthfully as possible. While asking about hours available to work, an employer should be cautious in the way the question is asked so as not to inadvertently ask an illegal question. For example, asking "Are you available to work 8 a.m. until 5 p.m. Monday through Friday" is okay. Asking the candidate if he or she has child care so that they may work Monday through Friday is not appropriate. Questions about age or birth dates are not legal. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Hiring and the New Employee Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.9. List and discuss legal and illegal interview questions 36) What does the term "wrongful discharge" mean? Answer: When no law exists that prohibits a specific reason for firing an employee, the discharged worker may have cause for litigation under a precedent for wrongful discharge. Generally, in such cases, the employer must have documentation that shows a legal reason (just cause) for dismissing the employee. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: How the Law Affects the Workplace Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 37) What does the term "employment-at-will" mean? Answer: Employment-at-will generally means that employees could be refused employment and could be disciplined or fired for any or no reason. In fact, either the employer or the employee could end the employment at any time. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: How the Law Affects the Workplace Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 19 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

38) Discuss the concept of public policy as it relates to the hiring and firing of employees. Answer: State courts vary in their willingness to accept the common law concept of wrongful discharge, but most recognize public policy or "common good" reasons for lawsuits brought by fired employees, such as refusing to commit an illegal act, whistle-blowing, performing a legal duty, or exercising a private right. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: How the Law Affects the Workplace Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 39) Identify at least three employment activities that are considered discrimination under federal law. Answer: Federal laws prohibit employers from firing or otherwise discriminating against employees for any of the following reasons: belonging to a particular race or religion; being male or female; being of a particular age or having a disability; joining a union or engaging in political activity; preventing the collection of retirement benefits; reporting company safety violations; exercising the right to free speech; and refusing to take drug or lie detector tests (with some exceptions). Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: How the Law Affects the Workplace Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 40) Describe the circumstances of the Lily Ledbetter case. Answer: Lily Ledbetter retired from Goodyear Tire after working for 19 years as a night supervisor. She discovered six years before her retirement that for most of her career she had earned 20% less than her male counterparts. She filed a charge of unlawful employment practice. The case reached the U.S. Supreme Court. The Supreme Court threw out the case on grounds that the statute of limitations, as mandated in Title VII had run out. This triggered Congress to pass legislation dealing with the statute of limitations use. The law was signed by President Obama on January 29, 2009. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: How the Law Affects the Workplace Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

41) What is the major responsibility for the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)? Answer: OSHA is the federal organization that is charged with writing and enforcing compulsory standards for health and safety in the workplace. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Employee Welfare and Safety Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 42) Identify, in order, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration's (OSHA's) five priorities for workplace inspections. Answer: The five priorities in order for OSHA are imminent danger situations, investigating fatalities, employee complaints, programmed inspections, and follow-up inspections. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Employee Welfare and Safety Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 43) What responsibilities do employees have under OSHA standards? Answer: Employees must comply with all applicable OSHA stands, report hazardous conditions, follow all safety and health rules established by the employers, and use protective equipment when necessary. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Employee Welfare and Safety Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: III.C.4. Identify personal safety precautions as established by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

44) What is the purpose of the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard? Answer: The Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogen Standard is an OSHA regulation passed in 1991. The standard is designed to protect workers in health care and related occupations from the risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens (disease-causing organisms) such as the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and the hepatitis B virus (HBV). Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: OSHA, CDC and CLIA Regulations Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: III.P.1. Participate in Blood-borne Pathogen training 45) What is the purpose of the Hazard Communication Standard? Answer: The Hazard Communication Standard is intended to increase health care practitioners' awareness of risk, improve work practices and appropriate use of personal protective equipment, and reduce injuries and illnesses. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: OSHA, CDC and CLIA Regulations Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 46) Discuss the changes made in 2012 to the Hazard Communication Standard. Answer: The changes aligned the standard with the United Nations Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS). New wording is intended to transform the right of employees to know about workplace hazards to the "right to understand" workplace hazards. The goal is to ensure the safe use of chemicals by providing practical, reliable, consistent, and easy to understand information for workers and students everywhere. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: OSHA, CDC and CLIA Regulations Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

47) What is the purpose of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act of 1988? Answer: The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act of 1988 established minimum quality standards for all laboratory testing. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: OSHA, CDC and CLIA Regulations Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: III.C.4. Identify personal safety precautions as established by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) 48) What are the five types of state workers' compensation benefits? Answer: Workers' compensation may pay for medical treatment, temporary disability indemnity, permanent disability indemnity, death benefits, and rehabilitation benefits. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Workers' Compensation and Unemployment Insurance Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 49) Identify the specific areas of discrimination in hiring, promoting, and firing. Answer: Because of federal and state laws against discrimination in hiring, inquiries cannot be made concerning an applicant's religion, race, color, creed, family, marital status, gender, birth control, age, disability, residency, national origin, military experience, and membership in organizations. These same criteria apply in promotion and firing. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Hiring and the New Employee Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 50) What is the purpose of an I-9 form? Answer: Completion of an I-9 form is necessary in employment to prove citizenship or the right to work in the United States. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Hiring and the New Employee Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 23 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 11 The Beginning of Life and Childhood 1) The children in a family all have blue eyes. The biological parents also have blue eyes. The science that explains these similarities is called A) genetics. B) genetic engineering. C) stem cells. D) genomes. E) genetic discrimination. 2) The process by which traits are passed on to offspring is known as A) genetics. B) genetic engineering. C) stem cells. D) heredity. E) genetic discrimination. 3) The combination of proteins called nucleotides that are arranged to make up each human is known as which of the following? A) Stem cells B) DNA C) Gene D) Chromosomes E) Heredity 4) How many chromosomes are normally found inside the nucleus of every human cell except egg and sperm cells? A) 23 B) 43 C) 46 D) 52 E) 60 5) Which of the following do chromosomes normally carry that are responsible for all human characteristics from eye, skin, and hair color to height, body type, and intelligence? A) Sperm B) Stem cells C) Eggs D) Genes E) Nucleus

6) How are the chromosomes that make up the human genome inherited from parents? A) One-third from the mother and two-third from the father. B) Half from the mother and half from the father. C) Three-fourth from the mother and one-fourth from the father. D) Three-fourth from the father and one-fourth from the mother. E) One-third from the father and two-third from the mother. 7) The Human Genome Project, funded by the U.S. government, was started in 1990. What was the purpose of this project? A) To pinpoint certain inherited diseases, such as sickle cell anemia. B) To determine which genes are inherited from which parent. C) To further the development of creating human clones. D) To locate and map the location of all 46 genes. E) To develop genetic engineering. 8) A gene that predisposes a woman to breast cancer has been discovered by scientists. Women who are tested to see if this gene is present are using what type of genetic testing? A) Carrier B) Forensic C) Diagnostic D) Tracing lineage E) Predictive 9) The medical examiner is attempting to eliminate a suspect in a crime. What type of DNA testing might the medical examiner do? A) Carrier B) Forensic C) Prenatal testing D) Tracing lineage E) Predictive 10) Amniocentesis is what type of genetic testing? A) Carrier B) Forensic C) Prenatal testing D) Tracing lineage E) Predictive 11) A permanent change in DNA is the usual cause of genetic diseases. What is the term for this harmful effect? A) Mutation B) Cloning C) Multipotent stem cells D) mtDNA E) Genetic discrimination

12) An obstetrician is caring for a young woman who wants to undergo genetic testing prior to becoming pregnant. What would be the best response to this patient? A) Tell her that genetic testing will not determine genetic disorders passed on to a fetus. B) Tell her that genetic testing is not recommended when determining pregnancy. C) Refer the woman to a qualified genetic counselor. D) Tell her about the emotional aspects of caring for a baby with a genetic disease. E) Refer her to a geneticist. 13) The court case EEOC v. Founders Pavillion, Inc. illustrated enforcement of which law(s)? A) GINA and ADA B) GINA and HIPAA C) GINA D) HIPAA E) ADA 14) In 1996, a federal law was passed that prevents health insurers from denying coverage based on genetic information for individuals moving between group health insurance plans. This federal law is known as A) Privacy Act. B) Civil Liberties Act. C) HIPAA. D) Americans with Disabilities Act. E) GINA. 15) In 2008, what federal law was passed that prohibits discrimination in employment based on genetic information? A) Privacy Act B) Civil Liberties Act C) HIPAA D) Americans with Disabilities Act E) GINA 16) The question of who may patent genes was decided by the U.S. Supreme Court in June 2013. What was the decision? A) The individual may patent both their own and manipulating genes. B) Only the federal government may patent genes. C) Only corporations may patent genes. D) A gene is a naturally occurring substance and may not be patented. E) Physicians may patent genes.

17) Scientists are able to manipulate DNA within the cells of plants, animals, and other organisms to ensure that certain advantageous traits will appear and be passed on, or that certain harmful traits are eliminated. What is the term for this process? A) Genetic engineering B) Cloning C) Genetic discrimination D) Stem cell manipulation E) Xenotransplantation 18) One type of genetic engineering that is extremely controversial is cloning. Which of the following statements accurately describes an aspect of this process? A) The egg and sperm cells in our bodies are clones. B) A clone is an organism produced asexually from a cell from each of the parents. C) A clone is genetically identical to the parent. D) Fraternal twins are clones. E) Identical twins are not clones. 19) Which of the following is an objective of cloning farm animals? A) To produce animals with high-fat meat. B) To produce medically useful substances. C) To prevent animal diseases. D) To produce perfect animals. E) To perfect the process in order to eventually clone humans. 20) Transplanting animal tissues and organs into humans is called A) xenotransplantation. B) gene cloning. C) therapeutic cloning. D) gene transplantation. E) none of these. 21) What court case allows for patenting of live human made organisms? A) Association for Molecular Pathology v. Myriad Genetics B) Diamond v. Chakrabarty C) EEOC v. Founders Pavillion D) Johnson v. Calvert E) none of these 22) Which of the following statements regarding stem cell use is true? A) Adult human body tissues do not produce stem cells. B) Adult stem cells are pluripotent. C) Embryonic stem cells have a greater potential to treat a wider variety of diseases. D) Embryonic stem cells are multipotent. E) Amniotic stem cells are a replacement for embryonic stem cells.

23) A physician is using somatic gene therapy for a patient with a severe genetic disorder. What is involved in this process? A) Inserting normal copies of the gene. B) Blocking an overactive pathway. C) Correcting an abnormality in the genes of sperm or egg. D) Replacing a deficiency. E) Turning off a gene. 24) Infertility is considered to be the failure to conceive in how many months or longer? A) 6 B) 8 C) 12 D) 18 E) 20 25) A fertility specialist brings an infertile couple's eggs and sperm together in a test tube and when fertilization occurs, he transplants the resulting embryo back into the female uterus. What is the term for this type of fertilization? A) In vitro fertilization B) Homologous artificial insemination C) Heterologous artificial insemination D) Surrogacy E) Adoption 26) Which of the following accurately describes the difference between a traditional and gestational surrogate mother? A) A gestational surrogate is related to the fetus and is paid to carry the child. B) A gestational surrogate is related to the fetus, while the traditional surrogate is not. C) A traditional surrogate is paid to carry the child, but the gestational surrogate is not. D) A gestational surrogate is paid to carry the child but the traditional surrogate is not. E) A traditional surrogate is related to the fetus, while the gestational surrogate is not. 27) A young infertile couple asks their physician about adopting a baby. Which of the following statements is true regarding the process of adoption? A) Any adult who shows the desire to be a fit parent may adopt a child. B) Only married couples may adopt a child. C) People with genetic disorders may not adopt a child. D) Gay couples have the same success with being allowed to adopt as straight couples. E) Private adoptions are prevented by state laws. 28) An infertile couple who is adopting a child locates a birth mother and then asks an agency to take over the adoption process. This is an example of what type of adoption? A) Agency adoption B) Independent adoption C) International adoption D) Identified adoption E) Private adoption 5 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

29) Which of the following types of adoption generally involves placing children who have been orphaned or whose parents have lost or relinquished parental rights through abuse, abandonment, or the inability to support them? A) Private adoption B) Agency adoption C) Identified adoption D) Relative adoption E) Independent adoption 30) A state agency removes a 10-year-old male child from the home of parents who abused him. What is the name of the legal doctrine that allows the state to act in the best interest of the child? A) Safe haven law B) No hassle provision C) Best interest of the child concept D) Res ipsa loquitur E) Parens patriae 31) Which of the following legislation allows physicians to legally withhold treatment, including food and water, from infants who are chronically and irreversibly comatose? A) Federal Child Abuse Amendments B) Best interest of the child act C) Abandoned infant act D) Parens patriae E) Safe haven law 32) A new mother leaves her infant daughter in a safe place at a nurse's station in a hospital. This mother is protected from legal prosecution or with reduced legal prosecution by what legislation? A) Parens patriae B) Safe haven law C) Best interest of the child act D) Federal Child Abuse Amendments E) Abandoned infant law 33) Which of the following is true regarding the legal rights of newborns in the United States? A) They are not protected under the Constitution. B) They are determined by the parents in charge. C) They are the same as for any other American citizen of any age. D) They do not have any legal rights until they reach age 21. E) They are not protected until they reach the age of 18.

34) A 17-year-old female lives with her parents and meets the requirements to give informed consent to have a small basal cell carcinoma removed. Which of the following would this teenager be considered? A) Knowledgeable minor B) Emancipated minor C) Protected minor D) Mature minor E) Able minor 35) Which of the following is a right guaranteed to emancipated minors? A) Right to purchase cigarettes B) Right to vote C) Right to buy alcohol D) Right to forgo school attendance E) Right to privacy 36) A teenager who is pregnant receives an abortion without parental notice due to "judicial bypass." What does this term signify? A) The teenager has traveled to another state to obtain the abortion without parental notification. B) The teenager has obtained approval from a judge for the abortion without parental notification. C) The state in which the teenager lives allows practitioners to perform abortions without parental consent. D) The judge has decided that the teenager is an emancipated minor and may receive the abortion without parental notification. E) The teenager has received approval from a judge to travel to another state to have the abortion. 37) What does the term genetics mean? 38) What does the term heredity mean? 39) What is a gene? 40) What does a genetic counselor do? 41) What is genetic discrimination? 42) What is genetic engineering? 43) What is cloning? 44) What is gene therapy? 45) What is in vitro fertilization? 46) Discuss the various forms of surrogacy. 7 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

47) Compare agency adoptions and independent/private adoptions. 48) What does the doctrine of parens patriae mean? Give an example. 49) Identify the medical conditions under which a physician may legally withhold treatment, including food and water from an infant under the federal Child Abuse Amendments. 50) What is the safe haven law? 51) Discuss the difference between a mature minor and an emancipated minor.

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 11 The Beginning of Life and Childhood 1) The children in a family all have blue eyes. The biological parents also have blue eyes. The science that explains these similarities is called A) genetics. B) genetic engineering. C) stem cells. D) genomes. E) genetic discrimination. Answer: A Explanation: Genetics is the science that accounts for natural differences and resemblances among organisms related by descent. Genetic engineering has allowed scientists to manipulate DNA within the cells of plants, animals, and other organisms to ensure that certain advantageous traits will appear and be passed on, or that certain harmful trails are eliminated. Stem cells are early embryonic cells that have the potential to become any type of body cell. A genome is all the DNA in an organism, including its genes. Genetic discrimination is differential treatment based on actual or presumed genetic differences. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetics and Heredity Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

2) The process by which traits are passed on to offspring is known as A) genetics. B) genetic engineering. C) stem cells. D) heredity. E) genetic discrimination. Answer: D Explanation: Heredity is the process by which organisms pass genetic traits on to their offspring and is part of the wider scope of the term genetics. Genetics is the science that accounts for natural differences and resemblances among organisms related by descent. Genetic engineering has allowed scientists to manipulate DNA within the cells of plants, animals, and other organisms to ensure that certain advantageous traits will appear and be passed on, or that certain harmful traits are eliminated. Stem cells are early embryonic cells that have the potential to become any type of body cell. Genetic discrimination is a differential treatment based on actual or presumed genetic differences. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetics and Heredity Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 3) The combination of proteins called nucleotides that are arranged to make up each human is known as which of the following? A) Stem cells B) DNA C) Gene D) Chromosomes E) Heredity Answer: B Explanation: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is the combination of proteins called nucleotides that are arranged to make up each human chromosome. Blastocysts are composed of stem cells that can become any type of body cell. Each gene is a tiny segment of DNA that holds the formula for making a specific molecule. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Genetics and Heredity Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

4) How many chromosomes are normally found inside the nucleus of every human cell except egg and sperm cells? A) 23 B) 43 C) 46 D) 52 E) 60 Answer: C Explanation: Forty-six chromosomes (23 pairs) are found inside the nucleus of every human cell, except egg and sperm cells, which have 23 chromosomes each. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Genetics and Heredity Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 5) Which of the following do chromosomes normally carry that are responsible for all human characteristics from eye, skin, and hair color to height, body type, and intelligence? A) Sperm B) Stem cells C) Eggs D) Genes E) Nucleus Answer: D Explanation: Forty-six chromosomes carry the genes responsible for all our human characteristics from eye, skin, and hair color to height, body type, and intelligence. Each gene is a tiny segment of DNA that holds the formula for making a specific molecule. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Genetics and Heredity Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

6) How are the chromosomes that make up the human genome inherited from parents? A) One-third from the mother and two-third from the father. B) Half from the mother and half from the father. C) Three-fourth from the mother and one-fourth from the father. D) Three-fourth from the father and one-fourth from the mother. E) One-third from the father and two-third from the mother. Answer: B Explanation: Forty-six chromosomes (23 pairs) are found inside the nucleus of every human cell, except egg and sperm cells, which have 23 chromosomes each. We inherit half of our chromosome complement from our mother and half from our father. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Genetics and Heredity Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 7) The Human Genome Project, funded by the U.S. government, was started in 1990. What was the purpose of this project? A) To pinpoint certain inherited diseases, such as sickle cell anemia. B) To determine which genes are inherited from which parent. C) To further the development of creating human clones. D) To locate and map the location of all 46 genes. E) To develop genetic engineering. Answer: D Explanation: The Human Genome Project was a scientific project funded by the U.S. government, begun in 1990 and successfully completed in 2000, for the purpose of mapping all of a human's genes. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Genetics and Heredity Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

8) A gene that predisposes a woman to breast cancer has been discovered by scientists. Women who are tested to see if this gene is present are using what type of genetic testing? A) Carrier B) Forensic C) Diagnostic D) Tracing lineage E) Predictive Answer: E Explanation: Predictive testing is used to see if genes are present that could lead to hereditary diseases or other harmful genetic conditions. Carrier testing is used to determine if individuals carry harmful genes that could be passed on to offspring. Forensic testing is used in law enforcement to eliminate or designate suspects in a crime, identify homicide victims, or to otherwise analyze DNA samples for law enforcement purposes. If symptoms have appeared, doctors can order diagnostic testing for patients to confirm or rule out certain genetic diseases. Tracing lineage is used to determine parentage or other relationships within families. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetic Testing Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 9) The medical examiner is attempting to eliminate a suspect in a crime. What type of DNA testing might the medical examiner do? A) Carrier B) Forensic C) Prenatal testing D) Tracing lineage E) Predictive Answer: B Explanation: Forensic testing is used in law enforcement to eliminate or designate suspects in a crime, identify homicide victims, or to otherwise analyze DNA samples for law enforcement purposes. Predictive testing is used to see if genes are present that could lead to hereditary diseases or other harmful genetic conditions. Carrier testing is used to determine if individuals carry harmful genes that could be passed on to offspring. Tracing lineage is used to determine parentage or other relationships within families. Prenatal testing is done to see if harmful genes are present in the fetus. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetic Testing Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

10) Amniocentesis is what type of genetic testing? A) Carrier B) Forensic C) Prenatal testing D) Tracing lineage E) Predictive Answer: C Explanation: Prenatal testing is done to see if harmful genes are present in the fetus. Forensic testing is used in law enforcement to eliminate or designate suspects in a crime, identify homicide victims, or to otherwise analyze DNA samples for law enforcement purposes. Predictive testing is used to see if genes are present that could lead to hereditary diseases or other harmful genetic conditions. Carrier testing is used to determine if individuals carry harmful genes that could be passed on to offspring. Tracing lineage is used to determine parentage or other relationships within families. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetic Testing Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 11) A permanent change in DNA is the usual cause of genetic diseases. What is the term for this harmful effect? A) Mutation B) Cloning C) Multipotent stem cells D) mtDNA E) Genetic discrimination Answer: A Explanation: Permanent changes in DNA, or mutations, often cause genetic diseases. A clone is an organism grown from a single cell of the parent, and so it is genetically identical to the parent. Genetic discrimination is the different treatment of individuals based on actual or presumed genetic differences. Multipotent stem cells are adult cells that can become a limited number of types of tissues and cells. mtDNA is mitochondrial DNA. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetic Testing Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

12) An obstetrician is caring for a young woman who wants to undergo genetic testing prior to becoming pregnant. What would be the best response to this patient? A) Tell her that genetic testing will not determine genetic disorders passed on to a fetus. B) Tell her that genetic testing is not recommended when determining pregnancy. C) Refer the woman to a qualified genetic counselor. D) Tell her about the emotional aspects of caring for a baby with a genetic disease. E) Refer her to a geneticist. Answer: C Explanation: Health care practitioners should refer any patient who wants to undergo genetic testing to a genetic counselor. Genetic counselors can explain test results and help patients deal with difficult questions concerning those results. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetic Testing Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 13) The court case EEOC v. Founders Pavillion, Inc. illustrated enforcement of which law(s)? A) GINA and ADA B) GINA and HIPAA C) GINA D) HIPAA E) ADA Answer: A Explanation: The EEOC charged that Founders Pavilion requested family medical history as part of its postoffer, preemployment medical exams of applicants. The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act, passed by Congress in 2008 and enforced by the EEOC, prevents employers from requesting genetic information or making employment decisions based on genetic information. The EEOC also alleged that Founders Pavilion fired two employees because they were perceived to be disabled, in violation of the Americans with Disabilities Act. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Genetic Testing Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: XC.C.10. b and c Identify GINA and ADAA

14) In 1996, a federal law was passed that prevents health insurers from denying coverage based on genetic information for individuals moving between group health insurance plans. This federal law is known as A) Privacy Act. B) Civil Liberties Act. C) HIPAA. D) Americans with Disabilities Act. E) GINA. Answer: C Explanation: In addition to state laws against genetic discrimination and GINA at the federal level, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) passed in 1996 prevents health insurers from denying coverage based on genetic information. HIPAA, however, applies only to individuals moving between group health insurance plans. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 also offers some protection against genetic discrimination in the workplace. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetic Testing Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 15) In 2008, what federal law was passed that prohibits discrimination in employment based on genetic information? A) Privacy Act B) Civil Liberties Act C) HIPAA D) Americans with Disabilities Act E) GINA Answer: E Explanation: The Genetic Information Non-discrimination Act (GINA) of 2008 prohibits discrimination in insurance and employment. Broader than HIPAA, the act defines genetic information as data about an individual's genetic tests and about genetic tests among that individual's family. The same rules apply to insurance companies selling policies. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetic Testing Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.10.b. Identify GINA

16) The question of who may patent genes was decided by the U.S. Supreme Court in June 2013. What was the decision? A) The individual may patent both their own and manipulating genes. B) Only the federal government may patent genes. C) Only corporations may patent genes. D) A gene is a naturally occurring substance and may not be patented. E) Physicians may patent genes. Answer: D Explanation: In Association for Molecular Pathology v. Myriad Genetics, Inc., it was determined by the U.S. Supreme Court that naturally occurring genes like the BRCA1 gene, could not be patented. The Court said "Had Myriad created an innovative method of manipulating genes while searching for the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes, it could possibly have sought a method patent. But the processes used by Myriad to isolate DNA were well understood and widely used by geneticists at the time of Myriad's patents." Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetic Engineering Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 17) Scientists are able to manipulate DNA within the cells of plants, animals, and other organisms to ensure that certain advantageous traits will appear and be passed on, or that certain harmful traits are eliminated. What is the term for this process? A) Genetic engineering B) Cloning C) Genetic discrimination D) Stem cell manipulation E) Xenotransplantation Answer: A Explanation: Genetic engineering is done by scientists to manipulate DNA within the cells of plants, animals, and other organisms to ensure that certain advantageous traits will appear and be passed on, or that certain harmful traits are eliminated. A clone is an organism grown from a single cell of the parent, and thus is genetically identical to the parent. Genetic discrimination is the different treatment of individuals based on actual or presumed genetic differences. Stem cells are early embryonic cells that have the potential to become any type of body cell. Xenotransplantation is transplanting animal tissues and organs into human beings. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetic Engineering Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

18) One type of genetic engineering that is extremely controversial is cloning. Which of the following statements accurately describes an aspect of this process? A) The egg and sperm cells in our bodies are clones. B) A clone is an organism produced asexually from a cell from each of the parents. C) A clone is genetically identical to the parent. D) Fraternal twins are clones. E) Identical twins are not clones. Answer: C Explanation: A clone is an organism grown from a single cell of the parent, and thus is genetically identical to the parent. In other words, the genes and chromosomes found in each cell's nucleus are the same in clone and parent. Identical twins are clones. So are all the cells in our bodies except for eggs and sperm. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Genetic Engineering Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 19) Which of the following is an objective of cloning farm animals? A) To produce animals with high-fat meat. B) To produce medically useful substances. C) To prevent animal diseases. D) To produce perfect animals. E) To perfect the process in order to eventually clone humans. Answer: B Explanation: Scientists have continued to clone cattle, goats, mice, monkeys, pigs, and sheep. One objective of the cloning of farm and laboratory animals is to breed genetically identical animals that can produce substances useful in medicine, such as insulin and growth hormones. Another objective in cloning farm animals is the consistent production of prime, low-fat meat. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetic Engineering Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

20) Transplanting animal tissues and organs into humans is called A) xenotransplantation. B) gene cloning. C) therapeutic cloning. D) gene transplantation. E) none of these. Answer: A Explanation: Xenotransplantation is the transplanting of animal tissues and organs into humans. Gene cloning produces exact copies of the segments of DNA called genes. Therapeutic cloning produces copies of embryonic stem cells with the professed purpose of repairing injured or diseased tissue in the human body. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Genetic Engineering Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 21) What court case allows for patenting of live human made organisms? A) Association for Molecular Pathology v. Myriad Genetics B) Diamond v. Chakrabarty C) EEOC v. Founders Pavillion D) Johnson v. Calvert E) none of these Answer: B Explanation: After genetically engineering a bacterium capable of breaking down crude oil, Ananda Chakrabarty, who worked for General Electric, sought to patent his creation. The U.S. Patent Office denied his patent saying living things could not be patented. The U.S. Supreme Court said that while natural laws, physical phenomena, abstract ideas, or newly discovered minerals are not patentable, a live artificially engineered microorganism is. The Association for Molecular Pathology v. Myriad Genetics case indicated that genes cannot be patented. The EEOC case involves genetic discrimination against employees and Johnson v. Calvert is a surrogacy case. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetic Engineering Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

22) Which of the following statements regarding stem cell use is true? A) Adult human body tissues do not produce stem cells. B) Adult stem cells are pluripotent. C) Embryonic stem cells have a greater potential to treat a wider variety of diseases. D) Embryonic stem cells are multipotent. E) Amniotic stem cells are a replacement for embryonic stem cells. Answer: C Explanation: Scientists have discovered that some adult human body tissues, such as bone marrow and fat, also contain cells that can function as stem cells. Adult stem cells are multipotent, however, which means that they can become only a limited number of types of tissues and cells in the body. Embryonic stem cells have a greater potential to treat a wider variety of diseases because they are pluripotent—they can become almost all types of tissues and cells in the body. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Genetic Engineering Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 23) A physician is using somatic gene therapy for a patient with a severe genetic disorder. What is involved in this process? A) Inserting normal copies of the gene. B) Blocking an overactive pathway. C) Correcting an abnormality in the genes of sperm or egg. D) Replacing a deficiency. E) Turning off a gene. Answer: A Explanation: Somatic gene therapy may involve the insertion of normal copies of a gene into the cells of persons with a specific genetic disease. The other choices are also possible gene therapies. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetic Engineering Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

24) Infertility is considered to be the failure to conceive in how many months or longer? A) 6 B) 8 C) 12 D) 18 E) 20 Answer: C Explanation: Infertility is the failure to conceive for a period of 12 months or longer due to a deviation from or interruption of the normal structure or function of any reproductive part, organ, or system. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Conception and the Beginning of Life Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 25) A fertility specialist brings an infertile couple's eggs and sperm together in a test tube and when fertilization occurs, he transplants the resulting embryo back into the female uterus. What is the term for this type of fertilization? A) In vitro fertilization B) Homologous artificial insemination C) Heterologous artificial insemination D) Surrogacy E) Adoption Answer: A Explanation: In vitro fertilization, eggs and sperm are brought together outside the body in a test tube or petri dish. When fertilization takes place, the resulting embryo can then be frozen in liquid nitrogen for future use or implanted in the female uterus for pregnancy to occur. If the husband's sperm cells are used to fertilize the wife's eggs, the process is called homologous artificial insemination. If the husband's sperm cells are not viable, a donor's sperm may be used to fertilize the wife's eggs. This is called heterologous artificial insemination. A surrogate mother is a woman who agrees to carry a child to term for a couple, often for a fee. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Conception and the Beginning of Life Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

26) Which of the following accurately describes the difference between a traditional and gestational surrogate mother? A) A gestational surrogate is related to the fetus and is paid to carry the child. B) A gestational surrogate is related to the fetus, while the traditional surrogate is not. C) A traditional surrogate is paid to carry the child, but the gestational surrogate is not. D) A gestational surrogate is paid to carry the child but the traditional surrogate is not. E) A traditional surrogate is related to the fetus, while the gestational surrogate is not. Answer: E Explanation: A surrogate mother is a woman who agrees to carry a child to term for a couple, often for a fee. If the surrogate is not genetically related to the embryo, the type of surrogacy is called gestational surrogacy. If the surrogate contributes eggs to produce the embryo or is related to either husband or wife, the type of surrogacy is called traditional surrogacy. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Conception and the Beginning of Life Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 27) A young infertile couple asks their physician about adopting a baby. Which of the following statements is true regarding the process of adoption? A) Any adult who shows the desire to be a fit parent may adopt a child. B) Only married couples may adopt a child. C) People with genetic disorders may not adopt a child. D) Gay couples have the same success with being allowed to adopt as straight couples. E) Private adoptions are prevented by state laws. Answer: A Explanation: Typically, any adult who shows the desire to be a fit parent may adopt a child. Depending on state law, both married and unmarried couples may adopt, and single people may adopt through a process called single parent adoption. Some single individuals or couples may have a more difficult time qualifying as adoptive parents than others. For example, single men, gay singles, and homosexual couples may not specifically be prevented from adopting by state law, but they may have a more difficult time meeting state and agency requirements than married couples would. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Conception and the Beginning of Life Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

28) An infertile couple who is adopting a child locates a birth mother and then asks an agency to take over the adoption process. This is an example of what type of adoption? A) Agency adoption B) Independent adoption C) International adoption D) Identified adoption E) Private adoption Answer: D Explanation: Identified adoptions are those in which adopting parents locate a birth mother, or vice versa, and then ask an agency to take over the adoption process. Prospective parents who find a birth mother willing to give up her child can bypass the long waiting lists that most agencies maintain for adoptions and can perhaps be better assured that the adoption will proceed in an orderly and legal fashion. Agency adoptions occur when state-licensed and/or stateregulated public or private adoption agencies place children with adoptive parents. Independent or private adoptions are arranged without the involvement of adoption agencies. International adoptions occur when couples adopt children who are citizens of foreign countries. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Conception and the Beginning of Life Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 29) Which of the following types of adoption generally involves placing children who have been orphaned or whose parents have lost or relinquished parental rights through abuse, abandonment, or the inability to support them? A) Private adoption B) Agency adoption C) Identified adoption D) Relative adoption E) Independent adoption Answer: B Explanation: Agency adoptions occur when state-licensed and/or state-regulated public or private adoption agencies place children with adoptive parents. Charities or religious or social service organizations often operate private agencies. Adoption agencies usually place those children who have been orphaned or whose parents have lost or relinquished parental rights through abuse, abandonment, or the inability to support them. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Conception and the Beginning of Life Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

30) A state agency removes a 10-year-old male child from the home of parents who abused him. What is the name of the legal doctrine that allows the state to act in the best interest of the child? A) Safe haven law B) No hassle provision C) Best interest of the child concept D) Res ipsa loquitur E) Parens patriae Answer: E Explanation: Parens patriae is a legal doctrine that gives the state the authority to act in a child's best interest. When alternatives are available for child placement or for determining medical treatment for minor children, the common standard is the "best interest of the child." Safe haven laws allow abandonment of a baby at a fire station, police station, or hospital. Some say that the "no hassle" provisions for baby abandonment discourage mothers from using established adoption and child welfare policies, while encouraging irresponsible and destructive behavior. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Rights of Children Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 31) Which of the following legislation allows physicians to legally withhold treatment, including food and water, from infants who are chronically and irreversibly comatose? A) Federal Child Abuse Amendments B) Best interest of the child act C) Abandoned infant act D) Parens patriae E) Safe haven law Answer: A Explanation: Under the federal Child Abuse Amendments, if the parents agree, physicians may legally withhold treatment, including food and water, from infants who are chronically and irreversibly comatose, will most certainly die and for whom treatment is considered futile, or would suffer inhumanely if treatment were provided. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Rights of Children Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

32) A new mother leaves her infant daughter in a safe place at a nurse's station in a hospital. This mother is protected from legal prosecution or with reduced legal prosecution by what legislation? A) Parens patriae B) Safe haven law C) Best interest of the child act D) Federal Child Abuse Amendments E) Abandoned infant law Answer: B Explanation: By 2010, all 50 states had enacted some form of safe haven law, allowing abandonment at a fire station, police station, or hospital. Parens patriae is a legal doctrine that gives the state the authority to act in a child's best interest. When alternatives are available for child placement or for determining medical treatment for minor children, the common standard is the "best interest of the child." Under the federal Child Abuse Amendments, if the parents agree, physicians may legally withhold treatment, including food and water, from infants who are chronically and irreversibly comatose, will most certainly die and for whom treatment is considered futile, or would suffer inhumanely if treatment were provided. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Rights of Children Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 33) Which of the following is true regarding the legal rights of newborns in the United States? A) They are not protected under the Constitution. B) They are determined by the parents in charge. C) They are the same as for any other American citizen of any age. D) They do not have any legal rights until they reach age 21. E) They are not protected until they reach the age of 18. Answer: C Explanation: Legally, the legal rights of newborns are the same as those of any other American citizen of any age. For newborns who are severely disabled, however, existing law provides for several treatment options. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Rights of Children Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

34) A 17-year-old female lives with her parents and meets the requirements to give informed consent to have a small basal cell carcinoma removed. Which of the following would this teenager be considered? A) Knowledgeable minor B) Emancipated minor C) Protected minor D) Mature minor E) Able minor Answer: D Explanation: Mature minors are individuals in their mid to late teens who are considered mature enough to comprehend a physician's recommendations and give informed consent. Individuals in their mid- to late teens who legally live outside parents' or guardians' control are called emancipated minors. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Rights of Children Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 35) Which of the following is a right guaranteed to emancipated minors? A) Right to purchase cigarettes B) Right to vote C) Right to buy alcohol D) Right to forgo school attendance E) Right to privacy Answer: E Explanation: Minors have the same constitutional rights as an adult, including the right to privacy. Emancipated minors do not usually gain all the rights of adults. Some limits, such as the legal age for purchasing alcohol or tobacco products, voting age, mandatory school attendance age (unless married), and other legal age restrictions, still apply. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Rights of Children Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

36) A teenager who is pregnant receives an abortion without parental notice due to "judicial bypass." What does this term signify? A) The teenager has traveled to another state to obtain the abortion without parental notification. B) The teenager has obtained approval from a judge for the abortion without parental notification. C) The state in which the teenager lives allows practitioners to perform abortions without parental consent. D) The judge has decided that the teenager is an emancipated minor and may receive the abortion without parental notification. E) The teenager has received approval from a judge to travel to another state to have the abortion. Answer: B Explanation: In many states, minors seeking an abortion must involve at least one parent in the decision. This means that teenagers who do not tell their parents about a pregnancy must either travel out of state or obtain approval from a judge—a process known as judicial bypass—to obtain an abortion. Currently, the trend is toward state and federal legislation making it increasingly difficult for minors to obtain an abortion without parental involvement. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Rights of Children Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 37) What does the term genetics mean? Answer: Genetics is the science that accounts for natural differences and resemblances among organisms related by descent. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetics and Heredity Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 38) What does the term heredity mean? Answer: Heredity is the process by which organisms pass genetic traits on to their offspring. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetics and Heredity Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

39) What is a gene? Answer: A gene is a tiny segment of DNA found on the chromosome within a cell's nucleus. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetics and Heredity Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 40) What does a genetic counselor do? Answer: A genetic counselor is an expert in human genetics who is also qualified to counsel individuals who may have inherited genes for certain diseases or conditions. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetic Testing Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 41) What is genetic discrimination? Answer: Genetic discrimination is differential treatment of individuals based on their actual or presumed genetic differences. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetic Testing Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 42) What is genetic engineering? Answer: Genetic engineering is the manipulation of DNA within the cells of plants and animals through synthesis, alternation, or repair to ensure that certain harmful traits will be eliminated in offspring and that desirable traits will appear and be passed on. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Genetic Engineering Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

43) What is cloning? Answer: Cloning is the process by which organisms are created asexually, usually from a single cell of the parent organism. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetic Engineering Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 44) What is gene therapy? Answer: Gene therapy is treating harmful genetic diseases or traits by eliminating or modifying the harmful gene. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Genetic Engineering Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 45) What is in vitro fertilization? Answer: In vitro fertilization takes place outside a woman's body, literally "in glass," as in a test tube with the sperm and the egg. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Conception and the Beginning of Life Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 46) Discuss the various forms of surrogacy. Answer: A surrogate mother is a woman who agrees to carry a child to term for a couple, often for a fee. If the surrogate is not genetically related to the embryo, the type of surrogacy is called gestational surrogacy. If the surrogate contributes eggs to produce the embryo or is related to either husband or wife, the type of surrogacy is called traditional surrogacy. Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Conception and the Beginning of Life Bloom's: Analyze ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

47) Compare agency adoptions and independent/private adoptions. Answer: Agency adoptions occur when state-licensed and/or state-regulated public or private adoption agencies place children with adoptive parents. Independent or private adoptions are arranged without the involvement of adoption agencies. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Conception and the Beginning of Life Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 48) What does the doctrine of parens patriae mean? Give an example. Answer: Parens patriae is a legal doctrine that gives the state the authority to act in a child's best interest. One example might be when the state takes a child away from a parent who is known to be abusing their child. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Rights of Children Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 49) Identify the medical conditions under which a physician may legally withhold treatment, including food and water from an infant under the federal Child Abuse Amendments. Answer: A physician may legally withhold treatment when the infant is chronically and irreversibly comatose, will most certainly die and for whom treatment is considered futile, and would suffer inhumanely if treatment were provided. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Rights of Children Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 50) What is the safe haven law? Answer: Safe haven laws are state laws that allow mothers to abandon newborns to designated safe facilities without penalty. The laws vary among the 50 states. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Rights of Children Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 22 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

51) Discuss the difference between a mature minor and an emancipated minor. Answer: Mature minors are individuals in their mid- to late teens who are considered mature enough to comprehend a physician's recommendations and give informed consent. Individuals in their mid- to late teens who legally live outside parents' or guardians' control are called emancipated minors. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Rights of Children Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 12 Death and Dying 1) For which of the following reasons did pagan tribes begin the custom of covering the face of the deceased with a sheet? A) They believed that the spirit of the deceased escaped through the mouth. B) They believed that the spirit of the deceased would call other family members. C) They believed that the spirit of the deceased could see other family members. D) They were afraid the deceased would cast a spell on other family members. E) They were afraid of spreading disease. 2) Which of these ARE true about living wills? A) Each state may have different regulations regarding living wills. B) A living will may have detail specific treatments that may be stopped. C) A living will may identify which heroic measures may be used. D) A living will may identify organ donations. E) All of these. 3) The Patient Self Determination Act provides for: A) documentation in the patient's record of any advance directives. B) no discrimination on the part of the provider if the patient does not have advance directives. C) advance directives must follow state laws. D) providers must educate staff about advance directives. E) all of these are correct. 4) A medical order, written by a physician, that instructs health care providers about emergency care for a patient when the patient has stopped breathing is known as a(an) A) living will. B) Emergency Medical Order (EMO). C) Do not resuscitate (DNR). D) generic end of life order. E) health care power of attorney. 5) States have their own criteria for determining when death actually occurs, but most have adopted the definition of brain death proposed by which of the following? A) American Bar Association B) American Medical Association's Act C) President's Commission for the Study of Ethical Problems D) Uniform Determination of Death Act E) National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws

6) According to the Uniform Determination of Death Act, which of the following is a criteria for death? A) Irreversible coma occurs B) Entire brain ceases to function C) Circulation has increased D) Breathing is labored E) Most of the brain has ceased to function 7) A Persistent vegetative state (PVS) exists as a result of severe mental impairment, characterized by irreversible cessation of the higher functions of the brain, most often caused by damage to which of the following organs? A) Cerebral cortex B) Cerebellum C) Medulla oblongata D) Brain stem E) Heart 8) Technically, it can be said that death results from a lack of A) brain waves. B) blood circulation. C) oxygen. D) reflexes. E) cessation of higher brain functions. 9) A patient dies under suspicious conditions. Which of the following might occur to determine cause of this patient's death? A) Autopsy B) Postmortem hearing C) Lawsuit D) Criminal investigation E) Civil investigation 10) According to a survey done by Pew Research Center in 2013, the percentage of people who say that there are sometimes circumstances where a patient should be allowed to die is A) 33%. B) 44%. C) 55%. D) 66%. E) 77%. 11) According to a survey done by Pew Research Center in 2013, the percentage of people with an incurable disease who would tell the doctor to stop treatment so they could die is A) 47%. B) 57%. C) 67%. D) 77%. E) 87%. 2 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

12) A patient has been diagnosed with incurable lung cancer and it is determined that death is imminent. What type of care would best serve this patient? A) Curative B) Experimental C) Hospitalization D) Homeopathic E) Palliative 13) Which of the following is not a goal of palliative care? A) Provide support for the family members of a terminally ill patient. B) Provide comfort to dying patients. C) Providing symptom management to a patient with a terminal illness. D) Using pain management to promote comfort for a patient with a terminal illness. E) Using current research studies to find a cure for a terminal illness. 14) What does the American Association of Colleges of Nursing now require in undergraduate nursing programs? A) Complete a clinical in a hospice. B) Complete a clinical in a hospital palliative care unit. C) Complete 17 competencies in palliative care. D) Complete a course in palliative care. E) None of these. 15) A physician suggests hospice care for a patient with aggressive brain cancer that is not responding to curative care. Which of the following is true about hospice care? A) The care occurs in a hospice facility that is separate from other medical facilities. B) It focuses on relieving pain using alternative comfort measures instead of medications. C) It is not designed to meet the emotional needs of the patient or family. D) It is not designed to target the underlying disease process. E) It focuses on care in the hospital. 16) For patients to be eligible for hospice care, physicians usually must certify that they are not expected to live beyond how many months? A) 3 B) 6 C) 9 D) 12 E) 15 17) Which of the following correctly describes an aspect of hospice care? A) Patients are referred to clergy for bereavement care. B) Interdisciplinary care is not available to patients on hospice care. C) Hospice care is not reimbursed by Medicare or Medicaid. D) Most in-home hospice programs are independently run. E) Hospice care only occurs in hospitals.

18) Palliative care programs are available in hospitals. In the United States, what is the approximate percentage of large hospitals (300 + beds) that have palliative care programs? A) 70% B) 75% C) 80% D) 85% E) 90% 19) A medical board subspecialty in hospice and palliative care requires a physician to be board certified in a specialty such as internal medicine, surgery, or family medicine. What is(are) the other requirement? A) Treating at least 20 terminal ill patients. B) Employed by a hospice. C) Employment in a palliative care unit. D) Completing a one-year fellowship in hospice and palliative care. E) All of these. 20) ARNPs and ________ may earn certificates in palliative care. A) undergraduate nurses B) patient advocates C) social workers D) health care administrators E) all of these 21) The right to die first became a matter for the courts to deliberate in 1976, with the death of A) Nancy Beth Cruzan. B) Karen Ann Quinlan. C) Jack Kevorkian. D) Luis Kutner. E) Terry Schiavo. 22) The 1989 Uniform Rights of the Terminally Ill Act serves as a guideline for state legislatures in constructing laws addressing which of the following? A) Elective suicide B) Right to die C) Euthanasia D) Palliative care E) Advance directives 23) Which state law was the first state law passed to permit physician-assisted suicide in certain circumstances? A) California's Natural Death Act B) Patient Self-Determination Act C) Oregon's Death with Dignity Act D) Uniform Rights of the Terminally Ill Act E) Vermont's Death with Dignity Act 4 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

24) In 1967, what entity devised the original living will? A) American Hospital Association B) U.S. Supreme Court C) California Supreme Court D) Euthanasia Society E) Oregon legislature 25) A patient asks his physician "Can you help me die in peace?" The physician agrees to withhold medical treatment for this patient. This is an example of what type of euthanasia? A) Active B) Passive C) Involuntary D) Physician-assisted E) Common law 26) Which of the following is the legal term for an advance directive that specifies an individual's end-of-life wishes for medical treatment without necessarily appointing a designee to make legal decisions for him or her? A) Living will B) Durable power of attorney C) Patient self-determination D) Health care proxy E) Instructive directive at end of life 27) How is a health care power of attorney different than a durable power of attorney? A) A health care power of attorney must be redone every 5 years. B) A health care power of attorney cannot specify end-of-life medical decisions. C) A health care power of attorney designee must be related to the patient. D) A health care power of attorney designee can only make health care decisions. E) None of these. 28) Passed in 1984, what does the National Organ Transplant Act address? A) Safety of organs B) Transportation of organs C) Distribution of organs D) Maintenance of organs E) Shortage of organs 29) Which of the following was the goal of the Organ Donation and Recovery Improvement Act, passed in 2004? A) Prioritize a list of recipients B) Organize a list of donors C) Increase organ donations D) Improve transplantation success rates E) Prioritize specific organ transplants

30) What was the purpose of the creation of the Uniform Anatomical Gift Act? A) To allow individuals to donate body parts for money. B) To allow individuals to donate their bodies to science after death. C) To allow individuals to bid on donated organs. D) To allow physicians to use organs as they see fit. E) To allow medical schools to purchase organs. 31) Which of the following is not an organ that can be transplanted? A) Heart B) Kidney C) Brain D) Stomach E) Bone 32) Which of the following statements best describes the term "grief"? A) Grief is an emotion felt only when a loved one dies. B) Grief is the human reaction to loss. C) Grief is the process that occurs after resolution takes place. D) Grief is general sadness that occurs when things go wrong. E) Grief is when one is sad. 33) What aspect of death and dying did the late Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, MD, describe? A) Grieving rituals. B) Religious aspects of death and dying. C) The coping methods of persons who are grieving. D) Impact of the death of a relative on the family structure. E) The cost of death and dying. 34) Which of the following is an example of a person who is experiencing the third stage of grief according to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, MD? A) A person who is dying asks God to keep her alive to see the birth of her grandchild. B) A terminally ill person seeks another doctor because she doesn't believe her diagnosis. C) A person who is dying is angry at God for the loss of control over her life. D) A person who is dying feels hopeless and cries frequently. E) A person comes to terms with dying. 35) Which of the following occurs in Stage 5 of Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's grieving process? A) Denial B) Anger C) Acceptance D) Rejection E) Guilt 36) Define brain death. 37) Define persistent vegetative state (PVS). 6 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

38) Define palliative care. 39) Define curative care. 40) Describe hospice. 41) Define voluntary euthanasia. 42) What does the Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) cover? 43) What is a living will? 44) What is a durable power of attorney? 45) What is physician-assisted death? 46) What is the purpose of the National Organ Transplant Act? 47) If a person donated an organ, would the recipient and/or the recipient's family learn the donor's identity and contact the donor or his or her family? 48) Define grief. 49) Using Kübler-Ross's model, identify the five stages of grief. 50) Compare Roberta Temes's stages of grief to Kubler-Ross's model.

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 12 Death and Dying 1) For which of the following reasons did pagan tribes begin the custom of covering the face of the deceased with a sheet? A) They believed that the spirit of the deceased escaped through the mouth. B) They believed that the spirit of the deceased would call other family members. C) They believed that the spirit of the deceased could see other family members. D) They were afraid the deceased would cast a spell on other family members. E) They were afraid of spreading disease. Answer: A Explanation: Pagan tribes began the custom of covering the face of the deceased with a sheet, because they believed that the spirit of the deceased escaped through the mouth. They often held the mouth and nose of a sick person shut, hoping to retain the spirit and thus delay death. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Attitudes Toward Death and Dying Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 2) Which of these ARE true about living wills? A) Each state may have different regulations regarding living wills. B) A living will may have detail specific treatments that may be stopped. C) A living will may identify which heroic measures may be used. D) A living will may identify organ donations. E) All of these. Answer: E Explanation: Living wills may vary from state to state and may not be accepted in all states. The patient has the right to detail specific treatments to be stopped, emergency measure that may be used and the patient may also identify organ donations. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Legal Documents for Terminally Ill Patients Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.f. Define living will/advance directives

3) The Patient Self Determination Act provides for: A) documentation in the patient's record of any advance directives. B) no discrimination on the part of the provider if the patient does not have advance directives. C) advance directives must follow state laws. D) providers must educate staff about advance directives. E) all of these are correct. Answer: E Explanation: The PSDA is law that encourages patients to complete advance directives and requires providers to determine if their patients have advance directives. It is not a requirement that a patient have advance directives, it is only a recommendation. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Legal Documents for Terminally Ill Patients Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.h. Define the PSDA 4) A medical order, written by a physician, that instructs health care providers about emergency care for a patient when the patient has stopped breathing is known as a(an) A) living will. B) Emergency Medical Order (EMO). C) Do not resuscitate (DNR). D) generic end of life order. E) health care power of attorney. Answer: C Explanation: Living wills and a health care power of attorney are written by the patient, often with an attorney's assistance. A DNR is an order, written by the physician, to provide guidance in resuscitation. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Legal Documents for Terminally Ill Patients Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.f. Define living will/advance directives

5) States have their own criteria for determining when death actually occurs, but most have adopted the definition of brain death proposed by which of the following? A) American Bar Association B) American Medical Association's Act C) President's Commission for the Study of Ethical Problems D) Uniform Determination of Death Act E) National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws Answer: D Explanation: In 1981, a Uniform Determination of Death Act was proposed by the President's Commission for the Study of Ethical Problems in Medicine and Biomedical Research working in cooperation with the American Bar Association, the American Medical Association, and the National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws. States have their own criteria for determining when death actually occurs, but most have adopted the act's definition of brain death as a means of determining when death actually occurs. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Attitudes Toward Death Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 6) According to the Uniform Determination of Death Act, which of the following is a criteria for death? A) Irreversible coma occurs B) Entire brain ceases to function C) Circulation has increased D) Breathing is labored E) Most of the brain has ceased to function Answer: B Explanation: The Uniform Determination of Death Act defines brain death as: (1) circulatory and respiratory functions have irreversibly ceased, and (2) the entire brain (including the brain stem) has irreversibly ceased to function. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Attitudes Toward Death Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

7) A Persistent vegetative state (PVS) exists as a result of severe mental impairment, characterized by irreversible cessation of the higher functions of the brain, most often caused by damage to which of the following organs? A) Cerebral cortex B) Cerebellum C) Medulla oblongata D) Brain stem E) Heart Answer: A Explanation: Patients can and do recover from comas, as opposed to a persistent vegetative state. A persistent vegetative state (PVS) exists as a result of severe mental impairment, characterized by irreversible cessation of the higher functions of the brain, most often caused by damage to the cerebral cortex. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Attitudes Toward Death Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 8) Technically, it can be said that death results from a lack of A) brain waves. B) blood circulation. C) oxygen. D) reflexes. E) cessation of higher brain functions. Answer: C Explanation: Today, the declaration of death occurs only when the last signs of brain and respiratory activity are gone. Technically, death results from the lack of oxygen. When deprived of oxygen, cells cannot maintain their metabolic functions and soon begin to deteriorate. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Attitudes Toward Death Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

9) A patient dies under suspicious conditions. Which of the following might occur to determine cause of this patient's death? A) Autopsy B) Postmortem hearing C) Lawsuit D) Criminal investigation E) Civil investigation Answer: A Explanation: After a patient is declared dead, family members (next of kin) may be asked to consent to an autopsy. An autopsy is a postmortem examination to determine the cause of death and/or to obtain physiological evidence when necessary. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Attitudes Toward Death Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 10) According to a survey done by Pew Research Center in 2013, the percentage of people who say that there are sometimes circumstances where a patient should be allowed to die is A) 33%. B) 44%. C) 55%. D) 66%. E) 77%. Answer: D Explanation: Sixty-six percent of individuals surveyed indicated that there are sometimes circumstances where a patient should be allowed to die. Thirty-three percent indicated that providers should always do everything possible to keep the patient alive. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Attitudes Toward Death and Dying Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

11) According to a survey done by Pew Research Center in 2013, the percentage of people with an incurable disease who would tell the doctor to stop treatment so they could die is A) 47%. B) 57%. C) 67%. D) 77%. E) 87%. Answer: B Explanation: Fifty-seven percent of people surveyed indicated that they would tell the doctor to stop treatment if they had an incurable disease. Fifty-two percent said they would tell the doctor to stop treatment if they were totally dependent on others and 46% said that if it was hard to function, they would ask the doctor to stop treatment. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Attitudes Toward Death and Dying Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 12) A patient has been diagnosed with incurable lung cancer and it is determined that death is imminent. What type of care would best serve this patient? A) Curative B) Experimental C) Hospitalization D) Homeopathic E) Palliative Answer: E Explanation: When it becomes evident that a patient's disease is incurable and death is imminent, palliative care may serve the dying patient better than curative care. Curative care consists of treatments and procedures directed toward curing a patient's disease. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Caring for Dying Patients Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 5.b. Provide support for terminally ill patients Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

13) Which of the following is not a goal of palliative care? A) Provide support for the family members of a terminally ill patient. B) Provide comfort to dying patients. C) Providing symptom management to a patient with a terminal illness. D) Using pain management to promote comfort for a patient with a terminal illness. E) Using current research studies to find a cure for a terminal illness. Answer: E Explanation: Curative care consists of treatments and procedures (including new research) directed toward curing a patient's disease. Palliative care, also called comfort care, is directed toward providing relief to terminally ill patients through symptom and pain management. The goal is not to cure, but to provide comfort and maintain the highest possible quality of life. Palliative care is also emerging as a way to help patients, with serious illnesses, live a more comfortable and fulfilling life, whether their diseases are terminal or not. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Caring for Dying Patients Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 5.b. Provide support for terminally ill patients Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 14) What does the American Association of Colleges of Nursing now require in undergraduate nursing programs? A) Complete a clinical in a hospice. B) Complete a clinical in a hospital palliative care unit. C) Complete 17 competencies in palliative care. D) Complete a course in palliative care. E) None of these. Answer: C Explanation: In early 2016, the American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN) announced its new set of competencies and recommendations for palliative care education in undergraduate nursing. There are 17 palliative care competencies that student nurses should achieve before graduation. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Caring for Dying Patients Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

15) A physician suggests hospice care for a patient with aggressive brain cancer that is not responding to curative care. Which of the following is true about hospice care? A) The care occurs in a hospice facility that is separate from other medical facilities. B) It focuses on relieving pain using alternative comfort measures instead of medications. C) It is not designed to meet the emotional needs of the patient or family. D) It is not designed to target the underlying disease process. E) It focuses on care in the hospital. Answer: D Explanation: In the United States, hospice care may be provided in facilities built especially for that purpose, in hospitals and nursing homes, or at home. Hospice care focuses on relieving pain (through traditional medication use as well as alternative methods), controlling symptoms, and meeting emotional needs and personal values of the terminally ill, instead of targeting the underlying disease process. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Caring for Dying Patients Bloom's: Understand ABHES: 5.b. Provide support for terminally ill patients Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 16) For patients to be eligible for hospice care, physicians usually must certify that they are not expected to live beyond how many months? A) 3 B) 6 C) 9 D) 12 E) 15 Answer: B Explanation: For patients to be eligible for hospice care, physicians usually must certify that the patient is not expected to live beyond six months. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Caring for Dying Patients Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 5.b. Provide support for terminally ill patients Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

17) Which of the following correctly describes an aspect of hospice care? A) Patients are referred to clergy for bereavement care. B) Interdisciplinary care is not available to patients on hospice care. C) Hospice care is not reimbursed by Medicare or Medicaid. D) Most in-home hospice programs are independently run. E) Hospice care only occurs in hospitals. Answer: D Explanation: Most in-home hospice programs are independently run in a fashion similar to visiting nurse or home health care agencies. Hospice programs generally provide bereavement services through discussion groups, follow-up visits from hospice personnel, and sometimes referral to appropriate mental health professionals. Patients receive coordinated care at home by multidisciplinary teams composed of physicians, nurses, social workers, home health aides, pharmacists, physical therapists, clergy, volunteers, and family members. Hospice care is generally reimbursed by Medicare, Medicaid, and many private insurance companies and managed care programs. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Caring for Dying Patients Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 5.b. Provide support for terminally ill patients Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 18) Palliative care programs are available in hospitals. In the United States, what is the approximate percentage of large hospitals (300 + beds) that have palliative care programs? A) 70% B) 75% C) 80% D) 85% E) 90% Answer: E Explanation: Approximately 90% of hospitals in the United States have some type of palliative care program. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Caring for Dying Patients Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 5.b. Provide support for terminally ill patients Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

19) A medical board subspecialty in hospice and palliative care requires a physician to be board certified in a specialty such as internal medicine, surgery, or family medicine. What is(are) the other requirement? A) Treating at least 20 terminal ill patients. B) Employed by a hospice. C) Employment in a palliative care unit. D) Completing a one-year fellowship in hospice and palliative care. E) All of these. Answer: D Explanation: The current requirement is to complete a one-year fellowship in hospice and palliative care. The likelihood is that the physician will spend a great deal of time in either a hospice or palliative care unit but it may not be as an employee. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Caring for Dying Patients Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 5.b. Provide support for terminally ill patients Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 20) ARNPs and ________ may earn certificates in palliative care. A) undergraduate nurses B) patient advocates C) social workers D) health care administrators E) all of these Answer: C Explanation: Social workers may earn a certificate in palliative care as part of their master's program. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Caring for Dying Patients Bloom's: Remember ABHES: 5.b. Provide support for terminally ill patients Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

21) The right to die first became a matter for the courts to deliberate in 1976, with the death of A) Nancy Beth Cruzan. B) Karen Ann Quinlan. C) Jack Kevorkian. D) Luis Kutner. E) Terry Schiavo. Answer: B Explanation: The right to die first became a matter for the courts to deliberate in 1976, with the death of Karen Ann Quinlan. The Quinlan case raised important questions in bioethics, euthanasia, and the legal rights of guardians. The case resulted in the development of formal ethics committees in hospitals, long-term care facilities, and hospices. It also called attention to the need for advance health directives. Nancy Beth Cruzan was another landmark case in the right to die movement. Dr. Kevorkian was a proponent of euthanasia, as was Luis Kutner who founded the Euthanasia society. Terry Schiavo's case occurred during 2005. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Right to Die Movement Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 22) The 1989 Uniform Rights of the Terminally Ill Act serves as a guideline for state legislatures in constructing laws addressing which of the following? A) Elective suicide B) Right to die C) Euthanasia D) Palliative care E) Advance directives Answer: E Explanation: The 1989 Uniform Rights of the Terminally Ill Act serves as a guideline for state legislatures in constructing laws addressing advance directives. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Right to Die Movement Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

23) Which state law was the first state law passed to permit physician-assisted suicide in certain circumstances? A) California's Natural Death Act B) Patient Self-Determination Act C) Oregon's Death with Dignity Act D) Uniform Rights of the Terminally Ill Act E) Vermont's Death with Dignity Act Answer: C Explanation: In 1997, Oregon's Death with Dignity Act was passed for the second time by the voters, making the state the first to permit physician-assisted suicide in certain circumstances. In 1976, California's Natural Death Act was the nation's first right to die statute. In 1990, congress passed the Patient Self-Determination Act, the first federal act concerning advance directives. The 1989 Uniform Rights of the Terminally Ill Act serves as a guideline for state legislatures in constructing laws addressing advance directives. Vermont enacted its Death with Dignity Law in 2013. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Right to Die Movement Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 24) In 1967, what entity devised the original living will? A) American Hospital Association B) U.S. Supreme Court C) California Supreme Court D) Euthanasia Society E) Oregon legislature Answer: D Explanation: In 1967, attorney Luis Kutner and members of the Euthanasia Society (later called Choice in Dying and then Partnership for Caring, both organizations now defunct) devised the original living will. The American Hospital Association created the Patient's Bill of Rights. The U.S. Supreme Court held that state bans on physician-assisted suicide do not violate the U.S. Constitution. The California Supreme Court clarified the right to die. The Oregon legislature, as well as the Oregon voters, created the Death with Dignity law. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Right to Die Movement Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

25) A patient asks his physician "Can you help me die in peace?" The physician agrees to withhold medical treatment for this patient. This is an example of what type of euthanasia? A) Active B) Passive C) Involuntary D) Physician-assisted E) Common law Answer: B Explanation: Passive euthanasia is the act of allowing a patient to die naturally, without medical interference. Active euthanasia is a conscious medical act that results in the death of a dying person. Involuntary euthanasia is the act of ending a patient's life by medical means without the consent of the patient or his or her representative. Physician-assisted suicide loosely refers to any of these euthanasia situations in which a doctor takes part in a patient's suicide. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Right to Die Movement Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 26) Which of the following is the legal term for an advance directive that specifies an individual's end-of-life wishes for medical treatment without necessarily appointing a designee to make legal decisions for him or her? A) Living will B) Durable power of attorney C) Patient self-determination D) Health care proxy E) Instructive directive at end of life Answer: A Explanation: A living will directly provide instructions to physicians, hospitals, and other health care providers involved in a patient's treatment about end-of-life issues. A durable power of attorney is an advance directive that confers upon a designee the authority to make a variety of legal decisions on behalf of the grantor, usually including health care decisions. A health care proxy is a durable power of attorney issued for purposes of health care decisions only. As with the living will, this document outlines specific types of care and treatment that should be permitted or excluded. It also carefully outlines the specific responsibilities and authority of the proxy. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Legal Documents for the Terminally Ill Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.f. Define living will/advance directives

27) How is a health care power of attorney different than a durable power of attorney? A) A health care power of attorney must be redone every 5 years. B) A health care power of attorney cannot specify end-of-life medical decisions. C) A health care power of attorney designee must be related to the patient. D) A health care power of attorney designee can only make health care decisions. E) None of these. Answer: D Explanation: A health care power of attorney is a state-specific, end-of-life document. The health care power of attorney differs from the durable power of attorney in that it pertains just to health care decisions and not to other legal decisions. With it, individuals specify their wishes and designate an agent (not necessarily related or an attorney) to make medical decisions for them in the event they lose the ability to reason or communicate. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Legal Documents for the Terminally Ill Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.g. Define medical durable power of attorney 28) Passed in 1984, what does the National Organ Transplant Act address? A) Safety of organs B) Transportation of organs C) Distribution of organs D) Maintenance of organs E) Shortage of organs Answer: E Explanation: Passed in 1984, the National Organ Transplant Act addresses the severe shortage of organs available for transplantation. It provides funds for (1) grants to qualified organ procurement organizations (OPOs) and (2) the establishment of an Organ Procurement and Transplantation Network (OPTN) to assist OPOs in the distribution of unused organs outside their geographical area. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The National Organ Transplant Act Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

29) Which of the following was the goal of the Organ Donation and Recovery Improvement Act, passed in 2004? A) Prioritize a list of recipients B) Organize a list of donors C) Increase organ donations D) Improve transplantation success rates E) Prioritize specific organ transplants Answer: C Explanation: The Organ Donation and Recovery Improvement Act, passed in 2004, established programs to increase organ donation through public awareness campaigns and education projects, and provided grants programs for individual states supporting the use of hospital-based organ procurement coordinators, research and demonstration projects, and reimbursement to living donors for travel-related expenses. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The National Organ Transplant Act Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 30) What was the purpose of the creation of the Uniform Anatomical Gift Act? A) To allow individuals to donate body parts for money. B) To allow individuals to donate their bodies to science after death. C) To allow individuals to bid on donated organs. D) To allow physicians to use organs as they see fit. E) To allow medical schools to purchase organs. Answer: B Explanation: In 1968, the Uniform Anatomical Gift Act was approved by the National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws for the purpose of allowing individuals to donate their bodies or body parts, after death, for use in transplant surgery, tissue banks, or medical research or education. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The National Organ Transplant Act Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.e. Define Uniform Anatomical Gift Act

31) Which of the following is not an organ that can be transplanted? A) Heart B) Kidney C) Brain D) Stomach E) Bone Answer: C Explanation: Organs that can be transplanted include the heart, kidney, pancreas, lung, stomach, and small and large intestines. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The National Organ Transplant Act Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 32) Which of the following statements best describes the term "grief"? A) Grief is an emotion felt only when a loved one dies. B) Grief is the human reaction to loss. C) Grief is the process that occurs after resolution takes place. D) Grief is general sadness that occurs when things go wrong. E) Grief is when one is sad. Answer: B Explanation: Grief is the human reaction to loss. Individuals may grieve over a divorce, the loss of a job, or relocation, but grief after the death of a loved one is undoubtedly the most painful. Patients who are diagnosed with a terminal illness also experience profound grief. The grieving process is necessary, in both instances, for healing or resolution to take place. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Grieving Process Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: V.C.17.c. Discuss the theories of Kubler-Ross

33) What aspect of death and dying did the late Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, MD, describe? A) Grieving rituals. B) Religious aspects of death and dying. C) The coping methods of persons who are grieving. D) Impact of the death of a relative on the family structure. E) The cost of death and dying. Answer: C Explanation: The late Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, MD, recognized for many years as an authority in the field of death and dying, was the first to list and describe the coping mechanisms of people who grieve. Such individuals experience five stages of grief, she maintained, not necessarily in any particular order, before coming to terms with the death of a loved one or the prospect of imminent death. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Grieving Process Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: V.C.17.c. Discuss the theories of Kubler-Ross 34) Which of the following is an example of a person who is experiencing the third stage of grief according to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, MD? A) A person who is dying asks God to keep her alive to see the birth of her grandchild. B) A terminally ill person seeks another doctor because she doesn't believe her diagnosis. C) A person who is dying is angry at God for the loss of control over her life. D) A person who is dying feels hopeless and cries frequently. E) A person comes to terms with dying. Answer: A Explanation: In Stage 3, grieving individuals respond with attempts at bargaining and guilt, such as bargaining with God to stay alive long enough to see her grandchild. The second answer is Stage 1: feelings of denial and isolation. The third answer is Stage 2: anger, rage, and resentment. The fourth answer is Stage 4: depression or sadness, and the fifth answer is Stage 5. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Grieving Process Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: V.C.17.c. Discuss the theories of Kubler-Ross

35) Which of the following occurs in Stage 5 of Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's grieving process? A) Denial B) Anger C) Acceptance D) Rejection E) Guilt Answer: C Explanation: In Stage 5, those experiencing the grieving process reach a stage of acceptance. At this point, the person has finally accepted his or her loss. Terminally ill patients have come to terms with dying, and bereaved persons have accepted that the loved one is gone. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Grieving Process Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: V.C.17.c. Discuss the theories of Kubler-Ross 36) Define brain death. Answer: Brain death is the final cession of bodily activity, used to determine when death actually occurs; circulatory and respiratory functions have irreversibly ceased, and the entire brain has irreversibly ceased to function. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Determination of Death Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 37) Define persistent vegetative state (PVS). Answer: PVS is severe mental impairment characterized by irreversible cessation of the higher functions of the brain, most often caused by damage to the cerebral cortex. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Determination of Death Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

38) Define palliative care. Answer: Palliative care is the treatment of a terminally ill patient's symptoms to make the dying patient more comfortable. It normally begins when it is determined that curative care will not be successful. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Caring for Dying Patients Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 39) Define curative care. Answer: Curative care is treatment directed toward curing a patient's disease. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Caring for Dying Patients Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 40) Describe hospice. Answer: Hospice is a facility or program, most often carried out in a patient's home, in which teams of health care practitioners and volunteers provide a continuing environment that focuses on the physical, emotional, and psychological needs of the dying patient. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Caring for Dying Patients Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 41) Define voluntary euthanasia. Answer: Voluntary euthanasia requires the patient's consent or that of his designated representative to use medical means to end the patient's life. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Right to Die Movement Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

42) What does the Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) cover? Answer: The PSDA was the first federal act covering advance directives. The act requires hospitals and other healthcare providers to provide written information to patients regarding their rights under state law to make medical decisions and execute advance directives. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Right to Die Movement Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.h. Define the PSDA 43) What is a living will? Answer: A living will is an advance directive that specifies an individual's end-of-life wishes. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Legal Documents for the Terminally Ill Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 44) What is a durable power of attorney? Answer: A durable power of attorney is an advance directive that confers upon a designee the authority to make a variety of legal decisions on behalf of the grantor, usually health care decisions. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Legal Documents for the Terminally Ill Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: X.C.7.g. Define living will/advance directives 45) What is physician-assisted death? Answer: A physician-assisted death is when a patient asks for assistance in dying from a physician. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Right to Die Movement Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

46) What is the purpose of the National Organ Transplant Act? Answer: The National Organ Transplant Act was passed in 1984, and is a federal statute that provides grants to qualified organ procurement organizations and established an Organ Procurement and Transplantation Network. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The National Organ Transplant Act Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 47) If a person donated an organ, would the recipient and/or the recipient's family learn the donor's identity and contact the donor or his or her family? Answer: A donor's name is released to recipients only if the recipient asks for the information and the donor's family agrees. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The National Organ Transplant Act Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 48) Define grief. Answer: Grief is the reaction to loss. An individual may grieve over the loss of a job, a relocation, or other sudden change, but grief after the death of a loved one is undoubtedly the most painful. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Grieving Process Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: V.C.17.c. Discuss the theories of Kubler-Ross 49) Using Kübler-Ross's model, identify the five stages of grief. Answer: Kübler-Ross defined the five stages of grief as denial, anger, bargaining/guilt, depression, and acceptance. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Grieving Process Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: V.C.17.c. Discuss the theories of Kubler-Ross 21 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

50) Compare Roberta Temes's stages of grief to Kubler-Ross's model. Answer: Temes's stages of grief are numbness, disorganization, and reorganization. KüblerRoss defined the five stages of grief as denial, anger, bargaining/guilt, depression, and acceptance. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: The Grieving Process Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: V.C.17.c. Discuss the theories of Kubler-Ross

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 13 Health Care Trends and Forecasts 1) What is the term for those individuals who have a vested interest in the health care industry? A) Stakeholders B) Consumers C) Providers D) Agents E) Politicians 2) Which of the following stakeholders are considered to be at the head of the list? A) Employers B) Healthcare practitioners C) Insurance companies D) The public E) The government 3) Employers hope to contract with health care providers who can deliver quality services at a reasonable cost because they provide which of the following to their employees? A) Wages B) Medicare C) Medicaid D) Bonuses E) Healthcare benefits 4) Programs such as Medicare, Medicaid, the Federal Employees Health Benefits Program, the Military Health System, the Veterans Health Administration, the Indian Health Service, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program help to pay the costs of health care services. What healthcare stakeholder is involved in this concept? A) Healthcare facilities B) Healthcare practitioners C) Governments D) Managed care organizations E) Private insurance 5) Which of the following organizations reimburse health care providers with a focus on making a profit? A) Medicare B) Medicaid C) Insurance companies D) State children's health insurance program E) Voluntary facilities

6) Which of the following may be traded on the nation's stock market? A) Managed care organizations B) Professional organizations C) State children's health insurance program D) Pharmaceutical companies E) All of these. 7) What must a nonprofit health insurance organization do if at the end of the budget year, they have made a profit? A) Give the profit back to the shareholders. B) Put the profit back into services for those covered under their insurance. C) Donate the extra money to another health care entity. D) Refund the patients. E) None of these as nonprofits are not allowed to make a profit. 8) Professional health care organizations are stakeholders in the health care system. They provide A) ethical standards for each profession. B) education opportunities. C) professional news and information. D) advice and support for members. E) All of these. 9) Medicaid is financed by A) taxes paid at both the federal and state level. B) taxes paid at only the federal level. C) taxes paid at only the state level. D) contributions from the wealthy. E) payment by individuals for Medicaid policies. 10) The term that describes the amount of money that healthcare stakeholders spend on health care in the United States is A) cost. B) access. C) quality. D) value. E) insurance. 11) The total cost of health care in the United States is often expressed as a percentage of the country's gross domestic product (GDP). The GDP represents what percentage of the country's income for all goods and services? A) 15% B) 25% C) 75% D) 85% E) 100%

12) Medicaid covers what percentage of health care costs in the United States? A) 14% B) 17% C) 20% D) 23% E) 26% 13) Private health insurance covers what percentage of health care costs in the United States? A) 13% B) 23% C) 33% D) 43% E) 50% 14) For the calendar year 2015, hospital care represented what percentage of the cost of health care? A) 21% B) 32% C) 43% D) 50% E) 55% 15) Expenditures for residential care facilities, ambulance providers, medical care delivered in nontraditional settings such as senior citizens centers, schools and military field stations, and expenditures for the Home and Community Waiver Programs under Medicaid represent what percentage of the costs of health care? A) 20% B) 14% C) 10% D) 5% E) 3% 16) According to the National Center for Biotechnology Information, which of the following contributes to the rising cost of health care? A) Lifestyle factors B) Personal choices C) Aging population D) Rising rates of chronic disease E) All of these.

17) The goal of "shared responsibility" in the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA) is to A) have the various levels of government and the patient share equally in the cost of healthcare insurance. B) have the various levels of government share equally in the cost of providing health care. C) have the various levels of government, employers, and individuals ensure access to affordable healthcare insurance. D) have the various levels of government, employers, and individuals ensure that cost for health insurance is equal for everyone. E) have the various levels of government share equally in the cost of providing health insurance. 18) Since the implementation of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA), A) more people have health insurance but out-of-pocket expenses continue to increase. B) more people have health insurance and out-of-pocket expenses are decreasing. C) the same number of people have health insurance and out-of-pocket expenses have remained stable. D) the same number of people have health insurance and out-of-pocket expenses have decreased. E) more people have health insurance and premiums have remained stable. 19) For fair access to health care to exist, there must be which of the following? A) adequate services for all B) ability of population to utilize the system C) ability of individuals to receive ongoing care D) answers adequate services for all, ability of population to utilize the system, and ability of individuals to receive ongoing care must all be in place E) answers adequate services for all and ability of individuals to receive ongoing care are correct 20) The National Quality Strategy set forth by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services has three broad aims for the improvement of health care. They are A) health insurance for all citizens, safer care, and prevention of illness. B) better care, healthy people and communities, and affordable care. C) better care, safer care, and family-focused care. D) healthy people, healthy communities, and affordable care. E) affordable care, safer care, and effective coordination of care. 21) How many priorities does the National Quality Strategy have? A) Three B) Four C) Five D) Six E) Seven

22) According to the 2015 AHRQ report on quality and disparities, patient safety improved to include: A) A 17% reduction in hospital acquired conditions between 2010 and 2014 B) A 17% reduction in hospitalizations for cardiovascular problems C) A 17% reduction in chronic diseases D) A 17% reduction in patient injuries while hospitalized E) A 17% reduction in errors in surgery 23) According to the 2015 AHRQ report on quality and disparities, A) more than 50% of Medicare patient have six chronic conditions. B) more than 14% of Medicare patients have three chronic conditions. C) more than 67% of Medicare patients have at least two chronic conditions. D) most Medicare patients have more than 13 doctor visits a year. E) most Medicare patients have at least one minor surgery every year. 24) The AHRQ Report for 2015 indicated that A) the United States spent less on health care and its citizens were healthier than other nations. B) the United States spent more on health care and its citizens were healthier than other nations. C) the United States spent about the same as other countries on health care. D) the United States spent less on health care and its citizens were less healthy than other nations. E) the United States spent more on health care and its citizens were less healthy than other nations. 25) Which of the following best defines the term birth rates within a population? A) The total number of live births in an entire country for one year. B) The total number of live births within a specific age group. C) The total number of live births recorded in each state each year. D) The total number of live births per 1,000 women aged 15 to 44 years. E) None of these. 26) Infant mortality is one major measure of a country's health system. The United States infant mortality rate is A) ranked near the bottom of comparable countries. B) ranked near the top of comparable countries. C) comparable to Sweden, Japan, and Finland. D) comparable to Iceland. E) None of these. 27) Life expectancy at birth for Americans in 2015 was approximately A) 65 years. B) 70 years. C) 73 years. D) 78 years. E) 80 years.

28) Ultrasound devices are changing. The devices are now A) becoming smaller, but less effective. B) handheld. C) app based and paired with a smartphone. D) handheld and app based and paired with a smartphone. E) becoming smaller, but less effective and app based and paired with a smartphone. 29) Medical products made from a variety of natural sources (human, animal, or microorganism) are known as A) genomics. B) pharmacogenomics. C) random drug design. D) gene editing. E) biologics. 30) CRISPR-Cas9 is a(n) A) health monitoring wearable device. B) biologic. C) rational drug design technique. D) imaging technique. E) gene-editing technique. 31) Point-of-care testing's primary benefit is A) the ability to diagnose immediately and thus determine treatment immediately. B) only available for hospital patients. C) not a significant factor in improving health care. D) the use of clinical grade wearables. E) None of these. 32) The science that defines how individuals are genetically programmed to respond to drugs is called A) genomics. B) proteomics. C) pharmacogenomics. D) pharmacotherapy. E) pharmacogenetics. 33) The use of this technique will allow the recreation of a solid object from a digital file that could help in drug testing and organ structure. It is known as A) three-dimensional genomics. B) three-dimensional bioprinting. C) three-dimensional drug design. D) three-dimensional clinical wearables. E) three-dimensional biologics.

34) The branch of molecular biology concerned with the structure, function, evolution, and mapping of genomes is known as A) genetics. B) genomics. C) proteomics. D) genetic mapping. E) none of these. 35) Personalized medicine is the products and services that leverage which two sciences? A) Genetic mapping and biologics B) Genetic mapping and genomics C) Genomics and proteomics D) Proteomics and genetic mapping E) Genetics and biologics 36) The federal Office of Disease Prevention and Health Promotion collects data about patient well-being in a survey called A) PCA. B) HBO. C) PROMIS. D) MIS. E) none of these. 37) Identify at least four of the stakeholders in the healthcare system. Give examples of each. 38) What are the three major concerns for all stakeholders? 39) What are the three areas where most of the healthcare dollar is spent? 40) Health insurance makes up 74% of the sources of payment for health care. What is the breakdown between the types of health insurance? 41) Identify at least three reasons that the cost of health care is rising. 42) Define access as it relates to health care. 43) What is the role of the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality? 44) Define life expectancy and life span. 45) Define fertility rate and birth rate. 46) What are the three broad aims of the National Quality Strategy? 47) Which portion of the global population is increasing the most? 48) Identify at least four major health care trends. 7 Copyright ©2018 McGraw-Hill

49) What are clinical grade wearables? 50) What is the definition of well-being?

Law & Ethics for Health Professions (Judson, Revised), 8e Chapter 13 Health Care Trends and Forecasts 1) What is the term for those individuals who have a vested interest in the health care industry? A) Stakeholders B) Consumers C) Providers D) Agents E) Politicians Answer: A Explanation: Those who have a vested interest in the health care industry in the United States, and in any efforts to reform the industry, are called stakeholders. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Stakeholders in Health Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 2) Which of the following stakeholders are considered to be at the head of the list? A) Employers B) Healthcare practitioners C) Insurance companies D) The public E) The government Answer: D Explanation: The patients who use health care services will always be at the head of the list of stakeholders. When health problems arise, everyone wants the best medical care available, conveniently delivered, at an affordable cost. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Stakeholders in Health Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

3) Employers hope to contract with health care providers who can deliver quality services at a reasonable cost because they provide which of the following to their employees? A) Wages B) Medicare C) Medicaid D) Bonuses E) Healthcare benefits Answer: E Explanation: Since employers often provide health care benefits for employees, they hope to contract with health care providers who can deliver quality services at a reasonable cost. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Stakeholders in Health Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 4) Programs such as Medicare, Medicaid, the Federal Employees Health Benefits Program, the Military Health System, the Veterans Health Administration, the Indian Health Service, and the State Children's Health Insurance Program help to pay the costs of health care services. What healthcare stakeholder is involved in this concept? A) Healthcare facilities B) Healthcare practitioners C) Governments D) Managed care organizations E) Private insurance Answer: C Explanation: Governments help pay the cost of health care services through Medicare, Medicaid, the Federal Employees Health Benefits Program, the Military Health System, the Veterans Health Administration, the Indian Health Service, the State Children's Health Insurance Program, and other state and federal government-financed programs. For that reason, governments are near the top of the list of healthcare stakeholders. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Stakeholders in Health Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

5) Which of the following organizations reimburse health care providers with a focus on making a profit? A) Medicare B) Medicaid C) Insurance companies D) State children's health insurance program E) Voluntary facilities Answer: C Explanation: Most insurance companies, including managed care organizations, must make money to continue in business. While government insurance like Medicare, Medicaid, and state health insurance must be profitable to remain in business, their first focus is on services. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Major Stakeholders in Health Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 6) Which of the following may be traded on the nation's stock market? A) Managed care organizations B) Professional organizations C) State children's health insurance program D) Pharmaceutical companies E) All of these. Answer: D Explanation: Pharmaceutical companies are often publicly owned—which means that their stock is traded on the stock market. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Major Stakeholders in Health Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

7) What must a nonprofit health insurance organization do if at the end of the budget year, they have made a profit? A) Give the profit back to the shareholders. B) Put the profit back into services for those covered under their insurance. C) Donate the extra money to another health care entity. D) Refund the patients. E) None of these as nonprofits are not allowed to make a profit. Answer: B Explanation: While it is important that all companies make more money than they spend, a nonprofit health insurance organization may use the "profit" to improve services the following year. For-profit companies may provide dividends to shareholders. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Major Stakeholders in Health Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 8) Professional health care organizations are stakeholders in the health care system. They provide A) ethical standards for each profession. B) education opportunities. C) professional news and information. D) advice and support for members. E) All of these. Answer: E Explanation: The various professions in health care have formed national associations such as the American Association of Medical Assistants, the American Nurses Association, the American Medical Association, the American College of Healthcare Executives (it is not a college but it does offer educational opportunities) the American Association of Healthcare Administrative Managers, and the American Health Information Management Association are all examples of associations for professionals in health care. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Stakeholders in Health Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

9) Medicaid is financed by A) taxes paid at both the federal and state level. B) taxes paid at only the federal level. C) taxes paid at only the state level. D) contributions from the wealthy. E) payment by individuals for Medicaid policies. Answer: A Explanation: Medicaid is financed by both federal and state level taxes. However, the larger share is federal income tax. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Cost of Health Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 10) The term that describes the amount of money that healthcare stakeholders spend on health care in the United States is A) cost. B) access. C) quality. D) value. E) insurance. Answer: A Explanation: Cost refers to the amount individuals, employers, state and federal governments, managed care organizations, private insurers, and other stakeholders spend on health care in the United States. Access is the number of people who have access to health care services—that is, the number of people for whom the services are available and for which they as consumers can pay. This also helps determine costs. In addition, the cost of healthcare services also directly affects the quality, or degree of excellence, of health care services offered. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Cost of Health Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

11) The total cost of health care in the United States is often expressed as a percentage of the country's gross domestic product (GDP). The GDP represents what percentage of the country's income for all goods and services? A) 15% B) 25% C) 75% D) 85% E) 100% Answer: E Explanation: The total cost of health care in the United States is often expressed as a percentage of the country's gross domestic product (GDP). The GDP represents 100% of the country's income for all goods and services. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Cost of Health Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 12) Medicaid covers what percentage of health care costs in the United States? A) 14% B) 17% C) 20% D) 23% E) 26% Answer: B Explanation: Medicaid is financed by both state/local government taxes (6%) and federal taxes (11%). Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Cost of Health Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

13) Private health insurance covers what percentage of health care costs in the United States? A) 13% B) 23% C) 33% D) 43% E) 50% Answer: C Explanation: Private health insurance, which includes managed care plans, covers 33% of health care costs in the United States. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Cost of Health Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 14) For the calendar year 2015, hospital care represented what percentage of the cost of health care? A) 21% B) 32% C) 43% D) 50% E) 55% Answer: B Explanation: Hospital costs represent 32% of the dollar spent in health care in 2015. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Cost of Health Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

15) Expenditures for residential care facilities, ambulance providers, medical care delivered in nontraditional settings such as senior citizens centers, schools and military field stations, and expenditures for the Home and Community Waiver Programs under Medicaid represent what percentage of the costs of health care? A) 20% B) 14% C) 10% D) 5% E) 3% Answer: D Explanation: While the many types of expenditures could possibly indicate a higher percentage, only 5% of the health care dollar is spent delivering health care in residential care facilities, ambulance providers, medical care delivered in nontraditional settings such as senior citizens centers, schools and military field stations, and expenditures for the Home and Community Waiver Programs under Medicaid. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Cost of Health Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 16) According to the National Center for Biotechnology Information, which of the following contributes to the rising cost of health care? A) Lifestyle factors B) Personal choices C) Aging population D) Rising rates of chronic disease E) All of these. Answer: E Explanation: People are living longer, have more chronic diseases, and make unhealthy personal choices like smoking, as well as lifestyle factors like eating an unhealthy diet. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Cost of Health Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

17) The goal of "shared responsibility" in the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA) is to A) have the various levels of government and the patient share equally in the cost of healthcare insurance. B) have the various levels of government share equally in the cost of providing health care. C) have the various levels of government, employers, and individuals ensure access to affordable healthcare insurance. D) have the various levels of government, employers, and individuals ensure that cost for health insurance is equal for everyone. E) have the various levels of government share equally in the cost of providing health insurance. Answer: C Explanation: The PPACA is designed to ensure access to health insurance, not equal costs for health care or health insurance. Individual circumstances vary widely, so ensuring access to insurance is the primary mission of the PPACA. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Cost of Health Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 18) Since the implementation of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA), A) more people have health insurance but out-of-pocket expenses continue to increase. B) more people have health insurance and out-of-pocket expenses are decreasing. C) the same number of people have health insurance and out-of-pocket expenses have remained stable. D) the same number of people have health insurance and out-of-pocket expenses have decreased. E) more people have health insurance and premiums have remained stable. Answer: A Explanation: As of mid-2016 only 9.1% of Americans were without health insurance. In 2012, there were 15.4% of the population without health insurance. However, out-of-pocket expenses continued to increase for all Americans, regardless of what type of coverage they had. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Cost of Health Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

19) For fair access to health care to exist, there must be which of the following? A) adequate services for all B) ability of population to utilize the system C) ability of individuals to receive ongoing care D) answers adequate services for all, ability of population to utilize the system, and ability of individuals to receive ongoing care must all be in place E) answers adequate services for all and ability of individuals to receive ongoing care are correct Answer: D Explanation: Fair access requires not only adequate and ongoing care, but individuals must be able to use the health care system. Social and cultural barriers must be removed and the care must be affordable. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Access and Quality of Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 20) The National Quality Strategy set forth by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services has three broad aims for the improvement of health care. They are A) health insurance for all citizens, safer care, and prevention of illness. B) better care, healthy people and communities, and affordable care. C) better care, safer care, and family-focused care. D) healthy people, healthy communities, and affordable care. E) affordable care, safer care, and effective coordination of care. Answer: B Explanation: The three major aims of the National Quality Strategy (NQS) are better care, healthy people, and communities and affordable care. While health insurance for all, safer care, prevention of illness, family focused care, and coordination of care may be part of how these aims are advanced, the three aims are broad in nature. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Access and Quality of Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

21) How many priorities does the National Quality Strategy have? A) Three B) Four C) Five D) Six E) Seven Answer: D Explanation: There are three aims in the National Quality Strategy and six priorities to advance the aims. The six priorities are reducing harm (making care safer) patient/family engagement in care, effective communication and coordination of care, prevention and effective treatment for leading causes of mortality, working with communities and making quality care affordable for not just individuals, but for employers and governments. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Access and Quality of Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 22) According to the 2015 AHRQ report on quality and disparities, patient safety improved to include: A) A 17% reduction in hospital acquired conditions between 2010 and 2014 B) A 17% reduction in hospitalizations for cardiovascular problems C) A 17% reduction in chronic diseases D) A 17% reduction in patient injuries while hospitalized E) A 17% reduction in errors in surgery Answer: A Explanation: The AHRQ report on quality and disparities reflected that there was a 17% reduction in hospital acquired condition between 2010 and 2014. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Access and Quality of Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

23) According to the 2015 AHRQ report on quality and disparities, A) more than 50% of Medicare patient have six chronic conditions. B) more than 14% of Medicare patients have three chronic conditions. C) more than 67% of Medicare patients have at least two chronic conditions. D) most Medicare patients have more than 13 doctor visits a year. E) most Medicare patients have at least one minor surgery every year. Answer: C Explanation: The AHRQ report on quality and disparities reflected that at least two-thirds of Medicare patients have two chronic conditions. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Access and Quality of Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 24) The AHRQ Report for 2015 indicated that A) the United States spent less on health care and its citizens were healthier than other nations. B) the United States spent more on health care and its citizens were healthier than other nations. C) the United States spent about the same as other countries on health care. D) the United States spent less on health care and its citizens were less healthy than other nations. E) the United States spent more on health care and its citizens were less healthy than other nations. Answer: E Explanation: While our country spends more per capita on health care than any other country, we do not always have the best health outcomes. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Access and Quality of Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

25) Which of the following best defines the term birth rates within a population? A) The total number of live births in an entire country for one year. B) The total number of live births within a specific age group. C) The total number of live births recorded in each state each year. D) The total number of live births per 1,000 women aged 15 to 44 years. E) None of these. Answer: B Explanation: Birth rates are the total number of live births within a specific age group. Examples would be ages 15-19 or over 35. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Access and Quality of Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 26) Infant mortality is one major measure of a country's health system. The United States infant mortality rate is A) ranked near the bottom of comparable countries. B) ranked near the top of comparable countries. C) comparable to Sweden, Japan, and Finland. D) comparable to Iceland. E) None of these. Answer: A Explanation: Infant mortality is near the bottom, with a rate of 6.1 deaths for every 1,000 live births. Other countries have between 1.6 and 2.0 deaths for every 1,000 births. Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Access and Quality of Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

27) Life expectancy at birth for Americans in 2015 was approximately A) 65 years. B) 70 years. C) 73 years. D) 78 years. E) 80 years. Answer: D Explanation: Life expectancy at birth for Americans in 2015 was approximately 78.8 years. Most babies born in 1900 did not live past age 50. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Access and Quality of Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 28) Ultrasound devices are changing. The devices are now A) becoming smaller, but less effective. B) handheld. C) app based and paired with a smartphone. D) handheld and app based and paired with a smartphone. E) becoming smaller, but less effective and app based and paired with a smartphone. Answer: D Explanation: Ultrasound devices have shrunk to laptop computer size and smaller. They have been miniaturized to a handheld device and newer designs are app-based and pair with a smartphone. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Trends in Health Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

29) Medical products made from a variety of natural sources (human, animal, or microorganism) are known as A) genomics. B) pharmacogenomics. C) random drug design. D) gene editing. E) biologics. Answer: E Explanation: Biologics are medical products made from a variety of natural sources (human, animal, or microorganism). Some biologics are intended to treat diseases while other biologics are used to prevent or diagnose diseases. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Trends in Health Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 30) CRISPR-Cas9 is a(n) A) health monitoring wearable device. B) biologic. C) rational drug design technique. D) imaging technique. E) gene-editing technique. Answer: E Explanation: CRISPR-Cas9, as of 2016, was the fastest, simplest, cheapest, and most versatile and precise method of gene editing or manipulation. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Trends in Health Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

31) Point-of-care testing's primary benefit is A) the ability to diagnose immediately and thus determine treatment immediately. B) only available for hospital patients. C) not a significant factor in improving health care. D) the use of clinical grade wearables. E) None of these. Answer: A Explanation: Point-of-care testing allows patient diagnoses in the physician's office, ambulance, home, field, or hospital. It is timely and allows the opportunity for rapid treatment. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Trends in Health Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 32) The science that defines how individuals are genetically programmed to respond to drugs is called A) genomics. B) proteomics. C) pharmacogenomics. D) pharmacotherapy. E) pharmacogenetics. Answer: C Explanation: The science that defines how individuals are genetically programmed to respond to drugs is called pharmacogenomics. Many new approaches are currently (2017) under study in clinical trials. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Trends in Health Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

33) The use of this technique will allow the recreation of a solid object from a digital file that could help in drug testing and organ structure. It is known as A) three-dimensional genomics. B) three-dimensional bioprinting. C) three-dimensional drug design. D) three-dimensional clinical wearables. E) three-dimensional biologics. Answer: B Explanation: Three-dimensional (3D) printing, also called additive manufacturing, is a process that allows a printer to recreate solid objects from a digital file. Living tissue may be reproduced by a specially adapted machine—the bioprinter. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Trends in Health Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 34) The branch of molecular biology concerned with the structure, function, evolution, and mapping of genomes is known as A) genetics. B) genomics. C) proteomics. D) genetic mapping. E) none of these. Answer: B Explanation: Genomics is the branch of molecular biology concerned with the structure, function, evolution, and mapping of genomes. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Trends in Health Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

35) Personalized medicine is the products and services that leverage which two sciences? A) Genetic mapping and biologics B) Genetic mapping and genomics C) Genomics and proteomics D) Proteomics and genetic mapping E) Genetics and biologics Answer: C Explanation: Personalized medicine leverages genomics—the structure, function evolution, and mapping of genomes with proteomics—the study of proteins that genes create or express to create tailored, individual approaches to disease prevention and health care. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Trends in Health Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 36) The federal Office of Disease Prevention and Health Promotion collects data about patient well-being in a survey called A) PCA. B) HBO. C) PROMIS. D) MIS. E) none of these. Answer: C Explanation: The Patient-Reported Outcomes Measurement Information System (PROMIS) asks patients over 1,000 questions about fatigue, pain, emotional distress, and social activities. The initial results have shown that individual well-being is associated with fewer incidents of physical and mental illness, healthier behaviors, social connectedness, increased productivity, and longevity. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Trends in Health Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

37) Identify at least four of the stakeholders in the healthcare system. Give examples of each. Answer: There are at least 11 different stakeholders in the health care system. They include the public, employers, health care facilities and providers, federal, state, and local governments, private insurers, voluntary facilities, health care training institutions, professional associations, and medical, biotechnology companies, pharmaceutical companies, and other companies related to health care. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Stakeholders in Health Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 38) What are the three major concerns for all stakeholders? Answer: Cost, access, and quality are of concern for all stakeholders. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Stakeholders in Health Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 39) What are the three areas where most of the healthcare dollar is spent? Answer: Hospital care 32%, Physician and Clinical Services 20%, and 14% in a combination; the Centers for Medicaid and Medicare Services (CMS) refers to as "other" that includes durable medical equipment, residential and personal care, public health, home health, and other nondurable medical products. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Cost of Health Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

40) Health insurance makes up 74% of the sources of payment for health care. What is the breakdown between the types of health insurance? Answer: Private health insurance 33%, Medicare 20%, Medicaid (federal) 11%, Medicaid (state and local) 6%, and VA, DOD, and CHIP at 4%. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Cost of Health Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 41) Identify at least three reasons that the cost of health care is rising. Answer: There are more than nine reasons that health care costs are rising. They are the fee for service reimbursement system, fragmentation in payment and care delivery, administrative burdens, advances in medical technology, tax treatment of health insurance, changing trends in healthcare market consolidation, and competition for providers and the legal and regulatory environment. The aging population, rising rates of chronic disease, and lifestyle factors that include personal health choices. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Cost of Health Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 42) Define access as it relates to health care. Answer: Access to health care means that people are able to use appropriate health care services when necessary in order to maintain and improve their health. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Access and Quality of Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

43) What is the role of the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality? Answer: The AHRQ is the lead federal agency responsible for tracking and improving the quality, safety, efficiency, and effectiveness of health care for Americans. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Access and Quality of Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 44) Define life expectancy and life span. Answer: Life expectancy is the number of years an individual can expect to live, calculated from his or her birth. Life span is the actual number of years a person lives. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Access and Quality Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 45) Define fertility rate and birth rate. Answer: Fertility rate is defined by the National Center for Health Statistics as the total number of live births per 1,000 women aged 15-44. Birth rate is a reference to a specific age group, that is, the denominator may be different than aged 15-44. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Access and Quality of Care Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 46) What are the three broad aims of the National Quality Strategy? Answer: The three broad aims of the NQS are better care, healthy people and healthy communities, and affordable care. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Access and Quality Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None

47) Which portion of the global population is increasing the most? Answer: On a global level, the 85 and older population is the fastest growing part of the total population. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Access and Quality Bloom's: Remember ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 48) Identify at least four major health care trends. Answer: Advances in imaging, biologics, clinical-grade wearables, gene-editing techniques, point-of-care testing, rational and pharmacogenomic drug design, and three-dimensional bioprinting. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Trends in Health Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 49) What are clinical grade wearables? Answer: Clinical grade wearables are health monitoring trackers that have sophisticated sensors and advanced analytics that will aid in diagnosis and treatment. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Trends in Health Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None 50) What is the definition of well-being? Answer: The perception that one's life is going well and a physical and mental state that improves quality of life is the definition of well-being. Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Trends in Health Care Bloom's: Understand ABHES: None Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation CAAHEP: None