Organizational Behavior Managing People and Organizations 13th Edition Test Bank

Organizational Behavior: Managing People and Organizations 13th Edition Test Bank

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True / False 1. Organizational behavior is the study of human behavior in organizational settings, the interface between human behavior and the organization, and the organization itself. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Human behavior in organizations is not impacted by the organizational environment. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Organizational behavior is a designated business function, just like marketing and accounting. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. If an organization develops corporate goals to acquire new businesses, the task would be part of the organization’s planning function. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Organizing is the process of designing jobs, grouping jobs into units, and establishing patterns of authority among jobs and groups of jobs. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Leading is the process of setting deadlines and making plans to achieve corporate goals. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. The controlling function involves monitoring and correcting the actions of the organization and its members to keep them directed toward their goals. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. A manager with strong conceptual skills has the ability to think in the abstract. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. Managers use their interpersonal skills to understand cause-and-effect relationships. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. False ANSWER: False 10. A system is an interrelated set of elements that function as a whole. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. An organizational system receives a variety of inputs from the environment, combines and transforms them, and then returns them to the environment. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. When managers rely on a systems approach to organizations, they start by focusing on material, human, financial, and informational inputs. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. Providing the best customer support before, during, and after a sale can create goodwill with customers, but it is not likely to give organizations a competitive advantage. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. Being first to market with a product can enable an organization to gain a competitive advantage. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 15. The origins of organizational behavior date back to prehistoric times. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 16. The universal approach to organizational behavior suggests that elements of the situation should be evaluated to determine the best way to respond. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 17. Interactionalism suggests individuals and situations interact continuously to determine individuals’ behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 18. Organizational citizenship refers to the behavior of individuals that makes a positive overall contribution to the organization.

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a. True b. False ANSWER: True 19. Productivity and performance are individual-level behaviors that impact organizational effectiveness. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 20. If an organization uses a systems approach, it relies on technology such as manufacturing, operations, and service processes to transform inputs into outputs. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 21. Applying a universal perspective, managers try to identify all of the possible ways to solve problems, based on the elements of the situation. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 22. By focusing on organizational behavior, businesses can potentially increase job satisfaction and decrease employee absenteeism and turnover. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 23. Organizational behavior principles emphasize that since individuals work in isolation, they are not integral to a business’s success or failure. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 24. When organizations focus on the “softer” side of business, including organizational behavior factors, it can lead to a. weaker leadership. b. loss of trust among employees. c. better relationships with vendors. d. more motivated and more engaged employees. e. less motivated and less engaged employees.

ANSWER: d 25. Organizational behavior (OB) typically includes the study of which basic component? a. Financial reporting b. Research and development c. Human actions and interactions within organizations d. The task environment Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. Customer retention ANSWER: c 26. Organizational behavior can best be described as a. simple. b. complex. c. confusing. d. insignificant. e. effortless.

ANSWER: b 27. Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects the nature of organizational behavior? a. The environment surrounding the organization b. Individuals’ expectations and goals c. The organization itself d. Formal organizational policies and procedures e. Product price levels ANSWER: e 28. By focusing on organizational behavior, a business seeks to understand how a. organizational systems shape employee behavior. b. organizational structures shape employee behavior. c. organizational processes shape employee behavior. d. organizational decisions shape employee behavior. e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 29. Studies show that listening to employees and building trust with them does what? a. Improves organization's earnings b. Increases the number of product lines c. Lowers prices d. Decreases the number of product lines e. Raises prices ANSWER: a 30. When dealing with people at work, managers must have an understanding of all of the following EXCEPT a. leadership. b. decision making. c. organizational structure and design. d. organizational culture. e. long-term plans of marketplace competitors.

ANSWER: e 31. Which of the following is NOT a type of resource organizations use when pursuing corporate goals and objectives? a. Human b. Financial c. Physical Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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d. Invisible e. Information ANSWER: d 32. Planning is the process of a. designing jobs, grouping jobs into units, and establishing patterns of authority between jobs and units. b. determining the organization’s desired future position and deciding the best way to achieve the desired outcome. c. motivating the organization’s members to work together toward the organization’s goals. d. monitoring and correcting the actions of the organization and its members to keep them directed toward their goals. e. utilizing organizational resources with the ultimate goal of attaining organizational goals efficiently and effectively.

ANSWER: b 33. A manager who groups jobs into units is performing which of the following functions of management? a. Planning b. Organizing c. Controlling d. Supervising e. Leading ANSWER: b 34. When managers strive to motivate employees to work together toward the organization’s goals, they are performing which of the following managerial functions? a. Synergizing b. Controlling c. Leading d. Planning e. Organizing ANSWER: c 35. Evaluating employee performance is an example of the managerial function of a. leading. b. decision making. c. organizing. d. planning. e. controlling.

ANSWER: e 36. A manager fulfills the primary role of a leader by a. choosing the best resources to most effectively and efficiently produce the organization’s product or service. b. verifying the quality of resources that pass through the organization. c. determining how organizational resources will be released in the environment. d. encouraging workers to increase productivity. e. identifying the various suppliers the organization will utilize to acquire resources.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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37. A manager who schedules regular department meetings to provide relevant information to employees is demonstrating strong a. interpersonal skills. b. technical skills. c. diagnostic skills. d. conceptual skills. e. leadership skills.

ANSWER: a 38. A manager’s ability to develop optimal solutions to problems is evident by her a. conceptual skills. b. time management skills. c. diagnostic skills. d. interpersonal skills. e. technical skills.

ANSWER: c 39. A manager who recognizes how various tasks within an organization interrelate and contribute toward achieving broad corporate goals is demonstrating strong a. problem-solving skills. b. diagnostic skills. c. technical skills. d. conceptual skills. e. interpersonal skills.

ANSWER: d 40. An engineer who can solve complex mathematical equations is demonstrating strong a. interpersonal skills. b. problem-solving skills. c. conceptual skills. d. diagnostic skills. e. technical skills.

ANSWER: e 41. John, a middle manager in a high-tech firm, is able to identify which of the organization’s products in development are most likely to appeal to consumers because of his strong a. diagnostic skills. b. conceptual skills. c. technical skills. d. interpersonal skills. e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: b 42. The systems perspective defines a system as a. an interrelated set of elements that function as a whole. b. a procedure for fair and impartial performance appraisals.

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c. a collection of independent organizations. d. the central technology of the organization. e. the ideal process to complete any organizational task.

ANSWER: a 43. All of the following are inputs an organization receives from its environment EXCEPT a. money. b. materials. c. people. d. employee behaviors. e. information.

ANSWER: d 44. Following a systems approach, the profit Walmart receives from its services is identified as a type of a. technology. b. output. c. input. d. transformation. e. contingency.

ANSWER: b 45. The systems approach is beneficial to managers because it a. underscores the importance of the organization's environment. b. provides a set of procedures to make decisions. c. enables them to eliminate interactions among various elements of the organization. d. reduces the risk of human error. e. shifts the focus from outside the company to inside the company.

ANSWER: a 46. Which perspective argues there’s “one best way” to solve a problem in any organization? a. The universal perspective b. Behavioral organization theory c. The systems perspective d. The interactional perspective e. The contingency perspective ANSWER: a 47. Which management perspective states that one leadership style will not always be effective in enhancing employee satisfaction and job performance in every circumstance? a. Situational perspective b. Classical perspective c. Behavioral perspective d. Interactional perspective e. Universal perspective ANSWER: a 48. __________ suggests individuals and situations interact continuously to determine individuals’ behavior.

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a. Interactionalism b. Contextualism c. Universalism d. Individualism e. Systems theory ANSWER: a 49. Which of the following are outcome variables in organizations? Select all that apply. a. Individual-level behaviors b. Group-level behaviors c. Team-level behaviors d. Surface-level behaviors e. None of these are correct ANSWER: b 50. Which of the following is used to measure potentially dysfunctional behavior in an organization? a. Absenteeism b. Job satisfaction c. Job dissatisfaction d. Organizational commitment e. Employee engagement ANSWER: a 51. A person’s __________ is a relatively narrow indicator of efficiency measured by the employee’s products or services created per unit of input. a. productivity b. absenteeism c. turnover d. profitability e. cost-effectiveness ANSWER: a 52. A __________ provides an organization an edge over rivals. a. cultural privilege b. business bias c. personal talent d. competitive advantage e. monopoly ANSWER: d 53. Successful business strategies enable organizations to create and maintain a competitive advantage that is a. inflexible. b. sustainable. c. volatile. d. intangible. e. All of these are correct.

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ANSWER: b 54. To gain a competitive advantage, a company must offer a. the fewest product options. b. the most product options. c. the lowest prices. d. superior value for the price. e. superior customer service.

ANSWER: d 55. Organizations pursuing a strategy of keeping costs and prices low usually try to develop a competitive advantage using which of the following? a. Operational excellence b. Differentiation c. Cost analysis d. Employee training e. Product innovation ANSWER: a 56. Firms that apply a __________ strategy strive to be the lowest cost producer in the industry for a particular level of product quality. a. cost leadership b. differentiation c. specialization d. growth e. self-sabotaging ANSWER: a 57. An organization can gain a competitive advantage through which of the following sources? Select all that apply. a. Innovation b. Speed c. Cost d. Quality e. All of these are correct ANSWER: e 58. If a company creates a corporate culture that encourages employees to suggest new ideas, it is applying a strategy that focuses on a. cost leadership. b. differentiation. c. specialization. d. growth. e. sabotage.

ANSWER: b 59. Businesses that use a __________ strategy focus on a narrow market segment or niche. a. cost leadership Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. differentiation c. specialization d. growth e. psychological ANSWER: c 60. Organizations pursuing a specialization strategy often try to develop a competitive advantage based on a. market concentration. b. profit margin. c. customer intimacy. d. brand recognition. e. product placement.

ANSWER: c 61. Organizations pursuing a differentiation strategy often try to develop a competitive advantage based on product a. intervention. b. integration. c. initiation. d. innovation. e. integrity.

ANSWER: d 62. Maximizing the efficiency of the manufacturing or product development process in order to minimize costs is referred to as a. managerial skill. b. business superiority. c. operational excellence. d. maintenance strategy. e. differentiation.

ANSWER: c 63. An organization with a competitive advantage due to product innovation would likely seek a core workforce of research and development employees who have a. an entrepreneurial mindset. b. a shorter-term focus. c. a low tolerance for ambiguity. d. conservative values. e. a high aversion to taking risks.

ANSWER: a 64. Which of the following strategies focuses on company expansion, either organically or through acquisitions? a. Differentiation b. Cost leadership c. Specialization d. Growth e. Domination ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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65. __________ management is based on the belief that productivity is maximized when organizations are rationalized with precise sets of instructions based on time-and-motion studies. a. Scientific b. Sociological c. Straightforward d. Strategic e. Stratospheric ANSWER: a 66. After World War I, organizations shifted their attention away from scientific management to understanding the role of __________ . a. managerial corruption b. law and politics c. gender and sexual harassment d. religion and spirituality e. human factors and psychology ANSWER: e 67. The __________ effect occurs when people improve an aspect of their behavior or performance because they are aware they are being assessed. a. Hamilton b. Henricks c. Hawthorne d. Hampton e. Hoover ANSWER: c 68. Deming’s __________ cycle of continuous improvement identifies fourteen principles that make any organization efficient and capable of solving problems. a. plan-do-check-act b. check-research-study-do c. act-interpret-evaluate-plan d. do-understand-analyze-plan e. research-analyze-evaluate-understand ANSWER: a 69. __________ is known as the “guru of quality management.” a. Porter b. Hofstede c. Deming d. Geert e. None of these are correct ANSWER: c 70. Which of the following questions could NOT be answered as a result of organizational behavior research findings? a. What goal level will best motivate my employees?

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b. How important is employee satisfaction to job performance? c. Should I seek a promotion with a competing firm? d. Is stress always bad? e. When are different leadership approaches most effective?

ANSWER: c 71. The __________ method relies on systematic studies that identify and replicate results using a variety of methods, samples, and settings. a. philosophical b. statistical c. mathematical d. scientific e. humanist ANSWER: d 72. What is the term for a written prediction specifying expected relationships between certain variables? a. Hypothesis b. Theory c. Prophecy d. Correlation e. Statistic ANSWER: a 73. A __________ is a collection of verbal and symbolic assertions that specify how and why two or more variables are related, and the conditions under which they should and should not relate. a. hypothesis b. theory c. data set d. fact e. statistic ANSWER: b 74. Which of the following is an example of a hypothesis? a. Setting a goal will be positively related to the number of products assembled. b. A researcher found a 0.8 correlation between goal setting and productivity. c. Personally, I am more productive when I set goals. d. I wonder if there is a relationship between goal setting and productivity. e. There is no way to determine whether goal setting is positively or negatively related to productivity.

ANSWER: a 75. The __________ variable in an experiment is the predictor, which researchers expect is affecting another factor. a. dependent b. independent c. codependent d. interdependent e. measured ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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76. The __________ variable in an experiment is the criterion, which researchers expect is affected by another factor. a. dependent b. independent c. codependent d. interdependent e. control ANSWER: a 77. A researcher hypothesizes that the age of employees influences their awareness of diversity. In this example, age is the __________ and diversity awareness is the __________. a. factor, control b. theory, correlation c. correlation, theory d. independent variable, dependent variable e. dependent variable, independent variable ANSWER: d 78. A __________ reflects the size and strength of the statistical relationship between two variables. a. correlation b. mean c. mode d. standard deviation e. range ANSWER: a 79. What letter is used to refer to a correlation? a. r b. f c. p d. n e. c ANSWER: a 80. What is the total statistical correlation range? a. 0 to 10 b. 1 to 10 c. 0 to 100 d. –10 to 10 e. –1 to 1 ANSWER: e 81. What type of relationship is indicated by a correlation of +0.90? a. A strong, positive relationship b. A weak, positive relationship c. No relationship d. A weak, negative relationship Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. A strong, negative relationship ANSWER: a 82. A researcher studying the relationship between age and diversity awareness finds a negative correlation. What do the researcher’s results suggest? a. As age increases, diversity awareness increases. b. As age decreases, diversity awareness decreases. c. As age increases, diversity awareness decreases. d. A person's age doesn't affect his or her level of diversity awareness. e. The study was inconclusive.

ANSWER: c 83. __________ is a statistical technique used to combine the results of many different research studies conducted in a variety of organizations and for a variety of jobs. a. Standard deviation b. Path analysis c. Analysis of variance d. Regression e. Meta-analysis ANSWER: e 84. An understanding of organizational behavior (OB) is likely to help organizations prevent all of the following EXCEPT a. unhappy employees. b. weak leadership. c. lack of direction. d. stagnating profits. e. loss of market share.

ANSWER: e 85. Investing in developing organizational behavior (OB) skills will do all of the following EXCEPT a. prepare one to be a more effective employee. b. prepare one to be a more effective manager. c. prepare one to be a more effective leader. d. help one move up faster in any organization. e. help one improve technical skills.

ANSWER: e 86. The effective management of __________ is key to the creation of a competitive advantage as well as business strategy execution. a. people b. financial resources c. raw materials d. distribution channels e. communication channels ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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87. Seline runs a small company that sells medical software. She has devised a process that enables her company to develop new versions of the software quickly and with almost no bugs. However, Seline believes that the success of this process hinges on her company’s unique makeup and the type of product it produces; she does not believe that most software companies would be able to use her process to any great effect. Seline’s views embody which of the following perspectives? a. Scientific b. Universal c. Situational d. Interactional e. Pessimistic ANSWER: c 88. Which of the following is NOT a facet of human resource management? a. Developing incentives to motivate employees b. Developing plans to use fewer employees c. Creating programs to develop employees’ skills d. Developing incentives to retain employees e. Attracting high-quality employees ANSWER: b 89. Scientific management achieved which of the following? a. It decreased the monotony of work. b. It was eagerly accepted by workers. c. It gave workers control over their jobs. d. It increased productivity. e. It saw wide use for more than a century.

ANSWER: d 90. Which of the following is NOT a dysfunctional behavior? a. Absenteeism b. Asking for a raise c. Turnover d. Sabotage e. Rudeness ANSWER: b 91. Turnover occurs when employees a. are called to jury duty. b. feign illness. c. are fired. d. resign from their jobs. e. are promoted.

ANSWER: d 92. Which of the following terms refers to behaviors of individuals that make a positive overall contribution to the organization? a. Organizational commitment Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. Organizational citizenship c. Affective commitment d. Normative commitment e. Subjective responsibility ANSWER: b Multiple Response 93. Which of the following is an example of a technical skill? Select all that apply. a. Identifying which employee survey responses are likely to predict subsequent turnover b. Figuring out why the number of quality applicants to a five-star restaurant is decreasing c. Coming up with a new product idea that will help your organization dominate a competitive market d. Persuading an employee to take on additional work during a busy shift e. Ensuring that a piece of medical software is in compliance with HIPAA regulations ANSWER: e 94. Which of the following is an example of a diagnostic skill? Select all that apply. a. Designing a new logo for a major advertising client b. Figuring out why the number of quality applicants to a five-star restaurant is decreasing c. Deciding whether or not to undertake a risky acquisition d. Providing negative feedback to an employee in a way that will correct her behavior without discouraging her e. Writing software code for a new search engine ANSWER: b 95. Which of the following is an example of an interpersonal skill? Select all that apply. a. Designing a new logo for a major advertising client b. Figuring out why the number of quality applicants to a five-star restaurant is decreasing c. Coming up with a new product idea that will help your organization dominate a competitive market d. Persuading an employee to take on additional work during a busy shift e. Writing software code for a new search engine ANSWER: d 96. Which of the following is an example of a conceptual skill? Select all that apply. a. Selecting which of two mutually exclusive market opportunities to pursue b. Deciding whether to undertake a risky acquisition c. Developing a new product idea that will help your organization dominate a competitive market d. Persuading an employee to take on additional work during a busy shift e. Determining which of three CEO candidates has the vision that is most compatible with the needs of the company ANSWER: a, b, c, e 97. Walmart is famous for exemplifying the cost leadership strategy. Which of the following is Walmart likely NOT to do? a. Keep prices as low as possible b. Keep expenses as low as possible c. Rely heavily on low-wage employees d. Automate as few jobs as possible Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. Automate as many jobs as possible ANSWER: d 98. Which of the following is an example of a company employing a specialization strategy? Select all that apply. a. Walmart decides to pressure its suppliers to keep costs as low as possible. b. Apple decides to create a phone that is unlike any other phone on the market. c. Harley Davidson decides that it will only manufacture motorcycles, not cars or other types of vehicles. d. Dunkin’ Donuts decides to focus on selling donuts, rather than a variety of baked goods. e. Starbucks decides against opening any type of store location other than a coffee shop.

ANSWER: c, d, e Completion 99. __________ is defined as the study of human behavior in organizational settings, the interface between human behavior and the organization, and of the organization itself.

ANSWER: Organizational behavior 100. All organizational successes are the result of __________.

ANSWER: people 101. Organizational behavior (OB) is not a defined business __________ or area of responsibility.

ANSWER: function 102. By designing jobs and establishing patterns of authority among groups of jobs, a manager performs the __________ managerial function.

ANSWER: organizing 103. __________ is the managerial function that involves motivating employees in an organization to work together toward corporate goals.

ANSWER: Leading 104. Performance evaluation and reward systems are part of the __________ managerial function.

ANSWER: controlling 105. __________ skills allow managers to recognize optimal solutions to problems.

ANSWER: Diagnostic 106. An organizational __________ is an interrelated set of elements functioning as a whole.

ANSWER: system 107. In the systems approach to organizations, products, profits, and employee behaviors are types of __________ that are returned to the organization’s environment.

ANSWER: outputs 108. In the systems approach to organizations, managers, office equipment, funds from stockholders, and sales forecasts are examples of __________ from its environment.

ANSWER: inputs Matching Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Match each work outcome to the corresponding organizational behavior concept. a. Susan declines a job offer from another company even though it included a higher salary and better benefits. b. Lydia takes home two boxes of paper clips per month, on average, for her personal use. c. Peter is beloved by his coworkers and boss, but he is actively looking for a higher-paying job. d. Hernando voluntarily creates a video guide for his coworkers explaining how to use the company's spreadsheet software. e. Bob sells four dining sets per week, on average.

109. productivity ANSWER: e 110. performance ANSWER: d 111. organizational commitment ANSWER: a Essay 112. Explain why it is important for managers to have a strong understanding of organizational behavior.

ANSWER: The core of organizational behavior (OB) is being effective at work. Understanding how people behave in organizations and why they do what they do is critical to working effectively with and managing others. OB gives everyone the knowledge and tools they need to be effective at any organizational level. OB is an important topic for anyone who works or who will eventually work in an organization, which is the case for most people.

113. Discuss the four basic management functions and how they relate to organizational behavior.

ANSWER: Managers engage in the four basic functions of planning, organizing, leading, and controlling. These functions are applied to human, financial, physical, and information resources with the ultimate purpose of efficiently and effectively attaining organizational goals. Planning is the process of determining the organization’s desired future position and deciding how best to get there. Organizing is the process of designing jobs, grouping jobs into manageable units, and establishing patterns of authority among jobs and groups of jobs.

Leading is the process of motivating members of the organization to work together toward the organization’s goals. Finally, controlling is the process of monitoring and correcting the actions of the organization and its people to keep them headed toward their goals.

114. Identify and explain two of the contextual perspectives on organizational behavior.

ANSWER: Several contextual perspectives—most notably the systems and contingency perspectives and the interactional view—influence our understanding of organizational behavior. The systems perspective, or the theory of systems, was first developed in the physical sciences. A system is an interrelated set of elements that function as a whole. According to this perspective, an organizational system receives four kinds of inputs from its environment: material, human, financial, and informational. The organization’s managers then combine and transform these inputs and return them to the environment in the form of products or services, employee behaviors, profits or losses, and additional information. Then the system receives feedback from the environment regarding these outputs. An example of a systems perspective is any large manufacturing company like Harley-Davidson. Material inputs would be all the parts used to manufacture motorcycles; human inputs are the employees who assemble the motorcycles, office staff, salespeople, etc.; financial inputs would include the money received from sales, stockholder investments, etc.; and information inputs would include things like forecasts about future sales. Outputs would include the motorcycles sold to consumers, profits made for owners, dividends to stockholders, etc.

The contingency perspectives include the situational and universal perspectives. In the universal approach, the organizational problems or situations determine the one best way to respond. In the situational approach, Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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organizational problems or situations must be evaluated in terms of elements of the situation, which then suggest contingent or situational ways of responding. As an example of a situational versus a universal perspective, consider a software production company that developed some new software that works well for it but it does not believe other similar companies would be interested in buying this product. This would be a situational perspective. If the software company did believe other companies could use the product, then it would have a universal perspective.

Interactionalism is another useful perspective to help better understand behavior in organizational settings.

Interactionalism attempts to explain how people select, interpret, and change various situations. Note that the individual and the situation are presumed to interact continuously. This interaction is what determines the individual’s behavior. The interactional view implies that simple cause-and-effect descriptions of organizational phenomena are not enough. For example, one set of research studies may suggest that job changes lead to improved employee attitudes. Other studies may propose that attitudes influence how people perceive their jobs in the first place. Both positions probably are incomplete: Employee attitudes may influence job perceptions, but these perceptions may in turn influence future attitudes.

115. Using the model presented in your text, briefly define the systems approach to organizations. Give examples of each component.

ANSWER: The systems approach to organizations provides a useful framework for understanding how the elements of an organization interact among themselves and with their environment. Various inputs are transformed into different outputs, with important feedback from the environment. An organizational system receives four kinds of inputs from its environment: material, human, financial, and informational. The organization’s managers then combine and transform these inputs and return them to the environment in the form of products or services, employee behaviors, profits or losses, and additional information. Then the system receives feedback from the environment regarding these outputs.

As an example, we can apply systems theory to the ExxonMobil. Material inputs include pipelines, crude oil, and the machinery used to refine petroleum. Human inputs are oil field workers, refinery workers, office staff, and other people employed by the company. Financial inputs take the form of money received from oil and gas sales, stockholder investment, and so forth. Finally, the company receives information inputs from forecasts about future oil supplies, geological surveys on potential drilling sites, sales projections, and similar analyses. Through complex refining and other processes, these inputs are combined and transformed to create products such as gasoline and motor oil. As outputs, these products are sold to the consuming public. Profits from operations are fed back into the environment through taxes, investments, and dividends; losses, when they occur, hit the environment by reducing stockholders’ incomes. In addition to having on-the-job contacts with customers and suppliers, employees live in the community and participate in a variety of activities away from the workplace, and their behavior is influenced in part by their experiences as ExxonMobil workers.

Finally, information about the company and its operations is also released into the environment. The environment, in turn, responds to these outputs and influences future inputs. For example, consumers may buy more or less gasoline depending on the quality and price of ExxonMobil’s product, and banks may be more or less willing to lend ExxonMobil money based on financial information released about the company.

116. Compare and contrast the universal and situational perspectives in organizational behavior.

ANSWER: The universal perspective presumes a direct cause-and-effect linkage between variables. For example, it suggests that whenever a manager encounters a particular problem or situation (such as motivating employees to work harder), a universal approach, “one best way,” exists (such as raising pay or increasing autonomy) that will lead to the desired outcome. The situational perspective, on the other hand, acknowledges that several variables alter the direct relationship. In other words, the appropriate managerial action or behavior in any given situation depends on elements of that situation. The field of organizational behavior has gradually shifted from a universal approach in the 1950s and early 1960s to a situational perspective. The situational perspective has been widely documented in the areas of motivation, job design, leadership, and organizational design, and it is becoming increasingly important throughout the entire field.

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True / False 1. The workplace is becoming increasingly diverse, which is also raising ethical challenges. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. More firms are moving back to domestic markets to control costs, especially to reduce labor costs. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. The environment of business is expected to continue to change in the future. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Some of the growth of international business can be attributed to communication and transportation advances. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Cultural diversity can enhance synergy in an organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Culture helps a group understand which actions are acceptable and which are unacceptable. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. An employee in a collectivistic culture would be much more concerned about her work than about her relationships with others. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Workplace communication and transportation processes and procedures have remained static and unchanging over the past few decades. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. A culture low in masculinity is not aggressive and is not concerned with the acquisition of money or other possessions. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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10. Workforce diversity refers to the observable and unobservable similarities and differences among the employees of the organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. A prejudice is a generalization about a person or a group of persons based on certain characteristics or traits. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. Differences in age, gender, ethnicity, and physical ability are all considered to be components of diversity. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. The non-Hispanic Whites segment of the workforce is expected to decrease as a proportion of the workforce in the next few decades. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 14. Workforce diversity is occurring in the United States but not in other countries around the world. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. Variety in workers’ expertise and disparity in pay are examples of two types of workplace diversity. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 16. Valuing diversity means appreciating the varying ideas and perspectives that are provided by a heterogeneous workforce. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 17. Apple is not considered a manufacturing company because it uses electronic components to build its products. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 18. The most effective service organizations produce intangible outcomes for their customers. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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19. Technology is the basis of competition for some firms. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 20. Advances in information technology have resulted in workplace communication processes that are less personal in nature than previous forms of workplace communication. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 21. Managers face ethical situations when hiring and firing employees. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 22. Knowledge workers include scientists, engineers, product designers, and video game developers. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 23. Globalization is one of the most significant sources of change for organizations today. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 24. If an organization wants to create a more inclusive workforce, it will face no barriers that will prevent it from increasing diversity. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 25. Corporate governance is one aspect of business ethics. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 26. Globalization is a major part of the changing environment of business. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 27. Diversity training emphasizes that bias is not a part of being human. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 28. It is not realistic for employees to suggest that they are totally unbiased.

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a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 29. __________ diversity occurs when there are differences in position or opinion among group members, especially regarding group goals or processes. a. Variety b. Disparity c. Separation d. Surface-level e. Complex ANSWER: c 30. Age-based diversity is a. an issue organizations experienced in the past, but it is not impacting organizations today. b. not beneficial to organizations, since different age groups do not work well together. c. difficult to achieve in the workplace, since older people rarely look for work. d. not a goal for organizations today, since there is little value to seek this type of diversity. e. a major issue affecting organizations today, as there is a large increase in older workers.

ANSWER: e 31. Deep-level characteristics are those considered to be a. gender-based. b. observables. c. invisible. d. irrelevant. e. age-related.

ANSWER: c 32. Which of the following is a basic conclusion drawn from the current research about international management? a. Behavior in organizational settings varies across cultures. b. Behavior in organizational settings does not vary across cultures. c. Organizational structures are typically different across cultures. d. Organizational structures dictate behavior across cultures. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 33. Which of the following is true about employees working in the same company but in different locations? a. Their behaviors may differ within and across countries. b. Their behaviors will be mostly the same, regardless of their location. c. Their behaviors at work are not important. d. Their behaviors will have little to do with their locations. e. Their behaviors will be the same among employees within the same country but may differ among employees in different countries.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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34. All of the following are considered cultural dimensions EXCEPT a. individualism/collectivism. b. uncertainty avoidance. c. power distance. d. masculinity. e. open-mindedness.

ANSWER: e 35. Which of the following statements does NOT describe individualistic cultures? a. It is important to stand out in the crowd. b. It is important to fit in with the group. c. Tasks are more important than relationships. d. Promotion is based on skills and rules. e. People are more concerned with themselves than with their work groups.

ANSWER: b 36. Another term for power distance is a. deontology. b. teleology. c. individualism. d. orientation to authority. e. collectivism.

ANSWER: d 37. Uncertainty avoidance refers to the extent to which a. workers prefer unambiguous situations. b. workers focus on the future. c. acquisition of money and things is emphasized. d. aggressiveness is emphasized. e. authority is respected.

ANSWER: a 38. Masculinity is a dimension of culture that a. gives employees a sense of autonomy. b. refers to the extent to which workers focus on the future. c. enhances organizational effectiveness. d. emphasizes assertiveness. e. refers to the extent to which workers prefer clear situations.

ANSWER: d 39. Which of the following is a cultural dimension identified by Hofstede? a. Ethical idealism b. Groupthink c. Power distance d. Workforce diversity e. Consumer behavior Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: c 40. All of the following are true about stereotypes EXCEPT that they a. lead to an appreciation of individual differences. b. are based on certain characteristics or traits. c. ignore the specific person. d. are generalizations. e. ignore the current situation.

ANSWER: a 41. Stereotypes can best be defined as a. favoring people similar to you. b. focusing on differences among people. c. grouping people into different categories. d. judgments about others that reinforce beliefs about superiority and inferiority. e. making generalizations about groups of people.

ANSWER: e 42. Which of the following is a dimension of diversity? a. Age b. Gender c. Sexual orientation d. Mental abilities e. All of these are correct ANSWER: e 43. Which of the following is an example of surface-level diversity? a. Ethnicity b. Pay differences c. Knowledge d. Work experience e. Personality ANSWER: a 44. Which of the following is an example of deep-level diversity? a. Physical abilities b. Goals c. Age d. Gender e. Ethnicity ANSWER: b 45. __________ refers to the variety of observable and unobservable similarities and differences among people. a. Diversity b. Race c. Ethnocentrism d. Ethnicity Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. Stereotyping ANSWER: a 46. Generational groups are categorized by which designations? a. Baby Boomers, Generation X, Millennials b. Generation T, Seniors, Generation M c. Generation M, Baby Boomers, Generation X d. Seniors, Generation T, Generation M e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 47. Ignoring issues related to diversity can be costly to organizations because it can lead to a. decreased turnover. b. lower productivity. c. an increase in employee lawsuits. d. increased tension among workers. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 48. Which of the following is NOT a benefit experienced by organizations that value diversity? a. Access to more perspectives on a problem b. New perspectives to organizational issues c. Less interpersonal conflict d. Greater homogeneity e. Increased employee performance ANSWER: d 49. A business that combines and transforms resources into tangible outcomes that are then sold to others is called a. a manufacturing organization. b. a biotechnology firm. c. an information technology firm. d. a service organization. e. a hybrid organization.

ANSWER: a 50. A business that transforms resources into an intangible output and creates time or place utility for its customers is called a. a manufacturing organization. b. a biotechnology firm. c. an information technology firm. d. a service organization. e. a hybrid organization.

ANSWER: d 51. The AMD Co. makes computer chips that are installed in various computers. AMD is an example of a. a manufacturing organization. b. a biotechnology firm.

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c. an information technology firm. d. a service organization. e. a hybrid organization.

ANSWER: a 52. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe technology? a. Technology is a major driver for organizational change. b. Technology has widespread effects on the behavior of people in the organization. c. Technology provides a competitive advantage. d. Technology combines and transforms resources into outcomes. e. Technology is causing a shift toward a service-based economy.

ANSWER: d 53. Car makers design and produce new model cars more quickly now than in the past. This is an example of a. effective leadership. b. decreased cycle time. c. increased employee morale. d. valued diversity. e. low-cost production.

ANSWER: b 54. An ice cream maker requires approximately two months from the time a new flavor is selected in the corporate board room until the time it is produced and available to consumers in stores. This time frame is referred to as a. competitive advantage time. b. information technology time. c. cycle time. d. production time. e. made-to-order time.

ANSWER: c 55. Which of the following statements about information technology is NOT true? a. It has resulted in leaner organizations. b. It provides more flexible operations. c. It has provided more down time for employees. d. It has increased collaboration among employees. e. It has improved management processes.

ANSWER: c 56. Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of information technology? a. It has increased personal communication. b. It has increased a sense of urgency related to decision making. c. It has decreased ethical decision making for managers. d. It has resulted in additional down time for managers. e. It has created inflexible worksites.

ANSWER: b 57. The board of directors in a public corporation is responsible for Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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a. auditing the company’s financial statements for accuracy. b. recommending new products and services. c. controlling the day-to-day operations of the firm. d. protecting the company from harsh overseas competition and lower labor costs. e. ensuring decisions by senior managers are in the best interests of the shareholders.

ANSWER: e 58. Oversight of a public corporation by its board of directors is referred to as a. board isolation. b. deontological overview. c. corporate governance. d. pricing policy. e. profit maximization.

ANSWER: c 59. One way organizations can address privacy concerns on the Internet is to a. keep all data collected confidential. b. publicly display any information collected by the company. c. post a privacy policy on the company’s website. d. avoid collecting any private information. e. share collected data only with firms that pay for access.

ANSWER: c 60. Which of the following statements about knowledge workers is NOT true? a. A computer scientist is one example of a knowledge worker. b. Knowledge workers require highly specialized training. c. Compensation is tailored for knowledge workers. d. Knowledge workers do not specifically add value to the organization. e. A video game developer is an example of a knowledge worker.

ANSWER: d 61. A typical characteristic of a knowledge worker’s career path is a. the chance to take on substantial management responsibilities. b. more frequent training in management tasks. c. less specialized training. d. compensation equivalent to that available to management. e. freedom from specialized technical work.

ANSWER: d 62. Karson Photography Studios previously hired and managed its own custodial staff, but the company recently started contracting this work to a cleaning company. This is an example of a. corporate governance. b. offshoring. c. outsourcing. d. nearshoring. e. insourcing.

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ANSWER: c 63. Organizational functions that are typically outsourced include all of the following EXCEPT a. payroll. b. human resource training. c. corporate governance. d. facility maintenance. e. food service tasks.

ANSWER: c 64. Which of the following is a component of cultural competence? a. Awareness of one’s own cultural worldview b. Attitude toward cultural differences c. Knowledge of different worldviews and cultural practices d. Cross-cultural skills e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: b 65. __________ workers are hired because of what they have learned through specialized training. a. Contingent b. Tiered c. Knowledge d. Offshore e. Outsourced ANSWER: c 66. An organization begins using environmentally friendly cleaning products in all of its corporate offices. This is an example of a. corporate culture. b. corporate governance. c. cultural competence. d. corporate responsibility. e. cross-cultural competence.

ANSWER: d 67. A __________ worker is not employed by the company full-time. a. tiered b. knowledge c. contingent d. direct e. flex-time ANSWER: c 68. What term refers to employer and employee expectations about the employment relationship that go beyond the formal employment contract? a. Psychological contract b. Informed consent Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. Emotional intelligence d. Emotional contract e. Prenuptial agreement ANSWER: a 69. Psychological contracts create __________ promises and obligations between employees and the employer. a. ethical b. unethical c. implicit d. explicit e. absolute ANSWER: c 70. A defining characteristic of a tiered workforce is __________. a. employees are paid different wages for doing the same types of tasks b. employees are paid the same wages for doing the same type of tasks c. employees who do the same type of tasks work different hours/shifts d. employees who do the same type of tasks work the same hours/shifts e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 71. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, which was further amended in 1991, prohibits employee discrimination based on a variety of characteristics. Which of the following is NOT included? a. Sexual orientation b. Race c. Sex d. Religion e. National origin ANSWER: a 72. __________ is important because it helps organizations ensure they are complying with Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. a. Corporate ethics b. Corporate responsibility c. Organizational management d. Diversity management e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 73. If an organization’s managers show bigotry or prejudice toward a group of employees, what are the potential consequences to the organization? a. There are no consequences to a business that exhibits prejudice or bigotry. b. Financial and legal consequences could result. c. Only legal consequences can result. d. Only financial consequences can result. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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74. The ethnic and cultural mix of the U.S. workforce is a. unchanging. b. becoming more homogenous. c. insignificant to organizations. d. unobservable. e. changing.

ANSWER: e 75. Diversity management involves which of the following? a. Creating fair company policies and practices b. Giving all employees equal access to mentors c. Providing diversity training programs d. Giving all employees equal access to performance feedback e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 76. The Bureau of Labor Statistics projects a dramatic increase in workers between the ages of __________ in the United States during the next decade. a. sixteen and twenty b. twenty and thirty c. thirty and forty d. forty and fifty e. sixty-five and older ANSWER: e 77. Matching senior employees with diverse junior employees so that the employees can learn more about a different group in the workforce is a diversity management technique referred to as a. supervisory mentoring. b. cultural mentoring. c. diversity mentoring. d. generational mentoring. e. reciprocal mentoring.

ANSWER: e 78. Mismanaging diversity is likely to result in all of the following EXCEPT a. reduced innovation. b. reduced motivation. c. increased absenteeism. d. costly lawsuits. e. reduced turnover.

ANSWER: e 79. Stereotypes are typically based on all of the following characteristics EXCEPT a. race. b. religion. c. disability.

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d. nationality. e. ethics.

ANSWER: e 80. Employees who feel the need to protect their own career prospects by impeding the prospects of others are experiencing a. the “like me” bias. b. prejudices. c. ethnocentrism. d. perceived threat of loss. e. unequal access to organizational networks.

ANSWER: d 81. What is the most important factor in maximizing the positive effects of a diverse workforce within an organization? a. A clearly written policy manual b. Support from lower-level managers c. Affirmative action d. Top management support e. Labor unions ANSWER: d 82. __________are techniques that can help organizations manage diversity. a. Training and mentoring b. Ignoring and avoiding c. Reprimanding and penalizing d. Rewarding and praising e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 83. Which term refers to the degree to which people accept as normal an unequal distribution of power? a. Masculinity b. Span of control c. Strength differential d. Orientation to authority e. Privilege difference ANSWER: d 84. Which of the following best reflects low individualism? a. Valuing personal achievement above the achievement of the group b. Believing that people are incapable of making decisions on their own c. Valuing personal freedom above all else d. Valuing harmony more than honesty e. Wanting to stand out from the crowd ANSWER: d 85. Which term refers to the degree of anxiety people feel in new situations? a. Decision-making difficulty Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. Uncertainty avoidance c. Social anxiety disorder d. Masculinity e. Power distance ANSWER: b 86. Which of the following is NOT an example of individualism? a. Valuing personal achievement above the achievement of the group b. Prioritizing individual tasks c. Valuing personal freedom d. Prioritizing the group over self e. A desire to stand out from the crowd ANSWER: d 87. Which term refers to the ability to interact effectively with people of different cultures? a. Tolerance b. Racial knowledge c. Egalitarianism d. Ethnocentrism e. Cultural competence ANSWER: e 88. The fact that, consciously or subconsciously, we tend to prefer to associate with others who are like us is called a. the “like me” bias. b. bigotry. c. ethnocentrism. d. perceived threat of loss. e. stereotyping.

ANSWER: a 89. The belief that one’s culture is superior to all others is called a. the “like me” bias. b. bigotry. c. ethnocentrism. d. perceived threat of loss. e. stereotyping.

ANSWER: c 90. Which of the following describes the reverse mentoring technique? a. Pairing a senior employee with a junior employee so that each can learn about a different group in the workforce b. Pairing a senior employee with a junior employee so that both can learn skills from each other c. Pairing a senior employee with a junior employee to transfer the skills of the senior employee to the junior employee d. Pairing a senior employee with a junior employee to transfer the skills of the junior employee to the senior employee e. None of these are correct Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: d 91. Which of the following contributes to diversity? a. Life experiences b. Educational background c. Geographic location d. Age e. All of these are correct ANSWER: e 92. __________ refers to individual factors that cannot be seen directly, such as goals, values, personalities, decisionmaking styles, knowledge, skills, abilities, and attitudes. a. Surface-level diversity b. All-level diversity c. Deep-level diversity d. Ethnocentrism e. Cultural competence ANSWER: c 93. __________ refers to observable characteristics in people, such as race, age, ethnicity, physical abilities, and gender. a. All-level diversity b. Surface-level diversity c. Deep-level diversity d. Ethnocentrism e. Cultural competence ANSWER: b 94. __________ diversity exists within a group when there are differences in a certain type or category, including group members’ expertise, knowledge, or functional background. a. Variety b. Disparity c. Separation d. Ethnocentrism e. Token ANSWER: a 95. When you notice that someone is tall, you are recognizing which type of diversity? a. Longitudinal diversity b. Surface-level diversity c. Deep-level diversity d. Attitudinal diversity e. Ethnocentrism ANSWER: b 96. __________ diversity reflects differences in attitudes or values, especially with regard to group goals or processes. a. The “like me” bias b. Disparity Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. Ethnocentrism d. Separation e. Token ANSWER: d 97. __________ diversity refers to differences in the concentration of valuable social assets or resources such as rank, pay, decision-making authority, and status. a. Variety b. Token c. Disparity d. Ethnocentrism e. Separation ANSWER: c Multiple Response 98. The purpose of diversity training is to help employees __________ their biases. a. ignore b. hide c. become aware of d. eliminate e. expand ANSWER: c 99. Which of the following demonstrates surface-level diversity? a. The Chicago Bulls basketball team is made up of players with a variety of personal values. b. The people who volunteer for the local animal shelter have a wide variety of expertise they use to help fundraise for the organization. c. The marketing team has five members, but only Gary has a specific job title that he can put on his resume. d. The manufacturing team at Revlon responsible for making and packaging makeup is comprised of people of a variety of ages, races, and nationalities. e. The Milwaukee Brewers baseball team has players with a variety of personality traits.

ANSWER: d 100. Which of the following demonstrates deep-level diversity? a. The Chicago Bulls basketball team is made up of players with a variety of personal values. b. The people who volunteer for the local animal shelter have a wide variety of expertise that they use to help fundraise for the organization. c. The marketing team has five members, but only Gary has a specific job title that he can put on his resume. d. The manufacturing team at Revlon responsible for making and packaging makeup is comprised of people of a variety of ages. e. The Milwaukee Brewers baseball team has players with a variety of nationalities.

ANSWER: a Completion 101. The extent to which people in a culture develop tight social frameworks is called __________.

ANSWER: collectivism Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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102. Orientation to authority is another name for __________.

ANSWER: power distance 103. Orientation to authority is the extent to which people accept as normal an unequal distribution of __________.

ANSWER: power 104. __________ values are oriented toward the past and the present and include respect for traditions and social obligations.

ANSWER: Short-term 105. __________ is the extent to which people feel threatened by unknown situations.

ANSWER: Uncertainty avoidance 106. Michelle lives in a culture where the focus is on the future, and persistence and thrift are valued. Michelle’s culture has a __________ orientation.

ANSWER: long-term 107. Parental status, religious beliefs, and military experience are examples of __________-level diversity.

ANSWER: deep 108. The Pureflow Co. collects water at a natural spring, then filters the water and bottles it for sale. This work process is an example of a __________ organization.

ANSWER: manufacturing 109. The Powertrain fitness club offers customers free personal trainers and nutrition consultants. This work process is an example of a __________ organization.

ANSWER: service 110. Breakthroughs in __________ technology have resulted in leaner organizations and more collaboration across employees but also in less personal communication and an increased sense of urgency in communications.

ANSWER: information Matching Match each barrier to inclusion with the description that most clearly illustrates it. a. Ethnocentrism b. Stereotyping c. The “like me” bias d. Prejudice e. Perceived threat of loss 111. Believing diversity threatens one’s job security ANSWER: e 112. Believing that one’s culture is objectively superior to all others ANSWER: a 113. Showing intolerance for people from a group that differs from one’s own ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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114. Expecting someone will exhibit certain behaviors or abilities based on their characteristics ANSWER: b 115. Associating only with other employees who are of a similar background to one’s own ANSWER: c Match each cultural dimension with the scenario that most clearly illustrates it. a. High power distance b. High individualism c. High masculinity d. High uncertainty avoidance e. High collectivism 116. It is very important to Chiharu that she fit in with her workgroup.

ANSWER: e 117. Paul might not agree with all of the decisions his supervisor makes, but Paul would never go behind his supervisor’s back or “over his head” in an attempt to get something done.

ANSWER: a 118. Sierra is vital to her team’s success, but her primary goal is to get promoted.

ANSWER: b 119. Francisco is mostly interested in accruing wealth and material possessions rather than in fostering relationships in his personal or professional life.

ANSWER: c 120. Svea feels more comfortable in her job when all duties and expectations are explicitly defined.

ANSWER: d Essay 121. Explain the role of ethics in corporations.

ANSWER: Ethics, or beliefs about what constitutes right or wrong in a situation, has taken on renewed importance in recent years due to high-profile ethical breaches by organizations. The ethical dilemmas managers face revolve around how an organization treats its employees, how employees treat the organization, and how employees and organizations treat other economic agents. Corporate governance is one special aspect of business ethics and a medium for overseeing a public corporation by a board of directors. The board is entrusted with the task of ensuring the business is properly managed and that the decisions made by its senior management are in the best interests of shareholders and other stakeholders. A breakdown in this governing structure or exercising independence outside the ethical goals and expectations entrusted to the board can lead to problems.

122. Describe Geert Hofstede’s five dimensions of cultural values and explain how these values can serve as a guide for managers.

ANSWER: Hofstede’s five categories are individualism/collectivism, power distance, uncertainty avoidance, masculinity, and long-term orientation. Individualism is characterized by people in a culture defining themselves primarily as an individual versus being part of a group. Collectivism is characterized by tight social frameworks in which people tend to base their identities on the group to which they belong. Power distance is the extent to which people accept as normal an unequal distribution of power. Uncertainty avoidance is the extent to which people feel threatened by unknown situations and prefer to be in clear and unambiguous situations.

Masculinity is the extent to which the dominant values in a society emphasize aggressiveness and the Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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acquisition of money and other possessions as opposed to concern for people, relationships among people, and overall quality of life. Long-term orientation related to working on projects that have a distant payoff, persistence, and thrift. Bottom line is that managers should discern and understand these differing values and beliefs from diverse cultures because they affect work attitudes and beliefs directly.

123. Describe reasons for the decline of the manufacturing sector and the tremendous growth in the service sector.

ANSWER: Manufacturing embarked a long period of decline in the 1970s primarily due to foreign competition, which had better equipment and higher efficiency levels. Service organizations can play on the many tools, techniques, and methods that manufacturing firms used and can utilize these to increase customer utility.

Advances in information technology have helped service firms respond more quickly and efficiently to consumer demands and competitors.

124. Explain the growing presence of knowledge workers in today’s workforce and how these employees differ from traditional workers. Describe the specific issues managers must address when employing knowledge workers.

ANSWER: Knowledge workers and how well these employees are managed is seen as a major factor in determining which firms will be successful in the future. These workers differ from traditional workers who were valued for what they did or their years of experience. Knowledge workers tend to work in high-technology firms and are usually experts in some abstract knowledge base. They often believe they have the right to work in an autonomous fashion, and they identify more strongly with their profession than with any organization—even to the extent of defining performance primarily in terms recognized by other members of their profession.

As the importance of information-driven jobs grows, the need for knowledge workers will grow as well.

These employees require extensive and highly specialized training, and not everyone is willing to make the human capital investments necessary to move into these jobs. In fact, even after knowledge workers are on the job, retraining and training updates are critical so that their skills do not become obsolete. It has been suggested, for example, that the “half-life” for a technical education in engineering is about three years.

Further, the failure to update the required skills will not only result in the organization’s losing competitive advantage but will also increase the likelihood that the knowledge worker will go to another firm that is more committed to updating those skills. Compensation and related policies for knowledge workers must also be specially tailored.

125. Describe outsourcing by explaining its purpose, costs, and benefits. Provide two specific examples of outsourcing.

ANSWER: Outsourcing enables a firm to better focus on its core activities and curbs costs when directed abroad, or offshoring. Those salary demands are lower and there is an abundance of talent to meet the firms’ needs. A publisher sending its textbook page makeup would be an example of outsourcing or offshoring, as would a cafeteria at a museum being outsourced to a company specializing in the food service industry.

True / False 1. Person-job fit is the fit between a person’s abilities and the demands of the job. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Individual differences are personal attributes that vary from one person to another. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Personality attributes are usually considered to be ever-changing and fluctuating. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: False 4. A manager with strong emotional intelligence needs to overcome his ability to empathize when dealing with others. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Empathy, managing emotions, and social skill are components of emotional intelligence. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Managers with high emotional intelligence are expected to perform well in jobs that require a high degree of interpersonal interaction. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Locus of control refers to the extent to which a person believes circumstances are a function of either one’s own actions or external factors beyond one’s control. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. A person’s openness pertains to a person’s ability to entertain new ideas and to change as a result of new information. is that person’s beliefs about his or her capabilities to perform a task. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. A person who tries to gain power and control over others in the workplace exhibits a high degree of Machiavellianism. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. The “Big Five” are dimensions in the Meyers-Briggs framework of identifying personality characteristics. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. Openness involves the ability to get along with others on the job. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. People with high neuroticism often feel more vulnerable than others. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: True 13. Authoritarianism is the belief that power and status differences are not appropriate within hierarchical social systems such as organizations. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. People who possess the personality trait of Machiavellianism prefer to delegate authority, power, and control to subordinates. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. A person who behaves in a way that is upbeat and optimistic exhibits a high level of Machiavellianism. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 16. Personality attributes are determined by biological factors, not environmental factors. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 17. When a person’s abilities and the demands of the job are a good match, it is referred to as a. a complementary contract. b. employment alignment. c. person-job fit. d. workplace balance. e. job security.

ANSWER: c 18. Managers should be aware of which of the following to be most effective? a. Circumstances b. Employee’s personality traits c. How employees fit into the group d. Employee’s interests e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 19. The extent to which personality attributes are inherited from our parents or shaped by our environment is referred to as __________. a. individual differences b. psychological contributions c. the nature versus nurture argument d. a psychological contract Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. psychological inducements ANSWER: c 20. Agreeableness results in some people being a. gentle. b. cooperative. c. understanding. d. forgiving. e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 21. __________ refers to the extent to which people can be counted on to get things done. a. Extroversion b. Introversion c. Conscientiousness d. Openness e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 22. Jane welcomes new ideas and change. Jane’s supervisor tends to resist any kind of change. Jane and her supervisor differ in their level of which personality trait described in the Big Five personality framework? a. Self-efficacy b. Agreeableness c. Locus of control d. Neuroticism e. Openness ANSWER: e 23. Individuals who score high in __________ tend to exhibit unpleasant emotions, such as anger and anxiety. a. agreeableness b. neuroticisms c. openness d. extroversion e. negative emotionality ANSWER: b 24. People with a high level of __________ are willing to listen to new ideas and to change their own ideas, beliefs, and attitudes in response to new information. a. agreeableness b. conscientiousness c. openness d. extroversion e. negative emotionality ANSWER: c 25. Which of the following statements describes the “Big Five” personality traits? a. The “Big Five” personality traits are dimensions that represent fundamental personality traits.

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b. The “Big Five” personality traits are not applicable in most workplace settings. c. The “Big Five” personality traits are identical to the Myers-Brigg indicators. d. The “Big Five” personality traits are dimensions that reflect whether someone is considered to be Type A or Type B. e. The “Big Five” personality traits are considered poor predictors of employee behaviors.

ANSWER: a 26. The ____ indicator is among the most popular personality selection instruments used today in business. a. Myers-Briggs b. Jung-Freud c. Briggs-Jung d. Porter-Myers e. Anderson-Porter ANSWER: a 27. Emotional intelligence involves all of the following EXCEPT a. self-awareness. b. emotion management. c. locus of control. d. self-motivation. e. social skills.

ANSWER: c 28. Jim has the ability to balance anxiety, fear, and anger and still get the job done. Jim possesses which component of emotional intelligence? a. Self-awareness b. Locus of control c. Self-management d. Empathy e. Self-motivation ANSWER: c 29. If you have the ability to sense and understand how others feel, even without being told, you have the ability to a. manage your emotions. b. show empathy. c. motivate yourself. d. get along with others. e. be promoted at your job.

ANSWER: b 30. John has always met his goal of selling ten cars each month, but he wants to try a new sales technique this month. He decides to try the new approach on the first few customers, and then reassess whether to continue with the technique. John is exhibiting his a. self-awareness. b. ambiguity. c. risk tolerance. d. self-esteem.

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e. Machiavellianism.

ANSWER: a 31. George believes he was promoted and given a raise based upon his hard work on the job. George has a. self-efficacy. b. an internal locus of control. c. emotional intelligence. d. high self-esteem. e. an external locus of control.

ANSWER: b 32. If an employee accepts orders from a supervisor solely because the supervisor is “the boss,” the employee is exhibiting a high level of a. authoritarianism. b. self-monitoring. c. perception. d. motivation. e. dogma.

ANSWER: a 33. Marcia is a hard worker who is ambitious and competitive. She is showing a. Type C personality. b. locus of control. c. Type B personality. d. Type A personality. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 34. A supervisor who is comfortable taking a gamble on new products has high a. locus of control. b. risk propensity. c. self-monitoring. d. self-esteem. e. competencies.

ANSWER: b 35. ____ is behavior directed at gaining power and controlling the behavior of others. a. Authoritarianism b. Positive affectivity c. Machiavellianism d. Selective perception e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 36. Personality affects which of the following? a. Choice of career b. How long one stays with an employer Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. Job satisfaction d. Job performance e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 37. __________ reflects a tendency to perceive vague or contradictory information as a threat. a. Low tolerance for ambiguity b. High tolerance for ambiguity c. High risk propensity d. Low risk propensity e. Machiavellianism ANSWER: a 38. Mangers should place individuals with a _______ tolerance for ambiguity in well-defined and regulated tasks. a. low b. medium c. high d. Any of these are correct. e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 39. Being tolerant of ambiguity is related to which of the following? a. Creativity b. Positive attitudes toward risk c. Orientation to diversity d. All of these are correct. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 40. Managers with a low tolerance for ambiguity tend to be more __________ with their staff and do not empower them to make their own decisions at work. a. flexible b. directive c. passive d. open e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: b 41. Which concept refers to the degree to which a person generally considers herself responsible for the things that happen to her? a. Authoritarianism b. Neuroticism c. Extroversion d. Self-esteem e. Locus of control ANSWER: e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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42. An __________ locus of control is related to passivity and learned helplessness. a. undefined b. unformed c. intuitive d. internal e. external ANSWER: e 43. People with an __________locus of control tend to be more socially integrated at work and they report more favorable relationships with their supervisors. a. external b. internal c. extroverted d. introverted e. intuitive ANSWER: b 44. People who are impatient and ambitious are said to have what personality type? a. Type A b. Type B c. Machiavellian d. Disagreeable e. Closed-minded ANSWER: a 45. People who are relaxed and easygoing are said to have what personality type? a. Type A b. Type B c. Machiavellian d. Sociopathic e. Open-minded ANSWER: b 46. People with high Type A personality traits tend to need __________ amounts of stimulation, compared to people with high Type B personality traits. a. much greater b. much lesser c. equal d. slightly less e. slightly more ANSWER: a 47. Which of the “Big Five” personality dimensions refers to being talkative and energetic? a. Agreeableness b. Conscientiousness c. Openness d. Extroversion Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. Neuroticism ANSWER: d 48. Which of the “Big Five” personality dimensions is associated with being anxious and insecure? a. Agreeableness b. Conscientiousness c. Openness d. Extroversion e. Neuroticism ANSWER: e 49. Which of the “Big Five” personality dimensions is associated with being good-natured and forgiving? a. Conscientiousness b. Agreeableness c. Extroversion d. Neuroticism e. Openness ANSWER: b 50. Which of the “Big Five” personality dimensions is associated with being thorough and organized? a. Conscientiousness b. Agreeableness c. Extroversion d. Neuroticism e. Openness ANSWER: a 51. What type of personality is characterized by someone tending to be rational and unemotional, willing to lie to attain personal goals, and placing little emphasis on loyalty and friendship? a. Type A b. Type B c. Machiavellian d. Avoidant e. Passive-aggressive ANSWER: c 52. The concept of Machiavellianism is based on what publication? a. The Princess Diaries b. The Prince c. The Frog Prince d. The Little Prince e. The Princess and the Pea ANSWER: b 53. Highly Machiavellian people are __________ ethically sensitive compared to lower Machiavellian people. a. less b. more Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. equally d. sometimes more e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 54. What term refers to a repeated mistreatment of another employee through verbal abuse? a. Workplace bullying b. Sexual harassment c. Organizational politics d. Machiavellianism e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 55. Bullying costs employers through which of the following? a. Higher turnover b. Higher workers’ compensation costs c. Higher disability insurance rates d. A tarnished reputation e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 56. What percentage of the U.S. workforce reports being aware of abusive conduct in the workplace? a. 20 b. 30 c. 60 d. 80 e. 90 ANSWER: c 57. People who are __________ tend to be more likely to be bullied. a. more introverted b. less agreeable c. less conscientious d. more emotionally unstable e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 58. Which personality trait may lead a person to engage in behavior considered bullying? a. Openness b. Introversion c. Extroversion d. Machiavellianism e. Neuroticism ANSWER: d 59. Individuals who are targeted by bullies sometimes suffer from which of the following? a. Debilitating anxiety Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. Panic attacks c. Clinical depression d. Post-traumatic stress e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 60. Workplace bullying can include which of the following? a. Verbal abuse b. Threats c. Intimidation d. Sabotage e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 61. __________ bullying victims report the abusive behavior and seek formal resolution. a. No b. Very few c. Most d. Almost all e. All ANSWER: b 62. Personality is a product of which of the following? a. Heredity only b. Environment only c. Both heredity and the environment d. Neither heredity nor the environment e. Scientists do not know ANSWER: c 63. According to the Myers-Briggs inventory, __________ need quiet time to recharge their batteries. a. perceivers b. feelers c. thinkers d. extroverts e. introverts ANSWER: e 64. According to the Myers-Briggs inventory, __________ people are detail-oriented and want facts. a. intuitive b. sensing c. extroverted d. introverted e. judging ANSWER: b

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65. According to the Myers-Briggs inventory, __________ value fairness and decide things impersonally based on objective criteria and logic. a. perceivers b. feelers c. thinkers d. extroverts e. introverts ANSWER: c 66. Based on the descriptions in the Myers-Briggs inventory, the motto of __________ would be “ready, aim, aim.” a. a thinker b. a feeler c. a judger d. an introvert e. a perceiver ANSWER: d 67. Based on the descriptions in the Myers-Briggs inventory, the motto of __________ would be “ready, fire, aim.” a. a thinker b. a feeler c. a perceiver d. an extrovert e. an introvert ANSWER: d 68. According to the Myers-Briggs inventory, __________ people are decisive and like to plan. a. thinking b. feeling c. perceiving d. judging e. sensing ANSWER: d 69. According to the Myers-Briggs inventory, __________ people are adaptable, spontaneous, and curious. a. thinking b. judging c. perceiving d. feeling e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 70. __________ suggests broad, fundamental traits and dimensions that differentiate among people and can help to predict future behavior. a. The Jung-Freud inventory b. The Myers-Briggs inventory c. The “Big Five” framework d. The “Big Three” framework Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. The personality continuum ANSWER: c 71. Which term refers to the capacity to rapidly and fluidly acquire, process, and apply information? a. Information processing capacity b. General mental ability c. Verbal ability d. Analytical ability e. Emotional intelligence ANSWER: b 72. General mental ability refers to one’s capacity to perform which of the following processes? a. Reasoning b. Remembering c. Understanding d. Problem solving e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 73. What term refers to the manner in which individuals process and organize information during learning? a. Emotional intelligence b. General mental ability c. Verbal ability d. Analytical ability e. Information processing capacity ANSWER: e 74. General mental ability tests examine which of the following? a. Verbal reasoning b. Mathematical reasoning c. Logic d. Perceptual ability e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 75. Which of Gardner’s multiple intelligences refers to self-awareness? a. Musical b. Bodily-kinesthetic c. Intrapersonal d. Interpersonal e. Logical ANSWER: c 76. Interpersonal intelligence would be most important for people in which of the following jobs? a. Computer technicians b. Data entry assistants c. Bookkeepers Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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d. Research scientists e. Teachers ANSWER: e 77. Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence would be most important for people in which of the following jobs? a. Managers b. Engineers c. Doctors d. Authors e. Firefighters ANSWER: e 78. Linguistic intelligence would be most important for people in which of the following jobs? a. Data entry assistants b. Photographers c. Translators d. Computer technicians e. Research scientists ANSWER: c 79. Logical-mathematical intelligence is most important for people in which of the following jobs? a. Communications consultants b. Sculptors c. Statisticians d. Salespeople e. Radio hosts ANSWER: c 80. Spatial-visual intelligence is most important for people in which of the following jobs? a. Lawyers b. Artists c. Accountants d. Salespeople e. Politicians ANSWER: b 81. What term refers to an interpersonal capability that includes the ability to perceive and express emotions? a. Emotional intelligence b. Emotional ability c. Informational intelligence d. Emotional perception e. Perceptual ability ANSWER: a 82. Which of the following is NOT one of the seven universal emotions? a. Contempt b. Disgust Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. Fear d. Joy e. Confusion ANSWER: e 83. Which of the following is NOT one of the dimensions of emotional intelligence? a. Empathy b. Social skills c. Self-motivation d. Self-management e. Self-preservation ANSWER: e 84. __________ provide both potentially positive and negative information to job candidates. a. Realistic job previews b. Comprehensive c. Complex interviews d. Regulated job previews e. Propaganda videos ANSWER: a 85. What term refers to the fit between an individual’s values, beliefs, attitudes, and personality and the values, norms, and culture of the organization? a. Person-group fit b. Person-vocation fit c. Person-job fit d. Person-organization fit e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 86. What term refers to the fit between an individual’s abilities, values, and personality, and her profession? a. Person-group fit b. Person-vocation fit c. Person-job fit d. Person-organization fit e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: b 87. What term refers to the fit between an individual and her coworkers and supervisor? a. Person-group fit b. Person-vocation fit c. Person-job fit d. Person-organization fit e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 88. __________ have a learning style where they focus on risk-taking.

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a. Convergers b. Divergers c. Accommodators d. Assimilators e. Investigators ANSWER: c 89. __________ have a learning style where they tend to focus on the logical soundness and preciseness of ideas rather than the ideas’ practical values. a. Convergers b. Divergers c. Accommodators d. Assimilators e. Investigators ANSWER: d 90. __________ have a learning style where they tend to organize concrete situations from different perspectives. a. Convergers b. Divergers c. Accommodators d. Assimilators e. Investigators ANSWER: b 91. People with the learning style of __________exhibit an inferior ability in interpersonal learning settings. a. convergers b. divergers c. accommodators d. assimilators e. investigators ANSWER: a 92. People with the learning style of __________ focus on opportunity seeking and action. a. convergers b. divergers c. accommodators d. assimilators e. investigators ANSWER: c 93. People with the learning style of __________ tend to work in research and planning units. a. convergers b. divergers c. accommodators d. assimilators e. investigators Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: d 94. People with the learning style of a __________ tend to be imaginative and people-oriented. a. converger b. diverger c. accommodator d. assimilator e. investigator ANSWER: b 95. __________ have a learning style that enables them to excel in technical tasks. a. Convergers b. Divergers c. Accommodators d. Assimilators e. Investigators ANSWER: a Multiple Response 96. Research has found that __________ people tend NOT to be higher performers in a variety of jobs. a. neurotic b. extroverted c. open d. conscientious e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 97. An internal locus of control is NOT positively related to which of the following? a. Higher work-family conflict b. Greater job commitment c. Better job performance d. More career success e. Greater job satisfaction ANSWER: a 98. People with Type B personality traits are more likely to exhibit which of the following, compared to people with Type A personality traits? a. Higher stress levels b. Higher job performance c. More coronary heart disease d. More competitive behavior e. Greater frustration levels ANSWER: b 99. Which of the following traits are NOT positively related to job satisfaction? a. Low neuroticism Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. High extroversion c. High agreeableness d. Low Type B e. High neuroticism ANSWER: e 100. People with a high level of Machiavellianism do NOT typically exhibit which of the following? a. High levels of empathy b. Strong resistance to social influence c. Low ethical standards d. Little interest in the emotions of others e. High levels of bossiness ANSWER: a Completion 101. Because Mike is overqualified for his current job, he does not have a strong __________ fit.

ANSWER: person-job 102. __________ is the relatively stable set of psychological attributes or traits that distinguish one person from another.

ANSWER: Personality 103. __________ is a personality trait that refers to a person’s rigidity of beliefs and range of interests.

ANSWER: Openness 104. __________ is the belief that power and status differences are appropriate within hierarchical social systems, such as organizations.

ANSWER: Authoritarianism 105. Workplace ____________________ is the repeated mistreatment of another employee through verbal abuse or other threatening, humiliating, or intimidating conduct.

ANSWER: bullying 106. The extent to which people are self-aware and can manage their emotions, motivate themselves, and express empathy for others is referred to as their __________.

ANSWER: emotional intelligence 107. Richard has a locus of control that is __________, because he believes that luck has led to his personal success.

ANSWER: external 108. Don follows the orders of his supervisor and is more relaxed and easygoing than other employees, showing he exhibits the behavior traits of someone with __________ personality.

ANSWER: Type B 109. Examples of systems that interact with the environment through one of the senses are called__________.

ANSWER: sensory modalities 110. Learners who prefer a sensory modality that is __________ learn primarily by doing things themselves.

ANSWER: kinesthetic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Matching Match each scenario with the type of fit it illustrates. a. Mario is one of the top salespeople at a BMW dealership. As a vegan, Mario doesn’t like the fact that many of the BMWs he sells have leather seats. Still, he is good at this job and motivated by the opportunity to sell high-quality vehicles. c. Hank has always been a social person, and he enjoys working with people. Pressured by his parents to pick a “real” major, he got a degree in chemistry and now spends every day at work alone in a lab. Peter is regretting his decision to go into science as a career because he has very little social contact.

b. Google has a strong culture of innovation, which Leila really likes. She previously worked at Microsoft, and although her job there was almost identical, she’s much happier now that she’s in a less bureaucratic, more innovative environment that supports autonomy and smart risk-taking. d. Jyoti is very happy with her work team. Everyone supports each other and is responsible about meeting both individual and team goals, making Jyoti enjoy coming to work even though she actually doesn’t like many aspects of that job all that much.

111. person-organization fit ANSWER: b 112. person-job fit ANSWER: a 113. person-vocation fit ANSWER: c 114. person-group fit ANSWER: d Match each scenario with the component of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator it exemplifies. a. Alf prides himself on being fair and not letting his emotions get in his way when making decisions. b. Amelia is less interested in facts than in the patterns and relationships among them. c. Lenny prides himself on his adaptability. He hates making final decisions and, as a result, often misses his deadlines. d. Olga often criticizes others for being “too logical.” She believes that logic is a lie people tell themselves to justify making cold, cruel, or outright immoral decisions. When asked to make hard choices, Olga bases her decisions on what is best for the people she cares about. e. Liang is uncomfortable making an important decision unless he feels that he has all of the facts. f. Hosanna is decisive. In a group, she’s usually the first person to take stock of the essential information and formulate a plan.

115. sensing ANSWER: e 116. thinking ANSWER: a 117. perceiving ANSWER: c 118. feeling ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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119. judging ANSWER: f 120. intuition ANSWER: b Essay 121. Define internal and external locus of control. Provide examples.

ANSWER: Locus of control is the extent to which people believe that their behavior has a real effect on what happens to them. Some people, for example, believe that if they work hard they will succeed. They may also believe that people who fail do so because they lack ability or motivation. People who believe that individuals are in control of their lives are said to have an internal locus of control. Other people think that fate, chance, luck, or other people’s behavior determines what happens to them. For example, an employee who fails to get a promotion may attribute that failure to a politically motivated boss or just bad luck, rather than to her or his own lack of skills or poor performance record. People who think that forces beyond their control dictate what happens to them are said to have an external locus of control.

122. Describe the five components of emotional intelligence. Provide realistic examples relating emotional intelligence to work situations.

ANSWER: Emotional intelligence (EI) is an interpersonal capability that includes the ability to perceive and express emotions, to understand and use them, and to manage emotions in oneself and other people. Goleman describes five dimensions of EI that include three personal competencies (self-awareness, self-regulation, and motivation) and two social competencies (empathy and social skills). Emotional capabilities may operate at multiple levels to influence change in organizations. EI may also influence employee emotional reactions to job insecurity and their coping with associated stresses. EI involves using emotional regulatory processes to control anxiety and other negative emotional reactions and to generate positive emotional reactions. Negative emotions, such as anxiety or frustration, are distracting and result in diminished learning and performance.

Emotional regulation and control may also be important in managing distracting positive emotions at work.

The five dimensions comprising emotional intelligence are the following: 1. Self-awareness: being aware of what you are feeling 2. Self-motivation: persisting in the face of obstacles, setbacks, and failures 3. Self-management: managing your own emotions and impulses 4. Empathy: sensing how others are feeling 5. Social skills: effectively handling the emotions of others People differ in the degree to which they are able to recognize the emotional meaning of others’ facial expressions, although seven universal emotions are expressed in the face in exactly the same way regardless of race, culture, ethnicity, age, gender, or religion. These emotions are joy, sadness, fear, surprise, anger, contempt, and disgust. Recognizing and understanding these emotions is important in communicating, establishing relationships, building rapport, negotiating, and many other managerial tasks. More effective communicators better recognize the emotions being conveyed by peoples’ facial expressions. There is some ambiguity about the degree to which EI is considered a malleable and trainable set of competencies versus a stable set of personality traits or emotional abilities; however, EI does relate to job performance, adjustments to stressful situations, and pro-social behaviors.

123. Describe the “Big 5” personality traits. Explain how each affects people’s work.

ANSWER: Researchers have identified five fundamental personality traits that are especially relevant to organizations.

These are now commonly called the “Big Five” personality traits. Agreeableness refers to a person’s ability to get along with others. Conscientiousness refers to the extent to which a person can be counted on to get things done. The third of the Big Five personality dimensions is neuroticism. People who are relatively more neurotic tend to experience unpleasant emotions such as anger, anxiety, depression, and feelings of vulnerability more often than people who are relatively less neurotic. Extraversion reflects a person’s comfort level with relationships. Extroverts are sociable, talkative, assertive, and open to establishing new relationships.

Introverts are much less sociable, talkative, and assertive, and more reluctant to begin new relationships.

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Finally, openness reflects a person’s rigidity of beliefs and range of interests. People with high levels of openness are willing to listen to new ideas and to change their own ideas, beliefs, and attitudes in response to new information.

124. Describe Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences. Describe the careers and learning styles that correspond to each type of intelligence.

ANSWER: Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences suggests that there are a number of distinct forms of intelligence that each individual possesses in varying degrees: 1. Linguistic: words and language. Suggested careers: author, speaker, lawyer. Preferred learning style: verbal and written word.

2. Logical-mathematical: logic and numbers. Suggested careers: engineer, scientist, accountant. Preferred learning style: logic and numbers.

3. Musical: music, rhythm, and sound. Suggested careers: musician, composer, music teacher. Preferred learning style: music, sound, rhythm.

4. Bodily-kinesthetic: body movement and control. Suggested careers: athlete, actor, gardener. Preferred learning style: touch and feel; physical experience.

5. Spatial-visual: images and space. Suggested careers: artist, engineer, photographer. Preferred learning style: pictures, shapes.

6. Interpersonal: other people’s feelings. Suggested careers: psychologist, salesperson, politician. Preferred learning style: human contact, teamwork.

7. Intrapersonal: self-awareness. Suggested careers: almost any career. Preferred learning style: self-reflection and self-discovery.

125. Describe the concept of fit, as it relates to the workplace. Explain two different types of fit that pertain to workplace settings.

ANSWER: People need to fit with an employment opportunity to be a successful match. Types of fit include person-job, the fit between a person’s abilities and the demands of the job, and the fit between a person’s desires and attributes and the rewards of the job; person-group, the fit between an employee and his or her workgroup; person-organization, the fit between an individual’s values, beliefs, and personality and that of the organization; and person-vocation, the fit between a person’s abilities and interests and that of a profession.

True / False 1. Cognitive dissonance occurs when there is congruence among attitudes, perceptions, and behaviors. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. Two basic perceptual processes are selective perception and stereotyping. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. A person who screens out information because he or she is uncomfortable with the information or the information contradicts his or her belief is affected by stereotyping. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Stress is defined as an individual’s adaptive response to a stimulus. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. False ANSWER: True 5. Stress is always caused by the same two factors: occupation and group pressures. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. According to the general adaptation system (GAS), when a person encounters a stressor, the first stage of the process is called alarm. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. In the workplace, stress can sometimes be a positive factor. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. The exhaustion stage of the GAS occurs as a result of prolonged exposure to a stressor without resolution. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. Because all stress is harmful, organizations should take efforts to fully eliminate it. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. Cognition is the negative form of stress that occurs from pessimistic thoughts. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. Examples of task demands include group pressures, leadership, and interpersonal conflict. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. Sources of stress in the organizational environment include office design and role ambiguity. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. Stress in organizational settings is only influenced by events that take place inside the organization, not events that take place outside the organization. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: False 14. Withdrawal behaviors such as absenteeism and resigning from a job are potential organizational consequences of stress. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 15. Organizational consequences of stress include medical effects to employees, such as heart disease or headaches. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 16. Burnout is a common experience in all workplaces, and it has no negative effect on organizations, so it is not something companies put much effort into avoiding. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 17. Support groups are an effective individual coping strategy for adapting to and managing stress. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 18. Improving time management skills can help to reduce stress on the job. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 19. Making changes to an organization’s culture can help employees manage stress. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 20. Collateral programs, such as an employee fitness program, are one strategy organizations employ to help employees manage stress. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 21. Trade-offs between extreme demands are rarely needed when balancing work-life linkages. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 22. The __________ component of an attitude is derived from feelings that an individual has about another person or situation.

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a. cognition b. intention c. perception d. affect e. intellect ANSWER: d 23. The __________ component of an attitude guides an individual’s behavior in a situation. a. cognition b. intellect c. expectation d. affect e. intention ANSWER: e 24. One of the primary differences between attitudes and personality is that a. attitudes only identify negative perceptions while personality attributes identify both positive and negative attributes. b. attitudes cannot be assessed while personality attributes are easy to determine. c. attitudes are less changeable than personality attributes. d. attitudes are less predictive of behavior than personality attributes. e. attitudes are more changeable than personality attributes.

ANSWER: e 25. If an employee is satisfied with his or her job because he or she perceives the company’s health benefit plan is better than what most other companies offer, it is an example of the __________ component of your attitude. a. affect b. intention c. intellect d. behavior e. cognition ANSWER: e 26. After working in a fast-food restaurant for three years to pay for college tuition, Amanda vowed to never work in a restaurant again. But after graduation the only job offer she received was as a manager at a local restaurant. If Amanda accepts the job, it may result in __________ dissonance. a. attitudinal b. behavioral c. cognitive d. affective e. intentional ANSWER: c 27. George is highly committed and has an attachment to the organization where he works. He feels he is a true member of the company. George is demonstrating a. organizational citizenship. b. organizational commitment.

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c. job identification. d. job satisfaction. e. job involvement.

ANSWER: b 28. Tammi is often pessimistic and tends to see things in a negative light. Tammi is exhibiting a relatively high degree of a. self-criticism. b. negative affectivity. c. locus of control. d. Machiavellianism. e. self-efficacy.

ANSWER: b 29. A person who tends to see things in a positive light and appears to be in a good mood most of the time has a high level of a. locus of control. b. self-efficacy. c. conscientiousness. d. positive affectivity. e. Machiavellianism.

ANSWER: d 30. __________ is the process of screening out information that contradicts one’s beliefs. a. Perceived reality b. Person-job fit c. Selective perception d. Complementary congruence e. Objective reality ANSWER: c 31. When a large-scale layoff is announced at the company Bill works for, all of the workers, including Bill, begin to complain. According to attribution theory, Bill’s behavior exhibits a. high consistency. b. high distinctiveness. c. low consistency. d. low consensus. e. high consensus.

ANSWER: e 32. Stress is defined as a. a physical stimulus that an individual responds to. b. a psychological stimulus that an individual responds to. c. an emotional stimulus that an individual responds to. d. a physical or psychological stimulus that an individual responds to. e. a cognitive stimulus that an individual responds to.

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33. In which stage of the GAS do people potentially experience a “fight or flight” response in order to cope with stressors? a. Resistance b. Exhaustion c. Realization d. Emotion e. Alarm ANSWER: e 34. Which of the following is NOT stated in the GAS model? a. Everyone has a stress threshold. b. Some people cannot tolerate much stress at all. c. Prolonged exposure to stress results in a greater tolerance for future stress. d. Some people can tolerate a great deal of stress. e. Each person has a normal level of resistance to stressful events.

ANSWER: c 35. Which of the following is an example of distress? a. Excessive pressure to perform b. Mental preparations before playing a sport c. Giving a speech d. Getting married e. Getting a promotion ANSWER: a 36. In which stage of the GAS do people typically experience feelings of no longer being able to cope with the stressor? a. Deflation b. Exhaustion c. Realization d. Resistance e. Alarm ANSWER: b 37. Which of the following is a basic cause of stress in organizations? a. Life change b. Life trauma c. Intrinsic demands d. Extrinsic demands e. Physical demands ANSWER: e 38. Task demands that are too low can cause a person to a. develop healthy coping techniques. b. become bored. c. be healthy and pleased with life. d. feel invigorated. e. become anxious about time pressures.

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ANSWER: b 39. A moderate degree of workload-related stress can a. stimulate energy and motivation. b. overload the nervous system. c. weaken the physical system. d. result in apathy. e. increase anxiety.

ANSWER: a 40. A poorly designed office that doesn’t allow a worker adequate privacy is an example of a ____ organizational stressor. a. physical demand b. personal demand c. task demand d. role demand e. performance demand ANSWER: a 41. A ____ is a set of expected behaviors associated with a particular position in a group or organization. a. module b. stressor c. role d. catalyst e. demand ANSWER: c 42. All of the following are examples of an interpersonal demand stressor EXCEPT a. leadership style. b. personalities. c. group norms. d. strenuous labor. e. behavior expectations.

ANSWER: d 43. Smoking and alcohol abuse are __________ consequences of too much stress at work. a. psychological b. medical c. behavioral d. physiological e. cognitive ANSWER: c 44. Medical, psychological, and behavioral responses to stress are primarily a. eustress. b. burnout. c. hardiness adjustments. d. individual consequences.

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e. organizational consequences.

ANSWER: d 45. Psychological consequences of stress include all of the following EXCEPT a. depression. b. sleeping too much. c. not sleeping enough. d. headaches. e. family problems.

ANSWER: d 46. Medical consequences of stress include all of the following EXCEPT a. strokes. b. ulcers. c. accident proneness. d. heart attacks. e. headaches.

ANSWER: c 47. Behavioral consequences of organizational stress include all of the following EXCEPT a. smoking. b. alcohol abuse. c. negative changes in attitudes. d. aggression. e. appetite disorders.

ANSWER: c 48. All of the following are direct organizational consequences of stress EXCEPT a. accident proneness. b. poor work quality. c. turnover. d. absenteeism. e. lower productivity.

ANSWER: a 49. Usually, high work stress results in __________ job performance. a. equal or better b. decreased c. no effect on d. increased e. usually increased, but sometimes decreased ANSWER: b 50. Burnout a. is most frequently found among high achievers. b. occurs when the worker enrolls in stress management programs. c. occurs when a worker puts too little of himself or herself into the job.

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d. is more common among women than men. e. is found more often in Type B personalities.

ANSWER: a 51. All of the following are signs of burnout EXCEPT a. putting in long hours, but getting little accomplished. b. dreading going to work. c. mental exhaustion. d. physical exhaustion. e. strenuous exercise.

ANSWER: e 52. An individual coping strategy to deal with workplace stress includes a. improving time management skills. b. engaging in regular exercise. c. participating in support groups. d. using relaxation techniques. e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 53. An employee’s work-life relationships are a. not a concern to employees or organizations. b. important to employees but they should not concern organizations c. are important to employees and should be a concern for organizations. d. will not impact employee productivity. e. all of the friendships that develop through the workplace.

ANSWER: c 54. Which of the following is NOT a relaxation technique for coping with work stress? a. Calmly making a “to-do” list b. Sitting quietly with eyes closed c. Taking a short rest break d. Taking a vacation e. Taking a nap ANSWER: a 55. Which of the following is NOT one of the suggested steps for time management? a. Impression management b. Make a list every morning c. Work on tasks in order of importance d. Identify critical activities e. Identify trivial activities ANSWER: a 56. Which of the following is NOT an example of a collateral program? a. Career development b. Employee fitness Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. Health promotion d. Shift work e. Stress management ANSWER: d 57. Which of the following is NOT a type of value? a. Intrinsic b. Extrinsic c. Primary d. Terminal e. Instrumental ANSWER: c 58. Which of the following types of value reflects one’s long-term life goals? a. Intrinsic b. Extrinsic c. Primary d. Terminal e. Instrumental ANSWER: d 59. Which of the following types of value reflects how we want to accomplish a task? a. Intrinsic b. Extrinsic c. Primary d. Terminal e. Instrumental ANSWER: e 60. Intrinsic work values are defined as a. values related to your education. b. values related to the work itself. c. values not related to the work. d. values related to your family. e. values related to the outcome of doing the work.

ANSWER: b 61. Extrinsic work values are defined as a. values related to your family. b. values related to the types of work you do. c. values that give you a lot of job responsibility. d. values related to the outcomes of the work. e. values that give you challenging opportunities at work.

ANSWER: d 62. An example of an intrinsic work value is a. health insurance.

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b. social contact with friends. c. having lots of time to spend with family. d. challenging work. e. financial gain.

ANSWER: d 63. Intrapersonal value conflict occurs when a. highly ranked instrumental and terminal values contradict. b. highly ranked instrumental and terminal values are parallel. c. two different people hold contradictory values. d. two different people hold parallel values. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 64. Interpersonal value conflict occurs when a. highly ranked instrumental and terminal values contradict. b. highly ranked instrumental and terminal values are parallel. c. two different people hold contradictory values. d. two different people hold parallel values. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 65. A value conflict between an employee’s values and the values of the employer is called a. individual-organization conflict.. b. internal-external conflict. c. behavior-emotional conflict. d. emotional-financial conflict. e. individual-behavior conflict.

ANSWER: a 66. Which of the following is a way to resolve cognitive dissonance? a. Change your behavior b. Change your attitude c. Reason about the situation d. Search for additional information e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 67. Which of the following is NOT one of the factors that have the greatest influence on job satisfaction? a. Values b. Personality c. The work itself d. Cognitive dissonance e. Attitudes ANSWER: d 68. As a manager, if you want to increase your subordinates’ job satisfaction, focus first on Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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a. reducing workload. b. improving the nature of the work itself. c. changing the location of the office. d. institute a new training program. e. increase the number of performance evaluations conducted.

ANSWER: b 69. Employees who find intrinsic value in their work are doing what is a. important to them. b. important to their spouse. c. not important to them. d. obligatory. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 70. Job satisfaction tends to __________ over time. a. increase b. decrease c. fluctuate randomly d. stay constant e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 71. __________ commitment is defined as feeling obliged to stay with an organization for moral or ethical reasons. a. Dysfunctional b. Continuance c. Affective d. Normative e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 72. __________ commitment is defined as positive emotional attachment to the organization and strong identification with its values and goals. a. Dysfunctional b. Continuance c. Affective d. Normative e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 73. __________ commitment is defined as staying with an organization because of perceived high economic and/or social costs involved with leaving. a. Dysfunctional b. Continuance c. Affective d. Normative e. None of these are correct.

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ANSWER: b 74. An employee who just used an employee assistance program to deal with a personal legal issue might feel a moral obligation to stay with the employer, at least for a few years. This person would be classified by which of the following types of commitment? a. Dysfunctional b. Continuance c. Affective d. Normative e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 75. Which of the following statements most clearly embodies continuance commitment? a. “I work here because it would be wrong of me to quit.” b. “I work here because I’m afraid to quit.” c. “I work here because I want to.” d. “I work here because I have to work somewhere.” e. “I work here because I earn a high salary.”

ANSWER: e 76. __________ is defined as a heightened emotional and intellectual connection that an employee has for his or her job, organization, manager, or coworkers that, in turn, influences him or her to apply additional discretionary effort to his or her work a. Normative commitment b. Affective commitment c. Community engagement d. Employee engagement e. Job satisfaction ANSWER: d 77. __________ workers do not perform close to their potential capability, lacking the emotional and motivational connections to their employer that drive discretionary effort. a. Introverted b. Efficient c. Inefficient d. Engaged e. Disengaged ANSWER: e 78. Engagement is enhanced when employees a. have clear goals and roles. b. have the resources needed to do a good job. c. get meaningful feedback on their performance. d. are able to use their talents. e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e

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79. __________ is a general tendency of an individual to experience a particular mood or to react to things in a particular way or with certain emotions. a. Psychology b. Creativity c. Intelligence d. Affectivity e. Personality ANSWER: d 80. Which of the following are two types of affectivity? a. Positive and negative b. High and low c. Distress and eustress d. Anxious and relaxed e. Odd and even ANSWER: a 81. __________ stress can result in unexpected negative effects, such as boredom and apathy. a. Too much b. Too little c. Functional d. Dysfunctional e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: b 82. Which of the following is NOT a recommended coping strategy for stress? a. Seeking social support b. Discontinuing an exercise program c. Meditating d. Getting more rest e. Managing one’s time better ANSWER: b 83. Which of the following terms refers to forming oversimplified beliefs about an individual or a group based on the idea that everyone in that particular group will behave the same way? a. Bigotry b. Stereotyping c. Selective perception d. Indiscriminate perception e. Projection ANSWER: b 84. Joan categorizes her employee Celia as a high performer. As a result, Joan is likely to __________ a. focus more on information related to Celia’s low performance and disregard information reflecting her high performance. b. focus more on information related to Celia’s high performance, and disregard information reflecting her low performance.

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c. focus more on information related to Celia’s personality, and disregard information reflecting her attitudes. d. focus more on information related to Celia’s attitudes and disregard information reflecting her personality. e. focus more on information related to Celia’s cognition and disregard information reflecting her values.

ANSWER: b 85. Which of the following terms refers to drawing a general impression about something or someone based on a single, and typically good, characteristic? a. The halo effect b. First impression bias c. Selective perception d. Stereotyping e. The Hawthorne effect ANSWER: a 86. Which of the following terms refers to evaluating a person’s characteristics through comparisons with other people we have recently encountered who rank higher or lower on the same characteristics? a. Contrast effect b. Comparison effect c. Assimilation effect d. Accommodation effect e. Coriolis effect ANSWER: a 87. Which of the following terms refers to attributing our own characteristics to other people? a. Negative affect b. Positive affect c. Attribution d. Projection e. Obfuscation ANSWER: d 88. Mark is interviewing someone who reminds him of himself when he was just starting out. Mark assumes the candidate also shares his values, work ethic, and abilities. This is an example of a. the contrast effect. b. the halo effect. c. first impression bias. d. stereotyping. e. projection.

ANSWER: e 89. People tend to associate beauty with other positive characteristics. This phenomenon is an example of a. the contrast effect. b. the halo effect. c. first impression bias. d. stereotyping. e. projection.

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90. After encountering an exceptionally good cashier, we might see an average cashier and evaluate him or her as below average. This is an example of a. the contrast effect. b. the halo effect. c. first impression bias. d. stereotyping. e. projection.

ANSWER: a 91. People tend to perceive things __________ a. in the same way, but they assume that everyone perceives things differently. b. in different ways, but they assume that everyone perceives things in the same way. c. in complex ways, and they assume that everyone perceives things in the same way. d. in the same way, and they assume everyone perceives things in the same way. e. in different ways, and they assume that everyone perceives things differently.

ANSWER: b 92. Which of the following refers to employees’ perceptions of organizational events, policies, and practices as being fair or not fair? a. Employee engagement b. Social justice c. Organizational fairness d. Organizational commitment e. Person-organization fit ANSWER: c 93. Which of the following refers to the perceived fairness of the outcome received? a. Managerial fairness b. Organizational fairness c. Interactional fairness d. Procedural fairness e. Distributive fairness ANSWER: e 94. Which of the following refers to the perceived fairness of the way the outcome was generated? a. Managerial fairness b. Organizational fairness c. Interactional fairness d. Procedural fairness e. Distributive fairness ANSWER: d 95. Which of the following refers to the perceived fairness regarding the amount of information given by decisionmakers? a. Managerial fairness b. Organizational fairness Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. Interactional fairness d. Procedural fairness e. Distributive fairness ANSWER: c 96. How people explain the causes of their own as well as other people’s behaviors and achievements is called a. projection. b. stereotyping. c. attribution. d. selective perception. e. indiscriminate perception.

ANSWER: c 97. If a student always receives high grades, the student is exhibiting high __________ a. attribution. b. distinctiveness. c. consensus. d. consistency. e. congruence.

ANSWER: d 98. If all students in a particular course receive high grades, it is an example of __________ a. attribution. b. distinctiveness. c. consensus. d. consistency. e. congruence.

ANSWER: c 99. If a student typically gets high grades in all courses, but then receives a low grade on a quiz in one of the classes, what is the student exhibiting? a. High attribution b. High distinctiveness c. High consensus d. High consistency e. High congruence ANSWER: b 100. If a student is normally a C student, but recently received an A on an assignment, the __________ of the circumstances would be high. a. distinctiveness b. attribution c. cognition d. values e. attitudes ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Completion 101. __________ are beliefs and feelings that people have about specific ideas, situations, or other people.

ANSWER: Attitudes 102. Because Stan once read about a scandal involving a local politician, he thinks the politician is untrustworthy. This reflects the __________ component of his attitude about the candidate.

ANSWER: cognition 103. __________ is the process of screening out information that one is uncomfortable with or that contradicts one’s beliefs.

ANSWER: Selective perception 104. A person who is generally downbeat and pessimistic has a high level of __________.

ANSWER: negative affectivity 105. __________ is an individual’s adaptive response to a stimulus that places excessive psychological or physical demands on that individual.

ANSWER: Stress 106. According to the general adaptation theory, alarm, resistance, and exhaustion are three stages of response to a __________.

ANSWER: stressor 107. Mariana believes she will get over a stressful event. She has entered the ________ stage of the GAS. ANSWER: resistance 108. Jason is experiencing a stressful situation at work. He feels some degree of panic and has started to wonder how he will ever be able to cope with his current situation. Jason has entered the __________ stage of the GAS. ANSWER: alarm 109. Pleasurable stress that accompanies positive events is called __________.

ANSWER: eustress 110. Unpleasant stress that accompanies negative events is called __________.

ANSWER: distress Matching Sheldon and Malik are equally competent scientists who work in the same lab. Match each description with the psychological phenomenon it most clearly illustrates. a. Emily, their lab manager, considers Sheldon the better scientist. When Sheldon makes a mistake, Emily dismisses it as a fluke. When Malik makes a mistake, she thinks, “Typical!” b. When Sheldon completes a successful experiment, Malik thinks it’s because Sheldon is a great scientist. When one of his own experiments goes well, Malik figures he just got lucky. c. On the day he met Emily, Malik had a bicycling accident on his way to work and arrived reeling and distracted.

His mind still on his near-death experience, Malik was curt during their introductions, causing Emily to forever consider him rude despite his being friendly to her ever since. d. Sheldon is more eloquent and more adept at conversational niceties than Malik is. For this reason, Emily considers Sheldon the better scientist.

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ANSWER: c 112. Attribution ANSWER: b 113. The halo effect ANSWER: d 114. Selective perception ANSWER: a Kiko and Shelly work in an accounting firm. When their boss is promoted, both of them apply for his position and Kiko gets the job. Match each scenario with the type of fairness or unfairness it exemplifies. a. Shelly doesn’t mind that Kiko got the job and she didn’t, but she feels insulted that the department director delivered the news to her via email rather than taking the time to tell her in person. b. Shelly is sad that she didn’t get promoted, but given Kiko’s greater skill and tenure with the company, Shelly has to admit she probably would have made the same choice herself. c. Kiko’s brother is married to the department director’s former roommate. However, Shelly is confident that the hiring decision was based on objective criteria, not on nepotism, so she will not file any complaints.

115. Procedural fairness ANSWER: c 116. Distributive fairness ANSWER: b 117. Interactional fairness ANSWER: a Match each scenario with the type of organizational commitment it most clearly illustrates. a. Gordo hates his job, but he has a serious medical condition and can’t afford to lose his health insurance, so he stays on. b. Yvette not only loves her job but also everything her organization stands for. She’d keep working there even if she weren’t getting paid. c. Billy’s firm paid all of the tuition for his master’s degree through the organization’s tuition reimbursement program. He’d like to look for a new job elsewhere, but he feels obligated to stay for ethical reasons.

118. Normative ANSWER: c 119. Continuance ANSWER: a 120. Affective ANSWER: b Essay 121. Define perception. Describe two perceptual processes and explain how they affect behavior in organizations.

ANSWER: Perception is the set of processes by which an individual becomes aware of and interprets information about the environment. Two basic perceptual processes are selective perception and stereotyping. Selective Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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perception is the process of screening out information that we are uncomfortable with or that contradicts our beliefs. For example, suppose a manager is exceptionally fond of a particular worker. The manager has a very positive attitude about that worker and considers him or her to be an outstanding performer. One day the manager observes this individual apparently sleeping at his or her desk. The manger may assume that the worker stayed up working late the night before and is just taking a short nap. Alternatively, suppose the manager has a very negative attitude about the worker and observes the same behavior. In this case, the manager might assume that the worker was out late partying the night before, perhaps reinforcing the negative attitude. Stereotyping is categorizing or labeling people on the basis of a single attribute. Certain forms of stereotyping can be useful and efficient. Suppose, for example, that a manager believes that communication skills are important for a particular job and that speech communication majors tend to have exceptionally good communication skills. As a result, whenever he or she interviews candidates for jobs he or she pays especially close attention to speech communication majors. To the extent that communication skills truly predict job performance and that majoring in speech communication does indeed provide those skills, this form of stereotyping can be beneficial.

122. Define affect and mood in organizations. Provide examples of each.

ANSWER: Moods are short-term emotional states that are not directed toward anything in particular. Unlike instant reactions that produce emotion, and that change with expectations of future pleasure or pain, moods are harder to cope with, can last for days, weeks, months, or even years. Our moods can be influenced by others. Nasty interactions with coworkers can impact our mood five times more strongly than positive interactions.

Workgroups tend to experience shared group moods when they can display mood information to each other through facial, vocal, and behavioral cues.

The two dominant dimensions of mood are positive affect, which reflects a combination of high energy and positive evaluation characterized by emotions like elation, and negative affect, which comprises feelings of being upset, fearful, and distressed. Affect tends to be somewhat dispositional and fairly stable over time.

Some people just tend to be more positive and optimistic than others. Negative affect is related to lower organizational citizenship behaviors, greater withdrawal and counterproductive work behaviors, lower job satisfaction, and greater injuries. Affectivity can also be important to training outcomes.

123. Explain the basic process involved in the GAS. ANSWER: According to the GAS model, each of us has a normal level of resistance to stressful events. Some of us can tolerate a great deal of stress and others much less, but we all have a threshold at which stress starts to affect us. The GAS begins when a person first encounters a stressor. The first stage is called “alarm.” At this point, the person may feel some degree of panic and begin to wonder how to cope. If the stressor is too extreme, the person may simply be unable to cope with it. In most cases, however, the individual gathers his or her strength (physical or emotional) and begins to resist the negative effects of the stressor. Thus, at stage two of the GAS, the person is resisting the effects of the stressor. Often, the resistance phase ends the GAS. On the other hand, prolonged exposure to a stressor without resolution may bring on phase three of the GAS: exhaustion. At this stage, the person literally gives up and can no longer fight the stressor.

124. Define organizational commitment. Explain three ways employees can feel committed to an employer.

ANSWER: Organizational commitment reflects the degree to which an employee identifies with the organization and its goals and wants to stay with the organization. There are three ways we can feel committed to an employer: 1. Affective commitment: positive emotional attachment to the organization and strong identification with its values and goals. Affective commitment leads employees to stay with an organization because they want to, and is related to higher performance.

2. Normative commitment: feeling obliged to stay with an organization for moral or ethical reasons.

Normative commitment is related to higher performance and leads employees to stay with an organization because they feel they should.

3. Continuance commitment: staying with an organization because of perceived high economic (taking another job would mean losing valuable stock options) and/or social costs (friendships with coworkers) involved with leaving. Continuance commitment leads employees to stay with an organization because they feel that they have to.

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125. Define terminal and instrumental values. Provide examples of each.

ANSWER: Terminal values reflect our long-term life goals, and may include prosperity, happiness, a secure family, and a sense of accomplishment. People who value family more than career success will work fewer hours and spend more time with their kids than people whose values put career success first. Of course, this does not mean that having strong family values will prevent one from having a successful career. Terminal values can change over time depending on our experiences and accomplishments. When a career-oriented person sells his or her business for a lot of money, his or her prosperity goals may be reached and family may then become most important.

Instrumental values are our preferred means of achieving our terminal values or our preferred ways of behaving. Terminal values influence what we want to accomplish; instrumental values influence how we get there. Honesty, ambition, and independence are examples of instrumental values that guide our behavior in pursuit of our terminal goals. The stronger an instrumental value is, the more we act on it. People who value honesty behave more ethically in pursuing the terminal value of prosperity and a sense of accomplishment than do people with a lower honesty instrumental value.

True / False 1. Performance depends on ability and motivation, but not on the environment. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. Supervisors can most easily manage their employees’ motivation, but it is more difficult to manage employee’s abilities or their environment. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Historical perspectives on motivation are important because these ideas provide a background for current understanding of motivation. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Frederick Taylor, the father of scientific management, believed people were motivated by the opportunity to contribute to the workplace. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, esteem needs refer to realizing one’s full potential. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. The most basic needs in Maslow’s hierarchy are security needs. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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7. The top two sets of needs in Maslow’s hierarchy are categorized as growth needs. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Herzberg viewed satisfaction and dissatisfaction as two different factors that exist along different dimensions. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. The two-factor theory identifies motivation factors that prevent dissatisfaction, and hygiene factors that enhance satisfaction. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. In the two-factor theory, hygiene factors in the workplace include the quality of supervision, working conditions, and interpersonal relationships. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. In the two-factor theory, motivation factors in the workplace include achievement, recognition, and responsibility. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. According to the acquired needs framework, the need for affiliation is the desire to control one’s environment. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 13. According to the acquired needs framework, high-need achievers often do not get promoted into high-level managerial positions. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 14. Equity is achieved when an individual perceives that he or she is being treated fairly in relation to others. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 15. Individuals might adjust their inputs or outcomes in order to mitigate concerns about inequity. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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16. The desirability of outcomes received for performing work is referred to as valence. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 17. The performance-to-outcome expectancy is a person’s perception of the probability that effort will lead to performance. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 18. The Porter-Lawler expectancy model suggests that, under the right conditions, high levels of performance might lead to satisfaction. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 19. Classical conditioning is a simple form of learning that links a conditioned response with an unconditioned stimulus. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 20. According to reinforcement theory, if rewards are removed from behaviors that were previously reinforced, the behaviors are likely to decrease in frequency, and eventually disappear. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 21. Variable-interval reinforcement varies the amount of time between reinforcements in order to influence behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 22. Fixed-interval reinforcement provides reinforcement on a fixed-time schedule in order to influence behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 23. Positive reinforcement increases the frequency of behavior by providing a reward or desirable consequence that follows the behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 24. Punishment and extinction both tend to decrease the frequency of undesirable behaviors and conduct. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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25. Social learning suggests that individual behavior is influenced when people observe the behavior of others, understand the consequences of the behavior, and adjust their own behavior as a result. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 26. Equity theory is concerned with differences in pay and is not applicable to intangible rewards in the workplace. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 27. People have to be rewarded identically in order to perceive the rewards to be fair. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 28. Equality and equity are the same thing. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 29. To achieve high levels of performance, both ability and motivation are required. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 30. Substantial empirical evidence supports Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 31. __________ is the set of forces that causes people to engage in a behavior, rather than an alternative behavior. a. Autonomy b. Task identity c. Motivation d. Activity e. Equilibrium ANSWER: c 32. The most difficult performance factor to manage is a. environment. b. mastery. c. activity. d. motivation. e. equilibrium.

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33. Motivated behavior begins with one or more a. motives. b. people. c. wants. d. needs. e. behaviors.

ANSWER: d 34. The scientific management view of motivation includes all of the following assumptions EXCEPT a. employees are motivated by money. b. work is inherently unpleasant. c. employees want to feel useful and important. d. incentive pay systems are recommended. e. the nature of the work is not important.

ANSWER: c 35. The human relations approach to motivation includes all of the following assumptions EXCEPT a. employees want to feel useful. b. employees want to feel important. c. employees have strong social needs. d. employees are motivated only by money. e. employees seek some level of self-direction.

ANSWER: d 36. The human resource approach to motivation assumes that a. employees are economically motivated. b. employees will achieve their security needs. c. meaningful employee contributions are valuable to individuals and the organization. d. illusory employee contributions are valuable to individuals and the organization. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 37. According to Maslow, if a previously satisfied lower-level need becomes deficient, a. the individual returns to the level just below the deficient level. b. the individual returns to the lowest level that is now deficient. c. the individual becomes demotivated. d. the individual advances a level. e. the individual begins again at the bottom of the hierarchy.

ANSWER: b 38. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, __________ needs are people’s most basic requirements. a. growth b. security c. physiological d. self-actualization e. esteem Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: c 39. John has satisfied his basic physiological needs, and he is also very social and has many friends. He is now trying to learn new skills and advance his career. John’s activities are explained by which component of Existence, Relatedness, and Growth (ERG) theory? a. Satisfaction–progression b. Frustration–regression c. Importance–satisfaction d. Satisfaction–regression e. Frustration–progression ANSWER: a 40. For various reasons, Anne is unable to move ahead into a higher position at work. According to ERG theory, which of the following sets of needs will become more important to Anne? a. Existence b. Growth c. Relatedness d. Security e. Belongingness ANSWER: c 41. Herzberg’s two-factor, dual-structure theory was a response to the prevailing thinking that a. job loyalty ranged from loyalty to disloyalty. b. job satisfaction ranged from satisfaction to dissatisfaction. c. job motivation ranged from motivation to demotivation. d. job ability ranged from ability to disability. e. job motivation ranged from progression to regression.

ANSWER: b 42. According to Herzberg’s two-factor, dual-structure theory, motivation factors are often cited as the primary causes of a. job enrichment and motivation. b. satisfaction and motivation. c. dissatisfaction and lack of motivation. d. loyalty and commitment. e. higher performance and pay.

ANSWER: b 43. According to Herzberg, once a state of no dissatisfaction has been reached, a. the manager should strive to create a feeling of equity among all employees. b. the employee will naturally be satisfied so managers need not focus on employees’ individual needs. c. further attempts to enhance motivation via the hygiene factors will not be effective. d. the employee will be motivated to achieve but some attention from managers can increase motivation further. e. a manager’s increased attention to motivation factors will not be effective.

ANSWER: c 44. According to the acquired needs framework, high-need achievers are not effective top managers because a. top managers are required to have too much formal education, which would not interest high-need achievers.

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b. top managers need to make risky decisions, and high-need achievers don’t like to take any risks. c. top managers seldom receive immediate feedback, which high-need achievers seek. d. top managers are not able to delegate tasks, and high-need achievers prefer to delegate as much work to others as possible. e. top managers have a high need for human companionship, and high-need achievers do not.

ANSWER: c 45. People with a strong need for affiliation most often work in jobs with a. high technical skill demands. b. opportunities to control one’s environment. c. a high degree of immediate feedback. d. a lot of interpersonal contact. e. little autonomy or decision-making responsibilities.

ANSWER: d 46. People with a high need for power can be successful managers if they a. curb desires that interfere with organizational relationships. b. lessen alienation with other employees. c. have a high need for affiliation. d. seek power to increase their standing in the organization. e. strive to get along with others.

ANSWER: a 47. According to equity theory, people a. have the motivation to improve their standard of living. b. have the motivation to develop satisfying relationships. c. want to be treated fairly. d. want everything to be equal. e. compare what they get from a job with what they want from a job.

ANSWER: c 48. All of the following are steps in an individual’s formation of equity perceptions EXCEPT a. evaluating how they are being treated. b. forming perceptions of how a comparison other is being treated. c. comparing their own circumstances with those of a comparison other. d. confronting the comparison other with any inequity. e. making a choice to pursue equity-restoring options.

ANSWER: d 49. Doug is an employee of McDowell Instruments. Doug takes longer breaks than his coworkers, and often rationalizes his behavior because he feels the organization does not pay him enough for the level of work that he does. Doug is reducing his perceived inequity by a. altering his perception of self. b. altering his perception of the situation. c. changing his inputs. d. changing his outcomes. e. changing the object of comparison.

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ANSWER: c 50. According to the equity theory, an example of an input is a. education. b. experience. c. effort. d. loyalty. e. All of these are inputs.

ANSWER: e 51. Equity theory provides several insights for managerial applications to everyday situations in the workplace. Which of the following is NOT a principle of equity theory? a. People tend to take a multifaceted view of the rewards they receive from the organization. b. The basis for organizational rewards should be clearly communicated to employees. c. People base their experience of equity on their perceptions, which don’t necessarily match reality. d. Formal and informal organizational rewards are equally observable to individuals when formulating equity perceptions. e. Employees’ perceptions may differ from the manager’s perceptions.

ANSWER: d 52. __________ theory assumes that people are motivated to work toward a goal when they want to achieve the outcome and also think they have the ability and means to achieve it. a. Perception b. Equity c. Attribution d. Reinforcement e. Expectancy ANSWER: e 53. Aria has been performing successfully at work for several months. Aria believes that she will get a pay raise if she maintains this high level of performance. This is an example of the __________ expectancy. a. effort-to-performance b. performance-to-benefit c. performance-to-outcome d. performance-to-valence e. effort-to-outcome ANSWER: c 54. The basic expectancy framework suggests that for motivated behavior to occur, a. the performance-to-outcome expectancies should approach zero. b. the sum of all the valences for the relevant potential outcomes must be negative. c. none of the valences for the relevant potential outcomes should be negative. d. the effort-to-performance ratio should be well above 10. e. the positive valences should outweigh the negative valences of potential outcomes.

ANSWER: e 55. Porter and Lawler’s extension of the expectancy model argues that Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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a. only extrinsic rewards are important. b. reward equity replaces valence. c. ability, traits, and role perceptions are removed from the original model. d. rewards are less important than originally thought. e. high levels of performance may lead to satisfaction.

ANSWER: e 56. In its simplest form, reinforcement theory suggests that behavior is a function of a. equity perceptions. b. emotional states. c. attitudes. d. subconscious perceptions. e. consequences.

ANSWER: e 57. Which two types of reinforcement are generally accepted as means for increasing the frequency of desired behavior? a. Positive reinforcement and neutral reinforcement b. Negative reinforcement and strict reinforcement c. Negative reinforcement and neutral reinforcement d. Strict reinforcement and neutral reinforcement e. Positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement ANSWER: e 58. Sara tries to always be on time for work because she once saw her supervisor give someone an award for good attendance. Sara is exhibiting learning through a. avoidance. b. positive reinforcement. c. punishment. d. extinction. e. a stimulus-response mechanism.

ANSWER: b 59. Which of the following statements is NOT true about continuous reinforcement? a. Extinction sets in quickly when reinforcement is removed. b. It is not considered to be effective. c. It is the process of reinforcing behavior every time it occurs. d. It is an effective means for increasing the frequency of desired behavior. e. It requires that managers monitor every behavior of an employee and provide effective reinforcement.

ANSWER: b 60. Which type of reinforcement schedule uses the element of surprise by reinforcing behavior after an unpredictable amount of time has elapsed? a. Variable-interval b. Fixed-ratio c. Fixed-interval d. Variable-ratio e. Continuous Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: a 61. Receiving a $10 bonus for every fifth sale is an example of which schedule of reinforcement? a. Fixed-ratio b. Variable-interval c. Fixed-interval d. Variable-ratio e. Continuous ANSWER: c 62. In order for social learning to take place, a. tasks must be complex, so as to motivate the employee. b. the behavior being modeled must be intangible in nature. c. the employee must possess the physical ability to perform the job. d. the employee need not perceive a direct cause-and-effect linkage. e. the employee must be physically present at the time of the demonstration.

ANSWER: c 63. One’s confidence in the ability to organize and execute the courses of action necessary to accomplish a specific task is called a. self-righteousness. b. self-sufficiency. c. self-esteem. d. self-efficacy. e. self-determination.

ANSWER: d 64. Which dimension of self-efficacy refers to beliefs about how difficult a task can be accomplished? a. Strength b. Magnitude c. Power d. Generality e. Corporality ANSWER: b 65. Which dimension of self-efficacy refers to beliefs about how confident the person is that the task can be accomplished? a. Strength b. Magnitude c. Power d. Generality e. Corporality ANSWER: a 66. Which dimension of self-efficacy refers to beliefs about the degree to which similar tasks can be accomplished? a. Strength b. Magnitude Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. Power d. Generality e. Corporality ANSWER: d 67. In the expectancy model of motivation, which term refers to the perceived value of a given reward or outcome? a. Perception b. Expectancy c. Valence d. Strength e. Generality ANSWER: c 68. Expectancy theory is difficult to apply directly in the workplace because it is so a. new. b. costly. c. simple. d. complex. e. time-consuming.

ANSWER: d 69. A relatively permanent change in behavior that occurs because of experience is called a. trauma. b. training. c. growth. d. intelligence. e. learning.

ANSWER: e 70. A performance bonus is an example of a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. punishment. d. extinction. e. classical conditioning.

ANSWER: a 71. Removal of current or future unpleasant consequences to increase the likelihood that someone will repeat a behavior is called a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. punishment. d. extinction. e. classical conditioning.

ANSWER: b 72. Reducing the work hours of low performing employees is an example of Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. punishment. d. extinction. e. classical conditioning.

ANSWER: c 73. Deciding to no longer laugh at a coworker’s inappropriate jokes, to encourage him to stop telling those types of jokes, is an example of a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. punishment. d. extinction. e. classical conditioning.

ANSWER: d 74. Which of the following is most appropriate when a manager realizes he or she has inadvertently been rewarding a behavior he or she wants to discourage? a. Positive reinforcement b. Negative reinforcement c. Punishment d. Extinction e. Classical conditioning ANSWER: d 75. A __________ reinforcement schedule is one in which the desired behavior is reinforced each time it occurs. a. variable-interval b. variable-ratio c. fixed-interval d. fixed-ratio e. continuous ANSWER: e 76. A __________ reinforcement schedule is one in which the desired behavior is reinforced after a specified number of instances. a. variable-interval b. variable-ratio c. fixed-interval d. fixed-ratio e. continuous ANSWER: d 77. A __________ reinforcement schedule is one in which the desired behavior is reinforced after a certain amount of time has passed. a. variable-interval b. variable-ratio c. fixed-interval Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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d. fixed-ratio e. continuous ANSWER: c 78. A __________ reinforcement schedule is one in which the desired behavior is reinforced after an unpredictable number of instances. a. variable-interval b. variable-ratio c. fixed-interval d. fixed-ratio e. continuous ANSWER: b 79. A __________ reinforcement schedule is one in which the desired behavior is reinforced after an unpredictable amount of time has elapsed. a. variable-interval b. variable-ratio c. fixed-interval d. fixed-ratio e. continuous ANSWER: a 80. According to Herzberg, __________ satisfaction includes things such as pay, status, and working conditions, which produce an acceptable work environment when present and whose absence leads to dissatisfaction. a. hygiene b. motivation c. acceptability d. responsibility e. engagement ANSWER: a 81. According to Herzberg, __________ factors are intrinsic to the job and increase satisfaction. a. hygiene b. motivation c. acceptability d. happiness e. engagement ANSWER: b 82. A shortage of __________ factors in the workplace will lower satisfaction and cause employees to focus even more on hygiene factors, which will produce feelings of dissatisfaction if they are missing. a. negative b. positive c. surface d. motivation e. lower ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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83. According to the framework presented by David McClelland, the desire to master complex tasks or to do things more efficiently is called a need for a. empowerment. b. affiliation. c. power. d. achievement. e. status.

ANSWER: d 84. According to David McClelland, the desire to control, influence, or be responsible for others is called a need for a. empowerment. b. affiliation. c. power. d. achievement. e. status.

ANSWER: c 85. According to David McClelland, the desire for human companionship is called a need for a. empowerment. b. affiliation. c. power. d. achievement. e. status.

ANSWER: b 86. Which of the following is NOT a recommended way to restore feelings of equity in the workplace? a. Try to convince the comparison-other to reduce his or her inputs b. Reduce one’s own inputs c. Increase one’s own outcomes d. Choose a different comparison-other who gives a better ratio e. Leave the situation ANSWER: a 87. The Hierarchy of Needs was developed by which of the following theorists? a. David McClelland b. Douglas McGregor c. Clay Alderfer d. Abraham Maslow e. Frederick Herzberg ANSWER: d 88. The ERG Theory was developed by which of the following theorists? a. David McClelland b. Douglas McGregor c. Clay Alderfer d. Abraham Maslow Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. Frederick Herzberg ANSWER: c 89. The ERG theory of relatedness needs parallel __________ needs in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. a. security and esteem b. self-actualization and belongingness c. self-actualization and esteem d. physiological and security e. belongingness and esteem ANSWER: e 90. The Two-Factor Theory was developed by which of the following theorists? a. David McClelland b. Douglas McGregor c. Clay Alderfer d. Abraham Maslow e. Frederick Herzberg ANSWER: e 91. Performance is a function of motivation, ability, and a. management. b. environment. c. goals. d. power. e. nothing else.

ANSWER: b 92. According to the human resource approach to motivation, offering employees __________ is the best way to enhance motivation in the workplace. a. self-direction b. the illusion of self-direction c. opportunities for advancement d. increased compensation e. longer vacations ANSWER: a 93. A key component of equity theory is that employees compare their own input/output ratios with the input/outcome ratios of other employees. What is the term for this phenomenon? a. Psychological contract b. Equity theory c. Social contract d. Social comparison e. Social loafing ANSWER: d 94. The scientific management theory of motivation was developed by which of the following theorists? a. Frederick Taylor Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. David McClelland c. Abraham Maslow d. Clay Alderfer e. Frederick Herzberg ANSWER: a 95. A person who feels equitably treated is motivated to a. look harder for signs of inequity. b. work harder. c. change the way things are. d. keep things the way they are. e. work less hard.

ANSWER: d 96. The most significant shortcoming of the scientific management approach to motivation is that it a. overstated the importance of money. b. understated the importance of money. c. was funded by large corporations. d. was not actually scientific. e. did not produce any positive results.

ANSWER: a 97. According to the human relations approach to motivation, offering employees __________ is the best way to enhance motivation in the workplace. a. self-direction b. the illusion of self-direction c. opportunities for advancement d. increased compensation e. longer vacations ANSWER: b 98. According to equity theory, which of the following ratios do people consider when deciding whether they are being treated equitably? a. Inputs : outcomes b. Performance : rewards c. Effort : probability of success d. Status : competence e. Motivation : ability ANSWER: a 99. Which psychologist’s work laid the foundation for the study of behavior modification? a. David McClelland b. Douglas McGregor c. Clay Alderfer d. Abraham Maslow e. B.F. Skinner ANSWER: e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Completion 100. __________ is the set of forces that cause people to engage in one behavior rather than some alternative behavior.

ANSWER: Motivation 101. The scientific management perspective of motivation assumes that all workers were motivated solely by __________.

ANSWER: money 102. Abraham Maslow’s theory of motivation is referred to as a __________ of needs.

ANSWER: hierarchy 103. The highest level in Maslow’s framework is the need for __________.

ANSWER: self-actualization 104. In Maslow’s framework, __________ needs are things such as adequate housing and clothing and freedom from worry and anxiety.

ANSWER: security 105. In Maslow’s framework, friendships developed in a work group would most likely satisfy __________ needs.

ANSWER: belongingness 106. Requesting a pay raise is an attempt to reduce __________ by changing one’s own outcomes.

ANSWER: inequity 107. __________ is the belief that a person is being treated fairly in relation to others.

ANSWER: Equity 108. At its most elementary level, reinforcement theory suggests that behavior is a function of its __________.

ANSWER: consequences 109. __________ involves the presentation of adverse consequences after an undesired behavior has occurred.

ANSWER: Punishment Essay 110. Describe what the formula P = M × A × E represents. What happens if one of these factors becomes deficient?

ANSWER: This relationship can be stated in this formula: P=M×A×E Where P = performance, M = motivation, A = ability, and E = environment.

To reach high levels of performance, an employee must want to do the job well (motivation); must be able to do the job effectively (ability); and must have the materials, resources, equipment, and information required to do the job (environment). A deficiency in any one of these areas hurts performance.

111. Describe the major assumptions of the following theories of motivation: scientific management, the human relations approach, and the human resources approach. Provide examples of each theory.

ANSWER: As one basic premise of the scientific management approach, Taylor assumed that employees are economically motivated and work to earn as much money as they can. Hence, he advocated incentive pay systems. He believed that managers knew more about the jobs being performed than did workers, and he assumed that economic gain was the primary thing that motivated everyone. Other assumptions of the traditional approach were that work is inherently unpleasant for most people and that the money they earn is Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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more important to employees than the nature of the job they are performing. Hence, people could be expected to perform any kind of job if they were paid enough. Although the role of money as a motivating factor cannot be dismissed, proponents of the traditional approach took too narrow a view of the role of monetary compensation and also failed to consider other motivational factors.

The human relations approach supplanted scientific management in the 1930s. The human relations approach assumed that employees want to feel useful and important, that employees have strong social needs, and that these needs are more important than money in motivating employees. Advocates of the human relations approach advised managers to make workers feel important and to allow them a modicum of self-direction and self-control in carrying out routine activities. The feelings of involvement and importance were expected to satisfy workers’ basic social needs and result in higher motivation to perform. For example, a manager might allow a workgroup to participate in making a decision to enhance the quality even if he had mostly determined what the decision would be. The gesture of allowing participation was expected to enhance motivation and involvement of the workers.

The human resource approach to motivation carries the concepts of needs and motivation one step farther.

Whereas the human relationists believed that feelings of contribution and participation would enhance motivation, the human resource view, which began to emerge in the 1950s, assumes that the contributions themselves are valuable to both individuals and organizations. It assumes that people want to contribute and are able to make genuine contributions. Management’s task, then, is to encourage participation and to create a work environment that makes full use of the human resources available. This philosophy guides most contemporary thinking about employee motivation. At Ford, Apple, Texas Instruments, and Hewlett-Packard, for example, work teams are being called upon to solve a variety of problems and to make substantive contributions to the organization.

112. What are Maslow’s five levels of needs? How do these needs relate to motivation?

ANSWER: Maslow argued that human beings are “wanting” animals: They have innate desires to satisfy a given set of needs. Furthermore, Maslow believed that these needs are arranged in a hierarchy of importance, with the most basic needs at the foundation of the hierarchy. Maslow’s hierarchy, in order from least to most basic, is as follows: physiological, security, belongingness, esteem, and self-actualization. Maslow believed that each need level must be satisfied before the level above it can become important. Thus, once physiological needs have been satisfied, their importance diminishes, and security needs emerge as the primary sources of motivation. This escalation up the hierarchy continues until the self-actualization needs become the primary motivators.

113. Describe four common ways in which individuals respond to perceived inequity. Provide an example of each.

ANSWER: People may use one of six common methods to reduce inequity. First, we may change our own inputs. Thus, we may put more or less effort into the job, depending on which way the inequity lies, as a way to alter our ratio. Second, we may change our own outcomes. We might, for example, demand a pay raise, seek additional avenues for growth and development, or even resort to stealing as a way to “get more” from the organization.

A third, more complex response is to alter our perceptions of ourselves and our behavior. After perceiving an inequity, for example, we may change our original self-assessment and decide that we are really contributing less but receiving more than we originally believed. Fourth, we may alter our perception of the comparisonother’s inputs or outcomes. Fifth, we may change the object of comparison. We may conclude, for instance, that the current comparison-other is the boss’s personal favorite, is unusually lucky, or has special skills and abilities. Finally, as a last resort, we may simply leave the situation. That is, we might decide that the only way to feel better about things is to be in a different situation altogether.

114. Describe the four different types of reinforcement. Provide examples of each.

ANSWER: When you’re trying to induce someone to behave a certain way, positive reinforcement is the addition of pleasant consequences (for example, a merit raise), negative reinforcement is the removal of negative consequences (for example, allowing an employee with an unpleasant commute to work from home as a reward for good performance), punishment is the addition of negative consequences (for example, reducing the hours of underperforming employees), and extinction is the withdrawal of positive reinforcement (for example, no longer laughing at an employee’s off-color jokes so the jokes will not continue).

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True / False 1. Goal-setting theory assumes that individual behavior results from conscious goals and intentions. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. In order for goals that are difficult to attain to motivate behavior, they must be set at realistic levels. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Goal difficulty is the clarity and precision of a goal. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. A performance management system comprises the processes and activities involved in performance appraisals. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Performance measurement with a judgmental orientation focuses on the future to improve performance. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. In most performance measurement systems, the employee’s primary evaluator is her supervisor. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Evaluations providing 360-degree feedback are generated from a supervisor and peers but not from subordinates. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Organizations can usually benefit from conducting performance appraisals on an annual basis. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. Appraising performance at the individual level is acceptable in the United States, because American culture is highly individualistic. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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10. Individual performance measurement methods include behaviorally anchored rating scales and checklists. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. The purpose of reward systems in most organizations is to attract, retain, and motivate qualified employees. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. Essays and diaries are popular methods used for evaluating employee performance. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. Base pay includes such compensation as gain-sharing and profit-sharing programs. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. Employee stock option plans are incentive programs in which employees are given stock in the company at no charge. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. Bonus systems and piecework programs are considered incentive-based compensation systems. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 16. The IRS has begun to tax some perquisites given to employees. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 17. An organization’s social security, unemployment, and workers’ compensation contributions are set by law. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 18. An organization that uses a flexible reward system may allow employees to choose the combination of benefits they prefer but not how they receive their pay. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 19. A pay secrecy policy is likely to improve workers’ motivation. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. False ANSWER: False 20. Perquisites are the special privileges, or “perks,” awarded to certain employees in an organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 21. Job design involves how organizations design work that is performed in a company, rather than how jobs are structured. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 22. Attempts to apply job specialization approaches in the workplace have produced disappointing results. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 23. Frederick Taylor’s view of job specialization evolved from the historical writings of economist Adam Smith, who advocated for division of labor. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 24. A primary disadvantage of job specialization is the extreme monotony that can come from regularly performing highly specialized tasks. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 25. Job rotation and job enlargement are alternative job design techniques that differ from the technique of job specialization. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 26. Companies use job rotation as a technique to increase worker efficiency. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 27. Job rotation involves keeping the tasks the same but systematically rotating the employees who perform those tasks. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 28. Job enrichment involves giving employees more control over the tasks they perform on the job.

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a. True b. False ANSWER: True 29. A quality circle is a group of employees who are assigned to inspection teams that ensure production quality on an assembly line. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 30. Extended work schedules require employees to work extended periods of time followed by long periods of paid time off. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 31. Goal setting can be motivating, especially if the individual employee a. will receive a monetary reward for accomplishing the goals. b. helps to set the goals. c. has already accomplished similar goals. d. feels the goal is very easy to achieve. e. None of these is correct.

ANSWER: b 32. Research by Edwin Locke assumes that behavior is a result of a. the requirements established by the organization. b. the organizational culture. c. conscious goals and intentions. d. the internal organizational forces to increase profits. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 33. Goal specificity is consistently related to a. competitors’ profits. b. company image. c. performance. d. social responsibility. e. ethical behavior.

ANSWER: c 34. Goal specificity is defined as the a. extent to which a goal is challenging and requires effort. b. extent to which a person accepts a goal as her own. c. extent to which a person is personally interested in reaching the goal. d. justification for the goal’s existence.

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e. clarity and precision of a goal.

ANSWER: e 35. Expansions on goal-setting theory argue that goal-directed effort is a function of four goal attributes: goal acceptance, goal commitment, goal specificity and a. goal clarity. b. goal prevalence. c. goal importance. d. goal difficulty. e. goal attainability.

ANSWER: d 36. Goal __________ is defined as the extent to which a person is interested in reaching a goal. a. difficulty b. commitment c. acceptance d. attachment e. specificity ANSWER: b 37. According to the goal-setting theory, actual performance is determined by the interaction of a. organizational support. b. goal-directed effort. c. individual abilities. d. appropriate goal difficulty level. e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 38. MBO stands for a. management behavior objectives. b. media buying options. c. management by objectives. d. marketing by organizations. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 39. A successful MBO program starts with top managers establishing which of the following? a. Overall organizational goals b. Specific employee goals c. Very easy goals d. Very difficult goals e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 40. Which of the following is NOT part of the performance measurement process? a. Comparing an employee’s work behavior with previously established standards b. Communicating the results to the employee Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. Rewarding the employee according to his or her performance d. Evaluating an employee’s work behavior by measurement e. Documenting the results ANSWER: c 41. What is the primary use of performance appraisal information? a. To provide job performance feedback b. To develop training and development programs c. To provide support for human resource decision making d. To provide human resource planning information e. To allocate organizational rewards ANSWER: a 42. Which of the following statements describes performance measurement that has a developmental orientation? a. A developmental orientation entails a focus on past performance. b. Developmental performance measurement focuses on an employee’s growth since the last appraisal. c. Developmental performance appraisals are used to determine wages and pay raises. d. Performance appraisals with a developmental orientation provide information for future performance improvement. e. A developmental orientation helps managers punish undesirable behaviors and demote low-performing employees.

ANSWER: d 43. The most important issue regarding how to conduct a performance appraisal is a. whether pay is linked to performance. b. where the appraisal takes place. c. who does the appraisal. d. how long the meeting to discuss the appraisal lasts. e. whether rewards are offered after the appraisal is completed.

ANSWER: c 44. When a supervisor has limited knowledge of the performance of an employee he is evaluating, which of the following is a recommended course of action? a. Prevent the employee from working with the supervisor doing the appraisal b. Prohibit employees from evaluating themselves c. Use a multiple-rater system d. Perform the evaluation with information currently available to the supervisor e. Plan training programs to improve observation and categorization skills ANSWER: c 45. Which of the following statements explains why 360-degree feedback is highly beneficial to managers? a. It gives managers a much wider range of feedback than traditional performance appraisals do. b. This type of feedback is performed more frequently than traditional methods of feedback. c. This form of feedback is the easiest to administer and is the most cost-efficient form of appraisal. d. It helps managers to be more aware of their employees’ day-to-day performance. e. The feedback focuses on objective performance criteria.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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46. Which of the following describes 360-degree feedback? a. Very few companies have adopted 360-degree systems. b. Traditional evaluations are usually more effective than 360-degree systems. c. Evaluators in a 360-degree system tend to focus on objective performance. d. Managers are likely to hear some personal comments on sensitive topics. e. Using 360-degree feedback has several key advantages and virtually no disadvantages.

ANSWER: d 47. Organizations typically conduct performance appraisals a. when the employee asks for one. b. when the manager asks for one. c. quarterly. d. once a year. e. more frequently for older employees than for younger ones.

ANSWER: d 48. In a highly collectivist culture, performance appraisals should be focused on a. individual effort and results. b. group performance and feedback. c. competitive analysis with coworkers. d. accurate collection of information. e. 360-degree feedback.

ANSWER: b 49. The courts and Equal Employment Opportunity guidelines have mandated that performance measurements be based on a. age. b. sales quotas. c. industry standards. d. job-related criteria. e. competitive benchmarks.

ANSWER: d 50. One of the most popular methods for evaluating individual performance involves a. graphic rating scales. b. bell curve ratings. c. forced distributions. d. rankings. e. paired comparisons.

ANSWER: a 51. An organization’s compensation structure should a. be equitable and consistent. b. be transparent and available as public information. c. be developed in secrecy. d. be based on a low pay structure, compared to competitors.

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e. be based on interview data.

ANSWER: a 52. The choice of which behaviors to reward is a function of the __________ system. a. compensation b. performance measurement c. performance management d. managerial e. total quality management ANSWER: a 53. When a few employees are given a small reward to show that they are appreciated, the reward carries __________ value. a. symbolic b. tangible c. surface d. compensation e. intangible ANSWER: a 54. Alfredo was one of many employees who received a generous Christmas bonus, which carried __________ value to him. a. symbolic b. tangible c. surface d. compensation e. intangible ANSWER: c 55. In exchange for employee contributions, an organization provides rewards such as pay and insurance benefits. These kinds of rewards are combined to create a. compensation packages. b. intangible compensation. c. symbolic rewards. d. system rewards. e. resource exchanges.

ANSWER: a 56. Plans in which employees can earn additional compensation in return for certain types of performance are called a. performance management systems. b. performance appraisal systems. c. incentive systems. d. compensation packages. e. base pay.

ANSWER: c 57. Which of the following is a purpose of an organizational reward system?

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a. Attract qualified employees b. Retain qualified employees c. Motivate qualified employees d. Satisfy employee needs e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 58. Which of the following distributes a portion of the company’s profits to all employees at a predetermined rate? a. Merit pay plan b. Gain-sharing program c. Profit-sharing program d. Employee stock option plan e. Piecework program ANSWER: c 59. All of the following describe characteristics of employee benefits EXCEPT a. some organizations pay the entire cost of benefits. b. offering benefits became a standard component of compensation during World War II. c. some employees demand benefits through union bargaining. d. providing employee benefits is easier for firms in the United States than for firms in other countries. e. organizations are required by law to offer certain benefits.

ANSWER: d 60. What is the likely impact of perquisites on the employees who receive them? a. A lowered sense of commitment toward the organization b. An elevated sense of status in the organization c. A perceived leveling out of special privileges among employees d. Increased turnover due to lower restrictions on travel e. Reduced job satisfaction since perquisites can be taxed ANSWER: b 61. Why are flexible reward systems becoming an increasingly popular form of compensation systems? a. Employees value flexible reward systems and may develop strong loyalty and attachment to an employer who provides them. b. The flexible reward system allows the organization to trade off salary increases for benefit increases as ways of rewarding the employee. c. Flexible reward systems allow the organization to standardize the benefits package for all employees. d. Organizations get fewer benefits for their dollar than with standard approaches, but their employees are more satisfied. e. Flexible systems require less administrative time to develop and maintain than conventional approaches.

ANSWER: a 62. Which of the following best describes a reward system that involves employees in its design and administration? a. Open pay system b. Bonus systems c. Participative pay system d. Merit pay plans Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. Flexible reward system ANSWER: c 63. The National Labor Relations Board (NLRB) recently upheld a decision regarding pay secrecy that states that a. discussion of salaries is not a right protected under the National Labor Relations Act. b. employers cannot enforce a rule that forbids employees from discussing their salaries. c. state governments may not publicize the salaries of their employees. d. employers must keep all salary information secret. e. employers may openly discuss salary information but employees may not.

ANSWER: b 64. The first widespread model that addressed how individual work should be designed focused on a. job enrichment. b. job rotation. c. job enlargement. d. motivational design. e. job specialization.

ANSWER: e 65. Which of the following methods can be used to enhance individual performance at work? a. Job design b. Employee participation c. Goal setting d. Performance management e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 66. Which of the following is the primary problem associated with the specialization of jobs? a. Involvement in too much of the production cycle b. Slow pace of work c. Boredom d. Lower efficiency e. Frequent social interaction with others ANSWER: c 67. The problems encountered when implementing job rotation in the workplace include all of the following EXCEPT a. it is ineffective for training purposes. b. it doesn’t increase workers’ motivation. c. its increases in workers’ interest are short-lived. d. it reduces efficiency. e. it maintains narrowly defined and routine work.

ANSWER: a 68. One of the earliest alternatives to job specialization used by managers was a. automation. b. autonomous work groups. c. job expectancy.

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d. job loading. e. job rotation.

ANSWER: e 69. Which of the following is an example of a job design technique? a. Job enlargement b. Job realization c. Job creation d. Job equity e. Job expectancy ANSWER: a 70. Job enlargement involves the process of horizontal job loading, meaning that a. the employee is assigned more tasks to perform. b. the jobs are broken into small, component parts. c. each employee is given a specialized task to perform. d. the employee is assigned less monotonous and routine tasks. e. the employee is assigned tasks with more responsibility.

ANSWER: a 71. Which theory serves as the basis for job enrichment? a. Equity theory b. Need theory c. Expectancy theory d. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs e. Two-factor theory ANSWER: e 72. Job enlargement is also referred to as a. horizontal job loading. b. vertical job loading. c. parallel job loading. d. lateral job loading. e. optimal job loading.

ANSWER: a 73. Which of the following best describes the current view of job enrichment? a. Job enrichment continues to be a highly successful job design. b. Nearly all Fortune 500 companies use some form of job enrichment program. c. Job enrichment has been proven to increase performance but at the cost of lower satisfaction. d. Job enrichment has been proven to increase satisfaction but at the cost of lower performance. e. Job enrichment has recently fallen into disfavor among managers.

ANSWER: e 74. Job characteristics theory include all of the following core dimensions EXCEPT a. knowledge of results. b. individual perceptions that the job is valuable.

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c. experienced meaningfulness of the work. d. individual perceptions of accountability. e. recognition for work outcomes.

ANSWER: e 75. Job design can be used as a technique to increase employee a. motivation. b. appraisals. c. feedback. d. job integration. e. job difficulty.

ANSWER: a 76. Job characteristics theory presumes which core dimensions can enhance critical psychological states? a. Task identity b. Skill variety c. Task significance d. Feedback e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 77. ____ is the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work, according to the job characteristics theory. a. Task identity b. Task meaningfulness c. Task visibility d. Task recognition e. Task significance ANSWER: a 78. According to the job characteristics theory, the degree to which the job activities provide information about the effectiveness of performance is called a. skill variety. b. feedback. c. task identity. d. skill identity. e. task variety.

ANSWER: b 79. The following statements are key outcomes expected to result from the psychological states detailed in the job characteristics theory EXCEPT a. low absenteeism and turnover. b. high satisfaction with work. c. high-quality work performance. d. high profits for stockholders. e. high internal work motivation.

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80. Which one of the following statements has been cited as a weakness of the job characteristics theory? a. Guidelines for implementation are too specific. b. All changes to a job must occur simultaneously. c. The role of individual differences frequently has not been supported by scientific research. d. The theory assumes that job characteristics are unpredictable and inconsistent. e. One application of the theory found that absenteeism and turnover actually increased.

ANSWER: c 81. Participation occurs when employees a. work together in teams. b. have a voice in decisions about their own work. c. work closely with a mentor or supervisor. d. join a labor union or other employee association. e. become fully vested in a benefits program.

ANSWER: b 82. Organizations may benefit from allowing employee participation in a. what material to use. b. what tools to use. c. work schedules. d. product quality. e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 83. Quality circles are an example of organizational attempts at a. applying reinforcement theory. b. OB modification. c. behavior modification. d. empowerment. e. motivational training.

ANSWER: d 84. All of the following statements about the use of quality circles are true EXCEPT a. employees meet regularly to identify problems. b. employees are empowered to control their work. c. the use of a question/answer period is important. d. employees can propose solutions to problems. e. All of these are true of quality circles.

ANSWER: c 85. Empowerment will enhance organizational effectiveness under all the following conditions EXCEPT a. sincere efforts to spread power and autonomy to lower levels. b. commitment to maintain participation and empowerment. c. systematic efforts to empower workers. d. renewed concentration of authority in the hands of top managers. e. increased commitment to training.

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ANSWER: d 86. Alternative workplaces are intended to a. enhance employee motivation and performance. b. limit the flexibility employees have in scheduling work. c. accommodate a narrower range of the potential workforce. d. increase company profits. e. reduce dependence on key customers.

ANSWER: a 87. Which of the following statements describes variable work schedules? a. Employees can learn new skills as a result of variable work schedules. b. Employees recognize the value of motivation when they have variable work schedules. c. Employees have a say in critical decisions in the organization when they have variable work schedules. d. Employees grow resentful and powerless as a result of variable work schedules. e. Employees can organize their work behaviors when they have variable work schedules.

ANSWER: d 88. Which of the following is an alternative work arrangement in which an employee is given more control over the times worked on a typical workday? a. Flextime b. Variable work schedules c. Compressed work week d. Job sharing e. Telecommuting ANSWER: a 89. Ending an employee’s workday shortly after lunch on Friday because that individual reported to work early that day is an example of a. a shortened workweek. b. telecommuting. c. flextime. d. a compressed workweek. e. job sharing.

ANSWER: c 90. All of the following statements are true about the traditional work schedule, EXCEPT a. it includes long days that start at 8:00 or 9:00 in the morning. b. managers following a traditional schedule work many additional hours. c. it is hard for employees to take care of personal business when they work a traditional schedule. d. people can take off work when they need to when they follow a traditional work schedule. e. people tend to feel powerless when they have traditional work schedules.

ANSWER: d 91. When a construction worker decides to work additional hours on a typical workday so that he can have a three-day weekend, he is likely taking advantage of a __________ program. a. shortened workweek Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. telecommuting c. flextime d. compressed workweek e. job sharing ANSWER: d 92. All of the following statements regarding flextime are true EXCEPT a. it gives employees less say about what days they work. b. it gives employees more personal control over times they work. c. it is desirable for people who want to work part-time. d. all employees must be at work during core time. e. the workday is broken down into two categories.

ANSWER: c 93. Flextime is a work schedule arrangement that a. gives employees more personal control over the hours they work each day. b. allows workers to work a full forty-hour week in less than five days. c. allows workers to miss more than their normally allotted sick days. d. gives employees a say in deciding which hours a company is open for business. e. lets employees choose their days off in advance.

ANSWER: a 94. The benefits of job sharing include all of the following EXCEPT a. a way to entice more workers to the organization. b. additional cost benefits to the organization. c. the organization does not have to offer benefits to employees. d. the organization is demonstrating it is concerned about worker safety. e. the organization can tap into a wider array of skills.

ANSWER: d 95. A company is open for business from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m., five days a week, and it wants to hire two people to fill one forty-hour-per-week position at the company. Which of the following best describes an alternative work schedule that could suit this organization’s circumstances? a. Job sharing b. Extended work schedule c. Alternative workplaces d. Job characteristics approach e. Compressed workweek ANSWER: a 96. All of the following describe telecommuting EXCEPT a. telecommuting involves the use of e-mail and other technologies to stay in touch with the workplace. b. telecommuting employees spend one or more days a week working from home. c. telecommuting reduces employee absenteeism and turnover. d. telecommuting saves organizations on facilities costs, such as parking. e. telecommuting offers employees higher pay, because they are working under special conditions.

ANSWER: e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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97. Telecommuting is an example of an organization using a. seasonal employees. b. full-time employees c. part-time employees. d. alternative workplaces. e. alternative employees.

ANSWER: d 98. To facilitate a telecommuting work arrangement, organizations rely on a. the employee using off-site locations. b. the Internet. c. e-mail. d. technology. e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 99. Allowing an employee to spend part of their time working off-site, usually at home, is called a. compressed workweek. b. flextime. c. job sharing. d. off-shoring. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: e Multiple Response 100. Which of the following are NOT examples of corporate incentive programs? a. Piecework programs b. Gain-sharing programs c. Health insurance programs d. Collateral programs e. Merit pay programs ANSWER: c Completion 101. The extent to which a person recognizes a goal as one’s own is called goal __________.

ANSWER: acceptance 102. Goal-setting theory of motivation suggests that goal difficulty, specificity, acceptance, and commitment contribute to __________.

ANSWER: goal-directed effort 103. If a manager determines a wage increase by comparing an employee’s current behavior with his __________ performance, the manager is conducting a performance appraisal with a judgmental orientation.

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104. Appraisals with a focus on __________ performance are based on a developmental orientation.

ANSWER: future 105. A performance management system in which people receive feedback from those on all “sides” of them is called __________.

ANSWER: 360-degree feedback 106. Employees who feel their salaries convey a message of how much they are worth to the organization are interpreting the __________ value of that reward.

ANSWER: symbolic 107. Top managers are often given special __________, known as perquisites or “perks.”

ANSWER: privileges 108. Employers who allow their workers to choose “cafeteria-style” from a variety of benefits packages are following a __________ reward system.

ANSWER: flexible 109. __________ programs grant additional earnings to employees or work groups for cost-reduction ideas.

ANSWER: Gain-sharing 110. __________ compensation would be given to an American citizen who is an employee of a U.S. company but who works in a different country.

ANSWER: Expatriate Matching Joey, Conrad, and Susan work at a small café. Match each of the following scenarios with the job design concept it most clearly illustrates. a. Joey takes the customers’ orders, Conrad makes their drinks, and Susan makes the sandwiches. b. To break up the monotony of the long days, Joey, Konrad, and Susan switch jobs at regular intervals. c. After Conrad leaves the company, Susan’s job is modified so that she makes drinks as well as sandwiches. d. Susan, the designated sandwich maker, is given control over what sandwiches appear on the menu, where the café gets its ingredients, and how the café’s food supplies are stocked.

111. job rotation ANSWER: b 112. job enrichment ANSWER: d 113. job enlargement ANSWER: c 114. job specialization ANSWER: a Match each of the following scenarios with the flexible work arrangement it illustrates. a. Diego, an accountant, doesn’t mind working long days and really likes three-day weekends. He works Monday through Thursday, ten hours a day so that he has every Friday off. With this schedule, he still works forty hours each week.

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b. Svetlana, an electrician, works alternating weekly schedules: One week she works forty hours over five days, and the next week, she works forty hours over four days. She follows this same alternating weekly schedule every month, always working forty hours each week. c. Gustav, an Alaskan crab fisherman, is paid a premium salary to work five weeks straight without a day off, followed by two weeks of paid vacation. d. George and Jerry work as bellboys at a fancy hotel. George works from 8 am to noon Monday through Friday, and as soon as he leaves, Jerry arrives and works at the same position from noon to 4 such that each of them works a twenty-hour week. e. Liza, a journalist, works Monday through Friday, eight hours a day. She works from 8 am to noon, takes four hours off, and then finishes her workday by working 4 pm to 8 pm. f. Boris, a content developer, can do the entirety of his job from any place that has an Internet connection. He does not come into the office at all.

115. job sharing ANSWER: d 116. extended work schedule ANSWER: c 117. compressed work schedule ANSWER: a 118. nine-eighty schedule ANSWER: b 119. telecommuting ANSWER: f 120. flextime ANSWER: e Essay 121. Edwin Locke’s expanded model of goal-setting theory assumes that goal-directed behavior is a function of four goal attributes: goal difficulty, goal specificity, goal acceptance, and goal commitment. Define these attributes and discuss how each relates to motivated work behaviors.

ANSWER: Goal difficulty is the extent to which a goal is challenging and requires effort. Goal specificity is the clarity and precision of the goal. Goal acceptance is the extent to which a person accepts a goal as his or her own.

Goal commitment is the extent to which he or she is personally interested in reaching the goal. The idea of goal difficulty is that if people work to achieve goals, it is reasonable to assume that they will work harder to achieve more difficult goals. But a goal must not be so difficult that it is unattainable. With goal specificity, the performance is enhanced by working toward achieving clearly and precisely set goals that are measurable.

Goal acceptance and goal commitment expand on the goal setting giving the employee buy-in that can come from participating in the goal-setting process.

122. What issues can arise when developing a compensation package for expatriate employees. Provide examples of how a manager should address each issue.

ANSWER: A common issue that surrounds expatriate compensation is adequately reflecting the cost and standard of living so that the employee’s lifestyle is comparable in the new location to the old location. In addition to costs of living differentials, the quality of lifestyle needs to be taken into account and compensated for accordingly.

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123. Describe the general purpose of a reward system. Give specific examples of how employees attach surface or symbolic value to rewards.

ANSWER: The purpose of the reward system is to attract, retain, and motivate qualified employees and to maintain a pay structure that is internally equitable and externally competitive. Rewards have both surface and symbolic value. The surface value has its objective meaning or worth. A $1,000 bonus given to an employee has obvious surface value: the employee might make a purchase he or she had been putting off or put toward a vacation fund. But symbolically, it can be viewed subjectively in a different way if the employee learns that fellow colleagues who do comparable jobs all got $1,500.

124. Describe the pros and cons of job rotation. Provide examples to support your response.

ANSWER: Job rotation involves systematically shifting workers from one job to another in an attempt to keep them motivated and interested. A pro would be if a fast food restaurant worker typically works in the kitchen day after day but then gets moved periodically to work at the counter where he or she interfaces directly with the customers. This increases that person’s skill set, in addition to increasing his or her motivation. A con would be decreased efficiencies as a person not used to running the cash register may not readily know where all the buttons are or how to handle special orders like a seasoned employee might who works at the counter more often.

125. Compare and contrast three alternative approaches to work scheduling. How will each affect organizational efficiency?

ANSWER: One alternative approach to work scheduling is the compressed work schedule where an employee fits his or her typical forty hours into fewer than the traditional five days. Issues can arise when people aren’t available enough to handle those “off” days or time periods or everyone is vying to have Fridays off for an extended weekend, leaving to jockeying for position. An extended work schedule is another arrangement. This is where relatively long periods of work are followed by relatively long periods of paid time off. This could apply to seasonal help, for instance, where retailers need to staff up during busy season such as around the holidays.

Flextime is a popular choice work schedule too that is offered to give employees more personal control over their daily hours. A person with an already long commute may flex his or her work hours to avoid rush hour traffic as much as possible.

True / False 1. The most effective teams are comprised of people with different types of skills. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. The collection of people who attend a class together could be called a group. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Having a common purpose and common performance goals sets the tone and direction of a virtual team. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Gain-sharing programs usually reward all team members from all teams based on the performance of the organization. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: True 5. Team bonus plans are similar to gain-sharing plans because both programs base payment on the performance of the individual. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Skill-based pay systems require team members to acquire important skills that affect compensation. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Teams can increase innovation and creativity among employees. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. The use of teams can eliminate redundant layers of bureaucracy and flatten the hierarchy on a company. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. Teams do not usually take a great deal of time to develop, which is one of the advantages of using teams in companies. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. Quality circles can be permanent work groups. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Problem-solving teams are permanent teams that make recommendations for others to implement. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. Virtual teams are typically separated by geographic space and time, increasing the challenges of working together. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. Virtual teams typically utilize some form of technology to enhance communication among individuals who are members of the team. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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14. Implementing teams in organizations is not easy; it takes a lot of hard work, time, training, and patience. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 15. Implementation of self-managing work teams often takes less than one month. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 16. In the reality and unrest phase of team implementation, team members and managers often report frustration and confusion about the new situation. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 17. In later stages of the implementation process, tightly formed teams tend to become overconfident and reduce their communication with other teams in the organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 18. For team implementation to be successful, training must start with top managers. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 19. A command group is a temporary, informal group who do not have functional reporting relationships within the organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 20. An affinity group is a type of informal group where members have very different job responsibilities. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 21. A friendship group often performs its duties outside of regular work hours. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 22. Getting to know one another is part of the mutual acceptance stage of group development. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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23. Group norms are developed in the control and organization stage of group development. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 24. Some groups fail to complete certain stages of development before moving on to later stages. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 25. All groups go through all four stages of group development before disbanding. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 26. Group productivity depends on successful growth at each stage of the group development process. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 27. The basic group performance factors include groupthink, social loafing, and norm creation. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 28. A group is homogenous if the members are similar in one or more ways that are critical to the work of the group. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 29. A homogeneous group is likely to be more productive when the group task is simple, cooperation is necessary, the group tasks are sequential, and quick action is required. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 30. A heterogeneous group is more likely to be productive when the task is complex, requires a collective effort, and demands creativity. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 31. Social loafing is the tendency of some group members to put forth high levels of effort, which ultimately reduces selfpolicing. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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32. In most situations, the most effective group size is 30 or more members because more ideas are generated. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 33. A group norm is a standard against which the appropriateness of a behavior is judged. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 34. Cohesiveness is generally higher in small groups than it is in large groups. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 35. Increasing group interaction will not usually affect the cohesiveness of the group. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 36. Highly cohesive groups will be more productive for the organization than groups with low cohesiveness. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 37. Communication in Western cultures is typically indirect and vague. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 38. In cultures where managers typically use a direct communication style, the managers are likely to ask very

direct questions. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 39. Teams differ from groups in that teams a. place more emphasis on concerted action than groups do. b. are usually larger than groups. c. are usually temporary. d. place little emphasis on common objectives. e. pursue multiple goals.

ANSWER: a 40. A team is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT a. it consists of two or more people.

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b. members do not share accountability for the team outcomes. c. it is an interdependent group. d. members share a common goal. e. members share accountability for their own individual outcomes.

ANSWER: b 41. __________ is a reward system commonly found in team environments, where recipients are required to acquire a set of core abilities. a. Skill-based pay b. Stock options c. Commission-based pay d. Annual profit sharing e. Seniority-based pay ANSWER: a 42. What is the best reason to create teams in an organization? a. They can increase productivity almost immediately. b. Teams are always well received by employees. c. Teams are increasing in popularity. d. The competition is also implementing teams. e. Teams make sense for that organization.

ANSWER: e 43. Why does working in teams result in enhanced performance? a. Waste and errors are spread across multiple individuals. b. Managers lower their performance standards. c. Team members spend less time in direct contact with customers. d. Teams pool individual efforts in new ways and strive for continuous improvement. e. Taller hierarchies improve communication processes.

ANSWER: d 44. Why do younger workers seem to benefit from team environments? a. Supervision in teams is increased. b. Workers receive higher wages in team environments. c. Individuals receive more recognition in team environments. d. Teams give them freedom to grow and manage themselves. e. Teams increase employees’ respect for authority.

ANSWER: d 45. Which of the following is NOT an example of cost reductions arising from team environments? a. Reduced absenteeism b. Reduced scrap c. Lower turnover d. Fewer errors e. Lower commitment ANSWER: e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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46. Which of the following is NOT an example of an organizational enhancement arising from team environments? a. Taller organizational hierarchy b. Quicker reaction c. Increased innovation d. Higher creativity e. Improved flexibility ANSWER: a 47. What is a relatively new role for managers in teams? a. Evaluator b. Low-level manager c. Team reviewer d. Technical specialist e. Facilitator ANSWER: e 48. Which of the following statements best reflects the costs of teams to organizations? a. Accepting the increased bureaucracy b. Accepting the loss of creativity c. Adapting to the changes d. Processing increased worker compensation claims e. Understanding the growing distance between employees and top management ANSWER: c 49. The positive benefits of a team-based environment include all of the following EXCEPT a. enhanced performance. b. employee benefits. c. organizational enhancements. d. reduced costs. e. All of these are benefits.

ANSWER: e 50. The cost of teams includes which of the following factors? a. Adapting to a slower process b. Accepting the loss of creativity c. Accepting the adverse impact on the bottom line d. Relying on a hierarchical structure e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 51. William is a member of a small group of employees from different work areas. They meet once each week in William’s office, primarily to discuss and make suggestions to address workplace issues. This group is a. a problem-solving team. b. a venture team. c. a virtual team. d. a global team. e. None of these are correct.

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ANSWER: a 52. A team that is comprised of members from different departments or functional areas is a. an interdisciplinary team. b. a virtual group. c. a cross-functional team. d. a problem-solving team. e. a quality circle.

ANSWER: c 53. The primary job of __________ is to create new products, processes, or businesses. a. interdisciplinary teams b. quality circles c. problem-solving teams d. work teams e. venture teams ANSWER: e 54. It can be difficult to develop a sense of community with a team that never actually meets together in the same room, which is called a a. virtual team. b. quality circle. c. cross-functional team. d. product development team. e. management team.

ANSWER: a 55. Which of the following is NOT an important leadership skill in a virtual project team or distance management situation? a. Building community among team members b. Leading with directness and focusing on abstract results c. Establishing a clear and motivating shared vision d. Communicating effectively and matching technology to the situation e. Coordinating and collaborating across organizational boundaries ANSWER: b 56. A team __________ is a written agreement among team members establishing ground rules about the team’s processes, roles, and responsibilities. a. outline b. commitment c. contract d. agreement e. quality circle ANSWER: c 57. The move toward a team-based format is often initiated and communicated to the entire organization by a. internal team leaders.

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b. the design team. c. top management. d. affinity groups. e. an outside consultant.

ANSWER: c 58. Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for dealing with the challenges of multicultural teams? a. One-on-one conferencing b. Adaptation c. Managerial intervention d. Exit e. Structural intervention ANSWER: a 59. __________ happens when people are motivated to look good to others and want to maintain a positive self-

image. a. Managerial intervention b. Social facilitation c. Groupthink d. Social loafing e. Group cohesiveness ANSWER: b 60. When choosing team members, which of the following abilities would you NOT specifically look for? a. Coerciveness b. Conflict resolution c. Collaborative problem-solving d. Self-management e. Communication ANSWER: a 61. An __________ is a person who engages in leadership activities but whose right to do so has not been

formally recognized. a. experienced manager b. informal specialist c. executive assistant d. informal leader e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 62. Videoconferencing, instant messaging, electric meetings, and even conference calls are considered

__________ technology. a. asynchronous b. futuristic c. team-specific d. ineffective Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. synchronous ANSWER: e 63. The start-up phase of team implementation includes which of the following? a. Frustration and confusion about the new situation b. Extreme confidence and cohesion c. Intense team loyalty d. Teams think of themselves as a unit e. Informational or “awareness” training ANSWER: e 64. In the __________ phase of team implementation, enthusiasm runs high and the anticipation of employees is quite positive. a. self-managing teams b. start-up c. leader-centered teams d. tightly formed teams e. reality and unrest ANSWER: b 65. During the __________ phase of team implementation, managers should provide encouragement, monitor performance, and sometimes protect teams from those who want to see the team fail. a. self-managing teams b. tightly formed teams c. leader-centered teams d. reality and unrest e. start-up ANSWER: d 66. During the __________ phase of team implementation, a team’s internal focus can become detrimental to other teams and to the organization as a whole. a. start-up b. reality and unrest c. tightly formed teams d. leader-center teams e. self-managing teams ANSWER: c 67. During the __________ phase of team implementation, teams usually long for a system that resembles the old organizational structure. a. tightly formed teams b. start-up c. leader-centered teams d. self-managing teams e. reality and unrest ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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68. During the __________ phase of team implementation, managers have withdrawn from the daily operations and are counseling teams. a. tightly formed teams b. start-up c. leader-centered teams d. self-managing teams e. reality and unrest ANSWER: d 69. The two essential issues that must not be overlooked when implementing teams are a. team performance and top management support. b. implementation and team performance. c. starting at the top and member loyalty. d. team performance and team motivation. e. team motivation and reward systems.

ANSWER: a 70. Shortly after implementation, team performance often __________ before returning to previous levels. a. fluctuates unpredictably b. ceases completely c. increases slightly d. declines e. dramatically increases ANSWER: d 71. If a team does not receive support from top management, which of the following is likely to occur? a. The team will perform well. b. The team will be diverse. c. The team will become self-managing. d. The team will adapt to a hierarchical structure. e. The team is not likely to succeed.

ANSWER: e 72. __________ is an essential component of all groups. a. Interaction b. Engaging in conflict c. Having a problem-solving goal d. Individuality e. Close physical proximity ANSWER: a 73. All of the following are key characteristics of a group EXCEPT a. there is interaction among group members. b. There are at least 10 group members in every group. c. there are at least 5 group members in every group. d. there is no opportunity for members to influence each other. e. All of these are correct.

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ANSWER: d 74. To be considered a “group,” it needs to be comprised of a. at least ten people. b. less than fifteen people. c. one person. d. five people. e. at least two people.

ANSWER: e 75. A new product development team would be considered which type of group? a. Friendship b. Interest c. Performance d. Virtual e. Venture ANSWER: e 76. Which of the following is categorized as a formal group? a. Interest b. Friendship c. Social d. Command e. Grapevine ANSWER: d 77. A group of department managers who meet periodically to establish corporate policy is an example of which type of group? a. Special project b. Friendship c. Virtual d. Interest e. Command ANSWER: e 78. __________ groups usually develop based on a common activity among group members. a. Friendship b. Task c. Affinity d. Interest e. Command ANSWER: d 79. __________ groups are always categorized as informal. a. Venture b. Interest c. Command Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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d. Global e. Virtual ANSWER: b 80. The audience at an Oprah Winfrey talk show is an example of __________ group. a. a special project b. a command c. a task d. a friendship e. an interest ANSWER: e 81. __________ groups always include members with different areas of expertise. a. Virtual b. Friendship c. Interest d. Cross-functional e. Global ANSWER: d 82. Employees who are part of a motorcycle riding club that meets outside of the organization is an example of which type of group? a. Task b. Interest c. Command d. Virtual e. Convenience ANSWER: b 83. Which of the following is a type of formal and relatively permanent group? a. Suggestion b. Friendship c. Interest d. Command e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 84. Which of the following is NOT a stage of group development? a. Control and organization b. Motivation and productivity c. Mutual acceptance d. Communication and decision making e. Friendship and social interaction ANSWER: e 85. Which of the following is the final stage of group development? a. Control and organization Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. Mutual acceptance c. Cohesiveness d. Homogeneity e. Conflict and reorganization ANSWER: a 86. Group members tend to express their views more openly in the __________ stage of group development. a. mutual acceptance b. communication and decision making c. productivity d. control and organization e. motivation ANSWER: b 87. In which stage of group development do members develop norms of behavior? a. Mutual acceptance b. Control and organization c. Communication and decision making d. Motivation and productivity e. Reformation ANSWER: d 88. In which stage is the group considered to be mature? a. Communication and decision making b. Motivation c. Productivity d. Mutual acceptance e. Control and organization ANSWER: e 89. Which of the following best describes the stages of group development? a. A group that fully evolves through the four stages of development usually is productive. b. As a group progresses through the stages of development it grows in size. c. The sequence of group development stages is set by the organization. d. Groups rarely go through more than one stage of development. e. Groups make choices about which stage of development to complete first.

ANSWER: a 90. Which of the following is one of the four basic factors that affect group performance? a. Escalation of commitment b. Groupthink c. Task deformation d. Composition e. Social loafing ANSWER: d 91. Group composition is Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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a. the sum of the activities of individuals. b. a set of expected behaviors associated with a position. c. usually described in terms of the homogeneity or heterogeneity of group members. d. two or more people interacting with and influencing each other. e. expected behavior or behavioral patterns.

ANSWER: c 92. A group is homogeneous if a. members are similar in one or several ways that are critical to the work of the group. b. the group is highly productive. c. two or more people interact with and influence each other. d. men and women are represented equally in the group. e. the organization allows the group a high degree of autonomy.

ANSWER: a 93. A homogeneous group tends to be less productive than a heterogeneous group in situations where a. group tasks are sequential. b. quick action is required. c. cooperation is needed. d. group tasks are simple. e. creativity is required.

ANSWER: e 94. Group norms result from a combination of all of the following, EXCEPT a. the task. b. the situation. c. the personality characteristics. d. the size of the group. e. the historical traditions of the group.

ANSWER: d 95. All of the following are true of large groups EXCEPT a. large groups have formalized interactions. b. large groups set agendas. c. large do not set many rules or regulations. d. large groups follow parliamentary procedures. e. large groups offer more social interactions.

ANSWER: c 96. All of the following are true regarding social loafing EXCEPT a. it is often a problem in very small groups. b. how much of a problem social loafing is depends in part on the nature of the task. c. it often results from the assumption that other members will pick up the slack. d. some members put forth less effort in a group. e. the amount of social loafing depends in part on the group leader’s awareness of it.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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97. Norms are a. a tendency toward a particular set of behaviors. b. a standard against which the appropriateness of a behavior is judged. c. the sum of the activities of individuals. d. two or more people interacting with and influencing each other. e. a set of expected behaviors associated with a position.

ANSWER: b 98. Which of the following is not one of the purposes of norms? a. Norms help the group avoid embarrassing situations. b. Norms simplify the behaviors of the group members. c. Norms help the group survive. d. Norms regulate group members’ thoughts and feelings. e. Norms express the central values of the group.

ANSWER: d 99. When cohesiveness is __________ and norms are highly compatible with organizational goals, productivity is the highest. a. low b. moderate c. high d. present e. fluctuating ANSWER: c 100. __________ cohesive groups will not necessarily be more productive in an organizational sense than groups with low cohesiveness. a. Somewhat b. Newly c. Strictly d. Highly e. Moderately ANSWER: d Completion 101. A group is comprised of two or more people who __________ with one another in such a way that each person is influenced by or influences another person.

ANSWER: interact 102. __________ groups are relatively permanent collections of employees from the same level in the organization who meet on a regular basis.

ANSWER: Affinity 103. Informal groups consist of friendship and __________ groups.

ANSWER: interest 104. The five group __________ are composition, size, norms, informal leadership, and cohesiveness.

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ANSWER: performance factors 105. Members usually begin to develop __________ of behavior during the communication and decision-making stage of group development.

ANSWER: norms 106. Group __________ describes the degree of similarity or difference among group members.

ANSWER: composition 107. A group is __________ if the members are different in one or several ways that are critical to the work.

ANSWER: heterogeneous 108. Some members of the group assume that if they do not work hard, other members of the group will pick up the slack.

This is known as __________.

ANSWER: social loafing 109. One of the purposes of group __________ is to simplify and make more predictable the behaviors expected of the group members.

ANSWER: norms 110. Successfully reaching goals often increases the __________ of a group because people are proud to be identified with a winner and to be thought of as competent and successful.

ANSWER: cohesiveness Essay 111. Describe the costs associated with changing to a team-based organization.

ANSWER: The costs of teams are usually expressed in terms of the difficulty of changing to a team-based organization.

Managers have expressed frustration and confusion about their new roles as coaches and facilitators, especially if they developed their managerial skills under the traditional hierarchical management philosophy.

Some managers have felt as if they were working themselves out of a job as they turned over more and more of their directing duties to a team. Employees may also feel like losers during the change to a team culture.

Some traditional staff groups, such as technical advisory staffs, may feel that their jobs are in jeopardy as teams do more and more of the technical work formerly done by technicians. New roles and pay scales may need to be developed for the technical staff in these situations. Another cost associated with teams is the slowness of the process of full team development. It takes a long time for teams to go through the full development cycle and become mature, efficient, and effective. Productivity may fall before the positive effects of the new team system kick in. If top management is impatient with the slow progress, teams may be disbanded, returning the organization to its original hierarchical form with significant losses for employees, managers, and the organization. Probably the most dangerous cost is premature abandonment of the change to a team-based organization. If top management gets impatient with the team change process and cuts it short, never allowing teams to develop fully and realize benefits, all the hard work of employees, middle managers, and supervisors is lost. As a result, employee confidence in management in general and in the decision makers in particular may suffer for a long time. The losses in productivity and efficiency will be very difficult to recoup. Management must therefore be fully committed before initiating a change to a team-based organization.

112. Which types of teams can typically operate as successful virtual teams? Provide support for your answer.

ANSWER: Virtual teams allow organizations to access the most qualified individuals for a particular job regardless of their location, enable organizations to respond faster to increased competition, and provide greater flexibility to individuals working from home or on the road. Answers will vary as to what types of teams might be successful as virtual teams. Venture teams and cross-functional teams are two probable responses.

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113. Describe the different types of formal and informal groups. Which groups do you consider to be most productive?

ANSWER: Workgroups are formal groups established by the organization to do its work. Workgroups include command (or functional) groups and affinity groups (as well as teams). A command group is relatively permanent and is characterized by functional reporting relationships such as having both a group manager and those who report to the manager. Command groups are usually included in the organization chart. Affinity groups are relatively permanent collections of employees from the same level in the organization who meet on a regular basis to share information, capture emerging opportunities, and solve problems. Whereas formal groups and teams are established by an organization, informal groups are formed by their members and consist of friendship groups, which are relatively permanent, and interest groups, which may be shorter-lived. Friendship groups arise out of cordial relationships among members and the enjoyment they get from being together. Interest groups are organized around a common activity or interest, although friendships may develop among members. Answers will vary as to which groups are most productive, although most will likely respond that command groups are the most productive.

114. Describe the various stages of group development. Provide examples.

ANSWER: Groups are not static, and when a new group or team is created it generally goes through some “growing pains” before it becomes fully functional. Traditional research on small groups per se (as opposed to teams) has focused on a four-stage development process: (1) mutual acceptance or forming, (2) communication and decision making or storming, (3) motivation and productivity or norming, and (4) control and organization or performing.

115. Describe the relationship between group composition and performance.

ANSWER: The composition of a group plays an important role in determining group productivity. Group composition is most often described in terms of the homogeneity or heterogeneity of the members. A group is homogeneous if the members are similar in one or several ways that are critical to the work of the group, such as in age, work experience, education, technical specialty, or cultural background. In heterogeneous groups, the members differ in one or more ways that are critical to the work of the group. Homogeneous groups often are created in organizations when people are assigned to command groups based on a similar technical specialty.

Although the people who work in such command groups may differ in some ways, such as in age or work experience, they are homogeneous in terms of a critical work performance variable: technical specialty. The group’s heterogeneity in terms of age and tenure with the group has been shown to be related to turnover: Groups with members of different ages and experiences with the group tend to experience frequent changes in membership. A homogeneous group is likely to be more productive when the group task is simple, cooperation is necessary, the group tasks are sequential, or quick action is required. A heterogeneous group is more likely to be productive when the task is complex, requires a collective effort (that is, each member does a different task, and the sum of these efforts constitutes the group output), demands creativity, and when speed is less important than thorough deliberations.

Matching Match each of the following descriptions with the type of group or team it most clearly illustrates. a. Five writers meet monthly over the Internet to discuss their current projects. b. A dental clinic wants to replace its paper-based record-keeping system with an electronic one. The head of the clinic puts together a team of IT professionals to choose which software system to buy and then implement it. c. Maxine, a technical writer, meets weekly with two other technical writers to discuss their current projects. d. Ivan meets with a group of coworkers every Friday after work to play a new Dungeons and Dragons campaign. e. Helga is part of a semi-autonomous team that develops new company products. f. Simon, a top human resources manager, meets weekly with managers from the information systems, product development, and accounting departments. g. Phyllis and a group of coworkers meet the first Monday of the month after work to participate in a book club discussion.

116. Problem-solving team Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: b 117. Interest group ANSWER: d 118. Friendship group ANSWER: g 119. Venture team ANSWER: e 120. Cross-functional team ANSWER: f 121. Virtual team ANSWER: a 122. Functional team ANSWER: c Match each of the following scenarios with the concept it most clearly illustrates. a. Dave doesn’t usually get along with the other members of his marketing team, but when a huge deadline is unexpectedly moved up a week, the team comes together, supports each other, and works together to get the project done. The experience brings them closer. b. Sarah knows that because her team has a lot of high achievers, she doesn’t have to volunteer for any of the extra tasks her team is assigned—somebody else will get them done. c. Dina is a math teacher. Although she is technically “just another teacher,” the respect that she commands from the other teachers usually means that projects won’t go through without her approval.

123. Informal leader ANSWER: c 124. Social loafing ANSWER: b 125. Group cohesiveness ANSWER: a

True / False 1. Decision making is the process of choosing one option from among several alternatives. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Nonprogrammed decisions require problem solving that identifies answers to unique questions or issues. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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3. Programmed decisions are common at higher levels of the organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Decisions in organizations can be classified according to their frequency and information conditions. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Decision rules are used to make programmed decisions. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. A decision about which company a conglomerate should buy is an example of a programmed decision. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. A nonprogrammed decision usually recurs often enough for decision rules to be developed. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. The decision maker who lacks enough information to estimate the probability of outcomes faces a condition of certainty. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. The rational decision-making process begins with the identification of a problem. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. The rational decision-making process assumes that managers follow an unsystematic, random process when evaluating alternatives. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 11. The rational model of decision making focuses on human behaviors and tendencies when evaluating the decisionmaking process. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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12. Post-decision dissonance refers to doubt about a choice that is about to be made. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 13. The final stage of the rational decision-making process involves implementing the decision. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. Contingency plans are mandatory alternative actions that must be taken if the originally planned course of action is unexpectedly disrupted or determined to be inappropriate. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. A crucial assumption of the behavioral approach to decision making is that decision makers operate with bounded rationality, meaning that real-world demands sometimes lead to a decision that is less-than-ideal and not always based on an exhaustive, rational process. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 16. Suboptimizing involves selecting the first acceptable solution that meets minimal requirements. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 17. The practical approach to decision making combines elements of both the administrative and behavioral approaches. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 18. Insight refers to a period of less intense conscious concentration during which knowledge and ideas are able to develop. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 19. Verification is the final step in the creative process. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 20. The creative process generally involves four steps that have to occur before a creative idea can be generated: suboptimatization, satisficing, coalition, and bounded reality. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: True 21. The Delphi technique is a method to systematically gather the judgments of experts who work closely together at a common worksite. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 22. Group polarization is the tendency for group members to converge on a common decision outcome or solution. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 23. Stereotyped views of leaders considered to be an enemy is one symptom of groupthink. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 24. In problem-solving tasks, groups usually develop more and better solutions than do individuals. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 25. In the nominal group technique, group members share their ideas with each other and then vote on them in private. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 26. The administrative model of decision making does not attempt to prescribe how managers should make decisions. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 27. Decision making is the process of a. finding the answer to a question. b. choosing one alternative from among several. c. staffing positions within the organizational hierarchy. d. motivating employees to pursue organizational goals. e. fixing problems that arise in the operations of the business.

ANSWER: b 28. A decision maker’s actions should be guided by a. personal opinions. b. a goal. c. an operating budget. d. interpersonal relationships.

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e. a code of honor.

ANSWER: b 29. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of programmed decisions? a. Information is readily available. b. Specific methods for handling them exist. c. They are highly structured. d. Judgment and creativity are the basis of solution. e. Goals are clear and well-known.

ANSWER: d 30. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of nonprogrammed decisions? a. The decisions are poorly structured. b. The problem situation is nonroutine. c. The consequences of decision making are far reaching. d. The decisions are rarely a responsibility of top management. e. Goals are often vague.

ANSWER: d 31. Decisions that recur infrequently and have no decision rules are __________ decisions. a. certain b. risk c. programmed d. nonprogrammed e. uncertain ANSWER: d 32. Nonprogrammed decisions are usually made by a. all employees within an organization. b. union workers. c. upper management. d. middle management. e. lower management.

ANSWER: c 33. One basis for making programmed decisions is a. a lack of information. b. a set of decision rules. c. creativity. d. movement. e. group formation.

ANSWER: b 34. Any time a customer voices a complaint about the way the food tastes, the restaurant manager always offers a complimentary meal. This represents a. a standard decision. b. a decision rule.

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c. a nonprogrammed decision. d. experience. e. cognitive dissonance.

ANSWER: b 35. Nonprogrammed decisions are most common at what level of the organization? a. Lower b. Top c. Lateral d. Subordinate e. Middle ANSWER: b 36. __________ decisions tend to involve situations that occur often in a company. a. Nonprogrammed b. Procedural c. Repetitive d. Major e. Programmed ANSWER: e 37. If a human resources manager estimates the probability that a certain percentage of employees will take advantage of a proposed benefit plan, the manager is operating under a condition of a. certainty. b. estimation. c. risk. d. uncertainty. e. rationalization.

ANSWER: c 38. What information condition lies between certainty and uncertainty in making decisions? a. Risk b. Coin tossing c. Problem solving d. Decision rules e. Guesswork ANSWER: a 39. The rational decision-making approach assumes decision makers a. have complete information. b. are objective. c. are systematic in their approach to decisions. d. work in an organization that encourages logical choices. e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 40. According to the rational decision-making approach, what is the second step of the decision-making process?

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a. Identify the problem b. Generate alternatives c. Evaluate alternatives d. State the situational goal e. Determine the decision type ANSWER: a 41. Which of the following represents the step of the rational decision-making approach in which the outcomes of the decision are compared to the desired goal? a. Analyze the decision b. Control: measure and adjust c. Determine the goal d. Collect data e. Analyze the situation ANSWER: b 42. An organizational decision maker assesses conditions of certainty, uncertainty, and risk during the process of a. stating the situational goal. b. identifying the problem. c. evaluating alternatives. d. generating alternatives. e. determining the decision type.

ANSWER: c 43. Jim is using the rational decision-making process to decide a course of action for the marketing department. While selecting a preferred alternative, a fellow worker asks, “What if something unexpected happens during the implementation of the alternative we have selected?” This type of question is an example of a. implementing the plan. b. developing marketing strategies. c. planning for contingencies. d. negative thinking. e. groupthink.

ANSWER: c 44. Contingency plans are a part of what phase of the decision-making process? a. Stating the goal b. Evaluating alternatives c. Choosing an alternative d. Implementation e. Alternative generation ANSWER: c 45. When __________ arises, a decision maker questions the decision made and searches for information to bolster it. a. post-decision uncertainty b. conflict reduction c. rationalization bias d. post-decision dissonance Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. positive reinforcement ANSWER: d 46. According to the rational decision-making approach, evaluating the alternatives a. puts the decision into action. b. involves assessing all possible alternatives. c. involves selecting an alternative with the highest payoff. d. is the most crucial step. e. diagnoses the problem.

ANSWER: b 47. The last step in the rational decision-making process is to a. create a contingency plan. b. determine the type of decision. c. evaluate alternatives. d. control: measure and adjust. e. implement the plan.

ANSWER: d 48. The behavioral approach to decision making is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT a. it uses procedures. b. it uses rules of thumb. c. it applies concepts of suboptimizing. d. it uses logic. e. it applies concepts of satisficing.

ANSWER: d 49. __________ refers to the inability of human beings to process an unlimited amount of information, causing most decisions to be made in a partially irrational manner. a. Post-decision dissonance b. Groupthink block c. Satisficing d. Bounded rationality e. Suboptimizing ANSWER: d 50. When applying concepts of __________, the decision maker knowingly accepts less than the best possible outcome. a. optimizing b. suboptimizing c. compromising d. satisficing e. narrowing ANSWER: b 51. The sales department at a local company determines that Product A will moderately boost sales and have a shorter production schedule, so it is decided that this product will be manufactured and sold without considering other options. In choosing this product, the sales department is Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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a. controlling. b. engaged in bounded rationality. c. suboptimizing. d. satisficing. e. using procedures and rules of thumb.

ANSWER: d 52. An innate belief about something without conscious consideration is called a. escalation of commitment. b. coalition. c. intuition. d. groupthink. e. self-reaction.

ANSWER: c 53. Jim purchases stock in a public company and refuses to sell it even after their repeated drops from the original price.

Jim has decided to purchase more of the stock, anticipating he will make a profit. This is an example of a. organizational delusion. b. problem misidentification. c. escalation of commitment. d. groupthink. e. suboptimizing.

ANSWER: c 54. Managers who are cautious and try to adhere to the rational decision-making model a. are more likely to make mistakes. b. frequently make decisions that lead to big losses. c. have a lower risk propensity than other managers. d. frequently make decisions that lead to big successes. e. suffer from bounded rationality.

ANSWER: c 55. __________ is the extent to which a decision maker is willing to gamble when making a decision. a. Individual ethics b. Risk propensity c. Individual stressors d. Organizational culture e. Leadership style ANSWER: b 56. A person’s beliefs about what constitutes right and wrong behavior are called a. hypervigilance. b. ethics. c. self-reactions. d. rationalizations. e. escalation of commitment.

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ANSWER: b 57. Which of the following does NOT accurately describe the nature of ethical dilemmas? a. They may center on direct personal gain. b. They may center on indirect personal gain. c. They may center on risk propensity. d. They may center on simple personal preferences. e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 58. According to research, the common attributes of creative individuals include which of the following? a. Being forced to work at a very young age b. Living in a highly developed country c. Changing basic personality attributes as a teenager d. Being raised in an environment that nurtured creativity e. Having fewer brothers and sisters ANSWER: d 59. Being able to see differences between situations, phenomena, or events is a creative ability called __________ thinking. a. referent b. convergent c. divergent d. emergent e. parallel ANSWER: c 60. The creative process normally begins with a period of a. verification. b. insight. c. incubation. d. preparation. e. application.

ANSWER: d 61. While driving home from a hard day at work, Susan finally realizes the solution to the problem she had been having with a certain customer. Susan just reached which stage of the creative process? a. Instigation b. Insight c. Incubation d. Verification e. Preparation ANSWER: b 62. One important method for enhancing creativity is to make it a part of the organization’s a. standard operating procedures. b. decision-making processes.

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c. culture. d. strategic plans. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 63. Which of the following includes conditions conducive to groupthink? a. Group cohesiveness, leader’s promotion of personal preferences, insulation from expert opinions b. Group cohesiveness, members’ promotion of personal preferences, best decision is goal c. Group cohesiveness, leader’s promotion of personal preferences, critical thinking urged d. Members’ promotion of personal preferences, best decision is goal, critical thinking urged e. Group cohesiveness, member’s promotion of personal preferences, insulation from expert opinions ANSWER: a 64. All of the following are symptoms of groupthink EXCEPT a. an illusion of invulnerability. b. collective efforts to rationalize or discount warnings. c. a lack of idea promotion from the group leader. d. stereotyped views of enemy leaders. e. direct pressure on members who present contrary views.

ANSWER: c 65. All of the following are features of group discussion that contribute to group polarization EXCEPT a. group members could take an extreme view of an opinion. b. task uncertainty can be impacted by the decision. c. persuasive arguments can encourage polarization. d. members may feel they are not individually responsible. e. members will accept a more radical decision from their own.

ANSWER: b 66. Which of the following statements about brainstorming is false? a. It’s used in the idea generation phase of decision making. b. Members present ideas and clarify them. c. Ideas are recorded in secret. d. Ideas are recorded on a flip chart. e. It does not provide resolution to the problem.

ANSWER: c 67. All of the following are used in the nominal group technique of decision making EXCEPT a. individuals convene to address an issue. b. the issue is described to the group. c. each proposed idea must be wholly original. d. initially, no discussion among the members is permitted. e. members take turns reporting their ideas.

ANSWER: c 68. The Delphi technique is designed for use by groups that a. are very large.

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b. are very small. c. do not meet face-to-face. d. have suffered from groupthink in the past. e. are familiar with the rules of brainstorming.

ANSWER: c 69. According to the rational decision-making approach, what is the fifth step of the decision-making process? a. Identify the problem b. Generate alternatives c. Evaluate alternatives d. State the situational goal e. Determine the decision type ANSWER: c 70. According to the rational decision-making approach, what is the fourth step of the decision-making process? a. Identify the problem b. Generate alternatives c. Evaluate alternatives d. State the situational goal e. Determine the decision type ANSWER: b 71. According to the rational decision-making approach, what is the third step of the decision-making process? a. Identify the problem b. Generate alternatives c. Evaluate alternatives d. State the situational goal e. Determine the decision type ANSWER: e 72. According to the rational decision-making approach, what is the first step of the decision-making process? a. Identify the problem b. Generate alternatives c. Evaluate alternatives d. State the situational goal e. Determine the decision type ANSWER: d 73. Being able to see similarities between situations, phenomena, or events is a creative ability called __________ thinking. a. referent b. convergent c. divergent d. emergent e. parallel ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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74. The second step of the creative process is a. verification. b. insight. c. incubation. d. preparation. e. application.

ANSWER: c 75. The third step of the creative process is a. verification. b. insight. c. incubation. d. preparation. e. application.

ANSWER: b 76. The fourth step of the creative process is a. verification. b. insight. c. incubation. d. preparation. e. application.

ANSWER: a 77. According to prospect theory, people are more motivated by a. the threat of losing something than by the prospect of gaining something. b. the prospect of gaining something than by the threat of losing something. c. internal values than by external rewards. d. external rewards than by internal values. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 78. In __________, the decision maker examines alternatives only until a solution that meets minimal requirements is found. a. optimizing b. suboptimizing c. compromising d. satisficing e. narrowing ANSWER: d 79. A __________ is an informal alliance of individuals or groups formed to achieve a common goal. a. group b. coalition c. team d. collective e. workshop Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: b 80. Satisficing refers to making a __________ rather than an optimal decision. a. rational b. short-term c. correct d. long-term e. satisfactory ANSWER: e 81. Which of the following is true about intuition? a. It is largely arbitrary. b. It evolves over time. c. It’s not based on rationality. d. It’s similar to guessing. e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: b 82. Which of the following terms refers to the tendency of people to make more extreme decisions in a group than when alone? a. Brainstorming b. Groupthink c. Escalation of commitment d. Group polarization e. Risk propensity ANSWER: d 83. What mode of thinking occurs when people are deeply involved in a cohesive in-group and members’ strivings for unanimity override their motivation to realistically appraise alternative courses of action? a. Brainstorming b. Groupthink c. Escalation of commitment d. Group polarization e. Risk propensity ANSWER: b 84. In the study of groupthink, which of the following terms refers to self-appointed members who shield the group from conflicting information? a. Group rationalizers b. Group poles c. Risky shifters d. Self-censors e. Mindguards ANSWER: e 85. When groupthink occurs, silence is viewed as agreement. This most directly contributes to the a. shared illusion of invulnerability.

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b. shared illusion of unanimity. c. stereotyped views of “enemy” leaders. d. unquestioned belief in the group’s inherent morality. e. collective efforts to rationalize or dismiss warnings.

ANSWER: b 86. To help prevent groupthink, leaders should assign the role of __________ to each group member to allow each member to freely voice objections and doubts. a. warning dismisser b. risky shifter c. unquestioned believer d. mindguard e. critical evaluator ANSWER: e 87. Which of the following is true about brainstorming? a. The number of ideas should be limited. b. Ideas should be criticized and judged quickly. c. Ideas should not be written down. d. Implausible ideas should not be suggested. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 88. Which of the following is a structured variation of a small-group discussion to reach consensus? a. Prospect theory b. Brainstorming c. Delphi technique d. Nominal group technique e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 89. The Delphi technique uses which of the following to gather opinions from experts? a. Conference calls b. Group meetings c. Interviews d. Questionnaires e. Stream-of-consciousness journals ANSWER: d 90. The Delphi technique is a useful way to gather opinions from experts who a. have trouble communicating because of opinion differences. b. desire anonymity. c. are physically dispersed and live far away from each other. d. All of these are correct. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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91. Creative thinking is enhanced by which of the following? a. Attraction to complexity b. High levels of energy c. Intelligence d. Openness e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 92. The risk of groupthink may be curbed by increasing the __________ of senior management. a. homogeneity b. size c. male-to-female ratio d. diversity e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 93. Which of the following terms refers to the act of persisting with a failing course of action? a. Brainstorming b. Groupthink c. Escalation of commitment d. Group polarization e. Risk propensity ANSWER: c 94. Which of the following is typically NOT a difficult managerial decision? a. Opening a business b. Deciding which new product to launch c. Buying or selling a business d. Hiring and firing e. Creating work schedules ANSWER: e 95. It is possible for the same decision to be __________ for an experienced manager and nonprogrammed for a more junior manager. a. tactical b. strategic c. risky d. programmed e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 96. Nonprogrammed decisions require managers to use __________ rather than decision rules. a. strict rules b. ambiguity c. creativity d. relaxed rules Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. strategic thinking ANSWER: c 97. When making programmed decisions, the information needed to make this decision is __________, and the problem is highly structured. a. readily available b. not readily available c. highly confusing d. very technical e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 98. Which of the following is NOT a category of prescriptions for preventing groupthink? a. Process prescriptions b. Individual prescriptions c. Leader prescriptions d. Group prescriptions e. Organizational prescriptions ANSWER: d 99. A group member who discusses group deliberations with an expert outsider and reports his or her findings to the group is most likely trying to prevent a. brainstorming. b. groupthink. c. escalation of commitment. d. group polarization. e. risk propensity.

ANSWER: b Completion 100. __________ decisions are well structured, recurring, and made according to decision rules.

ANSWER: Programmed 101. A __________ decision involves a nonroutine, poorly structured problem and cannot be made with existing decision rules.

ANSWER: nonprogrammed 102. Alternative courses of action that can be taken if the primary course of action is unexpectedly disrupted or rendered inappropriate are called __________ plans.

ANSWER: contingency 103. One of the strengths of the __________to decision making is that it forces the decision maker to consider a decision in a logical, sequential manner, and the in-depth analysis of alternatives enables the decision maker to choose on the basis of information rather than emotion or social pressure.

ANSWER: rational approach 104. Post-decision __________ refers to the doubt, tension, or regret that often follows making a decision when more than one alternative was attractive.

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ANSWER: dissonance 105. Examining alternatives only until a solution that meets minimal requirements is found and then ceasing to look for a better one is called __________.

ANSWER: satisficing 106. __________ is knowingly accepting less than the best possible outcome.

ANSWER: Suboptimizing 107. __________ is a person’s ability to generate new ideas or to conceive of new perspectives on existing ideas.

ANSWER: Creativity 108. When using the __________ group technique, group members follow a generate-discuss-vote cycle until they reach a decision.

ANSWER: nominal 109. The __________ technique is a decision-making method designed for groups that do not meet face-to-face.

ANSWER: Delphi Matching Match each of the following situations with the stage of the rational approach to decision making it most clearly illustrates. a. Bob looks up business school rankings to determine which schools would consider his GPA and GMAT score to be competitive. b. Bob decides which business schools he would like to attend. c. If he is not accepted at any of the business schools he applied to Bob will try to retake the GMAT in an effort to increase his score, and he will apply again next year. d. Bob completes and sends out applications to the business schools he would like to attend. e. Bob wants to go to a good business school. f. After determining which high-quality schools he has a likely chance of being accepted at, Bob uses a combination of factors, including price, location, and teacher ratings, to compare them.

110. State the goal ANSWER: e 111. Choose an alternative ANSWER: b 112. Generate alternatives ANSWER: a 113. Evaluate alternatives ANSWER: f 114. Devise a contingency plan ANSWER: c 115. Implement the plan ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Match each of the following situations with the concept it most clearly illustrates. a. Hugh needs to buy a new laptop. He searches online until he finds the first laptop that fits his price and performance needs, and then he immediately buys it. b. Kevin has been working on a new product team, and there have been design problems with the product from the start, but because the team has already invested so much in the project, he is determined to stick with the original design of the product. c. Nina completes her weekly report, but something seems off, so she reviews it again. d. Simone knows that the laptop she is about to buy from the electronics store is both more expensive and of lower quality than a laptop she could buy online. However, she desperately needs a laptop immediately, so she goes ahead with the purchase.

116. Escalation of commitment ANSWER: b 117. Satisficing ANSWER: a 118. Suboptimizing ANSWER: d 119. Intuition ANSWER: c Essay 120. Compare and contrast programmed and nonprogrammed decisions. Give an example of each type of decision.

ANSWER: The frequency of recurrence determines whether a decision is programmed or nonprogrammed. A programmed decision recurs often enough for decision rules to be developed. A decision rule tells decision makers which alternative to choose once they have predetermined information about the decision situation.

The appropriate decision rule is used whenever the same situation is encountered. Programmed decisions usually are highly structured; that is, the goals are clear and well known, the decision-making procedure is already established, and the sources and channels of information are clearly defined. Airlines make programmed decisions when an airplane breaks down and cannot be used on a particular flight. When a problem or decision situation has not been encountered before, however, a decision maker cannot rely on previously established decision rules. Such a decision is called a nonprogrammed decision, and it requires problem solving. Problem solving is a special form of decision making in which the issue is unique—it often requires developing and evaluating alternatives without the aid of a decision rule. An example of a nonprogrammed decision would be a restaurant deciding to close down temporarily if bacteria are discovered in its facility.

121. Discuss the various steps of the rational decision-making process. Apply each step to either a personal or professional decision.

ANSWER: The steps of the rational approach to decision making are as follows: (1) State the situational goal, (2) identify the problem, (3) determine the decision type, (4) generate alternatives, (5) evaluate alternatives, (6) choose an alternative (while also considering contingency plans), (7) implement the plan, (8) control: measure and adjust.

An example of using these steps to make a decision would be as follows: A marketing department has a goal of obtaining a 50percent market share for a new video game by the end of the year. The department will gather information about its actual market share and then compare it to the desired 50percent goal. A programmed marketing decision may be needed if analysis reveals that competitors are outspending the company on print advertising. Next, the marketing department will need to find alternatives for increasing its market share. The marketing department must describe the benefits of each alternative, evaluate the costs of each alternative, and estimate the uncertainties and risks of each alternative. Managers of the department must select the alternative Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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with the highest possible payoff. The marketing manager should assign the project to a work group or task force. Finally, the department must constantly monitor market research data and compare its new market share to the desired 50percent market share.

122. Describe the administrative model of decision making. Provide examples.

ANSWER: The behavioral approach acknowledges the role and importance of human behavior in the decision-making process. One view of behavioral decision making is the administrative model, which argues that managers use bounded rationality, rules of thumb, suboptimizing, and satisficing in making decisions. In addition to those behavioral elements identified in the administrative model, the manager should also be aware of other behavioral forces that can affect decision making as well. These include political forces, intuition, escalation of commitment, risk propensity, and ethics. Prospect theory is also relevant.

123. Discuss the factors that contribute to a person’s creativity.

ANSWER: Numerous researchers have focused their efforts on attempting to describe the common attributes of creative individuals. These attributes generally fall into three categories: background experiences, personal traits, and cognitive abilities. Researchers have observed that many creative individuals were raised in an environment in which creativity was nurtured. Certain personal traits have also been linked to creativity in individuals. The traits shared by most creative people are openness, an attraction to complexity, high levels of energy, independence and autonomy, strong self-confidence, and a strong belief that one is, in fact, creative. Cognitive abilities are an individual’s power to think intelligently and to analyze situations and data effectively.

Intelligence may be a precondition for individual creativity—but, although most creative people are highly intelligent, not all intelligent people necessarily are creative.

124. Discuss the primary conditions that foster the development of groupthink. Outline at least four symptoms of a group in which groupthink has taken hold.

ANSWER: Groupthink is “a mode of thinking that people engage in when they are deeply involved in a cohesive ingroup, and when the members’ strivings for unanimity override their motivation to realistically appraise alternative courses of action.” The three primary conditions that foster the development of groupthink are cohesiveness, the leader’s promotion of his or her preferred solution, and insulation of the group from experts’ opinions. A group in which groupthink has taken hold exhibits eight well-defined symptoms: 1. An illusion of invulnerability, shared by most or all members, that creates excessive optimism and encourages extreme risk taking.

2. Collective efforts to rationalize or discount warnings that might lead members to reconsider assumptions before recommitting themselves to past policy decisions.

3. An unquestioned belief in the group’s inherent morality, inclining members to ignore the ethical and moral consequences of their decisions.

4. Stereotyped views of “enemy” leaders as too evil to warrant genuine attempts to negotiate or as too weak or stupid to counter whatever risky attempts are made to defeat their purposes.

5. Direct pressure on a member who expresses strong arguments against any of the group’s stereotypes, illusions, or commitments, making clear that such dissent is contrary to what is expected of loyal members.

6. Self-censorship of deviations from the apparent group consensus, reflecting each member’s inclination to minimize the importance of his or her doubts and counterarguments.

7. A shared illusion of unanimity, resulting partly from self-censorship of deviations, augmented by the false assumption that silence means consent.

8. The emergence of self-appointed “mindguards,” members who protect the group from adverse information that might shatter their shared complacency about the effectiveness and morality of their decisions.

True / False 1. Communication does not mean always agreeing with another person. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: True 2. One of the key purposes of organizational communication is to share information with members of the organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Words and gestures mean the same thing across cultures. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Manuals are the most common form of written communication in organizations. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. All communication in the workplace is considered formal communication. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. The eyes are an important component of nonverbal communication. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Nonverbal communication refers to anything not spoken, but it can include things that are written. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Transmission is the process by which a message is translated from an idea or thought into transmittable symbols. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Decoding is the process through which the symbols that represent the message are sent to the receiver. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. Noise can occur at any time in the communication process. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Jargon is a specialized or technical language used in a particular trade, profession, or social group.

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a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. Verification that the message has been understood correctly occurs during the feedback portion of communication. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. The “grapevine” is a formal, organization-sanctioned channel of communication. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. Managers should always try to avoid engaging in or listening to office gossip, whenever possible. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. When managers engage in cross-cultural communication, implied verbal and nonverbal cues are not very important, as they will not typically impact how a message is understood by either party involved in the communication. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 16. Communication is defined as a. a technical process that involves the transmission of data. b. a social process that involves information exchange. c. one person talking to another. d. organizational memos. e. gathering meaning to gain a strategic advantage.

ANSWER: b 17. __________ communication takes place informally, such as during task activities and throughout meetings. a. Group b. Oral c. Environmental d. Secondary e. Primary ANSWER: b 18. All of the following are examples of oral communication in organizations EXCEPT a. a telephone call. b. reading a manual out loud to coworkers. c. discussing a task.

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d. sending a memo to colleagues. e. a conversation on cell phones.

ANSWER: d 19. Physical movements and body language are forms of a. communication medium. b. physical communication. c. personal communication. d. nonverbal communication. e. visual communication.

ANSWER: d 20. All of the following are examples of body language EXCEPT a. smiling. b. frowning. c. shouting. d. making eye contact. e. sitting back with arms folded.

ANSWER: c 21. All of the following are forms of nonverbal communication EXCEPT a. a pat on the shoulder. b. giving a speech. c. frowning. d. plush carpeting. e. the layout of office furniture.

ANSWER: b 22. Which of the following does NOT describe a typical characteristic that occurs during the social process of communication? a. It requires face-to-face interaction. b. It allows information exchange. c. It is not an instantaneous event. d. It involves two or more people. e. It takes place over time.

ANSWER: a 23. __________ is the process by which the receiver of a message interprets its meaning. a. Communication b. Language c. Feedback d. Encoding e. Decoding ANSWER: e 24. The __________ refers to an individual, group, or organization that is interested in conveying a particular message to another party.

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a. channel b. receiver c. noise generator d. decoder e. sender ANSWER: e 25. __________ refers to difficulties in the communication process that might arise due to some type of interference or distortion that occurs during transmission of a message, resulting in disruption of the communication process. a. Feedback b. Decoding c. Noise d. Encoding e. Channel ANSWER: c 26. The feedback phase of the communication begins when the __________ the message. a. receiver decodes b. sender encodes c. the receiver understands d. the initial sender translates e. the receiver responds to ANSWER: e 27. Which of the following statements about feedback is false? a. Feedback can be simple or complex. b. Feedback can be written or oral but not nonverbal. c. Feedback verifies whether the message was received. d. Feedback is initiated by the receiver. e. Feedback verifies whether the message was understood.

ANSWER: b 28. Ivan is trying to understand the concern of an angry customer, but several employees keep interrupting the conversion.

These interruptions are an example of a. static. b. feedback. c. miscommunication. d. noise. e. channel deficiency.

ANSWER: d 29. For effective communication to take place, both parties must a. decode the manager’s message. b. eliminate nonverbal cues. c. instantaneously exchange information. d. communicate face to face. e. attach the same meaning to symbols used in the message.

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ANSWER: e 30. __________ communication typically consists of messages about how to do a job, performance goals, the firm’s policies, and how the company is performing. a. Quick b. Horizontal c. Slow d. Upward e. Downward ANSWER: e 31. Upward communication usually provides feedback to a. subordinates. b. peers. c. managers. d. customers. e. entry-level and transfer employees.

ANSWER: c 32. Which of the following is NOT a receiver-based barrier to communication? a. A receiver records the message for further review. b. A receiver discounts a message based on speaker credibility. c. A receiver experiences information overload. d. A receiver’s translation differs from the original. e. A receiver bases attention level on values ANSWER: a 33. __________ is the portion of communication that enables a receiver to indicate receipt and understanding of a message. a. Encoding b. Decoding c. Noise d. Symbolism e. Feedback ANSWER: e 34. The medium used to send information is called the a. decoder. b. encoder. c. channel. d. message. e. feedback.

ANSWER: c 35. __________ communication is neither spoken nor written yet has meaning to others. a. Decoded b. Encoded Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. Noisy d. Verbal e. Nonverbal ANSWER: e 36. __________ is a movement such as a gesture or expression that conveys information to others. a. Noisy language b. Sign language c. Body language d. Nonverbal communication e. Verbal communication ANSWER: c 37. __________ refers to the emphasis given to spoken words and phrases. a. Nonverbal intonation b. Verbal intonation c. Body language d. Nonverbal communication e. Verbal communication ANSWER: b 38. In __________, the sender communicates a message without expecting or getting any feedback from the receiver. a. nonverbal communication b. verbal communication c. one-way communication d. two-way communication e. body language ANSWER: c 39. Once a receiver provides feedback to a sender, the sender and receiver have engaged in a. nonverbal communication. b. verbal communication. c. one-way communication. d. two-way communication. e. body language.

ANSWER: d 40. Which of the following types of task interdependence occurs when employees work independently and their output is combined into group output? a. Verbal interdependence b. Nonverbal interdependence c. Reciprocal interdependence d. Sequential interdependence e. Pooled interdependence ANSWER: e 41. Which of the following types of task interdependence requires that tasks be performed in a certain order?

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a. Verbal interdependence b. Nonverbal interdependence c. Reciprocal interdependence d. Sequential interdependence e. Pooled interdependence ANSWER: d 42. Which of the following types of task interdependence requires constant communication and mutual adjustment for task completion? a. Verbal interdependence b. Nonverbal interdependence c. Reciprocal interdependence d. Sequential interdependence e. Pooled interdependence ANSWER: c 43. Which of the following types of task interdependence has the fewest communication requirements? a. Verbal interdependence b. Nonverbal interdependence c. Reciprocal interdependence d. Sequential interdependence e. Pooled interdependence ANSWER: e 44. Which of the following types of task interdependence has the most communication requirements? a. Verbal interdependence b. Nonverbal interdependence c. Reciprocal interdependence d. Sequential interdependence e. Pooled interdependence ANSWER: c 45. Which of the following occurs when we interpret what we see based on our interests, expectations, experience, and attitudes rather than on how things really are? a. Misperception b. Selective perception c. Filtering d. Information overload e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: b 46. Which of the following occurs when a message is not decoded by the receiver in the way the sender intended? a. Misperception b. Selective perception c. Filtering d. Information overload e. None of these are correct.

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ANSWER: a 47. Which of the following occurs when less than the full amount of information is received due to withholding, ignoring, or distorting information? a. Misperception b. Selective perception c. Filtering d. Information overload e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 48. Which of the following occurs when the amount of information available exceeds our ability to process it? a. Misperception b. Selective perception c. Filtering d. Information overload e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 49. In a _________ culture, people rely on the words themselves to carry meaning. a. collectivistic b. closed c. low-context d. high-context e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 50. In a _________ culture, people rely on nonverbal or situational cues to convey meaning. a. collectivistic b. closed c. low-context d. high-context e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 51. In a _________ culture, if an employee asks a manager for a raise and the answer is no, the manager might say, “That could be difficult.” a. collectivistic b. closed c. low-context d. high-context e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 52. In a _________ culture, if an employee asks a manager for a raise and the answer is no, the manager might explicitly say no. a. collectivistic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. closed c. low-context d. high-context e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 53. Which of the following types of noise refers to the total failure of the medium being used for communication, such as a dropped phone call or disconnected Internet connection? a. Jargon b. Semantics c. Loss of transmission d. Ambiguity e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 54. Which of the following types of noise occurs when there is more than one way to interpret the sender’s message? a. Jargon b. Semantics c. Loss of transmission d. Ambiguity e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 55. Which of the following types of noise occurs when overly technical language prevents the receiver from understanding the message? a. Jargon b. Semantics c. Loss of transmission d. Ambiguity e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 56. Which of the following type of noise is likely to disrupt the communication process when a sender and receiver seem to attach different meanings to the same word? a. Jargon b. Semantics c. Loss of transmission d. Ambiguity e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: b 57. Being involved in the process of listening, focusing closely on what others in the communication process are saying, and responding to the speaker by seeking clarification to unclear messages, when needed, is called a. passive listening. b. active listening. c. hearing. d. feedback.

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e. decoding.

ANSWER: b 58. Which of the following is NOT recommended in order to become a better listener? a. Repeatedly make logical connections between what the speaker has said. b. Offer speakers honest, clear, timely, respectful, and relevant acknowledgment of what the speaker has said. c. Give speakers clear nonverbal evidence that you are listening attentively. d. Give speakers clear verbal evidence that you are listening attentively. e. Never react to unusual or inconsistent communication cues from the speaker.

ANSWER: e 59. Which of the following is NOT suggested as a guideline to develop more effective writing skills? a. Footnote any ideas, phrases, sentences, and terms that are not your own. b. Back up your assertions with statistics, examples, and citation of authorities. c. Write with energy and conviction. Avoid passive voice. d. Use graphic aids and pictures to highlight and express ideas. e. Write to impress as well as to express.

ANSWER: e 60. Which of the following is NOT suggested as a guideline to more effectively use email as a channel of communication in the workplace? a. Avoid unprofessional email addresses. b. Avoid using email for delivering personal news. c. Avoid concise subject lines d. Avoid using “reply all” and “cc” unless absolutely necessary. e. Avoid criticizing others via email.

ANSWER: c 61. Which of the following is NOT recommended as a guideline to give more effective presentations in the workplace? a. Spend some time establishing rapport with the audience. b. End with a bang. c. Rely on notes as little as possible. d. Channel nervous energy into enthusiasm. e. Pace back and forth while making eye contact with the audience.

ANSWER: e 62. Which of the following is NOT recommended as a guideline to conduct more effective meetings in the workplace? a. If interpersonal issues come up, dismiss them as quickly as possible. b. Require that participants come prepared to discuss the agenda. c. Do not overprepare; look up information on the fly to keep the meeting fresh. d. If at all possible, try not to have meetings in the first place. e. State a time frame at the beginning of the meeting and stick to it at all costs.

ANSWER: c 63. The Internet allows people to access only the information they want, a broadcast technique called a. data mining. b. data processing.

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c. information pull. d. information push. e. information overload.

ANSWER: c 64. Giving people information that they did not ask for is a broadcast technique called a. data mining. b. data processing. c. information pull. d. information push. e. information overload.

ANSWER: d 65. Which technology began as an informal communication channel but has since evolved into a primary and formal means of business correspondence for many organizations? a. Voice mail b. Email c. Instant messaging d. Videoconferencing e. Post-it notes ANSWER: b 66. Which technology allows workgroups and teams to share information using planning tools and an online meeting site? a. Collaboration software b. Email c. Instant messaging d. Videoconferencing e. Telework ANSWER: a 67. Which technology is a type of centralized information clearinghouse? a. Voice mail b. Collaboration software c. Intranets d. Videoconferencing e. Telework ANSWER: c 68. Which of the following allows organizations to reduce the amount of office space they own or rent and decreases employees’ need to travel to an office outside of their home? a. Informal communication b. Formal communication c. Instant messaging d. Email e. Telecommuting ANSWER: e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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69. What term refers to a website stored on a computer that is connected to other company computers by an internal network? a. Internet b. Intranet c. Extranet d. Collaboration software e. World Wide Web ANSWER: b 70. What term refers to a live or prerecorded video segment that is broadcast over a company’s intranet and archived for employees to view later? a. Blog b. Portal c. Webcast d. Podcast e. Wiki ANSWER: c 71. What term refers to a searchable, archivable website that allows people to comment on and edit one another’s work in real time? a. Blog b. Portal c. Webcast d. Podcast e. Wiki ANSWER: e 72. What term refers to an individual’s chronicles of personal thoughts and interests and can function as an online diary? a. Blog b. Portal c. Webcast d. Podcast e. Wiki ANSWER: a 73. The level of communication __________ in a particular medium reflects the extent to which it can carry nonverbal cues, provide rapid feedback, convey personality traits, and support the use of natural language. a. effectiveness b. richness c. technological advancement d. realism e. clarity ANSWER: b 74. The __________ of a communication medium reflects the speed at which it lets the receiver provide feedback. a. adaptability b. personal focus Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. language variety d. ability to transmit multiple cues e. interactivity ANSWER: e 75. A communication medium that allows the speaker to convey physical presence, voice inflection, nonverbal cues, and pictures is said to have high a. adaptability. b. personal focus. c. language variety. d. ability to transmit multiple cues. e. interactivity.

ANSWER: d 76. A communication medium that allows the speaker to convey a broad set of concepts and ideas is said to have high a. adaptability. b. personal focus. c. language variety. d. ability to transmit multiple cues. e. interactivity.

ANSWER: c 77. A communication medium that allows the speaker to express emotions and social cues is said to have a high a. adaptability. b. personal focus. c. language variety. d. ability to transmit multiple cues. e. interactivity.

ANSWER: b 78. Which of the following communication media has the highest level of media richness? a. Telephone b. Formal written correspondence c. Email d. Videoconferencing e. Instant messaging ANSWER: d 79. Which of the following communication media has the lowest level of media richness? a. Telephone b. Formal written correspondence c. Email d. Videoconferencing e. Instant messaging ANSWER: b

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80. __________ communication occurs when higher-level employees communicate to those at lower levels in the organization. a. Upward b. Downward c. Horizontal d. Diagonal e. Formal ANSWER: b 81. __________ communication occurs when lower-level employees communicate to those at higher levels in the organization. a. Upward b. Downward c. Horizontal d. Diagonal e. Formal ANSWER: a 82. __________ communication occurs when someone in an organization communicates with others at the same organizational level. a. Upward b. Downward c. Horizontal d. Diagonal e. Formal ANSWER: c 83. __________ communication occurs when employees communicate across departments and levels. a. Upward b. Downward c. Horizontal d. Diagonal e. Formal ANSWER: d 84. __________ communication includes official, organization-sanctioned communications. a. Written b. Oral c. Informal d. Formal e. Diagonal ANSWER: d 85. __________ communication includes communication that is not official, such as gossip or another employee’s question about how to do something. a. Written b. Oral Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. Informal d. Formal e. Diagonal ANSWER: c 86. Formal communication does NOT include which of the following types of workplace communication? a. Upward b. Downward c. Horizontal d. Diagonal e. Any of these can be formal communications.

ANSWER: e 87. The set of relationships among people connected through friendship, family, work, or other ties is referred to as a. an organization. b. a social networking site. c. a social network. d. formal communication. e. informal communication.

ANSWER: c 88. In much of the world, the thumb-up sign means ‘okay’. But in Nigeria, Afghanistan, Iran, and parts of Italy and Greece, it is an obscene insult and carries the same meaning as the middle finger in the United States. This is an example of which of the following types of communication barrier? a. Misperception b. Filtering c. Cultural d. Jargon e. Semantics ANSWER: c 89. Employees checking their cell phones and whispering to each other during a meeting are causing which of the following types of communication noise? a. Misperception b. Selective perception c. Filtering d. Competition e. Jargon ANSWER: d 90. Which of the following lead to effective meetings? a. Listen attentively and nod occasionally b. Give a firm handshake c. Use an agenda d. Engage in multitasking e. Greet everyone when they enter the room ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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91. What term refers to work completed by traveling employees who use technology to communicate with the office as necessary from places such as client offices, airports, cars, and hotels? a. Mobile work b. Personal work c. Home-based work d. Neighborhood work e. Traditional work ANSWER: a 92. __________ is the richest communication medium because it has the capacity for immediate feedback, carries multiple cues, and uses natural language. a. Instant messaging b. Email c. Telephone d. Face-to-face e. Walkie-talkie ANSWER: d 93. On the media richness scale, videoconferencing is __________ in feedback availability and high in language variety. a. low b. moderate c. variable d. fluctuating e. high ANSWER: e 94. Employees who telecommute typically __________ in the corporate office, compared to those who do not telecommute. a. spend less time b. spend more time c. spend the same amount of time d. sometimes spend more time e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 95. __________ ties refer to relationships with coworkers, bosses, and others we know because of the roles we hold. a. Lateral b. Horizontal c. Diagonal d. Informal e. Formal ANSWER: e 96. Relationships based on friendship and choice are referred to as _________ ties. a. organizational b. fraternal Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. community d. informal e. formal ANSWER: d 97. Gustav, an entry-level employee, feels his manager holds him to a much higher standard than others in the department.

He sees Gladys, a manager in another department, in the hall, and he stops to ask her for advice about how to deal with what he perceives to be unfair treatment from his manager. This is an example of which of the following types of communication? a. Lateral b. Downward c. Horizontal d. Diagonal e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 98. Pam, a human resources manager, is frustrated that the company’s slow computer network seems to be hurting overall productivity in the company. She schedules a meeting with Vladimir, a digital technology manager in the company, to discuss the problem and try to develop some solutions. This is an example of which of the following types of communication? a. Upward b. Downward c. Horizontal d. Diagonal e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 99. Mary thinks her new employee, Zane, is doing a great job. She schedules a meeting with him to discuss his performance to day, during his first few weeks on the job. This is an example of which of the following types of communication? a. Upward b. Downward c. Horizontal d. Diagonal e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: b 100. Zane, a new employee, is eager to get a promotion soon, and he hopes he can quickly rise through the ranks at the company. He decides to ask his supervisor, Mary, for professional development advice. This is an example of which of the following types of communication? a. Upward b. Downward c. Horizontal d. Diagonal e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a Completion Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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101. __________ is the social process in which two or more parties exchange information and share meaning.

ANSWER: Communication 102. The communication process starts when a sender translates information into words, __________, or pictures and passes it to the receiver through some medium.

ANSWER: symbols 103. __________ is the process by which the receiver of the message interprets its meaning.

ANSWER: Decoding 104. The receiver of communication may repeat or paraphrase the message, ask for clarification, and check whether he or she understood it correctly. All of these are forms of __________.

ANSWER: feedback 105. Poor encoding and decoding can be a result of channel __________, which is anything that interferes with the communication process.

ANSWER: noise 106. Providing instructions for a work assignment is an example of __________ communication.

ANSWER: downward 107. The word “soon” might mean “immediately” to one person and “in a few days or weeks” to another. This is an example of __________.

ANSWER: semantics 108. __________ is a specialized or technical language of a trade, field, or profession.

ANSWER: Jargon 109. An employee providing feedback to upper management is an example of __________ communication.

ANSWER: upward 110. __________ are similar to intranets but tend to be more project-focused.

ANSWER: Portals Matching Match each of the following descriptions with the communication term that best describes it. a. Marty meant to send Jean a text that said, “I want to give you the job,” but he accidentally wrote, “I want to give you the hiv.” b. Marty decides to send Jean the job offer via a text message. c. Marty decides to offer the job to Jean. d. The screen on Jean’s phone is extremely dirty, so when she receives a text from Marty, at first, she cannot read what it says. e. In response to Marty’s text, Jean texts back, “When you said ‘hiv’ did you mean ‘job’?” f. Jean receives a text from Marty that says, “I want to give you the hiv.” She assumes he meant “job,” not “hiv,” and she’s delighted.

111. decoding ANSWER: f Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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112. encoding ANSWER: a 113. noise ANSWER: d 114. message ANSWER: c 115. feedback ANSWER: e 116. channel ANSWER: b Match each of the following descriptions with the type of communication noise it most clearly illustrates. a. Harry says to Sally, “Girls like a guy with a sense of humor, but that’s a lie. I’m hilarious, but girls never laugh at my jokes.” Sally, a logician, responds, “That’s not a lie; you’re just confusing necessity with sufficiency.” Harry doesn’t understand what she means by that. b. Oscar writes an email to a friend, but the Internet crashes just as he’s about to hit “Send.” c. Harriet texts Agnes the following: “Where are we meeting them for dinner?” Agnes texts back this response: “At Takara.” There are two restaurants named Takaras in town, so Harriet isn’t sure where they will be meeting. d. Tom told Lily he’d send her the report by end of day on Thursday. Lily expects to receive Tom’s report by 5 p.m., the end of the work day, but Tom plans to send it to Lily by 11:59 p.m.

117. loss of transmission ANSWER: b 118. jargon ANSWER: a 119. semantics ANSWER: d 120. ambiguity ANSWER: c Essay 121. Compare and contrast formal and informal communication. Provide examples of each.

ANSWER: Formal communications are official, organization-sanctioned communications. Formal communication channels typically involve some sort of written communication that provides a permanent record of the exchange. Formal communication is usually interpreted accurately.

Informal communication is anything that is not official. Informal communications include gossip and answering another employee’s question about how to do something. The grapevine is an example of an informal communication channel. The grapevine can promote the spread of gossip or rumors, which can be destructive and interfere with the functioning of the company, particularly if they are untrue. You should not avoid the grapevine, but be sure to evaluate the credibility of the source before you believe what you hear. If a rumor does not make sense or is inconsistent with other things you know or have heard, seek more information before reacting.

As a manager, being aware of current office gossip can help to keep you informed of what is on employees’ minds and prevent rumors from growing out of control. It is best to prevent rumors from starting by Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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establishing clear communication channels, building trust with your employees, and providing employees adequate facts and information. If a rumor does start to spread, neutralize it by consistently and honestly communicating with employees about the issue. Not making a comment is usually seen as confirmation of a rumor.

122. Describe the concept of active listening. Explain the role it plays in workplace communication.

ANSWER: Active listening plays an important role in communication and is especially important for effective leadership.

It requires becoming actively involved in the process of listening to what others are saying and clarifying the meaning of messages if they are unclear. Both parties should engage in active listening until it is clear that each understands the final message.

Being an active listener requires concentration. When someone speaks to you, try to identify any ambiguous words and any discrepancy between the words and nonverbal cues. Quickly compare the verbal and nonverbal messages to see if the messages are contradictory and to make sure you really understand the message being sent. Then reflect the message back to the sender, repeating the message in your own words. The person with whom you are speaking should either confirm your understanding or, if there is a misunderstanding, restate the message. This allows both parties to continue to work toward mutual understanding until you are both sure you understand each other.

Active listening requires the receiver to tune out noise and concentrate on the message. This is harder than it sounds—it can be as difficult to refrain from interrupting one speaker as it can be to keep your mind from wandering while listening to someone else. Ways to be an active listener include asking open-ended questions and sending the other person feedback to check that you understand the message. Making eye contact, nodding occasionally, and showing appropriate nonverbal behaviors also show the sender that you are listening.

123. Describe the various elements of nonverbal communication. Provide examples ANSWER: Nonverbal communication is not spoken or written but does have meaning to others. Two important elements of nonverbal communication are body language and verbal intonation. Body language is a body movement such as a gesture or expression that conveys information to others. For example, during a performance appraisal interview, an employee drumming his or her fingers on the table and fidgeting in the chair is communicating anxiety without saying a word. Research suggests that in a typical face-to-face communication exchange 7 percent of the total message is conveyed by the words, 38 percent of the total message is conveyed by vocal intonation, and 55 percent of the total message is conveyed by facial and body expressions. For communication to be effective and meaningful, then, all three parts of the message need to be congruent. If any of the three parts are incongruent, conflicting messages are being sent. Verbal intonation is the emphasis given to spoken words and phrases. For example, the simple words, “May I speak with you?” can be interpreted very differently if said in a cheery, upbeat tone versus a strong or angry tone.

124. Define diagonal communication. Provide examples that illustrate how this type of communication can facilitate communication within a company.

ANSWER: When employees communicate across departments and levels, they are engaging in diagonal communication.

For example, if Ryan’s subordinate Owen contacts Ryan’s peer in a different department, diagonal communication has occurred. Diagonal communication is common in cross-functional project teams composed of people from different levels drawn from different departments.

Diagonal communication allows employees in different parts of an organization to contribute to creating a new product or solving a problem. Diagonal communication also helps to link groups and spread information around the firm. Almost all successful managers use these informal communication networks to monitor employee communication and to communicate quickly with employees. A long-standing practice at General Motors is its “diagonal slice meetings” in which top executives seek feedback from white-collar people at all levels of the company.

Diagonal communication can also be inappropriate depending on the situation and the people involved.

Subordinates who engage in diagonal communication may alienate their direct supervisor who might feel “out of the loop” and punish the subordinate for disrespecting the chain of command.

Information technology and the Internet can facilitate horizontal and diagonal communication through the company’s intranet, portals, and wikis. By creating a central location where employees can post questions and help solve problems other employees are dealing with, communication can occur among employees who Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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would be unable to communicate without the use of technology. For organizations with multiple locations, IT and the Internet can create employee networks that allow employees located around the world to work together and share knowledge.

125. Describe portals and how a business might use them in the workplace. Provide examples.

ANSWER: When employees communicate across departments and levels, they are engaging in diagonal communication.

For example, if Ryan’s subordinate Owen contacts Ryan’s peer in a different department, diagonal communication has occurred. Diagonal communication is common in cross-functional project teams composed of people from different levels drawn from different departments.

Diagonal communication allows employees in different parts of an organization to contribute to creating a new product or solving a problem. Diagonal communication also helps to link groups and spread information around the firm. Almost all successful managers use these informal communication networks to monitor employee communication and to communicate quickly with employees. A long-standing practice at General Motors is its “diagonal slice meetings” in which top executives seek feedback from white-collar people at all levels of the company.

Diagonal communication can also be inappropriate depending on the situation and the people involved.

Subordinates who engage in diagonal communication may alienate their direct supervisor who might feel “out of the loop” and punish the subordinate for disrespecting the chain of command.

Information technology and the Internet can facilitate horizontal and diagonal communication through the company’s intranet, portals, and wikis. By creating a central location where employees can post questions and help solve problems other employees are dealing with, communication can occur among employees who would be unable to communicate without the use of technology. For organizations with multiple locations, IT and the Internet can create employee networks that allow employees located around the world to work together and share knowledge.

True / False 1. Conflict is a common occurrence in organizations. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Constructive conflict can result in new ideas. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. Task conflict in organizations occurs when people disagree about what needs to be done. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Change can lead to conflict. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. The competing conflict management style usually involves friendly interactions. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: False 6. One of the best ways to resolve a conflict is to ignore it. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. When third-party conflict mediators are involved in a resolution attempt, the mediators usually come from inside the organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. Displaying anger can be an effective conflict resolution technique in the workplace, because it shows strength. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Being a good listener is one of the most important skills to have when attempting to manage conflicts in the workplace. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. When resolving conflict, it is important for managers to possess strong mediation skills, such as being open-minded and nonjudgmental. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Although expressing one’s emotions can be beneficial in other types of conflicts, it is better to suppress one’s emotions entirely during negotiation. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 12. When mediating a conflict, it is best to ask leading questions. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 13. Relationship conflicts usually yield positive results in an organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. Integrative negotiation is generally better than distributive negotiation. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: True 15. Negotiators are not allowed to reject the proposed resolution of a conciliator. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 16. The results of arbitration are legally binding. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 17. Adjusting organizational design is a way to reduce process conflict. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 18. Conflicts of interest should be resolved by jointly addressing both parties’ interests. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 19. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of conflict? a. It can be a creative force. b. It can be resolved with people feeling better about something. c. It can impact company performance. d. It is influenced by emotions. e. It always entails a form of destruction.

ANSWER: e 20. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of constructive conflict? a. It can energize behavior. b. It works best when people focus on emotions. c. It can stimulate new ideas. d. It can promote healthy competition. e. It can result in higher-quality decisions.

ANSWER: b 21. The management department plans to grow based on several agreed-upon goals, but department members can’t seem to agree on how the goals will actually be achieved. The management department is experiencing a. information conflict. b. task conflict. c. process conflict. d. relationship conflict. e. values conflict.

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ANSWER: c 22. A group of managers cannot agree on what next month’s sales goals should be. The group is experiencing a. values conflict. b. task conflict. c. process conflict. d. relationship conflict. e. information conflict.

ANSWER: b 23. Which type of conflict arises due to interpersonal issues? a. Values conflict b. Task conflict c. Process conflict d. Relationship conflict e. Information conflict ANSWER: d 24. Wakefield Hospital has only one portable X-ray machine. The emergency room staff claim to have the greatest need for the machine, but the surgeons in the operating room are demanding access to the machine as well. The conflict between these two groups is a result of a. differing process goals. b. resource constraints. c. differing values. d. excessive competitiveness. e. interpersonal differences.

ANSWER: b 25. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of negotiation? a. It can involve more than two parties. b. Parties involved typically have different preferences. c. It is fairly consistent across cultures. d. It is primarily about compromise. e. Parties involved can be groups or individuals.

ANSWER: c 26. ________ conflict is destructive, and focused on emotions and differences between two parties. a. Values b. Information c. Dysfunctional d. Constructive e. Structural ANSWER: c 27. ________ conflict balances the interests of both parties to maximize mutual gains and the attainment of mutual goals. a. Values b. Information Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. Dysfunctional d. Constructive e. Structural ANSWER: d 28. When dysfunctional conflict occurs, a. the organization is positively influenced. b. neither party typically withdraws from communicating. c. negative feelings do not carry over after the conflict ends. d. the parties involved typically focus on the issues, not emotions. e. typically no one is satisfied with the outcome.

ANSWER: e 29. ________ conflict is a disagreement about which goals should be pursued by an organization. a. Values b. Task c. Process d. Relationship e. Information ANSWER: b 30. ________ conflict is a disagreement about how to accomplish something. a. Values b. Task c. Process d. Relationship e. Information ANSWER: c 31. ________ conflict occurs due to personality differences. a. Values b. Task c. Process d. Relationship e. Information ANSWER: d 32. ________ conflict occurs due to perceived or actual incompatibilities in beliefs about what is right or wrong. a. Values b. Task c. Process d. Relationship e. Information ANSWER: a 33. ________ conflict occurs when people are misinformed or interpret things differently. a. Values Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. Task c. Process d. Relationship e. Information ANSWER: e 34. Conflicts of interest about perceptions of fairness or trust occur due to ________ issues. a. security b. deep-level c. surface-level d. psychological e. physiological ANSWER: d 35. Conflicts of interest over the way the conflict will be handled occur due to ________ issues. a. psychological b. procedural c. ethical d. substantive e. cultural ANSWER: b 36. Conflicts of interest about money occur as a result of ________ issues. a. psychological b. procedural c. ethical d. substantive e. cultural ANSWER: d 37. ________ conflict occurs as a result of process features of the organization. a. Values b. Task c. Structural d. Relationship e. Information ANSWER: c 38. In the ________ stage of Glasl’s model of conflict escalation, the disagreement is recognized, but both sides believe it can be resolved through discussion. a. hardening b. loss of face c. action over words d. debate e. images/coalitions ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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39. In the ________ stage of Glasl’s model of conflict escalation, each side’s opinion becomes polarized and emotions rise. a. hardening b. loss of face c. action over words d. debate e. images/coalitions ANSWER: d 40. In the ________ stage of Glasl’s model of conflict escalation, the idea that “talking no longer helps” emerges and the conflict begins to get destructive. a. hardening b. loss of face c. action over words d. debate e. images/coalitions ANSWER: c 41. In the ________ stage of Glasl’s model of conflict escalation, negative rumors are spread and stereotypes are formed as each side prepares for a fight and conducts a search for supporters. a. hardening b. loss of face c. action over words d. debate e. images/coalitions ANSWER: e 42. The ________ stage of Glasl’s model of conflict escalation marks the beginning of open and direct aggression intended to cause public shame to the opponent. a. hardening b. loss of face c. action over words d. debate e. images/coalitions ANSWER: b 43. In the ________ stage of Glasl’s model of conflict escalation, ultimatums are made and conflict escalation accelerates. a. together into the abyss b. threat as a strategy c. fragmentation of the enemy d. burn the unbelievers e. limited attempts to overthrow ANSWER: b 44. In the ________ stage of Glasl’s model of conflict escalation, the opponent is no longer viewed as a person and slight personal damage is considered acceptable. a. together into the abyss Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. threat as a strategy c. fragmentation of the enemy d. burn the unbelievers e. limited attempts to overthrow ANSWER: e 45. In the ________ stage of Glasl’s model of conflict escalation, the goal becomes destruction and dissolution of the system. a. together into the abyss b. threat as a strategy c. fragmentation of the enemy d. burn the unbelievers e. limited attempts to overthrow ANSWER: c 46. In the ________ stage of Glasl’s model of conflict escalation, extermination of the opponent at the price of selfextermination is considered acceptable. a. together into the abyss b. threat as a strategy c. fragmentation of the enemy d. burn the unbelievers e. limited attempts to overthrow ANSWER: a 47. When a conflict begins to escalate, one of the best ways to prevent further escalation is to a. use hostile body language to indicate that you’re not willing to be pushed around. b. instigate a shouting match but only if you’re pretty sure you will win. c. intimidate the other party by acting more aggressively than they were expecting. d. react equivalently to the other party, and try not to overact. e. rally other people to your side.

ANSWER: d 48. Which conflict resolution strategy reflects a desire to give both parties what they want? a. Compromising b. Avoiding c. Competing d. Accommodating e. Collaborating ANSWER: e 49. Which conflict resolution strategy requires both sides to sacrifice something in order to end the conflict? a. Compromising b. Avoiding c. Competing d. Accommodating e. Collaborating ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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50. Which conflict resolution strategy entails pursuing one’s interests without any regard for the other party’s? a. Compromising b. Avoiding c. Competing d. Accommodating e. Collaborating ANSWER: c 51. Which conflict resolution strategy entails giving the other party what it wants? a. Compromising b. Avoiding c. Competing d. Accommodating e. Collaborating ANSWER: d 52. Which conflict resolution strategy entails ignoring the conflict or denying that it exists? a. Compromising b. Avoiding c. Competing d. Accommodating e. Collaborating ANSWER: b 53. Which conflict resolution strategy embodies an “I win, you lose” mindset? a. Compromising b. Avoiding c. Competing d. Accommodating e. Collaborating ANSWER: c 54. Which conflict resolution strategy embodies an “I lose, you win” mindset? a. Compromising b. Avoiding c. Competing d. Accommodating e. Collaborating ANSWER: d 55. Which conflict resolution strategy embodies a “we both win some and lose some” mindset? a. Compromising b. Avoiding c. Competing d. Accommodating e. Collaborating Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: a 56. Which conflict resolution strategy embodies an “I win, you win” mindset? a. Compromising b. Avoiding c. Competing d. Accommodating e. Collaborating ANSWER: e 57. Which conflict resolution strategy embodies a “nobody wins, nobody loses” mindset? a. Compromising b. Avoiding c. Competing d. Accommodating e. Collaborating ANSWER: b 58. The compromising strategy entails a _________ concern for one’s own interests and a high concern for the interests of the other party. a. variable b. fluctuating c. low d. high e. moderate ANSWER: e 59. The avoiding strategy entails a _________ concern for one’s own interests and a low concern for the interests of the other party. a. low b. high c. fluctuating d. variable e. moderate ANSWER: a 60. The accommodating strategy entails a _________ concern for one’s interests and a high concern for the interests of the other party. a. high b. low c. fluctuating d. variable e. moderate ANSWER: b 61. The collaborating strategy entails a _________ concern for one’s own interests and a high concern for the interests of the other party.

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a. low b. variable c. fluctuating d. high e. moderate ANSWER: d 62. The competing strategy entails a _________ concern for one’s own interests and a low concern for the interests of the other party. a. moderate b. low c. high d. fluctuating e. variable ANSWER: c 63. Which of the following is NOT a recommended conflict resolution behavior? a. Expressing emotions in an honest way b. Meeting separately with those involved in the conflict c. Creating solutions to the conflict d. Documenting areas of agreement and disagreement e. Encouraging the parties to focus on their common interests ANSWER: b 64. Which conflict resolution behavior entails attempting to put yourself in the other person’s position and understand that person’s point of view? a. Documenting b. Perspective taking c. Smoothing d. Reaching out e. Focusing on interests ANSWER: b 65. Which conflict resolution behavior entails playing down the differences between the two sides? a. Documenting b. Perspective taking c. Smoothing d. Reaching out e. Focusing on interests ANSWER: c 66. Which conflict resolution behavior entails contacting the other party, making the first move, and trying to make amends? a. Documenting b. Perspective taking c. Smoothing d. Reaching out Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. Focusing on interests ANSWER: d 67. Which conflict resolution behavior encourages parties to focus on the outcome? a. Documenting b. Perspective taking c. Smoothing d. Reaching out e. Focusing on interests ANSWER: e 68. Which conflict resolution behavior entails writing down areas of agreement and disagreement to ensure common understanding and clear communication? a. Documenting b. Perspective taking c. Smoothing d. Reaching out e. Focusing on interests ANSWER: a 69. Which of the following is an effective conflict resolution behavior? a. Winning at all costs b. Displaying anger c. Avoiding the conflict d. Demeaning the other party e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 70. Which method is being used when multiple groups discuss issues separately and then discuss them together, to better synthesize different viewpoints into a common framework? a. The dialectical method b. The diabolical method c. The devil’s advocate method d. The Delphi method e. The diverse group technique ANSWER: a 71. Which type of negotiation occurs when any gain to one party is offset by an equivalent loss to the other? a. Mediation b. Conciliation c. Distributive negotiation d. Integrative negotiation e. Arbitration ANSWER: c 72. Which type of negotiation is a win-win in which the agreement involves no loss to either party? a. Mediation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. Conciliation c. Distributive negotiation d. Integrative negotiation e. Arbitration ANSWER: d 73. When a third party builds a positive relationship between two parties, improves their communication, and facilitates their discussion, the process is called a. mediation. b. conciliation. c. distributive negotiation. d. integrative negotiation. e. arbitration.

ANSWER: b 74. When a third party facilitates a discussion using persuasion and logic, suggests alternatives, establishes each side’s priorities, and suggests a nonbinding settlement, the process is called a. mediation. b. conciliation. c. distributive negotiation. d. integrative negotiation. e. arbitration.

ANSWER: a 75. When a third party is involved in a conflict and has the power to issue a binding settlement, the process is called a. mediation. b. conciliation. c. distributive negotiation. d. integrative negotiation. e. arbitration.

ANSWER: e 76. Which of the following is the chief advantage of arbitration? a. It doesn't require the use of a third party. b. It usually leaves both parties satisfied. c. It always ends with a settlement. d. It’s faster than mediation. e. It’s cheaper than mediation.

ANSWER: c 77. What is the term for someone who investigates complaints and mediates fair settlements between aggrieved parties? a. Researcher b. Investigator c. Conciliator d. Mediator e. Ombudsman ANSWER: e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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78. Which of the following is the chief disadvantage of arbitration? a. At least one party is likely to be unhappy with the outcome. b. It’s slower than mediation. c. There is a chance that the process will not end in a settlement. d. It’s more expensive than mediation. e. Most arbiters don’t really know what they’re doing.

ANSWER: a 79. Among effective teams, relationship conflict tends to ________ toward the end of the project. a. remain the same b. decrease c. increase d. become nonexistent e. fluctuate ANSWER: c 80. The further a conflict escalates, the ___________ to reverse it. a. more opportunities there are b. more likely you will be able c. less challenging it will be d. more challenging it will be e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 81. __________ conflict occurs between groups at the same organizational level. a. Values b. Task c. Process d. Vertical e. Horizontal ANSWER: e 82. __________ conflict occurs across different hierarchical levels in the organization. a. Values b. Task c. Process d. Vertical e. Horizontal ANSWER: d 83. Acts of vengeance fall under which category of ineffective conflict resolution behaviors? a. Displaying anger b. Winning at all costs c. Retaliation d. Avoiding the conflict e. Demeaning the other party Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: c 84. Research has shown that managers who have good conflict resolution skills __________ than managers who don’t. a. quit less often b. fare no better c. get more promotions d. get fewer promotions e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 85. __________ emotions can help to de-escalate conflict. a. Not expressing b. Angrily expressing c. Honestly expressing d. Excitedly expressing e. Loudly expressing ANSWER: c 86. The ill-advised conflict resolution approach called _________ involves arguing vigorously for one’s own opinions and refusing to change the position, regardless of what will have to be sacrificed. a. retaliating b. winning at all costs c. demeaning the other party d. displaying anger e. avoiding the conflict ANSWER: b 87. What does “BATNA” stand for, as it relates to conflict resolution? a. Before Arguing, Try Negotiating an Agreement b. Best Alternative To a Negotiated Agreement c. Biggest Advantage To Negotiating Anything d. By Afternoon, The Negotiator Adjourns e. Battered by Accelerating Tensions? Negotiate Away!

ANSWER: b 88. Which acronym serves as a reminder that when you negotiate, you shouldn’t accept an offer that is worse than what you’d get if you hadn't negotiated at all? a. NAACP b. ASVAB c. NIMBY d. BATNA e. SPECTRE ANSWER: d 89. __________ involves a third party in a negotiation to overcome a stalemate between the parties. a. Conflict escalation b. Integrative negotiation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. Distributive negotiation d. Alternative dispute resolution e. Game theory ANSWER: d 90. Distributive negotiation is a. zero sum, meaning any gain for one party entails a corresponding loss for another. b. usually ineffective, regardless of the techniques applied by all parties involved. c. unscientific, so it is considered to generally be ineffective in all circumstances. d. better than integrative negotiation because it uses a win–win technique. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 91. Which of the following is a fundamental principle for integrative negotiation? a. Insist on subjective fairness criteria b. Focus on positions, not interests c. Separate the people from the problem d. Invent options for personal gain e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 92. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental principle of integrative negotiation? a. Separate the people from the problem b. Insist on objective fairness criteria c. Invent options for mutual gain d. Focus on positions, not interests e. All of these are fundamental principles.

ANSWER: d 93. What term refers to the process in which two or more parties make offers, counteroffers, and concessions in order to reach an agreement? a. Integration b. Distribution c. Negotiation d. Conflict e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 94. Which of the following is advised to effectively resolve conflicts in the workplace? a. Retaliating b. Expressing emotions honestly c. Meeting separately with people having conflict d. Demeaning the other party e. Winning at all costs ANSWER: b

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95. Which of the following is NOT one of the four key areas of skill development suggested by professionals in conflict resolution training? a. Communicating nonverbally b. Questioning c. Listening d. Mediating e. Avoiding ANSWER: e 96. What conflict management style is appropriate when more information is needed or when addressing the conflict has the potential to create more problems? a. Accommodating b. Competing c. Avoiding d. Compromising e. Collaborating ANSWER: c 97. What conflict management style is often used to set a precedent? a. Compromising b. Avoiding c. Competing d. Accommodating e. Collaborating ANSWER: c 98. A primary source of conflict is __________, which can lead to information conflict. a. physiological needs b. excitement c. emotional needs d. uncertainty e. psychological needs ANSWER: d 99. Some employees in an organization want to be on profits while others want to focus on doing the maximum good for the maximum number of people. What type of conflict is occurring here? a. Information conflict b. Task conflict c. Process conflict d. Relationship conflict e. Values conflict ANSWER: e 100. What typically fuels relationship conflict? a. Interpersonal similarities b. Interpersonal differences c. Cultural similarities Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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d. Organizational differences e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: b Completion 101. ______________ is a disagreement through which two or more parties perceive a threat to their interests, needs, or concerns.

ANSWER: Conflict 102. _____________ conflict occurs when two parties agree on what they need to do but can’t agree on how to get it done.

ANSWER: Process 103. A conflict of ________ occurs when someone believes that to satisfy her own needs, the needs and interests of someone else must be sacrificed.

ANSWER: interest 104. ________ is a process in which two or more parties make offers, counteroffers, and concessions in order to reach an agreement.

ANSWER: Negotiation 105. ________ are third parties in the confliction resolution process who usually have the authority to issue a binding settlement.

ANSWER: Arbitrators 106. _____________ conflict occurs from incompatibility between individuals or groups.

ANSWER: Relationship 107. Conflict has a tendency to ________, which occurs when one party involved in a conflict first uses an aggressive tactic or begins using more aggressive tactics than the other party.

ANSWER: escalate 108. When mediating a conflict, it is more effective to focus on ________ than on positions.

ANSWER: interests 109. In conflict mediation, _________ refers to playing down the differences between the two sides while emphasizing common interests.

ANSWER: smoothing 110. Saying, “Maybe we can meet in the middle” or “I’m willing to reconsider my initial position” reflects a ________ conflict management style.

ANSWER: compromising Matching Match each of the following scenarios with the type of conflict it most clearly illustrates. a. While working for an organic deli, Jose discovers that most of the ingredients are not, in fact, organic. He’s outraged and accuses Clara, the owner, of being unethical. She calmly replies that if customers can’t tell the difference, there’s no reason why the deli can’t use cheaper ingredients and save money.

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b. When Sara unexpectedly quits without a word of explanation, her coworkers ask Daniel, her manager, why she left. He explains that corporate policy prohibits him from discussing the reason she left. This causes her coworkers to suspect that she was pushed out by management, and tensions in the office rise. c. Tommy, a marketer for a test prep company, always tries to enroll as many students as possible in each class because his yearly bonus is based on sales. This angers Iris, a teacher in the company, because her yearly bonus depends on her average student ratings and she tends to get better ratings with smaller classes.

111. Structural conflict ANSWER: c 112. Values conflict ANSWER: a 113. Informational conflict ANSWER: b Match each of the following conflict management strategies with the scenario that most clearly illustrates it. Some strategies may be selected more than once. a. Avoiding b. Competing c. Collaborating d. Compromising e. Accommodating 114. Pranav and Zora are venture capitalists. When they can’t agree on which of the two projects to invest in, they meet in the middle and invest half as much in both.

ANSWER: d 115. When the work group needs to select a font for their PowerPoint presentation, Jim proposes Arial. In response, Melissa launches into a seven-minute monologue proclaiming Helvetica the most amazing font ever. The truth is, Jim couldn’t care less what font they use, so Helvetica it is.

ANSWER: e 116. Leona doesn’t want to fall for any of the used car salesman’s tricks, so she tells him that if he doesn’t sell the car for $9,000, then she’ll take her business elsewhere.

ANSWER: b 117. Sayid knows that when Shannon sees him, she’s going to hound him about that French textbook he borrowed from her three months ago, but he doesn’t remember where he put it, so when he sees her coming, he ducks into a bathroom.

ANSWER: a 118. Jerry wants to go to Las Vegas for vacation, while his wife Erica wants to see Europe. Erica asks Jerry why he wants to go to Vegas, and it turns out all he really cares about is gambling there. Erica proposes that they go to Monte Carlo, a well-known gambling destination in France.

ANSWER: c 119. A colleague asks you to take her side in a dispute she’s having with your manager, but since you don’t want to endanger your own relationship with him, you refuse to get involved.

ANSWER: a

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120. Hillary wants to use the car on Saturday to go to a party, but Chad wants to use the car to go to a different party.

Before a fight ensues, Hillary asks Chad where his party is. It turns out that the two parties are within walking distance of each other, so Hillary and Chad drive to the parties together.

ANSWER: c Essay 121. Explain Glasl’s nine-stage model of conflict escalation.

ANSWER: In the first stage of conflict escalation, hardening, each side’s opinion hardens and the two opponents adopt a collision course. The disagreement is recognized but each side believes that the issue can be resolved through discussion. In the second stage, debate, each side’s opinion becomes polarized and emotions rise. Each side begins thinking in terms of black and white and adopts a viewpoint of self-superiority and opponentinferiority. Constructive conflicts are generally resolved by the second stage. The third stage, action over words, sees a decrease in empathy for the opponent, and the idea that “talking no longer helps” emerges. The conflict becomes increasingly destructive in this stage. In the fourth stage, images/coalitions, negative rumors are spread and stereotypes are formed as each side prepares for a fight and conducts a search for supporters.

The fifth stage, loss of face, marks the beginning of open and direct aggression intended to cause the opponent’s loss of public face. In the sixth stage, threat as a strategy, threats and counter-threats increase. As ultimatums are made, conflict escalation accelerates. In the seventh stage, limited attempts to overthrow, the opponent is no longer viewed as a person. Slight personal damage is considered acceptable as a consequence of limited attempts to overthrow the opponent. In the eighth stage, fragmentation of the enemy, the goal becomes the destruction and dissolution of the system. This goal is pursued aggressively. The ninth and final stage, together into the abyss, sees the descent into total confrontation with no way back. Extermination of the opponent at the price of self-extermination is seen and accepted.

122. Describe the five styles of managing conflict and include the level of importance each style places on the opponent’s interests. Provide specific examples of each.

ANSWER: Collaborating reflects a high concern for your own interests and a high concern for the interests of the other party. This conflict management style emphasizes problem solving and pursues an outcome that gives both parties what they want. Saying, “Let’s see if we can find a solution that meets both of our needs” reflects a collaborating conflict management style. Collaborating helps to build commitment to the outcome, although the communication required to reach a solution can take substantial time and energy. Even though there is a risk that one party may take advantage of the other party’s trust and openness, collaboration is generally regarded as the best approach for managing most conflicts. The objective of collaboration is to fulfill both parties’ needs with a goal of “I win/you win.” Compromising is a conflict management style in which each side sacrifices something in order to end the conflict. This middle-ground style reflects a moderate concern for your own interests and a moderate concern for the interests of the other party. Saying, “Maybe we can meet in the middle” or “I’m willing to reconsider my initial position” reflects a compromising style. A compromising style is often used to achieve temporary solutions, to avoid destructive power struggles, or when a conflict must be resolved quickly. The goal of compromising is “I win some and lose some/you win some and lose some.” Competing is a conflict management style resulting from a high concern for your own interests and low concern for the other party. This approach is generally used when the conflict issue is important or to set a precedent. However, because one party is trying to dominate the other, this conflict management style can escalate the conflict and the loser may try to retaliate. A person who uses threats or ultimatums is using a competing conflict management style. Saying, “If you don’t accept this offer the deal is off” reflects a competing style. The goal of competing is “I win/you lose.” Accommodating is a cooperative conflict management style. Accommodating reflects a low concern for your own interests and a high concern for the interests of the other party. This conflict management style is generally used when the issue is more important to the other party than it is to you. This style is also appropriate when you recognize that you are wrong.

Saying, “I’ll go along with whatever is best for you” reflects an accommodating style. The goal of accommodating is “I lose/you win.” Avoiding is a passive conflict management style involving ignoring the conflict or denying that it exists. This style reflects a low concern for your own interests and a low concern for the interests of the other party. When this strategy is used to manage trivial conflicts no damage may be done, but it can result in maximum damage when important issues are involved. Avoidance is also used when more Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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information is needed or when addressing the conflict has the potential to create more problems (perhaps the other party is known to be aggressive). The primary drawback to an avoidance style is that the decision may not be optimal to you and your interests. The goal of avoiding is “no winners/no losers.” Because conflict is often uncomfortable, members of workgroups often resort to passive forms of conflict management such as avoidance.

123. Describe how managers can create constructive conflict in the workplace. Provide specific examples.

ANSWER: Constructive conflict balances the interests of both parties to maximize mutual gains and to attain mutual goals. To achieve such conflicts, one must be creative, adaptive, and have desire to discover a mutually acceptable outcome. Results can be the identification of new alternatives and ideas. An example would be when one family member wants to buy a truck to be able to transport items that won’t fit in a car but the other party doesn’t want to lose all the seating room a car offers and they end up settling on an SUV. 124. Define negotiation. Describe the two main types of negotiation. Provide examples of each.

ANSWER: Negotiation is a process in which two or more parties make offers, counteroffers, and concessions in order to reach an agreement. Most managers do a lot of negotiating as part of their jobs.

The two types of negotiation are distributive and integrative. Distributive negotiation occurs under zero-sum conditions, where any gain to one party is offset by an equivalent loss to the other party. Integrative negotiation is a win-win negotiation in which the agreement involves no loss to either party. In general, integrative bargaining is better than distributive bargaining because when it is over neither party feels that they have lost. Integrative bargaining helps to build good long-term relationships, and minimizes grudges between the parties. This is particularly beneficial when the parties have to work together on an ongoing basis once the negotiations are finished. An example of distributive negotiation would be where an interested home buyer insists that certain upgrades be made by the seller before the asking price is met. The seller thus is forced to expend more money to satisfy the potential buyer. This negotiation could be considered more integrative if the home seller knowingly priced higher than they expected to receive and would throw in some appliances to seal the deal if the asking price is agreed upon by the potential buyer.

125. Define conflicts of interest. Discuss potential causes, and how these types of conflicts can be resolved.

ANSWER: Conflicts of interest arise when someone believes that to satisfy his or her own needs, the needs and interests of someone else must be sacrificed. This is particularly problematic when dividing resources (like money or time) is a zero-sum game in which one party’s gain is the other party’s loss. Conflicts of interest can occur over substantive issues (revolving around time, money, and physical resources), procedural issues (involving the way the conflict will be handled), and psychological issues (characterized by perceptions of fairness, trust, or interest in participating). Resolution can best be achieved by jointly addressing the interests of both parties.

An employee who feels he unfairly works more holidays and weekends than his colleagues just because he doesn’t specifically request off any days can appeal to the manager for an advance schedule where the employee can request ahead to have certain holidays off so that others can fill in.

True / False 1. Leadership is a set of characteristics that an individual either actually possesses or is perceived to possess. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Leadership usually involves some form of force and coercion. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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3. The terms manager and leader refer to exactly the same thing, and they can be used interchangeably. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. Scientific research of leadership first began in the late sixteenth century, so existing literature is comprehensive and there are very few unanswered questions that remain about the nature of effective leadership. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Leadership studies currently focus almost exclusively on leaders’ individual traits, including personal characteristics such as intelligence and self-control, because these traits are relatively stable and enduring. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. A manager who exhibits employee-centered leader behaviors pays attention to the human aspects of the group. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. Situational theories demonstrate that there are a number of leadership styles that can have a positive impact on an organization’s effectiveness. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. A manager who uses a team management style of leadership is concerned about people and production. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. The highest numbers on the LPC scale are associated with a positive evaluation of the least-preferred coworker. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. The degree of task or relationship motivation in a given leader is measured by the least-preferred coworker (LPC) scale. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. According to the LPC scale, relationship motivation closely parallels employee-centered leader behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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12. The LPC theory identifies the least-preferred coworker so that employee can be removed from the company, and productivity and morale will increase. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 13. According to the LPC theory, leader task structure is the power inherent in the leader’s role itself, and it is the least important factor in determining situational favorableness. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. According to the LPC theory, position power refers to the personal relationship that exists between subordinates and their leader. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. The LPC theory indicates that a relationship-oriented leader can be very effective in both very favorable and very unfavorable situations. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 16. According to the LPC theory, task structure is the most important factor when assessing situational favorableness. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 17. The path-goal theory was developed based on key principles in the expectancy theory of motivation, which states that attitudes and behaviors can be predicted based on the degree to which an individual believes job performance will lead to various outcomes. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 18. Research indicates that individuals who attribute outcomes to their own behavior may be more satisfied with a participative leader. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 19. According to the path-goal theory, when task structure is low, directive leadership tends to be more effective. a. True b. False ANSWER: True

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20. The path-goal theory of leadership states that effective leaders clarify both paths and goals for subordinates, because employees’ job performance depends on their perceptions of their own abilities, the degree to which they believe they can impact outcomes, and the level of value they place on those outcomes. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 21. Path-goal theory assumes that leaders can change their behaviors and exhibit a variety of leadership styles. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 22. The end result of using Vroom’s decision tree is a recommended decision style based on the situation. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 23. In Vroom’s decision tree approach, there are five basic decision styles that correspond to five levels of subordinate participation in decision making. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 24. Vroom’s current formulation of the decision tree model includes two types of decision trees. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 25. Vroom’s decision tree model has been fully scientifically tested. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 26. Which statement best describes research finding about the role of leadership? a. The exploration of leadership is not relevant in the workplace. b. Research in the field of leadership was recently completed. c. Research in the field was completed many years ago. d. Organizations need both leadership and management if they are to be effective. e. Researching leadership has proved to be nearly impossible.

ANSWER: d 27. The definition of leadership includes all of the following EXCEPT a. the ability to affect the perceptions, beliefs, and attitudes of others. b. the effective use of force and/or coercion. c. a set of characteristics attributed to certain people. d. that it is both a process and a property.

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e. the use of noncoercive influence.

ANSWER: b 28. __________ is the ability to affect the perceptions, beliefs, attitudes, motivation, and/or behaviors of others. a. Force b. Influence c. Coercion d. Authority e. Power ANSWER: b 29. Leadership can be viewed as a. a process only. b. neither a process nor a property. c. a property only. d. a universally understood characteristic. e. both a process and a property.

ANSWER: e 30. Distinctions between management and leadership include all of the following EXCEPT a. leadership is more involved in motivating and inspiring individuals. b. management is more important in regard to creating and directing change. c. leadership is more concerned with establishing direction. d. management is more concerned with planning and budgeting. e. management more often focuses on controlling and problem solving.

ANSWER: b 31. Which of the following applies more to a function of leadership rather than a function of management? a. Producing a degree of predictability and order leading to expected results by various stakeholders b. Establishing some structure for accomplishing plan requirements c. Developing a vision of the future d. Establishing detailed steps and timetables for achieving results e. Monitoring results and identifying deviations ANSWER: c 32. The earliest studies of leadership focused on the traits, or personal characteristics, of leaders, but later research shifted to focus more on a. member behavior. b. focus behavior. c. leader behavior. d. charismatic behavior. e. follower behavior.

ANSWER: c 33. The basic premise of the early trait approach to leadership was that a. leadership traits depended on the situation. b. unique leadership traits could be identified and used to select leaders.

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c. traits could be used to predict appropriate management styles. d. traits were far less important than activities. e. traits were relatively volatile characteristics of individuals.

ANSWER: b 34. Susan is on the organization’s hiring committee, but she did not recommend hiring any of the three candidates interviewed for the open management position, because none of them indicated they would be job-centered leaders.

Which leadership approach is Susan most closely following? a. The LPC theory of leadership b. The Michigan behavioral studies c. Vroom’s decision tree d. The trait approach to leadership e. The focus approach to leadership ANSWER: b 35. Researchers have renewed their interest in the trait approach to leadership recently to a. dispel that personality traits can indicate whether someone will be an effective leader. b. reintroduce the importance of situational factors in leadership. c. dispel the findings in the Ohio studies. d. dispel that behaviors can indicate whether someone will be an effective leader. e. reintroduce a limited set of effective leadership traits.

ANSWER: e 36. The goal in studying the behavioral approach of leadership is to a. categorize a set of behaviors as effective or ineffective in terms of making decisions. b. match a set of behaviors with corresponding situations. c. study the behavior patterns of several well-known historical leaders. d. define a standard list of leader characteristics. e. determine what behaviors are associated with effective leadership.

ANSWER: e 37. The Michigan studies on leadership sought to determine the pattern of leadership behaviors that are likely to result in effective a. individual performance. b. leader performance. c. group performance. d. supervisor behavior. e. time management.

ANSWER: c 38. The Leadership Grid, also called the ________ grid, is associated with the behavioral approach to leadership. a. interactive b. contemporary c. trait d. contingency e. managerial ANSWER: e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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39. One conclusion of the University of Michigan studies was that a leader who focuses on work procedures and performance is exhibiting a. task-oriented leader behavior. b. consideration behavior. c. initiating-structure behavior. d. employee-centered leader behavior. e. job-centered leader behavior.

ANSWER: e 40. A key difference between the Ohio State studies and the University of Michigan studies on leadership is that the Michigan study a. placed the defined dimensions of leadership behavior on opposite ends of a single continuum. b. identified only two categories of leadership behavior. c. placed the defined dimensions of leadership behavior in a grid. d. placed all defined dimensions of leadership behavior on the same side of a single continuum. e. saw the various defined dimensions as independent of one another.

ANSWER: a 41. One conclusion of the Ohio State studies was that a leader who focuses on subordinates’ feelings and ideas is exhibiting a. task-oriented leader behavior. b. consideration behavior. c. initiating-structure behavior. d. employee-centered leader behavior. e. job-centered leader behavior.

ANSWER: b 42. Which of the following is NOT a part of initiating-structure behavior, as identified in the Ohio State leadership studies? a. Subordinates are aware of what is expected of them in their positions. b. The leader clearly defines leader–subordinate roles. c. There is mutual trust and respect between the leader and subordinate. d. Methods for accomplishing the task are determined. e. Channels of communication are established.

ANSWER: c 43. Researchers at Ohio State investigating the issue of stability of leader behaviors over time found that a. an individual’s leadership pattern did not change much in similar situations. b. the situational context was not an important determinant of leader effectiveness. c. employees whose supervisors ranked high on consideration had higher performance ratings. d. leaders who exhibited high levels of consideration and structure-initiating behaviors were most effective. e. employees whose supervisors ranked high in initiating structure had fewer absences from work.

ANSWER: a 44. According to the Leadership Grid, a manager who is not concerned about production but exhibits high concern for people would be a ____ manager on the grid.

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a. 1,9 b. 9,9 c. 9,1 d. 1,1 e. 5,5 ANSWER: a 45. According to the Leadership Grid, who would be the most effective leader? a. The manager who always takes time to chat with employees b. The manager who rarely takes time to get to know employees c. The manager who is always trying to improve worker production d. The manager who always chats with employees and constantly strives to improve worker production e. The Leadership Grid does not identify the most effective style.

ANSWER: d 46. Which of the following is considered to be a failure of the behavioral approach to studying leadership? a. It did not move the field beyond the traditional trait theory approach. b. It was too complicated for practical use. c. The results of related studies were inconsistent. d. It tried to specify a set of leader behaviors that would be effective in all situations. e. It only identified important leader behaviors.

ANSWER: d 47. According to the continuum of leadership behavior proposed by Tannenbaum and Schmidt, managerial characteristics include all of the following EXCEPT a. the manager’s value system. b. confidence in subordinates. c. personal inclinations. d. interest in the problem. e. feelings of security.

ANSWER: d 48. The LPC theory of leadership was developed by a. Charles Greene. b. Fred Fiedler. c. Arthur Jago. d. George Graen. e. Victor Vroom.

ANSWER: b 49. A major difference between the behavioral approach and the LPC theory of leadership is that a. the behavioral approach allows for the complex nature of a leader’s personality. b. the behavioral approach views task-oriented and relationship-oriented traits as constant. c. the LPC theory contends that a leader’s effectiveness depends on the situation. d. the LPC theory views the task-oriented and relationship-oriented traits of a given individual as variable. e. the behavioral approach presumes a task-oriented leader will outperform a relationship-oriented leader.

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ANSWER: c 50. According to the LPC theory, the degree of task or relationship motivation is measured by the a. managerial grid. b. lowest performance cycle scale. c. least-preferred coworker scale. d. task-relationship model. e. least-productive coworker scale.

ANSWER: c 51. According to the LPC theory, what factor is presumed to have the biggest effect on the favorableness of a situation? a. Task structure b. Leader–member relations c. Leader position power d. Leader personality e. Organizational structure ANSWER: b 52. According to the LPC theory, tasks that are complex, nonroutine, and ambiguous are categorized as a. easily understood. b. favorable. c. unstructured. d. ideal for decision making. e. structured.

ANSWER: c 53. According to the LPC theory, position power is considered to be high when the leaders can a. punish employees without approval from others in the company. b. assign work tasks without approval from others in the company. c. grant promotions without approval from others in the company. d. issue rewards without approval from others in the company. e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 54. Fiedler contends that when a leader’s style and the situation are mismatched, the only available course of action is to change the situation through a. transferring the subordinates. b. job engineering. c. transferring the leader. d. a “laissez-faire” approach. e. hiring a consultant.

ANSWER: b 55. The path-goal theory and the LPC model both state that a. leadership effectiveness is based on a set of behaviors exhibited by a leader. b. leadership effectiveness can occur only with strong task-oriented approaches. c. leadership effectiveness depends on characteristics of the situation.

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d. leadership effectiveness is based on a set of traits possessed by effective leaders. e. leadership effectiveness is not based on the circumstances of the situation.

ANSWER: c 56. Path-goal theory is derived from the same principles found in the ________ theory of motivation. a. expectancy b. behavioral c. valence d. contingency e. leadership ANSWER: a 57. According to the path-goal theory of leadership, leaders are likely to improve subordinates’ performance by a. clarifying what behaviors will lead to desired rewards. b. identifying important traits of the leader and the leader’s subordinates. c. establishing fixed responses to environmental situations. d. allowing subordinates to set their own goals. e. evaluating performance and communicating this to the employee.

ANSWER: a 58. Path-goal theory assumes that a. leaders can change their behaviors. b. task motivation is the primary determinant of a leader’s style. c. decisions as to appropriate leader style should be made at the top of the organization. d. the primary goal of leadership is employee satisfaction. e. leaders operate best in one type of situation.

ANSWER: a 59. According to the path-goal theory, a leader who is friendly and shows concern for subordinates’ status and needs is exhibiting ____ leadership. a. participative b. achievement-oriented c. supportive d. directive e. cooperative ANSWER: c 60. Paul, a new hire in the traffic department of an advertising agency, has little confidence in his ability and believes he only got the job because his uncle is the owner of the firm. According to the path-goal theory of leadership, what type of leadership style is Paul most likely to prefer? a. Achievement-oriented b. Cooperative c. Supportive d. Directive e. Participative ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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61. According to the path-goal theory of leadership, the two types of situational factors that influence how leaders should behave are a. locus of control and perceived ability. b. personal characteristics of the leader and environmental characteristics. c. personal characteristics of the subordinates and locus of control. d. personal characteristics of the leader and personal characteristics of the subordinates. e. personal characteristics of the subordinates and environmental characteristics.

ANSWER: e 62. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Vroom’s decision tree approach? a. It focuses on the degree to which the leader allows subordinates to participate in decision making. b. It is presented in the form of decision trees. c. It assumes that one leader may display various leadership styles. d. It assumes a high level of participation in decision making is best for all situations. e. It attempts to prescribe an appropriate leadership style for any given situation.

ANSWER: d 63. Vroom’s decision tree approach to leadership focuses primarily on which of the following aspects of leader behavior? a. Clarifying the lines of authority for all employees b. Streamlining communication patterns c. Meeting subordinates’ personal needs d. Balancing task and relationship activities equally e. Including subordinates in the decision-making process ANSWER: e 64. Vroom developed two different decision trees, one tree to be used when the manager is primarily interested in making a timely decision and the other tree when the manager seeks to a. balance task and relationship behaviors. b. clarify the path to desired rewards. c. increase subordinates’ motivation and performance. d. help subordinates enhance decision-making skills. e. eliminate resistance to a chosen alternative.

ANSWER: d 65. Vroom states that a manager who makes a decision alone and then attempts to “sell” it to the rest of the group is employing a __________ style of subordinate participation. a. delegate b. consult (group) c. consult (individually) d. facilitate e. decide ANSWER: e 66. Leadership as a _________ refers to set of characteristics attributed to those who are perceived to use noncoercive influence successfully. a. privilege b. possession Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. personality d. process e. property ANSWER: e 67. One conclusion of the University of Michigan studies was that a leader who attempts to build effective work groups with high performance goals is exhibiting a. task-oriented leader behavior. b. consideration behavior. c. initiating-structure behavior. d. employee-centered leader behavior. e. job-centered leader behavior.

ANSWER: d 68. One conclusion of the Ohio State studies was that a leader who clearly defines the leader-subordinate roles so that subordinates know what is expected of them is exhibiting a. task-oriented leader behavior. b. consideration behavior. c. initiating-structure behavior. d. employee-centered leader behavior. e. job-centered leader behavior.

ANSWER: c 69. The leadership style of a manager who is not concerned about people but exhibits high concern for production would likely be located at the __________ placement on the Leadership Grid. a. 1,9 b. 9,9 c. 9,1 d. 1,1 e. 5,5 ANSWER: c 70. The leadership style of a manager who cares neither about people nor about production would likely be located at the __________ placement on the Leadership Grid. a. 1,9 b. 9,9 c. 9,1 d. 1,1 e. 5,5 ANSWER: d 71. The leadership style of a manager who has high concern for both people and production would likely be located at the __________ placement on the Leadership Grid. a. 1,9 b. 9,9 c. 9,1 d. 1,1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. 5,5 ANSWER: b 72. The leadership style of someone considered to be a “middle-of-the-road” manager, exhibiting adequate performance and an ability to balance productivity and employee morale needs, would likely be located at the __________ placement on the Leadership Grid. a. 1,9 b. 9,9 c. 9,1 d. 1,1 e. 5,5 ANSWER: e 73. Which of the following represents the “ideal” manager, according to the Leadership Grid of evaluating leadership styles? a. 1,1 b. 9,9 c. 5,5 d. 9,1 e. There is no single “ideal” manager according to the Leadership Grid; the ideal depends upon the nature of the situation.

ANSWER: b 74. According to the continuum of leadership behavior proposed by Tannenbaum and Schmidt, subordinate characteristics include all of the following EXCEPT a. need for independence. b. understanding of goals. c. tolerance for ambiguity. d. readiness to assume responsibility. e. the problem itself.

ANSWER: e 75. According to the continuum of leadership behavior proposed by Tannenbaum and Schmidt, situational characteristics include all of the following EXCEPT a. group effectiveness. b. the type of organization. c. time pressures. d. the problem itself. e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 76. According to the LPC theory, what factor is identified as the second most important element when determining the favorableness of a workplace situation? a. Task structure b. Leader–member relations c. Leader position power d. Leader personality Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. Organizational structure ANSWER: a 77. According to the LPC theory, what factor the third most important element when determining the favorableness of a workplace situation? a. Task structure b. Leader–member relations c. Leader position power d. Leader personality e. Organizational structure ANSWER: c 78. According to the LPC theory, which factor reflects both the extent to which subordinates trust, respect, and have confidence in their leader, and that in turn, leaders equally trust, respect, and have confidence in the employees they manage? a. Task structure b. Leader–member relations c. Leader position power d. Leader personality e. Organizational structure ANSWER: b 79. According to the LPC theory, which factor reflects the extent to which a task is considered to be routine, simple, and unambiguous? a. Task structure b. Leader–member relations c. Leader position power d. Leader personality e. Organizational structure ANSWER: a 80. In LPC theory, which factor reflects the extent to which the leader can assign work, reward and punish employees, and recommend them for promotion? a. Task structure b. Leader–member relations c. Leader position power d. Leader personality e. Organizational structure ANSWER: c 81. In the LPC theory, which of the following is appropriate for very favorable as well as very unfavorable situations? a. Task-oriented behavior b. Person-oriented behavior c. Production-oriented behavior d. Leader-oriented behavior e. Employee-oriented behavior ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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82. According to the LPC theory, a situation that has low position power, high task structure, and good leader–member relations is a. maximally favorable. b. very favorable. c. moderately favorable. d. very unfavorable. e. maximally unfavorable.

ANSWER: b 83. According to the LPC theory, a situation that has low position power, low task structure, and good leader–member relations is a. maximally favorable. b. very favorable. c. moderately favorable. d. very unfavorable. e. maximally unfavorable.

ANSWER: c 84. According to the LPC theory, a situation that has high position power, high task structure, and poor leader–member relations is a. maximally favorable. b. very favorable. c. moderately favorable. d. very unfavorable. e. maximally unfavorable.

ANSWER: c 85. According to the LPC theory, a situation that has high position power, low task structure, and poor leader–member relations is a. maximally favorable. b. very favorable. c. moderately favorable. d. very unfavorable. e. maximally unfavorable.

ANSWER: d 86. According to the path-goal theory, a __________ leader lets subordinates know what is expected of them and gives them specific guidance as to how to accomplish tasks. a. participative b. surface c. supportive d. directive e. cooperative ANSWER: d 87. According to the path-goal theory, a __________ leader consults with subordinates about issues and takes their suggestions into account before making a decision.

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a. participative b. surface c. supportive d. directive e. cooperative ANSWER: a 88. According to the path-goal theory, a __________ leader is friendly and shows concern for subordinates’ well-being. a. participative b. supportive c. surface d. directive e. cooperative ANSWER: b 89. According to the path-goal theory, employees with an internal locus of control should prefer a leader who is __________. a. participative b. achievement-oriented c. supportive d. directive e. cooperative ANSWER: a 90. According to the path-goal theory, employees with an external locus of control should prefer a leader who is __________. a. participative b. achievement-oriented c. supportive d. directive e. cooperative ANSWER: d 91. According to Vroom, a manager who presents a problem to a group at a meeting, defines the problem and its boundaries, and then facilitates group member discussion as members make the decision is using a _________ style of subordinate participation. a. delegate b. consult (group) c. consult (individually) d. facilitate e. decide ANSWER: d 92. According to Vroom, a manager who presents a problem to group members at a meeting, gets their suggestions, and then makes the decision is using a _________ style of subordinate participation. a. delegate b. consult (group) Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. consult (individually) d. facilitate e. decide ANSWER: b 93. According to Vroom, a manager who presents a program to group members individually, obtains their suggestions, and then makes the decision is using a _________ style of subordinate participation. a. delegate b. consult (group) c. consult (individually) d. facilitate e. decide ANSWER: c 94. According to Vroom, a manager who allows a group to define for itself the exact nature and parameters of a problem and then develop a solution is using a _________ style of subordinate participation. a. delegate b. consult (group) c. consult (individually) d. facilitate e. decide ANSWER: a 95. Which of the following is more closely associated with leadership than with management? a. Conducting performance reviews b. Setting budgets c. Approving payroll d. Organizing departments e. Building trust ANSWER: e 96. Which of the following is more closely associated with management than with leadership? a. Building culture b. Acquiring resources c. Motivating d. Coaching e. Presenting a vision ANSWER: b 97. According to Vroom, a _________ style requires the least input from the manager. a. delegate b. consult (group) c. consult (individually) d. facilitate e. decide ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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98. The horizontal axis of the Leadership Grid represents concern for a. oneself. b. the organization. c. production. d. the environment. e. people.

ANSWER: c 99. The vertical axis of the Leadership Grid represents concern for a. oneself. b. the organization. c. production. d. the environment. e. people.

ANSWER: e 100. A leader who relies solely on force and formal authority to direct the behavior of subordinates is a. exhibiting excellent leadership. b. exhibiting moderate leadership. c. exhibiting poor leadership. d. exhibiting minimal leadership. e. not exhibiting leadership at all.

ANSWER: e Completion 101. As a process, leadership is the use of __________ influence to direct and coordinate the activities of group members toward goal accomplishment.

ANSWER: noncoercive 102. Although related, __________ and leadership are not identical.

ANSWER: management 103. The belief that taller people make better leaders reflects the __________ approach to leadership.

ANSWER: trait 104. According to the Ohio State studies, a leader concerned with subordinates’ feelings is engaging in __________ behavior.

ANSWER: consideration 105. The University of Michigan studies identified the __________-centered and __________-centered forms of leader behavior.

ANSWER: job, employee employee, job 106. According to the Leadership Grid, the ideal leadership style is __________.

ANSWER: 9,9 107. The horizontal axis of the Leadership Grid represents concern for __________.

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ANSWER: production 108. In the LPC theory, __________ is the second most important determinant of situational favorableness.

ANSWER: task structure 109. According to the path-goal theory, a leader who is __________ consults with subordinates about issues and takes their suggestions into account before making a decision.

ANSWER: participative 110. Vroom’s model of __________ is based on a decision tree.

ANSWER: leadership Matching Dhruv isn’t sure to what degree he should involve his employees in an important decision, so he consults Vroom’s decision tree for help. Match the following scenarios with the decision style each most clearly illustrates. a. Dhruv invites his employees out to lunch to talk about the problem. He asks questions, moderates the discussion, and guides the group in making a decision. b. Dhruv invites his employees out to lunch to talk about the problem. Afterward, he considers their inputs and makes a decision; he announces it via email. c. Dhruv figures out the solution to the problem on his own, then emails his employees informing them of the decision. d. In the week after the problem first appears, Dhruv makes it a point to discuss the problem with employees in oneon-one meetings. The discussions help him figure out the best course of action, which he announces via email. e. Just thinking about the problem gives Dhruv a headache. He explains the problem to his team and gives them carte blanche to sort it out and make a decision.

111. consult (group) ANSWER: b 112. decide ANSWER: c 113. consult (individually) ANSWER: d 114. facilitate ANSWER: a 115. delegate ANSWER: e Match each of the following scenarios with the most appropriate description. Some descriptions may be used more than once. a. leading but not managing b. managing but not leading c. neither managing nor leading d. managing and leading 116. Trixie is a senior software developer. Ten programmers report to her, and they would go to the end of the world for her.

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ANSWER: d 117. Uther is a junior software developer. Everybody loves him and thinks he’s fun, good-natured, and smart. Since he’s new, he’s currently more focused on making sure his work gets done well than on developing a vision for the future of the software.

ANSWER: c 118. Apollonia has worked for many years as a software tester. She feels uncomfortable talking to people and has declined countless invitations to become a manager over the years. Nevertheless, the suggestions she quietly puts forward during meetings nearly always come to pass, and her personal approval is highly sought. Everyone who works on a project with her gives it their best effort.

ANSWER: a 119. Hugo, a vice president in a software company, used to work as a software developer, but that was decades ago. The current batch of software developers views him as completely out of touch with the demands of software creation. They’ll do what he says if they absolutely have to, but any order that Hugo doesn’t follow up on is sure to be ignored.

ANSWER: b 120. Maurice, a technical writer, has a knack for coming up with user interface improvements for the software his company creates. Senior members of the software development team frequently invite him to their meetings to hear his suggestions and follow his vision.

ANSWER: a Essay 121. Compare and contrast the similarities and differences between management and leadership. Which is most important for today’s organizations? Why? ANSWER: Leadership and management are related, but they are not the same. A person can be a manager, a leader, both, or neither. To create an agenda, management plans and sets budgets, while leadership establishes direct. In terms of developing a human network for achieving the agenda, management involves establishing some structure for accomplishing plan requirements, staffing that structure with individuals, delegating responsibility and authority for carrying out the plan, providing policies and procedures to help guide people, and creating methods or systems to monitor implementation. Leadership involves communicating the direction by words and deeds to all those whose cooperation may be needed to influence the creation of teams and coalitions that understand the vision and strategies and accept their validity. To execute plans, management controls and solves problems, while leadership motivates and inspires. Regarding outcomes, management produces a degree of predictability and order and has the potential to consistently produce major results expected by various stakeholders. In contrast, leadership produces change, often to a dramatic degree, and has the potential to produce extremely useful change.

Organizations need both management and leadership if they are to be effective. For example, leadership is necessary to create and direct change and to help the organization get through tough times. Management is necessary to achieve coordination and systematic results and to handle administrative activities during times of stability and predictability. Management in conjunction with leadership can help achieve planned orderly change, and leadership in conjunction with management can keep the organization properly aligned with its environment.

122. Compare the Ohio State and University of Michigan leadership studies.

ANSWER: The Michigan leadership studies were a program of research conducted at the University of Michigan. The goal of this work was to determine the pattern of leadership behaviors that result in effective group performance. From interviews with supervisors and subordinates of high- and low-productivity groups in several organizations, the researchers collected and analyzed descriptions of supervisory behavior to determine how effective supervisors differed from ineffective ones. Two basic forms of leader behavior were identified—job-centered and employee-centered. The leader who exhibits job-centered leader behavior pays Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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close attention to the work of subordinates, explains work procedures, and is mainly interested in performance.

The leader who engages in employee-centered leader behavior attempts to build effective work groups with high performance goals.

The Ohio State leadership studies were conducted at about the same time as the Michigan studies, in the late 1940s and early 1950s. During this program of research, behavioral scientists at Ohio State University developed a questionnaire, which they administered in both military and industrial settings, to assess subordinates’ perceptions of their leaders’ behavior. The Ohio State studies identified several forms of leader behavior but tended to focus on the two most common ones: consideration and initiating-structure. When engaging in consideration behavior, the leader is concerned with the subordinates’ feelings and respects subordinates’ ideas. The leader–subordinate relationship is characterized by mutual trust, respect, and two-way communication. When using initiating-structure behavior, on the other hand, the leader clearly defines the leader–subordinate roles so that subordinates know what is expected of them. The leader also establishes channels of communication and determines the methods for accomplishing the group’s task.

123. Provide an overview of the LPC theory of leadership.

ANSWER: The LPC theory attempts to explain and reconcile both the leader’s personality and the complexities of the situation. “LPC” stands for “least-preferred coworker.” The LPC theory contends that a leader’s effectiveness depends on the situation and, as a result, some leaders may be effective in one situation or organization but not in another. The theory also explains why this discrepancy may occur and identifies leader–situation matches that should result in effective performance.

124. Describe the path-goal theory. Provide specific examples of how the theory can be applied in the workplace.

ANSWER: The path-goal theory of leadership argues that subordinates are motivated by their leader to the extent that the behaviors of that leader influence their expectancies. In other words, the leader affects subordinates’ performance by clarifying the behaviors (paths) that will lead to desired rewards (goals). Ideally, of course, getting a reward in an organization depends on effective performance. The path-goal theory also suggests that a leader may behave in different ways in different situations. A manager following this theory might explain to his subordinate what needs to be done in order to earn a promotion and pay raise.

125. Describe Vroom’s decision tree approach to leadership. How would a manager apply this approach? Provide specific examples.

ANSWER: Vroom’s decision tree approach assumes that the degree to which subordinates should be encouraged to participate in decision making depends on the characteristics of the situation. In other words, no one decisionmaking process is best for all situations. After evaluating a variety of problem attributes (characteristics of the problem or decision), the leader determines an appropriate decision style that specifies the amount of subordinate participation. Vroom’s current formulation suggests that managers should use one of two different decision trees. To do so, the manager first assesses the situation in terms of several factors. This assessment involves determining whether the given factor is “high” or “low” for the decision that is to be made. For instance, the first factor is decision significance. If the decision is extremely important and may have a major impact on the organization (i.e., choosing a location for a new plant), its significance is high. But if the decision is routine and its consequences not terribly important (i.e., selecting a logo for the firm’s softball team uniforms), its significance is low. This assessment guides the manager through the paths of the decision tree to a recommended course of action. One decision tree is to be used when the manager is primarily interested in making the fastest possible decision; the other is to be used when time is less critical and the manager wishes to help subordinates improve and develop their own decision-making skills.

True / False 1. The leader–member exchange model (LMX) of leadership stresses the importance of the relationships between supervisors and subordinates. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: True 2. According to the leader–member exchange model (LMX) of leadership, the out-group of subordinates may receive special privileges. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. According to the leader–member exchange model (LMX) of leadership, the in-group of subordinates may receive more responsibility and autonomy. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. In the Hersey and Blanchard model of leadership, when subordinate readiness is low, the leader should use a “telling” style. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Over the years, the path-goal theory of leadership has been abandoned in favor of more transactional approaches to leadership. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. The path-goal theory has undergone major refinements over the years. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 7. A transactional leader is careful to assign work and evaluate performance. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Transformational leadership focuses heavily on keeping the status quo. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. Activities of transactional leadership are similar to those of charismatic leadership. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. Charismatic leaders are always ethical leaders of large organizations. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. False ANSWER: False 11. Herb Kelleher, Mary Kay Ash, and Steve Jobs are examples of transactional leaders. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. Taking over a leadership role from a prior charismatic leader can be extremely challenging. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. Charismatic leaders enable others by supporting them, empathizing with them, and expressing confidence in them. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 14. The attribution perspective holds that leadership behaviors stay constant in varying workplace contexts. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. Training, motivation, and professionalism are among the characteristics that may substitute for leadership. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 16. Leadership substitutes are individual, task, and organizational characteristics that tend to outweigh the leader’s ability to affect subordinates’ satisfaction and performance. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 17. Many leaders today are expected to manage people by becoming more of a coach to employees. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 18. The new role expected of leaders today is to be more of transactional leader, rather than a coach. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 19. Mentors strive to help less-experienced people learn the ropes and better prepare to advance within an organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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20. Male leaders are typically harsher, controlling, and task focused than female leaders. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 21. Female leaders tend to be more nurturing and supportive than male leaders. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 22. Most leadership research has been conducted on samples or case studies involving members of minority groups. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 23. Strategic leadership may be seen as an extension of the transactional leadership role. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 24. Following recent high-profile corporate scandals, high standards of ethical conduct are considered a prerequisite for effective leadership. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 25. Research has not provided leaders with a thorough and definitive guide to lead effectively in the virtual world. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 26. Managers of virtual organizations have to work harder to create and maintain relationships with their employees, compared to managers who have regular face-to-face contact with employees. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 27. The leader–member exchange model (LMX) a. is based on subordinate contributions and leader inducements. b. clarifies the role of communication in the leadership process. c. stresses the importance of variable relationships between supervisors and their subordinates. d. confirms the dual-structure of task and relationship behaviors by leaders. e. illustrates the situational nature of leadership, particularly in service firms.

ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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28. In the leader–member exchange model (LMX), each superior–subordinate pair is referred to as a. a matched set. b. an out-group. c. a linking mechanism. d. a vertical dyad. e. an in-group.

ANSWER: d 29. According to the leader–member exchange model (LMX), all of the following describe in-group members EXCEPT a. they receive special duties. b. they receive special privileges. c. they are privy to sensitive information. d. they have more friends at work. e. they receive more rewards.

ANSWER: d 30. According to the leader–member exchange model (LMX), all of the following describe out-group members EXCEPT a. they receive weaker support from the leader. b. they receive fewer rewards. c. they have fewer friends at work. d. they are not “in the loop” as information is shared. e. they are assigned to mundane tasks.

ANSWER: c 31. How does a supervisor initiate in-group or out-group relationships with subordinates? a. The decision may be based on personal compatibility and subordinate competence. b. Assignment into a group is based on the results of the supervisor’s least-preferred coworker scale. c. Subordinates are allowed to move freely between the in-group and out-group. d. Newer employees comprise the in-group until they learn their jobs, at which point they transfer to the outgroup. e. The relationships develop in a random, unpredictable fashion.

ANSWER: a 32. Studies have generally found that compared to out-group members, in-group members a. complain more because they have access to the leader. b. tend to have higher levels of performance and satisfaction. c. are responsible for nearly all new product developments. d. make more ethical decisions. e. are absent more often, but get more work done when they attend.

ANSWER: b 33. Michael is a manager whose subordinates have moderate readiness. According to the Hersey and Blanchard model of leadership, Michael should use which of the following styles? a. Telling b. Selling c. Participating d. Delegating Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. Situational ANSWER: b 34. Michelle is a manager whose subordinates have moderate-to-high readiness. According to the Hersey and Blanchard model of leadership, Michelle should use which of the following styles? a. Telling b. Selling c. Participating d. Delegating e. Situational ANSWER: c 35. Which of the following elements has Fiedler added to the Least Preferred Coworker (LPC) theory to describe situational favorableness? a. Charisma b. Stress c. Familiarity d. Authority e. Leader–member relations ANSWER: b 36. How has path-goal theory been refined over the years? a. The basis of the theory was changed from expectancy theory to equity theory. b. The theory was revised as a decision-making theory. c. Additional forms of leader behavior were included. d. The theory was combined with goal-setting theory. e. A software version of the model was made available to managers.

ANSWER: c 37. Carlos is a leader who has led his company by closely evaluating performance. Carlos can be best described as a. a charismatic leader. b. a transactional leader. c. a transformational leader. d. an industrial/organizational leader. e. a strategic leader.

ANSWER: b 38. All of the following are associated with transactional leaders EXCEPT a. assigning work. b. executing change. c. evaluating performance. d. making decisions. e. overseeing routine work.

ANSWER: b 39. Each of the following is associated with transformational leaders EXCEPT a. recognizing a need for change.

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b. creating a vision to guide change. c. having tremendous influence. d. managing routine work. e. executing change.

ANSWER: d 40. A leader who initiates change in a company by enhancing the culture of the work environment is using a. charismatic leadership. b. transactional leadership. c. transformational leadership. d. strategic leadership. e. path-goal leadership.

ANSWER: c 41. Which of the following traits forms the basis of Robert House’s theory of leadership? a. Job-centered behavior b. Employee-centered behavior c. Initiating structure d. Consideration e. Charisma ANSWER: e 42. All of the following are considered charismatic leaders EXCEPT a. Adolf Hitler b. Steve Jobs c. Ted Turner d. May Kay Ash e. Tim Cook ANSWER: e 43. Which of the following does NOT describe a behavior of charismatic leaders? a. Envisioning future trends and patterns b. Setting high expectations for themselves and for others c. Modeling behaviors consistent with meeting expectations d. Initiating structured tasks and making assignments e. Demonstrating personal excitement ANSWER: d 44. When a charismatic leader steps down, which of the following challenges will his or her successor likely face? a. Raising profit levels from an all-time low b. Recruiting workers who left under the prior leader c. Measuring up to the legacy of the prior leader d. Setting a vision for the organization e. Eliminating the “loose” management culture left behind ANSWER: c 45. Charismatic leadership may create which of the following ethical concerns?

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a. New employees are shunned until they demonstrate allegiance to the leader. b. Decision making is slowed because of a constant focus on the future. c. Greater concern is given to employees than to customers. d. Profit levels rise to immoral levels. e. Followers engage in inappropriate behaviors because of blind faith in the leader.

ANSWER: e 46. Leadership characteristics that can facilitate performance regardless of whether or not a leader is present are called a. leadership transformations. b. leadership attributions. c. leadership by strategy. d. leadership substitutes. e. leadership through charisma.

ANSWER: d 47. The central premise of the leadership substitutes perspective is that a. leader behaviors may be irrelevant in some situations. b. anyone can be a leader with proper training. c. effective leaders replace the need for rigid rules and policies. d. non-leaders can fill in for leaders, but only temporarily. e. performing the leadership role requires replacing management activities with leadership activities.

ANSWER: a 48. Characteristics of the organization that may substitute for leadership include all of the following EXCEPT a. rules and procedures. b. physical distance between supervisor and employee. c. rigid reward structure. d. plans and goals. e. experienced workforce.

ANSWER: e 49. Individual characteristics that may render leader behavior unnecessary include all of the following EXCEPT a. experience. b. training. c. norms. d. professionalism. e. motivation.

ANSWER: c 50. Task characteristics that may substitute for leader behavior include all of the following EXCEPT a. frequent feedback. b. intrinsic satisfaction. c. routine. d. a high degree of structure. e. tediousness.

ANSWER: e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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51. As a coach, the organizational leader would perform all of the following as formal functions of the coaching role EXCEPT a. help select team members. b. provide some general direction. c. gain an understanding of the values of their young workers. d. help train and develop team members. e. help the team get information and other resources it may need.

ANSWER: c 52. Which of the following best describes the new role of leaders in organizations? a. Decision maker b. Monitor c. Supervisor d. Director e. Coach ANSWER: e 53. Amanda often helps new employees learn the ropes and prepare to advance within the organization. Amanda is filling which role? a. Monitor b. Instructor c. Intrapreneur d. Mentor e. Accelerator ANSWER: d 54. Which of the following reflects differences in leadership style between men and women? a. Male leaders are more controlling. b. Male leaders are more task focused. c. Female leaders are more democratic in making decisions. d. Female leaders are more nurturing. e. There are virtually no differences between male and female leaders.

ANSWER: c 55. Which of the following may help explain the pattern of differences between men and women leaders? a. Men tend to be more supportive. b. Women tend to be more controlling. c. Men tend to be more task focused. d. Women tend to rely on their own judgment. e. Women tend to have stronger interpersonal skills.

ANSWER: e 56. If a Japanese firm were to send an executive to head up the firm’s operations in the United States, the executive would likely need to a. focus more on collective benefits than individual benefits. b. train U.S. employees to behave more like Japanese employees. c. replace male senior managers with females.

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d. develop a new theory of cross-cultural leadership. e. change his or her leadership style.

ANSWER: e 57. Some leadership theories are less applicable in today’s diverse workforce due to which of the following? a. Most past leadership research involved only white males. b. Past leadership theories have been shown to lead to discrimination. c. Leaders today work in a less educated workforce. d. Current civil rights laws require the development of modern theories and practices. e. Researchers have moved away from studying leaders and are now studying followers.

ANSWER: a 58. A leader who achieves a superior alignment between the organization and the environment is known as a a. virtual leader. b. natural leader. c. charismatic leader. d. structural leader. e. strategic leader.

ANSWER: e 59. Strategic leadership includes all of the following EXCEPT a. leading change. b. understanding the organization. c. understanding the organization’s environment. d. maintaining a superior alignment of the organization and the environment. e. maintaining ethical leadership.

ANSWER: e 60. In the wake of recent corporate scandals, the behaviors of top leaders a. have lost much of their impact. b. are now matters of public record. c. are being scrutinized more closely than ever. d. have become synonymous with greed. e. have become almost forgotten history.

ANSWER: c 61. Which concept explores how managers lead through various distance technologies? a. Transformational leadership b. Charismatic leadership c. Strategic leadership d. Transactional leadership e. Virtual leadership ANSWER: e 62. Moira is a manager whose subordinates have high readiness. According to the Hersey and Blanchard model of leadership, Moira should use which of the following styles? a. Telling Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. Selling c. Participating d. Delegating e. Situational ANSWER: d 63. Manny is a manager whose subordinates have low readiness. According to the Hersey and Blanchard model of leadership, Manny should use which of the following styles? a. Telling b. Selling c. Participating d. Delegating e. Situational ANSWER: a 64. Which of the following explains patterns of leadership styles typically found among leaders? a. Men tend to be less supportive. b. Women tend to be less aggressive. c. Women tend to be more task focused. d. Women face more resistance from stereotyping. e. Men tend to have stronger interpersonal skills.

ANSWER: d 65. Which leadership style of the Hersey and Blanchard model entails providing direction and defining roles? a. Telling b. Selling c. Participating d. Delegating e. Situational ANSWER: a 66. Which leadership style of the Hersey and Blanchard model entails allowing followers to work independently with little or no overseeing? a. Telling b. Selling c. Participating d. Delegating e. Situational ANSWER: d 67. Which leadership style of the Hersey and Blanchard model allows followers to share in decision making? a. Telling b. Selling c. Participating d. Delegating e. Situational ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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68. Which leadership style of the Hersey and Blanchard model entails offering direction and role definition accompanied by explanation and information? a. Telling b. Selling c. Participating d. Delegating e. Situational ANSWER: b 69. According to the LMX model, the leader’s _________ is a small group of trusted subordinates given more autonomy and responsibility than others. a. in-group b. out-group c. vertical dyad d. task force e. elite group ANSWER: a 70. According to the LMX model, the leader’s _________ receives less of the supervisor’s time and attention, is more likely to be assigned mundane tasks, is not be “in the loop” when information is shared, and receives fewer rewards and overall weaker support from the leader. a. in-group b. out-group c. vertical dyad d. task force e. elite group ANSWER: b 71. The in-group/out-group dichotomy is central to which model of leadership? a. Hersey and Blanchard b. Leader–member exchange c. Vroom’s decision tree d. Least-preferred coworker e. Attribution theory ANSWER: b 72. Jenelle is Ruby’s supervisor. Ruby often knows things Jenelle’s other subordinates don’t, and she gets the lion’s share of special, more autonomous duties. According to the LMX model, which of the following is also likely to be true? a. Ruby is part of Jenelle’s out-group. b. Ruby works fewer hours than Jenelle’s other subordinates do. c. Ruby works longer hours than Jenelle’s other subordinates do. d. Ruby gets less support from Jenelle than Jenelle’s other subordinates do. e. Ruby gets more support from Jenelle than Jenelle’s other subordinates do.

ANSWER: e

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73. Annabelle takes over as CEO of an organization that’s already doing extremely well, so she elects not to undertake any drastic changes and mainly stay the course—for the time being, at least. Annabelle is engaging in __________ leadership. a. transformational b. transactional c. charismatic d. strategic e. ethical ANSWER: b 74. Which attribute is seen as universally negative across a wide range of cultures? a. Dictatorial b. Sensitive c. Evasive d. Cunning e. Risk taking ANSWER: a 75. Which attribute is considered positive in some cultures but not in others? a. Evasive b. Ruthless c. Honest d. Dependable e. Egocentric ANSWER: a 76. Situations with implicit plans and goals and a malleable reward structure require a __________ degree of leadership. a. nonexistent b. low c. moderate d. high e. variable ANSWER: d 77. Which of the following can act as a leadership neutralizer? a. High intergroup conflict b. High intragroup conflict c. High group cohesiveness d. Low group cohesiveness e. Ambiguous project parameters ANSWER: c 78. Leaders who are coaches differ from leaders who are a. overseers. b. effective. c. ineffective. d. participative.

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e. strategic.

ANSWER: a 79. Research suggests that male leaders are, on average, ____________ than female leaders. a. more charismatic b. less nurturing c. more nurturing d. less autocratic e. more autocratic ANSWER: e 80. A tendency to exhibit modesty and sensitivity is associated with which type of leadership, according to Project GLOBE? a. Participative b. Self-protective c. Humane-oriented d. Team-oriented e. Autonomous ANSWER: c 81. According to Hersey and Blanchard, what does appropriate leader behavior depend on? a. Follower personality b. Follower loyalty c. Follower readiness d. Organizational budgets e. Intragroup conflict ANSWER: c 82. How many leadership styles does the Hersey and Blanchard model describe? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6 ANSWER: c 83. What type of leadership is focused on routine, regimented activities? a. Transformational leadership b. Charismatic leadership c. Strategic leadership d. Transactional leadership e. Virtual leadership ANSWER: d 84. What type of leadership is focused on recognizing the need for change, creating a vision to guide that change, and executing the change effectively? a. Transformational leadership Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. Charismatic leadership c. Strategic leadership d. Transactional leadership e. Virtual leadership ANSWER: a 85. Which type of leadership entails the ability to understand the complexities of both the organization and its environment so as to maintain a superior alignment between them? a. Transformational leadership b. Charismatic leadership c. Strategic leadership d. Transactional leadership e. Virtual leadership ANSWER: c 86. Gary was a relatively new and inexperienced leader assigned to an experienced work group with long-standing performance norms and strong group cohesiveness. The norms and cohesiveness of the group were so strong that nothing Gary did to change things had much effect. This situation is known as a. an in-group/out-group dichotomy. b. a poor leader–member exchange. c. a strategic quandary. d. a leadership substitute. e. a leadership neutralizer.

ANSWER: e 87. __________ leadership refers to the demonstration of morally upright conduct through personal actions and interpersonal relationships, and the promotion of such conduct to followers. a. Transformational b. Charismatic c. Strategic d. Transactional e. Ethical ANSWER: e 88. Which leadership style is characterized by firm self-confidence? a. Transformational b. Charismatic c. Transactional d. Delegating e. Attributive ANSWER: b 89. According to Project GLOBE, which type of leadership refers to being independent, individualist, and unique? a. Participative b. Self-protective c. Humane-oriented d. Team-oriented Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. Autonomous ANSWER: e 90. According to Project GLOBE, which type of leadership includes behaviors intending to ensure the safety and security of the leader and the group? a. Participative b. Self-protective c. Humane-oriented d. Team-oriented e. Autonomous ANSWER: b 91. According to Project GLOBE, which category of leadership behavior refers to the extent to which leaders are nonautocratic and involve others in making decisions? a. Participative b. Self-protective c. Humane-oriented d. Team-oriented e. Autonomous ANSWER: a 92. According to Project GLOBE, which style of leadership emphasizes creating a sense of common purpose and includes being collaborative, diplomatic, and administratively competent? a. Participative b. Self-protective c. Humane-oriented d. Team-oriented e. Autonomous ANSWER: d 93. Svetlana is self-centered and status-conscious, and she won’t hesitate to induce conflict in order to save face.

According to Project GLOBE, which style of leadership does Svetlana exhibit? a. Participative b. Self-protective c. Humane-oriented d. Team-oriented e. Autonomous ANSWER: b 94. In LMX theory, what ultimately determines whether the follower becomes a member of an in-group or an out-group? a. The leader’s competence b. The follower’s competence c. The follower’s perception of the leader d. The leader’s perception of the follower e. The size of the work group ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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95. What term refers to factors that make leadership impossible? a. Situational characteristics b. Leadership exacerbators c. Leadership diminishers d. Leadership neutralizers e. Leadership substitutes ANSWER: d 96. The difference between leadership substitutes and leadership neutralizers is that substitutes make leadership _________, whereas neutralizers make leadership impossible. a. easier b. harder c. challenging d. unnecessary e. ineffective ANSWER: d 97. A union contract that prohibits a supervisor from giving workers incentives for higher performance is an example of a leadership a. substitute. b. neutralizer. c. diminisher. d. exacerbator. e. equalizer.

ANSWER: b 98. Substitutes for leadership can come from which of the following? a. Subordinates b. The organization c. The task d. All of these are correct. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 99. Which of the following attributes is NOT culturally contingent? a. Risk taking b. Sensitive c. Evasive d. Cunning e. Egocentric ANSWER: e 100. Which of the following is NOT a good “netiquette” tip for managers? a. Be careful not to disseminate confidential information. b. Never use email if the message if highly complex or technical. c. Do not CC or BCC anyone when using email to discuss employee performance. d. Never use email to fire anyone or deliver any type of bad news.

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e. Do not rely on email so much that you forgo personal contact.

ANSWER: c Completion 101. The _________ model of leadership stresses the importance of variable relationships between supervisors and their subordinates.

ANSWER: leader–member exchange 102. Each superior–subordinate pair in the leader–member exchange model is referred to as a __________.

ANSWER: vertical dyad 103. According to the leader–member exchange model, subordinates in the __________ are likely to be privy to sensitive information.

ANSWER: in-group 104. In the Hersey and Blanchard model of leadership, when leaders are faced with highly ready followers, they should rely on __________.

ANSWER: delegating 105. ___________ leadership is essentially the same as the definition of management.

ANSWER: Transactional 106. ___________ leaders recognize the need for change and create a vision to guide that change.

ANSWER: Transformational 107. ___________ is a form of interpersonal attraction that inspires support and acceptance.

ANSWER: Charisma 108. Leadership __________ are individual, task, and organizational characteristics that tend to outweigh the leader’s ability to affect subordinate’s satisfaction and performance.

ANSWER: substitutes 109. __________ are people who help less-experienced employees learn the ropes and become better prepared to advance within the organization.

ANSWER: Mentors 110. ___________ seem to be more autocratic when they make decisions.

ANSWER: Men Matching Match the scenarios with the most appropriate style of leadership from the Hersey and Blanchard model. a. A leader’s employees have neither the interest nor the ability to make important decisions for the organization. b. A leader’s staffs have been working together in their jobs for a long time and have a high degree of motivation, experience, and skill, so the leader encourages them to work independently and tries to stay out of their way. c. A leader feels that staff members are interested and ready to start assuming more responsibility. d. A leader feels staff members aren’t ready to assume more responsibility yet.

111. Telling ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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112. Participating ANSWER: c 113. Delegating ANSWER: b 114. Selling ANSWER: d Match each of the following scenarios with the type of leadership it most clearly illustrates. a. John is the new director of a department that has been successful for a long time. His goal is to keep things running smoothly and not rocking the boat. b. Belinda is the owner of a small business that’s been growing stagnant for a few years. Its market share is beginning to slip, and Belinda knows that a total organizational overhaul is necessary to put her company back on top. c. It’s a good thing that Hillary is an ethical person, because her subordinates follow her blindly. She expects great things from her employees, and they rarely fail to rise to her expectations.

115. Transformational ANSWER: b 116. Transactional ANSWER: a 117. Charismatic ANSWER: c Match each of the following scenarios with the effect that it is likely to have on leadership. a. At the call center where Jane works, the job goals are clear and each employee knows all the rules and procedures for how to handle a call. b. At the casino where Mary works, tasks are often not clearly defined. c. Jordan hit a pay cap at the hotel where he works. His supervisor’s primary method of motivating Jordan has been with merit pay increases.

118. Enhance the need for ANSWER: b 119. Substitute for ANSWER: a 120. Neutralize ANSWER: c Essay 121. Describe the leader–member exchange model. Explain how following this model can help managers become more effective leaders.

ANSWER: The LMX model stresses the importance of variable relationships between supervisors and each of their subordinates. Each superior–subordinate pair is referred to as a “vertical dyad.” The model differs from earlier approaches in that it focuses on the differential relationship leaders often establish with different subordinates.

Relationships take the form of in-groups and out-groups, and efficiencies gained by allowing the in-group to Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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be more autonomous and accept more responsibility, while the out-group handles the more mundane, yet necessary, tasks.

122. Describe the four styles in the Hersey and Blanchard leadership model. Explain which style is most effective, and provide examples to support your response.

ANSWER: When subordinate readiness is low, for example, the leader should rely on a “telling” style by providing direction and defining roles. When low to moderate readiness exists, the leader should use a “selling” style by offering direction and role definition accompanied by explanation and information. In a case of moderate to high follower readiness, the leader should use a “participating” style, allowing followers to share in decision making. Finally, when follower readiness is high, the leader is advised to use a “delegating” style by allowing followers to work independently with little or no oversight. Each style elicits its own appropriate leader behavior.

123. Compare and contrast transactional and transformational leadership styles.

ANSWER: Transactional leadership is essentially the same as management in that it involves routine, regimented activities. Closer to the general notion of leadership, however, is transformational leadership, the set of abilities that allows the leader to recognize the need for change, to create a vision to guide that change, and to execute the change effectively. Transformational leadership focuses on the basic distinction between leading for change and leading for stability. According to this viewpoint, much of what a leader does occurs in the course of normal, routine, work-related transactions—assigning work, evaluating performance, making decisions, and so forth. Occasionally, however, the leader has to initiate and manage major change, such as managing a merger, creating a work group, or defining the organization’s culture. The first set of issues involves transactional leadership, whereas the second entails transformational leadership.

124. Describe leadership substitutes and leadership neutralizers. Provide specific examples.

ANSWER: Leadership substitutes are individual, task, and organizational characteristics that tend to outweigh the leader’s ability to affect subordinates’ satisfaction and performance. In other words, if certain factors are present, the employee will perform his or her job capably without the direction of a leader. In other situations, even if a leader is present and attempts to engage in various leadership behaviors, those behaviors may be rendered ineffective—neutralized—by various factors. These factors are referred to as leadership neutralizers. An example of a leadership substitute would be a paramedic who can assess a critical situation and stabilize ahead of any hospital personnel. A supervisor of a road work crew may have his or her ability to lead and adhere to schedule neutralized by extreme inclement weather or traffic accidents.

125. Describe the emerging importance of virtual leadership. Provide specific examples.

ANSWER: Virtual leadership is emerging as an important issue for organizations. In earlier times, leaders and their employees worked together in the same physical location and engaged in personal (i.e., face-to-face) interactions on a regular basis. But in today’s world, both leaders and their employees may work in locations that are far from one another. Such arrangements might include people who telecommute from a home office one or two days a week and people who actually live and work far from company headquarters and see one another in person infrequently. Virtual leadership, therefore, is leadership via various forms of distance technologies.

True / False 1. In its most basic sense, impression management is always wrong and manipulative. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. Power and influence are essentially interchangeable terms.

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a. True b. False ANSWER: False 3. Reward power is limited to material rewards such as pay or work assignments. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. In most cases, expert power tends to follow exact lines of authority. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. It is possible for a manager to acquire power, such as by exhibiting a high level of expertise in a task. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. Position power is power that resides in a person’s individual characteristics, regardless of the span of control. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. In general, legitimate power is exercised through a formal request that subordinates do what the leader wishes. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Coercive power exists when one person has the ability to punish or harm someone else. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. Many techniques can be used in the practice of political behavior in organizations. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. Reducing uncertainty is one way of reducing political behavior in an organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Being aware of the causes and techniques of political behavior can enable a leader to manage the effects of politics in an organization. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: True 12. According to research, employees are often more responsive to the social influence of their peers than to the control and incentives of management. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. Influence attempts are often unsuccessful on the first try. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 14. High self-monitors tend to present consistent images of themselves regardless of the situation. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. When engaging in impression management, people tend to speak at a higher pitch. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 16. People generally use political behavior to promote or protect their self-interests. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 17. Employees who exhibit compliance are following a leader’s directions but are not exerting extraordinary effort to accomplish those directions. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 18. A manager’s ability to control the information his or her subordinates have access to is called referent power. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 19. ____ power is granted by virtue of one’s position in the organization. a. Legitimate b. Reward c. Coercive d. Expert e. Referent ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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20. Examples of reward power include all of the following EXCEPT a. pay. b. work assignments. c. promotion. d. praise. e. tenure.

ANSWER: e 21. ____ power exists when a person has the ability to punish or harm someone else. a. Legitimate b. Reward c. Coercive d. Expert e. Referent ANSWER: c 22. ____ power exists when a person has valuable skills or knowledge. a. Legitimate b. Reward c. Coercive d. Expert e. Referent ANSWER: d 23. A person in the organization has the ability to given bonuses to employees as part of a corporate compensation program. This is an example of __________ power. a. referent b. legitimate c. reward d. expert e. coercive ANSWER: c 24. An up-and-coming executive who is charismatic is likely exhibiting __________ power. a. coercive b. emulation c. personal d. referent e. legitimate ANSWER: d 25. Referent power involves all of the following EXCEPT a. trust. b. similarity. c. acceptance. d. promotions.

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e. affection.

ANSWER: d 26. __________ power exists when subordinates behave as the manager does and wants because they seek his or her approval. a. Legitimate b. Reward c. Coercive d. Expert e. Referent ANSWER: e 27. Referent, expert, informational, and persuasive powers all contribute to a. psychological power. b. personal power. c. position power. d. authority. e. referent power.

ANSWER: b 28. Position power includes all of the following EXCEPT a. referent power. b. legitimate power. c. reward power. d. coercive power. e. All of these are bases of positional power.

ANSWER: a 29. Which of the following describes the concept of empowerment? a. It occurs when no training is required for employees. b. It is the process of making decisions for employees, without their input. c. It is the process of sharing power and giving others the authority to make decisions. d. It is often exercised through rational persuasion. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 30. Which of the following describes how subunits obtain power? a. Centrality and critical impact b. Strategic power c. Control of resources d. Resource scarcity e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 31. Which response to influence entails endorsing the influence attempt and becoming an actively involved participant? a. Passive resistance b. Commitment Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. Compliance d. Active resistance e. Loyalty ANSWER: b 32. Managers may enhance their referent power by a. choosing subordinates who have backgrounds similar to their own. b. defending subordinates’ interests. c. engaging in role modeling. d. treating subordinates fairly. e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 33. What is the reasoning behind role modeling? a. Having managers act out the role of the subordinate gives them a better understanding of the subordinate’s feelings. b. A manager should select subordinates who are similar to him or her. c. Having subordinates act out the role of manager in contrived settings gives them a better understanding of directives. d. A leader behaves in the same way that he or she wants subordinates to behave. e. A leader is more likely to build referent power if he or she is sensitive to others’ needs and feelings.

ANSWER: d 34. Which of the following is NOT a way that managers can enhance expert power? a. Staying current in their field b. Acting confident c. Telling the truth d. Keeping experience and accomplishments private e. Engaging in formal training and on-the-job learning ANSWER: d 35. In general, how do leaders exercise legitimate power? a. Issuing formal requests b. Maintaining credibility c. Making requests in a demanding tone d. Keeping aware of information that is relevant and that may be needed by the organization e. Keeping aware of subordinates’ actions ANSWER: a 36. A guideline for using legitimate power is a. engaging in role modeling. b. maintaining credibility. c. making requests politely but confidently. d. verifying compliance. e. revealing accomplishments and awards.

ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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37. If a subunit’s work __________, its power position decreases. a. can’t be duplicated b. can be outsourced c. is specialized d. is hard to replace e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: b 38. Offering incentives that are desirable to workers is an example of how to effectively use __________ power. a. referent b. legitimate c. reward d. expert e. coercive ANSWER: c 39. Each of the following reduces political behavior EXCEPT a. formal rules and procedures. b. open communication. c. acting as a good role model. d. confronting employees who act inefficiently, unethically, or irresponsibly. e. All of these can reduce political behavior.

ANSWER: e 40. Jim strongly disagrees with a new program that is being developed and wants to prevent the program from moving forward. Jim manages to fill up the department meeting agenda with other issues, so there isn’t enough time to discuss the new program. Which political behavior technique has Jim used? a. Game playing b. Controlling the agenda c. Using outside experts d. Controlling information e. Controlling decision parameters ANSWER: b 41. Techniques of political behavior include all of the following EXCEPT a. eliminating political rivals. b. building coalitions. c. leveraging technology. d. image building. e. controlling lines of communication.

ANSWER: c 42. ____ power involves the use of pleasurable consequences to influence and motivate followers. a. Legitimate b. Reward c. Coercive d. Expert Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. Referent ANSWER: b 43. ____ power is derived from control over access to valuable data. a. Expert b. Reward c. Persuasive d. Informational e. Referent ANSWER: d 44. ____ power is derived from one’s ability to convince others of something. a. Expert b. Reward c. Persuasive d. Informational e. Referent ANSWER: c 45. Which of the following is NOT a type of personal power? a. Reward b. Persuasive c. Informational d. Expert e. Referent ANSWER: a 46. Which of the following terms refers to a person or group’s potential to influence another person or group to do something that would otherwise not have been done? a. Strength b. Politics c. Charisma d. Coercion e. Power ANSWER: e 47. Which of the following does NOT contribute to the leadership motive pattern? a. High need for achievement b. High need for power c. High impulse control d. Low need for affiliation e. All of these contribute to the leadership motive pattern.

ANSWER: a 48. David McClelland found that the primary driver of a leader’s performance was the leader’s a. lack of impulse control. b. need for approval.

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c. need for affiliation. d. need for achievement. e. need for power.

ANSWER: e 49. The desire to control, influence, or be responsible for others is called a need for a. domination. b. approval. c. power. d. achievement. e. affiliation.

ANSWER: c 50. Which response to influence entails going along with what the influencer wants without becoming personally invested? a. Passive resistance b. Commitment c. Compliance d. Active resistance e. Loyalty ANSWER: c 51. Which response to influence entails rejecting the influence attempt but not getting in the way of what the influencer is trying to do? a. Passive resistance b. Commitment c. Compliance d. Active resistance e. Loyalty ANSWER: a 52. Which response to influence entails rejecting the influence attempt and actively trying to stop the influencer from doing what she is trying to do? a. Passive resistance b. Commitment c. Compliance d. Active resistance e. Loyalty ANSWER: d 53. Which political tactic entails strategically restricting who has access to what data? a. Game playing b. Controlling the agenda c. Using outside experts d. Controlling information e. Controlling decision parameters ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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54. Which political tactic entails using “neutral” third parties who are actually paid and directed by someone, or otherwise predisposed to act in her favor? a. Game playing b. Controlling the agenda c. Using outside experts d. Controlling information e. Controlling decision parameters ANSWER: c 55. Which political tactic entails trying to influence decisions before they are made? a. Game playing b. Controlling the agenda c. Using outside experts d. Controlling information e. Controlling decision parameters ANSWER: e 56. Which political tactic entails the use of tricks such as leaking information or having only friends fill out a survey? a. Game playing b. Controlling the agenda c. Using outside experts d. Controlling information e. Controlling decision parameters ANSWER: a 57. Which political tactic entails the use of “spin doctors” to project a desirable image? a. Eliminating political rivals b. Building coalitions c. Leveraging technology d. Image building e. Controlling lines of communication ANSWER: d 58. Which political tactic entails befriending powerful people or starting small subgroups to promote specific aims? a. Eliminating political rivals b. Building coalitions c. Leveraging technology d. Image building e. Controlling lines of communication ANSWER: b 59. Which political tactic may entail getting an opponent promoted? a. Eliminating political rivals b. Building coalitions c. Leveraging technology d. Image building Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. Controlling lines of communication ANSWER: a 60. Which political tactic entails establishing gatekeepers to restrict access to information? a. Eliminating political rivals b. Building coalitions c. Leveraging technology d. Image building e. Controlling lines of communication ANSWER: e 61. Which of the following behaviors can lead to abuse of power? a. Demeaning an employee b. Exploiting an employee c. Taking advantage of an employee d. Influencing others to do things they later regret e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 62. Which term refers to acting in a way that influences someone to do something against their better judgment that they later regret? a. Abuse of power b. Coercion c. Empowerment d. Power e. Leadership ANSWER: a 63. Which term refers to sharing power with employees and giving them the authority to make and implement at least some decisions? a. Abuse of power b. Coercion c. Empowerment d. Power e. Leadership ANSWER: c 64. ________ can increase a leader’s power. a. Performing well b. Being exploitive c. Being coercive d. Performing adequately e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 65. When resources become scarce, it causes power differences across subunits to a. become irrelevant.

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b. reduce. c. magnify. d. fluctuate. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 66. A subunit’s _________ is the extent to which it influences the work of other subunits and has a critical impact on the firm’s key product or service. a. referent power b. uncertainty c. resource scarcity d. centrality e. substitutability ANSWER: d 67. A subunit’s power is reduced to the extent that others inside or outside of the organization can also perform its responsibilities. This reflects the subunit’s a. referent power. b. uncertainty. c. resource scarcity. d. centrality. e. substitutability.

ANSWER: e 68. If a subunit’s work can be outsourced, that unit’s power a. decreases. b. increases. c. fluctuates. d. doesn’t change. e. decreases at first, then increases over time.

ANSWER: a 69. The subunits most capable of coping with uncertainty tend to have a. greater power. b. less power. c. moderate power. d. more intragroup conflict. e. more intergroup conflict.

ANSWER: a 70. Which term reflects how people translate their power to affect the behavior of others? a. Influence tactics b. Power tactics c. Need for power d. Need for control e. Image management Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: a 71. Of the various influence tactics, which one has been found to be the least effective? a. Exchange b. Pressure c. Coalition d. Ingratiation e. Legitimating ANSWER: b 72. Which influence tactic entails engaging the help of others to persuade someone to do something? a. Exchange b. Pressure c. Coalition d. Ingratiation e. Legitimating ANSWER: c 73. Which influence tactic entails offering to provide something of value now or in the future for someone’s cooperation? a. Exchange b. Pressure c. Coalition d. Ingratiation e. Legitimating ANSWER: a 74. Which influence tactic entails flattering or praising someone to put them in a good mood or to make them more likely to want to help? a. Exchange b. Pressure c. Coalition d. Ingratiation e. Legitimating ANSWER: d 75. Which influence tactic entails enhancing one’s formal authority to make a certain request by referring to rules, precedents, or official documents? a. Exchange b. Pressure c. Coalition d. Ingratiation e. Legitimating ANSWER: e 76. Which influence tactic entails using coercion or persistent follow-up or reminders to gain influence? a. Exchange b. Pressure Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. Coalition d. Ingratiation e. Legitimating ANSWER: b 77. Of the various influence tactics, which one has been found to be the most effective? a. Equal exchange b. Extreme pressure c. Coalition d. Rational persuasion e. Legitimating ANSWER: d 78. Which influence tactic risks undesirable side effects such as resentment? a. Exchange b. Pressure c. Coalition d. Ingratiation e. Legitimating ANSWER: b 79. Which influence tactic is seen as more credible when used early rather than after other influence attempts have failed? a. Exchange b. Pressure c. Coalition d. Ingratiation e. Legitimating ANSWER: d 80. Because of its higher cost, which influence tactic do leaders typically only use after other tactics have failed? a. Exchange b. Pressure c. Coalition d. Ingratiation e. Legitimating ANSWER: a 81. The use of humor may contribute to which influence tactic? a. Exchange b. Pressure c. Coalition d. Ingratiation e. Legitimating ANSWER: d 82. Which influence tactic entails appealing to someone’s aspirations, values, and ideals to gain her commitment or increasing people’s confidence that they can do something in order to increase motivation?

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a. Rational persuasion b. Consultation c. Personal appeals d. Empowerment e. Inspirational appeals ANSWER: e 83. Which influence tactic entails asking someone to do something “because we’re friends”? a. Rational persuasion b. Consultation c. Personal appeals d. Empowerment e. Inspirational appeals ANSWER: c 84. Which influence tactic entails using logic and facts to persuade someone? a. Rational persuasion b. Consultation c. Personal appeals d. Empowerment e. Inspirational appeals ANSWER: a 85. Which influence tactic entails requesting someone’s advice to solve a problem or mutually setting goals to increase a follower’s commitment to the leader’s decision? a. Rational persuasion b. Consultation c. Personal appeals d. Empowerment e. Inspirational appeals ANSWER: b 86. Which influence tactic should be used early if you expect doubts about the validity of your request? a. Exchange b. Pressure c. Coalition d. Ingratiation e. Legitimating ANSWER: e 87. Which of the following influence tactics is generally the most effective? a. Coalition tactics b. Consultation c. Personal appeals d. Legitimating tactics e. Ingratiation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: b 88. Which term refers to the process of portraying a desired image or attitude to control the impression others form of us? a. Influence b. Politics c. Empowerment d. Impression management e. Leadership ANSWER: d 89. Which term refers to having a high concern with others’ perceptions and adjusting one’s behavior to fit the situation? a. Political skill b. Manipulation c. Machiavellianism d. Self-monitoring e. Vanity ANSWER: d 90. Which of the following is NOT a “tell” that someone is using impression management? a. Allowing greater periods of silence during the conversation b. Looking away rather than at the person being spoken to c. Leg fidgeting d. More frequent blinking e. More hand gesturing ANSWER: e 91. Which type of power does NOT rely on external motivation and obligatory obedience? a. Expert b. Coercive c. Reward d. Legitimate e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 92. Which of the following is an example of abuse of power? a. Disrespecting individual dignity b. Interfering with job performance c. Withholding deserved rewards d. Discouraging employees from helping others e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 93. Sexual ___________, which is a form of abuse of power, refers to unwanted sexual advances, requests, communication, or contact with the threat of punishment for noncompliance. a. innuendo b. harassment c. assault Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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d. treatment e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: b 94. Which of the following increases the incidence of political behaviors? a. Complexity b. Ambiguous roles and goals c. Centralization d. Scarce resources e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 95. Leaders should adjust their use of power a. under no circumstances b. based on the people the leaders are trying to influence c. if employees are motivated by monetary rewards. d. based on the industry they work in. e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: b 96. Because the effects of referent and expert power rely on the employee’s internal motivation and voluntary compliance, they are a. never appropriate. b. an abuse of power. c. sometimes appropriate. d. always appropriate. e. a form of empowerment.

ANSWER: d 97. Which of the following is NOT a source of empowerment for employees? a. Coaching b. Control over their work c. Skills training d. Being told that they are empowered e. Technology ANSWER: d 98. Which of the following recommendations would NOT help someone to be more persuasive? a. Connect with people emotionally b. Create a continuous feedback loop c. Begin with a hard sell d. Be patient e. Be willing to compromise ANSWER: c 99. What term refers to making informal or formal appeals to organizational superiors for intervention? a. Downward appeal Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. Upward appeal c. Inspirational appeal d. Managerial appeal e. Coalition formation ANSWER: b 100. ____________ refers to going along in order to get ahead. a. Inaction b. Impression management c. Politics d. Upward influence e. Downward influence ANSWER: a Completion 101. The threat to transfer someone to a branch office in an undesirable location can be interpreted as a form of ___________ power.

ANSWER: coercive 102. Legitimate, reward, and coercive power all contribute to __________ power.

ANSWER: position 103. ____________________ is a form of influence where the subordinate is willing to carry out the leader’s wishes as long as doing so will not require extraordinary effort.

ANSWER: Compliance 104. For many people, ________ is often assumed to be synonymous with dirty tricks or backstabbing.

ANSWER: politics 105. A subunit’s ____________________ is the extent to which others inside or outside of the organization can also

perform its responsibilities.

ANSWER: substitutability 106. The degree to which power is shared and an employee has the authority to make and implement at least some decisions is called ___________.

ANSWER: empowerment 107. The ________ of power is using any type of power to demean, exploit, or take advantage of someone or influencing someone to do something he or she later regrets.

ANSWER: abuse 108. The process of portraying a desired image or attitude to control the impression others form of us is called _________.

ANSWER: impression management 109. The _________ upward influence style, which uses the most influence and emphasizes assertiveness and bargaining, is associated with the highest levels of job tension and personal stress.

ANSWER: shotgun

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110. The _________ influence tactic involves appealing to someone’s aspirations, values, and ideals to gain commitment to an idea.

ANSWER: inspirational appeals Matching A high-ranking manager interviewed six employees for a promotion. Candidates responded with the following final statements at the end of the interview. Match each candidate’s approach with the upward influence tactic it most clearly illustrates. a. “I've always looked up to your leadership. Regardless of who gets this promotion, I know that as long as you stay at the helm, this department will be successful.” b. “I personally wrote the software that will be used, and whoever gets this position will need to manage it, so I’d be the most likely candidate to complete projects quickly and without errors.” c. “I talked to other members of the marketing department earlier, and they were really excited about the prospect of having me in this role. I think they really support my candidacy.” d. “If you give me this promotion, I will volunteer to be on any special projects you’re working on this year.” e. “I know I’m the best, and you know I’m the best. Give me the promotion. Please!” f. One candidate said nothing as he left, and then went to the manager’s supervisor and asked him to influence the manager’s decision.

111. ingratiation ANSWER: a 112. upward appeal ANSWER: f 113. coalition formation ANSWER: c 114. rationality ANSWER: b 115. exchange ANSWER: d 116. assertiveness ANSWER: e Match each of the following types of power with the scenario that most clearly illustrates it. Some choices may not be unused. a. referent power b. reward power c. informational power d. coercive power e. persuasive power f. legitimate power g. expert power 117. One of your subordinates follows your lead unhesitatingly because he looks up to you as a role model.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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118. One of your subordinates will do just about anything if he can get paid extra to do it.

ANSWER: b 119. Because you wrote the software that most of the team is working on, your coworkers often defer to you when making decisions.

ANSWER: g 120. Because you have worked at three of your competitors and still have a lot of friends at them, your coworkers often come to you to learn about what is going on at these companies.

ANSWER: c Essay 121. Describe the concept of impression management. Explain the implications for managers.

ANSWER: Impression management is the process of portraying a desired image or attitude to control the impression others form of us. This does not mean that the presented image is accurate, although misrepresenting your image can backfire if others later learn that the image is false. Impression management is not inherently a bad thing—in fact, most people regularly engage in some form of interpersonal deception. People who engage in impression management often take great care to be perceived in a positive light. Impression management techniques are commonly used by job applicants in interviews with positive results. In particular, impression management techniques related to self-promotion and ingratiation tend to work well in job interviews. Selfpromotion may not work as well on the job, however, because the supervisor has a better opportunity to observe what you can really do. In fact, self-promotion is related to lower performance evaluations. As a manager, being able to detect others’ impression management and deception is obviously useful. Because nonverbal cues are most indicative of deception, focusing on the person’s body language is particularly helpful.

122. Discuss the difference between personal and position power. Provide examples of each. Discuss the implications of these differences for managers.

ANSWER: Position power (legitimate, reward, and coercive powers) is derived from the position one holds in an organization. Personal power (expert, informational, referent, and persuasive powers) comes from the unique characteristics of individuals regardless of their position in the organization. Because leadership is more effective to the degree that followers’ behaviors toward the leader’s goals are voluntary and not coerced, effective leaders tend to rely on expert and referent power more than legitimate, reward, or coercive power.

Examples of the different types of power will vary.

123. Describe how subunits gain power. Provide examples to illustrate the factors that affect subunit power levels.

ANSWER: A subunit’s power is derived either from its control of resources or through its strategic power. The more desirable and important the resources controlled by a group (e.g., budget, space), the greater the group’s resource power. Groups that occupy a central role in decision making wield greater strategic power by influencing higher-level decisions. Key subunits that influence the performance of other subunits have greater power. The four conditions that enhance a subunit’s power include resource scarcity (where power is greater for subunits that control scarce resources), centrality (where powerful subunits influence the work of many other subunits or their impact is critical or immediate), substitutability (where power is reduced to the extent that others inside or outside of the organization can also perform the subunit’s responsibilities), and uncertainty (where subunits most capable of coping with uncertainty or of guiding the organization through a period of increased uncertainty tend to have greater power). Examples will vary.

124. Describe which influence tactics are most effective, and which are least effective. Provide examples that support your response.

ANSWER: The primary influence tactics are coalition formation, consultation, exchange, ingratiation, inspirational appeals, legitimating tactics, personal appeals, pressure, and rational persuasion. Of the various influence Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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tactics, rational persuasion, inspirational appeals, and consultation have been found to be the most effective, as they call forth commitment or at least compliance from others, and pressure is the least effective, as it risks resentment and resistance, either active or passive. Examples will vary.

125. Describe the concept of organizational politics. Provide examples that explain how managers can limit political behavior.

ANSWER: Organizational politics are social influence attempts directed at people who can provide rewards that will help promote or protect the self-interests of the actor. At some point everyone needs to influence others to follow their ideas or preferred courses of action, and doing that requires the use of politics. Effectively influencing others through persuasion, generating support, and inspiring trust are the core of effective politics. When politics are constructive rather than destructive, they are unnoticeable. When politics are used to advance selfserving causes, employees tend to perceive the workplace as more highly political. The more political employees perceive a work environment to be, the greater their job anxiety and intentions to leave, and the lower their job and supervisor satisfaction and organizational commitment. Individuals’ perceptions about the political nature of their work environment impact employees’ productivity and how political the environment will actually be. Employees who perceive that others get ahead by acting politically engage in more political behaviors themselves. Organizational culture is thus influenced by the perceived degree of political activity and how the employees in that organization react to these perceptions. Political skill involves having interpersonal influence as well as social astuteness, which involves showing respect for others’ ways of thinking. Developing a strong network and being perceived by others as sincere also reflects high political skill. Political skill has been found to be positively related to job performance. Because political behavior is self-serving, it has the potential to threaten the self-interests of others. Organizational policies sometimes reward and perpetuate political behavior. In particular, compensation policies may inadvertently reward individuals who engage in influence behaviors and penalize those who do not. Individually oriented rewards induce individually oriented behavior, which is often self-interested and political in nature. When this type of behavior is rewarded or reinforced, the tactics used to secure the reward will likely be repeated. This can lead to cultures that foster and reward political behavior. Rewarding political behavior can induce those who have not acted politically in the past to do so in the future. Individuals who perceive themselves as inequitably rewarded relative to others who engage in organizational politics may begin engaging in political behaviors to increase their own rewards. Because political behaviors are enhanced by organizational factors including scarce resources, ambiguous roles and goals, centralization, and complexity, formal rules and procedures can help to reduce the occurrence of political behavior. Clarifying job expectations; opening the communication process; confronting employees acting inefficiently, unethically, or irresponsibly; and serving as a good role model can all decrease political behavior. Keeping the number of employees assigned to each manager at a reasonable level is another way to decrease political behavior. In large workgroups, the amount of attention a supervisor is able to devote to each employee decreases. This can increase ambiguity and uncertainty, promoting a more political environment. Managing politics is about managing power. If you understand the motivations and aspirations of your subordinates, you can help them to attain what they most want without resorting to politics or the inappropriate use of power. Building trust and openness to allow employees to freely discuss their feelings, fears, and opinions without fear of retaliation decreases the need for political behavior.

True / False 1. The purpose of organizational structure is to appeal to external competitors. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 2. An organizational chart illustrates the chain of command and reporting relationships in a company. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. False ANSWER: True 3. Efficient use of labor is one of the advantages of division of labor. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. One downside of a high division of labor is that it tends to isolate employees. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Span of control refers to the number of people reporting to an individual. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. When a manager has a large span of control, he or she can maintain close control over workers and stay in contact with daily operations. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. Division of labor is the separation of work into different jobs to be done by different people. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. Centralization is the system of reporting relationships in the organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 9. A centralized organization concentrates decision making at the top of its hierarchy. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. If there is a lot of employee participation in the decision-making process, the organization structure is decentralized, regardless of the nature of the decisions being made. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Formalization tends to delineate rules and procedures for employees’ jobs. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: True 12. An example of formalization is writing down job descriptions and procedures. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 13. Span of control is the degree to which rules and procedures shape employees’ jobs and activities. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. Authority cannot be delegated to others. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. Businesses should strive to determine an optimal organizational size. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 16. Firms tend to start with an organic structure and then they retain elements of that structure as they grow. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 17. A company’s characteristics are determined largely by the founder’s personality and values, often stay with the company even after it grows. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 18. A virtual organization may not even have a permanent office. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 19. It’s impossible for managers to create effective communities of practice, only the conditions necessary for them to exist. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 20. Most organizational problems can be fixed with restructuring. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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21. Communities of practice are not an official part of organizational structure, but they can make money for the organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 22. The structure of an organization is defined as a. the basic purpose of the organization. b. the sum of the individual working arrangements in place in an organization. c. a system of task, reporting, and authority relationships. d. a system of relationships that provides a framework of people. e. the basis through which individual activities are monitored.

ANSWER: c 23. The organizational ________ is defined as the system of task, reporting, and authority relationships within which the work of the organization is done. a. goal system b. management c. structure d. community e. matrix ANSWER: c 24. Organizational structure can be analyzed by examining all of the following EXCEPT a. division of labor. b. span of control. c. hierarchy. d. centralization. e. All of these can be examined.

ANSWER: e 25. The ________ shows all people, positions, reporting relationships, and lines of formal communication in the organization. a. objectives chart b. organizational chart c. position chart d. PERT chart e. activities chart ANSWER: b 26. Division of labor is often referred to as a. departmentalization. b. the organizational chart. c. specialization.

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d. configuration. e. the administrative hierarchy.

ANSWER: c 27. _________ is the extent to which workers in an organization specialize as opposed to performing a variety of tasks as generalists. a. Segregation b. Departmentalization c. Differentiation d. Administrative component e. Division of labor ANSWER: e 28. The main advantage of division of labor is that it promotes a. worker satisfaction. b. worker autonomy. c. the creation of stimulating jobs. d. efficient use of labor. e. increased employee motivation.

ANSWER: d 29. Which of the following is a potential disadvantage of division of labor? a. Slower response to environmental changes b. Organizational flexibility c. Decreased potential for conflict, both constructive and destructive d. Greater isolation of employees e. All of these are potential disadvantages of division of labor.

ANSWER: d 30. Jobs grouped according to traditional business tasks such as marketing and human resources are grouped by a. work process. b. employee knowledge and skills. c. business function. d. client. e. location.

ANSWER: c 31. Dividing an organization’s manufacturing jobs into drill press, milling, heat treat, and assembly areas is an example of grouping employees by a. work process. b. employee knowledge and skills. c. business function. d. client. e. location.

ANSWER: a

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32. Grouping employees by ___________ is similar to grouping them by output, except that the focus is on specific job tasks rather than on what the final product is. a. work process b. employee knowledge and skills c. business function d. client e. location ANSWER: d 33. Grouping employees by ___________ means that groups are organized according to a region of the country or world. a. business function b. location c. output d. work process e. client ANSWER: b 34. ____ is the number of people reporting to a manager. a. Administrative intensity b. Span of control c. Work group size d. Organizational control e. Organizational management ANSWER: b 35. When there is a small span of control, there is likely to be a. an increase in the number of workers. b. less control over production workers. c. more administrative levels. d. less bureaucracy. e. looser managerial control.

ANSWER: c 36. The system of reporting relationships in the organization, from the first level up through the president or CEO is known as a. informal communication channels. b. hierarchy. c. bureaucracy. d. administrative interdependence. e. formal communication channels.

ANSWER: b 37. In Jack’s organization, the span of control is very wide. In Pam’s organization, the span of control is rather narrow.

The number of levels of managers in Jack’s organization is likely to be _______ in Pam’s organization. a. greater than b. smaller than c. the same as that Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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d. narrower than e. wider than ANSWER: b 38. When individuals or groups throughout the hierarchy are not given an opportunity to participate in decision making, authority is a. centralized. b. efficient. c. specialized. d. flexible. e. decentralized.

ANSWER: a 39. In Tom’s company, employees are given an opportunity to participate in decision making related to policy development, which is known as a. formalized centralization. b. formalized concentration. c. decentralization. d. formalization. e. centralization.

ANSWER: c 40. Formalization reflects the extent to which organizational rules, procedures, and communications are a. ethical. b. fair. c. written down. d. comprehensive. e. top-down.

ANSWER: c 41. Delegation is the transfer of ____ to make decisions and use organizational resources. a. responsibility b. authority c. leadership d. operational control e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: b 42. All of the following elements increase as an organization’s size increases, EXCEPT a. centralization. b. the number of rules. c. the number of levels in the hierarchy. d. flexibility. e. specialization of labor.

ANSWER: d 43. A mechanistic structure can be characterized by all of the following EXCEPT Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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a. it is primarily hierarchical. b. communication is typically vertical. c. knowledge is concentrated at the top. d. instructions come from the boss. e. a high focus on adaptability.

ANSWER: e 44. The benefits of a matrix organizational structure include all of the following EXCEPT a. it is flexible. b. it can provide coordinated responses to pressures. c. it is cheaper. d. it improves project coordination. e. it improves communication.

ANSWER: c 45. _________ organizations are flexible and decentralized, have open communication channels, and focus on adaptability in helping employees accomplish their goals. a. Organic b. Mechanistic c. Matrix d. Simple e. Bureaucratic ANSWER: a 46. Organizational structure is NOT impacted by which of the following factors? a. External environment b. Organization’s production technology c. Organizational age d. Organizational size e. Business strategy ANSWER: c 47. An innovation business strategy would best support firms with which type of organizational structure? a. Centralization b. Decentralization c. Low specialization d. High formalization e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: b 48. An organization with _________ structure is likely to succeed in a rapidly changing environment. a. less flexible b. more formalized c. more bureaucratic d. more mechanistic e. more flexible Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: e 49. Large organizations tend to have a _________ hierarchy and more specialization than small organizations. a. relaxed b. smaller c. greater d. shorter e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 50. The structure of small organizations tends to be _________ than the structure found in large organizations. a. less flexible b. more centralized c. more bureaucratic d. less bureaucratic e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 51. Employees are typically encouraged to make decisions and work collaboratively when the organizational structure is _________ a. centralized. b. flat. c. narrow. d. decentralized. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 52. Organizational structure is impacted by the organization’s technology, which is also called its a. hours of operation. b. business strategy. c. organizational chart. d. primary production system. e. secondary production system.

ANSWER: d 53. When a firm uses _________, typically small batches or one-of-a-kind custom products are produced. a. unit production b. mass production c. continuous production d. a primary production system e. a matrix structure ANSWER: a 54. When a firm uses _________, typically large volumes of identical products are produced, often using assembly lines and machines. a. unit production b. mass production Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. continuous production d. a primary production system e. a matrix structure ANSWER: b 55. When a firm uses _________, products are created on machines, and employees monitor those machines and implement changes. a. unit production b. mass production c. continuous production d. a primary production system e. a matrix structure ANSWER: c 56. Little supervision is required with which type of production? a. Unit production b. Mass production c. Continuous production d. A primary production system e. A matrix structure ANSWER: c 57. Employee talent is relied on most in which type of production? a. Unit production b. Mass production c. Continuous production d. A primary production system e. A matrix structure ANSWER: a 58. A firm using unit production and making custom products would typically have a _________ structure with a smaller managerial span of control. a. flatter b. larger c. taller d. complex e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 59. A flatter, team-based structure is usually most appropriate when firms rely primarily on a. unskilled workers. b. highly skilled workers. c. mass production. d. continuous production. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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60. Smaller organizations with low standardization, total centralization, and mostly one-on-one communication have a a. matrix structure. b. functional structure. c. bureaucratic structure. d. prebureaucratic structure. e. lattice structure.

ANSWER: d 61. In organizations with a _________, cross-functional and cross-level subteams are formed and dissolved as necessary to complete specific projects and tasks. a. matrix structure b. functional structure c. bureaucratic structure d. prebureaucratic structure e. lattice structure ANSWER: e 62. In organizations with a _________, employees report to both a project or product team and to a functional manager. a. matrix structure b. functional structure c. bureaucratic structure d. prebureaucratic structure e. lattice structure ANSWER: a 63. Organizations with a _________ are characterized by formal division of labor, hierarchy, and standardization of work procedures. a. matrix structure b. functional structure c. bureaucratic structure d. prebureaucratic structure e. lattice structure ANSWER: c 64. _________ is an organizational structure that groups people with the same skills, or who use similar tools or work processes, together into departments. a. Matrix structure b. Functional structure c. Bureaucratic structure d. Prebureaucratic structure e. Lattice structure ANSWER: b 65. Organizations with a _________ create horizontal or vertical teams that can define part or all of the organization. a. division structure b. team-based structure c. network structure Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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d. virtual structure e. centralized structure ANSWER: b 66. A ________ is a collection of functions organized around a particular geographic area, product or service, or market. a. division b. lattice c. network organization d. matrix e. bureaucracy ANSWER: a 67. A _________ is a collection of autonomous units or firms that act as a single larger entity, using social mechanisms for coordination and control. a. division b. lattice c. network organization d. matrix e. bureaucracy ANSWER: c 68. Which type of structure do new or young organizations typically have? a. Matrix structure b. Functional structure c. Bureaucratic structure d. Prebureaucratic structure e. Lattice structure ANSWER: d 69. A large organization’s legal department is staffed solely with lawyers. This illustrates a. matrix structure. b. functional structure. c. bureaucratic structure. d. prebureaucratic structure. e. lattice structure.

ANSWER: d 70. In a ____________, all functional activities are controlled by a product group at headquarters; local managers do not usually provide input into product decisions and are involved only in local administrative, legal, and financial affairs. a. global area division structure b. regional lattice structure c. regional headquarters structure d. global product division structure e. global transnational division structure ANSWER: d

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71. A ____________ has a balanced, matrixed relationship between local managers and headquarters with a two-way flow of ideas, resources, and employees between the two locations. a. global area division structure b. regional lattice structure c. regional headquarters structure d. global product division structure e. global transnational division structure ANSWER: e 72. In a ____________, a headquarters is established in major geographical areas that work collaboratively with the product divisions to give the local units clearer operational goals and directions. a. global area division structure b. regional lattice structure c. regional headquarters structure d. global product division structure e. global transnational division structure ANSWER: c 73. In a ____________, regional and/or country managers are given substantial autonomy to adapt strategies to fit local situations. a. global area division structure b. regional lattice structure c. regional headquarters structure d. global product division structure e. global transnational division structure ANSWER: a 74. Which type of multinational organizational structure is appropriate when local differences are large and the benefits of global integration are small? a. Global area division structure b. Regional lattice structure c. Regional headquarters structure d. Global product division structure e. Global transnational division structure ANSWER: a 75. Which type of multinational organizational structure is appropriate when the benefits of global integration are large and local differences are small? a. Global area division structure b. Regional lattice structure c. Regional headquarters structure d. Global product division structure e. Global transnational division structure ANSWER: d 76. Which type of multinational organizational structure works best when both global integration and local responsiveness are needed?

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a. Global area division structure b. Regional lattice structure c. Regional headquarters structure d. Global product division structure e. Global transnational division structure ANSWER: e 77. Which type of multinational organizational structure is best when a balance of global integration and local responsiveness is needed? a. Global area division structure b. Regional lattice structure c. Regional headquarters structure d. Global product division structure e. Global transnational division structure ANSWER: c 78. Which type of structure is characterized by employees having two bosses at the same time? a. Matrix structure b. Functional structure c. Bureaucratic structure d. Prebureaucratic structure e. Lattice structure ANSWER: a 79. Which type of organizational structure places a greater importance on employees higher in the structure, as reflected by centralized decision making and a strict chain of command? a. Matrix structure b. Functional structure c. Bureaucratic structure d. Prebureaucratic structure e. Lattice structure ANSWER: c 80. In which type of organization do managers spend a lot of time coordinating and controlling the network of contractors and strategic alliances? a. Multinational organization b. Lattice organization c. Network organization d. Matrix organization e. Bureaucratic organization ANSWER: c 81. In which type of structure do costs tend to be higher due to the presence of program managers in addition to the functional managers? a. Bureaucratic structure b. Prebureaucratic structure c. Network structure Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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d. Matrix structure e. Team-based structure ANSWER: d 82. Which type of organizational structure provides the founder the most control over the organization’s decisions and growth? a. Matrix structure b. Functional structure c. Bureaucratic structure d. Prebureaucratic structure e. Lattice structure ANSWER: d 83. A _________ contracts out almost all of its functions except for the company name and managing the coordination among the contractors. a. lattice organization b. virtual organization c. network organization d. matrix organization e. community of practice ANSWER: b 84. In which integrating mechanism do managers from different units informally work together to coordinate or to identify and solve shared problems? a. Community of practice b. Task force c. Liaison role d. Direct contact e. Cross-functional team ANSWER: d 85. In which integrating mechanism is a manager or team member held formally accountable for communicating and coordinating with other groups? a. Community of practice b. Task force c. Liaison role d. Direct contact e. Cross-functional team ANSWER: c 86. Which term refers to a temporary committee formed to address a specific project or problem? a. Community of practice b. Task force c. Liaison role d. Direct contact e. Cross-functional team ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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87. Which term refers to a permanent committee formed to address specific problems or recurring needs? a. Community of practice b. Task force c. Liaison role d. Direct contact e. Cross-functional team ANSWER: e 88. Which term refers to a group of people whose shared expertise and interest in a joint enterprise informally binds them together? a. Community of practice b. Task force c. Liaison role d. Direct contact e. Cross-functional team ANSWER: a 89. The difference between direct contact and a liaison role is that direct contact is _________ whereas a liaison role is formal. a. informal b. permanent c. temporary d. ineffective e. effective ANSWER: b 90. The difference between a task force and a cross-functional team is that a task force is _________ whereas a crossfunctional team is permanent. a. formal b. informal c. temporary d. ineffective e. effective ANSWER: c 91. A group of civil engineers who share their knowledge and insights with other civil engineers is an example of a a. structured organization. b. virtual organization. c. community of practice. d. task force. e. cross-functional team.

ANSWER: c 92. Which of the following is NOT a good suggestion for creating the conditions that enable communities of practice to flourish? a. Start with a clear area of business need.

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b. Recruit management involvement. c. Don’t start timidly. d. Build on informal employee initiatives already underway. e. Celebrate contributions.

ANSWER: c 93. When an organizational restructuring results in fewer employees, which of the following is NOT a common effect on the employees who remain? a. Increased turnover intention b. Increased stress c. Increased motivation d. Decreased commitment e. All of these are common effects.

ANSWER: c 94. Organizations that have an organic structure typically a. have many levels in their organizational hierarchy. b. concentrate decision-making powers among few managers. c. require obedience without questioning the organization’s goals. d. require their members to be committed to the organization’s tasks. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 95. Larger organizations tend to have ________ specialization and more rules, compared to smaller firms. a. less overall b. more overall c. less complicated d. more complicated e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: b 96. Halo runs a tattoo parlor. Customers often make requests for unique words, phrases, or images to be inked permanently into their skin. This is an example of a. mass production. b. unit production. c. continuous production. d. matrix structure. e. lattice structure.

ANSWER: b 97. Which of the following is true about communities of practice? a. They provide only qualitative, rather than quantitative, value. b. They can span multiple companies. c. They meet regularly. d. They meet in person. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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98. Compared to wider spans of control, narrow spans of control are _________ and provide more supervision. a. more structured b. less structured c. less costly d. more costly e. of equal cost ANSWER: d 99. Which of the following is NOT likely to increase when an organization creates smaller units within a larger organization? a. Flexibility b. Adaptability c. Decision-making speed d. Bureaucracy e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 100. Which of the following is NOT true about communities of practice? a. They must be recognized by executive leadership. b. They usually do not show up on organizational charts. c. They can use the company intranet to develop a sense of community. d. They share knowledge and experience openly and creatively. e. All of these are true of communities of practice.

ANSWER: a Completion 101. An organizational ___________ shows all the people, positions, reporting relationships, and lines of formal communication in the organization.

ANSWER: chart 102. ____________________ refers to the way the organization’s work is separated into different jobs to be done by different people.

ANSWER: Division of labor 103. ____________________ means decision making occurs throughout the organizational hierarchy.

ANSWER: Decentralization 104. ____________________ is the transfer to others of authority to make decisions and use organizational resources.

ANSWER: Delegation 105. A ___________ is a permanent task force created to address specific problems or recurring needs.

ANSWER: cross-functional team 106. When a firm uses _________ production, the organization typically produces small batches or makes one-of-a-kind custom products.

ANSWER: unit Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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107. _________ structure groups people with the same skills, or who use similar tools or work processes, together into departments.

ANSWER: Functional 108. A ____________ is a group of people whose shared expertise and interest in a joint enterprise informally binds them together.

ANSWER: community of practice 109. When a firm uses _________ production, the organization typically uses machines to make the products while employees monitor the machines and implement changes.

ANSWER: continuous 110. _________ structure refers to smaller organizations with low standardization, total centralization, and mostly one-onone communication.

ANSWER: Prebureaucratic Matching Match each scenario with the type of structure that it most clearly illustrates. a. Jack’s organization consists entirely of permanent project groups that report only to their project leader. b. In Jacob’s organization, when a project comes up, a cross-level and cross-functional team is formed to tackle it.

Once the project ends, the team dissolves. c. One of the most stressful things about Edi’s job is that her two bosses—her functional manager and her project manager—often give her conflicting instructions. When she points this out, they engage in bitter power struggles. d. Miranda’s organization is actually a collection of autonomous firms. She spends a lot of her time coordinating the activities of the various firms to which she contracts out her organizational functions. e. Shepard just founded a new organization and does most of the tasks himself, along with a few friends. He also makes nearly all of the decisions for the firm. f. The company Samara works for is made up of departments consisting of people who do similar activities. g. As Talia’s company grows, she increases the division of labor, standardization of work procedures, and written rules in order to more effectively manage the increasing number of employees.

111. Lattice structure ANSWER: b 112. Bureaucratic structure ANSWER: g 113. Functional structure ANSWER: f 114. Prebureaucratic structure ANSWER: e 115. Team-based structure ANSWER: a 116. Network organization ANSWER: d 117. Matrix structure Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: c Match each scenario with the type of production that it most clearly illustrates. a. Workers in an assembly line put pickles in cans. b. A power station produces electricity for a city. c. A craftsman makes custom jewelry to order.

118. Unit ANSWER: c 119. Mass ANSWER: a 120. Continuous ANSWER: b Essay 121. Explain the difference between organic and mechanistic structures. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of each.

ANSWER: Mechanistic organizations are rigid, traditional bureaucracies with centralized power and hierarchical communications. Job descriptions are uniform, and formal rules and regulations guide decision making. More mechanistic organizations may minimize costs, but fit best with a relatively stable or slow-changing environment. When new opportunities present themselves, mechanistic organizations usually move too slowly to capitalize on them. An example could be a large manufacturing assembly line that adheres to protocol and predictable set tasks to capitalize on efficiency. In contrast, organic organizations are flexible, decentralized organizations with unclear lines of authority; they have decentralized power, open communication channels, and a focus on adaptability in helping employees accomplish their goals. Organic organizations benefit from faster awareness of and response to market and competitive changes, better customer service, and faster decision making. Organic forms have typically been associated with increased job satisfaction, affective commitment, and learning. An organic organization might be a local pet groomer who caters and adapts their routine grooming process to meet special needs of the pet or requests of the owner.

122. Describe unit, mass, and continuous production. Provide examples of companies that use each type of production.

ANSWER: When a firm uses unit production, it produces in small batches or makes one-of-a-kind custom products.

Employees’ talents are more important than the machines being used, and it is difficult to specify rules and procedures in advance. Advertising agencies and consulting firms typically use unit production.

When a firm uses mass production, it makes large volumes of identical products, typically using assembly lines and machines. In this case, a tall, bureaucratic structure with a large managerial span of control would be appropriate. A beer bottling plant would be an example of a company that uses mass production.

When a firm uses continuous production, machines constantly make the product and employees monitor the machines and plan changes. At the bottom of the organization, continuous production requires a mechanistic structure and low levels of supervision because machines do most of the work. The structure of a firm using continuous production is often tall and thin, or even an inverted pyramid. Exxon Mobil uses continuous production.

123. Describe the characteristics of a matrix organizational structure. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of this structure.

ANSWER: Employees reporting to both a project or product team and to a functional manager are working in a matrix structure. Employees represent their function in their work team, which allows the team to house all of the skills and expertise it needs to perform effectively and make good decisions. Project managers coordinate the different functional contributions to the project and are held accountable for the team’s performance. Matrix Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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structures generate complex reporting relationships because a matrixed employee essentially has two bosses: the project or product boss and his or her functional manager. Adjusting to a dual reporting relationship can be challenging, but as long as communication is open and expectations and goals are shared, the problems can be minimized. Costs tend to be higher due to the addition of program managers in addition to the functional managers, and power struggles may result from the two-boss system. Matrix organizations are good at providing quality customer service, are very flexible, and can respond quickly to changes because the work units contain all of the needed functional expertise to make decisions. The lattice structure, on the other hand, is where cross-functional and cross-level subteams are formed and dissolved as necessary to complete specific projects and tasks. A consulting organization would use this structure versus the matrix structure so they can brainstorm freely and not be confined to traditional rules.

124. Describe the characteristics of communities of practice. Explain how managers can foster their creation and development.

ANSWER: Communities of practice are groups of people whose shared expertise and interest in a joint enterprise informally binds them together. Examples include consultants who specialize in designing training systems or environmental engineers willing to share their knowledge and insights with other environmental engineers. A community of practice may or may not meet regularly or even in person, and can be located in a single company or span companies. The people involved in a community of practice share their knowledge and experiences in open, creative ways that can create new solutions and approaches to problems. In this way, the company intranet can cultivate a sense of community and employee loyalty. Successful managers cultivate communities of practice by identifying and bringing the right people together, building trust, and providing an appropriate infrastructure. Dictating goals and applying individual performance metrics can disintegrate communities of practice, and indiscriminately throwing money (or collaboration software) at them without a clear set of priorities can be equally wasteful.

125. Define centralized and decentralized organizational structures. Describe the circumstances under which each is most desirable.

ANSWER: When organizations are first formed, they are typically centralized organizations concentrating power and decision-making authority at high levels of the organization. The two subcomponents of centralization are participation in decision making and hierarchy of authority. Whereas centralized organizations concentrate authority at high levels of the organization, flatter, decentralized organizations give lower levels more authority and autonomy for making decisions. Decentralized organizations tend to have flatter structures than centralized organizations because employees’ greater autonomy decreases the need for middle management.

Flatter structures promote innovation and increase the speed of decision making, and can save money as a result of fewer management layers. Decentralization is best when the organization performs nonroutine tasks in complex environments because it empowers the managers closest to the environment to make decisions and quickly implement them.

True / False 1. The values that make up an organization’s culture are often taken for granted. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. Myths may be part of an organization’s culture. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. The statement “the customer is always right” is an example of a cultural value.

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a. True b. False ANSWER: True 4. Symbols cannot effectively transmit the complex concepts of an organization’s culture. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 5. Innovation and organization culture are not generally related. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 6. Strong organizational cultures are always better than weak organizational cultures. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. When an organization’s enacted values contradict its espoused values, new employees adopt the espoused values. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 8. An organization shouldn’t seek to use every available technology but to leverage technologies available. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 9. A company intranet that is rarely updated can still have a strong effect on company culture as long as its content is good. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 10. Intranets that contain “like it or not?” feedback tools and features that allow employees to contribute reflect a participative culture that values employee contributions. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. Entrepreneurial types of activities are typically welcome within large organizations. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. Innovation involves targeted aspects of the organization. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. False ANSWER: False 13. Research into the process of socialization indicates that socialization programs change new employees’ values. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 14. Employees are socialized into organizations through observation alone. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 15. All firms have cultural values that are consistent with high performance. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 16. Due to the difficulty of changing organizational culture, no major company has ever managed to make significant changes to the culture. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 17. Managers interested in changing cultures should attempt to substitute stories and myths that support old cultural values with stories and myths that support new ones. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 18. A major obstacle to changing an organization’s culture is that upper-level managers may sometimes inadvertently revert to old patterns of behavior. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 19. A major obstacle to changing an organization’s culture is that even if the culture is successfully changed, it is likely to change back shortly thereafter. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 20. Most managers are NOT in a position to create an organizational culture. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 21. Organizational culture is independent of organizational performance.

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a. True b. False ANSWER: False 22. If a company’s top managers engage in illegal or unethical behavior, these are the enacted values and norms of the firm. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 23. Assumptions are highly resistant to change. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 24. Weak cultures are always better than strong cultures. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 25. A dominating conflict culture is passive and disagreeable. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Multiple Choice 26. The values that make up organization culture are usually a. discussed among employees. b. popularized in the company. c. taken for granted. d. used as a strategic planning tool. e. celebrated on a monthly basis.

ANSWER: c 27. Organizational culture helps people in an organization understand a. which actions are considered acceptable and which are considered unacceptable. b. why their firm is outperforming the competition. c. how to improve their relations with customers. d. when to best socialize new employees. e. which types of problems are likely to arise in their company.

ANSWER: a 28. All of the following statements are true about innovation EXCEPT a. there are many risks associated with being an innovative company. b. innovation is the process of creating and doing new things that are introduced into the marketplace. c. one of the biggest challenges is using innovative technology in a cost-effective manner.

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d. true organizational innovation is pervasive throughout the organization. e. only small organizations can truly be innovative.

ANSWER: e 29. Incremental innovations a. are rarely necessary for radical or systems innovations. b. are major breakthroughs that change or create industries. c. occur much less frequently than radical and systems innovations. d. force organizations to continuously improve their products. e. create new functionality by assembling parts in new ways.

ANSWER: d 30. According to Fortune magazine, the most admired organizations are those that are the most a. profitable. b. successful. c. innovative. d. functional. e. improved.

ANSWER: c 31. Intrapreneurship a. is most effective as a rare event in the organization. b. is most effective when it occurs in the research and development department alone. c. occurs both inside and outside the organization. d. gives new organizations an edge over existing organizations. e. is entrepreneurial activity that takes place within the organization.

ANSWER: e 32. To maximize the benefits of an organizational cultural system, managers should first a. achieve productivity through people. b. empower employees. c. be fully aware of the culture’s values. d. practice hands-on management. e. implement cultural innovations.

ANSWER: c 33. Organization culture can be managed by a. sticking to the knitting. b. conducting in-depth research and evaluation. c. allowing autonomy and entrepreneurship. d. utilizing the culture that is already there. e. staying close to the customer.

ANSWER: d 34. All of the following statements are true about socialization EXCEPT a. it is usually something that can be accomplished in a day-long new employee orientation program. b. it occurs in organizations in much the same way as it occurs in society.

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c. it is the process through which individuals learn acceptable behavior. d. socialization programs do not necessarily change employees’ values. e. employees who are socialized into an organization usually accept the actual cultural values rather than the formal values of the organization.

ANSWER: a 35. All of the following are mechanisms that can affect the socialization of workers EXCEPT a. reading corporate statements about organization culture. b. observing experienced employees. c. reading corporate pamphlets. d. attending formal training. e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 36. Organization culture resists change for all of the following reasons EXCEPT a. it is typically communicated through stories and symbols. b. it embodies the basic values in the firm. c. it changes so frequently that employees begin to resist further change. d. it is often taken for granted. e. it involves changing basic assumptions.

ANSWER: c 37. __________ is a system of shared values, norms, and assumptions that guides organization members’ attitudes and behaviors. a. An enacted value b. An espoused value c. An artifact d. Organizational culture e. Diversity ANSWER: d 38. An organization’s culture takes __________ to evolve. a. little time b. a moderate amount of time c. just a few simple steps d. a long time e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 39. Which of the following is NOT a common theme of organizational culture? a. Being casual or formal b. Innovation c. Ethics d. Collaboration e. These are all common themes of organizational culture.

ANSWER: e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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40. An _________ is a physical manifestation of an organization’s culture. a. enacted value b. espoused value c. artifact d. assumption e. experiential practice ANSWER: c 41. Origin stories, ceremonies, rituals, and dress codes are all examples of a. enacted values. b. espoused values. c. artifacts. d. assumptions. e. formal practices.

ANSWER: c 42. __________ values and norms are the preferred values and norms explicitly stated by the organization. a. Enacted b. Espoused c. Artifact d. Assumed e. Formal ANSWER: b 43. __________ values and norms are exhibited by employees based on their observations of what actually goes on in the organization. a. Enacted b. Espoused c. Artifact d. Assumed e. Formal ANSWER: a 44. __________ are those organizational values that have become so taken for granted over time that they become the core of the company’s culture. a. Enacted values b. Espoused values c. Artifacts d. Assumptions e. Formal practices ANSWER: d 45. An organization’s assumptions are implicit and ________ resistant to change. a. moderately b. not likely to be c. equally d. highly Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 46. If a business strategy and corporate culture are in conflict the __________ will win, regardless of the strength and effectiveness of the strategy. a. strategy b. organization c. employees d. culture e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 47. In a __________ culture, the reaction to the arrival of the plant manager is, “Heads up! The plant manager is coming onto the production floor—look busy!” a. strong negative b. strong positive c. weak negative d. weak positive e. moderate neutral ANSWER: a 48. In a __________ culture, employee values and behaviors are consistent with the organization’s values, and the culture is resistant to change. a. strong negative b. strong positive c. weak negative d. weak positive e. moderate neutral ANSWER: b 49. In a __________ culture, employee values and behaviors are consistent with the organization’s values, and the culture is receptive to change. a. strong negative b. strong positive c. weak negative d. weak positive e. moderate neutral ANSWER: d 50. The strength or weakness of a culture reflects the degree to which the culture a. produces year-over-year bottom-line growth. b. outperforms competitors. c. maintains market dominance. d. encourages competition among employees. e. energizes employees by clarifying appropriate behavior.

ANSWER: e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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51. A conflict culture is a a. culture that is characterized by a lot of disagreement. b. set of shared norms for managing conflict. c. culture that attempts to avoid conflict as much as possible. d. set of shared norms for avoiding conflict. e. culture that is internally inconsistent.

ANSWER: b 52. __________ conflict management norms resolve conflict openly. a. Active b. Passive c. Agreeable d. Disagreeable e. Strategic ANSWER: a 53. __________ conflict management norms resolve conflict in a cooperative manner. a. Active b. Passive c. Agreeable d. Disagreeable e. Strategic ANSWER: c 54. __________ conflict management norms resolve conflict in a competitive manner. a. Active b. Passive c. Agreeable d. Disagreeable e. Strategic ANSWER: d 55. __________ conflict management norms tend to avoid addressing conflict. a. Active b. Passive c. Agreeable d. Disagreeable e. Strategic ANSWER: b 56. Rather than dealing openly with conflict, __________ conflict cultures resist conflict with tactics such as withholding information or withdrawing from contact with coworkers. a. dominating b. collaborative c. strategic d. avoidant e. passive-aggressive Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: e 57. __________ conflict cultures strive to preserve order and control and/or to maintain harmony and interpersonal relationships. a. Dominating b. Collaborative c. Strategic d. Avoidant e. Passive-aggressive ANSWER: d 58. In __________ conflict cultures, employees actively manage and resolve conflicts cooperatively to find the best solution for all involved parties. a. dominating b. collaborative c. strategic d. avoidant e. passive-aggressive ANSWER: b 59. In __________ conflict cultures, open confrontations are accepted, as are heated arguments and threats. a. dominating b. collaborative c. strategic d. avoidant e. passive-aggressive ANSWER: a 60. An organization’s culture of __________ reflects the extent to which majority members value efforts to increase minority representation, and whether the qualifications and abilities of minority members are questioned. a. diversity b. strategy c. conflict d. inclusion e. multiculturalism ANSWER: d 61. The positivity or negativity of a culture reflects the degree to which a. it produces year-over-year bottom-line growth. b. the organization maintains a high-profit margin. c. the organization is able to compete with rivals in the industry. d. it promotes ethical behavior. e. employee behavior is consistent with company values.

ANSWER: e 62. Because workgroups develop their own subcultures, __________ can be used to build a common cultural foundation. a. mass emails Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. instant messaging programs c. bulletin boards d. intranets e. IRC channels ANSWER: d 63. Intranets with a narrow scope can reinforce a culture of a. wisdom and humility. b. laziness and cheapness. c. focus and operational excellence. d. economy and efficiency. e. secrecy and information hoarding.

ANSWER: e 64. __________ is the process of creating and doing new things that are introduced into the marketplace as products, processes, or services. a. Organizational culture b. Intrapreneurship c. Entrepreneurship d. Innovation e. Strategy ANSWER: d 65. __________ innovation is a major breakthrough that changes or creates whole industries. a. Strategic b. Radical c. Systems d. Decreasing e. Cultural ANSWER: b 66. __________ innovation creates a new functionality by assembling existing parts in new ways. a. Strategic b. Radical c. Systems d. Incremental e. Cultural ANSWER: c 67. __________ innovation continues the technical improvement and extends the applications of radical and systems innovations. a. Strategic b. Radical c. Systems d. Incremental e. Cultural ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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68. Which of the following types of innovation is the most common? a. Strategic b. Radical c. Systems d. Incremental e. Cultural ANSWER: d 69. Which of the following types of innovation is the least common? a. Strategic b. Radical c. Systems d. Incremental e. Cultural ANSWER: b 70. Which of the following types of innovation do other innovations often rely on? a. Strategic b. Radical c. Systems d. Incremental e. Cultural ANSWER: d 71. Combining the gasoline engine with bicycle and carriage technology to create automobiles was an example of which of the following kinds of innovation? a. Strategic b. Radical c. Systems d. Incremental e. Cultural ANSWER: c 72. The Internet was an example of which of the following kinds of innovation? a. Strategic b. Radical c. Systems d. Incremental e. Cultural ANSWER: b 73. The profile of an entrepreneur typically includes all of the following EXCEPT a. a focus on concrete results. b. a willingness to take risks. c. an appreciation for the status quo. d. a desire to assume responsibility.

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e. the need for achievement.

ANSWER: c 74. The most common means of developing innovation in the traditional organization is through a. entrepreneurship. b. intrapreneurship. c. radical innovation. d. corporate research. e. a chief innovation officer.

ANSWER: d 75. __________ is the process through which children learn to become adults in a society. a. Entrepreneurship b. Intrapreneurship c. Innovation d. Organizational socialization e. Socialization ANSWER: e 76. In complex societies, the socialization process takes many a. days. b. weeks. c. months. d. years. e. centuries.

ANSWER: d 77. __________ is the process through which employees learn about their organization’s culture. a. Socialization b. Organizational socialization c. Innovation d. Entrepreneurship e. Intrapreneurship ANSWER: b 78. If a top manager works in a company with performance-reducing values, what action is recommended? a. Try to change the culture. b. Try to fire as many people as possible. c. Use restructuring to put all of the bad people in the same division. d. Use restructuring to dilute all of the bad people throughout the organization. e. Try to sell off the company to a competitor.

ANSWER: a 79. Which of the following is the most important mechanism of organizational socialization? a. Formal training b. Observing the behavior of others c. Corporate pamphlets Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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d. Corporate statements e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: b 80. If the culture new employees observe contradicts with the culture formally stated in corporate pamphlets, the new employees will come to accept a. a mixture of the formally stated values and the observed values. b. the stated values. c. neither the formally stated values or the observed values. d. the observed cultural values rather than those formally stated. e. None of these are correct ANSWER: d 81. Changing an organization’s culture is __________ process. a. an impossible b. a quick and easy c. a quick but difficult d. a long but easy e. a long and difficult ANSWER: e 82. Research suggests that organization culture is understood and communicated through the use of a. observation alone. b. employee handbooks. c. psychological contracts. d. stories and symbols. e. raises and bonuses.

ANSWER: d 83. Southwest Airlines has __________ conflict culture. a. an avoidant b. a dominating c. a collaborative d. a passive-aggressive e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 84. The silent treatment is most common within __________ conflict cultures. a. avoidant b. dominating c. collaborative d. passive-aggressive e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 85. Intranets that are rarely updated can reflect a culture that a. does not value employee contributions.

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b. has poor internal communication. c. has poor attention to detail. d. All of these are correct. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 86. A centralized, heavily edited, and filtered intranet reflects a culture in which information flows __________ freely, and employee contributions are less valued. a. somewhat b. more c. moderately d. less e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 87. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of strong cultures? a. They are widely shared. b. They clarify appropriate behavior. c. They can enhance organizational performance. d. They usually reduce organizational performance. e. These are all true of strong culture.

ANSWER: d 88. Evading open discussion of the conflict issue is most common within __________ conflict cultures. a. avoidant b. dominating c. collaborative d. passive-aggressive e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 89. A company that wants to promote a culture of openness and teamwork should ensure that its intranet has a a. broad scope. b. narrow scope. c. lot of censorship. d. limited update schedule. e. cluttered interface.

ANSWER: a 90. Athena’s company specializes in the design of tennis ball canisters, making them sturdier, cheaper, and easier to open.

This is an example of which of the following types of innovation? a. Radical b. Incremental c. Systems d. Entrepreneurial e. Strategic ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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91. Which of the following fits the profile of an entrepreneur? a. A need for stability b. Low risk tolerance c. An appreciation for the status quo d. Caution e. A desire to assume responsibility ANSWER: e 92. Johnny thinks that changing an organization’s culture is like losing weight: It’s difficult and it can be done, but the effect is usually temporary. Is Johnny correct? a. Yes, because once a culture is changed, it usually changes back. b. Yes, because once a culture starts to change, it is likely to continue to change. c. No, because changing an organization’s culture is impossible. d. No, because changing an organization's culture is easy. e. No, because once a culture is changed, the new norms tend to remain in place.

ANSWER: e Multiple Response 93. Dominating conflict cultures have which of the following conflict management norms? a. Active conflict norms b. Open confrontations c. Heated arguments d. Disagreeable conflict norms e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 94. Collaborative conflict cultures have which of the following conflict management norms? a. Dominating b. Passive c. Agreeable d. Disagreeable e. Strategic ANSWER: c 95. Avoidant conflict cultures have which of the following conflict management norms? a. Active b. Passive c. Dominant d. Disagreeable e. Strategic ANSWER: b 96. Passive-aggressive conflict cultures have which of the following conflict management norms? a. Active b. Dominant Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. Agreeable d. Disagreeable e. Strategic ANSWER: d 97. Which of the following are mechanisms of organizational socialization? a. Training programs b. Observation of others c. Corporate statements d. Corporate stories e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 98. Which of the following are obstacles to changing organizational culture? a. Changing cultures requires changing people’s deeply held beliefs. b. Generally, culture is difficult to change. c. Value systems are self-reinforcing. d. Managers may sometimes inadvertently revert to old patterns of behavior. e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 99. Which of the following contribute to culture? a. Enacted values and norms b. Espoused values and norms c. Artifacts d. Formal practices e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 100. Dominating conflict cultures have which of the following conflict management norms? a. Collaborative b. Passive c. Agreeable d. Disagreeable e. Strategic ANSWER: d Completion 101. Organization culture deals with the set of assumptions norms and __________ held by the members of an organization to guide employee behavior.

ANSWER: values 102. __________ are the values, often taken for granted, that define the core of an organization’s culture.

ANSWER: Assumptions 103. Research suggests that organization culture is understood and communicated through the use of __________ media.

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ANSWER: symbolic 104. __________ innovation continues the technical improvement and extends the applications of other innovations.

ANSWER: Incremental 105. A __________ innovation is a major breakthrough that changes or creates whole industries.

ANSWER: radical 106. __________ is the process through which individuals become social beings.

ANSWER: Socialization 107. The airplane is an example of a __________ innovation.

ANSWER: radical 108. Companies with many layers of authority and strong bureaucracy often have __________ conflict cultures.

ANSWER: passive-aggressive 109. Organization’s culture of __________ reflects the extent to which majority members value efforts to increase minority representation.

ANSWER: inclusion 110. A __________ conflict culture is active and agreeable, resolving conflicts cooperatively.

ANSWER: collaborative Matching Match each of the following descriptions with the element of organizational culture it most clearly illustrates. a. An organization’s employee handbook states repeatedly that employees are the organization’s most prized resource. b. An employee discovers that management is reluctant to issue employee raises, even if the employee resigns as a result. c. Paulo works for a socially conscious company that donates a portion of its profits to local charity organizations, which was one of the reasons he wanted to work there, and he expects the company will always continue this practice. d. To demonstrate its commitment to excellent customer service, a company hands out an award each month to the representative who received very positive customer feedback in an anonymous survey.

111. enacted value or norm ANSWER: b 112. espoused value or norm ANSWER: a 113. assumption ANSWER: c 114. artifact ANSWER: d Match the scenario with the technological innovation. Some types of innovations may be used more than once. a. incremental innovation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. systems innovation c. radical innovation 115. Lou’s company designs a computer chip that is 15 percent faster and 5 percent smaller than the leading model.

ANSWER: a 116. Sonya’s company creates a laptop processor that produces less heat than any other on the market.

ANSWER: a 117. the computer ANSWER: c 118. the addition of cameras to mobile phones ANSWER: b 119. the mobile phone ANSWER: c 120. Kano’s company developed a mobile phone app that turns any mobile phone into a credit card reader.

ANSWER: b Essay 121. Identify the main elements that comprise organizational culture. Provide specific examples ANSWER: Cultures are made up of enacted values and norms, artifacts, espoused values and norms, and assumptions.

Artifacts are physical manifestations of the culture including the myths and stories told about the organization or its founder, awards, ceremonies and rituals, decorations, office space allocations, the dress code, how people address each other, published lists of organizational values, and so on. Espoused values and norms are those that are explicitly stated by the organization. For example, an organization might state that ethical behavior is a preferred value and norm, and it might hang signs in the office stating that ethical behavior is a driving principle of the company as an artifact of that cultural component. Enacted values and norms are those that employees exhibit based on their observations of what actually goes on in the organization. If a company’s top managers engage in illegal or unethical behavior, these are the enacted values and norms of the firm no matter what its formally stated ethics values are. Assumptions are those organizational values that have become so taken for granted over time that they become the core of the company’s culture. These basic assumptions are highly resistant to change, and guide organizational behavior.

122. Define the three different types of innovation. Explain the differences between each type, using examples.

ANSWER: Innovation can be radical, systems, or incremental. A radical innovation (sometimes called disruptive innovation) is a major breakthrough that changes or creates whole industries. Examples include xerography (which was invented by Chester Carlson in 1935 and became the hallmark of Xerox Corporation), steam engines, and the internal combustion engine (which paved the way for today’s automobile industry). Systems innovation creates a new functionality by assembling parts in new ways. For example, the gasoline engine began as a radical innovation and became a systems innovation when it was combined with bicycle and carriage technology to create automobiles. Incremental innovation continues the technical improvement and extends the applications of radical and systems innovations. There are many more incremental innovations than there are radical and systems innovations. In fact, several incremental innovations are often necessary to make radical and systems innovations work properly. Incremental innovations force organizations to continuously improve their products and keep abreast or ahead of the competition. An example of an incremental innovation would be designing a camera that is 5 percent smaller than the leading model but that takes pictures with 10 percent higher resolution.

123. How can it be useful for a manager to better understand the culture that already exists in an organization?

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ANSWER: To take advantage of an existing cultural system, managers must first be fully aware of the culture’s values and what behaviors or actions those values support. Becoming fully aware of an organization’s values usually is not easy, however. It involves more than reading a pamphlet about what the company believes in. Managers must develop a deep understanding of how organizational values operate in the firm—an understanding that usually comes only through experience. This understanding, once achieved, can be used to evaluate the performances of others in the firm. Articulating organizational values can be useful in managing others’ behaviors. For example, suppose a subordinate in a firm with a strong cultural value of “sticking to its knitting” develops a business strategy that involves moving into a new industry. Rather than attempting to argue that this business strategy is economically flawed or conceptually weak, the manager who understands the corporate culture can point to the company’s organizational value: “In this firm, we believe in sticking to our knitting.” Senior managers who understand their organization’s culture can communicate that understanding to lower-level individuals. Over time, as these lower-level managers begin to understand and accept the firm’s culture, they will require less direct supervision. Their understanding of corporate values will guide their decision making.

124. Describe the four types of conflict cultures. Provide specific examples.

ANSWER: The four types of conflict cultures are dominating, collaborative, avoidant, and passive-aggressive.

Dominating conflict cultures are active and disagreeable—open confrontations are accepted as well as heated arguments and threats. The Digital Equipment Corporation had a dominating conflict culture as described by a former employee: “People at Digital seemed to fight a lot with one another. Shouting matches were a frequent occurrence, and I came to conclude that Digital people didn’t like one another. I was subsequently told by more senior members that it was okay to disagree with someone, because truth would ultimately prevail.…

After one of these exchanges, one in which I almost came to blows with one of my peers, I was called in by my manager the next morning. Sensing that this time I had really exceeded the bounds of propriety, I thought about updating my resume. It was with great and pleasant surprise that I was told that my behavior the previous day had been admirable.”

Collaborative conflict cultures are active and agreeable. Employees actively manage and resolve conflicts cooperatively to find the best solution for all involved parties. Southwest Airlines has a collaborative conflict culture, as described by a chief pilot: “Pilots and flight attendants—sometimes an interaction didn’t go right between them. [If] they are upset, then we get them together and work it out, in a teamwork approach. If you have a problem, the best thing is to deal with it yourself. If you can’t, then we take it to the next step—we call a meeting of all the parties.”

Avoidant conflict cultures are passive and agreeable. This type of culture strives to preserve order and control and/or to maintain harmony and interpersonal relationships. Typical behaviors include accommodating or giving in to the other’s point of view, changing the subject, or evading open discussion of the conflict issue.

Avoidant conflict norms often start at the top. At Wang Laboratories, a once-successful computer company that eventually went bankrupt, the founder and director developed and sustained a conflict avoidant culture by sending a strong message that he did not want to hear any conflicts or disagreements with his policies and practices. Although he acted in ways he believed would benefit the entire organization, which worked for a while, everyone prospered only as long as his instincts and actions were correct.

Passive-aggressive conflict cultures are both passive and disagreeable. Rather than dealing openly with conflict, this culture develops norms to handle it via passive resistance such as refusing to participate in conflict-related discussions, giving the silent treatment, withholding information, or withdrawing from work and from interactions with coworkers. Hospitals often have passive-aggressive conflict cultures due to the many layers of authority and strong bureaucracy.

125. Explain what it means to manage cultural symbols in an organization. Provide an example.

ANSWER: Organization culture is understood and communicated through the use of stories and other symbolic media.

Managers interested in changing cultures should attempt to substitute stories and myths that support new cultural values for those that support old ones. They can do so by creating situations that give rise to new stories. Suppose an organization traditionally has held the value “employee opinions are not important.” When management meets in this company, the ideas and opinions of lower-level people—when discussed at all—are normally rejected as foolish and irrelevant. The stories that support this cultural value tell about subordinate Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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managers who tried to make a constructive point only to have that point lost in personal attacks from superiors. An upper-level manager interested in creating a new story, one that shows lower-level managers that their ideas are valuable, might ask a subordinate to prepare to lead a discussion in a meeting and follow through by asking the subordinate to take the lead when the topic arises. The subordinate’s success in the meeting will become a new story, one that may displace some of the many stories suggesting that the opinions of lower-level managers do not matter.

True / False 1. Population-related pressures can be a source for change in organizations. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 2. The four areas in which the pressures for change are the most powerful involve people, technology, information processing and communication, and competition. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 3. The needs and preferences of the baby boomer generation have not affected U.S. employment practices. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 4. The generation of workers born between 1960 and 1980 are referred to as generation X. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 5. Today, all employees must be prepared for change. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 6. As the rate of technological change increases, it’s important for organizations to respond slowly to change in order to make the proper decisions. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 7. Advances in information processing and communication have paralleled each other. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 8. The first step of Lewin’s model of planned change involves refreezing. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. False ANSWER: False 9. The three steps of Lewin’s model of planned change are unfreezing, change, and refreezing. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 10. According to Lewin’s process model, unfreezing is the process by which people become aware of the need for change. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 11. According to Lewin’s process model, refreezing is the process of generating actual change in the organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 12. The final step in the continuous change process model involves recognizing and defining a problem. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 13. A major challenge in developing effective training programs is being able to transfer employee learning to the workplace. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 14. Management development programs rely heavily on participative methods such as case studies and role playing to instruct employees. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 15. Total quality management efforts usually focus on teams, and the principles of team building must be applied to make them work. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 16. The survey feedback process includes five distinct stages that begin with problem identification. a. True b. False ANSWER: False 17. In the survey feedback process, process analysis involves developing plans for improvement. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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b. False ANSWER: True 18. Change in an organization can threaten the specialized expertise that individuals and groups have developed over the years, which, in turn, can lead to employee resistance to the proposed changes. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 19. Groups that are satisfied with current resource allocation methods may resist any organizational changes that affect how resources are distributed in the future. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 20. Selective attention can cause employees not to recognize when a change in a rule or procedure has been instituted, and therefore, they continue the previous behaviors, rather than implementing the proposed changes. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 21. If organizations adopt too narrow a focus when implementing changes, it can lead to employee resistance to the change. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 22. When changes occur in an organization, potential problems related to resistance, control, and power can be overcome by broad employee participation in planning the change. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 23. Open communication is an important factor in managing resistance to change in organizations. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 24. When changes are proposed in an organization, managers should take a holistic view of the organization and the specific project impacted by the change, to successfully manage the transition. a. True b. False ANSWER: True 25. When changes are implemented in an organization, employees who contribute to the transition should not be rewarded by management. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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26. The utility and value of management development are not a proven fact. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Multiple Choice 27. Organizations experience population-related pressures as a result of employees in generation X, which includes people who were born between a. 1930 and 1945. b. 1910 and 1930. c. 1945 and 1960. d. 1970 and 1980. e. 1960 and 1980.

ANSWER: e 28. Organizations experience population-related pressures as a result of employees in the baby boom generation, which includes those born between a. 1930 and 1945. b. 1960 and 1970. c. 1945 and 1960. d. 1970 and 1980. e. 1980 and 2000.

ANSWER: c 29. The baby boom generation, which refers to people born in the United States between 1945 and 1960, totals approximately a. 8 million. b. 2 million. c. 200 million. d. 76 million. e. 15 million.

ANSWER: d 30. The areas in which the pressures for change appear most powerful involve all of the following EXCEPT a. people. b. technology. c. information processing. d. competition. e. All of these are powerful pressures for change.

ANSWER: e 31. Employees born between 1980 and 2000 are referred to as a. generation X. b. millennials. c. generation Y. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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d. generation Z. e. baby boomers.

ANSWER: b 32. The changes that are occurring in organizations include all of the following EXCEPT a. cultures. b. structures. c. work relationships. d. customer relationships. e. profit motives.

ANSWER: e 33. Information processing and communication changes include all of the following EXCEPT a. a new generation of computers. b. people may no longer need offices. c. work stations will be more electronic than paper and pencil. d. organizations will have systematic plans for changes. e. satellite systems for data transmission.

ANSWER: d 34. Lewin’s process model of systematic change includes a. four steps. b. three steps. c. ten steps. d. two steps. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: b 35. In the continuous change process model, the final step is a. measurement, evaluation, and control. b. OB modeling. c. a system audit and modification. d. the change agent. e. transition management.

ANSWER: a 36. Transition management a. is the responsibility of an outside consultant. b. is the responsibility of the change agent. c. relieves the regular management team of its normal duties. d. halts business as usual during the change process. e. deals with the unintended consequences of change.

ANSWER: e 37. Organization development a. focuses on technological change. b. has yet to emerge as a distinct field of study.

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c. works best as a spontaneous process. d. is designed to combat unwanted change. e. is the process of planned change using scientific knowledge.

ANSWER: e 38. Each of the following is true of organization development EXCEPT a. it is designed specifically to improve organizations. b. it attempts to plan organization changes. c. it is based on knowledge of the behavioral sciences. d. it excludes spontaneous initiatives. e. All of these are parts of organization development.

ANSWER: e 39. Which of the following is NOT considered an example of organization development? a. Job enlargement to reduce absenteeism and improve morale b. Automating an assembly line to increase production c. Autonomous work teams to improve cohesiveness d. Job enrichment to satisfy esteem needs e. Sensitivity training to improve communications ANSWER: b 40. A structural change affects all of the following EXCEPT a. performance appraisals. b. rewards. c. communication. d. decision making. e. All of these are affected by structural changes.

ANSWER: e 41. The degree to which members of a work organization are able to satisfy important personal needs through their experiences in the organization is called a. structural change. b. system-wide change. c. change agent success. d. total quality management. e. quality of work life.

ANSWER: e 42. Most quality-of-work-life efforts have the goal of a. humanizing the workplace. b. reduced interpersonal conflict. c. strengthened competitive advantage. d. increasing the quality of the work performed. e. decreasing expenses and waste on the job.

ANSWER: a 43. The expected benefits from quality-of-work-life programs include all of the following EXCEPT Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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a. positive attitudes. b. increased centralization of leadership. c. increased effectiveness of the organization. d. increased goal accomplishment. e. increased productivity.

ANSWER: b 44. Technological change focuses on a. indirect alteration of jobs. b. quality inputs to the process. c. the way inputs are transformed into outputs. d. broad system-wide changes. e. the way standards are created and enforced.

ANSWER: c 45. The second step in the integrative framework for the implementation of task redesign is a. diagnosis of the work system and context. b. recognition of a need for a change. c. go/no-go decision. d. cost-benefit analysis of proposed changes. e. selection of task redesign as a potential intervention.

ANSWER: e 46. When introducing job changes, managers must consider all of the following EXCEPT a. the total work environment within which the job exists. b. whether the job changes require adjustments in other organizational components. c. how to limit what employees know about the changes. d. whether workers have, or can easily obtain, the newly required skills. e. who will design the changes.

ANSWER: c 47. Each of the following is a popular type of people-oriented change technique EXCEPT a. training. b. management development. c. team building. d. survey feedback. e. All of these are popular people-oriented change techniques.

ANSWER: e 48. A concern when developing training programs is how to a. identify actual training needs. b. find the time and funding for the training effort. c. motivate employees to want to learn. d. transfer employee training to the workplace. e. find “role model” trainers.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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49. Which of the following does NOT describe a characteristic of effective management development? a. The value of management development is a proven fact. b. Management development objectives must be compatible with organizational objectives. c. Management development is a long-range process. d. Organizations must use care in identifying their unique developmental needs. e. Management development is multifaceted and complex.

ANSWER: a 50. Which of the following is NOT true of the use of data collected through the survey feedback process? a. Results should only be reviewed by top management. b. Results are returned to all levels of the organization. c. Results are used for solving problems. d. Results are used to identify problems. e. Results are aggregated by group or department.

ANSWER: a 51. All of the following describe characteristics of organizational change EXCEPT a. an organization may resist change. b. change is inevitable. c. an organization may promote change. d. resistance to change is inevitable. e. resistance to change should be eliminated.

ANSWER: e 52. With respect to managing change, management should consider resistance to change as a. something to be overcome as quickly as possible. b. a signal to carefully examine the decision to change. c. something to be avoided. d. an opportunity to reinforce management’s authority. e. a commonplace, everyday event not to worry about it.

ANSWER: b 53. Katz and Kahn identified which of the following as an organizational source of resistance to change? a. Threatened expertise b. Rapidity of change c. Decentralization d. Formalization e. Specificity of change ANSWER: a 54. Which of the following is NOT an organizational source of resistance to change identified by Katz and Kahn? a. Overdetermination b. Threatened expertise c. Centralization d. Group inertia e. All of these represent resistance to change.

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ANSWER: c 55. Overdetermination is sometimes called a. structural inertia. b. organizational inertia. c. group inertia. d. group stability. e. organizational stability.

ANSWER: a 56. Which of the following organizational sources of resistance occurs when decision-making authority is redistributed? a. Fear of the unknown b. Narrow focus of change c. Threatened power d. Habit e. Resource allocation ANSWER: c 57. Sam has good working relationships with his boss and coworkers and is concerned that the upcoming organization change might disrupt these relationships. Sam is most likely to resist the change because of a. lack of awareness. b. fear of the unknown. c. economic factors. d. habit. e. social factors.

ANSWER: b 58. When managers consider the impact of a change on the culture, the dominant coalition, as well as the people, tasks, and structure of the organization, they are a. taking a holistic view of the issue. b. securing top management support. c. considering international issues. d. starting small. e. discouraging participation.

ANSWER: a 59. Which of the following is NOT one of the keys to successful change management? a. Reward those who contribute to change. b. Secure top management support. c. Encourage participation by those affected by the change. d. Maximize employee job satisfaction. e. Foster open communication.

ANSWER: d 60. Employees often engage in grapevine conversations that can spread misinformation about a change in the organization in the absence of a. formal communication from the organization.

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b. pay increases. c. rewards. d. a holistic view. e. decision-making abilities regarding the change.

ANSWER: a 61. Which of the following keys to successful organization change management would help a manager reduce the spread of rumors regarding a change? a. Start small b. Secure top management support c. Foster open communication d. Encourage participation e. Take a holistic view ANSWER: c 62. Each of the following is a reason to secure top management support for a change EXCEPT a. to reduce fear of obsolescence. b. to head off problems of power. c. to avoid problems of control. d. to keep key managers informed. e. to get the dominant coalition on the side of change.

ANSWER: a 63. Who is often acknowledged after a change effort? a. People who were hired once the change began b. People who were hired only after the change had ended c. People who worked hardest to speed up the change d. People who quickly grasped new work assignments e. People who tried to stop it ANSWER: e 64. Which generation of employees is characterized by a distinct and separate life stage in between adolescence and adulthood in which young people jump from job to job and relationship to relationship? a. Generation X b. Millennials c. Generation Y d. Generation Z e. Baby boomers ANSWER: b 65. Which generation of employees is characterized by living at home with few responsibilities, experimenting with life, and putting off marriage, childbearing, home purchases, and other adult responsibilities? a. Generation X b. Millennials c. Generation Y d. Generation Z e. Baby boomers Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: b 66. Which of the following does NOT tend to be true of millennials? a. They celebrate diversity. b. They are group-oriented. c. They are optimistic. d. They are conformists. e. They understand technology quickly.

ANSWER: d 67. On the job, which of the following is generally NOT true of millennials? a. They prefer positive reinforcement. b. They prefer not to work in teams. c. They like clear job assignments. d. They want flexibility in how to do their jobs. e. They want to be treated as individuals.

ANSWER: b 68. In Lewin’s process model of change, the step that follows unfreezing is a. refreezing. b. freezing. c. the change itself. d. planning. e. observing.

ANSWER: c 69. In Lewin’s process model of change, the step that follows the change itself is a. refreezing. b. unfreezing. c. additional changes. d. planning. e. observing.

ANSWER: a 70. Lewin’s process model approaches change as which of the following? a. A one-step process b. A dual-step process c. A multistep process d. A circular process e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 71. In Lewin’s process model of change, the process by which people become aware of the need for change is called a. refreezing. b. unfreezing. c. congealing. d. annealing.

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e. dissolving.

ANSWER: b 72. In Lewin’s process model of change, the process by which new behaviors are made relatively permanent and resistant to further change is called a. refreezing. b. unfreezing. c. congealing. d. annealing. e. dissolving.

ANSWER: a 73. In the continuous change process model, the person responsible for managing the change effort is called a. a transition manager. b. a change agent. c. an ombudsman. d. a modification mogul. e. an evolution emissary.

ANSWER: b 74. The process of systematically planning, organizing, and implementing change, from the disassembly of the current state to the realization of a fully functional future state within an organization, is called a. unfreezing. b. transition management. c. refreezing. d. change agency. e. organizational design.

ANSWER: b 75. Organization development involves attempts to plan organization changes, which excludes _________ initiatives. a. spontaneous b. premeditated c. strategic d. ineffective e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 76. The specific intention of organization development must be to improve organization effectiveness. This point excludes changes that a. merely seek to reduce costs. b. merely imitate what others have done. c. sound good in theory but don’t work in practice. d. do not bring about increased dividends for shareholders. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: b

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77. The system-wide application of behavioral science knowledge to the planned development and reinforcement of organizational strategies, structures, and processes for improving organizational effectiveness is called a. change agency. b. process change. c. transition management. d. organization development. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 78. Which of the following is a system-wide organization development involving a major restructuring of the organization or institution of new programs? a. Process change b. Transition management c. Change agent d. Structural change e. Strategic initiative ANSWER: d 79. The first step in the integrative framework for the implementation of task redesign is a. diagnosis of the work system and context. b. recognition of a need for a change. c. go/no-go decision. d. cost-benefit analysis of proposed changes. e. selection of task redesign as a potential intervention.

ANSWER: b 80. In the integrative framework for the implementation of task redesign, the step that follows selection of task redesign is a. diagnosis of the work system and context. b. recognition of a need for a change. c. go/no-go decision. d. cost-benefit analysis of proposed changes. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 81. In the integrative framework for the implementation of task redesign, the step that follows diagnosis of the work system and context is a. selection of task redesign as a potential intervention. b. recognition of a need for a change. c. go/no-go decision. d. cost-benefit analysis of proposed changes. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 82. In the integrative framework for the implementation of task redesign, the step that follows cost-benefit analysis is a. diagnosis of the work system and context. b. recognition of a need for a change. c. go/no-go decision.

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d. selection of task redesign as a potential intervention. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: c 83. In the integrative framework for the implementation of task redesign, the step that follows making a go/no-go decision is a. implementation of any supplemental changes. b. formulation of the strategy for redesign. c. evaluation of the task redesign effort. d. implementation of the task changes. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: b 84. In the integrative framework for the implementation of task redesign, the step that follows formulation of the redesign strategy is a. implementation of any supplemental changes. b. selection of a change agent. c. evaluation of the task redesign effort. d. implementation of the task changes. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: d 85. In the integrative framework for the implementation of task redesign, the step that follows implementation of the task changes is a. implementation of any supplemental changes. b. formulation of the strategy for redesign. c. evaluation of the task redesign effort. d. selection of a change agent. e. None of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 86. The final step in the integrative framework for the implementation of task redesign is a. implementation of any supplemental changes. b. formulation of the strategy for redesign. c. evaluation of the task redesign effort. d. implementation of the task changes. e. selection of a change agent.

ANSWER: c 87. In the integrative framework for the implementation of task redesign, which of the following is NOT diagnosed during the “diagnosis of the work system and context” step? a. Leader behavior b. Board of directors diversity c. Technology d. Organization design e. Group and social processes ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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88. How much does corporate America invest in management development? a. Under a million dollars b. Millions of dollars c. Tens of millions of dollars d. Hundreds of millions of dollars e. Billions of dollars ANSWER: d 89. Which of the following is NOT a goal of team building? a. Set team goals and priorities b. Analyze how work is performed c. Examine how a group is working d. Examine relationships among the people doing the work e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 90. Team building is an _________ process. a. evaluative b. easy c. ongoing d. inefficient e. efficient ANSWER: c 91. Which organizational source of resistance to change occurs when group norms act as a brake on individual attempts at behavior change? a. Changes in resource allocation b. Narrow focus of change c. Overdetermination d. Threatened expertise e. Group inertia ANSWER: e 92. Which organizational source of resistance to change occurs when changes related to tasks ignore the interdependence among organizational elements such as people, structure, tasks, and the information system? a. Changes in resource allocation b. Narrow focus of change c. Overdetermination d. Threatened expertise e. Group inertia ANSWER: b 93. Which organizational source of resistance to change occurs when a job redesign or a structural change transfers responsibility for a specialized task from the current expert to someone else? a. Changes in resource allocation b. Narrow focus of change Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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c. Overdetermination d. Threatened expertise e. Group inertia ANSWER: d 94. Which organizational source of resistance to change occurs when groups that have access to valuable assets are concerned that they won’t after the change? a. Changes in resource allocation b. Narrow focus of change c. Overdetermination d. Threatened expertise e. Group inertia ANSWER: a 95. Which source of individual resistance to change is grounded in the fact that it is easier to do a job the same way every day, and learning an entirely new set of steps makes the job more difficult? a. Economic factors b. Habit c. Fear of the unknown d. Lack of awareness e. Social factors ANSWER: b 96. Which source of individual resistance to change occurs when people dislike anything unfamiliar? a. Economic factors b. Habit c. Fear of the unknown d. Lack of awareness e. Social factors ANSWER: c 97. Which source of individual resistance to change occurs when people resist change for fear of what others will think? a. Economic factors b. Habit c. Fear of the unknown d. Lack of awareness e. Social factors ANSWER: e 98. Which source of individual resistance to change occurs when people do not alter their behavior because they don’t realize that a change has been made? a. Economic factors b. Habit c. Fear of the unknown d. Lack of awareness e. Social factors ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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99. Which source of individual resistance to change occurs when people fear that change will make their jobs obsolete or reduce their opportunities for future pay increases? a. Economic factors b. Habit c. Fear of the unknown d. Lack of awareness e. Social factors ANSWER: a 100. Which organizational source of resistance to change occurs because numerous organizational systems are in place to maintain stability? a. Changes in resource allocation b. Narrow focus of change c. Overdetermination d. Threatened expertise e. Group inertia ANSWER: c Completion 101. The final step in Lewin’s change process is ____________________.

ANSWER: refreezing 102. The ____________________ change process model emphasizes that change is constantly occurring at various stages within the organization.

ANSWER: continuous 103. A ______________ is a person who helps manage a change effort.

ANSWER: change agent 104. According to the continuous change process model, in the measurement, evaluation, and ________ phase, top management assesses the degree to which the change is having the desired effect.

ANSWER: control 105. ________ ensures that a firm functions properly during the change process.

ANSWER: Transition management 106. ________ is the process of planned change and improvement of the organization through application of scientific knowledge.

ANSWER: Organization development 107. ____________________-of-work-life programs differ but most espouse a goal of humanizing the workplace.

ANSWER: Quality 108. The four popular types of people-oriented change techniques are training, management development programs, team building, and ___________________________________.

ANSWER: survey feedback

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109. The final stage of the survey feedback process is called ___________________________________, which involves examining group decision making and communication.

ANSWER: process analysis 110. A _________ organization facilitates the learning of all its members and continuously transforms itself.

ANSWER: learning Matching Match each of the following scenarios with the stage of Lewin’s model that would be most relevant for addressing it. a. After spending a lot of money training employees to use the new software for writing reports, a manger wants to make sure they do not revert back to using the old software after training ends. b. A senior employee refuses to change the software she uses to write reports because she thinks the software she’s using now is much better than the new one her manager selected. c. A manager implemented a new policy for writing reports. The reports will now be created using different software than employees have used in the past.

111. change ANSWER: c 112. refreezing ANSWER: a 113. unfreezing ANSWER: b Match each of the following scenarios with the type of resistance to change that it most clearly exemplifies. a. The structural changes at Rayu’s company involve no downsizing and will dramatically reduce inefficiency and red tape. Still, Rayu doesn’t like the changes because he doesn’t want to put forth effort into learning a new way of doing things. b. Vega was on vacation when a new process to document computer bugs was implemented. Nobody told Vega, so when she returned from vacation, she continued to use the previous process. c. Bianca likes that the company acknowledges employee birthdays once a month and she has been joining in the celebration in the break room for a few minutes when they occur, but none of the coworkers in her department ever attend, and they have been teasing her about her participation. She has decided to stop attending. d. Giles is opposed to the new structural changes because he’s afraid that they will cost him his job. e. Cammy was all for the structural changes at her company until she realized that fewer people were going to report to her after the changes. f. Kenny, director of the hospital pharmacy, decided to upgrade the decades-old software, but after the upgrade, he discovered the pharmacy’s electronic records are now incompatible with the systems used by the inpatient and outpatient clinics, since they are still using old software. g. Edmond’s job tasks were recently redesigned. While he knows the changes are likely to improve his overall productivity, he is uncomfortable with the changes because so much of his job is now unfamiliar to him.

114. lack of awareness ANSWER: b 115. threatened power ANSWER: e 116. habit Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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ANSWER: a 117. economic factors ANSWER: d 118. narrow focus of change ANSWER: f 119. social factors ANSWER: c 120. fear of the unknown ANSWER: g Essay 121. Describe the four basic forces for organization change. Provide specific examples of each.

ANSWER: The four areas in which the pressures for change appear most powerful involve people, technology, information processing and communication, and competition. People: Demands for different training, benefits, workplace arrangements, and compensation systems. Examples include generational differences, global labor supplies, senior citizens, workforce diversity. Technology: More education and training for workers at all levels, more new products, products move faster to market. Examples include manufacturing in space, Internet, global design teams. Information processing and communication: Faster reaction times, immediate responses to questions, new products, different office arrangements, telecommuting, marketing, advertising, recruiting on social networking sites. Examples include computer and satellite communications, global sourcing, videoconferencing, social networking. Competition: Global competition, more competing products with more features and options, lower costs, higher quality. Examples include global markets, international trade agreements, emerging nations.

122. Describe Lewin’s process model of planned change. Provide specific examples.

ANSWER: Lewin suggested that efforts to bring about planned change in organizations should approach change as a multistage process. His model of planned change is made up of three steps—unfreezing, change, and refreezing. Unfreezing is the process by which people become aware of the need for change. In this stage, top managers and change agents are urged to make the effort to empathize with employees, acknowledge the difficulties of the past and uncertainties of the present, and provide forums for employees to vent a little, followed up with workshops for information sharing and training. Change itself is the movement from the old way of doing things to a new way. For example, installing new equipment, restructuring the organization, or implementing a new performance appraisal system—anything that alters existing relationships or activities.

Refreezing makes new behaviors relatively permanent and resistant to further change. Examples of refreezing techniques include repeating newly learned skills in a training session and then role playing to teach how the new skill can be used in a real-life work situation.

123. Describe the steps in the survey feedback process.

ANSWER: Answers will vary but should include this information. Survey feedback techniques can form the basis for a change process. In this process, data are gathered, analyzed, summarized, and returned to those who generated them to identify, discuss, and solve problems. The survey feedback process has three distinct stages, including data gathering, group feedback meetings, and process analysis. The stages must be fully completed for the process to be most effective. As an organization development process, its purpose is to fully involve all employees in data analysis, problem identification, and development of solutions.

124. Explain how organizations can simultaneously both promote and resist change.

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ANSWER: Organizations both promote and resist change. As an agent for change, the organization asks prospective customers or clients to change their current purchasing habits by switching to the company’s products or services, asks current customers to change by increasing their purchases, and asks suppliers to reduce the costs of raw materials. The organization resists change in that its structure and control systems protect the daily tasks of producing a product or service from uncertainties in the environment. The organization must have some elements of permanence to avoid mirroring the instability of the environment, yet it must also react to external shifts with internal change to maintain currency and relevance in the marketplace.

125. Describe three managerial keys to successfully conducting organizational change and development. Provide specific examples that address the impact of each technique.

ANSWER: Seven keys to managing successful organization change were mentioned in the chapter. (1) Consider global issues: Keeps in touch with the latest global developments and how change is handled in different cultures. (2) Take a holistic view of the organization: Helps anticipate the effects of change on the social system and culture. (3) Start small: Works out details and shows the benefits of the change to those who might resist. (4) Secure top-management support: Gets dominant coalition on the side of change; safeguards structural change, heads off problems of power and control. (5) Encourage participation by those affected by the change: Minimizes transition problems of control, resistance, and task redefinition. (6) Foster open communication: Minimizes transition problems of resistance and information and control systems. (7) Reward those who contribute to change: Minimizes transition problems of resistance and control systems. Examples will vary.

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