Practicum and Internship A Handbook for Competent Counseling Practices, 1st edition by lisa jackson-

Test Bank Lisa Jackson-Cherry William R. Sterner

Practicum and Internship: A Handbook for Competent Counseling Practices First Edition Lisa R. Jackson-Cherry Marymount University

William R. Sterner Marymount University

Table of Contents Chapter 1. Counselor Identity: Overview of the Evolving Professional Counselor Multiple Choice Questions...................................................................................... 1 Extended Response Questions ................................................................................ 4 Chapter 2. Overview of Accreditation and Counselor Credentialing Multiple Choice Questions...................................................................................... 5 Extended Response Questions ................................................................................ 8 Chapter 3. Ethical and Legal Issues for Counselors Multiple Choice Questions...................................................................................... 9 Extended Response Questions .............................................................................. 12 Chapter 4. Risk Assessment, Intervention, and Postvention: Suicide and Homicide Multiple Choice Questions.................................................................................... 13 Extended Response Questions .............................................................................. 16 Chapter 5. Mandated Reporting: An Overview of Abuse Reporting and Child and Adult Protective Services Multiple Choice Questions.................................................................................... 17 Extended Response Questions .............................................................................. 20 Chapter 6. Case Documentation and the Professional Counselor Multiple Choice Questions.................................................................................... 21 Extended Response Questions .............................................................................. 24 Chapter 7. Diagnosing Mental Health Conditions Multiple Choice Questions.................................................................................... 25 Extended Response Questions .............................................................................. 28 Chapter 8. Developing and Maintaining a Private Practice Multiple Choice Questions.................................................................................... 29 Extended Response Questions .............................................................................. 32 Chapter 9. Supervision and the Developing Professional Counselor Multiple Choice Questions.................................................................................... 33 Extended Response Questions .............................................................................. 36 Chapter 10. Preparing for the Interview Process Multiple Choice Questions.................................................................................... 37 Extended Response Questions .............................................................................. 40 Chapter 11. Counselor Self-Care Multiple Choice Questions.................................................................................... 41 Extended Response Questions .............................................................................. 44 Answer Key: Multiple Choice and Extended Response Questions ............................................ 45

Chapter 1: Counselor Identity: Overview of the Evolving Professional Counselor

Chapter 1: Counselor Identity: Overview of the Evolving Professional Counselor Multiple Choice Questions: 1. It is suggested that counselors in training progress through the identity formation process which involves three aspects, EXCEPT: A. conceptual learning B. experiential learning C. external evaluation D. didactic learning 2. Developing counseling identity requires all of the following, EXCEPT: A. an understanding of how the profession evolved B. an understanding of its historical roots C. a knowledge base of theoretical assumptions D. continued advocacy for and advancing of its position within the helping professions.

3. The world’s largest association for licensed professional counselors, counseling students, and other counseling professionals such as educational, employment, occupational, and rehabilitation counselors is A. American Counselling Association B. American Mental Health Counselors Association C. Association for Counselor Education and Supervision D. American School Counselors Association 4. Those who teach in counseling programs and are considered gatekeepers in the counseling profession are” A. counseling psychologists B. clinical psychologists C. counselor educators D. pastoral educators 5. The ____ model views illness and pathology from an underlying biological or physiological cause. The treatment perspective focuses on how to alleviate/control the symptoms.

A. wellness B. medical C. psychological D. spiritual 6. __________ target unconscious factors that lead to problematic thoughts, behaviors, and feelings.

A. psychoanalysis/psychodynamic therapies B. behavioral therapies C. cognitive therapies D. humanistic therapies 1 .

Chapter 1: Counselor Identity: Overview of the Evolving Professional Counselor

7. The core tenet of __________ is that maladaptive/dysfunctional thinking leads to maladaptive/ dysfunctional affective responses or behaviors.

A. psychoanalysis/psychodynamic therapies B. behavioral therapies C. cognitive therapies D. humanistic therapies 8. __________ posit that all behavior, both normal and abnormal, is learned and the learning process can also be instrumental in changing or modifying problematic or destructive behaviors.

A. psychoanalysis/psychodynamic therapies B. behavioral therapies C. cognitive therapies D. humanistic therapies 9. __________ approach treatment in the here and now to assist clients in making rational choices in order to help them achieve their highest potential through self-actualizing, selfawareness, and self-growth.

A. psychoanalysis/psychodynamic therapies B. behavioral therapies C. cognitive therapies D. humanistic therapies 10. Approaching clients from a ________ frame involves consideration of physical, emotional, psychological, social, environmental, and spiritual dimensions simultaneously A. psychoanalysis/psychodynamic therapies B. behavioral therapies C. cognitive therapies D. wellness 11. The five life tasks identified by Witmer and Sweeney that characterize wellness are: A. spirituality, self-regulation, work, love, and friendship B. spirituality, self-regulation, work, love, and success C. spirituality, self-regulation, worth, love, and friendship D. religiosity, self-regulation, work, love, and friendship 12. The first life task is _____ and is at the center of the Wheel of Wellness. These beliefs and traditions have been an integral part of the human condition and conveyed through ethical, legal, and moral codes to safeguard and maintain the sacredness of life.

A. social B. self-regulation C. spirituality D. friendship

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Chapter 1: Counselor Identity: Overview of the Evolving Professional Counselor

13. The third life task depends on one’s engagement in work activities and those who are not engaged in work likely experience difficulties economically and psychologically A. work B. worth C. vocation D. vacation 14. The ______life task considers the social relational aspects of well-being as a factor in quality of life.

A. work B. self-regulation C. friendship D. love 15. The Indivisible Self model is built around the higher-order indivisible self, which is made up of the five second-order factors: A. Essential Self, Physical Self, Creative Self, Loving Self, and Social Self B. Essential Self, Physical Self, Creative Self, Coping Self, and Serving Self C. Essential Self, Physical Self, Creative Self, Coping Self, and Social Self D. Essential Self, Physical Self, Developing Self, Coping Self, and Social Self 16. Tseng and Streltzer (2004), in their definition of cultural competency, identified three qualities that counselors attain to be culturally competent.

A. cultural empathy, cultural knowledge, and cultural sensitivity B. racial empathy, cultural knowledge, and cultural sensitivity C. cultural empathy, racial knowledge, and cultural sensitivity D. cultural empathy, cultural knowledge, and racial sensitivity 17. __________ extends the focus of multicultural counseling to address oppression and oppressive systems of power and privilege.

A. cultural competence counseling B. diversity counseling C. racial counseling D. social justice counseling 18. ______were developed to provide counselors a framework for integrating social justice and cultural competencies into theories, practice, and research A. Religion and Spiritual Competencies B. Multicultural and Social Justice Counseling Competencies C. Diversity Competencies D. Racial Competencies

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Chapter 1: Counselor Identity: Overview of the Evolving Professional Counselor

19. The 2009 ASERVIC competencies consist of 14 specific competencies across 6 domains: A. culture and worldview, counselor self-awareness, human and spiritual development, communication, assessment, and diagnosis and treatment B. culture and worldview, counselor self-awareness, human and spiritual development, communication, assessment, and differential diagnosis C. culture and worldview, counselor self-awareness, human and spiritual development, pastoral recognition, assessment, and diagnosis and treatment D. culture and worldview, counselor self-awareness, racial development theory, communication, assessment, and diagnosis and treatment 20. ASERVIC stands for: A. Association for Spiritual, Ethical, and Religious Values in Counseling B. Association for Service, Ethical, and Religious Values in Counseling C. Association for Spiritual, Ethical, and Racial Values in Counseling D. Association for Service, Ethical, and Racial Values in Counseling Extended Response Questions: 1. How can you develop a strong professional counseling identity?

2. Choose an association you plan to join. Determine the mission and goals of the association and how you could play an active role in the membership.

3. Compare 2 different of approaches in counseling and why you align or do not align with the approaches?

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Chapter 2: Overview of Accreditation and Counselor Credentialing

Chapter 2: Overview of Accreditation and Counselor Credentialing Multiple Choice Questions: 1. _______ is an independent agency recognized by the Council on Higher Education and is the recognized accreditation council for counseling programs A. CACREP B. NCATE C. CAEP D. SACSCOC 2. _________ refers to establishing minimal standards for training programs.

A. Accreditation B. Credentialing C. Licensing D. Certification 3. __________ is the formal recognition that individuals have voluntarily met minimal professional standards to engage in independent practice accreditation body for counseling programs.

A. Accreditation B. Credentialing C. Licensing D. Certification 4. CACREP focuses its accreditation process ___ program specialty areas.

A. 5 B. 7 C. 8 D. 4 5. Counseling programs that are CACREP-accredited require coursework in ____ core areas along with a supervised practicum and internship.

A. 8 B. 7 C. 10 D. 9 6. For the practicum experience, students are expected to complete ___ clock hours of direct client contact as part of the 100-clock-hour requirement.

A. 40 B. 240 C. 140 C. 200

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Chapter 2: Overview of Accreditation and Counselor Credentialing

7. For the internship experience, students are expected to complete ___ clock hours of direct client contact as part of the 600-clock-hour requirement.

A. 40 B. 240 C. 140 C. 200 8. Students who attend a CACREP-accredited program are permitted to take A. NCE B. NCMHCE C. NCSC D. Either A or B 9. ____ accredits programs that establish competencies for counselors to provide rehabilitation counseling services to individuals with physical, mental, and/or emotional disabilities.

A. CACREP B. APA C. AMHCA D. CORE 10. ____ and _____merged to establish a unified accreditation process. This merger was viewed as an important step in creating a unified counseling profession.

A. CACREP ad CORE B. CACREP and APA C. CORE and APA D. CORE and AMHCA 11. NBCC sets forth national _______ for the counseling profession.

A. Maximum B. Licensure C. Minimum D. Reciprocity 12. NBCC stands for A. National Board for Certified Counselors B. National Bureau for Certified Counselors C. National Board for Community Counselors D. National Board for Clinical Counselors 13. Qualifying examinations for licensure include A. NCE B. NCMHCE C. APA D. Both A and B 6 .

Chapter 2: Overview of Accreditation and Counselor Credentialing

14. NBCC recertifies members in good standing every five years. During that renewal period, individuals must accrue a minimum ____ approved contact hours: A. 25 B. 50 C. 75 D. 100 15. ______ is legal authority granted by state statute to practice a profession within a defined scope of practice.

A. Certification B. Regulation C. Licensure D. Credentialed 16. ____ acts, allow individuals to practice as counselors without being licensed.

A. Title B. Licensure C. Practice D. Certified 17. ______acts prevent individuals from practicing as professional counselors unless they are licensed.

A. Title B. Licensure C. Practice D. Certified 18. Many states, through their licensure statutes, have a provision that allows for licensed professional counselors in good standing from another state to apply for licensure via the endorsement process. This is called: A. Licensure reciprocity B. Licensure portability C. Licensure by endorsement D. Licensure by commerce 19. Licensure is not in _____ States?

A. 47 B. 48 C. 49 D. 50

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Chapter 2: Overview of Accreditation and Counselor Credentialing

20. The ____ was created to support communication across state licensing boards.

A. ACA B. AMHCA C. AASCB D. CORE Extended Response Questions: 1. Explain the difference between credentialing, certification, and licensure.

2. Explain what is meant by scope of practice and how it is related to licensure as an LPC?

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Chapter 3: Ethical and Legal Issues in Counseling

Chapter 3: Ethical and Legal Issues in Counseling Multiple Choice Questions: 1. ______ standards are developed primarily by professional associations and based on values and norms of a profession that are intended to guide the behaviors of the members.

A. Legal B. Credentialing C. Licensure D. Ethical 2. ___________are membership organizations that are closely aligned with a profession but are often not governed by a licensing board. They allow members in a profession to network with one another.

A. Professional memberships B. Licensure boards C. Ethical memberships D. Certifying boards 3. _______ are assembled in each state, commonwealth, or district in the United States and have the responsibility of creating statutes and regulations that govern the practice of professional counseling.

A. Certifying boards B. Licensure boards C. Ethics boards D. Accreditation boards 4. Sanctions are the range of decisions that can be made by a licensing board, ranging from dismissal of a complaint, private reprimand, additional education/training, to revocation of a license with many options in between. The most severe of the sanctions is ________ which is to revoke or take away a license to practice.

A. Complaints B. Reprimand C. Revocation D. Remediation 5. Laws are established to provide the expected practice or ________ of professional practice within a state and across similar professionals.

A. Standard of care B. Negligence C. Malpractice D. Duty to consult

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Chapter 3: Ethical and Legal Issues in Counseling

6. _______ is the knowledge of negligence or breach in standard of care by another professional that impacts a client, even if they are not the primary provider for the client.

A. Primary liability B. Secondary liability C. Vicarious liability D. Malpractice 7. Practicing within the limits of one’s education, certifications/licenses, degrees, and clinical training is considered A. Clinical competence B. Negligence C. Standard of Care D. Common practice 8. The act of intentional or unintentional violations of the standard of care or failure to abide by the practicing statutes established by a state to protect the public is considered: A. Clinical competence B. Negligence C. Standard of Care D. Common practice 9. Four elements (the 4 Ds) must be proven for negligence: A. dereliction, duty of care, directly impacts, and causes damages B. dereliction, duty of care, indirectly impacts, and causes damages C. deviation, duty of care, directly impacts, and causes damages D. deviation, duty of care, indirectly impacts, and causes damages 10. _______ is the allegation that the professional counselor was negligent in the standard of care as compared to how other professionals in the field would professionally practice counseling.

A. Clinical competence B. Negligence C. Malpractice D. Common practice 11. The following are common malpractice allegations, EXCEPT: A. Informed consent not obtained properly B. Failure to execute a duty to warn to protect others from a violent client C. Applying appropriate empirical strategies D. Failure to follow a standard to execute a duty to protect a client from harm 12. Malpractice often lead to A. Criminal action suits B. Civil law suits C. Tort action D. Misdemeanors 10 .

Chapter 3: Ethical and Legal Issues in Counseling

13. Failure to adhere to legal limits such as mandated reporting, boundary violations such as sexual misconduct, and insurance fraud are examples of potential grounds for: A. Criminal action suits B. Civil law suits C. Tort action D. Misdemeanors 14. The ethical and legal obligation of counselors to protect the privacy of client information shared in the therapeutic relationship is referred to as: A. Boundary violations B. Privileged communication C. Confidentiality D. Tort action 15. Duty to Warn refers to: A. Counselor’s obligation to protect a third-party person from harm by the client B. Counselor’s obligations to protect the client in cases of self-harm C. Counselor’s obligations to protect the client in cases of domestic violence D. Counselor’s obligations to protect the client in cases of sexual assault 16. Duty to Protect refers to: A. Counselor’s obligation to protect a third-party person from harm by the client B. Counselor’s obligations to protect the client in cases of self-harm C. Counselor’s obligations to protect the client in cases of domestic violence D. Counselor’s obligations to protect the client in cases of sexual assault 17. The legal term often used to describe the privacy of information acquired in a client– counselor relationship and is associated with testifying in court or having information used in court is: A. Boundary violations B. Privileged communication C. Confidentiality D. Tort action 18. HIPAA (Public Law 104–191), included four areas of legislation: A. privacy requirements, electronic transactions, security requirements, and national identifier requirements B. privacy requirements, confidentiality, security requirements, and national identifier requirements C. privileged communication, electronic transactions, security requirements, and national identifier requirements D. privileged communication, electronic transactions, confidentiality, and national identifier requirements

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Chapter 3: Ethical and Legal Issues in Counseling

19. _______ violations are those that are neither initiated by the client nor the counselor and were not predictable from the onset of the therapeutic relationship.

A. Boundary extension B. Boundary violations C. Uninvited boundary crossings D. Tort crossings 20. The most common ethical allegation against counselors is: A. Involvement in sexual/romantic relationships with current clients or family members B. Failure to practice within the expected competency boundaries C. Violation of confidentiality, privileged communication, lack of adhering to privacy practices and disclosing or sharing confidential client records or information without proper consents D. Inappropriate relationships with a supervisee/student Extended Response Questions: 1. Explain the connection with standard of care, negligence, and malpractice cases.

2. Explain a decision model you may implement to decrease legal and ethical allegations.

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Chapter 4: Risk Assessment, Intervention, and Postvention: Suicide and Homicide

Chapter 4: Risk Assessment, Intervention, and Postvention: Suicide and Homicide Multiple Choice Questions 1. What group in the United States exceeds the 13 per 100,00 national suicide rate and appears most at risk at 17 per 100,000: A. youth ages 15-24 B. middle aged women ages 35-43 C. Native-American males D. elderly, 65 and older 2. The term primary victims refer to A. individuals who have committed suicide and no intervention was successful B. family members of suicide victims C. those who attempt suicide D. none of the above 3. The term attempt survivors refer to A. those who have attempted to commit suicide but the attempt was not completed B. those who committed suicide C. family members who are grieving D. someone who has no intent, no capability, no desire, but does own a gun 4. The term survivors refer to A. the person who survives a suicide attempt B. the person(s) who are impacted by the suicide attempt or completion C. persons who are in a psychiatric hospital D. a person who participates in self-injurious behaviors 5. A suicide assessment should be done A. at every intake regardless of presenting problem B. at every intake only if the presenting problem includes suicide behaviors or history C. by the 4th session D. only if suicidal thoughts or behaviors are presented 6. __________ is considered a warning sign of suicidal risk.

A. identifying as a survivor of abuse B. a family member who has attempted C. stable mood or behaviors D. giving things away 7. When assessing suicidal behaviors or lethality, a counselor the standard of care is to A. thoroughly assess the lethality level B. thoroughly assess the risk factors 13 .

Chapter 4: Risk Assessment, Intervention, and Postvention: Suicide and Homicide

C. thoroughly assess the protective factors D. thoroughly assess the risk and protective factors 8. Risk factors can be grouped into three main categories A. health, environmental, and history B. health, family origin, and history C. family of origin, work setting, and history D. relationships, work setting, purpose and meaning 9. Which is of the following is the best examples of historical risks A. chronic health issues, past relationships, and poverty B. past trauma, previous suicidal attempts, and family history of suicide C. health care issues, abandonment issues, recent losses D. poverty, health history, and lack of supports 10. Postvention involves A. assisting survivors of suicide loss after a suicide has occurred.

B. assisting individuals who have attempted suicide.

C. advocacy activities that survivors of suicide loss can do to assist in prevention.

D. all of the above 11. What grouping provides the best example of protective factors that can prevent a person form acting on their suicidal thoughts A. hopefulness, socio-economic status, and strong support B. safety planning, strong support, and high socioeconomic status C. strong support, sense of hopefulness, and history of effective problem solving D. strong support, effective problem solving, and high socioeconomic status 12. An individual who reports or presents with a desire to die in a foreseeable timeframe is considered A. chronic risk B. acute risk C. moderate risk D. complicated risk 13. The Mini Mental Status Examination is used to assess A. person, place, suicide history B. person, place, time, situation C. person, chronic, and acute history or suicidal behavior D. chronic suicidality, location, and situation

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Chapter 4: Risk Assessment, Intervention, and Postvention: Suicide and Homicide

14. When working with a group or individual survivor of suicide, counselors should consider including the following components A. commemorating the positive, absolution of guilt, reframing the why, assessment of further suicides, saying goodbye B. commemorating the positive, absolution of guilt, reconstructing the why, assessment of further suicides C. commemorating the positive, reframing the why, assessment of further suicides, saying goodbye D. absolution of guilt, reframing the why, assessment of further suicides, saying goodbye 15. The best way to reconstruct the why with survivors is A. to determine the warning signs that were not observed prior to the suicide B. to try and determine the meaning of the why C. to review any guilt experienced D. to determine risk and protective factors 16. The most thorough assessment of homicidal lethality includes weighing the A. risk and warning signs B. risk and protective factors C. risk, warning, and protective factors D. risk, lethality, and warning factors 17. Examples of low level of homicidal threat includes A. indirect threats, threats contain inconsistent information, lacks realism B. indirect threats, threats contain inconsistent information, pre-planning C. threats contain inconsistent information threats contain inconsistent information, preplanning, D. pre-planning of ideation, indirect threats, direct person 18. “I hate my mother-in-law. Sometimes I imagine what it would be like to run her down with my car. Seriously! I could take her out.” This indicates which level of threat?

A. Lethal B. Non-existent C. Medium D. Low 19. Medium level threat clients A. do not need to be monitored but should schedule a follow up session B. should be hospitalized immediately C. pose no threat D. should be monitored and may need to be hospitalized especially if impulsivity is present

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Chapter 4: Risk Assessment, Intervention, and Postvention: Suicide and Homicide

20. Needs of survivors from homicide include A. allow how the survivor can increase sense of safety B. allow the survivor to work through details of the death C. have a possible referral for group counseling D. all of the above Extended Response Questions: 1. Create a list of risk and protective factors that should be considered by counselors.

2. Choose a suicide assessment and explain why you find the assessment effective.

3. Provide a problem solving framework for addressing ethical and legal issues 4. Explain the difference between acute and chronic suicide risk

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Chapter 5: Mandated Reporting: An Overview of Abuse Reporting and Child and Adult Protective Services

Chapter 5: Mandated Reporting: An Overview of Abuse Reporting and Child and Adult Protective Services Multiple Choice Questions: 1. Limitations to early reporting laws across states include: A. Some states only require only serious injuries to be reported.

B. The type of abuse that was reportable is not consistent across states.

C. Some states only require medical providers to be mandated reporters.

D. All of the above 2. The CAPTA Reauthorization Action of 2010 included the following revisions: A. A requirement to identify and assess all reports involving children known or suspected to be victims of sex trafficking.

B. To train child protective services workers about identifying, assessing, and providing comprehensive services for children who are sex trafficking victims.

C. Both A and B D. None of the above 3. The most significant aspect of CAPTA is the requirement that the following be reported.

A. physical, sexual, and psychological abuse as well as physical, medical, and psychological neglect B. physical, sexual, and psychological abuse as well as physical, medical, and psychological neglect C. physical, spiritual, and psychological abuse as well as physical, medical, and psychological neglect D. economical, sexual, and psychological abuse as well as physical, medical, and psychological neglect 4. Hitting or beating with closed fist or an object, bite marks, black eyes, bruising, kicking, burning, throwing objects, choking/strangulation, tying up a child, severely shaking a baby, and inappropriate or excessively harsh disciplinary action are examples of: A. Neglect abuse B. Sexual abuse C. Physical abuse D. Psychological or emotional abuse 5. Verbal abuse/assault (e.g., screaming, ridiculing, intimidating), insulting, name calling, not protecting children from witnessing physical or emotional abuse of another, excessive demands on the child or the child’s performance, punishing a child for positive and appropriate behavior, discouraging normal attachment between the child and a caregiver, and discouraging positive self-esteem are examples of: A. Neglect abuse B. Sexual abuse

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Chapter 5: Mandated Reporting: An Overview of Abuse Reporting and Child and Adult Protective Services

C. Physical abuse D. Psychological or emotional abuse 6. Involvement of a child in sexual activity to provide sexual gratification or financial benefit to the perpetrator, including contacts for sexual purposes, fondling, intercourse molestation, statutory rape, prostitution, pornography, exposure, incest, genital mutilation, or other sexually exploitative activities are examples of: A. Neglect abuse B. Sexual abuse C. Physical abuse D. Psychological or emotional abuse 7. Providing inadequate shelter; lacking needed medical, dental, and eye care; begging for or stealing food and/or money; inappropriate clothing; and inadequate caretaker supervision or child care arrangements are examples of: A. Neglect abuse B. Sexual abuse C. Physical abuse D. Psychological or emotional abuse 8. Abusive, violent, coercive, forceful, or threatening act or word inflicted by one member of a family or household on another is defined as: A. Intimate partner violence B. Dating violence C. Domestic violence D. Workplace violence 9. The gathering and assessment of objective information to determine if a child has been or is at risk of being maltreated. Often includes face-to-face contact with the victim and results in a deposition as to whether the alleged report is substantiated or not. This is process is considered: A. Investigation B. Adjudicatory hearing C. Closed without a hearing D. Indicated or reason to suspect 10. A hearing to determine if sufficient evidence exists to prove child maltreatment, or whether there is a state statute that allows a state to intervene to protect the child. This process is considered: A. Investigation B. Adjudicatory hearing C. Closed without a hearing D. Indicated or reason to suspect

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Chapter 5: Mandated Reporting: An Overview of Abuse Reporting and Child and Adult Protective Services

11. An investigation disposition that concludes that maltreatment cannot be substantiated under state law or policy is considered: A. Investigation B. Adjudicatory hearing C. Closed without a hearing D. Indicated or reason to suspect 12. Disposition (or finding) that does not conclude with a specific finding is considered: A. Investigation B. Adjudicatory hearing C. Closed without a hearing D. Indicated or reason to suspect 13. A type of investigation disposition that concludes that the allegation of maltreatment or risk of maltreatment was supported by state law or policy is considered: A. Investigation B. Adjudicatory hearing C. Substantiated D. Indicated or reason to suspect 14. ____ is the act or failure to act by a parent, caretaker, or other individual as defined under state law which results in physical abuse, neglect, medical neglect, sexual abuse, emotional abuse, or an act or failure to act which presents an imminent risk of serious harm to a child.

A. Maltreatment B. Adjudicatory hearing C. Substantiated D. Indicated or reason to suspect 15. Mandatory reporting statutes that apply to specific professionals (e.g., counselors, health-care providers, teachers, first responders) are known as: A. Universal mandatory reporting B. Non-universal mandatory reporting C. Codified mandatory reporting D. Intradepartmental mandatory reporting 16. Mandated reporting statutes that apply to all adults, and not just specific professionals, are known as: A. Universal mandatory reporting B. Non-universal mandatory reporting C. Codified mandatory reporting D. Intradepartmental mandatory reporting

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Chapter 5: Mandated Reporting: An Overview of Abuse Reporting and Child and Adult Protective Services

17. In many states, this profession has some degree of exemption from mandatory reporting.

A. Law enforcement B. Teachers C. Coaches D. Clergy 18. Counselors are mandated reporters in: A. 42 states B. 44 states C. 49 states D. 50 states 19. Age of consent is defined as: A. The minimum age at which an individual has the capacity and ability to legally give permission (consent) to engage in sexual intercourse.

B. The maximum age at which an individual has the capacity and ability to legally give permission (consent) to engage in sexual intercourse.

C. The minimum age at which an individual has the capacity and ability to legally give permission (consent) to engage in any an emotional relationship.

D. The minimum age at which an individual has the capacity and ability to legally give permission (consent) to date.

20. CPS reports should be directed to: A. Where the counselor is licensed B. Where the client lives C. Where the alleged perpetrator lives D. Where the alleged abuse took place Extended Response Questions: 1. Describe the difference between universal and non-universal mandated reporters.

2. Describe what information is needed when making a CPS call.

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Chapter 6: Case Documentation and the Professional Counselor

Chapter 6: Case Documentation and the Professional Counselor Multiple Choice Questions: 1. The standard of care in counseling as applied to maintaining case records includes: A. Treatment progress.

B. Client presenting issues.

C. Clinical interventions.

D. All of the above 2. The action of counselors gathering information that may be beyond the scope of therapy is: A. Under-documentation B. Over-documentation C. Mid-range documentation D. Negligent documentation 3. The action of providing missing and incomplete entries or documentation is: A. Under-documentation B. Over-documentation C. Mid-range documentation D. Negligent documentation 4. The purpose of client records and documentation can be grouped into four broad categories: A. case management, client legal implications, protection of health information, counselor risk management B. case management, medical implications, protection of health information, counselor risk management C. case management, client legal implications, protection of personal information, counselor risk management D. office management, client legal implications, protection of health information, counselor risk management 5. Counselor rights and responsibilities, informed consent are information on counseling procedures; risks and benefits of treatment; counselor qualifications and training; and other ethical and legal considerations are included in an: A. Confidentiality agreement B. Treatment planning C. Informed consent D. Privacy act 6. When documenting therapeutic activities, records should avoid: A. Facts B. Risk interpretation C. Personal narratives and opinions D. Prognosis 21 .

Chapter 6: Case Documentation and the Professional Counselor

7. Using conclusionary language or words that are ambiguous or undefined should also include the following terminology: A. “As evidenced by” B. “As reported by” C. “As suggested by” D. None of the above 8. _______ outlines a process between the counselor and client that occurs prior to the establishment of the counseling relationship.

A. Treatment planning B. Informed consent C. Confidentiality D. Privacy disclosure 9. A fundamental and inherent condition for establishing and maintaining the therapeutic alliance is: A. Treatment planning B. Informed consent C. Confidentiality D. Privacy disclosure 10. Because a release often involves two-way communications, best practice would include a statement such as: A. “To bilaterally protect confidential information and opinions with” B. “To unilaterally release and exchange confidential information and opinions with” C. “To bilaterally release and exchange confidential information and opinions with” D. “To bilaterally release and exchange non-confidential information and opinions with” 11. The release should also include a disclaimer that the client can ____the release at any time through written communication to the counselor or person initiating A. Revoke B. Support C. Collaborate D. Investigate 12. Typically, the release states that it is set to expire in ________ from the date it was signed.

A. 3 months B. 6 months C. 9 months D. 12 months

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Chapter 6: Case Documentation and the Professional Counselor

13. For clients who continue in counseling after the expiration of the release, if there is a need for continual information from the third party, the client must: A. Authorize and complete a new release.

B. Nothing, the original consent remains intact.

C. Re-authorize every 6 months.

D. Counselors may only receive one release.

14. In cases of minor clients, a parent or guardian must: A. Sign the release of information.

B. Parents and Guardians do not have to sign the release.

C. Minor clients do not have rights in counseling.

D. Attend every session.

15. Demographic and cultural information, medical history, education history, employment history, substance use and addiction history, legal history, social and family history, recreational history, spiritual/religious history, and psychological and psychiatric history are components included in: A. Progress notes B. Consents C. Intakes D. None of the above 16. Two interviewing approaches commonly used in intake/assessment are: A. Structured and semi-structured.

B. Responsive and semi-responsive.

C. Logical and illogical.

D. None of the above 17. _______ involves the counselor asking questions directly from the intake/assessment without deviating from the content or order of the questions.

A. Structured interviews B. Un-structured interviews C. Semi-structured interviewers D. Multi-structured interviews 18. A ______ covers the same domains and questions as the structured interview but allows the counselor some flexibility in asking follow-up questions.

A. Structured interviews B. Un-structured interviews C. Semi-structured interviewers D. Multi-structured interviews

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Chapter 6: Case Documentation and the Professional Counselor

19. All ______ should include the client name, date of service, start and end time of session, what number session it is, treatment modality (e.g., individual or group session), and counselor signature and relevant credentials.

A. Progress notes B. Consents C. Intakes D. None of the above 20. _____ notes are written notes by counselors, developed for their benefit, to record content and information that is not intended to be released to the client or other third parties.

A. Progress notes B. Consents C. Intakes D. Psychotherapy notes Extended Response Questions: 1. Explain what must be proven to produce a malpractice claims.

2. List and explain the categories included in intakes.

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Chapter 7: Diagnosing Mental Health Conditions

Chapter 7: Diagnosing Mental Health Conditions Multiple Choice Questions: 1. The purpose of diagnosis is to: A. Provide a direction and framework for treatment planning and intervention.

B. Provide a rationale for payment for reimbursement.

C. Provide assumptions on the symptoms of demonstrated behaviors.

D. Provide a rationale for prognosis.

2. The term mental retardation was changed in the DSM-5 to: A. Neurocognitive disorders B. Neurodevelopmental disorders C. Cognitive intellectual disorders D. Cognitive impediment disorders 3. In the DSM-5, a new diagnosis, disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, was established to address concerns about possible over diagnosis and treatment of _______ in children under age 18 who exhibit behaviors of persistent irritability and frequent episodes of extreme lack of behavioral control.

A. Intermittent explosive disorder B. Bipolar disorder C. Schizophrenia D. Psychosis NOS 4. New to the DSM-5, for specific phobia and social anxiety disorder for those over age18, it must be shown that the anxiety is: A. Out of proportion to the actual danger or threat after cultural considerations B. Out of proportion to the perceived danger or threat C. Non-existent the normal perception D. Only can be experienced with a Mood disorder 5. In the DSM-5 for anorexia nervosa, the requirement for ____ has been eliminated.

A. Dysmenorrhea B. Amenorrhea C. Extraction of food D. Weight loss 6. _____ is a new diagnostic category in the DSM-5 that reflects the conceptualization of “gender congruence” rather than cross-gender identification that served as the basis for gender identity disorder.

A. Gender identification B. Gender resolution C. Gender dysphoria D. Gender inequity 25 .

Chapter 7: Diagnosing Mental Health Conditions

7. ____ disorder listed under somatic symptoms and related disorders because somatic symptoms are predominant and are often encountered in medical settings.

A. Trauma B. Bereavement C. Factitious D. Anxiety 8. Criteria for _______ disorder is now grouped into three types: angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behaviors, and vindictiveness, and the exclusionary criteria for conduct disorder are removed.

A. Oppositional defiant B. Conduct C. Antisocial D. Borderline personality 9. The DSM-5 deleted the categories of substance abuse and dependence and provides criteria for ___.

A. Addiction B. Substance use C. Substance withdrawal D. Relapse 10. The purpose of ______is to differentiate between multiple disorders or conditions that share similar presentation of symptoms, characteristics, or signs.

A. Differential symptoms B. Differential diagnosis C. Differential criteria D. Differential treatment planning 11. The first step in this process of differential diagnosis is to engage in a comprehensive A. Assessment of the client’s information B. Treatment planning C. Prognosis D. Medical assessment 12. Evaluating evidence of _____ is a necessary step in the differential diagnosis process to determine if a client. Is client is feigning symptoms for other motives, avoiding responsibilities, or seeking reimbursement from a third-party payer for care that is not needed A. Malingering and factitious disorder B. Factitious and avoidance C. Malingering and avoidance D. Manipulation and fraud

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Chapter 7: Diagnosing Mental Health Conditions

13. It is imperative to rule out symptoms caused by _____ conditions in that health related issues may appear to look like mental health symptoms.

A. Physical B. Spiritual C. Medical D. Developmental 14. Sweating, heart palpitations, delirium, weakness, dizziness, light headedness which are symptoms of anxiety, may also be caused by _____ medical condition.

A. Hypoglycemia B. Hyperthyroidism C. Heart disease D. Diabetes 15. The ______ is comprised of the brain and spinal cord.

A. Central nervous system B. Human brain C. Spinal cord D. Frontal lobe 16. The ______ is comprised of the cerebrum, the cerebellum, and the brain stem.

A. Central nervous system B. Human brain C. Spinal cord D. Frontal lobe 17. ________ are commonly used in the treatment of childhood and adult attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder.

A. Antidepressants B. Stimulants C. Antipsychotics D. Anxiolytics 18. Counselors working with clients who are prescribed _______ need to be aware that use, even in the short term, can result in balance, memory, and drowsiness concerns.

A. Antidepressants B. Benzodiazepines C. Anxiolytics D. Mood stabilizers 19. _______ medications are most often associated with the treatment of bipolar disorder.

A. Antipsychotic B. Mood stabilizers

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Chapter 7: Diagnosing Mental Health Conditions

C. Anti-anxiety D. Anti-convulsion 20. Counselors working with clients who are prescribed _____ medications need to be aware that if side effects are not managed, clients are less likely to comply with the medication regimen.

A. Antipsychotic B. Mood stabilizers C. Anti-anxiety D. Anti-convulsion Extended Response Questions: 1. Describe what is differential diagnosis and the standard of care if ruling out other diagnoses?

2. Describe 3 major diagnosis changes in the DSM-5 from the DSM-IV-TR.

28 .

Chapter 8: Developing and Maintaining a Private Practice

Chapter 8: Developing and Maintaining a Private Practice Multiple Choice Questions: 1. In what private practice model does a counselor operate independently but is still responsible for generating individual referrals, record keeping, and billing but have the benefit of sharing overhead costs with a partner or other counselors?

A. Sole practitioner model B. Shared practice model C. Split fee practice model D. Employer group model 2. In what private practice model does a counselor join an existing practice that pays overhead expenses as well as offering office management services in exchange for a fee of the client revenue?

A. Sole practitioner model B. Shared practice model C. Split fee practice model D. Employer group model 3. In what private practice model does a counselor typically sign a contract and agree to a particular number of clients on a caseload in order to justify a salary?

A. Sole practitioner model B. Shared practice model C. Split fee practice model D. Employer group model 4. In what private practice model does a counselor typically take on all the expenses, marketing, client referrals, and management of all business practices in addition to having the caseload?

A. Sole practitioner model B. Shared practice model C. Split fee practice model D. Employer group model 5. Noncompete clauses may A. Forbid a professional counselor, who leaves the practice, to re-establish a practice within a specified mile radius or may prevent the professional counselor from taking existing clients to a new practice.

B. Forbid a professional counselor from competing with other mental health agencies.

C. Forbid a professional counselor from competing with other marketing firms for mental health.

D. Forbid a professional counselor from competing with other medical facilities.

29 .

Chapter 8: Developing and Maintaining a Private Practice

6. In a legal ______, all employees are individually protected from the negligent decisions made in business operations.

A. Corporation B. S corporation C. Partnership D. Joint partnership 7. The _____ allows counselors to be protected against personal liability and have tax credits and deductions that corporations are entitled to with stockholders.

A. Corporation B. S corporation C. Partnership D. Joint partnership 8. In an ____ the share in ownership of a practice is decided by the partners, can be any percentage as long as all of the percentages add up to 100%, and the joint responsibility for debts is determined at the time of the business arrangement.

A. Corporation B. Partnership C. LLC D. LLP 9. _____is typically the out-of-pocket payment made to the counselor for counseling services that do not involve any third-party insurance panels A. Fee for service B. Insurance panel C. Copays D. Medicaid 10. The first essential step in creating a business plan for a private practice is to develop a: A. Mission for the practice B. Budget for the practice C. Referral process D. Marketing plan 11. NPI stands for: A. National Indemnification Process B. National Identification Provider C. New Identification Provider D. National Identification Practice 12. Personal safety plan should include the following: A. Locking the door B. Screen potential clients 30 .

Chapter 8: Developing and Maintaining a Private Practice

C. Include safety drills D. All of the above 13. Private practices that closes with management and oversight of the termination of clients and business decisions due to retirement or relocation are considered ____ closures.

A. Involuntary B. Voluntary C. Forced D. Proactive 14. Involuntary practice closures may include the following situations: A. Violation of an ethical code of conduct B. Legal sanctions C. Death of the counselor D. All of the above 15. Counselors should also consult with their ____ to determine if there are requirements outlined by the state for closing a practice.

A. State’s licensing boards B. Office of the Assistant Attorney General C. ACA Risk Hotline D. Professional liability insurance 16. Diversifying a clinical practice can include: A. Group counseling B. Teaching C. Supervision D. All of the above 17. ____ is the single major difference between LLPs and LLCs. A. Liability protection B. Marketing protection C. Referrals D. Fee for service 18. Some states allow partnerships to form an ____, wherein partners are not exempt from the debts of the partnership, but they may be exempt from professional liability for the actions of the other partners.

A. LLC B. LLP C. Corporations D. Split fee practice

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Chapter 8: Developing and Maintaining a Private Practice

19. Counselors in private practice can opt to collect reimbursement for counseling services by: A. Fee-for-service B. Third-party insurance panels C. Bartering D. A and B 20. Some counselors take into account certain factors (client salary, family dependents, and need) for reduced client payment. This is called: A. Split fee scale B. Third party reimbursement C. Sliding scale D. Probono Extended Response Questions: 1. What questions are important to ask an employer before joining a practice?

2. Compare and contrast two practice models.

32 .

Chapter 9: Supervision and the Developing Professional Counselor

Chapter 9: Supervision and the Developing Professional Counselor Multiple Choice Questions: 1. _____ is an intervention provided by a more senior member of a profession to a more junior colleague or colleagues who typically (but not always) are members of that same profession.

A. Psychotherapy B. Retention C. Supervision D. None of the above 2. Bernard and Goodyear (2014) suggested that supervision serves two key purposes: A. Providing a supportive and educational function that aids in the supervisee’s professional development and serving the function of gatekeeper, specifically intended to protect and monitor client welfare.

B. Reporting illegal activities to AOG C. Referring client dysfunction to licensing boards D. B and C 3. Within the counseling discipline, clinical supervision is an integral component in the development of: A. Personal therapy B. Therapeutic intent C. Ethical compliance D. Clinical competence 4. To be an effective and competent clinical supervisor requires structured training that involves both: A. Formal didactic and experiential learning B. Formal didactic and psychoeducation learning C. Psychoeducation and personal counseling D. None of the above 5. Hess (2008) identified eight major supervision roles: A. Lecturer, principal, case reviewer, collegial peer, monitor, psychotherapist, coach, and educator B. Lecturer, teacher, case reviewer, collegial peer, monitor, psychotherapist, coach, and educator C. Lecturer, teacher, case reviewer, friend, monitor, psychotherapist, coach, and educator D. Lecturer, teacher, case reviewer, collegial peer, monitor, psychotherapist, marketer, and educator

33 .

Chapter 9: Supervision and the Developing Professional Counselor

6. Bernard (1979, 1997) identified three supervision roles that are used selectively by supervisors to achieve specific goals: A. Teacher, counselor, and consultant B. Teacher, counselor, and collegial peer C. Teacher, case reviewer, and consultant D. Teacher, counselor, and expert 7. Friedlander and Ward (1984), through the development of the Supervisory Styles Inventory (SSI), identified three supervision styles: A. Attractive, interpersonally sensitive, and task-oriented B. Attractive, personally sensitive, and task-oriented C. Unattractive, interpersonally sensitive, and task-oriented D. Attractive, interpersonally acute, and task-oriented 8. Supervision with practicum and internship students often falls into two categories: A. Clinical and consultative B. Teaching and consultative C. Clinical and administrative D. Teaching and administrative 9. Individual supervision, as the name implies, involves a working relationship between A. One or two supervisees and a supervisor.

B. Only one supervisee and a supervisor C. Up to 3 supervisees D. None of the above 10. Some drawbacks to triadic supervision include: A. Time committed to each supervisee B. Incompatibility of the supervision pair C. A and B D. None of the above 11. Benefits to triadic supervision includes: A. Bond between supervisees B. More feedback from more than one supervisee C. Supervisor can become more stimulated with case presentations D. All of the above 12. Some benefits of ____supervision include economies of time and expertise, broader learning due to exposure to sharing client cases, vicarious learning, greater diversity of feedback, greater opportunity for the supervisor to observe strengths and challenges facing supervisees, opportunities for supervisees to learn about supervision, and normalization of shared experiences and feelings.

A. Group B. Triadic 34 .

Chapter 9: Supervision and the Developing Professional Counselor

C. Individual D. None of the above 13. ____ aligns more with consultation where colleagues or supervisees working in pairs or groups use their knowledge and experiences to process clinical issues or improve clinical skills.

A. Triadic supervision B. Peer supervision C. Consultative supervision D. Group supervision 14. Four dimensions of a _______ competent supervisor includes (a) sociopolitical aspects; (b) interpersonal understanding of cultural identity and behavior; (c) intrapersonal identity; and (d) interpersonal understanding of expectations, biases, and prejudice.

A. Ethically B. Legally C. Clinical D. Multicultural 15. The ____ dimension involves the degree of privilege or level of oppression one experiences across various cultural characteristics such as gender, race, socioeconomic status (SES), disability, ethnicity, and sexual orientation.

A. Sociopolitical B. Sociocultural C. Socioeconomic D. Socioethical 16. ____ focuses on one’s identity (e.g., gender, sexual orientation, heritage, SES) and how this identity shapes one’s sense of self and their relationships with others.

A. Intrapersonal identity B. Interpersonal identity C. Superficial identity D. Non-maleficence identity 17. The similarities of issues that surface between the counselor and client, which are reenacted or recreated in supervision, are referred to as: A. Parallel process B. Similar process C. Developmentally aligned process D. Triangular process

35 .

Chapter 9: Supervision and the Developing Professional Counselor

18. ____ of supervision are rooted in the notion that humans are continually evolving and growing across the lifespan, and change, for better or worse, is a constant condition in life that must be navigated.

A. Discrimination models B. Person-centered models C. Developmental models D. Parallel models 19. Underlying the development of the _____ was the importance of viewing the supervisee from the position of conducting a counseling session rather than targeting the supervisee’s internal reality, which was the perspective of many theorists at the time.

A. Discrimination models B. Person-centered models C. Developmental models D. Parallel models 20. Many states are requiring counselors who intend to supervise to obtain the ____ credential.

A. Trauma-Informed Care B. Approved Clinical Supervisor (ACS) C. Mental Health Counselor Certification D. Person-Centered Certification Extended Response Questions: 1. As a supervisor, explain what components are required to be a multicultural competent supervisor.

2. Describe the various types of supervision. List benefits and disadvantages.

36 .

Chapter 10: Preparing for the Interview Process

Chapter 10: Preparing for the Interview Process Multiple Choice Questions: 1. The most important aspect in getting a job is through: A. Marketing B. Networking C. Advertising D. National job search 2. While you are in your graduate program, you should start the job process by: A. Networking B. Gathering contact information from various professionals C. Join a local counseling association D. All of the above 3. Professional references should include the following information on a professional resume (Urban & Linver, 2018): A. Professional reference name and relationship to the applicant B. Agency, organization, or college/university name, address C. Professional references contact information D. All of the above 4. If you have not earned your graduate degree, the BEST way to list it would be: A. You can list it is if is with 3 months of graduation B. List as “in progress” C. List is as “Expected date of graduation XXX” D. Do not make reference if it is not earned 5. Controversial political, racial, religious, sexist, or other provocative references may be perceived as A. Appropriate disclosure B. Unprofessional C. Professional D. Positive disclosure 6. Two important questions to ask for the interview are: A. Will you be expected to meet with several groups in one day?

B. Will there be a committee you will meet with during your interview?

C. Can you bring someone for support?

D. Both A and B

37 .

Chapter 10: Preparing for the Interview Process

7. Before going to the interview, do your homework and: A. Review the agency and be prepared with knowledge about what they do.

B. Ask questions in an email before the interview.

C. Have some questions prepared that are unique to their setting.

D. Both A and C 8. Questions that are easily answered by the applicant are considered: A. Soft questions B. Hard questions C. Logical questions D. Illogical questions 9. An example of a soft question is: A. Tell us about your clinical experiences.

B. How would you handle a suicidal client?

C. How would you de-escalate a client?

D. Describe your theoretical orientation.

10. It is recommended to have at least ___ questions to ask the agency?

A. It is not recommended to ask questions.

B. One question C. Between 2-3 questions.

D. Five questions 11. Red flags for employers may include: A. Being long winded B. Complaining about another job.

C. None of the above D. Both A and B 12. When thinking about attire for the interview: A. Dress down so not to intimidate the person interviewing B. It is better to dress more professionally C. It is better to dress casually D. None of the above 13. Red flags for the applicant should include: A. Lack of safety concern for employees B. Not allowing for applicant questions] C. Not having a common theoretical orientation D. Both A and B

38 .

Chapter 10: Preparing for the Interview Process

14. At completion of an interview, you should send an email to the team within: A. It is not recommended to send an email B. 24 hours C. Within 48 hours D. Within 72 hours 15. Should you send a written thank you?

A. Always B. Only if you do not send the email C. Never D. None of the above 16. Most employers indicate that a written thank you note: A. Is seldom done B. Is not a factor in determining hiring C. Seems to be a way to kiss up to the supervisor D. None of the above 17. A thank you note should include: A. Everyone involved in the interview.

B. Re-emphasis of your skills.

C. Provide a positive reflection.

D. All of the above 18. What are some common questions in a doctoral program interview?

A. What are your goals after completion of the program?

B. Do you plan to attend full-time or part-time?

C. How much money can the program give me?

D. Both A and B 19. When applying to a doctoral program, make sure your career goals: A. Are consistent with the program goals.

B. Are consistent with the salary you need upon graduation.

C. Allow you to pay off your loans within 5 years.

D. All of the above.

20. When applying to a doctoral program, faculty prefer candidates: A. No questions by the applicant.

B. To have an understanding of the program and goals.

C. To have an idea of the faculty they prefer to assist with research.

D. None of the above.

39 .

Chapter 10: Preparing for the Interview Process

Extended Response Questions: 1. What are some items to best prepare for an agency interview?

2. List 5 questions you may follow up with during the interview?

40 .

Chapter 11: Counselor Self-Care

Chapter 11: Counselor Self-Care Multiple Choice Questions: 1. ACA ethical code requires supervisors to A. Monitor the impairment of their supervisees.

B. Provide therapy to address the impairment of supervisees.

C. It is not the role of the supervisor to address any impairment.

D. None of the above 2. _______ starts with the ability of a counselor to monitor personal mental health and engage in self-care.

A. Ethical practice B. Moral practice C. Legal practice D. Spiritual practice 3. Self-care includes attention in what areas?

A. Medical B. Spiritual wellness C. Mental health D. All of the above 4. The self-care plan should be a ____ plan rather than a ______ one.

A. Proactive, Preventative B. Preventative, Reactionary C. Reactive, Responsive D. None of the above 5. Researchers found that counselors who practiced self-care had ___ levels of compassion satisfaction and ___ levels of burnout.

A. Higher, Lower B. Higher, Higher C. Lower, Lower D. Lower, Higher 6. The _____ developed by Stamm (2009), is the most widely used assessment used to measure job dissatisfaction, burnout, compassion satisfaction, and secondary traumatic stress.

A. Professional Burnout Life Scale B. Professional Quality of Life Scale (ProQOL) C. Professional Dissatisfaction and Life Scale D. None of the above

41 .

Chapter 11: Counselor Self-Care

7. Professional quality of life is measured by how one believes if they are an ____.

A. Effective helper B. Effective supervisor C. Ineffective supervisor D. Ineffective helper 8. Failure to self-assess and attend to restoring a functioning baseline (or creating a new healthy baseline of professional functioning) may lead to the following A. Unintentional countertransference, job dissatisfaction, burnout, compassion fatigue, and vicarious trauma B. Intentional countertransference, job dissatisfaction, burnout, compassion fatigue, and vicarious trauma C. Unintentional countertransference, job satisfaction, burnout, compassion fatigue, and vicarious trauma D. Unintentional countertransference, job dissatisfaction, burnout, compassion fatigue, and resilience 9. _____ occurs in the client–counselor relationship when a counselor assigns characteristics of significant people and events in their current or past lives to their clients.

A. Transference B. Countertransference C. Disclosure D. Resilience 10. If countertransference is not addressed, the inability to resolve personal conflicts in one’s personal life can ultimately result in _____.

A. Job dissatisfaction B. Resilience C. Burnout D. Compassion fatigue 11. _____ is defined as a psychological syndrome that results from chronic interpersonal or emotional exposure that leads to negative effects, such as depersonalization of clients, emotional exhaustion, perception of ineffectiveness as a counselor, or a perceived lack of personal accomplishment.

A. Job dissatisfaction B. Resilience C. Burnout D. Compassion fatigue 12. Counselor Burnout Inventory (CBI) scales are: A. Exhaustion, Incompetence, Negative Work Environment, Devaluing Client, and Deterioration in Personal Life B. Exhaustion, Competence, Negative Work Environment, Devaluing Client, and Deterioration in Personal Life 42 .

Chapter 11: Counselor Self-Care

C. Exhaustion, Incompetence, Positive Work Environment, Devaluing Client, and Deterioration in Personal Life.

D. Exhaustion, Incompetence, Negative Work Environment, Valuing Client, and Deterioration in Personal Life.

13. Lee, Cho, Kissinger, & Ogle (2010) used the Counselor Burnout Inventory (CBI) to examine counselor burnout and found three types of burnout experienced by counselors: A. Well-adjusted counselors B. Persevering counselors C. Disconnected counselors D. All of the above 14. _____ reported high levels of job satisfaction and positive self-esteem.

A. Well-adjusted counselors B. Persevering counselors C. Disconnected counselors D. All of the above 15. _____ exhibited burnout symptoms (such as exhaustion).

A. Well-adjusted counselors B. Persevering counselors C. Disconnected counselors D. All of the above 16. ____ exhibited high levels of client devaluation with low self-esteem.

A. Well-adjusted counselors B. Persevering counselors C. Disconnected counselors D. All of the above 17. Mental health counselors working in ____ have reported less burnout than those working in agencies.

A. Private practice B. Medical settings C. University settings D. None of the above 18. While all are similar construct ______ additionally affects a counselor’s worldview and sense of self.

A. Burnout B. Compassion fatigue C. Secondary stress trauma D. Vicarious trauma

43 .

Chapter 11: Counselor Self-Care

19. Constant exposure to stories told by clients of their emotional and physical sufferings can result in being overwhelmed and identification of symptoms is called: A. Burnout B. Compassion fatigue C. Secondary stress trauma D. Vicarious trauma 20. _____ refers specifically to behaviors and emotions resulting from exposure to traumatic stories.

A. Burnout B. Compassion fatigue C. Secondary stress trauma D. Vicarious trauma Extended Response Questions: 1. Describe the three types of burnout identified by the Counselor Burnout Inventory (CBI).

2. Describe the differences in Compassion fatigue, burnout, secondary stress trauma, and vicarious trauma.

44 .

Chapter 1: Answer Key

Answer Key for Chapter Multiple Choice Chapter 1 Answer Key: Multiple Choice: (1) D, (2) C, (3) A, (4) C, (5) B, (6) A, (7) C, (8) B, (9) D, (10) D, (11) A, (12) C, (13) A, (14) C, (15) C, (16) A, (17) D, (18) B, (19) A, (20) A Extended Response Questions. Answers may include: 1. Counselors who have a strong counselor identity also support professional associations through membership, leadership, and professional activities. It is common practice for counselors to join international, national, state, and local associations that align with their scope of practice. As a benefit of membership, attending association sponsored conferences, workshops, and seminars allows for knowledge dissemination, networking activities, and various advocacy endeavors. Counselors also have an understanding of how the profession evolved, an understanding of its historical roots, and continued advocacy for and advancing of its position within the helping professions.

2. Information about the association to include mission, target membership, and how the association meets their goals in becoming a counselor.

3. Include information on 2 of the following counseling approaches: the psychoanalysis/psychodynamic therapies, behavioral therapies, cognitive therapies, humanistic therapies

45 .

Chapter 2: Answer Key

Chapter 2 Answer Key: Multiple Choice: (1) A, (2) A, (3) B, (4) B, (5) A, (6) A, (7) B, (8) D, (9) D, (10) D, (11) C, (12) A, (13) D, (14) D, (15) C, (16) A, (17) C, (18) C, (19) D, (20) C Extended Response Questions. Answers may include the following 1. Answer should include credentialing is the process one has achieved the required academic degree(s) and license/certification to practice. Certification is not the same as licensure.

Unlike licensure, certification is typically a voluntary process where a credential is provided by a non-government organization. The certifying body provides public protection for those professionals who have successfully met all stated requirements for the credential and demonstrated professional competency in their duties as established by the profession.

Requirements for certification vary depending on the type of certification, if it is a national or state certification, and where one intends to practice. Licensure is legal authority granted by state statute to practice a profession within a defined scope of practice and licensure laws are established “to protect the public by establishing minimum standards of preparation and ensuring the professional is qualified to perform the duties defined in the scope of practice” 2. Answer should include the scope of practice is established by statutes outlined by a licensure board and defines what professional counselors may and not perform with the license.

46 .

Chapter 3: Answer Key

Chapter 3 Answer Key: Chapter 1 Answer Key: Multiple Choice: (1) D, (2) A, (3) B, (4) C, (5) A, (6) C, (7) A, (8) B, (9) A, (10) C, (11) C, (12) B, (13) A, (14) C, (15) A, (16) B, (17) B, (18) A, (19) C, (20) A Extended Response Questions. Answers may include the following: 1. Answers should include information on negligence; 4 Ds (dereliction of the duty of care, that directly impacts, and causes damages); standards of care, and malpractice.

2. Answers may include the following components: Identification of the problem; Application of the ACA Code of Ethics; Review of the concerns and consultation; Generate all possible actions; Weighing potential benefits and risks; Consulting with other professionals within the profession as well as other consultations; Re-evaluate the action chosen. Implementation of action. Carry out the plan and then follow up on the situation.

47 .

Chapter 4: Answer Key

Chapter 4 Answer Key: Multiple Choice: (1) D, (2) A, (3) A, (4) B, (5) A, (6) D, (7) D, (8) A, (9) B, (10) D, (11) C, (12) B, (13) B, (14) A, (15) B, (16) C, (17) A, (18) C, (19) D, (20) D Extended Response Questions. Answers may include the following: 1. Answer should include a review of risk and protective factors to include the following but not limited to: plan and means, history of risk behavior, acute current issues, history of mental health issues, history of medication compliance, hospitalizations, hopelessness/hopefulness, meaning and purpose, support systems including family, friends, spirituality/faith, coping resources, impulsive behaviors, historical and environmental factors.

2. Students can choose any assessment: CANS, CAMS, BSI, PANSI, Task Model of Assessment and Intervention.

3. Identification of the problem, application of the ACA Code of Ethics, review of the concerns and consultation, generate all possible actions, weighing potential benefits and risks, reevaluate the action chosen, implementation of action, carry out the plan and then follow up on the situation.

4. Acute crises refers to situations that require immediate professional intervention and may include personal failures that may impact core meaning or situations that are perceived as humiliating to the client. Chronic risk is often connected with long-term patterns of relationship difficulties, interpersonal conflicts, poor decision making in various aspects of life, and repetitive destructive patterns causing life situation difficulties. These chronic risk situations may be associated with chronic suicidal thoughts and possibly chronic behaviors, but individuals may have less specific plans and less lethal intent or means.

48 .

Chapter 5: Answer Key

Chapter 5 Answer Key: Multiple Choice: (1) D, (2) B, (3) A, (4) C, (5) D, (6) B, (7) A, (8) C, (9) A, (10) B, (11) D, (12) C, (13) C, (14) A, (15) B, (16) A, (17) D, (18) D, (19) A, (20) D Extended Response Questions. Answers may include the following: 1. Answer should include the following: Mandatory reporting statutes that apply to specific professionals (e.g., counselors, health-care providers, teachers, first responders) are known as non-universal mandated reporting. Mandated reporting statutes that apply to all adults, and not just specific professionals, are known as universal mandated reporting.

2. Answer should include the following information: At a minimum, the initial report includes the name and home address of the child, name of parent(s) or individual(s) responsible for the care of the child, child’s location, nature and extent of the suspected abuse, and name and contact information of the individual making the report. Most states require mandated reporters to provide additional detail that may include (1) age or approximate age of the child; (2) where the suspected abuse occurred; (3) names and ages of other children at home; (4) information on previous child maltreatment (5) information that may assist authorities in determining the cause of the injury or neglect; (6) source of the report; (7) family composition; (8) actions taken by individual making the report; (9) whether alleged perpetrator has access to the child; (10) whether child is in immediate danger; (11) unusual behaviors exhibited by the child; (12) potential risks to the investigator (e.g., does the alleged perpetrator have firearms?); (13) circumstances in which maltreatment became known to the reporter; (14) action taken to treat or help the child; (15) whether there is a family member who can protect the child; (16) any special language needs of the family; (17) any child or adult developmental issues; (18) evidence of the child having a disability and its impact on functioning and care; and (19) other pertinent information such as directions to the child’s house.

49 .

Chapter 6: Answer Key

Chapter 6 Answer Key: Multiple Choice: (1) D, (2) B, (3) A, (4) A, (5) C, (6) C, (7) A, (8) B, (9) C, (10) C, (11) A, (12) D, (13) A, (14) A, (15) C, (16) A, (17) A, (18) C, (19) A, (20) D Extended Response Questions. Answers may include the following: 1. In malpractice claims, the client must demonstrate (a) an established relationship existed where the counselor had a professional duty to the client, (b) quality of treatment provided fell below the standard of care expected from a competent counselor, (c) evidence of harm or injury, and (d) counselor’s negligence directly resulted in injury or harm 2. Demographic and cultural information, medical history, education history, employment history, substance use and addiction history, legal history, social and family history, recreational history, spiritual/religious history, and psychological and psychiatric history

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Chapter 7: Answer Key

Chapter 7 Answer Key: Multiple Choice: (1) A, (2) B, (3) B, (4) A, (5) B, (6) C, (7) C, (8) A, (9) B, (10) B, (11) A, (12) A, (13) C, (14) A, (15) A, (16) B, (17) B, (18) B, (19) B, (20) B Extended Response Questions. Answers may include the following: 1. Answer may include the following: Differential diagnosis is intended to identify a specific diagnosis from “competing, mutually exclusive diagnoses to best explain a given symptom presentation”. It is quite common for clients to present with symptoms that mimic various medical and psychiatric conditions. Counselors need to be competent in addressing and sorting through the presenting symptoms through a process of systematically distinguishing and differentiating how symptoms align with various conditions. The first step in this process is to engage in a comprehensive assessment of the client’s information. From this initial assessment, counselors gather preliminary information to identify which conditions appear viable.

2. Answers may include information on mood disorders, bipolar; trauma and related disorders; sexual dysfunctions; feeding and eating disorders; dissociative disorders; somatic symptoms; gender dysphoria; substance use; disruptive, impulsive, impulse control, and conduct disorders; obsessive compulsive disorders, anxiety disorders

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Chapter 8: Answer Key

Chapter 8 Answer Key: Multiple Choice: (1) B, (2) C, (3) D, (4) A, (5) A, (6) A, (7) B, (8) C, (9) A, (10) A, (11) A, (12) D, (13) B, (14) D, (15) A, (16) D, (17) A, (18) B, (19) D, (20) C Extended Response Questions. Answers may include the following: 1. Who is the owner and who makes the final decisions? How are referrals shared, and will there be referrals for me as I start with the practice? What administrative support will I be able to access? Will there be a percentage change in counselors earnings over time? If so, at what point(s) will it change? What if I decide to leave the practice? Can I take clients with me? What is in my benefits package (e.g., malpractice insurance, health benefits, continuing education)? Do I have an opportunity for input in the referrals given to me as clients?, Am I expected to provide supervision or have on-call responsibilities?

2. Answers should include two of the following models: Sole practice model, share practice model, split fee practice model, employer group model. Answer then should include responsibilities in budgeting, salary, marketing, overhead, and referrals.

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Chapter 9: Answer Key

Chapter 9 Answer Key: Multiple Choice: (1) C, (2) A, (3) D, (4) A, (5) B, (6) A, (7) A, (8) C, (9) A, (10) C, (11) D, (12) A, (13) B, (14) D, (15) A, (16) D, (17) A, (18) A, (19) C, (20) B Extended Response Questions. Answers may include the following: 1. Answer can include a discussion on the four dimensions include (a) sociopolitical aspects; (b) interpersonal understanding of cultural identity and behavior; (c) intrapersonal identity; and (d) interpersonal understanding of expectations, biases, and prejudice. The sociopolitical dimension involves the degree of privilege or level of oppression one experiences across various cultural characteristics such as gender, race, socioeconomic status (SES), disability, ethnicity, and sexual orientation. The cultural dimension, understanding of privilege and oppression based on individual characteristics are also experienced on a macro level through various institutional means.

Supervisors also need to learn about institutionalized forms of privilege and oppression and what corrective actions they can take.

2. Answer should include information on individual (triadic), group, and peer supervision. To also include benefits and disadvantages of each focusing on: sole focus of the supervisor, a more relaxed and safer environment develops for the supervisee, bond between the two supervisees, varied clinical perspectives, feedback, economic, and supervisor thoughts and perspectives related to the clinical presentation. Drawbacks may include time, commitment to each supervisee, and potential for incompatibility of the supervision pair.

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Chapter 10: Answer Key

Chapter 10 Answer Key: Multiple Choice: (1) B, (2) D, (3) D, (4) C, (5) B, (6) D, (7) D, (8) A, (9) A, (10) C, (11) D, (12) B, (13) D, (14) B, (15) A, (16) A, (17) D, (18) D, (19) A, (20) B Extended Response Questions. Answers may include the following: 1. Tell us about your clinical experiences. Can you share your licensure/certification status and other trainings and certifications? What population of clients do you feel most qualified to work with based on your experiences, training, and credentials? What qualifications or skills do you have that you think would benefit our agency? In what type of environment do you like to work? Have you administered any assessments? Tell us about a difficult client or situation you had and how you handled the situation. What salary do you have in mind?

2. If the agency employs various similar professionals, such as social workers, psychologists, psychiatrists, case works, you can ask: How does the agency view collaboration and input from all of the various team players? Is the agency funded by any grants or external funding? If so, is this position connected with these external sources? Does the agency have an external accreditation? If so, where is the agency in the accreditation process? What is the expectation of this position’s role in accreditation? Does the agency have a specific electronic therapy notes program that is used? What is the expected caseload of clients? What if there is an increase or decrease in caseload? Is caseload connected to the salary? What are some other expectations that an individual hired for this position would be expected to take on? Is supervision toward licensure, as part of the benefits, an option? Is there an LPC that is able to provide supervision? Is there an annual amount allocated for professional development funds available for this position? Is there an increase in salary once one becomes licensed? Is there an annual review process? If so, what is the process and implication of the process? Is there an expectation to do in-home counseling services or transport clients? Is there a protocol for safety precautions for clients who become violent?

What do you like most about the agency? In what areas do you see growth for the agency?

What are the next steps of the interview process? What is the timeframe for offering the position to an applicant? How does the agency support self-care of the employees? Or, how does the agency actively assist with the prevention of burnout of employees?

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Chapter 11: Answer Key

Chapter 11 Answer Key: Multiple Choice: (1) A, (2) A, (3) D, (4) B, (5) A, (6) B, (7) A, (8) A, (9) B, (10) C, (11) C, (12) A, (13) D, (14) A, (15) B, (16) A, (17) A, (18) D, (19) B, (20) C Extended Response Questions. Answers may include the following: 1. The CBI scales are Exhaustion, Incompetence, Negative Work Environment, Devaluing Client, and Deterioration in Personal Life. Their results identified three types of burnout experienced by counselors: (1) well-adjusted counselors reported high levels of job satisfaction and positive self-esteem; (2) persevering counselors exhibited burnout symptoms (such as exhaustion) but responded effectively to client needs and also showed positive selfesteem; and (3) disconnected counselors exhibited high levels of client devaluation with low self-esteem.

2. Burnout is defined as a psychological syndrome that results from chronic interpersonal or emotional exposure that leads to negative effects, such as depersonalization of clients, emotional exhaustion, perception of ineffectiveness as a counselor, or a perceived lack of personal accomplishment Compassion fatigue includes constant exposure to stories told by clients of their emotional and physical sufferings can result in being overwhelmed.

Secondary traumatic stress refers to a set of psychological symptoms that mimic posttraumatic stress disorder, but is acquired through exposure to clients suffering the effects of trauma. Counselors who work with traumatized clients may experience vicarious trauma, which differs from burnout, compassion fatigue, and secondary traumatic stress. While all are similar constructs and all generate secondary trauma reactions, vicarious trauma additionally affects a counselor’s worldview and sense of self.

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