Principles of Human Anatomy, 13th Edition
By
Tortora, Nielsen
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 01
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) The levels of structural organization from least complex to most complex are as follows: a) chemical, cellular, organ, tissue, system b) cellular, organ, chemical, tissue, system c) chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, system d) chemical, system, tissue, cellular, organ Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.1 Describe the levels of structural organization that make up the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems
2) The four basic types of tissues in the body are a) skeletal, muscular, epithelial, nervous b) connective, muscle, nervous, epithelial c) vascular, nervous, epithelial, connective d) muscle, nervous, skeletal, connective Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.1 Describe the levels of structural organization that make up the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems
3) The kidney is _____ to the stomach. a) Anterior b) Inferior
c) Distal d) Dorsal Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.4 Define each directional term used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 1.A Directional Terms
4) The word that best describes the position of the gallbladder relative to the ascending colon is a) contralateral b) ipsilateral c) inferior d) intermediate Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.4 Define each directional term used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 1.A Directional Terms
5) In the anatomical position, the palms of the hands face: a) Forward b) Posteriorly c) Laterally d) Medially Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.1 Describe the orientation of the human body in the anatomical position. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology
6) An accident report submitted by an officer who is a former anatomy student contains the following statement: "The victim suffered a severe blow to the mental region." This means
a) the victim had a severe wound to the skull bones b) the victim's brain was obviously injured c) the victim was struck on the chin d) the victim witnessed a shocking event Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology
7) A _____ section of the body or organ would reveal its right and left side a) sagittal b) frontal (coronal) c) oblique d) any of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.3 Define the anatomical planes, the anatomical sections, and the directional terms used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology
8) Name the two most specific body cavities that would be sectioned if a transverse plane were passed through the umbilicus. a) abdominal and pelvic b) pelvic and thoracic c) thoracic and vertebral canal d) abdominal and vertebral canal Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.
Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities
9) Serous membranes are associated with the a) pleural cavity b) pericardial cavity c) abdominal cavity d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities
10) Most specifically, the heart is located in the a) pericardial cavity b) thoracic cavity c) mediastinum d) all of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities
11) Which of the following statements is false? a) the diaphragm separates the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity b) the esophagus is located in the mediastinum c) the vertebral canal contains the spinal cord d) the pleural cavities, containing the lungs, are part of the thoracic cavity Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities
12) The word "dorsum" may be used to describe the 1. back of the hand 2. anterior surface of the body 3. top of the foot a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3only d) 1 and 3 Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology
13) What anatomical structure is being described using the following anatomical terms: medial to the ear (otic); lateral to the nose (nasal); inferior to the eye (orbital); and superior to the maxillary (upper) teeth? a) cheek (buccal) b) chin (mental) c) eyebrow d) forehead (frontal) Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.4 Define each directional term used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology
14) The two organ systems that have the primary responsibility for regulating body activities are a) lymphatic and endocrine b) nervous and endocrine c) nervous and lymphatic d) endocrine and respiratory
Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems
15) A transverse plane 1. is also known as the coronal plane 2. is also known as a horizontal plane or cross-sectional plane 3. divides the body into right and left sections a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) both 2 and 3 are correct Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.3 Define the anatomical planes, the anatomical sections, and the directional terms used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology
16) Name the first form of medical imaging used to look at gross structures inside the body. It has been used in medicine since the 1940s and provides ‘pictures’ of internal structures in twodimensional images where bones appear white, hollow structures (e.g. lungs) appear black, and structures of intermediate density (e.g. skin, fat, and muscle) appear as varying shades of gray. a) magnetic resonance imaging b) computed tomography c) radiography d) ultrasound scanning Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.8 Describe the principles of medical imaging procedures and their importance in the evaluation of organ functions and the diagnosis of disease.
Section Reference 1: Sec 1.8 Medical Imaging
17) The transformation of a single fertilized human egg cell into a unique individual is a good example of what human life process? a) metabolism b) responsiveness c) differentiation d) movement Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.3 Define the important life processes of humans. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Life Processes
18) Food proteins are broken down into amino acids, building blocks that can then be used to build new proteins that make up muscles and bones. This is a good example of what human life process? a) movement b) reproduction c) differentiation d) metabolism Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.3 Define the important life processes of humans. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Life Processes 19) From the following list, which would be considered a “symptom” of an illness rather than a “sign?” a) blood pressure b) heart rate c) anxiety d) fever Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 1.7 Distinguish between a symptom and a sign of a disease. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.7 The Human Body and Disease
20) Which of the following imaging procedures is best used to study the physiology of body structures, such as metabolism of the brain or heart? a) sonography b) MRI c) CT d) none of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.8 Describe the principles of medical imaging procedures and their importance in the evaluation of organ functions and the diagnosis of disease. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.8 Medical Imaging
Question type: True/False
21) Gross anatomy involves the microscopic study of the structure of tissues. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.1 Define anatomy and physiology, and name several branches of anatomy. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.1 Anatomy Defined
22) The lymphatic system is responsible for the transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and body tissues. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems
23) The antebrachial region is distal to the antecubital region. Answer: True
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.4 Define each directional term used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 1.A Directional Terms
24) The patellar region is superior to the inguinal region. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.4 Define each directional term used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 1.A Directional Terms
25) The knee is proximal to the ankle. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.4 Define each directional term used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 1.A Directional Terms
26) The hypogastric region is lateral to the hypochondriac region. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.6 Name and describe the abdominopelvic regions and the abdominopelvic quadrants. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Abdominopelvic Regions and Quadrants
27) The epigastric region is superior to the hypogastric region. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 1.6 Name and describe the abdominopelvic regions and the abdominopelvic quadrants. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Abdominopelvic Regions and Quadrants
28) The mediastinum contains the heart, lungs, trachea, esophagus, and major blood vessels. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities
29) The serous membrane associated with the lungs is called the pleural membrane. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities
30) The descending colon of the large intestine extends from the left lumbar region into the left iliac region. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.6 Name and describe the abdominopelvic regions and the abdominopelvic quadrants. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Abdominopelvic Regions and Quadrants 31) The body’s ability to detect and react to changes in its internal and external environment is referred to as “responsiveness.” Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.3 Define the important life processes of humans. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Life Processes
32) A patient suffering from a sinus infection would be treated for a systemic illness. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.7 Distinguish between a symptom and a sign of a disease. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.7 The Human Body and Disease 33) A patient’s vital signs (height, weight, temperature) will most likely be measured and reported in meters, kilograms and centigrade, respectively. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.9 Explain the importance of measurements in the evaluation of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.9 Measuring the Human Body
Question type: Essay
34) List the components of the following major systems and give two functions of each system: skeletal, muscular, digestive, respiratory, nervous, urinary. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems Solution: See Table 1.2 for a summary of components and functions.
35) Describe three functions of the lymphatic system. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions.
Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems Solution: (1) delivers interstitial fluid to the blood (2) transports lipids from the GI tract to the blood (3) is the site of most immune reactions
36) Describe the structure of a serous membrane including the names of the individual layers. Name three important serous membranes in the body and list the organ(s) they surround. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities Solution: A serous membrane is a double-layered membrane where one layer adheres to the organ (visceral layer) and one layer adheres to the body wall (parietal layer). The space in-between is filled with serous fluid which protects the layers from friction. The three serous membranes are the pleural membrane, pericardial membrane, and peritoneum.
37) Detective I. M. Smart (a former anatomy student) was called to investigate a murder scene. The victim was lying in a supine position, his glazed eyes staring skyward, legs together with toes pointing upward, arms by his sides, palms facing upward. Smart concluded that the victim was found in the anatomical position. Was he correct? Why or why not? Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.1 Describe the orientation of the human body in the anatomical position. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology Solution: No, he is not correct. In the anatomical position, the body is in an upright position.
38) Describe, in words, the frontal (coronal), transverse, midsagittal, and parasagittal planes. Now illustrate these planes by drawing a simple figure. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.3 Define the anatomical planes, the anatomical sections, and the directional terms used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology
Solution: A frontal (coronal) plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions. A transverse plane divides the body into superior and inferior sections. A midsagittal plane divides the body into equal right and left sides. A parasagittal plane divides the body into unequal right and left sides.
39) The abdominopelvic cavity is divided into nine regions. Using two vertical and two horizontal lines, label each region. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.6 Name and describe the abdominopelvic regions and the abdominopelvic quadrants. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Abdominopelvic Regions and Quadrants Solution: See Figure 1.8
40) Explain why measurements are important when evaluating the status of the human body. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.9 Explain the importance of measurements in the evaluation of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.9 Measuring the Human Body Solution: Measurements enable us to describe the body and understand how it works. They allow medical professionals to determine the dosages of medication and to quantify variables such as weight, temperature, girth, etc 41) Distinguish between a “sign” and a “symptom” with respect to an illness. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.7 Distinguish between a symptom and a sign of a disease. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.7 The Human Body and Disease Solution: A symptom is a subjective change in body functions that is not apparent to an observer. Examples of symptoms are headache, nausea, and anxiety. Objective changes that a clinician can observe and measure are called signs. Signs of disease can be either anatomical or physiological.
42) A patient being imaged by MRI is not allowed to have any metal on him. Why? Answer:
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.8 Describe the principles of medical imaging procedures and their importance in the evaluation of organ functions and the diagnosis of disease. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.8 Medical Imaging Solution: This is very dangerous since the body is exposed to a high-energy magnetic field in order to cause protons to arrange themselves in relation to the field.
43) What type of section was performed on this torso?
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.3 Define the anatomical planes, the anatomical sections, and the directional terms used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology Solution: frontal (coronal)
Question type: Text Entry
44) A system consists of related _____ that have a common function.
Answer: organs Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.1 Describe the levels of structural organization that make up the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems Solution: organs
45) The system responsible for movement of limbs, maintenance of posture, and production of heat is the _____ system. Answer: muscular Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems Solution: muscular
46) The _____ system enables the body to detect and respond to environmental change through the propagation of impulses. Answer: nervous Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems Solution: nervous
47) Regulatory chemicals produced by endocrine glands are called _____. Answer: hormones Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.
Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems Solution: hormones
48) The right iliac region of the abdomen is _____ to the right lumbar region. Answer: inferior Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.6 Name and describe the abdominopelvic regions and the abdominopelvic quadrants. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Abdominopelvic Regions and Quadrants Solution: inferior
49) In the anatomical position, the thumb is _____ to the index finger. Answer: lateral Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.1 Describe the orientation of the human body in the anatomical position. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology Solution: lateral
50) A section through the left eyeball that produces equal right and left portions of the eyeball would be a _____ section of the eyeball. Answer: midsagittal Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.3 Define the anatomical planes, the anatomical sections, and the directional terms used to describe the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology Solution: midsagittal (median)
51) The _____ pleura lines the external surface of the lungs and the _____ pleura lines the chest wall.
Answer: visceral, parietal Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities Solution: visceral, parietal
52) Organs such as the kidneys that are located behind the parietal peritoneum are described as _____ organs. Answer: retroperitoneal Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities Solution: retroperitoneal
53) The large intestine is found in the _____ cavity. Answer: abdominopelvic Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities Solution: abdominopelvic
54) The right lobe of the liver is located in the _____ region of the abdominopelvic cavity. Answer: right hypochondriac Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.6 Name and describe the abdominopelvic regions and the abdominopelvic quadrants. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Abdominopelvic Regions and Quadrants Solution: right hypochondriac
55) The _____ region of the abdominopelvic cavity contains the rectum and the urinary bladder. Answer: hypogastric
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.6 Name and describe the abdominopelvic regions and the abdominopelvic quadrants. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Abdominopelvic Regions and Quadrants Solution: hypogastric
56) The spleen is a(n) _____ organ. Answer: lymphatic Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems Solution: lymphatic
57) Oil glands are a component of the _____ system. Answer: integumentary Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems Solution: integumentary
58) The spinal cord is a component of the _____ system. Answer: nervous Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems Solution: nervous
59) The ureter belongs to the _____ system. Answer: urinary Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems Solution: Urinary
60) The larynx belongs to the _____ system. Answer: respiratory Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems Solution: respiratory
61) The serous membrane on the external surface of the small intestine is the _____. Answer: visceral peritoneum Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities Solution: visceral peritoneum
Question type: Essay
62) A lymphocyte is an example of which level of body organization? Answer: Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.1 Describe the levels of structural organization that make up the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems Solution: cellular level
63) The skin along with its derivatives is an example of which level of body organization? Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.1 Describe the levels of structural organization that make up the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems Solution: System
64) The salivary glands belong to which level of body organization? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions. Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.1 Describe the levels of structural organization that make up the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems Solution: Organ
Question type: Multiple Choice
65) Which letter is pointing to the cephalic region?
a) L b) M c) G d) J Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology
66) Which letter is pointing to the olecranal region?
a) K b) I c) L d) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology
67) Which letter is pointing to the carpal region?
a) E b) J c) H d) L Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology
68) Which letter is pointing to the axillary region?
a) F b) D c) I d) G Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology
69) Which letter is pointing to the digital region?
a) E b) C c) D d) H Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology
70) Which letter is pointing to the patellar region?
a) F b) I c) A d) L Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology
71) Which letter is pointing to the tarsal region?
a) F b) D c) E d) G Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology
72) Which letter is pointing to the plantar region?
a) E b) D c) F d) K Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology
73) Which letter is pointing to the thoracic region?
a) C b) F c) K d) M Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology
74) Which letter is pointing to the coxal region?
a) A b) D c) K d) I Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology
75) Which letter is pointing to the mental region?
a) H b) B c) J d) L Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology. Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body. Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 02
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Extracellular fluid includes all of the following except: a) interstitial fluid b) plasma c) cytosol d) lymph Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm
2) In passive processes, substances move across the plasma membrane 1. with the use of ATP 2. up (or against) a concentration gradient 3. down (or along) a pressure gradient 4. equally in all directions a) 3 only b) 2 only c) 1, 2, 3 d) 2, 3, 4 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane
3) Which of the following is true regarding receptor-mediated endocytosis?
a) Vesicles transport receptors back to the plasma membrane. b) A ligand binds specifically with a receptor on the extracellular surface of the plasma membrane. c) Some transport vesicles fuse with a lysosome, which essentially breaks down the contents. d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane
4) Which of the following structures is not bounded by a membrane? a) ribosome b) lysosome c) nucleus d) Golgi complex Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm
5) Rough endoplasmic reticulum differs from smooth endoplasmic reticulum in that it has _____ associated with it; therefore rough endoplasmic reticulum assists in the production and temporary storage of _____. a) inclusions, cytosol b) lysosomes, lipids c) ribosomes, lysosomes d) ribosomes, proteins Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm
6) Organelles that are similar to small lysosomes, contain enzymes, and are important in detoxification are called _____. a) ribosomes b) mitochondria c) peroxisomes d) centrosomes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm
7) A normal human body cell contains _____ chromosomes and a normal unfertilized human oocyte (egg) contains _____ chromosomes. a) 46, 22 b) 44, 22 c) 46, 46 d) none of these choices is correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of reproductive cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division
8) Which of the following is not located in the nucleus? a) histones b) chromatin c) endosome d) nucleolus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.4 Describe the structure and functions of the nucleus.
Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Nucleus
9) What two processes must occur in order for a cell to divide to produce two new cells? a) mitosis and meiosis b) nuclear division and cytokinesis c) anabolism and catabolism d) autophagy and endocytosis Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division
10) The stages of the cell cycle occur in the following order: a) G1, S, G2, mitosis b) S, G1, G2, interphase c) G1, G2, S, mitosis d) G1, G2, S, interphase Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division
11) Which of the following events does not occur during prophase of mitosis? a) The nucleolus and the nuclear membrane disintegrate. b) Each chromosome replicates so that it becomes a double-stranded structure. c) Centrosomes start to form the mitotic spindle. d) Chromosomes become visible due to the shortening and condensation of chromatin. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard
Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division
12) Which of the following contributes to aging? a) increased synthesis of protein b) viral invasion of cells c) free radical damage to protein and DNA d) decreased autoimmune response Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.7 Describe the cellular changes that occur with aging. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.7 Aging and Cells
13) Which of the following is not a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in the liver? a) It removes toxic wastes. b) It contains calcium ions which are released to cause contraction. c) It releases glucose into the blood. d) All of these choices are functions of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in the liver. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm
14) Proteins that will be exported from the cell are produced by a) ribosomes inside mitochondria b) ribosomes found in lysosomes c) ribosomes attached to rough endoplasmic reticulum d) ribosomes attached to smooth endoplasmic reticulum Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm 15) The process that results in the destruction of the “webbing” found between the digits of the hand and foot in early human fetal development is called a) necrosis b) metaplasia c) apoptosis d) dysplasia Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division 16) A cell is recognized as “self” or “non-self” by its a) mitochondria b) rough endoplasmic reticulum c) glycocalyx d) lysosomes Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane
17) When charged, medium-sized molecules like glucose and amino acids move across a membrane from high to low concentration, the following process has occurred. a) simple diffusion b) osmosis c) active transport involving membrane proteins d) facilitated diffusion
Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane 18) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a cell’s nucleus? a) Assembly of amino acids into proteins occurs in the nucleus. b) The nucleolus synthesizes ribosomal RNA. c) A pair of chromatids constitute a chromosome during cell division. d) Assembly of ribosomes occurs in the nucleus. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.4 Describe the structure and functions of the nucleus. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Nucleus
Question type: True/False
19) Protein molecules form the basic framework of the plasma membrane. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane
20) Cytosol is an example of intracellular fluid. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm
21) Active transport of molecules across cell membranes requires adenosine triphosphate (ATP) for energy. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane
22) Endocytosis is the reverse of exocytosis and pinocytosis is the reverse of phagocytosis. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane
23) Diffusion and osmosis are passive processes that occur primarily due to the kinetic energy of molecules. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane
24) All cells of the body have at least one nucleus. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.4 Describe the structure and functions of the nucleus.
Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Nucleus
25) The Golgi complex packages and sorts proteins destined for export from a cell. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm
26) Lysosomes contain enzymes that digest the contents of phagocytic vesicles, pinocytic vesicles, and endosomes. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm
27) Microtubules form the structure of microvilli. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm
28) The mitotic spindle consists of microtubules. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm
29) When glucose bonds to proteins in tissues, it contributes to the stiffening and loss of elasticity that occur in aging tissues.
Answer: True Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.7 Describe the cellular changes that occur with aging. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.7 Aging and Cells
30) A neoplasm can result from uncontrolled cell division. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.7 Describe the cellular changes that occur with aging. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.7 Aging and Cells
31) The proteins found in the phospholipid bilayer permit the movement of most substances, including oxygen and carbon dioxide, across the membrane. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane
32) Meiosis occurs in two stages and results in two daughter cells that are identical to the original cell. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Study Objective 2: 2.5.2 Describe the stages, events, and significance of reproductive cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division
Question type: Essay
33) Draw and label a portion of a plasma membrane showing the molecular components of the membrane. Explain why “fluid mosaic” is a good description of the plasma membrane structure.
Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane Solution: See Figure 2.2. The molecular arrangement of the plasma membrane resembles an evermoving sea of lipids that contains a “mosaic” of many different proteins. The proteins may float freely like icebergs or be bound in specific locations. The lipids prevent entry and exit of many substances while the proteins permit movement of specific water-soluble substances through the membrane.
34) Explain how the rough endoplasmic reticulum, smooth endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi complex interact. Use specific examples of materials produced by each. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm Solution: Ribosomes on the RER synthesize proteins destined for export from the cell, use by other organelles, or incorporation into the plasma membrane. Once these proteins are made on the ribosomes, they pass through the RER where sugars or lipids might be added. They then travel via vesicles to the Golgi where further processing, alterations, and packaging occurs. They are released within vesicles from the Golgi to travel to their final destination. The SER is found only in certain cells and has specialized functions. For instance, SER in the liver is involved with converting glucose to glycogen (and vice versa) and detoxifies drugs. SER in skeletal muscle stores calcium ions necessary for muscle contraction.
35) Integral membrane proteins play important roles in certain transport mechanisms. What roles do they play in osmosis, facilitated diffusion, and active transport? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane
Solution: Integral membrane proteins act as gatekeepers in the plasma membrane and permit the movement of certain substances into and out of the cell. Some proteins have open channels through which water may pass passively through the plasma membrane (osmosis). Others bind specifically to substances and may change shape to transport those substances into or out of the cell. If input of energy is required, it is an active process (active transport). If input of energy is not involved, it is passive (facilitated diffusion).
36) List and define: A) three passive processes and B) three active processes that move substances across cell membranes. Give an example of a molecule that is moved by each process. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane Solution: See Table 2.1 for specifics.
37) For each stage of mitosis, give a two- or three-sentence description of events. Your answer should include the names of the four stages and proper use of the following terms: chromatin, chromosome, chromatid, and centromere. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division.. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division Solution: See Figure 2.18 for explanation of the steps.
38) Describe the structure and function of a mitochondrion. What are the important components located within this organelle and where is each one located? What overall process occurs primarily in the mitochondrion? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm
Solution: See Figure 2.14. The mitochondrion is an organelle with a double-layered membrane. It is considered the powerhouse of the cell because it is the location where most ATP is produced. The inner membrane folds into cristae and contains the proteins necessary for the electron transport chain. The cristae effectively increase the surface area upon which cellular respiration may occur. The matrix, found in the center of the mitochondrion, contains enzymes that enable chemical reactions to occur. The mitochondrion contains its own DNA and can, therefore, replicate on its own.
39) Explain the difference between an oncogene and a proto-oncogene. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.7 Describe the cellular changes that occur with aging. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.7 Aging and Cells Solution: Proto-oncogenes are normal genes that regulate growth and development. Through a series of mutations or changes the proto-oncogenes become cancer-causing genes called oncogenes that have the ability to transform a normal cell into a cancerous cell.
Question type: Text Entry
40) The letter A is pointing to the _____.
Answer: smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm Solution: smooth endoplasmic reticulum
41) The letter B is pointing to a _____.
Answer: cilium Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm Solution: cilium
42) The letter C is pointing to the _____.
Answer: nucleolus Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.4 Describe the structure and functions of the nucleus Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Nucleus Solution: nucleolus
43) The letter D is pointing to the _____.
Answer: Golgi complex Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm Solution: Golgi complex
44) The letter E is pointing to a _____.
Answer: mitochondrion Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm Solution: mitochondrion
45) The plasma membrane is composed of two layers of _____ molecules with _____ molecules scattered throughout. Answer: phospholipid, protein Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane Solution: phospholipid, protein
46) Water travels continuously between interstitial fluid and intracellular fluid via the process of _____.
Answer: osmosis Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane Solution: osmosis
47) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the site of production of _____. Answer: fatty acids and steroids Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm Solution: fatty acids and steroids
48) _____ is the process by which cell division results in two daughter cells that are identical to the original cell. Answer: Mitosis Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division Solution: Mitosis
49) The process in which lysosomes digest their host cell is called _____. Answer: autolysis Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm Solution: autolysis
50) The contents in the innermost region of a mitochondrion is the _____. Answer: matrix Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm Solution: matrix
51) The only human cell that has a flagellum is the _____ cell. Answer: sperm Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm Solution: sperm
52) Somatic cell division involves the process of _____ and cytokinesis. Answer: mitosis Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division Solution: mitosis
53) This figure illustrates a transport process known as _____.
Answer: receptor-mediated endocytosis Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane Solution: receptor-mediated endocytosis
54) The transport process that moves oxygen from the air sacs in the lungs into surrounding blood vessels is called _____. Answer: diffusion Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane Solution: diffusion
55) The process that allows digestive cells to secrete enzymes is called _____. Answer: exocytosis Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane Solution: exocytosis
56) A mechanism that involves the formation of pseudopods in order to move solid particles into cells is called _____. Answer: phagocytosis Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane Solution: phagocytosis
57) Most body cells can engulf small droplets of extracellular fluid through a process called _____. Answer: pinocytosis Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane Solution: pinocytosis
58) _____ maintains the unequal distribution of potassium and sodium ions across a nerve cell membrane. Answer: Active transport Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane. Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane Solution: Active transport
Question type: Multiple Choice
59) Which letter identifies the powerhouse of the cell?
a) B b) E c) F d) G
Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm
60) Which letter identifies the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a) A b) B c) E d) H Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm
61) Which letter identifies an organelle that may contain more than 40 digestive enzymes used to break down the contents of vesicles?
a) F b) B c) A d) C Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm
62) Which letter identifies the organelle in the liver responsible for detoxification?
a) A b) B c) H d) I Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm
63) Which letter identifies microvilli?
a) H b) E c) D d) B Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm
64) Which letter identifies the site of protein synthesis?
a) G b) F c) D d) B Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm
Question type: Essay
65) Higher and higher dosages of the drug are needed to achieve the original effect. This could result in an increased possibility of overdose and increased drug dependence.” This described drugtolerance is due to increasing amounts of cellular _____. Answer: Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm Solution: smooth endoplasmic reticulum
66) Meiosis I begins with a _____ (diploid/haploid) starting cell and ends with two cells, each with the _____ (diploid/haploid) number of chromosomes. During meiosis II, each of the two _____ (diploid/haploid) cells formed during meiosis I divides; the net result is four _____ (diploid/haploid) gametes that are genetically different from the original _____ (diploid/haploid) starting cell. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Describe the stages, events, and significance of reproductive cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division Solution: diploid, haploid, haploid, haploid, diploid
67) Describe a function of microtubules. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm Solution: responsible for movement of chromosomes during cell division or structural and functional components of cilia and flagella
68) What is the function of microfilaments? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm Solution: they are formed from actin molecules and are involved in muscle contraction and cell locomotion or they provide mechanical support for microvilli
69) Name the organelle that acts as the site of protein synthesis. What two molecular components make up its structure? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm Solution: ribosomes; protein and rRNA
Question type: Multiple Choice
70) Which letter indicates interphase; the period during which DNA is replicated?
a) A b) B c) C
d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division
71) In which phase are chromosomes visible as 46 structures that are not aligned?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division
72) The nucleoli disappear during which phase?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.
Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division
73) Which letter indicates metaphase?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division
74) During which phase do centromeres divide so that the sister chromatids separate?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division
75) Identify the letter that indicates telophase.
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division. Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division. Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 03
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Dermatan sulfate, proteoglycans, hyaluronic acid, and chondroitin sulfate can be found in a) ground substance of connective tissues b) basement membranes of epithelial tissues c) vesicles of adipocytes d) ducts of salivary glands Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue
2) Epithelial tissues can be classified into various categories according to a) cell shape and number of layers b) type of fibers and number of layers c) presence or absence of blood vessels d) location in the body Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.1 Describe the general features of epithelial tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue
3) Which of the following is a false statement about epithelium? a) Cell junctions are plentiful in epithelial tissue. b) Epithelial tissue is a highly vascular tissue. c) Epithelial cells are replaced continuously by mitosis. d) Epithelial tissues consist of cells arranged in single or multiple layers. Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.1 Describe the general features of epithelial tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue
4) Which of the following statements about stratified squamous epithelium is true? a) It consists of two or more layers of cells. b) It has flat cells in all layers. c) Cell division occurs in the superficial layers. d) The surface cells are always keratinized. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue
5) In which type of exocrine glands are portions of cells containing secretions pinched off from the main cell body? a) holocrine glands b) merocrine glands c) apocrine glands d) all of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue
6) Which is the most common type of exocrine gland? a) holocrine glands b) merocrine glands c) apocrine glands d) all of these choices
Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue
7) Which of the following statements about the classification of glandular epithelium is true? a) A simple gland is one that has an unbranched duct. b) All compound glands have acinar secretory portions. c) Unicellular glands are also classed as simple glands. d) Glands with ducts are called tubular glands. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue
8) Which of the following is a vascularized tissue? a) adipose tissue b) hyaline cartilage c) keratinized stratified squamous epithelium d) simple cuboidal epithelium Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Outline the main differences between epithelial and connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Comparison Between Epithelial and Connective Tissue
9) Connective tissue may contain a) fibroblasts b) plasma cells c) macrophages and mast cells d) all of these choices
Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue
10) The matrix of loose connective tissue is produced by a) plasma cells b) macrophages c) mast cells d) none of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue
11) All three types of fibers (collagen, elastic, and reticular) are found in which of the following tissues? a) reticular connective tissue b) hyaline cartilage c) tendons d) areolar connective tissue Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue
12) The flexible connective tissue that joins the anterior extremity of a rib to the breast bone (sternum) is a) dense regular connective tissue
b) hyaline cartilage c) elastic cartilage d) fibrocartilage Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue
13) Which of the following is not related to bone? a) lacunae b) osteocytes c) perichondrium d) lamellae Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue
14) The tissue that contains erythrocytes, leukocytes, and plasma belongs to which tissue group? a) epithelial tissue b) connective tissue c) muscle tissue d) nervous tissue Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue
15) The central canal of an osteon contains
a) red marrow b) yellow marrow c) blood vessels and nerves d) matrix Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue
16) An epithelial membrane consists of a) epithelium only b) epithelium plus connective tissue c) epithelium plus blood vessels d) epithelium plus nervous tissue Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes. Study Objective 2: SO 3.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Membranes
17) The membrane covering the outer surface of the heart is a _____ membrane. a) mucous b) serous c) synovial d) parietal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes. Study Objective 2: SO 3.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Membranes
18) The membrane covering the outer surface of the lungs is called the _____.
a) parietal pleura b) parietal peritoneum c) visceral pleura d) visceral peritoneum Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes. Study Objective 2: SO 3.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Membranes
19) Skeletal muscle fibers (cells) have the following anatomical characteristic(s) a) numerous nuclei b) striations c) cylindrical unbranched fibers d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Describe the general features of the various types of muscular tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.2 Compare the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Muscular Tissue
20) Cardiac muscle cells (fibers) have the following anatomical characteristic(s) a) several nuclei b) parallel unbranched fibers c) striations d) all of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Describe the general features of the various types of muscular tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.2 Compare the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Muscular Tissue
21) Which type of muscle tissue is involuntary and contains desmosomes and gap junctions in structures called intercalated discs? a) skeletal b) cardiac c) smooth d) all of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Describe the general features of the various types of muscular tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.2 Compare the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Muscular Tissue
22) Neuroglia are cells in nervous tissue that a) generate nerve impulses b) conduct nerve impulses c) nourish, support, and protect neurons d) all of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.8 Describe the structural features and functions of nervous tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.8 Nervous Tissue
23) The four basic types of tissues that make up the human body are a) nervous, epithelial, skeletal, connective b) connective, epithelial, neuroglia, nervous c) muscular, nervous, epithelial, connective d) nervous, cardiac, smooth, skeletal Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.1 Name the four basic types of tissues that make up the human body, and state the characteristics of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.1 Types of Tissues
24) Which of the following would take the longest time to heal? a) cartilage b) adipose c) bone d) stratified squamous epithelium Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue
25) Microvilli are most likely to be found in which type of tissue? a) simple squamous epithelium b) simple columnar epithelium c) adipose d) stratified squamous epithelium Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue
26) A function of fibroblasts is to a) produce the protein fibers found in the matrix of connective tissue b) secrete histamine in response to foreign invaders c) undergo phagocytosis to rid the body of harmful substances d) provide stability to epithelial tissue Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue
27) What factors account for the observation that tissues heal faster and leave less obvious scars in the young than in the aged? a) better nutritional state in the young b) aged tissues have a worse blood supply c) cells have a higher metabolic rate in the young d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.9 Describe the effects of aging on tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.9 Aging and Tissues
Question type: True/False
28) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium has one layer of cells. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue
29) Goblet cells are specialized columnar epithelial cells with an increased surface area that helps to increase the rate of absorption. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue
30) Stratified epithelium is an effective protective layer because cells in the basal layer reproduce quickly to replace surface cells that are shed. Answer: True
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue
31) Closely packed cells and fibers are characteristic of connective tissue. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue
32) Tendons and ligaments are examples of dense regular connective tissue. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue
33) Dense connective tissue is termed dense because of the thick consistency of the fluid ground substance. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue
34) A synovial membrane consists of a thin sheet of epithelial tissue. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard
Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes. Study Objective 2: SO 3.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Membranes
35) The basic structural unit of compact bone is called an osteon. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue
36) Serous membranes line cavities of the body that are not open to the external environment. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes. Study Objective 2: SO 3.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Membranes
37) The membrane that lines the cavities of freely movable joints also secretes a lubricating fluid called serous fluid. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes. Study Objective 2: SO 3.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Membranes
38) Intercalated discs bind smooth muscle cells together and also allow for the passage of muscle action potentials between cells. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Describe the general features of the various types of muscular tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.2 Compare the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue.
Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Muscular Tissue
39) The axon in most neurons carries nerve impulses away from the cell body to other cells. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.8 Describe the structural features and functions of nervous tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.8 Nervous Tissue
40) Stratified squamous epithelium sometimes contains the protein keratin, which makes it tough, hard, and dry. Answer: True Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue
41) Neuroglia generate and conduct nerve impulses in nervous tissue. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.8 Describe the structural features and functions of nervous tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.8 Nervous Tissue
Question type: Essay
42) List at least five general features that all types of epithelium have in common. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.1 Describe the general features of epithelial tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue Solution: Epithelial tissue (1) has an apical (free) surface on one side since it forms coverings and linings throughout the body (2) has a basement membrane in between it and the underlying
connective tissue (3) is avascular (4) contains cells held together by cell junctions (5) contains many cells that are closely packed together
43) Describe the structure of each of the following types of epithelium and explain how the structure of each is related to its functions: simple squamous epithelium, simple cuboidal epithelium, keratinized stratified squamous epithelium, transitional epithelium, and ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue Solution: See Table 3.1 for details of each type
44) Name and describe the three functional types of multicellular exocrine glands and give an example of each. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue Solution: (1) merocrine glands – sudoriferous glands (2) holocrine glands – sebaceous glands (3) apocrine glands – mammary glands
45) Contrast the general features of connective tissues with those of epithelial tissues. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Outline the main differences between epithelial and connective tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Comparison between epithelial and connective tissue Solution: Epithelial tissue (ET) forms coverings or linings and has a free surface; connective tissue (CT) is sandwiched between two other types of tissue. ET is avascular; most CT (except cartilage which is avascular and dense regular CT which is minimally vascular) are vascular; both ET and CT (excluding cartilage) are innervated or associated with nerve endings; CT is found in more places in the body and is more diverse. CT has relatively few cells with a lot of extracellular material; ET has lots of cells with little (if any) extracellular space.
46) Describe various cells found in the different connective tissues and give the main function of each. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Solution: Notable examples of these cells include: Fibroblasts—secrete fibers; macrophages— phagocytize materials; plasma cell—secrete antibodies; mast cell—produce histamine which dilates blood vessels near connective tissues; adipocytes—store triglycerides; white blood cells—migrate to connective tissue during times of infection; osteocytes—bone cells that maintain normal activities of bone tissue
47) Describe and compare the structure of the two types of bone tissue. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Solution: Compact bone has structural units called osteons. Osteons have a central canal containing blood vessels and nerves; rings of matrix called lamellae; osteocytes in lacunae; and canaliculi through which nutrients and wastes are exchanged. Spongy bone is arranged in branch-like trabeculae that consist of rings of matrix called lamellae, osteocytes in lacunae, and canaliculi. Spongy bone does not have osteons. In between the trabeculae is red bone marrow where blood cells are produced.
48) Describe the structure of each of the following types of connective tissue and explain how the structure of each is related to its functions: areolar connective tissue, dense regular connective tissue, dense irregular connective tissue, hyaline cartilage, elastic cartilage, and bone. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.
Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Solution: See Tables 3.4, 3.5, 3.6, and 3.7 for details concerning each type of connective tissue.
49) List three features and one location for each of the three types of muscle tissue. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Describe the general features of the various types of muscular tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.2 Compare the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Muscular Tissue Solution: Skeletal muscle—multinucleated, striated, long cylindrical cells called fibers; located in deltoid, gastrocnemius, biceps brachii, etc. Smooth muscle—no striations, spindle-shaped cells, single nucleus located centrally; located in wall of arteries, arrector pili muscle, iris, walls of hollow organs. Cardiac muscle—striated, branching cells, contains intercalated discs between cells; found only in heart wall.
50) Describe the location and structure of a serous membrane. Locate and name the serous membranes associated with the thoracic and abdominal cavities. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes. Study Objective 2: SO 3.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Membranes Solution: Double-layered membrane where one layer (visceral layer) adheres to the organ and the other (parietal layer) adheres to the body wall. Contains a small amount of serous fluid in between the two layers to permit them to slide past one another without damage. Pleural membrane and pericardial membrane are located in the thoracic cavity. Peritoneum is located in the abdominal cavity.
Question type: Text entry
51) Proteins that bridge an intercellular space to form a gap junction are called _____. Answer: connexins Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions.
Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions Solution: connexins
52) _____ muscle tissue is located within the walls of blood vessels. Answer: Smooth Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Describe the general features of the various types of muscular tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.2 Compare the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Muscular Tissue Solution: Smooth
53) Endocrine glands secrete hormones into the _____; the hormones then diffuse into the _____. Exocrine gland secretions are released into _____. Answer: extracellular fluid, bloodstream, ducts Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue Solution: extracellular fluid, bloodstream, ducts
54) _____ fibers in the connective tissue matrix make the tissue strong and flexible. Answer: Collagen Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Solution: Collagen
55) The matrix of _____ tissue is rich in calcium and phosphorus. Answer: bone Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.
Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Solution: bone (osseous)
56) Osteocytes reside in small spaces between lamellae called _____. Answer: lacunae Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Solution: lacunae
57) A cell called a(n) _____ consists of a cell body and long cytoplasmic processes called axons and dendrites. Answer: neuron Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.8 Describe the structural features and functions of nervous tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.8 Nervous Tissue Solution: neuron
58) The three types of cartilage in the body are _____, _____, and _____. Answer: hyaline cartilage, fibrocartilage, elastic cartilage Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Solution: hyaline cartilage, fibrocartilage, elastic cartilage
59) A(n) _____ membrane, consisting of a thin layer of _____ tissue, lines the cavity of a freely movable joint. Answer: synovial, loose connective
Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes. Study Objective 2: SO 3.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Membranes Solution: synovial, loose connective
60) Peripherally located nuclei are characteristic of _____ muscle cells. Answer: skeletal Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Describe the general features of the various types of muscular tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.2 Compare the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Muscular Tissue Solution: skeletal
61) The cells of _____ muscle have each end of the cell tapered to a point. Answer: smooth Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Describe the general features of the various types of muscular tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.2 Compare the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Muscular Tissue Solution: smooth
62) This is a _____ cell that produces _____.
Answer: goblet, mucus Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues. Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue Solution: goblet, mucus
63) The name of this tissue is _____.
Answer: areolar connective tissue Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Solution: areolar connective tissue
Question type: Essay
64) List two locations in the body where the pictured tissue exists.
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Solution: One of the most widely distributed connective tissues in the body, it is found in the subcutaneous layer deep to skin; papillary (superficial) region of dermis of skin; lamina propria of mucous membranes; and around blood vessels, nerves, and body organs. Called the “packing material” of the body since it is found in and around nearly every structure of the body.
Question type: Text entry
65) The major fiber type in this tissue is _____.
Answer: elastic fiber Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Solution: elastic fiber
Question type: Essay
66) List two locations in the body where you would find the tissue pictured below.
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Solution: lung tissue, walls of elastic arteries, trachea, bronchial tubes, true vocal cords, suspensory ligament of penis, and some ligaments between vertebrae.
67) Name the type of cellular junction.
Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions Solution: gap junction
Question type: Multiple Choice
68) What is the main feature of this type of junction?
a) cadherins b) integrins c) connexons d) adhesion belts Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions
Question type: Essay
69) Name the type of cellular junction.
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions Solution: hemidesmosome
Question type: Multiple Choice
70) What is the main feature of this type of junction?
a) cadherins b) integrins c) connexons d) adhesion belts Answer: b
Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions
Question type: Essay
71) Name the type of cellular junction.
Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions Solution: tight junction
Question type: Multiple Choice
72) This type of cell junction would NOT be found in
a) the urinary bladder b) the lining of the stomach c) cardiac muscle d) the lining of the intestines Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions
Question type: Essay
73) Name the type of cellular junction.
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions Solution: adherens junction
Question type: True/False
74) Transmembrane glycoproteins called connexins join the cells in this type of cell junction.
Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions
Question type: Essay
75) Name the type of cellular junction.
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions. Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions Solution: desmosome
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 04
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) There is a three-day window during which a woman is most likely to become pregnant. It extends from two days before ovulation to one day after and occurs because a) sperm are viable for up to three days in the female reproductive tract b) a secondary oocyte is viable for about 24 hours after ovulation and sperm are viable for about 48 hours in the female reproductive tract c) it takes three days for the sperm to reach the secondary oocyte d) it takes three days for the secondary oocyte to reach the uterus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
2) The normal site of fertilization is the: a) uterine tube b) peritoneal cavity c) uterine cavity d) cervical canal Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
3) Place the following in the correct order: 1. aided by enzymes on their surface, sperm penetrate the cells of the corona radiata 2. acrosomal reactions are triggered when sperm bind to receptors in the zona pellucida 3. syngamy occurs when a sperm cell binds to receptors on the oocyte’s plasma membrane 4. acrosomal enzymes from many sperm digest through the zona pellucida 5. zygote is formed
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 c) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3 d) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3 Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
4) Dizygotic (fraternal) twins result from a) fertilization of two secondary oocytes by two different sperm b) fertilization of one secondary oocyte by two sperm c) early splitting of a zygote to produce two individuals d) none of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
5) Cleavage a) is completed in the first two hours following fertilization b) increases the number of cells of the embryo c) increases the size of the embryo d) all of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
6) All major body systems have begun to develop by the end of _____.
a) week 2 b) week 4 c) week 6 d) week 8 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
7) About 8 days after fertilization, the trophoblast develops into two layers in the region of contact between the blastocyst and endometrium. The layer known as the syncytiotrophoblast secretes enzymes that assist the embryo in penetrating the endometrium. a) both statements are true b) both statements are false c) the first statement is true; the second is false d) the second statement is true; the first is false Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
8) The period of development called the embryonic period is _____ in length. a) 2 weeks b) 1 month c) 2 months d) 3 months Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
9) The three primary germ layers develop from the _____ of the blastocyst.
a) syncytiotrophoblast b) cytotrophoblast c) blastocyst cavity (blastocele) d) embryoblast (inner cell mass) Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
10) Which of the following is the most important event during the third week of development? a) heart becomes four-chambered b) gastrulation c) blood cells form in liver d) limb bud development Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
11) The placenta allows which of the following to pass into fetal blood? 1. maternal blood cells 2. most microorganisms 3. many drugs 4. viruses that cause AIDS, German measles, and chickenpox 5. alcohol a) 1, 3, 4, 5 b) 3, 4, 5 c) 1, 2, 4, 5 d) 1, 2 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.
Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
12) Which structure contains enzymes used to penetrate the protective layers of an ovulated oocyte? a) flagellum b) midpiece c) acrosome d) neck Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
13) Which of the following would be an expected change in the mother during pregnancy? a) decreased blood volume b) decrease in heart rate c) decreased frequency of urination d) decrease in motility of the gastrointestinal tract Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.3 Describe the effects of pregnancy on various body systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.3 Maternal Changes During Pregnancy
14) The structure(s) responsible for delivering oxygenated blood to the embryo (and later the fetus) from the placenta is/are the: a) umbilical arteries b) umbilical vein c) allantois d) yolk sac Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.
Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
15) Fusion of the neural folds produces the _____, which will eventually give rise to the brain and spinal cord. a) neural plate b) neural groove c) primary vesicles d) neural tube Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
16) Which of the following structures actually implants into the endometrium of the uterus? a) blastocyst b) morula c) zygote d) all of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
17) The most common site for ectopic pregnancies is the: a) ovaries b) abdominal cavity c) deciduas d) uterine tube Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.
Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
18) On the diagram, 2 is pointing to the
a) maternal arteriole b) fetal blood vessels c) umbilical cord d) intervillous space Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
19) On the diagram, 3 is pointing to
a) intervillous space b) fetal blood vessels c) umbilical cord d) chorionic villi Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
20) On the diagram, 1 is pointing to
a) intervillous space containing maternal blood
b) fetal blood vessels c) umbilical cord d) chorionic villi Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
21) On the diagram, 4 is pointing to
a) intervillous space b) fetal blood vessels c) umbilical cord d) chorionic villi Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
22) What is the correct order of the events of true labor? a) stage of expulsion, placental stage, stage of dilation b) embryonic period, fetal period, labor c) stage of dilation, stage of expulsion, placental stage
d) fertilization, cleavage, implantation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Explain the events associated with the three stages of labor. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Labor
23) Each somite differentiates into three regions: a myotome, a dermatome, and a sclerotome. Which of the following statements is incorrect? a) Myotomes develop into the cardiac muscle of the heart. b) Sclerotomes give rise to the vertebrae and ribs. c) Dermatomes form connective tissue, including the dermis of the skin. d) Myotomes develop into the skeletal muscles of the neck, trunk, and limbs. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic period
24) Arrange the following in the correct order of heart development. a) splanchnic mesoderm; endocardial tubes; primitive heart tube b) endcardial tubes; primitive heart tube; splanchnic mesoderm c) splanchnic mesoderm; primitive heart tube; endocardial tubes d) primitive heart tube; splanchnic mesoderm; endocardial tubes Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic period
Question type: True/False
25) In order for fertilization to occur, sperm must be present in the female sometime during the first 24 hours following ovulation.
Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
26) Syngamy is the fusion of the haploid male and female pronuclei to produce a diploid nucleus. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
27) The morula enters the uterine cavity on day 4 or 5. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
28) The three main parts of the blastocyst are the trophoblast, inner cell mass (embryoblast), and blastocyst cavity (blastocele). Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
29) The syncytiotrophoblast and the cytotrophoblast are two layers of the endometrium that are involved in placenta formation. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
30) The umbilical cord contains three blood vessels: two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
31) The embryonic disc appears first as a bilayered structure of ectoderm and endoderm next to the amniotic cavity. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
32) The ectoderm of the embryonic disc eventually gives rise to all nervous tissue, the epidermis of the skin, and epithelium of the oral and nasal cavities. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
33) The time from fertilization to birth is the gestation period—the first two months of which is the embryonic period. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.
Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
34) The number of somites that develop over a given period can be correlated to the approximate age of the embryo. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic period
Question type: Essay
35) Beginning with the deposition of sperm into the female reproductive tract, describe the events leading up to and including fertilization. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: Sperm are deposited near cervix of female reproductive tract, travel through cervical canal into uterine cavity where contractions move them around; many sperm die due to harsh conditions within vagina, cervical canal and uterus, but some sperm are attracted to the uterine tube containing the ovulated oocyte (by chemotaxis); sperm reach the oocyte but must undergo capacitation before they can fertilize it; capacitation occurs over several hours until the sperm flagella begin beating vigorously and the acrosome spills much of its enzymes; enzymes of many sperm digest a pathway through the corona radiata and zona pellucida until one sperm contacts receptors on oocyte cell membrane; oocyte membrane changes so that no other sperm can fuse with it; sperm nucleus is injected into oocyte; pronuclei form; pronuclei fuse to form zygote.
36) Describe the production and functions of the amniotic fluid. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
Solution: It is initially formed as a filtrate of plasma from maternal blood but later contains fetal urine and sloughed-off embryonic cells. Amniotic fluid serves as a shock absorber for the fetus, helps regulate fetal body temperature, helps prevent the fetus from drying out, and prevents adhesions between the skin of the fetus and surrounding tissues.
37) List the stages of labor and briefly describe the events that occur in each stage. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Explain the events associated with the three stages of labor. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Labor Solution: (1) stage of dilation, (2) stage of expulsion of fetus, (3) stage of expulsion of placenta. Stage of dilation. The time from the onset of labor to the complete dilation of the cervix is the stage of dilation. This stage, which typically lasts 6–12 hours, features regular contractions of the uterus, usually a rupturing of the amniotic sac, and complete dilation (to 10 cm) of the cervix. Stage of expulsion. The time (10 minutes to several hours) from complete cervical dilation to delivery of the baby is the stage of expulsion. Placental stage. The time (5–30 minutes or more) after delivery until the placenta or “afterbirth” is expelled by powerful uterine contractions is the placental stage. These contractions also constrict blood vessels that were torn during delivery, thereby reducing the likelihood of hemorrhage.
38) Discuss the formation of both dizygotic (fraternal) and monozygotic (identical) twins. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: Dizygotic (fraternal) twins occur when two secondary oocytes are ovulated and subsequently fertilized by two different sperm. Each fertilized ovum develops into a separate embryo, which are no more alike than two siblings born at different times. Monozygotic (identical) twins result when one oocyte is ovulated and fertilized by one sperm. During cleavage, cells separate and develop into two embryos—each with the exact same DNA.
39) Place the following events in the correct order and briefly define each: embryonic development, implantation, fetal period, fertilization, labor, cleavage, placental development. Answer: Difficulty: Hard
Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Section Reference 2: Sec 4.2 Fetal Period Section Reference 3: Sec 4.4 Labor Solution: (1) Fertilization: sperm cell enters a secondary oocyte; nuclear material merges into a single nucleus of the zygote (2) Cleavage: early divisions of the zygote (3) Implantation: attachment of the blastocyst to the endometrium (4) Embryonic development: first two months of development during which the rudiments of organs and the embryonic membranes develop (5) Placental development: production of the placenta from the embryonic chorion and the maternal decidua basalis, by the end of the third month of development (6) Fetal period: period of growth from second month to birth (7) Labor: process of expulsion of fetus from the uterus and through the vagina
Question type: Text entry 40) The _____ is the clear glycoprotein layer between the corona radiata and the oocyte’s plasma membrane. Answer: zona pellucida Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: zona pellucida
41) The cells of the embryo produced by cleavage are called _____. Answer: blastomeres Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: blastomeres
42) Sperm must undergo _____ in the female reproductive tract in order to be attracted by and respond to chemical factors produced by the surrounding cells of the ovulated oocyte. Answer: capacitation
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: capacitation
43) Implantation usually occurs on the _____ wall of the fundus or body of the uterus. Answer: posterior Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: posterior
44) Differentiation of the tissue of the embryo into the three primary germ layers begins _____ (before or after) implantation. Answer: after Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: after
45) In a pregnant woman, a general _____ in gastrointestinal tract movement can cause constipation and produce nausea, vomiting, and heartburn. Answer: decrease Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.3 Describe the effects of pregnancy on various body systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.3 Maternal Changes During Pregnancy Solution: decrease
46) The portion of the endometrium that will cover the embryo after implantation is called the _____. Answer: decidua capsularis
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: decidua capsularis
47) The maternal part of the placenta is formed from the decidua _____. Answer: basalis Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: basalis
48) Within the umbilical cord, _____ carry deoxygenated fetal blood to the placenta. Answer: umbilical arteries Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: umbilical arteries
49) In the placenta, nutrients, gases, and wastes are exchanged between blood vessels of the chorionic villi and _____ of the maternal portion of the placenta. Answer: intervillous spaces Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: intervillous spaces
50) After the _____ month of development, the embryo is referred to as a fetus. Answer: second Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: second
51) The three stages of labor are the stage of _____, stage of _____, and the _____ stage. Answer: dilation, expulsion, placental Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Explain the events associated with the three stages of labor. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Labor Solution: dilation, expulsion, placental
52) The _____ is a solid ball of cells resulting from cleavage. Answer: morula Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: morula
53) The name for a fertilized ovum that contains one nucleus is a _____. Answer: zygote Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: zygote
54) A hollowed out ball of cells that implants into the endometrial lining is the _____. Answer: blastocyst Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
Solution: blastocyst
55) _____ are the individual cells produced during cleavage. Answer: Blastomeres Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: Blastomeres
56) The _____ forms the outer covering of the blastocyst. Answer: trophoblast Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: trophoblast
57) The _____ is the portion of the blastocyst that develops into the embryo. Answer: embryoblast (inner cell mass) Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: embryoblast (inner cell mass)
58) The _____ forms the epithelial lining of the GI tract (excluding the oral cavity and anal canal). Answer: endoderm Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: endoderm
59) The _____ forms all skeletal and cardiac muscle tissue and most smooth muscle tissue. Answer: mesoderm Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: mesoderm
60) The heart forms and begins to beat during the _____ month of embryonic development. Answer: first Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: first
61) Bone formation begins during the _____ month of embryonic development. Answer: second Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: second
62) The heartbeat of a developing embryo can be detected during the _____ week of pregnancy. Answer: third Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: third
63) During the _____ month of pregnancy, hair appears on the fetal head and articulations begin to form. Answer: fourth Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Describe the major events of the fetal period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Fetal Period Solution: fourth
64) At the beginning of the fetal period, the fetal head is about _____ the length of the fetal body. Answer: half Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Describe the major events of the fetal period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Fetal Period Solution: half
65) Over the course of pregnancy, the uterus increases from its pre-pregnancy mass primarily due to growth of the _____ layer. Answer: myometrium Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.3 Describe the effects of pregnancy on various body systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.3 Maternal Changes During Pregnancy Solution: myometrium
Question type: Multiple Choice
66) Letter _____ is pointing to the structure where the secondary oocyte is typically fertilized by the sperm.
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
Question type: Text entry
67) The letter C is pointing to the layer called the _____.
Answer: myometrium Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: myometrium
68) The letter D is pointing to the layer in which the _____ implants.
Answer: blastocyst Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: blastocyst
69) The space indicated by the letter B is called the _____.
Answer: cervical canal Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: cervical canal
70) The region indicated by the letter E is the _____.
Answer: fundus of the uterus Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: fundus of the uterus
Question type: Essay
71) The placenta has two distinct parts: the fetal portion formed by the _____ and the maternal portion formed by the _____. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: chorionic villi of the chorion; maternal blood in the intervillous spaces and decidua basalis.
Question type: Multiple Choice
72) Which structure enters the uterine cavity approximately 4-5 days after fertilization?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
73) Which structure undergoes implantation into the uterine endometrium?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period
Question type: Essay
74) What process is occurring between structure A and structure B; and structure B and structure C?
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: cleavage
75) Name the structure indicated by the pointer on structure E. Into what does this develop?
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period. Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Embryonic Period Solution: embryoblast (inner cell mass); embryo
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 05
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) The integument consists of which of the following? a) skin and subcutaneous layer b) epidermis and dermis c) cutaneous membrane and underlying muscle d) papillary and reticular regions Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin
2) The greatest amount of keratin is found where? a) stratum basale b) stratum spinosum c) stratum corneum d) reticular region of the dermis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin
3) Together, the skin, hair, nails, glands, and associated muscles and nerves are an example of a/an: a) tissue b) organ c) system
d) organism Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin
4) Calluses form in areas that a) have excessive blood flow b) have insufficient nerve supply c) are subject to friction d) undergo slowed rate of mitosis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin
5) Which of the following is found in the stratum basale? a) cuboidal or columnar shaped cells b) keratinocytes c) melanocytes d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin
6) Cells in the deepest layer of the epidermis divide to produce all other epidermal cells. From deepest to most superficial, the cells pass through the layers in what order? 1. stratum spinosum 2. stratum basale
3. stratum corneum 4. stratum lucidum (only in thick skin) 5. stratum granulosum a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 c) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 d) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin
7) As keratinocytes move to the surface a) they become multinucleate b) they divide to produce new skin cells c) they eventually die and are sloughed off d) all of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin
8) Tattoos are created by injecting ink with a needle into the _____. a) stratum basale b) dermis c) subcutaneous layer d) stratum corneum Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.
Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin
9) The ability of skin to stretch and recoil is due to the presence of _____ in the _____. a) elastic fibers, epidermis b) adipose tissue, dermis c) elastic fibers, dermis d) basement membrane, hypodermis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin
10) Which of the following statements about skin color is false? a) Three pigments that are responsible for skin color are hemoglobin, carotene, and melanin. b) UV exposure leads to increased production of melanin. c) Melanin is produced in the organelles of epithelial cells and then migrates to the hypodermis. d) Carotene contributes a yellow-orange hue to the skin. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin
11) Functions of the skin include: a) excretion of some wastes b) acting as a blood reservoir c) acting in immunity d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of the Skin
12) Which of the following is not considered an epidermal derivative? a) sebaceous glands b) lamellated corpuscles c) sudoriferous glands d) hair Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin
13) The narrow strip of epidermis found on the surface of the proximal border of a nail is called _____. a) eponychium (cuticle) b) free edge c) lunula d) hyponychium Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin
14) Which of the following is characteristic of the growth of a scalp hair? a) continuous steady growth until the hair is shed and replaced by a new hair b) alternating growth phases and resting phases throughout the life of the hair c) a resting phase followed by a growth phase, which lasts until the hair is shed and replaced by a new hair d) a growth phase followed by a resting phase, which lasts until the hair is shed and replaced by a new hair
Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin
15) Melanocytes synthesize melanin from which amino acid? a) tryptophan b) tyrosine c) tropomyosin d) thyroxine Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin
16) Which of the following statements is true? a) Melanoma is the most common form of skin cancer. b) Squamous cell carcinoma is the most likely form of skin cancer to metastasize. c) Basal cell carcinoma rarely metastasizes. d) Skin color and family history are not risk factors for skin cancer. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 17) Orientation of which dermal fibers is responsible for “lines of cleavage” (tension lines) seen in the skin? a) reticular b) collagen c) elastic d) none of these choices
Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin
18) Which of the following contributes to the increased incidence of heat stroke in the elderly? a) decreased circulation b) decreased sudoriferous gland activity c) decreased number of melanocytes d) increased number of intraepidermal macrophages (Langerhans cells) Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.7 Describe the effects of aging on the integumentary system. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.7 Aging and the Integumentary System 19) What word does the letter “B” stand for in the American Cancer Society’s ABCD guidelines for detecting malignant melanoma? a) big (greater than 6mm) b) brown/black pigmentation c) border is irregular d) blister Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 20) Contraction of the _____ cause(s) “goose bumps.” a) hair follicle b) underlying skeletal muscle c) arrector pili muscle d) capillary loops in the papillary region of the dermis
Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin
21) Thick skin, containing all five layers of the epidermis, is found in areas of all of the following except _____. a) palms b) soles c) fingertips d) upper back Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.3 Compare structural and functional differences in thin and thick skin. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.3 Types of Skin
22) The _____ gives rise to the epidermis. a) mesenchyme b) ectoderm c) mesoderm d) endoderm Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.6 Describe the development of the epidermis, its accessory structures, and the dermis. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.6 Development of the Integumentary System
23) What is the correct order for the development of the dermis? a) mesoderm; mesenchyme; fibroblasts b) endoderm; mesenchyme; keratinocytes c) ectoderm; fibroblasts; melanocytes d) mesoderm; collagen; mesenchyme
Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.6 Describe the development of the epidermis, its accessory structures, and the dermis. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.6 Development of the Integumentary System
24) Which of the following terms best describes a bluish skin color most likely resulting from an inadequate amount of oxygen circulating in the blood? a) erythema b) cyanosis c) albinism d) hirsutism Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the skin
25) Following a burn, charring and insensitivity to pain was found over the entire surface of the right lower limb, entire surface of right trunk and anterior surface of the right upper limb. Approximately what percent of the body surface had burns and how would you classify the burn? a) 18%; second degree b) 27%, third degree c) 32%, partial thickness d) 40%, third degree Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Describe the blood supply of the integumentary system. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Blood Supply of the Integumentary System
Question type: True/False
26) The papillae of hair fill with ectoderm in which blood vessels develop.
Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.6 Describe the development of the epidermis, its accessory structures, and the dermis. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.6 Development of the Integumentary System
27) The two principal layers of skin are the epidermis and the subcutaneous layer. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin
28) Differences in skin color are mainly due to the number of melanocytes in the epidermis. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin
29) The cutaneous plexus is located in the epidermis and supplies cells of the epidermis and upper dermis with blood. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Describe the blood supply of the integumentary system. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Blood Supply of the Integumentary System
30) One of the factors responsible for skin color differences among races is the amount of melanin the keratinocytes produce and transfer to melanocytes. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.
Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin
31) Albinism is caused by a total lack of melanocytes. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin
32) Cells in the three most superficial layers of the epidermis receive a large supply of blood from blood vessels in the dermis. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Describe the blood supply of the integumentary system. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Blood Supply of the Integumentary System
33) The skin is supplied with blood by two arterial plexuses called the papillary plexus and the cutaneous plexus. Answer: True Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Describe the blood supply of the integumentary system. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Blood Supply of the Integumentary System
34) The deepest layer of the skin is called the hypodermis. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the skin
35) A callus is a thickening of the dermis caused by excessive friction.
Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin
36) Three major types of skin are recognized on the basis of certain structural and functional properties: thin skin, intermediate skin, and thick skin. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.3 Compare structural and functional differences in thin and thick skin. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.3 Types of Skin
37) Acne is an inflammation of sebaceous glands. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin
38) Fingernails consist of hardened glandular secretions from the tissue of the nail root. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin
39) The lunula of a nail appears whiter than the rest of the nail due to the structure of the stratum basale. Answer: True Difficulty: Hard
Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of The Skin
40) Thin skin has fewer epidermal ridges, sudoriferous glands, and sensory receptors than thick skin. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.3 Compare structural and functional differences in thin and thick skin. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.3 Types of Skin
41) Vitamin D synthesis begins in the skin as a result of UV radiation altering a precursor molecule. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of the Skin
42) Vernix caseosa is secreted by sebaceous glands to protect the fetus from amniotic fluid. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.6 Describe the development of the epidermis, its accessory structures, and the dermis. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.6 Development of the Integumentary System
43) Development of blisters following exposure of skin to heat is indicative of a first-degree burn. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Describe the blood supply of the integumentary system. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Blood Supply of the Integumentary System
44) Most of the age-related changes associated with the integumentary system occur in the epidermis. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.7 Describe the effects of aging on the integumentary system. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.7 Aging and the Integumentary System
Question type: Essay
45) Describe the layers of the epidermis and discuss growth of the epidermis. Include a description of the different cell types. Accompany your answer with a labeled diagram. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Solution: The answer should include the names of the layers and a description of the cells in each layer. See Table 5.1 and Figure 5.3.
46) Describe the tissues and structures of the two regions (layers) of the dermis. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Solution: Papillary region—upper 1/5; areolar tissue with elastic fibers, dermal papillae, blood vessels, corpuscles of touch. Reticular region—lower 4/5; network of dense irregular connective tissue, elastic and collagen fibers, adipose tissue, glands, hair follicles, blood vessels, temperature and other receptors.
47) Describe the changes that occur in skin with age. Answer:
Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 5.7 Describe the effects of aging on the integumentary system. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.7 Aging and the Integumentary System Solution: Aging produces changes in characteristics of elastic and collagen fibers; decreased melanocytes, fibroblasts, and intraepidermal macrophages (Langerhans cells); diminished function of glands; loss of subcutaneous fat; thinning of dermis; decreased rate of replacement of epidermal cells.
48) Describe the damage of first, second, and third degree burns. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Describe the blood supply of the integumentary system. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Blood Supply of the Integumentary System Solution: A first-degree burn involves only the superficial layers of the epidermis. Seconddegree burns destroy the entire epidermis and may include part of the dermis. A third-degree burn is a full-thickness burn that destroys epidermis, dermis, and accessory structures of the skin.
49) Discuss the three common forms of skin cancer. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Solution: Basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma; see clinical connection to skin cancer
50) Explain how wrinkles result as a normal consequence of aging. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.7 Describe the effects of aging on the integumentary system. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.7 Aging and the Integumentary System Solution: Collagen fibers in the dermis begin to decrease in number, stiffen, break apart, and disorganize into a shapeless, matted tangle. Elastic fibers lose some of their elasticity, thicken into clumps, and fray, an effect that is greatly accelerated in the skin of smokers. Fibroblasts, which produce both collagen and elastic fibers, decrease in number.
Question type: Text entry
51) The layer of the epidermis containing the most layers of cells is the stratum _____. Answer: corneum Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Solution: corneum
52) Surface patterns that develop on the skin of the hands and feet are due to the presence of dermal papillae and are called _____ ridges. Answer: epidermal Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Solution: epidermal
53) Lipids released by _____ granules of keratinocytes are responsible for reducing the passage of water through the skin. Answer: lamellar Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of the Skin Solution: lamellar
54) Keratohyalin granules are characteristic of the stratum _____ layer of the epidermis. Answer: granulosum
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Solution: granulosum
55) "Goose bumps" on the skin are due to contraction of smooth muscles called _____, which are associated with hair follicles. Answer: arrector pili Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Solution: arrector pili
56) The _____ of the hair is the portion that projects from the surface of the skin. Answer: shaft Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Solution: shaft
57) The concentric layers of a hair from external to internal are _____, _____, and _____. Answer: cuticle, cortex, medulla Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Solution: cuticle, cortex, medulla
58) Thin skin lacks the stratum _____ layer of the epidermis. Answer: lucidum
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.3 Compare structural and functional differences in thin and thick skin. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.3 Types of Skin Solution: lucidum
59) Epithelial cells from the _____ give rise to the sebaceous glands during fetal development. Answer: hair follicles Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.6 Describe the development of the epidermis, its accessory structures, and the dermis. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.6 Development of the Integumentary System Solution: hair follicles
60) In the fifth or sixth month of fetal development, hair follicles produce delicate fetal hair called _____, which is usually shed prior to birth. Answer: lanugo Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Solution: lanugo
61) A mild sunburn is an example of a _____ burn and involves only the _____ layer of the skin. Answer: first-degree, epidermal Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Describe the blood supply of the integumentary system. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Blood Supply of the Integumentary System Solution: first-degree, epidermal
62) ______ is due to a buildup of the yellow pigment bilirubin in the skin. This condition gives a yellowish appearance to the skin and the whites of the eyes, and usually indicates liver disease. Answer: Jaundice Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.
Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Solution: Jaundice
63) In regards to thermoregulatory sweating, sweat that evaporates from the skin before it is perceived as moisture is termed _____ perspiration; whereas sweat that is excreted in larger amounts and is seen as moisture on the skin is called _____ perspiration. Answer: insensible; sensible Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Solution: insensible; sensible
Question type: Essay
64) Name the structure indicated by A.
Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Solution: sebaceous gland
65) Give two different names for the layer indicated by C.
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Solution: hypodermis and subcutaneous (subQ) layer
66) Identify the specific structure indicated by B.
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Solution: arrector pili muscle
67) Name the specialized receptor indicated by D.
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Solution: lamellated corpuscle (pacinian corpuscle)
68) Identify the specific layer in which cells begin dying.
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Solution: F (stratum granulosum)
69) Identify the type of cell that has an immune function.
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Solution: C (intraepidermal macrophage [Langerhans cell])
70) Identify the cell type that produces melanin.
Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Solution: B (melanocyte)
71) Identify the layer sometimes referred to as stratum germinativum because of its role in forming new cells.
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Solution: D (stratum basale)
72) Identify the deepest layer of the skin.
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin. Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Solution: G (dermis)
73) C is pointing to what structure?
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Solution: external root sheath
74) A is pointing to what structure?
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Solution: internal root sheath
75) B is pointing to what structure?
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Solution: cuticle of the hair
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 06
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Functions of the skeletal system do NOT include a) protection of vital organs such as heart, lungs, and brain b) blood cell production c) control of body temperature d) energy storage in the form of adipose tissue Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.1 Describe the six main functions of the skeletal system. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.1 Functions of Bone and the Skeletal System
2) Which of the following are true of yellow bone marrow? 1. It is the main site of blood cell production. 2. It is located in the medullary (marrow) cavities of long bones. 3. It is located in hipbones, sternum, ribs, and vertebrae. 4. It is a site of energy storage in the form of triglycerides. 5. It becomes more abundant relative to red bone marrow with increasing age due to the conversion of red bone marrow to yellow bone marrow. a) 1 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 1, 2, and 5 d) 2, 4, and 5 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.1 Describe the six main functions of the skeletal system. Study Objective 2: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.1 Functions of Bone and the Skeletal System Section Reference 2: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone
3) Which of the following is not true of periosteum?
a) It consists of two layers, the inner osteogenic and outer fibrous layers. b) It assists in fracture repair. c) It covers and protects the articular cartilages. d) It serves as a point of attachment for tendons and ligaments. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone
4) The hardness of bone is due to crystallized inorganic mineral salts such as calcium phosphate. The flexibility and tensile strength of bone are due to organic molecules such as collagen fibers. a) Both statements are true. b) The first statement is true; the second is false. c) The first statement is false; the second is true. d) Both statements are false. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.1 Explain why bone tissue is classified as a connective tissue. Study Objective 3: SO 6.5.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each component. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue
5) Osteocytes are the mature bone cells that develop directly from _____. a) osteogenic cells b) osteoblasts c) osteoclasts d) white blood cells Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each component. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue
6) Which one of the following is characteristic of spongy bone tissue, but not of compact bone tissue? a) trabeculae b) haversian systems c) osteocytes in lacunae d) lamellae Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue
7) The strength of the diaphysis of a long bone is due to 1. the presence of compact bone 2. the longitudinal orientation of the osteons 3. the presence of trabeculae a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 are both correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue
8) The areas between neighboring osteons contain a) interstitial lamellae b) circumferential lamellae c) yellow bone marrow d) red bone marrow Answer: a Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 3: SO 6.5.4 Describe the histological features of bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue
9) Intramembranous ossification is the process that a) produces most bones b) produces only flat bones of the cranium c) results in growth in length of long bones d) none of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.1 Distinguish between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation
10) Put the following in correct order for endochondral ossification. 1. Mesenchymal cells of the embryo develop into cartilage-producing cells. 2. The periosteum (formerly perichondrium) begins to produce a thin layer of compact bone. 3. A hyaline cartilage model of the future bone is formed. 4. Cartilage in the midregion of the model becomes calcified. 5. Spongy bone tissue develops at the primary ossification center. 6. Secondary ossification centers produce spongy bone tissue of the epiphyses. 7. Medullary cavity is formed. a) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5, 7, 6 b) 7, 2, 3, 1, 4, 5, 6 c) 3, 1, 2, 6, 7, 4, 5 d) 1, 3, 2, 4, 6, 5, 7 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.1 Distinguish between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation
11) Appearance of the epiphyseal line means a) the end of lengthwise growth of that bone b) total replacement of epiphyseal plate by bone c) all chondrocytes of the epiphyseal plate are dead d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.2 Explain the importance of the different types of bone formation during different phases of a person’s lifetime. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation
12) Growth in length as a long bone develops is called _____ growth. a) intramembranous b) interstitial c) appositional d) periosteal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.2 Explain the importance of the different types of bone formation during different phases of a person’s lifetime. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation
13) The nutrient artery of a long bone a) divides into branches that supply the marrow and the inner portion of the diaphysis b) travels through Volkmann's (perforating) canals c) supplies the marrow and bony tissue of the epiphysis d) all of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.6 Describe the blood and nerve supply of bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Blood and Nerve Supply of Bone
14) Normal bone growth and replacement depend on the presence of a) the vitamins A, B12, C, and D b) the minerals calcium, phosphorus, magnesium, boron, and manganese c) calcitonin, parathyroid hormone, human growth hormone, sex hormones, and thyroid hormones d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.11 Explain why minerals, vitamins, and hormones are important in bone growth. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.11 Factors Affecting Bone Growth
15) A major change in bone tissue that occurs with aging and that leads to increased brittleness is _____. a) demineralization b) decreased protein synthesis c) increased bone remodeling d) all of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.10 Describe the effects of aging on bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.10 Aging and Bone Tissue
16) In the diagram of bone tissue, which label is on the central canal?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue
17) What bone disorder is best described as inadequate calcification of the extracellular matrix, usually caused by a vitamin D deficiency? a) rickets b) osteomalacia c) all of these choices d) none of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.
Study Objective 2: SO 6.11 Explain why minerals, vitamins, and hormones are important in bone growth. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue Section Reference 2: Sec 6.11 Factors Affecting Bone Growth
18) A characteristic of osteocytes is that they a) maintain the daily metabolism of bone tissue b) are responsible for the formation of matrix c) undergo mitosis and develop into osteoblasts d) undergo mitosis and develop into osteoclasts e) are responsible for the destruction (resorption) of matrix and the release of calcium into the bloodstream Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each component. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue
19) A characteristic of osteoclasts is that they a) maintain the daily metabolism of bone tissue b) are responsible for the formation of matrix c) undergo mitosis and develop into osteoblasts d) are responsible for the destruction (resorption) of matrix and the release of calcium into the bloodstream Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each component. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue
20) A good description of a medullary (marrow) cavity is that it a) is located in spaces between trabeculae b) allows movement of nutrients between osteocytes c) is a region of bone that contains yellow bone marrow
d) is a region of bone that contains red bone marrow Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone
21) A good description of a perforating canal is that it a) is located in spaces between trabeculae b) allows movement of nutrients between osteocytes c) contains yellow bone marrow d) allows blood vessels and nerves to penetrate compact bone tissue Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.6 Describe the blood and nerve supply of bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Blood and Nerve Supply of Bone
22) An osteon (haversian system) is a) in a young bone, the site of growth in length b) a structural unit of compact bone c) a region of bone that contains yellow bone marrow d) a region of bone that contains red bone marrow Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue
23) A lamella is a) in a young bone, the site of growth in length b) a structural unit of compact bone c) a ring of matrix d) a region of bone that contains red bone marrow
Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue
24) The epiphyseal plate is a) in a young bone, the site of growth in length b) a structural unit of compact bone c) a thin plate of bone in spongy bone d) essential for growth in diameter of a long bone Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 3: SO 6.7.2 Explain the importance of the different types of bone formation during different phases of a person’s lifetime. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone Section Reference 2: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation
25) Which of the following is an organic part of bone matrix that gives bone its flexibility and tensile strength? a) calcium b) osteoclasts c) osteocytes d) hydroxyapatites e) collagen Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.1 Explain why bone tissue is classified as a connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue
26) Canaliculi allow nutrients to diffuse to mature bone cells located within lacunae of the osteon. Which of the following are those mature bone cells?
a) osteoblasts b) osteoclasts c) osteocytes d) osteogenic cells e) chondrocytes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each component. Study Objective 3: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue
27) Activity of which of these cells is responsible for the remodeling of the bony callus as the final step in fracture repair? a) Osteoblasts b) Osteoclasts c) Osteocytes d) Osteogenic cells e) Chondrocytes Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.8 Describe the process of fracture repair. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.8 Fractures
28) The femur and humerus contain a) red bone marrow in the proximal epiphysis b) articular cartilage on the diaphysis c) a growth area in the metaphysis of an adult bone d) compact bone in the center of the epiphyses Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone
29) Spongy bone is located a) in the epiphyses of long bones b) in the diploe of flat bones c) in the ribs and sternum d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue
30) Which of the following is a true statement about bone surface markings? a) Most are not present at birth but develop as forces are exerted on bones and are most prominent during adult life. b) Processes and outgrowths are the result of tension from tendons and ligaments on the periosteum of a bone. c) Surface markings on skeletal remains may provide information related to age and sex. d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Bone Surface Markings
31) Which of the following best describes a tuberosity? a) prominent border or ridge b) large, rounded, usually roughened surface for muscle attachment c) large projection for muscle attachment on the femur d) smooth, flat surface e) rounded articular surface Answer: b Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Bone Surface Markings
32) Which of the following best describes a trochanter? a) prominent border or ridge b) large, rounded, usually roughened surface for muscle attachment c) large projection for muscle attachment on the femur d) smooth, flat surface e) rounded articular surface Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Bone Surface Markings
33) Which of the following best describes a crest? a) prominent border or ridge b) large, rounded, usually roughened surface for muscle attachment c) large projection for muscle attachment on the femur d) smooth, flat surface e) rounded articular surface Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Bone Surface Markings
34) Which of the following best describes a condyle? a) prominent border or ridge b) large, rounded, usually roughened surface for muscle attachment c) large projection for muscle attachment on the femur d) smooth, flat surface e) rounded articular surface Answer: e
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Bone Surface Markings
35) Which of the following best describes a facet? a) prominent border or ridge b) large, rounded, usually roughened surface for muscle attachment c) large projection for muscle attachment on the femur d) smooth, flat surface e) rounded articular surface Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Bone Surface Markings
36) Which of the following best describes an epicondyle? a) prominence above or beside a condyle b) tube-like passageway c) depression d) rounded articular surface e) smooth, flat surface Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Bone Surface Markings
37) Which of the following best describes a fossa? a) prominence above or beside a condyle b) tube-like passageway c) depression d) rounded articular surface e) smooth, flat surface
Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Bone Surface Markings
38) Which of the following best describes a meatus? a) prominence above or beside a condyle b) tube-like passageway c) depression d) rounded articular surface e) smooth, flat surface Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Bone Surface Markings
Question type: True/False
39) The connective tissue found on the articular surface at the end of a bone is called endosteum. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone
40) Bone matrix contains crystallized mineral salts called hydroxyapatite. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.1 Explain why bone tissue is classified as a connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue
41) In matrix formation, calcification precedes the secretion of collagen by osteoblasts. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.1 Explain why bone tissue is classified as a connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue
42) Microscopic canals that run longitudinally through bone tissue and that contain blood vessels and nerves are called perforating (Volkmann's) canals. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 3: SO 6.6 Describe the blood and nerve supply of bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue Section Reference 2: Sec 6.6 Blood and Nerve Supply of Bone
43) The nutrient artery of a long bone branches into proximal, distal, epiphyseal, and metaphyseal branches, and therefore supplies the entire bone with blood. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.6 Describe the blood and nerve supply of bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Blood and Nerve Supply of Bone
44) The perichondrium of the cartilage model becomes the periosteum of compact bone. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.1 Distinguish between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation
45) Primary ossification proceeds from the external surfaces inward; secondary ossification proceeds from the interior outward toward the external surface of a bone. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.1 Distinguish between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation
46) Most bones develop in a process whereby hyaline cartilage models are replaced by bone tissue. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.1 Distinguish between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation
47) As a long bone grows in length, new cartilage cells are produced on the epiphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate and bone replaces cartilage on the diaphyseal side of the plate. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.2 Explain the importance of the different types of bone formation during different phases of a person’s lifetime. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation
48) Following completion of ossification, bone replacement occurs only if bone tissue is injured. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.3 Describe the process of bone remodeling. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation
49) The bone tissue of the distal region of the femur is replaced about every 4 months, whereas some regions of the shaft of the femur may never be replaced. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.3 Describe the process of bone remodeling. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation
50) A Colles' fracture involves the distal end of the lateral forearm bone (radius). Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.8 Describe the process of fracture repair. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.8 Fractures
51) At birth, all bones are cartilaginous. Ossification occurs only after birth. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.1 Distinguish between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation
52) Osteopenia is a decrease in bone mass below normal, as occurs in osteoporosis. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.3 Describe the process of bone remodeling. Study Objective 3: SO 6.10 Describe the effects of aging on bone tissue. Study Objective 4: SO 6.11 Explain why minerals, vitamins, and hormones are important in bone growth Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation Section Reference 2: Sec 6.10 Aging and Bone Tissue Section Reference 3: 6.11 Factors Affecting Bone Growth
53) Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for developing Osteoporosis. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.3 Describe the process of bone remodeling. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation
54) The vertebrae are classed according to shape as short bones. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Classify bones on the basis of shape and location. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Types of Bones
55) Sesamoid and sutural bones are the two types of bones that are the most variable in number in the human body. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Classify bones on the basis of shape and location. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Types of Bones
Question type: Essay
56) Draw a diagram of a typical mature long bone shown in sagittal section. Label the regions and tissues and identify the sites for red and yellow bone marrow. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone Solution: See Figure 6.2.
57) Briefly describe the structure and function of each of the four zones of cartilage of the epiphyseal plate.
Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.2 Explain the importance of the different types of bone formation during different phases of a person’s lifetime. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation Solution: 1. Resting: small, scattered chondrocytes; anchors the plate to the epiphysis 2. Proliferating: stacks of chondrocytes divide and replace dead cells, leading to growth in length 3. Hypertrophic: columns of larger chondrocytes; maturation of cells from (2) above 4. Calcified: thin layer of dead cells in calcified matrix; attaches plate to bone of Diaphysis
58) What factors are necessary for normal bone growth and replacement? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 6.11 Explain why minerals, vitamins, and hormones are important in bone growth. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.11 Factors Affecting Bone Growth Solution: Dietary factors: minerals (calcium, phosphorus, magnesium, iron, fluoride, manganese, boron) and vitamins (A, B12, C, D, and K) Hormonal factors: e.g., sex hormones, insulin-like growth factors, human growth hormone, thyroid hormones, calcitonin, and parathyroid hormone Mechanical stress: e.g., exercise Age 59) Explain what is meant by “hot spots” and “cold spots” seen on a diagnostic bone scan. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue. Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.1 Explain why bone tissue is classified as a connective tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue Solution: Darker areas called “hot spots” are areas of increased metabolism that absorb more of the radioactive tracer due to increased blood flow. Hot spots may indicate bone cancer, abnormal healing of fractures, or abnormal bone growth. Lighter areas called “cold spots” are areas of decreased metabolism that absorb less of the radioactive tracer due to decreased blood flow. Cold spots may indicate problems such as degenerative bone disease, decalcified bone, fractures, bone infections, Paget’s disease, and rheumatoid arthritis.
60) Explain why damage to the epiphyseal plate in childhood may result in the fractured bone being shorter than normal once adult stature is reached. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.2 Explain the importance of the different types of bone formation during different phases of a person’s lifetime. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation Solution: This is because damage to cartilage, which is avascular, accelerates closure of the epiphseal plate, thus inhibiting lengthwise growth of the bone.
61) Explain why bedridden patients can lose bone mass. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 6.9 Describe how exercise and mechanical stress affect bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.9 Exercise and Bone Tissue Solution: There are no “normal” stresses placed on the bones, i.e. tension, compression, therefore the strength of the unstressed bones diminishes because of the loss of bone minerals and decreased numbers of collagen fibers.
Question type: Text entry
62) The region of a long bone where the epiphysis and diaphysis join is called the _____. Answer: metaphysis Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone Solution: metaphysis
63) The spaces in bone tissue that contain osteocytes are called _____. Answer: lacunae Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.
Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue Solution: lacunae
64) The artery entering near the center of the diaphysis is the _____ artery. Answer: nutrien Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.6 Describe the blood and nerve supply of bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Blood and Nerve Supply of Bone Solution: nutrient
65) The process by which bone tissue replaces hyaline cartilage is _____ ossification. Answer: endochondral Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.1 Distinguish between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation Solution: endochondral
66) The process of _____ ossification produces flat bones of the skull and the lower jawbone. Answer: intramembranous Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.1 Distinguish between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation Solution: intramembranous
Question type: Essay
67) The epiphyseal plate separates the epiphysis and diaphysis of a growing bone. The four zones of cartilage found here, in order from epiphyseal edge to diaphyseal edge are _____, _____, _____, and _____.
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.2 Explain the importance of the different types of bone formation during different phases of a person’s lifetime. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation Solution: zone of resting cartilage, zone of proliferating cartilage, zone of hypertrophic cartilage, zone of calcified cartilage
Question type: Text entry
68) The lifelong replacement and redistribution of bone matrix is referred to as _____. Answer: bone remodeling Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.2 Explain the importance of the different types of bone formation during different phases of a person’s lifetime. Study Objective 3: SO 6.7.3 Describe the process of bone remodeling. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation Solution: bone remodeling
69) Mechanical stress on bone is due to the contraction of skeletal muscles and due to _____. Answer: gravity Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.9 Describe how exercise and mechanical stress affect bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.9 Exercise and Bone Tissue Solution: gravity
70) A bone fracture in which the broken ends of the bone can be seen protruding from the skin is called a/an _____ fracture. Answer: open/compound Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.8 Describe the process of fracture repair. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.8 Fractures
Solution: open/compound
71) In aging females, decreasing levels of estrogen accelerate the loss of _____ from bone tissue. Answer: calcium Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.10 Describe the effects of aging on bone tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.10 Aging and Bone Tissue Solution: calcium
72) On the basis of shape, the femur is an example of a _____ bone. Answer: long Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Classify bones on the basis of shape and location. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Types of Bones Solution: long
73) Medications used to treat osteoporosis are generally of two types: _____ and _____. Answer: antireabsorptive; bone-building Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling. Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.1 Distinguish between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification. Study Objective 3: SO 6.7.2 Explain the importance of the different types of bone formation during different phases of a person’s lifetime. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation Solution: antireabsorptive; bone-building
74) For bones to unite properly, the fractured ends must be brought into alignment. In _____, the fractured ends of a bone are brought into alignment by manual manipulation, and the skin remains intact. In _____, the fractured ends of a bone are brought into alignment by a surgical procedure using internal fixation devices. Answer: closed reduction; open reduction Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 6.8 Describe the process of fracture repair.
Section Reference 1: Sec 6.8 Fractures Solution: closed reduction; open reduction
75) According to shape classification, the phalanges of the fingers and toes are _____ bones. Answer: long Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Classify bones on the basis of shape and location. Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Types of Bones Solution: long
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 07
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) The girdles attach the limbs (extremities) to the axial skeleton. The girdles are considered to be part of the axial skeleton. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.1 Describe how the skeleton is organized into axial and appendicular divisions. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System
2) The frontal bone a) contributes to the sagittal suture b) forms part of the floor of the orbit c) articulates with the mandible d) none of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.4 Identify the location and surface features of the frontal bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.A Cranial Bones—Frontal Bone
3) Which skull bone contains the mandibular fossa, mastoid process, styloid process, and zygomatic process? a) temporal b) parietal
c) zygomatic d) occipital Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.6 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.C Cranial Bones—Temporal Bones
4) The ethmoid bone does NOT contain a) olfactory foramina b) crista galli c) cribriform plate d) inferior nasal conchae Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.9 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.F Cranial Bones—Ethmoid Bone
5) The mandible has condylar processes and coronoid processes. a) Both are articular in function. b) Both are for muscle attachment. c) The condylar process is articular; the coronoid process is for muscle attachment. d) The condylar process is for muscle attachment; the coronoid process is articular. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.12 Identify the location and surface features of the mandible. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.I Facial Bones—Mandible
6) Which of the following is false for paranasal sinuses? They are a) lined with mucous membranes b) chambers for voice resonance c) located in zygomatic bones d) paired cavities Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.2 Describe the following unique features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull
7) Membrane-filled spaces between cranial bones of an infant skull are called: a) sutures b) sinuses c) fontanels d) foramina Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.2 Describe the following unique features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull
8) The bone that consists of five fused bones, is triangular, and serves as one of the boundaries of the pelvic cavity is the: a) coccyx b) manubrium c) coxal bone d) sacrum Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.6 Identify the location and surface features of the sacral and coccygeal vertebrae. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.M Vertebral Regions—Sacral and Coccygeal Vertebrae
9) Intercostal spaces a) are filled by costal cartilages b) contain muscles, blood vessels, and nerves c) are grooves on the inner surfaces of ribs d) contain bone marrow Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 7.5 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions. Learning Objective 3: SO 7.5.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Sec 7.5 Thorax Section Reference 3: Exhibit 7.O Thoracic Bones—Ribs
10) What pair of skull bones contributes to the only freely movable joint of the head? a) temporal and mandible b) zygomatic and maxilla c) frontal and sphenoid d) sphenoid and ethmoid Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.1 Name the cranial bones and facial bones and indicate the number of each. Learning Objective 3: SO 7.2.12 Identify the location and surface features of the mandible. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.I Facial Bones—Mandible
11) “Sutures” would be found connecting which bones? a) mandible and hyoid b) temporal and mandible c) sphenoid and ethmoid d) frontal and occipital Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.2 Describe the following unique features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull
12) The fifth cranial nerve (trigeminal nerve) provides sensory information from the face. The three branches of the trigeminal nerve pass from the periphery of the face to the brain through three separate foramina. Which cranial bone contains the foramina for passage of branches of the trigeminal (V) nerve? a) ethmoid b) temporal c) sphenoid d) occipital Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.8 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.E Cranial Bones—Sphenoid Bone
13) Which portion of a vertebra DOES NOT surround the spinal cord to keep it protected from injury? a) body b) pedicle c) lamina d) transverse process
Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in the various regions of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column
14) The fifth intercostal space will be palpated between a) ribs 4 and 5 b) ribs 5 and 6 c) rib 4 and T4 d) rib 5 and T5 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions. Study Objective 2: SO 7.5.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Thorax Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.O Thoracic Bones—Ribs
15) Which best describes the vomer bone? a) forms part of the bridge of the nose b) superior portion of nasal septum c) inferior and posterior portion of nasal septum d) palatine process forms most of the hard palate e) contains the carotid and jugular foramina Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.10 Identify the location of the nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, and vomer. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones—Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, and Vomer
16) Which best describes the maxilla bone? a) lower jaw bone b) superior portion of nasal septum c) inferior and posterior portion of nasal septum d) palatine process forms most of the hard palate e) contains the carotid and jugular foramina Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.11 Identify the location and surface features of the maxillae and zygomatic bones. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.H Facial Bones—Maxillae and Zygomatic Bones
17) Which best describes the lacrimal bone? a) forms part of the bridge of the nose b) superior portion of nasal septum c) inferior and posterior portion of nasal septum d) includes temporal process of zygomatic arch e) houses a structure that gathers tears Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.10 Identify the location of the nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, and vomer. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones—Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, and Vomer
18) Which best describes the palatine bone? a) horizontal plate forms the posterior portion of the hard palate b) superior portion of nasal septum c) inferior and posterior portion of nasal septum d) includes temporal process of zygomatic arch
e) houses a structure that gathers tears Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.10 Identify the location of the nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, and vomer. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones—Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, and Vomer
19) Which best describes the occipital bone? a) part of the bridge of the nose b) bears condyles that form the atlanto-occipital joints c) inferior and posterior portion of nasal septum d) includes temporal process of zygomatic arch e) sella turcica protects the pituitary gland Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.7 Identify the location and surface features of the occipital bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.D Cranial Bones—Occipital Bone
20) Which best describes the sphenoid bone? a) forms part of the bridge of the nose b) bears condyles that form the atlanto-occipital joints c) inferior and posterior portion of nasal septum d) includes temporal process of zygomatic arch e) sella turcica protects the pituitary gland Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.8 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone.
Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.E Cranial Bones—Sphenoid Bone
21) Which best describes the atlas? a) has small bodies b) has four foramina c) body has articular surfaces called facets and demifacets d) has no body and no spinous process e) has a peg-like process called a dens Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.3 Identify the location and surface features of the cervical vertebrae. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.J Vertebral Regions—Cervical Vertebrae
22) Which best describes a typical cervical vertebra? a) has a larger body than a thoracic vertebra b) contains transverse foramina c) body has articular surfaces called facets and demifacets d) has no body, no spinous process e) has a peg-like process called a dens Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.3 Identify the location and surface features of the cervical vertebrae. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.J Vertebral Regions—Cervical Vertebrae
23) The body of a typical thoracic vertebrae a) articulates with costal cartilages b) contains transverse foramina c) body has articular surfaces called demifacets d) has no body and no spinous process
e) has a peg-like process called a dens Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.4 Identify the location and surface features of the thoracic vertebrae. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.K Vertebral Regions—Thoracic Vertebrae
24) Which best describes a lumbar vertebra? a) has a small body b) has four foramina c) body has articular surfaces called demifacets d) processes are thick and short e) articulates with the hip bone Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.5 Identify the location and surface features of the lumbar vertebrae. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.L Vertebral Regions—Lumbar Vertebrae
25) Which best describes the term scoliosis? a) lateral bending of the vertebral column b) exaggeration of the cervical curve c) exaggeration of the thoracic curve d) exaggeration of the lumbar curve e) congenital defect in which the laminae fail to unite at the midline Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column
26) Which best describes the term lordosis? a) lateral bending of the vertebral column b) exaggeration of the cervical curve c) exaggeration of the thoracic curve d) exaggeration of the lumbar curve e) congenital defect in which the laminae fail to unite at the midline Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column
27) Which best describes the term spina bifida? a) lateral bending of the vertebral column b) exaggeration of the cervical curve c) exaggeration of the thoracic curve d) exaggeration of the lumbar curve e) congenital defect in which the laminae fail to unite at the midline Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in the various regions of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column
28) The illustrated bone is the _____?
a) atlas b) hyoid bone c) axis d) vomer Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.3 Describe the relationship of the hyoid bone to the skull and explain its function. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Hyoid Bone
29) What type of vertebra is shown in here?
a) cervical b) thoracic c) lumbar d) sacral Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.4 Identify the location and surface features of the thoracic vertebrae. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.K Vertebral Regions—Thoracic Vertebrae
Question type: True/False
30) The superior and inferior nuchal lines are sites of muscle attachment on the occipital bone. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.7 Identify the location and surface features of the occipital bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.D Cranial Bones—Occipital Bone
31) The mandible articulates with the mandibular fossa of the occipital bone. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.12 Identify the location and surface features of the mandible. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.I Facial Bones—Mandible
32) The maxillae articulate with every facial bone except the mandible. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.11 Identify the location and surface features of the maxillae and zygomatic bones. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.H Facial Bones—Maxillae and Zygomatic Bones
33) The lateral walls of the nasal cavity are formed by the ethmoid, maxillae, and inferior nasal conchae. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.9 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone. Learning Objective 3: SO 7.2.10 Identify the location of the nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, and vomer. Learning Objective 4: SO 7.2.11 Identify the location and surface features of the maxillae and zygomatic bones. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull
Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.F Cranial Bones—Ethmoid Bone Section Reference 3: Exhibit 7.H Facial Bones—Maxillae and Zygomatic Bones Section Reference 4: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones—Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, and Vomer
34) The nasal septum consists of septal cartilage plus portions of the maxillae and vomer. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.1 Name the cranial bones and facial bones and indicate the number of each. Learning Objective 3: SO 7.2.9 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone. Learning Objective 4: SO 7.2.10 Identify the location of the nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, and vomer. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.F Cranial Bones—Ethmoid Bone Section Reference 3: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones—Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, and Vomer
35) The posterior fontanel is at the junction of the future lambdoid and sagittal sutures. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.2 Describe the following unique features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull
36) A sacral ala articulates with a hip bone to form a sacroiliac joint. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.6 Identify the location and surface features of the sacral and coccygeal vertebrae. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column
Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.M Vertebral Regions—Sacral and Coccygeal Vertebrae
37) The cervical curve is convex anteriorly. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column
38) The seventh cervical vertebra is called the vertebra prominens. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.3 Identify the location and surface features of the cervical vertebrae. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.J Vertebral Regions—Cervical Vertebrae
39) The atlanto-axial joint allows for nodding the head to say yes. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.3 Identify the location and surface features of the cervical vertebrae. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.J Vertebral Regions—Cervical Vertebrae
40) The three main parts of the sternum are manubrium, xiphoid process and sternal angle. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions. Study Objective 2: SO 7.5.2 Identify the location and surface features of the sternum Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Thorax
Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.N Thoracic Bones—Sternum
41) The first rib has grooves on its superior surface for the subclavian artery, subclavian vein and the inferior trunk of the brachial plexus. Answer: True Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions. Study Objective 2: SO 7.5.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Thorax Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.O Thoracic Bones—Ribs
Question type: Essay
42) List the foramina of the skull that provide passageways for cranial nerves or their main branches. Indicate the name of the skull bone in which each of the foramina is located. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.1 Name the cranial bones and facial bones and indicate the number of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Solution: 1. olfactory foramina of ethmoid bone for olfactory nerve (I) 2. optic foramina in sphenoid bone for optic nerves (II) 3. foramen ovale in sphenoid bone for mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve (V) 4. foramen rotundum in sphenoid bone for maxillary branch of trigeminal nerve (V) 5. infraorbital foramen in maxilla for a branch of the maxillary division of trigeminal nerve (V) 6. stylomastoid foramen in temporal bone for facial nerve (VII) 7. jugular foramen between temporal and occipital bones for glossopharyngeal (IX), vagus (X), and accessory (XI) nerves 8. foramen magnum in occipital bone for accessory nerve (XI) 9. hypoglossal foramen in occipital bone for hypoglossal nerve (XII)
43) List and number the bones in each region of the vertebral column. Answer:
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in the various regions of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Solution: 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, sacrum (5 fused sacral vertebrae), and coccyx (usually 4 fused coccygeal vertebrae)
44) Name the seven processes that are found on most vertebrae and state the function of each. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in the various regions of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Solution: One spinous process and two transverse processes are primarily for muscle attachment; two superior articular processes and two inferior articular processes articulate with adjacent vertebrae.
45) Define, number, and locate vertebrosternal ribs, vertebrochondral ribs, and vertebral ribs. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions. Study Objective 2: SO 7.5.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Thorax Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.O Thoracic Bones—Ribs Solution: Vertebrosternal (true) ribs (#1-7) attach directly to the sternum via their own costal cartilages. Vertebrochondral (false) ribs (#8-12) include #8-10, which attach indirectly via costal cartilage #7 and vertebral (floating) ribs (#11 and 12), which do not attach anteriorly.
Question type: Text entry
46) The two major divisions of the skeletal system are _____ and _____. Answer: axial, appendicular
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.1 Describe how the skeleton is organized into axial and appendicular divisions. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System Solution: axial, appendicular
47) The cranial bones that contain no principal foramina are the _____ bones. Answer: parietal Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.1 Name the cranial bones and facial bones and indicate the number of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Solution: parietal
48) The depression in the sphenoid bone known as the _____ is the location of the pituitary gland. Answer: sella turcica Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.8 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.E Cranial Bones—Sphenoid Bone Solution: sella turcica
49) If a squamous suture were separated (opened up), a parietal bone would be pulled away from a _____ bone. Answer: temporal Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.2 Describe the following unique features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Solution: temporal
50) The illustrated bone is the _____ bone.
Answer: sphenoid Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.8 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.E Cranial Bones—Sphenoid Bone Solution: sphenoid
51) The illustrated bone is the _____ bone.
Answer: ethmoid Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.9 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.F Cranial Bones—Ethmoid Bone Solution: ethmoid
52) The illustrated bone is the _____.
Answer: Mandible Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.12 Identify the location and surface features of the mandible. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.I Facial Bones—Mandible Solution: Mandible
53) The _____ process of the temporal bone is a rounded projection posterior to the external auditory meatus that is a site of attachment for several neck muscles. Answer: mastoid Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.6 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.C Cranial Bones—Temporal Bones Solution: mastoid
54) The hard palate is a bony partition formed by the _____ and the _____ bones. Answer: maxillae, palatine Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.11 Identify the location and surface features of the maxillae and zygomatic bones. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.H Facial Bones—Maxillae and Zygomatic Bones Solution: maxillae, palatine
55) Of the eight bones that form the cranium, only the _____ and _____ bones are paired bones. Answer: temporal, parietal Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.1 Name the cranial bones and facial bones and indicate the number of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Solution: temporal, parietal
56) The _____ are convex surfaces on either side of the foramen magnum that articulate with the atlas. Answer: occipital condyles Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.7 Identify the location and surface features of the occipital bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.D Cranial Bones—Occipital Bone Solution: occipital condyles
57) The two bones that form the zygomatic arch are the _____ and the _____ bones. Answer: temporal, zygomatic
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.11 Identify the location and surface features of the maxillae and zygomatic bones. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.H Facial Bones—Maxillae and Zygomatic Bones Solution: temporal, zygomatic
58) The superior part of the nasal septum, the middle nasal conchae, and the crista galli are formed by the _____ bone. Answer: ethmoid Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.9 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.F Cranial Bones—Ethmoid Bone Solution: ethmoid
59) Alveolar processes are features of three skull bones, namely the two _____ and the _____. Answer: maxillae, mandible Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.11 Identify the location and surface features of the maxillae and zygomatic bones. Learning Objective 3: 7.2.12 Identify the location and surface features of the mandible. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.H Facial Bones—Maxillae and Zygomatic Bones Section Reference 3: Exhibit 7.I Facial Bones—Mandible Solution: maxillae, mandible
60) The _____ bone does not articulate with any other bones, but is a site of attachment for muscles of the tongue, pharynx and neck. Answer: hyoid
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.3 Describe the relationship of the hyoid bone to the skull and explain its function. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Hyoid Bone Solution: hyoid
61) The _____ bones of the skull are involved in each of the four main sutures. Answer: parietal Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.2 Describe the following unique features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Solution: parietal
62) The primary curves of the vertebral column are the _____ and the _____ curves. They are curved so that they are anteriorly _____. Answer: thoracic, sacral, concave Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Solution: thoracic, sacral, concave
63) Paired spinal nerves pass through _____ foramina to carry information between the spinal cord and other parts of the body. Answer: intervertebral Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in the various regions of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral column Solution: intervertebral
64) The _____ of the sacrum provides an inferior entrance into the vertebral canal, a site often used for injection of anaesthetic agents during labor. Answer: sacral hiatus Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.6 Identify the location and surface features of the sacral and coccygeal vertebrae. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.M Vertebral Regions—Sacral and Coccygeal Vertebrae Solution: sacral hiatus
65) The depressions on the superior border of the manubrium are called the _____ notch and the _____ notches. Answer: suprasternal (jugular), clavicular Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions. Study Objective 2: SO 7.5.2 Identify the location and surface features of the sternum Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Thorax Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.N Thoracic Bones—Sternum Solution: suprasternal (jugular), clavicular
Question type: Multiple Choice
66) The label on the transverse process of the vertebra is _____.
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in the various regions of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column
67) The label on the spinous process is _____.
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in the various regions of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column
68) The label on the vertebral foramen is _____.
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in the various regions of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column
69) Which two cranial bones unite to form the lambdoid suture?
a) A and B b) B and C c) D and E d) B and D e) A and D Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.2 Describe the following unique features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull
70) Where is the zygomatic bone?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.1 Name the cranial bones and facial bones and indicate the number of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull
71) What region are these vertebrae from?
a) cervical b) thoracic c) lumbar d) sacral e) coccygeal Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column
72) Identify the tubercle of the rib.
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions. Study Objective 2: SO 7.5.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Thorax Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.O Thoracic Bones—Ribs
73) Where is the pituitary gland located?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.8 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.E Cranial Bones—Sphenoid Bone
74) Which of the following exhibits an abnormal kyphotic curvature of the spine?
a) A b) B c) C Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column. Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column
75) Which cranial bone does not contain a paranasal sinus?
a) Sphenoid b) Frontal c) Ethmoid d) Maxilla e) Occipital Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age related changes and sexual differences of the skull. Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.2 Describe the following unique features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels. Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: PHA13 Chapter Number: 08
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) The coracoid process of the scapula is a) a site of muscle attachment b) an extension of the scapular spine c) the high point of the shoulder d) All of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula
2) Which of the following is true? a) The medial end of the clavicle is the sternal extremity. b) The curvature of the medial one-third of the clavicle is concave anteriorly. c) The clavicle articulates medially with the body of the sternum and laterally with the acromion of the scapula. d) All of these statements are true. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the clavicle. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.A Pectoral Girdle—Clavicle
3) Which of the following is found on the anterior surface of the humerus? a) deltoid tuberosity b) radial fossa c) greater tubercle
d) medial epicondyle Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.4 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm—Humerus
4) Which of the following is true of the radius? a) It is the medial bone of the forearm. b) Its head articulates with the distal end of the ulna. c) It articulates with the trochlear notch of the humerus. d) none of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius
5) The bony landmarks commonly referred to as "knuckles" are the a) bases of proximal phalanges b) heads of proximal phalanges c) bases of metacarpals d) heads of metacarpals Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.6 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand
6) Which of these does not belong to the distal row of carpal bones?
a) pisiform b) trapezoid c) trapezium d) capitate Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.6 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand
7) The number of phalanges in one hand is a) 5 b) 10 c) 14 d) 15 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.6 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand
8) Which of the following is not part of the ilium? a) greater sciatic notch b) inferior gluteal line c) lesser sciatic notch d) auricular surface Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.
Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle
9) The cup-shaped depression formed by all three portions of the hip (coxal) bone is the _____. a) false pelvis b) obturator foramen c) acetabulum d) glenoid cavity Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle
10) The male skeleton, as compared to the female skeleton, a) has heavier bones b) has rougher, larger tuberosities and ridges c) has a heart-shaped pelvic inlet d) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.4 Describe the principal differences between female and male pelves. Section Reference 1: Sec8.4 Comparison of Female and Male Pelves
11) The patellar surface, with which the patella articulates, is located on the _____ end of the _____. a) proximal, tibia b) distal, tibia c) proximal, femur d) distal, femur Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.1 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh—Femur and Patella
12) Which of the following is an articular feature of the tibia? a) tibial tuberosity b) anterior border c) lateral condyle d) none of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg—Tibia and Fibula
13) Which of the following is not a tarsal bone? a) navicular b) hamate c) cuboid d) cuneiform Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot
14) Using the following directional terms, decide which bone is being described: proximal to metacarpal I; distal to the scaphoid bone; and lateral to the trapezoid bone. a) trapezium b) capitate c) hamate d) proximal phalanx Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.6 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand
15) Using the following directional terms, decide which bone is being described: medial to metatarsal III; proximal to proximal phalanx; distal to second (intermediate) cuneiform. a) cuboid b) lateral cuneiform c) metatarsal II d) metatarsal IV Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot
16) Using the following directional terms, decide which structure of the scapula is being described: lateral to the spine; inferior to the acromion; posterior to the coracoid process; proximal to the head of the humerus. a) inferior angle b) glenoid cavity
c) supraspinous fossa d) acetabulum Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula
17) Using the following directional terms, decide which structure of the pelvis is being described: medial to the ischium; inferior to the ilium; lateral to the pubic symphysis; medial to the acetabulum. a) pubis b) lesser sciatic notch c) auricular surface d) lesser trochanter Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle
18) The clavicle a) articulates with the acromion and the manubrium b) is convex anteriorly in the lateral half c) is flatter near the medial end d) is anterior to the ribs Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the clavicle. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.A Pectoral Girdle—Clavicle
19) The scapula a) has three large nonarticular fossae that occupy a large portion of the surface of the bone b) articulates with the thoracic region of vertebral column c) articulates with the acromion and the manubrium d) is anterior to the ribs Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula
20) The ulna: a) has a radial notch on its lateral surface b) has a radial notch on its medial surface c) articulates with the metacarpals d) has an olecranon fossa on the anterior surface Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius
21) The middle phalanx is a) absent in the thumb (pollex) b) found only in digit 3 c) articulates with the metacarpals d) has an intercondylar fossa at the proximal end Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.
Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.6 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand
22) Visible in this view of the femur is/are the
a) greater and lesser trochanters near the proximal end b) intercondylar fossa at the proximal end c) linea aspera d) Acetabulum Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.1 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh—Femur and Patella
23) This is an ______ view of the _____.
a) anterior; tibia b) posterior; tibia c) anterior; femur d) posterior; femur Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.1 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh—Femur and Patella
24) The patella has an/is
a) intercondylar fossa at the proximal end b) completely enclosed in a tendon c) intercondylar eminence at the distal end d) acetabulum Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.1 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh—Femur and Patella
25) The tibia a) has a medial malleolus at the distal end b) is the lateral bone of the leg c) has a head d) has an intercondylar fossa Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg—Tibia and Fibula
26) The talus a) is the smallest tarsal bone b) articulates with the tibia and fibula c) is known as the “heel bone” d) articulates with the cuboid Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg—Tibia and Fibula
Question type: True/False
27) The coracoid process of the scapula may be described as a lateral extension of the spine of the scapula. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula
28) The inferior surface of the clavicle is rougher than the superior surface, due, in part, to the presence of the conoid tubercle and the impression for the costoclavicular ligament. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the clavicle. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.A Pectoral Girdle—Clavicle
29) The anatomical neck of the humerus is proximal to the surgical neck. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.4 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm—Humerus
30) The capitulum of the humerus is lateral to the trochlea. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.4 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm—Humerus
31) The olecranon, which forms the prominence of the elbow, is located on the distal end of the humerus. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius
32) The head of the ulna is on the distal end of the bone. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius
33) The raised roughened area, just distal to the neck of the radius, that serves as a point of attachment for the tendon of the biceps brachii muscle is the biceps tuberosity. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius
34) The heads of the metacarpals form the “knuckles” of the fist. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.6 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand
35) The posterior inferior portion of the hip (coxal) bone is the pubis. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb
36) The false (greater) pelvis is superior to the pelvic brim. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Distinguish between the false and true pelves and explain their clinical importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.3 False and True Pelves
37) The arcuate line of the ilium is continuous with the pectineal line of the pubis. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Distinguish between the false and true pelves and explain their clinical importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.3 False and True Pelves
38) The intertrochanteric line is near the proximal end of the femur, on the anterior surface. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.1 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh—Femur and Patella
39) The fibula, the lateral bone of the leg, is a weight-bearing bone. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg—Tibia and Fibula
Question type: Essay
40) List the bones that make up the appendicular skeleton using the headings pectoral girdles, free part of the upper extremity, pelvic girdle, free part of the lower extremity. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.1 Identify the bones of the skeleton of the upper limb and explain their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Solution: Pectoral girdle: 2 scapulae, 2 clavicles Free part of the upper extremity: humerus, ulna, radius, 8 carpal bones, 5 metacarpals, 14 phalanges Pelvic girdle: 2 hip (coxal) bones
Free part of the lower extremity: femur, patella, tibia, fibula, 7 tarsal bones, 5 metatarsals, 14 phalanges
41) Give an anatomical description of the scapula, describing the features that are visible from the posterior aspect. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula Solution: When considering from a posterior aspect, a prominent ridge called the spine runs diagonally across the posterior surface of the scapula. The lateral end of the spine projects as a flattened, expanded process called the acromion. Inferior to the acromion is a shallow depression, the glenoid cavity. The thin edge of the scapula closer to the vertebral column is called the medial (vertebral) border. The thick edge of the scapula closer to the arm is called the lateral (axillary) border. The medial and lateral borders join at the inferior angle. The superior edge of the scapula, called the superior border, joins the vertebral border at the superior angle. The scapular notch is a prominent indentation along the superior border through which the suprascapular nerve passes. Superior and inferior to the spine are two fossae: the supraspinous fossa and the infraspinous fossa.
42) Name the articular surfaces of the hip (coxal) bones and identify the bones that articulate at each surface. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.1 Identify the bones of the skeleton of the lower limb. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Solution: Auricular surface: ilium articulates with sacrum Pubic symphysis: 2 pubic bones articulate with each other Acetabulum: ilium, ischium, and pubis articulate with femur
43) List and describe the structural differences between male and female pelves. Answer: Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 8.4 Describe the principal differences between female and male pelves. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.4 Comparison of Female and Male Pelves Solution: See Table 8.1
44) Give an anatomical description of the femur as it would appear from the posterior aspect. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.1 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh—Femur and Patella Solution: The femur, or thigh bone, is the longest, heaviest, and strongest bone in the body. The proximal end of the femur consists of a rounded head and the neck of the femur is a constricted region distal to the head. The body (shaft) of the femur angles medially. The greater trochanter and lesser trochanter are projections that serve as points of attachment for the tendons of some of the thigh and buttock muscles. The lesser trochanter is inferior and medial to the greater trochanter. A ridge called the intertrochanteric crest appears between the posterior surfaces of the greater trochanter and lesser trochanter. Inferior to the intertrochanteric crest on the posterior surface of the body of the femur is a vertical ridge called the gluteal tuberosity. It blends into another vertical ridge called the linea aspera. The expanded distal end of the femur includes the medial condyle and the lateral condyle. These articulate with the medial and lateral condyles of the tibia. Superior to the condyles are the medial epicondyle and the lateral epicondyle, to which ligaments of the knee joint attach. A depressed area between the condyles on the posterior surface is called the intercondylar fossa.
45) Name and describe the locations of the seven bones of the tarsus (ankle). Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the foot Solution: There are two posterior bones: the calcaneus, an irregular bone, forms the heel; the talus, the most superior tarsal bone, articulates with the lateral malleolus of the fibula and the
medial malleolus of the tibia. There are five anterior bones: the cuboid, which is cube-shaped, is located anterior to the calcaneus; the navicular, which is boat shaped, is located anterior to the talus; the first, second, and third cuneiforms, which are wedge-shaped, are located anterior to the navicular.
Question type: Text entry
46) The greater tubercle of the humerus is separated from the lesser tubercle by the _____. Answer: intertubercular sulcus (groove) Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.4 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm—Humerus Solution: intertubercular sulcus (groove)
47) The knuckle joints are formed by articulations between the _____ and the _____. Answer: metacarpals, proximal phalanges Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.6 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand Solution: metacarpals, proximal phalanges
48) The projection at the proximal end of the ulna that forms the prominence of the elbow is the _____. Answer: olecranon Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius Solution: olecranon
49) The head of the radius articulates with the _____ notch of the ulna. Answer: radial Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius Solution: radial
50) The ulna and radius each bear a _____ process at their distal ends. Answer: styloid Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius Solution: styloid
51) The largest of the carpal bones is the _____. Answer: capitate Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.6 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand Solution: capitate
52) A large depression on the _____ surface of the ilium is called the iliac fossa. Answer: medial Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb.
Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle Solution: medial
53) The hip (coxal) bones unite anteriorly with each other to form a joint called the _____. They articulate posteriorly with the _____. Answer: pubic symphysis, sacrum Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle Solution: pubic symphysis, sacrum
54) The boundary between the false pelvis and the true pelvis is an oblique plane, the circumference of which is called the _____. Answer: pelvic brim Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Distinguish between the false and true pelves and explain their clinical importance. Section Reference 1: Sec8.3 False and True Pelves Solution: pelvic brim
55) The distal end of the fibula forms the _____ malleolus. Answer: lateral Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg—Tibia and Fibula
Solution: lateral
56) The fibular notch is located at the distal end of the _____. Answer: tibia Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg—Tibia and Fibula Solution: tibia
57) The _____ is the only bone of the foot to articulate with the tibia and the fibula. Answer: talus Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot Solution: talus
58) The total number of phalanges in the body is _____. Answer: 56 Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1.1 Identify the bones of the skeleton of the upper limb and explain their functions. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.6 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand. Study Objective 3: SO 8.2.1 Identify the bones of the skeleton of the lower limb. Learning Objective 4: 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Learning Objective 5: 8.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot.
Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand Section Reference 2: 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 3: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot Solution: 56
59) The bone illustrated is the _____.
Answer: clavicle Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the clavicle. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.A Pectoral Girdle—Clavicle Solution: clavicle
60) The bone illustrated is the _____.
Answer: scapula Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula Solution: scapula
Question type: Multiple Choice
61) Identify the navicular bone.
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2.1 Identify the bones of the skeleton of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot
62) Identify the medial malleolus.
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb
Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg—Tibia and Fibula
63) Identify the head of the radius.
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius
Question type: Text entry
64) This is the _____ of the _____.
Answer: coracoid process; scapula Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula Solution: coracoid process; scapula
Question type: Multiple Choice
65) Identify the ischial tuberosity.
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle
66) Which structure separates the true pelvis from the false pelvis?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.3 Distinguish between the false and true pelves and explain their clinical importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: 8.3 False and True Pelves
Question type: Essay
67) List the bones that make up the appendicular skeleton using the headings pectoral girdles, free part of the upper extremity, pelvic girdle, free part of the lower extremity. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 8.1.1 Identify the bones of the skeleton of the upper limb and explain their functions. Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.1 Identify the bones of the skeleton of the lower limb.
Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Solution: Pectoral girdle: 2 scapulae, 2 clavicles Free part of the upper extremity: humerus, ulna, radius, 8 carpal bones, 5 metacarpals, 14 phalanges Pelvic girdle: 2 hip (coxal) bones Free part of the lower extremity: femur, patella, tibia, fibula, 7 tarsal bones, 5 metatarsals, 14 phalanges
Question type: Multiple Choice
68) Which pectoral girdle does not articulate with the bones of the vertebrae? a) pectoral b) pelvic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.5 Explain the principal differences between the pectoral and pelvic girdles. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.5 Comparison of Pectoral and Pelvic Girdles
69) The pelvic girdle allows for a greater range of motion. The pectoral girdle offers more strength. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.5 Explain the principal differences between the pectoral and pelvic girdles. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.5 Comparison of Pectoral and Pelvic Girdles
Question type: True/False
70) The viscerocranium develops into the bones of the skull.
Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.7 Describe the development of the skeletal system. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Development of the Skeletal System
71) The upper limb buds develop before the lower limb buds. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.7 Describe the development of the skeletal system. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Development of the Skeletal System
Question type: Multiple Choice
72) Abnormal elevation of the medial longitudinal arch of the foot is a sign of which condition? a) clawfoot b) flatfoot Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot
73) The fibula is a common source for bone grafting because the fibula a) is not a weight bearing bone. b) has more nutrient arteries compare to other bones. c) can undergo interstitial growth throughout an individuals lifetime. d) undergoes intramembranous ossification. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg—Tibia and Fibula Question type: Multiple Choice
74) The linea aspera is located on the anterior side of the femur. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb. Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the legs and feet. Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.1 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella. Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh—Femur and Patella
75) The coronoid process of the ulna is medial to the head of the radius. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs. Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 09
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Which of the following pairs of terms is most closely associated or matched? a) atlanto-occipital, synchondrosis b) vertebrocostal, synarthrosis c) talocrural (ankle), diarthrosis d) sacroiliac, synarthrosis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments. Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications
2) If a joint is enclosed in a tough connective tissue capsule and if it contains a joint cavity, it is classified as a) synovial b) fibrous c) cartilaginous d) all of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments. Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications
3) Which type of joint has the most movement? a) synarthrosis
b) diarthrosis c) gomphosis d) syndesmosis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments. Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications
4) Fibrous connective tissue firmly holds the articular surfaces of bones together in a) fibrous joints b) cartilaginous joints c) synovial joints d) all of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments. Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications
5) A _____ is a type of joint in which two bones are held together by a disc of fibrocartilage. a) symphysis b) synchondrosis c) suture d) synovial joint Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.3 Describe the structure and functions of the two types of cartilaginous joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.3 Cartilaginous Joints
6) Epiphyseal plates of growing bones may be classified as a) cartilaginous joints b) synarthrotic joints c) synchondroses d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments. Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications
7) Which of the following statements about joint classification is true? a) All synchondroses are synarthrotic. b) All synovial joints are diarthrotic. c) All symphyses are amphiarthrotic. d) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments. Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications
8) The articular cartilage 1. consists of two layers: an outer layer of dense fibrous connective tissue and an inner layer of loose connective tissue. 2. firmly binds the articulating bones. 3. covers the surfaces of the articulating bones at a synovial joint. 4. helps absorb shock and reduces friction at a synovial joint. a) 1, 2, and 3 b) 2, 3, and 4 c) 3 and 4 only d) 1 and 2 only
Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints
9) Structures that are most responsible for holding bones together at a synovial joint are a) tendons b) articular cartilages c) synovial membranes d) ligaments Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints
10) Articular discs of synovial joints a) are pads of hyaline cartilage b) move freely within the joint cavity c) are found in the space between the ends of the bones d) are found in all synovial joints Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints
11) The surfaces of the bones at a gliding joint perform the movement(s) of a) side-to-side movement b) rotation c) flexion and extension
d) all of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints
12) Which of the following terms could describe a joint at which flexion and extension are the only movements? 1. pivot joint 2. hinge joint 3. monaxial joint 4. biaxial joint a) 1 and 3 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 4 d) 2 and 4 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints
13) The action that moves the palm of the hand into anatomical position is a) pronation b) supination c) inversion d) eversion Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints
14) The articular capsule of the hip joint is one of the strongest in the body. It consists partially of a) transverse humeral ligament
b) pubofemoral ligament c) glenoid labrum d) all of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.12 Describe the anatomical components of the hip joint and the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.D Hip Joint
15) The primary type of movement permitted at a pivot joint is a) rotation b) circumduction c) abduction and adduction d) all of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints.
16) Which of the following statements about aging and joints is false? a) Production of synovial fluid decreases. b) Ligaments shorten and become less flexible. c) Articular cartilage thickens. d) Osteoarthritis is evident in almost everyone over age 70. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.15 Explain the effects of aging on joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.9 Aging and Joints
17) Concerning diarthroses, one may speculate that as mobility increases, _____ decreases. a) the thickness of articular cartilage
b) the amount of synovial fluid c) range of motion (ROM) d) stability Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments. Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications
18) What structure(s) of the synovial joint absorb(s) shock from external forces that are placed on it? a) articular cartilage b) synovial fluid c) hyaline cartilage covering the articulating surface of bones d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints
19) Alternating the turning of the palm of the hand toward the ceiling and then turning it toward the floor is a movement of the forearm. This movement a) includes pronation b) includes supination c) occurs at the radiocarpal joint d) all except occurs at the radiocarpal joint Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints
20) A good description for a condyloid (ellipsoidal) joint is a) flat or slightly curved articulating surfaces b) one articulating surface is convex and fits into the other surface which is concave c) oval-shaped projection fits into an oval depression d) one bone articulates with another like a rider in a saddle e) the only synovial joint that allows triaxial movement Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Synovial Joints
21) A good description for a plane joint is a) flat or slightly curved articulating surfaces b) one articulating surface is convex and fits into the other surface which is concave c) oval-shaped projection fits into an oval depression d) one bone articulates with another like a rider in a saddle e) the only synovial joint that allows triaxial movement Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Synovial Joints
22) A good description for a ball-and-socket joint is a) a bone rotates around its long axis as it articulates within a ring of bone and ligament b) one articulating surface is convex and fits into the other surface which is concave c) oval-shaped projection fits into an oval depression d) one bone articulates with another like a rider in a saddle e) the only synovial joint that allows triaxial movement Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Synovial Joints
23) Which joint allows a gliding movement to occur?
a) between tarsal bones b) knee joint c) hip joint d) between atlas and dens of axis e) between trapezium and first metacarpal Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints
24) Which joint shows a hinge motion? a) between tarsal bones b) elbow joint c) hip joint d) between atlas and dens of axis e) between trapezium and first metacarpal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Synovial Joints
25) Which joint shows a pivot motion? a) between tarsal bones b) knee joint c) hip joint d) between atlas and dens of axis e) between trapezium and first metacarpal Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Synovial Joints
26) Which joint could be called a saddle joint?
a) wrist joint b) knee joint c) hip joint d) between atlas and dens of axis e) between trapezium and first metacarpal Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Synovial Joints
27) Which joint shows the motions called elevation and depression? a) temporomandibular b) knee c) intertarsal d) interphalangeal e) ankle (talocrural) Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints
28) Which joint shows the motions called inversion and eversion? a) temporomandibular b) knee c) intertarsal d) interphalangeal e) ankle (talocrural) Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints
29) Which joint is the most frequently injured of the major joints of the body? a) acromioclavicular
b) knee c) intertarsal d) interphalangeal e) ankle (talocrural) Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.14 Describe the anatomical components of the ankle joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.F Ankle Joint
30) Which joint shows the motion called rotation? a) acromioclavicular b) wrist c) intertarsal d) interphalangeal e) radioulnar Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints
31) Which feature goes with the elbow joint? a) medial and lateral menisci b) glenoid labrum c) radial collateral ligament d) zona orbicularis e) acetabular labrum Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.11 Describe the anatomical components of the elbow joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.
Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Sec Exhibit 9.C Elbow Joint
32) Which feature goes with the temporomandibular joint? a) sphenomandibular ligament b) glenoid labrum c) radial annular ligament d) zona orbicularis e) acetabular labrum Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.9 Describe the anatomical components of the temporomandibular joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.A Temporomandibular Joint
33) Which feature goes with the knee joint? a) medial and lateral menisci b) glenoid labrum c) radial annular ligament d) zona orbicularis e) acetabular labrum Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint
34) Which feature goes with the shoulder (humeroscapular) joint? a) sphenomandibular ligament
b) glenoid labrum c) radial annular ligament d) zona orbicularis e) acetabular labrum Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the shoulder joint and the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.B Shoulder Joint
35) Which feature goes with the hip (coxal) joint? a) medial and lateral menisci b) glenoid labrum c) radial annular ligament d) zona orbicularis e) arcuate popliteal ligament Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.12 Describe the anatomical components of the hip joint and the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.D Hip Joint 36) In an x-ray of a young person’s skeleton, what are easily seen as thin dark areas between the white-appearing bone tissue? a) synovial joints b) interosseous membranes c) sutures d) synchondroses Answer: d Difficulty: Hard
Study Objective 1: SO 9.3 Describe the structure and functions of the two types of cartilaginous joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.3 Cartilaginous Joints
37) An acute or chronic inflammation of a bursa, i.e bursitis can be caused by a) repeated, excessive exertion of a joint b) rheumatoid arthritis c) infection d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.2 Outline the structure and function of bursae and tendon sheaths. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints
Question type: True/False
38) The joint between two bodies of adjacent vertebrae is a synchondrosis. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.3 Describe the structure and functions of the two types of cartilaginous joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.3 Cartilaginous Joints
39) All symphyses occur in the midline of the body. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.3 Describe the structure and functions of the two types of cartilaginous joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.3 Cartilaginous Joints
40) The joints between the sternum and ribs 2–7 are syndesmoses.
Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints
41) Synovial fluid is a somewhat viscous liquid that contains hyaluronic acid and fluid formed from blood plasma. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints
42) The shoulder joint is an example of a triaxial joint. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Synovial Joints
43) Bursae are connective tissue sacs that are responsible for reducing friction during the movement of some joints. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.2 Outline the structure and function of bursae and tendon sheaths. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints
44) Interphalangeal joints are synovial joints at which flexion and extension occur. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.
Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements At Synovial Joints
45) Both joints of the clavicle, the acromioclavicular and the sternoclavicular, are synovial joints. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Synovial Joints
46) Abduction occurs when a bone moves toward the midline. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints
47) Bending the ankle so that the foot moves downward is the movement called plantar flexion. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints
48) A separated shoulder is an injury to the shoulder (glenohumeral joint). Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the shoulder joint and the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.B Shoulder Joint
49) Medial and lateral menisci are found in the joint cavity of the elbow. Answer: False
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint
Question type: Essay
50) Define the terms synarthrosis and diarthrosis and give an example of each. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments. Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications Solution: Synarthrosis: an immovable joint at which the neighboring bones are united by a solid mass of connective tissue (e.g., epiphyseal plate or skull sutures); Diarthrosis: a freely movable joint which contains a capsule that surrounds a synovial cavity (e.g., jaw, elbow, knee joints, etc.)
51) Describe the following features of a synovial joint and state the function of each: articular cartilage, fibrous membrane, synovial membrane, synovial fluid. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Solution: see Section 9.4 Synovial Joints; p. 265
52) Give the structural classification, list the possible movements, and name the articular surfaces of the bones for a) the shoulder joint, b) the metacarpophalangeal joints, c) the hip joint. Answer:
Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Solution: a ) The shoulder joint is between the head of the humerus and the glenoid cavity of the scapula, and is synovial/ball and socket (diarthrotic functionally). Movements are flexion, extension, hyperextension, abduction, adduction, medial and lateral rotation, and circumduction of the arm. b) The metacarpophalangeal joints are between the heads of the metacarpals and bases of the proximal phalanges, and are synovial/condyloid (diarthrotic functionally). Movements are flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and circumduction of fingers. c) The hip joint is between the head of the femur and the acetabulum of the coxal bone, and is synovial/ball and socket (diarthrotic functionally). Movements are flexion, extension, hyperextension, abduction, adduction, circumduction, and medial and lateral rotation of the thigh.
53) List and describe six factors that affect the range of motion possible at a joint. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 9.7 Describe six factors that influence the type of movement and range of motion possible at a synovial joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.7 Factors Affecting Contact and Range of Motion at Synovial Joints Solution: See p. 277
54) Explain the benefits of using ice in the treatment of sprains. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments. Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.2 Explain the importance of ligaments at joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications Solution: Applying ice slows blood flow to the area, reduces swelling, and relieves pain.
55) Outline the ACI (Autologous Chondrocyte Implantation) procedure, which is used as an alternative to total knee replacement for damaged cartilage. Answer:
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Solution: Healthy chondrocytes are taken from an area of the femoral condyle that is not weightbearing and cultured for 4-5 weeks to generate between 5-10 million cells. These cultured cells are then injected under the periosteum where they will grow.
Question type: Text entry
56) The general anatomical term for the regions of contact between bones is _____. Answer: articulations Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments. Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications Solution: articulations
57) In order to fully understand kinesiology (study of movement), one would be advised to study _____ (scientific study of joints) first. Answer: arthrology Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments. Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications Solution: arthrology
58) The distal tibiofibular joint, which allows some movement, is classified structurally as a _____. Answer: syndesmosis Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints Solution: syndesmosis
59) The name of the type of joint where a tooth fits into a socket is _____. Answer: gomphosis Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints Solution: gomphosis
60) Articular cartilage receives nutrients and oxygen from the _____. Answer: synovial fluid Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Solution: synovial fluid
61) A structure that consists of parallel bundles of collagen fibers and is part of the fibrous membrane of some synovial joints is called a/an _____. Answer: ligament Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint. Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Solution: ligament
62) The movement of the mandible in a forward direction parallel to the ground is called _____. Answer: protraction
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints Solution: protraction
63) The joint that allows rotation of the head is the _____ joint. Answer: atlanto-axial Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints Solution: atlanto-axial
64) The knee joint, the largest joint, is actually three joints: two tibiofemoral joints and one _____ joint. Answer: patellofemoral Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint Solution: patellofemoral
65) The _____ ligament limits hyperextension of the knee and prevents the anterior sliding of the tibia on the femur. Answer: anterior cruciate Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Sec Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint Solution: anterior cruciate
66) The goal of arthroplasty is to relieve pain and increase _____. Answer: range of motion Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.15 Explain the effects of aging on joints. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.9 Aging and Joints Solution: range of motion
Question type: Essay
67) Name the joint shown.
Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.12 Describe the anatomical components of the hip joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.D Hip Joint Solution: hip (or coxal) joint
Question type: Text entry
68) The line is pointing to the _____ ligament.
Answer: iliofemoral Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.12 Describe the anatomical components of the hip joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.D Hip Joint Solution: iliofemoral
69) The line is pointing to the _____ ligament.
Answer: anterior cruciate Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint Solution: anterior cruciate
70) The line is pointing to the _____.
Answer: medial meniscus Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint Solution: medial meniscus
71) Name the joint shown below.
Answer: shoulder joint Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the shoulder joint and the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.B Shoulder Joint Solution: shoulder joint
72) The line is pointing to the _____ ligament.
Answer: coracohumeral Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the shoulder joint and the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.B Shoulder Joint Solution: coracohumeral
73) The line is pointing to the _____ ligaments.
Answer: glenohumeral Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the shoulder joint and the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.B Shoulder Joint Solution: glenohumeral
Question type: Essay
74) Give the structural classification, list the possible movements, and name the articular surfaces of the bones for a) the shoulder joint, b) the metacarpophalangeal joints, c) the hip joint. Answer: Difficulty: Hard
Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the shoulder joint and the movements that can occur at this joint. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.B Shoulder Joint Solution: a ) The shoulder joint is between the head of the humerus and the glenoid cavity of the scapula, and is synovial/ball and socket (diarthrotic functionally). Movements are flexion, extension, hyperextension, abduction, adduction, medial and lateral rotation, and circumduction of the arm. b) The metacarpophalangeal joints are between the heads of the metacarpals and bases of the proximal phalanges, and are synovial/condyloid (diarthrotic functionally). Movements are flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and circumduction of fingers. c) The hip joint is between the head of the femur and the acetabulum of the coxal bone, and is synovial/ball and socket (diarthrotic functionally). Movements are flexion, extension, hyperextension, abduction, adduction, circumduction, and medial and lateral rotation of the thigh.
75) Give the structural classification, list the possible movements, and name the articular surfaces of the bones for a) the shoulder joint, b) the metacarpophalangeal joints, c) the hip joint. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements. Study Objective 2: SO 9.12 Describe the anatomical components of the hip joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.. Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.D Hip Joint Solution: a ) The shoulder joint is between the head of the humerus and the glenoid cavity of the scapula, and is synovial/ball and socket (diarthrotic functionally). Movements are flexion, extension, hyperextension, abduction, adduction, medial and lateral rotation, and circumduction of the arm. b) The metacarpophalangeal joints are between the heads of the metacarpals and bases of the proximal phalanges, and are synovial/condyloid (diarthrotic functionally). Movements are flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and circumduction of fingers. c) The hip joint is between the head of the femur and the acetabulum of the coxal bone, and is synovial/ball and socket (diarthrotic functionally). Movements are flexion, extension, hyperextension, abduction, adduction, circumduction, and medial and lateral rotation of the thigh.
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 10
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) The ability of muscular tissue to contract forcefully when stimulated is: a) elasticity. b) extensibility. c) stability. d) contractility. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the three types of muscular tissue with regard to function and special properties. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue
2) The ability of muscular tissue to be stretched without being damaged is: a) elasticity. b) extensibility. c) excitability. d) contractility. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the three types of muscular tissue with regard to function and special properties. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue
3) Which of the following is FALSE regarding skeletal muscle fibers (cells)? a) Each fiber is a single cell with a hundred or more nuclei. b) The cells are cylindrical and are arranged in parallel fashion. c) A skeletal muscle fiber may be up to 30 cm (12 in.) long. d) The myofibrils are arranged at right angles to the long axis of the cell, creating cross striations.
Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
4) Which of the following is TRUE of myosin? 1. It is located in the A band of the sarcomere. 2. It binds to tropomyosin during contraction. 3. It forms thick filaments. 4. The molecules are helix shaped. a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 3 only c) 1, 3 only d) 2, 4 only Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
5) In skeletal muscle, the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR): a) forms transverse (T) tubules. b) is similar to the Golgi complex. c) contains extracellular fluid. d) releases Ca2+ to trigger contraction. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
6) The close association of a transverse (T) tubule and two terminal cisterns forms a:
a) sarcomere b) triad c) fasciculus d) cross-bridge. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
7) During contraction in a skeletal muscle fiber: a) the thick filaments meet at the center of the sarcomere. b) the sarcomere length does not change. c) actin and myosin molecules contract, causing filaments to shorten. d) myosin cross-bridges (heads) move the thin filaments so that their ends meet or overlap in the center of the sarcomere. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
8) Place the following events in the correct order. 1. ACh is released into the synaptic cleft. 2. Synaptic vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane. 3. A muscle action potential is triggered. 4. An action potential arrives at the synaptic end bulb. 5. ACh binds to receptors on the motor end plate. a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3 b) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5 c) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 d) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3 Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
9) An increase (hypertrophy) or decrease (atrophy) in muscle size is due to: 1. increased or decreased numbers of muscle cells. 2. increased or decreased deposition of adipose tissue. 3. increased or decreased size of skeletal muscle fibers. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) both 1 and 3. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
10) The skeletal muscle fibers that fatigue most easily are: 1. red muscle fibers. 2. slow oxidative (type I) fibers. 3. fast glycolytic (type IIb) fibers. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) both 1 and 3. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Types of Skeletal Muscle Fibers
11) Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle differs in that it:
a) contracts for shorter periods of time. b) has a short refractory period. c) has a different arrangement of thick and thin filaments. d) has branching cells. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Cardiac Muscle Tissue
12) The two types of smooth muscle tissue are: a) visceral (single-unit) and parietal. b) red and white. c) visceral (single-unit) and multiunit. d) radial and circular. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.6 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.6 Smooth Muscle Tissue
13) As skeletal muscle ages, after age 30, which of the following does NOT occur? a) decrease in maximal strength b) decrease in the relative number of slow oxidative fibers c) replacement of muscle mass by fibrous connective tissue and adipose tissue d) slowing of muscle reflexes Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.8 Explain the effects of aging on skeletal muscle. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.8 Aging and Muscular Tissue
14) Neurotransmitter receptors are found where on the sarcolemma? a) transverse (T) tubules b) motor end plate
c) sarcoplasmic reticulum d) muscle filaments Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
15) Which is a correct statement? a) a muscle fiber (cell) contains myofibrils b) a myofibril contains thick and thin filaments c) thick and thin filaments are arranged into sarcomeres d) All of these choices are correct. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
16) The protein has direct contact with actin in a muscle in the resting state, while the _____ protein has direct contact with actin in a muscle in the contracting state. a) tropomyosin; myosin b) myosin; troponin c) titin; tropomyosin d) troponin; myomesin Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
17) One sarcomere contains all of the following EXCEPT:
a) the H zone b) myosin c) myofibrils d) the M line Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
Question type: True/False
18) During an isotonic contraction of a muscle, the muscle shortens while the tension in the muscle increases, as in straightening the legs when rising from a sitting position to a standing position. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.5 Distinguish between isotonic and isometric contractions. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
19) A somatic motor neuron is a nerve cell that stimulates a skeletal muscle fiber (cell) to contract. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
20) A bundle (fascicle) of skeletal muscle fibers (cells) is separated from neighboring bundles by perimysium.
Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
21) Epimysium surrounds skeletal muscle fibers (cells) within fascicles. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
22) A somatic motor neuron together with all the skeletal muscle fibers (cells) it stimulates is called a motor unit. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
23) The darker area in a sarcomere is called the I band. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
24) The contractile elements of skeletal muscle fibers (cells) are myofibrils. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
25) Cardiac muscle fibers (cells) contain more mitochondria than do skeletal muscle fibers (cells). Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Cardiac Muscle Tissue
26) Cardiac muscle tissue may be classified as either visceral (single-unit) or multiunit muscle tissue. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Cardiac Muscle Tissue
27) To a limited degree in mature skeletal muscle, new skeletal muscle fibers (cells) can arise from satellite cells. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
28) The specialized region of sarcolemma that is located at a neuromuscular junction is called the synaptic cleft. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
Question type: Essay
29) List four functions of muscle tissue and in one sentence for each function, elaborate on the function or give an example to illustrate the function. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the three types of muscular tissue with regard to function and special properties. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue Solution: 1. Producing body movements: movement of bones as in walking, raising your hand, etc. 2. Stabilizing body positions: stabilize joints and maintain body positions; e.g. postural muscles. 3. Storing and moving substances within the body: for example, smooth muscle sphincters control movement of substances through digestive and urinary tracts. 4. Heat production: heat is a by-product of skeletal muscle contraction.
30) List, categorize, and describe the proteins found in myofibrils. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Solution: See the section on structure of skeletal muscles (Table 10.2) for descriptions of actin and myosin (the contractile proteins), troponin and tropomyosin (the regulatory proteins), and titin, myomesin, nebulin, and dystrophin (the structural proteins).
31) Describe the four steps of the contraction cycle. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Solution: The answer should include the formation of cross-bridges, the roles of ATP and calcium, the role of troponin, and the movement of the actin filaments (See Figure 10.7).
32) Compare the microscopic anatomy and the resistance to fatigue of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Types of Skeletal Muscle fibers Solution: See Table 10.4.
Question type: True/False
33) Autorhythmicity is the ability to repeatedly generate spontaneous action potentials. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Cardiac Muscle Tissue
Question type: Multiple Choice
34) When examined microscopically, striations are visible in the _____ muscle tissues. a) cardiac and skeletal b) smooth and skeletal c) cardiac and smooth
d) skeletal ONLY Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the three types of muscular tissue with regard to function and special properties. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 3: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 4: SO 10.5 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue Section Reference 2: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Section Reference 3: Sec 10.5 Cardiac Muscle Tissue
35) _____ are large dense irregular connective tissue sheets that wrap around groups of skeletal muscles. a) Epimysium b) Perimysium c) Endomysium d) Fascia Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
36) The connective tissue that surrounds and separates individual skeletal muscle fibers (cells) is called _____. a) sarcolemma b) fascia c) endomysium d) epimysium Answer: c Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
Question type: True/False
37) The transverse (T) tubule is a specialized region of sarcolemma that is located at a neuromuscular junction. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 3: SO 10.2.4 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
38) The neurotransmitter released at a neuromuscular junction (in skeletal muscle) is dopamine. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
Question type: Multiple Choice
39) A small amount of tautness or tension in a skeletal muscle due to weak, involuntary contractions of its motor units is called _____. a) muscle tone b) an eccentric isotonic contraction c) a concentric isotonic contraction Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
40) Intercalated discs in cardiac muscle contain what type(s) of cell junctions? a) desmosomes and gap junctions. b) tight junctions only c) gap junctions and tight junctions d) hemidesmosomes Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Cardiac Muscle Tissue
41) _____ muscle fibers (cells) do NOT contain sarcomeres. a) Smooth b) Cardiac c) Skeletal d) Smooth and cardiac Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.6 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.6 Smooth Muscle Tissue
Question type: True/False
42) The muscle fibers that are oxidative and resistant to fatigue are the slow oxidative fibers. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Types of Skeletal Muscle Fibers
Question type: Multiple Choice
43) Match the connective tissue components of skeletal muscle with the tissues. Match endomysium with the correct tissue type. a) loose connective tissue (mostly reticular fibers) b) dense connective tissue Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
44) Match the connective tissue components of skeletal muscle with the tissues. Match epimysium with the correct tissue type. a) areolar connective tissue plus adipose tissue b) dense irregular connective tissue Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
45) Match the connective tissue components of skeletal muscle with the tissues. Match perimysium with the correct tissue type. a) areolar connective tissue plus adipose tissue b) dense irregular connective tissue
Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
46) Match the connective tissue components of skeletal muscle with the tissues. Identify the characteristics of skeletal muscle tissue. a) voluntary, striated b) involuntary, striated Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the three types of muscular tissue with regard to function and special properties. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscle Tissue
47) Match the connective tissue components of smooth muscle with the tissues. Identify the characteristics of smooth muscle tissue. a) voluntary, striated b) involuntary, nonstriated Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the three types of muscular tissue with regard to function and special properties. Study Objective 2: SO 10.6 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscle Tissue Section Reference 2: Sec 10.6 Smooth Muscle Tissue
48) Match the connective tissue components of smooth muscle with the tissues. Identify the characteristic of smooth muscle tissue. a) no transverse tubules b) no muscle tone
Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the three types of muscular tissue with regard to function and special properties. Study Objective 2: SO 10.6 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of smooth muscle tissue. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscle Tissue Section Reference 2: Sec 10.6 Smooth Muscle Tissue
49) Match the connective tissue components of skeletal muscle with the tissues. Identify the description of a synaptic vesicle. a) membrane-enclosed sac that stores neurotransmitter b) a small space that separates the cell membrane of a motor neuron from the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
50) Match the connective tissue components of skeletal muscle with the tissues. Identify the description of a motor end plate. a) region of sarcolemma at the neuromuscular junction b) portion of axon terminal membrane that releases acetylcholine into the cleft Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
51) Match the connective tissue components of skeletal muscle with the tissues. Identify the description that matches acetylcholine receptors.
a) integral transmembrane proteins of axon membrane; bind with acetylcholine b) integral transmembrane proteins of motor end plate; bind with acetylcholine Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
52) Match the connective tissue components of skeletal muscle with the tissues. Identify the description that matches slow oxidative fibers. a) largest in diameter b) smallest in diameter Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Types of Skeletal Muscle Fibers
53) Match the connective tissue components of skeletal muscle with the tissues. Identify the description that matches fast glycolytic fibers. a) adapted for intense movements of short duration, such as weight lifting b) adapted for maintaining posture and endurance-type activities Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Types of Skeletal Muscle Fibers
Question type: True/False
54) The structure that is labeled A is referred to as a ligament.
Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
Question type: Multiple Choice
55) The connective tissue covering this structure labeled B is the
a) sarcolemma b) endomysium c) perimysium d) epimysium Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
56) The connective tissue covering this structure labeled C is the
a) sarcolemma b) endomysium c) perimysium d) epimysium Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
57) Identify this organelle of the muscle fiber (cell) labeled A.
a) Golgi complex b) sarcoplasmic reticulum c) nucleus d) mitochondrion Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
58) Identify this organelle of the muscle fiber (cell) labeled B.
a) myofibril b) sarcoplasmic reticulum c) nucleus d) mitochondrion Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
59) Identify features of this muscle fiber (cell) structure labeled C.
a) invagination of the sarcolemma b) open to the outside of the cell c) muscle action potentials are able to propagate through d) All of the choices are features Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
Question type: True/False
60) This band labeled A will shorten during muscle contraction.
Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
61) This band labeled B will shorten during muscle contraction.
Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
62) This structure labeled C extends from M-line to M-line.
Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.
Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
Question type: Multiple Choice
63) The proteins found in the A band of a sarcomere is/are a) actin and myosin b) actin, myosin, titin, troponin, and tropomyosin c) myosin and titin d) tropomyosin and troponin Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
64) For contraction of a muscle to being, what event must occur at the sarcolemma? a) blockage of reuptake channels b) exocytosis of vesicles storing neurotransmitters c) intracellular calcium levels increase after potassium entry d) acetylcholine binding and opening of sodium channels Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber. Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.4 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue
Question type: True/False
65) Cardiac and smooth muscle tissues have autorhythmicity. Answer: True
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the three types of muscular tissue with regard to function and special properties. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue
Question type: Multiple Choice
66) Track and field athletes specializing in the 100 meter dash will train their bodies for explosive power when pushing off the starting blocks. Which type of muscle fiber is being isolated during strength training to generate this explosive power? a) slow oxidative fibers b) fast oxidative glycolytic fibers c) fast glycolytic fibers Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers. Study Objective 2: SO 10.4 Describe the effects of exercise on different types of skeletal muscle fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Types of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Section Reference 2: Sec 10.4 Exercise and Skeletal Muscle Tissue
67) After years of living a sedentary life, you start a couch-to-13.1K training regimen. This change in activity includes daily long distance runs. These distance runs are inducing changes in which muscle fiber types? a) slow oxidative fibers into fast oxidative glycolytic fibers b) fast oxidative glycolytic fibers into fast glycolytic fibers c) fast glycolytic fibers into fast oxidative glycolytic fibers d) fast glycolytic fibers into slow oxidative fibers Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.4 Describe the effects of exercise on different types of skeletal muscle fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Exercise and Skeletal Muscle Tissue
68) Body building increases the size and strength of which type of muscle fiber?
a) slow oxidative fibers b) fast oxidative glycolytic fibers c) fast glycolytic fibers Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.4 Describe the effects of exercise on different types of skeletal muscle fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Exercise and Skeletal Muscle Tissue
69) Strength training has a positive impact on the body by a) increasing bone strength. b) raising resting metabolic rate. c) reducing feelings of stress and fatigue. d) all of these answers are correct. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.4 Describe the effects of exercise on different types of skeletal muscle fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Exercise and Skeletal Muscle Tissue
Question type: True/False
70) Stretching before a workout is the best way to increase flexibility of muscles. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.4 Describe the effects of exercise on different types of skeletal muscle fibers. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Exercise and Skeletal Muscle Tissue
71) All muscles of the body are derived from ectoderm. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 10.7 Describe the development of muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.7 Development of Muscles
72) Somites give rise to the skeletal muscles of the thoracic and abdominal walls as well as the appendages. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.7 Describe the development of muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.7 Development of Muscles
73) Age associated muscle decline is irreversible. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.8 Explain the effects of aging on skeletal muscle. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.8 Aging and Muscular Tissue
Question type: Multiple Choice
74) Which type of muscle develops from the mesodermal cells that envelope the developing gastrointestinal tract, viscera, and blood vessels? a) cardiac muscle b) smooth muscle c) skeletal muscle Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 10.7 Describe the development of muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.7 Development of Muscles
75) Which group of muscles usually weaken first impacting the daily activities of individuals over 65? a) muscles of the abdomen b) muscles of the lower limb c) muscles of the thorax
d) muscles of the upper limb Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 10.8 Explain the effects of aging on skeletal muscle. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.8 Aging and Muscular Tissue
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 11
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Ordinarily, the insertion of a muscle: 1. in a limb is proximal to the origin. 2. does not move when the muscle contracts. 3. is the movable point of attachment of a muscle. 4. attaches a muscle to a bone or skin. a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 4 only c) 1, 3 only d) 3, 4 only Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.1 Describe the relationship between bones and skeletal muscles in producing body movements. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements
2) The strength of movement produced by a muscle depends upon how close to the joint it is attached. A muscle attached farther away will produce a more powerful movement than one attached nearer the joint. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) Statement 1 is true; statement 2 is false. d) Statement 2 is true; statement 1 is false. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.2 Define lever and fulcrum, and compare the three types of levers based on location of the fulcrum, effort, and load. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements
3) The deltoid muscle is named according to: a) orientation of muscle fascicles relative to the body’s midline. b) relative shape of the muscle. c) relative size of the muscle. d) location. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.2 Explain seven features used in naming skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.2 How Skeletal Muscles Are Named
4) Regarding characteristics used to name muscles, which of the following is incorrectly matched? a) rectus–parallel to midline b) platys–circular c) biceps–two origins d) brevis–short Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.2 Explain seven features used in naming skeletal muscles. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.2 How Skeletal Muscles Are Named
5) Which of the following is/are TRUE? 1. Synergists are muscles that oppose the agonist. 2. Agonists contract while the antagonists relax. 3. The biceps brachii and the triceps brachii are an antagonistic pair. a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3 only c) 1, 2 only d) 2 only Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.4 Explain how the prime mover, antagonist, synergist, and fixator in a muscle group work together to produce movements. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements
6) Which of the following pairs of terms is most closely matched? a) orbicularis oculi; shapes lips for speech b) corrugator supercilii; surprise c) platysma; pouting d) zygomaticus major; frown Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.4 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of facial expression. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.A Muscles of the Head That Produce Facial Expressions
7) The extrinsic muscles of the eyeball are innervated by: a) oculomotor (III) nerves. b) abducens (VI) nerves. c) trochlear (IV) nerves. d) all of these choices. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.5 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the eye muscles that move the eyeballs and upper eyelids. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.B Muscles of the Head That Move the Eyeballs and Upper Eyelids
8) Two muscles that insert on the angle and ramus of the mandible, and that elevate the mandible are: 1. masseter 2. medial pterygoid 3. lateral pterygoid 4. temporalis a) 1, 2 b) 2, 3 c) 3, 4 d) 1, 4 Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.6 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the mandible and assist in mastication and speech. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.C Muscles That Move the Mandible and Assist in Mastication and Speech
9) The diagastric, stylohyoid, mylohyoid, and geniohyoid muscles have which of the following in common? a) insertion on the body of the hyoid bone b) origin on the body of the hyoid bone c) depress the hyoid bone d) elevate the tongue Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.8 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the anterior neck that assist in deglutition and speech. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.E Muscles of the Anterior Neck That Assist in Deglutition and Speech
10) The _____ muscle extends from the sternum to the thyroid cartilage and acts to depress the larynx. a) sternothyroid b) sternohyoid c) omohyoid d) thyrohyoid Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.8 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the anterior neck that assist in deglutition and speech. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.E Muscles of the Anterior Neck That Assist in Deglutition and Speech
11) The following muscles all have attachments to ribs or their costal cartilages. Which of them are NOT used to produce the movements of normal breathing? 1. external intercostals 2. internal intercostals
3. external obliques 4. internal obliques 5. diaphragm a) 2, 3, 4 b) 3, 4 c) 1, 3, 5 d) 2, 4 Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 11.14 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that assist in breathing. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.K Muscles of the Thorax That Assist in Breathing
12) The central portion of the diaphragm is an aponeurosis that serves as the tendon of insertion for the diaphragm. The tendon is called: a) linea alba. b) central tendon. c) intermediate tendon. d) rectus sheath. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.14 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that assist in breathing. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.K Muscles of the Thorax That Assist in Breathing
13) Which of the muscles of the pelvic floor constricts the anus, urethra, and vagina? a) pubococcygeus b) iliococcygeus c) coccygeus d) both pubococcygeus and iliococcygeus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.15 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the pelvic floor that support the pelvic viscera and function as sphincters.
Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.L Muscles of the Pelvic Floor That Support the Pelvic Viscera and Function as Sphincters
14) The perineum consists of an anterior _____ triangle and a posterior _____ triangle. a) anal; urogenital b) urinary; genital c) urogenital; anal d) genital; urinary Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.16 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the perineum. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.M Muscles of the Perineum
15) The pectoralis minor muscle a) inserts on the greater tubercle of the humerus. b) inserts on the acromion of the scapula. c) may originate from ribs 3 to 5. d) originates from the clavicle and sternum. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.17 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the pectoral girdle. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.N Muscles of the Thorax That Move the Pectoral Girdle
16) Which of the following pairs of terms does not correctly match muscle with innervation? a) subclavius; subclavian nerve b) rhomboid major; dorsal scapular nerve c) serratus anterior; long thoracic nerve d) trapezius; median pectoral nerve Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 11.17 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the pectoral girdle.
Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.N Muscles of the Thorax That Move the Pectoral Girdle
17) The greater tubercle of the humerus is the point of insertion of which of the following muscles? a) infraspinatus b) deltoid c) subscapularis d) coracobrachialis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.18 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.O Muscles of the Thorax and Shoulder That Move the Humerus
18) Of the muscles that move the forearm, two have points of origin on the scapula. They are the biceps brachii and the: a) brachialis b) brachioradialis. c) triceps brachii d) anconeus. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.19 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the arm that move the radius and ulna. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.P Muscles of the Arm That Move the Radius and Ulna
19) Which muscle originates from the medial epicondyle of the humerus AND turns the forearm (pronates) so that the palm faces posteriorly? a) pronator quadratus b) pronator teres c) anconeus d) supinator Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 11.19 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the arm that move the radius and ulna. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.P Muscles of the Arm That Move the Radius and Ulna
20) Whereas superficial flexors in the anterior compartment of the forearm originate from the _____ epicondyle of the humerus, the superficial extensors in the posterior compartment of the forearm originate from the _____ epicondyle of the humerus. a) lateral; medial b) lateral; lateral c) medial; lateral d) medial; medial Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.20 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the forearm that move the wrist, hand, and digits. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.Q Muscles of the Forearm That Move the Wrist, Hand, and Digits
21) The extensor digitorum extends the phalanges. The extensor digiti minimi extends the distal phalanges only. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.20 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the forearm that move the wrist, hand, and digits. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.Q Muscles of the Forearm That Move the Wrist, Hand, and Digits
22) The erector spinae is a group of muscles of the back, including which three of the following groups? 1. iliocostalis 2. spinalis 3. segmental
4. longissimus 5. scalene a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 2, 4 c) 2, 3, 5 d) 1, 4, 5 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.12 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.I Muscles of the Neck and Back That Move the Vertebral Column
23) The psoas major and iliacus muscles have a common insertion on the femur. These two muscles are involved in _____ of the thigh. a) flexion b) extension c) adduction d) abduction Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.22 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the gluteal region that move the femur. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.S Muscles of the Gluteal Region That Move the Femur
24) Which of the following statements regarding the quadriceps femoris is correct? a) Rectus femoris originates from the anterior inferior iliac spine. b) Vastus lateralis inserts on the lateral condyle of the tibia. c) All four muscles flex the thigh. d) Vastus medialis originates from the lesser trochanter. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.23 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.T Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur, Tibia, and Fibula
25) The muscles of the posterior compartment of the thigh _____ the thigh and _____ the leg. a) flex, extend b) extend, flex c) adduct, flex d) abduct, extend Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.23 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.T Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur, Tibia, and Fibula
26) Muscles that insert via the calcaneal tendon do NOT include: a) plantaris b) gastrocnemius. c) tibialis posterior d) soleus. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.24 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the leg that move the foot and toes. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.U Muscles of the Leg That Move the Foot and Toes 27) Which two muscles provide a good example of an “antagonistic pair”? a) biceps brachii and brachialis b) semitendinosus and semimembranosus c) vastus medialis and vastus lateralis d) fibularis (peroneus) longus and tibialis anterior Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.24 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the leg that move the foot and toes. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.U Muscles of the Leg That Move the Foot and Toes
28) Which two muscles provide good examples for use of the term “synergists”? a) latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major b) flexor carpi ulnaris and extensor carpi ulnaris c) biceps femoris and semitendinosis d) gastrocnemius and tibialis anterior Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.23 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.T Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur, Tibia, and Fibula
Question type: True/False
29) Muscles with either parallel or fusiform arrangements of fasciculi tend to have longer fibers than pennate muscles. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.3 Identify the types of fascicle arrangements in a skeletal muscle, and relate the arrangements to strength of contraction and range of motion. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements
30) The range of movement at a joint depends upon the point of attachment of the muscle and the length of its fibers. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.3 Identify the types of fascicle arrangements in a skeletal muscle, and relate the arrangements to strength of contraction and range of motion. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements
31) Paralysis of the muscles of mastication may be an indication of damage to the trigeminal (V) cranial nerve.
Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.6 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the mandible and assist in mastication and speech. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.C Muscles That Move the Mandible and Assist in Mastication and Speech
32) The inferior constrictor, middle constrictor, and superior constrictor are muscles that move the wall of the pharynx, assisting with the movement of food and liquid into the esophagus. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.10 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the pharynx that assist in deglutition and speech. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.G Muscles of the Pharynx That Assist in Deglutition and Speech
33) The sternocleidomastoid muscle inserts on the occipital bone. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.11 Describe the origin, insertion action, and innervation of the muscles that move the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.H Muscles of the Neck That Move the Head
34) The rectus sheath and linea alba are formed by the aponeuroses of the external obliques, internal obliques, and transversus abdominis muscles. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.13 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that protect abdominal viscera and move the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.J Muscles of the Abdomen That Protect Abdominal Viscera and Move the Vertebral Column
35) The ischiocavernosus muscles maintain erection of the penis in the male and the clitoris in the female. Answer: True
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.16 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the perineum. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.M Muscles of the Perineum
36) The scalenes originate on the first and second ribs and insert on the third through sixth thoracic vertebrae. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.12 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.I Muscles of the Neck and Back That Move the Vertebral Column
37) Medial epicondylitis which is often times seen in pianists, violinists, golfers and those who use computers is a condition which affects mainly the extensor muscles of the forearm. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.21 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the palm that move the digits—the intrinsic muscles of the hand. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.R Muscles of the Palm That Move the Digits—Intrinsic Muscles of the Hand
38) Tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior muscles both invert the foot. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.24 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the leg that move the foot and toes. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.U Muscles of the Leg That Move the Foot and Toes
Question type: Essay
39) Using the terms prime mover, antagonist, synergist, and fixator, describe the various roles muscles may play in a group.
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.4 Explain how the prime mover, antagonist, synergist, and fixator in a muscle group work together to produce movements. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements Solution: Within opposing muscle pairs, one muscle, called the prime mover, contracts to cause an action while the other muscle, the antagonist, stretches and yields to the effects of the prime mover. For example, flexing the forearm at the elbow involves the biceps brachii as the prime mover and the triceps brachii as the antagonist. Synergists prevent unwanted movements at intermediate joints or otherwise aid the movement of the prime mover. For example, contraction of the wrist extensor muscles stabilizes the wrist joint and prevents unwanted movement, while the flexor muscles of the fingers contract to flex the fingers. Fixators stabilize the origin of the prime mover so the prime mover can act more efficiently. For example, in abduction of the arm, the deltoid muscle serves as the prime mover, and fixators include pectoralis minor, trapezius, subclavius, serratus anterior muscles, and others which hold the scapula in place.
40) List the muscles that act on the mandible to open the mouth and those that act on the mandible to close the mouth. Which set of muscles is more forceful? Why? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 11.6 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the mandible and assist in mastication and speech. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.C Muscles That Move the Mandible and Assist in Mastication and Speech Solution: Masseter, temporalis, and medial pterygoid close the mouth. Lateral pterygoid, digastric, mylohyoid, and geniohyoid open the mouth. Closing the mouth is more forceful. Masseter and temporalis are large, powerful muscles whose main action is to elevate the mandible. All muscles that act to depress the mandible have other primary actions. 41) Explain why an astronaut “must work hard to open their mouths” while in space but an elderly person asleep in a chair, for example, has their mouth open. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 11.6 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the mandible and assist in mastication and speech. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.C Muscles That Move the Mandible and Assist in Mastication and Speech
Solution: The force of gravity is at work on the sleeping elderly person to open the mouth as the masseter, temporalis and medial pteygoid muscles (which close the mouth) are relaxed. The astronaut, however, is in a zero gravity environment and without the assistance of gravity needs to make an additional effort to open the mouth.
42) Name three muscles that insert on the mastoid process. All three muscles move the head. Which one of these is antagonistic to the other two in the action of rotating the head? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.11 Describe the origin, insertion action, and innervation of the muscles that move the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.H Muscles of the Neck That Move the Head Solution: sternocleidomastoid, splenius capitis, longissimus capitis. The sternocleidomastoid is the antagonist. It rotates the face away from the contracting muscle, whereas the other two cause a rotation toward the same side as the contracting muscle.
43) Name and describe the location of each of the muscles of the three compartments of the thigh: anterior, medial, and posterior. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 11.23 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervations of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.T Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur, Tibia, and Fibula Solution: see Exhibit 11.T.
Question type: Text entry
44) To produce movement, a bone acts as a lever and the joint acts as the _____. Answer: fulcrum Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.2 Define lever and fulcrum, and compare the three types of levers based on location of the fulcrum, effort, and load. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements Solution: fulcrum
45) A circular muscle that encloses an orifice is a _____ muscle. Answer: sphincter Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.3 Identify the types of fascicle arrangements in a skeletal muscle, and relate the arrangements to strength of contraction and range of motion. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements Solution: sphincter
46) The aponeurosis (sheet-like tendon) that unites the frontal belly (frontalis) and occipital belly (occipitalis) muscles is called the _____. Answer: galea aponeurotica or epicranial aponeurosis Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.4 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of facial expression. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.A Muscles of the Head That Produce Facial Expressions Solution: galea aponeurotica or epicranial aponeurosis
47) All muscles of facial expression are innervated by the _____ cranial nerve. Answer: facial (VII) Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.4 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of facial expression. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.A Muscles of the Head That Produce Facial Expressions Solution: facial (VII)
48) The muscle that acts on your left eyeball to move it as you read this line is the _____. Answer: medial rectus Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.5 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the eye muscles that move the eyeballs and upper eyelids. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.B Muscles of the Head That Move the Eyeballs and Upper Eyelids Solution: medial rectus
49) The genioglossus muscle could be considered a socially unacceptable muscle, since its action is to _____ the tongue. Answer: protract (depress and thrust anteriorly) Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.7 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the tongue and assist in mastication and speech. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.D Muscles of the Head That Move the Tongue and Assist in Mastication and Speech Solution: protract (depress and thrust anteriorly)
50) The _____ muscle is a landmark that separates the anterior and posterior triangles of the neck. Answer: sternocleidomastoid Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.11 Describe the origin, insertion action, and innervation of the muscles that move the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.H Muscles of the Neck That Move the Head Solution: sternocleidomastoid
51) The _____ muscle of the larynx acts as a sphincter to control the size of the inlet of the larynx. Answer: oblique arytenoid Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 11.9 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the larynx that assist in speech. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.F Muscles of the Larynx That Assist in Speech Solution: oblique arytenoid
52) The fibers of the external oblique muscle are directed inferiorly and _____. Answer: medially Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.13 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that protect abdominal viscera and move the vertebral column.
Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.J Muscles of the Abdomen That Protect Abdominal Viscera and Move the Vertebral Column Solution: medially
53) Branches of the _____ nerve are involved in the innervation of all perineal muscles. Answer: pudendal Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 11.16 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the perineum. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.M Muscles of the Perineum Solution: pudendal
54) The rotator cuff muscles are _____, _____, _____, and _____. What vigorous movement of the shoulder most likely contributes to a rotator cuff injury? Answer: supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, teres minor, circumduction Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.18 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.O Muscles of the Thorax and Shoulder That Move the Humerus Solution: supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, teres minor, circumduction
55) Muscles that extend the forearm are located on the _____ surface of the _____. Answer: posterior, humerus Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.19 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the arm that move the radius and ulna. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.P Muscles of the Arm That Move the Radius and Ulna Solution: posterior, humerus
56) The flexor carpi _____ flexes and adducts the wrist. Answer: ulnaris Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.20 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the forearm that move the wrist, hand, and digits.
Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.Q Muscles of the Forearm That Move the Wrist, Hand, and Digits Solution: ulnaris
57) The three intrinsic muscles of the hand that produce thumb movements are, as a group, called _____ muscles. Answer: thenar Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.21 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the palm that move the digits—the intrinsic muscles of the hand. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.R Muscles of the Palm That Move the Digits—Intrinsic Muscles of the Hand Solution: thenar
58) The principal muscle used for extending the thigh, as in climbing stairs, is the _____. Answer: gluteus maximus Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.22 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the gluteal region that move the femur. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.S Muscles of the Gluteal Region That Move the Femur Solution: gluteus maximus
Question type: Multiple Choice
59) The muscle indicated by line G
a) depresses the scapula b) abducts the sapula c) inserts on the lateral border d) is innervated by the dorsal scapular nerve e) is the swimmer’s muscle Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.17 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the pectoral girdle. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.N Muscles of the Thorax That Move the Pectoral Girdle
Question type: True/False
60) The muscle indicated by line D can extend the spine.
Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.13 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that protect abdominal viscera and move the vertebral column. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.J Muscles of the Abdomen That Protect Abdominal Viscera and Move the Vertebral Column
Question type: Essay
61) What muscle is indicated by line B?
Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.19 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the arm that move the radius and ulna. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.P Muscles of the Arm That Move the Radius and Ulna Solution: Triceps brachii
Question type: Multiple Choice
62) The muscle indicated by line A is the
a) Psoas major b) Gracilis c) Obturator externus d) Iliacus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.22 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the gluteal region that move the femur. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.S Muscles of the Gluteal Region That Move the Femur
63) The muscle indicated by line B originates from the _____ and inserts on the _____.
a) ilium, femur b) ilium, tibia c) ischium, femur d) ischium, tibia Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.22 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the gluteal region that move the femur. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.S Muscles of the Gluteal Region That Move the Femur
Question type: Essay
64) What muscle is indicated by line B?
Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.23 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.T Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur, Tibia, and Fibula Solution: Vastus Medialis
65) What muscle is indicated by line B?
Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.23 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.T Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur, Tibia, and Fibula Solution: biceps femoris
66) What muscle is indicated by line D?
Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.23 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.T Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur, Tibia, and Fibula Solution: Semimembranosus
67) What muscle is indicated by line A?
Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.24 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the leg that move the foot and toes. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.U Muscles of the Leg That Move the Foot and Toes Solution: Soleus
Question type: Multiple Choice
68) What is the principal action of the muscle indicated by line B?
a) flexes great toe b) flexes thumb c) dorsiflexes foot d) flexes leg e) flexes toes Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.24 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the leg that move the foot and toes. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.U Muscles of the Leg That Move the Foot and Toes
69) What is the action of the rectus femoris? a) extends leg b) adducts toes
c) dorsiflexes foot d) flexes leg e) flexes toes Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.23 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.T Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur, Tibia, and Fibula
70) What is the action of the flexor digitorum brevis? a) extends leg b) adducts toes c) dorsiflexes foot d) abducts toes e) flexes toes Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.25 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the intrinsic muscles of the foot that move the toes. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.V Intrinsic Muscles of the Foot That Move the Toes
71) What is the action of the plantar interossei? a) extend leg b) adduct toes c) dorsiflex foot d) abduct toes e) flex toes Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 11.25 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the intrinsic muscles of the foot that move the toes. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.V Intrinsic Muscles of the Foot That Move the Toes
72) Which best describes the latissimus dorsi?
a) swimmer’s muscle b) trumpeter’s muscle c) most important breathing muscle d) boxer’s muscle e) “workhorse” of the elbow flexors Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.18 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the humerus. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.O Muscles of the Thorax and Shoulder That Move the Humerus
73) Which best describes the buccinator? a) swimmer’s muscle b) trumpeter’s muscle c) most important breathing muscle d) boxer’s muscle e) “workhorse” of the elbow flexors Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.4 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles of facial expression. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.A Muscles of the Head That Produce Facial Expressions
74) Which best describes the sartorius? a) swimmer’s muscle b) tailor’s muscle c) lateral hamstring d) boxer’s muscle e) “workhorse” of the elbow flexors Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.23 Describe the origin, insertion, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.T Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur, Tibia, and Fibula
Question type: True/False
75) The most common type of lever in the body is the first-class lever designated as EFL. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement. Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.2 Define lever and fulcrum, and compare the three types of levers based on location of the fulcrum, effort, and load. Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 12
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) The components of the cardiovascular system include: 1 interstitial fluid 2 blood vessels 3 heart 4 lymphatic vessels 5 blood a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 2, 3, 4, 5 only c) 2, 3, 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 5 only Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.1 Outline the functions of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.1 Functions of Blood
2) Blood functions to: 1 protect against its excessive loss after injury 2 play a role in pH regulation 3 protect against UV radiation damage 4 protect against disease 5 assist with regulation of body temperature a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 1, 3, 4, 5 only c) 1, 2, 4, 5 only d) 2, 4, 5 only Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.1 Outline the functions of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.1 Functions of Blood
3) Which of the following is NOT a physical characteristic of blood? a) pH range of 7.25 to 7.55 b) temperature of 38ºC (100.4 ºF) c) average volume of 5–6 liters (1.5gal) in a male d) about 8% of body weight Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 List the principal physical characteristics of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Physical Characteristics of Blood
4) Which of the following statements about factors involved in the formation of blood cells is FALSE? a) Cytokines called colony-stimulating factors and interleukins regulate the formation and activities of cells involved in nonspecific defense and immunity. b) Thrombopoietin produced in the kidney regulates the clotting activities of platelets. c) Erythropoietin and thrombopoietin may be referred to as both hormones and hemopoietic growth factors. d) All of these choices are TRUE. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells
5) Sites of hemopoiesis in the adult include all of the following EXCEPT: a) liver. b) sternum. c) head of humerus. d) head of femur. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells
6) The heme portion of hemoglobin contains iron that binds reversibly with oxygen. In addition to oxygen and carbon dioxide transport, hemoglobin functions in blood pressure regulation by ferrying nitric oxide throughout the body. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells
7) The life span of a red blood cell is approximately: a) 30 days (one month) b) 60 days (two months) c) 90 days (three months) d) 120 days (four months) Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells
8) Which of the following can occur as a result of fetal-maternal Rh incompatability in the fetal blood? a) agglutination b) hemolysis c) hemolytic disease (HDN) d) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells
9) Reduction of oxygen-carrying capacity is a condition referred to as a) leukemia b) polycythemia c) blood doping d) anemia Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells
10) Pernicious anemia and megaloblastic anemia are two conditions that result from inadequate absorption of a) iron b) vitamin C c) calcium d) vitamin B12 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells
11) Which of the following lead(s) to an increase in the rate of RBC production? a) hypoxia b) testosterone c) erythropoietin d) all of these choices
Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.2 Explain how red blood cells are produced. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells
12) A, B, and Rh(D) are examples of _____ found on the surface of red blood cells. 1 antibodies 2 antigens 3 plasma proteins a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) both 1 and 3 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.3 Describe the basis for the ABO and Rh grouping systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells
13) Which of the following is NOT considered a type of leukemia? a) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) b) Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) c) Sickle-cell disease (SCD) d) Chronic mylogenous leukemia (CML) Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells
14) Monocytes migrate into body tissues to become phagocytic cells called:
a) macrophages. b) fibroblasts. c) lymphocytes. d) polymorphs. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells
15) Neutrophils provide weapons against bacteria in the form of: a) lysozymes. b) defensins. c) strong oxidants. d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells
16) The white blood cells that typically increase in number in response to allergic conditions or parasitic infections are the _____. a) neutrophils b) eosinophils c) basophils d) monocytes Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells
17) Platelets: a) have a longer life span than red blood cells. b) develop from worn out red blood cells. c) are more numerous than red blood cells. d) promote blood clotting and blood vessel repair. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.7 Describe the structure, function, and origin of platelets. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Platelets
18) Levels of which granular leukocyte are increased immediately following a tissue injury? a) neutrophils b) erythrocytes c) thrombocytes d) monocytes Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells
19) Following a routine CBC (complete blood count), the hematocrit for Ms. Smith, a 46-year old female, is 32%. This would most likely be indicative of what condition? a) polycythemia b) anemia c) leukemia d) None, this value is within normal limits Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.2 Explain the importance of hematocrit. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood
Question type: True/False
20) A hematocrit of 54% or higher (upper limit of normal) is an indication of polycythemia. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.2 Explain the importance of hematocrit. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood
21) The temperature of blood is slightly less than normal body temperature. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 List the principal physical characteristics of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Physical Characteristics of Blood
22) Blood is heavier, thicker, and less viscous than water. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 List the principal physical characteristics of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Physical Characteristics of Blood
23) Stem cells, lymphocytes and progenitor cells are similar in appearance and cannot be distinguished from one another microscopically. Answer: True Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells
24) During fetal development, blood cells may arise from tissue in the thymus, spleen, liver, and red bone marrow.
Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells
25) Whereas the numbers of red blood cells and platelets normally remain steady, the numbers of white blood cells vary in response to immune challenges. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells
26) Most erythropoietin of the newborn is produced in the liver. Answer: True Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.2 Explain how red blood cells are produced. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells
27) Hemoglobin transports oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitric oxide. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells.. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells
28) The ABO blood grouping system is based on two antigens: AB and Rh. Answer: False
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.3 Describe the basis for the ABO and Rh grouping systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells
29) Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are agranulocytes. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells
30) T cells respond to foreign invaders by producing antibodies. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells
31) Only 2% of leukocytes are circulating in the blood at any one time; the rest are in lymph, lymphoid organs, skin, and lungs. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells
32) Neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils typically have nuclei with two or more lobes, and therefore are also called polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Answer: False
Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells
33) Megakaryocytes are cells that break into 2000–3000 platelets. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.7 Describe the structure, function, and origin of platelets. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Platelets
34) Increased mitochondria can be found in mature erythrocytes in order to produce more ATP required for gas transport to and from all cells of the body. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells.. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells
35) The ABO blood typing system is used to classify mature red blood cells based upon the different types of cholesterol found in the plasma membrane. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.3 Describe the basis for the ABO and Rh grouping systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells
36) In cases of sickle cell anemia, malformation of thrombocytes occur which produces abnormal clotting of the blood. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells
Question type: Essay
37) Describe the three main functions of blood. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.1 Outline the functions of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.1 Functions of Blood Solution: a) transportation of oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, wastes, heat, and hormones b) regulation of pH, body temperature, and water content of cells c) protection against blood loss and disease
38) List the components of blood plasma, stating a function of each, or giving a reason why each is found in the blood plasma. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.1 Describe the principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood Solution: Blood plasma is 91.5 % water, 7 % plasma proteins (albumin, globulins, and fibrinogen), and 1.5 % other solutes (electrolytes, nutrients, gases, regulatory substances, and waste products). Water acts as a solvent and suspending medium and absorbs, transports, and releases heat. Albumin contributes to colloid osmotic pressure, contributes to blood viscosity, transports hormones (steroid), fatty acids, and calcium, and helps regulate blood pH. Immunoglobulins help attack viruses and bacteria. Alpha and beta globulins transport iron, lipids, and fat-soluble vitamins. Fibrinogen plays an essential role in blood clotting. Electrolytes help maintain osmotic pressure and essential roles in cell functions. Nutrients play an essential role in cell functions, growth, and development. Gases are important in many cellular functions. Regulatory substances catalyze chemical reactions, regulate metabolism, growth, and development, and act as cofactors for enzymatic reactions. Waste products are breakdown products of protein metabolism that are carried by the blood to organs of excretion.
39) Describe the anatomical features of a mature red blood cell that suits it for its functions of gas transport. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells Solution: a) It has the shape of a biconcave disc which helps make the cell flexible, and the cytoplasm is all in close proximity to the cell surface. b) It lacks a nucleus and some organelles such as endoplasmic reticulum and thus has more space for gas transport. c) The cytosol contains hemoglobin (33% of cell weight). d) There are no mitochondria, and therefore the cell metabolizes anaerobically, and does not use up any of the carried oxygen.
40) Discuss the most significant danger experienced by athletes who engage in the illegal practice of blood doping. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.2 Explain how red blood cells are produced. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells Solution: This practice of increasing the number of RBCs raises the viscosity of the blood, which increases the resistance to blood flow and makes the blood more difficult for the heart to pump. Increased viscosity, therefore, contributes to high blood pressure and increased risk of stroke.
41) Discuss at least three common characteristics of the many types of anemia. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells Solution: 1) reduced RBCs/hematocrit; reduced hemoglobin 2) fatigue (lack of oxygen needed for ATP production) 3) cold intolerance (lack of oxygen needed for heat production) 4) skin appears pale (low content of red-colored hemoglobin)
42) Briefly describe the structure of a hemoglobin molecule and relate that to its functions. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells Solution: Each RBC contains about 280 million hemoglobin molecules; each hemoglobin molecule can carry up to four oxygen molecules. A hemoglobin molecule consists of a protein called globin, composed of four polypeptide chains (two alpha and two beta chains), plus four nonprotein pigments called hemes. One ringlike heme binds to each polypeptide chain. At the center of each heme ring is an iron ion (Fe2) that can combine reversibly with one oxygen molecule. The heme rings also have an affinity for nitric oxide. Hemoglobin also transports about 23 percent of the total carbon dioxide, a waste product of metabolism. Blood flowing through tissue capillaries picks up carbon dioxide, some of which combines with amino acids in the globin part of the hemoglobin molecule.
43) Describe the three chemicals that neutrophils contain and how these chemicals assist in defense against infection. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells Solution: Neutrophils are active in phagocytosis, responding most quickly to tissue destruction by bacteria. A neutrophil unleashes several destructive chemicals to destroy the ingested pathogen. These chemicals include the enzyme lysozyme, which destroys certain bacteria, and strong oxidants, such as hydrogen peroxide and the hypochlorite anion. Neutrophils also contain defensins, proteins that exhibit a broad range of antibiotic activity against bacteria and fungi. Within a neutrophil, granules containing defensins form peptide “spears” that poke holes in microbe membranes; the resulting loss of cellular contents kills the invader.
Question type: Test entry
44) The study of blood and blood-forming tissues is called _____. Answer: hematology
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.1 Outline the functions of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.1 Functions of Blood Solution: hematology
45) The molecules that are the most abundant and also the smallest of the plasma proteins are the _____. Answer: albumins Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.1 Describe the principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood Solution: albumins
46) The process of blood cell formation is called _____. Answer: hemopoiesis or hematopoiesis Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells Solution: hemopoiesis or hematopoiesis
47) Fixed macrophages in two organs, specifically the _____ and _____, remove worn out red blood cells and platelets from the bloodstream. Answer: spleen, liver Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells Solution: spleen, liver
48) Hypoxia stimulates the kidneys to produce a hormone called _____ that causes the rate of production of RBC to increase.
Answer: erythropoietin Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.2 Explain how red blood cells are produced. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells Solution: erythropoietin
49) B cells develop into _____ cells whose function is to produce _____ that help destroy bacteria and inactivate their toxins. Answer: plasma, antibodies Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells Solution: plasma, antibodies
50) The white blood cells that are the first to respond to tissue destruction caused by bacteria are the _____. Answer: neutrophils Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells Solution: neutrophils
51) A white blood cell count below normal is called _____. Answer: leukopenia Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.2 Define differential white blood cell count. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells Solution: leukopenia
52) _____ attack viruses, fungi, transplanted cells, cancer cells, and some bacteria. Answer: T cells Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells Solution: T cells.
53) Several different chemicals released by microbes and inflamed tissues attract phagocytes, a phenomenon called _____. Answer: chemotaxis Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells Solution: chemotaxis
54) _____ stem cells: give rise to erythrocytes, platelets, granular leukocytes, and monocytes. Answer: Myeloid Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells Solution: Myeloid
55) Some _____ cells are referred to as colony-forming units (CFUs). Answer: Progenitor Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells Solution: Progenitor
56) _____ stem cells give rise to lymphocytes. Answer: lymphoid Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells Solution: lymphoid
57) _____ stem cells give rise to all formed elements of blood. Answer: Pluripotent Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells Solution: Pluripotent
Question type: True/False
58) Albumins, the smallest plasma proteins, are important in maintaining osmotic pressure. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.1 Describe the principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood
59) Amino acids are the end product of carbohydrate digestion, carried by plasma to body cells. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.1 Describe the principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood
60) A monocyte is a disc-shaped cell that contains no nucleus. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells
61) Destruction of red bone marrow by toxins, gamma radiation, etc., results in a condition termed Thalassemia. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping. Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells
62) An eosinophil has large granules in the cytoplasm that stain red-orange with acidic dyes and typically contains a two or three lobed nucleus. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells
63) A basophil contains a multilobed nucleus and fine lilac granules in cytoplasm when stained with basic dyes. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells
Question type: Multiple Choice
64) Which disorder is characterized by slightly bluish/dark-purple skin discoloration, most easily seen in the nail beds and mucous membranes, due to an increased quantity of methemoglobin, hemoglobin not combined with oxygen in systemic blood. a) Embolus b) Jaundice c) Septicemia d) Cyanosis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.8 Explain the importance of bone marrow transplants and stem cell transplants. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.8 Stem Cell Transplants from Bone Marrow and Cord-Blood
Question type: Essay
65) What percentage of a centrifuged sample of whole blood is occupied by plasma?
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.1 Describe the principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood
Solution: 55%
66) What percentage of a centrifuged sample of whole blood is occupied by red blood cells?
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.1 Describe the principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood Solution: 45%
Question type: Multiple Choice
67) Which cell is involved in the condition known as Polycythemia?
a) A b) B c) C d) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.2 Explain the importance of hematocrit. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood
68) Which cell type is involved in the condition known as Leukemia?
a) A b) B c) C d) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells
69) Which cell type is involved in the condition known as Thrombocytopenia?
a) A b) B c) C d) None of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.7 Describe the structure, function, and origin of platelets. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Platelets
70) Red blood cells and white blood cells are directly involved in which two functions of blood? a) Protection and regulation b) Regulation and transportation c) Transportation and protection Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.1 Outline the functions of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.1 Functions of Blood
71) What is the major function of plasma fibrinogen? a) Carrying oxygen and carbon dioxide b) Regulating blood clotting c) Regulating osmotic pressure
d) Storing energy as ATP Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.1 Describe the principal components of blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood
72) Your patient has chronically low B lymphocyte and T lymphocyte levels but sufficient erythrocyte and platelet levels. Which cell is most likely developing incorrectly? a) Lymphoid stem cell b) Myeloid stem cell c) T lymphoblast cells d) Pluripotent stem cell Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells
73) Which of these terms do not below with the others? a) eosinophil b) basophil c) monocyte d) neutrophil Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells. Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells
74) Which type of stem cell transplant is less likely to cause graft-versus-host-disease? a) bone marrow transplant b) cord-blood transplant
Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.8 Explain the importance of bone marrow transplants and stem cell transplants. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.8 Stem Cell Transplants from Bone Marrow and Cord-Blood
Question type: True/False
75) If the total volume of blood in a test tube was 10 mL and the volume of red blood cells was 3 mL, the hematocrit value is 3%. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit. Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.2 Explain the importance of hematocrit. Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 13
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Desmosomes and gap junctions are found in: a) endocardium. b) chordae tendineae. c) epicardium. d) intercalated discs. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Identify the layers of the heart wall. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart
2) The _____ forms an external boundary between the superior atria and inferior ventricles. a) fossa ovalis b) foramen ovale c) coronary sulcus d) interventricular sulcus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart
3) Which of the following vessels deliver blood to the right atrium? 1 superior vena cava 2 inferior vena cava 3 pulmonary veins
4 coronary sinus 5 pulmonary arteries a) 1, 2, 3, 4 only b) 1, 4, 5 only c) 1, 2, 4 only d) 2, 3 only Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart
4) What is the term for the severe pain that usually accompanies a heart attack? a) myocardial ischemia b) myocardial infarction c) angina pectoris d) hypoxia Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
5) Regarding a myocardial infarction (MI), heart tissue distal to an arterial obstruction dies and is replaced by _____. a) contractile cardiac muscle tissue b) noncontractile scar tissue c) adipose tissue d) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
6) Which of the following vessels carries blood away from the heart? a) coronary sinus b) pulmonary vein c) inferior vena cava d) pulmonary artery Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
7) There are four valves in the heart: 1 bicuspid (mitral) 2 tricuspid 3 pulmonary semilunar 4 aortic semilunar What is the correct order in which blood flows through these valves, starting in the right atrium? a) 1, 4, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2, 4 c) 2, 3, 1, 4 d) 2, 4, 1, 3 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
8) The atrio-ventricular (AV) valve in the left side of the heart is known as the:
a) bicuspid (mitral) b) pulmonary semilunar. c) tricuspid. d) aortic semilunar. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart
9) Which of the following pairs of terms is/are correctly matched? a) bicuspid valve; oxygenated blood b) tricuspid valve; deoxygenated blood c) pulmonary semilunar valve; deoxygenated blood d) All of these pairs are correctly matched Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
10) Which of the following are branches of the left coronary artery? 1 marginal branch 2 circumflex branch 3 anterior interventricular branch 4 posterior interventricular branch a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 4 c) 1, 3 only d) 2, 3 only Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
11) Which vessel does NOT supply blood to the wall of the right ventricle? a) anterior interventricular branch b) posterior interventricular branch c) marginal branch d) circumflex branch Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
12) A vascular sinus, such as the coronary sinus, is best described as: a) a thin-walled vein that has no smooth muscle to alter its diameter. b) a thin-walled artery that has no smooth muscle to alter its diameter. c) a connection between blood vessels that allows for multiple routes of blood flow. d) a blood-filled connective tissue. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood 13) Which condition of the heart is most likely to contribute to “scar formation"? a) mitral stenosis (= a narrowing) b) tricuspid stenosis c) patent (open) ductus arteriosus d) increased number of trabeculae carnae
Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.6 List the structure and function of each valve of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart
14) The vascular sinus in the coronary sulcus on the posterior surface of the heart, called the _____, empties into the right atrium. a) right coronary artery. b) anterior interventricular artery. c) middle cardiac vein. d) coronary sinus. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
15) Which of the following is an example of an arrhythmia? a) bradycardia b) tachycardia c) fibrillation d) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe structure and function of the cardiac conduction system, the electrocardiogram as a diagnostic tool and the innervation of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.4.2 Define an electrocardiogram and indicate its diagnostic importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Cardiac Conduction System and Innervation
16) The spread of depolarization from the sinoatrial (SA) node through the two atria is recorded on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as the
a) QRS wave b) U wave c) P wave d) T wave Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe structure and function of the cardiac conduction system, the electrocardiogram as a diagnostic tool and the innervation of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.4.2 Define an electrocardiogram and indicate its diagnostic importance. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Cardiac Conduction System and Innervation
17) When auscultating heart sounds, S2 is caused by blood turbulence associated with closure of the _____ valves at the beginning of ventricular _____. a) AV; diastole b) Semilunar; systole c) AV; systole d) Semilunar; diastole Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.6 Describe how heart sounds are produced. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.6 Heart Sounds
18) When auscultating heart sounds, S1 is caused by blood turbulence associated with closure of the _____ valves soon after ventricular _____ begins. a) AV; diastole b) Semilunar; systole c) AV; systole d) Semilunar; diastole Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.6 Describe how heart sounds are produced. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.6 Heart Sounds
Question type: True/False
19) Chronic pericarditis can lead to a buildup of pericardial fluid which results in a lifethreatening condition known as cardiac tamponade. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.1 Describe the structure of the pericardium. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart
20) Partial obstruction of blood flow in the coronary arteries may cause myocardial infarction. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulation Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
21) Pericardial fluid is located in a space external (superficial) to the visceral pericardium. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.1 Describe the structure of the pericardium. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart
22) The pericardium is composed of elastic connective tissue, to allow for change in volume of the heart. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.1 Describe the structure of the pericardium. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart
23) Desmosomes function to hold cardiac muscle fibers (cells) firmly together. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Identify the layers of the heart wall. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart
24) The fossa ovalis is a thin spot or depression in the interatrial septum. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart
25) The coronary sinus carries oxygenated blood. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
26) The pulmonary veins carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
27) The coronary arteries carry oxygenated blood to the myocardium. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
28) The tricuspid valve is located at the right atrioventricular opening. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart
29) Chordae tendineae assist the cusps of the semilunar valves in preventing backflow of blood. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.6 List the structure and function of each valve of the heart Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart
30) A heart murmur is not always an indication of a serious health problem. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.6 Describe how heart sounds are produced. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.6 Heart Sounds
31) Anastomoses are only found in the heart, and are connections between arteries.
Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
32) The middle cardiac vein in the posterior interventricular sulcus drains the areas supplied by the posterior interventricular branch of the right coronary artery (left and right ventricles). Answer: True Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
33) The heart cannot contract without signals from the autonomic nervous system. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe structure and function of the cardiac conduction system, the electrocardiogram as a diagnostic tool and the innervation of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.4.3 Describe the innervation of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Cardiac Conduction System and Innervation
34) Impulses from the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) speed up heart rate while impulses from the parasympathetic division of the ANS slow down heart rate. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe structure and function of the cardiac conduction system, the electrocardiogram as a diagnostic tool and the innervation of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.4.3 Describe the innervation of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Cardiac Conduction System and Innervation
35) On day 21 following fertilization, the paired endocardial tubes unite to form the primitive heart tube. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.8 Describe the development of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.8 Development of the Heart
36) The heart is the first organ to function in an embryo, beginning to pump blood on day 22 following fertilization. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.8 Describe the development of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.8 Development of the Heart
37) Heart murmurs in children are rare and usually are considered life-threatening. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.6 Describe how heart sounds are produced. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.6 Heart Sounds
38) Most often a heart murmur in an adult indicates a valve disorder. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.6 Describe how heart sounds are produced. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.6 Heart Sounds
Question type: Essay
39) Surface projection refers to outlining the shape and location of an organ using landmarks on the surface of the organ body. Describe the surface projection of the heart. Answer:
Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomical location of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.2 Trace the outline of the heart on the surface of the chest Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Location and Surface Projection of the Heart Solution: See Figure 13.1d. 1. superior right point: 3 cm to the right of the midline, at the superior border of the third right costal cartilage 2. superior left point: 3 cm to the left of the midline, at the inferior border of the second left costal cartilage (A line connecting these two points corresponds to the base of the heart.) 3. inferior left point: 9 cm to the left of the midline, in the fifth left intercostal space. This corresponds to the apex of the heart. (A line connecting the superior and inferior left points corresponds to the left border of the heart.) 4. inferior right point: 3 cm to the right of the midline, at the superior border of the sixth right costal cartilage (A line connecting the inferior left and right points corresponds to the inferior surface of the heart. A line connecting the inferior and superior right points corresponds to the right border of the heart.)
40) Discuss the most compelling reason for people to learn CPR. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomical location of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.2 Trace the outline of the heart on the surface of the chest. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Location and Surface Projection of the Heart Solution: CPR saves lives. It keeps oxygenated blood circulating until the heart can be restarted.
41) Trace the path of a drop of blood from the time it enters the heart via the superior vena cava until it is in the arch of the aorta. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood Solution: The route described should contain, in order, the following: SVC, right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, pulmonary artery, (capillaries in) lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium, left ventricle, ascending aorta, arch of aorta.
42) State three functions and four components of the fibrous skeleton of the heart.
Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.5 Describe the functions of the fibrous skeleton of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart Solution: The functions are valve and muscle attachment, prevention of overstretching of the valves, and electrical insulation between the atria and ventricles. The four components are: 1. the four fibrous rings (right atrioventricular, left atrioventricular, pulmonary, and aortic) 2. right fibrous trigone 3. left fibrous trigone 4. conus tendon
43) Compare and contrast a skeletal muscle cell and a cardiac muscle cell. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Identify the layers of the heart wall. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart Solution: Skeletal muscle cells are long and non-branching, striated, and have many nuclei. Cardiac muscle cells are branched, striated, typically one nucleus per cell, with intercalated discs that join cells together. Skeletal muscle is voluntarily controlled whereas cardiac muscle is involuntarily controlled.
44) Describe the location and the function of each portion of the conduction system during one cardiac cycle (one complete heart contraction). Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe structure and function of the cardiac conduction system, the electrocardiogram as a diagnostic tool and the innervation of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.4.1 Explain the structural and functional features of the cardiac conduction system. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Cardiac Conduction System and Innervation Solution: See Figure 13.9a and the text description of the spread of excitation.
45) List three changes in the cardiovascular system that increase the rate of oxygen delivery to the muscles after several weeks of training.
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the heart is affected by exercise. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Exercise and The Heart Solution: 1) increased maximal cardiac output 2) increased hemoglobin levels 3) development of more capillary networks in skeletal muscle
Question type: Text entry
46) The pointed end of the heart, the _____, is formed by the tip of the left ventricle and rests on the diaphragm. It is directed anteriorly, inferiorly, and to the left. Answer: apex Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomical location of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the location of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Location and Surface Projection of the Heart Solution: apex
47) The study of the heart and heart disease is called _____. Answer: cardiology Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomical location of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the location of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Location and Surface Projection of the Heart Solution: cardiology
48) The pericardial cavity is found between the epicardium and the _____ layer of the serous pericardium. Answer: parietal Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.1 Describe the structure of the pericardium. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart
Solution: parietal
49) Each atrium has a/an _____ that functions to increase the effective volume of the atrium. Answer: auricle Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart Solution: auricle
50) The anterior and posterior interventricular sulci are external features that mark the location of the _____ inside the heart. Answer: interventricular septum Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart Solution: interventricular septum
51) Atrioventricular (AV) valve cusps are connected by strong cords called _____ to _____ muscles on the walls of the ventricles. Answer: chordae tendineae, papillary Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.6 List the structure and function of each valve of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart Solution: chordae tendineae, papillary
52) The _____ branch of the left coronary artery is located in the coronary sulcus. Answer: circumflex
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood Solution: circumflex
53) The _____ in the anterior interventricular sulcus drains the areas of the heart supplied by the left coronary artery (left and right ventricles and left atrium). Answer: great cardiac vein Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood Solution: great cardiac vein
54) The cells that make up the conduction system of the heart are specialized _____ cells. Answer: cardiac muscle Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe structure and function of the cardiac conduction system, the electrocardiogram as a diagnostic tool and the innervation of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.4.1 Explain the structural and functional features of the cardiac conduction system. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Cardiac Conduction System and Innervation Solution: cardiac muscle
Question type: Multiple Choice
55) Match the component of the conduction system of the heart with the description. Epicardium: a) continuous with the lining of the blood vessels attached to the heart b) composed of mesothelium and connective tissue Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Identify the layers of the heart wall. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart
56) Match the component of the conduction system of the heart with the description. Myocardium: a) thickest layer, muscular b) found only in walls of ventricles Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Identify the layers of the heart wall. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart
57) Match the component of the conduction system of the heart with the description. Endocardium: a) continuous with the lining of the blood vessels attached to the heart b) layer next to pericardial cavity Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Identify the layers of the heart wall. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart
58) Match the component of the conduction system of the heart with the description. Sinoatrial (SA) node:
a) sends wave of depolarization throughout atria b) located in the interatrial septum Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe structure and function of the cardiac conduction system, the electrocardiogram as a diagnostic tool and the innervation of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.4.1 Explain the structural and functional features of the cardiac conduction system. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Cardiac Conduction System and Innervation
59) Match the component of the conduction system of the heart with the description. Atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His):
a) carry depolarization wave toward apex of heart b) the electrical connection between the atria and the ventricles Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe structure and function of the cardiac conduction system, the electrocardiogram as a diagnostic tool and the innervation of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.4.1 Explain the structural and functional features of the cardiac conduction system. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Cardiac Conduction System and Innervation
60) Match the vessel with the description. Pulmonary trunk:
a) carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart b) carries deoxygenated blood toward the heart Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
61) Match the vessel with the description. Aorta:
a) carries oxygenated blood away from the heart b) carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
62) Match the vessel with the description. Pulmonary vein: a) carries oxygenated blood toward the heart b) carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
63) Match the vessel with the description. Pulmonary vein: a) enters right atrium b) enters left atrium Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
64) Match the ventricle of the heart in with the description. Right ventricle: a) receives oxygenated blood b) receives deoxygenated blood Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart, the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations. Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood
65) Match the ventricle of the heart with the description. Left ventricle: a) thicker myocardium b) pumps a smaller volume of blood
Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.4 Relate the thickness of the chambers of the heart to their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart
66) Match the ventricle of the heart in with the description. Right ventricle a) pumps blood through the tricuspid valve b) pumps blood to the lungs Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.4 Relate the thickness of the chambers of the heart to their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart
67) In a normal cardiac cycle, the contraction phase of a heart chamber is termed a) diastole b) systole Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.5 Describe the phases associated with a cardiac cycle. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.5 Cardiac Cycle (Heartbeat)
68) During the relaxation period of the cardiac cycle, pressure in the ventricular chambers drop. This change in pressure causes blood to flow from the a) ventricles towards the aorta and pulmonary trunk. b) ventricles towards the atria. c) pulmonary trunk and aorta towards the ventricles. d) atria towards the vena cava Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.5 Describe the phases associated with a cardiac cycle. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.5 Cardiac Cycle (Heartbeat)
69) Most of the ventricular filling occurs during which phase of the cardiac cycle? a) atrial systole b) relaxation period c) ventricular systole Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.5 Describe the phases associated with a cardiac cycle. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.5 Cardiac Cycle (Heartbeat)
70) During which phase of the cardiac cycle are the AV valves closed? a) atrial systole b) relaxation period c) ventricular systole Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.5 Describe the phases associated with a cardiac cycle. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.5 Cardiac Cycle (Heartbeat)
71) Regular exercise can lead to a reduction in all of the following EXCEPT: a) blood pressure. b) anxiety. c) depression. d) cardiac output. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.5 Describe the phases associated with a cardiac cycle. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.5 Cardiac Cycle (Heartbeat)
72) Because of differential growth of cells tube and confines of the pericardium, loops and folds form in which two regions in the primitive heart? a) sinus venosus and primitive atrium b) primitive atrium and primitive ventricle c) primitive ventricle and bulbus cordis d) bulbus cordis and truncus arteriosus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.8 Describe the development of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.8 Development of the Heart
73) Which structure in the developing heart forms from the primitive atrium? a) anterior wall of the right atrium b) anterior wall of the left atrium c) left auricle d) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.8 Describe the development of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.8 Development of the Heart
74) Which type of cholesterol molecule removes excess cholesterol from body cells and transports it to the liver? a) low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) b) high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the heart is affected by exercise. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Exercise and The Heart
75) The inferior surface of the heart can be described as all of the following EXCEPT: a) resting on the diaphragm. b) medial to the apex.
c) left of midline d) facing the right lung Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomical location of the heart. Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the location of the heart. Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Location and Surface Projection of the Heart Solution: cardiology
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 14
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Epithelial tissue forms part of which layer(s) of an artery wall? 1. tunica interna (intima) 2. tunica media 3. tunica externa a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1 only c) 1, 3 only d) 1, 2 only Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Describe the basic structure of a blood vessel. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
2) Elastic arteries: a) are medium-sized arteries. b) restrict blood flow due to the force needed to stretch their walls. c) are also called distributing arteries. d) include the largest diameter arteries in the body. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.4 Distinguish between muscular and distributing arteries. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
3) The layer(s) of an artery wall that is/are responsible for vasoconstriction and vasodilation is/are the: a) tunica externa. b) tunica interna (intima).
c) tunica media. d) all of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Describe the basic structure of a blood vessel. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
4) The thinnest-walled blood vessels in the body are: a) capillaries. b) veins. c) venules. d) arterioles. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
5) Abundant capillary networks are located in the: a) epidermis of the skin. b) lens of the eye. c) tendons. d) liver. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.3 Compare the functions of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
6) Blood flows through the following vessels in what order? 1. arteriole 2. capillary
3. thoroughfare channel 4. metarteriole 5. venule a) 1, 2, 4, 5 b) 1, 4, 2, 5 c) 5, 2, 3, 1 d) 1, 2, 3, 4 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.3 Compare the functions of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
7) Materials move between capillary blood and interstitial fluid through: a) fenestrations. b) intercellular clefts. c) pinocytic vesicles. d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
8) A difference between veins and arteries is: a) arteries have three layers (tunics); veins have only two layers (tunics). b) venous blood is under more pressure than is arterial blood. c) arteries have their own blood supply (vasa vasorum); veins do not. d) the tunica interna (intima) and tunica media are thinner in veins than in arteries. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.
Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
9) The _____ contain(s) the largest volume of blood when the body is at rest. a) arteries and arterioles b) veins and venules c) heart d) systemic capillaries Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.3 Compare the functions of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
10) Which of the following statements about sinusoids is TRUE? a) Their walls have large intercellular clefts that allow proteins and blood cells to pass between tissue and the bloodstream. b) Sinusoids are found in the liver, spleen and red bone marrow. c) Sinusoids function as capillaries, but are wider and more winding than other capillaries. d) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.5 Describe the types of capillaries and their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
11) Blood in systemic circulation travels from the _____, then through arteries, capillaries, and veins, to the _____. a) left ventricle, right atrium b) left atrium, right ventricle c) left atrium, right atrium d) right ventricle, left atrium Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the importance and function of the systemic, pulmonary and hepatic portal circulation and the changes in the fetal circulatory structures after birth. Study Objective 2: SO 14.2.1 Define systemic circulation and explain its function. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Circulatory Routes
12) Blood in pulmonary circulation travels from the _____, then through arteries, capillaries, and veins, to the _____. a) left ventricle, right atrium b) left atrium, right ventricle c) left atrium, right atrium d) right ventricle, left atrium Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the importance and function of the systemic, pulmonary and hepatic portal circulation and the changes in the fetal circulatory structures after birth. Study Objective 2: SO 14.2.3 Explain why pulmonary circulation is important. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Circulatory Routes
13) The branches of the arch of the aorta, in correct order, are: 1. brachiocephalic trunk 2. left common carotid 3. left subclavian a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 3, 2, 1 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the arch of the aorta. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta
14) What is the correct route that a drop of blood would follow as it flows through the following vessels? 1. inferior vena cava
2. thoracic aorta 3. renal artery 4. abdominal aorta 5. renal vein a) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2 b) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 c) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 d) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the thoracic aorta. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.D Thoracic Aorta
15) What is the correct route that a drop of blood would follow as it flows through the following vessels? 1. external iliac artery 2. popliteal artery 3. anterior tibial artery 4. common iliac artery 5. femoral artery 6. dorsalis pedis (right dorsal artery of foot) artery a) 1, 4, 5, 3, 6, 2 b) 4, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6 c) 4, 1, 2, 5, 3, 6 d) 6, 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.8 Identify the two major branches of the common iliac arteries. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.F Arteries of the Pelvis and Lower Limbs
16) What is the correct route that a drop of blood would follow as it flows through the following vessels? 1. superior vena cava 2. internal jugular vein 3. sigmoid sinuses 4. subclavian vein 5. brachiocephalic vein
a) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1 b) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4 c) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 d) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.10 Identify the three major veins that drain blood from the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.H Veins of the Head and Neck
17) What is the correct route that a drop of blood would follow as it flows through the following vessels? 1. ulnar vein 2. palmar venous arch 3. brachial vein 4. subclavian vein 5. axillary vein 6. brachiocephalic vein a) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4, 6 b) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 c) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4, 6 d) 6, 5, 4, 3, 1, 2 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.11 Identify the principal veins that drain the upper limbs. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.I Veins of the Upper Limbs
18) The gastric, pancreatic, and splenic veins are part of the: a) coronary circulation b) hepatic portal circulation c) pulmonary circulation d) fetal circulation only Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the importance and function of the systemic, pulmonary and hepatic portal circulation and the changes in the fetal circulatory structures after birth. Study Objective 2: SO 14.2.2 Describe the importance of the hepatic portal circulation.
Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Circulatory Routes
19) Which of the following is NOT a part of the hepatic portal system? a) splenic vein b) superior mesenteric vein c) hepatic veins d) inferior mesenteric vein Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the importance and function of the systemic, pulmonary and hepatic portal circulation and the changes in the fetal circulatory structures after birth. Study Objective 2: SO 14.2.2 Describe the importance of the hepatic portal circulation. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Circulatory Routes
20) Pulmonary circulation differs from systemic circulation in that: a) blood passes first through veins, then capillaries, and then arteries. b) arteries carry deoxygenated blood and veins carry oxygenated blood. c) all of the blood in pulmonary circulation is oxygenated blood. d) low oxygen levels cause pulmonary vessels to dilate, but cause systemic vessels to constrict. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the importance and function of the systemic, pulmonary and hepatic portal circulation and the changes in the fetal circulatory structures after birth. Study Objective 2: SO 14.2.3 Explain why pulmonary circulation is important. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Circulatory Routes
21) Trace the path of a drop of blood through pulmonary circulation, starting as it leaves the heart. 1. left atrium 2. right ventricle 3. pulmonary vein 4. pulmonary artery 5. pulmonary capillaries 6. pulmonary trunk a) 1, 6, 3, 5, 4, 2 b) 1, 6, 4, 5, 3, 2
c) 2, 6, 3, 5, 4, 1 d) 2, 6, 4, 5, 3, 1 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the importance and function of the systemic, pulmonary and hepatic portal circulation and the changes in the fetal circulatory structures after birth. Study Objective 2: SO 14.2.3 Explain why pulmonary circulation is important. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Circulatory Routes
22) Which of the following is NOT considered a change in the cardiovascular system that is due to aging? a) 50% decrease in renal blood flow b) decreased compliance (elasticity) of the aorta c) decreased size of cardiac muscle cells (fibers) d) an increase in maximum heart rate Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.16 Explain the effects of aging on the cardiovascular system. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.4 Aging and the Cardiovascular System
23) Which position is most likely to place the greatest pressure on the inferior vena cava, thereby hindering the return of venous blood from the lower limb (causing swelling)? a) person lying in the supine position b) person lying in the prone position c) person with his/her neck hyperextended d) person with his/her ankle in dorsiflexion Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.9 Identify the three systemic veins that return deoxygenated blood to the heart. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.G Veins of the Systemic Circulation
24) A thrombus (blood clot) formed in the knee during knee surgery has the potential to travel to the lung causing a pulmonary embolism (PE) via which of the following circulatory route?
a) popliteal vein; anterior tibial vein; dorsalis pedal vein b) popliteal vein; common iliac vein; inferior vena cava; pulmonary trunk c) popliteal vein; femoral vein; superior vena cava; aorta d) popliteal vein; common iliac vein; external iliac vein; internal iliac vein Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.14 Identify the principal superficial and deep veins that drain the lower limbs. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.L Veins of the Lower Limbs
25) Blindness or other visual disturbances will arise following a blockage of the posterior cerebral arteries. These arteries branch directly from the: a) internal carotid arteries b) basilar artery c) vertebral arteries d) external carotid arteries Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the arch of the aorta. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta
26) Which artery can be palpated inferior to the hamstring tendons, superior to the heads of the gastrocnemius muscle and deep posterior to the patella? a) inguinal b) iliac c) popliteal d) dorsalis pedis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.8 Identify the two major branches of the common iliac arteries. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.F Arteries of the Pelvis and Lower Limbs
Question type: True/False
27) Obstruction (blockage) in the radial artery will restrict ALL blood flow to the hand resulting in “blue fingernails” (a tell-tale sign of cyanosis). Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the arch of the aorta. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta
28) A tunica interna (intima) of endothelium is found only in arteries. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Describe the basic structure of a blood vessel. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
29) In an artery wall, the tunica media contains smooth muscle and elastic fibers. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Describe the basic structure of a blood vessel. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
30) Three different types of capillaries include continuous capillaries, fenestrated capillaries, and sinusoids. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.5 Describe the types of capillaries and their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
31) A blockage in an end artery is more serious than in an anastomosing artery. Answer: True
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
32) At about the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra, the abdominal aorta divides into left and right common iliac arteries. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the abdominal aorta Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.E Abdominal Aorta
33) The blood that sustains lung tissue is supplied by the systemic circulation. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the importance and function of the systemic, pulmonary and hepatic portal circulation and the changes in the fetal circulatory structures after birth. Study Objective 2: SO 14.2.1 Define systemic circulation and explain its function. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Circulatory Routes
34) The superior and inferior vena cavae are both located to the right of the midline of the body. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.9 Identify the three systemic veins that return deoxygenated blood to the heart. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.G Veins of the Systemic Circulation
35) Blood in an umbilical artery travels from the fetus to the placenta. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the importance and function of the systemic, pulmonary and hepatic portal circulation and the changes in the fetal circulatory structures after birth.
Study Objective 2: SO 14.2.4 Describe the fates of the fetal structures once postnatal circulation begins. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Circulatory Routes
36) Drugs used to treat hypertension include calcium channel blockers, vasodilators, diuretics, and ACE inhibitors. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.16 Explain the effects of aging on the cardiovascular system. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.4 Aging and the Cardiovascular System
Question type: Essay
37) Describe the three layers that make up the wall of an artery. Using this as a standard, compare artery walls to capillary and vein walls. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels Solution: Summary: The three layers of an artery wall are described in section 14.1 and figure 14.1. Capillaries consist of endothelium and basement membrane only. Large veins contain all three layers, but are thinner walled than arteries, with less elastic and muscle tissue. Small veins lack the tunica media.
38) Is the aorta an elastic (conducting) or a muscular (distributing) artery? Compare the structure of the wall of the aorta to an artery that is of the other type. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.4 Distinguish between muscular and distributing arteries. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels Solution: The aorta is an elastic (conducting) artery. It contains a large quantity of elastic fiber in the tunica media. The wall stretches and recoils to assist the movement of blood. Muscular (distributing) arteries, on the other hand, have larger amounts of smooth muscle in the tunica
media, and are relatively thicker walled vessels. They are capable of vasodilation and vasoconstriction.
39) Diagram a portion of a capillary network, labeling the features that are found between the arteriole and the venule. Draw the smooth muscle fibers in a representative area that indicates where they are located. Label the zone of oxygenated blood. State the function of each portion or feature of the capillary network that you have labeled. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels Solution: The diagram should be similar to Fig. 14.2. The arteriole supplies oxygenated blood, which is delivered to the capillary by a branch called a metarteriole. When the smooth muscle precapillary sphincters are relaxed, blood will flow into a true capillary from the metarteriole, or sometimes directly from an arteriole. Venules receive the deoxygenated blood from the capillaries. There exists a thoroughfare route from arteriole to venule, through which the blood will flow when the precapillary sphincters are closed. Smooth muscle is present in the walls of the arterioles, and proximal metarterioles to control blood flow.
40) Describe the routes by which blood is supplied to the brain. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the arch of the aorta. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta Solution: The right and left vertebral arteries branch from the subclavian arteries, travel through the transverse foramina of C6 – C1, then through the foramen magnum. They join within the skull to form the basilar artery which supplies the cerebellum and pons and inner ear before joining the cerebral arterial circle (Circle of Willis) at the base of the brain near the sella turcica. Each of the common carotid arteries divides into internal and external carotid arteries just superior to the larynx. The internal carotids pass through the carotid foramina of the temporal bone, then branch and anastomose with the basilar artery to form the cerebral arterial circle (Circle of Willis). Blood from the branches of the internal carotids supply most of the cerebrum.
41) Define portal system. Explain how the hepatic portal system fits your definition and describe its function.
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the importance and function of the systemic, pulmonary and hepatic portal circulation and the changes in the fetal circulatory structures after birth. Study Objective 2: SO 14.2.2 Describe the importance of the hepatic portal circulation. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Circulatory Routes Solution: a portal system carries blood from one capillary network to another; in this case, from capillaries of the spleen, stomach, pancreas, intestines, and gall bladder to sinusoids of the liver via the hepatic portal vein. This allows the liver to process the nutrient-rich blood from the gastrointestinal tract and to remove bacteria and toxic substances.
42) Describe the damaging effects of untreated hypertension on the cardiovascular system, brain, and kidneys. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.16 Explain the effects of aging on the cardiovascular system. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.4 Aging and the Cardiovascular System Solution: answer should include points covered in the Clinical Connection on Hypertension.
Question type: Multiple Choice
43) Contraction of smooth muscle in the vessel wall produces _____ which is a _____ in the diameter of the vessel lumen. a) vasoconstriction; decrease b) vasodilation; decrease c) vasoconstriction; increase d) vasodilation; increase Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Describe the basic structure of a blood vessel. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
44) The thickest layer of an artery wall is the tunica _____. a) externa
b) interna c) media d) intima Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
Question type: True/False
45) The hollow center of a blood vessel is called the endothelium. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Describe the basic structure of a blood vessel. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
Question type: Multiple Choice
46) Arteries that do not anastomose are known as _____. a) venules b) end arteries c) arterioles d) sinuses Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
Question type: True/False
47) Arteries that anastomose are able to provide a collateral circulation to a tissue in order to prevent necrosis. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
Question type: Multiple Choice
48) The most distal muscle cells of the _____ form the precapillary sphincters which monitor blood flow into the capillary. a) venules b) metarteriole c) sinusoids d) thoroughfare channels Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
49) Extensions of the _____ of veins form valves that help prevent the backflow of blood. a) tunica interna (intima) b) tunica media c) tunica externa Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels. Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.
Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
Question type: Multiple Choice
50) The first two vessels to branch from the ascending aorta are the a) brachiocephalic and left common carotid b) right common carotid and right subclavian c) right coronary and left coronary d) right coronary and brachiocephalic Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.4 Identify the two primary arterial branches of the ascending aorta. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.B Ascending Aorta
51) The superior mesenteric artery branches from the a) ascending aorta b) abdominal aorta c) arch of the aorta d) thoracic aorta Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the abdominal aorta Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.E Abdominal Aorta
52) The largest diameter vein in the body is the a) inferior vena cava b) superior vena cava c) internal jugular vein d) coronary sinus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.9 Identify the three systemic veins that return deoxygenated blood to the heart.
Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.G Veins of the Systemic Circulation
53) The external iliac vein is formed by the union of the _____ vein and the _____vein. a) femoral; internal iliac b) internal jugular; subclavian c) great saphenous; femoral d) popliteal; great saphenous Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.14 Identify the principal superficial and deep veins that drain the lower limbs. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.L Veins of the Lower Limbs
Question type: True/False
54) The umbilical cord contains three blood vessels; one umbilical vein and two umbilical arteries. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the importance and function of the systemic, pulmonary and hepatic portal circulation and the changes in the fetal circulatory structures after birth. Study Objective 2: SO 14.2.4 Describe the fates of the fetal structures once postnatal circulation begins. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Circulatory Routes
Question type: Multiple Choice
55) In the fetus, what two structures allow most blood to bypass the lungs? a) fossa ovalis and ligamentum arteriosum b) foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus c) fossa ovalis and ductus arteriosus d) foramen ovale and ligamentum arteriosum Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the importance and function of the systemic, pulmonary and hepatic portal circulation and the changes in the fetal circulatory structures after birth. Study Objective 2: SO 14.2.4 Describe the fates of the fetal structures once postnatal circulation begins. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Circulatory Routes
56) The superior mesenteric vein empties into the a) popliteal vein b) hepatic vein c) hepatic portal vein d) superior vena cava Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the importance and function of the systemic, pulmonary and hepatic portal circulation and the changes in the fetal circulatory structures after birth. Study Objective 2: SO 14.2.2 Describe the importance of the hepatic portal circulation. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Circulatory Routes
57) Direct branches of the _____ artery and the _____ artery contribute to the palmar arches. a) brachial; basilic b) basilic; cephalic c) radial; brachial d) ulnar; radial Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the arch of the aorta. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta
58) The _____ artery is located in the cervical transverse foramina. a) vertebral b) internal carotid c) basilar d) external carotid
Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the arch of the aorta. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta
59) The brachiocephalic trunk gives rise directly to the a) left subclavian artery b) right subclavian artery c) left vertebral artery d) right internal carotid artery Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the arch of the aorta. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta
Question type: True/False
60) The basilar artery is formed by the union of the right and left internal carotid arteries. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the arch of the aorta. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta
Question type: Multiple Choice
61) The renal artery supplies the _____ with blood. a) liver b) spleen c) pancreas d) kidney
Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the abdominal aorta Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.E Abdominal Aorta
Question type: True/False
62) The chest muscles and diaphragm are supplied with blood by the bronchial arteries. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the thoracic aorta. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.D Thoracic Aorta
Question type: Multiple Choice
63) Blood supply for the pancreas, spleen and stomach comes from the _____ artery. a) hepatic b) inferior mesenteric c) superior mesenteric d) splenic Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the abdominal aorta Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.E Abdominal Aorta
Question type: True/False
64) The lumbar arteries supply blood to the spinal cord and meninges. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the abdominal aorta Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.E Abdominal Aorta
Question type: Multiple Choice
65) Which two arteries most significantly contribute to the cerebral arterial circle (Circle of Willis) supplying blood to the brain? a) vertebral and external carotid b) internal carotid and posterior cerebral c) external carotid and internal jugular d) basilar and internal carotid Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the arch of the aorta. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta
Question type: True/False
66) The internal jugular vein is primarily responsible for directly draining the parotid gland and scalp. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.10 Identify the three major veins that drain blood from the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.H Veins of the Head and Neck
Question type: Multiple Choice
67) Venous blood from the buttocks, urinary bladder, uterus, and prostate gland is returned via the a) internal iliac vein b) femoral vein c) great saphenous vein d) external iliac vein Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.13 Identify the principal veins that drain the abdomen and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.K Veins of the Abdomen and Pelvis
68) Venous blood from the adrenal gland is returned via the a) superior mesenteric vein b) suprarenal vein c) azygos vein d) gastric vein Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.13 Identify the principal veins that drain the abdomen and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.K Veins of the Abdomen and Pelvis
Question type: True/False
69) The great saphenous vein drains the medial aspect of the leg and thigh, the groin, external genitals, and abdominal wall. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.14 Identify the principal superficial and deep veins that drain the lower limbs. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.L Veins of the Lower Limbs
Question type: Multiple Choice
70) Venous blood from the liver reaches the inferior vena cava via the a) hepatic veins b) splenic vein c) hepatic portal vein d) superior mesenteric vein Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the importance and function of the systemic, pulmonary and hepatic portal circulation and the changes in the fetal circulatory structures after birth. Study Objective 2: SO 14.2.2 Describe the importance of the hepatic portal circulation. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Circulatory Routes
71) This blood vessel tissue layer is most responsible for:
a) regulating blood flow and blood pressure b) helping to limit the loss of blood when vessels are damaged c) regulating the diameter of the lumen wall d) ALL of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Describe the basic structure of a blood vessel. Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels
72) Which of these following vessels of the neck contributes directly to the formation of the basilar artery?
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the arch of the aorta. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta
73) Which of the following vessels of the neck are NOT direct branches of the arch of the aorta?
a) B and C b) B and D c) C and D d) D and E Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the arch of the aorta. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta
74) Which of these following veins of the upper limb is commonly punctured for an injection, transfusion, or removal of a blood sample? a) Brachial b) Radial c) Ulnar
d) Median cubital e) Cephalie Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 14.11 Identify the principal veins that drain the upper limbs. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.I Veins of the Upper Limbs
75) The left testicular (or ovarian) vein drains into the _____, whereas the right testicular (or ovarian) vein drains into the _____.
a) A; B b) B; C c) D; E d) C; A Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 14.13 Identify the principal veins that drain the abdomen and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.K Veins of the Abdomen and Pelvis
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 15
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Which of the following statements about the lymphatic system is FALSE? a) Lymphatic vessels return excess interstitial fluid to the blood. b) Lymphatic tissue initiates highly specific responses directed against particular microbes. c) Lymphatic vessels transport most absorbed nutrients and vitamins from the digestive tract to the blood. d) T and B cells, assisted by macrophages, recognize foreign cells, cancer cells and toxins. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.1 Describe the components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
2) Lymphatic vessels in the skin generally follow veins. Lymphatic vessels in the viscera generally follow arteries. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.2 Outline the organization of lymphatic vessels. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
3) The thoracic (left lymphatic) duct begins as a dilation called the _____. a) intestinal plexus
b) hemiazygos trunk c) cisterna chyli d) thoracic ampulla Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.2 Outline the organization of lymphatic vessels. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
4) Lymphatic capillaries are found in tissues throughout the body EXCEPT for: a) red bone marrow. b) brain. c) cornea. d) all of these choices are correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.2 Outline the organization of lymphatic vessels. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
5) Which of the following occurs as a result of the presence of lacteals in the wall of the intestine? a) Most dietary fats do not enter the hepatic portal circulation. b) The lymph receives digested milk sugars, which gives the lymph its creamy color. c) All end products of digestion are carried by lymph. d) Lymph enters the hepatic portal circulation. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.1 Describe the components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
6) The composition of lymph most closely resembles: a) intracellular fluid. b) plasma. c) interstitial fluid. d) synovial fluid. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.1 Describe the components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
7) A correct sequence for fluid flow in the body is: a) arteries, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic ducts, heart, veins, blood capillaries, interstitial spaces. b) blood capillaries, interstitial spaces, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic ducts, veins, heart, arteries. c) lymphatic capillaries, interstitial spaces, lymphatic ducts, veins, heart, arteries, blood capillaries. d) veins, heart, arteries, lymphatic ducts, interstitial spaces, lymphatic capillaries, blood capillaries. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
8) The lymphatic system transports dietary _____ from the gastrointestinal tract to the blood. a) carbohydrates b) lipids c) proteins d) All of these choices are correct Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.1 Describe the components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
9) Which statement regarding lymph formation is TRUE? a) Most blood plasma proteins pass freely into interstitial fluid and then into lymph. b) Lymph refers to the fluid both inside lymphatic vessels and the fluid between tissue cells. c) About three liters of excess filtered fluid drains into lymphatic vessels each day. d) Fluid filters directly from blood capillaries to lymphatic capillaries. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
10) The right lymphatic duct drains lymph into the bloodstream at the junction of the right internal jugular vein and the _____. a) right bronchomediastinal vein b) superior vena cava c) right brachiocephalic vein d) right subclavian vein Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
11) Which of the following is NOT an important factor that assists the flow of lymph through lymphatic vessels? a) valves in lymphatic vessels
b) skeletal muscle contractions c) gravity d) respiratory movements Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
12) The right lymphatic duct receives lymph from all of the following EXCEPT the: a) right upper limb. b) right side of the chest. c) right side of the body inferior to the ribs. d) right side of the head and neck. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
13) The thoracic (left lymphatic) duct receives lymph from all of the following EXCEPT the: a) left lower limb. b) right upper limb. c) right side of the body inferior to the ribs. d) left side of the head and neck. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
14) The lining of the respiratory, digestive, reproductive, and urinary tracts contains lymphatic tissue of the type called: a) lymphatic nodules. b) lymph nodes. c) lacteals. d) white pulp. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
15) _____ protect us from disease by producing antibodies. a) Plasma T cells b) Regulatory B cells c) Plasma B cells d) Cytotoxic T cells Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
16) _____ can result from either excess filtration or inadequate reabsorption at blood capillaries. a) Sepsis b) Edema c) Adentitis d) Lymphedomas Answer: b Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
17) Which of the following is NOT a function of the spleen? a) within the red pulp, T cells become immunocompetent b) within the white pulp, B and T cells carry out immune functions c) within the red pulp, macrophages remove worn out blood cells and platelets d) within the white pulp, macrophages destroy blood-borne pathogens Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
18) Lymphatic organs that have a hilum are the: a) spleen and lymph nodes. b) tonsils and appendix. c) tonsils and lymph nodes. d) spleen and thymus gland. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
19) Which of the following statements about lymph nodes is FALSE? a) Afferent lymphatic vessels direct lymph out of the lymph node, along the convex surface. b) One or two efferent lymphatic vessel(s) is/are attached at the hilum, along with blood vessels. c) The outer cortex contains lymphatic nodules (follicles).
d) Cells found in the lymph node include T cells, B cells, and macrophages. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
20) Which of the following is a primary lymphatic organ? a) spleen b) thymus c) lymph node d) All of these choices are primary lymphatic organs Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
21) The parenchyma (functional part) of the spleen consists of: a) fibroblasts. b) trabeculae. c) a capsule. d) red pulp and white pulp. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
22) _____ contains stem cells that become lymphocytes. a) The thymus b) Red bone marrow c) The spleen d) Lymph nodes Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
23) Lymph enters a lymph node via _____ and exits through _____. a) afferent vessels; efferent vessels b) efferent vessels; afferent vessels c) medullary sinuses; trabecular sinuses d) subscapular sinuses; medullary sinuses Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
24) Which of the following vessels does NOT exist for the spleen? a) splenic artery b) splenic vein c) afferent lymphatic vessel d) efferent lymphatic vessel Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system.
Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
25) The lymphatic vessels arise from: a) ectoderm. b) endoderm. c) mesoderm. d) all of these choices are correct Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.8 Outline the development of lymphatic tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Development of Lymphatic Tissues
26) The removal of the axillary lymph nodes during a breast cancer surgery would result in widespread edema in which region? a) neck b) upper limb c) lower limb d) abdomen Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the upper limbs. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 15.C Principal Lymph Nodes of the Upper Limbs
27) Which of the following axillary group nodes is most responsible for draining the entire upper limb? a) lateral nodes b) pectoral (anterior) nodes c) subscapular (posterior) nodes d) central (intermediate) nodes Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the upper limbs.
Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 15.C Principal Lymph Nodes of the Upper Limbs
28) Lymphatic capillaries are found in: 1 intracellular spaces 2 intercellular spaces 3 interstitial spaces a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) both 2 and 3 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.2 Outline the organization of lymphatic vessels. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
29) Sinusitis, nasal congestion, sore throat, coughing as well as other upper respiratory conditions will produce swollen lymph nodes of which group? a) cervical b) submandibular c) parotid d) axillary Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the head and neck Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 15.A Principal Lymph Nodes of the Head and Neck
30) The _____ nodes are the largest group of nodes in the neck. a) superficial cervical b) submandibular c) submental d) deep cervical Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the head and neck Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 15.A Principal Lymph Nodes of the Head and Neck
31) The palatine tonsils and pharyngeal tonsil (adenoid) are aggregates of lymphoid tissue located in the: a) nasal cavity b) pharynx (throat) c) larynx (voice box) d) trachea (windpipe) Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
32) T lymphocytes gain competence and maturity under the control of a hormone produced and secreted from the: a) red bone marrow b) medullary cavity of bones c) lymph nodes d) thymus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
Question type: True/False
33) Increased pressure in the interstitial fluid and the presence of anchoring filaments facilitate the movement of interstitial fluid into the lymphatic capillaries.
Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
34) Tissues that lack lymphatic capillaries include avascular tissues. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.2 Outline the organization of lymphatic vessels. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
35) Lymphatic capillaries merge to form larger vein-like vessels called lymphatic vessels. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.2 Outline the organization of lymphatic vessels. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
36) Edema, or excess accumulation of interstitial fluid, is due to anchoring filaments causing closure of the spaces between lymphatic endothelial cells. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
37) Lymphadenitis is a condition where the skin overlying a swollen lymph node becomes red and tender.
Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes
38) Within the lymphatic system, lymph flows, in order, through the following structures: lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes, lymph trunks, lymphatic ducts. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
39) Tonsils are examples of lymphatic nodules. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
40) The spleen is the largest single mass of lymphatic tissue in the body. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
41) The flow of lymph through a lymph node is slowed by the anatomical arrangement of many afferent vessels bringing lymph into the node and only one or two efferent vessels transporting lymph out of the lymph node. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
42) The parotid, buccal, and submandibular lymph nodes make up the facial group of nodes. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the head and neck Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 15.A Principal Lymph Nodes of the Head and Neck
43) Each lobe of the thymus gland consists of an outer cortex and an inner medulla. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
44) The actual size of the thymus gland, defined by its connective tissue capsule, does not change over time. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
45) The stroma (framework tissue) of the spleen consists of the capsule, trabeculae, reticular fibers, the red pulp, and the white pulp. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
46) The lymphatic vessels arise from the same type of embryonic tissue as do veins. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.8 Outline the development of lymphatic tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Development of Lymphatic Tissues
47) HIV is killed by rubbing alcohol and household bleach, and by standard dishwashing and clothes washing. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.9 Describe the effects of aging on the lymphatic system and on the immune response. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Aging and the Lymphatic System
Question type: Essay
48) Name and describe the location of the two main lymphatic ducts. Describe the portions of the body drained by each. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system.
Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions Solution: The thoracic (left lymphatic) duct, located left of the midline in the thorax, receives lymph from the cisterna chyli anterior to the second lumbar vertebra. It receives lymph from the entire body below the ribs and the left side of the head, neck, chest, and left upper limb. It drains into the left subclavian vein. The right lymphatic duct, located right of the midline in the thorax, drains the upper right region of the body via the right jugular, right subclavian, and right bronchomediastinal trunk.
49) Lymph flows as a result of skeletal muscle contractions, respiratory movements and _____ in lymphatic vessels that prevent backflow. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions Solution: valves.
50) List the nodes that make up the axillary group and state the region of the body drained by each. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the upper limbs. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 15.C Principal Lymph Nodes of the Upper Limbs Solution: 1. Lateral nodes drain most of the upper limb. 2. Pectoral (anterior) nodes drain the anterior and lateral thoracic wall, and the central and lateral portion of the mammary glands. 3. Subscapular (posterior) nodes drain the posterior part of the neck and thoracic wall. 4. Central (intermediate) nodes drain the lateral, pectoral, and subscapular nodes. 5. Subclavicular (apical) nodes drain the deltopectoral nodes, which drain the upper limb.
51) Lymph nodes of the body are arranged into five principal groups. Name any one group of lymph nodes and describe its location and the region of the body it drains. Answer: Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Solution: Answers will vary depending upon choice of nodes. Details in Exhibits 15.A-15.E.
52) List and describe the effects of aging on the lymphatic system. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.9 Describe the effects of aging on the lymphatic system and on the immune response. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Aging and the Lymphatic System Solution: The response to vaccines is decreased. Elderly individuals tend to produce more autoantibodies. T cells become less responsive to antigens, and fewer of them respond to infections, perhaps due to atrophy of the thymus or decreased levels of thymic hormones. B cells become less responsive, and therefore antibody levels increase less rapidly than in younger individuals.
Question type: Multiple Choice
53) Lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries in that they are closed-ended and they have a slightly _____ diameter than blood capillaries. a) larger b) smaller Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.1 Describe the components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
54) Fluid enters lymphatic capillaries when the pressure in the interstitial fluid spaces is _____ than the pressure inside the lymphatic capillary. a) greater b) lesser
Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
55) Lymphatic capillaries in intestinal villi are called a) MALT b) cisterna chyli c) lacteals d) afferent vessels Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.1 Describe the components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
56) Breathing assists the flow of lymph; lymph flows from the abdominal region to the thoracic region every time you _____. a) exhale b) inhale Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
Question type: True/False
57) The intestinal trunk drains lymph from the stomach, intestines, pancreas, spleen, and part of the liver. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions 58) Following a splenectomy (surgical removal of a ruptured spleen), some of the spleen’s functions can be handled by red bone marrow and the liver. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
59) Lymph from the right upper extremity flows through the right lymphatic duct, then into the right subclavian trunk. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
60) The thoracic duct drains lymph into venous blood at the junction of the left internal jugular vein and left subclavian vein. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.3 Explain the formation and flow of lymph.
Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
Question type: Multiple Choice
61) The principal lymphatic trunks include all of the following EXCEPT the a) jugular b) subclavian c) bronchomediastinal d) cervical Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.2 Outline the organization of lymphatic vessels. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
62) Which two principal lymphatic trunks join to form the cisterna chyli? a) jugular and cervical b) intestinal and lumbar c) bronchomediastinal and subclavian d) lumbar and bronchomediastinal Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.2 Outline the organization of lymphatic vessels. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
Question type: True/False
63) Afferent lymphatic vessels have valves that open away from a lymph node so that they direct the flow of lymph out of the node. Answer: False
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
64) Lymphatic vessels develop from lymphatic sacs, which arise from developing veins, which are derived from mesoderm. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.8 Outline the development of lymphatic tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Development of Lymphatic Tissues
65) The lymph nodes of the abdomen are divided into parietal and visceral groups. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.6 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the abdomen and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 15.D Principle Lymph Nodes of the Abdomen and Pelvis
66) The elderly tend to respond poorly to vaccines because of decreased production of autoantibodies. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.9 Describe the effects of aging on the lymphatic system and on the immune response. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Aging and the Lymphatic System
Question type: Multiple Choice 67) Which of the following is NOT one of the tonsils which form a tonsillar (Waldeyer’s) ring at the junction of the oral cavity and oropharynx and at the junction of the nasal cavity and nasopharynx? a) palatine tonsils
b) pharyngeal (adenoid) tonsil c) cervical tonsils d) lingual tonsils Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
68) MALT refers to lymphatic tissue scattered in the lining of the a) respiratory tract b) urinary tract c) gastrointestinal tract d) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
69) Extensions of the thymus capsule called _____ penetrate inward dividing each lobe of the gland into lobules. a) trabeculae b) white pulp c) red pulp d) lacteals Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues.
Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
Question type: Text entry
70) HIV is a retrovirus, which means that its genetic information is carried in _____. Answer: RNA Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.9 Describe the effects of aging on the lymphatic system and on the immune response. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Aging and the Lymphatic System Solution: RNA
Question type: Multiple Choice
71) This structure serves as the beginning of the _____.
a) azygos vein b) thoracic duct c) left bronchomediastinal trunk d) right lymphatic duct
Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system. Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.2 Outline the organization of lymphatic vessels. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions
Question type: Essay
72) The parenchyma (functional portion) of this organ is comprised of _____ (lymphatic tissue) and _____ (blood-filled sinuses).
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Understand the various components and major functions of the lymphatic system.
Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphatic organs and tissues. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions Solution: white pulp; red pulp
Question type: Multiple Choice
73) Which of the following lymph nodes is responsible for draining the chin, lips, nose, nasal cavity, cheeks, gums, inferior surface of palate, and anterior portion of tongue?
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Hard
Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the head and neck Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 15.A Principal Lymph Nodes of the Head and Neck
74) Which of the following nodes belong to the largest group of nodes in the neck forming a chain extending from the base of the skull to the root of the neck?
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the head and neck Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 15.A Principal Lymph Nodes of the Head and Neck
75) More than 75% of the lymph drainage of the breast is to the _____. In breast cancer, it is possible that cancer cells leave the breast and lodge in these nodes. From here, metastasis may
develop in other axillary nodes.
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the upper limbs. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 15.C Principal Lymph Nodes of the Upper Limbs
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 16
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) A _____ refers to a small mass of nervous tissue, consisting primarily of neuron cell bodies, outside of the brain and spinal cord. a) nucleus b) nerve c) tract d) ganglion Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.1 List the structures and basic functions of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System
2) _____ (or motor) impulses travel from the _____ to the _____ (muscles or glands). a) Efferent, effectors, central nervous system b) Efferent, central nervous system, effectors c) Afferent, central nervous system, effectors d) Afferent, effectors, central nervous system Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.3 Explain the functional organization of the peripheral nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System
3) _____ (or sensory) impulses travel from the _____ to the _____. a) Efferent, central nervous system, receptors b) Efferent, receptors, central nervous system
c) Afferent, receptors, central nervous system d) Afferent, central nervous system, receptors Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.3 Explain the functional organization of the peripheral nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System
4) The peripheral nervous system includes: a) cranial nerves and their branches. b) spinal nerves and their branches. c) ganglia d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the organization of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System
5) Which of the following convey information from the central nervous system (CNS) to skeletal muscles only? a) sympathetic motor neurons b) parasympathetic motor neurons c) somatic motor neurons d) afferent motor neurons Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.3 Explain the functional organization of the peripheral nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System
6) A main difference between neurons (nerve cells) and neuroglia (glia) is: a) neuroglia are found only in the central nervous system. b) mature neurons do not normally divide; neuroglia do. c) neurons are more numerous than neuroglia. d) neurons are generally smaller than neuroglia. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
7) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding oligodendrocytes? a) They are smaller than astrocytes. b) They form myelin sheaths around central nervous system axons. c) They line the fluid-filled ventricles of the brain. d) They are not as numerous as astrocytes. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
8) The following are all functions of astrocytes EXCEPT: a) they help maintain the blood-brain barrier. b) they synthesize neurotransmitters. c) they participate in brain development. d) they help maintain proper K+ balance. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
9) A synapse is a functional junction between: a) two neurons. b) a neuron and a muscle cell. c) a neuron and a glandular cell. d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
10) The axon hillock is the part of a neuron that: a) passes nerve impulses directly to another cell. b) connects the axon to the neuron cell body. c) gives rise to axon collaterals. d) stores neurotransmitters in vesicles. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
11) Dendrites are processes of a neuron that: a) carry nerve impulses away from the neuron cell body. b) are usually myelinated. c) are usually longer than axons.
d) none of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
12) When compared to unmyelinated axons, myelinated axons: 1. are electrically insulated 2. are gray in color 3. have a faster speed of nerve impulse conduction 4. are more numerous a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 3, 4 only c) 2, 3, 4 only d) 1, 2, 4 only Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
13) A nerve is a structure that may contain: 1. axons 2. blood vessels 3. neuron cell bodies 4. connective tissue 5. myelin 6. oligodendrocytes a) 1, 2, 4, 5 b) 1, 3, 5, 6 c) 1, 4, 5 only d) 2, 3, 4
Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the organization of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system
14) White matter includes: a) ganglia b) a thin outer layer of most of the brain c) nuclei in the brain d) tracts in the spinal cord Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.2 Distinguish between gray matter and white matter. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
15) Which of the following pairs of terms is most closely matched? a) gray matter, myelinated axons of the peripheral nervous system b) white matter, neuron cell bodies in a ganglion c) gray matter, Schwann cells (neurolemmocytes) in the peripheral nervous system d) white matter, tracts in the central nervous system Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.2 Distinguish between gray matter and white matter. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
16) At a synapse between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of another neuron, the axon would be part of a _____ neuron; the dendrite would be part of a _____ neuron. a) presynaptic, postsynaptic b) visceral, somatic
c) postsynaptic, presynaptic d) somatic, visceral Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.4 Distinguish between electrical and chemical synapses Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
17) Diverging circuits allow for transmission of nerve impulses from _____ neuron(s) to _____ neuron(s). a) several, one b) one, several c) unipolar, multipolar d) multipolar, unipolar Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the structure and function of the various types of neural circuits in the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Neural Circuits
18) Regeneration of nerve fibers in the central nervous system is highly unlikely because: a) there are no neurolemmas (sheaths of Schwann). b) oligodendrocytes inhibit axon regeneration. c) astrocytes rapidly form a physical barrier of scar tissue. d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Define regeneration and explain the concept of neurogenesis. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Regeneration and Neurogenesis
19) In order to flex your fingers, which type of impulse will the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle need to receive? a) efferent (motor)
b) afferent (sensory) c) visceral d) autonomic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.3 Explain the functional organization of the peripheral nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System
20) Accidentally stepping on a nail with the sole of your foot causes you quite a bit of discomfort. Which type of pathway is involved in relaying information about the nail to the central nervous system? a) efferent (motor) b) afferent (sensory) c) visceral d) autonomic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.3 Explain the functional organization of the peripheral nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System
21) Which structure of the neuron is included in the neuromuscular junction? a) the axon terminal b) the axon hillock c) the cell body (perikaryon) d) the dendrites Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.3 Define a neuromuscular junction.
Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
22) Which structure of the neuron will contain the greatest number of neurotransmitter receptors? a) the Nissl bodies b) the axoplasm c) the synaptic vesicles d) the dendrites Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
23) Which neuroglia would be most responsible for helping to prevent pathogens and toxins from entering the brain from the blood? a) Schwann cells (neurolemmocytes) b) astrocytes c) oligodendrocytes d) ependymal cells Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
24) Select the best description of dendrites: a) stored in synaptic vesicles b) accumulates as yellow-brown granules as the cell ages c) usually short and branched d) usually myelinated
Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
25) Select the best description of the ependymal cells: a) form myelin sheaths in the central nervous system b) help maintain the blood-brain barrier c) surround neurons in peripheral nervous system ganglia d) form lining of brain ventricles Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
26) Select the best description of the oligodendrocytes: a) form myelin sheaths in the central nervous system b) help maintain the blood-brain barrier c) form myelin sheaths in the peripheral nervous system d) surround neurons in peripheral nervous system ganglia Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
27) Select the best description of axon terminals:
a) stored in synaptic vesicles b) join axon to cell body c) fine processes at the ends of an axon d) side branches along the length of an axon Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
28) Select the best description of astrocytes: a) form myelin sheaths in the central nervous system b) help maintain the blood-brain barrier c) form myelin sheaths in the peripheral nervous system d) surround neurons in peripheral nervous system ganglia Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
29) Which of the following neuroglia would be found in the peripheral nervous system? a) satellite cells b) astrocytes c) oligodendrocytes d) microglia Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.
Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
30) Select the best description of the microglia: a) help maintain the blood-brain barrier b) phagocytes of the central nervous system c) phagocytes of the peripheral nervous system d) form lining of brain ventricles Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
31) Select the best description of the Schwann cells (neurolemmocytes): a) form myelin sheaths in the central nervous system b) help maintain the blood-brain barrier c) form myelin sheaths in the peripheral nervous system d) surround cell bodies in peripheral nervous system ganglia Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
32) Select the best description of the satellite cells: a) form myelin sheaths in the central nervous system b) help maintain the blood-brain barrier c) surround cell bodies in peripheral nervous system ganglia d) form lining of brain ventricles Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
33) Select the best description of neurotransmitter molecules: a) stored in synaptic vesicles b) accumulate as yellow-brown granules as the cell ages c) fine processes at the ends of axons d) usually short and branched Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.5 Define a neurotransmitter and provide several examples. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
34) Select the best description of Nissl bodies: a) form(s) part of the cytoskeleton b) rough endoplasmic reticulum c) accumulate as yellow-brown granules as the cell ages d) usually short and branched Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
35) Select the best description of lipofuscin: a) form(s) part of the cytoskeleton b) rough endoplasmic reticulum c) accumulates as yellow-brown granules as the cell ages
d) usually short and branched Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
36) Select the best description of an axon: a) accumulates as yellow-brown granules as the cell ages b) contains a nucleus surrounded by cytoplasm c) receiving or input portion of a neuron d) carries nerve impulses toward another neuron, a muscle fiber, or a gland cell Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
37) Select the best description of nerve fiber: a) may refer to either an axon or dendrite b) joins axon to cell body c) fine processes at the ends of axons d) contains a nucleus surrounded by cytoplasm Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
Question type: True/False
38) The efferent (motor) portion of the autonomic nervous system consists of sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.3 Explain the functional organization of the peripheral nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System
39) Neurons that originate in the central nervous system and that function to carry information to smooth, skeletal, or cardiac muscle are efferent (motor) neurons. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the organization of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System
40) The afferent (sensory) portion of the somatic nervous system carries sensory information from the eyes and ears to the central nervous system. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.3 Explain the functional organization of the peripheral nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System
41) The afferent (sensory) portion of the autonomic nervous system carries sensory information from the viscera to the central nervous system. Answer: True
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.3 Explain the functional organization of the peripheral nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System
42) A significant difference between neurons and neuroglia is that mature neuroglia can divide whereas mature neurons generally cannot divide. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
43) Neuroglia derived from monocytes are called astrocytes. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
44) Dendrites conduct signals toward the neuron cell body; the axon conducts nerve impulses away from the neuron cell body. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
45) The portion of the plasma membrane of a neuron that surrounds the axoplasm is called the axolemma. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
46) The name given to rough endoplasmic reticulum in neurons is lipofuscin granules. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
47) There are two types of neuroglia that produce myelin sheaths: oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells (neurolemmocytes). Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
48) A neurolemma (sheath of Schwann) is a characteristic of cells located in the peripheral nervous system, but NOT in the central nervous system. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.
Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
49) The vast majority of neurons in the body are interneurons. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the organization of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System
50) Most unipolar neurons are sensory neurons that transmit information along afferent pathways to the central nervous system. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
51) Gray matter is only located in the brain. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.2 Distinguish between gray matter and white matter. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
52) Neurogenesis, the birth of new neurons, does NOT happen in adult humans. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Define regeneration and explain the concept of neurogenesis.
Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Regeneration and Neurogenesis
Question type: Essay
53) Arrange the following terms in a chart that exhibits your understanding of the functional organization of the nervous system: somatic nervous system, central nervous system, sympathetic division, peripheral nervous system, parasympathetic division, autonomic nervous system. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the organization of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System Solution: Refer to Figure 16.2. The following should be in a simple chart, the format of which may vary, but should be clear and concise: CNS: brain and spinal cord PNS: 1) Somatic nervous system (2) Autonomic nervous system: sympathetic division parasympathetic division All sections are connected by afferent and efferent pathways, except for the autonomic sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways, which are efferent only.
54) For a typical (multipolar) neuron, use correct anatomical terms to describe the structure of an axon from the point where it is attached to the neuron cell body to where it ends at a synapse. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Solution: Refer to Figure 16.3. The description should include correct use of the following terms: axon hillock, axolemma, axoplasm, initial segment, trigger zone, mitochondria, microtubules, neurofibrils, axon collaterals, axon terminals, synaptic end bulbs, synaptic vesicles, myelin sheath.
55) Describe the types of neurons according to structural classification and give an example of where each type is located in the body.
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Solution: Multipolar, bipolar, and unipolar neurons are defined, with examples in text accompanying Figure 16.4.
56) List and define the four types of neuronal circuits in the nervous system. What is the function of each? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the structure and function of the various types of neural circuits in the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Neural Circuits Solution: See text accompanying Figure 16.10.
57) State two conditions necessary for the regeneration of the processes of a neuron in the peripheral nervous system. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Define regeneration and explain the concept of neurogenesis. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Regeneration and Neurogenesis Solution: 1) The cell body must be intact. 2) The Schwann cells must be functional.
Question type: Text entry
58) The three basic functions of the nervous system are _____ function, _____ function, and _____ function. Answer: sensory, integrative, motor Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.1 List the structures and basic functions of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System Solution: sensory, integrative, motor
59) The two principal divisions of the nervous system are the _____ and _____ nervous systems. Answer: central, peripheral Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the organization of the nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System Solution: central, peripheral
60) The efferent (motor) portion of the somatic nervous system is _____ (voluntary or involuntary). Answer: voluntary Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions. Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.3 Explain the functional organization of the peripheral nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System Solution: voluntary
61) One class of neuroglial cells is cuboidal to columnar cells arranged in a single layer that possess microvilli and cilia that line fluid-filled spaces in the CNS. These neuroglia are called _____. Answer: ependymal cells Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Solution: ependymal cells
62) An oligodendrocyte contributes to the myelin sheath of _____ (one or several) axon(s). Answer: several Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Solution: several
63) A Schwann cell (neurolemmocyte) contributes to the myelin sheath of _____ (one or several) axon(s). Answer: one Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Solution: one
64) A multipolar neuron consists of three parts: cell body, _____ and _____. Answer: axon, dendrites Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Solution: axon, dendrites
65) A bundle of axons in the central nervous system is called a/an _____. Answer: tract
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.2 Distinguish between gray matter and white matter. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Solution: tract
66) A neuron having one axon and one dendrite, such as those located in the retina or inner ear, are classified as _____ neurons. Answer: bipolar Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Solution: bipolar
67) The name of the structure indicated by the line in the diagram is: _____.
Answer: axon hillock
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Solution: axon hillock
68) The name of the structure indicated by the line in the diagram is: _____.
Answer: node of Ranvier Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Solution: node of Ranvier
69) The name of the structure indicated by the line in the diagram is: _____.
Answer: axon terminal Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Solution: axon terminal
70) The name of the structures indicated by the line in the diagram is: _____.
Answer: dendrites Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Solution: dendrites
71) The name of the structure indicated by the line in the diagram is: _____.
Answer: axon Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Solution: axon
72) The name of the cell type indicated by the (a) in the diagram is: _____.
Answer: multipolar neuron Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Solution: multipolar neuron
73) The name of the cell type indicated by the (b) in the diagram is: _____.
Answer: bipolar neuron Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Solution: bipolar neuron
74) The name of the cell type indicated by the (c) in the diagram is: _____.
Answer: unipolar neuron (pseudounipolar neuron) Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Solution: unipolar neuron (pseudounipolar neuron)
75) The cell type that represents most sensory neurons is the one labeled _____.
Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses. Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 17
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Which of the following contain cell bodies of interneurons? a) posterior (dorsal) gray horns b) anterior (ventral) gray horns c) posterior (dorsal) root ganglia d) all of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
2) The conus medullaris is: a) the junction between the medulla and the spinal cord. b) the tapering end of the spinal cord inferior to the lumbar enlargement. c) the inner portion of the spinal cord, seen in cross section. d) the attachment of a spinal nerve to the spinal cord. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.2 Explain the external features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
3) The inferior extension of the pia mater that anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx is called the _____. a) cauda equina b) filum terminale c) denticulate ligament
d) conus medullaris Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.2 Explain the external features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
4) The white matter of the spinal cord: a) contains ascending (sensory) and descending (motor) tracts. b) is surrounded by gray matter. c) is subdivided into regions called horns. d) all of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
5) The gray matter of the spinal cord: a) is subdivided into regions called horns. b) is surrounded by white matter. c) contains neuronal cell bodies. d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
6) The central canal of the spinal cord is located in the center of the: a) anterior (ventral) white commissure.
b) anterior (ventral) gray horns. c) posterior (dorsal) white columns. d) gray commissure. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
7) Lateral gray horns are present in ALL segments of the _____ region of the spinal cord. a) cervical b) thoracic c) lumbar d) all of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
8) The senses of pain and temperature are conveyed to the brain by: a) direct tracts. b) indirect tracts. c) lateral spinothalamic tracts. d) posterior columns. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Spinal Cord Functions
9) Motor impulses that help maintain muscle tone and posture are conveyed from the brain through the spinal cord by the: a) direct pathways. b) indirect pathways. c) spinothalamic tracts. d) posterior columns. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Spinal Cord Functions
10) A typical reflex arc involves the following components: 1. sensory neuron 2. motor neuron 3. sensory receptor 4. integrating center 5. effector The correct order is: a) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 b) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 c) 3, 2, 1, 5 d) 3, 4, 2, 5 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Spinal Cord Functions
11) Which of the following could serve as an effector for a somatic reflex? a) skeletal muscle. b) smooth or cardiac muscle. c) gland.
d) all of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Spinal Cord Functions
12) The roots of which spinal nerves make up the cauda equina? 1. Thoracic 2. Lumbar 3. Sacral 4. Coccygeal a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2, 3, 4 only c) 3, 4 only d) 4 only Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.2 Explain the external features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
13) Which of the following statements is FALSE for spinal nerves? a) The two largest branches of a spinal nerve are the anterior (ventral) ramus and the posterior (dorsal) ramus. b) All spinal nerves are mixed nerves. c) The outer covering of a spinal nerve is the epineurium. d) Every pair of spinal nerves exits through the intervertebral foramina above the vertebra that has the same name and number as the nerves. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields.
Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves
14) Which of the following is FALSE regarding the sciatic nerve? It: a) arises from the lumbar plexus. b) splits at about the level of the knee into tibial and common fibular nerves. c) is the largest nerve in the body. d) sends branches to the hamstring muscles. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Describe the origin and distribution of the sacral and coccygeal plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.D Sacral and Coccygeal Plexuses
15) The main plexuses formed by the anterior (ventral) rami of spinal nerves are: a) thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal b) cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral. c) cervical, lumbar, sacral, and inguinal. d) cervical, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields. Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.3 Describe the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves
16) Spinal nerves T2-T12 differ from all other spinal nerves in that: a) they do not branch to form rami. b) they are autonomic nerves. c) the anterior (ventral) rami do not contribute to a plexus. d) the posterior (dorsal) rami form a plexus. Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields. Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves
17) Which of the following is NOT a correct description of the location of the brachial plexus? a) on the neck alongside the first four cervical vertebrae b) passes above the first rib posterior to the clavicle c) extends inferiorly and laterally on either side of the last few cervical and first thoracic vertebrae d) enters the axilla Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the origin, distribution, and effects of damage to the brachial plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.B Brachial Plexus.
18) Which of the following is NOT a correct description of the location of the lumbar plexus? a) lateral to the first four lumbar vertebrae b) posterior to the quadratus lumborum muscle c) between the two heads of the psoas major muscle d) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the origin and distribution of the lumbar plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.C Lumbar Plexus.
19) Which peripheral nerves are responsible for cutaneous sensation from the skin of the anterior abdominal wall as well as motor innervation to anterior abdominal wall muscles? a) median and musculocutaneous nerves b) sciatic and sural nerves c) intercostal (thoracic) nerves d) inferior and superior gluteal nerves
Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields. Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves
20) The spinal cord is protected by which of the following? a) vertebral column b) meninges c) cerebrospinal fluid d) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
21) Which of the following contains sensory information ONLY? a) anterior (ventral) root b) anterior (ventral) ramus c) posterior (dorsal) root d) posterior (dorsal) ramus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields. Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves
22) What is the best description of the epidural space? a) contains a protective cushion of fat and connective tissue
b) between arachnoid mater and pia mater c) between dura mater and arachnoid mater d) contains interstitial fluid e) contains cerebrospinal fluid Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
23) What is the best description of the subarachnoid space? a) contains a protective cushion of fat and connective tissue b) between arachnoid mater and pia mater c) between dura mater and the wall of vertebral canal d) between dura mater and arachnoid mater e) contains interstitial fluid Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
24) What is the best description of the pia mater? a) contains a protective cushion of fat and connective tissue b) most superficial meninx c) thick strong layer composed of dense, irregular connective tissue d) contains blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the spinal cord e) consists of collagen and elastic fiber network; has no blood vessels Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
25) What is the best description of the arachnoid mater? a) meninx closest to the bone of the vertebral column b) between subarachnoid space and pia mater c) contains a protective cushion of fat and connective tissue d) contains blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the spinal cord e) consists of collagen and elastic fiber network; has no blood vessels Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
26) What is the best description of the dura mater? a) meninx closest to the bone of the vertebral column b) between arachnoid mater and pia mater c) between pia mater and spinal cord d) contains blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the spinal cord e) consists of collagen and elastic fiber network; has no blood vessels Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
27) Select the structure(s) served by the axillary nerve. a) deltoid muscle b) extensors of the wrist c) flexors of the wrist d) biceps brachii e) diaphragm Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the origin, distribution, and effects of damage to the brachial plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.B Brachial Plexus.
28) Select the structure(s) served by the radial nerve. a) deltoid muscle b) triceps brachii c) flexors of the wrist d) skin of superior portion of the chest and shoulder e) diaphragm Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the origin, distribution, and effects of damage to the brachial plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.B Brachial Plexus.
29) Select the structure(s) served by the median nerve. a) quadriceps femoris muscle b) extensors of the wrist c) flexors of the wrist d) skin of superior portion of the chest and shoulder e) diaphragm Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the origin, distribution, and effects of damage to the brachial plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.B Brachial Plexus.
30) Select the structure(s) served by the supraclavicular nerve. a) quadriceps femoris muscle b) extensors of the wrist c) flexors of the wrist d) skin of superior portion of the chest and shoulder e) diaphragm
Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the origin and distribution of the cervical plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.A Cervical Plexus
31) Select the structure(s) served by the phrenic nerve. a) quadriceps femoris muscle b) adductor muscles of thigh c) flexors of the wrist d) skin of superior portion of the chest and shoulder e) diaphragm Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the origin and distribution of the cervical plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.A Cervical Plexus
32) Select the muscle(s) served by the femoral nerve. a) extensor muscles of knee joint b) adductor muscles of thigh c) gluteus maximus d) gastrocnemius and soleus muscles e) tibialis anterior and fibularis (peroneal) muscles Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the origin and distribution of the lumbar plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.C Lumbar Plexus.
33) Select the muscle(s) served by the obturator nerve. a) anterior muscles of thigh (quadriceps and sartorius) b) adductor muscles of thigh c) gluteus maximus d) gastrocnemius and soleus muscles e) tibialis anterior and fibularis (peroneal) muscles Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the origin and distribution of the lumbar plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.C Lumbar Plexus.
34) Select the muscle(s) served by the tibial nerve. a) anterior muscles of thigh (quadriceps and sartorius) b) adductor muscles of thigh c) gluteus maximus d) gastrocnemius and soleus muscles e) tibialis anterior and fibularis (peroneal) muscles Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Describe the origin and distribution of the sacral and coccygeal plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.D Sacral and Coccygeal Plexuses.
35) Select the muscle(s) served by the inferior gluteal nerve. a) anterior muscles of thigh (quadriceps and sartorius) b) adductor muscles of thigh c) gluteus maximus d) gastrocnemius and soleus muscles e) tibialis anterior and fibularis (peroneal) muscles Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Describe the origin and distribution of the sacral and coccygeal plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.D Sacral and Coccygeal Plexuses.
36) Select the muscle(s) served by the common fibular nerve. a) anterior muscles of thigh (quadriceps and sartorius) b) adductor muscles of thigh c) gluteus maximus d) gastrocnemius and soleus muscles e) tibialis anterior and fibularis (peroneal) muscles
Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Describe the origin and distribution of the sacral and coccygeal plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.D Sacral and Coccygeal Plexuses.
37) From which plexus does the long thoracic nerve arise? a) brachial b) cervical c) lumbar d) sacral e) thoracic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the origin, distribution, and effects of damage to the brachial plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.B Brachial Plexus.
38) From which plexus does the great auricular nerve arise? a) brachial b) cervical c) lumbar d) sacral e) thoracic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the origin and distribution of the cervical plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.A Cervical Plexus.
39) From which plexus does the femoral nerve arise? a) brachial b) cervical c) lumbar d) sacral e) thoracic
Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the origin and distribution of the lumbar plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.C Lumbar Plexus.
40) From which plexus does the phrenic nerve arise? a) brachial b) cervical c) lumbar d) sacral e) thoracic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the origin and distribution of the cervical plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.A Cervical Plexus.
41) From which plexus does the superior gluteal nerve arise? a) brachial b) cervical c) lumbar d) sacral e) thoracic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Describe the origin and distribution of the sacral and coccygeal plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.D Sacral and Coccygeal Plexuses.
42) From which plexus does the ulnar nerve arise? a) brachial b) cervical c) lumbar d) sacral e) thoracic
Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the origin, distribution, and effects of damage to the brachial plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.B Brachial Plexus.
43) From which plexus does the pudendal nerve arise? a) brachial b) cervical c) lumbar d) sacral e) thoracic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Describe the origin and distribution of the sacral and coccygeal plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.D Sacral and Coccygeal Plexuses.
44) From which plexus does the iliohypogastric nerve arise? a) brachial b) cervical c) lumbar d) sacral e) thoracic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the origin and distribution of the lumbar plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.C Lumbar Plexus.
45) From which plexus does the axillary nerve arise? a) brachial b) cervical c) lumbar d) sacral
e) thoracic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the origin, distribution, and effects of damage to the brachial plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.B Brachial Plexus.
Question type: True/False
46) The epidural space found between the dura mater and the wall of the vertebral canal contains a protective cushion of fat and connective tissue. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
47) The thin transparent spinal meninx called pia mater separates the spinal cord from the surrounding cerebrospinal fluid. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
48) The denticulate ligaments and the filum terminale are both structures that help to anchor the spinal cord and protect it against sudden displacement. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord.
Study Objective 3: SO 17.1.2 Explain the external features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
49) The anterior median fissure of the spinal cord is shallower and narrower than the posterior median sulcus. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
50) All segments of the spinal cord contain lateral, posterior (dorsal), and anterior (ventral) gray horns. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
51) Cell bodies of motor neurons that supply smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, or glands via the autonomic nervous system can be found in the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
52) Except for T2-T12, all anterior (ventral) rami form nerve plexuses. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields. Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves
53) The femoral nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the origin and distribution of the lumbar plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.C Lumbar Plexus.
54) Complete paralysis of the diaphragm occurs if the spinal cord is crushed or destroyed just below the C5 region. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the origin and distribution of the cervical plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.A Cervical Plexus.
55) Complete anesthesia of a dermatome typically requires blocking of only one pair of spinal nerves because there is never overlap between neighboring dermatomes. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields. Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.4 Compare the clinical significance of dermatomes and cutaneous fields. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves
Question type: Essay
56) Describe, in order, from superficial (outermost) to deep (innermost), the structures, tissues, and fluids that provide protection for the spinal cord. Answer:
Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Solution: 1. vertebral column, 2. vertebral ligaments, 3. epidural space with adipose tissue, 4. dura mater of dense irregular connective tissue, 5. subdural space with interstitial fluid, 6. arachnoid mater of collagen and elastic fibers, 7. subarachnoid space with cerebrospinal fluid, 8. denticulate ligaments, extensions of pia mater, attach cord to dura mater, 9 pia mater of thin fibrous connective tissue.
57) Sketch and label a cross (transverse) section of a spinal cord segment showing the attachments of a spinal nerve and the features of the cord. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.2 Explain the external features of the spinal cord. Study Objective 3: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Solution: See Fig. 17.3.
58) Describe the anatomy of a spinal nerve from the point where it is attached to the spinal cord to where it divides into branches. Name the roots and branches and describe in general the regions served by each branch. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields. Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves Solution: The nerve is attached to the cord by the anterior (ventral) root (contains axons of motor neurons) and the posterior (dorsal) root (which contains the sensory neurons’ cell bodies in a posterior (dorsal) root ganglion). The two roots merge to form a single spinal nerve, which passes through an intervertebral foramen. The spinal nerve then divides laterally into: 1. the anterior (ventral) ramus, which serves the upper and lower limbs and lateral and anterior trunk, 2. the posterior (dorsal) ramus, which serves the posterior region of the trunk, 3. the meningeal branch, which reenters the spinal canal to serve the meninges, vertebrae, vertebral ligaments, and
blood vessels of the spinal cord, and 4. rami communicantes, which contain components of autonomic nerve pathways.
59) Name the four plexuses and give the general distribution of each. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields. Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.3 Describe the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves Solution: 1) Cervical plexus: skin and muscles of the head and neck, superior portion of the shoulders and chest, diaphragm. 2) Brachial plexus: shoulders and upper limbs. 3) Lumbar plexus: anterolateral abdominal wall, external genitalia, and parts of the lower limbs. 4) Sacral plexus: buttocks, perineum, lower limbs
Question type: Multiple Choice
60) The adult spinal cord extends from the _____ of the brain inferiorly to the superior border of the _____ lumbar vertebra. a) Midbrain; first b) Pons; third c) Medulla oblongata, second d) Medulla oblongata, fourth Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.2 Explain the external features of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
61) Cerebrospinal fluid is found between two layers of the meninges, in a space called the _____. a) subarachnoid space b) subpial space c) epidural space
d) subdural space Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
62) The two main routes for sensory information traveling up the spinal cord to the brain are _____ tracts and _____ columns. a) direct, indirect b) spinothalamic, posterior c) reticulospinal, vestibulospinal d) corticospinal, corticobulbar Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Spinal Cord Functions
63) The two main routes for motor information traveling down the spinal cord are _____ pathways and _____ pathways. a) corticospinal, posterior column b) anterior spinocerebellar, posterior spinocerebellar c) gracilis fasciculus, cuneate fasciculus d) direct, indirect Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Spinal Cord Functions
64) Which of the following contain cell bodies of sensory neurons? a) anterior (ventral) gray horns b) posterior (dorsal) gray horns c) posterior (dorsal) root ganglia d) lateral gray horns Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields. Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves
65) Motor neurons that supply skeletal muscles have cell bodies in _____ gray horns of the spinal cord, and their axons exit the cord via a/an _____ root. a) anterior (ventral), posterior (dorsal) b) posterior (dorsal), posterior (dorsal) c) anterior (ventral), anterior (ventral) d) posterior (dorsal), anterior (ventral) Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
66) There are _____ pairs of spinal nerves, consisting of the following groups: _____ pairs of cervical, _____ pairs of thoracic, _____ pairs of lumbar, _____ pairs of sacral, and _____ pair of coccygeal spinal nerves. a) 31, 8, 12, 5, 5, 1 b) 41, 8, 13, 6, 6, 2 c) 31, 7, 12, 5, 5, 1 d) 24, 9, 10, 4, 5, 3 Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields. Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.1 Explain the basic structure of a nerve. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves
67) Which of the following is NOT a branch of a spinal nerve? a) ramus communicans (plural: rami communicantes) b) meningeal branch c) lateral ramus d) anterior (ventral) ramus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields. Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves
68) The _____ plexus serves the skin and muscles of the head, neck, and superior part of the shoulders and chest. a) cervical b) brachial c) thoracic d) lumbar Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the origin and distribution of the cervical plexus. Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.A Cervical Plexus.
Question type: True/False
69) A dermatome is an area of skin that provides sensory input to the CNS via one pair of spinal nerves or the trigeminal (V) nerve. Answer: True
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields. Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.4 Compare the clinical significance of dermatomes and cutaneous fields. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves
Question type: Multiple Choice
70) The meninx indicated by the line is the _____
a) pia mater b) arachnoid mater c) dura mater Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
71) The meninx indicated by the line is the _____
a) pia mater b) arachnoid mater c) dura mater Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
72) The meninx indicated by the line is the _____
a) pia mater b) arachnoid mater c) dura mater Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord. Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy
73) The part of the spinal cord indicated by the line is the _____
a) posterior (dorsal) root b) posterior (dorsal) ramus c) anterior (ventral) root d) anterior (ventral) ramus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields. Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves
74) The part of the spinal cord indicated by the line is the _____
a) anterior (ventral) root b) posterior (dorsal) root c) rami communicantes d) spinal nerve Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields. Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves
75) The structure(s) indicated by the lines is/are the _____
a) anterior (ventral) ramus b) posterior (dorsal) ramus c) rami communicantes d) posterior (dorsal) root Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields. Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve. Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: PHA13e Chapter Number: 18
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Which of the following is NOT an extension of the dura mater? a) falx cerebelli b) falx cerebri c) tentorium cerebelli d) epidural space Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.2 Explain how the brain is protected including the formation of the cerebrospinal fluid and the blood supply to the brain. Study Objective 2: SO 18.2.1 Explain how the brain is protected. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Protection and Blood Supply
2) Choroid plexuses are specialized capillaries in the CNS that 1. are covered by ependymal cells. 2. are located in the walls of the ventricles. 3. are located in the dural venous sinuses. 4. are the sites for reabsorption of CSF. 5. are derived from the arachnoid layer of the meninges. a) 3, 4, 5 b) 1, 2, 4, 5 c) 1, 2 d) 2, 3, 4 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.2 Explain how the brain is protected including the formation of the cerebrospinal fluid and the blood supply to the brain. Study Objective 2: SO 18.2.2 Describe the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Protection and Blood Supply.
3) The blood-cerebrospinal fluid barrier
a) is the same thing as the blood-brain barrier. b) is due mainly to tight junctions between endothelial cells of the capillaries throughout the brain tissue. c) protects the neurons of the brain and spinal cord from potentially harmful substances in the blood. d) is another name for cranial meninges. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.2 Explain how the brain is protected including the formation of the cerebrospinal fluid and the blood supply to the brain. Study Objective 2: SO 18.2.2 Describe the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Protection and Blood Supply.
4) Circumventricular organs in the wall of the third ventricle lack a blood-brain barrier. This enables them to a) facilitate the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles. b) monitor the chemical composition of the blood. c) secrete cerebrospinal fluid into the ventricles. d) all of these choices. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.5 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus and circumventricular organs. Study Objective 2: SO 18.5.2 Define circumventricular organs and their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.5 The Diencephalon
5) Which of the following is an incorrect statement about a feature of the medulla oblongata? a) The inferior cerebellar peduncles are fiber tracts that connect the olives of the medulla to the cerebellum. b) The vestibular nuclear complex is found mostly in the medulla. c) Pyramids contain the main sensory tracts that pass through the brain stem from the spinal cord; they are visible on the dorsal surface of the medulla. d) Vital reflex centers for control of heart rate, breathing rate, and blood pressure are located in the medulla. Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structures and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.
6) The regions of the brain stem involved in the control of respiration are the a) medulla and pons. b) pons and midbrain. c) midbrain and medulla. d) midbrain, pons, and medulla. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structures and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.
7) The tectum of the midbrain bears four rounded elevations a) called substantia nigra. b) that control all subconscious muscle activities. c) that transmit all sensory and motor information between the upper and lower brain regions. d) that control reflex movements in response to visual and auditory stimuli. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structures and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.
8) The cerebellar peduncles conduct information into and out of the cerebellum. The correct statement is a) the superior cerebellar peduncles conduct only sensory information. b) the inferior cerebellar peduncles contain only motor fibers. c) the middle cerebellar peduncles contain only afferent (sensory) fibers. d) none of these choices. Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum and include the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles. Study Objective 2: SO 18.4.2 Explain the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 The Cerebellum
9) A midsagittal section of the brain would pass through which of the following? a) longitudinal fissure b) corpus callosum c) falx cerebri d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their location. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.1 Describe the cortex, convolutions, fissures, and sulci of the cerebrum. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum
10) The postcentral gyrus is in the _____ lobe of the cortex; it contains the primary _____ area. a) parietal, somatosensory b) parietal, motor c) frontal, somatosensory d) frontal, motor Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their location. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Outline the lobes of the cerebrum and indicate their locations. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum
11) The corpus callosum allows information to travel between cerebral hemispheres. Therefore the corpus callosum contains _____ tracts. a) association b) commissural c) projection d) all of these choices
Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their location. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.3 Describe the tracts that comprise the cerebral white matter. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum
12) Which of the following statements about the basal nuclei is/are TRUE? a) The caudate nucleus consists of the globus pallidus and the putamen. b) The corpus striatum consists of the caudate nucleus and the lentiform nucleus. c) The putamen and caudate nucleus regulate muscle tone required for specific movements d) all of these choices. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their location. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.4 Identify the nuclei that comprise the basal nuclei. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum
13) Which of the following is NOT a part of the hypothalamus? a) preoptic region b) tuberal region c) supraoptic region d) intermediate mass Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.5 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus and circumventricular organs. Study Objective 2: SO 18.5.1 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.5 The Diencephalon
14) The infundibulum is the anatomical link between the brain and the pituitary gland, and therefore it is the primary link between the nervous and endocrine systems. Structures contained in the infundibulum consist of which of the following? a) a tract that transports hormones from the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei to the posterior pituitary
b) small blood vessels that transport regulating hormones from the median eminence of the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary c) Both choices are correct. d) Neither choice is correct. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.5 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus and circumventricular organs. Study Objective 2: SO 18.5.1 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.5 The Diencephalon
15) Loss of taste in the anterior region of the tongue may be an indication of damage to which cranial nerve? a) facial VII b) trigeminal V c) glossopharyngeal IX d) vagus X Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.14 Identify the origins of the facial (VII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function. Section Reference 1: Sec EXHIBIT 18.E Facial (VII) Nerve
16) Inability to control eyeball movement may indicate damage to which cranial nerve(s)? 1. trochlear IV 2. optic II 3. oculomotor III 4. trigeminal V 5. abducens VI a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 2, 3, 4, 5 c) 1, 2, 4 d) 1, 3, 5 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 18.12 Identify the origins of the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) nerves in the brain, the foramen through which each exits the skull, and their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec EXHIBIT 18.C Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), and Abducens (VI) Nerves
17) A block of which nerve would provide anesthesia to the lower teeth and chin? a) maxillary branch of cranial nerve V b) mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve c) glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) d) cranial nerve VII Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.13 Identify the origin of the trigeminal (V) nerve from the brain, describe the foramina through which each of its three major branches exits the skull, and explain the function of each branch. Section Reference 1: Sec EXHIBIT 18.D Trigeminal (V) Nerve
18) In what lobe of the cerebrum would you find the primary visual area? a) occipital lobe b) temporal lobe c) parietal lobe d) frontal lobe Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, brain wave activity and the effects of learning on the nervous system. Study Objective 2: SO 18.7.1 Outline the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex.
19) In what lobe of the cerebrum would you find the motor speech area (Broca's area)? a) occipital lobe b) temporal lobe c) parietal lobe
d) frontal lobe Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, brain wave activity and the effects of learning on the nervous system. Study Objective 2: SO 18.7.1 Outline the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex.
20) In what lobe of the cerebrum would you find the primary motor area? a) occipital lobe b) temporal lobe c) parietal lobe d) frontal lobe Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, brain wave activity and the effects of learning on the nervous system. Study Objective 2: SO 18.7.1 Outline the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex.
21) In what lobe of the cerebrum would you find the primary auditory area? a) occipital lobe b) temporal lobe c) parietal lobe d) frontal lobe Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, brain wave activity and the effects of learning on the nervous system. Study Objective 2: SO 18.7.1 Outline the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex.
Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex.
22) In what part of the brain would you find the oval shaped swellings called olives? a) midbrain b) medulla oblongata c) hypothalamus d) cerebrum Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structures and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.
23) In what part of the brain would you find the cerebral peduncles? a) midbrain b) medulla oblongata c) hypothalamus d) cerebrum Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structures and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.
24) In what part of the brain would you find the corpus striatum? a) midbrain b) medulla oblongata c) hypothalamus d) cerebrum Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their location. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.4 Identify the nuclei that comprise the basal nuclei. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum
25) In what part of the brain would you find the medial and lateral geniculate nuclei? a) thalamus b) medulla oblongata c) hypothalamus d) cerebrum Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.5 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus and circumventricular organs. Study Objective 2: SO 18.5.1 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.5 The Diencephalon
26) In what part of the brain would you find the insula? a) thalamus b) medulla oblongata c) hypothalamus d) cerebrum Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their location. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Outline the lobes of the cerebrum and indicate their locations. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum
27) In what part of the brain would you find the hippocampus? a) thalamus b) limbic system c) hypothalamus d) cerebellum Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their location.
Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.5 List the structures of the limbic system and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum
28) In what part of the brain would you find the arbor vitae? a) thalamus b) limbic system c) cerebellum d) pons Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum and include the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles. Study Objective 2: SO 18.4.1 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 The Cerebellum
29) Which is a function of the olfactory (I) nerve? a) conveys nerve impulses related to smell b) conveys nerve impulses related to vision c) causes movement of eyelid and eyeball; constriction of pupil d) causes movement of eyeball via superior oblique muscle Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.10 Identify the termination of the olfactory (I) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it passes, and its function. Section Reference 1: Sec EXHIBIT 18.A Olfactory (I) Nerve
30) Which is a function of the vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve? a) conveys sensory impulses from the facial region and anterior scalp b) turns eyeball laterally via lateral rectus muscle c) conveys impulses from the taste buds on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue d) conveys impulses associated with hearing and equilibrium Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 18.15 Identify the origin of the vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and the functions of each of its branches. Section Reference 1: Sec EXHIBIT 18.F Vestibulocochlear (VIII) Nerve
31) Which is a function of the glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve? a) conveys impulses from taste buds on the posterior one-third of the tongue b) conveys impulses to visceral, cardiac, and skeletal muscles c) conveys motor impulses to laryngeal and pharyngeal muscles, and to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles d) controls movement of the tongue during speech and swallowing Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.16 Identify the origin of the glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function. Section Reference 1: Sec EXHIBIT 18.G Glossopharyngeal (IX) Nerve
32) Which is a function of the trigeminal (V) nerve? a) conveys sensory impulses from the facial region and anterior scalp b) turns eyeball laterally via lateral rectus muscle c) causes movement of eyelid and eyeball; constriction of pupil d) causes movement of eyeball via superior oblique muscle Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.13 Identify the origin of the trigeminal (V) nerve from the brain, describe the foramina through which each of its three major branches exits the skull, and explain the function of each branch. Section Reference 1: Sec EXHIBIT 18.D Trigeminal (V) Nerve
33) Which is a function of the hypoglossal (XII) nerve? a) conveys impulses from taste buds on the posterior one-third of the tongue b) conveys impulses to visceral, cardiac, and skeletal muscles c) conveys motor impulses to laryngeal and pharyngeal muscles, and to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles d) controls movement of the tongue during speech and swallowing Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.19 Identify the origin of the hypoglossal (XII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function. Section Reference 1: Sec EXHIBIT 18.J Hypoglossal (XII) Nerve
34) Which is a function of the abducens (VI) nerve? a) conveys sensory impulses from the facial region and anterior scalp b) turns eyeball medially via medial rectus muscle c) causes movement of eyelid and eyeball, constriction of pupil d) causes movement of eyeball via lateral rectus muscle Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.12 Identify the origins of the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) nerves in the brain, the foramen through which each exits the skull, and their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec EXHIBIT 18.C Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), and Abducens (VI) Nerves
35) Which is a function of the facial (VII) nerve? a) conveys nerve impulses related to smell b) turns eyeball laterally via lateral rectus muscle c) conveys impulses from the taste buds on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue d) conveys impulses associated with hearing and equilibrium Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.14 Identify the origins of the facial (VII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function. Section Reference 1: Sec EXHIBIT 18.E Facial (VII) Nerve
36) Which is a function of the vagus (X) nerve? a) conveys impulses from taste buds on the posterior one-third of the tongue b) conveys impulses to visceral, cardiac, and skeletal muscles c) conveys motor impulses to laryngeal and pharyngeal muscles, and to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles d) controls movement of the tongue during speech and swallowing
Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.17 Identify the origin of the vagus (X) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function. Section Reference 1: Sec EXHIBIT 18.H Vagus (X) Nerve
37) Which is a function of the accessory (XI) nerve? a) conveys impulses from taste buds on the posterior one-third of the tongue b) conveys impulses to visceral, cardiac, and skeletal muscles c) conveys motor impulses to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles d) controls movement of the tongue during speech and swallowing Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.18 Identify the origin of the accessory (XI) nerve in the spinal cord, the foramina through which it first enters and then exits the skull, and its function. Section Reference 1: Sec EXHIBIT 18.I Accessory (XI) Nerve
Question type: True/False
38) Small openings in the roof of the third ventricle allow passage of CSF into the subarachnoid space. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.2 Explain how the brain is protected including the formation of the cerebrospinal fluid and the blood supply to the brain. Study Objective 2: SO 18.2.2 Describe the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Protection and Blood Supply.
39) Oxygen, carbon dioxide, glucose, and most anesthetics readily pass through the blood-brain barrier. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 18.2 Explain how the brain is protected including the formation of the cerebrospinal fluid and the blood supply to the brain. Study Objective 2: SO 18.2.3 Outline the blood supply of the brain. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Protection and Blood Supply.
40) Pigmented nuclei in the midbrain called substantia nigra control subconscious muscle activities. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structures and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.
41) The transverse fissure separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum and include the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles. Study Objective 2: SO 18.4.1 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 The Cerebellum
42) The lateral cerebral sulcus primarily separates the temporal lobe from the parietal lobe. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their location. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Outline the lobes of the cerebrum and indicate their locations. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum
43) The pineal gland is attached to the hypothalamus by the infundibulum. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.5 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus and circumventricular organs.
Study Objective 2: SO 18.5.1 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.5 The Diencephalon
44) All cranial nerves are mixed nerves. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.9 Identify the cranial nerves by name, number, and type, and give the function of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Cranial Nerves
Question type: Essay
45) Discuss the location of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in relation to the basic functions of CSF; i.e., how does location facilitate function? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.2 Explain how the brain is protected including the formation of the cerebrospinal fluid and the blood supply to the brain. Study Objective 2: SO 18.2.2 Describe the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Protection and Blood Supply. Solution: Cerebrospinal fluid completely surrounds the brain and spinal cord, in the subarachnoid space, acting as a shock absorber. Its location next to the pia mater in the subarachnoid space at the surface of the brain and spinal cord allow cerebrospinal fluid to influence and maintain ionic composition of fluid surrounding the central nervous system neurons. Cerebrospinal fluid can also deliver nutrients to and remove wastes from the central nervous system tissue as CSF flows throughout the ventricular system and is absorbed back into the bloodstream.
46) Describe the route traveled by cerebrospinal fluid from production until it is reabsorbed into venous blood. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.2 Explain how the brain is protected including the formation of the cerebrospinal fluid and the blood supply to the brain. Study Objective 2: SO 18.2.2 Describe the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid.
Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Protection and Blood Supply. Solution: Beginning with a choroid plexus in a lateral ventricle, the route should include all ventricles, passageways, spaces, etc., as in Figure. 18.5b.
47) Describe the blood-brain barrier and explain how it controls the movement of substances between the blood and brain tissue. Give examples of substances that readily cross the BBB. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.2 Explain how the brain is protected including the formation of the cerebrospinal fluid and the blood supply to the brain. Study Objective 2: SO 18.2.3 Outline the blood supply of the brain. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Protection and Blood Supply. Solution: The following should be described or explained: tight junctions of endothelial cells, basement membrane, astrocytes, lipid solubility, transporters. Substances that cross the BBB include oxygen, carbon dioxide, glucose, anesthetics, water, alcohol, caffeine, heroin, and nicotine.
48) List the four main regions of the hypothalamus. Name the nuclei located in each region. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.5 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus and circumventricular organs. Study Objective 2: SO 18.5.1 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.5 The Diencephalon Solution: The four regions and their nuclei are summarized in the text.
49) List, in order from anterior to posterior, the 12 pairs of cranial nerves. Indicate whether each is sensory, motor, or mixed in function. State a main function for each nerve. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.9 Identify the cranial nerves by name, number, and type, and give the function of each. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Cranial Nerves Solution: Refer to Table 18.4
50) List the secondary brain vesicles and state which parts of the brain develop from each. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.1 Describe how the brain develops and relates to the different parts of the postnatal brain and identify the major parts of the brain. Study Objective 2: SO 18.1.1 Describe how the brain develops and relates to the different parts of the postnatal brain. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.1 Development and General Structure of the Brain Solution: Refer to Table 18.1
Question type: Multiple Choice
51) A broad region where gray matter and white matter show a netlike arrangement in the brain stem and the inferior part of the diencephalon, and whose function is to influence muscle tone and to cause arousal from sleep are collectively referred to as the a) reticular formation b) medial lemniscus c) cerebral peduncles d) cerebellar peduncles Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structures and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.
52) Which of the following is incorrectly matched regarding the midbrain? a) Inferior colliculi; reflex centers for sudden movements of the head and trunk in response to auditory stimuli b) Superior colliculi; reflex centers for movements of the eyes, head and neck in response to visual stimuli c) Red nucleus; origin of the tectospinal tract d) Substantia nigra; production of the neurotransmitter dopamine Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structures and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.
53) Which lobe(s) of the cerebellum controls subconscious movement of skeletal muscles? a) anterior and posterior b) flocculonodular c) anterior and flocculonodular d) posterior and flocculonodular Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum and include the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles. Study Objective 2: SO 18.4.1 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 The Cerebellum
Question type: True/False
54) The hypothalamic mammillary bodies serve as relay stations for reflexes related to the sense of smell. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.5 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus and circumventricular organs. Study Objective 2: SO 18.5.1 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.5 The Diencephalon
Question type: Multiple Choice
55) Which of the following is NOT a branch of the trigeminal (V) nerve? a) mandibular b) ophthalmic c) temporal d) maxillary
Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.13 Identify the origin of the trigeminal (V) nerve from the brain, describe the foramina through which each of its three major branches exits the skull, and explain the function of each branch. Section Reference 1: Sec EXHIBIT 18.D Trigeminal (V) Nerve
56) The cranial nerve which conveys parasympathetic control of most organs of the thoracic and abdominal cavities is a) accessory (XI) nerve b) glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve c) facial (VII) nerve d) vagus (X) nerve Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.17 Identify the origin of the vagus (X) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function. Section Reference 1: Sec EXHIBIT 18.H Vagus (X) Nerve
57) The structure indicated by the arrow is the _____.
a) pons b) midbrain c) thalamus d) medulla oblongata Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structures and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.
58) This structure arises from the _____.
a) telencephalon. b) mesencephalon. c) metencephalon. d) diencephalon. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.1 Describe how the brain develops and relates to the different parts of the postnatal brain and identify the major parts of the brain. Study Objective 2: SO 18.1.1 Describe how the brain develops and relates to the different parts of the postnatal brain. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.1 Development and General Structure of the Brain.
59) The structure indicated by the arrow is involved with which function?
a) vision b) hearing c) taste d) smell Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.10 Identify the termination of the olfactory (I) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it passes, and its function. Section Reference 1: Sec EXHIBIT 18.A Olfactory (I) Nerve
60) The structure indicated by the arrow
a) is where the rubrospinal tract begins. b) is where the corticospinal tract decussates. c) is where the spinothalamic tract crosses. d) is where third-order neurons of the posterior (dorsal) column tract originate. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structures and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.
61) The structure indicated by the arrow is separated from the occipital lobe of the cerebrum by the
a) transverse fissure b) longitudinal fissure c) central sulcus d) lateral sulcus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum and include the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles. Study Objective 2: SO 18.4.1 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 The Cerebellum
62) This structure is separated from the occipital lobe of the cerebrum by a fold of the dura mater referred to as the
a) transverse fissure. b) longitudinal fissure. c) falx cerebri. d) tentorium cerebelli. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum and include the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles. Study Objective 2: SO 18.4.1 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 The Cerebellum
63) The structure indicated by the arrows is the
a) cerebral peduncle b) medullary pyramid c) vermis d) cerebellar peduncle Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum and include the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles. Study Objective 2: SO 18.4.2 Explain the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 Cerebellum
64) The structure indicated by the arrow is the
a) Central sulcus b) Lateral sulcus c) Transverse fissure d) Longitudinal fissure Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their location. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.1 Describe the cortex, convolutions, fissures, and sulci of the cerebrum. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum
65) What collection of commissural fibers is located deep in this structure?
a) association tracts b) corpus callosum c) internal capsule d) projections tracts Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their location. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.3 Describe the tracts that comprise the cerebral white matter. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum
66) The structure indicated by the arrow is primarily involved with which of the following?
a) smell b) vision c) motor control d) sensory perception Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their location. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Outline the lobes of the cerebrum and indicate their locations. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum
67) The primary _____ area is located here.
a) breathing b) sensory c) cardiovascular d) speech Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their location. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.1 Describe the cortex, convolutions, fissures, and sulci of the cerebrum. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum
68) This structure sends information directly to the cerebellum via the _____ cerebellar peduncles.
a) superior b) middle c) inferior Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum and include the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles. Study Objective 2: SO 18.4.2 Explain the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 The Cerebellum
69) This structure separates what two cerebral lobes?
a) temporal and parietal b) frontal and parietal c) temporal and occipital d) occipital and parietal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their location. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Outline the lobes of the cerebrum and indicate their locations. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum
70) This structure is separated from the frontal lobe by the
a) central sulcus. b) falx cerebri. c) lateral cerebral sulcus. d) transverse fissure. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their location. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Outline the lobes of the cerebrum and indicate their locations. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum
Question type: True/False
71) The structure indicated by the arrow is primarily involved in vision.
Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, brain wave activity and the effects of learning on the nervous system. Study Objective 2: SO 18.7.1 Outline the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex.
Question type: Multiple Choice
72) This structure is separated from the cerebellum by the
a) central sulcus. b) transverse fissure. c) longitudinal fissure. d) falx cerebelli. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum and include the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles. Study Objective 2: SO 18.4.1 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 The Cerebellum
73) During development, most of the protective structures of the brain, that is, most of the bones of the skull, associated connective tissues, and meningeal membranes arise from a) the neural crest. b) the neural tube. c) the diencephalons. d) the rhombencephalon. Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 18.1 Describe how the brain develops and relates to the different parts of the postnatal brain and identify the major parts of the brain. Study Objective 2: SO 18.1.1 Describe how the brain develops and relates to the different parts of the postnatal brain. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.1 Development and General Structure of the brain
74) The Reticular Activating System receives input from ALL of the following types of stimuli except a) visual. b) auditory. c) smell. d) pain. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structures and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.
75) Loss of cholinergic neurons (release ACh), and the presence of beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are the hallmark features of what disease? a) Alzheimer’s disease b) Cerebral Palsy c) Epilepsy d) TIA Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their location. Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.4 Identify the nuclei that comprise the basal nuclei. Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 19
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Which of the following statements is TRUE for the autonomic nervous system? a) Sensory signals are usually consciously perceived. b) The effect of motor neurons is always excitatory. c) Autonomic motor neurons only secrete Acetylcholine (ACh). d) None of these choices. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Compare the structures and functions of the somatic and autonomic nervous systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems.
2) Which of the following statements about the autonomic nervous system is FALSE? a) Structurally, the autonomic nervous system consists of two main components: a sensory (input) component and a motor (output) component. b) Autonomic nervous system motor (output) pathways typically contain two motor neurons in series. c) The motor (output) division of the autonomic nervous system has three divisions: parasympathetic, sympathetic, and somatic. d) Autonomic nervous system stimulation may result in excitation or inhibition of smooth muscle or cardiac muscle, or a change in secretory activity in glands. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Compare the structures and functions of the somatic and autonomic nervous systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems.
3) Somatic motor neurons synapse with which of the following? a) an autonomic ganglion b) the adrenal medulla
c) directly with a visceral effector d) directly with skeletal muscle cells Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Compare the structures and functions of the somatic and autonomic nervous systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems.
4) The motor neurons of a sympathetic autonomic motor pathway have the following route: 1.gray ramus 2.anterior root of spinal nerve 3.axon collaterals 4.white ramus 5.nerve to a visceral effector 6.sympathetic trunk ganglion a) 2, 4, 6, 3, 1, 5 b) 2, 1, 6, 3, 4, 5 c) 2, 3, 1, 6, 4, 5 d) 2, 3, 4, 6, 1, 5 Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors. Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic division and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
5) White rami are associated only with thoracic spinal nerves and the first two or three lumbar spinal nerves. Gray rami are associated with all 31 pairs of spinal nerves. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false. Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors. Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic division and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
6) Which of the following is NOT part of the sympathetic division? a) gray rami b) splanchnic nerves c) celiac ganglion d) submandibular ganglion Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors. Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic division and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
7) Which of the following is NOT a parasympathetic terminal ganglion? a) pterygopalatine b) otic c) celiac d) submandibular Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic division of the central nervous system and the location of the ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.2 Describe the location of the parasympathetic ganglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Division.
8) Autonomic plexuses in the thorax, abdomen and pelvis may contain
a) sympathetic ganglia. b) axons of sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons. c) axons of autonomic sensory neurons. d) All of these choices. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Describe the autonomic nervous system including the development of the autonomic motor pathways, preganglionic and postganglionic neurons and anatomy of the autonomic ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.2.3 Describe the anatomy of the autonomic ganglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways
9) Which of the following responses is a result of sympathetic stimulation? a) decreased heart rate b) decreased diameter (constriction) of the pupils c) increased digestive secretions d) increased rate and depth of breathing Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.1 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic division of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Functions of the ANS.
10) Autonomic neurons that secrete the neurotransmitter acetylcholine: a) are called adrenergic. b) include all postganglionic neurons. c) include all preganglionic neurons. d) all sympathetic postganglionic neurons. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors.
11) Acetylcholine in the autonomic nervous system: a) is found only in the parasympathetic division. b) is not rapidly broken down by acetylcholinesterase (AChE) as it is in the somatic nervous system. c) has effects for a very brief time, compared to the effects of other autonomic neurotransmitters. d) always has excitatory effects. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors.
12) The neurotransmitter acetylcholine binds with which of the following types of receptors? 1. alpha 2. beta 3. nicotinic 4. muscarinic a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 2 only c) 3, 4 only d) 3 only Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors.
13) Activation of nicotinic receptors by acetylcholine (ACh) triggers which response in a postsynaptic cell? a) always excitatory b) always inhibitory c) can be excitatory or inhibitory d) no response as ACh does not activate nicotinic receptors Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors.
14) Alpha and beta receptors are found in the sympathetic division. They exist on postganglionic neurons and on visceral effectors. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors.
15) Which of the following is/are innervated ONLY by the sympathetic division? 1. arrector pili muscles 2. kidney arterioles 3. sweat glands 4. adipose tissue 5. skeletal muscle arterioles 6. brain arterioles 7. adrenal medulla a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 b) 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 only c) 1, 3, 4, 7 only d) 2, 4, 5, 6 only Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.1 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic division of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Functions of the ANS.
16) Arrange the following components of an autonomic reflex arc in the proper order: 1. preganglionic motor neuron 2. receptor 3. integrating center (interneurons) 4. postganglionic motor neuron 5. visceral effector 6. autonomic ganglion 7. sensory neuron a) 7, 2, 1, 3, 4, 6, 5 b) 1, 2, 7, 3, 6, 5, 4 c) 2, 1, 3, 7, 4, 6, 5 d) 2, 7, 3, 1, 6, 4, 5 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.8 Describe the components of an autonomic reflex and the relationship of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.8.1 Describe the components of an autonomic reflex. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.8 Integration and Control of Autonomic Functions.
17) Bronchoconstriction brought on by various allergens is a _____ response. a) sympathetic b) parasympathetic c) visceral afferent d) somatic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.2 Explain the reactions of the body to stimulation by the parasympathetic division. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Functions of the ANS.
18) Vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels is a(n) _____ response. a) cholinergic b) parasympathetic c) adrenergic
d) voluntary Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.1 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic division of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Functions of the ANS.
19) Spinal nerve C4 receives postganglionic sympathetic axons (fibers) from: a) terminal ganglia b) gray rami communicantes c) white rami communicantes d) dorsal root ganglia Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors. Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic division and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
20) Select the best description of the middle cervical ganglion: a) contains sympathetic preganglionic axons b) sympathetic; sends impulses along postganglionic axons to heart c) receives sympathetic preganglionic axons via thoracic splanchnic nerves d) contain sympathetic preganglionic cell bodies e) contain parasympathetic preganglionic cell bodies Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.
Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic division and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
21) Select the best description of a white ramus: a) contains sympathetic preganglionic axons b) sympathetic; sends impulses along postganglionic axons to heart c) receives sympathetic preganglionic axons via thoracic splanchnic nerves d) contain sympathetic preganglionic cell bodies e) contain parasympathetic preganglionic cell bodies Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors. Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic division and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
22) Select the best description of the nuclei in the brain stem: a) carries parasympathetic impulses to terminal ganglia in most organs of the ventral cavity b) sympathetic; sends impulses along postganglionic axons to heart c) receives sympathetic preganglionic axons via thoracic splanchnic nerves d) contain sympathetic preganglionic cell bodies e) contain parasympathetic preganglionic cell bodies Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic division of the central nervous system and the location of the ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the parasympathetic division. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Division.
23) Select the best description of the celiac ganglion:
a) contains sympathetic preganglionic axons b) sympathetic; sends impulses along postganglionic axons to heart c) receives sympathetic preganglionic axons via thoracic splanchnic nerves d) contain sympathetic preganglionic cell bodies e) contain parasympathetic preganglionic cell bodies Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors. Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.2 Describe the location of the sympathetic ganglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
24) Select the best description of the thoracic and lumbar lateral gray horns: a) contains sympathetic preganglionic axons b) sympathetic; sends impulses along postganglionic axons to heart c) receives sympathetic preganglionic axons via thoracic splanchnic nerves d) contain sympathetic preganglionic cell bodies e) contain parasympathetic preganglionic cell bodies Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors. Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the sympathetic division. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
25) Select the best description of the axons that leave the brain as part of the vagus (X) nerves: a) carry parasympathetic impulses to terminal ganglia in most organs of the ventral cavity b) sympathetic; sends impulses along postganglionic axons to heart c) receives sympathetic preganglionic axons via thoracic splanchnic nerves d) contain sympathetic preganglionic cell bodies e) contain parasympathetic preganglionic cell bodies Answer: a Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic division of the central nervous system and the location of the ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the parasympathetic division. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Division.
26) Select the best description of the otic ganglia: a) carry parasympathetic impulses to terminal ganglia in most organs of the ventral cavity b) send impulses via parasympathetic postganglionic axons to the parotid salivary glands c) receive sympathetic preganglionic axons via thoracic splanchnic nerves d) innervate the smooth muscle of the eyeball via parasympathetic axons e) send postganglionic parasympathetic axons to the lacrimal glands Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic division of the central nervous system and the location of the ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.2 Describe the location of the parasympathetic ganglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Division.
27) Select the best description of the ciliary ganglia: a) carry parasympathetic impulses to terminal ganglia in most organs of the ventral cavity b) send impulses via parasympathetic postganglionic axons to the parotid glands c) receive sympathetic preganglionic axons via thoracic splanchnic nerves d) innervate the smooth muscle of the eyeball via parasympathetic axons e) send postganglionic parasympathetic axons to the lacrimal glands Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic division of the central nervous system and the location of the ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.2 Describe the location of the parasympathetic ganglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Division.
28) Select the best description of the pterygopalatine ganglia: a) carry parasympathetic impulses to terminal ganglia in most organs of the ventral cavity b) send impulses via parasympathetic postganglionic axons to the parotid glands c) receive sympathetic preganglionic axons via thoracic splanchnic nerves
d) innervate the smooth muscle of the eyeball via parasympathetic axons e) send postganglionic parasympathetic axons to the lacrimal glands Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic division of the central nervous system and the location of the ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.2 Describe the location of the parasympathetic ganglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Division.
29) Select the best description of the parasympathetic preganglionic neurons: a) cell bodies are in the lateral gray horns of all thoracic and first two or three lumbar spinal segments b) axons tend to be short c) cell bodies are in sympathetic trunk ganglia (vertebral chain ganglia) or prevertebral ganglia d) cell bodies are in the brain stem nuclei of the oculomotor (III), facial (VII), glossopharyngeal (IX), and vagus (X) nerves e) axons are unmyelinated Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic division of the central nervous system and the location of the ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the parasympathetic division. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Division.
30) Select the best description of the sympathetic preganglionic neurons: a) cell bodies are in the lateral gray horns of all thoracic and first two or three lumbar spinal segments b) axons are unmyelinated c) cell bodies are in sympathetic trunk ganglia (vertebral chain ganglia) or prevertebral ganglia d) cell bodies are in the brain stem nuclei of the oculomotor (III), facial (VII), glossopharyngeal (IX), and vagus (X) nerves e) axons tend to be long Answer: a Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the sympathetic division. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
31) Select the best description of the sympathetic postganglionic neurons: a) cell bodies are in the lateral gray horns of all thoracic and first two or three lumbar spinal segments b) axons tend to be short c) cell bodies are in sympathetic trunk ganglia (vertebral chain ganglia) or prevertebral ganglia d) cell bodies are in the brain stem nuclei of the oculomotor (III), facial (VII), glossopharyngeal (IX), and vagus (X) nerves e) axons are myelinated Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic division and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
32) Select the best description of the sympathetic preganglionic neurons: a) cell bodies are in the lateral gray horns of all thoracic and all lumbar spinal segments b) axons tend to be short c) cell bodies are in sympathetic trunk ganglia (vertebral chain ganglia) or prevertebral ganglia d) cell bodies are in the brain stem nuclei of the oculomotor (III), facial (VII), glossopharyngeal (IX), and vagus (X) nerves e) axons tend to be long Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors
Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the sympathetic division. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
33) Select the best description of the parasympathetic postganglionic neurons: a) cell bodies are in terminal ganglia b) axons are myelinated c) cell bodies are in sympathetic trunk ganglia (vertebral chain ganglia) or prevertebral ganglia d) cell bodies are in the brain stem nuclei of the oculomotor (III), facial (VII), glossopharyngeal (IX), and vagus (X) nerves e) axons tend to be long Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic division of the central nervous system and the location of the ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.2 Describe the location of the parasympathetic ganglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Division.
Question type: True/False
34) Preganglionic sympathetic axons (fibers) enter the sympathetic trunk ganglia via white rami communicantes. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic division and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
35) A lateral gray horn could be found in the S2 (second sacral) spinal cord segment. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic division of the central nervous system and the location of the ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the parasympathetic division. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Division.
36) Dual innervation means that an organ is innervated (stimulated) by both the somatic and the autonomic nervous systems. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Compare the structures and functions of the somatic and autonomic nervous systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems.
37) The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system has craniosacral outflow; the parasympathetic division has thoracolumbar outflow. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Describe the autonomic nervous system including the development of the autonomic motor pathways, preganglionic and postganglionic neurons and anatomy of the autonomic ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.2.1 Outline the development of the autonomic motor pathways and explain how it relates to their adult anatomy. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways
38) Sympathetic preganglionic axons (fibers) are, in general, longer than parasympathetic preganglionic axons (fibers). Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.2 Explain the reactions of the body to stimulation by the parasympathetic division. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Functions of the ANS.
39) The superior, middle and inferior cervical ganglia are examples of prevertebral ganglia that innervate the heart and structures of the head. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors. Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic division and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
40) The cell bodies of all autonomic nervous system postganglionic axons (fibers) are located in autonomic ganglia. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Describe the autonomic nervous system including the development of the autonomic motor pathways, preganglionic and postganglionic neurons and anatomy of the autonomic ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.2.3 Describe the anatomy of the autonomic ganglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways
41) In general, the postganglionic axons (fibers) of prevertebral ganglia of the sympathetic division innervate (stimulate) effectors above the diaphragm. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors. Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic division and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
42) The celiac ganglion and a mesenteric ganglion are examples of prevertebral ganglia. Answer: True
Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors. Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.2 Describe the location of the sympathetic ganglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
43) Parasympathetic preganglionic neuron cell bodies are located in the brain stem and in the lateral gray horns of the second through fourth sacral segments of the spinal cord. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic division of the central nervous system and the location of the ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the parasympathetic division. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Division.
44) Parasympathetic postganglionic axons (fibers) are very short because the terminal ganglia are very close to the structures they innervate (stimulate). Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic division of the central nervous system and the location of the ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.2 Describe the location of the parasympathetic ganglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Division.
45) The lacrimal glands only receive parasympathetic innervation (stimulation). Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.2 Explain the reactions of the body to stimulation by the parasympathetic division. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Functions of the ANS.
46) Nicotinic receptors and muscarinic receptors both interact with acetylcholine (ACh).
Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors.
47) A single sympathetic preganglionic axon has many axon collaterals (branches) that can synapse with 20 or more postganglionic neurons. This divergence helps explain how sympathetic responses can affect most body parts simultaneously. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors. Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the sympathetic division. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
48) All adrenergic alpha receptors are ALWAYS excitatory. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors.
49) Two major plexuses of the enteric system are the myenteric plexus and the submucosal plexus. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.5 Compare and contrast the enteric division of the autonomic nervous system to the other divisions of the peripheral nervous system. Study Objective 2: SO 19.5.1 Describe the relationship of the enteric division to the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 Structure of the Enteric Division.
50) The hypothalamus is the major control and integration center of the autonomic nervous system. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.8 Describe the components of an autonomic reflex and the relationship of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.8.2 Explain the relationship of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.8 Integration and Control of Autonomic Functions.
Question type: Essay
51) List the four cranial nerves that carry parasympathetic motor impulses. Three pairs of these nerves lead to four pairs of ganglia. Name the ganglia and state which cranial nerves connect to them. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic division of the central nervous system and the location of the ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the parasympathetic division. Study Objective 3: SO 19.4.2 Describe the location of the parasympathetic ganglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Division. Solution: Oculomotor (III), facial (VII), glossopharyngeal (IX), and vagus (X) carry parasympathetic impulses. The first three listed lead to ganglia as shown in Fig. 19.6.
52) Which division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for preparing the body for an emergency situation? Describe the responses of the body that collectively are referred to as the fight-or-flight response. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.1 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic division of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Functions of the ANS.
Solution: The sympathetic division produces the fight-or-flight responses which are summarized in Table 19.3.
53) There are two main types of receptors for both acetylcholine (ACh) and for norepinephrine (NE). Give the names of the receptors, the general location of each, and the expected effect of stimulation of each receptor type. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors. Solution: Receptors for ACh are cholinergic receptors. The two types: 1. nicotinic receptors, located on the dendrites and cell bodies of sympathetic and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons, lead to excitation of the postsynaptic cell when activated. 2. muscarinic receptors, located on all effectors served by parasympathetic postganglionic neurons, cause excitation of some cells (as in the constriction of the iris), or inhibition of others (as in decreased heart rate and force of contraction) when stimulated. See Table 19.3 for others. Receptors for NE are adrenergic receptors. The two types are alpha receptors and beta receptors. Both are found on visceral effectors innervated by most sympathetic postganglionic neurons. Alpha receptors tend to be excitatory (as in dilation of the pupil). Beta receptors are excitatory in some locations (as in increased heart rate and force of contraction) and inhibitory in others (as in airway dilation). See table 19.3 for others.
54) Compare and contrast the anatomy of the motor pathways of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system and list the neurotransmitters released at each synapse in each pathway. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.2 Explain the reactions of the body to stimulation by the parasympathetic division. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Functions of the ANS. Solution: See Table 19.2.
Question type: Text entry
55) An organ that is served by both divisions of the autonomic nervous system is said to have _____ innervation. Answer: dual Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Compare the structures and functions of the somatic and autonomic nervous systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems. Solution: dual
56) The motor output component of the autonomic nervous system has two divisions: _____ and _____. Answer: sympathetic, parasympathetic Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Compare the structures and functions of the somatic and autonomic nervous systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems. Solution: sympathetic, parasympathetic
57) The largest autonomic plexus is the _____ plexus in the abdomen. Answer: celiac (solar) Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Describe the autonomic nervous system including the development of the autonomic motor pathways, preganglionic and postganglionic neurons and anatomy of the autonomic ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.2.3 Describe the anatomy of the autonomic ganglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Solution: celiac (solar)
58) The major autonomic plexuses of the thorax are the _____ plexus and the ______ plexus. Answer: cardiac, pulmonary Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Describe the autonomic nervous system including the development of the autonomic motor pathways, preganglionic and postganglionic neurons and anatomy of the autonomic ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.2.3 Describe the anatomy of the autonomic ganglia.
Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Solution: cardiac, pulmonary
59) In almost all cases, synapses between preganglionic and postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division occur either in _____ ganglia or in _____ ganglia. Answer: prevertebral, sympathetic trunk (vertebral chain or paravertebral) Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors. Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic division and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division. Solution: prevertebral, sympathetic trunk (vertebral chain or paravertebral)
60) The _____ portion of the sympathetic trunk innervates (stimulates) the heart, sweat glands of the head, the smooth muscle of the eye, and blood vessels in the head. Answer: cervical Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors. Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic division and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division. Solution: cervical
61) The facial (VII) cranial nerves carry parasympathetic preganglionic axons (fibers) to two pairs of terminal ganglia: the _____ and the _____ ganglia. Answer: submandibular, pterygopalatine Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic division of the central nervous system and the location of the ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.2 Describe the location of the parasympathetic ganglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Division.
Solution: submandibular, pterygopalatine
62) The lateral gray horns of the thoracic region contain cell bodies of _____ (sympathetic or parasympathetic) preganglionic neurons. Answer: sympathetic Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors. Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the sympathetic division. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division. Solution: sympathetic
63) Splanchnic nerves carry sympathetic axons (fibers) from a/an _____ ganglion to a/an _____ ganglion. Answer: sympathetic trunk (paravertebral or vertebral chain), prevertebral Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors. Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic division and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division. Solution: sympathetic trunk (paravertebral or vertebral chain), prevertebral
64) The cranial nerve that carries most of the parasympathetic outflow is the _____. Answer: vagus (X) Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic division of the central nervous system and the location of the ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the parasympathetic division. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Division. Solution: vagus (X)
Question type: Multiple Choice
65) Which division of the autonomic nervous system is the specialized network of nerves and ganglia forming a complex, integrated neuronal network within the wall of the gastrointestinal tract, pancreas, and gallbladder ? a) sympathetic b) parasympathetic c) enteric d) somatic Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.5 Compare and contrast the enteric division of the autonomic nervous system to the other divisions of the peripheral nervous system. Study Objective 2: SO 19.5.1 Describe the relationship of the enteric division to the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 Structure of the Enteric Division.
66) Autonomic innervation (stimulation) from the _____ division results in vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the dermis of the skin. a) sympathetic b) parasympathetic c) somatic d) None of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.1 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic division of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Functions of the ANS.
67) Autonomic neurons that release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine are called _____ neurons. a) cholinergic b) dopaminergic
c) seratonergic d) adrenergic Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors.
68) The _____ division of the autonomic nervous system is mostly responsible for regulating restorative, energy-conserving body activities. a) sympathetic b) parasympathetic c) somatic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.2 Explain the reactions of the body to stimulation by the parasympathetic division. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Functions of the ANS.
69) The _____ is the major control and integration center of the autonomic nervous system. a) thalamus b) cerebrum c) hypothalamus d) cerebellum Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 19.8 Describe the components of an autonomic reflex and the relationship of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.8.2 Explain the relationship of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.8 Integration and Control of Autonomic Functions.
70) The posterior and lateral portions of the hypothalamus control the _____ division of the autonomic nervous system.
a) sympathetic b) parasympathetic c) somatic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.8 Describe the components of an autonomic reflex and the relationship of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.8.2 Explain the relationship of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.8 Integration and Control of Autonomic Functions.
71) The anterior and medial portions of the hypothalamus control the _____ division of the autonomic nervous system. a) sympathetic b) parasympathetic c) somatic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.8 Describe the components of an autonomic reflex and the relationship of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.8.2 Explain the relationship of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.8 Integration and Control of Autonomic Functions.
72) In the figure below, which letter represents the celiac ganglion (one of the four major prevertebral ganglia)?
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors. Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.2 Describe the location of the sympathetic ganglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
73) This leader line points to the greater splanchnic nerve which synapses with postganglionic cell bodies in the celiac ganglion.
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors. Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic division and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
74) This leader line points to right vagus (X) nerve which supplies parasympathetic fibers to most of the trunk viscera.
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic division of the central nervous system and the location of the ganglia. Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the parasympathetic division. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Division.
75) This leader line points to the right sympathetic trunk ganglion which receives preganglionic axons from thoracic and lumbar spinal cord segments.
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors. Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.2 Describe the location of the sympathetic ganglia. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Division.
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 20
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Which of the following pairs of terms is incorrectly matched? a) exteroceptors; at or near the surface of the body b) proprioceptors; in walls of blood vessels c) cutaneous receptors; in skin and mucous membranes d) interoceptors; in internal organs (viscera) Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different ways that sensory receptors can be classified and how sensations can occur. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Explain the different ways sensory receptors can be classified. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations
2) Which of the following has encapsulated nerve endings? a) hair root plexus b) type I cutaneous mechanoreceptor (tactile disc) c) corpuscle of touch (Meissner corpuscle) d) photoreceptor Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different ways that sensory receptors can be classified and how sensations can occur. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Explain the different ways sensory receptors can be classified. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations
3) For perception to occur, sensory nerve impulses must reach which of the following levels of the CNS? a) spinal cord b) brain stem c) thalamus
d) cerebral cortex Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different ways that sensory receptors can be classified and how sensations can occur. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.1 Define sensation. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations
4) The receptors for pain: a) are free nerve endings called nociceptors. b) may be stimulated by chemicals released by injured tissues. c) respond to any type of stimulus if it is of sufficient intensity. d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
5) Which of the following receptor types has the slowest adaptation rate? a) lamellated (pacinian) corpuscle b) hair root plexus c) nociceptor d) joint kinesthetic receptor Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
6) Which of the following cutaneous receptors are responsible for fine touch? 1. type I cutaneous mechanoreceptors 2. end organs of Ruffini 3. type II cutaneous mechanoreceptors 4. corpuscles of touch (Meissner corpuscles) a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 3 c) 2, 4 d) 1, 4 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
7) Which of the following is NOT a proprioceptor? a) hair root plexus b) joint kinesthetic receptor within synovial joint capsules c) tendon organ within tendons d) muscle spindle within skeletal muscles Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
8) Which of the following develop as specialized muscle fibers? a) tendon organs b) hair cells of the inner ear c) muscle spindles d) joint kinesthetic receptors Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
9) From the following list of spinal cord pathways, choose the ones that are together responsible for carrying all conscious sensory information in the spinal cord: 1. spinothalamic 2. gracile fasciculus 3. spinocerebellar 4. posterior column-medial lemniscus 5. cuneate fasciculus a) 1,2, 4, 5 b) 2, 5 c) 3, 4 d) 1, 3 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway. Study Objective 3: SO 20.3.2 Outline the structures and functions of the anterolateral pathway. Study Objective 4: SO 20.3.3 Explain the activities controlled by the spinocerebellar pathway and the structures involved. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways
10) Third-order neurons: a) have axons that end in the thalamus. b) carry nerve impulses from the spinal cord and brain stem to the thalamus. c) have axons that decussate in the spinal cord or brain stem. d) carry nerve impulses to the primary somatosensory area in the postcentral gyrus. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways
11) Which of the following is a sensation that is NOT carried by the spinothalamic pathways? a) pain b) itch c) tickle d) proprioception Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.2 Outline the structures and functions of the anterolateral pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways
12) Pyramidal pathways: a) innervate skeletal muscles only. b) contain upper motor neurons and lower motor neurons. c) extend from the cerebral cortex, through the medulla, and then to their destination, either through cranial nerves or through spinal cord tracts and spinal nerves. d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons and pathways within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways
13) Corticobulbar tracts carry information that coordinates the voluntary movement of all of the following except: a) facial muscles.
b) eyes. c) skilled movements of the hands. d) muscles of speech and chewing. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons and pathways within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways
14) The group of tracts called the lateral corticospinal tracts, anterior corticospinal tracts, and corticobulbar tracts: a) are the direct motor pathways. b) are the anterolateral pathways. c) are the indirect motor pathways. d) are the direct and indirect motor pathways. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons and pathways within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways
15) Upper motor neurons of the indirect pathways begin in the: a) cerebral cortex. b) brain stem. c) thalamus. d) spinal cord. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons and pathways within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways
16) Final common pathways consist of: a) upper motor neurons. b) lower motor neurons. c) upper and lower motor neurons. d) interneurons. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons and pathways within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.1 Identify the locations and functions of the different types of neurons in the somatic motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways
17) Which groups of neurons provide input to lower motor neurons? 1. local circuit neurons 2. upper motor neurons 3. basal nuclei neurons 4. cerebellar neurons a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 3, 4 c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 and 2 only Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons and pathways within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.1 Identify the locations and functions of the different types of neurons in the somatic motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways
18) Sudoriferous (sweat) glands of the integument would receive motor innervation carried in which spinal cord tract? a) lateral corticospinal b) anterior corticospinal c) lateral spinothalamic d) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons and pathways within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways
19) Somatic afferent fibers relaying information regarding the position of the ankle joint _____. a) travel in the lateral corticospinal tract b) travel in the anterior corticospinal tract c) synapse in the gracile nucleus of the medulla d) do NOT synapse in the thalamus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways
20) Select the best description for the function of the posterior column-medial lemniscus: a) impulses for conscious proprioception and most tactile sensations b) impulses for pain and temperature sensations c) impulses for itch, tickle, crude touch, and pressure sensations d) impulses for subconscious proprioception e) impulses for coordination of precise voluntary movements of the hands and feet
Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways
21) Select the best description for the function of the anterior and posterior spinocerebellar tracts: a) impulses for conscious proprioception and most tactile sensations b) impulses for pain and temperature sensations c) impulses for itch, tickle, crude touch and pressure sensations d) impulses for subconscious proprioception e) impulses for coordination of precise voluntary movements of the hands and feet Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.3 Explain the activities controlled by the spinocerebellar pathway and the structures involved. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways
22) Select the best description for the function of the lateral spinothalamic tract: a) impulses for conscious proprioception and most tactile sensations b) impulses for pain and temperature sensations c) impulses for itch, tickle, crude touch and pressure sensations d) impulses for subconscious proprioception e) impulses for coordination of precise voluntary movements of the hands and feet Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.2 Outline the structures and functions of the anterolateral pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways
23) Select the best description for the function of the anterior spinothalamic tract:
a) impulses for conscious proprioception and most tactile sensations b) impulses for pain and temperature sensations c) impulses for itch, tickle, crude touch and pressure sensations d) impulses for subconscious proprioception e) impulses for coordination of precise voluntary movements of the hands and feet Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.2 Outline the structures and functions of the anterolateral pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways
24) Select the best description for the function of the tectospinal tract: a) impulses for coordination of movements of the trunk and proximal parts of the limbs b) impulses that move the head and eyes in response to visual or auditory stimuli c) conveys nerve impulses from motor cortex to skeletal muscles of head and neck to coordinate precise, voluntary movements d) impulses for subconscious proprioception e) impulses for precise voluntary movements of the hands and feet Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons and pathways within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways
25) Select the best description for the function of the lateral corticospinal tract: a) impulses for coordination of movements of the trunk and proximal parts of the limbs b) impulses that move the head and eyes in response to visual stimuli c) conveys nerve impulses from motor cortex to skeletal muscles of head and neck to coordinate precise, voluntary movements d) impulses for subconscious proprioception e) impulses for precise voluntary movements of the hands and feet Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons and pathways within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways
26) Select the best description for the function of the corticobulbar tract: a) impulses for coordination of movements of the trunk and proximal parts of the limbs b) impulses that move the head and eyes in response to visual stimuli c) conveys nerve impulses from motor cortex to skeletal muscles of head and neck to coordinate precise, voluntary movements d) impulses for subconscious proprioception e) impulses for precise voluntary movements of the hands and feet Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons and pathways within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways
27) Select the best description for the function of the anterior corticospinal tract: a) impulses for coordination of movements of the trunk and proximal parts of the limbs b) impulses that move the head and eyes in response to visual stimuli c) conveys nerve impulses from motor cortex to skeletal muscles of head and neck to coordinate precise, voluntary movements d) impulses for subconscious proprioception e) impulses for precise voluntary movements of the hands and feet Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons and pathways within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.
Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways
Question type: True/False
28) Visceral senses and somatic senses are grouped together in the class called general senses. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different ways that sensory receptors can be classified and how sensations can occur. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.1 Define sensation. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations
29) Modality of receptors refers to the fact that a receptor will only respond if a stimulus is of sufficient strength. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different ways that sensory receptors can be classified and how sensations can occur. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.1 Define sensation. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations
30) Type II cutaneous mechanoreceptors, found deep in the dermis, function as receptors for touch as well as for pressure. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
31) Visceral pain occurs when nociceptors in internal organs, skeletal muscles, tendons, or joints are stimulated.
Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
32) The receptors for pain, temperature, itch and tickle are all free nerve endings. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
33) Stimulation of nociceptors in the skin gives rise to superficial somatic pain. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
34) Ascending somatic sensory pathways to the cerebral cortex consist of thousands of sets of three neurons: first-order neurons, second-order neurons, and third-order neurons. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways
35) Proprioception is the sense that provides an awareness of body positions and movements of parts of the body. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
36) Identifying a paper clip by feeling it or reading Braille are both examples of stereognosis. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways
37) The gracile fasciculus and cuneate fasciculus are found in the anterior column of the spinal cord. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways
38) Proprioceptive information may be conveyed to the cerebellum via sensory neurons that travel in spinocerebellar tracts. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.3 Explain the activities controlled by the spinocerebellar pathway and the structures involved. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways
39) First-order neurons transmit signals from somatic receptors along cranial and spinal nerves into the brain stem and spinal cord respectively. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways
40) Decussation of sensory pathways occurs before the pathway reaches the thalamus. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway. Study Objective 3: SO 20.3.2 Outline the structures and functions of the anterolateral pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways
41) The majority of commands from the motor cortex to skeletal muscles travel via the anterior corticospinal tracts in the spinal cord. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons and pathways within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways
42) The anterior corticospinal tracts cross over to the opposite side at the level of the medulla oblongata. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons and pathways within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways
43) The rubrospinal, tectospinal, reticulospinal, and corticospinal tracts are all indirect pathways. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons and pathways within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways
44) Bradykinesia, hypokinesia, tremor, and increased muscle tone are all symptoms of Parkinson’s disease. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons and pathways within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.3 Explain how the basal nuclei and cerebellum contribute to movements. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways
45) A person is only truly in a coma when all reflex activity ceases. Answer: False
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
Question type: Essay
46) A mosquito bites you on the wrist. Even before you look at the spot, your CNS has informed you of what has happened, and where. What neuronal events have occurred between the time the insect began to bite and the moment when you became aware? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway. Study Objective 3: SO 20.3.2 Outline the structures and functions of the anterolateral pathway.. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Solution: 1. Stimulation: activation of sensory neurons 2. Creation of a nerve impulse in a first-order sensory neuron 3. Conduction of nerve impulse to the CNS via the first-order neuron 4. Nerve impulse reaches the region in the CNS where it is transformed into a conscious perception.
47) Outline the three classification systems for receptors. List the types of receptors according to each classification and give examples. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different ways that sensory receptors can be classified and how sensations can occur. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Explain the different ways sensory receptors can be classified. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations Solution: 1. By microscopic appearance: free nerve endings, encapsulated nerve endings, and separate cells 2. By receptor location: exteroceptors, interoceptors, proprioceptors
3. By type of stimulus detected: mechanoreceptors, photoreceptors, thermoreceptors, osmoreceptors, chemoreceptors, nociceptors
48) What is referred pain? Using an example, explain how referred pain occurs. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations Solution: Pain impulses from the viscera are often interpreted as coming from the skin either near to, or more removed from, the affected organ. The most common example is the pain of a heart attack. The area to which the pain is referred (medial aspect of left arm, skin over the left side of the chest) is served by the T1-T5 region of the cord, which also serves the heart.
49) Discuss the structure, location, and functions of the three main types of proprioceptors. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations Solution: Table 20.2 summarizes muscle spindles, tendon organs, and joint kinesthetic receptors.
50) Make a diagram showing the locations of the neuronal components of the anterolateral (spinothalamic) pathways and describe the functions of the pathways. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.2 Outline the structures and functions of the anterolateral pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Solution: See Fig. 20.4(b) and Table 20.3.
51) Name three spinal tracts that carry conscious sensory information. For each tract, describe the location and the types of sensations transmitted. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway. Study Objective 3: SO 20.3.2 Outline the structures and functions of the anterolateral pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Solution: 1. Posterior column-medial lemniscus 2. and 3. Anterior spinothalamic and lateral spinothalamic tracts See Table 20.3 for location and the types of sensations transmitted
52) Name, locate, and briefly describe the functions of three descending tracts that are referred to as the direct pathways. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons and pathways within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways Solution: The corticospinal (anterior and lateral) and corticobulbar tracts See Table 20.4 for the locations and functions of these tracts.
53) There are three main ways to classify receptors: by _____, _____, and by _____. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different ways that sensory receptors can be classified and how sensations can occur. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Explain the different ways sensory receptors can be classified. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations Solution: location, type of stimulus, microscopic appearance
Question type: Multiple Choice
54) _____ is the conscious awareness and interpretation of a sensation. a) Modality b) Adaptation c) Perception d) Integration e) Proprioception Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different ways that sensory receptors can be classified and how sensations can occur. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.1 Define sensation. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations
55) _____ is defined as the conscious or subconscious awareness of changes in the external or internal conditions of the body. a) Sensation b) Adaptation c) Perception d) Reception Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different ways that sensory receptors can be classified and how sensations can occur. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.1 Define sensation. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations
56) Which of the following is classified as a special sense? a) touch b) pain c) equilibrium d) vibration Answer: c Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different ways that sensory receptors can be classified and how sensations can occur. Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Explain the different ways sensory receptors can be classified. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations
57) Deep somatic pain arises from stimulation of _____ in skeletal muscles and joints. a) proprioceptors b) nociceptors c) photoreceptors d) thermoreceptors e) osmoreceptors Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
Question type: True/False
58) There are two types of thermoreceptors: warm receptors in the dermis of the skin, and cold receptors located in the stratum basale of the epidermis Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
Question type: Multiple Choice
59) Receptors for pressure and vibration that consist of an oval multi-layered capsule surrounding a dendrite, and that are located in the skin as well as subcutaneous and submucosal tissues, are called _____.
a) lamellated corpuscles (pacinian corpuscles) b) corpuscles of touch (Meissner corpuscles) c) type I cutaneous mechanoreceptors (tactile discs) d) Type II cutaneous mechanoreceptors (Ruffini corpuscles) Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
Question type: True/False
60) There are two destinations in the brain for proprioceptive information: the hypothalamus and the brainstem Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway. Study Objective 3: SO 20.3.3 Explain the activities controlled by the spinocerebellar pathway and the structures involved. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways
Question type: Multiple Choice
61) _____ are proprioceptors located at the junction of a tendon and a muscle. a) Muscle spindles b) lamellated corpuscles (pacinian corpuscles) c) Tendon organs d) Extrafusal fibers Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
62) The cell bodies of _____-order sensory neurons are located in the thalamus. a) first b) second c) third d) fourth Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway. Study Objective 3: SO 20.3.2 Outline the structures and functions of the anterolateral pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways
63) Axons of _____-order neurons cross over to the other side in the brain or spinal cord before ascending to the thalamus. a) first b) second c) third d) upper Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway. Study Objective 3: SO 20.3.2 Outline the structures and functions of the anterolateral pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways
64) The _____ pathway conducts impulses for conscious proprioception and most tactile sensations. a) anterior corticospinal b) posterior column-medial lemniscus c) spinothalamic d) tectospinal Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral and spinocerebellar pathways. Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways
65) Incoming sensory information is integrated; that is, it is processed and interpreted and a course of action is taken. At which of the following locations does the integration process occur? a) spinal cord and brain stem b) cerebellum c) cerebral cortex d) All of these choices are correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.5 Explain how sensory input and motor output are integrated in the central nervous system. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.5 Integration of Sensory Input and Motor Output.
66) Lower motor neurons that carry information from the CNS to skeletal muscle fibers form the _____. a) final common pathway b) medial lemniscus pathway c) corticobulbar pathway d) anterolateral pathway Answer: a Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons and pathways within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.1 Identify the locations and functions of the different types of neurons in the somatic motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways
Question type: True/False
67) Tendon organs contain intrafusal fibers. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
68) The major control region for planning and initiating voluntary movements is the primary motor area (precentral gyrus) of the cortex. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons and pathways within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement. Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.1 Identify the locations and functions of the different types of neurons in the somatic motor pathways. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways
Question type: Multiple Choice
69) Gamma motor neurons are responsible for the innervation of _____ fibers of the muscle spindle. a) extrafusal b) intrafusal
Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
70) Which of the following proprioceptors contain dendrites of slowly adapting sensory neurons? 1. muscle spindles 2. tendon organs 3. joint kinesthetic receptors a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
71) Which of the following proprioceptors have a thin capsule of connective tissue enclosing a few bundles of collagen fibers? a) muscle spindles b) tendon organs c) joint kinesthetic receptors d) muscle spindles and tendon organs Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
72) Referred pain site for the kidneys
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
73) Referred pain site for the heart
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
74) Referred pain site for the liver and gallbladder
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
75) Referred pain site for the stomach
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception. Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations. Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 21
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Mucus found on the surface of the olfactory epithelium: a) is produced by glands beneath the olfactory epithelium. b) makes it possible for odorants to react with the olfactory receptors. c) is produced in increased amounts in response to stimulation by the facial (VII) nerves. d) All of these choices. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors, the other cells involved in olfaction and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell
2) The olfactory epithelium occupies the superior part of the: a) nasal cavity. b) nasal septum. c) superior nasal conchae. d) All of these choices. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors, the other cells involved in olfaction and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell
3) Place the following in the correct order for the transmission of olfactory information that results in odor perception. 1. olfactory bulbs 2. olfactory tract
3. temporal cortex 4. olfactory (I) nerves 5. frontal cortex a) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 b) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5 c) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 d) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors, the other cells involved in olfaction and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.2 Outline the neural pathway for olfaction. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell
4) Taste buds of a young adult are located on the: a) epiglottis b) pharynx c) tongue and soft palate d) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste
5) The cranial nerves containing neurons of the gustatory pathway are: 1. facial (VII) nerve 2. vagus (X) nerve 3. glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve 4. trigeminal (V) nerve 5. abducens (VI) nerve a) 1, 3, 5 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 2, 3 d) 1, 4, 5 Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste
6) All of the following are accessory structures of the eye EXCEPT: a) palpebrae b) lacrimal apparatus c) intrinsic muscles d) eyelashes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
7) A layer of dense connective tissue that covers the entire eyeball except the cornea is called _____. a) choroid b) conjunctiva c) sclera d) uvea Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
8) Which of the following statements about the cornea is TRUE? a) The outer surface is keratinized simple squamous epithelium. b) The outer surface is nonkeratinized simple squamous epithelium. c) The connective tissue layer of the cornea is avascular. d) It contains proteins called crystallins.
Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
9) Which of the following types of cells is the first to receive a light ray as it travels through the retina? a) bipolar cell b) ganglion cell c) pigmented epithelium d) photoreceptor cell Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
10) The vitreous body: a) is produced by the ciliary processes. b) undergoes constant replacement. c) is the main contributor to intraocular pressure. d) none of these choices. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
11) Which of the following is NOT a feature of the external ear? a) auditory tube
b) helix c) lobule d) external auditory canal Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium
12) In what order do the following structures vibrate as sound is transmitted? 1. stapes 2. tympanic membrane 3. oval window 4. incus 5. malleus a) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3 b) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 c) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 d) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.2 Explain the principal events involved in hearing. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium
13) Which of the following is primarily responsible for the sensation of hearing? a) spiral organ b) ampulla c) saccule d) utricle Answer: a Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium
14) The vestibular apparatus is located in the: a) middle ear. b) anterior cavity of the eye. c) nasal cavity. d) internal ear. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium
15) The facial (VII) nerve and vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve both travel through the facial canal of the petrous portion of the temporal bone. A tumor located in this canal will potentially interfere with the special sense(s) of: a) taste b) hearing c) equilibrium d) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 3: SO 21.4.3 Outline the auditory pathway. Study Objective 4: SO 21.4.5 Identify the equilibrium pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste Section Reference 2: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium
16) Obstruction or blockage of the nasolacrimal duct will prevent drainage of tears into the: a) aqueous humor b) vitreous humor c) nasal cavity d) ciliary body Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
17) Select the best description for the vallate (circumvallate) papillae: a) largest type; all contain taste buds b) distributed in V-shaped row on the anterior portion of the tongue c) mushroom shaped; evenly distributed over the tongue d) contain no taste buds Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste
18) Select the best description for the filiform papillae: a) largest type; all contain taste buds b) distributed in V-shaped row on the anterior portion of the tongue c) mushroom shaped; evenly distributed over the tongue d) contain no taste buds Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste
19) Select the best description for the fungiform papillae: a) largest type; all contain taste buds b) distributed in V-shaped row on the anterior portion of the tongue c) mushroom shaped; evenly distributed over the tongue d) contain no taste buds Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste
20) Select the best description for the lacrimal glands: a) near the external opening of the external auditory canal b) embedded in tarsal plate of eyelid c) superior and lateral to the eyeball d) in connective tissue underneath the olfactory epithelium e) at the base of the follicles of the eyelashes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
21) Select the best description for the ceruminous glands: a) near the external opening of the external auditory canal b) embedded in tarsal plate of eyelid c) superior and lateral to the eyeball d) in connective tissue underneath the olfactory epithelium e) at the base of the follicles of the eyelashes Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events.
Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium
22) Select the best description for the olfactory (Bowman's) gland: a) near the external opening of the external auditory canal b) embedded in tarsal plate of eyelid c) superior and lateral to the eyeball d) in connective tissue underneath the olfactory epithelium e) at the base of the follicles of the eyelashes Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors, the other cells involved in olfaction and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell
23) Select the best description for the sebaceous ciliary glands: a) near the external opening of the external auditory canal b) embedded in tarsal plate of eyelid c) superior and lateral to the eyeball d) in connective tissue underneath the olfactory epithelium e) at the base of the follicles of the eyelashes Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
Question type: True/False
24) The perception of taste will be significantly altered by obstructions of the nasal cavity (e.g. nasal congestion).
Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste
25) Olfactory receptors, which are specialized neurons, are replaced regularly by the basal cells of the olfactory epithelium. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors, the other cells involved in olfaction and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell
26) Olfactory receptor cells are unipolar neurons. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors, the other cells involved in olfaction and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell
27) Large papillae that always contain taste buds and that are found in a V-shaped row on the posterior region of the tongue are called vallate (circumvallate) papillae. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste
28) The mucous membrane lining the inner aspect of the eyelids is the bulbar conjunctiva.
Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
29) In the retina, cones are more numerous than rods. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
30) Infection of the tarsal glands creates a pus-filled swelling called a sty. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
31) The space within the eye between the lens and the cornea is the anterior cavity. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
32) In bright light, impulses from sympathetic neurons cause a constriction of the pupil due to contraction of the radial muscle fibers of the iris. Answer: False
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
33) The bony labyrinth contains perilymph; the membranous labyrinth contains endolymph. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium
34) Sensory input from the vestibular apparatus is transmitted to the pons, medulla oblongata and cerebellum regions of the brain. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.5 Identify the equilibrium pathway. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium
35) The vestibular apparatus consists of the organs responsible for hearing and equilibrium. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.4 List the receptor organs for equilibrium, and describe how they function. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium
36) Glaucoma, the most common cause of blindness in the United States, results from abnormal build-up of aqueous humor in the anterior cavity of the eye.
Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
Question type: Essay
37) Olfactory receptors and gustatory receptors each contain three types of cells. Briefly describe each of these cells and state the function of each. Your answer should point out some major differences in each cell type between the two receptors. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors, the other cells involved in olfaction and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction. Study Objective 3: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell Section Reference 2: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste Solution: 1. Olfactory epithelium: olfactory receptor cells: bipolar neurons derived from division of basal stem cells. Olfactory cilia on the dendrites: the site of olfactory transduction. Supporting cells: columnar epithelium. 2. Taste buds: All three cells here are epithelial cells. Supporting cells form the capsule; basal stem cells divide to produce supporting cells, which specialize to become gustatory receptor cells each with gustatory microvilli that reacts with taste stimuli. Receptor cells synapse with the dendrites of the gustatory neurons at the base of the taste bud.
38) Describe the various pathways for gustatory sensations from different regions of the oral cavity and pharynx to the primary gustatory cortex. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Study Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste
Solution: 1. Facial (VII) nerve serves the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. 2. Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve serves the posterior one-third of the tongue. 3. Vagus (X) nerve serves the pharynx and epiglottis. All impulses arrive in the medulla, then project to the limbic system and hypothalamus or to the thalamus and thence to the primary gustatory cortex of the parietal lobe.
39) Describe the individual layers of the wall of the eyeball, from outermost to innermost layer. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision Solution: The following should be correctly used in the answer: 1. fibrous tunic, consisting of sclera and cornea 2. vascular tunic (uvea), consisting of choroid, ciliary body, and iris 3. retina (inner tunic), consisting of pigmented epithelium and the neural portion of the retina
40) List the layers of cells in the neural portion of the retina in the order in which light passes through them. Compare this to the order for the direction of visual data processing. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision Solution: See Anatomy of the Eyeball, Fig. 21.7, Microscopic structure of the retina
41) Summarize the events that occur as sound waves enter the external ear and are transmitted through the middle and inner ears to produce sensations of hearing. Accompany your summary with labeled sketches that illustrate the anatomical features in your answer. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.2 Explain the principal events involved in hearing. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium
Solution: See Mechanism of Hearing, Fig 21.14, Stimulation of auditory receptors in the right ear
42) Define the two kinds of equilibrium and name and describe the receptors for each. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.4 List the receptor organs for equilibrium, and describe how they function. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Solution: See text section, Mechanism of Equilibium, for the definitions and a description of the macula of the utricle and saccule (for static equilibrium and some aspects of dynamic equilibrium) and of the crista of the ampulla in the semicircular ducts (for dynamic equilibrium).
Question type: Multiple Choice
43) The olfactory (I) nerves terminate in masses of gray matter called olfactory _____, which are located on the inferior surface of the brain, superior to the ethmoid bone. a) bipolar cells b) utricles c) bulbs d) maculae Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors, the other cells involved in olfaction and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.2 Outline the neural pathway for olfaction. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell
Question type: True/False
44) The first-order neurons of the olfactory pathway are bipolar neurons called olfactory receptor cells. Answer: True
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors, the other cells involved in olfaction and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.2 Outline the neural pathway for olfaction. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell
Question type: Multiple Choice
45) The olfactory (I) nerves consist of approximately 40 bundles of axons of olfactory neurons that extend through foramina in the cribriform plate of the _____ bone. a) sphenoid b) ethmoid c) frontal d) temporal Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors, the other cells involved in olfaction and the neural pathway for olfaction. Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.2 Outline the neural pathway for olfaction. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell
46) The sense of taste is scientifically called _____. a) gustation b) olfaction c) deglutition d) NONE of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste
Question type: True/False
47) The rough appearance of the upper surface of the tongue is due to the presence of numerous papillae. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste
Question type: Multiple Choice
48) Lacrimal fluid contains water, mucus, salts, and a bactericidal enzyme called _____. a) lysozyme b) cerumen c) perilymph d) endolymph Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
49) In bright light, the _____ muscle of the iris contracts, causing a/an _____ (increase/decrease) in the size of the pupil (constriction). a) sphincter pupillae; increase b) dilator pupillae, decrease c) ciliary, decrease d) sphincter pupillae; decrease Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
Question type: True/False
50) Ciliary processes produce the vitreous humor of the eye. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
Question type: Multiple Choice
51) The elevation located in the medial commissure of the eye that contains sudoriferous (sweat) and sebaceous (oil) glands is called the _____. a) tarsal plate b) conjunctiva c) lacrimal caruncle d) lacrimal sac Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
52) The macula lutea contains a depression called the _____ which contains only cone photoreceptors. a) scleral venous sinus b) choroid c) ciliary body d) fovea centralis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision
Question type: True/False
53) The auditory tube connects the inner ear to the nasopharynx. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium
Question type: Multiple Choice
54) The complex series of canals known as the labyrinth makes up the _____ ear. a) internal (inner) b) middle c) external (outer) Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium
55) In the wall of the utricle and saccule, the gelatinous layer of the macula that rests on the hair cells contains calcium carbonate crystals called _____. a) otoliths b) crystallins c) kinocilia
d) stereocilia Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.4 List the receptor organs for equilibrium, and describe how they function. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium
56) The organs responsible for static and dynamic equilibrium are collectively known as the _____ apparatus. a) cochlear b) ciliary c) labyrinth d) vestibular Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.4 List the receptor organs for equilibrium, and describe how they function. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium
Question type: Text entry
57) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: retina (inner tunic) Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision Solution: retina (inner tunic)
58) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: sclera Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision Solution: sclera
59) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: choroid Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision Solution: choroid
60) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: cornea Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision Solution: cornea
61) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: pupil Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision Solution: pupil
62) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: iris Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision Solution: iris
63) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: lens Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision Solution: lens
64) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: vitreous chamber Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision Solution: vitreous chamber
65) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: fovea centralis Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball and the neural pathway for vision. Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision Solution: fovea centralis
66) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: malleus Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Solution: malleus
67) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: incus Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Solution: incus
68) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: stapes Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Solution: stapes
69) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: semicircular canal Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Solution: semicircular canal
70) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: cochlea Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Solution: cochlea
71) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: cochlear duct Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Solution: cochlear duct
72) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: round window Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Solution: round window
73) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: oval window Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Solution: oval window
74) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: utricle Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Solution: utricle
75) The structure indicated by the arrow is _____
Answer: saccule Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium and the neural pathways for both events. Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Solution: saccule
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 22
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Which of the following is a space or fluid in which you would NOT expect to find a hormone? a) blood plasma b) interstitial fluid c) duct d) capillaries Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Distinguish between exocrine glands and endocrine glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Endocrine Glands Defined
2) The ability of a hormone to affect the activities of a particular cell depends on that cell having specific receptors with which the hormone molecules can bind. The number of receptors present in a target cell is a constant, invariable number. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.2 Describe how hormones interact with target-cell receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.2 Hormones
3) Which of the following hormones has the ovaries and testes as its target tissue? a) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) b) relaxin (RLX) c) inhibin d) progesterone Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
4) The _____ is the main link between the nervous system and the endocrine system, due to its control over secretory activities of the _____ gland. a) thalamus, pituitary b) hypothalamus, thyroid c) brain stem, thyroid d) hypothalamus, pituitary Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.1 Explain why the hypothalamus is classified as an endocrine gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
5) The hypophyseal portal veins: a) supply blood to the primary plexus capillaries in the base of the hypothalamus. b) carry hypothalamic hormones to the anterior pituitary. c) receive anterior pituitary hormones as they are secreted. d) receive posterior pituitary hormones via the plexus of the infundibular process. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.1 Explain why the hypothalamus is classified as an endocrine gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
6) Which of the following are NOT direct targets of anterior pituitary hormones?
a) mammary glands b) kidneys c) thyroid gland d) adrenal cortex Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
7) The two lobes of the thyroid gland are joined by a mass of tissue called the _____. a) isthmus b) parathyroid c) infundibulum d) follicle Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands
8) Thyroxine (T4) is a hormone that: a) is produced by parafollicular cells ( C cells). b) is secreted along with T3 into the follicles of the thyroid gland. c) is also known as triiodothyronine. d) causes myxedema when produced in excess. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands.
Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5Thyroid Gland and parathyroid glands
9) Which of the following is an adrenal gland hormone that is essential for life? a) aldosterone b) norepinephrine (NE) c) insulin d) epinephrine Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal cortex and medulla. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal cortex. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Adrenal Glands
10) Which of the following pairs of terms is INCORRECTLY matched? a) insulin; secreted by beta cells b) glucagon; secreted by alpha cells c) somatostatin; secreted by delta cells d) pancreatic polypeptide; inhibits secretion of insulin and glucagon Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreas. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Pancreas
11) Estrogens are produced by cells in the: 1. ovaries. 2. placenta. 3. adrenal cortex. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) both 1 and 2.
Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.8 Describe the location, hormones, and endocrine functions of the male and female gonads. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.8 Ovaries and Testes
12) The hormone inhibin is produced by the: 1. ovaries. 2. testes. 3. pancreas. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) both 1 and 2. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.8 Describe the location, hormones, and endocrine functions of the male and female gonads. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.8 Ovaries and Testes
13) Which of the following are NOT a part of the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans)? a) acini b) alpha cells c) beta cells d) F-cells Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreas. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Pancreas
14) The hormone that functions to promote development and maintenance of male secondary sex characteristics is: a) follicle-stimulating hormone.
b) testosterone. c) luteinizing hormone. d) human growth hormone. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.8 Describe the location, hormones, and endocrine functions of the male and female gonads. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.8 Ovaries and Testes
15) The endocrine gland that produces hormones that mediate the proliferation and maturation of T cells of the immune system is the _____. a) pancreas b) pineal c) thymus d) thyroid Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland and the role of the thymus in immunity. Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.2 Describe the role of the thymus in immunity. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Pineal Gland and Thymus
16) The following gland arises from ectoderm: a) thyroid. b) pancreas. c) thymus. d) adrenal medulla. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.10 Describe the development of endocrine glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.10 Development of the Endocrine System 17) “Tired OR Wired” can be thought of as a quick reference to thyroid gland dysfunctions. Thyroid gland disturbances will directly affect which homeostatic condition?
a) sodium levels b) levels of circulating corticosteroids c) metabolic rate d) maturation of T lymphocytes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands
18) A basilar skull fracture which injures the hypophyseal fossa (seat of the sella turcica) of the sphenoid bone will directly affect the release of: a) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also called vasopressin b) calcitonin c) aldosterone d) All of these choices. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the posterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
19) Which endocrine gland is part of the epithalamus? a) pituitary b) hypothalamus c) pineal d) thymus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland and the role of the thymus in immunity.
Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Pineal Gland and Thymus
20) Alpha and beta cells in the endocrine portion of the pancreas: 1. can be found in the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans) 2. secrete their hormones into the pancreatic duct 3 secrete hormones that regulate calcium levels in the body 4. are responsible for maintaining homeostatic levels of glucose 5. aid in the production of enzymes used for protein digestion a) 1 and 2 b) 2, 3 and 5 c) 4 only d) 1 and 4 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreas. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Pancreas
21) Which endocrine gland receives its blood supply from suprarenal arteries? a) thymus b) ovary c) adrenal d) testicle Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal cortex and medulla. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal cortex. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Adrenal Glands
Question type: True/False
22) The nervous system responds to change very quickly, but an individual response is very brief; whereas, the endocrine system's response takes longer to take effect, but it lasts for a longer period of time. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Distinguish between exocrine glands and endocrine glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Endocrine Glands Defined
23) The quantity of hormone produced by an endocrine gland varies, but the number of receptors on its target tissues remains stable. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.2 Describe how hormones interact with target-cell receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.2 Hormones
24) The anterior and posterior regions of the pituitary gland (hypophysis) both develop from ectoderm. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.10 Describe the development of endocrine glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.10 Development of the Endocrine System
25) Oxyphil cells make up most of the volume of a normal parathyroid gland and are primarily responsible for producing parathyroid hormone (PTH), also called parathormone. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the parathyroid glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands
26) The parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid gland produce thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH).
Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands
27) Cortisol, the main glucocorticoid from the zona fasciculata, depresses the immune response and inflammation. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal cortex and medulla. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal cortex. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Adrenal Glands
28) Hormones of the adrenal medulla help prolong the fight-or-flight response (sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system). Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal cortex and medulla. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal medulla. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Adrenal Glands
29) Endocrine portions of the pancreas are called acini. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreas. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Pancreas
30) Thymosin and other thymic hormones influence the maturation of B cells (B-lymphocytes) in the thymus gland. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland and the role of the thymus in immunity. Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.2 Describe the role of the thymus in immunity. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Pineal Gland and thymus
31) The pituitary (hypophysis) and adrenal glands are similar in that each gland has two distinct regions: one that develops from ectoderm, and one that develops from endoderm. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.10 Describe the development of endocrine glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.10 Development of the Endocrine System
Question type: Essay
32) List the five different types of secretory cells in the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) together with the names of the hormones secreted by each. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Solution: 1. somatotrophs-hGH 2. lactotrophs-PRL 3. corticotrophs-ACTH and MSH 4. thyrotrophs-TSH 5. gonadotrophs-FSH and LH
33) What is a tropic hormone (tropin)? Give two examples secreted by the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis). Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Solution: A tropic hormone is one that has, as its target tissue, another endocrine gland. For example, FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary have the ovaries and testes as target tissues.
34) Name the cells that are responsible for producing the hormones of the posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis). Name the hormones together with their target tissues. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the posterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Solution: Posterior pituitary hormones are produced by the neurosecretory cells in the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus. The axons of these cells form the hypothalamohypophyseal tract, which carries the hormones into the posterior pituitary where they are stored in vesicles in the axon terminals. The two hormones and their target tissues are: OT (uterus and mammary glands), and ADH (kidneys).
35) Name the secretory cells of the thyroid gland, describe their location, list the hormones produced, and state the target cells of the hormones. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands
Solution: Follicular cells in the walls of the follicles produce thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which affect metabolism in almost all body cells. Parafollicular cells (C cells) in the outer regions of the follicle walls, or between follicles, produce calcitonin which helps lower blood calcium levels by inhibiting bone osteoclasts resorption.
Question type: Multiple Choice
36) Which of the following is the major integrating link between the nervous and endocrine systems? a) hypothalamus b) anterior pituitary c) thalamus d) pineal e) posterior pituitary Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.1 Explain why the hypothalamus is classified as an endocrine gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
37) Hormones affect a target cell by binding to specific hormone _____ on the cell membrane or in its interior. a) carbohydrates b) cholesterols c) lipids d) receptors e) glycoproteins Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.2 Describe how hormones interact with target-cell receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.2 Hormones
38) The infundibulum attaches the _____ to the _____.
a) anterior pituitary; posterior pituitary b) pituitary gland; thalamus c) hypothalamus; pituitary gland d) posterior pituitary; pineal gland e) thyroid gland; parathyroid gland Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.1 Explain why the hypothalamus is classified as an endocrine gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
39) The pituitary gland consists of two anatomically and functionally separate portions; the smaller _____ is composed of _____ tissue. a) posterior pituitary; glandular b) posterior pituitary; neural c) anterior pituitary; glandular d) anterior pituitary; neural Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the posterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
40) Hypothalamic hormones travel via the primary plexus, the hypophyseal portal veins, and the secondary plexus, where they diffuse into the _____. a) anterior pituitary b) posterior pituitary c) neurohypophysis d) thalamus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.1 Explain why the hypothalamus is classified as an endocrine gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
41) Parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid gland produce the hormone _____, which helps to regulate the level of _____ in the blood. a) parathromone; potassium b) calcitonin; sodium c) calcitonin; calcium d) PTH; calcium Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands
42) Thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) are produced by: a) parafollicular cells (C cells) b) chief (principal) cells c) follicular cells d) oxyphil cells Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands
Question type: True/False
43) Parathyroid hormone (Parathormone) is produced by the follicular cells of the parathyroid gland. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the parathyroid glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands
Question type: Multiple Choice
44) The adrenal gland functions as two separate endocrine glands: the adrenal cortex and the adrenal medulla. Which ones effects mimic the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system? a) adrenal medulla b) adrenal cortex Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal cortex and medulla. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal medulla. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Adrenal Glands
45) Hormones that regulate sodium and potassium levels in the blood are secreted by the _____ region of the adrenal cortex. a) zona reticularis b) zona fasciculata c) medullary zone d) zona glomerulosa Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal cortex and medulla.
Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal cortex. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Adrenal Glands
46) _____ cells of the adrenal gland have the same embryonic origin as all sympathetic postganglionic neurons. a) Follicular b) Medullary c) Chief (principal) d) Chromaffin Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal cortex and medulla. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal medulla. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Adrenal Glands
47) Which of the following is NOT a cell type of the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans)? a) beta b) acini c) F d) delta Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreas. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Pancreas
Question type: True/False
48) The two hormones produced by the testes are testosterone and relaxin. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 22.8 Describe the location, hormones, and endocrine functions of the male and female gonads. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.8 Ovaries and Testes
Question type: Multiple Choice
49) The pineal gland is located near the roof of the _____ ventricle of the brain. a) third b) lateral c) second d) fourth Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland and the role of the thymus in immunity. Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Pineal Gland and Thymus
50) The pineal gland hormone that helps regulate the body's biological clock is _____. a) TSH b) thryroxine c) melanin d) melatonin Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland and the role of the thymus in immunity. Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Pineal Gland and thymus
51) Milk production in the mammary glands is initiated by a) prolactin (PRL) b) relaxin
c) inhibin d) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
Question type: True/False
52) Thyroid follicular cells secrete calcitonin. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands
Question type: Multiple Choice
53) Somatotrophs are cells located in the _____ which secrete _____. a) posterior pituitary; oxytocin (OT) b) anterior pituitary; thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) c) hypothalamus; adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) d) anterior pituitary; human growth hormone (hGH) Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands.
Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
54) Parafollicular (C cells) cells secrete _____. a) parathyroid hormone (PTH) b) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) c) calcitonin d) thyroxine (T4) Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands
55) _____ cells secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine (NE). a) Follicular b) Parafollicular c) Chromaffin d) Beta Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal cortex and medulla. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal medulla. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Adrenal Glands
56) Thyrotrophs secrete TSH, the hormone that controls the _____. a) adrenal cortex b) parathyroid gland c) thymus gland d) thyroid gland
Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
57) _____ secrete follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). a) Gonadotrophs b) Delta cells c) Acini d) Islets Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
58) In the pancreas, alpha cells secrete a) pancreatic juice b) T4 c) insulin d) glucagon Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreas. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Pancreas
59) In the adrenal cortex, zona glomerulosa cells secrete
a) androgens. b) calcitonin. c) cortisol. d) aldosterone. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal cortex and medulla. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal medulla. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Adrenal Glands
Question type: True/False
60) In the pancreas, beta cell secrete insulin. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreas. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Pancreas
61) Adipose cells secrete leptin which functions to increase appetite. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.9 List the hormones secreted by cells in other tissues and organs, and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Other Endocrine Tissues
Question type: Multiple Choice
62) What is the name of the endocrine gland indicated by the line?
a) pituitary b) pancreas c) thymus d) thyroid Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland and the role of the thymus in immunity. Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.2 Describe the role of the thymus in immunity. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Pineal Gland and Thymus
63) The lines are pointing to which of the following?
a) superior hypophyseal artery b) hypophyseal portal veins c) inferior hypophyseal artery d) posterior hypophyseal veins Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.1 Explain why the hypothalamus is classified as an endocrine gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
64) The arrow is pointing to which structure?
a) paraventricular nucleus b) supraoptic nucleus c) infundibular venous plexus d) axons of neurosecretory cells Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the posterior pituitary. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
65) What is the endocrine gland labeled with the arrow?
a) pituitary b) thymus c) pancreas d) thyroid Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands
66) What is the endocrine gland labeled with the arrow?
a) adrenal b) pineal c) thymus d) testis Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal cortex and medulla. Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal cortex. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Adrenal Glands
67) Estrogens are produced by cells in the: 1. ovaries. 2. placenta. 3. adrenal cortex. a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) 3 only d) both 1 and 2. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.9 List the hormones secreted by cells in other tissues and organs, and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Other Endocrine Tissues
Question type: True/False
68) Exocrine glands release their secretions into ducts, lumen of an organ, and blood vessels. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Distinguish between exocrine glands and endocrine glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Endocrine Glands Defined
69) If hormone levels are low, the plasma membrane of a target cell will decrease the number of receptors in its membrane. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.2 Describe how hormones interact with target-cell receptors. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.2 Hormones
70) Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is thought to be due to the underproduction and/or release of melatonin from the pineal gland. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal and the role of the thymus in immunity. Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Pineal Gland and Thymus
Question Type: Multiple Choice
71) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) release affects target cells in which two organs? a) thymus and thyroid b) bone and kidney c) liver and brain d) pancreas and thyroid Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the parathyroid glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands
72) Which endocrine cell releases parathyroid hormone? a) pinealocytes b) beta cells c) parafollicular cells d) chief cells Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the parathyroid glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands
73) Secretin, Cholecystokinin, and glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide target which abdominopelvic gland? a) spleen b) pancreas c) gallbladder d) small intestine Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.9 List the hormones secreted by cells in other tissues and organs, and describe their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Other Endocrine Tissues
74) All of the following hormone levels decline with age EXCEPT a) human growth hormone. b) thyroid stimulating hormone. c) calcitonin. d) estrogen. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.11 Describe the effects of aging on the endocrine system. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.11 Aging and the Endocrine System
75) Which cell of the pituitary gland releases hormones that target the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex? a) somatotroph b) thyrotroph c) gonadotroph d) lactotroph e) corticotroph Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary and explain why specific organs are classified as endocrine glands. Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.1 Explain why the hypothalamus is classified as an endocrine gland. Study Objective 3: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal cortex and medulla. Learning Objective 4: 22.6.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal cortex. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Section Reference 2: Sec 22.6 Adrenal Glands
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 23
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) The portions of the respiratory system that are capable of gas exchange include: a) respiratory bronchioles. b) alveolar ducts. c) alveoli. d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.7 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
2) The upper respiratory system includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) pharynx. b) nose. c) trachea. d) all of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.5 Describe the anatomy and histology of the trachea. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
3) The floor of the nasal cavity a) is formed by the hard palate. b) separates the internal nose from the external nose. c) is formed entirely by the palatine processes of the maxillae. d) is also called the nasal septum.
Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
4) Which of the following does NOT form part of the nasal septum? a) cartilage b) vomer c) perpendicular plate of ethmoid d) inferior nasal conchae Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
5) Functions of the nose include 1. olfactory (smell) reception 2. resonance of speech sounds 3. filtration of incoming air 4. warming of incoming air 5. moistening of incoming air a) 1, 3, 4 only b) 3, 4, 5 only c) 1, 3, 4, 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
6) Olfactory epithelium a) lines the superior nasal conchae and adjacent nasal septum. b) is the mucous membrane lining of the nasal cavity. c) lines the superior, middle, and inferior nasal meatuses. d) all of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
7) Which of the following are openings into the nasopharynx? 1. auditory (eustachian) tubes 2. fauces 3. internal nares 4. external nares 5) nasolacrimal ducts a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3 only c) 4, 5 d) 2, 3 only Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.2 Outline the structure and function of the pharynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
8) The epiglottis a) consists of a leaf-shaped piece of elastic cartilage. b) is attached to the thyroid cartilage. c) serves to route food and liquids into the esophagus. d) all of these choices Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.3 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
9) Which of the following is a TRUE statement concerning the larynx? a) The extrinsic muscles of the larynx connect the cartilages to each other. b) During swallowing, the larynx rises, causing the epiglottis to form a lid over the opening into the larynx, closing it off. c) The lining of the larynx inferior to the vocal folds is stratified squamous epithelium. d) All of these choices are true. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.3 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
10) The _____ is an internal ridge where the trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi. a) carina b) epiglottis c) rimi vestibuli d) cupula Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.6 Identify the functions of each bronchial structure. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
11) Which of the following is FALSE of the trachea? a) The pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium of the mucosa contains goblet cells and basal cells. b) It is a tubular passageway, posterior to the esophagus.
c) Its wall contains 16-20 C-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage. d) The outer layer of the wall of the trachea, the adventitia, is a layer of areolar connective tissue that joins the trachea to surrounding tissues. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.5 Describe the anatomy and histology of the trachea. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
12) A bony landmark that identifies the point at which the trachea gives rise to primary bronchi is the _____. a) suprasternal notch b) level of first rib c) superior border of the fifth thoracic vertebra d) sternoclavicular joint Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.6 Identify the functions of each bronchial structure. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
13) The _____ is/are the first portion(s) of the respiratory tract to enter lung tissue. a) trachea b) primary bronchi c) secondary (lobar) bronchi d) tertiary (segmental) bronchi Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.6 Identify the functions of each bronchial structure. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
14) Which of the following do NOT contain cartilage? 1. tertiary (segmental) bronchi 2. alveolar ducts 3. respiratory bronchioles 4. terminal bronchioles a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2, 3, 4 only c) 2, 3 only d) 2, 4 only Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.6 Identify the functions of each bronchial structure. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
15) The base of a lung is a) the inferior surface. b) concave. c) just superior to the diaphragm. d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.7 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
16) Which of the following features of the lungs face(s) the heart? 1. costal surface 2. hilum 3. base 4. mediastinal (medial) surface a) 1, 2 b) 3, 4 c) 2, 4 d) 1 only
Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1 .7 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
17) Compared to the left lung, the right lung a) is broader. b) is shorter. c) has one more lobe. d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.7 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
18) The cardiac notch is a feature of the a) right lung. b) left lung. c) heart. d) diaphragm. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.7 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
19) Each tertiary bronchus supplies a region of a lung called a/an _____. a) bronchopulmonary segment b) lobule
c) lobe d) alveolar sac Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.7 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
20) As a molecule of oxygen passes from alveolar air into the blood it passes through the layers of the respiratory membrane in what order? 1. epithelial basement membrane 2. capillary basement membrane 3. alveolar epithelial wall 4) capillary endothelial wall a) 3, 1, 2, 4 b) 4, 3, 2, 1 c) 1, 3, 2, 4 d) 3, 1, 4, 2 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.7 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
21) Which of the following is FALSE regarding the diaphragm? a) It is skeletal muscle. b) It receives innervation from the phrenic nerves. c) In the relaxed state, the diaphragm moves inferiorly and flattens out. d) When contracted, it increases the vertical diameter of the thoracic cavity. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation. Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.2 Describe how inhalation and exhalation occur.
Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing)
22) Which of the following must occur for air to enter the lungs during inhalation (inspiration)? a) The principal muscles of inhalation (inspiration) contract. b) The volume of the lungs increase. c) The pressure in the lungs falls below atmospheric pressure. d) all of these choices. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation. Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.2 Describe how inhalation and exhalation occur. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing)
23) For deep, forceful inhalation, accessory muscles of inhalation (inspiration) are: 1. external intercostals 2. internal intercostals 3. sternocleidomastoids 4. scalenes 5. pectoralis majors 6. pectoralis minors a) 1, 3, 4, 5 b) 3, 4, 6 c) 1, 4, 5, 6 d) 2, 3, 5 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation. Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.2 Describe how inhalation and exhalation occur. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing)
24) The principal muscles of inhalation (inspiration) are the _____ and _____. a) diaphragm, internal intercostals b) internal intercostals, external intercostals c) diaphragm, sternocleidomastoids
d) diaphragm, external intercostals Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.2 Describe how inhalation and exhalation occur. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing)
25) Normal exhalation (expiration) is due to a) relaxation of inhalation (inspiratory) muscles. b) the inward pull of surface tension due to the film of alveolar fluid. c) recoil of elastic fibers in the lungs. d) all of these choices. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.2 Describe how inhalation and exhalation occur. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing)
26) Chemoreceptors are very sensitive to changes in CO2 concentration in the blood. Increased CO2 levels result in messages to the respiratory center to decrease the rate and depth of ventilation. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain the role of the respiratory center in respiration and the factors that regulate the rate and depth of respiration. Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.2 Describe the various factors that regulate the rate and depth of breathing. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Regulation of Breathing
27) Which cranial bone(s) is/are most responsible for the skeletal framework of the nasal cavity? a) sphenoid b) nasal c) ethmoid d) inferior conchae Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
Question type: True/False
28) The pharyngeal tonsil (adenoid) and the auditory (eustachian) tubes are located in the oropharynx. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.2 Outline the structure and function of the pharynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
29) Openings of the internal nose include the internal nares (choanae) and the ducts that connect to all paranasal sinuses. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
30) The posterior (bony) portion of the nasal septum consists of the vomer and perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone. The anterior portion is formed by the septal nasal cartilage.
Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
31) The cricoid cartilage is an important landmark in determining the site for a tracheotomy. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.3 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
32) The true vocal cords are folds of mucous membrane called ventricular folds. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.4 List the structures of voice production. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
33) The vocal folds (true vocal cords) of adult females are usually thinner and vibrate more rapidly than those of adult males. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.4 List the structures of voice production. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
34) The trachea is a tubular passageway for air, inferior to the larynx and anterior to the esophagus.
Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.5 Describe the anatomy and histology of the trachea. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
35) An examination of the wall of the airways in the bronchial tree from bronchi to alveoli would reveal that cartilage decreases in quantity and disappears, while the amount of smooth muscle increases. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.6 Identify the functions of each bronchial structure. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
36) The left primary bronchus is more vertical, shorter, and wider than the right primary bronchus. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.6 Identify the functions of each bronchial structure. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
37) The horizontal fissure is superior to the middle lobe of the right lung. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.7 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
38) The cardiac notch is a feature located on the medial aspect of the left lung.
Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.7 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
39) The two types of alveolar epithelial cells are alveolar macrophages (dust cells) and Type II alveolar (septal) cells. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.7 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
40) Pulmonary ventilation (breathing) involves the physical movement of air between the alveoli and atmospheric air. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.1 Distinguish among pulmonary ventilation, external respiration, and internal respiration. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing)
41) The two portions of the respiratory center in the pons are the pneumotaxic and rhythmicity areas. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain the role of the respiratory center in respiration and the factors that regulate the rate and depth of respiration. Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Explain the role of the respiratory center in breathing. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Regulation of Breathing
42) Endoderm gives rise to the epithelium of the bronchi, while the connective tissue, cartilage, and smooth muscle are derived from mesoderm. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.5 Describe the development of the respiratory system. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.5 Development of the Respiratory System
43) Loss of elasticity of lungs and chest wall results in a decrease of as much as 50% of lung capacity by age 70. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.6 Describe the effects of aging on the respiratory system. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.6 Aging and the Respiratory System
Question type: Essay
44) Describe the location of each of the three regions of the pharynx. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.2 Outline the structure and function of the pharynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy Solution: 1. Nasopharynx: posterior to nasal cavity from choanae to soft palate 2. Oropharynx: posterior to oral cavity, from soft palate to hyoid 3. Laryngopharynx: from hyoid bone to esophagus and larynx
45) Describe the lining tissue of the respiratory tract from the external nares (nostrils) to the beginning of the trachea. Relate the lining to the function of each area. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system.
Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose. Study Objective 3: SO 23.1.2 Outline the structure and function of the pharynx. Study Objective 4: SO 23.1.3 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy Solution: Vestibule: skin containing hairs (passage and filtering of air) Nasal cavity, nasopharynx: pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells (produce mucus, filter, warm, and moisten incoming air) Oropharynx and laryngopharynx: stratified squamous epithelium (physical protection from passage of air and food) Larynx: superior part stratified squamous epithelium (protection from food); inferior part below vocal folds, pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells (filter dust from passage of air)
46) Name and describe the nine pieces of cartilage of the larynx. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.3 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy Solution: Answer should include a description of the three single cartilages: thyroid, epiglottis, cricoid; and the three pairs of cartilages: arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform.
47) Describe the route traveled by a molecule of oxygen in inhaled (inspired) air from the time it enters the right external naris (nostril) until it reaches an alveolus in the apex of the left lung. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy Solution: Described route should include: vestibule, nasal cavity, internal nares, three regions of the pharynx, larynx, trachea, left primary bronchus, superior left secondary bronchus, left apical tertiary bronchus, bronchiole in apical segment, terminal bronchiole in lobule, respiratory bronchiole, alveolar duct, alveolus.
48) List the cells found in, or associated with, the wall of an alveolus, stating the function of each one.
Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.7 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy Solution: 1. Two types of epithelial cells make up the wall: a) Type I alveolar cells (simple squamous epithelium) form a continuous lining which is the site of gas exchange. b) Type II alveolar cells (septal cells) resemble cuboidal epithelium and secrete alveolar fluid containing surfactant, which helps prevent the collapse of alveoli during exhalation. 2. Alveolar macrophages (dust cells) are wandering macrophages that remove fine particles of dust. 3. Fibroblasts produce reticular and elastic fibers (for recoil of lung tissue).
49) Describe the respiratory membrane in terms of thickness, tissue layers, and surface area. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.7 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy Solution: The respiratory membrane is approximately 0.5 um thick. It consists of four layers: 1) a layer of type I and type II alveolar cells and associated alveolar macrophages that makeup the alveolar wall, 2) an epithelial basement membrane underlying the alveolar wall, 3) a capillary basement membrane (which is often fused to the epithelial basement membrane), and 4) the capillary endothelium. The surface area of the respiratory membrane measures approximately 70 meters squared (or 750 square feet).
50) Name and locate the three areas of the respiratory center. Describe the function of each area. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain the role of the respiratory center in respiration and the various factors that regulate the rate and depth of respiration. Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Explain the role of the respiratory center in breathing. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Regulation of Breathing Solution: The respiratory center can be divided into three areas: 1) medullary rhythmicity area in the medulla oblongata (controls the basic rhythm of respiration), 2) pneumotaxic area in the pons (transmits inhibitory impulses to the inspiratory area), and 3) apneustic area in the pons (sends stimulatory impulses to the inspiratory area that activate and prolong inhalation).
Question type: Multiple Choice
51) The internal nose communicates posteriorly with the nasopharynx through the a) vomer b) internal nares (choanae) c) conchae d) external nares Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
Question type: True/False
52) The anterior portion of the nasal cavity is called the choanae. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
Question type: Multiple Choice
53) The auditory (eustachian) tubes open into the _____ portion of the throat. a) nasopharynx b) oropharynx c) laryngopharynx d) hypopharynx Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.2 Outline the structure and function of the pharynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
Question type: True/False
54) The laryngopharynx (hypopharynx), directs food from the oropharynx to the esophagus. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.2 Outline the structure and function of the pharynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy 55) “Adam's apple”is the common name for the cricoid cartilage of the larynx. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.3 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
Question type: Multiple Choice
56) The paired laryngeal cartilages that, along with intrinsic pharyngeal muscles, move the vocal folds (true vocal cords) in speech production are the _____ cartilages. a) cricoid b) thyroid c) arytenoid d) epiglottic Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.4 List the structures of voice production. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
Question type: True/False
57) Cilia in the upper respiratory tract beat so as to move mucus and trapped dust in a superior direction. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.3 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
58) Cilia in the lower respiratory tract beat so as to move mucus and trapped dust in a superior direction. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.3 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
59) Sympathetic stimulation results in constriction of bronchioles. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.6 Identify the functions of each bronchial structure. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
Question type: Multiple Choice
60) Type II alveolar (septal) cells secrete _____, which reduces the tendency of the alveoli to collapse. a) mucus b) surfactant c) serous fluid d) carbon dioxide Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.7 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
61) Each lung may be subdivided into 10 small compartments called _____, and each of these is supplied by a branch of the bronchial tree called a _____. a) lobules; secondary (lobar) bronchus b) bronchopulmonary segments; tertiary (segmental) bronchus c) bronchopulmonary segments; respiratory bronchus d) lobules; tertiary (segmental) bronchus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.7 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
62) __________ branch off the aorta and bring oxygen rich blood to the lungs. a) Coronary arteries b) Pulmonary arteries c) Bronchial arteries d) Pulmonary veins Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.7 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
63) Which of the following is INCORRECTLY matched? a) pulmonary ventilation; breathing b) external (pulmonary) respiration; gas exchange between air in alveoli and blood in pulmonary capillaries c) internal (tissue) respiration; gas exchange between systemic capillary blood and tissue cells d) external (pulmonary) respiration; the blood loses O2 and gains CO2 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.1 Distinguish among pulmonary ventilation, external respiration, and internal respiration. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing)
64) The _____ area in the _____ of the brain controls the basic rate of pulmonary ventilation. a) pneumotaxic; pons b) apneustic; midbrain c) medullary rhythmicity; medulla oblongata d) apneustic; thalamus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain the role of the respiratory center in respiration and the factors that regulate the rate and depth of respiration. Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Explain the role of the respiratory center in breathing. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Regulation of Breathing
Question type: True/False
65) The two processes of pulmonary ventilation (breathing) are internal (tissue) respiration and external (pulmonary) respiration.
Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation. Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.1 Distinguish among pulmonary ventilation, external respiration, and internal respiration. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing)
Question type: Multiple Choice
66) _____ neurons of the medullary rhythmicity area cause contraction of the diaphragm via signals sent through the _______ nerves. a) Inspiratory; phrenic b) Expiratory; phrenic c) Inspiratory; intercostal d) Expiratory; intercostal Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain the role of the respiratory center in respiration and the factors that regulate the rate and depth of respiration. Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Explain the role of the respiratory center in breathing. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Regulation of Breathing
67) Infants born before _____ weeks are severely at risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) due to lack of sufficient surfactant in alveoli. a) 26-28 b) 28-30 c) 32-34 d) 34-36 Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 23.5 Describe the development of the respiratory system. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.5 Development of the Respiratory System
68) Which of the following cartilages forms the anterior wall of the larynx?
a) thyroid b) arytenoid c) epiglottis d) corniculate Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.3 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
69) Which of the following cartilages of the larynx is anchored to the trachea inferiorly? a) cricoid b) thyroid c) epiglottis d) arytenoid Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.3 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
Question type: True/False
70) The epiglottis cartilage is attached to the vocal folds (true vocal cords). Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.4 List the structures of voice production. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
71) The cricoid is a movable flap of elastic cartilage associated with the larynx.
Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.3 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
72) The trachea is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.5 Describe the anatomy and histology of the trachea. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
73) The alveoli are lined with two types of epithelial cells: Type I alveolar cells (simple squamous epithelial cells) which are the main sites of gas exchange and Type II alveolar cells (septal cells) which secrete alveolar fluid. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.7 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
Question type: Multiple Choice
74) Which cartilages are indicated in the figure?
a) nasal b) lateral c) septal d) alar Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
75) What is the name of the area indicated?
a) nasopharynx b) sphenoidal sinus c) oropharynx d) frontal sinus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.2 Outline the structure and function of the pharynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
76) In this sagittal section, the arrow is pointing to which structure of the larynx?
a) thyrohyoid membrane b) tracheal cartilage c) vocal fold (true vocal cord) d) cuneiform cartilage Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.4 List the structures of voice production. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
77) In this lateral view of the larynx, which cartilage is indicated?
a) epiglottis b) cricoid c) thyroid d) cuneiform Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.3 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
78) In this lateral view of the right lung, the arrow is pointing to which structure?
a) hilum b) cardiac notch c) apex d) horizontal fissure Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system. Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.7 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
Question type: Fill-in-the-blank:
79) The ______________ intercostal muscles and the _________________ contract during inhalation. Answer: external; diaphragm Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.2.2 Describe how inhalation and exhalation occur. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing)
80) The ___________________ receives signals from the _______________________ during forceful breathing. Answer: ventral respiratory group; dorsal respiratory group. Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain the role of the respiratory center in respiration and the factors that regulate the rate and depth of respiration. Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.2 Describe the various factors that regulate the rate and depth of breathing. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Regulation of Breathing
81) Peripheral chemoreceptors located in the _____________________ and __________________ send signals to respiratory center to control breathing. Answer: aortic bodies; carotid bodies Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.3.2 Describe the various factors that regulate the rate and depth of breathing. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Regulation of Breathing
82) ________________refers to the absence of breathing. Answer: apnea Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.3.1 Explain the role of the respiratory center in breathing. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Regulation of Breathing
83) Oxygen moves from the alveoli into the blood by the process of ___________________. Answer: diffusion Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Regulation of Breathing
84) The respiratory centers for controlling breathing are located in the pons and the _________of the brain stem. Answer: medulla oblongata Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.3.2 Describe the various factors that regulate the rate and depth of breathing. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Regulation of Breathing
85) The ___________ bronchioles are capable of gas exchange. Answer: respiratory bronchioles Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1.6 Identify the functions of each bronchial structure. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
86) Attached to the entire surface of the interior of the thoracic chamber is a delicate connective tissue known as the ________________. Answer: parietal pleura Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology and functions of the respiratory system. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
87) The serous membrane surrounding the lung and in direct contact with the lung is referred to as the _____________________. Answer: visceral pleura Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology and functions of the respiratory system. Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 24
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) The layer of areolar connective tissue underlying the epithelium of the mucosa of the GI tract is called the _____. a) adventitia b) lamina propria c) submucosa d) peritoneum Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract
2) The peritoneal fold situated as a "fatty apron" anterior to the small intestine is the _____. a) mesentery b) falciform ligament c) lesser omentum d) greater omentum Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.3 Describe the peritoneum and its folds. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.3 Peritoneum
3) The structure attached to the soft palate that helps close off the nasopharynx during swallowing is the _____. a) fauces b) uvula c) epiglottis d) tongue Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the location, structure and function of the salivary glands, tongue and tooth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions. Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.1 Identify the locations of the salivary glands, and describe the functions of their secretions. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth
4) Which of the following is an intrinsic muscle of the tongue? a) longitudinalis superior b) hyoglossus c) genioglossus d) styloglossus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the location, structure and function of the salivary glands, tongue and tooth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions. Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.2 Describe the structure and functions of the tongue. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth
5) The salivary glands whose ducts open on either side of the lingual frenulum are the: a) parotid glands. b) sublingual glands. c) submandibular glands. d) buccal glands. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the location, structure and function of the salivary glands, tongue and tooth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions. Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.1 Identify the locations of the salivary glands, and describe the functions of their secretions. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth
6) The bonelike substance that attaches the root of a tooth to the periodontal ligament is _____. a) dentin b) enamel
c) cementum d) gingiva Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the location, structure and function of the salivary glands, tongue and tooth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions. Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.3 Identify the parts of a typical tooth, and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth
7) The functions of the esophagus include: a) secretion of enzymes. b) mixing of food and secretions. c) absorption of H2O and small nutrients. d) none of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.6 Describe the location, histology and digestive role of the esophagus. Study Objective 2: SO 24.6.2 Explain the function of the esophagus in the digestive process. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.6 Esophagus
8) The stomach occupies the following abdominal region(s): a) umbilical. b) left hypochondriac. c) epigastric. d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach
9) Place the following in the correct order, as found in the muscularis layer of the stomach, from outermost to innermost: 1. oblique layer
2. circular layer 3) longitudinal layer a) 2, 1, 3 b) 3, 1, 2 c) 1, 2, 3 d) 3, 2, 1 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach
10) The _____ of the stomach is/are responsible for the production of gastric juice. a) rugae b) gastric glands c) fundus d) serosa Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach
11) The head of the pancreas is located closest to the: a) curve of the duodenum. b) lesser curvature of the stomach. c) inferior surface of the liver. d) medial surface of the spleen. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.8 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the pancreas. Study Objective 2: SO 24.8.1 Describe the location and structure of the pancreas. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.8 Pancreas
12) A portal triad in the liver consists of which three basic structures: a) a common bile duct, and branches of the right and left hepatic ducts. b) a branch of the hepatic portal vein, a branch of the hepatic artery, and a bile duct. c) branches of the hepatic portal vein, hepatic vein, and hepatic artery. d) branches of the hepatic artery, central vein, and hepatic vein. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the liver and gall bladder. Study Objective 2: SO 24.9.1 Describe the location and structure of the liver and gallbladder. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Liver and Gallbladder
13) Liver cells called _____ produce bile. a) stellate reticuloendothelial cells b) phagocytes c) hepatocytes d) endothelial cells Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the liver and gall bladder. Study Objective 2: SO 24.9.1 Describe the location and structure of the liver and gallbladder. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Liver and Gallbladder
14) Bile helps accomplish which of the following? 1. chemical (enzymatic) breakdown of protein 2. emulsification of large lipid globules 3. absorption of digested lipids 4. maintenance of an alkaline pH in the duodenum a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 3 c) 2, 3 d) 1, 3, 4 Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the liver and gall bladder. Study Objective 2: SO 24.9.2 Explain the roles of the liver and gallbladder in the digestive process. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Liver and Gallbladder
15) Which of the following is NOT a function of the gallbladder? a) concentrate bile b) store bile c) eject bile into the cystic duct d) synthesize bile Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the liver and gall bladder. Study Objective 2: SO 24.9.2 Explain the roles of the liver and gallbladder in the digestive process. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Liver and Gallbladder
16) The sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla (sphincter of Oddi) directly controls the flow of bile between: a) the liver and the gallbladder. b) the liver and the common bile duct c) the gallbladder and the cystic duct d) the common bile duct and the duodenum Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the liver and gall bladder. Study Objective 2: SO 24.9.2 Explain the roles of the liver and gallbladder in the digestive process. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Liver and Gallbladder
17) Peristaltic contractions: a) occur in the stomach, esophagus, small intestine, and large intestine.
b) are primarily responsible for mixing the food with the digestive juices. c) are of similar strength throughout the digestive tract. d) all of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.10 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the small intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.10.2 Identify the functions of the small intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.10 Small Intestine
18) Which of the following is an anatomical feature of the small intestine that serves to increase the surface area for digestion and absorption? a) lacteals b) microvilli c) rugae d) all of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.10 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the small intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.10.1 Describe the location and structure of the small intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.10 Small Intestine
19) Which of the following does NOT drive the contents of the colon into the rectum? a) peristalsis b) mass peristalsis c) segmentation d) haustral churning Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.11 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the large intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.11.2 Explain the functions of the large intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.11 Large Intestine
20) Contraction of which of the following aid in defecation? 1. external anal sphincter 2. circular colon muscles 3 longitudinal rectal muscles 4. internal anal sphincter 5. diaphragm 6. abdominal muscles a) 2, 3, 5, 6 b) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 2, 4 d) 3, 5, 6 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.11 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the large intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.11.2 Explain the functions of the large intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.11 Large Intestine
21) Advancing a gastric tube from the oral cavity to the oropharynx requires passing through the: a) fauces b) parotid gland c) chonae d) inferior meatus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the location, structure and function of the salivary glands, tongue and tooth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions. Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.1 Identify the locations of the salivary glands, and describe the functions of their secretions. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth
22) Which dome-shaped region of the stomach is located under the diaphragm? a) fundus b) cardia c) greater curvature d) pylorus
Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach
23) Bile secreted from the gallbladder and pancreatic juice secreted from the pancreas enter which portion of the GI tract? a) cecum b) duodenum c) ileum d) jejunum Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.8 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the pancreas. Study Objective 2: SO 24.8.1 Describe the location and structure of the pancreas. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.8 Pancreas
24) Antacid tablets (e.g. TUMS, ROLAIDS) are used to help neutralize the acidity of gastric contents. What cells are responsible for this acidity? a) chief b) mucus c) rugae d) parietal Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach
Question type: True/False
25) Enzymatic breakdown of food is a form of mechanical digestion.
Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.1 Identify the organs and the basic processes performed by the digestive system. Study Objective 2: SO 24.1.2 Describe the basic processes performed by the digestive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.1 Overview of the Digestive System
26) In the wall of the GI tract, the mucosa and muscularis layers both contain smooth muscle. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract
27) The palatine tonsils are located in the uvula, at the posterior border of the soft palate. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the location, structure and function of the salivary glands, tongue and tooth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions. Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.1 Identify the locations of the salivary glands, and describe the functions of their secretions. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth
28) The tongue is attached to the floor of the oral cavity by a fold of mucous membrane called the labial frenulum. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the location, structure and function of the salivary glands, tongue and tooth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions. Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.2 Describe the structure and functions of the tongue. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth
29) The secretory activity of the salivary glands is controlled via vasoconstriction and vasodilation of their blood vessels. Answer: True
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the location, structure and function of the salivary glands, tongue and tooth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions. Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.1 Identify the locations of the salivary glands, and describe the functions of their secretions. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth
30) In the permanent dentition, the teeth that have two cusps and commonly two roots are the upper first premolars (bicuspids). Answer: True Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the location, structure and function of the salivary glands, tongue and tooth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions. Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.3 Identify the parts of a typical tooth, and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth
31) The muscularis layer of the esophagus contains skeletal muscle superiorly and changes to smooth muscle inferiorly. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.6 Describe the location, histology and digestive role of the esophagus. Study Objective 2: SO 24.6.1 Describe the location and histology of the esophagus. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.6 Esophagus
32) The greater curvature of the stomach is closer to the liver than is the lesser curvature. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach
33) The four main regions of the stomach are cardia, fundus, cecum, and pylorus. Answer: False
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach
34) The opening of the accessory pancreatic duct (duct of Santorini) into the duodenum is inferior to the opening of the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater). Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.8 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the pancreas. Study Objective 2: SO 24.8.1 Describe the location and structure of the pancreas. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.8 Pancreas
35) As a result of the action of pancreatic enzymes, the following are digested in the lumen of the small intestine: carbohydrates (starches), proteins, triglycerides (fats and oils), nucleic acids. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.8 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the pancreas. Study Objective 2: SO 24.8.2 Explain the role of the pancreas in digestion. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.8 Pancreas
36) Most pancreatic tissue is exocrine in function and is arranged in cell clusters called acini. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.8 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the pancreas. Study Objective 2: SO 24.8.1 Describe the location and structure of the pancreas. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.8 Pancreas
37) The pancreas is the largest internal organ and heaviest gland of the body. Answer: False
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the liver and gall bladder. Study Objective 2: SO 24.9.1 Describe the location and structure of the liver and gallbladder. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Liver and Gallbladder
38) The hepatic veins deliver nutrient-rich blood to the sinusoids of the liver. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the liver and gall bladder. Study Objective 2: SO 24.9.1 Describe the location and structure of the liver and gallbladder. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Liver and Gallbladder
39) Mucus in the small intestine is secreted by goblet cells in the mucosa and by duodenal glands (Brunner’s glands) in the submucosa of the duodenum. Answer: True Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 24.10 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the small intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.10.1 Describe the location and structure of the small intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.10 Small Intestine
40) Paneth cells, circular folds (plicae circulares), brush border enzymes and lacteals are all characteristics of the small intestine. Answer: True Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 24.10 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the small intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.10.1 Describe the location and structure of the small intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.10 Small Intestine
41) Pouches of the large intestine that give it a puckered appearance are called epiploic (omental) appendices. Answer: False
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.11 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the large intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.11.1 Describe the anatomy and structure of the large intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.11 Large Intestine
42) From the primitive gut, the endodermal layer gives rise to the epithelial lining and glands of most of the GI tract, whereas the smooth muscle and connective tissue develop from the mesodermal layer. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.12 Describe the development of the digestive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.12 Development of the Digestive System
Question type: Essay
43) Describe the structure of a tooth and illustrate your answer with a labeled diagram. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the location, structure and function of the salivary glands, tongue and tooth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions. Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.3 Identify the parts of a typical tooth, and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth Solution: Diagram and description should contain: crown, root, neck, dentin, enamel, pulp cavity, pulp, root canal, apical foramen, cementum, periodontal ligament. Refer to Fig. 24.6: A typical tooth and surrounding structures.
44) Describe the teeth of the permanent dentition in order from anterior to posterior. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the location, structure and function of the salivary glands, tongue and tooth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions. Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.3 Identify the parts of a typical tooth, and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.
Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth Solution: Refer to Fig. 24.7: Dentitions and times of eruptions.
45) Describe the gross anatomy of the stomach. Illustrate your answer with a labeled diagram. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach Solution: Description and diagram should include the four regions of the stomach, the two regions of the pylorus, pyloric sphincter, rugae, and greater and lesser curvatures. See Fig. 24.10: External and Internal anatomy of the stomach.
46) Trace the route most commonly traveled by pancreatic juice, from its production until it is in the lumen of the intestine. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.8 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the pancreas. Study Objective 2: SO 24.8.1 Describe the location and structure of the pancreas. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.8 Pancreas Solution: Pancreatic juice may travel through the following: acini, small ducts, pancreatic duct, hepatopancreatic ampulla, major duodenal papilla.
47) Describe the route traveled by bile from the time it is secreted until it enters the duodenum. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the liver and gall bladder. Study Objective 2: SO 24.9.1 Describe the location and structure of the liver and gallbladder. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Liver and Gallbladder Solution: Bile travels through bile canaliculi (bile capillaries), bile ducts, right or left hepatic duct, common hepatic duct, common bile duct (or cystic duct for storage in the gall bladder), hepatopancreatic ampulla.
48) Describe the route traveled by chyme from the time it leaves the ileum until it is expelled as
feces from the body. As you mention the regions of the large intestine, state which are retroperitoneal. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 24.11 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the large intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.11.1 Describe the anatomy and structure of the large intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.11 Large Intestine Solution: The following terms should be included: ileocecal valve, cecum, ascending colon (retroperitoneal), right colic (hepatic) flexure, transverse colon, left colic (splenic) flexure, descending colon (retroperitoneal), sigmoid colon, rectum, anal canal, anus (internal involuntary sphincter, external voluntary sphincter).
Question type: Multiple Choice
49) What is the structure indicated in the figure?
a) stomach b) pancreas
c) esophagus d) pharynx Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.1 Identify the organs and the basic processes performed by the digestive system. Study Objective 2: SO 24.1.1 Identify the organs of the digestive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.1 Overview of the Digestive System
50) Identify the structure indicated in the figure.
a) gallbladder b) sigmoid colon c) greater omentum d) lesser omentum Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.3 Describe the peritoneum and its folds.
Section Reference 1: Sec 24.3 Peritoneum
51) What structure is the arrow is pointing to?
a) parotid duct b) mylohyoid duct c) submandibular duct d) sublingual duct Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the location, structure and function of the salivary glands, tongue and tooth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions. Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.1 Identify the locations of the salivary glands, and describe the functions of their secretions. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth
52) What is the structure the arrow is pointing to?
a) rugae b) fundus c) cardia d) pyloric sphincter Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach
Question type: True/False
53) The gastrointestinal (GI) tract is found in the thoracic, abdominal and pelvic cavities. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.1 Identify the organs and the basic processes performed by the digestive system. Study Objective 2: SO 24.1.1 Identify the organs of the digestive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.1 Overview of the Digestive System
Question type: Text entry
54) The length of the GI tract is longer after death because of a lack of _____. Answer: tonus Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.1 Identify the organs and the basic processes performed by the digestive system. Study Objective 2: SO 24.1.1 Identify the organs of the digestive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.1 Overview of the Digestive System Solution: tonus
Question type: Multiple Choice
55) Which of the following is an accessory digestive organ? a) tongue b) mouth c) esophagus d) small intestine e) large intestine Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.1 Identify the organs and the basic processes performed by the digestive system. Study Objective 2: SO 24.1.1 Identify the organs of the digestive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.1 Overview of the Digestive System
56) The release of hydrochloric acid (HCl) into the lumen of the stomach is which basic process of digestion? a) ingestion b) secretion c) absorption d) defecation e) mastication Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.1 Identify the organs and the basic processes performed by the digestive system. Study Objective 2: SO 24.1.2 Describe the basic processes performed by the digestive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.1 Overview of the Digestive System
57) Which of the following substances need to undergo digestion before being absorbed into the cells lining the alimentary canal? a) water b) vitamins c) minerals d) proteins e) cholesterols Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.1 Identify the organs and the basic processes performed by the digestive system. Study Objective 2: SO 24.1.2 Describe the basic processes performed by the digestive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.1 Overview of the Digestive System
Question type: True/False
58) The type of epithelial tissue found in the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, and anal canal is keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract
59) The esophagus is not suspended in a cavity and therefore will not have a true serous membrane. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract
60) The cells of the serous layer of the alimentary canal come in contact with food. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the layers that form the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the GI Tract
61) The parietal peritoneum lines the outside of the organs in the abdominopelvic cavity. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.3 Describe the peritoneum and its folds. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.3 Peritoneum
Question type: Multiple Choice
62) The greater omentum attaches to which two organs in the abdominopelvic cavity? a) liver and lesser curvature of the stomach b) greater curvature of the stomach and transverse colon c) ascending colon and duodenum d) pancreas and kidney Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.3 Describe the peritoneum and its folds. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.3 Peritoneum
63) Which structure of the peritoneum is the only one to attach to the anterior body wall? a) lesser omentum b) greater omentum c) mesentery d) falciform ligament e) mesocolon Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.3 Describe the peritoneum and its folds. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.3 Peritoneum
64) Which type of papillae of the tongue lack taste buds and are used to detect touch rather than taste? a) fungiform papillae b) vallate (circumvallate) papillae c) foliate papillae d) filiform papillae Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the location, structure and function of the salivary glands, tongue and tooth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions. Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.2 Describe the structure and functions of the tongue. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth
65) Which region of the GI track receives a bolus from oral cavity and passes it into the esophagus? a) oropharynx b) laryngopharynx c) nasopharynx d) oropharynx and laryngopharynx are correct e) oropharynx and nasopharynx are correct Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.5 Describe the structure and function of the pharynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.5 Pharynx
Question type: Text entry
66) Deglutition occurs in the pharynx when _____ muscles contract. Answer: skeletal
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.5 Describe the structure and function of the pharynx. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.5 Pharynx Solution: skeletal
Question type: True/False
67) The esophagus lies anterior to the trachea. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.6 Describe the location, histology and digestive role of the esophagus. Study Objective 2: SO 24.6.1 Describe the location and histology of the esophagus. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.6 Esophagus
Question type: Multiple Choice
68) The upper esophageal sphincter is composed of a circular band of skeletal muscle. The lower esophageal sphincter is composed of a circular band of smooth muscle. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.6 Describe the location, histology and digestive role of the esophagus. Study Objective 2: SO 24.6.2 Explain the function of the esophagus in the digestive process. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.6 Esophagus
Question type: True/False
69) Substances secreted from the pancreas gives pancreatic juice a slightly alkaline pH which buffers the acids in the chyme. Answer: True
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.8 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the pancreas. Study Objective 2: SO 24.8.2 Explain the role of the pancreas in digestion. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.8 Pancreas
70) The majority of nutrient digestion and absorption occurs in the small intestine. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.10 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the small intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.10.2 Identify the functions of the small intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.10 Small Intestine
Question type: Multiple Choice
71) In the small intestine, segmentation begins with the contraction of this muscle layer. a) longitudinal b) circular c) oblique Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.10 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the small intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.10.2 Identify the functions of the small intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.10 Small Intestine
72) Which of the following substances are not absorbed in the large intestine? a) water b) vitamins c) soluble fiber d) electrolytes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 24.11 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the large intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.11.2 Explain the functions of the large intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.11 Large Intestine
73) The cecum directs waste into which structure of the large intestine? a) descending colon b) transverse colon c) ascending colon d) sigmoid colon Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 24.11 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the large intestine. Study Objective 2: SO 24.11.1 Describe the anatomy and structure of the large intestine. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.11 Large Intestine
74) During fetal development, which structure develops from the foregut? a) appendix b) jejunum c) pharynx d) sigmoid colon e) anal canal Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 24.12 Describe the development of the digestive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.12 Development of the Digestive System
Question type: True/False
75) Common changes in the digestive organs in the elderly include decreased mobility, increased mucosal secretions, and malabsoprtion. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 24.13 Describe the effects of aging on the digestive system. Section Reference 1: Sec 24.13 Aging and the Digestive System
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 25
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the location of the kidneys? a) They are partially protected by the floating ribs (11th and 12th pairs). b) The left kidney is slightly lower than the right. c) They are located between the peritoneum and the posterior wall of the abdomen. d) They are situated between the levels of the last thoracic and third lumbar vertebrae. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.1 Describe the external gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
2) The right kidney is slightly lower than the left due to the position of which organ? a) spleen b) pancreas c) lung d) liver Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.1 Describe the external gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
3) The concave border of the kidney faces the a) vertebral column b) diaphragm
c) pelvis d) urinary bladder Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.1 Describe the external gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
4) Three layers of tissue surround each kidney. They are, in order from innermost (deepest) to outermost (most superficial): 1. renal capsule 2. visceral peritoneum (serosa) 3. adipose capsule 4. renal fascia a) 1, 3, 4 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 3, 2 d) 4, 3, 1 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.1 Describe the external gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
5) Which of the following structures would not be located entering/exiting the renal hilum? a) blood vessel b) lymphatic vessel c) nerve d) urethra Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical
features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.2 Explain the internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
6) Trace the route of an oxygenated red blood cell from the time it passes into the kidney in a renal artery until it enters a venule as a deoxygenated red blood cell by placing the following vessels in their correct order: 1. segmental artery 2. arcuate artery 3. interlobar artery 4. peritubular capillary 5. afferent arteriole 6. peritubular venule 7. efferent arteriole 8. cortical radiate artery 9. glomerular capillaries a) 1, 3, 2, 8, 5, 9, 7, 4, 6 b) 3, 2, 1, 8, 4, 7, 9, 5, 6 c) 1, 8, 2, 3, 7, 9, 5, 4, 6 d) 1, 2, 3, 8, 5, 9, 7, 6, 4 Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.3 Trace the path of blood flow through the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
7) A nephron consists of two parts: a) renal corpuscle and renal tubule. b) glomerulus and glomerular capsule. c) proximal and distal convoluted tubules. d) glomerulus and collecting duct. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the
pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.4 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
8) Which of the following structures is NOT a portion of a nephron? a) vasa recta b) nephron loop (loop of Henle) c) distal convoluted tubule d) proximal convoluted tubule Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.4 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys 9) The visceral layer of the glomerular capsule (Bowman’s capsule): a) forms the outermost (superficial) wall of the capsule. b) contains cells called podocytes. c) consists of extracellular material. d) none of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.4 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
10) Cortical nephrons lack one portion of the renal tubule that is found in juxtamedullary nephrons, the: a) thick segment of the ascending limb of the nephron loop (loop of Henle). b) thin segment of the ascending limb of the nephron loop (loop of Henle). c) proximal convoluted tubule. d) distal convoluted tubule.
Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.4 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
11) The two portions of a nephron that commonly contribute to the juxtaglomerular apparatus are the: a) glomerulus and distal convoluted tubule. b) descending limb of nephron loop (loop of Henle) and efferent arteriole. c) final part of ascending limb of nephron loop (loop of Henle) and afferent arteriole. d) glomerulus and collecting duct. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.4 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
12) Juxtaglomerular cells: a) have receptors for both antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone. b) are found in the macula densa. c) are modified smooth muscle fibers (cells) in the wall of the afferent arteriole. d) are found in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting duct. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.4 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
13) Normally, urine is prevented from backing up into the ureters from a full bladder due to: a) gravity. b) hydrostatic pressure from the renal pelvis. c) sphincters (anatomical valves) at the junctions of the ureters and bladder. d) physiological valves where pressure in the bladder compresses oblique openings into the ureters. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.1 Describe the structure and function of the ureters. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination
14) The urinary bladder is posterior to the pubic symphysis in males. In females, the urinary bladder is posterior to the vagina. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.2 Explain the histology of the urinary bladder and its role in micturition. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination
15) The internal urethral sphincter is formed by circular smooth muscle. The external urethral sphincter is derived from voluntary skeletal muscle. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.2 Explain the histology of the urinary bladder and its role in micturition. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination
16) The lining of the male urethra contains: a) transitional epithelium. b) pseudostratified columnar epithelium. c) stratified squamous epithelium. d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.3 Indicate the differences in structure in the urethras of males and females, and explain how they affect the organ’s function. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination
17) The shortest portion of the male urethra is the _____. a) spongy urethra b) membranous (intermediate) urethra c) prostatic urethra d) penile urethra Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.3 Indicate the differences in structure in the urethras of males and females, and explain how they affect the organ’s function. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination
18) Which of the following structures normally transport blood? 1. glomerular (Bowman’s) capsule 2. glomerulus 3. efferent arteriole 4. nephron loop (loop of Henle)
5. collecting duct 6. vasa recta a) 1, 4 and 5 b) 2, 3 and 6 c) 4 and 5 only d) 3 and 6 only Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.3 Trace the path of blood flow through the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
19) In severe cases of urinary incontinence, a suprapubic catheter (a tube placed in the bladder from the anterior abdominal wall) is used to aid in voiding urine. With the placement of this catheter, urine does not pass through the: a) nephron b) ureters c) urethra d) renal pelvis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.2 Explain the histology of the urinary bladder and its role in micturition. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination
20) Which structure(s) is/are made of skeletal muscle? a) detrusor muscle (intermediate muscularis) b) internal urethral sphincter c) external urethral sphincter d) detrusor muscle (intermediate muscularis) and external urethral sphincter Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.2 Explain the histology of the urinary bladder and its role in micturition. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination
21) A patient who suffers from chronic bladder infections could eventually develop a more serious kidney infection. Which structure is responsible for the spread of the inflammation? a) urethra b) physiological valve between bladder and ureter c) external urethral sphincter d) internal urethral sphincter Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.1 Describe the structure and function of the ureters. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination
Question type: True/False
22) The urinary system consists of two kidneys, two urethras, one urinary bladder, and one ureter. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.1 Describe the major structures of the urinary system and the functions they perform. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.1 Overview of the Urinary System
23) The ureters transport urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.1 Describe the major structures of the urinary system and the functions they perform.
Section Reference 1: Sec 25.1 Overview of the Urinary System
24) The kidneys produce two hormones: calcitrol and calcitonin. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.1 Describe the major structures of the urinary system and the functions they perform. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.1 Overview of the Urinary System
25) The kidneys release glucose to maintain normal blood glucose levels. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.1 Describe the major structures of the urinary system and the functions they perform. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.1 Overview of the Urinary System
26) The kidneys are located within peritoneum cavity of the abdomen. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.1 Describe the external gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
27) A renal papilla is located at the base (wider end) of each renal pyramid. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.2 Explain the internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
28) The renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tubule, and distal convoluted tubule of a nephron are located within the renal cortex. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.4 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
29) The kidneys contain more cortical nephrons than juxtamedullary nephrons. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.4 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
30) All nephron loops (loops of Henle) receive their blood supply from the vasa recta. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.4 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
31) The renal cortex contains the renal corpuscles and most parts of the renal tubules except for the nephron loops (loops of Henle) of the juxtamedullary nephrons. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the
pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.4 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
32) Approximately 50% of the resting cardiac output is received by the kidneys. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.3 Trace the path of blood flow through the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
33) The process of tubular reabsorption rids the body of some materials such as hydrogen ions and ammonium ions and some drugs such as penicillin. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the 3 major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts. Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Outline the steps of tubular reabsorption and explain where it occurs. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Functions of Nephrons
34) The distal (last) region of a ureter has only two layers of smooth muscle in the muscularis. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.1 Describe the structure and function of the ureters. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination
35) There are three openings into the urinary bladder: a pair of ureteral openings and an internal urethral orifice. Answer: True
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.2 Explain the histology of the urinary bladder and its role in micturition. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination
36) The female urethra opens between the clitoris and the vaginal opening. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.3 Indicate the differences in structure in the urethras of males and females, and explain how they affect the organ’s function. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination
37) The fetal kidneys begin excreting urine by the third month of development, thus contributing most of the volume of the amniotic fluid. Answer: True Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the development of the urinary system. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Development of the Urinary System
Question type: Essay
38) List the functions of the urinary system. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.1 Describe the major structures of the urinary system and the functions they perform. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.1 Overview of the Urinary System Solution: 1) Regulation of blood ionic composition. 2) Regulation of blood pH. 3) Regulation of blood volume. 4) Enzymatic regulation of blood pressure. 5) Maintenance of blood osmolarity. 6) Production of hormones. 7) Regulation of blood glucose level. 8) Excretion of wastes and foreign substances. In addition, the ureters and urethra transport urine; the urinary bladder is a site of temporary storage.
Question type: Text entry
39) The indentation on the concave border of each kidney is the renal _____. Answer: hilum Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.1 Describe the external gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys Solution: hilum
40) _____ is an enzyme released by the kidney which indirectly causes an increase in blood pressure. Answer: renin Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.1 Describe the major structures of the urinary system and the functions they perform. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.1 Overview of the Urinary System Solution: renin
Question type: Essay
41) Describe the layers through which a substance will pass when moving from glomerular blood into filtrate of the capsular space. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the 3 major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts. Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.4 Describe the filtration membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Functions of Nephrons Solution: (1.) Endothelial fenestrations of the glomerulus: large pores that allow passage of solutes, but prevent blood cells and platelets from entering the filtrate. (2.) Basement membrane of the glomerulus: glycoprotein matrix and fibrils between the endothelium and the visceral layer
of the glomerular capsule; prevents passage of larger negatively charged plasma proteins into the filtrate. (3.) Slit membranes between pedicels of podocytes (cells of the visceral layer of the glomerular capsule): the slit membrane prevents the filtration of medium-sized proteins.
42) Urine formation involves three processes. Define them and name the regions of the nephron and blood supply involved in each process. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the 3 major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts. Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Explain the role of the nephrons and collecting ducts in glomerular filtration. Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Outline the steps of tubular reabsorption and explain where it occurs. Study Objective 3: SO 25.3.3 Identify the events of tubular secretion and where they occur. Learning Objective 4: 25.3.4 Describe the filtration membrane. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Functions of Nephrons Solution: In glomerular filtration (1), blood enters the glomerulus via the afferent arteriole. Blood cells and other larger solutes stay in the blood and leave the glomerulus via the efferent arteriole. The efferent arteriole becomes the peritubular capillary which runs along the tubule. Filtrate formed in the glomerular (Bowman’s) capsule flows through the three parts of the renal tubule (PCT, nephron loop (loop of Henle), DCT). In the process of reabsorption (2), items in the filtrate stay in the body as they move from the tubule to the blood in the peritubular capillaries. In the process of tubular secretion (3), excess ions or drugs like penicillin that were too large to filter, but need to be removed from the body as urine, move from the blood in the peritubular capillaries to the filtrate in the tubule. Processed filtrate (not reabsorbed) passes to a collecting duct and becomes urine.
43) Describe the three coats that make up the wall of the urinary bladder, from innermost (deepest) to outermost (most superficial). Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.2 Explain the histology of the urinary bladder and its role in micturition. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination Solution: 1. Mucosa of transitional epithelium and lamina propria 2. Intermediate muscularis (Detrusor muscle) of inner longitudinal, middle circular, and outer longitudinal smooth muscle 3. Serosa (layer of peritoneum) on the superior surface, adventitia (layer of areolar connective
tissue) on the remainder.
Question type: Multiple Choice
44) What is the structure that is indicated on the diagram?
a) right renal artery b) left renal vein c) left ureter d) left urethra Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.1 Describe the major structures of the urinary system and the functions they perform. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.1 Overview of the Urinary System
45) What structure is the arrow is pointing to?
a) suprarenal gland b) adipose capsule c) quadratus lumborum d) peritoneum Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.1 Describe the external gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
46) What is the structure indicated in the diagram?
a) renal pelvis b) minor calyx c) renal vein d) major calyx Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.2 Explain the internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
47) What is the structure indicated in the diagram?
a) mesangial cells b) pedicels c) parietal layer of capsule d) macula densa Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.4 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
48) What is the structure or area that the arrow is pointing to?
a) peritoneum b) internal urethral sphincter c) detrusor muscle d) trigone Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.2 Explain the histology of the urinary bladder and its role in micturition. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination
Question type: True/False
49) The renal cortex is deep to the renal medulla. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the
pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.2 Explain the internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
50) The kidney has more major calyces than minor calyces. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.2 Explain the internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
51) The major blood vessel that supplies the kidney with blood from the heart is the renal artery. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.3 Trace the path of blood flow through the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
52) The proximal convoluted tubule cells have microvilli on their apical surface to assist in reabsorption and secretion. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.4 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
53) Aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone target the principle cells of the proximal convoluted tubule? Answer: False
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.4 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
54) After birth, growth of nephrons is due to hypertrophy not hyperplasia. Answer: True Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.4 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
55) The filtration membrane consists of the glomerular capillaries and the podocytes that surround the glomerulus. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the 3 major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts. Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Explain the role of the nephrons and collecting ducts in glomerular filtration. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Functions of Nephrons
56) When mesangial cells relax, the surface area of the glomerulus increases causing glomerular filtration to increase. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the 3 major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts. Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Explain the role of the nephrons and collecting ducts in glomerular filtration. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Functions of Nephrons
57) Potassium ions (K+) secreted from tubule cells into the tubular fluids help control blood pH. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the 3 major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts. Study Objective 3: SO 25.3.3 Identify the events of tubular secretion and where they occur. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Functions of Nephrons
Question type: Multiple Choice
58) The portion of the renal cortex that extends between the renal pyramids are the a) renal papilla b) renal columns c) renal medulla d) papillary duct Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.2 Explain the internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
59) The first branch of the renal artery is the a) arcuate artery b) interlobar artery c) segmental artery d) efferent arteriole Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.3 Trace the path of blood flow through the kidneys.
Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
60) At the base of each renal pyramid, the interlobar arteries arch between the medulla and cortex to become the _____ arteries. a) cortical radiate b) arcuate c) segmental d) renal Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.3 Trace the path of blood flow through the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
61) Peritubulular capillaries surround parts of the nephron in the renal cortex. The vasa recta surrounds portions of the nephron in the renal medulla. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.3 Trace the path of blood flow through the kidneys. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
62) Which segment of the renal tubule is composed of simple squamous epithelium? a) proximal convoluted tubule (CT) b) nephron loop: descending limb and thin ascending limb c) nephron loop: thick ascending limb d) distal convoluted tubule
Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, their microscopic structures including the renal corpuscle and renal tubules and the pathway of blood flow through the kidneys. Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.4 Describe the structure of renal corpuscles and renal tubules. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy and Histology of the Kidneys
63) The movement of water and solutes across blood capillaries into the renal capsule is a) glomerular filtration b) tubular reabsorption c) tubular secretion Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the 3 major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts. Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Explain the role of the nephrons and collecting ducts in glomerular filtration. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Functions of Nephrons
64) The movement of water and solutes from the kidney tubules into the bloodstream is a) glomerular filtration b) tubular reabsorption c) tubular secretion Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the 3 major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts. Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Explain the role of the nephrons and collecting ducts in glomerular filtration. Study Objective 3: SO 25.3.2 Outline the steps of tubular reabsorption and explain where it occurs. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Functions of Nephrons
65) Which of the following substances would be least likely to pass through the fenestrations in the endothelial cells of the glomerulus?
a) sodium ions b) water c) proteins d) glucose Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the 3 major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts. Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Explain the role of the nephrons and collecting ducts in glomerular filtration. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Functions of Nephrons
66) Which of the following is least likely to affect filtration in the glomerulus? a) efferent arteriole diameter is smaller than afferent arteriole. b) large surface area of the glomerulus. c) fenestrations cause the membrane to be leaky. d) low blood pressure in the glomerulus. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the 3 major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts. Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Explain the role of the nephrons and collecting ducts in glomerular filtration. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Functions of Nephrons
67) Which of the following is least likely to affect urine flow in the ureters? a) peristaltic contractions b) hydrostatic pressure c) blood pressure d) gravity Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.1 Describe the structure and function of the ureters.
Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination
68) The internal urethral sphincter is composed of which arrangement and type of muscle fibers? 1. circular 2. longitudinal 3. oblique 4. smooth 5. skeletal a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 4 c) 2 and 5 d) 1, 2, and 5 e) 1, 3 and 5 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.1 Describe the structure and function of the ureters. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination
Question type: Text entry
69) The _____ _____ is a layer of material between the endothelium of the glomerulus and the podocytes. It contains a negatively charged glycoprotein matrix, which repels larger negatively charged proteins. Answer: basal lamina Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the 3 major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts. Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Explain the role of the nephrons and collecting ducts in glomerular filtration. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Functions of Nephrons Solution: basal lamina
70) The movement of substances through the epithelial cells and then into the peritubular capillaries is _____ reabsorption.
Answer: transcellular Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the 3 major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts. Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Outline the steps of tubular reabsorption and explain where it occurs. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Functions of Nephrons Solution: transcellular
71) ______ is defined by excess excretion of glucose in the urine. Answer: glucosuria Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the 3 major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts. Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Outline the steps of tubular reabsorption and explain where it occurs. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 Functions of Nephrons Solution: glucosuria
Question type: Essay
72) Waste passes from the renal pelvis into this structure, which removes the waste from the kidney. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.1 Describe the structure and function of the ureters. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination Solution: ureter
Question type: Text entry
73) The inner lining of the ureter secretes _____ to prevent the cells lining the ureter from being damaged by urine.
Answer: mucous Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.1 Describe the structure and function of the ureters. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination Solution: mucous
74) A common effect of aging is _____, increased frequency of urination at night. Answer: nocturia Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure. Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.1 Describe the structure and function of the ureters. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination Solution: nocturia
Question type: True/False
75) The mass of the kidney decreases in size as an individual ages. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 25.6 Outline the effects of aging on the urinary system. Section Reference 1: Sec 25.6 Aging and the Urinary System
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 26
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Spermatogenesis results in: a) two new cells with 23 chromosomes each. b) four new cells with 23 chromosomes each. c) two new cells with 46 chromosomes each. d) four new cells with 46 chromosomes each. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.3 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
2) The dartos muscle: a) causes wrinkling of the skin of the scrotum. b) is found in the scrotal septum. c) relaxes in response to warmth, contracts in response to cold. d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the scrotum. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
3) Descent of the testes into the scrotum normally occurs: a) near the end of the seventh month of fetal development. b) in the ninth month of fetal development. c) shortly after birth. d) at puberty.
Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
4) Which of the following pairs of terms is most closely matched? a) tunica vaginalis; testes b) tunica albuginea; uterus c) germinal epithelium; spermatic cord d) corpus luteum; penis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
5) The blood-testis barrier: a) consists of tight junctions between interstitial (Leydig) cells. b) is the basement membrane of the seminiferous tubules. c) protects sperm antigens from exposure to the cells of the immune system. d) all of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.3 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
6) Spermatogenesis and oogenesis are the only processes in the body where _____ occurs. a) mitosis b) meiosis
c) replication d) mutation Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.3 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes. Study Objective 3: SO 26.2.1 Describe the location and functions of the ovaries. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System Section Reference 2: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
7) The male reproductive duct that is six meters long but is tightly coiled into a 3.5-cm distance is the _____. a) rete testis b) ductus epididymis c) ductus (vas) deferens d) ejaculatory duct Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
8) Place the following ducts in the correct order, from the site of sperm production to the point of exit from the body. 1. ductus (vas) deferens 2. straight tubules 3. prostatic urethra 4. ductus epididymis 5. ejaculatory duct 6. efferent ducts 7. spongy (penile) urethra 8. rete testis 9) membranous (intermediate) urethra a) 6, 1, 8, 2, 4, 3, 5, 7, 9 b) 2, 8, 6, 4, 1, 5, 3, 9, 7 c) 5, 6, 2, 8, 4, 1, 9, 3, 7
d) 6, 8, 2, 4, 1, 3, 5, 9, 7 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
9) The midventral mass of erectile tissue in the penis is a: a) corpus spongiosum penis. b) corpus cavernosum penis. c) spongy urethra. d) tunica albuginea. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
10) The bulb of the penis is formed by the proximal (near point of attachment) ends of the corpora cavernosa penis. It is attached to the inferior ramus of the pubis. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
11) The tunica albuginea of an ovary:
a) is a layer of loose connective tissue that divides the ovaries into lobes. b) is the outermost covering of the ovary. c) is the tissue that contains and surrounds a developing oocyte. d) is a tissue layer located deep to the germinal epithelium. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the location and functions of the ovaries. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
12) The corpus luteum: a) develops from a corpus albicans. b) develops prior to ovulation. c) is the zone of the ovary that contains ovarian follicles. d) none of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the location and functions of the ovaries. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
13) The uterine tubes: 1. are the typical site of fertilization 2. are also called oviducts 3. are lined by cells that have microvilli called fimbriae 4. have a section called the ampulla which makes up about the lateral two-thirds of the length of the tubes 5. attach the ovaries firmly to the uterus a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 3, 5 c) 2, 4, 5 d) 1, 2, 4 only Answer: d Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the location and functions of the uterine tubes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
14) Which of the following is NOT a type of ligament that helps maintain the position of the uterus? a) suspensory ligament b) round ligament c) cardinal (lateral cervical) ligament d) broad ligament Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.4 Describe the location and functions of the uterus. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
15) Which of the following is NOT true of the stratum basalis? a) It is the permanent layer of the endometrium and it gives rise monthly to the stratum functionalis after each menstruation. b) It is supplied with blood by the spiral arterioles. c) It is the layer of the endometrium closest to the myometrium. d) None of these choices; i.e., all are true. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.4 Describe the location and functions of the uterus. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
16) The vulva (pudendum): a) is the recess in the superior portion of the vagina that surrounds the cervix. b) is the female external genitalia. c) consists of an anterior urogenital triangle and a posterior anal triangle. d) is a ligament of the uterus.
Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.6 List and describe the components of the vulva. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
17) The onset of menopause occurs when: a) primary follicles become less responsive to FSH and LH. b) GnRH release patterns change. c) estrogen and progesterone levels decline. d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.6 Describe the effects of aging on the reproductive systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.6 Aging and the Reproductive Systems
18) The female gamete (ovum) is not formed until meiosis II is completed when: a) the secondary oocyte has been fertilized by the sperm b) the first polar body has been resorbed c) the mature (Graafian) follicle has erupted from the ovary d) menstruation has happened around day 28 Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.2 Discuss the process of oogenesis in the ovaries. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
19) Where is the diaphragm, the female birth control barrier, placed? a) at the hymen in the vulva b) in the vestibule c) surrounding the opening of the cervix d) in the endometrium of the uterus
Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.4 Explain the differences among the various types of birth control methods, including spontaneous and induced abortion, and compare their effectiveness. Study Objective 2: SO 26.4.1 Explain the differences among the various types of birth control methods and compare their effectiveness. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.4 Birth Control Methods and Abortion
20) Which uterine layer is most responsive to the hormone oxytocin, which increases contractions and leads to expulsion of the fetus? a) endometrium b) myometrium c) perimetrium d) serosa Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.4 Describe the location and functions of the uterus. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
21) Which structure would NOT be a component of the spermatic cord? a) ductus (vas) deferens b) cremaster muscle c) pampiniform plexus d) bulbourethral gland Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
22) A prostate tumor is most likely to interfere with:
a) micturition (flow of urine through prostatic urethra) b) spermatogenesis c) spermiogenesis d) erection Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
Question type: True/False
23) The scrotum provides an environment for the testes that is normally two to three degrees Celsius higher than normal core body temperature. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the scrotum. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
24) Tight junctions between sustentacular (Sertoli) cells prevent an immune response against developing spermatozoa. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.3 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
25) Spermatogonia are diploid (2n chromosome number) stem cells that are dormant until puberty, when they undergo mitosis and differentiate into diploid primary spermatocytes. Answer: True
Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.3 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
26) The inferior portion of the epididymis, from which the ductus (vas) deferens emerges, is called the head. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
27) Fructose, which is an energy source for sperm, is a component of the secretions of the prostate gland. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
28) The ovarian ligament anchors the ovaries to the uterus. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the location and functions of the ovaries. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
29) Several layers of cells, called granulosa cells, surround and nourish a developing oocyte in the ovary. Answer: True
Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the location and functions of the ovaries. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
30) In the uterine tubes, peristaltic contractions of the muscularis assist the movement of the oocyte or fertilized ovum into the uterus. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the location and functions of the uterine tubes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
31) The three layers of the wall of the uterus are endometrium, myometrium, and stratum basalis. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.4 Describe the location and functions of the uterus. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
32) Ejection of milk from the mammary glands is stimulated by the hormone oxytocin. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.7 Describe the location and functions of the mammary glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
33) After ovulation, a corpus hemorrhagicum develops into a corpus luteum under the influence of luteinizing hormone (LH). Answer: True
Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.3 Describe the female reproductive cycle, ovulation and the uterine and ovarian events during the different phases. Study Objective 2: SO 26.3.3 Compare the ovarian and uterine events during the preovulatory and postovulatory phases. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.3 Female Reproductive Cycle
34) The embryonic mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts develop into the ducts of the male reproductive system and the uterine tubes of the female reproductive system. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.5 Describe the development of the male and female reproductive systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.5 Development of the Reproductive Systems
35) SRY is a gene of the X chromosome that controls development of gonads and external genitalia. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.5 Describe the development of the male and female reproductive systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.5 Development of the Reproductive Systems
36) Breast self-examination, mammography, and ultrasound are all important techniques in the detection of breast cancer. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.7 Describe the location and functions of the mammary glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
Question type: Essay
37) Describe the location and the functions of sustentacular (Sertoli) cells. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.3 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System Solution: The sustentacular (Sertoli) cells are large cells interspersed among the spermatogenic cells of the seminiferous tubules. A single cell will extend from the basement membrane (where it is joined to neighboring sustentacular cells by tight junctions) to the lumen of the tubule. The functions include: formation of the blood-testis barrier; phagocytosis of the excess cytoplasm from spermatogenesis; nourishment and support of spermatocytes, spermatids, and sperm; mediation of the effects of testosterone and FSH; and secretion of the hormone inhibin, which helps control the process of spermatogenesis by inhibiting the secretion of FSH by the pituitary.
38) Explain the terms spermatogenesis, spermiogenesis, and spermiation. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.3 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System Solution: Spermatogenesis refers to the entire process of sperm production, including the mitotic division of spermatogonia, the meiotic divisions that produce haploid gametes, and their development into mature spermatozoa. Spermiogenesis, the final stage of spermatogenesis, is the maturation of spermatids into spermatozoa. Spermiation is the release of spermatozoa from sustentacular cells into the lumen of a seminiferous tubule.
39) The liquid portion of semen is secreted by accessory sex glands. Name and describe the glands and state the contents and functions of their secretions. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System Solution: The seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral glands are the accessory sex glands in males. The paired seminal vesicles are pouchlike structures, lying posterior to and at
the base of the urinary bladder anterior to the rectum. Through the seminal vesicle ducts they secrete an alkaline, viscous fluid that contains fructose, prostaglandins, and clotting proteins. The prostate is a single, doughnut-shaped gland about the size of a ping-pong ball. It is inferior to the urinary bladder and surrounds the prostatic urethra. The prostate secretes a milky, slightly acidic fluid (pH about 6.5) that contains several substances, including citric acid in prostatic fluid is used by sperm for ATP production, and several proteolytic enzymes. Seminalplasmin in prostatic fluid is an antibiotic that can destroy bacteria. The paired bulbourethral glands, each about the size of a pea, lie inferior to the prostate on either side of the membranous urethra within the deep muscles of the perineum; their ducts open into the spongy urethra. During sexual arousal, the bulbourethral glands secrete an alkaline substance that protects the passing sperm by neutralizing acids from urine in the urethra.
40) Describe the gross anatomy of the uterus and accompany your answer with a labeled diagram. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.4 Describe the location and functions of the uterus. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System Solution: The uterus is situated between the urinary bladder and the rectum, the uterus is the size and shape of an inverted pear. Anatomical subdivisions of the uterus include the following: (1) a dome-shaped portion superior to the uterine tubes called the fundus, (2) a tapering central portion called the body, and (3) an inferior narrow portion called the cervix that opens into the vagina. Between the body of the uterus and the cervix is the isthmus, a constricted region. The interior of the body of the uterus is called the uterine cavity, and the interior of the narrow cervix is called the cervical canal.
41) Describe the structure of a mammary gland, using the correct terminology for the tissues and ducts. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.7 Describe the location and functions of the mammary glands. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System Solution: Within each breast is a mammary gland, a modified sudoriferous (sweat) gland that produces milk. A mammary gland consists of 15 to 20 lobes, or compartments, separated by a variable amount of adipose tissue. In each lobe are several smaller compartments called lobules,
composed of grapelike clusters of milk-secreting glands termed alveoli embedded in connective tissue.
42) Describe the events in the uterus during the preovulatory and postovulatory phases of one menstrual cycle. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 26.3 Describe the female reproductive cycle, ovulation and the uterine and ovarian events during the different phases. Study Objective 2: SO 26.3.3 Compare the ovarian and uterine events during the preovulatory and postovulatory phases. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.3 Female Reproductive Cycle Solution: 1. Preovulatory phase: Endometrial cells of the stratum basalis, under the influence of estrogen from developing ovarian follicles, divide to produce a new stratum functionalis layer. Endometrial glands and spiral arterioles develop as the stratum functionalis thickens. 2. Postovulatory phase: Due to the influence of estrogen and progesterone from the corpus luteum, the endometrial glands grow and begin secretion of glycogen, and the endometrium becomes thicker and more vascularized.
Question type: Text entry
43) Testosterone is secreted by cells in the testes called _____. Answer: interstitial (Leydig) cells Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System Solution: interstitial (Leydig) cells
Question type: Multiple Choice
44) What is the structure indicated in the figure?
a) urinary bladder b) testis c) bulbourethral gland d) prostate Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
45) Name the structure indicated in the figure.
a) body b) acrosome c) neck d) tail Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.4 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a mature sperm. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
46) What structure is indicated in the diagram?
a) ovary b) uterus c) vagina d) clitoris Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.6 List and describe the components of the vulva. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
47) What structure is indicated?
a) secondary follicle b) corpus luteum c) mature (Graafian) follicle d) corpus albicans Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the location and functions of the ovaries. Study Objective 3: SO 26.2.2 Discuss the process of oogenesis in the ovaries. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
48) What is the name of the structure indicated in the diagram?
a) fimbriae of uterine tube b) isthmus of uterine tube c) cervix of uterus d) fundus of uterus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.4 Describe the location and functions of the uterus. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
49) Which of the following is NOT a structure of the male reproductive tract? a) epididymis b) ductus deferens c) oviducts d) seminal vesicle Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and
testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
Question type: True/False
50) The external ridge of tissue that separates the scrotum into two pouches is the scrotal septum. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the scrotum. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
51) The cremaster muscle is a bundle of smooth muscle fibers. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the scrotum. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
52) The nucleus of a sperm is contained with the neck of a mature sperm. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.4 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a mature sperm. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
Question type: Multiple Choice
53) Which molecule is released from the acrosome of a mature sperm to help the sperm penetrate the membrane of a secondary oocyte?
a) sugar b) ATP c) enzyme d) mucous Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm. Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.4 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a mature sperm. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System
54) Primary oocytes enter which phase of Meiosis I prior to puberty? a) Prophase b) Anaphase c) Telophase d) Metaphase Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.2 Discuss the process of oogenesis in the ovaries. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System 55) During a woman’s reproductive lifetime, she will ovulate approximately how many mature oocytes? a) 400 b) 10,000 c) 40,000 d) 2 million Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.2 Discuss the process of oogenesis in the ovaries.
Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
56) Which portion of the uterine tube is more medial to all other sections? a) infundibulum b) fimbriae c) isthmus d) ampulla Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the location and functions of the uterine tubes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
57) The peg cells of the uterine tube a) provides nutrition to the ovum b) help move a fertilized ovum c) create the peristaltic contractions d) assist in the implantation of the ovum in the uterus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the location and functions of the uterine tubes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
58) The pH of the vagina is a) acidic b) basic c) neutral Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.
Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.5 Explain the functions of the vagina. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
59) The vagina is situated _____ to the urinary bladder and urethra. a) anterior b) posterior c) medial d) lateral Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.5 Explain the functions of the vagina. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
60) The vagina is composed of which type of epithelium? a) nonkeratinized stratified squamous b) keratinized stratified squamous c) simple squamous d) simple columnar Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.5 Explain the functions of the vagina. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
61) Which of the following structures are not found in the vesiblule of the vulva? a) vaginal orifice b) external urethral orifice c) hymen d) clitoris Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.6 List and describe the components of the vulva. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
62) Which phase of the female reproductive cycle is characterized by a discharge of the endometrium after ovarian progesterone levels decline? a) menstrual phase b) preovulatory phase c) postovulatory phase d) ovulation Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.3 Describe the female reproductive cycle, ovulation and the uterine and ovarian events during the different phases. Study Objective 2: SO 26.3.2 Describe the uterine events during menstruation. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.3 Female Reproductive Cycle
Question type: Text entry
63) The formation of gametes in the ovaries is termed _____. Answer: oogenesis Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.2 Discuss the process of oogenesis in the ovaries. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System Solution: oogenesis
64) The funnel-shaped infundibulum of each uterine tube ends in a fringe of fingerlike projections called _____. Answer: fimbrae Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.
Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the location and functions of the uterine tubes. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System Solution: fimbrae
65) The tubular, muscular canal extending from the exterior of the body to the uterine cervix is the _____. Answer: vagina Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.5 Explain the functions of the vagina. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System Solution: vagina
Question type: Essay
66) A series of transverse folds in the vagina that increases the surface area of the vagina during sexual intercourse and childbirth. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.5 Explain the functions of the vagina. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System Solution: rugae
Question type: True/False
67) The uterine tube is composed of inner circular layer and outer longitudinal layer of smooth muscle. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the location and functions of the uterine tubes.
Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
68) The female homologous structure to the male scrotum is the labia majora. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis. Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.6 List and describe the components of the vulva. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Reproductive System
69) Follicle stimulating hormone released from the anterior pituitary targets the ovarian follicles and causes the release of estrogen. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.3 Describe the female reproductive cycle, ovulation and the uterine and ovarian events during the different phases. Study Objective 2: SO 26.3.1 Define the female reproductive cycle. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.3 Female Reproductive Cycle
70) During ovulation, a secondary oocyte is released around day 14 of the reproductive cycle. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.3 Describe the female reproductive cycle, ovulation and the uterine and ovarian events during the different phases. Study Objective 2: SO 26.3.4 Define ovulation. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.3 Female Reproductive Cycle
71) When taken in combination, mifepristone and misopostol reduces the likelihood of implantation of a fertilized egg by blocking progesterone receptors in the uterus. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.4 Explain the differences among the various types of birth control methods, including spontaneous and induced abortion, and compare their effectiveness. Study Objective 2: SO 26.4.2 Distinguish between spontaneous and induced abortion.
Section Reference 1: Sec 26.4 Birth Control Methods and Abortion
72) An example of an induced abortion is a miscarriage. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.4 Explain the differences among the various types of birth control methods, including spontaneous and induced abortion, and compare their effectiveness. Study Objective 2: SO 26.4.2 Distinguish between spontaneous and induced abortion. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.4 Birth Control Methods and Abortion
Question type: Multiple Choice
73) Which type of birth control is prevent fertilization by blocking sperm entry into the uterine tube and has a long-term effectiveness of 10 years? a) morning-after pill b) spermicide c) intrauterine device d) vaginal pouch Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 26.4 Explain the differences among the various types of birth control methods, including spontaneous and induced abortion, and compare their effectiveness. Study Objective 2: SO 26.4.1 Explain the differences among the various types of birth control methods and compare their effectiveness. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.4 Birth Control Methods and Abortion
74) A side effect of menopause is hot flashes, heavy sweating which coincide with the release of which hormone? a) gonadotropin releasing hormone b) follicle stimulating hormone c) leutinizing hormone d) growth hormone Answer: a Difficulty: Easy
Study Objective 1: SO 26.6 Describe the effects of aging on the reproductive systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.6 Aging and the Reproductive Systems
75) The genital tubercle of a 5 week embryo will become which structures in a 10 week embryo? a) glans penis and clitoris b) urethral folds and labioscrotal swellings c) perineum and anus d) scrotum and vestibule Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 26.5 Describe the development of the male and female reproductive systems. Section Reference 1: Sec 26.5 Development of the Reproductive Systems
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha13 Chapter Number: 27
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Tragus, helix, lobule, and concha are features of the: a) ear. b) nose. c) eye. d) neck. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head
2) Which of the following statements is FALSE? a) The upper and lower eyelids (palpebrae) are lined by conjunctiva. b) The lacrimal caruncle is located at the lateral union of the upper and lower eyelids (palpebrae). c) Eyelashes consist of hairs that are usually arranged in two or three rows. d) Sclera is the "white" of the eye. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head
3) In the neck, the external jugular vein can be seen in the: a) midline. b) posterior triangle. c) anterior triangle. d) submandibular triangle.
Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck
4) The triangle of auscultation is bordered by two muscles of the back: a) latissimus dorsi and teres major. b) erector spinae and teres major. c) trapezius and infraspinatus. d) trapezius and latissimus dorsi. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk
5) The sternal angle, a surface landmark of the chest: a) lies at the junction of the clavicles and manubrium. b) can be used to locate the costal cartilages of the second ribs. c) is a depression on the superior border of the manubrium. d) is found at the inferior end of the sternum. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk
6) The arch of the aorta is posterior to the: a) manubrium of sternum. b) sternal angle. c) body of sternum. d) costal margin.
Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk
7) McBurney's point, a landmark used in locating the appendix: a) is inferior and lateral to the umbilicus. b) is superior and medial to the right anterior superior iliac spine. c) is closer to the right anterior superior iliac spine than it is to the umbilicus. d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk
8) The cubital fossa: a) contains the ulnar nerve. b) contains the axillary artery. c) is posterior to the olecranon. d) none of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb
9) Which of the following statements about the femoral triangle is TRUE? a) Hernias frequently occur in this area.
b) It is bordered by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially. c) It contains the femoral artery, vein, and nerve, and is an important arterial pressure point. d) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb
10) The popliteal fossa is bordered by which of the following muscles? 1. biceps femoris 2. semimembranosus 3. adductor magnus 4. gastrocnemius 5. semitendinosus a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 1, 2, 4, 5 only c) 1, 3, 4, 5 only d) 2, 4, 5 only Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb
11) The sternal angle of the sternum is an external landmark for which of the following? a) the costal cartilage of the third rib b) the fourth intercostal space c) the right and left primary bronchi d) the larynx Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.
Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk
12) Which neck structures would be palpated in the anterior cervical region? 1. trapezius muscle 2. common carotid artery 3. cricoid cartilage a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 2 and 3 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck
13) Which surface anatomy feature consists of the inferior edges of the costal cartilages of ribs 710? At its superior end is the xiphisternal joint. a) costal margin b) manubrium c) iliac crest d) jugular notch Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk
14) The aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle on its inferior border attaches laterally to the anterior superior iliac spine and medially to the pubic tubercle. The ligament that is formed by this aponeurosis is a structure along which hernias frequently occur. What is the name of this ligament? a) the linea alba
b) the inguinal ligament c) McBurney’s ligament d) the tendinous intersection Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk
15) The iliac crest is used as a landmark to find which common site for intramuscular injection (IM)? This location poses little chance of injury to the sciatic nerve. a) deltoid b) vastus lateralis c) gluteus medius d) gastrocnemius Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb
Question type: True/False
16) The oral region of the face includes the eyeballs, eyebrows, and eyelids. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head
17) The trachea (windpipe) can be palpated posterior to the suprasternal (jugular) notch of the sternum.
Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk
18) The point at which the trachea (windpipe) divides into right and left primary bronchi may be determined by locating the sternal angle. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk
19) In the abdomen, the inferior vena cava is located to the right of the abdominal aorta. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk
20) The scapulae are on the back, at the level of ribs 2 through 7. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk
21) The deltoid muscle forms the anterior axillary fold. Answer: False
Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb
22) The ulnar nerve passes through a groove behind the lateral epicondyle of the humerus. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb
23) In the anatomical position, the thenar eminence of the palm is medial to the hypothenar eminence. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb
24) The depression between the two buttocks is the gluteal fold. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb. Section Reference 1: Sec 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb (Extremity)
25) The inguinal ligament forms the superior border of the femoral triangle. Answer: True
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb
Question type: Essay
26) Name and locate the four points (surface markings) that can be used to determine the location and size of the heart. Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk Solution: 1. inferior left point (apex): at the 5th intercostal space, 9 cm to the left of the midline 2. inferior right point: at the lower border of the costal cartilage of the right 6th rib, about 3 cm to the right of the midline 3. superior right point: at the upper border of the costal cartilage of the right 3rd rib, about 3 cm right of the midline4. superior left point: at the lower border of the costal cartilage of the left 2nd rib, about 3 cm to the left of the midline
27) Describe the locations of the muscles of the thigh that are visible as superficial landmarks. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb Solution: The locations of the sartorius, quadriceps femoris, adductor longus, and hamstring muscles are described on pages 890-892 and Figure 27.17.
Question type: Text entry
28) The ramus, body, and angle of the mandible can be palpated at the _____ and _____ regions of the head.
Answer: mental; buccal Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head Solution: mental; buccal
29) The region of the nose between apex and root is the _____. Answer: dorsum nasi Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head Solution: dorsum nasi
30) The posterior axillary fold is formed by two muscles: teres major and _____. Answer: latissimus dorsi Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk Solution: latissimus dorsi
31) The _____ lumbar vertebra is a landmark for performing a spinal tap (lumbar puncture). It is intersected by the surpracristal line. Answer: fourth Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk Solution: fourth
32) The anterior axillary fold is formed by the lateral border of the _____ muscle. Answer: pectoralis major Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk Solution: pectoralis major
33) The _____ ligament is the lower (inferior) border of the external oblique muscle. Answer: inguinal Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk Solution: inguinal
34) A vein found at the elbow, used for venipuncture (blood withdrawal for analysis) and transfusions is the _____ vein. Answer: median cubital Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb Solution: median cubital
35) The _____ muscle forms the bulk of the anterior surface of the arm. Answer: biceps brachii Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb
Solution: biceps brachii
36) The tendon of the _____ muscle is visible when the wrist is slightly flexed and the base of the thumb and little finger are drawn together. Answer: palmaris longus Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb Solution: palmaris longus
37) The three bony prominences found in the elbow region are the _____, the _____, and the _____. Answer: medial epicondyle, lateral epicondyle, olecranon Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb Solution: medial epicondyle, lateral epicondyle, olecranon
38) When the thumb is bent backward, a depression forms called the _____ between the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis longus. Answer: “anatomical snuffbox” Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb Solution: “anatomical snuffbox”
39) The _____ arch (network of the hand) is a venous loop that can be pressed on the posterior surface (dorsum) of the hand. Answer: dorsal venous
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb Solution: dorsal venous
40) The bony projection on the anterior surface near the proximal end of the leg is the _____. Answer: tibial tuberosity Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb Solution: tibial tuberosity
Question type: Essay
41) If a patient folds the arms across the chest and bends forward, the lung sounds can be heard (at the triangular area shown in the figure) in the intercostal space between which two ribs?
Answer: Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk Solution: The 6th intercostal space (between ribs 6 and 7) is located at the “Triangle of auscultation.”
Question type: True/False
42) The femoral triangle is a space formed by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally and the adductor longus muscle medially. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.
Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb
43) The temporal region forms the base of the skull. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head
44) The buccal region is a region of the mouth. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head
Question type: Multiple Choice 45) This feature of the neck is commonly called the “Adam’s apple”. a) hyoid bone b) sternocleidomastoid muscle c) thyroid cartilage d) philtrum Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck
46) Which region forms the crown of the skull? a) temporal region
b) occipital region c) parietal region d) orbital region Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head
47) The external ear is in the a) buccal region. b) auricular region. c) nasal region. d) mental region. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head
48) If you moved your fingers from side to side over the superior aspect of the scalp you would palpate which suture? a) sagittal suture b) coronal suture c) squamous suture d) lambdoid suture Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head
49) The most prominent bony landmark on the occipital region of the skull is the a) external occipital protuberance.
b) mastoid process. c) mandible. d) zygomatic arch Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head
50) Which muscle can be felt superior to the nose near the medial end of the eyebrow? a) occipitofrontalis b) corrugator supercilii c) zygomaticus major d) depressor labii inferioris Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head
51) Yellowing of the this normally white structure is a sign of jaundice. a) iris b) pupil c) sclera d) conjunctiva Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head
52) The site of the union of the upper and lower eyelids closest to the nasal region is the a) medial commissure b) lateral commissure
c) palpebral fissure d) lacrimal caruncle Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head
53) When placing your little finger in your external auditory canal and opening and closing your mouth, which portion of the mandible can be palpated? a) mastoid process b) pinna c) condylar process d) ramus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head
Question type: True/False
54) The tragus is a cartilaginous projection posterior to the external auditory canal. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head
55) A portion of the ear that does not contain cartilage is the lobule. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.
Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head
56) The philtrium is a structure lateral to the external naris. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head
57) The region of the nose between the eyes is the apex. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head
58) The hyoid bone can be palpated inferior to the Thyroid cartilage. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck
Question type: Multiple Choice
59) The landmark used for a tracheotomy is the a) hyoid bone b) cricoid cartilage c) thyroid gland d) vertebral spines Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck
60) This muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles. a) trapezius b) sternocleidomastoid c) anterior scalene d) pectoralis major Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck
61) Pressure on this artery can stop bleeding to the entire upper limb. a) internal jugular artery b) external carotid artery c) external jugular vein d) subclavian artery Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck
62) This pulse felt anterior to the sternocleidomastoid and inferior to the angle of the mandible is from which artery? a) internal jugular artery b) external carotid artery c) external jugular vein d) subclavian artery Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck
63) The vertebral prominens is spinous process of which vertebrae? a) fifth cervical vertebrae b) sixth cervical vertebrae c) seventh cervical vertebrae d) second thoracic vertebrae Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck
64) The hyoid bone resides at the same transverse sectional level as the a) fourth cervical vertebrae. b) fifth cervical vertebrae. c) sixth cervical vertebrae. d) sixth and seventh cervical vertebrae. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck
65) The common carotid artery bifurcates into the internal and external carotid arteries at the a) fourth cervical vertebrae. b) fifth cervical vertebrae. c) sixth cervical vertebrae. d) sixth and seventh cervical vertebrae. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck
66) A transverse section at the atlas would intersect all of the following EXCEPT: a) uvula b) upper teeth c) palatine tonsil d) thyroid cartilage Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck
67) The most laterally palpable bony structure in the body is the a) acromion b) humerus c) greater tubercle d) iliac crest Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb
68) The apex of the axilla is surrounded by all of the following EXCEPT: a) clavicle b) scapula c) first rib d) chest wall Answer: d Difficulty: Hard
Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb
69) The projection on the distal end of the medial bone of the forearm is the a) head of the ulna. b) styloid process of the radius. c) medial epicondyle of the humerus. d) lateral epicondyle of the humerus. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb
Question type: True/False
70) The groove on the medial side of the biceps brachii contains the axillary artery. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb
71) The tendon of the flexor carpi ulnaris is on the medial aspect of the forearm. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb
72) The knuckles are the dorsal aspect of the metacorpophalangeal, interphalangeal, and heads of the metacarpals II-V. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb
73) The head of the tibia can be palpated on the lateral side of the popliteal fossa. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb
74) Pulses from the dorsalis pedis artery can be palpated lateral to the extensor hallucis longus tendon. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination. Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb