Principles of Radiographic Imaging An Art and a Science, 6th Edition Test Bank

Principles of Radiographic Imaging An Art and a Science, 6th Edition Test Bank

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Title, Edition

SSO Cognero Principles of Radiographic Imaging: An Art and a Science, 6e

SSO Cognero ISBN

9781337793131

Author/Authors

Carlton/Adler/Balac

Copyright Year

2020

Cognero Discipline

Radiology Technology

Cognero Folder Structure

Skills > Radiology Technology > 2020 > Principles of Radiographic Imaging

Zip File Contents

Chapters 1-42

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Chapter 01 - Basic Mathematics Multiple Choice 1. 1/7 + 5/9 = a. 6/16 b. 35/63 c. 44/63 d. 9/35 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 12:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 2:30 AM 2. 5/8 7/9 = a. 12/17 b. 45/56 c. 12/72 d. 35/72 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 12:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 2:31 AM 3. 1/6 4/5 = a. 1/5 b. 4/11 c. 5/24 d. 4/30 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 12:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 2:31 AM 4. 46.3 + 29.87 = a. 245 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Basic Mathematics b. 2,450 c. 76.17 d. 7.617 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 2:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 2:32 AM 5. 16.3 1.2 = a. 19.56 b. 195.6 c. 17.5 d. 1.75 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 2:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 2:33 AM 6. 1,800 0.30 = a. 0.0001 b. 540 c. 6,000 d. 60,000 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 9:48 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 1:15 AM 7. Convert 7/12 to a decimal. a. 0.583 b. 1.714 c. 19.83 d. 84.00 ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Basic Mathematics POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 9:58 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 1:16 AM 8. Convert 87.3% to a decimal. a. 0.0873 b. 0.873 c. 8.73 d. 87.3 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 10:00 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 1:16 AM 9. Change 23.46 to a percent. a. 0.2346% b. 23.46% c. 2.346% d. 2,346% ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 10:12 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/28/2019 4:01 PM 10. The number of significant digits in 3.75 a. two. b. three. c. four. d. five.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

104 is

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Chapter 01 - Basic Mathematics HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 10:15 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 1:18 AM 11. The inverse of 0.137 is approximately a. 1.37. b. 7.30. c. 73. d. 137.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 10:17 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 1:18 AM 12. Convert 540.7 to scientific notation. a. 5.407 102 b. 5.407

10−2

c. 5.407

103

d. 5.407

10−3

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 10:24 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 1:19 AM 13. 2.63 10−2 = a. 0.00263 b. 0.0263 c. 26.3 d. 263 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 10:27 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 1:19 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Basic Mathematics 14. If you purchase four (4) twelve-packs of soda as a fundraiser for $10.00 and sell each can of soda for 50 cents, your profit is a. $9.74. b. $14.00. c. $24.00. d. $34.00.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 10:29 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 1:19 AM 15. Mercury (Hg), a metal, is liquid at room temperature. Its density is 13.6 g/cm3. If you have 100 mL of Hg, how many grams do you have? a. 0.136 b. 1.36 10−3 c. 136 d. 1.36

103

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 10:31 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 1:20 AM 16. Convert 113°F to °C. a. 20.3°C b. 62.8°C c. 81°C d. 235°C ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 10:33 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 1:20 AM 17. The equation x2 + 2xy + y2 can be expressed as: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Basic Mathematics a. (x + y)2 b. 2x + 2y c. x + 2xy + y2 d. x2 + y2 + xy ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 10:35 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 1:21 AM 18. Consider the following proportional relationship: x = ay/bd. Assuming all other quantities remain constant, what happens to the value of x when b increases? a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same d. cannot be determined ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 10:36 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 1:21 AM 19. Consider the following proportional relationship: x = ay/bd. Assuming all other quantities remain constant, what happens to the value of x when d decreases? a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same d. cannot be determined ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 10:39 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 1:21 AM 20. Consider the following proportional relationship: x = ay/bd. Assuming all other quantities remain constant, what happens to the value of x when the product of bd increases? a. increases Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Basic Mathematics b. decreases c. remains the same d. cannot be determined ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 10:40 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 1:22 AM Completion 21. 74 kV is equal to ____________________ volts.

74,000 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:11 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:13 PM 22. 400 mA is equal to ____________________ amperes.

0.40 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:13 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:14 PM 23. 120,000 V is equal to ____________________ kVp. 120 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:14 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:14 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Basic Mathematics 24. 3.7 m are equal to ____________________ cm.

370 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:15 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:15 PM Problem 25. 1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2; solve for R2.

ANSWER: RR1/R1 − R POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:17 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:18 PM 26. F = Gm1m2/r2; solve for m1.

ANSWER: Fr2/Gm2 POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:18 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:19 PM 27. PV = nRT; solve for T. PV/nR ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:19 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:19 PM 28. I = E/R + r; solve for r.

E − IR/I ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01 - Basic Mathematics QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:20 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:20 PM 29. P = 2L + 2W; solve for L. (P − 2W)/2 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:20 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:21 PM 30. V = 1/3 r2h; solve for .

ANSWER: 3V/r2h POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:21 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 10:20 PM 31. P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2; solve for V2.

ANSWER: P2V2T1/P1V1 POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:22 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:22 PM

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Chapter 02 - Radiation Concepts Multiple Choice 1. The unit of mass is the a. megabyte. b. kg. c. liter. d. cc.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 9:27 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 9:29 PM 2. An electron is ____ charged and has a mass of ____ amu(s). a. negatively; 1.673 10−27 b. negatively; 0.000548 c. neutral; 1 d. positively; 0.000548 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:32 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:38 PM 3. The orderly arrangement of elements in the periodic table is based upon a. atomic weights. b. mass number. c. neutron number. d. atomic number.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:35 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:39 PM 4. Photon wavelength is a. inversely proportional to photon velocity.

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Chapter 02 - Radiation Concepts b. directly proportional to photon frequency. c. inversely proportional to photon frequency. d. is not related to frequency.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:36 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:38 PM 5. All of the following are true of electromagnetic energies EXCEPT: a. They are illustrated as sinusoidal waves. b. They possess both wave and particle characteristics. c. The relationship between frequency and wavelength is direct and proportional. d. They are arranged in an orderly spectrum according to frequency and wavelength.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:39 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:41 PM 6. The maximum number of electrons found in any energy level (shell) at any point in time is calculated by the formula a. N = Z x e2. b. W = F c. N = amu

D. Z.

d. 2n2.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:41 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:42 PM 7. The sum of protons and neutrons in a nucleus is called the a. atomic mass unit. b. atomic weight. c. quantum number. d. mass number.

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Chapter 02 - Radiation Concepts ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:43 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:44 PM 8. Groups of the periodic table a. represent elements with the same outer electron configuration. b. are horizontal. c. represent elements with the same atomic density. d. all have the same electron binding energies.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:45 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:46 PM 9. Carbon has an atomic number of 6. One of its isotopes has a mass number of 14. The number of neutrons in this isotope is a. 6. b. 8. c. 14. d. 19.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:46 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 1:20 AM 10. A period in the periodic table is a. represented by a column. b. vertical. c. the principal quantum number. d. determined by the valence electrons.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Radiation Concepts QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:47 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:48 PM 11. In the excitation process, electrons in an atom are moved to a/an ____ energy state. a. lower b. higher c. incomplete d. ionization ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:49 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:50 PM 12. The maximum number of electrons in a period with a principal quantum number of 4 is a. 6. b. 8. c. 18. d. 32.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:50 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 1:23 AM 13. Isotopes have ____ mass numbers and ____ atomic numbers. a. the same; the same b. the same; different c. different; the same d. different; different ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:52 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:53 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Radiation Concepts 14. In a vacuum, electromagnetic radiation a. has a velocity equal to the speed of light. b. x-ray energy may be bent by a crystalline lens. c. causes ionizations of air molecules. d. is altered by a strong magnetic field.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:07 AM 15. If the photon frequency of electromagnetic radiation is increased tenfold, then the a. velocity will increase times 10. b. velocity will decrease to 10. c. wavelength will increase times 10. d. wavelength will decrease to 1/10.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:09 AM 16. Electromagnetic radiation with a frequency of 2,000 hertz would have a wavelength of a. 1/2,000 cm. b. 1.5 10−7 cm.

107 cm. d. cannot be determined.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:11 AM c. 1.5

17. The atomic number is the number of ____ contained in the nucleus. a. neutrons b. electrons Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Radiation Concepts c. protons d. positrons ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:14 AM 18. An isotope of boron has 5 protons and 6 neutrons. The atomic number of boron is a. 11. b. 10. c. 6. d. 5.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 1:31 AM 19. An element with an atomic number of 22 has how many electrons in the second principal quantum number level (L shell)? a. 22 b. 10 c. 8 d. 2 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:19 AM 20. Calculate the velocity of red light with a wavelength of approximately 4.0 nm (nm = 10−9). a. 7.5 10−1 nm/sec b. 7.5

1018 nm/sec

c. 1.2

10−17 nm/sec

d. 1.2

101 nm/sec

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Chapter 02 - Radiation Concepts ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:21 AM 21. The nuclear components that distinguish one element from another are the a. neutrons. b. protons. c. gamma particles. d. beta particles.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:22 AM 22. An atom has an atomic number of 18 and a mass number of 38. Letting P = the number of protons and N = the number of neutrons, which of the following atoms is the isotope of this atom? a. P = 18, N = 20 b. P = 18, N = 21 c. P = 20, N = 18 d. none of the above ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:25 AM 23. If the frequency of a wave is 1,000 hertz and is traveling at 50,000 m/sec, then its wavelength is a. 0.05 m. b. 0.5 m. c. 5 m. d. 50 m.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Radiation Concepts QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:27 AM 24. According to the “rule of octets,” a. eight energy levels have electrons. b. eight protons occupy the outermost shell. c. the valence shell is chemically inert. d. both a and c.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 11:33 PM 25. Which of the following is not a basic characteristic of the wave equation? a. velocity b. wavelength c. frequency d. energy ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:31 AM 26. If an electron is gained or lost from an atom, that atom becomes a. an ion. b. a new element. c. an isotope. d. radioactive.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:33 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Radiation Concepts 27. All of the following are energy forms EXCEPT a. sound. b. thermal. c. electrical. d. nuclear.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:34 AM 28. Quarks may behave according to the ____ theory. a. string b. quantum c. octet d. electromagnetic ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:36 AM 29. All of the following are true of the substance glucose (C6H12O6) EXCEPT: a. The smallest subdivision of this molecule is glucose. b. It is a compound. c. It consists of three elements. d. It may be broken down into one atom of glucose.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:38 AM 30. When comparing iodine (Z = 53) with barium (Z = 56), a. barium has a lower k-shell binding energy. b. iodine has more neutrons.

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Chapter 02 - Radiation Concepts c. iodine has five (5) orbitals with electrons. d. barium has fewer protons.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:39 AM Matching Match the following atomic structure characteristics with the correct statement or definition. a. electron b. neutron c. proton d. binding energy e. kinetic energy f. atomic mass g. atomic number h. isotope DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 1:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 1:39 AM 31. entirely concentrated in the nucleus ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 32. increases as the number of electrons and protons increases ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 33. A change in the number of these changes the identity of the element.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 34. possesses a negative charge and minute mass ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 35. A gain or loss of this atomic particle creates an isotope.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 36. Electrons moving around in specific orbitals demonstrate this energy.

ANSWER: e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Radiation Concepts POINTS:

1

Match the following items relating to the periodic table with the correct statement. a. tungsten b. valence c. molybdenum d. iodine e. barium f. lead g. families (groups) h. periods DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 1:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 2:00 AM 37. elements having the same chemical characteristics ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 38. Its k-shell binding energy is −33.17 keV. ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 39. It is determined by the number of electrons in the outermost shell of an atom.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 40. It has a mass number of 207.

ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 41. Elements having the same principal quantum number are in this order.

ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 42. an “L” to “K” transition would yield 31.45 keV of energy ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 Match the following items relating to the electromagnetic spectrum with the correct statement. a. infrared energy b. gamma rays c. radio waves d. ultraviolet energy e. excitation f. lambda g. amplitude h. velocity DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02 - Radiation Concepts DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 2:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 2:03 AM 43. the transference of energy to an atom ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 44. can be long wavelengths in kilometers ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 45. an expression of wavelength ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 46. the product of frequency and wavelength ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 47. expressed as the height of the wave ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 48. highly penetrating based upon frequency ANSWER: b POINTS: 1

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Chapter 03 - Electricity Multiple Choice 1. The resistance in a wire decreases as its a. diameter increases. b. length increases. c. temperature increases. d. surface area decreases.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 10:57 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 10:59 PM 2. If the total resistance in a circuit is 9 ohms and the total voltage is 3 volts, the current is a. 1/27 ampere. b. 1/3 ampere. c. 3 amperes. d. 27 amperes.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:00 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:02 PM 3. If a DC circuit is a. in series, the currents are different for each component (e.g., resistors). b. in series, the voltages are the same for each component. c. in parallel, the currents are equal for all paths of the circuit. d. in parallel, the voltages are equal for all paths of the circuit.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:02 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:03 PM 4. Electric current is defined as a. time/charge.

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Chapter 03 - Electricity b. charge/time. c. charge time. d. charge/time2.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:03 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 11:36 PM 5. The flow of electrons at a rate of 6.24 1018 per second represents: a. 1 ampere. b. 1 volt. c. 1 ohm. d. 9 amperes.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:05 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 11:37 PM 6. A current of 2 amperes and a resistance of 8 ohms require what voltage in a series circuit? a. 1/16 volt b. 1/4 volt c. 4 volts d. 16 volts ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:07 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 8:37 PM 7. When an electric current flows through a solid conductor (wire) with resistance, energy is a. liberated as capacitance. b. liberated as thermal energy. c. liberated as light. d. absorbed as heat.

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Chapter 03 - Electricity ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:09 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:10 PM 8. Ohm’s law is mathematically described as a. C = Q/V. b. L = −V/It. c. R = V/I. d. V = I2R. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:10 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:12 PM 9. Electric potential is measured in a. coulombs. b. joules. c. volts. d. ohms.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:12 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:13 PM 10. Electric insulators a. convert electrical energy into heat. b. consist of materials such as silicon. c. inhibit movement of electrical charge. d. permit movement of electrical charge.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Electricity QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:14 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:16 PM 11. If 20 volts of potential difference causes a current of 5 amperes to flow in a parallel circuit, the resistance produced is a. 1/100 ohm. b. 1/4 ohm. c. 4 ohms. d. 100 ohms.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:22 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:23 PM 12. When the atomic valence and conductance bands overlap, a. an insulator is created. b. electrical flow easily occurs. c. atomic ionization occurs. d. Ohm’s law no longer applies.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:26 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:27 PM 13. A charge would lose most of its energy when it passes through a a. resistor. b. battery. c. generator. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:27 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:31 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Electricity 14. If the distance between two electrical charges is doubled, the force between them is a. decreased by 1/4. b. decreased by 1/2. c. doubled. d. quadrupled.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:31 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:32 PM 15. A 100 W light bulb with an amperage of 0.91 A is operating at a potential difference of a. 110 volts. b. 100 volts. c. 11 kilovolts. d. 110 ohms.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:33 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:34 PM 16. An ampere is a. coulomb/sec. b. (coulomb)(sec). c. (volt)(ohm). d. ohm/volt.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:34 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:35 PM 17. Resistance is a. the opposition to the flow of electrons. b. the opposition to the generation of electromotive force.

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Chapter 03 - Electricity c. measured in Farads. d. measured in amperes.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:35 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:36 PM 18. The charge on each of two objects is doubled, and they are moved twice as far apart. The force between them is a. increased by a factor of 4. b. increased by a factor of 2. c. increased by a factor of 1/2. d. unchanged.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:36 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:37 PM 19. A circuit has a current of 2 amperes and a resistance of 4 ohms. The maximum power that can be delivered is a. 16 watts. b. 8 watts. c. 2 watts. d. 1/2 watt.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:38 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:39 PM 20. The unit of electrical power is the a. joule. b. volt. c. ampere. d. watt.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Electricity DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:39 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:40 PM 21. If 10 coulombs pass a point in 2 seconds, the current is a. 0.20 amp. b. 5 amps. c. 20 amps. d. 200 amps.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:40 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:41 PM 22. In a parallel circuit, a. Ohm’s law does not apply. b. total current flow is equal across its parallel branches. c. the voltage is equal across all branches of the circuit. d. as more resistors are added total resistance increases.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:42 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:43 PM 23. In a battery circuit with several resistors of different values connected in series, a. the voltage drop is the same across all the resistors. b. the current through each resistor is different. c. the power dissipated through each resistor is the same. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:43 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Electricity DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:44 PM 24. If a conductive surface is positively charged, it a. has too many electrons. b. is deficient in electrons. c. has more neutrons than electrons. d. is deficient in protons.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:44 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:46 PM 25. The milliampere (mA) is a unit of a. EMF. b. voltage. c. current. d. potential difference.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:46 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:47 PM 26. Neon lights illustrate the fact that electrons will flow a. in a gaseous environment. b. in a vacuum. c. in an ionic solution. d. in a solid conductor.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:48 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:49 PM 27. All of the following choices are considered excellent metallic electrical conductors EXCEPT a. gold.

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Chapter 03 - Electricity b. silver. c. steel. d. copper.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:49 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:51 PM 28. The current flow from a dry cell battery source would be a. direct current. b. alternating current. c. reciprocating current. d. oscillating current.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:52 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:53 PM 29. Electrical components possess a negative side and a positive side. This polarity permits the application of a. resistance across the poles to inhibit electron flow. b. an electromotive force (emf) to enable current flow. c. a spark gap to check amperage. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:53 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/4/2019 11:54 PM 30. When 6.24 1018 electrons travel in 1 second producing a joule (J) of work, a. 1 volt has been created. b. 1 ohm has traveled through the circuit. c. an ampere of resistance has been created. d. alternating current has been generated.

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Chapter 03 - Electricity ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/4/2019 11:55 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 11:38 PM Problem 31. If a circuit has potential difference of 80 kV and a current of 400 mA, what is the resistance?

ANSWER: 2.0 105 ohms 200,000 ohms POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 11:39 PM 32. A 25 watt light bulb operates on 120-volt household voltage. How much current does the light bulb draw?

0.21 amp ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:09 AM 33. A 100 watt light bulb operates on 120-volt household voltage. How much resistance does the light bulb offer?

144.6 ohms ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:10 AM 34. What is the total resistance of a circuit with two resistances of 3 and 5 ohms in series and two resistances of 4 ohms each in parallel?

10 ohms ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Electricity HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:11 AM 35. Calculate the current supplied to a circuit with two resistances of 3 and 5 ohms in series and two resistances of 4 ohms each in parallel.

2 amperes ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:12 AM 36. Parallel resistors of 3 ohms and 6 ohms would result in a total resistance of how many ohms?

2.0 ohms ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 12:13 AM Matching Match the terms relating to electricity with the correct statement. a. watt (W) b. semiconductor c. titanium d. circuit breaker e. electrification by contact f. potential difference g. rheostat h. electrification by induction DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 12:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/9/2019 1:37 AM 37. a device to control resistance ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 38. an expression of electrical power ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 39. superconductor Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Electricity ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 40. receiving an electrical shock from touching a doorknob ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 41. silicon ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 42. the production of lightning ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 Match the terms relating to electric current flow with the correct statement. a. semiconductor b. conductor c. insulator d. ampere e. volt f. Ohm’s law g. series circuit h. parallel circuit DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 1:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/9/2019 1:38 AM 43. V = I R ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 44. a wide band gap ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 45. 6.24 1018 electrons/sec ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 46. It = I1 + I2 + I3 + In ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 47. 10V + 5V + 12V + 3V = 30V ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03 - Electricity 48. Z# = 32 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 Short Answer 49. The shape of door knobs has been an ever-changing process over the history of architecture and home design. A popular door opener design currently used is a flat, lever-type handle that you can use to open a door. Aside from the aesthetic issues, the flat design is intended to take advantage of which law of electrostatics?

The flat, lever style of door handle is designed to take advantage of the law of distribution ANSWER: of charges on a curved surface. Old-style door knobs that were round, naturally concentrated charge on the surface of the knob based upon its curvature. Flat lever openers have a lower concentration of charge as the area of curvature is diminished. The net effect is to minimize the shock one receives when the handle is touched. This design feature takes advantage of the law of distribution of charge being greatest where the curvature is greatest.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 1:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 1:30 AM 50. Many people use hair conditioners to prevent “fly-away hair” following a shampoo. Hair conditioners typically have an oily, slippery texture when applied, but they do work. Hair conditioners take advantage of which electrostatic principle?

Shampooing typically removes oil from the hair shaft. This hair oil insulates each hair ANSWER: from the other somewhat. When brushing/combing one’s hair, they rub charge on/off creating many charged bodies with similar charges. These like charges repel each other, and consequently lead to “fly-away” hair. Conditioner places a thin oil film on each hair shaft and naturally insulates the hair, preventing static buildup.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 1:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 1:31 AM

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Chapter 04 - Electromagnetism Multiple Choice 1. A magnetic field is produced by a. electric charges at rest. b. electric charges in motion. c. permanent magnets only. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 2:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 2:47 AM 2. A continuous, expanding and contracting magnetic field is produced by a. a stationary magnet. b. a steady current flowing in a wire. c. a battery. d. alternating current.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 2:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/9/2019 1:39 AM 3. A diode electron tube such as a valve tube a. is used for amplification. b. is used to hold electrical charge. c. is used to vary the primary voltage. d. can be used for rectification.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 2:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 2:59 AM 4. The magnetic flux through a wire loop a. requires a time-varying magnetic field.

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Chapter 04 - Electromagnetism b. is maximum when the plane of the loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field. c. increases as the magnetic field decreases. d. stays fixed in orientation regardless of electron flow.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 3:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 3:02 AM 5. The charge carriers are considered to be a negative in a/an a. diode. b. triode. c. n-type semiconductor. d. p-type semiconductor.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 3:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 3:03 AM 6. Electrons move downward in a vertical wire. The direction of the associated magnetic field directly around the wire is a. clockwise. b. counterclockwise. c. in the direction of the electron flow. d. opposite to the conventional current.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 3:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 3:05 AM 7. An induced current in a wire loop a. results from a constant magnetic flux. b. results from an alternately expanding and contracting magnetic field. c. is in such a direction that its effects oppose the change producing the current. d. always decreases when the magnetic flux decreases.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Electromagnetism POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 3:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 3:11 AM 8. The process of electrons being emitted from heated metallic surfaces is called a. thermionic emission. b. electrolysis. c. electroplating. d. radiofrequency induction.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:26 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:28 PM 9. The magnitude of force felt by a moving charge through a magnetic field would be least if the charge were a. moving directly into the magnetic field. b. moving directly away from the magnetic field. c. moving at a right angle to the magnetic field. d. both a and b.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:28 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:29 PM 10. A generator is a device that converts a. electrical energy to thermal energy. b. stored energy to electrical energy. c. mechanical energy to electrical energy. d. electrical energy to mechanical energy.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Electromagnetism DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:29 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:30 PM 11. A simple DC generator has essentially the same construction as an AC generator except that a DC generator employs the use of a. slip rings. b. a commutator. c. brushes. d. an armature.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:31 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:32 PM 12. A rectifier a. refers to a type of electromagnetic device. b. changes electron flow to current flow. c. converts AC to DC. d. both b and c.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:32 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:33 PM 13. A motor is a device that converts a. thermal energy into electrical energy. b. electrical energy into mechanical energy. c. electrical energy into electromagnetic energy. d. mechanical energy into electrical energy.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:34 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:35 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Electromagnetism 14. A transformer with more secondary windings than primary windings a. has a greater secondary voltage. b. is a step-down transformer. c. has a greater power output than input. d. has a higher power loss.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:35 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:37 PM 15. The inherent power loss of electrical conduction through solid wire conductors a. is minimized with higher voltage transmission. b. has no relationship with current flow. c. results from space charge. d. is lower with current flow rather than electron flow.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:37 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:38 PM 16. A bar magnet and a wire loop move with the same linear velocity and direction. The voltage induced in the wire is a. maximum when the wire and magnetic flux are parallel. b. directly proportional to their velocities. c. inversely proportional to the velocities. d. zero.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:56 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 9:57 PM 17. For a simple AC generator, the value of the induced voltage in the armature loop is maximum when the orientation of the armature as compared to the magnetic field is a. 15 degrees. b. 45 degrees.

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Chapter 04 - Electromagnetism c. 90 degrees. d. 180 degrees.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 9:57 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 10:26 PM 18. How many times does an AC current change direction in a single minute? a. 30 b. 60 c. 120 d. 7,200 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 10:26 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 10:27 PM 19. The efficiency of a transformer is not affected by a. eddy current loss. b. power loss. c. hysteresis loss. d. the transformer turns ratio.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 10:27 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 10:28 PM 20. American generators operate at a. 220 V. b. 120 AC. c. 60 Hz. d. 30 A. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Electromagnetism DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 10:29 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 10:30 PM 21. A stator consists of a. bars of copper around an iron core. b. commutator rings. c. a rotor. d. electromagnets.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 10:30 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 10:31 PM 22. Conventional current flows a. from cathode to anode. b. from anode to cathode. c. only in a solid conductor. d. in the same direction as the electron flow.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 10:32 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 10:33 PM 23. All of the following are true of transformers EXCEPT: a. They have no moving parts. b. They work on the principle of mutual induction. c. They work most efficiently on pulsating DC. d. They are designed to regulate voltage.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 11:25 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Electromagnetism DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 11:26 PM 24. If a transformer is supplied with 16 volts and 4 amperes, the output current from this transformer with an output voltage of 1200 volts would be a. 24 volts. b. 0.02 amperes. c. 480 amperes. d. 800 amperes.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 11:26 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 11:27 PM 25. The turns ratio of a transformer is determined by the a. size of the wire. b. type of wire. c. number of windings. d. size of the laminated plates.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 11:27 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 11:28 PM 26. An electrical device that is designed to store charge momentarily after charging is a/an a. battery. b. capacitor. c. thyristor. d. dielectric.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 11:28 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 11:36 PM 27. All of the following are true of autotransformers EXCEPT: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Electromagnetism a. They are considered a variable transformer. b. The primary and secondary coils are in series. c. The primary and secondary windings share a common coil. d. They are effective in controlling voltage on the high voltage side of the circuit.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 11:36 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 11:37 PM 28. The material of choice for semiconductors is a. silicon. b. carbon. c. gadolinium. d. ferrous iron.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 11:37 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 11:38 PM 29. All of the following are true of induction motors EXCEPT: a. They use multiphase current and can turn at varying rpm. b. Motor power can be regulated by the characteristics of the electromagnets that make up the stator. c. Their design is inherently weak with regard to power. d. They are used to spin the x-ray tube anode disk.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 11:38 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 11:39 PM 30. When using alternating current, a. resistance is calculated as impedance (Z). b. electrical production can be graphically expressed as a sinusoidal wave. c. it must be rectified prior to the high voltage transformer. d. both a and b.

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Chapter 04 - Electromagnetism ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 11:39 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 11:43 PM Short Answer 31. List the three ways to induce an electromagnetic field. move the conductor through a magnetic field, move the magnetic field across a stationary ANSWER: conductor, and vary the magnetic field strength across a stationary conductor POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 11:43 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 11:44 PM 32. The magnitude of an induced electromagnetic field depends on what four factors? the strength of the magnetic field, the speed of the motion between the lines of force and ANSWER: the conductor, the angle between the magnetic lines of force and the conductor, and the number of turns in the conducting coil POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 11:44 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 11:45 PM 33. The design of an x-ray tube requires that electron flow through it is in a single direction or phase. If alternating current were supplied to the x-ray tube at high voltage, what would be the result?

During the negative phase of electron flow, electrons would enter the x-ray tube on the ANSWER: anode side. The design and structure of the anode do not permit thermionic emission.

Equally important is that the cathode filament of the cathode assembly is not designed to accept electron bombardment from the anode. If this occurs under high voltage, the cathode assembly would be damaged beyond repair and the tube destroyed.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Electromagnetism DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

2/5/2019 11:45 PM 2/5/2019 11:46 PM

34. Solid state rectifiers use semiconductor technology. This valuable technology has led to the term “Silicon Valley” and is commonly associated with the computer and transistor industries. The core material for semiconductors is silicon which is intentionally combined with impurities using the elements of arsenic, gallium, and boron. This process is termed “doping” and is used to control electron flow through an n-p interface or junction. How is arsenic used to affect semiconductor conductance?

Arsenic is an electron contributor through its single valence electron, which forms a ANSWER: covalent bond with silicon. This creates an electron charge carrier that is a better conductor of electron flow than gallium, which creates an electron “hole” as a charge carrier. The doping of silicon with more and more arsenic improves is conductance across the n-p junction.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 11:46 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 11:47 PM Matching Match the following selections as they relate to the process of rectification. a. semiconductor b. diode c. p-type material d. n-type material e. thyristor f. valve tube g. arsenic h. gallium DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 11:48 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 11:51 PM 35. atomic element that creates electron “holes” ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 36. p-type material sandwiched with n-type material ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 37. obsolete type of rectification technology ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Electromagnetism 38. designed to permit electron flow in one direction only ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 39. also called SCR ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 40. an electron doper to improve conductance ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 Match the terms relating to magnetism with the correct choice. a. magnetic flux b. spin magnetic moment c. tesla d. electromagnet e. permeability f. retentivity g. paramagnetic h. ferromagnetic DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 11:51 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/5/2019 11:54 PM 41. resistance to demagnetization ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 42. 10,000 gauss ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 43. cobalt ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 44. electron rotation on an axis ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 45. ratio between field strength and area ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 46. electrical coil with ferrous core ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04 - Electromagnetism POINTS:

1

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Chapter 05 - The X-Ray Tube Multiple Choice 1. All of the following are related except one. Select the choice that is NOT RELATED. a. a source of electrons b. a vacuum c. thermionic emission d. a large potential difference ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/5/2019 11:58 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:01 AM 2. The function of the cathode is to produce a. a focal point. b. an electrical connection to the rectifier. c. a thermionic cloud. d. a grounding effect.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:03 AM 3. All of the following are part of the cathode assembly EXCEPT a. filament. b. stator. c. focusing cup. d. associated wiring.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:04 AM 4. All of the following are preferred cathode filament materials EXCEPT a. copper.

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Chapter 05 - The X-Ray Tube b. tungsten. c. rhenium. d. molybdenum.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:06 AM 5. Filament materials are chosen primarily for their a. atomic number. b. high melting points. c. ability to vaporize easily. d. voltage tolerance.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:07 AM 6. Which of the following would affect the production of a thermionic cloud? a. filament diameter b. filament length c. filament temperature d. all of the above ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:08 AM 7. A filament may break due to a. evaporation. b. deposition. c. ablation. d. vaporization.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - The X-Ray Tube POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:10 AM 8. Driving the thermionic cloud from the cathode to the anode requires a. a grid biased anode. b. a small voltage. c. anode rotation. d. a small amperage.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:11 AM 9. In order to time the x-ray exposure with rapid inspiration on an infant, a. three-phase, high-frequency generators are preferred. b. the exposure button and prep are pressed simultaneously. c. exposure may be initiated as fast as 0.10 sec. d. pulsating DC current should pass through the x-ray tube.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/9/2019 1:43 AM 10. The cathode focusing cup has a/an ____ charge. a. neutral b. isomeric c. positive d. negative ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - The X-Ray Tube DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:15 AM 11. As more and more electrons build up in the area of the filament, their negative charges oppose the emission of additional electrons. This phenomenon is known as a. thermionic emission. b. biased cloud formation. c. space charge effect. d. current saturation.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:17 AM 12. X-ray photon production occurs at the a. anode. b. cathode. c. filament. d. stator windings.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/9/2019 1:44 AM 13. Tungsten is the material of choice for the source of x-ray photons primarily because of its a. high atomic number. b. low melting point. c. low mass number. d. G-force tolerance.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/9/2019 1:44 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - The X-Ray Tube 14. Pitting of the anode commonly occurs a. when the unit is not warmed up properly. b. when the anode is off-focus. c. with extended use. d. when the kilovoltage is too high.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:21 AM 15. Melting of the anode commonly occurs a. when the unit is not warmed up properly. b. with extended use. c. when the kilovoltage is too high. d. when the stator fails and the rotor ceases to turn.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:23 AM 16. Cracking of the anode typically occurs a. with extended use. b. when the anode is off-focus. c. when a cold anode is hit with a high kVp exposure. d. when the cathode cup touches the anode, causing a short.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:24 AM 17. The exact point on the anode where the x-ray beam emanates is the a. focusing cup. b. focal spot. c. anode heel.

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Chapter 05 - The X-Ray Tube d. rotor.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:28 AM 18. The physical area of a rotating anode focal track, affected by the cathode electron beam, is the a. effective focal spot. b. effective focal track. c. actual focal spot. d. projected focal track.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:34 AM 19. The area of the focal spot that is projected out of the tube toward the object being radiographed is the a. effective focal spot. b. line focus. c. actual focal spot. d. thermionic stream.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:36 AM 20. The actual focal spot is controlled by the a. thickness of the anode disc. b. length of the filament. c. anode rotation speed. d. angle of the cathode focusing cup.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - The X-Ray Tube QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:37 AM 21. The most common diagnostic radiography x-ray tube target angle is ____ degrees. a. 12 b. 24 c. 45 d. 54 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:39 AM 22. As the actual focal spot size increases, the effective focal spot size a. increases. b. decreases. c. remains the same. d. doubles proportionally.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:40 AM 23. As the angle of the anode increases and the incident electron beam size remains the same, the effective focal spot size a. increases. b. decreases. c. remains the same. d. cannot be determined.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:42 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - The X-Ray Tube 24. To cover a 14 in. 17 ft field at 40 ft, a ____-degree target angle is required. a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 12 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:43 AM 25. The use of the line-focus principle causes a problem known as the ____ effect. a. space charge b. quantum mottle c. anode heel d. saturation current ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:45 AM 26. The only portion of the anode assembly placed outside the vacuum of the glass envelope is the a. stator. b. rotor. c. anode stem. d. molybdenum neck.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:53 AM 27. The function of the stator and rotor assembly is to a. change the anode angle. b. rotate the anode.

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Chapter 05 - The X-Ray Tube c. insulate the anode. d. disrupt the electromagnets of the induction motor.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:57 AM 28. To increase the thermal loading capacity of the anode, x-ray tube manufacturers a. bond graphite to the back of the anode. b. decrease the anode angle. c. use a thicker cathode filament. d. use an anode alloy of tungsten and copper.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:58 AM 29. The protective housing controls leakage and scatter radiation through a. evaporation. b. vaporization. c. absorption. d. condensation.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:00 AM 30. Insulation of the high-voltage components of the tube and absorption of the heat produced by x-ray production are achieved through the use of a. a small fan. b. a vacuum. c. a stator. d. dielectric oil.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - The X-Ray Tube POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:01 AM 31. What type of radiation is composed of photons not produced at the actual focal spot? a. off-focus b. extra-focal c. both a and b d. remnant ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:35 AM 32. When radiographing a wedge-shaped anatomical structure such as the femur, the thicker portion of the anatomy should be positioned a. under the cathode end of the tube. b. in the exact center of the beam, as it is most intense in the center. c. off center laterally to negate the heel effect. d. under the anode side of the tube.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:36 AM 33. Leakage radiation from the lead-lined housing must not exceed a. 10 mR/hr measured at 40 inches. b. 100 mR/min measured at the underside of the collimator. c. 10 mR/min measured at the tube head. d. 100 mR/hr measured at 1 meter.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - The X-Ray Tube HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:37 AM 34. All of the following would lengthen x-ray tube life EXCEPT: a. minimize anode rotation times and prepping. b. avoid sudden movements of the tube head assembly. c. use low-mA selections whenever clinically possible. d. use high-speed anode rotation on distal extremity studies.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:42 AM 35. To determine the allowable combination of exposures factors, thus preventing x-ray tube damage, a. a tube rating chart is referenced after exposure to check correctness. b. the automatic exposure circuit is activated. c. an x-ray tube rating chart is checked prior to exposure. d. an anode cooling chart is referenced prior to exposure.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:43 AM 36. As the x-ray tube anode target angle increases from 10 degrees to 15 degrees: a. higher exposure values (mA, time, kVp) may be used. b. the size of the actual focal spot increases. c. image resolution decreases. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/9/2019 1:45 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - The X-Ray Tube 37. An effective technology used in pulsed fluoroscopy to produce precise electron streams from the cathode is a. stress-relief anodes. b. grid-biased x-ray tubes. c. solid-state diodes. d. intermittent filtration.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/9/2019 1:45 AM Short Answer 38. What is the function of the filament?

The function of the filament is to provide sufficient resistance to the flow of electrons so ANSWER: the heat produced will cause thermionic emission to occur.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:47 AM 39. List the three functions of the x-ray tube anode.

It serves as the target surface for the high-voltage electrons from the filament (x-ray ANSWER: photon source), it conducts the high voltage from the cathode back into the x-ray generator circuitry, and it serves as the primary thermal conductor.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:48 AM 40. List two other names for the anode target. target, focus, focal point, focal spot, or focal track ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - The X-Ray Tube STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:49 AM 41. List the three parts of the anode assembly. the anode, the stator, and the rotor ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:50 AM 42. In which direction should the anode be placed for an AP projection of the femur?

Because the inferior upper leg is less dense, the anode’s less-intense beam should be ANSWER: positioned toward the knee to help decrease the film density in that region.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:51 AM 43. Why is a vacuum created in the x-ray tube?

The removal of air permits electrons to flow from cathode to anode without encountering ANSWER: the gas atoms in the air. This greatly increases the efficiency of the tube’s operation and prevents tube arcing.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/9/2019 1:46 AM 44. List the three primary functions of the x-ray tube’s protective housing.

The x-ray tube’s protective housing controls scatter and leakage radiation, isolates the high ANSWER: voltages, and provides a means to cool the tube.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - The X-Ray Tube STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:53 AM 45. The use of stress-relief anodes is effective at dealing with what inherent characteristic(s) of x-ray production?

A stress-relief anode is specially designed to permit rapid anode thermal expansion without ANSWER: anode cracking. These stress-relief slits are similar to the stress lines in the disc brakes of motorcycles and automobiles. Generally, stress-relief anodes do not require an elaborate tube warm-up procedure.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:55 AM 46. A conscientious technologist will always handle the x-ray tube assembly with care, particularly when the x-ray tube has been used for high mAs and kVp exposures over a short period of time. Technologists are cautioned about moving the x-ray tube assembly quickly and with “jerking” movements. Explain why this is important to remember.

Hot anode assemblies are subject to metal fatigue and the stress placed upon them by ANSWER: gyroscopic inertia. Moving the tube quickly from one orientation to another places undue fatigue on the anode stem and disc and may cause it to become unbalanced or misaligned.

Many manufacturers will place an “anode brake” or reverse induction force on the stator to slow the anode in just a few seconds. This feature of extra technology will extend the life of the tube but does cost additional money in the x-ray tube purchase.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:57 AM 47. Metal envelope x-ray tubes are gaining in popularity. Explain some key advantages to a metal housing x-ray tube.

Metal envelope tubes place a ground on the metal casing. This feature minimizes the ANSWER: buildup of tungsten deposits on the inside of the envelope, as the envelope never builds up a positive charge to attract the electrons as they travel from cathode to anode. This is not possible with a glass envelope tube.

Because of this feature, x-ray tubes last longer and remain more efficient for the life of the tube. Additionally, metal envelope tubes prevent electrons from exiting the tube and striking the patient if the SID is extremely close.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - The X-Ray Tube STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:58 AM Problem 48. How many heat units are generated by an exposure of 70 kVp, 300 mA, and 0.1 second on a 1 rectified unit?

2,100 HU ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:59 AM 49. How many heat units are generated by an exposure of 70 kVp, 400 mA, and 0.1 second on a 3 rectified unit?

3,780 HU ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:00 AM 50. How many heat units are generated by an exposure of 100 kVp, 400 mA, and 0.01 second on a high-frequency unit?

400 HU ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:01 AM 51. How many heat units are generated by three (3) exposures of 100 kVp, 400 mA, and 0.01 second using a highfrequency generator?

1,680 HU ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:02 AM 52. Using the following exposures factors on a high-frequency generator, how many joules of electrical energy are being Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05 - The X-Ray Tube created?

400 mA 95 kVp 26 ms 1,773 J ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:03 AM

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Chapter 06 - X-Ray Equipment Multiple Choice 1. How many alterations in the direction of the current flow occur in 0.10 second in a 60 Hz AC current? a. 6 b. 12 c. 60 d. 120 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:16 AM 2. At what point in the x-ray circuit is the rectification circuit located? a. between the semiconductors and the valve tubes b. between the step-down transformer and the rheostat c. between the step-up transformer and the x-ray tube d. between the thermionic diode tubes and the x-ray machines ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:17 AM 3. Where is the stator of the anode induction motor located? a. inside the glass envelope but outside the rotor b. outside the glass envelope and outside the rotor c. inside the glass envelope and inside the rotor d. outside the glass envelope but inside the rotor ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:19 AM 4. The exposure switch on an x-ray machine is intended to a. initiate the exposure.

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Chapter 06 - X-Ray Equipment b. terminate the exposure. c. both initiate and terminate the exposure. d. rotate the anode up to speed.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:20 AM 5. The exposure switch is found between the a. incoming line and the circuit breaker. b. autotransformer and the timer circuit. c. exposure switch and the step-up transformer. d. incoming line and the step-down transformer.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:22 AM 6. The electrical device used to adjust the mA selection is a/an a. autotransformer. b. stator. c. diode. d. variable resistor.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:23 AM 7. In the x-ray circuit, the timing control is found between the a. incoming line and the exposure switch. b. autotransformer and the timer circuit. c. exposure switch and the step-up transformer. d. incoming line and the step-down transformer.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - X-Ray Equipment POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:25 AM 8. In the x-ray circuit, the mA control is found between the a. incoming line and the exposure switch. b. autotransformer and the timer circuit. c. exposure switch and the step-up transformer. d. incoming line and the step-down transformer.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:28 AM 9. In the x-ray circuit, kVp control is found between the a. incoming line and the exposure switch. b. autotransformer and the timer circuit. c. exposure switch and the step-up transformer. d. incoming line and the step-down transformer.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:29 AM 10. All of the following are radiographer-operated controls EXCEPT a. kVp selection. b. timer selection. c. rotor speed. d. mA selection.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - X-Ray Equipment DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:30 AM 11. The diagnostic x-ray range of exposure is approximately a. 10 to 1,200 mA. b. 0.001 to 10 seconds. c. 25 to 150 kVp. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 1:07 AM 12. The time interval for an AEC detector to sense the presence of radiation and terminate the exposure is referred to as a. minimum reaction time b. pulse sequence c. pulse interval d. backup time ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:46 AM 13. When using AEC at 80 kVp, backup times a. must not exceed 600 mAs. b. are of no concern due to the AEC reliability. c. may range from 600 to 2000 mAs. d. should be manually set at 300% of the expected manual mAs. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:47 AM 14. Radiographic rooms equipped with a tilting table are primarily designed for performing ____ procedures.

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Chapter 06 - X-Ray Equipment a. extremity b. surgical x-ray c. fluoroscopic d. C-arm ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:49 AM 15. All of the following are x-ray tube support systems EXCEPT a. C-arm. b. floor-to-ceiling. c. overhead suspension. d. fluoroscopic tower.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:50 AM 16. To protect the radiographer from electrical shock during x-ray exposures, a. operator controls are on the high-voltage side of the circuit. b. the operator stands on a grounded rubber mat. c. release of the switch initiates the exposure sequence. d. the mA and kVp selections are on the low-voltage side of the circuit.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:51 AM 17. Which tube suspension system offers the greatest multidirectional movement? a. overhead tube suspension system b. floor-to-ceiling tube suspension system c. floor tube suspension system d. mobile tube suspension system Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - X-Ray Equipment ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:53 AM 18. With modern x-ray systems, the incoming line current is supplied a. in the form of a three-phase power cycle. b. in the form of a single-phase power cycle. c. as a direct current. d. at approximately 60 volts.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:54 AM 19. Nearly all types of x-ray equipment operate from an incoming line of a. 210 V. b. 120 AC. c. 120 Hz. d. 210 A. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:55 AM 20. When full-wave rectification is applied to three-phase current, a ____ ripple is produced. a. current b. star c. voltage d. double ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - X-Ray Equipment HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:57 AM 21. A three-phase, rectified current produces a voltage ripple of ____ pulses per Hz. a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 24 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 12:58 AM 22. A radiographic/fluoroscopic (R/F) table labeled as 90/45 indicates that a. it is capable of full 90 degree vertical tilt. b. it can rotate the patient laterally 45 degrees. c. the x-ray tube can rotate around the patient 90 and 45 degrees. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 12:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 11:45 PM 23. All of the following are desired features of radiographic tables EXCEPT a. variable height to improve patient safety. b. floating table tops to enhance patient positioning. c. low abrasion surface to lessen patient slippage as they transfer. d. carbon fiber material to reduce absorption of x-ray energy.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:01 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - X-Ray Equipment 24. High-frequency generators a. use invertors to increase pulse frequency. b. produce similar output to three-phase with a single-phase source. c. achieve peak kVp faster than single- or three-phase generators. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 11:46 PM 25. Falling load generators a. permit higher mA exposures for short exposure times. b. permit the mA to fall as exposure time increases. c. are designed to use the highest allowable mA. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 11:46 PM 26. Radiographing a thin body part, using automatic exposure control (AEC) a. requires a longer minimum reaction time. b. is recommended in order to reduce dose. c. may produce inconsistent images due to AEC timer errors. d. requires higher kVp values in order to reduce motion.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:05 AM 27. Automatic exposure control (AEC) technology determines a. patient thickness. b. exposure time. c. kVp. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - X-Ray Equipment d. mA. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:07 AM 28. Present-day AEC technology utilizes a. ionization chamber technology. b. minimum reaction times as short as 1 ms. c. a pre-detector AEC chamber position. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:10 AM 29. When compared to battery-powered portable radiographic units, capacitor discharge mobile units a. produce an average kVp energy higher than battery units. b. never need an external electrical source for charging. c. have a tendency to produce leakage exposure after exposure termination. d. produce more consistent exposures.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:12 AM 30. When compared to single-phase electrical current, three-phase power a. permits shorter exposures. b. produces 360 pulses per second. c. produces less voltage ripple. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - X-Ray Equipment QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:14 AM Problem 31. What is the approximate rms voltage of a single-phase sine wave with a kVp of 65?

45.9 kVp ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:17 AM 32. What is the approximate rms voltage of a single-phase sine wave with a kVp of 75?

53.0 kVp ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:17 AM 33. What is the approximate rms voltage of a single-phase sine wave with a kVp of 80?

56.6 kVp ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:18 AM 34. When comparing the power rating between two different x-ray generators, it is important to know the type: singlephase vs. three-phase. An exposure of 110 kV and 400 mA using a single-phase unit would yield a power rating of what?

30.8 kW ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:19 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - X-Ray Equipment 35. It is important to remember that when making x-ray exposures, a tremendous amount of electrical power is being used to make the exposure. If you compared this to the power consumed in a typical light bulb, how many 60 W light bulbs would equate to an x-ray exposure under the following conditions?

300 mA 90 kV three-phase unit 450 light bulbs ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:21 AM Matching Match the terms related to a typical x-ray circuit with the correct statement or definition. a. autotransformer b. rotor stator c. filament current d. three-phase power e. single-phase power f. AEC g. exposure switch h. rectification circuit DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:25 AM 36. regulates exposure time based upon patient thickness and density ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 37. located between incoming line and exposure switch; determines kVp ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 38. two-position device used to initiate exposure ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 39. low-voltage circuit that supplies 3 to 5 amperes ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 40. produces two pulses of electricity in 0.008 sec ANSWER: e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06 - X-Ray Equipment POINTS:

1

41. yields approximately 40% higher average energy per exposure ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Match the following choices with regard to x-ray equipment design and functionality. a. overhead tube suspension system b. C-arm tube suspension c. compression band d. footboard e. floor-to-ceiling suspension system f. shoulder supports g. upright Bucky unit h. simulator systems DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 1:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 1:27 AM 42. excellent x-ray tube positioning flexibility with patients on carts ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 43. required for myelography procedures with the table tilted Trendelenburg ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 44. used to produce a more uniform patient thickness ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 45. routinely used for chest radiography ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 46. inexpensive tube support design typically seen in small clinics ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 47. X-ray tube and image receptor are fixed to opposite ends of an arc design.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1

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Chapter 07 - Automatic Exposure Controls Multiple Choice 1. The single function of an AEC is to eliminate the need to set a. kVp. b. mA. c. time. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:54 AM 2. When using an AEC, the radiographer loses control of a. distance. b. mA. c. kVp. d. mAs. ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:08 AM 3. Automatic exposure devices provide a diagnostic quality radiograph when the a. anatomy of interest is positioned directly above the appropriate ionization chambers. b. proper time is set. c. correct focal spot is selected. d. beam filtration is minimum.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:10 AM 4. Ionization chamber AECs are usually used in a ____ chamber configuration. a. oneCopyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Automatic Exposure Controls b. twoc. threed. fourANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:11 AM 5. The most common configuration includes a. three chambers. b. a center chamber at the center of the image receptor. c. the left and right chambers slightly higher and lateral. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:12 AM 6. Most AEC consoles permit activation of a. all three cells simultaneously. b. all three cells in any combination. c. the outer cells when the center cell is inactivated. d. the center cell and either outer cell.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:13 AM 7. When more than one ionization chamber is used simultaneously during exposure, the signal is a. averaged. b. amplified to the highest value. c. multiplied. d. determined by the chamber with the highest exposure.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Automatic Exposure Controls POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/9/2019 2:26 AM 8. When an AEC is used for an AP abdomen, which ionization chambers are utilized? a. the center cell b. the left and right outer cells c. all three cells d. the left outer cell only ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:16 AM 9. When an AEC is used for an AP lumbar spine, which ionization chambers are utilized? a. the center cell b. the left and right outer cells c. all three cells d. the right outer cell only ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:18 AM 10. When an AEC is used for an AP hip, which ionization chambers are utilized? a. the center cell b. the left and right outer cells c. all three cells d. the left outer cell only ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Automatic Exposure Controls DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:20 AM 11. When an AEC is used for a PA chest, which ionization chambers are utilized? a. the center cell b. the left and right outer cells c. all three cells d. the right outer cell only ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:23 AM 12. When an AEC is used for a lateral chest, which ionization chambers are utilized? a. the center cell b. the left and right outer cells c. all three cells d. the left outer cell only ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:29 AM 13. If the primary beam is collimated from an activated chamber, the result is a a. light radiograph. b. dark radiograph. c. short exposure time. d. decrease in radiographic density.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:31 AM 14. The backup time of most AECs is set at ____ of the anticipated manual exposure time.

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Chapter 07 - Automatic Exposure Controls a. 10% b. 50% c. 100% d. 150% ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:32 AM 15. U.S. public law requires that generators automatically terminate AEC exposures at ____ mAs above 50 kVp. a. 100 b. 300 c. 600 d. 900 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:33 AM 16. Early versions of AEC technology were referred to as a. photometers. b. phototimers. c. photosensors. d. photomultipliers.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:35 AM 17. Contemporary AEC systems work on the x-ray property of a. causing certain crystals to fluoresce. b. causing ionization of gases. c. producing small amounts of heat as they pass through matter. d. causing biological effects.

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Chapter 07 - Automatic Exposure Controls ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/9/2019 2:26 AM 18. As you are performing a KUB radiograph on a patient using AEC, you notice that your post-exposure readout is unusually high. A possible explanation for this high reading could be a. the kVp was too high. b. the backup mAs was set too low. c. a detector was collimated out of the field of exposure. d. the minimum response time was too long.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:38 AM 19. A radiographer is performing an AP knee radiograph using AEC. The manual technique for this exam would be 12 mAs at 80 kVp. The backup mAs the radiographer should set would be a. 6 mAs. b. 12 mAs. c. 18 mAs. d. 24 mAs. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:39 AM 20. In the event that the mAs needed for a small anatomical structure is very small, in order to ensure the AEC terminates the exposure correctly, a. the kVp should be increased. b. the mA should be decreased. c. all three detectors should be activated. d. the large focal spot should be used.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Automatic Exposure Controls POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:41 AM 21. Most modern AEC systems provide a minimum response time of a. 1 millisecond. b. 0.001 sec. c. 1/1000 sec. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:44 AM 22. AEC density controls are properly used to a. compensate for patient thickness. b. balance the AEC detectors. c. compensate for asymmetrical pathology. d. compensate for improper positioning.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:45 AM 23. A new high-frequency radiographic system is being released to a customer for first clinical use. The applications person states that the AEC density controls are in 20% increments. If a normal AEC exposure of the hip is 24 mAs, a repeat exposure at +2 would yield a mAs value of a. 26 mAs. b. 29 mAs. c. 34 mAs. d. 48 mAs. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Automatic Exposure Controls QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:47 AM 24. When using APR for a radiographic exposure, a. AEC may be turned off manually. b. a backup mAs is already set. c. programmed AEC chamber selections may be reconfigured. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:49 AM 25. When performing a follow-up abdomen image on a patient who recently had a small bowel study, it may be best to a. deactivate the AEC and set the technique manually. b. dramatically increase the backup mAs. c. increase the minimum response time. d. increase to 120 kVp. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:50 AM Matching Match the following choices with the correct statement as each is related to automatic exposure control technology. a. phototiming b. minimum response time c. backup mAs d. underexposed image e. overexposed image f. density controls g. all three detectors h. center detector only DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 2:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 2:53 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07 - Automatic Exposure Controls 26. AP hip ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 27. typically 0.001 sec ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 28. Older technologists may still refer to it.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 29. ˗1, ˗ 2, 0, +1, +2 ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 30. AP abdomen radiograph ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 31. +2 used when N would have been optimum ANSWER: e POINTS: 1

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Chapter 08 - X-Ray Production Multiple Choice 1. During x-ray production, almost all of the kinetic energy of the incident electrons is converted to a. a bremsstrahlung photon. b. a characteristic x-ray photon. c. light. d. heat.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 3:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:16 PM 2. What percentage of target interaction results in the production of x-ray photons? a. 1 percent b. 50 percent c. 99 percent d. 100 percent ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 3:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 3:33 AM 3. The transfer of the incident electrons’ kinetic energy to the outer-shell electrons, causing vibration of the outer-shell electron, results in the emission of a. infrared radiation. b. ultraviolet radiation. c. light. d. electricity.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 3:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 3:37 AM 4. The types of target interaction that occur in the production of x-ray photons in the diagnostic range are dependent upon the Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - X-Ray Production a. incident electron kinetic energy. b. nuclear binding energy. c. incident electron potential energy. d. band gap of the valence electrons.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 3:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 3:38 AM 5. The energy of a bremsstrahlung photon is a. equal to the kinetic energy of the entering electron. b. equal to the kinetic energy of the exiting electron. c. the sum of the entering and exiting kinetic energies of the incident electron. d. the difference between the entering and exiting kinetic energies of the incoming electron.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 3:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 3:39 AM 6. Bremsstrahlung interactions may occur only when the incident electron interacts with a. an inner-shell electron. b. an outer-shell electron. c. the force field around the nucleus. d. the nuclear force within the nucleus.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 3:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 3:41 AM 7. Characteristic interactions may occur only when the incident electron interacts with a. an inner-shell electron. b. an outer-shell electron. c. the force field of the nucleus. d. the band gap of the atom’s valence band.

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Chapter 08 - X-Ray Production ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 3:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:17 PM 8. During a characteristic interaction, the kinetic energy of the incident electron must be ____ of the electron it knocks from its orbit. a. less than that b. greater than that c. proportional to that d. characteristic ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 3:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 3:43 AM 9. During a characteristic interaction, the dropping of a higher-energy state electron into a lower-energy state “hole” results in the emission of a. a photon of electromagnetic energy. b. a high-energy electron. c. a low-energy electron. d. thermal energy.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 3:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:17 PM 10. The energy of a characteristic photon is a. equal to the binding energy of the entering electron. b. equal to the binding energy of the exiting electron. c. the sum of the binding energy of the outer and inner shells between which the electron dropped. d. the difference between the binding energy of the outer and inner shells between which the electron dropped.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - X-Ray Production DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 3:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 3:45 AM 11. At the end of the characteristic cascade, the ____ shell is missing an electron. a. innermost b. K c. outermost d. characteristic ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 8:40 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 8:41 PM 12. The K shell can hold a maximum of ____ electrons. a. 1 b. 2 c. 6 d. 8 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 8:42 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 8:45 PM 13. If the peak kVp is 110, the average keV energy of the beam would be a. 12–24 keV. b. 33–44 keV. c. 66–77 keV. d. 110 keV. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 8:45 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - X-Ray Production DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 8:46 PM 14. X-rays are characterized as a. charged particles. b. electromagnetic waves of short wavelength. c. electromagnetic waves with high frequencies. d. both b and c.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 8:46 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 8:47 PM 15. The emission spectrum of an x-ray beam from a tungsten anode consists of a. a characteristic spike at 69 keV. b. a significant portion due to bremsstrahlung interactions. c. a mixture of brems and characteristic interactions. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 8:48 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 8:49 PM 16. If uranium were used to produce x-radiation, rather than tungsten, a. the K-shell binding energy would be greater than with tungsten. b. the intensity of brems production would be greater. c. the energy of characteristic photons would be greater than with tungsten. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 8:49 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 8:50 PM 17. Electrons traveling from the cathode filament to the anode are called a. incident electrons.

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Chapter 08 - X-Ray Production b. primary electrons. c. scatter electrons. d. secondary electrons.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 8:50 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 8:51 PM 18. When comparing the x-ray emission spectrum between beams produced at 70 kVp and 110 kVp, a. the 110 kVp beam would demonstrate less brems and a higher characteristic spike. b. the 110 kVp beam would demonstrate more brems and a higher characteristic spike. c. the 70 kVp beam would demonstrate less brems and a higher characteristic spike. d. the 70 kVp beam would demonstrate an equal amount of brems and characteristic radiation.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 8:51 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 8:53 PM 19. For the element molybdenum, the effective energy of characteristic interactions is a. 9 keV. b. 18 keV. c. 42 keV. d. 69 keV. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 8:53 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 8:56 PM 20. When the x-ray emission spectra between single- and three-phase generators are compared, a. three-phase beams would have a higher average energy. b. single-phase beams would be more intense. c. less exposure would be required for the same part thickness, using single phase. d. the keV of the characteristic spike would be significantly less with the single-phase generator.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - X-Ray Production POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 8:56 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 8:57 PM 21. Tungsten is the anode material of choice for x-ray production because of its a. ability to expand with high speed rotation G-forces b. ability of liberating electrons as secondary x-ray sources c. creation of off-focal radiation d. excellent k-edge value for x-ray production ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 8:57 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:19 PM 22. Molybdenum is an excellent target material for mammography studies due to its a. light composite weight during rotation and quite operation. b. excellent heat tolerance with high kVp exposures used in mammography. c. k-edge production of characteristic radiation, to match soft tissues of the breast. d. ability to suppress brems x-ray production and heighten characteristic production.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 8:59 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:19 PM Matching Match the items with the correct choice as they relate to x-ray production. a. 9.6 keV b. 20 keV c. binding energy d. kinetic energy e. thermal energy f. electromagnetic energy g. bremsstrahlung radiation h. characteristic interactions DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08 - X-Ray Production DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 9:01 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 9:04 PM 23. emission of infrared energy ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 24. M to L transition in atomic number 74 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 25. energy exerted on electrons by the nucleus of the atom ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 26. results from electrons interacting with the nuclear force field ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 27. energy that has ionizing potential and no mass ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 28. molybdenum characteristic spike ANSWER: b POINTS: 1

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Chapter 09 - Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment Multiple Choice 1. Ionizing radiations are classified as a. positive and negative. b. only non-particulate. c. particulate and electromagnetic. d. sub-nuclear and intra-nuclear.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 9:33 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:21 PM 2. An alpha particle contains a. two protons and two neutrons. b. two protons and two electrons. c. two electrons and two neutrons. d. one proton and two neutrons.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 9:54 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 9:55 PM 3. Alpha particles a. are emitted from the nuclei of heavy elements. b. have a positive charge. c. have greater mass than other particulate radiations. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 9:55 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 9:57 PM 4. In air, alpha particles can travel a. less than 1 mm.

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Chapter 09 - Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment b. 5 cm. c. 5 m. d. 5 km.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 10:58 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 10:59 PM 5. Beta particles a. are positively charged. b. exist in shells around the nucleus. c. are heavy particles. d. can travel 10 to 100 cm in air.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 10:59 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:50 AM 6. Electromagnetic radiations are characterized as a. particulate energy disturbances. b. energy disturbances traveling through space, with no mass or charge. c. low-frequency energies with negligible mass. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:01 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:51 AM 7. X-ray interaction with matter involves the transfer of energy from the a. photon to matter. b. incident electron to matter. c. incident electron to photon. d. matter to photon.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:02 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:03 PM 8. When comparing x-rays and gamma rays, a key distinction is in the a. origin of the emission. b. mass of the emission. c. velocity of the emission. d. size of the particulate emission.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:03 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:22 PM 9. The indirect interaction of matter with photon energy involves the absorption of radiation within a a. water molecule. b. glucose molecule. c. complex protein. d. macromolecule such as DNA. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:06 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:07 PM 10. For x-rays and gamma rays approximately ____ of the biological effects on tissue are the result of indirect actions. a. 20 percent b. 40 percent c. 70 percent d. 100 percent ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:08 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:09 PM 11. Biological effects of ionizing radiation include all of the following EXCEPT a. cancer. b. cataract formation. c. bacterial infections. d. developmental abnormalities.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:09 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:10 PM 12. Somatic effects of irradiation may become evident a. in the exposed individual. b. in the first offspring of the exposed individual. c. in the exposed individual’s grandchildren. d. in any future generation of offspring.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:11 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:12 PM 13. Factors that influence the effect of exposure to ionizing radiation include a. the total dose received. b. the type of radiation. c. cell sensitivity. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:12 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:13 PM 14. The quantity of x-rays or gamma rays required to produce a given amount of ionization in a unit mass of air defines Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment the a. kerma. b. gray. c. roentgen. d. curie.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:13 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:15 PM 15. One joule of energy absorbed in each kilogram of absorbing material defines the a. sievert. b. kerma. c. becquerel. d. gray.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:15 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:16 PM 16. The radiation weighting factor for x-ray or gamma radiation is a. 1. b. 2. c. 10. d. 20.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:16 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:17 PM 17. The sum of the weighted equivalent doses for all irradiated tissues and organs is the a. quality factor. b. effective dose. c. equivalent dose.

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Chapter 09 - Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment d. integral dose.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:17 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:20 PM 18. A device that is employed for the detection and measurement exposure from x-ray radiation is called a a. Kerma scale. b. gamma camera. c. dosimeter. d. radiometer.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:20 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:23 PM 19. All of the following would be classified as field survey devices EXCEPT a. film badge. b. Geiger-Mueller counter. c. scintillation detector. d. ionization chamber instrument.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:21 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:22 PM 20. Which instrument detects the presence of radiation rather than measuring it? a. Geiger-Mueller counter b. scintillation detector c. ionization chamber instrument d. thermoluminescent dosimeter ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:22 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:23 PM 21. Ionization chambers work on the principle that when radiation interacts with the electrons in air, ____ are produced. a. ion pairs b. light scintillations c. scatter photons d. low-energy x-ray photons ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:24 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:25 PM 22. Personnel monitoring devices include all of the following except the ____ dosimeter. a. film badge b. thermoluminescent c. scintillation d. OSL ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:25 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:26 PM 23. When a single personnel monitoring device is worn, it should be worn at the a. waist level under the lead apron. b. collar level under a thyroid collar. c. collar level outside the lead apron. d. wrist level to get a measure of bone exposure.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:26 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:27 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment 24. Optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeters a. are not commonly employed with routine use. b. provide an immediate readout to the user. c. are precise with low-level exposures. d. use a chip of LiF as the detector material.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:28 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:29 PM 25. In CT scanning, the total amount of energy directed at matter is expressed as a. curie. b. integral dose. c. CT dose index. d. kerma.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:29 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:24 PM 26. All of the following would be recorded on a radiation dosimetry report EXCEPT a. body mass index (BMI). b. control badge exposure. c. lifetime equivalent dose. d. radiation quality.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:30 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:32 PM 27. Equivalent dose (HT,R) takes into account a. radiation exposure in air. b. the rate of radioactive decay.

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Chapter 09 - Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment c. the absorbed dose and type of radiation. d. the type of tissue irradiated.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:32 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:33 PM 28. The unit of radiation absorbed energy or dose is a. expressed as grays (Gy). b. defined as the amount of radiation needed to deposit 100 ergs of energy in one gram of matter. c. used for all absorbing media. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:34 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:35 PM 29. According to the NCRP Report #160, a. individual effective doses have nearly quadrupled since the early 1980s. b. individual exposures have increased principally due to increased utilization of digital imaging technologies. c. the effective dose per individual in the United States primarily increased because of increased fluoroscopic interventional procedures and CT scans. d. individual exposures have decreased due to improved technology and more discrete utilization.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:35 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:36 PM 30. All of the following are considered man-made sources of radiation exposure EXCEPT a. radiopharmaceuticals. b. radon gas exposure in new home construction. c. traveling cross country in a commercial aircraft. d. occupational exposure of medical imaging personnel.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:36 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:37 PM 31. Electrons and beta particles are essentially identical in terms of charge and mass. The distinction between them is due to their respective a. origins. b. physical size. c. ability to ionize matter. d. half-lives.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:37 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:25 PM Matching Match the following choices with the correct term as they relate to radiation protection. a. Gray (Gy) b. Sievert (Sv) c. Roentgen (R) d. somatic damage e. genetic damage f. Curie (Ci) g. equivalent dose (HT) h. effective dose (E) DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:39 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:41 PM 32. also known as the Becquerel ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 33. erythema ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 34. measure of absorbed dose ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09 - Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment POINTS:

1

35. product of absorbed dose and radiation quality factor ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 36. sum of weighted equivalent doses ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 37. cleft palate in offspring ANSWER: e POINTS: 1

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Chapter 10 - Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel Multiple Choice 1. Which one of the following agencies is a regulatory agency responsible for protecting both the public and occupationally exposed individuals from the effects of ionizing radiation? a. NCRP b. ICRP c. NRC d. ASRT ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:43 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:45 PM 2. When no threshold dose for radiation exists, the effect is known as a. stochastic. b. nonstochastic. c. deterministic. d. both b and c.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:45 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 11:51 PM 3. Deterministic effects of ionizing radiation include all of the following EXCEPT a. sterility. b. cataracts. c. skin erythema. d. cancer.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:47 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:49 PM 4. Radiation exposure limits applicable to the protection of radiation workers are known as ____ limits.

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Chapter 10 - Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel a. dose b. ALARA c. safety d. stochastic ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:50 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/6/2019 11:56 PM 5. Dose limits have been established for a. the whole body. b. certain tissues. c. specific organs. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:21 AM 6. The annual effective dose limit for a 24-year-old radiographer to ionizing radiation is ____. a. 50 mSv. b. 24 rem. c. 5 rem. d. both a and c.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:22 AM 7. The cumulative effective dose limit for an occupational exposure to ionizing radiation is ____ mrem. a. 5,000 b. 500 c. 50 d. none of the above Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:24 AM 8. The annual effective dose limit for an individual in the general public for infrequent exposure to ionizing radiation is ____ rem. a. 1 b. 0.1 c. 5 d. 0.5 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:25 AM 9. What is the cumulative dose limit for a 36-year-old radiation worker? a. 360 mSv b. 36 mSv c. 360 mrem d. 3.6 mrem ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:26 AM 10. To reduce an individual’s exposure to ionizing radiation, all of the following would be acceptable EXCEPT a. to reduce the amount of time spent in the vicinity of the radiation source. b. to increase the distance between the individual and the radiation source. c. to wear the radiation dosimeter at the collar. d. standing behind a lead barrier during exposure.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:28 AM 11. If the distance between the individual and the source of radiation is doubled, the exposure to the individual will be reduced by a factor of a. 2. b. 3. c. 4. d. 12.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:29 AM 12. For an individual to reduce exposure by a factor of 25, the distance between the individual and the source of ionizing radiation should a. increase by a factor of 5. b. decrease by a factor of 4. c. increase by a factor of 3. d. unable to calculate with available data.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:33 AM 13. By design, primary barriers are able to intercept and absorb a. primary radiation. b. secondary radiation. c. the useful beam. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:40 AM 14. Secondary barriers are intended to intercept a. scatter radiation from the patient. b. leakage radiation from the x-ray tube. c. the primary beam that exits the patient as remnant radiation. d. both a and b.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:41 AM 15. Protective devices include all of the following EXCEPT a. lead aprons. b. lead gloves. c. lead glasses. d. compensating bolus material.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:43 AM 16. Protective aprons and gloves are usually made of lead-impregnated vinyl within the range of ____ lead equivalency. a. 0.25–1.0 mm b. 0.25–1.0 cm c. 0.1–0.25 mm d. 0.1–0.25 cm ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:44 AM 17. For fluoroscopic procedures with a kVp of 100 or more, the protective apron must possess a minimum of ____ lead Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel equivalent. a. 0.05 mm b. 0.5 mm c. 1.0 mm d. 5.0 mm ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:48 AM 18. Proper x-ray beam collimation does all of the following EXCEPT a. reduce patient dose. b. improve radiographic image quality. c. eliminate the need for gonadal shielding. d. reduce scatter radiation.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:02 AM 19. Which of the following technical factors are chosen to minimize patient dose? a. high kVp/low mAs b. low kVp/high mAs c. high kVp/high mAs d. low kVp/low mAs ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:04 AM 20. The NCRP recommends a minimum total filtration of ____ for x-ray equipment operating above 70 kVp. a. 1.0 mm Al/Eq b. 2.5 mm Al/Eq c. 1.0 mm Pb/Eq Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel d. 2.0 mm Pb/Eq ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:06 AM 21. The use of a radiographic grid when performing a femur radiograph will result in a. a small decrease in patient dose. b. an increase in patient dose. c. no change to the patient dose. d. a large decrease in patient dose.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:08 AM 22. Special gonadal shields should be employed any time the gonads are a. being radiographed. b. directly in the primary beam. c. within 5 cm of the primary beam. d. within 1 mm of the primary beam.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:10 AM 23. As the relative system (RS) speed of the image receptor increases, patient dose a. increases. b. decreases. c. increases according to the inverse square law. d. remains the same, since receptor speed is more a factor of grid ratio.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:12 AM 24. The lenses of the eyes will receive the greatest dose during which one of the following procedures? a. AP skull b. lateral skull c. PA skull d. lens exposure is equal regardless of projection ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:13 AM 25. A fetus is most radiosensitive during ____ postconception. a. 1 hour b. 1 day c. 1 to 5 weeks d. 8 to 15 weeks ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:36 AM 26. The cardinal rules of radiation protection are a. time, source, shielding b. time, distance, quality factor c. time, distance, shielding d. shielding, thickness, use factor ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:16 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel 27. The concept of ALARA a. allows x-ray exposure under all circumstances. b. necessarily requires a benefit vs. risk assessment by the ordering physician. c. permits the radiographer to alter physician orders in order to lessen dose. d. shifts the responsibility for exposure reduction to the ordering physician.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:18 AM 28. All of the following would be effective structural protective barrier materials EXCEPT a. carbon-fiber. b. lead-lined drywall. c. 12-inch-thick solid concrete. d. lead-impregnated acrylic polymer.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:19 AM 29. As a professional radiographer, the practice of ALARA requires you to a. employ high ratio grids. b. decrease x-ray beam filtration. c. use the largest receptor possible in order to get a higher-quality image. d. restrict the x-ray beam to the clinical area of interest.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:21 AM 30. An x-ray sales account manager who demonstrates the usage of his or her product to radiographers once or twice a year, would be classified as a. an occupationally exposed individual.

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Chapter 10 - Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel b. an exempt radiation worker. c. a general public member. d. an occasionally exposed radiation worker.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:22 AM 31. What is the cumulative effective dose limit for a 45-year-old radiographer who has been in the profession working full-time for 15 years? a. 15 mSv b. 150 mSv c. 450 mSv d. 4.5 Sv ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:24 AM Matching Match the following choices as they relate to radiation protection of patients and personnel. a. stochastic effect b. ALARA c. MPD d. NCRP e. flat-contact, shaped, shadow f. Agreement State g. deterministic effect h. primary barrier DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:27 AM 32. an obsolete radiation worker protection philosophy ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 33. a threshold dose will likely yield the biologic effect ANSWER: g Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel POINTS:

1

34. gonadal shields ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 35. image intensifier in fluoroscopic system ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 36. legally responsible to enforce NRC regulations ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 37. random in nature and non-threshold dose response ANSWER: a POINTS: 1

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Chapter 11 - Filtration Multiple Choice 1. Filtration is the process of eliminating undesirable ____ by the insertion of absorbing materials into the primary beam. a. high-energy x-ray photons b. high-energy incident electrons c. low-energy x-ray photons d. low-energy incident electrons ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/6/2019 11:26 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:19 AM 2. Filtration permits the radiographer to ____ the photon emission spectrum into a more useful beam. a. narrow b. widen c. lower d. increase ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:21 AM 3. Beam filtration does what to patient dose? a. It has no effect on patient dose. b. It increases patient dose. c. It decreases patient dose. d. It increases patient dose by the square of the filter thickness.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:22 AM 4. Beam filtration affects patient dose by a. removing high-energy photons.

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Chapter 11 - Filtration b. removing low-energy photons. c. increasing beam heterogeneity. d. increasing entrance skin dose (ESE).

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:45 AM 5. In general, low-energy x-ray photons a. improve image quality by affecting contrast. b. are absorbed by the image receptor. c. penetrate the patient and detector. d. are absorbed by the patient.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:47 AM 6. Which of the following are considered filter media as the beam traverses toward the patient? a. glass b. dielectric oil c. aluminum d. all of the above ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:52 AM 7. The most common diagnostic x-ray beam filter material is a. aluminum. b. thoraeum. c. copper. d. tin.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Filtration POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:53 AM 8. All filtration can be expressed in terms of the thickness of _________ equivalency. a. copper. b. molybdenum. c. aluminum. d. beryllium.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:55 AM 9. The amount of material that will reduce the intensity of the primary beam to one-half its original value is termed the a. half-value layer. b. radioactive half-life. c. K-edge dependency. d. reciprocity law.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:56 AM 10. The half-value layer is typically expressed in a. Kerma. b. Gray (Gy). c. Al/Eq. d. Pb/Eq. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Filtration DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:58 AM 11. If the half-value layer of diagnostic radiographic equipment is too low, it may be corrected by a. increasing the primary beam filtration. b. decreasing the primary beam filtration. c. decreasing the kVp. d. increasing the mAs. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 12:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 12:59 AM 12. Which of the following is affected by half-layer value? a. x-ray beam resolution b. image size c. beam divergency d. patient skin exposure ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:01 AM 13. What term describes filtration that is part of the x-ray tube, the tube housing, and the collimation device? a. total b. added c. inherent d. compensating ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:12 AM 14. How many half-value layers must be added to the primary beam to reduce its intensity to less than 20 percent of its Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Filtration original value? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:14 AM 15. Which of the following filtrations would result in the lowest entrance skin exposure to the patient? a. 1.0 Al/Eq b. 1.0 Pb/Eq c. 0.5 Al/Eq d. 0.5 Pb/Eq ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:15 AM 16. In mammography tubes, the glass window of the tube is replaced with __________ to reduce patient skin exposure. a. molybdenum b. beryllium c. graphite d. Pyrex ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:17 AM 17. Most of the inherent filtration of a typical x-ray equipment comes from the a. dielectric oil. b. window of the glass envelope. c. Plexiglas collimator shadow plate.

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Chapter 11 - Filtration d. collimator mirror.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:23 AM 18. The collimator device is considered part of the ____ filtration. a. inherent b. compensation c. added d. primary ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:24 AM 19. A Thoraeus filter combines all of the following materials EXCEPT a. silver. b. copper. c. tin. d. aluminum.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:25 AM 20. The problem of uneven image receptor exposure due the heel effect is solved by a a. Thoraeus filter. b. compensation filter. c. K-edge filter. d. grid.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Filtration QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:27 AM 21. Which one of the following compensating filters is used most commonly in the radiography of femur? a. K-edge b. wedge c. trough d. Thoraeus ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:29 AM 22. Which one of these statements is true? a. The thickest portion of the wedge filter is placed over the densest part of the patient. b. The thickest portion of the wedge filter is placed over the less dense part of the patient. c. The thinnest portion of the wedge filter is placed over the less dense part of the patient. d. A Thoraeus filter is recommended for radiography of very thick body parts.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:30 AM 23. Total beam filtration is equal to the sum of ____ filtration. a. added and compensating b. inherent and compensating c. compound and compensating d. inherent and added ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:31 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Filtration 24. When filtration is ____, technical factors must be ____ to maintain the same density. a. increased; increased b. decreased; decreased c. increased; decreased d. decreased; increased ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:32 AM 25. When looking to purchase an x-ray tube, output of tubes can be measured by looking at the tube’s published a. HVL b. peak kVp c. peak mA d. focal spot size ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:43 AM 26. All of the following are true of K-edge filters EXCEPT a. They are also called compound filters. b. Copper and aluminum are the materials of choice. c. They rely on photoelectric interactions and the production of characteristic radiation. d. The x-ray beam traverses aluminum first, followed by the copper layer.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:44 AM 27. For an x-ray beam operated at 80 kVp, a. the HVL should be 3.8 mm of Al. b. a lower HVL is necessary.

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Chapter 11 - Filtration c. the beam is harder than a 60 kVp beam. d. adding filtration will increase patient dose.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:47 AM 28. For an x-ray beam operated at 90 kVp, the required minimum filtration must be a. 0.7 mm Al/Eq inherent plus 1.0 mm Al/Eq added. b. 1.0 mm Al/Eq inherent plus 1.5 mm Al/Eq added. c. 0.5 mm Al/Eq inherent plus 1.0 mm Al/Eq added. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 1:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 1:52 AM 29. A compensating wedge filter would be appropriate for a. PA hand radiography. b. AP shoulder radiography. c. AP foot radiography. d. AP cervical spine radiography.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 2:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 2:16 AM 30. When comparing two x-ray beams, one at 60 kVp and another at 85 kVp, a. adding aluminum to the 60 kVp beam greatly reduces the skin dose to the patient. b. the 85 kVp beam will offer a lower entrance skin exposure. c. adding 0.5 mm of aluminum to the 85 kVp beam will require no additional mAs in order to maintain beam intensity. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Filtration POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 2:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 2:25 AM 31. The build-up of tungsten deposits on the inside of an aged x-ray tube adds to the a. added filtration b. inherent filtration c. radiation output d. mR/mAs ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 2:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 2:27 AM 32. An annual inspection by a medical physicist reveals that two identical radiographic rooms measure differently in terms of radiation output. Room A measures a HVL of 2.1 mm Al/eq. Room B measures a HVL of 1.7 of Al/eq. What conclusion can you draw regarding the two rooms? a. Room B has higher x-ray output b. Room A has higher x-ray output c. Room A likely has an older x-ray tube d. Room B is unsafe to use on patients ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 2:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 2:28 AM Matching Match the choices below with the statements as they relate to beam filtration. a. compound filter b. added c. Thoraeus filter d. trough filter e. beryllium f. aluminum g. HVL h. keV i. 1.5-mm aluminum minimum filtration j. 2.5-mm Al Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Filtration DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 2:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 2:31 AM 33. mammography tube window material ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 34. expression of photon energy ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 35. tubes operated at 60 kVp ANSWER: i POINTS: 1 36. unit of overall x-ray beam quality ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 37. a type of compensating filter ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 38. radiotherapy filter ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 39. K-edge filter ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 40. filtration other than inherent ANSWER: b POINTS: 1

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Chapter 12 - The Prime Factors Multiple Choice 1. The factors that affect x-ray emission under the direct control of the radiographer are called the ____ factors. a. quality b. quantity c. prime d. principal ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 2:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 2:45 AM 2. The prime factors include all of the following EXCEPT a. filtration. b. mAs. c. kVp. d. distance.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 2:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 2:47 AM 3. Milliamperage-second (mAs) directly affects all of the following EXCEPT a. beam quantity. b. beam intensity. c. beam quality. d. x-ray output.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 2:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 2:49 AM 4. The factors that directly affect x-ray quantity are a. mA. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - The Prime Factors b. time (S). c. filtration. d. both a and b.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 2:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 2:51 AM 5. Total x-ray beam quality is numerically represented by the a. kEv. b. SOD. c. mAs. d. HVL. ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 2:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:33 PM 6. The factors that directly affect x-ray quality are a. kVp and beam filtration. b. mAs and distance. c. filtration and mAs. d. focal spot size and anode angle.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 2:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 10:00 PM 7. Using digital detector technology, the term used to express exposure to the detector is a. mR/mAs b. exposure index(EI) c. QDE d. IRE ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - The Prime Factors POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 2:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:34 PM 8. Select the TRUE statement regarding digital imaging, from the choices below. a. Digital detectors will compensate for errors in mAs selection b. Exposure index numbers are consistent between manufacturers c. The brightness on a review monitor is not related to x-ray exposure d. Digital technology has eliminated repeat images due to errors in exposure selection ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 2:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:34 PM 9. As the mA doubles, the number of electrons flowing from cathode to anode a. increases fourfold. b. increases twofold. c. decreases twofold. d. increases by 50 percent.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 3:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 3:18 AM 10. The product of tube current and exposure time is equal to a. kVp. b. x-ray beam quality. c. x-ray beam quantity. d. the HVL. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - The Prime Factors DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 3:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 3:19 AM 11. The primary factor controlling x-ray beam quantity is determined by a. mAs. b. kVp. c. distance. d. filtration.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 3:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 3:21 AM 12. In order to increase image receptor (IR) exposure by 40 percent, the radiographer would a. change the mAs from 15 to 21 mAs. b. decrease the kVp by 40 percent. c. increase the mAs by 20 percent. d. decrease the distance by 40 percent.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 3:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:35 PM 13. If the mAs of a radiograph is increased from 10 to 20, the result will be a. an increase in the EI number from 125 to 250. b. no change in the EI number. c. an increase in the EI number from 125 to 135. d. a decrease in patient exposure.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 3:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:35 PM 14. The relationship between mAs and exposure is Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - The Prime Factors a. exponential. b. directly proportional. c. indirectly proportional. d. a squared relationship.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 3:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 3:27 AM 15. Exposure indicators used in digital imaging have a direct or indirect relationship with exposure, depending upon the manufacturer. If the digital system you are using has an indirect relationship with exposure, your exposure reference value (S#) will a. increase with increased exposure. b. decrease with increased exposure. c. be unaffected by changes in mAs. d. will not change with an increase in kVp. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 3:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:36 PM 16. Increasing the kVp for an exposure will a. create a decrease in the number of electrons traveling from cathode to anode. b. decrease the speed of electrons going from cathode to anode. c. create an increase in the number of electrons traveling from cathode to anode. d. cause the electrons to travel faster from cathode to anode.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 3:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 3:31 AM 17. Increasing the energy of an incident electron will result in the production of an x-ray photon with a. greater energy. b. less energy.

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Chapter 12 - The Prime Factors c. greater charge. d. greater velocity.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 3:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 3:32 AM 18. If kVp is doubled, the amount of x-ray photons created approximately increases a. twofold. b. threefold. c. fourfold. d. eightfold.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 3:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 3:34 AM 19. Kilovoltage is the primary controlling factor of a. x-ray beam quantity. b. filtration thickness. c. x-ray beam quality. d. x-ray beam intensity.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 3:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:37 PM 20. An increase in kVp by 15 percent will cause an approximate ____ in the exposure to the receptor. a. 15 percent increase b. tripling c. doubling d. quadrupling ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - The Prime Factors DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 3:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:37 PM 21. Adjustments in mAs should be used to control IR a. resolution. b. contrast. c. exposure. d. window level.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 3:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:37 PM 22. X-ray beam penetrability is primarily controlled by a. mAs. b. focal spot size and dimension. c. kVp. d. filtration.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 3:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 3:42 AM 23. The relationship between the intensity of radiation and distance is the a. reciprocity law. b. inverse square law. c. direct square law. d. 15 percent rule.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 3:42 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - The Prime Factors DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 3:44 AM 24. When using a digital image receptor (IR) a. changes in kVp are preferred to control exposure b. control IR exposure with predictable changes in mAs c. the 15% rule does not apply d. the inverse square law does not apply ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 3:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:38 PM 25. All factors remaining constant, which of the following set of exposure conditions would yield the GREATEST image receptor exposure? a. 100 mA, .75 sec, 40” SID b. 300 mA, .25 sec, 44” SID c. 600 mA, 125 ms, 40” SID d. 400 mA, 200 ms, 40” SID ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 10:12 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 11:19 PM 26. All factors remaining constant, which of the following set of exposure conditions would yield an image with the HIGHEST image receptor (IR) exposure? a. 100 mA, .75 sec, 40” SID, 70 kVp b. 150 mA, .25 sec, 44” SID, 80 kVp c. 300 mA, 125 ms, 40” SID, 70 kVp d. 400 mA, 187 ms, 56” SID, 88 kVp ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 10:41 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 11:19 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - The Prime Factors 27. After completing an upright abdomen radiograph using A.E.C., you notice some degree of motion artifact on the final image. To improve the repeat image results, your best option would be to a. decrease the kVp. b. increase your distance. c. double the mA and decrease the kVp by 15 percent. d. increase the kVp by 15 percent with mAs compensation.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 10:42 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:39 PM 28. Which of the following sets of exposure factors would best control involuntary motion? a. 100 mA, 0.09 sec b. 300 mA, 30 ms c. 500 mA, 18 ms d. 200 mA, 0.045 sec ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 10:43 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 10:45 PM 29. The length of the exposure time (S) for a radiograph, is used to primarily control a. image contrast. b. motion distortion. c. radiographic image density. d. patient dose.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 10:45 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:39 PM 30. You have taken a digital radiograph that yields an EI# of 75. The recommended target EI# for this projection is 125.

When you repeat the image, you will achieve the desired results by a. decreasing the mAs from 12 mAs to 9 mAs Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - The Prime Factors b. increasing the mAs from 15 mAs to 25 mAs c. increasing your SID from 40” to 44” d. increasing you kVp from 85 kVp to 98 kVp with no mAs compensation ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 10:48 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:40 PM Problem 31. Given 40 mA and an exposure time of 0.20 second, calculate the mAs. 8 mAs ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 10:49 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 10:50 PM 32. Given 50 mA and an exposure time of 0.50 second, calculate the mAs. 25 mAs ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 10:51 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 10:53 PM 33. Given 25 mAs and a milliamperage of 100, calculate the exposure time.

0.25 second ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 10:53 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 10:54 PM 34. Given 5 mAs and a milliamperage of 200, calculate the exposure time.

0.025 second ANSWER: POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - The Prime Factors DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 10:54 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 10:55 PM 35. Given an exposure time of 0.15 second and a milliamperage of 100, calculate the mAs. 15 mAs ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 10:55 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 10:56 PM 36. Given an exposure time of 0.06 second and a milliamperage of 400, calculate the mAs. 24 mAs ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 10:56 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 10:56 PM 37. A radiographer takes an initial radiograph using the technical factors of 50 mA at 0.46 sec. There is involuntary motion on the radiograph, but the radiographer wants to maintain IR exposure. If the exposure time is reduced to 0.115 sec, what is the new mA? 200 mA ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 10:57 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:40 PM 38. A radiograph is produced using 20 mAs at 65 kVp. To double the exposure, what kVp should be used?

75 kVp ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 10:57 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 10:58 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - The Prime Factors 39. A radiograph is produced using 25 mAs at 80 kVp. To cut the exposure in half, how much should the kVp be increased?

12 kVp ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 10:58 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 10:59 PM 40. An x-ray exposure of 200 mR is recorded at a distance of 40 inches. If the same technical factors are used, what will the exposure be if the distance is increased to 72 inches?

62 mR ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 10:59 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 11:21 PM 41. An x-ray exposure of 100 mR is recorded at a distance of 40 inches. To reduce the exposure to 25 mR, to what will the distance need to be changed?

80 inches ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:00 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:01 PM 42. An acceptable radiograph was taken using 40 mAs at 80 kVp at a distance of 60 inches. A second radiograph is requested at 40 inches. What mAs should be used to produce this radiograph with a 40-inch distance?

18 mAs ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:01 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:02 PM 43. An acceptable radiograph was taken using 20 mAs at 70 kVp at a distance of 40 inches. A second radiograph is requested at 72 inches. What mAs should be used to produce this radiograph with a 72-inch distance?

65 mAs ANSWER: POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - The Prime Factors DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:02 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:03 PM 44. An acceptable radiograph was taken using 12 mAs at 80 kVp at a distance of 72 inches. To reduce the image density by 50 percent, the new distance should be what?

56 inches ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:03 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:04 PM Other 45. An exposure was made using 200 mA, 0.05 second exposure, and 75 kVp. Suggest three options you could use to double the image receptor exposure.

The original mAs is 10. Three options for doubling the original receptor exposure would ANSWER: include: a.change to 0.1 second exposure b.change to 86 kVp c.change to 20 mAs POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:04 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 11:23 PM

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Chapter 13 - X-Ray Interactions Multiple Choice 1. When an x-ray photon passes through matter, it undergoes a process called a. induction. b. filtration. c. attenuation. d. resonance.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:08 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:09 PM 2. During the process of attenuation, x-ray photons in the beam a. reduce in number. b. lose energy. c. produce ionizations. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:09 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:14 PM 3. During the process of attenuation, the x-ray photon may interact with a. the nucleus. b. the entire atom. c. an orbital electron. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:11 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:12 PM 4. Which atomic shell possesses the highest binding energy? a. K Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - X-Ray Interactions b. L c. M d. All atomic shells possess the same binding energy.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:12 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:13 PM 5. In which element are the inner-shell electrons more tightly bound to the nucleus? a. mercury (Z = 80) b. tungsten (Z = 74) c. lead (Z = 82) d. chromium (Z = 24) ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:14 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:15 PM 6. Which energy-level electrons possess the highest total energy? a. K b. L c. M d. N ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:15 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:16 PM 7. As the electron shells move farther from the nucleus, total electron energies ____ and binding energies ____. a. decrease; decrease b. increase; increase c. increase; decrease d. decrease; increase ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - X-Ray Interactions POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:16 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:18 PM 8. When x-ray photons interact with matter and change direction, the process is called a. absorption. b. scatter. c. resonance. d. extrapolation.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:18 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:19 PM 9. If a photon interacts with matter and scatters, the photon a. no longer exists. b. exists with greater energy. c. exists with less energy. d. is totally absorbed.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:20 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:20 PM 10. When an x-ray photon with a slightly greater energy than the binding energy of the inner-shell electron interacts with that inner-shell electron, the following interaction results: a. Compton scattering b. coherent scattering c. photoelectric absorption d. characteristic radiation ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - X-Ray Interactions HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:21 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:22 PM 11. During photoelectric absorption, a/an ____ shell electron is ejected. a. innerb. middlec. outerd. all of the above ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:22 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:24 PM 12. During photoelectric absorption, the ejected electron is called a/an a. incident electron. b. photoelectron. c. characteristic electron. d. recoil electron.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:25 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 11:24 PM 13. A photoelectron a. is matter and possesses energy. b. typically travels 1–2 mm in soft tissue. c. is capable of creating biological changes. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:26 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:27 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - X-Ray Interactions 14. When an electron from an outer shell fills a vacancy in an inner shell, a. the total energy of the electron increases. b. the electron increases its mass. c. a photon is released. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:27 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:35 PM 15. During the photoelectric interaction, as an electron transfers from an outer shell to a vacant inner shell, energy is released in the form of a. a characteristic photon. b. a primary radiation. c. an incident electron. d. a Bremsstrahlung photon.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:35 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 11:24 PM 16. Secondary radiation energies are highest for which element? a. hydrogen b. carbon c. barium d. oxygen ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:37 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:38 PM 17. An interaction that occurs between very low energy x-ray photons and matter is called ____ scatter. a. coherent b. classical Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - X-Ray Interactions c. unmodified d. all of the above ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:38 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:39 PM 18. During coherent scattering, the scattered photon possesses ____ as the incident photon. a. the same energy, the same frequency, and the same wavelength b. the same energy, the same frequency, and a different wavelength c. the same energy, a different frequency, and the same wavelength d. a different energy, the same frequency, and the same wavelength ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:39 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:40 PM 19. Compton scattering occurs when an incident x-ray photon interacts with an ____ electron. a. inner-shell electron with high binding energy and high kinetic energy b. inner shell electron with low binding energy and low kinetic energy c. outer shell electron with low binding energy and high kinetic energy d. outer shell electron with high binding energy and low kinetic energy ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:40 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:55 PM 20. The electron dislodged during Compton scattering is called the a. photoelectron. b. recoil electron. c. incident electron. d. secondary electron.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - X-Ray Interactions DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:42 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:43 PM 21. The photon that exits the atom after a Compton scattering interaction is called the Compton a. scattered photon. b. characteristic photon. c. recoil photon. d. secondary photon.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:43 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:44 PM 22. During Compton scattering, the incident photon energy is divided between the a. recoil electron and the scattered photon. b. incident photon and the scattered photon. c. incident photon and the recoil electron. d. recoil electron and the photoelectron.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:44 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:45 PM 23. As the angle of deflection is increased from 0 to 180, a. all energy is imparted to the incident photon. b. less energy is imparted to the recoil electron. c. greater energy is imparted to the scattered photon. d. greater energy is imparted to the recoil electron.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:45 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - X-Ray Interactions DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:46 PM 24. During fluoroscopic studies, the primary source of exposure to the radiographer is due to a. the photoelectric effect. b. Compton scattering. c. recoil electrons. d. pair-production interactions.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:47 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 11:26 PM 25. During which interaction with matter is the x-ray photon converted to matter in the form of two electrons? a. pair production b. Compton scattering c. photoelectric absorption d. coherent scattering ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:48 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:49 PM 26. In which process is matter converted back to energy? a. nuclear reaction b. annihilation reaction c. Compton scatter d. photodisintegration ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:49 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:50 PM 27. Which of the following interactions has a significant impact on the x-ray image? a. photoelectric absorption Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - X-Ray Interactions b. coherent scatter c. pair production d. photodisintegration ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:50 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:51 PM 28. Which of the following interactions has a significant impact on the x-ray image? a. Compton scattering b. coherent scatter c. pair production d. photodisintegration ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:52 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:54 PM 29. In the human body, ____ is the predominant interaction through most of the diagnostic x-ray range. a. Compton scattering b. coherent scatter c. photoelectric interactions d. photodisintegration ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:55 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/7/2019 11:56 PM 30. Which of the following interactions with matter results in an impact upon image contrast, if excessive. a. Compton scattering b. coherent scatter c. photoelectric interactions d. photodisintegration ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - X-Ray Interactions POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:56 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 9:08 PM 31. Which of the following interactions is responsible for the contrast in UGI studies? a. Compton scattering b. coherent scatter c. photoelectric interactions d. photodisintegration ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:58 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 9:09 PM 32. In an effort to decrease the mAs of an exposure, the 15% rule of kVp change may be considered. Changing the original kVp of 84 using the 15% rule will have what impact? a. a higher incidence of pair production interactions b. greater Compton scatter interactions c. greater photon absorption in the patient d. an improvement in image contrast ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/7/2019 11:59 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:00 AM 33. The incidence of the photoelectric effect increases with a. increasing kilovoltage. b. increasing atomic number of the absorber. c. decreasing x-ray wavelength. d. photon energies above 1.02 mMeV. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - X-Ray Interactions HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:20 AM 34. In diagnostic radiology, radiographic image contrast is principally due to the predominance of a. photodisintegration interactions. b. Bremsstrahlung interactions. c. photoelectric interactions. d. Compton interactions.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:21 AM 35. An incident photon with 35 keV is most likely to interact with the K-shell electron of what atom? a. iodine b. lead c. calcium d. oxygen ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:22 AM 36. Wearing lead aprons as a protective measure during fluoroscopic studies, relies on the photon interaction of a. pair production. b. Compton scattering. c. Coherent scattering. d. the photoelectric effect.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:24 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - X-Ray Interactions 37. All of the following are true of coherent scattering EXCEPT: a. There are two types of coherent interactions possible b. The net result is a low-level ionization that is harmless c. Coherent scattering generally occurs with photon energies of 10 keV or lower d. Interactions may involve a single or multiple electrons in the atom ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:25 AM Matching Match the following items with the correct choice as they relate to x-ray photon interactions. a. barium b. positron c. coherent scattering d. Ei = Es + Eb + Eke e. oxygen f. total absorption g. lead h. characteristic cascade DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:28 AM 38. K-shell binding energy = 0.53 keV ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 39. product of pair production ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 40. no loss in energy ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 41. yields a photons with each transition ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 42. photoelectric effect ANSWER: f Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - X-Ray Interactions POINTS:

1

43. Compton scattering ANSWER: d POINTS: 1

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Chapter 14 - Minimizing Patient Dose Multiple Choice 1. The conscientious radiographer can reduce the patient dose by at least ____ in most examinations by choosing appropriate exposure factors. a. 100 percent b. 75 percent c. 50 percent d. 25 percent ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:31 AM 2. The maximum exposure received by the patient is at the a. anatomy of deepest penetration. b. area of interest. c. gonads. d. skin entrance to the body.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:33 AM 3. Which of the following radiographic procedures delivers the lowest entrance skin exposure? a. hip b. pelvis c. lumbar spine d. elbow ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:34 AM 4. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) sets an entrance skin exposure limit of ____ R/min for fluoroscopic systems in the United States.

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Chapter 14 - Minimizing Patient Dose a. 11.5 b. 20.2 c. 35.1 d. 42.7 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:35 AM 5. The radiation intensity from a diagnostic x-ray unit will vary in a/an a. direct relationship with mAs. b. direct relationship with the square of the kVp. c. inverse relationship with the square of the distance. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:37 AM 6. To reduce patient exposure, the __________ consistent with image quality should be selected. a. highest mAs b. highest kVp c. shortest distance d. highest mAs and lowest kVp ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:38 AM 7. Which x-ray generator will substantially decrease the patient entrance skin exposure? a. single-phase, unrectified b. single phase, rectified c. three-phase, 6-pulse d. three-phase, 12-pulse Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Minimizing Patient Dose ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:40 AM 8. Patient entrance skin exposure decreases as a. source-to-image receptor distance (SID) decreases. b. SID increases. c. source-to-object distance (SOD) decreases. d. object-to-image receptor distance (OID) increases.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:41 AM 9. When the primary-beam field size ____, the patient exposure ____. a. increases; decreases b. decreases; decreases c. decreases; increases d. increases; is unchanged ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:42 AM 10. Each of the following is a type of gonad shield EXCEPT a. flat contact. b. shadow. c. collimator. d. shaped contact.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Minimizing Patient Dose HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:47 AM 11. The use of a radiographic grid will a. decrease patient exposure. b. increase patient exposure. c. have no effect on patient exposure. d. increase kVp. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:49 AM 12. An effective method of reducing patient exposure is to use a. reduced x-ray beam filtration. b. a medium-speed image receptor. c. a grid. d. a high-speed image receptor.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:50 AM 13. Entrance skin exposure is considered a/an ____ exposure. a. maximum b. minimum c. average d. composite ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:52 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Minimizing Patient Dose 14. Skull radiography routinely includes a posterior–anterior (PA) projection. This is intended to a. reduce dose to the lens of the eye. b. reduce dose to the cerebellum. c. reduce dose to the paranasal sinuses. d. reduce dose to the thyroid.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:53 AM 15. The approximate entrance skin exposure (ESE) for a radiographic study taken at 90 kVp and 23 mAs is a. 57.5 mR. b. 67 mR. c. 103.5 mR. d. 2.7 R. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 12:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 12:55 AM 16. When patient SID or SOD increases, a. patient ESE decreases. b. patient ESE increases. c. patient ESE increases by the square of the distance. d. there is no relationship between ESE and distance.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 8:16 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 8:19 PM 17. When comparing ESE and actual dose to an area of interest, a. actual dose is higher than ESE. b. ESE and actual are equal. c. the actual dose and ESE are inverse.

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Chapter 14 - Minimizing Patient Dose d. actual dose is lower than ESE. ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 9:47 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 9:48 PM 18. In an effort to reduce dose, the recommended SID for routine radiography is a. 36–38 inches. b. 40–42 inches. c. 44–48 inches. d. 56 inches.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 9:48 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 9:49 PM 19. In an effort to minimize patient dose, a. longer SOD’s should be used. b. high-speed anode rotation should be used. c. beam filtration should be minimum. d. lower kVp’s should be used to reduce scatter.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 9:49 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 9:51 PM 20. Of the choices below, the combination of exposure factors that would minimize patient dose would be a. 24 mAs, 80 kVp, 8”x10” field size, 44” SID b. 12 mAs, 92 kVp, 8”x10” field size, 40” SID c. 6 mAs, 106 kVp, 8”x10” field size, 44” SID d. 24 mAs, 80 kVp, 10”x12” field size, 40” SID ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Minimizing Patient Dose QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 9:51 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 9:52 PM 21. Entrance skin exposure (ESE) is calculated a. at the minimum SOD b. on the underside of the collimator assembly c. at the maximum kVp of the generator d. with no beam filtration in place ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 9:52 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 9:54 PM Problem 22. What is the approximate entrance skin exposure for a 15-cm AP abdomen produced at 70 kVp, 20 mAs, and a SID of 40 in (100 cm), if 70 kVp = 2.5 mR/mAs? 69 mR ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 9:55 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 9:56 PM 23. What is the approximate entrance skin exposure for a 20-cm AP pelvis produced at 80 kVp, 20 mAs, and a SID of 40 in (100 cm), if 70 kVp = 2.5 mR/mAs? 109 mR ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 9:56 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 9:57 PM 24. A radiographic examination of the small bowel for a 25-cm abdomen was performed doing a 15-min PA; 30-min PA; 60-min PA; and 90-min PA radiograph. What is the total approximate entrance skin exposure if each radiograph was produced at 100 kVp, 25 mAs, and 40 in (100 cm)? According to calculations, 100 kVp = 5.6 mR/mAs. 875 mR ANSWER: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Minimizing Patient Dose POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 9:57 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 9:58 PM 25. What is the approximate entrance skin exposure in mR for the fluoroscopic examination of the stomach performed for 4.5 minutes at 110 kVp at 1.7 R/min?

7,650 mR ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 9:58 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 9:59 PM Matching Match the following choices with the correct answer as each relates to minimizing patient radiation dose. a. 60 kVp b. shaped contact c. focal spot size d. distance (SID) e. 44–48 inches f. AP supine abdomen position g. oblique projection of the abdomen h. 18 mAs @ 70 kVp DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 9:59 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 10:02 PM 26. 45 mR ESE ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 27. has no impact upon patient dose ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 28. dose relationship is inverse.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 29. lowers dose to the kidneys ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Minimizing Patient Dose 30. 1.7 mR/mAs ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 31. male gonadal shielding ANSWER: b POINTS: 1

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Chapter 15 - Beam Restriction True / False 1. A radiographer can best minimize the amount of scatter radiation reaching the image receptor by restricting the beam. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:18 AM 2. The principal factors that affect the amount of scatter produced are focal spot size and the type of irradiated material. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:36 AM 3. When kilovoltage is increased with no other changes in technical factors, fewer scattered photons will result. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:29 AM 4. Scattered photons from Compton interactions are of no use in demonstrating radiographic structures of interest. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Beam Restriction DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:30 AM 5. Image quality is improved when scatter reaching the image receptor is reduced. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:31 AM 6. Bone absorbs more radiation and produces more scatter than soft tissue. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:31 AM 7. Soft tissue absorbs more radiation and produces more scatter than bone. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:32 AM 8. Penumbra is a geometric unsharpness around the periphery of an image. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: True / False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Beam Restriction HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:33 AM 9. Automatic collimators are known as positive beam limitation (PBL) devices. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:33 AM 10. PBLs may also filter the x-ray beam. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:34 AM 11. Lead masks may serve as beam restrictors. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:35 AM Multiple Choice 12. Scatter radiation in radiography is produced during a. Compton interactions. b. photoelectric effect interactions. c. coherent or classical interactions.

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Chapter 15 - Beam Restriction d. an annihilation interaction.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:36 AM 13. Scattered photons will a. impair image quality. b. add to image receptor exposure. c. not be considered part of the useful beam. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:47 AM 14. A radiographer can best reduce the amount of scatter radiation from reaching the receptor by a. collimating. b. beam restriction. c. utilizing a grid. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:49 AM 15. Which of the following is placed between the patient and the image receptor to absorb scatter radiation? a. radiographic grid b. AEC detector c. collimator d. cylinder ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Beam Restriction QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:50 AM 16. A key factor that affects the amount of scatter produced is a. kilovoltage. b. milliamperage. c. time. d. anode composition.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:51 AM 17. A factor that affects the amount of scatter produced is a. the irradiated material. b. milliamperage. c. time. d. anode composition.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:52 AM 18. As the kilovoltage increases, the percentage of x-rays that undergo ____ interactions will increase. a. photoelectric b. coherent c. Compton d. Bremsstrahlung ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:53 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Beam Restriction 19. As the kilovoltage increases, the percentage of photons that undergo a ____ interaction will decrease. a. photoelectric b. coherent c. Compton d. characteristic ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:54 AM 20. If an increase in kilovoltage is accompanied by a reduction in mAs, to maintain the same exit dose the overall result will be a. a decrease in the amount of radiation produced. b. a decrease in the amount of scatter produced. c. an increase in the amount of radiation produced. d. an increase in the amount of scatter produced.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:56 AM 21. As more photons pass through the irradiated material unattenuated, the resulting image receptor exposure will a. demonstrate greater image distortion. b. be unchanged. c. increase. d. decrease.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 4:58 AM 22. When more photons are absorbed photoelectrically, the image receptor will a. receive increased exposure due to the increase in secondary radiation production.

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Chapter 15 - Beam Restriction b. increase its sensitivity automatically. c. not operate due to lack of photons. d. receive less exposure.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/9/2019 12:02 AM 23. As the volume of irradiated tissue ____, the amount of scatter produced ____. a. increases; increases b. increases; decreases c. decreases; increases d. decreases; decreases ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 4:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:00 AM 24. The volume of the irradiated tissue increases as a. field size and patient thickness increase. b. patient density increases. c. patient orientation to the beam changes. d. tissue composition increases.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:01 AM 25. The ____ the atomic number of the irradiated material, the ____ the number of photoelectric absorption interactions that occur. a. higher; lower b. higher; higher c. lower; higher d. lower; unaffected Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Beam Restriction ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:03 AM 26. The ____ the atomic number of the irradiated material, the ____ the number of photoelectric absorption interactions will be, and the ____ the scatter produced. a. higher; lower; less b. higher; higher; less c. lower; higher; more d. lower; lower; less ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:04 AM 27. When a beam-restricting device is used to limit field size, technical factors may need to ____ to compensate for the change in image receptor exposure. a. be increased b. be decreased c. remain unchanged d. none of the above ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:05 AM 28. All of the following are considered beam-restricting devices EXCEPT a. aperture diaphragm. b. beam filter. c. positive beam limitation (PBL) device. d. collimator.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Beam Restriction DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:06 AM 29. Penumbra is ____ when the beam restrictor is at a/an ____ distance from the port. a. reduced; increased b. reduced; decreased c. unchanged; increased d. increased; increased ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:15 AM 30. An effective method for reducing scatter radiation production is the a. 15% rule of kVp change. b. use of x-ray beam angulation. c. use of an increased exposure time with mA compensation. d. selection of small focal spot.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:16 AM 31. Cones and cylinders would be commonly employed for the following examinations EXCEPT a. orbits. b. L5-S1 spot. c. skull. d. AP thoracic spine.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:19 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Beam Restriction DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:20 AM 32. The shutters of a collimator a. regulate field size. b. reduce penumbra. c. reduce stem radiation. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:22 AM 33. All of the following are true of positive beam limitation (PBL) EXCEPT: a. PBL automatically collimates the beam. b. PBL senses the size and orientation of the receptor. c. PBL is possible with portable radiography. d. PBL may be overridden by the radiographer in select instances.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:23 AM 34. When collimating down from a 14”x17” field size to a 8”x10” field size, a. mAs must be increased to maintain image receptor exposure. b. kVp must be increased to maintain image quality. c. off-focus radiation production is increased. d. the mAs should be reduced by 50 percent.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:44 AM 35. The collimation assembly of a radiographic unit a. employs an upper and lower set of shutter blades.

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Chapter 15 - Beam Restriction b. allows the radiographer to adjust the field size in a circular dimension. c. removes the mirror assembly for exposures. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:26 AM 36. Placing a lead blocker adjacent to an obese patient’s anatomy during a lateral lumbar spine radiograph a. is unnecessary with today’s digital receptors. b. will improve image quality. c. will reduce exposure to the patient. d. will reduce exposure to the radiographer.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:27 AM Problem 37. A diaphragm is placed 4 inches from the focal spot. The diameter of the opening in the aperture is a 2-inch circle.

What would be the projected image size if the image receptor distance (SID) were 40 inches?

20-inch circle ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:28 AM 38. A diaphragm is placed 6 inches from the focal spot. The diameter of the opening in the aperture is a 3-inch circle.

What would be the projected image size if the SID were 40 inches?

20-inch circle ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Beam Restriction DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:30 AM 39. The diameter of the lower rim of a cone is 5 inches. The bottom of the cone is placed at a distance of 15 inches from the focal spot. What will be the size of the projected image at a 40-inch SID? 13-inch circle ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:31 AM 40. The diameter of the lower rim of a cone is 4 inches. The bottom of the cone is placed at a distance of 10 inches from the focal spot. What will be the size of the projected image at a 40-inch SID? 16-inch circle ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:32 AM Short Answer 41. Collimators that offer positive beam limitation (PBL) are very popular with technologists for a variety of reasons.

Even though the federal requirement for PBL has been repealed, their popularity has continued and most department managers consider PBL as a “standard equipment” feature. PBL is electronically and mechanically highly engineered technology and subject to abuse by the inattentive and unprofessional radiographer. In the event of a PBL failure during an examination, what circumstances will be evident to the radiographer and what can he/she do to overcome the PBL error and continue with the procedure.

Malfunctioning PBL will not put the collimation into the “Positive” mode and therefore the ANSWER: exposure will be prevented. With PBL, the receptor size and the x-ray field size must match each other in dimension to be in the positive mode. Your field size can be smaller than the receptor size and still be in the positive mode. Under this circumstance, exposure will be permitted. If the PBL is not in positive mode due to malfunction, a “key” may be turned to bypass the PBL sensing technology. This will allow the radiographer to operate the collimation in the manual mode. If this occurs, collimation may be done manually and should not exceed the dimension of the receptor. The exposure will be permitted in the manual mode. Following the examination, the malfunction should be reported to department leadership for repair.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 - Beam Restriction DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

2/8/2019 5:32 AM 2/8/2019 5:33 AM

42. As you perform an AP abdomen radiograph and review the image on your control display monitor, it appears as though the right lateral aspect of the patient’s abdomen is not on your image. When you check the patient positioning, you confirm that the positioning is correct and the light field correctly shows the edges of the expected exposure field. When you repeat the study, the same results occur. What is the likely problem?

This situation demonstrates a noncongruence of the x-ray exposure and positioning light ANSWER: field. Often times this is due to a shifting of the mirror in the collimator which reflects light down onto the patient, showing the exposure field. You can perform a simple x-ray-to-light congruency check using four coins to identify the problem. If that is the case, a service engineer should be contacted for realignment.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 5:35 AM

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Chapter 16 - Vision and Perception Multiple Choice 1. Specialized cells of the retina convert the visual image to a. the perceived image. b. aqueous humor. c. nervous impulses. d. light.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 5:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 6:00 AM 2. The ____ nerve transmits visual neurological information to the brain. a. trigeminal b. sciatic c. auditory d. optic ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 6:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 6:02 AM 3. Which type of specialized photoreceptor cells are found in the retina? a. fovea centralis b. corneal c. black pigment d. cones ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 6:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 6:03 AM 4. Rods and cones respond to a. visible light energy.

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Chapter 16 - Vision and Perception b. magnetic energy. c. cosmic energy. d. gamma energy.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 6:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 6:12 AM 5. Photopic vision is controlled by the a. rods. b. iris. c. cones. d. pupil.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 6:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 6:13 AM 6. Scotopic vision is controlled by the a. rods. b. iris. c. cones. d. pupil.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 6:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 6:15 AM 7. Rods function best in which type of light? a. yellow wavelength light b. dim light levels c. red wavelength light d. bright, intense light levels ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Vision and Perception POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 6:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 6:17 AM 8. The visual phenomenon involving the perception of extremely small or faint details is termed the a. Adler effect. b. boundary effect. c. threshold detection. d. Mach effect.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 6:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 6:27 AM 9. Which effect occurs because the visual system has difficulty in perceiving contrast differences that are distant from one another? a. Conklin effect b. boundary effect c. threshold detection d. Mach effect ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 6:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 6:29 AM 10. Which effect occurs when the eye perceives a change in density? a. Ellis effect b. boundary effect c. threshold detection d. Mach effect ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Vision and Perception HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 6:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 6:31 AM 11. The phenomenon that occurs when the intensely bright light from a viewing monitor floods the eye directly, is termed a. retinal flooding. b. veil glare. c. presbyopia. d. pattern recognition.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 6:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 11:30 PM 12. Pattern recognition involves comparing mental images of ____ patterns to arrive at a diagnostic opinion. a. histological b. pathological c. anatomical d. all of the above ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 6:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 6:36 AM 13. The art of controlling the image in space involves correct a. part positioning. b. central ray angle. c. image placement. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 10:23 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/9/2019 12:03 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Vision and Perception 14. The human body is a. a three-dimensional object. b. composed of countless structural lines. c. composed of anatomy always in motion. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 10:24 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/9/2019 12:04 AM 15. The radiographic image is a ____-dimensional object. a. one b. two c. three d. single ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 10:25 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 10:26 PM 16. All radiographic images are missing the critical diagnostic element of a. depth. b. length. c. width. d. orthogonal imaging.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 10:26 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 10:28 PM 17. To view the human body in the three dimensions, at least ____ image(s) is/are required. a. one b. two c. three Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Vision and Perception d. four ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 10:28 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 10:29 PM 18. The brightness of light intensity is expressed in a. Watts. b. Lamberts. c. Seiverts. d. Tesla.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 10:29 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 10:30 PM 19. In the human eye, the area of sharpest vision is located a. in the cornea. b. in the iris. c. at the fovea centralis. d. at the periphery of the retina.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 10:31 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 10:33 PM 20. Select the TRUE statement from the choices given. a. Because of the boundary effect, a 10–12 percent density change is visually perceptible. b. An AP projection of the knee demonstrates the patella posterior to the femur. c. Visual acuity is improved in low-light conditions. d. Pattern recognition is very intensely studied as part of a radiologist’s education.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Vision and Perception QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 10:33 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 10:35 PM 21. When a radiologist looks at a chest radiograph and the heart is positioned to the right of the patient’s mediastinum, he/she naturally looks at the lead marker for laterality. Seeing this image as presented, presents a conflict with what aspect of the radiologist’s expertise? a. pattern recognition b. the Mach effect c. the illusory effect d. normalization ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 10:35 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 10:40 PM Matching Match the following terms with the correct statement or choice as they relate to vision and perception. a. rods b. veil glare c. retina d. Mach effect e. scotopic vision f. cones g. edge enhancement h. Grenz rays DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 10:41 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 10:43 PM 22. commonly used in forensic radiography ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 23. responsible for vision in low light conditions ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 24. night vision ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16 - Vision and Perception 25. occurs when the eye perceives a boundary ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 26. occurs when intense, bright light floods the eye and reduces contrast perception ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Short Answer 27. The skills of a quality radiologist are a combination of education, experiences, and a thorough understanding of disease and disease conditions as they are presented in diagnostic studies. Their ability to provide an accurate interpretation is premised on the assumption that all radiographers are performing procedures according to established protocols and procedures. If two technologists perform the same x-ray study differently, the impact upon the radiologist would be what?

The expected images would present a potential conflict with his/her pattern recognition ANSWER: expectations. The variance of the expected image should be the result of the patient’s condition exclusively, and not the variance in procedural techniques used by the radiographer.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/8/2019 10:43 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/8/2019 10:44 PM

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Chapter 17 - The Patient as A Beam Emitter True / False 1. The incident beam is significantly altered as it passes through the patient. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:27 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:28 PM 2. The beam emitted from the patient contains diagnostic information. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:28 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:29 PM 3. Subject density refers to the impact the patient has on the resulting image receptor exposure. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:29 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:37 PM 4. Subject distortion occurs naturally. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - The Patient as A Beam Emitter DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:30 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:30 PM 5. Accurate patient positioning has very little impact upon subject distortion. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:31 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:31 PM 6. Shape distortion can be the result of a patient’s body habitus. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:31 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:32 PM 7. The patient has an impact on all the properties that affect radiographic quality. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:33 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:34 PM 8. The relationship between radiographic quality and the patient is termed image receptor exposure. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: True / False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - The Patient as A Beam Emitter HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:34 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:34 PM 9. The relationship between image receptor exposure and the patient is termed subject density. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:35 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:36 PM 10. The relationship between radiographic contrast and the patient is termed subject contrast. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:36 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:37 PM Multiple Choice 11. X-rays are attenuated a. exponentially. b. linearly. c. based upon the direction of the central ray. d. as a function of mAs. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:38 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:41 PM 12. The ____ the body part, the ____ the attenuation. a. more dense; less Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - The Patient as A Beam Emitter b. thinner; greater c. thicker; less d. thicker; greater ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:41 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:44 PM 13. Which of the following elements would attenuate a greater percentage of the x-ray beam? a. hydrogen b. calcium c. oxygen d. carbon ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:44 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:45 PM 14. Which of the following elements would attenuate a lesser percentage of the x-ray beam? a. phosphorus b. barium c. iron d. carbon ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:46 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:48 PM 15. Attenuation is greater for elements with more ____ with which the photons may interact. a. electrons b. protons c. neutrons d. positrons ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - The Patient as A Beam Emitter POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:48 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:49 PM 16. Bone produces less image receptor ____ because it attenuates the x-ray beam more than soft tissue does. a. detail b. contrast c. exposure d. distortion ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:49 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:52 PM 17. For the same exposure intensity, air produces a. less exposure intensity to the receptor than other materials. b. greater exposure intensity to the receptor than other materials. c. the same exposure intensity to the receptor as other materials. d. less exposure intensity due to the high degree of photoelectric absorption.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:53 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:55 PM 18. Which of the following is the greatest attenuator of the x-ray beam? a. pneumonic lung b. pericardial fat c. psoas muscle d. perirenal fat ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - The Patient as A Beam Emitter DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:56 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/11/2019 11:58 PM 19. Which of the following is the least attenuator of the x-ray beam? a. aerated lung b. pericardial fat c. psoas muscle d. perirenal fat ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/11/2019 11:58 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 12:00 AM 20. As subject density ____, image receptor exposure ____. a. increases; remains the same b. decreases; decreases c. increases; increases d. increases; decreases ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 12:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 12:04 AM 21. The degree of differential absorption is referred to as a. material contrast. b. subject contrast. c. image receptor exposure. d. subject density.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 12:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 12:17 AM 22. The recorded detail of a structure is dependent on Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - The Patient as A Beam Emitter a. its position within the body. b. the placement of the body in relationship to the film. c. the size of the part. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 12:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 12:20 AM 23. Distortion is the misrepresentation of the ____ of an object. a. length b. width c. shape d. all of the above ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 12:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 12:22 AM 24. The primary source of radiation exposure for occupational personnel is due to a. Compton scatter. b. classical scatter. c. photoelectric effect. d. coherent scatter.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 12:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 12:24 AM 25. Because of its tissue composition, the human breast a. is a high subject contrast structure. b. yields a high contrast image. c. is a low subject contrast structure. d. is considered a high-attenuator of x-ray energy.

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Chapter 17 - The Patient as A Beam Emitter ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 12:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 12:28 AM 26. With the patient in the posterior–anterior projection of the abdomen (prone), a. renal stones would have high resolution. b. the lumbar vertebrae would have high resolution. c. the psoas muscles would have high resolution. d. the anterior ribs would have high resolution.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 12:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 12:51 AM 27. All of the following refer to patient factors contributing to image quality EXCEPT a. receptor contrast. b. subject detail. c. subject contrast. d. tissue density.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 12:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 12:54 AM 28. With the perfusion of iodinated contrast material into the kidneys, a. a greater degree of Compton scatter is produced from the kidneys. b. the kidneys will demonstrate lower subject contrast. c. a greater degree of photoelectric interactions will occur in the kidneys. d. there is less distinction between kidney structures.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - The Patient as A Beam Emitter HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 12:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:37 PM 29. All of the following are related EXCEPT a. air. b. barium. c. fat. d. bone.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 1:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 1:15 AM 30. All of the following are true of Compton scatter EXCEPT: a. It contributes no meaningful information the final image. b. Its production increases as tissue density increases. c. It is a significant contributor to occupational radiation exposure. d. It is not a factor of exposure technique selection.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 1:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 1:18 AM 31. Clinically speaking from a diagnostic viewpoint, the only useful radiation exposure is that radiation a. absorbed in the patient. b. produced from Compton interactions. c. detected by the receptor. d. that traverses through the grid.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 1:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 1:22 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - The Patient as A Beam Emitter 32. With a patient in the supine position, the anatomical structure that would demonstrate the greatest subject detail would be the a. nasal bones. b. sternum. c. vertebral pedicles. d. spinous processes.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 1:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 1:25 AM 33. All of the following pathological conditions would warrant an increase in exposure EXCEPT: a. anorexia nervosa b. osteopetrosis c. ascites d. bronchiectasis ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 1:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 1:28 AM 34. For most additive pathologies, an increase of _______ in kVp, is generally enough to compensate for the added attenuation. a. 5%–15% b. 20%–25% c. 33% d. none of the above ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 1:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 1:32 AM 35. When performing a KUB on a patient with ascites, using AEC and the proper detector combination, the responsible radiographer would: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - The Patient as A Beam Emitter a. decrease the kVp to reduce the amount of Compton b. take a scout image using manual techniques, to establish a back-up time for the AEC c. allow the AEC system to adjust the exposure for the patient condition d. immediately increase the AEC sensitivity to +2 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 1:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 1:35 AM Matching Match the following terms with the statements as they relate to the patient as an x-ray beam factor. a. Compton scatter b. photoelectric effect c. 12.31 d. air e. fat f. water g. bone h. knee i. subject detail j. subject density DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 1:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 1:40 AM 36. bone ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 37. total photon absorption ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 38. basic composition of the liver ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 39. 6.46 ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 40. Larger patients impact this negatively.

ANSWER: i Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17 - The Patient as A Beam Emitter POINTS:

1

41. Subject contrast is high.

ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 42. very low attenuation ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 43. reduces image quality ANSWER: a POINTS: 1

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Chapter 18 - The Grid Multiple Choice 1. The primary purpose of using a radiographic grid is to a. intercept remnant radiation. b. remove undesired primary photons. c. remove a percentage of scatter photons. d. decrease skin exposure to patients.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 2:09 AM 2. A radiographic grid absorbs a. primary radiation. b. all scatter and secondary electrons. c. scatter electrons. d. scatter radiation.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 2:10 AM 3. When an x-ray beam passes through the body, a. it will pass through the body unaffected. b. it will be absorbed by the body. c. it will interact with the body and change direction. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 2:11 AM 4. Photons that pass through the body unaffected produce a. scatter radiation.

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Chapter 18 - The Grid b. radiographic contrast. c. secondary radiation. d. radiographic distortion.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 2:13 AM 5. Photon absorption within the body occurs as the result of a. Compton interactions. b. characteristic interactions. c. photoelectric interactions. d. Bremsstrahlung interactions.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 2:14 AM 6. The atomic interaction that produces scatter radiation is a. Bremsstrahlung. b. photoelectric. c. Compton. d. photodisintegration.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 2:16 AM 7. As kVp increases, a. secondary radiation increases. b. scatter radiation increases. c. image receptor exposure increases. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - The Grid POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 2:22 AM 8. The greatest source of scatter during a radiographic examination is the a. patient. b. table top material. c. image receptor. d. AEC detector.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 2:24 AM 9. The amount of scatter radiation produced increases with a/an a. increase in patient thickness. b. larger field size. c. decrease in atomic number of the tissue. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 2:25 AM 10. As a general rule, a radiographic grid is employed a. for procedures below 60 kVp. b. for part thicknesses above 10 cm. c. for pediatric studies to improve contrast. d. in order to improve positioning latitude.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - The Grid DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 2:42 AM 11. The use of a radiographic grid requires a. attention to central ray angulation. b. an awareness of the SID. c. an increase in exposure factors. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 8:55 PM 12. Which statement about radiographic grids is incorrect? a. Grids may have grid strips running in perpendicular directions. b. A grid is a series of lead strips that alternate with radiopaque interspace strips. c. The radiopaque strips are typically made of thin lead. d. The interspace strips are usually made of aluminum.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 2:45 AM 13. The purpose of moving the grid during the radiographic exposure is to a. activate the digital detector. b. remove unwanted contrast. c. blur out the radiopaque strips. d. activate the AEC detectors.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 2:47 AM 14. The radiopaque strips Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - The Grid a. absorb scatter. b. are made of radiodense material. c. have a high atomic number. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 2:48 AM 15. The ratio of the height of the lead strips to the distance between the lead strips is the grid a. selectivity. b. ratio. c. frequency. d. speed.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 2:50 AM 16. Which grid would have the greatest distance between lead strips? a. 15:1 b. 12:1 c. 8:1 d. 6:1 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 2:52 AM 17. Which grid would most effectively reduce scatter? a. 6:1 b. 8:1 c. 12:1 d. 15:1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - The Grid ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 2:54 AM 18. The number of grid lines per inch is the grid a. focus. b. ratio. c. frequency. d. speed.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 2:55 AM 19. As the lead content of a grid increases, a. the contrast improvement factor decreases. b. the ability of the grid to remove scatter increases. c. the K-factor decreases. d. exposure to the image receptor increases.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 2:58 AM 20. When the lead strips run in a single direction in a grid, the grid pattern is described as a. criss-cross. b. linear. c. cross-hatched. d. Tangential.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - The Grid HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 2:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 3:01 AM 21. Angulation across the long axis of a linear grid causes a. grid shadowing. b. cross-hatched impressions. c. grid cut-off. d. grid convergence.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 3:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 3:03 AM 22. For a grid to be properly focused, the x-ray tube must be located along the ____ line. a. convergence b. divergence c. tangent d. resolution ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 3:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 3:06 AM 23. A device that moves the grid during a radiographic exposure is called a(n) a. oscillator. b. alternator. c. Potter-Bucky diaphragm. d. focussed grid.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 3:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 3:09 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - The Grid 24. A Potter-Bucky diaphragm must move the grid in a direction that is ____ to the direction of the grid lines. a. perpendicular b. parallel c. at a 45° angle d. at a 37° angle ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 3:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 3:11 AM 25. When using a radiographic grid with computed radiography (CR), a. the Moire effect is a consideration. b. higher frequency grids are undesirable. c. radiographic grids are unnecessary. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 3:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 3:13 AM 26. With digital detector technology, final image contrast is primarily due to the application of a. very high kVp values b. Look-Up-Tables(LUTs) c. faster receptor speeds d. very low kVp, high mAs exposures ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 3:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 3:16 AM 27. Grid cut-off artifacts are a particular problem when performing radiographic exams using digital detectors. Even a small degree of cut-off can show up on the final image. This is primarily due to the a. very small mAs exposures typically used with fast digital receptors b. high grid ratios required with digital detectors Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - The Grid c. extreme sensitivity of the digital receptors, to scatter radiation d. high kVp photons penetrating the grid strips ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 3:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 3:19 AM 28. Grid replacement software is designed to a. hide the grid lines from the viewer b. allow the radiographer to select a grid ratio for postprocessing c. create a nongrid image that looks like a grid was employed d. all of the following ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 3:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 3:30 AM 29. Grid suppression software is intended to a. remove the visibility of grid lines b. blur out the grid lines through dynamic visual motion c. lower image contrast for the viewer, to reveal low contrast objects d. amplify the visibility of the radiopaque grid strips ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 3:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 3:29 AM 30. In an emergency situation when a radiographic grid is unavailable, a convenient practice to employ, that

creates a “grid-like image” when one was not used is a. grid suppression software b. to turn the digital detector over, to use the back of the detector as an absorber c. increase the OID to create an air-gap d. all of the above Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - The Grid ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 3:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 3:34 AM Problem 31. If the lead strips are 4.0 mm high and are separated by an interspace of 0.25 mm, what is the grid ratio?

16:1 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 8:35 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 8:37 PM 32. If the lead strips are 2.0 mm high and are separated by an interspace of 0.25 mm, what is the grid ratio?

8:1 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 8:37 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 8:39 PM 33. A satisfactory radiograph is produced using 8 mAs at 85 kVp without a grid. A second film is requested using an 8:1 grid with a conversion factor of 4. What mAs is needed to produce the second radiograph?

32 mAs ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 8:41 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 8:42 PM 34. A satisfactory radiograph is produced using 10 mAs at 85 kVp without a grid. A second film is requested using a 16:1 grid with a conversion factor of 6.75. What mAs is needed to produce the second radiograph?

67.5 mAs ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - The Grid HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 8:42 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 8:43 PM 35. A satisfactory abdominal radiograph is produced using a 12:1 grid (grid-conversion factor [GCF] = 5.5), 30 mAs, and 85 kVp. A second film is requested using a 16:1 grid (GCF = 6.75). What mAs is needed to produce the second radiograph with comparable radiographic density?

37 mAs ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 8:44 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 8:44 PM 36. What is the frequency of a grid with lead strips that are 33 micrometers thick and interspace material that is 310 micrometers thick?

74 lp/inch ANSWER: There are 10,000 micrometers per centimeter.

The total thickness of the grid strip and interspace material is 33 micrometers + 310 micrometers for a total of 343 micrometers per line pair.

Divide the line pair thickness into 10,000 micrometers/cm which yields 29.15 lp/cm.

Convert this to inches by multiplying 29.15 by 2.54 cm/in.

This product is 74.04 lp/inch.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 8:44 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 9:20 PM Matching Match the following choices with the correct question as they relate to radiographic grids. a. grid frequency b. grid ratio c. contrast improvement factor d. focussed grid e. air-gap technique f. Moire effect g. grid cut-off h. convergence point i. Hollis Potter j. Gustav Bucky DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 8:47 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 8:50 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - The Grid 37. must be used at a specific SID ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 38. invented the moving grid assembly ANSWER: i POINTS: 1 39. commonly ranges from 85–103 lpi ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 40. K ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 41. undesirable absorption of clinically useful radiation ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 42. increased OID ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 43. Higher value improves contrast.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 44. undesirable, superimposed lines on CR image ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 Short Answer 45. A portable radiograph is taken of a thick body part using a 10:1 stationary grid. The image produced demonstrates a contrast factor (K) of 1.7. A second radiograph is taken with a different grid of unknown specifications, and the K-value is 2.2. What conclusion can you reach regarding the two grids?

The second grid is most likely a higher ratio grid as the change in contrast is greater. A ANSWER: greater K-value indicates greater contrast improvement which is related to grid ratio, grid frequency, and lead content of the grid.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18 - The Grid DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

2/12/2019 8:50 PM 2/12/2019 8:51 PM

46. You have discovered two underutilized radiographic grids in your department. Both grids have the same grid ratio, but grid A is noticeably heavier than grid B. What conclusion can you reach regarding these two grids?

Although both grids have the same grid ratio, both grids do not have the same lead content.

ANSWER: The difference in weight is most likely due to the extra lead in grid A. This extra weight could be due to a higher grid frequency, thicker lead strips, heavier interspace material such as aluminum instead of plastic fiber, or higher lead strips in grid A. Even though both grids have the same ratio, their contrast improvement factors may not be the same due to the difference in lead content. Scatter cleanup with a grid involves more than simply grid ratio.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 8:51 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 8:52 PM

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Chapter 19 - Film and Screens Imaging and Processing Multiple Choice 1. The complete construction of diagnostic radiographic film includes a. a polyester base. b. an adhesive material. c. an emulsion. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 9:29 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 9:30 PM 2. Emulsion is composed of gelatin and a. silver halide crystals. b. silver salts. c. photosensitive crystals. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 9:30 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 9:36 PM 3. The most commonly used silver halide in radiographic film is silver a. iodide. b. bromide. c. chloride. d. fluoride.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 9:36 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 9:37 PM 4. Which type of energy primarily interacts with the radiographic film in an intensifying screen cassette? a. x-ray Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Film and Screens Imaging and Processing b. heat c. light d. electrical ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 9:39 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 9:40 PM 5. The invisible change in the atomic structure of the crystal lattice is called the ____ image. a. chemical b. latent c. manifest d. phantom ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 9:40 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 9:41 PM 6. Which type of film has the fastest speed? a. double-emulsion, screen film RS 300 b. mammographic film RS 150 c. single-emulsion, nonscreen film RS 50 d. extremity detail film RS 100 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 9:42 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 9:43 PM 7. A small crystal size will produce ____ resolution and ____ speed. a. high; slow b. low; slow c. high; fast d. low; fast ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Film and Screens Imaging and Processing POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 9:43 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 9:44 PM 8. According to the Gurney-Mott theory of image formation, a. at least three silver atoms must form a visible black metallic silver speck upon processing. b. several thousand atoms must form a visible black metallic silver speck upon processing. c. the process begins with an electron migrating toward the x-ray photon. d. positively-charged sensitivity specks are formed by the migration of photons.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 9:44 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 9:46 PM 9. The primary purpose of radiographic processing is to convert the ____ image into the ____ image. a. latent; manifest b. latent; electronic c. visible; latent d. processed; latent ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 9:46 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 9:48 PM 10. The most variable and sensitive factor in the production of a film radiograph is the a. focal spot size. b. radiographic film processor. c. radiographic film. d. intensifying screen.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Film and Screens Imaging and Processing HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 9:48 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 9:49 PM 11. An image becomes visible during a. washing. b. fixing. c. drying. d. development.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 9:49 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 9:51 PM 12. Which automatic processor solution is most affected by contamination? a. developer b. fixer c. wash d. replenisher ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 10:46 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 10:47 PM 13. The most common cause of developer contamination is a. roller drag. b. crossover. c. splashing. d. drying.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 10:48 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 11:00 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Film and Screens Imaging and Processing 14. Developer has an ____ pH, while the fixer has an ____ pH. a. acidic; acidic b. acidic; alkaline c. alkaline; acidic d. alkaline; alkaline ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 10:55 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 11:46 PM 15. The washing process is used to remove a. developer only. b. fixer only. c. heavy densities only. d. developer and fixer.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 11:46 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 11:48 PM 16. A sensitometer is excellent for monitoring which one of the following? a. film density b. film processors c. film/screen combinations d. none of the above ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 11:48 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 11:49 PM 17. The optical density formula includes which factors? a. intensity of incident light b. intensity of transmitted light Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Film and Screens Imaging and Processing c. the log of 10 d. all of the above ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 11:49 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 11:50 PM 18. A densitometer is an instrument that provides a readout of a. radiographic density. b. radiographic contrast. c. recorded detail. d. image distortion.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 11:51 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:41 AM 19. D log E curves are also known as ____ curves. a. characteristic b. sensitometric c. Hurter and Driffield (H&D) d. all of the above ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 11:52 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 11:53 PM 20. Where on the D log E curve is the majority of diagnostic information found? a. toe b. shoulder c. straight line portion d. Dmax ANSWER:

c

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Chapter 19 - Film and Screens Imaging and Processing POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 11:53 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 11:54 PM 21. Which point on the D log E curve represents the point where all the silver halide crystals have a full complement of silver atoms? a. toe b. shoulder c. straight line portion d. Dmax ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 11:55 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 11:57 PM 22. The primary characteristics of film include all of the following EXCEPT a. resolution. b. amplitude. c. speed. d. contrast.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 11:57 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:00 AM 23. Film resolution is determined by the a. silver halide crystal size. b. processor time. c. processor temperature. d. speed point.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Film and Screens Imaging and Processing HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:06 AM 24. The amount of radiographic density a film produces for a given amount of exposure is termed the a. gamma. b. reciprocity. c. speed. d. resolution.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:07 AM 25. The difference between adjacent densities on a radiograph is the a. resolution. b. speed. c. definition. d. contrast.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:08 AM 26. Contrast is characterized on the H&D curve by a. how close the toe is to the origin. b. the slope of the straight line. c. how close the shoulder is to Dmax. d. the density at a given exposure value.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:09 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Film and Screens Imaging and Processing 27. What percentage of the latent image is formed by the light photons produced from the intensifying screen? a. 100 percent b. 99 percent c. 50 percent d. 1 percent ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:10 AM 28. When a phosphor is struck by an x-ray photon, it will emit light a. parallel to the angle of incidence. b. perpendicular to the angle of incidence. c. at a 45-degree angle to the angle of incidence. d. in all directions.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:13 AM 29. The predominant type of interaction that takes place between the x-ray photon and the high-atomic-number phosphor of the intensifying screen is a. photoelectric. b. Compton. c. pair production. d. Bremsstrahlung.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:15 AM 30. Which one of the following is not related to intensifying screen resolution? a. screen speed b. crystal size Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Film and Screens Imaging and Processing c. layer thickness d. base material ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:18 AM 31. When an insufficient quantity of photons strikes the intensifying screen, ____ will appear on the film as graininess. a. lagging speed b. quantum mottle c. shadowing d. latitude ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:19 AM 32. To increase the speed of an intensifying screen, a. increase phosphor size. b. decrease the phosphor layer thickness. c. decrease phosphor concentration. d. remove the reflective layer.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:20 AM 33. Recorded detail is measured by all of the following EXCEPT a. line spread function. b. modulation transfer function. c. line pairs per millimeter. d. contrast sensitivity.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Film and Screens Imaging and Processing DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:21 AM 34. If an imaging system with an RS value of 200 requires an exposure of 12 mAs, switching to a system with RS 800 speed will a. require 3 mAs. b. require 48 mAs. c. require a 15 percent increase in kVp. d. improve image resolution.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:23 AM 35. When selecting a film/screen combination, a principal consideration in the best choice is a. image contrast and exposure latitude. b. image contrast and resolution. c. MTF and dose. d. line pair resolution and MTF. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:24 AM 36. Of the choices below, which one will yield a radiographic image with the highest spatial resolution? a. an image system with a MTF of 0.7 b. an image system with a MTF of 0.4 c. an image system with an average gradient of 2.0 d. an image system with an image density of 1.2 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Film and Screens Imaging and Processing DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:25 AM 37. Film screen systems with high RS values tend to offer a. high resolution. b. lower patient dose. c. greater exposure latitude. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:27 AM 38. A stable black metallic silver atom is formed when a. a negative silver ion is oxidized. b. a positive silver ion is oxidized. c. a negative silver ion obtains an electron. d. a positive silver ion obtains an electron.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:29 AM 39. The single most important factor in efficient silver recovery is the a. developer replenishment. b. fixer dwell time. c. fixer temperature. d. film transport time through the processor.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:30 AM Matching Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Film and Screens Imaging and Processing Match the following selections with the correct question as they relate to film processing, screens, and quality control. a. MTF b. sensitivity speck c. film base d. required for processor quality control e. latent image f. quantification of receptor system fidelity g. uses a GBX filter h. sensitometer i. manifest image j. inversely related to contrast k. replenishment l. clearing time DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:36 AM 40. latitude ANSWER: j POINTS: 1 41. processed image for interpretation ANSWER: i POINTS: 1 42. quantification of receptor system fidelity ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 43. flexible, polyester material bonded to an adhesive layer ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 44. safelight ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 45. twice the time needed to remove unexposed silver salts ANSWER: l POINTS: 1 46. invisible, undeveloped image ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 47. densitometer ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19 - Film and Screens Imaging and Processing 48. rate is determined by running length of film.

ANSWER: k POINTS: 1 49. creates an optical grayscale for assessment ANSWER: h POINTS: 1

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Chapter 20 - Digital Image Processing Multiple Choice 1. Digital radiographic systems are divided into two classes. They are a. storage phosphor and photostimulable plate technology. b. direct and indirect conversion. c. laser digitizers and selenium plates. d. computed radiography and storage phosphor technology.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:39 AM 2. Computers operate using a(n) ____ language. a. monosyllabic source language b. binary machine c. logarithmic machine d. alphanumeric source language ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:43 AM 3. Each binary number is called a a. pixel. b. bit. c. byte. d. voxel.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:44 AM 4. An eight-bit word is called a a. byte.

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Chapter 20 - Digital Image Processing b. RAM. c. bit. d. kernel.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:45 AM 5. Analog to digital conversion involves two steps. They are quantification and ___________. a. rescaling b. sampling c. pixelization d. toning ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:46 AM 6. A voxel is different than a pixel in that a voxel a. has only two dimensions b. controls the volume of audio c. possesses a third dimension d. controls the pixel dimensions ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:47 AM 7. A graphical analysis of signal values from minimum to maximum values in a data set is termed a a. look-up table. b. histogram. c. pixel spread. d. exposure index.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Digital Image Processing POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:58 PM 8. The shape and distribution of values on an x-ray exposure histogram is specific to selected anatomy and the exposure used for the exam. In the histogram, the data is analyzed to identify the __________. a. line spread function b. point spread function c. values of interest (VOI) d. modulation transfer function (MTF) ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:50 AM 9. The window level controls image a. resolution. b. contrast. c. speed. d. brightness.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:51 AM 10. The window width controls a. darkness. b. contrast. c. speed. d. resolution.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Digital Image Processing HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:53 AM 11. Spatial resolution is controlled by a. bit depth. b. pixel size. c. matrix size. d. byte size.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:54 AM 12. Computerized digital images consist of a ________ of picture elements, each with a video display value or gray shade. a. row b. matrix c. column d. pixel ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:57 AM 13. Each pixel in a digital display matrix is located according to its a. electronic address. b. voxel position. c. DICOM address. d. field of view.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:01 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Digital Image Processing 14. A matrix of size 2048 × 1536 would have _______ pixels. a. 512 b. 3584 c. 3,145,728 d. 2048 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 2:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:01 AM 15. In digital imaging, the limiting factor in spatial resolution is the a. pixel depth. b. pixel size. c. bit depth. d. pixel pitch.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:03 AM 16. A pixel that has an eight-bit depth displays _______ shades of gray. a. 126 b. 256 c. 512 d. 1024 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:04 AM 17. Which of the choices below would produce the highest spatial frequency and contrast? a. gall bladder b. Contrast-filled urinary bladder c. 3-mm renal calculi (stone) Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Digital Image Processing d. contrast-filled appendix ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:05 AM 18. All of the following are related except one. Select the choice that is NOT RELATED to the others. a. local processing b. manual processing c. point processing d. geometric processing ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:07 AM 19. In digital image processing, the digital data set is arranged into a histogram distribution in order to determine the a. display matrix. b. exposure index. c. values of interest (VOI). d. both b and c.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:08 AM 20. In digital image processing, an overexposed or underexposed image can be modified to achieve an acceptable “look” through a histogram analysis. This is the result of the digital processing technique of a. spatial frequency processing. b. point processing. c. rescaling. d. look-up table application.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Digital Image Processing DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:09 AM 21. The purpose of an LUT is to a. determine the exposure index. b. create the histogram. c. apply a predetermined scale of contrast to the digital data set. d. perform geometric processing in order to reorient the image on display.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:11 AM 22. If the radiographer applied an ankle LUT to a chest radiograph data set, the image would demonstrate a. high contrast. b. low contrast. c. very high resolution. d. low resolution.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:12 AM 23. All of the following are true of local area processing EXCEPT: a. It relies on the application of kernels to pixels. b. Kernels are ultimately applied to the entire pixel data set. c. Spatial filtering is an example of local area processing. d. Electronic magnification of the image is an example of local area processing.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:12 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Digital Image Processing DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:13 AM 24. The relationship between digital image resolution a. is direct with matrix size. b. is indirect with pixel size. c. is direct with pixel bit depth. d. both a and b.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:15 AM 25. When matrix size is increased and pixel size goes down, a. spatial resolution decreases. b. spatial resolution increases. c. contrast increases. d. both a and c.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:16 AM 26. Noise on a digital image is the summation of inherent electron system noise and quantum mottle noise. Of these two, the radiographer can improve the quantum noise on an image by a. decreasing the exposure intensity of the x-ray beam. b. increasing the exposure technique. c. turning off any electronic devices during exposures. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:18 AM 27. When the quality of a digital detector is inspected for purchase, the preferred detector for purchase would have a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Digital Image Processing a. DQE of 65 percent and MTF of 0.55. b. DQE of 40 percent and MTF of 0.80. c. DQE of 68 percent and MTF of 0.80. d. DQE of 55 percent and MTF of 0.35.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:21 AM 28. The deviation index (DI) a. compares entrance dose to the detector to an established department target dose. b. compares entrance dose to the patient to a reference industry-standard target dose. c. compares exit dose to the detector to an established department target dose. d. compares DQE and MTF with a reference value.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:23 AM 29. All of the following impact digital image spatial resolution EXCEPT a. pixel pitch. b. bits/pixel. c. DEL dimension. d. sampling frequency.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:24 AM 30. Exposure indicators used in digital radiography a. represent exposure to a digital detector. b. may be direct or indirect with regard to exposure and the number calculated. c. can be used to assess image quality. d. all of the above.

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Chapter 20 - Digital Image Processing ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:26 AM 31. Fuji Medical System’s exposure indicator system uses an S# as the measure of exposure to its digital detector. From the choices below, select the item that is NOT TRUE of Fuji’s system. a. An S# of 200 represents approximately 1 mR of exposure b. S#s change directly with exposure, in a linear fashion c. Proper exposures should range between 150 and 250 in terms of S# values d. The S# is inversely proportional to exposure ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:27 AM 32. In a radiology department that is consistent with ALARA guidelines a. EI#s and DI#s cannot be used interchangeably. b. Target EI#s for all exams will be established. c. EI#s and DI#s are used as benchmarks of image quality. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:29 AM 33. To reduce the visual appearance of noise on a digital radiographic image, what postprocessing technique can be used to suppress the noise? a. image magnification b. low-pass filtering c. high-pas filtering d. rescaling ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20 - Digital Image Processing DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:30 AM

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Chapter 21 - Computed Radiography (CR) Multiple Choice 1. Computed radiography is also referred to as a. PSP technology. b. flat panel technology. c. laser-stimulated technology. d. receptor technology.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 8:58 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 8:59 PM 2. CR technology uses a. reusable imaging plates. b. monoenergetic laser stimulation. c. reader assemblies. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:00 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:01 PM 3. The fluorohalides used in CR are predominantly composed of a. cesium iodide b. amorphous silicon c. bromide d. iodide ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:01 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:02 PM 4. CR systems acquire clinical information by a. laser scanning a PSP plate.

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Chapter 21 - Computed Radiography (CR) b. gathering light from a scintillator. c. direct digital transformation of x-ray photon energy to a selenium plate. d. capturing light from a charged couple device (CCD).

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:02 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:20 PM 5. Computerized digital images consist of a ________ of picture elements, each with a video display value or gray shade. a. row b. matrix c. column d. pixel ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:21 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:22 PM 6. When using CR technology, it is important to remember that a. the IP is extrasensitive to exposure after the initial x-ray exposure. b. the IP will lose about 25 percent of its signal in 8 hours if not processed. c. the IP is very sensitive to scatter, making grids very important. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:22 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:23 PM 7. An x-ray exposure taken at 80 kVp has an average energy of a. 24 keV. b. 35 keV. c. 60 keV. d. 80 keV. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Computed Radiography (CR) DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:24 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:28 PM 8. In the technology of CR, the latent image is actually a. sensitivity specks in the barium fluorohalide. b. free electrons in the amorphous silicon. c. electron “holes” in Europium. d. the light from the phosphor following laser excitation of the reader assembly.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:30 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:31 PM 9. In CR technology, preprocessing of data includes a. histogram analysis. b. grayscale analysis. c. exposure data recognition (EDR). d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:31 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:32 PM 10. When using a Fuji CR system in the fixed-mode of operation, a. exposure techniques are variable and adjustable by the computer to adjust density and contrast. b. the system will not correct for exposure inadequacies and adjust for density problems. c. your exposure techniques must be accurate, similar to film/screen technology. d. both b and c.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:33 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Computed Radiography (CR) DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:34 PM 11. All of the following are true of the Moire effect EXCEPT: a. It results from a conflict in spatial frequencies between the grid frequency and laser scanning frequency. b. It produces useless diagonal dark lines across the finished image. c. It is most likely to occur with DR technology, particularly amorphous selenium. d. It is eliminated with ultra-high grid frequencies 178–200 lpi.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:35 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:36 PM 12. The luminescence of blue-violet light from a CR fluorohalide, due to laser stimulation a. is proportional to the x-ray energy exposure. b. is inversely related to x-ray exposure. c. is not related to the x-ray exposure. d. is directly related to the rescaling process.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:36 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:37 PM 13. Readout of CR data from the imaging plate is a line-by-line process which creates a a. detector array grid. b. raster pattern. c. a series of sensitivity specks. d. linear array.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:38 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:39 PM 14. In CR the latent image consists of millions of a. sensitivity specks.

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Chapter 21 - Computed Radiography (CR) b. detector elements. c. F-centers and electron holes. d. voltage gates.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:39 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:40 PM 15. A CR imaging plate that has been grossly overexposed can demonstrate _________________ if the erasure process in incomplete a. quantum noise. b. ghosting. c. increased brightness. d. decreased contrast.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:40 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:42 PM 16. In CR, pixel pitch is dependent upon a. DEL size. b. viewing monitor size. c. laser energy wavelength of the reader. d. sampling frequency.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:42 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:43 PM 17. To reproduce an analog signal with truer representation and accuracy, the most effective method to do so is a. increase the sampling rate to at least the Nyquist value. b. decrease the sampling to ½ Nyquist. c. increase the sampling rate to a value greater than the Nyquist value. d. none of the above.

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Chapter 21 - Computed Radiography (CR) ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:44 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:47 PM 18. Positioning of an AP wrist projection off center using a CR receptor, will likely lead to a. preprocessing errors of the data. b. an incorrect histogram analysis. c. suboptimum image quality. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:47 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:51 PM 19. All of the following are related EXCEPT a. automatic b. variable c. semi-automatic d. fixed ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:51 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:53 PM 20. In computer radiography, if the reader scanning frequency and the radiographic grid frequency are similar and in the same orientation, what is likely to occur? a. grid cut-off b. data drop c. Moire effect d. Nyquist errors ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Computed Radiography (CR) QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:53 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 12:15 AM 21. Select the TRUE statement regarding computer radiography (CR). a. CR imaging plates are very sensitive to post-exposure radiation. b. Radiographic grids are of little value with CR, due to histogram analysis. c. CR plate sampling rates determine image brightness. d. Running a CR plate in the fixed mode for a Fuji system, requires precise positioning.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:54 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:55 PM 22. Pixel bit depth determines a. spatial resolution b. gray shade levels c. pixel dimension d. image brightness ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:55 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:09 PM 23. What is the relationship between CR plate size and spatial resolution? a. Smaller CR plates deliver less resolution due to a lower sampling frequency b. Larger CR plates deliver better spatial resolution c. Plate size and image resolution have no relationship d. The best CR spatial resolution is achieved with the smallest size CR plates ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:09 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:11 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Computed Radiography (CR) 24. As you complete your daily, late afternoon duties as a radiographer, you notice a CR cassette that was exposed earlier in the morning. When you process the cassette in the reader, the resultant image will demonstrate a. high levels of quantum noise. b. decreased brightness. c. a loss of spatial resolution. d. acceptable image quality.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:11 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:13 PM 25. The response to x-ray exposure with CR imaging plates is a. logarithmic b. nonlinear c. linear d. similar to photographic film ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:13 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:14 PM Matching Match the following choices with the correct statement as they relate to CR technology. a. Europium b. Moire effect c. 8” × 10” CR plate d. semi-automatic e. pixel bit depth f. 670–690 nm g. F-center h. pixel pitch i. sampling frequency j. image stitching k. fixed mode l. 560–580 nm DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:15 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:18 PM 26. electron trap (hole) Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21 - Computed Radiography (CR) ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 27. requires symmetrical collimation ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 28. important to the fluorohalide ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 29. scanning conflict with grid frequency ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 30. red laser wavelength ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 31. higher sampling frequency ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 32. distance between pixels ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 33. overlapping exposures with registration marks ANSWER: j POINTS: 1

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Chapter 22 - Digital Radiography / Flat-Panel Detector Systems Multiple Choice 1. Indirect DR uses ________ as the photoconductor material. a. calcium tungstate b. amorphous selenium c. amorphous silicon d. gadolinium oxysulfide ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:40 AM 2. A common feature between indirect and direct DR technology is a. thin film technology (TFT). b. a scintillation layer. c. cassettes. d. imaging plates (IP).

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:45 AM 3. The component that converts light to an electronic signal in a digital detector is the a. thin film transistor (TFT). b. scintillator. c. photoconductor. d. detector element (DEL).

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:47 AM 4. Modern indirect DR radiographic panels use ____________________ as the scintillator. a. barium fluorohalide Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 22 - Digital Radiography / Flat-Panel Detector Systems b. amorphous silicon c. cesium iodide d. zinc cadmium sulfide ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:49 AM 5. In direct digital detectors, the electronic readout of signal is accomplished by the a. amorphous selenium. b. thin film transistor (TFT). c. photoconductor. d. reflective layer.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:00 AM 6. In a digital detector, the term “fill-factor” refers to the a. size of the DEL. b. load capacity of the detector surface. c. file size of the total data. d. sensing area of the detector element.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:10 AM 7. The relationship between detector “fill-factor” and spatial resolution is a. direct. b. indirect. c. not a factor in detector quality. d. indirect based upon the DEL depth.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 22 - Digital Radiography / Flat-Panel Detector Systems POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:15 AM 8. The purpose of a charge-couple device (CCD) when used with a DR detector is to a. convert x-ray energy into light energy. b. act as a photoconductor. c. collect the light from the scintillator and convert it to electrons. d. both b and c.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:18 AM 9. Select the TRUE statement with regard to complementary metal oxide semiconductor (CMOS) technology. a. They are used with direct DR panels. b. They are considered an efficient detector of x-ray energies. c. They are not widely used with flat panel DR technology. d. They function as the scintillating layer of a direct DR panel.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:21 AM 10. With digital detector technology, the electronic signal is a. the latent image. b. an analog signal. c. a data set of signal intensities. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 22 - Digital Radiography / Flat-Panel Detector Systems DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:26 AM 11. DR panels that are connected to the radiographic unit with a “hard wired” connection cable a. are considered to be “tethered”. b. can operate throughout the hospital. c. operate in a wireless mode. d. have excellent positioning flexibility.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:29 AM 12. Auto-detection technology with a DR panel a. requires a vendor-specific generator communication. b. is often referred to as a trigger panel. c. will not work with automatic exposure control (AEC). d. does not require a charge being placed on the TFT layer.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:33 AM 13. DR panels have published specifications from the manufacturer that outline performance conditions. DR panels are particularly vulnerable to a. extended exposure times. b. very high kVp values. c. bodily fluids. d. sterile fields and temperatures in surgery.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:37 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 22 - Digital Radiography / Flat-Panel Detector Systems 14. Of the choices below, select the DR panel that would provide the highest spatial resolution. a. DEL size 200 microns, 75% fill factor b. DEL size 125 microns, 95% fill factor c. DEL size 110 microns, 75% fill factor d. DEL size 140 microns, 95% fill factor ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:47 AM 15. Indirect DR detectors employ the use of _____________ as a scintillator. a. CMOS b. zinc cadmium sulfide c. cesium iodide d. CCD ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:51 AM 16. The area of a DR detector DEL that is insensitive to x-ray exposure a. consists of the DEL electronics. b. is the same between manufacturers. c. has little to do with the fill factor. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:55 AM Matching Match the following choices with the correct statement as they relate to flat panel DR technology. a. photoconductor b. direct panel photoconductor Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 22 - Digital Radiography / Flat-Panel Detector Systems c. fluorescence d. readout sequence e. collects electronic signals f. MTF g. fill factor h. phosphorescence i. used by trigger panels j. requires optical coupling k. RS 400 l. damaged DR panel DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 10:59 PM 17. sensing area ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 18. amorphous selenium ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 19. panel autopsy ANSWER: l POINTS: 1 20. data lines ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 21. CCD ANSWER: j POINTS: 1 22. amorphous silicon ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 23. TFT ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 24. auto-detection ANSWER: i POINTS: 1

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Chapter 23 - Technical Considerations in Digital Imaging Multiple Choice 1. All of the following will improve DR radiographic image resolution, EXCEPT: a. using a small focal spot. b. using lower kVp values. c. increasing the SID. d. high mA and shorter exposure times.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:34 AM 2. With digital technologies (DR/CR), perhaps the single-most important consideration when using this technology is a. using high-speed anode rotation. b. the processing speed of the digital computer. c. the quality of the image review monitor used by the technologist. d. the total amount of exposure incident upon the detector.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:44 AM 3. Which of the following factors would DECREASE remnant radiation exposure to a DR detector? a. switching from a 8:1 grid to a 4:1 grid. b. increasing the kVp and maintaining the same mAs. c. using a 8” air-gap. d. increasing the kvP from 75 to 87 and reducing mAs from 8mAs to 4 mAs. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:46 AM 4. Extreme overexposure to a DR detector can result in a. an increase in diagnostic acuity.

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Chapter 23 - Technical Considerations in Digital Imaging b. detector DEL saturation. c. increased quantum noise. d. rescaling errors.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:50 AM 5. DR detector element saturation can result in image a. data drop. b. detector shut-off to protect the patient. c. image reversal (solarization) due to photon saturation. d. improved spatial resolution.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 12:53 AM 6. Fixed kVp exposure techniques systems require a. a minimum mA. b. automatic exposure control (AEC). c. an optimum threshold kVp. d. radiographic grids.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:05 AM 7. With digital detector technology, the traditional rules of exposure and image quality do not necessarily apply completely. One of these rules is that a. a fixed mAs-variable kVp technique system should be used exclusively. b. the amount of scatter formation is primarily a function of mAs rather than kVp. c. kVp values should be lowered compared to film-screen techniques. d. radiographic grids are no longer necessary.

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Chapter 23 - Technical Considerations in Digital Imaging ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:05 AM 8. With a variable-kVp exposure technique system, the threshold kVp is typically set at a. 30 kVp. b. 50 kVp. c. 70 kVp. d. there is no minimum kVp required.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 12:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:04 AM 9. Underexposure using DR detectors will result in a. less spatial resolution. b. photon saturation. c. quantum noise. d. electronic noise.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:08 AM 10. The tendency of technologists to use more exposure than needed, and allowing computer rescaling to compensate for it, has lead to a. increased image acuity. b. lengthened DR panel usable life. c. increased diagnostic fidelity. d. dose creep.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 23 - Technical Considerations in Digital Imaging QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:19 AM 11. Essential to ALARA compliance is a. optimizing LUT application. b. consistently using the correct focal spot size. c. using accurate exposure techniques based upon patient measurement. d. using auto-detection technology DR panels to increase patient comfort.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:20 AM 12. All of the following are related EXCEPT a. clinical fine tuning. b. making phantom test exposures. c. selecting optimum phantom images from the internet. d. clinical trial.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:23 AM 13. As a radiographer, you are looking at an image you had just taken, on the review monitor. The image looks marginally noisy. Your next step should be to a. refer to the Exposure Index# to confirm the image appearance. b. return to the patient and repeat the image at a higher kVp. c. send the image for interpretation since the radiologist’s monitor will correct the noise. d. repeat the image at a shorter SID to increase exposure to the detector.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:24 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 23 - Technical Considerations in Digital Imaging DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:25 AM 14. Underexposed radiographic images demonstrate a. decreased image brightness. b. photon starvation. c. increased contrast. d. the visibility of grid lines.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:30 AM 15. The total amount of clinically significant diagnostic image on a medical image is referred to as a. image fidelity. b. diagnostic acuity. c. diagnostic efficacy. d. diagnostic yield.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:32 AM 16. A key feature of DR/CR technologies is the increased sensitivity of the receptor to a wider range of remnant radiation energies, when compared to conventional film-screen systems. The feature is referred to as a. DEL spectrum sensing b. diagnostic acuity c. low contrast resolution (LCR) d. modulation transfer function (MTF) ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:35 AM 17. The calculation of exposure index values can vary between manufacturers of DR/CR technology. The AAPM has Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 23 - Technical Considerations in Digital Imaging established a scale of exposure ranges known as a(n)_______________, that accounts for these variations in calculations. a. DQE b. Deviation Index (DI) c. Exposure Index (EI) d. ALARA compliance scale ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:40 AM 18. According to the AAPM, a DI value of 4 indicates a. a mid-range exposure that is acceptable, based upon department target values. b. underexposure and an image that will demonstrate low brightness. c. optimum exposure. d. overexposure and an ALARA violation.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:43 AM 19. DR and CR image receptors a. work well with automatic exposure control. b. have two classes: indirect and direct. c. require a reader mechanism to capture the image signal. d. display a quantitative measure of receptor exposure.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:46 AM 20. Objectionable quantum noise on an image that makes its acceptance marginal, generally indicates an underexposure of a. 25 percent. b. 50 percent. c. 100 percent.

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Chapter 23 - Technical Considerations in Digital Imaging d. 200 percent.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:48 AM 21. The visualization of clothing, hair braids, keloids, etc., is principally due to what characteristic of DR and CR detectors? a. an extended dynamic range b. low contrast resolution c. DEL sensitivity d. all of the above ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:50 AM 22. The final appearance of a digital image in terms of brightness and contrast is principally due to a. data rescaling. b. the application of a look up table. c. window and level controls. d. total exposure to the detector.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:54 AM 23. Elimination of extraneous light from the edges of a digital radiographic image, is achieved through a. adjusting window and level controls. b. the application of veil glare software. c. electronic masking. d. reassignment of a different look-up table.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 23 - Technical Considerations in Digital Imaging DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 1:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 1:56 AM 24. When adding annotation to a digital radiographic image, it is important to remember that a. the annotation needs to be added to the exam requisition as well. b. electronic annotation for patient laterality is unacceptable. c. the annotation is a temporary indication of patient condition. d. all electronic annotation is legally acceptable.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 2:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 2:13 AM 25. A major distinction between DR and CR receptors is that a. CR requires particular attention to placement of the anatomy on the receptor. b. DR is not affected by collimation symmetry. c. The latent image in CR is time-sensitive. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 2:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 2:17 AM 26. Extraneous information that appears on a medical image, that does not represent the patient and their medical condition, is referred to as a. an artifact. b. data drop. c. noise. d. signal loss.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 23 - Technical Considerations in Digital Imaging DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 2:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 2:21 AM 27. When setting kVp levels using DR technologies, it is important to understand that a. higher kVp values produce a more narrow histogram. b. kVp levels should not exceed 80 kVp for nongrid radiography. c. when scatter ratios reach 50 percent or greater, radiographic grids should be used. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 2:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 2:57 AM 28. A DR detector that is integral to the x-ray system means that the detector a. must be used with a generator interface. b. uses wireless technology and is connected to the system by way of a router. c. is built in to the design of the x-ray equipment and the radiographer cannot access it. d. is not “hard-wired” to the x-ray unit.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 2:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:00 AM 29. A radiographic image that demonstrates image receptor electronics on the final image, superimposed over patient anatomy, is likely the result of a. overexposure data drop. b. improper radiographic grid alignment. c. backscatter radiation. d. Dexel saturation.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:08 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 23 - Technical Considerations in Digital Imaging 30. As a radiographer, you are using a DR system that displays EI#’s as part of the DICOM header. The EI#s are calculated as directly proportional and linear to exposure. The image you have created shows marginal quantum noise and an EI# of 140. The exposure technique you used was 85 kVp@ 15 mAs. To improve image quality and eliminate the objectionable noise, your next step should be to a. repeat the exposure at 85 kVp @ 20 mAs. b. post process the image using high pass filtering. c. repeat the exposure at 85 kVp @ 12 mAs. d. repeat the exposure at 72 kVp @ 30 mAs. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:11 AM Matching Match the following choices with the correct statement, as they relate to the technical applications digital technologies. a. electronic masking b. diagnostic yield c. results in data drop artifacts d. visibility of clothing on image e. backscatter f. fixed kVp system g. fixed mAs, variable kVp system h. creates histogram errors i. diagnostic efficacy j. target DI value k. ALARA violation l. photon starvation DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 3:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 3:17 AM 31. DEL saturation ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 32. requires a kVp threshold ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 33. >+3 DI ANSWER: k POINTS: 1 34. reduces veil glare ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 23 - Technical Considerations in Digital Imaging POINTS:

1

35. low contrast resolution artifact ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 36. image fidelity ANSWER: i POINTS: 1 37. optimal kVp ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 38. nonparallel collimation ANSWER: h POINTS: 1

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Chapter 24 - Informatics in Medical Imaging Multiple Choice 1. Which is an advantage to the digital environment over film? a. Digital images can be manipulated without re-exposure to patients. b. Digital images can be sent to remote locations. c. Digital images require less physical storage. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:02 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:04 PM 2. A network of computers, servers and storage devices for the distribution and display of medical images is commonly referred to as a(n) ______________ system. a. EMR b. PACS c. VNA d. RIS ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:04 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:06 PM 3. The DICOM standard has established two classes of information. They are a. digital class and analog class. b. service class and object class. c. software class and hardware class. d. medical class and nonmedical class.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:06 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:07 PM 4. When images are sent from a CR workstation to a radiologist viewing station for interpretation, the workstation and viewing station become a SOP. In this case, Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 24 - Informatics in Medical Imaging a. workstation is provider class and the viewing station is user class. b. workstation and viewing station are both user class. c. workstation and viewing station are both provider class. d. workstation is user class and the viewing station is provider class.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:08 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:10 PM 5. The adoption of a DICOM standard in the medical imaging industry was designed to a. allow various vendors to share digital data without proprietary software constraints. b. eliminate small vendors from the medical marketplace based upon product quality and reliability. c. protect patients’ medical records and information. d. establish common exposure dosage values for various medical imaging procedures.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:11 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:12 PM 6. The DICOM standard has a. ensured optimum radiographic image quality. b. established minimum ALARA standards. c. permitted the acquisition, transfer, storage, and display of medical images. d. been adopted by the Federal government as regulated entity.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:13 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:14 PM 7. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) intends to a. streamline patient billing and accounts receivable for the provider. b. consolidate major medical insurance companies into regional insurance co-ops. c. protect a patient’s medical information from unauthorized usage and access. d. prevent the duplication of medical procedures and billings without prior authorization.

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Chapter 24 - Informatics in Medical Imaging ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:15 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:16 PM 8. All of the following would be acceptable HIPAA-compliant actions EXCEPT a. eliminating all patient identifiers on an image used for a classroom presentation. b. keeping a patient’s image on a display monitor as a school tour group visits the department. All patient identifiers have been removed from the image display. c. asking colleagues for advise on positioning as you complete images on a severe motor vehicle accident. d. discussing the results of a patient’s mammogram with a colleague as you ride the elevator to lunch.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:21 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:23 PM 9. The acronym PACS stands for a. pixel and computed system. b. picture and communication system. c. picture archiving and communication system. d. portable archival computer system.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:23 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:25 PM 10. Essential characteristics of a PACS include: 1. distribution and retrieval of digital images 2. creation of digital images 3. radiation dosage documentation 4. display of digital images 5. voice-activated dictation 6. digital image storage and long-term archival a. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only b. 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 only Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 24 - Informatics in Medical Imaging c. 1, 4, and 6 only d. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 6 only ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:57 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 10:12 PM 11. The service class and object class combine to form a a. DICOM byte. b. DICOM bit. c. local area network (LAN). d. SOP unit.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 10:12 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 10:15 PM 12. Based upon image file size, the greatest image file size would be created with what type of diagnostic image? a. CT b. 14” × 17” chest radiograph c. ultrasound d. digital mammogram ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 10:18 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 10:20 PM 13. Gray scale bit depth determines a. pixel size b. pixel pitch c. the number of gray shades d. image resolution ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 24 - Informatics in Medical Imaging DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 10:51 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 10:52 PM 14. Production of a grainy, reticulated image that cannot be corrected in digital postprocessing is the result of a. failure to use a high enough mAs setting. b. failure to use a high enough kVp setting. c. failure to use the correct algorithm. d. failure to use the proper SID. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 10:54 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 10:55 PM 15. Microsoft Windows 10 is an example of a(n) a. service object pair b. operating system c. hardware component d. server ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 10:55 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 10:57 PM 16. Considering the data volume needs of a modern medical imaging department, current Internet-based computing takes advantage of a. RAM storage. b. portable storage devices. c. cloud computing. d. in-house archival technologies.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 24 - Informatics in Medical Imaging DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 10:57 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 10:59 PM 17. Of the choices below, select the choice that is NOT RELATED to the others. a. router b. bridge c. LAN d. hub ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 10:59 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:00 PM 18. In a modern medical imaging department, images are interpreted as ________________ images on ________________ displays. a. hardcopy, flat screen b. softcopy, flat screen c. DICOM, viewbox d. film, illuminator ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:01 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:03 PM 19. Viewing monitors that are used for final image interpretation a. are typically flat screen displays with 1024 × 1024 × 8 resolution. b. are the same quality as the review monitors used by staff radiographers. c. offer high-resolution CRT displays of 1–3 megapixels. d. are medical grade quality, high resolution, and typically 3–5 megapixels.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:03 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:05 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 24 - Informatics in Medical Imaging 20. All of the following are true of flat screen displays used to interpret medical images EXCEPT: a. they come in two basic types, LED and CRT b. LCD monitors are angle dependent c. monitor quality is assessed regularly using a GSDF Standard d. they should be situated in reading rooms with low ambient light conditions ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:05 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:07 PM 21. Storage of medical images on a short term basis (3–6 months), providing quick, rapid access, is achieved through the use of a. cloud storage b. RAID storage c. a digital “jukebox” storage device d. portable, external computer hard drive ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:07 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:10 PM 22. In today’s complex, medical community, guidelines have been established to assist ordering practitioners when they select medical imaging exams for their patients. Many hospitals have incorporated a ________ to assist with these complex decisions. a. DICOM Standard b. voice-activated dictation system c. clinical decision support system d. electronic medical record system ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:10 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:12 PM 23. In an effort to manage the huge file sizes of medical images in a radiology department, the technology of ___________ is employed.

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Chapter 24 - Informatics in Medical Imaging a. electronification b. laser digitizing c. data compression d. network protocols ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:12 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:15 PM 24. Computer-related communications involving healthcare information such as patient demographics, that are widely adopted throughout medical community adhere to a. HL-7 standards b. DICOM regulations c. grayscale display standards d. FDA regulations ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:15 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:18 PM 25. Diagnostic medical images would have the highest display resolution if they are a. acquired using a 512 × 1025 × 8 matrix. b. stored and retrieved using lossless compression. c. acquired at 1024 × 1024 × 10 and archived with lossy compression. d. displayed using a 0.5 megapixel monitor.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:19 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:21 PM Problem 26. What is the anticipated image file size in kilobytes for a computed radiography digital image comprised of a 512 × 512 matrix with a 12-bit depth?

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Chapter 24 - Informatics in Medical Imaging 393.216 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:25 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:27 PM 27. What is the anticipated image file size in kilobytes for a computed radiography digital image comprised of a 2,400 × 2,400 matrix with a 32-bit depth?

23,040 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:29 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:30 PM 28. What is the anticipated image file size in bytes for a computed radiography digital image comprised of a 1,000 × 1,000 matrix with an 8-bit depth?

1,000,000 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:30 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:32 PM 29. What is the anticipated file storage in gigabytes necessary for a MR examination comprised of 1,200 images, each with a 512 × 512 matrix at 32-bit depth?

1.258291 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:34 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:36 PM 30. What is the anticipated file size for a single cardiac cath acquisition of 20 seconds at 15 fps with a digital matrix of 760 × 512 × 10?

140,083,200 bytes ANSWER: 140.08 Gb POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 24 - Informatics in Medical Imaging QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:36 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:37 PM Matching Match the following items with the statements below as they relate to PACS technology. a. WAN b. LAN c. BMI d. soft copy e. DICOM f. hard copy g. SOP h. LCD DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:38 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:42 PM 31. image displayed on a flat panel monitor ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 32. MR scanner and workstation ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 33. regional or national network for digital communications ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 34. computer platforms used for medical patient care purposes ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 35. industry-standard language in medical imaging ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 36. may have resolution as high as 3–5 megapixels ANSWER: h POINTS: 1

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Chapter 25 - The Imaging Process Multiple Choice 1. Producing an acceptable radiograph requires consideration of a. technical factor selection. b. pathology. c. image processing. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:00 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:01 PM 2. When many radiographic factors are acting upon one other, it is known as a(n) ___________ problem. a. pyramid b. professional c. procedural d. ethical ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:05 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:07 PM 3. Image quality is primarily the domain of the a. x-ray service engineer. b. PACS administrator. c. radiographer. d. medical physicist.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:08 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:10 PM 4. Factors that affect the shape of the acceptance limit curve of medical images include all of the following EXCEPT a. equipment condition.

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Chapter 25 - The Imaging Process b. department quality standards. c. department location. d. positioning abilities of the radiographer.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:11 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:13 PM 5. Using digital detector technologies with flat screen displays, image quality acceptance is generally determined by its. a. brightness and contrast b. quantum noise levels c. procedural issues such as positioning d. both b and c ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 9:14 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 9:16 PM 6. Which phase of the imaging process is unique to each imaging modality? a. image analysis b. image acquisition c. image archiving d. image display ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 10:10 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 10:11 PM 7. Which phase of the imaging process includes control of factors such as IR exposure, contrast, spatial resolution, and distortion? a. image display b. image processing c. image analysis d. image acquisition Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 25 - The Imaging Process ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 10:12 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 10:14 PM 8. What process is commonly used to create a hard copy of digital images? a. laser printing b. storing the data on portable storage devices c. wet chemistry processing d. dry chemistry processing ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 10:17 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 10:19 PM 9. Which phase of the imaging process incorporates the concepts of spatial resolution, brightness, and contrast and dynamic range? a. image analysis b. image acquisition c. image display d. image processing ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 10:20 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 10:27 PM 10. Visibility of detail quality factors include all of the following EXCEPT a. radiographic positioning. b. x-ray tube focal spot size. c. image contrast. d. radiographic grids.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 25 - The Imaging Process QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 10:23 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 10:26 PM 11. Geometric image quality factors include 1. focal spot selection 2. SID 3. grid ratio 4. filtration thickness 5. OID 6. tube angulation 7. part thickness 8. receptor resolution a. 3, 4, 7, and 8 only b. 1, 2, 4, and 7 only c. 1, 2, 5, 6, 7, and 8 only d. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 7 only ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 10:28 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:13 AM 12. All of the following are related except one. Select the choice not related to the others. a. image analysis b. image acquisition c. image transmission d. image processing ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 10:38 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 10:40 PM 13. Which of these activities would be inconsistent with the “scope of practice” of the radiographer? a. suggesting methods to improve fluoroscopic image quality to a radiologist b. identify a pneumonia on a chest radiograph for an ER physician c. obtaining additional patient information to add to an existing patient history that was taken by a nurse d. repeating a suboptimal radiograph after determining the EI# was too low Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 25 - The Imaging Process ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 10:41 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 1:43 AM 14. Upon analysis of a chest radiograph taken on an asymptomatic, female patient, the radiographer notices that there is an uneven visualization over both lung bases. One lung base is significantly underexposed compared to the other. In an effort to determine the possible cause(s), a logical strategy to take would be to a. inspect the AEC detectors and retake the image. b. retake the image on expiration. c. ask the patient if she has had a previous breast surgery. d. make a note for the radiologist that you cannot explain the opacification, as the patient is asymptomatic.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 10:46 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 10:58 PM 15. After completing a chest radiograph on a female patient with large pendulous breasts, the final image demonstrates underexposure and noise and a loss of recorded detail in the lung bases. The professional radiographer would a. repeat the chest radiograph in the anterioposterior (AP) projection. b. increase the SID to improve resolution. c. increase the mAs and tell the patient to hold their breath deeper. d. politely ask the patient to separate her breasts as she approaches the chest board and repeat the exam in the PA projection.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:13 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:17 PM 16. After completing a lateral cervical spine on a severely injured trauma patient in the ER, you notice that there is a faint silhouette of the spine at the level of C7–T1. This area of the image is noisy and the visibility of detail is compromised.

The responsible approach to this problem would be to a. write a notation of the circumstances for the radiologist, and send the image for interpretation. b. repeat the projection with an increase in mAs. c. adjust the contrast on your review monitor to show the area better, and send to PACS. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 25 - The Imaging Process d. reposition the patient to an oblique angle and repeat the exposure.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:19 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 1:54 AM 17. A KUB is completed on an obese patient using AEC and 80 kVp. The x-ray generator terminated early after hitting the preset backup mAs value. The final image reveals a low EI value. Effective image analysis could reveal that a. the combination of AEC detectors was incorrect. b. an increase of 2 kVp is necessary. c. the backup mAs needs to be recalibrated. d. an increase in grid ratio is all that is needed.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:25 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:33 PM 18. If the image quality acceptance limits are narrow, a. image repeat rates may be high. b. the department would be a good candidate for students. c. the radiography staff would not expect to need regular in-services. d. patient dosages would be unaffected.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:39 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:46 PM 19. After a radiograph of the hip in the translateral projection is completed, the final image is judged by one of the radiographers as marginally acceptable, as it might show the acetabular rim and femoral head. The logical correct action to take would be to a. present the image to a visiting radiologist who is there for the day. b. present the image to a radiologist known to be “popular” with technologists. c. repeat the image to obtain better image quality. d. send the image for interpretation but make a note of the image in the quality control file of images.

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Chapter 25 - The Imaging Process ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:47 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:51 PM 20. After a radiograph of the lumbar spine (AP) is completed, the final image reveals a S# of 758. Your correct image analysis leads you to a. increase the mAs by 10 percent and repeat the image. b. increase the kVp by 4 kVp and repeat the image. c. decrease the SID to 36” and repeat the image. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:54 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:58 PM Matching Match the following choices with the correct statement as they relate to the imaging process a. narrowing the search b. pyramid problem c. image processing d. wide acceptance limits e. image acquisition f. acceptable limits g. narrow acceptance limits h. image analysis DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:16 AM 21. agreed-upon image quality standards ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 22. production of final image ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 23. assessing image quality in terms of IR exposure, contrast, detail, and distortion Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 25 - The Imaging Process ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 24. first phase in the diagnostic process ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 25. combination of interrelated factors that compound the problem ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 26. high image quality ANSWER: g POINTS: 1

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Chapter 26 - Image Receptor Exposure Multiple Choice 1. Assessment of digital radiographic image quality includes a. looking at the window/level values on the monitor b. electronic masking the image to improve the exposure indicator value c. postprocessing the image to enhance image contrast d. referencing exposure indicators values for acceptance ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:23 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:25 PM 2. Digital image artifacts such as vertical or horizontal lines, opaque, white lines demonstrates a. underexposure b. excessive exposure c. quantum noise d. system noise ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:25 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:26 PM 3. The brightness of the image on a viewing monitor is a. the result of receptor exposure. b. the result of the tissue density. c. the result of the tissue thickness. d. a function of the monitor.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:30 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:32 PM 4. The principal controlling factor of radiographic receptor exposure is a. kVp. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 26 - Image Receptor Exposure b. mAs. c. focal spot size. d. filtration thickness.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:32 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:33 PM 5. Which statement is TRUE? a. As mAs increases, scatter decreases. b. As mAs decreases, quantum noise can appear. c. As mAs increases, remnant radiation decreases. d. As mAs decreases, exposure increases logarithmically.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:34 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 1:58 AM 6. The minimum change necessary to improve the appearance of noise on a digital image is ____ percent of mAs. a. 10–12 b. 25–35 c. 50–60 d. none of the above ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:35 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:36 PM 7. Which generator type produces the least amount of receptor exposure per mAs? a. single-phase, 2-pulse b. three-phase, 6-pulse c. three-phase, 12-pulse d. a high-frequency generator ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 26 - Image Receptor Exposure POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:36 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 1:59 AM 8. Which generator produces the greatest amount of receptor exposure per mAs? a. single-phase, 2-pulse b. three-phase, 6-pulse c. three-phase, 12-pulse d. a high-frequency generator ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:37 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:38 PM 9. Which rule is used as a guide to maintain the same receptor exposure, when kVp changes? a. doubling rule b. 15% rule c. inverse square rule d. density maintenance law ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:39 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:40 PM 10. Which factor influences the number of photons reaching the IR? a. kVp b. mAs c. focal spot selection d. exposure time ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 26 - Image Receptor Exposure DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:40 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:41 PM 11. Which factor influences the average energy of photons reaching the IR? a. kVp b. mAs c. focal spot size d. mA ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:41 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:43 PM 12. The 15% rule will affect a. recorded detail. b. image brightness. c. distortion. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:43 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:46 PM 13. The relationship between exposure and SID is a. directly proportional. b. inversely proportional to the cube of the distance. c. directly proportional to the square of the distance. d. inversely proportional to the square of the distance.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:46 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:47 PM 14. Moderate increases in kVp with a digital receptor, will produce Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 26 - Image Receptor Exposure a. dramatic changes in image contrast. b. a change in entrance skin exposure. c. no change in image brightness. d. both b and c.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:47 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:48 PM 15. What conclusion can you reach regarding an image with an S# of 750 and goodimage brightness on the display monitor? a. The image is likely to demonstrate noise or quantum mottle. b. There was not enough exposure to create a good histogram. c. The noise level will be at a minimum and the image will look good in the magnification mode. d. The IR received too much exposure.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:49 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:50 PM 16. You have completed a chest radiograph using 3 mAs @ 110 kVp. The image shows obvious under penetration of the mediastinal anatomy. The professional radiographer would a. increase kVp by 3 kVp and repeat the exposure. b. use the 15% Rule and reduce the kVp and increase the mAs. c. increase the kVp to 120 kVp and repeat the exposure at the same mAs. d. remove the beam filtration and repeat the exposure.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:50 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:51 PM 17. In the event of making a single exposure that is critical to the exam success, most experienced technologists will a. use slightly less mAs than necessary to prevent overexposure. b. overexpose the IR slightly.

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Chapter 26 - Image Receptor Exposure c. provide enough exposure to create an adequate histogram or permit viewing a film with a bright light. d. both b and c.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:51 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:52 PM 18. In the case of film radiography, a. the response to exposure is linear. b. the response to radiation exposure is inverse. c. the response to exposure is logarithmic. d. the response to exposure is exclusively a function of kVp. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:52 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:54 PM 19. Image brightness on an image display monitor is controlled by a. window level. b. window width. c. EI number. d. S number.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:54 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:55 PM 20. The effect of mAs upon IR exposure is a. inverse. b. inversely proportional. c. directly proportional. d. dependent upon kVp. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 26 - Image Receptor Exposure DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:55 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:56 PM 21. Optimum exposure to a digital detector system a. varies between manufacturers. b. is a function of acceptable noise levels. c. is identified with target exposure index values. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:56 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:58 PM 22. As you analyze your image, you come to the conclusion that it must have more exposure. As a general rule, you should increase a. kVp. b. mAs by 2X. c. the SID. d. mAs by a 0.5 multiplier.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:58 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:00 AM 23. A change in kVp, as an exposure factor, affects a. average beam energy. b. beam intensity. c. the amount of scatter production. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 26 - Image Receptor Exposure DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:01 AM 24. The greatest factor in the production of scatter radiation is a. kVp. b. mAs. c. patient thickness. d. patient position.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:03 AM 25. Radiographic room A is a three-phase, six-pulse generator. Room B is a high-frequency generator. When going between these two rooms to perform examinations, what exposure modification is necessary to produce comparable exposure density? a. Use 15 percent more with the three-phase system. b. Use 10 percent more with the high-frequency system. c. No change is required between the two systems. d. Use 10 percent less with the high-frequency system.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:05 AM 26. Focal spot blooming occurs with a. high kVps. b. high mA exposures. c. large SIDs. d. extreme tube angulation.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:06 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 26 - Image Receptor Exposure 27. Because of the “heel effect,” x-ray beam intensity a. is greater under the cathode side of the tube. b. is greater under the anode side of the tube. c. is equal across the beam long axis. d. changes with patient position.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:08 AM 28. The anode heel effect is more pronounced with a. smaller field sizes (8” × 10”). b. stationary anodes. c. a 10− degree target angle. d. rotating anodes.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:13 AM 29. When changing your SID from 72” to 56” a. decrease your kVp by 15 percent. b. decrease your mAs by 50 percent. c. increase the mAs by a factor of 4. d. increase the kVp by 15 percent.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:15 AM 30. All of the following will decrease digital receptor exposure EXCEPT a. increased grid ratios. b. increased beam angulation from 5o to 10o.

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Chapter 26 - Image Receptor Exposure c. increased OID. d. increased filtration.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:16 AM Matching Match the following items with the appropriate statement as each relates to image receptor exposure. a. mAs b. kVp c. exposure maintenance formula d. radiographic grids e. 15% rule f. anode heel effect g. focal spot size h. recorded detail i. EI value j. quantum noise DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:05 AM 31. increasing kVp from 85 to 98 kVp ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 32. variation in beam intensity along the long axis of beam ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 33. require an increase in mAs as ratio increases ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 34. controls x-ray beam quantity ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 35. small and large ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 36. direct relationship between mAs and distance Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 26 - Image Receptor Exposure ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 37. affected by exposure intensity ANSWER: j POINTS: 1 38. controls the average energy of the x-ray beam ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Problem 39. If 80 kVp, 400 mA, and 0.025 sec. produce a satisfactory image, what mAs was used?

10 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:06 AM 40. If 60 kVp, 100 mA, and 0.25 sec. produce a satisfactory image, what mAs was used?

25 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:22 AM 41. If a radiograph using 40 mAs (400 mA at 0.10 sec.) produced an image with satisfactory noise levels, what new time should be used at 200 mA? 0.20 sec ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:24 AM 42. If a radiograph using 30 mAs (400 mA at 0.075 sec.) produced a radiograph with satisfactory image quality, what new mA should be used at 0.20 sec.?

150 mA ANSWER: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 26 - Image Receptor Exposure POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:25 AM 43. If a radiograph using 50 mA (400 mA at 0.125 sec.) produced a radiograph with satisfactory noise, what new mA should be used at 0.25 sec.?

200 mA ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:26 AM 44. A radiograph of the forearm is produced using 4 mA at 55 kVp. What kVp would be required to double the exposure?

63 kVp ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:27 AM 45. A radiograph of the forearm is produced using 4 mA at 55 kVp. What kVp is required to halve the exposure?

47 kVp ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:28 AM 46. If a satisfactory Exposure Index # is obtained with 40 mAs at 72 in., what mAs is required to maintain the same receptor exposure at 40 in.?

12 mAs ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:28 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 26 - Image Receptor Exposure DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:29 AM 47. If a satisfactory receptor exposure is obtained with 20 mAs at 40 in., what mAs is required to maintain the same exposure at 72 in.?

65 mAs ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:09 AM 48. If a satisfactory PA chest radiograph is obtained with 4 mAs at 72 in., what mAs is required to maintain the same receptor exposure at 60 in.?

3 mAs ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:30 AM 49. If a satisfactory radiograph is obtained at 72 in. with a patient exposure of 4 R, what will the exposure be if the distance is reduced to 40 in.?

13 R ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:31 AM 50. If a satisfactory chest radiograph is obtained at 72 in. with a patient exposure of 10 R, what will the exposure be if the distance is reduced to 40 in.?

32 R ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:31 AM

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Chapter 27 - Contrast Multiple Choice 1. The recorded detail of a digital radiographic image is primarily visible because of a. sufficient contrast. b. sufficient receptor exposure. c. low signal to noise ratios (SNR). d. both a and b.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:51 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:54 PM 2. The difference between two adjacent gray shades on a radiographic image is a. recorded detail. b. quantum mottle. c. radiographic contrast. d. distortion.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:54 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/13/2019 11:57 PM 3. A radiograph with few shades of gray exhibits a. low contrast. b. high contrast. c. medium contrast. d. long scale contrast.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/13/2019 11:58 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:06 AM 4. Which type of radiograph provides the most clinical information? a. an image with quantum mottle Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 27 - Contrast b. short-scale contrast images c. low-density images d. low-contrast images ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:10 AM 5. The principal controlling factor of radiographic contrast using film-screen technology is a. kVp. b. mAs. c. focal spot size. d. anode angle.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:14 AM 6. A radiograph that demonstrates considerable differences between gray shades is said to have a. short scale. b. high contrast. c. increased contrast. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:16 AM 7. A radiograph that demonstrates minimal differences between gray shades is said to have a. long scale. b. low contrast. c. decreased contrast. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 27 - Contrast POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 8:58 PM 8. With digital imaging technologies, the final brightness and contrast appearance of an image is due to a. kVp. b. window and level controls. c. look-up table (LUT) application. d. image rescaling.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:34 AM 9. A frontal projection chest radiograph that demonstrates a faint outline of the thoracic spine and many shades of gray to show the pulmonary markings of the lungs illustrates a. underpenetration. b. long-scale contrast and adequate penetration. c. overpenetration. d. short-scale contrast and adequate penetration.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:39 AM 10. Image receptor contrast of radiographic film is expressed as the ____ of the D log E curve. a. slope b. toe c. shoulder d. speed ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 27 - Contrast HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:47 AM 11. In digital imaging using a DR detector, image contrast decreases with a. excessive kVp values. b. underexposure. c. mAs values that are too low. d. radiographic grids.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:46 AM 12. Varying tissue thicknesses and densities is referred to as a. differential absorption b. attenuation c. subject contrast d. image contrast ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:49 AM 13. As kVp ____, a ____ range of photon energies is produced. a. increases; wider b. increases; narrower c. decreases; wider d. decreases; longer ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:52 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 27 - Contrast 14. A high contrast LUT applied to a chest radiograph would yield a. dark lung fields and poorly demonstrated lung mediastinal anatomy. b. very few gray shades between the darkest and lightest regions of the chest. c. underpenetrated lung fields and a clear silhouette of the thoracic spine. d. excellent visualization of the bronchopulmonary markings and ribs.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:57 AM 15. High contrast is directly related to a. the number of photoelectric interactions. b. high kVp. c. the amount of Compton scatter. d. mAs. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 1:00 AM 16. Immediately after exposure and before a digitally acquired image is post-processed, the initial image shown demonstrates a. very low contrast b. the heel effect c. focal spot blur d. extremely high contrast ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 1:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 1:05 AM 17. Which of the choices below does not increase contrast? a. increasing grid ratio b. increasing the amount of irradiated tissue Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 27 - Contrast c. decreasing filtration d. decreasing kVp ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 1:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 1:07 AM 18. Radiographic image contrast is a combination of a. grid ratio and field size b. receptor contrast and subject contrast c. filtration thickness and field size d. data rescaling and look-up tables ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 1:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 1:10 AM 19. As kVp increases, the percentage of Compton interactions _______ and contrast_______. a. decreases; decreases b. decreases; increases c. increases; decreases d. increases; increases ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 1:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 1:13 AM 20. When the tissue structure of the ankle joint is considered, the dramatic tissue differences between the muscles and bones of the ankle produce a. high subject contrast. b. low subject contrast. c. high receptor contrast. d. low receptor contrast.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 27 - Contrast POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 1:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:03 PM 21. A fluoroscopic examination that uses barium as a contrast material would typically produce images with a. long scale contrast. b. short scale contrast. c. low contrast. d. both a and c.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 1:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 1:23 AM 22. The total amount of irradiated material is a function of a. tissue thickness and tissue density. b. body part thickness and area of exposure. c. field size and anode angle. d. body position and focal spot size.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 1:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 1:32 AM 23. A radiographic grid with a K-factor of 1 would offer a. a 100 percent increase in contrast. b. no change in image contrast. c. a reduction in image contrast. d. an increase in exposure with a decrease in contrast.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 27 - Contrast DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 2:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 2:20 AM 24. In order to reduce patient entrance skin exposure (ESE), higher kVp exposures are a consideration. It is important to remember that a. kVp values that are too high can short-circuit a digital detector. b. kVp values that are excessively high can negatively impact the data histogram. c. a significant loss of image contrast is not a reason to avoid higher kVp values in order to reduce ESE. d. the digital processing software will correct for any kVp value regardless of how high it is in value.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 2:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 2:24 AM 25. With increasing kVp levels, it is important to remember that with digital receptors and DR technologies a. less differential absorption occurs and a narrower histogram results. b. the difference between minimum and maximum incoming photon energies is reduced. c. more anatomical data can be recorded with a lower patient dose. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 2:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 2:59 AM 26. Kilovoltage peak (kVp) controls the proportional relationship of a. mAs and kVp. b. Compton and photoelectric interactions. c. photoelectric and characteristic interactions. d. SID and patient thickness.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 3:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 3:01 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 27 - Contrast 27. What should you expect to occur with a decrease in kVp, using digital receptors? a. an increase in Bremsstrahlung tissue interactions b. more Compton interactions c. a narrower histogram d. more photoelectric interactions ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 3:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 3:06 AM 28. When digital imaging receptors are used, a. kVp is not a consideration. b. radiographic grids are not necessary. c. an exposure at 90 kVp would require a grid. d. Compton scatter is not a factor.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 3:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 3:07 AM 29. All of the following factors would affect radiographic subject contrast EXCEPT a. part thickness. b. average tissue density. c. using barium as a contrast agent. d. LUT selection.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 3:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 3:10 AM 30. An increase in x-ray beam filtration a. increases the number of Compton interactions. b. reduces contrast. c. increases the average photon energy.

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Chapter 27 - Contrast d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 3:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 3:16 AM 31. When choosing between two radiographic grids, the k factor is different. Choosing a grid with the higher K factor a. produces an image with lower contrast. b. results in a higher degree of scatter and secondary radiation clean-up. c. will improve recorded detail. d. requires a reduction in mA to compensate for the added subject contrast.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 3:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 3:20 AM 32. With digital imaging systems, the primary factors affecting final image contrast are the a. window level and brightness. b. histogram and look-up table (LUT). c. EI numbers and S numbers. d. kVp and mAs. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 3:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 3:24 AM 33. Selecting an open-mouth odontoid LUT and applying this LUT to a KUB, will yield a final image with a. low contrast and reduced visibility of detail. b. many subtle gray shades and a longer scale of contrast. c. high contrast visualization of lumbar spine anatomy. d. the look of a high kVp exposure and quantum noise.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 27 - Contrast QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 3:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 3:25 AM Matching Match the following terms with the correct statement below. a. average gradient b. long scale contrast c. Compton interactions d. low contrast e. K factor f. high contrast g. photoelectric interactions h. subject contrast DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 3:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 3:28 AM 34. fewer shades of gray across the final image ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 35. the same as low contrast ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 36. responsible for high contrast densities on images ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 37. contributing factor to total image contrast ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 38. used to calculate slope of the H and D curve ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 39. a value of 2.50 ANSWER: e POINTS: 1

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Chapter 28 - Spatial Resolution Multiple Choice 1. Spatial resolution is a. the degree of geometric sharpness. b. definition. c. the accuracy of the structural lines actually recorded in the radiographic image. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/12/2019 11:50 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/12/2019 11:52 PM 2. The traditional unit of resolution measurement typically used in film/screen imaging is a. dots per millimeter. b. line pairs per millimeter. c. pixel size. d. the DEL size.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:24 AM 3. Poor spatial resolution is caused by unacceptable levels of a. IR exposure. b. umbra. c. penumbra. d. contrast.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:25 AM 4. Which can negatively impact recorded detail? a. using small focal spot Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 28 - Spatial Resolution b. longer SID c. involuntary motion d. minimal OID ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:26 AM 5. Factors affecting recorded detail include a. kVp and filtration. b. radiographic grids and collimation. c. mAs and grid ratio. d. focal spot size and patient thickness.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:27 AM 6. Spatial resolution is improved when a. OID increases. b. OID decreases. c. SID decreases. d. the x-ray tube is angled.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:28 AM 7. Spatial resolution is improved when a. OID increases. b. SID increases. c. SID decreases. d. the receptor is angled.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 28 - Spatial Resolution POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:30 AM 8. Spatial resolution in digital imaging is determined by the a. bit depth. b. matrix size. c. pixel size. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:34 AM 9. Which radiograph below exhibits the best recorded detail? a. a PA chest radiograph for evaluation of the heart at 40 in. b. a PA chest radiograph for evaluation of the heart at 72 in. c. a lordotic projection of the chest at 72”. d. an AP chest radiograph for evaluation of the heart at 72 in.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:35 AM 10. As focal spot size decreases, a. umbra is improved. b. penumbra decreases. c. spatial resolution increases. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 28 - Spatial Resolution DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:37 AM 11. Penumbra decreases as a. focal spot decreases. b. OID decreases. c. SID increases. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:38 AM 12. When switching from a 400 RS film screen combination to a 200 RS system, one should expect a. an increase in spatial resolution. b. to use a longer exposure time. c. a decrease in patient dose. d. a decrease in spatial resolution.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:39 AM 13. In order to improve the temporal resolution on an image, a. a longer SID should be used b. a smaller x-ray beam angle should be used c. a shorter exposure time should be used d. the 15% rule should be considered ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:41 AM 14. The best method for controlling motion when the patient is unable to cooperate is to Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 28 - Spatial Resolution a. decrease the focal spot size. b. maintain mAs, while decreasing time. c. maintain mAs, while decreasing mA. d. decrease kVp. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:43 AM 15. As a last resort, which human immobilizer is used to hold a patient in position? a. the radiography student b. the radiologic technologist c. the ER nurse d. the male relative ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:44 AM 16. The ____ represents a depth to the information in the digital image. a. z axis b. y-x grid matrix c. y axis d. x-y grid matrix ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:45 AM 17. The composite measure of image accuracy compared to the original object, on a scale of 0 to 1 is referred to as? a. line spread function b. modulation transfer function c. point spread function d. noise reduction function Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 28 - Spatial Resolution ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:47 AM 18. All of the following affect visibility of detail EXCEPT a. 15% rule. b. filtration. c. radiographic grids. d. SID. ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:48 AM 19. As object spatial frequencies increase a. MTF increases b. MTF decreases c. Nyquist is not a factor d. MTF is unaffected ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:49 AM 20. A pixel bit depth of 216 will demonstrate _______ shades of gray a. 32 b. 256 c. 4096 d. none of the above ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 28 - Spatial Resolution QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:50 AM 21. As the spatial frequency of objects increases, a. MTF increases proportionally. b. MTF decreases. c. MTF values approach 1. d. MTF computes to a value of 1.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:51 AM 22. For general radiography, an MTF value of 1 is a. average. b. suboptimum. c. theoretically impossible. d. a function of mAs. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:52 AM 23. Imaging noise is different from quantum noise in that imaging noise a. is a function of mAs. b. is dependent upon kVp. c. is inherent in the imaging system. d. cannot be filtered out.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:53 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 28 - Spatial Resolution 24. In general radiography, quantum noise is a. filtered out of images. b. a function of mAs and kVp. c. designed into the receptor specifications. d. a recorded detail parameter.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:55 AM 25. The Nyquist frequency is a. important in analog imaging. b. sampling a minimum of twice per cycle. c. unique to radiography. d. related to involuntary motion.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:56 AM 26. In digital imaging systems, increasing sampling frequency of the data a. increases dose. b. increases image fidelity. c. decreases MTF. d. decreases dose.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:57 AM 27. When the sampling frequency is less than the Nyquist value, a. aliasing is eliminated. b. the Moire effect can occur.

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Chapter 28 - Spatial Resolution c. patient dose must increase. d. the Nyquist value must be altered.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 2:59 AM 28. The overall general shape of human anatomical structures are a. round or oval. b. linear. c. cuboid. d. curvilinear.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 2:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 3:00 AM 29. A digital detector with a high fill factor a. will produce poor resolution. b. will require longer processing time. c. will produce high resolution. d. requires more radiation exposure.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 3:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 3:01 AM 30. You have completed a chest radiograph on a 2-month-old infant using a restraining device at a 72” SID. Because of the design of the device, your OID is suboptimum. The image reveals good resolution of the bony anatomy but the pulmonary vasculature is blurred. The EI value is 2040 and the target EI value is 2000. In an effort to improve the quality of the repeat image, the competent radiographer would a. raise the mA and decrease the exposure time. b. decrease the SID and maintain the same mAs. c. switch to small focal spot.

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Chapter 28 - Spatial Resolution d. ask for mild sedation of the infant to decease respiration.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 3:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 3:02 AM 31. On a PA projection of the wrist, you notice what appears to be a soft tissue mass superimposed over the bony anatomy. When you inspect the patient, you notice the presence of a large linear scar from a previous injury. The visualization of this scar is primarily due to what characteristic of digital detectors? a. temporal resolution b. low contrast resolution c. high contrast resolution d. the DEL fill factor ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 3:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 3:04 AM 32. Quantum noise impacts radiographic image quality by a. decreasing geometric unsharpness. b. increasing temporal resolution. c. diminishing the visibility of recorded detail. d. adding artifacts to the image.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 3:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 3:05 AM 33. From the choices below, select the FALSE statement regarding Contrast-Noise-Ratio(CNR) a. It is the ratio of the signal difference between areas of interest b. It is affected by SNR c. A high CNR is only possible with a low SNR d. If image noise is high, the CNR will be low ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 28 - Spatial Resolution POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 3:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 3:06 AM 34. A convenient and easy patient immobilization method an experienced radiographer will use is a. a high mA and short exposure time b. a high kVp and low mA c. a piece of tape wrapped around the patient’s anatomy d. a tissue bolus material to hold the body part in position ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 3:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 3:08 AM 35. Of the choices given below, which one would yield the highest image quality? a. 600 mA, 85 kVp, .70 sec. exp time, 1.2 mm fs, 1.5 mm Al filtration, 4 lp/mm, MTF= 40% b. 300 mA, 97 kVp, .35 sec exp time 1.2 mm fs, 1.5 mm Al filtration, 3 lp/mm, MTF= 25% c. 600 mA, 85 kVp, .70 sec exp time 0.6 mm fs, 1.0 mm Al filtration, 1.5 lp/mm, MTF= 60% d. 200 mA, 110 kVp, .25 sec exp time, 2.0 mm fs 1.2 mm Al filtration 2 lp/mm, MTF = 30% ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 3:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 3:09 AM Matching Match the following choices with respect to recorded detail. a. PSF b. quantum noise c. resolution increase d. MTF e. Nyquist f. LSF g. aliasing h. loss of visibility of detail DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 28 - Spatial Resolution DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 3:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 3:11 AM 36. sampling 2x/cycle ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 37. results from insufficient mAs ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 38. switching from 10:1 grid to 6:1 grid ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 39. creates a Moire effect ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 40. quantification of an imaging system’s fidelity ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 41. switching from a RS 400 receptor to a RS 200 receptor ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Problem 42. Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 1.0 mm focal spot, at a 40 in. distance, and OID of 2 in.

0.05 mm ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 3:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 3:13 AM 43. Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 40 in. distance, and OID of 2 in.

0.10 mm ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 3:13 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 28 - Spatial Resolution DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 3:14 AM 44. Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 1.0 mm focal spot, at a 40 in. distance and OID of 5 in.

0.14 mm ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 3:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 3:15 AM 45. Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 72 in. distance, and OID of 1 in.

0.03 mm ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 3:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 3:16 AM 46. Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 72 in. distance, and OID of 6 in.

0.18 mm ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 3:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 3:17 AM 47. Calculate the SID necessary to achieve a penumbra of 0.8 mm if the focal spot size is 1.0 mm and the object is 3 inches from the detector.

SID = 40” ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 3:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 3:18 AM

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Chapter 29 - Distortion Multiple Choice 1. Distortion is a misrepresentation of a. size only. b. shape only. c. size and shape. d. detail.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:26 AM 2. Size distortion in radiography can be ____ only. a. foreshortening b. magnification c. elongation d. minimization ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:32 AM 3. Size distortion is controlled by a. SID. b. OID. c. radiographic distances. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:39 AM 4. As size distortion decreases, the resolution of recorded detail a. increases.

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Chapter 29 - Distortion b. decreases. c. is not affected. d. is altered due to digital reprocessing.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:44 AM 5. The ____ the SID, the ____ the degree of magnification. a. greater; larger b. greater; smaller c. lesser; smaller d. SID has no effect on magnification.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 1:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 1:06 AM 6. Examinations of body parts with a large inherent OID warrant a ____ whenever possible. a. small SID b. large SID c. small SOD d. large focal spot ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 1:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 1:10 AM 7. Which examination does not exhibit an inherently large OID? a. AP lumbar spine b. lateral cervical spine c. lateral chest d. AP facial bones ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 29 - Distortion POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 1:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 1:16 AM 8. As OID increases and SID remains constant, entrance skin exposure (ESE) a. remains unchanged. b. decreases. c. increases. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 1:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 1:26 AM 9. Large patients receive a greater exposure than small patients because their a. SOD is decreased. b. OID is increased. c. entrance skin surface is closer to the source. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 3:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 3:26 AM 10. The magnification factor for a radiographic procedure is calculated at 1.25. It may be assumed that there is a ____ magnification of the object size. a. 25 percent b. 125 percent c. 0.25 percent d. 1.25 percent ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 29 - Distortion HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 3:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 3:28 AM 11. Which of the following occurs when the tube or the image receptor are not properly aligned? a. elongation b. magnification c. foreshortening d. minification ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 3:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 8:54 PM 12. Which one of the following occurs when the part is improperly aligned? a. elongation b. magnification c. foreshortening d. minification ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 8:54 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 8:57 PM 13. Proper alignment is achieved when the central ray is ____ to the part and ____ to the image receptor. a. perpendicular; parallel b. parallel; perpendicular c. perpendicular; perpendicular d. parallel; parallel ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 8:57 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 8:58 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 29 - Distortion 14. When the position of the patient is reversed, the direction of the tube angle must be ____ to maintain the relationship. a. maintained b. decreased c. increased d. reversed ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 8:59 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:01 PM 15. Because the x-ray beam is divergent, a. minification is impossible. b. minification is collimated off from the edges of the beam. c. minification is greater with a smaller target angle. d. minification is greater with a larger target angle.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:02 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:05 PM 16. X-ray tube angulations inherently a. increase spatial resolution. b. change the SID. c. introduce magnification to some degree. d. both b and c.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:05 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:07 PM 17. In order to achieve a true SID of 40” with an x-ray tube angle of 30 degrees, the overhead scale should read a. 23 inches. b. 95 cm. c. 34.6 inches.

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Chapter 29 - Distortion d. both b and c.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:07 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:13 PM 18. Performing a routine chest radiograph in the anterioposterior (AP) projection will a. decrease heart size on the image. b. demonstrate higher resolution of the anterior ribs. c. produce improved resolution of the thoracic spine. d. decrease breast exposure.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:14 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:16 PM 19. A renal calculus that measures 0.2 mm in size a. cannot be visualized with an effective focal spot of 0.5 mm focal spot due to penumbral overlap. b. is best seen with magnification and a large focal spot. c. most likely will be visualized with a small radiographic tube angle using a large target angle. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:17 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:19 PM 20. Opening up the intervertebral joints of the cervical spine would best be accomplished with a. the patient in a PA projection at 72” SID. b. the patient in an AP projection with a 40” SID. c. a perpendicular central ray at 72” SID. d. the patient in a PA projection with a 40” SID. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 29 - Distortion QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:20 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:22 PM 21. With digital image receptors (CR/DR) a. the geometric factors of distortion do not apply. b. EI#s are inaccurate due to elongation distortion. c. computer postprocessing corrects for shape distortion. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:23 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:25 PM 22. A radiographic magnification factor(MF) of −.15 indicates a. the object size and image size are nearly equal. b. nothing, since negative MF is not possible. c. the image size is smaller than the object size. d. a change in OID is needed.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:20 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:23 PM 23. Enlargement of a digital radiographic image on the review monitor, is an example of a. purposeful geometric magnification. b. electronic magnification. c. shape distortion. d. digital histogram distortion.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:24 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:26 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 29 - Distortion 24. Positioning patients is intended to eliminate anatomical superimposition, from a radiologist perspective. To optimize image resolution it is best to a. keep the central ray and receptor perpendicular to the patient’s anatomy, and rotate the part. b. minimize central angulation and rotate the part only slightly. c. use the small focal spot and extend the degree of part rotation. d. lower the SID and increase the OID with part rotation.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:26 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:38 AM 25. Shape distortion is calculated a. as the ratio of SID and SOD. b. using the tube angle and OID. c. automatically in the computer postprocessing. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:28 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:31 PM Matching Match the following choices with the appropriate statement. a. kidneys b. SID ÷ SOD c. elongation d. SOD e. object size f. scapula g. foreshortening h. patella DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:31 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:37 PM 26. ratio between image size and MF ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 29 - Distortion 27. an image in which the object is actually shorter ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 28. best seen with the patient supine ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 29. MF ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 30. SID ÷ MF ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 31. inherently magnified in AP projection ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 Problem 32. Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 40 in. and the SOD is 25 in.

1.6 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:38 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:46 AM 33. Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 72 in. and the SOD is 25 in.

2.9 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:40 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:51 AM 34. Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 40 in. and the OID is 5 in.

1.14 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 29 - Distortion QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:42 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:50 AM 35. Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 72 in. and the OID is 2 in.

1.0 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:49 AM 36. If a projected image measures 3 in. and the magnification factor is 1.1, what is the size of the actual object?

2.7 in.

ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:48 AM 37. If an object is measured as 4 in. in diameter on the image and 2 in. from the film, what is the actual size of the object if the SID is 40 in.?

3.8 in.

ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:48 AM 38. If an object is measured as 4 in. in diameter on the image and 4 in. from the film, what is the actual size of the object if the SID is 40 in.?

3.6 in.

ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:47 AM 39. If an object measures 2 cm and the image measures 4 cm, what is the percent magnification of the object?

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Chapter 29 - Distortion 100percent ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:47 AM 40. If an object measures 2 cm and the image measures 3 cm, what would be the percent magnification of the object?

50 percent ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:46 AM

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Chapter 30 - The Art of Image Critique Multiple Choice 1. Select the TRUE statement from the choices below. a. The art of image critique is the application of scientific knowledge to the analysis of an image. b. If an image is within acceptable limits, it is always of optimal image quality. c. Photographic problems involve the production of recorded detail. d. The cause of an unacceptable or suboptimal image includes technical factors only.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 12:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 12:35 AM 2. Image critique is particularly challenging with current technology due to the problems centering around a. patient positioning. b. patient preparation procedures. c. the sophistication of the digital technologies used. d. new x-ray tube designs providing much higher resolution with decreased heat loading.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 8:18 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 3:05 AM 3. Generally speaking, the process of image analysis should start with a. the formulation of a hypothesis as to cause. b. a review of the entire image. c. the identification of patterns or cues. d. the selection of a final hypothesis as to a cause of the problem.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:05 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:07 PM 4. With film-screen radiography, the largest percentage of image quality problems center around a. film-screen contact.

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Chapter 30 - The Art of Image Critique b. inconsistent film quality from manufacturers. c. automatic processing. d. darkroom errors.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:07 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:10 PM 5. As medical imaging continues to adopt digital imaging technologies, one of the greatest challenges for technologists regarding image analysis will be a. clearly identifying the problem as a photographic vs. geometric problem with detail. b. identifying possible causes that may be electronic in nature. c. determining if postprocessing algorithms are accurate. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:13 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:14 PM 6. All of the following are related EXCEPT a. exposure timer error. b. technical factor problem. c. equipment malfunction problem. d. procedural factor problem.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:14 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:15 PM 7. All of the following would be classified as technical factor problems EXCEPT a. the presence of grid aliasing on a CR image. b. the presence of residual barium in the patient’s colon scheduled for an IVU exam. c. low-resolution images with a loss of recorded detail. d. an unexpectedly high EI value after using exposure values that are known to be correct.

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Chapter 30 - The Art of Image Critique ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:15 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:16 PM 8. Images that are grossly underexposed a. will demonstrate electronic noise. b. will have a low S#. c. will possess poor visibility of detail. d. will have a large EI value.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:16 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:17 PM 9. Problems with radiographic/fluoroscopic equipment image quality can be kept to a minimum by a. cross-training radiographers to perform equipment service. b. x-ray equipment service contracts. c. allowing in-house biomed staff to perform first-line service. d. a quality control program.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:17 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:18 PM 10. The presence of the Moire effect on an image indicates a problem with a. a flat panel detector. b. a procedural factor. c. a CR cassette and grid. d. the Bucky mechanism.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 30 - The Art of Image Critique HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:19 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:19 PM 11. Static marks on a film radiographic image represents a. a procedural factor problem. b. a recorded detail problem. c. a visibility of detail problem. d. an equipment malfunction problem.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:20 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:26 PM 12. A photographic problem with visibility of detail would be likely due to a. improper SID. b. improper OID. c. inadequate kVp. d. improper focal spot selection.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:26 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:28 PM 13. If the electronic timer of a high-frequency generator is suspect, a. a standard spinning top test should be performed. b. the image will usually demonstrate quantum noise in excess. c. an exposure time modifier should be calculated and incorporated into future exposures. d. a qualified service engineer should be called.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:29 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:30 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 30 - The Art of Image Critique 14. A film-screen image that demonstrates too little contrast would represent a. a procedural factor problem. b. an equipment malfunction problem. c. a technical factor problem. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:30 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:31 PM 15. Geometric problems dealing with distortion could be due to a. focal spot selection. b. x-ray tube alignment. c. collimation problems. d. inadequate mAs. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:43 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:46 PM 16. An image is presented to the department quality control coordinator by a disgruntled radiologist that shows an asymmetrically narrowed ankle mortis on an AP projection. His dissatisfaction would be most likely classified as a a. technical factor distortion problem. b. procedural factor patient preparation problem. c. procedural factor patient positioning problem. d. technical factor tube alignment problem.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:51 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:56 PM 17. Technical factor problems can include both a. equipment and technologist problems. b. procedural and room scheduling problems.

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Chapter 30 - The Art of Image Critique c. equipment and image processing problems. d. photographic and geometric problems.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:56 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:59 PM 18. An optimal diagnostic quality radiograph a. is always within acceptable limits. b. is always the same as a diagnostic image. c. will generally look better when geometrically magnified. d. may warrant an ALARA violation.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:02 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:03 PM 19. The three alignment factors include the a. part, AEC detector combination, and CR. b. central ray, grid, and Bucky. c. CR plate, reader laser, and collimation. d. x-ray tube, part, and receptor.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:04 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:05 PM 20. Select the FALSE statement from the choices below. a. Geometric problems include patient motion. b. Equipment malfunction involves radiographic/fluoroscopic equipment only. c. Receptor exposure problems include mAs and grid selection choices. d. Inadequate inspiration on a chest radiograph is a procedural problem.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 30 - The Art of Image Critique DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:05 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:06 PM 21. You have just completed an AP projection of the knee using a DR detector. On review of the image, the image demonstrates a series of several, thin white lines across the bottom third of the image. One of your colleagues immediately states that the image problem is due to grid cut-off and tells you to repeat it without the use of the grid. Your response should be to a. try and remove the lines with postprocessing software. b. assume the coworker is correct and repeat the image. c. analyze the image further to look for nongrid technical issues. d. magnify the image to look for quantum mottle.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:06 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:13 PM 22. An effective and reliable assessment of DR image quality, from an exposure intensity standpoint, is to a. look at the Deviation Index number. b. magnify the image to inspect for noise. c. reference your exposure techniques pocket guide for acceptable noise levels. d. look at the Exposure Index(EI) number and reference the EI target numbers.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:14 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:15 PM 23. As you are performing a KUB on a 375 lb. male patient using AEC, the exposure terminates within 1–2

milliseconds. The DR image displayed following exposure demonstrates objectionable quantum noise. The likely cause can be classified as a(n) a. equipment malfunction problem b. procedural problem c. technical problem d. all of the above ANSWER:

d

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Chapter 30 - The Art of Image Critique POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:16 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:18 PM 24. A radiologist who complains about an inability to assess heart size on a PA chest radiograph because of patient rotation, is likely upset about a. a procedural problem. b. the margins of acceptable image quality are set too narrow. c. a technical problem. d. very poor temporal resolution.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:19 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:20 PM 25. The presence of two opaque metallic objects in the region of C1–C2 on a lateral cervical spine projection is an example of a. an ethical violation. b. a procedural issue. c. electronic artifacts from the display monitor. d. a technical problem.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:20 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:23 PM Matching Match the following choices with the appropriate statement as they relate to image critique. a. improper patient preparation b. an S# of 50 c. barium still remaining in small bowel d. small focal spot not selected e. image cut-off along the long dimension of a cassette f. presence of grid lines on image g. white specks on final images h. hypothesis DIFFICULTY: Difficult Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 30 - The Art of Image Critique QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:23 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:27 PM 26. possible ethical ALARA violation ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 27. AEC hits back-up mAs setting ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 28. possible explanation of image quality cues ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 29. equipment malfunction problem ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 30. poor visibility of bony trabeculae ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 31. residual feces in bowel ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 32. image receptor alignment problem ANSWER: e POINTS: 1

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Chapter 31 - Quality Management Multiple Choice 1. Quality assurance includes each of the following EXCEPT a. equipment maintenance. b. radiology reports accuracy. c. diagnosis of images. d. scheduling.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:14 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:15 PM 2. The largest hospital accreditation agency is the a. MSQA. b. The Joint Commission. c. Det Norske Veritas (DVN). d. FDA. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:16 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:17 PM 3. The Joint Commission approval is linked to ____ reimbursements. a. federal b. state c. insurance company d. all of the above ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:17 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:18 PM 4. Input for the purchase of new radiographic equipment should include the a. radiologists.

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Chapter 31 - Quality Management b. radiographers. c. administrators. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:19 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:20 PM 5. Installation and acceptance testing of equipment is the responsibility of the a. radiation physicist. b. radiology supervisor. c. radiology equipment vendor. d. biomedical engineering department.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:20 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:22 PM 6. Routine quality management procedures should be performed by the a. radiation physicist. b. qualified radiographer. c. chief radiologist. d. biomedical engineering staff.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:22 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:23 PM 7. Which quality control should be done on a regular, ongoing basis? a. collimator accuracy b. focal spot size estimation c. image repeat analysis d. beam HVL ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 31 - Quality Management POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:52 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:54 PM 8. Each of the following monitoring tests should be done on a semiannual basis EXCEPT a. processor sensitometry. b. focal spot size estimation. c. collimator accuracy. d. kilovoltage accuracy.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:54 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:55 PM 9. Test tools for focal spot size estimation include each of the following EXCEPT a a. pinhole camera. b. star test pattern. c. line pair resolution tool. d. motorized synchronous top.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 9:57 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 9:58 PM 10. Focal spots measuring 0.3 mm or less should be measured with a a. star test pattern. b. pinhole camera. c. spinning top. d. dosimeter.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 31 - Quality Management DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:02 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:03 PM 11. Focal spots measuring 0.3 mm or more should be measured with a a. star test pattern. b. pinhole camera. c. spinning top. d. SMPTE pattern.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:05 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:07 PM 12. Which type of equipment is used to measure half-value layers? a. wire mesh test tool b. goniometer c. dosimetry equipment d. DUKE chest phantom ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:07 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:09 PM 13. When testing collimator accuracy, an SID error of ____ is allowed. a. 20 percent b. 10 percent c. 2 percent d. 0 percent ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:10 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:11 PM 14. The centering mark should be within ____ of the light field central ray.

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Chapter 31 - Quality Management a. 0 percent b. 1 percent c. 11 percent d. 100 percent ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:13 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:15 PM 15. Distance indicators are checked with a a. chalk line. b. cell phone. c. laser. d. tape measure.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:15 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:17 PM 16. A generator must be recalibrated when the kVp drifts beyond ____ kVp of the labeled setting. a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 12 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:17 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:18 PM 17. The accuracy of single-phase generator time settings can be measured with a a. sensitometer. b. densitometer. c. computerize dosimeter. d. penetrometer.

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Chapter 31 - Quality Management ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:19 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:21 PM 18. A thorough reject analysis program would include data collection on images produced a. by each technologist. b. in each radiographic room. c. by service engineers. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:22 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:24 PM 19. Exposure time settings should be maintained within ____ of the labeled setting. a. + 5 percent b. + 10 percent c. + 15 percent d. 0 percent ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:25 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:26 PM 20. The source-to-skin distance limit for a stationary fluoroscopic unit is ____ inches. a. 5 b. 12 c. 15 d. 25 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 31 - Quality Management HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:26 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:28 PM 21. Tomographic system uniformity and completeness of motion are tested with a a. pinhole camera. b. wire mesh. c. lead mask with a pinhole. d. moving pendulum angle indicator.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:30 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:31 PM 22. Tomographic systems should be tested for each of the following EXCEPT a. automatic brightness control. b. completeness of motion. c. section depth indicator accuracy. d. section thickness accuracy.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:31 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:33 PM 23. Most AECs utilize a ____ ion chamber combination. a. single b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:34 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:35 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 31 - Quality Management 24. Computerized storage and transmission systems for digitized images of all types are called a. DSR. b. MRI. c. CT. d. PACS. ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:35 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:36 PM 25. The accuracy of mA stations on a radiographic generator a. should be measured after the timer and kVp accuracy have been confirmed. b. tend to drift as the tube ages. c. are measured using mR/mAs calculations across all mA stations. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:37 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:38 PM 26. You have just taken a CR radiograph of a patient’s knee and the S# is 225. Unfortunately, the image has some degree of motion distortion and needs to be repeated using the same exposure settings. In repeating the image, the new image shows no motion but the S# is now 400. No changes were made to collimation, patient position, exposure techniques, etc.

Based upon this new S# value, a. exposure reproducibility is suspect. b. the mR/mAs is of no concern. c. the exposure reproducibility is within tolerable limits. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:39 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:41 PM 27. A qualified x-ray service engineer should be used to evaluate and correct the following radiographic/fluoroscopic imaging features: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 31 - Quality Management 1. exam room repeat rates 2. automatic brightness control 3. source-to-skin distance limits 4. fluoroscopic contrast 5. image display monitor brightness/contrast 6. AEC reproducibility a. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only b. 2, 3, 5, and 6 only c. 2, 4, 5, and 6 only d. 1, 3, 4, and 6 only ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:41 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:44 PM 28. Digital detectors with a higher DQE will a. require more dose to image adequately. b. produce better images of small objects with low subject contrast. c. produce a higher S:N ratio. d. offer wider exposure latitude and lead to overexposures.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:45 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:47 PM 29. A common device to measure display monitor quality and characteristics is a/an a. screen contact test tool. b. foot candles spectrometer. c. ABC resolution phantom. d. luminance meter.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:47 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:49 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 31 - Quality Management 30. An effective method to assess department image quality is to perform a repeat image analysis. This procedure will demonstrate which of the following department traits?

1. percent of repeat images per room 2. percent of repeat images per radiographer 3. automatic brightness control instability 4. radiologist interpretation accuracy 5. radiographer positioning accuracy 6. patient exam waiting times 7. equipment malfunctions 8. radiographer exposure technique accuracy 9. transmission times to PACS a. 1, 2, 3, 7, and 9 only b. 1, 2, 5, 7, and 8 only c. 3, 4, 6, 7, and 9 only d. 2, 5, and 8 only ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:51 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:52 PM Matching Match the following choices with the correct statement as each relates to quality management. a. computerized dosimeter b. 2 percent of SID c. DQE d. MQSA e. 12 inches f. S:N ratio g. exposure reproducibility h. 15 inches DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 10:52 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 10:55 PM 31. A value of 1 is ideal.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 32. used to check high-frequency generator timer.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 33. enacted in 1992 to improve image quality and diagnostic accuracy.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 31 - Quality Management POINTS:

1

34. collimator-to-receptor accuracy.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 35. minimum SSD for portable fluoroscopic units.

ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 36. 20 mAs is 20 mAs, repeatedly.

ANSWER: g POINTS: 1

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Chapter 32 - Mobile Radiography Multiple Choice 1. Mobile examinations are difficult to accomplish because a. mobile equipment exposure techniques are dependent upon hospital power. b. stationary equipment is more reliable. c. exam conditions can vary widely. d. patient beds produce image artifacts.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:09 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:10 PM 2. Mobile examinations often require a. special adaptations of routine projections. b. imaginative equipment manipulation. c. innovative technical factor considerations. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:10 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:12 PM 3. In surgery or in the emergency unit, which situation should be considered? a. the stress of performing in a high-tension environment b. limitations due to aseptic conditions c. the presence of additional critical equipment d. all of the above ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:13 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:14 PM 4. Before entering a surgical suite, who must be consulted? a. the unit receptionist Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 32 - Mobile Radiography b. the attending physician c. the surgical technician d. any of the above ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:14 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:16 PM 5. When it is determined that air–fluid level demonstration is a priority, ____ projection(s) may be required for ____. a. one; air–fluid levels b. two; one inspiration and one expiration c. two; one AP and one lateral projection d. two; air–fluid levels and a normal projection of the chest ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:16 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:18 PM 6. Radiographers should move ____ away from the patient prior to making an exposure. a. 3 feet b. 4 feet c. 6 feet d. nine ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:19 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:20 PM 7. During mobile radiography, it is the radiographer’s responsibility to protect a. the patient. b. other health professionals. c. the public. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 32 - Mobile Radiography POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:21 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:23 PM 8. During mobile radiography, it is the radiographer’s responsibility to request that ____ leave the immediate area prior to exposure. a. physicians b. family members c. health professionals d. all of the above ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:23 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:26 PM 9. How many lead aprons should be carried to a mobile radiographic examination? a. none; lead aprons are not necessary b. one for the radiographer c. one for the patient d. two: one for the patient and one for the radiographer ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:27 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:28 PM 10. During mobile radiography, the radiographer must achieve maximum distance primarily from the a. patient. b. mobile unit. c. image receptor. d. x-ray tube.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 32 - Mobile Radiography HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:29 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:31 PM 11. The more advanced, full-power mobile units use ____ energy for a power supply. a. microwave b. battery c. capacitor d. alternating current ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:31 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:35 PM 12. Output from battery-operated units is essentially a. single-phase unrectified. b. single-phase, fully rectified. c. three-phase, 6 pulse. d. high frequency.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:35 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:38 PM 13. All of the following are true of battery-powered mobile units EXCEPT: a. Their output is a function of current supplied by the batteries. b. They are quite popular due to their constant and predictable output. c. Their maneuverability can be a challenge based upon their weight and size. d. The final kVp is variable as a function of exposure time.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:39 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:40 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 32 - Mobile Radiography 14. During optimal mobile radiography of the chest, the recommended SID is ____ inches. a. 72 b. 56 c. 40 d. 36 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:42 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:43 PM 15. When performing a portable chest image on a broad-chested male patient, placing the receptor in a transverse orientation a. requires a short axis grid. b. can eliminate the need for a grid. c. requires a longer SID than 72”. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:44 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:45 PM 16. Which grid type would permit wide exposure and centering latitude and would therefore be preferred for mobile radiography? a. 6:1 b. 8:1 c. 10:1 d. 12:1 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:46 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:48 PM 17. With current, state-of-the-art portable units, a. kVp is used to compensate for insufficient mAs. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 32 - Mobile Radiography b. it is safe to stand behind the unit for protection. c. the batteries provide power for exposures and travel. d. higher ratio grids are necessary.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:48 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:50 PM 18. For mobile radiography, radiographic grids should have a a. high ratio and low frequency. b. low ratio and low frequency. c. short focal range. d. low ratio and high frequency.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:50 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:52 PM 19. Modern DR mobile radiographic units possess a. a flat panel detector for image review. b. disposable, single-use batteries. c. a cabinet for multiple DR receptor storage. d. remote exposure controls.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:53 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:55 PM 20. A common cause for repeat examinations in DR mobile radiography is due to a. equipment reliability. b. angulation of grids and grid-off. c. variations in image brightness and contrast. d. low image contrast.

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 32 - Mobile Radiography POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:55 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:57 PM 21. Batteries used in mobile radiographic machines a. are rechargeable. b. provide power for mobility only. c. recharge using 220–240 V AC power. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:58 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:59 PM 22. If the radiographer is unable to achieve a 72” SID during mobile chest radiography, an alternative distance to use is a. 40”. b. 48”. c. 56”. d. 60”.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:03 AM 23. If a chest radiograph requires 4 mAs at 72”, the new mAs to use at 56” would be a. 3 mAs. b. 2.4 mAs. c. 1.5 mAs. d. 0.5 mAs. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 32 - Mobile Radiography DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:08 AM 24. The preferred method for demonstrating air fluid levels during mobile radiography is to make sure that the a. SID is 60”. b. patient is sitting fully erect. c. radiographic grid has carbon-fiber interspace material. d. a nurse listens to the chest to indicate the air–fluid level location.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:12 AM 25. All of the following features are essential to a mobile radiographic unit EXCEPT a. expandable 6-foot exposure cord. b. automatic exposure control with single field. c. dead-man type exposure switch. d. clear display of exposure factors.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:16 AM 26. As you prepare to complete a portable chest radiograph on a patient with possible congestive heart failure, you notice several tubes and lines going into the patient. Prior to making the exposure, you should a. adjust your kVp to penetrate the opacity of the lines. b. ask a nurse to move the lines from the image area. c. ask an orderly to hold the lines up and out of your exposure field. d. remove the lines that are nonvital and complete the exam.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:18 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 32 - Mobile Radiography 27. As you complete a trauma knee exam in the ER on a MVA patient, the ER physician indicates they suspect a fracture that is not clearly visible. He/she asks you to take another image to see if there is the presence of a lipohemoarthrosis. In order to visualize this diagnostic finding, you would a. indicate that it is not a radiology protocol and call the radiologist. b. set up for a cross-table lateral projection of the knee, to look for fat-blood layering on the image. c. call CT and inform that you are recommending a CT exam of the knee. d. set up for an upright, weight-bearing knee in the ER suite at an expanded SID. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:25 AM 28. When using a DR detector while performing a portable chest radiograph on a patient in the ICU a. you must be aware of electrical shorts and shocks from the detector. b. exposure technique charts are of little value due to the exposure latitude of the DR detector. c. you should increase the optimum exposure by 75 percent to ensure low quantum noise. d. you should pay particular attention to patient clothing and lines to prevent image artifacts.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:35 AM 29. A tethered DR detector with a portable radiographic unit a. is wireless with no wire connection. b. is more stable than a wireless DR detector. c. is hard-wired to the portable for power and data transfer. d. automatically sets the exposure factors based upon patient weight.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:37 AM 30. Quantum noise that occurs on a portable radiographic image, is typically the result of a. under exposure.

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Chapter 32 - Mobile Radiography b. patient involuntary motion. c. poor electrical connections due to frayed wires. d. a grid ratio that is too low.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:40 AM Matching Match the following items with the correct statement as they relate to mobile radiography. a. 110–120 volts b. establishing patient rapport c. Picker Corporation d. high-frequency output e. 56 inches f. rechargeable batteries g. tethered detector h. low ratio and high frequency i. dead man switch j. CVP line DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:44 AM 31. digital receptor with electrical cord ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 32. x-ray beam quality with current-day portable units ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 33. typical power source for recharging batteries ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 34. convenient SID for mobile radiography ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 35. first to develop a portable unit ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 32 - Mobile Radiography 36. preferred radiographic grid characteristics for mobile radiography ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 37. parking the portable outside the patient room ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 38. should be repositioned prior to exposure after consulting a nurse or physician ANSWER: j POINTS: 1

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Chapter 33 - Fluoroscopy Multiple Choice 1. Fluoroscopy is a ____ x-ray examination. a. dynamic, real-time b. digital, static c. therapeutic d. nonionizing ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:42 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:43 PM 2. Fluoroscopy is primarily the domain of the a. radiographer. b. radiologist. c. radiation physicist. d. radiology manager.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:43 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:44 PM 3. Fluoroscopy is commonly used for observation of a. healing bone fractures. b. growing breast cysts. c. small bowel disorders. d. central nervous system tumors.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:48 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:49 PM 4. The fluoroscopic x-ray tube and image receptor are mounted a. on a carriage assembly.

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Chapter 33 - Fluoroscopy b. coincident to each other. c. from the ceiling. d. orthogonal to each other.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:50 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:51 PM 5. The fluoroscopic carriage commonly supports the a. image receptor. b. power-assist drive controls. c. fluoroscopic and digital controls. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:51 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:52 PM 6. The fluoroscopic mA range is commonly ____ mA. a. 0.5 to 5.0 b. 5.0 to 10.0 c. 10.0 to 100 d. 100 to 500 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:53 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:53 PM 7. During fluoroscopy, the SOD on a fixed unit cannot be less than ____ inches. a. 12 b. 15 c. 20 d. 40 ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 33 - Fluoroscopy POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:54 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:54 PM 8. During fluoroscopic image intensification, the primary x-ray beam exits the patient and strikes the ____ of the image intensifier. a. input screen b. electrostatic lenses c. photocathode d. output screen ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:55 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:56 PM 9. The input screen absorbs ____ and emits ____. a. x-ray photons; light photons b. x-ray photons; electrons c. light photons; x-ray photons d. electrons; x-ray photons ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:56 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:57 PM 10. The photocathode absorbs ____ and emits ____. a. x-ray photons; light photons b. light photons; electrons c. light photons; x-ray photons d. electrons; light photons ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 33 - Fluoroscopy HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:57 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/14/2019 11:58 PM 11. Electrostatic lenses are used to accelerate and focus a. light photons. b. x-ray photons. c. electrons. d. scattered photons.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/14/2019 11:59 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:00 AM 12. The primary ____ occurs from the acceleration and focusing of the electron beam. a. phosphorescence b. minification c. magnification d. brightness gain ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:01 AM 13. The output screen absorbs ____ and emits ____. a. electrons; light photons b. electrons; x-ray photons c. light photons; electrons d. light photons; x-ray photons ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:02 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 33 - Fluoroscopy 14. The input screen of an image intensifier is ____ in shape. a. oval b. rectilinear c. concave d. convex ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:06 AM 15. The shape of the image intensifier input screen helps to control a. image distortion. b. pixel binning. c. electron scattering. d. minification.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:07 AM 16. The photocathode of an image intensifier is composed of ____ metals. a. TFT b. photoabsorptive c. photoemissive d. electrostatic ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:08 AM 17. Photoemissive materials absorb ____ and emit ____. a. x-ray photons; light photons b. light photons; electrons c. light photons; x-ray photons Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 33 - Fluoroscopy d. x-ray photons; electrons ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:10 AM 18. Electrostatic focusing lenses are actually a. concave optical lenses. b. convex optical lenses. c. planar lenses. d. charged electrodes.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:12 AM 19. The greater the voltage supplied to the electrostatic lenses, the ____ the acceleration and the ____ the focal point to the input screen. a. greater; farther b. greater; closer c. lesser; smaller d. greater; larger ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:13 AM 20. Total brightness gain in an image intensifier is a. a measure of the increase in image intensity. b. determined by minification gain. c. determined by flux gain. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 33 - Fluoroscopy DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:30 AM 21. Fluoroscopic resolution with image intensification will vary according to the a. minification gain. b. electrostatic focal point. c. input and output screen diameter. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:16 AM 22. The edge distortion problem in image intensification tubes is called a. minification. b. magnification. c. vignetting. d. blooming.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:17 AM 23. The most common solution for quantum mottle is to a. increase the fluorotube mA. b. increase the distance between the patient and the primary barrier. c. decrease the efficiency of the input screen. d. decrease the efficiency of the flux gain.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:17 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 33 - Fluoroscopy DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:18 AM 24. A fluoroscopic image that appears dark during fluoroscopy indicates a. too much radiation is striking the output phosphor. b. too little radiation is hitting the input phosphor. c. the fluoroscopic filed size exceeds the dimension of the input phosphor. d. the fluoroscopist has exceeded the limits of the fluoroscopic generator.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:20 AM 25. With a flat panel, digital fluoroscopic detector, image noise can be reduced by a. pixel binning. b. selecting smaller DEL dimensions. c. using detectors with a lower quantum detection efficiency (DQE). d. selecting the magnification mode.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:22 AM 26. Digitization of the fluoroscopic image permits a. image postprocessing. b. transfer via PACS. c. electronic archival. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:23 AM 27. Digital fluoro pixels are between ____ µm. a. 50 and 75 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 33 - Fluoroscopy b. 100 and 200 c. 200 and 400 d. 500 and 600 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:24 AM 28. Flat panel digital detectors used for fluoroscopy use a. amorphous silicon as the digital detector. b. a cesium iodide scintillator. c. TFT technology. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:26 AM 29. All of the following are true of flat panel, digital fluoroscopic systems EXCEPT a. there is no dose increase in the magnification mode b. digital detectors offer less peripheral image blooming c. the photoconductive layer in a digital fluoroscopic detector is amorphous selenium d. there is no peripheral image falloff as the detector is a flat surface ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:27 AM 30. All of the following are common post-processing features with digital fluoroscopy EXCEPT a. last image hold (LIH). b. digital subtraction. c. window level and width. d. edge enhancement.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 33 - Fluoroscopy POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:28 AM 31. During fluoroscopy, the principal source of radiation exposure to personnel in the room is the a. fluoroscopy x-ray tube. b. patient. c. radiologist. d. table top surface.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:30 AM 32. In a fluoroscopy system, the x-ray tube and image receptor must be interlocked in order to enable fluoroscopy. This classifies the image receptor as the a. secondary barrier. b. primary barrier. c. scatter barrier. d. principal barrier.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:31 AM 33. All of the following are true of the fluoroscopic lead apron drape EXCEPT: a. It should be 0.25 mm Pb equivalent. b. It is designed to absorb a large percentage of patient scatter. c. It covers the Bucky slot in the table. d. It may be detached for specific cases.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 33 - Fluoroscopy HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:33 AM 34. Methods to reduce image intensifier fluoroscopic radiation exposure include: 1. automatic brightness control 2. Bucky tray slot cover 3. switching to magnification imaging 4. fluoroscopic lead apron drape 5. dead-man type fluoroscopy switch 6. LIH 7. increase the SID 8. decrease the SOD 9. decrease the IOD a. 1, 2, 4, 7 and 9 b. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 and 9 c. 2, 3, 4, 6 and 7 d. 1, 4, 5, 6, 8 and 9 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:48 AM 35. Digital fluoroscopy is typically a. a progressive, pulsed fluoroscopic exposure. b. capable of producing higher contrast images. c. capable of 256 shades of gray through 8-bit processing. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:40 AM 36. The fluoroscopic x-ray tube is different from a radiographic tube in that the fluoro tube a. has high heat-loading potential, as it operates at very high milliamperes. b. cannot have an SOD less than 15 inches. c. does not employ a cathode focusing cup assembly. d. emits predominantly characteristic photons.

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Chapter 33 - Fluoroscopy ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:41 AM 37. Flux gain a. improves image resolution due to the small penumbra created by the output phosphor crystals. b. deals with the gain resulting from the conversion of light at the output phosphor. c. is directly related to the input phosphor conversion efficiency. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:03 AM 38. Mobile fluoroscopic systems are different from fixed systems in that they a. do not have a primary barrier. b. do not use video displays. c. have separate fluoroscopy and radiographic tubes. d. have a minimum SOD of 12 inches.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:05 AM 39. When using automatic brightness control (ABC), it is important to remember that a. image brightness is not dose related. b. a dark video image indicates photon starvation to the receptor. c. collimation and part placement do not impact video image quality. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 33 - Fluoroscopy HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:06 AM 40. Digital fluoroscopy typically a. uses pulsed x-ray exposures timed with the detector. b. uses indirect detector technology with thin film transistors (TFT). c. provides resolution of 1–2 lp/mm. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:08 AM 41. A digital flat panel detector with a pixel pitch of 141 microns would typically yield a. 3.54 lp/mm of resolution. b. a magnified image with increased dose. c. 7.0 lp/mm of resolution. d. increased noise due to photon starvation.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:09 AM 42. A digital R/F system that uses a single detector for all examinations would a. have the x-ray tube positioned above the patient. b. offer lower fluoroscopic radiation dose to the operator’s head and neck. c. require the fluoroscopist to stand behind the control booth for all procedures. d. not be capable of chest radiography at 72”.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:11 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 33 - Fluoroscopy 43. Prior to beginning a fluoroscopic procedure using a mobile fluoroscopic system, your responsibility as a

radiographer is to a. ensure all personnel are using personal monitoring devices b. use the highest fluoroscopic kVp and lowest mA permissible, to reduce absorbed dose c. ensure the fluoroscopic lead curtain is attached to the front of the image receptor d. make sure that all involved personnel are wearing lead protection ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:13 AM 44. With newer, digital flat panel fluoroscopic systems, visualization of small guide wires and catheters in

patients is best achieved due to the a. increased ergonomic design of these systems. b. improved low-contrast detectability of the detector. c. lower degree of image blooming or white-out on the edge of the image. d. both b and c.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:15 AM 45. With digital, flat panel fluoroscopic receptors, pixel binning will a. improve spatial resolution. b. decrease image “smearing” or lag. c. increase image file size. d. improve low-contrast resolution.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:17 AM Matching Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 33 - Fluoroscopy Match the following choices with the correct statement as each relates to fluoroscopic technology. a. input phosphor b. 1–3 R/min c. 10 R/mn d. fluoroscopic carriage e. brightness gain f. primary barrier g. output phosphor h. CsI i. photocathode j. ZnS-CdS:Ag k. vignetting l. TFT resolution DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:23 AM 46. image intensifier or digital detector ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 47. input phosphor material ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 48. mechanical attachment for detector and fluoroscopic controls ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 49. uniform across the detector surface array ANSWER: l POINTS: 1 50. a function of flux and image minification ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 51. loss of brightness and resolution on the edge of the image ANSWER: k POINTS: 1 52. output phosphor material ANSWER: j POINTS: 1 53. emits electrons via the photoelectric effect ANSWER: i POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 33 - Fluoroscopy 54. maximum exposure rate ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 55. converts electrons to light ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 Problem 56. What is the magnification factor for an image viewed with an image intensification tube with an input screen diameter of 23 cm that is using a 13 cm diameter area during magnification?

1.8 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:24 AM 57. What is the magnification factor for an image viewed with an image intensification tube with an input screen diameter of 23 in. that is using a 10 in. diameter area during magnification?

2.3 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:25 AM 58. What is the minification gain for an image intensification tube with an input screen diameter of 5 in. and an output diameter of 1 in.?

25 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:26 AM 59. What is the minification gain for an image intensification tube with an input screen diameter of 10 in. and an output diameter of 2 in.?

25 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 33 - Fluoroscopy DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:27 AM 60. What is the total brightness gain for an image intensification tube with a minification gain of 25 and a flux gain of 50?

1,250 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:28 AM 61. What is the lp/mm resolution from a flat panel detector with a pixel pitch of 175 microns?

2.85 lp/mm ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:28 AM 62. What is the lp/mm resolution from a flat panel detector with a pixel pitch of 125 microns?

4.00 lp/mm ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:29 AM

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Chapter 34 - Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis Multiple Choice 1. During tomography, the object to be examined is placed at the a. tomographic arc. b. fulcrum. c. exposure arc. d. image receptor level.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 12:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 12:59 AM 2. The anatomy tomographed at the area located at the fulcrum level is a. minified. b. blurred. c. streaked. d. sharp.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:03 AM 3. The greater the distance from the fulcrum, the ____ the degree of blurring. a. lesser b. greater c. thinner d. thicker ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:25 AM 4. When explaining the tomographic procedure to patients, it would be considered more appropriate to refer to ___________, when explaining the images acquired.

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Chapter 34 - Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis a. cuts b. sections c. slices d. interval ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:28 AM 5. The tomographic ____ is the total distance traveled by the tube. a. amplitude b. sweep c. blur d. increment ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:30 AM 6. Tomography causes the blurring of nearly all recorded detail of objects outside the a. tomographic arc. b. increment plane. c. focal plane. d. amplitude.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:32 AM 7. Anatomical structures that are parallel to the linear direction of the tomographic tube travel will be a. completely blurred. b. in focus. c. streaked and elongated. d. magnified.

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Chapter 34 - Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:34 AM 8. Phantom images most commonly occur when the tube motion is ____ to the long axis of the structure. a. parallel b. perpendicular c. tangential d. all of the above ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:36 AM 9. When performing linear tomography, the fulcrum a. is the pivot point. b. determines the focal plane. c. controls the section level. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:38 AM 10. The distance between fulcrum levels is the a. tomographic angle. b. exposure amplitude. c. section interval. d. section thickness.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 34 - Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:41 AM 11. Tomographic images are a. inherently high contrast due to the thickness of the cut. b. inherently low contrast. c. consistently of the same thickness, regardless of the tube travel. d. typically noisy due to grid cut-off.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:43 AM 12. A popular tomographic procedure for visualization of the mandible to include the teeth is a. panoramic tomography. b. stratomatic tomography. c. bite wing tomography. d. single photon tomography.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:50 AM 13. The major quality problem of linear tomography is changing a. SID. b. OID. c. SOD. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:28 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 34 - Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis 14. Which tomographic motion produces the thinnest section? a. 8 degrees b. 12 degrees c. 25 degrees d. 40 degrees ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:53 AM 15. The exposure time during tomography must at least match the a. fulcrum height. b. section thickness. c. tomographic amplitude. d. interrogation time of the AEC. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:56 AM 16. Digital tomosynthesis requires the use of a. CR cassettes and plates. b. flat panel DR detectors. c. circular grids. d. wireless DR detectors.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:57 AM 17. How many exposures are required for an adequate image base during digital tomosynthesis? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 34 - Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis d. 40 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:00 AM 18. As exposure amplitude increases, a. section thickness increases. b. tomographic amplitude decreases. c. slice thickness decreases. d. the exposure angle decreases.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:03 AM 19. The greater the distance from the fulcrum, the greater the a. degree of blurring. b. patient dosage. c. recorded detail. d. exposure amplitude.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:05 AM 20. When explaining tomography to a patient, it would be advisable to a. explain the process as slicing bread. b. indicate that you will taking cuts of their kidneys. c. explain to the patient that superimposed anatomical structures will viewed in sections. d. explain that the process is similar to CT technology.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 34 - Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:12 AM 21. Typically, tomographic sections of the kidneys during IVU consist of a. zonograms. b. thin slices. c. elliptical tube motions to match the shape of the kidney. d. sections in the transverse plane.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:15 AM 22. Digital tomosynthesis has its greatest application currently with _________ studies. a. chest b. mammographic c. renal d. liver ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:17 AM 23. All of the following are true of digital tomosynthesis EXCEPT: a. Multiple views are taken of the anatomy, in rapid succession. b. Flat panel detectors are essential to this technology. c. The images taken are real-time and demonstrate physiologic functions. d. The software to reconstruct the images is different from the algorithms of CT. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:20 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 34 - Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis 24. An exposure amplitude that is shorter than the tomographic amplitude will a. produce optimum blurring. b. result in increased resolution on the edges of the image. c. produce phantom images and less image blurring. d. create an over exposed image with incomplete contrast differences.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:22 AM 25. The diagnostic modality of choice for an acoustic neuroma located in the inner ear is a. wide-angle tomography. b. thin cut linear tomography. c. CT scanning. d. linear zonography.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:23 AM Matching Match the following selections with the statements that correlate. a. zonogram b. panoramic tomography c. 40 degrees d. focal plane e. exposure amplitude f. 10 degrees or more g. section interval h. maximum blur DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:03 AM 26. thin tomographic slice thickness ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 34 - Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis 27. farther from the image receptor ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 28. uses slit scan radiography ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 29. higher tomographic contrast with poor resolution ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 30. should not exceed the section thickness ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 31. can be less than tube travel distance ANSWER: e POINTS: 1

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Chapter 35 - Mammography Multiple Choice 1. Digital breast tomosynthesis is commonly referred to as a. axial mammography. b. low-dose CT mammography. c. 3-D mammography. d. breast zonography.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:13 AM 2. Which organization offers a voluntary accreditation program for mammography? a. American Cancer Society b. American College of Radiology c. Nuclear Regulatory Commission d. National Council on Radiation Protection ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:18 AM 3. Dedicated mammography machines use ____ generators. a. falling-load b. single-phase, high-frequency c. capacitor discharge d. three-phase ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:21 AM 4. The type of generators used in dedicated mammography machines allows very precise exposure control of a. kVp and mAs. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 35 - Mammography b. filtration. c. anode material. d. the anode heel effect.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:23 AM 5. In mammography, the kVp commonly used in clinical practice varies between ____ kVp. a. 25 and 28 b. 30 and 34 c. 35 and 40 d. 55 and 60 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:26 AM 6. The advantage to using low kVp in mammography is its ability to produce a. a very low-energy x-ray beam. b. high radiographic contrast. c. a soft x-ray beam. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:28 AM 7. The disadvantage to using low kVp in mammography is a. longer exposure times. b. lower image contrast. c. a higher degree of Compton interactions. d. an increased patient dose.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 35 - Mammography POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:31 AM 8. Breast tissue is considered to have a. high subject contrast. b. low subject contrast. c. high x-ray beam attenuation. d. a high k-edge contrast value.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:33 AM 9. The AEC system on most mammography machines utilizes ____ radiation-sensitive detector(s) located ____ the cassette. a. a single; in front of b. three; in front of c. a single; behind d. three; behind ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:37 AM 10. When the backup time is reached during a breast exposure, the radiographer should select a ____ setting for the repeat radiograph. a. lower mAs b. higher mAs c. higher kVp d. lower kVp ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 35 - Mammography QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:40 AM 11. The prominent heel effect in mammography is due to a a. short SID. b. short OID. c. long SOD. d. long OID. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:42 AM 12. The prominent heel effect in mammography is the result of a a. narrow target angle. b. wide target angle. c. larger space charge effect. d. smaller saturation current.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:45 AM 13. To engage the small focal spot in a dedicated mammography tube, ____ focusing is typically used. a. convex b. dual c. biased d. concave ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:47 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 35 - Mammography 14. The majority of mammography machines utilize a ____ inch SID. a. 24 to 30 b. 30 to 36 c. 36 to 40 d. 60 to 72 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:50 AM 15. The anode material of choice for a mammography x-ray tube is a. rhenium. b. tungsten. c. molybdenum. d. graphite.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:53 AM 16. Approximately 40% of cancers in the breast contain micro-calcifications that have an atomic number of a. 8. b. 20. c. 32. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:17 AM 17. The advantage of using molybdenum for the anode material in mammography tubes is a. the production of an emission spectrum with a higher K-spike. b. low radiographic contrast images.

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Chapter 35 - Mammography c. the production of an emission spectrum matching the low-subject contrast of the breast. d. the production of a higher degree of Compton interactions to increase image contrast.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:16 AM 18. Innovative mammography units have incorporated _____________ into their designs. a. biangular x-ray tubes b. variable, longer SID’s c. copper filtration d. variable “flying” focal spots ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:20 AM 19. The port of the x-ray tube in mammography is composed of a. silicon. b. rhodium. c. molybdenum. d. beryllium.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:23 AM 20. Magnification projections of the breast provide a. increased resolution. b. a reduction in scatter radiation. c. improved visibility of detail. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 35 - Mammography DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:26 AM 21. The use of a grid in mammography a. improves radiographic quality. b. increases patient exposure. c. reduces scatter reaching the film. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:06 AM 22. Mammography grids are a. cross-hatch designed. b. removed during magnification views. c. not used with AEC. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:07 AM 23. Breast compression during mammography a. reduces magnification. b. improves spatial resolution. c. permits a lower kVp to be used. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:08 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 35 - Mammography DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:09 AM 24. Breast compression a. provides a more uniform film density. b. improves visualization. c. reduces magnification. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:10 AM 25. Breast compression is applied at ____ pounds of force. a. 1 to 5 b. 5 to 20 c. 25 to 45 d. 50 to 60 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:11 AM 26. One of the principal advantages of digital mammography is a. the capacity to manipulate the image’s contrast and brightness. b. the ability to produce electronic magnified images with no additional exposure. c. a reduction in exposure due to the ability to rotate images into various views. d. the ability to adjust kVp in real-time during exposure.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:15 AM 27. Digital tomosynthesis in mammography a. uses a 40-degree rotation angle.

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Chapter 35 - Mammography b. acquires 10 images of the breast per sweep. c. uses digital detector technology. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:17 AM 28. Mammography x-ray tubes a. are tilted to place the central ray at chest wall. b. use stationary anodes for better resolution. c. have higher heat capacity than radiographic tubes. d. have a 0.6-mm large focal spot.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:18 AM 29. To cover a 24×30 cm receptor in mammography, the mammography x-ray tube a. uses molybdenum as the anode material. b. possesses a beryllium filter. c. has an effective target angle of 22 to 24 degrees. d. adjusts field size with compression.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:20 AM 30. The inherent low subject contrast of breast tissue requires that we attempt to optimize a. the photoelectric effect. b. the use of high ratio grids. c. the Compton effect. d. aluminum filtration.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 35 - Mammography POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:22 AM 31. When performing mammography on a patient with breast implants, a. the grid should be removed. b. manual techniques should be used. c. aluminum filtration should be used. d. the AEC detector sensitivity should be increased.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:23 AM 32. When performing magnification mammography, a. the grid ratio is increased. b. the SID is increased. c. a 0.1-mm focal spot is used. d. the cathode grid-bias is deactivated.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:25 AM 33. Current mammography technology intends to optimize a. low noise levels and spatial resolution. b. lower patient dose with a slightly higher noise level. c. patient comfort with contoured-breast compression. d. image file sizes with data compression.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 35 - Mammography DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:37 AM 34. All of the following are true of digital mammography EXCEPT: a. Depending upon the manufacturer, the digital detector can be direct or indirect. b. CR storage phosphor technology is not practical. c. The x-ray tube is specifically designed for this type of imaging. d. Digital breast tomosynthesis is possible.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:38 AM 35. From a historical perspective, mammography a. has always been based upon film-screen technology. b. was utilized sparingly to identify breast cancers, due to dose. c. has been increasingly replaced by non-ionizing technologies. d. has utilized the Xerox company and its charged plate technology.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:40 AM Matching Match the following items with the correct statement as each relates to mammographic imaging. a. beryllium b. tungsten c. optimum kVp range d. magnification imaging e. microcalcifications f. molybdenum g. 17–20 kev h. Companie Generale de Radiographique i. mammography SID j. developed a dry process for mammography using paper k. rhodium l. MQSA m. NEXT n. expected to become the mammography “gold standard” DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:43 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 35 - Mammography DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:48 AM 36. introduced the first dedicated mammography system ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 37. preferred x-ray port material ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 38. optimizes mammography services nationwide ANSWER: l POINTS: 1 39. preferred energy range of x-ray photons ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 40. 25–28 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 41. Xerox ANSWER: j POINTS: 1 42. digital tomosynthesis ANSWER: n POINTS: 1 43. 24–30 inches ANSWER: i POINTS: 1 44. uses a 0.1-mm focal spot ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 45. recommended for dense breasts ANSWER: k POINTS: 1

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Chapter 36 - Bone Densitometry Multiple Choice 1. General radiography is ineffective in measuring bone loss since as much as ______ of bone mass must be lost to be radiographically detected. a. 15% b. 30% c. 40% d. 60% ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:18 AM 2. Quantitative Ultrasound (QUS) of the bone to determine osteoporosis a. is more effective than DXA scanning. b. is restricted to the forearm. c. uses the speed of sound in bone, as a computational measure. d. requires patients to stand for the procedure to stress the bone.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:20 AM 3. Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) a. uses radioactive gadolinium. b. is performed on a CT scanner. c. uses two discrete gamma photon energies. d. is the current standard of care for osteoporosis detection.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:22 AM 4. Quantitative ultrasound Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 36 - Bone Densitometry a. commonly uses the trabecular bone of the heel for analysis. b. is as accurate as DXA scanning for assessing the degree of bone loss. c. is generally more costly and requires the patient to hydrate heavily. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:35 AM 5. All of the following are true of the medical condition of osteoporosis EXCEPT: a. There are two basic types. b. It is a systemic disease. c. It is associated with decreasing levels of insulin. d. It often affects the hips and spine.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:36 AM 6. All of the following are related except one. Select the choice that is NOT RELATED to the others. a. vertebral bodies b. distal radius c. greater trochanter d. tarsals ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:38 AM 7. The resorption of bone is carried out by the action of a. canaliculi. b. lacunae. c. osteoblasts. d. osteoclasts.

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Chapter 36 - Bone Densitometry ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:40 AM 8. All of the following are true of the bone remodeling process EXCEPT: a. It is a balanced activity between the action of osteocytes and chondrocytes. b. It is influenced by hormones. c. Osteoclast activity in excess can result in a loss of bone mass. d. Osteoblast activity equals osteoclast activity in a healthy individual.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:41 AM 9. A significant loss of bone mass and bone density results in the condition of a. osteopetrosis. b. osteochondritis dissecans. c. osteoporosis. d. osteoid osteoma.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:43 AM 10. Type II osteoporosis is distinguished from Type I in that a. Type I is hormonal in nature. b. Type II is age related. c. Type I is post-menopausal. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 36 - Bone Densitometry HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:44 AM 11. Primary osteoporosis a. can be classified as Type I and Type II. b. is often the result of hyperparathyroidism. c. often results from metastatic bone disease. d. can occur in persons taking gluticocorticoids.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:46 AM 12. All of the following are osteoporosis risk factors EXCEPT a. gender. b. cigarette smoking. c. ethnicity. d. salt intake.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:47 AM 13. Fractures of the ______ have the highest degree of morbidity and mortality. a. wrist b. hip c. spine d. knee ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:49 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 36 - Bone Densitometry 14. The likelihood of a bone fracture and bone integrity is best measured by a. assessing the bone mineral density (BMD). b. cortical thickness. c. the ratio between compact bone and spongy bone. d. basal metabolic rate (BMR).

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:50 AM 15. DXA scanning a. is performed with the patient upright and weight-bearing on bones. b. requires patient sedation to control hormone levels. c. measures sites that are prone to fracture. d. can be used to determine the presence of an occult fracture.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:52 AM 16. In healthy adults, peak bone mass occurs a. following menopause. b. at puberty. c. in their twenties and mid-thirties. d. when patients weigh the most.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:54 AM 17. DXA scanning relies on the assessment of BMD for an individual and compares this value to a. similar persons in the same age group. b. persons with peak bone mass in their twenties. c. persons with similar lifestyles and ethnicity.

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Chapter 36 - Bone Densitometry d. the BMD value from early childhood.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:56 AM 18. DXA scanning provides a statistical assessment of a person’s T-score and Z-score. Both of these measures are similar except for the fact that the T-score is a. calculated using a normative group with peak bone mass. b. age-specific. c. not recognized by the World Health Organization (WHO). d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:57 AM 19. Osteopenia occurs with a T-score of a. +1.9. b. +2.5. c. –2.0. d. –2.7.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:59 AM 20. Persons with severe osteoporosis a. show little risk of a fracture. b. have a T-score of –2.5 or greater. c. have a bony fracture from simple lifestyle activities. d. both a and c.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 36 - Bone Densitometry DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:00 AM 21. A modern DXA scanning system consists of 1. workstation 2. x-ray tube 3. Bucky assembly 4. x-ray detector 5. tilting, radiolucent table 6. QC phantom 7. AEC system with three fields 8. positioning aides a. 1, 2, 5, 6, 7, and 8 b. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 c. 1, 2, 4, 6, and 8 d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 7 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:03 AM 22. The principle of DXA scanning relies upon the a. attenuation of two discrete photon energy levels through soft tissue and bone. b. measurement of scatter energy from the patient at two energy levels. c. measurement of scatter photon energy subtracted from primary photon energy. d. ratio of Bremsstrahlung and characteristic radiation production.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:12 AM 23. DXA scanning systems a. are classified as fan beam or pencil beam. b. may use a rare-earth filtered x-ray source. c. may employ a synchronous, high-frequency generator to switch between photon energies.

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Chapter 36 - Bone Densitometry d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:14 AM 24. The most commonly measured anatomical structures in DXA scanning are the a. wrist and shoulder. b. ankle and knee. c. pelvis and spine. d. hip and spine.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:16 AM 25. Proper patient positioning for DXA scans of the hip includes a. the femoral greater trochanter in profile. b. clear visibility of the lesser trochanter. c. foreshortening of the femoral neck to make it parallel to the long axis of the table. d. external rotation of the feet.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:18 AM 26. DXA scans of the spine a. are done with the patient supine and with legs fully extended. b. are considered more reliable than those of the hip or forearm. c. include the lumbar vertebrae L2–L4. d. include all lumbar vertebrae regardless of T-score between the individual vertebrae.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 36 - Bone Densitometry DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:20 AM 27. DXA scanning of the forearm a. is preferred for suspected hyperparathyroidism. b. scans the non-dominant forearm. c. includes the proximal row of carpal bones. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:22 AM 28. Quality control procedures with DXA systems a. are done monthly. b. utilize a standardized hip phantom for measurements. c. are completed after each patient exam. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:24 AM 29. The radiation dose during DXA studies a. is less for fan-beam scanners. b. is comparable to mammography. c. permits easy compliance with ALARA principles. d. requires lead protection in the walls of the exam room.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:25 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 36 - Bone Densitometry DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:26 AM 30. The BMD values of a DXA phantom a. change yearly due to decay of the polymer resin of the phantom. b. are stable and permit sharing phantoms between DXA systems. c. never change. d. are used to calculate the T-scores of patients.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:28 AM Matching Match the following choices with the correct statement as each relates to bone densitometry. a. fan-beam DXA b. osteopenia c. WHO d. SPA e. osteoblasts f. osteoporosis g. pencil-beam DXA h. osteoclasts i. NEXT j. small stature DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:45 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:49 PM 31. uses radioactive iodine as a photon source ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 32. destroy bone ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 33. osteoporosis risk factor ANSWER: j POINTS: 1 34. established T-score and Z-score value benchmarks ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 36 - Bone Densitometry 35. uses multiple detector elements ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 36. T-score of –2.2 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 37. bone-forming cells that can go dormant when not needed ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 38. lowest dose type of DXA technology ANSWER: g POINTS: 1

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Chapter 37 - Vascular Imaging Equipment Multiple Choice 1. Which type of generator is typically chosen for use during cardiovascular and interventional angiographic procedures? a. single-phase b. three-phase, 6-pulse c. three-phase, 12-pulse d. high-frequency ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:49 AM 2. Vascular imaging generators should have the capacity to deliver ____ mA as a maximum. a. 300 b. 500 c. 800 d. 1,000 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:51 AM 3. Most angiographic studies are produced at what kVp range? a. 40 to 50 b. 40 to 50 c. 50 to 100 d. 110 to 125 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:52 AM 4. The amount of heat load an anode can tolerate for a sequence of exposures is known as a. short-term loading ability.

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Chapter 37 - Vascular Imaging Equipment b. continuous heat-loading ability. c. tube-rate loading ability. d. dose-dependent loading.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:54 AM 5. The amount of heat an anode can tolerate during a fluoroscopic exposure is known as ____ loading ability. a. short-term b. continuous-heat c. pulsed fluoro d. intermittent fluoro ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:55 AM 6. The heat-loading capacity of an x-ray tube depends on a. focal spot size. b. anode angle. c. generator configuration. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 1:57 AM 7. X-ray tubes used in vascular interventional procedures a. require mega heat unit tubes. b. have graphite-backed anodes for heat tolerance. c. have a larger anode disk diameter and thickness. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 37 - Vascular Imaging Equipment POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 1:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:00 AM 8. The contrast medium warming device on the pressure injector is intended to a. bring the contrast medium to room temperature. b. maintain the temperature of the contrast medium. c. bring the contrast medium to body temperature. d. increase contrast viscosity through warming.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:02 AM 9. The pressure of a contrast medium injector is measured in a. pounds per square inch. b. pounds per cubic centimeter. c. force per density. d. viscosity per square inch.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:04 AM 10. Modern angiographic labs will use flat panel digital detectors for both fluoroscopic and static imaging. These DR detectors are a. indirect. b. amorphous silicon. c. capable of electronic magnification. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 37 - Vascular Imaging Equipment HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:07 AM 11. Which of the following will permit a greater volume of contrast injection per unit of time? a. lower psi injection rates b. longer catheter lengths c. catheter side holes d. higher viscosity of contrast media ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:13 AM 12. What type of image acquisition is used when eliminating bone and soft tissue structures from an image so that only contrast-filled vessels remain? a. digital angiography b. digital subtraction angiography c. digital cineradiography d. image reversal angiography ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:15 AM 13. What type of image acquisition is used mainly for cardiac catheterization? a. digital angiography b. digital subtraction angiography c. digital cineradiography d. sequential coronary imaging ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:17 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 37 - Vascular Imaging Equipment 14. The desirable features of a modern angiographic patient table include 1. fixed vertical height with integrated physician stool 2. carbon-fiber composite top 3. side rails for the attachment of accessory items 4. free-floating tabletop motion 5. variable vertical height of table top 6. leaded composite material to increase photoelectric interactions 7. interchangeable table plates a. 2, 3, 4, 5, and 7 b. 1, 2, 3, 6, and 7 c. 2, 4, 5, and 7 d. 2, 4, 5, 6, and 7 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:29 AM 15. Digital image receptors used in angiography a. require a CCD for image capture. b. are composed of selenium detector material. c. acquire the images digitally in the detector material. d. permit post-processing of images, unlike analog image intensifier detectors.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:21 AM 16. In order to perform digital subtraction angiography, a. a mask image is acquired after injection. b. bony anatomy is eliminated from the final image. c. patient motion is not a concern, as this is a post-processing function. d. the injection image is acquired before the scout image is taken and then subtracted from the other.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 37 - Vascular Imaging Equipment DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:24 AM 17. Of the choices below, the preferred method for angiographic image acquisition is a. roll film changer because of speed. b. cut film changer because of film-screen contact. c. cineangiographic camera because of high frame rates and low dose. d. digital imaging technology because of post-processing functionality.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:26 AM 18. Vascular imaging using angiography requires a. single-phase input and three-phase output. b. generators with 1 ms interrogation and forced extinction times. c. ceiling suspended C-arm mounting. d. micro-focal x-ray tubes to improve magnification studies.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:28 AM 19. Quality control programs in the vascular imaging laboratory require a. a close relationship with the equipment vendor. b. periodic monitoring of viewing systems such as video monitors. c. in-house biomedical engineers working at a “first-line” level supported by the vendor. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:30 AM 20. Select the TRUE statement from the choices below.

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Chapter 37 - Vascular Imaging Equipment a. Extinction time is the time required to prepare the x-ray tube for exposure. b. Window level adjusts the contrast and window width adjusts the density of an image. c. The flow rate is the rate at which the contrast medium is filtered by the kidneys. d. The typical design of the vascular imaging system uses a C-arm configuration.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:34 AM 21. Modern angiographic generators will offer forced extinction technology. This feature permits a. extended exposure times for angiographic runs. b. exposure times as short as 1 ms. c. a flat kVp waveform to maximize the k-edge of contrast material. d. precise timing with an angiographic injector.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 2:39 AM 22. After a DSA run of the kidneys is completed, you noticed there is a slight degree of patient motion.

Oftentimes this can be corrected by the post-processing function of a. image reversal. b. image zoom. c. pixel shifting. d. edge enhancement.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 2:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:10 AM 23. During pediatric cineangiography of a newborn’s heart, angiographic acquisitions are typically done at rates

up to 60 frames per second (fps). These rates are used to a. minimize dose to the infant.

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Chapter 37 - Vascular Imaging Equipment b. acquire images between infant breath holds. c. minimize involuntary motion. d. speed up the procedure time in order to return to infant to the neonatal ICU. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:17 AM 24. In a typical angiographic C-arm assembly, the a. x-ray tube and image receptor are orthogonal to each other. b. x-ray tube and detector have a fixed SID. c. receptor and x-ray tube may be disengaged from each other in order to perform complex oblique projections. d. image receptor and x-ray tube are always coincident with each other.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:19 AM 25. In order to improve image quality at the lowest possible dose, angiographic tables typically feature a. internal noise reduction filters. b. highly radiolucent, carbon fiber table tops. c. side rails for patient restraint bands. d. internal low-ratio radiographic grids.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/19/2019 12:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/19/2019 12:16 AM Matching Match the following choices with the correct statement as each relates to vascular imaging equipment. a. extinction time b. pixel shifting c. interrogation time d. 1.4X factor Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 37 - Vascular Imaging Equipment e. cc/sec f. remasking g. warming jacket h. point of attachment i. DA j. short-term loading k. 1-MHU l. cine m. DSA n. continuous heat loading DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:24 AM 26. rectification constant for high frequency ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 27. high frame rate acquisition in cath lab ANSWER: l POINTS: 1 28. maintains constant contrast material temp ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 29. rotational axis of gantry ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 30. typically less than 1 millisecond ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 31. classification of angiographic x-ray tube ANSWER: k POINTS: 1 32. corrects for patient motion ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 33. subtraction imaging ANSWER: m POINTS: 1 34. injection rate ANSWER: e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 37 - Vascular Imaging Equipment POINTS:

1

35. fluoroscopic heat build up ANSWER: n POINTS: 1 Problem 36. How many heat units are generated by a series of 10 exposures using 75 kVp, 300 mA, 0.15 sec on a high-frequency unit?

47, 250 HU ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:24 AM 37. How many heat units are generated by a series of 15 exposures using 70 kVp, 300 mA, 0.20 sec on a three-phase, 6pulse unit?

85,050 HU ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:25 AM 38. When programming a contrast medium injector, what is the total volume injected if a 4 cc/sec flow rate is used during a 5 sec injection?

20 cc ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:26 AM 39. How many heat units are generated by a series of 15 exposures using 75 kVp, 400 mA, 150 ms sec using an HF generator?

94,500 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 37 - Vascular Imaging Equipment HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:27 AM 40. How many heat units are generated by a series of 30 exposures using 70 kVp, 200 mA, 250 ms on a single-phase unit?

105 kHU ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/15/2019 3:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/15/2019 3:28 AM

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Chapter 38 - Computed Tomography Multiple Choice 1. The gantry of the CT unit contains the a. post-processing workstation. b. operator’s interface. c. x-ray tube. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 8:20 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 8:27 PM 2. Computed tomography sections are acquired in the __________ plane. a. coronal b. transverse c. sagittal d. orthogonal ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 8:23 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 8:27 PM 3. To achieve coronal or sagittal sections in CT imaging, a. the gantry is repositioned. b. the patient is repositioned to go in head first. c. reconfiguration software is implemented. d. the patient is positioned feet first.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 8:24 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 8:27 PM 4. First-generation CT scanners scanned the ____ only. a. head Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 38 - Computed Tomography b. thorax c. abdomen d. pelvis ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 8:25 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 8:26 PM 5. The most recent generation of CT scanners use a ____ motion. a. translate-rotate b. helical c. rotate-translate d. elliptical ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 8:28 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 8:29 PM 6. The CT table is a. made of carbon graphite. b. rated for maximum weight. c. motor driven. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 8:29 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 8:30 PM 7. Modern pulsed CT scanners operate at a. 120 kVp. b. 1 to 5 msec pulses. c. up to 1,000 mA. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 38 - Computed Tomography POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 8:47 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 8:48 PM 8. The CT radiation beam is collimated a. at the tube exit. b. at the detector entrance. c. pre-patient and post-patient. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 8:49 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 8:50 PM 9. The ____ is how well the detectors receive photons from the patient. a. capture efficiency b. absorption efficiency c. conversion efficiency d. response time ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 8:50 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 8:51 PM 10. The ____ is how well the detectors detect the incoming photon energy. a. capture efficiency b. absorption efficiency c. conversion efficiency d. response time ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 38 - Computed Tomography DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 8:52 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 8:53 PM 11. The ____ is determined by how well the detector utilizes the absorbed photon information. a. capture efficiency b. absorption efficiency c. conversion efficiency d. response time ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 8:53 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 8:54 PM 12. Contemporary CT scanners use solid-state detectors. These detectors consist of a. sodium iodide crystals. b. rare-earth ceramic scintillators. c. xenon gas. d. amorphous selenium.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 8:55 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 8:56 PM 13. The CT console provides the radiographer access to a. the software program. b. table movement. c. gantry tilt. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 8:56 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 8:57 PM 14. The localization image produced by the CT scanner is technically called a/an Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 38 - Computed Tomography a. volume rendered image. b. scout film. c. scanogram. d. FOV image.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 8:58 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 8:59 PM 15. The process of combining detector elements into various combinations in order to set slice thickness is called detector a. modulation. b. partitioning. c. binning. d. interpolation.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 9:52 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 9:53 PM 16. A series of tissue density values that evolved for CT measurements is called ____ units. a. Hounsfield b. H & D c. attenuation d. iterative ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 9:54 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 9:55 PM 17. The resolution of multi-slice CT image depends on the a. pixel. b. voxel. c. matrix size. d. all of the above.

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Chapter 38 - Computed Tomography ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 9:55 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 9:56 PM 18. The CT radiographer usually varies the ____ to control the primary beam. a. mA b. time c. kVp d. distance ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 9:57 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 9:59 PM 19. The smaller the scan field size, the a. better the resolution. b. faster the scan time. c. lesser the risk of motion. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 9:59 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:01 PM 20. A ____ artifact is caused by motion. a. beam-hardening b. ring c. star d. streaking ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 38 - Computed Tomography HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:02 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:03 PM 21. A ____ artifact is caused by the presence of metal in the patient. a. beam-hardening b. ring c. star d. streak ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:03 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:05 PM 22. A ____ artifact is caused by attenuation of the beam as it passes through the patient. a. beam-hardening b. ring c. star d. streak ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:06 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:07 PM 23. A ____ artifact is caused by detector error. a. beam-hardening b. ring c. star d. streak ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:07 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:08 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 38 - Computed Tomography 24. The primary mathematical method used in the creation of computerized medical images is the ____ transformation. a. interpolation b. Hounsfield c. sequential d. Fourier ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:09 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:10 PM 25. The process of modifying pixel values by a mathematical formula is called a. convolution. b. deconvolution. c. calculus. d. interpolation.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:11 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:12 PM 26. CT image data is acquired in the a. coronal plane and reconstructed in the axial plane. b. transverse plane and reconstructed in any plane. c. sagittal plane. d. axial plane and reconstructed in the coronal plane.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:12 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:14 PM 27. MSCT scanners have evolved greatly over the last few years, particularly with regard to slice combinations, scanning speed, and clinical utility. As these scanners gather more slices of data per rotation, a major technological challenge is a. the amount of data handled by the computer. b. the number of images to be analyzed by the clinician.

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Chapter 38 - Computed Tomography c. developing technologies to minimize dose. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:14 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:16 PM 28. The range of CT numbers or Hounsfield units varies from a. 100 to 300. b. –100 to +300. c. –1,000 to +3,000. d. 1,000 to +3,000.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:17 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:18 PM 29. As noise increases in a CT image, a. low contrast resolution increases. b. dose to the patient increases. c. low contrast resolution decreases. d. CT number calculations are less accurate.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:53 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:55 PM 30. The CTDI dose measurement a. is slice-based. b. takes into account the total amount of irradiated tissue. c. represents the average total dose to the patient during the examination. d. measures entrance skin exposure (ESE).

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 38 - Computed Tomography DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:55 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:56 PM 31. With MSCT scanners, resolution is primarily determined by a. pre-patient collimation. b. dose. c. collimation at the detector. d. gantry rotation speed.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:58 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:59 PM 32. The calculation of CT numbers is based upon the calculation of a. half-value layers. b. half-lives. c. attenuation coefficients. d. pitch.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:00 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:01 PM 33. CT scan pitch uses all of the following technical parameters EXCEPT a. slice thickness. b. 360-degree gantry rotation. c. acquisition mAs. d. table increment.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:01 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 38 - Computed Tomography DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:02 PM 34. In order for a CT x-ray photon to be measured, it must 1. enter the detector 2. be absorbed by the detector material 3. transmit through the detector to be back-projected 4. have sufficient energy to undergo a Compton interaction 5. be converted to light and then electrical energy as a signal a. 1, 3, 4, and 5 b. 1, 2, and 5 c. 1, 2, and 4 d. 1, 4, and 5 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:03 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:05 PM 35. An effective method for reducing CT patient dose is a. iterative reconstruction. b. beam shape filtration. c. matching the x-ray beam intensity to patient thickness. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:06 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:07 PM 36. A helical pitch set at less than one (1) permits a. faster scanning. b. faster interpolations and improved dose to the patient. c. improved data reconstruction due to oversampling. d. a greater field of view (FOV).

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:08 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 38 - Computed Tomography DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:09 PM 37. X-ray tubes used in contemporary MSCT scanners a. typically last 3–5 years. b. are positioned such that the tube long axis is parallel with the scanning plane. c. are positioned to reduce the gyroscopic effect of the gantry rotation and anode spinning. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:10 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:11 PM 38. A CT grid is designed to a. reduce Compton scatter. b. assist in positioning the patient to an exact center. c. create a pulsed x-ray tube exposure by biasing the focal spot. d. permit radiotherapy simulations.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:12 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:13 PM 39. Chest CT studies are extremely valuable to the radiologist for a variety of reasons. The identification of a hamartoma as a benign chest neoplasm requires the verification of fat as an inner, tumor tissue component. This is accurately done with CT, through the use of a. detector binning. b. helical interpolation. c. Hounsfield units. d. MSAD. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:28 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:29 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 38 - Computed Tomography 40. The collection of CT data attenuation from many different angles of a data point in a patient’s anatomy is ______________ and mathematically reconstructed using Fast Fourier transform. a. back projected b. interpolated c. sampled d. convolved ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:34 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:35 PM Matching Match the following choices with the correct statement as each relates to CT scanning. a. MSAD b. sinogram c. first-generation scanner d. CT number e. pitch f. dense bone g. CTDI h. Fourier transformation i. MSCT j. detector binning k. water l. back-projection m. “bow-tie” filter n. beam hardening DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:36 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:45 PM 41. relationship between table travel and beam width ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 42. CT dose per slice ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 43. also known as the scanogram ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 44. used to match x-ray beam divergence and transverse acquisition plane ANSWER: m Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 38 - Computed Tomography POINTS:

1

45. 0 ANSWER: k POINTS: 1 46. also known as HU ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 47. combining detector elements ANSWER: j POINTS: 1 48. 3,000 ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 49. seventh generation of CT ANSWER: i POINTS: 1 50. mathematical calculations to represent data location and intensity ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 51. used for head scans only ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 52. total CT dose delivered per volume ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 Problem 53. If the table is moving at 10 mm/sec, and a section thickness of 8 mm is being acquired, what is the pitch?

1.25 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:49 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:51 PM 54. If the table is moving at 12 mm/sec, and a section thickness of 10 mm is being acquired, what is the pitch?

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Chapter 38 - Computed Tomography 1.20 ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:51 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:52 PM 55. If a pitch of 0.5 is being used with a section thickness of 10 mm, what is the proper table speed?

5 mm/sec ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:53 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:53 PM 56. If a pitch of 1.0 is being used with a section thickness of 8 mm, what is the proper table speed?

8 mm/sec ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:54 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:55 PM 57. If the table is moving at 5 mm/sec, and a pitch of 0.8 is being used, what is the section thickness?

6.25 mm ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:55 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:56 PM 58. If the table is moving at 5 mm/sec, and a pitch of 1.5 is being used, what is the section thickness?

3.3 mm ANSWER: POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Numeric Response HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:56 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:57 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 38 - Computed Tomography

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Chapter 39 - Magnetic Resonance Imaging Multiple Choice 1. The source of magnetic fields within the body, that create an MR signal a. is the spinning nucleus of an atom. b. are the neutrons. c. are the stationary electrons. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 9:27 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 9:31 PM 2. The gyromagnetic ratio is the ratio of the magnetic a. moment to the moment of magnetic force. b. force to the moment of inertia. c. moment to the moment of inertia. d. dipole to its center.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 9:28 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 9:30 PM 3. The spinning of the axis of rotation is termed a. precession. b. recession. c. nuclear orientation. d. frequency.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 9:30 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 9:31 PM 4. The Larmor frequency is the ____ frequency. a. quantum Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 39 - Magnetic Resonance Imaging b. precessional c. linear d. gradient ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 9:31 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 9:32 PM 5. Protons will alternate from a. parallel to antiparallel. b. parallel to neutral. c. perpendicular to positive. d. positive to negative.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 9:32 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 9:33 PM 6. The quantity of resonating spins in a tissue expressed as a percentage of the proton density of water is a. spin density (). b. repetition time (TR). c. echo time (TE). d. inversion time (TI).

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 9:45 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:35 PM 7. The time interval between pulse sequences is a. spin density (). b. repetition time (TR). c. echo time (TE). d. inversion time (TI).

ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 39 - Magnetic Resonance Imaging POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 9:47 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:36 PM 8. The time between a 90-degree pulse and the echo during a spin-echo pulse sequence is a. spin density (). b. repetition time (TR). c. echo time (TE). d. inversion time (TI).

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 9:48 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:36 PM 9. The time between a 180-degree pulse and a 90-degree inversion pulse in an inversion recovery pulse system is a. spin density (). b. repetition time (TR). c. echo time (TE). d. inversion time (TI).

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 9:50 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:36 PM 10. The time required for precessing spins to align with the constant external field to 63% of the maximum possible strength is a. spin density (). b. repetition time (TR). c. echo time (TE). d. spin-lattice relaxation time (T1).

ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY:

d 1 Medium

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Chapter 39 - Magnetic Resonance Imaging QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:26 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 1:48 AM 11. The time required after precessing spins have aligned at an angle to the external field due to an RF pulse losing 63% of their coherence is a. spin density (). b. spin-spin relaxation time (T2). c. echo time (TE). d. spin-lattice relaxation time (T1).

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:37 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:38 PM 12. The MHz frequency magnetic field for MRI is produced by a/an a. radio transmitter coil. b. optical cable. c. digital converter. d. high-frequency generator.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 1:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 1:50 AM 13. The actual response of proton spin to an RF pulse is to a. change the magnetic moment in a recovery circular motion. b. change the magnetic moment in a precessing corkscrew motion. c. remain stationary. d. change the magnetic moment in a precessing circular motion.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 39 - Magnetic Resonance Imaging DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 1:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 1:52 AM 14. To produce magnetic field gradients in MRI, electromagnetic coils are oriented in a. one dimension. b. two dimensions. c. three dimensions. d. four dimensions.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 1:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 1:54 AM 15. The gradient coils determine the a. section thickness. b. resolution. c. plane of the image. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 1:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 1:57 AM 16. Current FDA standards limit the specific absorption rate (SAR) to a. 4 watts/kg of body weight. b. the patient’s BMI. c. the ratio of their height to weight. d. 10 watts/kg for the head.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 1:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 1:59 AM 17. When gradient coils are referred to, the short axis coil is referred to as the ____ gradient.

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Chapter 39 - Magnetic Resonance Imaging a. selection b. phase encoding c. frequency encoding d. none of the above ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 1:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 2:02 AM 18. When gradient coils are referred to, the long axis coil is referred to as the ____ gradient. a. selection b. phase encoding c. frequency encoding d. none of the above ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 2:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 2:04 AM 19. The primary variable in the data collection procedure during MRI is the a. pulsing of the static magnetic field. b. stationary magnet. c. sequence of RF pulses. d. initial scanogram.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 2:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 2:12 AM 20. Each of the following is an example of an RF pulse sequence EXCEPT a. stationary. b. spin-echo. c. gradient. d. inversion recovery.

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Chapter 39 - Magnetic Resonance Imaging ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 2:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 2:14 AM 21. MRI has been achieved with ____ magnets. a. resistive b. permanent c. superconductive d. all of the above ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 2:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 2:16 AM 22. Which can serve as both the transmitter and receiver of the MRI signal? a. the stationary magnet b. the gradient coils c. the RF coils d. the cryogen coils ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 2:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 2:17 AM 23. The most common variable in operating an MRI unit is the ____ used to enhance image quality. a. TI b. TE c. TR d. all of the above ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 39 - Magnetic Resonance Imaging HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 2:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 2:18 AM 24. In MRI, the primary visual factor is often called a. linearity. b. geometric shape. c. resolution. d. brightness.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 2:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 2:23 AM 25. The RF signal strength determines a. brightness. b. field strength. c. section thickness. d. spatial resolution.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 2:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 2:24 AM 26. The size of the tissue voxel determines a. brightness. b. field strength. c. section thickness. d. spatial resolution.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 2:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 2:25 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 39 - Magnetic Resonance Imaging 27. The most widely used technique for MR image reconstruction is a. back projection. b. interpolation. c. Fast Fourier transformation (FFT). d. Larmor equation precession (LEP).

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 2:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 2:56 AM 28. In an MR gantry, the patient lies at a. the lowest gantry level. b. isocenter. c. geometric center. d. the center of the external coils.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 2:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 2:58 AM 29. Higher field strength MRI magnets permit a. shorter scan times. b. better resolution. c. stronger signal strength. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 2:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 2:59 AM 30. Superconductive magnets used in MR are characterized by a. field strengths of 0.2 T–0.35 T. b. the use of liquid helium as a cryogen. c. resistive magnets with vertical fields.

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Chapter 39 - Magnetic Resonance Imaging d. the ability to turn the magnetic field on and off at will.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 2:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 3:00 AM 31. The basic principle of MR physics involves an established relationship between an external magnetic field and the gyromagnetic ratio of an atom. This is expressed as the a. power conversion ratio. b. Larmor equation. c. Hounsfield coefficient. d. H & D curve.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 3:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 3:02 AM 32. In order to create a more homogenous magnetic field in MR, ______ is required. a. a radio frequency b. a k-space coil c. an autotransformer d. shimming ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 3:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 3:03 AM 33. To prevent extraneous RF signals from degrading MR image quality, MR scan suites are enclosed in a a. copper cage. b. steel cage. c. Faraday cage. d. both a and c.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 39 - Magnetic Resonance Imaging DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 3:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 3:05 AM 34. The characteristic MR noise that is uncomfortable for patients and staff is due the ________ turning on and off at a high frequency. a. external magnet b. external coils c. gradient coils d. RF coil ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 3:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 3:06 AM 35. Contrast-enhanced MR images use ________ as the contrast material of choice. a. iodine b. barium c. gadolinium d. hydrogen ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 3:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 3:08 AM 36. The combination of field of view (FoV), acquisition matrix, and slice thickness determines the MR data element known as a a. pixel. b. voxel. c. byte. d. magnetic moment.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 39 - Magnetic Resonance Imaging HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 3:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 3:09 AM 37. The strength of an MR signal is a. directly proportional to the strength of the magnetic filed. b. directly proportional to the strength of BO. c. directly related to the tesla of the magnet. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 3:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 3:12 AM 38. Before performing an MR scan on a patient with compromised renal function, a. the patient should be NPO for 24 hours. b. the patient’s GFR should be assessed. c. an IVU should be performed. d. an ultrasound study of the kidneys should be done.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 3:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 3:13 AM 39. Patient precautions with MR scanning include a. claustrophobia. b. not touching the inside of the gantry during scanning. c. ferromagnetic implants or prosthetic devices. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 3:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 3:15 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 39 - Magnetic Resonance Imaging 40. If a piece of equipment, object, or device is to be used for an MR procedure, it is important to a. check its labeling by the ASTM Standard F2503. b. check it first with a small personal magnet before using it in the scan room. c. contact the MR vendor to check compatibility with the scanner. d. bring it into the scan room prior to the patient’s entry, to check its safety.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 3:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 3:16 AM 41. Increasing the number of signal averages (NSA) will a. decrease scan times b. increase the sampling of noise and not MR signal c. increase scan times d. both b and c ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 3:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 3:18 AM 42. To improve MR image quality of fast moving involuntary abdominal viscera such as small bowel a. increasing the NSA’s can be effective. b. patients should be heavily sedated. c. patient should be told to suspend respiration. d. reducing magnetic field strengths is recommended.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 3:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 3:20 AM 43. A popular MR technique for the visualization of fat, specifically in suspected pathologies, requires that a. patients avoid a fatty meal. b. special MR sequences can be tuned to receive signal from the resonant frequencies of hydrogen protons in fat or water.

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Chapter 39 - Magnetic Resonance Imaging c. fat saturation techniques should be avoided. d. patients ingest a fatty meal during the MR scan, to observe the movement of lipid hydrogen protons as they precess.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 3:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 3:21 AM 44. A patient safety concern with the use of gadolinium contrast agents in MR is a. oxygen toxicity. b. hydrogen saturation. c. suppressed T1 times. d. nephrogenic systemic fibrosis.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 3:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 3:23 AM 45. From a patient safety viewpoint, it is important that a. cardiac monitoring wire leads not be looped or coiled on the patient. b. patients are provided with headphones to muffle the noise created by T1 relaxation times. c. renal function is assessed after scanning to measure kidney output. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 3:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 3:31 AM Matching Match the following choices with the correct statement as each relates to magnetic resonance imaging. a. Tesla b. active shimming c. resistive magnet d. SE pulse sequence e. gyromagnetic ratio f. Faraday cage Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 39 - Magnetic Resonance Imaging g. voxel i. Larmor frequency k. TE m. T2 relaxation

h. cryogen j. gradient coils l. precession n. GBCA

o. Bo

p. NSF

DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 3:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 3:35 AM 46. low in field strength and requires electricity to create the field ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 47. a three-dimensional element of the digital image ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 48. same as precessional frequency ANSWER: i POINTS: 1 49. determines the plane of acquisition ANSWER: j POINTS: 1 50. unit of magnetic field strength ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 51. external, static magnetic field ANSWER: o POINTS: 1 52. uses RF coils to create a homogeneous field ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 53. unique value for each element, measured in MHz/T ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 54. spin-spin interaction ANSWER: m Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 39 - Magnetic Resonance Imaging POINTS:

1

55. begins with a 90° RF pulse and is followed by a 180° RF pulse ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 56. a rare complication from gadolinium use, in patients with impaired renal function ANSWER: p POINTS: 1 57. a rotation of the axis of rotation ANSWER: l POINTS: 1

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Chapter 40 - Nuclear Medicine and Molecular Imaging Multiple Choice 1. The nuclear stability of an element is principally determined by the a. number of valence electrons. b. neutron to proton ratio. c. neucleon to electron ratio. d. atomic number.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:25 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:26 PM 2. The radioactive elements Carbon-12, Carbon-13, and Carbon-14 are ______ to each other. a. isobars b. isomers c. isotopes d. isotones ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:27 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:28 PM 3. In order to achieve nuclear stability, a radionuclide may emit a. beta particles. b. gamma photons. c. positrons. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:31 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:33 PM 4. The unit of radioactivity commonly used in nuclear medicine is the a. becquerel.

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Chapter 40 - Nuclear Medicine and Molecular Imaging b. curie. c. tesla. d. coulomb.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:33 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:35 PM 5. A millicurie is a. a unit of absorbed dose of radioactivity. b. equivalent to 1 gray (Gy) of exposure. c. equal to 37 MBq. d. equal to 3.7 10 dps.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:36 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:40 PM 6. The time it takes for a radioactive nucleus to decay to 1/2 its original activity level is termed its a. half-value layer. b. half-life. c. effective half-life. d. decay scheme.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:42 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:44 PM 7. The physical half-life of technetium-99 is approximately a. 110 minutes. b. 2 hours. c. 6 hours. d. 73 hours.

ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 40 - Nuclear Medicine and Molecular Imaging POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:44 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:46 PM 8. The biological half-life of a radionuclide takes into account its a. physical decay scheme. b. physical half-life. c. metabolism within the human body. d. effective half-life.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:47 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:48 PM 9. All of the following are true of a radionuclide effective half-life EXCEPT: a. It takes into account the relationship between physical and biologic half-lives. b. It is the product of the physical and biologic half-lives divided by the sum of the physical and biologic halflives. c. It is always shorter than either the physical half-life or biologic half-life. d. It is of little importance as a consideration of radionuclides used for medical diagnosis.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:49 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:50 PM 10. Historically, the discoverer of radioactivity was a. Pierre and Marie Curie. b. Nikola Tesla. c. Henry Becquerel. d. Albert Einstein.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 40 - Nuclear Medicine and Molecular Imaging HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:51 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:00 AM 11. The isotope of choice for most nuclear medicine medical procedures is a. Gallium-67. b. Iodine-131. c. Fluorine-18. d. Technetium-99m.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:01 AM 12. Technetium-99m is an ideal isotope because of its a. long half-life. b. alpha particle emissions. c. low energy range. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:03 AM 13. Tc-99m is the daughter product of a. indium-111. b. molybdenum-99. c. gallium-67. d. thallium-201.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:04 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 40 - Nuclear Medicine and Molecular Imaging 14. The isotope of choice for the measurement of myocardial perfusion is a. Tc-99m. b. Ga-67. c. Tl-201. d. F-18.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:06 AM 15. Technetium-99m is regarded as the “ideal radionuclide” because of its 1. isomeric energy value of 190 KeV 2. ability to be produced by a generator in the radiopharmacy 3. gamma emissions 4. physical half-life of about 6 hours 5. availability and cost 6. minimal Compton interactions based upon its energy level 7. being blocked by thick lead blocks 8. energy level useful for medical diagnosis 9. beta emissions 10. gamma emissions of 90 KeV a. 1, 3, 4, 5 ,7, and 8 only b. 1, 2, 4, 6, 8, and 9 only c. 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, and 8 only d. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, and 10 only ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:11 AM 16. When using a Mo-99/Tc-99m generator for the production of technetium-99m, a. the eluate is extracted in the form of sodium pertechnetate (Na99mTcO4). b. the maximum activity of Tc-99m occurs after 4 half-lives. c. the maximum activity of Tc-99m occurs after approximately 24 hours. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 40 - Nuclear Medicine and Molecular Imaging QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:14 AM 17. Before use in patients, the eluate a. should be filtered. b. must be centrifuged. c. must undergo quality control testing. d. must be tested for energies emitted.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:17 AM 18. The isotope of choice for the diagnosis of chronic inflammations and infections is a. I-123. b. Tl-201. c. I-131. d. Ga-67.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:19 AM 19. Radiopharmacies located within a hospital a. are commonly called “hot labs.” b. are typically located next to medical laboratories in order to share chemicals. c. require daily quality control testing by an NRC representative. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:20 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 40 - Nuclear Medicine and Molecular Imaging 20. Unused radionuclides must be disposed of a. immediately after a patient injection. b. when the activity reaches background radiation levels. c. after the hospital RSO inspects the unused portion. d. after one additional half-life.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:23 AM 21. The radionuclide emission used for most nuclear diagnostic studies is a. x-rays. b. beta particles. c. gamma photons. d. alpha particles.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:25 AM 22. The scintillation crystal in an Anger gamma camera is a. cesium iodide. b. sodium iodide. c. sodium chloride-thallium activated. d. amorphous selenium.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:26 AM 23. During a nuclear study, gamma emissions from the patient are intercepted by the gamma camera crystal. The energy of the gamma photons is a. converted to very low energy light.

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Chapter 40 - Nuclear Medicine and Molecular Imaging b. ultimately converted to electrons that are amplified by photomultiplier tubes. c. proportional to the light emitted. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:28 AM 24. Gamma camera collimators a. function much like x-ray beam collimators in that they restrict exposure field size. b. are positioned between the detector crystal and photomultiplier tube array. c. function much like radiographic grids in their selectivity. d. are single in design and universal in functionality.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:30 AM 25. Because of the unique characteristics of radionuclides a. the cardinal rules of protection do not practically apply. b. lead shielding is seldom used in hot labs due to the energy of the gamma photons. c. nuclear medicine personnel are required to monitor their exposure at home as well. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:31 AM 26. The addition of CT technology to a radionuclide detector assembly a. helps reduce patient dose as nuclear scans can be shorter. b. restricts the use of specific isotopes that the CT scanner is not sensitive to. c. is a type of hybrid imaging and useful in oncology. d. eliminates the need for back projection technology and Fourier transform calculations.

ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 40 - Nuclear Medicine and Molecular Imaging POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:38 AM 27. All of the following are methods of nuclear image acquisition EXCEPT a. dynamic, gated imaging. b. SPECT. c. fluid attenuated inversion recovery. d. planar.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:39 AM 28. Nuclear images acquired by way of SPECT scanning a. are taken in a non-rotational, planar fashion. b. use only a single-head camera. c. produce a cross-sectional image of the anatomy. d. use the same protocols for all SPECT studies.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:41 AM 29. Positron emission tomography (PET) scanning a. requires sophisticated lead collimators. b. is more sensitive than non-PET imaging for the same radionuclide amount. c. produces image of less resolution than planar images. d. relies on the creation of a neutron annihilating an electron to create a pair of x-ray photons from the electron cloud.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 40 - Nuclear Medicine and Molecular Imaging HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:43 AM 30. Hybrid PET/CT and SPECT/CT scanners offer tremendous clinical utility as a result of a. the fusion of high-resolution CT images with PET images showing functionality. b. the integration of CT images with the planar images from the gamma camera. c. no motion and contrast agent artifacts. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:45 AM 31. The nuclear medicine device used to determine the location and activity of a possible radionuclide spill is a/an a. dose calibrator. b. uptake probe. c. Geiger-Mueller counter. d. well counter.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:47 AM 32. In terms of the regulation of radionuclides and nuclear medicine facility, if a particular state conducts the inspections and enforces the NRC regulations in place of the NRC, the state is considered a/an a. compliant state. b. coop state. c. agreement state. d. NRC-dependent state.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:49 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 40 - Nuclear Medicine and Molecular Imaging 33. All of the following are true of alpha and beta emissions EXCEPT: a. They produce ionizations. b. They are highly penetrating. c. They are unable to penetrate the outer layers of the skin. d. They have a mass and a charge.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:51 AM 34. For nuclear medicine personnel, the greatest source of occupational exposure to radiation comes from the a. hot lab. b. gamma camera. c. injected patient. d. radionuclide waste container.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 1:41 AM 35. When one considers the many clinical applications of nuclear medicine studies, perhaps the single-most distinction between radionuclide studies and radiographic studies centers around the fact that a. nuclear studies have higher resolution and less dose to the patient. b. CT and radiographic studies are more invasive to the patient. c. radionuclide studies are generally functional or metabolic studies. d. nuclear medicine exams are more economical and quicker to complete.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:54 AM Matching Match the following choices with the corresponding statements as each relates to radionuclide imaging.

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Chapter 40 - Nuclear Medicine and Molecular Imaging a. hot lab b. MUGA c. alpha emission d. NRC e. effective half life f. elution g. physical half-life h. V/Q scan i. PET scanning j. wipe testing k. beta emission l. uptake probe DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 1:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 1:24 AM 36. similar to electron except for atomic origin ANSWER: k POINTS: 1 37. protects the health and safety of the public and the environment regarding nuclear activities ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 38. performed weekly to determine spillage ANSWER: j POINTS: 1 39. removing Tc-99m from the Mo-99/Tc-99m generator ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 40. relies upon coincidence detection ANSWER: i POINTS: 1 41. always less than Tp and Tb ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 42. performed to evaluate heart functionality ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 43. used to measure radioactive iodine concentration in thyroid gland ANSWER: l POINTS: 1 44. inspected daily with an area-survey meter for spills, contamination, and so on Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 40 - Nuclear Medicine and Molecular Imaging ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 45. also known as a pulmonary function test ANSWER: h POINTS: 1

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Chapter 41 - Radiation Therapy Multiple Choice 1. The very first therapeutic applications of ionizing radiation were used to treat a. non-malignant conditions. b. breast cancers. c. retinoblastomas. d. cystic lesions.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:06 AM 2. All of the following are related EXCEPT: a. Spare healthy tissues. b. Preserve surrounding tissue function. c. Eradicate and/or shrink the malignancy. d. Elevate side effects in order to improve tissue vascularization.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:17 AM 3. Radiotherapy treatments a. are treated as prescriptions. b. require a physician’s order. c. start with a consultation. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:18 AM 4. The radiotherapy prescription includes 1. treatment field angles 2. protraction period Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 41 - Radiation Therapy 3. radiotherapist designated to deliver treatments 4. total dose administered 5. fractionalized dosages 6. patient’s mental altitude 7. treatment techniques 8. treatment fields and dimensions 9. patient side effects a. 1, 3, 4, 5, 7, and 8 b. 1, 2 4, 6, 8, and 9 c. 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, and 8 d. 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, and 9 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:19 AM 5. Radiotherapy treatment plans require a. an informed consent. b. a psychological examination. c. an assessment of the patient’s support circle. d. an advanced directive.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:20 AM 6. The contemporary treatment planning process is typically completed a. using a linear accelerator. b. using a cobalt radiotherapy unit. c. using a CT simulator. d. and submitted to a tumor board for assessment.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:22 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 41 - Radiation Therapy 7. Palliative treatment plans a. are intended to cure the patient’s cancer condition. b. are administered in a single massive dosage in order to minimize side effects long-term. c. require fewer treatment sessions than curative plans. d. use a lower energy value as these conditions are less life-threatening.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:23 AM 8. Typical radiotherapy treatment sessions require the rotation of the therapy unit around the patient. The precision necessary to ensure rotational accuracy mandates that the therapy unit a. utilize radio-frequency signals from multiple sources at varying distances. b. rotate out of isocenter in order to compare normative values. c. be checked daily for rotational precision. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:25 AM 9. PET/CTs are considered a. hybrid machines. b. essential to fusion imaging. c. integral to treatment planning and staging. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:26 AM 10. The calculation of a radiotherapy treatment plan a. is the responsibility of the radiotherapist.

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Chapter 41 - Radiation Therapy b. is the responsibility of the medical oncologist. c. are prescribed by a radiation oncologist. d. assumes the patient’s medical status will improve.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:29 AM 11. Each of the following are essential to the calculation of irradiated tissue volume EXCEPT a. dimensional target volume (DTV). b. clinical target volume (CTV). c. planning target volume (PTV). d. gross target volume (GTV).

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:31 AM 12. The total tissue volume irradiated takes into account the a. patient’s body motions, such as respiration. b. the zone of tissue surrounding the malignant mass. c. size and dimension of the malignant mass. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:33 AM 13. Radiotherapy treatment plans a. are carried out by the radiotherapists. b. are modified in real-time based upon the patient’s tolerance. c. require informed consent each time a treatment is given. d. provide for patient comfort by permitting the patient to assume varying positions during the treatment.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 41 - Radiation Therapy POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:35 AM 14. Image guided radiation therapy (IGRT) a. permits the placement of internal radiotherapy sources. b. provides CT images of the therapy patient. c. allows the radiotherapist to take x-ray images of the patient. d. is considered an obsolete technology and being replaced by intensity modulated therapy.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:37 AM 15. X-rays used for radiotherapy a. are in the megavoltage range of energies. b. are produced by a Cobalt-60 source. c. are monoenergetic. d. do not need filtration due to their high energies.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:38 AM 16. The therapy treatment fields are measured in a. milli-ampere seconds (mAs). b. Compton scatter ratios (C/R). c. monitor units (MU). d. roentgens (R).

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 41 - Radiation Therapy DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 10:09 PM 17. Imaging gives the radiation therapist and oncologist a. a perspective of the shrinkage of the tumor as radiation is being administered. b. an opportunity to see if the patient’s vital structures are being damaged during treatment sessions. c. the ability to compare the planned treatment field with the anatomy of the patient. d. the flexibility to adjust dosages during treatment sessions.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:41 AM 18. When radiographic images are produced during portal imaging, using megavoltages, a. high-contrast images are produced due to the number of photoelectric interactions. b. high-resolution digital images are created using the linear accelerator x-ray beam. c. very low-contrast images are produced. d. beam shaping and tumor contouring eliminate pair-production interactions.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:49 AM 19. Radiotherapy of the prostate is particularly difficult due to its a. small size. b. anatomical position between the rectum and the bladder. c. radioresistance to high-energy x-rays. d. inability to be visualized using IGRT. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:51 AM 20. IGRT is an important part of a successful radiotherapy program because of its Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 41 - Radiation Therapy a. ability to create images. b. capability for gated treatment fields. c. technology for optical tracking of tumor location and size. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:53 AM 21. Linear accelerators are capable of a. 360-degree rotation. b. x-ray and electron therapy. c. measuring dose rate in real time. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 1:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 1:17 AM 22. All of the following are components of a typical linear accelerator EXCEPT a. gantry and collimator assembly. b. simulator. c. treatment couch. d. control console and modulator cabinet.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 1:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 1:22 AM 23. Stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS) is most effective with a. breast lesions. b. surgically inaccessible lesions. c. superficial tumors. d. colon cancers.

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Chapter 41 - Radiation Therapy ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 1:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 1:24 AM 24. Proton radiotherapy is particularly beneficial because of a. protons depositing their total energy within the target tissue. b. the positive charge of protons. c. the minimal scatter radiation produced with protons. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 1:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 1:25 AM 25. All of the following are true of tomotherapy EXCEPT: a. It is a helical type of treatment. b. It employs planar tomographic principles. c. It can be used to treat all malignancies. d. It is used in conjunction with IMRT, SRS, and SRT. ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 1:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 1:27 AM Matching Match the following choices with the correct statement as each relates to radiation therapy. a. Clarence Dally b. isocenter c. isodose curve d. simulation e. contouring f. Emil Grubbe g. radiotherapist h. palliative plan i. fusion imaging j. IGRT k. curative plan l. beam angles Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 41 - Radiation Therapy m. radiation oncologist n. proton therapy DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 1:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 1:32 AM 26. treatment plan intended to eradicate malignancy ANSWER: k POINTS: 1 27. first person to use lead as a patient protection material ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 28. physician specializing in radiation therapy ANSWER: m POINTS: 1 29. first step in the treatment planning process ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 30. graphic representation of radiation intensities in a spatial display ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 31. achieved by moving the gantry and/or couch ANSWER: l POINTS: 1 32. requires a cyclotron ANSWER: n POINTS: 1 33. carries out treatment plans on patients ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 34. tracing of the shape of the tumor volume as well as structures near the tumor volume that the radiation dose will affect ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 35. integrating structural images, MRI or CT, with functional images, PET or SPECT ANSWER: i Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 41 - Radiation Therapy POINTS:

1

36. intended to extend life and/or improve quality of life in terminal patient ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 37. the point where all three rotational axes intersect from the simulator and for the treatment machine ANSWER: b POINTS: 1

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Chapter 42 - Diagnostic Medical Sonography Multiple Choice 1. The “gold standard” of medical sonography credentialing is provided by the a. ASRT. b. ACR. c. ARDMS. d. ARRT. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:52 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:53 PM 2. Historically, medical ultrasound had its beginnings a. as a result of bombings in Japan. b. following the Vietnam War. c. with the development of acoustic gels. d. as early as WWI. ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:53 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:55 PM 3. In order to determine location and size of an area of interest during a sonography scan, a. two parallel views are necessary. b. a transverse view and a longitudinal view are needed. c. two axial views are necessary. d. the images are correlated to radiographic images based upon anatomy.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:55 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:56 PM 4. When scanning in the transverse orientation, a. the marker on the transducer should point to the patient’s right side.

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Chapter 42 - Diagnostic Medical Sonography b. the marker on the transducer should point to the patient’s head. c. the marker on the transducer should point to the patient’s left side. d. the marker on the transducer should point to the patient’s feet.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:56 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:57 PM 5. A sonogram is studied by a radiologist for interpretation, and while reading the images, he or she notes that the patient may have situs inversus. This is a condition in which the normal anatomy is reversed left to right or right to left. To confirm this condition, a. the transducer markers must be confirmed as being accurate. b. a CT scan of the abdomen is taken to check anatomy. c. a radiograph of the patient is automatically taken to check anatomy. d. the patient can be asked if they have this condition, as most patients know this anyway.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:57 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:58 PM 6. Sound energy is a type of _______ energy. a. electromagnetic b. mechanical c. compression d. microwave ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:58 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 10:59 PM 7. Sound waves operate in a cyclical fashion, and because of this, a. they have a negative phase and a positive phase. b. they always travel in a forward direction. c. they have a cyclical compression and rarefaction.

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Chapter 42 - Diagnostic Medical Sonography d. both a and c ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 10:59 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:00 PM 8. Ultrasound frequency is expressed in a. newtons (N). b. rads. c. angstroms (A). d. hertz (Hz).

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:01 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:02 PM 9. Sound waves behave like light waves in that sound waves a. travel in straight lines. b. may be focused. c. may reflect or create echoes. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:02 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:03 PM 10. Medical ultrasound frequencies are a. damaging to tissues. b. not related to wavelength. c. greater than 20 kHz. d. unrelated to penetration depth.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 42 - Diagnostic Medical Sonography QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:03 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:04 PM 11. The relationship between ultrasound frequency and depth of penetration is a. direct. b. proportional to the piezoelectric crystal diameter. c. inverse. d. irrelevant at the frequencies used in medicine.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:04 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:05 PM 12. The relationship between ultrasound frequency and image resolution is a. direct. b. indirect. c. inverse. d. both b and c.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:06 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:06 PM 13. The characteristic of an ultrasound beam is ultimately determined by the a. patient’s anatomy. b. transducer design. c. ultrasound unit’s power. d. skill of the ultrasonographer.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:07 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:08 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 42 - Diagnostic Medical Sonography 14. A 3 MHz transducer would produce an ultrasound beam with a wavelength of a. 1.54/3 MHz. b. 5.13  10−7. c. 4.62  10−7. d. both a and b.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:08 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:10 PM 15. Of the choices below, the material that will have the greatest sound propagation speed is a. cerebrum. b. cortical bone. c. liver. d. pericardial fat.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:11 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:12 PM 16. As an ultrasound beam travels through tissue, its a. amplitude increases. b. power and wattage increase. c. focal zone can be changed by the sonographer. d. intensity must remain constant.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:12 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:13 PM 17. The active component that produces the sound energy and image in an ultrasound transducer is the a. backing material. b. piezoelectric crystal.

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Chapter 42 - Diagnostic Medical Sonography c. photoconductive layer. d. damping material.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:13 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:14 PM 18. Modern ultrasound machines use a. a continuous, uninterrupted wave of sound. b. electrons to create the echoes. c. a pulsed sound wave. d. electromagnetic RF energy.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:16 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:17 PM 19. The piezoelectric crystal has the potential to convert 1. sound energy to electrical energy 2. sound energy to heat energy 3. electrical energy to sound energy 4. electrical energy to mechanical energy 5. sound energy to electromagnetic energy a. 1, 2, and 5 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1, 3, and 4 only d. 4 and 5 only ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:17 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:18 PM 20. Ultrasound velocity is faster in tissues or materials of a. low frequency. b. lower compressibility.

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Chapter 42 - Diagnostic Medical Sonography c. higher density. d. lower atomic numbers.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:18 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:20 PM 21. The relationship between ultrasound beam intensity a. and power is inverse. b. and power is direct, proportionately. c. and amplitude is nonexistent. d. and the transducer is unrelated.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:20 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:21 PM 22. The ultrasound transducer has the ability to send out sound waves and listen for returning echoes. The time the transducer is sending signals is termed its a. relaxation time. b. echo response time. c. duty factor. d. use factor.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:21 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:22 PM 23. The characteristic of spatial pulse length (SPL) a. is distance from the beginning of the pulse to the end of the pulse. b. is alterable by the sonographer. c. has no effect upon resolution. d. is directly related to frequency and depth.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 42 - Diagnostic Medical Sonography POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:22 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:23 PM 24. The process of sound losing energy as it travels through a medium is called a. diffraction. b. reflection. c. attenuation. d. shadowing.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/17/2019 11:23 PM DATE MODIFIED: 2/17/2019 11:25 PM 25. As sound travels through an absorbing medium, 1. its amplitude decreases 2. it gains velocity and power 3. its power decreases 4. its direction is altered 5. it loses intensity a. 1, 2, and 5 only b. 2, 4, and 5 only c. 1, 3, and 5 only d. 2 and 4 only ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:02 AM 26. The sonographer can change the intensity, power, or amplitude of a sound wave a. by adjusting the gain. b. by altering the dBs. c. by changing the time gain compensation. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 42 - Diagnostic Medical Sonography POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:03 AM 27. Echoes created in ultrasonography are the result of a. differences in acoustic impedances at tissue interfaces. b. similar tissues having the same acoustic impedance. c. tissue interfaces running at angles parallel to the primary beam path. d. vector angles and RF pulse sequences in rapid succession.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:05 AM 28. The intensity of the returning echoes in medical sonography is determined by a. the difference in Z values between tissue membranes. b. the window and level of the output image. c. the concentration of the ultrasound gel (coupler). d. the pressure applied to the transducer face by the sonographer.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:06 AM 29. In order to produce the best possible image, there must be a a. similarity of acoustic impedances. b. angled relationship between the beam direction and tissue. c. difference of acoustic impedances and a perpendicular angle of the beam and tissue interface. d. identical tissue interface.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 42 - Diagnostic Medical Sonography DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:07 AM 30. According to Huygen’s principle, a. focused beams have a near field and a far field. b. the narrowest portion of the focused beam is the transition zone. c. the beam is useful to about two near field lengths (NFL). d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:08 AM 31. Doppler scanning relies on the principle of a. directional flow and echoes. b. measuring velocity as opposed to speed. c. assigned color values based upon echo direction and intensity. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:10 AM 32. A transducer that lacks a damping material has a. inherently high resolution but low frequency. b. an increased spatial pulse length and reduced resolution. c. poor axial resolution. d. a greater tendency to produce hand fatigue.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:11 AM 33. A linear array transducer Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 42 - Diagnostic Medical Sonography a. is fixed in focal range. b. has elements arranged in a row and fired simultaneously. c. creates a “steerable” sound beam. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:12 AM 34. Sound waves are unlike electromagnetic waves in that sound waves cannot be transmitted through a. water. b. air. c. a vacuum. d. low density materials.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:13 AM 35. All of the following are related EXCEPT a. convex array. b. linear array. c. dimensional array. d. annular phased array.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:26 AM 36. The preferred ultrasound examination to evaluate vascular occlusions and blood flow dynamics is a. M-mode scanning. b. B-mode scanning. c. color flow Doppler scanning. d. triplex scanning.

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Chapter 42 - Diagnostic Medical Sonography ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:27 AM 37. Harmonic sound waves a. are the result of scattered echoes hitting each other. b. allow the sonographer to use a low-frequency transducer for penetration with improved resolution. c. do not occur in a water medium. d. remain as a sinusoidal wave shape but can change shape based upon tissue shape and contour.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:28 AM 38. High-frequency transducers have a. better resolution and less penetration. b. better resolution and better penetration. c. lower resolution and less penetration. d. lower resolution and better penetration.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:29 AM 39. Three-dimensional ultrasound imaging in real time is referred to as a. phased 3-D ultrasound. b. convex 3-D ultrasound. c. duplex scanning. d. 4-D ultrasound.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 42 - Diagnostic Medical Sonography HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:31 AM 40. Which of the following patient pathologies would NOT be well suited for sonographic examination? a. cholelithiasis b. ovarian cyst c. ventricular septal defect (VSD) d. osteomyelitis ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Medium QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:32 AM Matching Match the following choices with the correct statement as each relates to medical sonography. a. B-mode b. Rayls c. damping material d. decibels e. Doppler f. acoustic coupler g. PZT h. matching layer i. M-mode j. Huygen’s principle DIFFICULTY: Difficult QUESTION TYPE: Matching HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 2/18/2019 12:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 2/18/2019 12:35 AM 41. unit of acoustic impedance ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 42. ultrasound gel ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 43. comes in direct contact with the patient as part of the transducer ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 44. scanning mode used to assess cardiac pathologies Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 42 - Diagnostic Medical Sonography ANSWER: i POINTS: 1 45. piezoelectric crystal material ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 46. accounts for a near and far zone of beam ANSWER: j POINTS: 1 47. frequency of sound is related to direction of echo relative to source ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 48. the process by which images are displayed on current machines ANSWER: a POINTS: 1

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