Psychology From Inquiry to Understanding 4th Edition Lilienfeld Test Bank by Ace Test Banks

Psychology From Inquiry to Understanding 4th Edition Lilienfeld Test Bank

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Chapter 1: Psychology and Scientific Thinking Total Assessment Guide Topic Quick Quiz 1

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice

4, 8, 10

1, 6, 9

2–3, 5, 7

Quick Quiz 2

Multiple Choice

6, 9

1–2, 5, 7

3–4, 8, 10

Learning Objective 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Learning Objective 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases.

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice

3–4, 10, 12 1–2

1–2, 5–6, 8

7, 9

15–16, 22–23, 33– 34, 36

13–14, 17, 21, 24, 29, 37–38

18–20, 25–28, 30–32, 35 3

Learning Objective 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Learning Objective 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience.

Learning Objective 1.3a Identify the key features of scientific skepticism. Learning Objective 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking.

Learning Objective 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology.

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice

39, 42–43, 46, 48– 50, 58 4–6

1 1 47, 56

1 40–41, 45, 51– 55, 57, 119

2 62–64, 68, 70, 76

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice

7–8, 10–11

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice

17–19

3 79–81, 85 14

86, 88, 90–91, 97, 99, 102, 109, 114, 116–117

120–125, 129–130, 132, 135, 137 20–23 4

44, 59–60, 69

2 61, 65–67, 71– 75, 77 9, 12–13

78, 83–84

82 15

11, 96, 98, 104, 108, 111–113

87, 89, 92–95, 100–101, 103, 105–107, 110, 115, 118 16

3 4 126, 131, 136

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice 138, 140–141, 144 143 Learning Objective 1.4b Fill-in-the-Blank Describe different types of Copyright ©Essay 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. psychologists and identify 1 what each of them does. Critical Thinking

127–128, 133– 134 24

139, 142

Topic Learning Objective 90 1.4c Describe the two great debates that have shaped the field of psychology. Learning Objective 1.4d Describe how psychological research affects our daily lives.

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

146, 149, 151 25

147, 150

145, 148

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

152, 155

5–6

153–154 26

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 1 Quick Quiz 1 1. A psychologist is often skeptical of claims suggesting that __________. A) people are influenced by others’ thoughts and behaviors B) a particular behavior is the result of a single causal variable C) a person’s culture is a strong influence on his or her everyday thoughts and behaviors D) a person’s future behavior is often difficult to predict accurately 2. Professor Clark gives her students an assignment to develop hypotheses on global warming. To be consistent with a scientific method, students should develop their hypotheses based on __________. A) their own existing beliefs about the issue B) reports discussed on television C) untestable predictions D) a well-supported scientific theory 3. Curtis is considering buying a new workout machine that promises weight loss at twice the rate of other machines. When Curtis questioned such a claim with the manufacturer, the customer service representative stated this was a new system and previous research on weight loss was not applicable. This example illustrates which warning sign of pseudoscience? A) evasion of peer review B) absence of connectivity C) overreliance on anecdotes D) lack of self-correction 4. Assuming that something is true simply because a teacher or religious authority said it is so, is an example of the __________ fallacy. A) appeal to authority B) circular reasoning C) hasty generalization D) naturalistic 5. Dr. Wolpe designs an experimental test of his theory of aggression against a competing theory. After conducting the appropriate statistical tests, he finds that the data are better explained by the competing theory. His willingness to accept the evidence that another theory is superior is a characteristic of __________. A) dogmatism B) gullibility C) pathological skepticism D) scientific skepticism 6. An astute observer of human nature should state research questions in a manner that leads either to their being supported or refuted by the available evidence. This is the critical thinking principle of __________. A) falsifiability B) Occam’s Razor C) replicability D) ruling out rival hypotheses 7. A classmate tells you the following: “It’s not how a teacher answers your question that matters, but how you interpret his or her attempt at answering your question that leaves you satisfied or unsatisfied with his or her answer.” This statement fits most closely with ideas from the school of thought known as __________. A) behaviorism B) cognitivism C) psychoanalysis D) structuralism 8. A __________ psychologist works in prisons, jails, and other settings to assess inmates and assist in rehabilitation. A) clinical B) school C) biological D) forensic

9. Which of the following ideas is the most compelling evidence against the idea of free will? A) Most of people’s behavior is deliberate and controlled. B) People often lack direct access to the causes of their behavior. C) Recent brain imaging studies have shown that readiness potential and conscious intention to behave co-occur. D) We select when, where, and how to assert our option to engage in one behavior rather than in another. 10. What famous American psychologist also heavily influenced the field of advertising? A) William James B) Carl Rogers C) B. F. Skinner D) John Watson

Chapter 1 Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1. B

Explanation: Most behaviors are the result of multiple factors. A single-factor explanation is very rarely accurate. (What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition, Conceptual, APA LO 2.1, TEXT LO 1.1a)

2. D

Explanation: A hypothesis is a testable prediction derived from a scientific theory. (What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition, Applied, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 1.1b)

3. B

Explanation: One of the warning signs of pseudoscience is lack of connectivity to other research (i.e., findings that are vastly different than those of previous research on the same topic). (Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science, Applied, APA LO 2.1, TEXT LO 1.2a)

4. A

Explanation: The authors point out that even authority figures or experts in a particular topic must be questioned and their claims must be subjected to intense scrutiny. (Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science, Factual, APA LO 2.1, TEXT LO 1.2b)

5. D

Explanation: Scientific skepticism requires us to be open to all possibilities, including the possibility that our own theories are not accurate. (Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction, Applied, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 1.3a)

6. A

Explanation: In order for a theory to be valuable, 6it must be capable of being demonstrated to be wrong (Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction, Conceptual, APA LO 2.1, TEXT LO 1.3b)

7. B

Explanation: The cognitive school of thought suggests that it is our interpretation of things that happen to us that matters. (Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been, Applied, APA LO 1.2, TEXT LO 1.4a)

8. D

Explanation: This is a general job description of a forensic psychologist. (Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been, Factual, APA LO 5.1, TEXT LO 14b)

9. B

Explanation: The idea that people often do things without truly knowing why is counterevidence to the concept of free will. (Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been. Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 1.4c)

10. D

Explanation: As one of the earlier pioneers of the behavioral school of thought, Watson’s influence spread into many fields. (Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 1.4d)

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 1 Quick Quiz 2 1. If you examine the research that has been conducted in psychology, you will find that much of the knowledge from popular, less-scientific psychology sources __________. A) is consistent with the results of psychological research B) is contradicted by what psychological research has demonstrated C) is not able to be studied empirically D) is of no or very little interest to psychologists 2. Because none of us wants to believe we are wrong, we are usually reluctant to give up cherished notions. This phenomenon is known as __________. A) belief perseverance B) the confirmation bias C) the availability heuristic D) the fundamental attribution 3. A group of animal behaviorists has discovered several new species of insects in the Amazon jungle. They collect the new species for later study back at the camp. Due to advances in computer technology, they are able to transfer their findings immediately to other researchers studying insects. Their willingness to share these findings with other scientists shows their commitment to __________. A) critical thinking B) falsifiability C) peer review D) pseudoscience 4. The fact that many people, when looking at the moon that orbits Earth, see a face (commonly called “the man in the moon”) can be explained by the phenomenon of __________. A) chaotics B) metaphysics C) patternicity D) apophenia 5. Time, expertise, and resources are all obstacles that __________. A) diminish skepticism B) diminish metaphysical claims C) increase reliance on authorities D) increase reliance on empiricism 6. In the natural world, there often are many different factors associated with the occurrence of a particular outcome. Therefore it is important that we as critical thinkers __________ whenever possible. A) create unfalsifiable theories B) propose complex statements of causation C) remember that correlation equals causation D) rule out rival hypotheses 7. With its concern on the adaptive functions provided by the various psychological characteristics, evolutionary psychology is most like what early psychological school of thought? A) Behaviorism B) Functionalism C) Psychoanalysis D) Structuralism 8. Nico is meeting with his academic advisor. He wishes to pursue a career where he’ll work to diagnose and treat mental disorders. Nico aspires to be a(n) __________ psychologist. A) clinical B) experimental C) forensic D) school

9. Which of the following psychologists would be most likely to argue that free will is something that does not truly exist, and that we are simply unaware of the environmental influences that affect our behaviors at any given moment? A) B. F. Skinner B) Sigmund Freud C) Wilhelm Wundt D) Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi 10. If you were conducting a study designed to determine which type of psychotherapy is most effective in the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder, what type of research would you employ? A) basic B) applied C) academic D) sociobiological

Chapter 1 Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1. B

Explanation: Many of the popular beliefs are demonstrated to be incorrect when they are appropriately researched. (What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition, Conceptual, APA LO 2.1, TEXT LO 1.1a)

2. A

Explanation: Belief perseverance is the tendency to stick to our initial beliefs even when evidence contradicts them. (What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 1.1b)

3. C

Explanation: Many warning signs help us to recognize pseudoscience, including lack of peer review. Peer review is necessary for a truly scientific process. (Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science, Applied, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 1.2a)

4. C

Explanation: Patternicity is the tendency to see order, or structure, where it does not exist. Seeing a “face” in the various rocks and chasms of the moon is a good example of this phenomenon. (Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science, Applied, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 1.2b)

5. C

Explanation: The general population often doesn’t possess the expertise, time, or resources to evaluate claims on our own. (Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 1.3a)

6. D

Explanation: Our willingness to eliminate alternate explanations for a phenomenon is what is at play here. (Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction, Factual, APA LO 2.1, TEXT LO 1.3b)

7. B

Explanation: The theories of Charles Darwin and evolutionary psychology were most salient to the school of thought known as Functionalism. (Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been, Conceptual, APA LO 1.2, TEXT LO 1.4c)

8. A

Explanation: The evaluation, diagnosis, and treatment of mental disorders is the key responsibility of a clinical psychologist. (Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been, Applied, APA LO 5.1, TEXT LO 1.4b)

9. A

Explanation: Skinner, a staunch behaviorist, believed that free will is an illusion. (Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 1.4c)

10. B

Explanation: Applied research examines how we can use basic research to solve real-world problems. (Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 1.4d)

Chapter 1: Psychology and Scientific Thinking Test Bank Multiple Choice 1. When students begin to read through their introductory psychology textbook, they are often surprised to learn that __________. A) commonsense explanations abound in the field of psychology Incorrect. Commonsense explanations are frequently accurate, but they are not consistent with the science of psychology unless they have been appropriately researched. B) many of their beliefs about the causes of thoughts and behaviors are incorrect Correct. Popular psychology has led many people to have incorrect impressions about many psychological phenomena. C) psychologists do not study people’s everyday behaviors D) psychology is a unique field of study separate from philosophy and biology Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 2. When you examine the research that has been conducted in psychology, you will find that much of the knowledge from popular, less-scientific psychology sources ___________. A) is consistent with the results of psychological research B) is contradicted by what psychological research has demonstrated Correct. Many of the popular beliefs are demonstrated to be incorrect when they are appropriately researched. C) is not able to be studied empirically Incorrect. Most of the information that you will see in a psychology course is capable of being examined empirically in one form of research or another. Not all questions, however, can be explored experimentally. This means that cause-and-effect relationships cannot always be adequately demonstrated. D) is of no or very little interest to psychologists Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition

3. According to the authors, psychology is a method for __________. A) determining simple answers to complex questions B) acquiring more insight into the hows and whys of human behavior C) knowing how to turn people from maladaptive to adaptive actions, feelings, and thoughts D) restating commonsense findings in a more convoluted manner Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 4. According to your authors, the discipline of psychology is best thought of as __________. A) a field of self-help principles to eliminate mental problems B) a mixture of anecdotes and personal intuition about human behavior and mental processes C) a process for encouraging people to reach their ultimate potential D) the scientific study of the mind, brain, and behavior Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 5. A psychologist is often skeptical of claims suggesting that __________. A) people are influenced by others’ thoughts and behaviors B) a particular behavior is the result of a single causal variable Correct. Most behaviors are the result of multiple factors. A single-variable explanation is very rarely accurate. C) a person’s culture is a strong influence on his or her everyday thoughts and behaviors Incorrect. Recent years have seen an enormous increase in psychology’s recognition that the impact of culture on behaviors must always be considered. D) a person’s future behavior is often difficult to predict accurately Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 6. What is the term used to explain why different people can respond to the same situation in a variety of manners? A) idiosyncratic distracters B) idiographic anomalies C) individual differences D) confounding variables Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition

7. Michelle constantly tells her boyfriend Niccolai that he doesn’t pay attention to her, and that this is why she tends to nag him to pay attention. Her repeated criticisms cause Niccolai to tune her out, which causes her to nag him even more. This bidirectional pattern of influence is what Albert Bandura would have called __________. A) reciprocal determinism Correct. Reciprocal determinism suggests that various behaviors affect each other mutually, at the same time. B) scientific skepticism C) the premise of Occam’s Razor Incorrect. Occam’s Razor suggests that the simplest explanation for a phenomenon is usually the most accurate explanation. It is not related to this question. D) cyclical impingement Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 8. Entire subfields of psychology focus on the __________ that distinguish one person’s interaction with the world from another’s. A) nomothetic applications Incorrect. Your book does not reference something called nomothetic applications, but such a term would refer to commonalities between people, not individual differences. B) individual differences Correct. Such differences between our reactions to various encounters with the world around us are what underlie much of psychological research. C) correlative traits D) objective traits Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 9. A famous college football coach believes that if he bends down and eats a little of the grass every time his team is visiting another school's stadium, his team will have good luck in the game. He has done this for two years and has yet to lose an "away" game. His tendency to believe he sees the world correctly, and that the world exists precisely as he sees it, is called __________. A) popular psychology B) naive realism Correct. Naive realism refers to a person’s belief that he or she accurately and objectively sees the world as it is. C) common sense Incorrect. It is an unfortunate truth that the way we want the world to be is infrequently the way the world is. Common sense would tell us not to expect things to come out just the way we want them to. D) a single-variable explanation Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

10. __________ refers to the belief that we see the world precisely as it is. A) Common sense B) Confirmation bias C) Single-variable explanation D) Naive realism Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 11. A major problem with commonsense proverbs is that they often coexist with their complete opposite. This violates which principle of critical thinking? A) extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence B) falsifiability Correct. Because the proverbs are true no matter which way you present them, they cannot be demonstrated to be wrong. This violates the critical thinking principle of falsifiability. C) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. Occam’s Razor is a concept that suggests that the simplest explanation for an event is usually the correct one. D) replicability Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 12. Which of the following is the best statement of your authors’ position regarding the use of intuition in decision-making situations? A) Intuition is actually the foundation of analysis, and thus there is no true distinction between these two aspects of decision-making. B) Intuition is more likely than not to lead to disastrous mistakes. C) The existence of “intuition” is actually a myth, as decisions made without careful analysis are always wrong. D) Intuition comes in handy in many situations and often guides people to the truth. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition

13. Due to its reliance on proper research methods to help verify its claims, modern psychology is best considered to be a __________. A) collection of pieces of folk wisdom B) series of contradictions to be sorted out C) science Correct. The study of psychology is a science, which means that there are specific methods for asking questions, gathering data, and answering questions. D) therapeutic process Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 14. A science is defined by __________. A) knowledge Incorrect. Science may be considered the quest for knowledge, but this is not how science is defined. B) its concern with solving real-life practical problems C) its popularity among the general public D) its approach to dealing with evidence Correct. Science is an approach to gathering and dealing with evidence that helps prevent us from fooling ourselves. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 15. The science of psychology is often founded on __________, which is the premise that knowledge should initially be acquired through observation. A) pseudoscience B) hypothesis-testing Incorrect. A hypothesis is an educated guess regarding how variables will relate to each other which is followed by testing the variables after gathering data. A hypothesis is part of the scientific method. This is not the best answer, however. C) theory D) empiricism Correct. This is the beginning of data collection within the science of psychology. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition

16. In science, a scientific theory is defined as a(n) __________. A) educated opinion about the natural world B) explanation for a large number of findings in the natural world Correct. In order for a premise to be considered useful, it must provide an explanation for a large number of findings that occur in the natural world, including the psychological world. C) personal understanding of natural laws D) testable prediction about the natural world Incorrect. A testable prediction about the natural world is a hypothesis, not a theory. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 17. When a psychologist mentions the term scientific theory, he or she is referring to something that __________. A) explains a single event B) explains a wide range of observations C) is no better an explanation than another person’s opinion D) refers to an educated guess Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 18. Dr. Rashad offers the class an explanation for an extensive group of research findings connecting emotionality and nonverbal communication. Her explanation for this group of findings is a(n) __________. A) hypothesis Incorrect. A hypothesis is a testable prediction—an educated guess—that is based on an existing theory. B) empirical conclusion C) operational definition D) scientific theory Correct. A scientific theory is an explanation for a large number of findings in the natural world. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition

19. Professor Clark gives her students an assignment to develop hypotheses on global warming. To be consistent with a scientific method, students should develop their hypotheses based on __________. A) their own existing beliefs about the issue Incorrect. In fact, for research to be as “clean” and accurate as possible, researchers have to be very careful NOT to let their own beliefs or biases influence their research. B) reports discussed on television C) untestable predictions D) a well-supported scientific theory Correct. A hypothesis is a testable prediction derived from a scientific theory. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 20. Dr. Richburg’s botany class gathers specimens outside of the classroom for further study. Dr. Richburg instructs his students to develop a scientific theory that helps explain the biodiversity of the plants. The resulting theory should __________. A) provide an educated guess about the biodiversity of the plants B) explain observations about the plants and predict new findings about plant biodiversity Correct. A scientific theory is an explanation for a large number of findings in the natural world that leads to testable predictions. C) explain a few findings about the biodiversity of the plants Incorrect. A theory is an explanation for a large number of findings in the natural world. D) interpret what has already been discovered about the biodiversity of the plants Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 21. Which of the following would be best described as an “educated guess”? A) method B) theory Incorrect. A theory is actually generated as a result of past research, and is used to guide the educated guesses, or hypotheses, about future explorations. C) hypothesis Correct. A hypothesis is a testable prediction that is derived from an existing scientific theory. Therefore, it is a guess about a specific outcome that is informed by past knowledge. D) design Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition

22. A testable prediction derived from a scientific theory is called a ___________. A) hypothesis Correct. A hypothesis is a testable prediction that is derived from an existing scientific theory. Therefore, it is a guess about a specific outcome that is informed by past knowledge. B) theory Incorrect. A theory is actually generated as a result of past research and is used to guide educated guesses, or hypotheses, about future explorations. C) method D) design Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 23. The tendency to look for supportive evidence, rather than actively seeking out contradictory evidence, is known as __________. A) the availability heuristic B) belief perseverance C) confirmation bias D) the hindsight bias Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 24. “Seek and ye shall find” is a short and simple way to sum up ___________. A) naive realism Incorrect. This cliché suggests that we tend to find what we are looking for. That is the basis of confirmation bias. B) belief perseverance C) empiricism D) confirmation bias Correct. Confirmation bias is the tendency to seek out information that supports our point of view and ignore evidence that contradicts our point of view. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition

25. Gwen has posted a questionnaire on Facebook asking her friends to support her idea of cell phones in the classroom. She ignores anyone opposing her beliefs, which is an example of __________. A) naïve realism Incorrect. Naïve realism suggests that we believe that we see the world precisely as it is. The best answer to this question is confirmation bias. B) conjunctive fallacy C) confirmation bias Correct. Confirmation bias is the tendency to seek out information that supports our point of view and ignore evidence that contradicts our point of view. D) attribution bias Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 26. Dr. Andorski regularly looks at the Internet to see what his patients are saying about him. When a patient posts a positive, complimentary review, the doctor reads it intently and takes note of the comments. Dr. Andorski tends to ignore critical reviews and just assume that those patients don’t know what they are talking about. As a result of this __________, Dr. Andorski tends to miss good feedback that could make him a better physician. A) naïve realism Incorrect. Naïve realism suggests that we believe that we see the world precisely as it is. The best answer to this question is confirmation bias. B) conjunctive fallacy C) confirmation bias Correct. Confirmation bias is the tendency to seek out information that supports our point of view and ignore evidence that contradicts our point of view. D) attribution bias Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 27. Dr. Garonski is testing his hypothesis that people use hand gestures more in communication when emotionally aroused than when calm. When his results were reviewed, it was noted that Dr. Garonski sometimes missed seeing small gestures in the calm condition. This is an example of the __________. A) conjunctive fallacy B) confirmation bias Correct. Confirmation bias is the tendency to seek out information that supports our point of view and ignore evidence that contradicts our point of view. C) attribution error D) single-variable explanation Incorrect. The tendency to only consider information that is consistent with our views is called confirmation bias. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

28. When people watch a debate, they often point out the internal contradictions, flaws in logic, and hypocrisy in positions they oppose while glossing over the same shortcomings for positions they support. This is an example of __________. A) the availability heuristic B) belief perseverance Incorrect. Belief perseverance occurs when we cling to a belief even after we’ve been shown evidence that it is wrong. C) confirmation bias Correct. Confirmation bias is the tendency to seek out information that supports our point of view and ignore evidence that contradicts our point of view. D) healthy skepticism Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 29. Because none of us wants to believe we are wrong, we are usually reluctant to give up cherished notions. This phenomenon is known as __________. A) belief perseverance Correct. Belief perseverance is the tendency to stick to our initial beliefs even when evidence contradicts them. B) confirmation bias Incorrect. Confirmation bias is the tendency to seek out evidence that supports our preexisting beliefs and to neglect contradictory evidence. C) the availability heuristic D) the fundamental attribution Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition

30. Rona believes that women make better elementary school teachers than men because women are more nurturing and less legalistic. When you present her with data that indicate male teachers perform just as well as women at the elementary level, she tries to discredit the information. She even goes as far as to say, "I don't care what those studies show. We all know that women are better teachers!" Rona is a victim of __________. A) confirmation bias Incorrect. Confirmation bias is the tendency to seek out evidence that supports our preexisting beliefs and to neglect contradictory evidence. B) naive realism C) belief perseverance Correct. Belief perseverance is the tendency to stick to our initial beliefs even when evidence contradicts them. D) critical thinking Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 31. Recall from your text that researchers gave students false feedback about their abilities to distinguish between false and real suicide notes. At the conclusion of the study, the researchers informed the students that their feedback was in no way related to their actual performance. However, on a subsequent task where the students had to estimate their performance on a similar task, they used this false feedback to guide their estimates. This is an example of __________. A) belief perseverance B) confirmation bias C) the hindsight bias D) overconfidence Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 32. Chandra believes that her astrological sign, Libra, provides a guide for her daily and weekly actions. She reads her horoscope every morning without fail, and even has an astrology application on her cell phone that regularly gives her “advice” on what to do as the day goes on. She tells her friends that the advice is always right, and the only time it makes a mistake is when she fails to do as it says. When they say it doesn’t work for them, she says, “That is because you don’t really believe in astrology!” Because Chandra’s beliefs are not truly open to being tested, they would be an example of a(n) __________ claim. A) metaphysical Correct. Metaphysical claims are those that are not directly testable and, by extension, not disprovable. B) psychophysiological C) religious D) “Occam’s” Incorrect. This answer confuses metaphysics with the philosophical precept of Occam’s Razor. The latter suggests that the simplest explanation for an event is usually the correct explanation. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

33. Which of the following categories involves claims that are always untestable? A) metaphysics B) pseudoscience C) science D) popular psychology Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 34. Metaphysical claims might involve assertions about the existence of all but which of the following? A) God B) love C) an afterlife D) the soul Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 35. Dr. Simmons teaches philosophy and discusses several topics in the course, including religion. Paulo, a student in the class, believes that when he dies, he will be resurrected. Paulo’s claim falls under the area of __________. A) metaphysics Correct. Metaphysical claims make assertions that are not testable and relate to subjects like the existence of God, the soul, and the afterlife. B) science C) pseudoscience Incorrect. Assertions or beliefs about topics like God or the afterlife are central to the topic of metaphysics, not pseudoscience. D) rational thinking Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition

36. Scientist Stephen Jay Gould made which of the following contentions about the relationship between science and religion? A) Religion and science can coexist, but are generally antithetical to each other. B) Religion and science are inextricably linked and can never be separated from each other. C) Where religion exists, science cannot. Where science exists, religion cannot. D) Religion and science are entirely different and nonoverlapping realms of understanding the world. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 37. Which of the following statements is most consistent with the notion that science should be a “prescription for humility”? A) “My data are flawless.” B) “But I might be wrong.” Correct. The willingness to accept that one’s findings might be incorrect is key to the idea that science should be an exercise in humility. C) “I’ve proven my hypothesis.” Incorrect. As your authors state, the idea of proving a phenomenon is something to be avoided in a science. D) “There is no need to research that question because the answer is already clear.” Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 38. According to Firestein (2015) and McFall (1997), science can be usefully described as a prescription for __________. A) chaos B) order C) proof D) humility Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition

39. According to the text authors, __________ of the claims made by self-help proponents have been scientifically examined. A) few B) many C) none D) roughly half Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 40. Ginny and Latroya are at the bookstore together, and Ginny is browsing in the “Self-Help” section. Latroya tells her not to bother with the books there, because her psychology textbook pointed out that about __________ percent of those books have never been properly examined using appropriate scientific research methods. A) 25 B) 40 C) 75 D) 95 Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 41. Jan decides to read a self-help book that is designed to help her get control over her eating habits and experience rapid “perfectly healthy” weight loss. Though the advice is very useful, Jan should be cautious in believing the results of this inventory because the results __________. A) are factual B) are based on scientific methods Incorrect. In fact, many self-help products of this type have no basis in science and should only be considered entertainment. C) may be part of the misinformation explosion Correct. Despite the growth and accessibility of popular psychology, the industry has succumbed to the misinformation explosion, with little control over the quality of untested products. D) may lead to better decision making Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science

42. The major difference between pseudoscience and science is that __________. A) pseudoscience addresses different questions than science B) pseudoscience is less similar to popular psychology than science is C) pseudoscience lacks the safeguards against cognitive biases that characterize science D) pseudoscience lacks the general level of public support that characterizes science Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 43. The term __________ refers to a claim or statement that superficially appears to be scientific but is not. A) misinformation B) anecdotal evidence C) pseudoscience D) common sense Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 44. Which of the following statements would your authors probably find the most worrisome? A) Being open-minded about topics associated with pseudoscience is no big deal. B) The majority of Americans do not believe in the existence of ghosts or witches. C) Pseudoscience seems to be so much more popular and accepted than science. Correct. If people believe that the untested claims found in pseudoscience are more interesting than regular science, they will be likely to follow unproven and untested courses of action. D) Science cannot answer all of the questions I am interested in, such as “Why am I here?” or “What is my life’s purpose?” Incorrect. The recognition that science is imperfect and cannot answer every question is part of the humility that is required to be a scientist. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science

45. Imagine that you see the textbook authors on television talking with Larry King about popular psychology. What point are you most likely to hear them make? A) All information from popular psychology and/or self-help is useless. B) Beware of exaggerated claims without supporting evidence. Correct. Remember that exaggerated claims require extraordinary evidence. When such evidence is absent, there is something to be wary of! C) Psychology and medicine often marginalize those with ideas that differ from conventional wisdom. D) Self-help therapies are rigorously tested before people can write books about them. Incorrect. While some self-help programs are probably effective, a majority of them have not been supported by scientific research. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 46. The __________ hypothesis refers to an escape hatch or a loophole that defenders of a theory or belief can use to insulate their belief from falsification. A) confirmatory B) ad hoc immunizing C) availability heuristic D) representativeness Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 47. Which sin of pseudoscience is synonymous with stating an unfalsifiable hypothesis or theory? A) evasion of peer review B) lack of self-correction Incorrect. A lack of self-correction is a serious problem with pseudoscience, but it is not directly related to the requirement of falsifiability in a theory. C) overreliance on anecdotal evidence D) overuse of ad hoc immunizing hypotheses Correct. The ad hoc immunizing hypothesis is one that insulates itself from being proven wrong. In order for a hypothesis or theory to be useful, it must be capable of being falsified. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science

48. Which of the following is one of the classic warning signs of a pseudoscience? A) overuse of peer review B) underreliance on anecdotal evidence C) an abundance of self-correction D) use of meaningless psychobabble Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 49. A key characteristic of a pseudoscience is that incorrect theories are __________. A) discarded B) formulated and revised as needed C) never corrected or changed D) seldom believed by the general public Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 50. Which of the following is found in science but NOT in pseudoscience? A) amazing, counterintuitive claims B) the presence of difficult-to-understand jargon or technical information Incorrect. In fact, the more psychobabble jargon that is used, the more pseudoscientific a claim is. C) reliance on anecdotal evidence to support one’s theory of human behavior D) self-correction of incorrect hypotheses and theories Correct. In pseudoscience, hypotheses that are not supported by the data are rarely adjusted. In a science, theories are adapted to the evidence that is gathered about them. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science

51. Recently, the local radio station has played ads for some natural herbs that will calm you, increase your sense of well-being, and make you happier within days of taking your first dose. In fact, one ad even says, “users who feel that their happiness is increasing too much are advised to cut down to a half dose each day!” You are sure this is a pseudoscientific claim because it is __________. A) psychobabble B) exaggerated Correct. Exaggerated claims are one of several warning signs of pseudoscience. C) anecdotal Incorrect. Although these ads may use anecdotal claims from people who say the product works for them, the best answer to this question is that the claims are exaggerated. D) hypothetical Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 52. A group of animal behaviorists has discovered several new species of insects in the Amazon jungle. They collect the new species for later study back at the camp. Due to advances in computer technology, they are able to transfer their findings immediately to other researchers studying insects. Their willingness to share these findings with other scientists shows their commitment to __________. A) critical thinking B) falsifiability Incorrect. The willingness to let other people examine your research is called peer review, and it is essential in a science. C) peer review Correct. Many warning signs help us to recognize pseudoscience, including lack of peer review. Peer review is necessary for a truly scientific process. D) pseudoscience Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science

53. According to the authors, one reason to be wary of programs that promise to teach you speed reading techniques in return for money is that such claims do not fit with the available data on information processing and memory. This is consistent with the pseudoscience error known as __________. A) absence of connectivity to other research Correct. Connectivity refers to a consistency between different research findings. B) evasion of peer review C) exaggerated claims D) psychobabble Incorrect. The term psychobabble refers to using complex jargon and terminology that most people would not understand. It is used to mask the absence of true science in a finding. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 54. Curtis is considering buying a new workout machine that promises weight loss at twice the rate of other machines. When Curtis questioned such a claim with the manufacturer, the customer service representative stated this was a new system and previous research on weight loss was not applicable. This example illustrates which warning sign of pseudoscience? A) evasion of peer review Incorrect. The lack of connection between existing research and the product being peddled demonstrates a lack of collectivity, not an evasion of peer review. B) absence of connectivity to other research Correct. One of the warning signs of pseudoscience is lack of connectivity to other research (i.e., findings that are vastly different than those of previous research on the same topic). C) overreliance on anecdotes D) lack of self-correction Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science

55. Steve and Julie have purchased a program that promises to drastically improve marital relationships in just two weeks. Although the program has not been tested scientifically, they were impressed by the use of scientific phrasing such as “co-dependency,” “holistic healing,” and “subjective well-being.” This example illustrates which warning sign of pseudoscience? A) psychobabble Correct. To recognize pseudoscience, one should take care not to be persuaded by fancy terms that don’t really mean anything (psychobabble). B) absence of connectivity C) exaggerated claims Incorrect. While this program does make some extraordinary claims, its biggest failure is the use of psychobabble to confuse potential consumers. D) lack of self-correction Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 56. What is an important limitation of anecdotal evidence in developing scientifically sound treatments or procedures? A) Anecdotes cannot help to establish cause-effect relationships. Correct. Anecdotes can describe an individual event, but they do not describe how one variable may cause changes in another variable. B) Anecdotes effectively address the issue of representativeness of the cases. Incorrect. Anecdotes are based on one individual’s experience and do not describe other cases or situations. C) Anecdotes are extremely too easy for others to falsify. D) Anecdotes are generalizable to the population from which the individual giving the anecdote came. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 57. Dr. McDonald uses only the testimonies of parents and teachers as support for his treatment of ADHD; this illustrates which warning sign of pseudoscience? A) exaggerated claims Incorrect. Dr. McDonald’s claims that his treatment works are not necessarily exaggerated, but in this case they are only supported by anecdotal evidence coming from parents and teachers. B) lack of self-correction C) overreliance on anecdotes Correct. Overreliance on anecdotes involves ignoring large-scale studies and instead using testimonies from people who support the researcher’s claim. D) evasion of peer review Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science

58. When a particular claim relies on one individual’s account of their experiences, it is often a sign that pseudoscience rather than science is being employed. This individual experience is called __________ evidence. A) nomothetic B) idiographic C) metaphysical Incorrect. A metaphysical claim is one that is entirely incapable of being tested and, by extension, disproven. D) anecdotal Correct. Yes, anecdotal evidence relies on people’s accounting of their own experiences. While they may be accurate in their account, the information does not provide scientific evidence regarding their claim. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 59. Pinker (1997) and others have demonstrated that humans display an adaptive predisposition to make order out of disorder and sense out of nonsense. This tendency can account for __________. A) reliance on confirmation bias B) skepticism Incorrect. In fact, scientific skepticism often helps us realize that there is no order in disorder, and there is no sense in nonsense. C) the popularity of pseudoscience Correct. Pseudoscience helps us simplify the world in which we live. It helps us find order in disorder and make sense out of the senseless. D) belief perseverance Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 60. According to your textbook authors, the primary reason why pseudoscience is so attractive to so many people is because of our brains’ tendency to __________. A) seek order out of disorder and find sense in nonsense B) disregard things that are inconsistent with how we want them to be C) rely on anecdotal evidence D) look for complexity rather than simplicity in the world around us Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological

61. Tiffany spends a great deal of time reading self-help books on relationships. She has had several failed relationships and is bewildered by the events related to them. Even though she knows most of these books are pseudoscience, Tiffany is attracted to them because __________. A) she is comforted by the realization she is not alone Incorrect. While Tiffany may in fact be comforted by the fact that she is not alone, what she is trying to do is come up with a rational explanation for things that don’t make sense to her. This is an example of making order out of disorder. B) she is trying to make order out of disorder Correct. Pseudoscience helps us simplify the world in which we live. C) she suffers from apophenia D) she is experiencing pereidolia Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 62. The term __________ refers to the tendency to perceive meaningful connections among unrelated phenomena. A) patternicity B) confirmation bias C) parsimony D) interconnectivity Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 63. We experience the phenomenon of patternicity when we __________. A) accept anecdotal evidence in place of scientific evidence B) fall victim to erroneous information given to us by others C) see a connection between related events D) see a pattern where none really exists Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 64. The term __________ refers to phenomena like ESP that fall outside the realm of traditional science. A) peripatetic B) patternetic C) mystical D) paranormal Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

65. Once a guest appeared on The Tonight Show, with former host Johnny Carson, and showed her collection of potato chips that resembled famous celebrities or historical figures. One example was a potato chip that was said to resemble Abraham Lincoln. In actuality, this guest was providing an example of __________. A) apoplexia B) belief perseverance Incorrect. This occurs when one continues to “cling” to specific thought processes or beliefs even when shown evidence of the inaccuracy of those beliefs. C) confirmation bias D) patternicity Correct. Patternicity is the tendency to see order, or structure, where it does not exist. Seeing a “face” in the various rocks and chasms of the moon is a good example of this phenomenon. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 66. According to the discussion about Presidents Lincoln and Kennedy, we often __________. A) actively seek out parsimonious explanations for complicated problems Incorrect. In fact, the most parsimonious explanation for the similarities between Lincoln and Kennedy is that they were coincidences. B) chalk up coincidences as being due to chance rather than to supernatural events C) overestimate how unusual certain patterns of coincidental information really are Correct. Because there were several commonalities between these two presidents, we tend to believe that those commonalities suggest some underlying meaning that does not exist. We also tend to ignore all of the differences between them. D) prefer skepticism to conspiracy theory explanations about presidential assassinations Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 67. The fact that many people, when looking at the moon that orbits Earth, see a face (commonly called “the man in the moon”) can be explained by the phenomenon of __________. A) chaotics B) metaphysics Incorrect. A metaphysical claim is one that is not directly testable, and therefore is resistant to falsification. C) patternicity Correct. Patternicity is the tendency to see order, or structure, where it does not exist. Seeing a “face” in the various rocks and chasms of the moon is a good example of this phenomenon. D) apophenia Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science

68. According to __________ management theory, an awareness of the inevitability of our own death leaves many people with an underlying sense of fear. A) discontinuity B) thanatos C) mortality D) terror Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 69. According to terror management theory, what is a mechanism used by many people around the world to deal with the fear caused by our awareness of our own mortality? A) Adopting a broad worldview that associates our lives with a broader meaning and purpose. Correct. Your authors suggest that this broadening of our own horizons, which may include concepts of an afterlife, helps offset the fear associated with our awareness of the inevitability of our own death. B) Focusing on the “here and now” rather than waiting for what might not ever occur. Incorrect. Many cultures advocate for a combining of the past, present, and future as a way of having a full and complete life. C) Reconciling our past with our future so that we are always “ready” for death, should it occur. D) Remembering that the greatest accomplishment that we can possibly have is to raise children as well as we can. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 70. Traps in thinking that can lead to mistaken conclusions are called __________. A) confirmation biases B) experiential thought patterns C) logical fallacies D) systematic information biases Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science

71. Talk show pundits often take extreme positions and use language that is designed to anger and upset persons who AGREE with the pundit’s position. These strong, negative feelings are likely to encourage the __________. A) bandwagon fallacy B) either-or fallacy Incorrect. The either-or fallacy is the erroneous belief that there are only two possible answers to a given question. C) emotional reasoning fallacy Correct. The emotional reasoning fallacy occurs when we use our emotions as guides for evaluating the validity of a claim. D) not me fallacy Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 72. During the presidential election, Sona and his friend Eriqa often got into heated discussions about their preferred candidates. Sona would go out of his way to make inflammatory comments, just to see if he could upset Eriqa. When this happened, she would lash out at Sona, even if he made valid points. Eriqa was falling prey to the __________. A) bandwagon fallacy B) either-or fallacy Incorrect. The either-or fallacy is the erroneous belief that there are only two possible answers to a given question. C) not me fallacy D) emotional reasoning fallacy Correct. The emotional reasoning fallacy occurs when we use our emotions as guides for evaluating the validity of a claim. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 73. Imagine that a researcher conducts a study in which the participants are either strongly for or strongly against allowing openly gay soldiers to serve in the military. The researcher presents participants with a policy that is supposedly endorsed by an authority with views similar to their own. What are the results of such a study likely to indicate? A) Participants are most likely to be convinced by a policy that is dissimilar to their own ideas. Incorrect. In fact, the authority figures tend to lose their ability to persuade us of things when they present us with views that contradict our own. This tends to occur whether or not our views are accurate. B) Participants are most likely to be convinced by a policy that is similar to their own ideas. Correct. Consistent with the concept of confirmation bias, we tend to put more faith in authority figures who tell us views that are consistent with our own beliefs. C) Participants are most likely to be convinced only by a policy with strong evidence. D) Participants are unlikely to be convinced on the basis on authority alone. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

74. Dr. Shaver is conducting an experimental research study to determine the effect of a specific medication on stomach pain. Despite the fact that he should use a “double blind” approach to avoid the influence of any bias, he tells himself, “I won’t fall for any experimenter bias. I am more objective than most researchers.” Which fallacy is Dr. Shaver committing? A) the not-me fallacy Correct. This fallacy occurs when people believe that they won’t make errors that commonly affect other people. B) the bandwagon fallacy C) the circular reasoning fallacy D) the quasi-experiment fallacy Incorrect. Although this sounds like a good answer, there is really no such thing as a quasi-experiment fallacy. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 75. You are asked by a friend to tell him whether a color is either black or white. When you look at it, you think it is neither of these two extremes but is more a shade of gray. Your friend’s question is an example of the __________ fallacy. A) bandwagon B) either-or Correct. The either-or fallacy is the erroneous belief that there are only two possible answers to a given question. C) emotional reasoning Incorrect. The emotional reasoning fallacy occurs when we use our emotions as guides for evaluating the validity of a claim. D) not me Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 76. Assuming that something is so simply because a teacher or religious authority said it is so, is an example of the __________. A) appeal to authority fallacy B) circular reasoning fallacy C) hasty generalization fallacy D) naturalistic fallacy Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science

77. Television infomercials often contain phrases like “according to experts” or “just listen to what experts have to say!” This is the __________. A) appeal to authority fallacy B) circular reasoning fallacy C) hasty generalization fallacy D) naturalistic fallacy Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 78. Scientific skepticism requires that any claim is met with __________. A) an open mind Correct. Despite what many think, being skeptical requires an open, not closed, mind. B) regard for authority C) healthy resistance to persuasion Incorrect. Skepticism requires that we allow ourselves to be persuaded by legitimate, scientifically-derived evidence, particularly when it shows that a previously-held position is inaccurate. D) hypothetical aptitude Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.3a Identify the key features of scientific skepticism. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 79. A skeptic is one who __________. A) accepts claims on the basis of persuasive scientific evidence Correct. Scientific skepticism is marked by the demand for supportive evidence of a claim. B) accepts claims only from trusted authority figures Incorrect. Scientific skepticism requires us to question even authority figures’ claims, but to do so with an open mind. C) accepts claims only on the basis of logical reasoning D) accepts claims only on the basis of their popularity with the public Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3a Identify the key features of scientific skepticism. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction

80. According to the authors, a skeptic is someone who __________. A) is close-minded when evaluating evidence B) evaluates all claims with an open mind and insists on persuasive evidence before accepting a claim C) is dismissive of any evidence that contradicts his or her beliefs D) seeks out evidence that is inconsistent with a theory he or she doesn’t believe in Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.3a Identify the key features of scientific skepticism. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 81. An individual who accepts claims only on the basis of supportive scientific evidence is a(n) __________. A) scientific skeptic B) authority figure C) peer reviewer D) pseudoscientist Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.3a Identify the key features of scientific skepticism. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 82. Dr. Wolpe designs an experimental test of his theory of aggression against a competing theory. After conducting the appropriate statistical tests, he finds that the data are better explained by the competing theory. His willingness to accept the evidence that another theory is superior is a characteristic of __________. A) dogmatism Incorrect. A dogmatic view of the world is not open to alternate explanations for various phenomena. B) gullibility C) pathological skepticism D) scientific skepticism Correct. Scientific skepticism requires us to be open to all possibilities, including the possibility that our own theories are not accurate. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.3a Identify the key features of scientific skepticism. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction

83. According to the authors, one reason we must sometimes look to authorities is because we have difficulty evaluating claims of human behavior due to __________. A) lack of time or expertise Correct. The general population often doesn’t possess the expertise, time, or resources to evaluate claims on our own. B) biases C) susceptibility to pseudoscience D) an inability to think hypothetically Incorrect. It’s not our inability to think hypothetically that causes us to look to authority figures. It is often our lack of time, resources, and expertise. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.3a Identify the key features of scientific skepticism. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 84. Time, expertise, and resources are all obstacles that __________. A) diminish skepticism B) diminish metaphysical claims C) increase reliance on authorities Correct. The general population often doesn’t possess the expertise, time, or resources to evaluate claims on our own. D) increase reliance on empiricism Incorrect. These obstacles actually decrease our reliance on empiricism. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.3a Identify the key features of scientific skepticism. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 85. The hallmark of scientific skepticism is __________. A) critical thinking B) dogmatic belief C) narrow-mindedness D) reliance on authority Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.3a Identify the key features of scientific skepticism. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction

86. In the natural world, there often are many different factors associated with the occurrence of a particular outcome. Therefore, it is important that we as critical thinkers __________ whenever possible. A) create unfalsifiable theories Incorrect. Theories that are unfalsifiable are not valuable. In order for a theory to have value, it must be capable of being demonstrated to be wrong. B) propose complex statements of causation C) remember that correlation equals causation D) rule out rival hypotheses Correct. Our willingness to eliminate alternate explanations for a phenomenon is what is at play here. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 87. Walter and Lisa are driving their new car from Houston to Oklahoma City. Walter insists on doing most of the driving because he claims to be the “much better driver.” When they get to their destination, the car dashboard reports that they got 34 miles per gallon of gasoline during the trip. Walter brags that, as the better driver, he knows how to get more out of the same amount of gasoline. Lisa smiles and decides not to mention that the new car has a more fuel-efficient engine. Which error is Walter making by taking credit for the higher fuel economy on this trip? A) He has made a claim that cannot be falsified. B) He has engaged in too much replication. C) He has not ruled out rival explanations. Correct. Walter has not considered anything but his driving ability as an explanation for the increased fuel economy. This means he has not ruled out any rival explanations. D) He has not remembered the concept of Occam’s Razor. Incorrect. Walter’s explanation is, in fact, a very simple one. So the idea of Occam’s Razor does not apply to this example. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 88. The assumption that a relationship between two variables indicates a direct, cause-and-effect relationship between them is the basis of the __________ fallacy. A) pseudoscience B) confounding C) correlation-causation D) bandwagon Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction

89. Developmental psychologists are trying to evaluate different explanations for the effects of poor parenting on behavior problems in children. One important scientific thinking principle that the psychologists should keep in mind is to __________. A) rule out rival hypotheses using additional research Correct. One principle of scientific thinking is ruling out rival hypotheses using additional research. B) accept the most popular explanation even if it competes with other explanations C) accept only those explanations which are unfalsifiable D) develop their own explanation and exclude all others Incorrect. In order for a theory to be useful, it must explore and consider all other explanations for the data. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 90. Perhaps the most basic error that nearly all laypersons make is to assume that __________. A) correlation is the same as causation B) good theories make safe, not risky, predictions C) research questions or theories must be falsifiable D) simple theories are preferred to complex ones Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 91. When conducting psychological research, a __________ is any situation that can change or fluctuate over time. A) constant B) variable C) confound D) dependent Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction

92. When discussing the upcoming Super Bowl, John and Kamran were talking about the strengths and weaknesses of each team. While Kamran anticipated that one team was going to win and then backed up his prediction, John made no such statement. Instead, John commented on each team and what they would have to do in order to win. After the game, John noted that he had correctly analyzed the game, noting why the winning team had triumphed. Because none of his statements could be disproven, which concept of a science was John violating? A) falsifiability Correct. Because John made no solid prediction, he could claim to be “right” no matter how the game turned out. B) replicability Incorrect. There was nothing in the question that spoke to a repeating of findings. C) correlation vs. causation D) overreliance on anecdotal evidence Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 93. In opening her new private preschool, Mrs. Alvarez plans to only accept students who come from upper-middle income families, because she read that students who perform well come from higher socioeconomic families. Mrs. Alvarez is making the __________ error of critical thinking. A) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. Occam’s Razor is a concept that suggests that the simplest explanation for an event is usually the correct one. B) extraordinary claims C) confirmation bias D) correlation vs. causation Correct. In scientific thinking, we must remember that correlation is not causation; the correlationcausation fallacy is the error of assuming that because one thing is associated with another, it must cause the other. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction

94. Researchers in Taiwan have found that contraceptive use was strongly related to the number of electrical appliances (i.e., toaster, fans, etc.) in the home. What is the best explanation for this result? A) The researchers made a mistake and no one else would ever replicate this finding. B) Contraceptive use causes people to purchase larger numbers of electrical appliances. Incorrect. It is important to remember that correlation does not indicate causation. C) Having many electrical appliances causes people to use contraceptive devices. D) A third variable, such as educational level, is associated with each and produces the observed relationship. Correct. This supports the critical thinking principle of correlation vs. causation. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 95. A therapist notices that several clients with anxiety disorders also demonstrate symptoms consistent with major depressive disorder. Why should she be cautious in making the assumption that experiencing an anxiety disorder causes one to experience major depressive disorder? A) Her observations may not be replicated by other researchers. B) The relationship may really be in the opposite direction; having major depressive disorder causes one to experience anxiety disorders. Incorrect. While this might be true, it is impossible to know the direction of cause as a result of a correlational observation. C) The relationship may really be the result of a third variable, such as lack of personal control. Correct. This supports the critical thinking principle of correlation vs. causation. D) The observed relationship creates an unfalsifiable research question. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 96. A claim must be falsifiable in order to be useful. However, we also need this claim to __________. A) contradict the available body of evidence B) be detailed and, when necessary, complex in its explanation of the evidence C) be replicated by others D) be unique to a specific sample without overgeneralizing to a larger population Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction

97. Which of these is a principle of scientific thinking? A) hypothetico-deductive reasoning B) Occam’s Razor C) variation D) conventional morality Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 98. An astute observer of human nature should state research questions in a manner that leads either to their being supported or refuted by the available evidence. This is the critical thinking principle of __________. A) falsifiability Correct. In order for a theory to be valuable, it must be capable of being demonstrated to be wrong. B) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. Occam’s Razor is a concept that suggests that the simplest explanation for an event is usually the correct one. C) replicability D) ruling out rival hypotheses Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 99. For a scientific claim to be meaningful, it must be capable of being disproven. This is the critical thinking principle of __________. A) empirical investigation B) falsifiability C) skepticism D) constructive alternativism Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction

100. Before attempting to demonstrate their abilities, astrologists often try to explain away inaccurate predictions. Such excuses violate the critical thinking principle of __________. A) falsifiability Correct. Claims must be capable of being disproven if they are to be of value. This is the main theme of the principle of falsifiability. B) skepticism C) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. Occam’s Razor is a concept that suggests that the simplest explanation for an event is usually the correct one. D) replicability Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 101. A researcher published an article proposing a theory that body language is central to human communication. He keeps in mind that his theory may or may not be supported by the evidence, and may be proven wrong. The researcher’s perspective illustrates the scientific thinking principle of __________. A) falsifiability Correct. As one of the principles of scientific thinking, falsifiability is the requirement that claims can be disproven (i.e., that there is some conceivable finding that could disprove it). B) replicability C) extraordinary claims D) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. Occam’s Razor is a concept that suggests that the simplest explanation for an event is usually the correct one. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 102. If a person were to say that a scientific finding was replicated, he or she would be saying that the finding was __________. A) accurate and truthful B) capable of being consistently duplicated C) not the result of correlation D) parsimonious and straightforward Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction

103. Initial reports in the media that listening to classical music made students more intelligent were followed by several failed attempts to reproduce the effects in the laboratories of other researchers. This is an example of the failure to __________. A) accurately communicate B) achieve parsimony C) correlate Incorrect. A correlation describes a relationship between variables. It is not related to a failure to reproduce other researcher’s results. D) replicate Correct. Replication refers to repeating somebody’s research and coming up with the same, or at least similar, findings. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 104. If a researcher’s initial findings that a particular relationship or effect exists are not reliably demonstrated by other independent researchers, how are these initial findings thought of in the discipline of psychology? A) As a deliberate, unethical attempt to falsify one’s data B) As a one-time fluke in research Correct. If findings cannot be repeated, they are usually inaccurate. C) As a hoax or scam Incorrect. The inability to replicate somebody’s findings does not suggest that they were engaging in a hoax or scam. It does, however, suggest that their results were not accurate. D) As a real phenomenon that exists for some gifted people but not for everyone Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 105. A group of teachers develops a math curriculum to help students increase their scores on required tests in math. The teachers find promising results with the students in their school, so they develop a plan to test the curriculum in all of the schools in their county. This plan shows that the teachers recognize the importance of __________. A) proving that their theory is falsifiable B) demonstrating their pathological skepticism Incorrect. There is no such concept as pathological skepticism mentioned in your chapter. C) showing that required math tests are invalid D) replicating the original findings to increase confidence in them Correct. Replicability means that a study’s findings can be consistently duplicated. Replicated results increase confidence in research findings. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction

106. A group of scientists is attempting to verify recent data published on the chemical composition of tears and the presence of Alzheimer’s disease. This illustrates the critical thinking principle of __________. A) ruling out rival hypotheses B) falsifiability C) replicability Correct. Replicability is the independent duplication of research results. D) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. Occam’s Razor is a concept that suggests that the simplest explanation for an event is usually the correct one. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 107. Suppose Dr. Honeydew is proposing a theory of attraction that posits that “Opposites Attract.” Most of the available evidence suggests that “Birds of a Feather Flock Together” (i.e., similarities attract) rather than opposites attract. For his theory to be accepted by the scientific community, Dr. Honeydew will need to __________. A) adhere to the principle of parsimony in his theoretical explanation B) construct a falsifiable theory of attraction C) demonstrate the replicability of his initial findings Incorrect. Eventually Dr. Honeydew will have to demonstrate the replicability of his findings, but initially he’ll have to provide extraordinary evidence to support his extraordinary claims. D) supply extraordinary evidence to support his extraordinary claim Correct. When unusual or extraordinary claims are made, they must be backed up by extraordinary evidence. This is a major principle of critical thinking. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 108. According to the text’s authors, one of the bottom lines of scientific thinking is __________. A) if a claim is extraordinary, we should trust what the authorities say Incorrect. Your authors point out that a key to critical thinking is that extraordinary claims must be supported by extraordinary evidence. The word of an authority figure is not considered extraordinary evidence. B) if a claim runs counter to what we already know, we can accept it if it appears in a peer-reviewed journal C) if a claim runs counter to what we already know, it should be supported by extraordinary evidence Correct. Extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence. D) if a claim contradicts what we already know, we should disregard it even if it appears in a scientific journal Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction

109. Logical simplicity (parsimony) is the notion behind __________. A) skepticism B) Occam’s Razor C) metaphysical claims D) pseudoscience Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 110. Residents of a small town on the gulf coast of Florida reported numerous UFO sightings. Military personnel eventually disclosed that they had been running tests on a new missile over the open waters, which would account for the strange lights the local people were witnessing. Which critical thinking principle does this example best demonstrate? A) Occam’s Razor Correct. Occam’s Razor holds that simpler explanations for a phenomenon are more often right than wrong. B) extraordinary claims C) ruling out rival hypotheses D) falsifiability Incorrect. The principle of falsifiability suggests that in order for theory to be valuable, it must be capable of being demonstrated to be incorrect. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 111. Using the criteria of Occam’s Razor, a good theory is one that is the __________ explanation for the available data. A) most complex Incorrect. In fact, Occam’s Razor suggests exactly the opposite. It says that the simplest explanation for a phenomenon is usually the correct explanation. B) most popular C) most conventional D) most simple Correct. Occam’s Razor holds that simpler explanations for a phenomenon are more often right than wrong. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction

112. A key characteristic of a good scientific theory is that it is a simple explanatory device. This key characteristic is explained as the critical thinking principle of __________. A) falsifiability Incorrect. The principle of falsifiability suggests that in order for theory to be valuable, it must be capable of being demonstrated to be incorrect. B) Occam’s Razor Correct. Occam’s Razor is a concept that suggests that the simplest explanation for an event is usually the correct one. C) replication D) ruling out rival hypotheses Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 113. According to Occam’s Razor, evaluation of psychological phenomena demands the most __________ explanation to account for the available data. A) complex Incorrect. In fact, Occam’s Razor suggests exactly the opposite. It says that the simplest explanation for a phenomenon is usually the correct explanation. B) popular C) conventional D) simple Correct. Occam’s Razor states that when two explanations account for a set of findings equally well, we should generally choose the one that is simpler. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 114. Occam’s Razor is another name for what critical thinking principle? A) correlation differing from causation B) Hume’s dictum C) principle of falsifiability D) principle of parsimony Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction

115. The key take-home message from the author’s discussion of crop circles is that __________. A) aliens or some form of extraterrestrial being has been trying to communicate with humans for hundreds of years B) the cause of some real-world events are unexplainable and unknowable Incorrect. While it may be true that some questions cannot currently be explained or answered, the crop circles are demonstrated neatly by the principle of Occam’s Razor. In this case, the simplest explanation is that the crop circles were a hoax. C) critical thinkers must select the simpler of two claims that fit with the available evidence Correct. Occam’s Razor states that when two explanations account for a set of findings equally well, we should generally choose the one that is simpler. D) hoaxers often impede scientific progress into the understanding of unexplainable events like the English crop circles Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 116. Philosopher Sir Karl Popper would be most impressed with a hypothesis if it made a(n) __________ prediction. A) irrefutable B) falsifiable C) safe D) unfalsifiable Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 117. The fact that certain psychological effects appear to shrink over time is called the __________ effect. A) normative B) decline C) regression D) recession Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction

118. While listening to the radio, Mrs. Schwartz heard about a new product. “Swallow our capsule, and it will grow to 100 times its size! This keeps your stomach feeling full and decreases your appetite. You can lose up to 20 pounds in the first two weeks!” Which principle of critical thinking should Mrs. Schwartz use before ordering this magic pill? A) Remembering that the claim is correlational, not causal. B) Remembering that the claim is not consistent with Occam’s Razor. C) Remembering that the claim must be falsifiable. Incorrect. This particular claim can be falsified if research into its validity finds it to be untrue. D) Remembering that extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence. Correct. Such an extravagant claim must be backed by real data if it is to be considered legitimate. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 119. One evening, when he couldn’t sleep, Mr. Bradley turned on the television and saw an infomercial for a new sleep aid. As a critical thinker, Mr. Bradley should be most cautious about this new product if __________. A) the product had been subjected to an experimental study and the scrutiny of a peer-review process B) its makers claim it has been “proven” to induce sleep in 80 percent of test participants Correct. Remember that extraordinary claims without extraordinary evidence are one of the keys to identifying a pseudoscience. C) its makers discuss the scientific investigations that have compared it to other effective sleep aids rather than relying on testimonials of those with insomnia D) the results of research connect the efficacy of the sleep-aid to other widely accepted scientific findings Incorrect. Providing properly gathered scientific evidence is a key for supporting extraordinary claims. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 120. Psychology was once difficult to distinguish from which of the following disciplines? A) biology B) journalism C) philosophy D) theology Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been

121. What individual is often credited with establishing the first psychological laboratory, thus establishing psychology as an experimental science? A) Sigmund Freud B) William James C) John Watson D) Wilhelm Wundt Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 122. Introspection requires __________. A) metaphysical experiences B) self-skepticism about experiences C) empiricism D) reflection on the self Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 123. What early psychologist was most concerned with developing answers to questions about the structure of human conscious mental experiences? A) Sigmund Freud B) Joseph Jastrow C) E. B. Titchener D) John B. Watson Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 124. E. B. Titchener founded which perspective of psychology? A) cognitivism B) functionalism C) structuralism D) psychoanalysis Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been

125. What early American psychologist yearned to create a "periodic table of the elements" of consciousness? A) Sigmund Freud B) William James Incorrect. Not only did James not think that this sort of endeavor was possible, he did not even feel that it would be valuable. C) B. F. Skinner D) E. B. Titchener Correct. Titchener, a student of Wundt’s, wanted to create a way of categorizing the human conscious experience. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 126. The lasting contribution of the psychological school of thought known as structuralism is __________. A) its concern with understanding the adaptive purposes of consciousness B) the importance it placed on systematic observation in studying consciousness Correct. Structuralism embraced the concept of introspection, or systematic observation of one’s own psychological processes. C) its concern with developing a scientific model of human learning D) its findings that underscored the importance of unconscious mental processes in daily life Incorrect. The school of psychological thought that emphasized the unconscious was the psychoanalytic school. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 127. Suppose you were one of the early graduate students in the newly-developed field of psychology. Your mentor is interested in discovering the answers to questions like, “Why is the ability to forget helpful?” “How do emotions assist us in social situations?” and “Why is self-presentation a useful technique for gaining social rewards?” Your mentor’s approach is most consistent with the __________ perspective. A) behaviorist B) functionalist Correct. The purpose of psychological phenomena was the primary concern for the functionalists. C) psychoanalytic D) structuralist Incorrect. The structuralists were more concerned with the makeup, or structure, of consciousness than with its function or purpose. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been

128. Professor Selmon was a psychologist in the last 1800s who adhered to a model that was drastically impacted by the work of evolutionary theorist Charles Darwin. Professor Selmon was probably a __________. A) behaviorist B) functionalist Correct. Functionalism was strongly impacted by Darwin and his work on evolution, including the concept of natural selection. C) psychoanalytic D) structuralist Incorrect. The structuralists were more concerned with the makeup, or structure, of consciousness than with its function or purpose. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 129. B. F. Skinner is most associated with which perspective? A) cognitivism B) behaviorism C) functionalism D) psychoanalysis Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 130. Behaviorism is associated with which two leading figures? A) John Watson and B. F. Skinner B) Jean Piaget and Ulric Neisser C) William James and Charles Darwin D) Sigmund Freud and E. B. Titchener Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been

131. What psychological school of thought was most concerned with the influence of the general principles of learning on an organism’s or a person’s actions? A) behaviorism Correct. Behaviorism is founded on the principles of learning, including classical and operant conditioning and observational learning. B) cognitivism Incorrect. The cognitists were more interested in our intrapsychic interpretation of events, rather than focusing on the principles of learning. C) psychoanalysis D) structuralism Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 132. The uncovering of learning processes that explain all behaviors, especially observable behaviors, is the goal of which perspective? A) psychoanalysis B) behaviorism C) functionalism D) structuralism Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 133. You are listening in on a discussion among a group of psychology majors. One major says that the field will move forward only if we use objective methods for understanding the principles that guide human actions. This statement is most consistent with __________. A) behaviorism Correct. Staunch behaviorists believe that the science of psychology should only focus on that which can be observed and measured. B) functionalism C) psychoanalysis Incorrect. Psychoanalysis focuses largely on the unconscious, something that cannot be objectively measured. D) structuralism Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been

134. A classmate tells you the following: “It’s not how a teacher answers your question that matters but how you interpret his or her attempt at answering your question that leaves you satisfied or unsatisfied with his or her answer.” This statement fits most closely with ideas from the school of thought known as __________. A) behaviorism B) cognitivism Correct. The cognitive school of thought suggests that it is our interpretation of the things that happen to us that matters. C) psychoanalysis Incorrect. The psychoanalytic school of thought focuses on unconscious processes and the way they impact us. D) structuralism Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 135. Which psychologist, a cognitivist at heart, argued that the way in which a child thinks about the world differs substantially from the way in which adults do? A) B. F. Skinner B) Sigmund Freud Incorrect. Freud's model, the psychodynamic approach, emphasized unconscious determinants of behavior. C) Jean Piaget Correct. Piaget's theories are considered the seminal work emphasizing the cognitive developmental stages of children. D) E. B. Titchener Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 136. The key to understanding human behavior, according to Sigmund Freud, was to focus on __________ and the __________ level of the human mind. A) external factors; conscious B) external factors; unconscious C) internal psychological processes; conscious D) internal psychological processes; unconscious Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been

137. Sigmund Freud was a leading figure in which perspective of psychology? A) cognitivism B) behaviorism C) functionalism D) psychoanalysis Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 138. Psychologists are most frequently found working __________. A) in K schools B) for a governmental agency C) self-employed in a clinical practice D) at universities and 4-year colleges Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 5.1 TEXT LO: 1.4b Describe different types of psychologists and identify what each of them does. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 139. Nico is meeting with his academic adviser. He wishes to pursue a career where he’ll work to diagnose and treat mental disorders. Nico aspires to be a(n) __________ psychologist. A) clinical Correct. The evaluation, diagnosis, and treatment of mental disorders are the key responsibilities of a clinical psychologist. B) experimental C) forensic Incorrect. Forensic psychologists work in prisons, jails, and other settings to assess and diagnose inmates and assist with their rehabilitation and treatment. D) school Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 5.1 TEXT LO: 1.4b Describe different types of psychologists and identify what each of them does. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 140. A __________ psychologist examines the physiological bases of behavior in animals and humans. A) clinical B) school C) biological D) forensic Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 5.1 TEXT LO: 1.4b Describe different types of psychologists and identify what each of them does. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been

141. A __________ psychologist works in prisons, jails, and other settings to assess inmates and assist in rehabilitation. A) clinical B) school C) biological D) forensic Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 5.1 TEXT LO: 1.4b Describe different types of psychologists and identify what each of them does. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 142. Jennifer works in Boston using research methods to examine the way children learn language skills. She works for an organization that uses her findings, and those of her colleagues, to assist schools in developing new curricula for preschools. Jennifer is most likely a(n) __________ psychologist. A) experimental Correct. An experimental psychologist uses research methods to conduct studies and their findings are often applied in real world situations. B) personality C) industrial-organizational D) school Incorrect. A school psychologist works with teachers, parents, and children to remedy students’ behavioral, emotional, and learning difficulties. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 5.1 TEXT LO: 1.4b Describe different types of psychologists and identify what each of them does. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 143. All types of psychology involve __________. A) interactions between patients and therapists B) replicating what is already known via common sense C) treating people’s behavioral and emotional problems Incorrect. In fact, most of the subfields of psychology do not deal directly with people who suffer from behavioral and emotional problems. D) the use of scientific methods. Correct. Despite the fact that psychology has many different variations of job roles, they are all joined by their reliance on science. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.4b Describe different types of psychologists and identify what each of them does. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been

144. In which subfield of psychology did most women earn their Ph.Ds in 1974, 1990, and 2005? A) clinical psychology B) cognitive psychology C) developmental psychology D) feminist psychology Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 5.1 TEXT LO: 1.4b Describe different types of psychologists and identify what each of them does. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 145. Imagine that you were a psychology professor lecturing on the nature-nurture debate in 1920. You would have likely emphasized the importance of __________. Now imagine that you are a psychology professor lecturing on the same topic today. You would be likely to emphasize the importance of __________. A) nature; the interaction of nature and nurture Incorrect. The first part of this answer is incorrect, because earlier models suggested that we are born a blank slate and are a result of our environmental influences. The second half of this answer is correct. B) nurture; the interaction of nature and nurture Correct. Earlier models suggested that we are born a blank slate, and whatever we become is a result of our environment. More recent models recognize the interaction of both genetic and environmental factors. C) nurture; nature D) nature; nurture Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4c Describe the two great debates that have shaped the field of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 146. Evolutionary psychology __________. A) provides easily testable hypotheses B) focuses on animal behavior C) applies Darwin’s theory of natural selection D) has solved the nature-nurture debate Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4c Describe the two great debates that have shaped the field of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been

147. With its concern on the adaptive functions provided by the various psychological characteristics, evolutionary psychology is most like what early psychological school of thought? A) behaviorism Incorrect. While behaviorism might have been slightly influenced by evolutionary psychology, the best answer to this question is functionalism. B) functionalism Correct. The theories of Charles Darwin and evolutionary psychology were most salient to the school of thought known as functional as him. C) psychoanalysis D) structuralism Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4c Describe the two great debates that have shaped the field of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 148. Perhaps you have seen the movie The Lion King. Two brother lions were at the center of the plot, Scar and Mufasa. Scar was weak, thin, and rather lanky. Mufasa was strong, muscular, and had a very dominant presence. Because Mufasa had the qualities and traits that would help him survive and reproduce at a higher rate than his brother, biologists would say that he had a higher level of __________. A) androgen Incorrect. Androgen is a male hormone, and while Mufasa may have had more of it, it is not the best answer to this question. B) drift C) genetics D) fitness Correct. These skills that help with survival and reproductive success fall under the quality called fitness. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4c Describe the two great debates that have shaped the field of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 149. Biological psychologists refer to __________ as the extent to which a trait increases the chances that organisms that possess this trait will survive and reproduce at a higher rate than competitors who lack it. A) instinct B) fitness C) drift D) heritability Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4c Describe the two great debates that have shaped the field of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been

150. Which of the following ideas is the most compelling evidence against the idea of free will? A) Most of people’s behavior is deliberate and controlled. Incorrect. If this were the case, then it would be evidence for the idea of free will. B) People often lack direct access to the causes of their behavior. Correct. The idea that people often do things without truly knowing why is counterevidence to the concept of free will. C) Recent brain imaging studies have shown that readiness potential and conscious intention to behave co-occur. D) We select when, where, and how to assert our option to engage in one behavior rather than in another. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.4c Describe the two great debates that have shaped the field of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 151. Which of the following psychologists would be most likely to argue that free will is something that does not truly exist, and that we are simply unaware of the environmental influences that affect our behaviors at any given moment? A) B. F. Skinner B) Sigmund Freud C) Wilhelm Wundt D) Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.4c Describe the two great debates that have shaped the field of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 152. __________ research examines how the mind works, then __________ research examines how we can use the former to solve real-world problems. A) Simple; formal B) Applied; basic C) Basic; applied D) Formal; applied Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.4d Describe how psychological research affects our daily lives. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been

153. Brandon is an industrial-organizational psychologist who has been hired by a large hotel chain to determine why their turnover rate is so high for their maids. This is an example of __________ research. A) applied Correct. Applied research examines how we can use basic research to solve real-world problems. B) basic Incorrect. Basic research examines how the mind works, but does not directly apply to any real-world phenomena. C) experiential D) laboratory Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.4d Describe how psychological research affects our daily lives. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 154. If you were conducting a study designed to determine which type of psychotherapy is most effective in the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder, what type of research would you employ? A) basic Incorrect. Basic research examines how the mind works, but does not directly apply to any real-world phenomena. B) applied Correct. Applied research examines how we can use basic research to solve real-world problems. C) academic D) sociobiological Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.4d Describe how psychological research affects our daily lives. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 155. What famous American psychologist also heavily influenced the field of advertising? A) William James B) Carl Rogers C) B. F. Skinner D) John Watson Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.4d Describe how psychological research affects our daily lives. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been

Fill-in-the-Blank 1. __________ refers to a person’s belief that he or she accurately and objectively sees the world as it is. Answer: Naive realism Diff: 3å Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 2. An explanation for a large number of findings in the natural world is what a scientist would call a(n) __________ theory. Answer: scientific Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 3. Tatiana is a manager of a large grocery store, and she believes that, if left to their own devices, her high school and college-age workers would do nothing but text and talk on their cell phones. She constantly watches and warns these employees about being written up or fired for repeated violations of the no cell-phone use policy. However, she often ignores the same behavior by her older adult employees. It would be wise to warn her of the dangers of the __________ bias. Answer: confirmation Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 4. Most people get their knowledge about psychological topics not from scientific journals or academicrelated books, but rather from __________. Answer: popular psychology (or the popular psychology industry) (Instructors may wish to accept “pseudoscience” as an answer.) Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 5. __________ refers to claims or statements that superficially appear to be scientific but are not. Answer: Pseudoscience Diff: 1å Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science

6. The tendency to detect meaningful patterns in random stimuli—to see order amidst chaos, so to speak—is called __________. Answer: patternicity Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 7. The use of the emotions one experiences as a guide for evaluating the validity of scientific claims is called __________ by psychologists. Answer: emotional reasoning Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 8. Mistakenly assuming that the popularity of a theory is in some way indicative of a theory’s correctness or accuracy is the definition of the __________ fallacy. Answer: bandwagon Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 9. In the Star Wars movie Revenge of the Sith, Anakin Skywalker/Darth Vader tells his former mentor, Obi-Wan Kenobi, “If you are not with me, then you are my enemy.” This is an example of the __________ fallacy. Answer: either-or Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 10. The argument from __________ fallacy assumes that, just because an idea has been around for a long time, it must have lost its validity. Answer: antiquity Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 11. Assuming that because a scientific fact exists means a certain behavior is therefore morally acceptable is what is known as the __________ fallacy. Answer: naturalistic Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

12. Tim believes that because evolutionary psychologists speculate that the ability to lie is adaptive, it must be OK to lie to his parents. Tim has committed the __________ fallacy. Answer: naturalistic Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 13. You overhear Sheila tell a friend, “Never date a fraternity guy! Every one I dated cheated on me!” Sheila has committed the __________ fallacy. Answer: hasty generalization Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 14. Scientific skepticism requires that any claim is met with a(n) __________. Answer: open mind Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3a Identify the key features of scientific skepticism. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 15. During a class discussion on the effects of day care on later social adjustment, Dr. Barnes frequently reminded her students to focus on the scientific evidence rather than on their feelings about day care. Dr. Barnes is promoting __________ in his students. Answer: critical thinking (“scientific skepticism” may also be considered a correct answer) Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3a Identify the key features of scientific skepticism. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 16. In an experiment, a researcher attempts to create situations where support for one position indicates a lack of support for other positions. This is an application of the critical thinking principle of __________. Answer: ruling out rival hypotheses Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 17. For a scientific claim to be meaningful, it must be capable of being disproven. This is the critical thinking principle of __________. Answer: falsifiability Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

18. __________ refers to the idea that a study’s results have been independently verified and reproduced by others and are not simply the result of chance or coincidence. Answer: Replicability Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 19. __________ is the philosophical precept that suggests that the simplest explanation to an observed phenomenon tends to be the correct one. Answer: Occam’s Razor Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction 20. The development of psychology as a discipline focused on scientific experimentation after 1879 and led to a movement away from its roots in __________. Answer: philosophy Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 21. Biologist Charles Darwin proposed the concept of __________, which was the principle that organisms that possess adaptations survive and reproduce at a higher rate than do other organisms. Answer: natural selection Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 22. The psychological school of __________ was concerned with scientific efforts to understand the basic foundations of everyday conscious experience. Answer: structuralism Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 23. __________ was the psychological school that argued most strongly on the importance of an observable and objective science of psychology. Answer: Behaviorism Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

24. Randi is giving a talk on theoretical frameworks in psychology. In her talk, she mentions the importance of understanding internal psychological processes and that we are frequently unaware of the underlying causes for many of our thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. Randi’s talk is most likely on __________. Answer: psychoanalysis Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 25. Many psychologists believe that free will is a(n) __________ because of the automaticity of many behaviors. Answer: illusion Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.4c Describe the two great debates that have shaped the field of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 26. Antonio is investigating the best method for using what is known about persuasion to develop an effective anti-littering campaign in his town and county. This is an example of __________ research. Answer: applied Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.4d Describe how psychological research affects our daily lives. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been Essay 1. Evaluate critically the kind of information that one gains from common sense. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain information from the following sections of Chapter 1 for full credit. Much of common sense is demonstrably incorrect. We often believe contradictory ideas with equal strength in their accuracy (which leads to commonsense proverbs being unfalsifiable). Naive realism and logical fallacies mentioned in text are used to buttress claims of the accuracy of common sense (appeals to authority, argument from antiquity fallacy, bandwagon fallacy). Confirmation bias and belief perseverance allow us to continue to hold erroneous beliefs because we only look for supportive evidence (confirmation bias) and we refuse to modify/correct our false beliefs (belief perseverance). Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition

2. Analyze how the signs of pseudoscience are often examples of violations of the principles of critical thinking. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain examples similar to the following information for full credit. Overuse/use of ad hoc immunizing hypotheses violates the principle of falsifiability because it involves giving after-the-fact explanations that describe the negative findings of the research. Overreliance on anecdotes may also violate the spirit of falsifiability because anecdotes are difficult at best, impossible at worst, to verify. Overreliance on anecdotes violates the principle of correlation versus causation. People assume that the world operates in the way they have observed, but just having an example of something does not mean that one has established a cause-and-effect relationship. Anecdotal evidence is also inadequate for discussing the representative nature of one outcome to other individuals. A lack of self-correction is very problematic for pseudoscience, as your authors note, “wrong claims never seem to go away.” This is because of a concept called belief perseverance, which reminds us that people tend to cling with an iron grasp to their own positions and beliefs, even when they are presented with evidence that those positions are errant. In a true science selfcorrection is essential. Absence of connectivity to other research suggests that a singular finding has been used to support a given position, and this is not a scientific position from which to examine the world. Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 3. Apply the critical thinking principles discussed in Chapter 1 to a discussion of how science is an approach to evidence. Answer: Answers may vary but a full credit answer will contain the following points. Needs to discuss the ideas of falsifiability, replication, and a process of ruling out alternate hypotheses when examining the findings of one’s research. Because our work will be publicly verified by others (peer review), we are required to ask questions in a manner that allows them to be shown to be supported or refuted (falsifiability). Critical thinking principles provide the tools to choose between theories: parsimony, kind of evidence necessary to modify what is currently known (extraordinary claims need extraordinary evidence), replicability is needed to help ensure the accuracy of initial findings, and the questions should be structured so that rival explanations are eliminated via research. Must understand that demonstrating a relationship (correlation) isn’t the same as demonstrating causation. Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text's six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction

4. Discuss the concerns that John Watson would have had had with both the structuralist and psychoanalytic perspectives on psychology. Answer: Answers will vary but should include any three of the following for full credit. Behaviorists are concerned with studying observable behavior that contains no subjectivity on the part of the individual reporting the data or recording the data. Both structuralism and psychoanalysis would include unobservable information that would be subjective rather than objective. Behaviorists were more concerned with the external, or observable, world. Psychoanalysis and structuralism focused on issues internal to the individual. Behaviorists focused more on the importance of research and the use of the scientific method than did psychoanalysts. Behaviorists focused more on the importance of the conscious level of the mind while psychoanalysts were most interested in studying the unconscious level. Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 5. According to your authors, how should the critical thinking student explain how the field of psychology feels about the evidence regarding the nature-nurture debate and the free will–determinism debate? Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. The student needs to include supportive evidence for each of the following for full credit as well. Most psychologists agree that both genes and our social environment play critical roles in our behavior. However, research continues to explore when the two will interact together and when one is more important than the other for specific behaviors. Many psychologists believe that human behavior is largely deterministic and that we are unaware of so many of the influences on our behavior that we mistakenly believe we are free actors. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 1.4c Describe the two great debates that have shaped the field of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been 6. Describe how the fact that psychological influences are often unknown plays a key role in the philosophical debate over the relative influences of free will and determinism. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. Many key influences are often overlooked by people, or their importance is discounted. Because of the previous factor, many people often come to view their behavior as intentional and self-directed when it is really not. The idea that we are not actively aware of all of the factors that contribute to our decisions and/or actions prompted some to describe free will as an illusion. Also, much of human behavior is the result of automatic responses. Despite this fact, we continue to believe that we control our destiny and can influence real-life circumstances even when we cannot. We then come up with after the fact explanations that sound reasonable to us, despite the fact that they are completely erroneous explanations for our behavior. Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 1.4c Describe the two great debates that have shaped the field of psychology. Topic: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been

Critical Thinking 1. Illustrate how confirmation bias has created a problem for a friend or family member in the past. Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following information for full credit. Student should mention the basic idea of confirmation bias (seek out supportive evidence but fail to seek out, ignore, or distort contradictory information). Student should clearly and correctly identify a situation where they observed an individual using confirmation bias and how the person came to an erroneous conclusion. Diff: 3 Skill: Applied/Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Topic: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition 2. Demonstrate a time that you fell victim to at least one of the following logical fallacies (bandwagon fallacy, emotional reasoning fallacy, either-or fallacy, genetic fallacy, appeal to ignorance fallacy, appeal to authority fallacy, or not me fallacy) and how it negatively affected the quality of your decision on that occasion. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. Student clearly and correctly identifies at least one of the fallacies listed above in his/her answer. Student provides supportive detail to show how the fallacy negatively affected them. Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science 3. Describe the dangers of pseudoscience and why the dangers should matter to you. Answer: Answers will vary but at least three of the following are needed for full credit. People use valuable resources (primarily money), time, and energy on pseudoscientific treatments that either don’t work or have no research on their effectiveness as treatments. Meanwhile, they are missing out on scientifically documented, effective treatments that could relieve their suffering. The widespread appeal and use of pseudoscience inhibits the ability of people to think in a truly scientific fashion. Persons may be directly harmed when opinion rather than scientific proof is used in the application of a treatment. Pseudoscience impacts people in their daily lives (it impacts the education their children may get, it impacts the workplace, it impacts their community through politics and other means). Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Topic: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science

4. Explain how the principles of critical thinking can assist a person in making more informed and, hopefully, more accurate decisions in one’s day life. Do you think these principles are actually necessary, or are they just a means to be too critical of research? Answer: Answers will vary but should include at least four of the following ideas for full credit. The principle of falsifiability helps to inform us of the kinds of questions that we can ask and actually find a scientific answer. The principle of parsimony reminds us to focus on the simplest explanation with the fewest assumptions as being the best. The principles of replicability and extraordinary claims requiring extraordinary evidence address the ability to verify other people’s claims (we need concurrence from independent sources) and that this is especially true when our claims contradict what is “known.” Extraordinary claims also require stronger evidence because they are asking us to put aside our current beliefs in favor of a new theory that explains both the known and the new information we have gathered. We need to have gathered the evidence in such a way that our explanation/understanding is the only possible rational reason for the data (ruling out rival hypotheses). We must remember that just because two things are related doesn’t mean that one caused the other (third variable explains each and the relationship we observe comes from that). Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 1.3b Identify and explain the text's six principles of scientific thinking. Topic: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction

CHAPTER 1: PSYCHOLOGY AND SCIENTIFIC THINKING ______________________________________________________________________________ The Beginnings of Psychology 1. Structuralism emphasizes __________. a. individual differences b. the application of biological principles to the mind c. the influence of subconscious urges on conscious behavior d. the basic units of experience and their combinations Answer d % correct 45 a= 12 b= 30 c= 14 d= 45 r = .41 2. Wertheimer was associated with __________ psychology. a. functionalist b. psychoanalytic c. Gestalt d. existential Answer c % correct 50 a= 23 b= 21 c= 50 d= 6 r = .43 3. John Watson was the founder of the school of thought that became known as __________. a. functionalism b. structuralism c. behaviorism d. humanism Answer c % correct 50 a= 13 b= 20 c= 50 d= 17 r = .23 4. The first psychology laboratory was founded by __________. a. Wundt b. James c. Titchener d. Watson Answer a % correct 60 a= 60 b= 7 c= 18 d= 16 r = .21 5. B. F. Skinner is associated with __________. a. psychodynamic psychology b. behaviorism c. Gestalt psychology d. existentialism Answer b % correct 69 a= 12 b= 69 c= 12 d= 8 6. Freud was the founder of __________. a. existential psychology b. behavioral psychology c. psychoanalysis d. behaviorism Answer c % correct 70 a= 2 b= 22 c= 70 d=6

r = .39

r = .49

7. A young man reads in a letter that he has just won $1,000 in a state-wide lottery and he literally jumps for joy. Which neurons are sending messages from his brain to his legs ordering them to jump? a. sensory neurons b. motor neurons c. interaction neurons d. association neurons Answer b % correct 89 a= 7 b= 89 c= 4 d= 1 r = .34 8. In the late 20th century, psychology __________. a. expanded dramatically b. stagnated c. contracted slightly d. contracted dramatically Answer a % correct 80 a= 80 b= 9 c= 4 d= 6

r = .29

9. Like Watson, Skinner believed that psychology should study only __________. a. mental processes b. perceptions c. elements of thought d. observable behavior Answer d % correct 62 a= 23 b= 5 c= 10 d= 62 r = .31 10. By general agreement, psychology was born in __________. a. 1642 b. 1853 c. 1879 d. 1906 Answer c % correct 32 a= 12 b= 50 c= 32 d= 6 r = .23 11. Freud's theories differed radically from the views of his predecessors because of __________. a. its extensive use of laboratory research to support its claims b. the emphasis it placed on Eastern philosophies and culture c. the emphasis it placed on unconscious processes d. its emphasis on environmental learning as the source for most personality characteristics Answer c % correct 71 a= 6 b= 4 c= 71 d= 19 r = .40 12. The first psychology laboratory was opened by __________. a. Wundt b. James c. Titchener d. Watson Answer a % correct 71 a= 71 b= 8 c= 6 d= 14 r = .38 13. Titchener was a member of the ___________school of thought. a. structuralists b. functionalist c. behaviorist d. reductionist Answer a % correct 70 a= 70 b= 16 c= 12 d= 3 r = .39

14. The school of thought that became known as behaviorism was founded by __________. a. Watson b. Titchener c. James d. Wundt Answer a % correct 63 a= 63 b= 8 c= 15 d= 13 r = .50 15. Wertheimer was associated with the _____________ school. a. functionalist b. psychoanalytic c. Gestalt d. behaviorist Answer c % correct 66 a= 9 b= 13 c= 66 d= 11 r = .43 16. Freud believed that many unconscious desires are: a. the result of excessive punishment. b. by-products of introspection. c. the result of excessive reinforcement. d. sexual in nature. Answer d % correct 79 a= 1 b= 8 c= 12 d= 79

r = .48

17. As a science, psychology is approximately how old? a. 50 years b. 125 years c. 175 years d. 2500 years since the field dates back to the ancient Greeks Answer b % correct 26 a= 3 b= 26 c= 23 d= 47 r = .36 18. Modern psychology is said to have begun when: a. Greek philosophers began studying the differences between people. b. Wundt opened the first laboratory devoted to the scientific study of psychology. c. Freud developed psychoanalytic theory and therapy. d. it was discovered in the early 1900s that many illnesses have no medical basis. Answer b % correct 77 a= 17 b= 77 c= 4 d= 3 r = .26 19. The psychological school that asks, "What are mental processes for?" rather than "What are mental processes?" is which of the following? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. humanism d. Gestalt Answer b % correct 76 a= 13 b= 76 c= 2 d= 10 r = .48 20. Which of the following is NOT associated with Gestalt psychology? a. Koffka b. James c. Wertheimer d. Kohler Answer b % correct 83 a= 6 b= 83 c= 6 d= 6 r = .42

21. The psychologist John Watson is associated with the _______ school of psychology and argued that psychology must concern itself only with ________. a. behavioral; behavior b. behavioral; mental processes c. cognitive; thought and action d. cognitive; behavior Answer a % correct 72 a= 72 b= 15 c= 11 d= 3 r = .33 22. Which of the following does NOT fit with the other three? a. Wundt b. 1879 c. functionalism d. introspection Answer c % correct 55 a= 8 b= 4 c= 55 d= 33 r = .26 23. Studying the elements of sensations, feelings, and images is most directly associated with which school of psychology? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. behaviorism d. humanism Answer a % correct 64 a= 64 b= 14 c= 12 d= 10 r = .52 24. The primary method of investigation used by structuralists was: a. natural observation. b. dream interpretation. c. analytic introspection. d. experimentation. Answer c % correct 54 a= 20 b= 2 c= 54 d= 24 r = .42 25. The founder of behaviorism is: a. James. b. Skinner. c. Watson. d. Wundt. Answer c % correct 77 a= 2 b= 15 c= 77 d= 5

r = .41

26. Psychology is said to have begun when a. medicine was seen to be ineffective in treating neurosis. b. Wilhelm Wundt started the first psychological laboratory . c. Sigmund Freud opened his private practice in Vienna. d. it was discovered in the early 1900s that many illnesses have no medical. Answer b % correct 74 a= 8 b= 74 c= 3 d= 15 r = .28 27. Scientific psychology is formally recognized to have begun: a. in Greece, with the work of Hippocrates. b. in the United States, with the work of James. c. in Austria, with the work of Freud. d. in Germany, with the work of Wundt. Answer d % correct 90 a= 2 b= 3 c= 5 d= 90 r = .30

28. The first psychology laboratory was opened by _________. a. Wundt b. James c. Titchener d. Watson Answer a % correct 95 a= 95 b= 2 c= 2 d= 1 r = .20 29. Skinner is associated with __________. a. structuralism b. behaviorism c. Gestalt psychology d. existentialism Answer b % correct 78 a= 7 b= 78 c= 14 d= 1

r = .20

30. For Freud, much of our behavior is controlled by __________. a. unconscious desires b. environmental stimuli c. mental Gestalts d. mental associations Answer a % correct 90 a= 90 b= 7 c= 1 d= 2 r = .27 31. The school of thought that became known as behaviorism was founded by __________. a. Watson b. Titchener c. James d. Wundt Answer a % correct 53 a= 53 b= 11 c= 17 d= 17 r = .40 32. Watson felt that psychologists should study __________. a. consciousness b. observable behavior c. mental imagery d. elements of thought Answer b % correct 86 a= 2 b= 86 c= 1 d= 11 r = .31 33. Behaviorist J. B. Watson objected to early theories of psychology because of their focus on: a. evolution. b. science. c. mental processes. d. physical processes. Answer c % correct 35 a= 16 b= 22 c= 35 d= 28 r = .21 34. Psychologists should only study observable behavior, according to __________. a. Freud b. Titchener c. Galton d. Watson Answer d % correct 58 a= 14 b= 17 c= 12 d= 58 r = .41 35. John Watson was a behaviorist who argued that the science of psychology must concern itself only with a. experiences as whole units. b. observable events. c. unconscious mental processes. d. early childhood experiences. Answer b % correct 93 a= 1 b= 93 c= 3 d= 3 r = .23 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

36. Which of the following is associated with Gestalt psychology? a. Skinner b. Werheimer c. James d. Jones Answer b % correct 80 a= 3 b= 80 c= 10 d= 7 r = .45 37. The psychologist John Watson is associated with the _______ school of psychology and argued that psychology must concern itself only with _______. a. behavioral; behavior b. behavioral; mental processes c. cognitive; thought and action d. cognitive; behavior Answer a % correct 69 a= 69 b= 17 c= 8 d= 5 r = .40 38. B. F. Skinner is most closely associated with which school of psychology? a. cognitive b. humanistic c. functionalism d. behaviorism Answer d % correct 62 a= 10 b= 15 c= 12 d= 62 r = .50 39. Which school of psychology assumes that human activity cannot be broken down into separate units for analysis but must be evaluated as wholes? a. humanism b. Gestalt c. functionalism d. behaviorism Answer b % correct 79 a= 7 b= 79 c= 8 d= 7 r = .43 40. Which one of the following psychologists was responsible for originating the behavioral school of psychology? a. Pavlov b. Watson c. Skinner d. Rayner Answer b % correct 49 a= 10 b= 49 c= 38 d= 3 r = .23 41. B. F. Skinner is most closely associated with which school of psychology? a. cognitive b. humanistic c. functionalism d. behaviorism Answer d % correct 78 a= 9 b= 6 c= 8 d= 78 r = .46 42. Wundt is to structuralism as _______ is to psychoanalysis. a. Freud b. Watson c. Rogers d. Maslow Answer a % correct 95 a= 95 b= 3 c= 0 d= 3 r = .24

43. Watson is to behaviorism as _______ is to psychoanalysis. a. Freud b. James c. Skinner d. Wundt Answer a % correct 91 a= 91 b= 1 c= 6 d= 2 r = .23

Modern Psychology 44. A group of psychologists study how adults change and grow, both psychologically and physiologically, as they age. These psychologists are most like ___________. a. personality psychologists b. social psychologists c. organizational psychologists d. developmental psychologists Answer d % correct 93 a= 3 b= 2 c= 2 d= 93 r = .21 45. After more than a year in Iranian prisons, 52 American hostages were released by Iran's revolutionary government and allowed to return to the United States. Of the following professionals,___________ psychologists would probably have LEAST professional interest in that event. a. counseling b. clinical c. social d. experimental Answer d % correct 77 a= 5 b= 11 c= 7 d= 77 r = .23 46. Which of the following is the correct order which psychologists use in studying a particular behavior? a. describe, explain, predict, control b. explain, describe, predict, control c. predict, describe, explain, control d. describe, predict, explain, control Answer a % correct 60 a= 60 b= 3 c= 24 d= 13 r = .53 47. Naturalistic observation is ____________________. a. re-creating natural conditions in the laboratory as closely as possible to make an experiment more valid b. studying behavior in its natural context c. basically the same process as objective introspection d. observing behavior in the lab without taking formal notes or using technological equipment to measure the experiment findings Answer b % correct 97 a= 3 b= 97 c= 0 d= 0 r = .23 48. Each day in class, Dr. Helms explains to his students that they are wonderful whether they are academic successes or failures. He also points out that each individual consciously chooses to attend class and study and that these choices dramatically affect whether one is academically successful. Dr. Helms is most likely a _______ psychologist. a. psychoanalytic b. humanistic c. behavioral d. Gestalt Answer b % correct 77 a= 3 b= 77 c= 17 d= 4 r = .36

49. Which of the following types of psychologists is most prepared to help a person who hears voices and believes she is Joan of Arc? a. forensic b. counseling c. school d. clinical Answer d % correct 87 a= 3 b= 10 c= 1 d= 87 r = .34 50. Steve, a college sophomore, is seeing a psychologist because of his intense fear of people. His counselor feels that Steve's fear is a product of unresolved conflicts about his parents, and his childhood experiences with them. Steve's therapist is most characteristic of which school of psychology? a. behaviorism b. psychoanalytic c. humanistic d. Gestalt Answer b % correct 80 a= 6 b= 80 c= 13 d= 1 r = .33 51. Which of the following assumptions associated with the psychoanalytic school produced the strongest negative reaction? a. Psychology, as therapy, is more philosophical than scientific. b. All human behavior is a product of one's experiences. c. Humans are basically good. d. All humans, including infants, have sexual motivations and drives. Answer d % correct 79 a= 7 b= 9 c= 5 d= 79 r = .31 52. Cognitive psychology is contributing to the development of ________, which attempts to make computers learn and solve problems the way people do. a. educational technology b. forensic psychology c. virtual reality d. artificial intelligence Answer d % correct 65 a= 19 b= 3 c= 13 d= 65 r = .32 53. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. A psychologist is a medical doctor specializing in the treatment of emotional disturbances. b. A psychiatrist is a medical doctor specializing in the treatment of emotional disturbances. c. Clinical psychologists treat severe psychological disturbances and psychiatrists treat mild disorders. d. Both clinical psychologists and psychiatrists can prescribe medications to their patients. Answer b % correct 83 a= 4 b= 83 c= 10 d= 4 r = .36

54. Humanistic psychologists believe that: a. humans are basically destructive and must constantly fight negative impulses. b. psychologists should study only objective events such as stimuli and behaviors. c. people are basically good and will generally strive to achieve positive social goals. d. none of the above Answer c % correct 85 a= 3 b= 7 c= 85 d= 5 r = .37 55. Which of the following is the correct order which psychologists use in studying a particular behavior? a. describe, explain, predict, control b. explain, describe, predict, control c. predict, describe, explain, control d. describe, predict, explain, control Answer a % correct 58 a= 58 b= 3 c= 26 d= 13 r = .40 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

56. Psychologists use techniques based on ___________. a. cultural ethnocentrism b. objective introspection c. philosophical logic d. the scientific method Answer d % correct 76 a= 0 b= 20 c= 3 d= 76 r = .26 57. A psychologist bases his/her theories completely on measuring observable behaviors. This psychologist is probably a __________. a. humanist b. behaviorist c. structuralist d. functionalist Answer b % correct 88 a= 1 b= 88 c= 9 d= 1 r = .21 58. Psychology: a. has an applied side. b. is a science of behavior. c. has goals of describing, predicting, and explaining events. d. all of the above Answer d % correct 87 a= 1 b= 10 c= 2 d= 87 r = .29 59. What early school of thought in psychology was noted for its emphasis on the unconscious determinants of behavior? a. Structuralism b. Behaviorism c. Gestalt psychology d. Psychoanalytic theory Answer d % correct 86 a= 0 b= 8 c= 5 d= 86 r = .32 60. Cognitive psychologists are a subgroup of experimental psychologists who are concerned primarily with: a. neurobiological events which underlie behavior. b. the function of age on behavior. c. mental events which intervene between stimuli and responses. d. how people are affected by social situations. Answer c % correct 77 a= 16 b= 2 c= 77 d= 6 r = .22 61. Cognitive psychologists are concerned with the scientific study of __________. a. reinforcement b. alienation and apathy c. mental processes d. self-actualization Answer c % correct 90 a= 4 b= 0 c= 90 d= 6 r = .29

62. Studying the elements of sensations, feelings, and images is most directly associated with which school of psychology? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. behaviorism d. humanism Answer a % correct 49 a= 49 b= 19 c= 22 d= 10 r = .38

63. Psychologists stopped relying on the method of analytic introspection as their primary research tool because: a. they wanted to study mental processes rather than observable behavior. b. results were inconsistent across labs. c. laboratory research was replaced by field research. d. the technique did not provide useful information for therapists. Answer b % correct 56 a= 31 b= 56 c= 3 d= 9 r = .27

Psychology: The Science 64. Political polls taken before major elections are examples of __________ research. a. correlational b. experimental c. case study d. survey Answer d % correct 92 a= 4 b= 1 c= 3 d= 92 r = .21 65. Observing behavior as it happens in real-life natural settings without imposing laboratory controls is known as the __________. a. naturalistic observation method b. experimental method c. correlational method d. psychometric approach Answer a % correct 97 a= 97 b= 2 c= 1 d= 1 r = .20 66. Observing behavior as it happens in real-life natural settings without imposing laboratory controls is known as the __________. a. naturalistic observation method b. experimental method c. correlational method d. psychometric approach Answer a % correct 100 a= 100 b= 0 c= 0 d= 0 r = .0 67. A detailed, well-researched biography of a famous historical person is technically an example of the __________ method of research. a. psychometric b. naturalistic observation c. case study d. correlational Answer c % correct 83 a= 5 b= 9 c= 83 d= 2 r = .18 68. When you watch dogs play in the park or watch how your professors conduct their classes, you are engaging in a form of __________. a. case study research b. survey research c. naturalistic observation d. psychometric study Answer c % correct 99 a= 1 b= 0 c= 99 d= 0 r = .0

69. The degree of relationship between two or more variables is __________. a. correlation b. validity c. reliability d. a hypothesis Answer a % correct 97 a= 97 b=0 c= 1 d= 2 r = .09 70. The degree of relationship between two or more variables is: a. correlation. b. validity. c. reliability. d. a hypothesis. Answer a % correct 96 a= 96 b= 1 c= 2 d= 1 r = .29 71. Anything that follows a response, making that response more likely to recur, is __________. a. an antecedent b. an enhancement c. reinforcement d. consequence Answer c % correct 88 a= 3 b= 4 c= 88 d= 4 r = .41 72. Positive correlation shows: a. the extent to which two independent variables change together. b. that as one independent variable increases, another decreases. c. that as one variable changes, another changes in the same direction. d. that as one variable changes, another changes in the opposite direction. Answer c % correct 62 a= 18 b= 9 c= 62 d= 11 r = .40 73. A researcher wished to study the relationship between high school grades and college grades. Of the following research methods, which would be the most appropriate? a. case study b. correlation c. experiment d. survey Answer b % correct 37 a= 22 b= 37 c= 10 d= 31 r = .31 74. A correlation of .00 means: a. you made a mistake in calculation. b. you did not find out anything about the relationship between the two variables. c. the two variables are unrelated. d. everyone who scored low on one variable scored high on the other variable, and vice versa. Answer c % correct 56 a= 2 b= 26 c= 56 d= 17 r = .25 75. The greatest disadvantage of correlation is: a. it has a limited range of values, being only -1 to +1. b. it does not enable cause-and-effect conclusions. c. its value can be negative. d. its value can be zero. Answer b % correct 85 a= 11 b= 85 c= 4 d= 1

r = .44

76. A correlation tells us: a. whether a cause-effect relationship exists. b. whether two variables are related c. whether or not a test is efficient. d. if people are responding to demand characteristics. Answer b % correct 87 a= 9 b= 87 c= 4 d= 0

r = .35

77. A psychologist uses the correlational method to _________. a. explain the effects of one variable on another b. compare two groups of subjects c. determine what causes a variable to change d. identify relationships between variables Answer d % correct 73 a= 11 b= 14 c= 2 d= 73 r = .42 78. The survey method of research is ___________ in nature. a. correlational b. experimental c. field experimental d. both correlational and field experimental group Answer a % correct 31 a= 31 b= 9 c= 16 d= 43 r = .22 79. As children grow older, their discretionary income usually increases. The best conclusion to draw about the variables age and income are that they are: a. causally related b. uncorrelated c. negatively correlated d. positively correlated Answer d % correct 92 a= 1 b= 3 c= 4 d= 92 r = .31

Quiz 1.1: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q1.1.1 As a discipline, psychology spans multiple __________, which can be thought of as the rungs on a ladder. a) levels of analysis b) points of view c) phenomena d) neurochemicals ANS: a Topic=What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: We can view psychological phenomena, such as depression, with lower rungs being more biological and higher rungs being more social. LO 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense.

EOM Q1.1.2 Dr. Frohardt is a psychology professor who has been asked to explain what all people will look at first when they view photographs of dangerous animals. Dr. Frohardt will find this task difficult because __________. a) eye-tracking studies show differences between cultures when inspecting visual materials b) research on this subject has never been completed scientifically c) of his confirmation bias d) this is a Wason selection task ANS: a Topic=What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: European Americans tend to focus on central details, whereas Asian Americans tend to focus on peripheral or incidental details. LO 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense.

EOM Q1.1.3 Which term describes the common sense belief that we see the world as it really is? a) free will-determinism b) healthy skepticism c) naive realism d) intuition ANS: c Topic=What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: We assume that "seeing is believing" and trust our intuitive perceptions of the world and ourselves. LO 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense.

EOM Q1.1.4 People have a tendency to continue holding on to their beliefs even when those beliefs have been shown to be wrong. This phenomenon is known as __________. a) confirmation bias b) bias protection c) metaphysical certitude d) belief perseverance ANS: d Topic=What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Because none of us wants to think we are wrong, we are usually reluctant to give up our cherished notions. LO 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases.

EOM Q1.1.5 The idea that we can dismiss scientific theories (such as Darwinian evolution) from serious consideration because a theory "is just an educated guess" is __________. a) a misconception b) an important observation c) empirically obvious d) partly true ANS: a Topic=What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Darwinian evolution and other well-established theories are not guesses about how the world works, because they have been substantiated over and over again by independent investigators. LO 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases.

Quiz 1.2: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q1.2.1 Bud and Sandy are discussing the merits of new automobiles. Bud noted, "This car model has been tested by four different consumer agencies in hundreds of tests with virtually the same outcomes each time; it is very reliable." Sandy countered, "Yeah, but my neighbor down the street bought that car, and he has had nothing but problems. I would stay away from it." Which hallmark of pseudoscience has Sandy fallen prey to? a) the ad hoc immunizing hypothesis b) overreliance on anecdotes c) insisting on evidence rather than proof d) lack of self-correction ANS: b Topic=Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: How would you weigh the evidence presented by Bud compared to the evidence presented by Sandy? LO 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science.

EOM Q1.2.2 Some main warning signs of pseudoscientific claims include overreliance on anecdotes, exaggerated claims, absence of connectivity to other research, lack of peer review, and __________. a) talk of evidence instead of proof b) replication by independent agencies c) the scientific method d) use of scientific-sounding terms that make little sense ANS: d Topic=Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: The following statement is pseudoscientific: Sine-wave filtered auditory stimulation is carefully designed to encourage maximal orbitofrontal dendritic development. LO 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science.

EOM Q1.2.3 One reason people are drawn to believing in pseudoscience is that we use our emotions as guides to evaluate the validity of claims. This is known as the affect heuristic or the __________. a) attribution fallacy b) bandwagon fallacy c) emotional reasoning fallacy d) pathetic fallacy ANS: c Topic=Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: We should not make the mistake of assuming that because a scientific claim makes us feel uncomfortable or indignant, it must be wrong. LO 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience.

EOM Q1.2.4 Science writer Michael Shermer coined the termed "patternicity" to refer to __________. a) the human tendency to see patterns in meaningless data b) the patterns researchers must use to create falsifiable research studies c) the way people use patterns to re-create existing objects in the world d) common heritable characteristics that are passed down via the Y chromosome ANS: a Topic=Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Our brains seek out patterns and connections among events, because of a basic evolutionary principle: "better safe than sorry." LO 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience.

EOM Q1.2.5 Ten-year-old Candace Newmaker died as a result of a pseudoscientific treatment called "rebirthing therapy." This is an example of pseudoscience causing __________. a) direct harm b) indirect harm c) scientific regression d) cultural indifference ANS: a Topic=Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Candace died of suffocation after her "therapists" wrapped her in a flannel blanket and squeezed her to simulate birth contractions. LO 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience.

Quiz 1.3: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact from Fiction Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact from Fiction

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q1.3.1 Alice is looking for an effective diet program. She is able to evaluate the claims of competing programs in an openminded and careful fashion by __________, the hallmark of scientific skepticism. a) being open to metaphysical reasoning b) using her common sense and intuition c) remembering that extraordinary claims require ordinary evidence d) using her critical thinking skills ANS: d Topic=Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 1.3a Identify the key features of scientific skepticism. Difficulty=Moderate, ISBN=0134567749 Consider This: Also known as scientific thinking, it is the form of thinking that allows us to evaluate scientific claims not only in the laboratory, but also in everyday life. LO 1.3a Identify the key features of scientific skepticism.

EOM Q1.3.2 An important principle of scientific thinking states that if two explanations account equally well for a phenomenon, we should generally select the simpler one. This principle is known as __________. a) replicability b) Occam's Razor c) falsifiability d) correlation vs. causation ANS: b Topic=Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact from Fiction Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Good researchers use this principle to cut away needlessly complicated explanations to arrive at the simplest explanation that does a good job of accounting for the evidence. LO 1.3b Identify and explain the text's six principles of scientific thinking.

EOM Q1.3.3 The "third variable problem" is associated with which scientific thinking principle? a) Correlation is not causation. b) ruling out rival hypotheses c) falsifiability d) replicability ANS: a Topic=Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact from Fiction Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Just because two variables are associated with each other does not necessarily mean that one results from the other. LO 1.3b Identify and explain the text's six principles of scientific thinking.

EOM Q1.3.4 Psychological researchers have become more aware of the importance of replicating research results. Part of this awareness is driven by the observation that the size of certain psychological findings appears to be shrinking over time. This phenomenon is known as the __________. a) skepticism effect b) correlation-causation fallacy c) reproducibility fallacy d) decline effect ANS: d Topic=Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact from Fiction Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Early studies of a phenomenon may show larger effects than later studies of that same phenomenon. LO 1.3b Identify and explain the text's six principles of scientific thinking. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q1.3.5 Laurie told her friend Sandi, "I had a headache this morning so I used an old family cure: Three sips of ginger ale, and an hour later my head felt better." Sandi replied, "I am glad you are feeling more comfortable now, but maybe the sheer passage of time made your headache go away." Sandi is offering a(n) __________ in response to Laurie's explanation. a) rival hypothesis b) causal correlation c) falsifiable pretext d) extraordinary claim ANS: a Topic=Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact from Fiction Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: We should ask ourselves: Is this the only good explanation for this finding? LO 1.3b Identify and explain the text's six principles of scientific thinking.

Quiz 1.4: Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long Strange Trip It’s Been Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Psychology's Past and Present: What a Long Strange Trip It's Been

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q1.4.1 E.B. Titchener was a leading figure in which framework of psychology, which advocated the use of introspection to identify basic elements of experience? a) structuralism b) functionalism c) cognitivism d) psychoanalysis ANS: a Topic=Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Followers of this field dreamed of creating a comprehensive "map" of the elements of consciousness. LO 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology.

EOM Q1.4.2 Just as behaviorism was gaining popularity in the United States, Sigmund Freud was founding a new field of psychology, one that focused on internal psychological processes such as unconscious impulses, thoughts, and memories. This approach is called __________. a) psychoanalysis b) cognitive psychology c) structuralism d) functionalism ANS: a Topic=Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: According to this view, the primary influences on behavior aren't forces outside the organism, like rewards and punishments, but rather unconscious drives, especially sexuality and aggression. LO 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology.

EOM Q1.4.3 You meet a psychologist who tells you that she conducts research on children to determine how their cognitive processes differ as the child gets older. You recognize that this person is most likely a(n) __________. a) developmental psychologist b) school psychologist c) experimental psychologist d) biological psychologist ANS: a Topic=Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 1.4b Describe different types of psychologists and identify what each of them does Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Psychologists who specialize in this subfield study people from the cradle to the grave. LO 1.4b Describe different types of psychologists, and identify what each of them does.

EOM Q1.4.4 Evolutionary psychology has been criticized because __________. a) its predictions are difficult to falsify b) evolution is just a theory c) it favors determinism over free will d) researchers prefer newer psychology theories ANS: a Topic=Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 1.4c Describe two great debates that have shaped the field of psychology. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Behavior does not leave fossils. LO 1.4c Describe two great debates that have shaped the field of psychology. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q1.4.5 The police have arrested a suspect in an assault case and the victim has agreed to look at a lineup to see if he can identify the person who attacked him. Gary, a police psychologist, is advising the detectives on the most accurate way to put together a lineup. What should he recommend that they use? a) simultaneous lineup b) sequential lineup d) segregated lineup ANS: b Topic=Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 1.4d Describe how psychological research affects our daily lives Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Preferably, victims should view each person individually and then decide whether she or he was the perpetrator of the crime. LO 1.4d Describe how psychological research affects our daily lives.

Chapter 1 Quiz: Psychology and Scientific Thinking Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Chapter Quiz: Psychology and Scientific Thinking

Multiple Choice Single Select EOC Q1.1 Science begins with the premise that knowledge should first be acquired through observation. This premise is called __________. a) empiricism b) intuition c) structuralism d) rationalism ANS: a Topic=What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The scientific process refines our observations, subjecting them to stringent tests to determine whether they are accurate. LO 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases.

EOC Q1.2 A friend says he will not have his new baby inoculated against any childhood diseases because he is afraid the shots will cause autism. You point out that there is no scientific evidence to support that idea. He says he knows that, but he just feels that it is true. What logical fallacy is at work? a) emotional reasoning fallacy b) bandwagon fallacy c) appeal to authority fallacy Consider This: The fallacy described here is the error of using our feelings as guides for evaluating the validity of a claim. LO 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. d) argument from adverse consequences fallacy Consider This: The fallacy described here is the error of using our feelings as guides for evaluating the validity of a claim. LO 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. ANS: a Topic=Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science Topic=Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The fallacy described here is the error of using our feelings as guides for evaluating the validity of a claim. LO 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science.

EOC Q1.3 Wilhelm Wundt developed the first full-fledged psychological laboratory in 1879 in Leipzig, Germany. He pioneered the technique of __________, in which trained observers reflected on and reported on their own mental experiences. a) introspection b) heuristics c) behaviorism d) insight analysis ANS: a Topic=Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Difficulty=Easy, Division=Humanities and Social Sciences, ISBN=0134567749 Consider This: People who adopt this technique might ask participants to look at an object, such as an apple, and carefully report everything they see. LO 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology.

EOC Q1.4 Georgio does not want to take the SAT or ACT exams because he thinks they will not accurately reflect his ability to succeed in college and are no more useful than flipping a coin. His guidance counselor explains that psychologists have determined that, although not perfect, these tests are significantly better than chance at predicting college success. These psychologists are sharing some __________ with Georgio. a) clinical psychology b) applied research c) fallacies d) hasty generalizations ANS: b Topic=Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been. Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 1.4d Describe how psychological research affects our daily lives. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Taking psychological findings outside of the laboratory in which they were discovered is an important process. LO 1.4d Describe how psychological research affects our daily lives.

EOC Q1.5 British philosopher John Locke stood on the nurture side of the nature-nurture debate, comparing the mind of a newborn to a sheet of paper that had yet to be written on. Others later used which term to describe the same idea? a) tabula rasa b) free will c) determinism d) genetic inheritance ANS: a Topic=Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 1.4c Describe two great debates that have shaped the field of psychology. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Locke thought we were shaped exclusively by our environments. LO 1.4c Describe two great debates that have shaped the field of psychology.

EOC Q1.6 The outgoing behavior of other people can make an extraverted person act even more extraverted. Bandura called this mutual influence on one another's behavior __________. a) reciprocal determinism b) reflexivity c) operant conditioning d) reactivity ANS: a Topic=What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: People often influence each other, frequently making it difficult to pin down what causes what. LO 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense.

EOC Q1.7 According to David Hume, an eighteenth-century Scottish philosopher, the more a claim contradicts what we already know, the more __________ must be the evidence for the claim. a) persuasive b) interesting c) recent d) unusual ANS: a Topic=Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction Skill=Understand the Concepts, Division=Humanities and Social Sciences Objective=LO 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Extraordinary evidence is not necessarily good evidence. Think about what qualities good evidence ought to have. LO 1.3b Identify and explain the text's six principles of scientific thinking.

EOC Q1.8 Ways of thinking that appear to make intuitive sense but are actually traps that lead to mistaken conclusions are called __________. a) logical fallacies b) patternicity c) ad hoc immunizing hypotheses d) confirmation biases ANS: a Topic=Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: It is easy for us to make these errors, because they seem to make intuitive sense. LO 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience.

EOC Q1.9 In the 1950s and 1960s, many psychologists were disillusioned with behaviorism's neglect of the mental processes involved in different aspects of thinking. Arguing that thinking has a powerful effect on behavior, psychologists such as Jean Piaget began to develop the field of __________. a) cognitivism b) structuralism c) functionalism d) psychotherapy ANS: a Topic=Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 1.4b Describe different types of psychologists and identify what each of them does. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This approach has encouraged psychologists to peek inside behaviorism's black box to examine the connections between environmental inputs and behavioral outputs. LO 1.4b Describe different types of psychologists and identify what each of them does.

EOC Q1.10 According to astronomer Carl Sagan, scientific skepticism includes (1) a willingness to keep an open mind to all claims, and (2) a willingness to __________. a) believe in the possibility of life existing throughout the universe b) read and learn more about scientific subjects c) change our minds when we encounter persuasive people d) accept claims only after researchers have subjected them to careful scientific tests ANS: d Topic=Scientific Thinking: Distinguishing Fact From Fiction Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 1.3a Identify the key features of scientific skepticism. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Being skeptical does not mean being a naysayer. LO 1.3a Identify the key features of scientific skepticism.

EOC Q1.11 Which type of psychologist is most likely to work with patients who have serious mental disorders such as major depression? a) clinical psychologist b) counseling psychologist c) developmental psychologist d) forensic psychologist ANS: a Topic=Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Think of an example of what each type of psychologist listed here might do, then narrow down your choices. LO 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOC Q1.12 Psychics who perform poorly in laboratory tests and then blame their poor performance on "bad vibes" from skeptical researchers are displaying which sign of pseudoscience? a) ad hoc immunizing hypotheses b) overreliance on anecdotes c) lack of self-correction when contrary evidence is presented d) insisting on evidence rather than proof ANS: a Topic=Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This sign of pseudoscience is a loophole that defenders of a theory use to protect the theory from being disproven. LO 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science.

EOC Q1.13 Twin and adoption studies addressing the nature-nurture debate are typically conducted by __________. a) behavior geneticists b) cognitive behaviorists c) developmental psychologists d) forensic psychologists ANS: a Topic=Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 1.4c Describe two great debates that have shaped the field of psychology. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Human behavior results from the interplay of environment and genetics. LO 1.4c Describe two great debates that have shaped the field of psychology.

EOC Q1.14 One reason that intuition and common sense are not a good basis for scientific psychology is that we often do not notice __________. a) contradictions between our views b) universal traits across individuals c) when we are in a dangerous situation d) empirical findings in non-standard forms ANS: a Topic=What is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Our common sense can lead us to believe two things that cannot both be true simultaneously, or at least that are largely at odds with each other. LO 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense.

EOC Q1.15 Your friend is an emergency room nurse. He tells you the ER is always busier when there is a full moon; he claims it is because unstable people are more affected by the moon's gravitational pull. To evaluate his claim, you should understand that __________. a) correlation is not causation b) the moon has more gravity when it is full c) his direct experience of the phenomenon is important evidence d) it is the quality of moonlight that affects unstable people, not the increased gravity ANS: a Topic=Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This is an error of assuming that because one thing is associated with another, it must be the reason for the other. LO 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking.

EOC Q1.16 The phrase "don't confuse me with the facts" would best describe which self-deception trap? a) belief perseverance b) confirmation bias c) naive realism d) individualism ANS: a Topic=What is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: People are usually reluctant to give up their cherished notions and firmly-held positions. LO 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases.

EOC Q1.17 One of the great debates that has shaped the field of psychology is the question of whether people choose their behaviors or are obliged to act in certain ways by factors beyond their control. This is known as the __________ debate. a) free will-determinism b) nature-nurture c) evolutionary psychology d) good vs. evil ANS: a Topic=Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 1.4d Describe how psychological research affects our daily lives. Difficulty=Easy, Division=Humanities and Social Sciences Consider This: To what extent are our behaviors chosen by us rather than caused by factors outside our control? LO 1.4d Describe how psychological research affects our daily lives. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOC Q1.18 The theoretical framework of psychology known as structuralism had two major problems. One was that highly trained introspectionists often disagreed on subjective reports. The other was the discovery of __________. a) imageless thought b) systematic observation c) psychoanalysis d) natural selection ANS: a Topic=Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 1.4b Describe different types of psychologists and identify what each of them does. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Structuralists could not disagree with this discovery, and it undermined part of the basis of their primary methodology. LO 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology.

EOC Q1.19 Research has shown that people are especially prone to find patterns of meaning in meaningless stimuli when they __________. a) do not feel a sense of control b) are psychic c) are under 18 d) have a lot of life experience ANS: a Topic=Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Order is generally preferred over chaos, mentally and environmentally. LO 1.2b Identify reasons we are drawn to pseudoscience.

EOC Q1.20 An approach to psychology that relied heavily on dream interpretation, symbolism, unconscious motives, and the suppression of sexual and aggressive urges was developed by __________. a) William James b) Sigmund Freud c) Jean Piaget d) Rene Descartes ANS: b Topic=Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Think of the main school of thought associated with each of the people listed here. LO 1.4a Identify the major theoretical frameworks of psychology. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

100

EOC Q1.21 The idea of placing a third brake light at the base of a car's back windshield and changing the color of fire engines from red to yellow are examples of __________. a) applied psychological research b) critical multiplism c) psychoanalysis d) basic psychological research ANS: a Topic=Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 1.4d Describe how psychological research affects our daily lives. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Psychological science has found its way into far more aspects of contemporary society than most of us realize. LO 1.4d Describe how psychological research affects our daily lives.

EOC Q1.22 According to philosopher of science Sir Karl Popper, for a scientific claim to be meaningful, it must be falsifiable, which means __________. a) it can be tested to determine if it is false b) it has been proven to be false c) it predicts every possible outcome d) it is inconsistent with any conceivable body of evidence ANS: a Topic=Psychology’s Past and Present: What a Long, Strange Trip It’s Been Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: A key implication of the falsifiability principle is that a theory that explains everything in effect explains nothing. LO 1.3b Identify and explain the text’s six principles of scientific thinking.

EOC Q1.23 Of the 3,500 or so self-help books published every year, what percentage are scientifically tested? a) about 5 percent b) 25 percent c) 40 percent d) up to 95 percent ANS: a Topic=Psychological Pseudoscience: Imposters of Science Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: "Popular" and "scientific" are not necessarily one and the same. LO 1.2a Describe psychological pseudoscience and distinguish it from psychological science.

101

EOC Q1.24 In thinking of the multiple levels of analysis in psychology, the neurochemical level is considered to be __________ because this level is more closely tied to biological influences. a) at the top of the ladder b) near the top of the ladder c) toward the lower end of the ladder d) on the same rung of the ladder as personal relationships ANS: c Topic=What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The higher rungs of the "analysis ladder" represent social and cultural influences. LO 1.1a Explain why psychology is more than just common sense.

EOC Q1.25 Because religious concepts cannot be tested scientifically, we should consider that __________. a) religion is a pseudoscience b) science and religion are nonoverlapping realms of understanding the world c) science is inadequate to explain the physical world d) moral values are unimportant because there is no data about them ANS: b Topic=What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Incompatible views are not necessarily "right" or "wrong" in comparison to one another. LO 1.1b Explain the importance of science as a set of safeguards against biases.

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Chapter 2: Research Methods Total Assessment Guide Topic Quick Quiz 1

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice

1, 3, 5, 7, 9

6, 10

2, 4, 8

Quick Quiz 2

Multiple Choice

1, 3, 5–6, 9

7, 10

2, 4, 8

Introduction and Learning Objective 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning. Learning Objective 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Learning Objective 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Learning Objective 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Learning Objective 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants. Learning Objective 2.3b Describe both sides of the debate on the use of animals as research subjects.

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

6–9, 11 1–2

1–5

Multiple Choice

12, 14–16, 22, 26– 27, 31, 33, 36, 42

23, 25, 28–29, 43, 46–47, 49

13, 17–21, 24, 30, 32, 34–35, 37–41, 44–45, 48, 50–52 3, 5

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

4, 6

54, 56, 62, 65–66, 70, 75–76 7, 9 1

77, 79

78, 80–81, 83, 88– 90, 97–98, 100, 103, 107, 109– 110, 112 11–13, 17 1

79, 96, 101–102, 106, 113–114

82, 84–87, 91–95, 99, 104–105, 108, 111, 115–116

14, 16

117, 119, 122 18 3

120

118, 121, 123–125

8, 10 2

Multiple Choice 126 128 Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice 129–132, 140–143 133, 137, 139 Learning Objective 2.4a Identify uses of various Fill-in-the-Blank 22 21 measures of central Essay 4 tendency and variability. Critical Thinking 1 Multiple Choice 146–147 148 Learning Objective 2.4b Explain how inferential Fill-in-the-Blank statistics can help us to Essay determine whether we can CopyrightCritical © 2018,Thinking 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

generalize from our sample to the full population.

53, 55, 57–61, 63– 64, 67–69, 71–74

127

134–136, 138, 144 19–20

145, 149–150

Topic Learning Objective 2.4c Show how statistics can be misused for purposes of persuasion.

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Learning Objective 2.5a Identify flaws in research designs and how to correct.

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Learning Objective 2.5b Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media.

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

151–152

154, 156–157 25 5

153–155 24

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 2 Quick Quiz 1 1. When a researcher tests his or her hypothesis, he or she is often hoping to gather information that is consistent with a particular theory. What, more specifically, allows a researcher to say that he or she has “proven” a theory? A) Any time a hypothesis is confirmed, a theory is automatically “proven.” B) Any time a hypothesis confirms one theory and simultaneously disconfirms at least one other theory, a theory has been “proven.” C) Any time a hypothesis confirms one theory and simultaneously disconfirms all other known theories, a theory has been “proven.” D) A researcher is never able to say that he or she has “proven” a theory. 2. Dr. Potter, an English professor, is curious about his students’ attitudes toward one of his favorite books. What research method is he most likely to use to gather this information? A) survey B) case study C) experiment D) naturalistic observation 3. A graph that can be used to represent the pattern of relationship between scores from two variables is called a __________. A) bar graph B) frequency polygon C) histogram D) scatterplot 4. Ryan, a professional bass fisherman, is trying to determine which lure is most effective on Wakeby Lake—the plastic worm he normally uses, or the new minnow-style lure he bought yesterday. Based on this scenario, what would constitute the control? A) the new minnow lure B) the plastic worm C) neither the minnow lure nor the plastic worm D) there is no control. 5. The __________ variable is what the researcher “manipulates,” or varies, in an experimental study. A) control B) dependent C) operational D) independent 6. Students of psychology are often frustrated because there are very few, if any, clear-cut answers to many of their questions. What is the primary limiting factor in obtaining firsthand knowledge of questions such as the long-term effects of child abuse or the effects of smoking marijuana on a pregnancy? A) Most people in the general public are not concerned with these issues. B) It is difficult to find people who are victims of abuse or mothers who smoke marijuana during pregnancy. C) Ethical guidelines in research prevent psychologists from carrying out many of these studies. D) Institutional review boards encourage participation in studies that may be harmful to participants either mentally or physically. 7. Which of the following is one of the two types of statistics that researchers use to analyze the data that they collect? A) predictive statistics B) constrictive statistics C) descriptive statistics D) computational statistics

8. A therapist wishes to show that his new therapy is a marked improvement over the current best available therapy. To do so, he examines the number of participants who improved with each. A total of 125 participants received his treatment (and 100 of them improved). A total of 80 participants received the alternative treatment (and 64 of them improved). What should the therapist conclude? A) His treatment is superior to the alternative because 100 is greater than 64. B) His treatment is no better than the alternative because the percentages are the same. C) His treatment is inferior because the percentages are the same. D) His treatment is superior because it included 125 people as opposed to 80. 9. A mechanism by which experts in a field carefully screen the work of their colleagues is known as __________. A) experimental validity B) experimenter bias effect C) peer review D) peer assessment 10. A major limitation in reading about the results of psychological research in the newspaper is that ___________. A) reporters provide too much detailed information about the research study that the general public cannot comprehend in their articles B) reporters are so well trained to discuss research that they cannot easily communicate about it with the average lay person C) reporters create controversy where none exists by treating scientific evidence and dissenter’s biased opinions as equally compelling D) reporters do not know how to identify experts to interview for many of their stories, and end up unintentionally misleading the public

Chapter 2 Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1. D

Explanation: Because we can never be 100 percent certain that the theory we have forwarded is correct, the use of the term “prove” is generally incorrect. (Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills, Factual, APA LO 2.1, TEXT LO 2.2a)

2. A

Explanation: The survey method is most appropriate when we are interested in people’s attitudes or opinions. (Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 2.2a)

3. D

Explanation: Scatterplots give an overall image of the correlation between variables. (Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 2.2b)

4. B

Explanation: A control receives no manipulation in an experiment. In this case, normal use of the plastic worm suggests lack of manipulation. (Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 2.2c)

5. D

Explanation: The independent variable is sometimes referred to as the manipulated variable. (Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 2.2c)

6. C

Explanation: Due to ethical considerations, we cannot randomly assign children to abusive or nonabusive homes, for example. Thus, it is impossible to say whether A causes B, in many cases. (Ethical Issues in Research Design, Conceptual, APA LO 3.1, TEXT LO 2.3a)

7. C

Explanation: Descriptive and inferential statistics are the two basic types that are used in psychology. (Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 2.4a)

8. B

Explanation: He has found the same probability in both cases, so there is no statistical difference between the two participant groups. (Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 2.4b)

9. C

Explanation: Peer review is one of the most important safeguards against the dissemination of inappropriate or invalid research. (Evaluating Psychological Research, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 2.5a)

10. C

Explanation: This is an important point to make, because those without basis for opinions are often given the same weight as those who do have scientific basis for opinions. (Evaluating Psychological Research, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 2.5b)

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 2 Quick Quiz 2 1. Which Nobel Prize–winning psychologist proposed the idea that there are two different types of thinking systems, one that works intuitively and another that works analytically? A) Kahneman B) Piaget C) Newman D) Zarski 2. Sarah, a graduate student in psychology, just heard about a five-year-old child who has already learned calculus. She is thinking about doing an in-depth study of the child for her dissertation because such earlylife math skill is so rare. Sarah is considering which research method? A) naturalistic observation B) experiment C) independent study D) case study 3. The perception of a statistical association between two variables where none exists is known as __________. A) confirmation bias B) illusory correlation C) existence proof D) Type I error 4. Dr. Johansen randomly assigned research participants to three different groups during her last experiment. She then proceeded to give all the participants in the experiment a new study technique designed to enhance their learning for the upcoming test. What critical error did she make during her experiment? A) She failed to identify the independent variable. B) She failed to identify the dependent variable. C) She failed to include an experimental group. D) She failed to include a control group. 5. The variable that an experimenter assesses or measures to determine whether or not the manipulation has had an effect is the __________ variable. A) causal B) confounding C) dependent D) independent 6. What is the purpose of an institutional review board? A) to help protect research participants from abuse B) to hinder the research process by placing unnecessary hurdles in the way of researchers C) to help protect the university from lawsuits from unhappy research participants D) to encourage the use of deception in medical and psychological research with humans 7. In which situation would presenting the mean as one’s measure of central tendency be least accurate? A) when the distribution is normally distributed B) when the distribution is negatively skewed C) when the distribution is bimodal D) when there are many scores in the data set 8. After carefully observing thousands of students, Dr. O’Brien revealed to his colleagues that students with brown eyes are statistically more likely to write with pens instead of pencils. Although his colleagues did not question his statistics, they did suggest that a finding such as this lacked __________. A) authenticity B) standardization C) statistical measures D) practical significance

9. The peer review process is designed to __________. A) block alternative therapies from being made available to the general public B) identify flaws in a research study’s methods, findings, and conclusions C) make researchers feel bad when their article is not published D) place obstacles in front of people whose theories differ from mainstream science 10. A key factor to consider when reading about the results of a study on the Internet, in a newspaper, or in a news magazine is to __________. A) consider the source of the information B) determine how well it fits with what others have told you in the past. C) rely on your common sense or “gut” intuition. D) popular media outlets always have inaccurate information.

Chapter 2 Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1. A

Explanation: Daniel Kahneman was the psychologist who proposed this idea. (The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 2.1a)

2. D

Explanation: Case studies involve in-depth analyses of one or a few participants. (Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 2.2a)

3. B

Explanation: We often fall victim to this illusion, even when no relationship has been shown to truly exist. (Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 2.2b)

4. D

Explanation: In an experiment, we need to ensure that there is a group that receives the “active” treatment and a group that receives a “placebo” treatment (in this case, a study technique that has already been tested). (Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 2.2c)

5. C

Explanation: This variable is sometimes called the outcome variable, or the measured variable. (Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 2.2c)

6. A

Explanation: IRBs represent a very important line of defense against intentional or unintentional abuse or harming of research participants. (Ethical Issues in Research Design, Factual, APA LO 3.1, TEXT LO 2.3a)

7. B

Explanation: The mean is adversely affected by positively or negatively skewed data sets. (Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 2.4a)

8. D

Explanation: Practical significance refers to whether a statistical difference “makes a difference” in the real world. (Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 2.4b)

9. B

Explanation: It is important to have one’s peers put “objective eyes” on research to make sure that it is as free from errors and biases as possible. (Evaluating Psychological Research, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 2.5a)

10. A

Explanation: Correct. One must always consider the source from which information is drawn. (Evaluating Psychological Research, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 2.5b)

Chapter 2: Research Methods Test Bank Multiple Choice 1. Your textbook discusses the issue of facilitated communication and its applicability to assisting children with autism spectrum disorder. One possibility for the early research results was that the children were communicating through the adults who were assisting them. As the text notes, another explanation for the miraculous findings was that the “facilitators” were simply guiding the hands of the children to communicate things that their parents would want to hear. This alternate explanation is consistent with the concept of __________. A) replicability Incorrect. Though replication of early findings was a problem for the issue of facilitated communication, it is not the answer to this particular question. B) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. Before we accept a given explanation as accurate, we have to ask whether there are other feasible explanations that can better account for a given phenomenon. C) falsifiability D) correlation vs. causation Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 2. What is one take home message from the discussion of autism and facilitated communication? A) Children with autism spectrum disorder want to communicate with their parents but need someone to facilitate the process. B) In almost all cases researched, the data failed to support the idea that facilitated communication was truly effective. Correct. Your authors note that in nearly 100% of cases tested, the picture flashed to the facilitator was the word typed. C) Psychological research is dangerous because it allows anyone to find support for any idea or opinion. Incorrect. While this may be true in some cases, this is not the prevailing message that the authors are trying to convey. D) The scientific method is not an effective means for finding solutions for persons who live with autism and other psychological disorders. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction

3. Contradicting years of theory and practice, Douglas Biklen claimed that children with autism spectrum disorder could, in fact, communicate with the aid of a “facilitator.” With his help, these children gave messages of love and warmth to their parents, many of whom had been without such affection since their children were born. When the evidence of this “facilitated communication” is examined, which principle of critical thinking from your chapter is not supported? A) Occam’s Razor B) correlation vs. causation C) falsifiability Incorrect. In this case, the claims were falsifiable as demonstrated by ongoing research. D) extraordinary claims Correct. The extraordinary claims that children with autism spectrum disordercould suddenly be given an avenue to communicate effectively was belied by the research evidence, which showed facilitated communication to be without validity of any kind. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 4. The discussion on the topic of facilitated communication demonstrated the importance of which critical component of critical thinking? A) developing falsifiable hypotheses Incorrect. In this case, the claims were falsifiable as demonstrated by ongoing research. B) parsimonious theories C) replication of earlier research findings D) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. As it turned out, research demonstrated that facilitated communication had no true research validity, and an alternate explanation was needed. That explanation was that the “facilitators” were actually the ones doing the communicating, not the children with autism spectrum disorder. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction

5. The use of the prefrontal lobotomy was, for quite some time, regarded as a miracle treatment for people suffering from schizophrenia and other mental illnesses. The amazing nature of this treatment was not, however, supported by research into its effectiveness. Which concept of critical thinking is important to consider in this example? A) correlation vs. causation B) replicability Incorrect. Because there was no scientific research that supported the claims of the effectiveness of the lobotomy, there would be nothing to be replicated. Therefore this answer is not the best choice. C) Occam’s Razor D) extraordinary claims Correct. Remember that extraordinary claims, including “miracle cures,” must be supported by extraordinary evidence. That evidence was sorely lacking in the case of the prefrontal lobotomy. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning. Topic: The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design 6. Once controlled research studies were conducted on the effectiveness of prefrontal lobotomies, they were discovered to be __________. A) slightly effective B) sometimes effective, sometimes not C) universally effective D) essentially useless Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning. Topic: The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design 7. When a psychologist is discussing a heuristic, he or she is referring to __________. A) biased information processing strategies B) a mental shortcut or rule of thumb C) a mental technique to improve memory recall D) a mental technique to increase deliberation in our decision making Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning. Topic: The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design

8. A mental shortcut that helps us to streamline our thinking and make sense of our world is called a __________. A) theory B) heuristic C) schema D) mental reference Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning. Topic: The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design 9. Which Nobel Prize–winning psychologist proposed the idea that there are two different types of thinking systems, one that works intuitively and another that works analytically? A) Kahneman Correct. Daniel Kahneman was the psychologist who proposed this idea. B) Piaget Incorrect. Piaget's contributions to cognitive theory do not include these ideas. C) Newman D) Zarski Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning. Topic: The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design 10. When Anya sees an item at the toy store, she buys it without thinking. Her intuition tells her that her daughter will love it as a Christmas gift. This is an example of __________ thinking in Daniel Kahneman’s model. A) divergent B) convergent C) System 2 Incorrect. System 2 thinking is analytical and deliberate. D) System 1 Correct. System 1 thinking is intuitive and somewhat automatic. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning. Topic: The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design

11. Stopping to take time, consider all of the details, and make a well-reasoned and careful decision are all features that typify Daniel Kahneman’s __________ thinking. A) System 2 Correct. System 2 thinking is analytical and deliberate. B) functional C) System 1 Incorrect. System 1 thinking is intuitive and somewhat automatic. D) introspective Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning. Topic: The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design 12. When a researcher tests his or her hypothesis, he or she is often hoping to gather information that is consistent with a particular theory. What, more specifically, allows a researcher to say that he or she has “proven” a theory? A) Any time a hypothesis is confirmed, a theory is automatically “proven.” B) Any time a hypothesis confirms one theory and simultaneously disconfirms at least one other theory, a theory has been “proven.” C) Any time a hypothesis confirms one theory and simultaneously disconfirms all other known theories, a theory has been “proven.” D) A researcher is never really able to say that he or she has “proven” a theory. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 13. Which of the following is one of the questions that a researcher should ask herself before conducting a research study? A) “How can I avoid using statistics to analyze my results?” B) “What research methods should I use to test my idea?” Correct. In fact, this should be one of the first questions asked after the idea has been formulated. C) “Will I be able to prove my hypothesis?” Incorrect. Recall from your chapter that a true theory cannot be proven. It simply stands as the best model, based on the available data, until a better model replaces it. D) “How can I guarantee that I obtain subjective results?” Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

14. According to your text authors, what do researchers in psychology use to try to avoid making errors and get an accurate view of the world? A) peer review Incorrect. Peer review is an important part of the research and publishing process, but this is not the best answer to the question. B) local and state laws regarding research methodologies C) statistics D) a variety of scientific methods Correct. As your text notes, there is not one single scientific method but rather a “toolbox” of different scientific strategies. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 15. Which of the following statements is TRUE about naturalistic observation? A) It re-creates natural conditions in the laboratory as closely as possible to make an experiment more valid. B) It involves observing behavior in its real-world context. C) It is basically the same process as objective introspection. D) It involves observing behavior in the lab without taking formal notes or using technological equipment to measure the experimental findings. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills % correct 75 a = 14 b = 75 c = 0 d = 11 r = .53 % correct 74 a = 21 b = 74 c = 0 d = 5 r = .66 16. Watching behavior in real-world settings while doing your best to avoid influencing those you are watching is known as __________. A) case study B) correlation design C) naturalistic observation D) existence proof Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

17. Dr. Watson wanted to know which gender was better at sharing at the sixth-grade level, so he went to the local middle school to observe groups of children during lunch periods. He did this while making sure that the children were not aware that they were being watched, but the school principal gave him permission for this activity. This is a form of __________. A) case study B) naturalistic observation Correct. Naturalistic observation entails watching behavior in a real-world settings. C) experimental design Incorrect. Naturalistic observation takes place in the real world. Experimental designs take place in a laboratory setting. D) confirmation bias Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 18. A researcher is interested in determining how frequently bullying behavior occurs in real-life settings. This researcher would best be advised to use the __________ design. A) case study B) correlational C) experimental Incorrect. Naturalistic observation takes place in the real world. Experimental designs take place in a laboratory setting. D) naturalistic observation Correct. Naturalistic observation occurs in the real world, rather than in a laboratory. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills % correct 84 a = 11 b = 0 c = 5 d = 84 r = .32

19. A group of student researchers divide up the different times and buildings on their campus to attempt to observe when people will hold a door open for another person. These student researchers are most likely to use which research method design when conducting their study? A) case study design B) correlational design C) experimental design Incorrect. Naturalistic observation takes place in the real world. Experimental designs take place in a laboratory setting. D) naturalistic observation design Correct. Naturalistic observation occurs in the real world, rather than in a laboratory. This is how one can most effectively assess behaviors without influencing them. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills % correct 75 a = 6 b = 19 c = 0 d = 75 r = .23 20. Jason was conducting an evaluation of a restaurant waitress. He sat at the table with a list of things to observe in front of him, and the waitress noticed that he was assessing her every move. He noticed that she began acting more professionally around him, was friendlier, and gave him extra attention. Why would Jason have been better off using naturalistic observation for this assessment? A) So that he could have more experimental control over his independent variable. Incorrect. Remember that naturalistic observation is not a form of experimental research, and so one of its drawbacks is a lack of control. B) So that he would be sure to “catch” the waitress behaving unprofessionally. C) So that he could have been sure to get enough data to use proper statistics. D) So that his observations would not have changed the waitress’s behaviors. Correct. Naturalistic observation involves watching behaviors take place without influencing them. This way the researcher can get a true and objective “picture” of how those behaviors take place. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

21. Professor Williams wants to know if “real” college students exhibit the same kinds of behaviors in class that subjects who were paid to act like college students do. She decides to have someone come in once a week to her classes to record the types of nonverbal behaviors that students engage in while listening to her lectures. This would be an example of which kind of study? A) a formal experiment Incorrect. In this study there is no manipulation of one variable to explore its effect on a second variable. This research is naturalistic observation. B) naturalistic observation Correct. Naturalistic observation involves watching and recording participants’ behavior, often without their knowledge. C) case study D) survey research Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 22. The extent to which it is possible to draw cause-and-effect conclusions from a given research project describes the study’s __________ validity. A) construct B) cohesive C) external D) internal Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 23. Because they offer a high level of control over key variables, laboratory experiments tend to have a high level of __________. A) internal validity Correct. Internal validity is the extent to which we can draw cause-and-effect inferences from our research data. B) test-retest reliability Incorrect. Test-retest reliability refers to the consistency of findings from one administration of an assessment tool to the next. C) external validity D) confound reliability Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

24. Vincent is designing a research study as part of his master’s thesis. He wants to do a laboratory study where he can control as many variables as possible, but he is concerned that his findings will not generalize very well from the laboratory setting to the real world. In technical terms, Vincent is concerned about the __________ of his study. A) internal validity B) test-retest reliability Incorrect. Test-retest reliability refers to the consistency of findings from one administration of an assessment tool to the next. C) external validity Correct. External validity refers to the extent to which we can generalize findings from a research study to real world settings. D) confound reliability Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 25. A student researcher wishes to maximize the external validity of his or her research design. What research method should you recommend to him or her? A) case study design B) correlational design C) experimental design Incorrect. The primary benefit of experimental designs is that they are high in internal validity. The generalizability, or external validity, of such research is sometimes quite low. D) naturalistic observational design Correct. Because naturalistic observations often generalize well to the real world, they are high in external validity. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

26. The extent to which the findings of a given research study can generalize to a population of people beyond that study and the laboratory is called __________. A) external validity Correct. External validity is an important measure of the value of research results outside of that individual study. B) test-retest reliability C) internal validity Incorrect. Internal validity is a measure of the extent to which a researcher can draw cause-andeffect conclusions form his or her study results. D) interrater reliability Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 27. This research design involves an extremely deep and detailed information gathering from a single individual or a small number of people, often over an extended period of time. A) case study design B) correlational design C) experimental design D) naturalistic observation design Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 28. Which of the following is one of the primary benefits of the case study method of conducting research? A) They can be helpful in providing existence proofs. Correct. Existence proofs, which are demonstrations that a particular psychological phenomenon can occur, are actually assisted by case study research. B) They have a very high level of external validity. Incorrect. In fact, one problem with case studies is that they often have a low level of external validity. C) They are the only type of research that allows for cause-and-effect conclusions. D) They are resistant to heuristic biases that can skew results. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

29. The study of rare or unusual phenomena is most easily done through the use of the __________ design. A) case study Correct. Because case studies can get unusually high levels of detail information, there are very useful for studying rare or unusual phenomena. B) correlational C) experimental Incorrect. In fact, rare or unusual phenomena occur so infrequently that they are not effectively studied using experimental designs. D) observational Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 30. Sarah, a graduate student in psychology, just heard about a five-year-old child who has already learned calculus. She is thinking about doing an in-depth study of the child for her dissertation because such early-life math skill is so rare. Sarah is considering which research method? A) naturalistic observation Incorrect. While naturalistic observation might give Sarah some useful information about this fiveyear-old child, in order to get the depth that she is looking for she would have to do a case study. B) experiment C) independent study D) case study Correct. Case studies involve in-depth analyses of one or a few participants. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 31. Psychologists who want to find out about people’s personalities or interests would find a(n) __________ an effective research tool. A) naturalistic observation B) experiment C) case study D) questionnaire Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

32. Dr. Potter, an English professor, is curious about his students’ attitudes toward one of his favorite books. What research method is he most likely to use to gather this information? A) case study Incorrect. Because Dr. Potter wants to get information from multiple students, a case study would not be an effective way of gathering that information. B) survey Correct. The survey method is most appropriate when we are interested in people’s attitudes or opinions. C) experiment D) naturalistic observation Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 33. The most important factor to ensure that one’s results apply to other people in other settings is to use __________. A) extremely large sample sizes B) extremely small sample sizes C) random assignment D) random selection Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills % correct 67 a = 11 b = 5 c = 17 d = 67 r = .68 % correct 63 a = 21 b = 5 c = 11 d = 63 r = .63 34. Sue asked three of her friends after class if they thought the test they just finished taking was as easy as she thought it was. They all agreed that it was. She was surprised to find out the next day that, although she and her friends had indeed done well, a majority of the class had failed. Why shouldn’t Sue have been surprised? A) Most of the students did not study for the test. B) She did not use random selection when asking people about the test. Correct. Without random selection, we can’t be sure whether the group we’ve selected is representative of the larger group. C) Students should have been randomly assigned to take the tests on different days. Incorrect. The concept of randomness is important to answer this question, but the correct answer is random selection, not random assignment. D) Her friends shouldn’t have expressed their views regarding the test. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

35. The large difference in the percentage of women who were married for five or more years who admitted to extramarital affairs in the Hite Report versus the results of a Harris organization poll was most likely due to __________. A) demand characteristics B) how the questions were worded in each study Incorrect. It is not the wording of the questions that was the problem, rather the way participants were selected. C) the method of participant selection used in each study Correct. As your text points out, random selection was not used in this case. D) the use of covert versus participant observation Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 36. __________ is consistency of measurement. A) Random assignment B) Validity C) Reliability D) Confounding variable Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills % correct 58 a = 0 b = 26 c = 58 d = 16 r = .47 37. Dr. Sparks is concerned because he gave Julie a new intelligence test that he personally designed and her scores do not seem very consistent. With which aspect of psychological testing is Dr. Sparks concerned? A) validity Incorrect. Validity is the extent to which a measure assesses what it claims to measure. B) self-report measures C) reliability Correct. Reliability is the extent to which test scores are consistent. D) falsifiability Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills % correct 47 a = 36 b = 11 c = 47 d = 6 r = .43

38. Dr. Riviera measures his students’ knowledge on the topic of memory by giving them three different quizzes over the course of 3 weeks (1 per week). He is hoping to show that student scores are largely the same from week to week. He is trying to establish the __________ of his quiz. A) objectivity B) reliability Correct. Reliability is the extent to which test scores are consistent. C) subjectivity D) validity Incorrect. Validity is the extent to which a measure assesses what it claims to measure. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 39. When assessing patients’ personalities using an “ink blot” test that she created, Dr. Hardcastle is gaining confidence in the test’s reliability. Which of the following is likely to be happening? A) Her patients are enjoying being tested every day at the same time. B) The test is generating approximately the same results each time it is administered to the same person. Correct. We have evidence of reliability when test scores are consistent, or similar, each time the test is administered to the same person. C) The test is measuring what it is supposed to be measuring across different test takers. Incorrect. This concept would refer to validity, not reliability. D) The test is likely to be uninformative, and it has very poor interpretive value. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 40. Brittany, a softball player who plays catcher for the local college, has thrown out base stealers at a 42-, 39-, and 41-percent rate over her three years. Her performance could be considered which of the following? A) valid Incorrect. Validity is the extent to which a measure assesses what it claims to measure. B) invalid C) reliable Correct. Reliability refers to the extent to which performance is consistent. D) n reliable Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

41. Jack, Martin, and Gene are all psychologists who are asked to consult on a difficult case. They are all given the results of a particular client’s Rorschach Test and are asked to come up with independent assessments of the results. All three psychologists have approximately the same level of training, and their findings are very similar. From a research perspective, one could say that there was a high level of __________ reliability between the three reports. A) interrater Correct. Interrater reliability refers to the extent to which different people agree on a given finding, whether it refers to a behavioral observation or an interview outcome. B) construct C) external D) predictive Incorrect. Predictive validity refers to the extent to which a given assessment tool can accurately anticipate future behaviors or outcomes. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 42. __________ is the extent to which a measure assesses what it purports, or claims, to measure. A) Operationalization B) Reliability C) Validity D) Control group Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 43. The central question used to assess the truth of a psychological measure’s results is its __________. A) objectivity B) readability C) reliability Incorrect. Reliability refers to the extent to which performance is consistent. D) validity Correct. Validity is the extent to which a measure assesses what it claims to measure. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

44. Sarula recently completed a compatibility “quiz” from one of her favorite magazines, and although she and her boyfriend have been dating for nearly two years, the “quiz” results suggested they are not compatible. Luckily, Riley, one of Sarula’s friends, is a student of psychology and suggested that the “quiz” may not be valid. What is her friend suggesting? A) The “quiz” only gives you the answers you want. B) The “quiz” is going to give you similar results every time. Incorrect. This would be the case of her friend suggested that the quiz was not reliable. C) The “quiz” is not very scientific. D) The “quiz” may not measure compatibility truthfully. Correct. If a measure is not valid, that means that it does not measure what it claims to measure or predict what it claims to predict. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 45. Jasmine took several different self-administered intelligence tests online yesterday and obtained scores of 124, 128, and 125. She felt great, because the score she received from the psychologist last month at school was only a 95. What characteristic might the online tests be lacking? A) reliability Incorrect. In fact, this test has high reliability because it’s producing very consistent results. B) validity Correct. The tests might lack validity because they don’t match a psychologist-administered test (which presumably has been validated). It does seem to be reliable, because the scores are consistent with each other. C) both reliability and validity D) The tests appear to have both reliability and validity. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

46. The major advantage of self-report measures, like surveys, is that they __________. A) are inexpensive and easy to administer Correct. This is, in fact, the cheapest and easiest type of research to conduct. B) are extremely reliable and valid Incorrect. Validity is often a problem with self-report measures, because you can’t be certain that your respondents are being totally honest. C) help establish causality D) are unaffected by the wording or phrasing of the questions Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 47. One difficulty of survey research is that people may not answer questions with complete honesty, and thus may skew the results of the study. If people give different answers to a survey question that is asked on different occasions, this would be a particular problem for the critical thinking concept of __________. A) correlation vs. causation Incorrect. There is nothing in the question that speaks to the nature of relationships (causal or otherwise) between variables. B) replicability Correct. If people give different answers to survey questions asked at different times, the outcomes of the research would be inconsistent. This would present a problem for replication, as the research will not give the same picture from study to study. C) extraordinary claims D) falsifiability Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

48. Alex, a freshman in college, wants to know how many of her dormmates have tried marijuana, so she decides to survey everyone on her floor. Despite rumors to the contrary, the results suggest that less than ten percent of her classmates have tried the drug. What is the most likely explanation for her findings? A) People often distort their answers or fail to tell the complete truth when surveyed. Correct. One downside of using self-report measures and surveys is that people often distort answers, either for lack of personal insight or because they want to appear more in a more positive light. B) Her dormmates did not understand the question. C) Alex did not calculate the findings correctly. Incorrect. Alex may have calculated the findings correctly, but the findings may not represent the true behaviors of those with whom she spoke. D) Surveys are not an acceptable means to gather new information. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 49. A key disadvantage to self-report measures is that __________. A) demand characteristics can bias participants answers B) observing behavior leads to changes in behavior Incorrect. This problem occurs more in experimental research, not in research that uses selfreport measures. C) respondents are not always honest in their answers Correct. This can be a serious problem with self-report measures. D) they are less effective than experiments in accurately predicting people’s behavior Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

50. While taking a survey on her opinions on abortion rights, Carolyn feels very conflicted. On the one hand, she believes in a woman’s right to choose to terminate a pregnancy if she wants to, but at the same time she feels like this is not a particularly popular answer. Most of her friends are very opposed to the idea of having an abortion. To make herself feel like a better person, Carolyn distorts her answers to the survey questions. Instead of being totally honest, she answers in ways that make her feel like a better person. This tendency is called a __________. A) demand characteristic Incorrect. A demand characteristic is a cue that participants in a research study may pick up that allows them to figure out the true nature of the researcher’s hypotheses. B) confirmation heuristic C) response set Correct. A response set refers to the tendency of research participants to distort their responses to questionnaire items. D) confounding bias Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 51. A group of students watch a videotape of two managers interacting with their subordinates at a customer service desk in a department store. Students see one of the managers act in a friendly and respectful manner toward all of the employees. The other manager is less friendly but still respectful toward the employees. What concept would explain the more positive ratings on other dimensions for the friendly manager as compared to the less friendly manager? A) the central tendency error Incorrect. Central tendency refers to a type of statistics, and does not apply to this example. B) the halo effect Correct. The halo effect refers to the tendency of ratings of one positive characteristic to influence the ratings of other positive characteristics. C) the horns effect D) the leniency effect Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

52. Professor Chapman is very friendly with her students, allowing them extra time on assignments and giving them the freedom to come late to class whenever they want. Dr. Weldon, on the other hand, is much stricter in the classroom. She does not accept late assignments, tells students "be on time or don't come to class," and at least two students got no credit on the term paper because they turned it in a day late. Both professors teach with the same quality but are different in their interactions with students. When evaluation time comes, students tend to give Dr. Weldon far lower marks because they dislike her, not because she is a bad teacher. This is an example of the __________ effect. A) horns Correct. The horns, or pitchfork, effect occurs involves bad qualities in one area (personality) influencing the rating of bad qualities in another (teaching skill). B) halo Incorrect. The halo effect is the tendency of ratings of one positive characteristic to influence the ratings of other positive characteristics. C) leniency D) response set Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 53. If you are interested in examining the relationship between the number of class days missed and one’s subsequent semester grade point average, you would be best served to use a(n) __________ design to study this question. A) case study B) correlational Correct. Correlational research is used to examine relationships between variables. C) experimental Incorrect. Experimental research can investigate the relationship between variables, but if one is not looking to establish a cause and effect relationship, a correlational design is usually easier to employ. D) naturalistic observation Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills % correct 84 a = 0 b = 84 c = 11 d = 5 r = .70

54. Two variables are said to be correlated when scores on one variable __________. A) are unrelated to the scores on the second variable B) are related to the scores on the second variable C) cause the scores on the second variable D) are different from the scores on the second variable Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 55. Authorities have noted that there is an increased number of teen pregnancies among high schools that offer day care to their students. We can draw which of the following conclusions? A) The presence of day care is causing students to become sexually active. B) High schools that provide day care are also offering sexual education. C) There is a negative correlation between teen pregnancies and day care in the high schools. Incorrect. Two variables are negatively correlated if, as one increases, the other decreases. D) There is a positive correlation between teen pregnancies and day care in the high schools. Correct. Two variables are positively correlated if, as one increases, the other increases. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 56. Which of these is a type of correlation coefficient? A) normal B) parallel C) skewed D) negative Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

57. If there is no discernible relationship between scores on students’ homework assignments and their exam scores in an introductory biology class, we would say that a(n) __________ correlation exists. A) inverse B) negative Incorrect. A negative correlation would indicate that there is a relationship between the two variables in question. C) positive D) zero Correct. When there is no relationship between two variables, the correlation is zero. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills % correct 70 a = 5 b = 11 c = 14 d = 70 r = .46 58. As the average daily temperature in Des Moines, Iowa, decreases, the number of persons who are observed wearing sweaters in the workplace increases. This is an example of a __________ correlation. A) causal B) negative Correct. A negative correlation occurs when one variable moves in one direction as the other variable moves in the opposite direction. C) positive Incorrect. A positive correlation occurs when both variables move in the same direction. D) zero Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills % correct 47 a = 11 b = 47 c = 37 d = 3 r = .40 % correct 47 a = 11 b = 47 c = 42 d = 0 r = .35

59. Hopefully, the amount of time a student spends studying would show a(n) __________ correlation with the student’s grades. A) negative Incorrect. A negative correlation occurs when the variables move in the opposite direction. In this example this is not the outcome that we would hope to see. B) spurious C) positive Correct. A positive correlation means that as the value of one variable goes up, so does the other; in this instance, one would hope that the more one studies, the higher the grade. D) illusory Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 60. There is a negative correlation between wearing one’s seat belt and the severity of injuries received during an accident. Which statement correctly illustrates this correlation? A) The more often you wear your seat belt, the more serious the injury you are likely to receive in an accident. B) The more often you wear your seat belt, the less likely you are to suffer serious injuries in an accident. Correct. A negative correlation means that as one variable goes up, the other goes down. And remember, correlation is not causation. C) Wearing your seatbelt prevents you from being injured in an accident. Incorrect. At first glance this might look like a correct conclusion, and tell you recognize that this conclusion involves a cause and effect statement. Correlation does not imply causation. D) Failing to wear your seat belt increases the likelihood that you will sustain serious injuries in an accident. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

61. Mr. Jones, a sixth-grade science teacher, has tried to predict his students’ end-of-the-year grades by looking at their end-of-the-year grades from the previous year. Unfortunately, there does not seem to be any systematic relationship between these two variables. The correlation between these two variables is probably __________. A) near zero Correct. When there is no relationship between two variables, the correlation coefficient will be at or near zero. B) positive C) negative Incorrect. A negative correlation would indicate that there is a relationship between the two variables in question. D) near 1.0 Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 62. A correlation coefficient will always range between __________. A) 0 and 1 B) –10 and +10. C) 0 percent and 100 percent. D) –1.0 and +1.0. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 63. Which correlation coefficient is most likely to describe the relationship between brushing one’s teeth and the number of cavities one gets? A) –.72 Correct. One would expect that as brushing increases, cavities tend to decrease. Thus, a negative correlation would best describe the relationship. Further, one would expect the relationship to be fairly strong and thus closer to 1.0 than to 0 in absolute value. B) .93 Incorrect. This correlation coefficient would suggest that as brushing increases, the number of cavities increases. We would hope that the relationship between tooth brushing and the number of cavities one gets would be a strong negative correlation. C) .08 D) .45 Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

64. Which of the following correlations represents the weakest degree of relation between two variables? A) daily calcium intake and bone mass density, +.11 B) degree of exposure to lead and IQ scores in children, –.12 C) hours of exposure to media violence and aggressive behavior, +.31 D) number of cigarettes smoked per day and incidence of lung cancer, +.39 Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills % correct 14 a = 14 b = 80 c = 3 d = 3 r = .45 65. Which of the following correlation coefficients represents the strongest degree of relation between two variables? A) +.19 B) –.25 C) +.43 D) –.47 Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 66. The grouping of points on a two-dimensional graph in which each dot represents a single person’s data is called a __________. A) bar graph B) frequency polygon C) histogram D) scatterplot Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

67. Dr. Schott’s scatterplot reveals no real patterns or clusters. In fact, the data seems to fall randomly on the graph. This pattern of results is most likely from which type of correlation? A) positive B) zero Correct. When the correlation coefficient is near zero, the points on a scatterplot will be all over the graph, with no discernable pattern. C) negative Incorrect. On a scatterplot, a negative correlation will appear as data points clustered around a line going from upper left to lower right. D) skewed Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 68. Dr. Stanhope is trying to determine which type of correlation is represented on his scatterplot, in which nearly all of his data are clustered along a diagonal line running from higher numbers on the left down to lower numbers on the right. Which type of correlation is represented by this pattern? A) positive B) zero Incorrect. When the correlation coefficient is near zero, the points on a scatterplot will be all over the graph, with no discernable pattern. C) negative Correct. On a scatterplot, a negative correlation will appear as data points clustered around a line going from upper left to lower right. D) We need more information to draw a conclusion. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

69. For many years, newspapers often mentioned the race of criminal suspects who were NOT white in the article detailing their crimes. This often led people who were not obviously biased or prejudiced to conclude that more non-whites committed crimes than whites. This is one example of __________. A) the confirmation bias Incorrect. The confirmation bias occurs when people attend to information that supports their beliefs, but disregard information that contradicts their beliefs. B) the hindsight bias C) an illusory correlation Correct. An illusory correlation exists when there is the appearance of a relationship between two variables that does not truly exist. D) the representativeness heuristic Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 70. The perception of a statistical association between two variables where none exists is known as __________. A) confirmation bias B) illusory correlation C) existence proof D) Type I error Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 71. Because he often sees television reports about politicians who have behaved dishonestly and have been prosecuted for ethics violations, Warren tends to believe that all politicians are dishonest and untrustworthy. This is an example of a(n) ___________. A) confirmation bias Incorrect. Confirmation bias occurs when people attend to information that supports their beliefs but disregard information that contradicts their beliefs. B) illusory correlation Correct. An illusory correlation exists when there is the appearance of a relationship between two variables that does not truly exist. C) existence proof D) Type I error Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

72. While playing poker with his friends, Matthew scratches his right leg before winning a very big hand. He decides that scratching his right leg will be his “lucky gesture,” and for a long time scratches his right leg with every hand that is dealt. This silly superstition violates which rules of critical thinking? A) correlation vs. causation Correct. A demonstration of an illusory correlation, which underlies many superstitions, Matthew has failed to recognize that the relationship between a leg scratch and a winning hand is not causal. B) falsifiability C) extraordinary claims D) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. Nothing in this particular question speaks to the rule of parsimony, or Occam’s Razor. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 73. When asked if there are more ice cream cones sold in November or July, Mary answers July immediately. She is surprised to find out that there is little to no difference between the two months in terms of ice cream cone sales. Mary’s error is most clearly an example of __________. A) imaginary correlation Incorrect. The correct term for this incorrect belief in the existence of relationship is the illusory correlation. B) common sense C) superstitions D) illusory correlation Correct. Illusory correlation occurs when we perceive a relationship between two variables where none actually exists. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

74. Six-year-old Scotty comes running in the door and yells triumphantly to his mother, “Today is my lucky day; I found a four-leaf clover!” Many superstitions, like this one, likely began as which of the following? A) imaginary correlations B) anecdotal stories C) coincidences Incorrect. Coincidental events are often at the heart of the belief in an illusory correlation. D) illusory correlations Correct. Illusory correlation refers to our tendency to perceive a relationship between two events that are not actually related. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 75. __________ studies allow us to make predictions about one variable based on the knowledge of another but do not allow us to draw conclusions about cause-and-effect relationships. A) Case B) Experimental C) Natural D) Correlational Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 76. Correlational research designs are NOT appropriate for purposes of __________. A) causation B) description C) prediction D) describing relationships Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

77. As your textbook discusses, a statistician once discovered that in one of the United States there was a negative correlation between the number of PhDs granted and the number of mules in that state. The fact that you cannot then state that the number of PhDs conferred causes the mule population to decrease demonstrates which principle of critical thinking? A) correlation vs. causation Correct. Bear in mind that correlational data only gives information about the strength and direction of a relationship between two variables. It says nothing of the causal direction. B) extraordinary claims Incorrect. It is indeed extraordinary to believe that the number of mules in a state would be related to the number of PhDs that are conferred, but this question demonstrates the problem of correlation vs. causation. C) ruling out rival hypotheses D) falsifiability Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills % correct 74 a = 74 b = 21 c = 0 d = 5 r = .24 78. The only research design that allows one to make cause-and-effect inferences is the __________ design. A) case study B) correlational C) experimental D) naturalistic observation Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills % correct 49 a = 19 b = 24 c = 49 d = 8 r = .39

79. What is the main difference between an experiment and a correlational study? A) A correlational study involves the manipulation of variables, while an experiment does not. Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. B) An experiment looks at the relationship between independent and dependent variables, while a correlational study looks at the relationship between within-group and between-group variables. C) A correlational study looks at the relationship between independent and dependent variables, while an experiment looks at the relationship between within-group and between-group variables. D) An experiment involves the manipulation of variables, while a correlational study does not. Correct. It is the manipulation of variables along with random assignment that allows an experiment to make cause and effect conclusions, while a correlational study cannot. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation; 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills % correct 44 a = 0 b = 31 c = 25 d = 44 r = .35 % correct 42 a = 5 b = 53 c = 0 d = 42 r = .46 80. A research design characterized by random assignment of participants to conditions and manipulation of an independent variable is called a(n) __________. A) case study B) naturalistic observation C) experiment D) survey Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 81. A key aspect of an experiment that is missing in other research designs is __________. A) description of the phenomena of interest B) explanation of why a relationship exists C) prediction of the effects of differences in variable on another D) random assignment of participants to different groups Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

82. Professor Golder is studying hyperactivity in preschool age children. She is concerned that differences in child rearing, diet, and so forth may affect her results. To minimize these potential preexisting variables, she should be sure to do which of the following? A) Use random assignment when forming her groups. Correct. Random assignment “cancels out” the effects of any preexisting differences between groups, allowing study of the variable of interest. B) Include an independent variable. C) Include a dependent variable. D) Assign boys to the experimental group and girls to the control group. Incorrect. This kind of assignment to participant groups would actually be problematic, because it would create a confounding variable that could make the experiment invalid. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 83. In an experiment, the __________ group receives no manipulation of an independent variable. A) control B) dependent C) independent D) experimental Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

84. A researcher wants to see whether she can make the typical administrative assistant job more motivating at Acme, Inc. To experimentally investigate this possibility, she randomly assigns administrative assistants to one of the following conditions: doing the job as it has always been done, having a computer performance monitoring device installed, receiving feedback about their performance on a weekly basis, or being given a say in how one’s workload is structured and done. Which of the preceding conditions is an example of a control group? A) being given a say in how one’s workload is structured and done B) doing the job as it has always been done Correct. The group that receives no independent variable is the control group. In this case, doing the job as it always has been done would serve as the control. C) having a computer performance monitoring device installed Incorrect. This group of participants would represent one of the experimental groups. D) receiving feedback on a weekly basis Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills % correct 65 a = 19 b = 65 c = 13 d = 3 r = .37 % correct 79 a = 16 b = 79 c = 5 d = 0 r = .45 85. Ryan, a professional bass fisherman, is trying to determine which lure is most effective on Wakeby Lake: the plastic worm he normally uses or the new minnow-style lure he bought yesterday. Based on this scenario, what would constitute the control? A) the new minnow lure Incorrect. Using the new minnow lure would represent the experimental case. B) the plastic worm Correct. A control receives no manipulation in an experiment. In this case, normal use of the plastic worm suggests lack of manipulation. C) neither the minnow lure nor the plastic worm D) There is no control in this particular experiment. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

86. Dr. Johansen randomly assigned research participants to three different groups during her last experiment. She then proceeded to give all the participants in the experiment a new study technique designed to enhance their learning for the upcoming test. What critical error did she make during her experiment? A) She failed to identify the independent variable. B) She failed to identify the dependent variable. C) She failed to include an experimental group. Incorrect. Because all of her participants received the independent variable in question, they were all part of an experimental group. The problem with this research is that there is no control group. D) She failed to include a control group. Correct. In an experiment, we need to ensure that there is a group that receives the “active” treatment and a group that receives a “placebo” treatment (in this case, a study technique that has already been tested). Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 87. Several years ago, the NBA (National Basketball Association) introduced a new style of basketball to the players. After several months, many players complained that they did not like the “feel” of the new ball. Based on this scenario, what constitutes the control? A) There is no control condition. Incorrect. The control condition was the use of the original ball that the players have become accustomed to. B) the new ball that was introduced C) the original ball that players were used to Correct. A control receives no manipulation in an experiment. In this case, the original ball suggests lack of manipulation. D) Both the new and old balls are part of the control condition. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

88. The group of participants that receives a manipulation of the independent variable in an experimental study is called the __________ group. A) control B) dependent C) experimental D) independent Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 89. The __________ variable is what the researcher “manipulates,” or varies, in an experimental study. A) control B) dependent C) operational D) independent Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 90. The variable that an experimenter measures to determine whether or not the manipulation has had an effect is the __________ variable. A) causal B) confounding C) dependent D) independent Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

91. An administrator believes that the placement of motivational posters on the walls in classrooms of academic buildings will lead to increased GPAs at his school. To test his theory, he randomly assigns certain classrooms within the College of Liberal Arts and Sciences to have the posters, while others do not. None of the remaining four academic colleges have any posters placed in their classrooms. What is the independent variable in this study? A) academic college B) classroom wall hangings Correct. The presence or absence of classroom wall hangings is the manipulated variable, so that is the independent variable. C) gender of the student D) grade point average Incorrect. The grade point average of the students is what is being measured, so that is the dependent variable. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills % correct 74 a = 0 b = 74 c = 10 d = 16 r = .47 92. A medical doctor believes that the presence of aromatherapy will reduce the anxiety of firsttime mothers-to-be during labor and will increase their reported satisfaction with their care at his hospital. He randomly assigns mothers to give birth in a room either with or without aromatherapy. What is the independent variable in this example? A) anxiety level during labor B) number of previous birthing experiences C) presence or absence of aromatherapy Correct. The room environment is what is being manipulated in the experiment, so that is the independent variable. D) satisfaction with hospital care Incorrect. He satisfaction with hospital care is what is being measured, so that is the dependent variable. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

93. Professor Todd decides to test her hypothesis that eating chocolate prior to exams increases students’ test scores. She randomly assigns students to two groups at the beginning of the semester. One group receives a bar of chocolate before each test, while the other group receives another type of candy. She compares their scores at the end of the year, and finds that the students who ate the chocolate scored an average of ten points higher on their exams. What is the dependent variable in this experiment? A) students’ test scores Correct. These students’ test scores are what is being measured, so that is the dependent variable. B) chocolate bars Incorrect. The presence or absence of a chocolate bar is what is being manipulated in the experiment, so that is the independent variable. C) the students themselves D) the professor Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills % correct 50 a = 50 b = 42 c = 5 d = 3 r = .62 % correct 79 a = 79 b = 16 c = 0 d = 5 r = .47 94. Coach Ezell wants her players to relax before playing important conference games. At the halfway point in the season, instead of the dance music she normally had playing in the locker room, she switches to classical music before the games. What is the dependent variable in this scenario? A) the new classical music Incorrect. The type of music that is being played is what is being manipulated in the experiment, so that is the independent variable. B) the players’ anxiety level Correct. The players’ anxiety level is what is being measured, so that is the dependent variable. C) the coach D) the original dance music Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

95. Professor Todd decides to test her hypothesis that eating chocolate prior to exams increases students’ test scores. She randomly assigns students to two groups at the beginning of the semester. One group receives a bar of chocolate before each test, while the other group receives another type of candy. She compares their scores at the end of the year, and finds that the students who ate the chocolate scored an average of ten points higher on their exams. What is a fair conclusion that can be drawn from this experiment? A) Eating chocolate causes students’ test scores to increase. Correct. An experiment with random assignment to groups allows us to determine cause and effect. B) Eating chocolate has no relationship to students’ test scores. C) Eating chocolate may increase students’ satisfaction with the class. D) Eating chocolate makes students happy. Incorrect. These students may feel happy as a result of doing better on their exams, but that is not a relationship measured in this experiment. This experiment also does not look at the relationship between eating chocolate and student happiness. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 96. When conducting an experiment, it is of crucial importance that the operational definitions of what is being measured are clearly stated and easily identified. This allows for other researchers to try to repeat the research to verify the findings. To which principle of critical thinking is this factor most relevant? A) Occam’s Razor B) replicability Correct. If research is to be repeated (or replicated), then the operational definitions from one study to the next must be consistent and clear. C) extraordinary claims Incorrect. There is nothing in this question that speaks to the need for extraordinary claims to be supported by similarly impactful evidence. D) correlation vs. causation Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

97. A(n) __________ definition in an experiment refers to a working description of what the researcher is measuring or observing in the study. A) control B) dependent C) operational D) independent Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 98. In an experiment, a researcher wants to avoid the presence of __________. A) confounding variables B) dependent variables C) independent variables D) a random assignment Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 99. When acting as a participant in a research study examining the relationship between alcohol consumption and driving ability, Layla was assigned to the experimental group that received the highest amount of alcohol to drink. Despite this ingestion of liquor, Layla was still able to navigate the driver’s course perfectly. The experimenter did not consider the fact that Layla had been a drinker for many years, and had developed a high alcohol tolerance. This factor, which impacted the dependent variable in the study, would be called a(n) __________ variable. A) external B) dependent C) independent D) confounding Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

100. Other than the independent variable, the __________ variable may also differ between experimental and control groups. A) confounding B) dependent C) false D) placebo Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 101. Why is it important to make sure that different participant groups are roughly equivalent in terms of personal characteristics (e.g., age, gender) before any independent variable is introduced? A) because it is important to treat all research participants equally so that they feel that they are not being manipulated Incorrect. This is a correct statement, but it does not answer the question of why we want participant groups to be equivalent before an independent variable is introduced. B) because research ethics forbid any experiment to take place when the participant groups are fundamentally different from each other C) so that no major differences between the groups bias the results of the experiment Correct. When the groups are different before the research begins, any changes in the dependent variable might be caused by those differences (which are called confounding variables). D) because it threatens the integrity of a within-group experimental design Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 102. One difficulty in conducting medical research is that participants often assume that any treatment will be effective in alleviating their symptoms. Therefore, a researcher has to design an experiment that measures the influence of __________. A) random selection B) medical confounds C) the Rosenthal effect Incorrect. The Rosenthal effect refers to experimenter expectancy effects. That is not seen in this example. D) the placebo effect Correct. The placebo effect occurs when a participant’s expectations cause him or her to experience certain effects. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

103. People report feeling better after taking medication even though it hasn’t had time to be effective. They are experiencing ____________. A) the experimenter bias effect B) low reliability C) the placebo effect D) confirmation bias Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 104. Dr. Wilkins randomly assigns subjects to one of three groups. He is interested in the effects of caffeine on anxiety levels. He gives subjects in the first group an extra two cups of coffee a day for six months. The second group receives an extra two cups of decaffeinated coffee a day for the same time period, while the control group is not given either regular or decaffeinated coffee. By providing one group with decaffeinated coffee, Dr. Wilkins is trying to account for which potential element of the experiment? A) a control condition B) the Rosenthal effect Incorrect. The Rosenthal effect refers to experimenter expectancy effects. That is not seen in this example. C) the placebo effect Correct. The placebo effect occurs when an inert treatment “works.” In this case, it would occur if the decaf coffee increased anxiety (it should have no effect on anxiety). D) the artificial condition Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills % correct 88 a = 8 b = 1 c = 88 d = 1 r = .37

105. Lisa, a college student, had a great time at the party last night. She danced, sang karaoke, and even played the “rock band” video game—all behaviors that she had never exhibited in public before. She had been drinking the “punch” all night long, which she was told contained high levels of alcohol. Lisa was quite surprised to find out the next morning that the punch did NOT contain any alcohol. What concept may explain Lisa’s behavior? A) the Rosenthal effect B) illusory correlations C) the nocebo effect Incorrect. The nocebo effect is harm resulting from the mere expectation of harm. D) the placebo effect Correct. The placebo effect occurs when an inert treatment “works.” In this case, it would occur if the nonalcoholic punch produced more gregarious behavior. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 106. The best way to avoid the placebo effect in research is to __________. A) keep the participants “blind” as to which participant group they are in B) use adequate debriefing before the research is conducted C) wait until after the research is complete before garnering informed consent D) using better methods of deception (consistent with research ethics) in the experiment Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

107. When someone experiences harm based solely on the expectation that they will experience harm, this is called the __________ effect. A) Zaigarnik B) nocebo C) Barnum D) placebo Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 108. Matthew believes that the bath water his daddy has run for him is too hot and is going to burn him. Even though the water is only slightly above warm, the minute Matthew sticks his foot in the water, he pulls it out, cries, and says that the water burned him. Matthew's perception of being in pain is due to the __________ effect. A) Zaigarnik B) nocebo Correct. The nocebo effect is harm resulting from the mere expectation of harm. C) Barnum D) placebo Incorrect. The placebo effect occurs when an inert treatment “works.” Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 109. The __________ is a phenomenon in which researchers’ hypotheses lead them to unintentionally bias the outcome of a study. A) durability bias B) experimenter expectancy effect C) availability heuristic D) confounding error Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

110. The experimenter expectancy effect is also called the ________ effect. A) Rosenthal Correct. These terms both refer to a type of bias that occurs when a researcher anticipates certain outcomes and then lets those expectations impact his or her results. B) McGuirk C) Flynn Incorrect. The Flynn effect refers to an increase in the IQ scores of a population over generations. D) Werth Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 111. Dr. Francis is conducting a study in which she is examining the impact of a new math tutoring program on elementary school students’ performance in a math class. She has hypothesized that the tutoring will significantly increase the performance of students who are enrolled in this program. She has to remember not to let her expectation of an outcome influence her interpretation of the final data. In other words, she needs to defend against the __________ effect. A) Flynn Incorrect. The Flynn effect, which is not discussed in this chapter, refers to a tendency for a population’s IQ scores to gradually increase over time. B) nocebo C) Rosenthal Correct. The Rosenthal effect, which is another name for experimenter expectancy effect, occurs when a researcher’s hypotheses lead them to unintentionally bias the study’s outcomes. D) Rogers Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

112. An experiment would be described as __________ when neither researchers nor participants are aware of who is in the experimental or control group. A) blind B) unfalsifiable C) a placebo D) double-blind Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 113. How does conducting a double-blind study attempt to remedy the experimenter expectancy effect? A) The experimenter does not know, but the participant does know, what condition the participant is assigned to. Incorrect. This would be an example of a single blind study. In a double-blind study, neither the experimenter nor the participant knows which condition the participant has been assigned to. B) The experimenter and the participant both know what condition the participant is assigned to. C) The experimenter knows, but the participant does not know, what condition the participant is assigned to. D) Neither the experimenter nor the participant knows what condition the participant is assigned to. Correct. When neither the experimenter nor the participant knows what condition has been assigned, it eliminates the possibility of the placebo and experimenter effects. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

114. In the case of Clever Hans, a teacher named Wilhelm von Oster claimed that he had taught his horse arithmetic, including square roots. As it turns out, the horse was merely responding to subtle, unintentional physical signals being given by von Oster. This demonstrates which principle of critical thinking? A) extraordinary claims Correct. It is certainly extraordinary to think that a horse can be taught to do higher math problems, but in this case, the evidence of the validity of the claims was not so extraordinary. B) correlation vs. causation C) replicability D) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. The simplest explanation for the case of Clever Hans is that he was being unintentionally fed the correct answers, but the best answer to this case is extraordinary claims. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 115. Marissa just finished completing her new employee questionnaire form for a job in sales. Despite being a rather shy, introverted person, Marissa checked all the areas that referred to her as a talkative and outgoing individual. She believes those extraverted characteristics are exactly what her new employer is looking for. Which concept is being illustrated? A) participant bias B) the primacy effect C) demand characteristics Correct. Demand characteristics are cues that participants pick up that allow them to guess about the researcher’s hypothesis. In this case, Marissa could guess that the employer was looking for extraverted candidates. D) the Rosenthal effect Incorrect. The Rosenthal effect refers to experimenter expectancy effects. That is not seen in this example. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

116. Eila is participating in a psychological experiment for one of the graduate students at her university. She is pretty confident that she knows the true intent of the study and is trying to answer the questions accordingly. Eila is engaging in __________, a common pitfall in experiments. A) intentionality B) the Rosenthal effect Incorrect. The Rosenthal effect refers to experimenter expectancy effects. That is not seen in this example. C) observer bias D) demand characteristics Correct. Demand characteristics are cues that participants pick up that allow them to guess about the researcher’s hypothesis. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 117. In one of the most shameful violations of research ethics to date, nearly 400 African American men from __________ were not informed that they had been diagnosed with syphilis and were not provided with available, effective treatments for this illness. A) Tuskegee B) Baton Rouge C) Biloxi D) Montgomery Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 3.1 TEXT LO: 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants. Topic: Ethical Issues in Research Design 118. Which ethical requirement of research was not present in the Tuskegee experiment, in which nearly 400 African American men were not told they had syphilis and were denied treatment for its symptoms? A) anonymity B) confidentiality C) informed consent D) debriefing Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 3.1 TEXT LO: 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants. Topic: Ethical Issues in Research Design

119. What is the primary purpose of an institutional review board? A) to help protect research participants from abuse B) to hinder the research process by placing unnecessary hurdles in the way of researchers C) to help protect the university from lawsuits from unhappy research participants D) to encourage the use of deception in medical and psychological research with humans Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 3.1 TEXT LO: 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants. Topic: Ethical Issues in Research Design 120. Students of psychology are often frustrated because there are very few, if any, clear-cut answers to many of their questions. What is the primary limiting factor in obtaining first-hand knowledge of questions such as the long-term effects of child abuse or the effects of smoking marijuana on a pregnancy? A) Most people in the general public are not concerned with these issues. B) It is difficult to find people who are victims of abuse or mothers who smoke marijuana during pregnancy. C) Ethical guidelines in research prevent psychologists from carrying out many of these studies. Correct. Due to ethical considerations, we cannot randomly assign children to abusive or nonabusive homes, for example. Thus, it is impossible to say whether A causes B, in many cases. D) Institutional review boards encourage participation in studies that may be harmful to participants either mentally or physically. Incorrect. Nothing could be further from the truth. Institutional review boards exist to prevent unnecessary harm or discomfort to research participants. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 3.1 TEXT LO: 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants. Topic: Ethical Issues in Research Design 121. If Dr. Shioux wants to conduct research that will involve human participants at his university, he will have to submit a summary of the study to a(n) __________ before he can actually proceed. This will act as a form of protection for the participants he intends to enroll in his research. A) subjects rights committee (SRC) B) institutional review board (IRB) Correct. An IRB exists to protect human participants from potentially abusive research protocols. C) human resources investigation panel (HRIP) Incorrect. Human resources is usually a department involved in assisting and interacting with faculty members at a company or business. It is not involved in research protocol examination. D) ethics assurance board (EAB) Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 3.1 TEXT LO: 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants. Topic: Ethical Issues in Research Design

122. Which of these is part of the APA ethical principles for human research? A) Research participants must give informed consent. B) Research participants must be deceived so that they do not know the true nature of the research to which they are contributing. C) Research participants must be paid for their contribution. D) As long as informed consent has been given, research participants may be subjected to any level of physical or psychological pain or discomfort. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 3.1 TEXT LO: 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants. Topic: Ethical Issues in Research Design % correct 91 a = 91 b = 0 c = 0 d = 9 r = .44 123. In examining the research of Stanley Milgram, who explored factors related to obedience in research participants, which of the following areas of ethics seems to be the most salient issue in determining if his research was or was not a violation of reasonable ethical standards? A) the right to withdraw from research B) pain and suffering in non-human participants C) debriefing Incorrect. Milgram’s research protocol involved a thorough debriefing to participants after the research session was completed. D) informed consent Correct. Some have suggested that because he did not adequately inform participants what they were “getting into,” that his research failed in its obligation to obtain true informed consent. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 3.1 TEXT LO: 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants. Topic: Ethical Issues in Research Design 124. Dr. Williams believes that by administering brief electric shocks to his students, he can improve their attention to his lectures. He blames daydreaming and inattention by his students for their poor performance in his class. His colleagues are not convinced that the potential benefits to the students will outweigh the physical pain they may endure. Ultimately, what will Dr. Williams have to obtain from his students before proceeding? A) medical records B) a debriefing of the results of the study Incorrect. Debriefings come after a participants contribution to a study has been completed. In this case, informed consent must be obtained before the participants contribute to the study. C) information about the students’ parents D) informed consent Correct. Informed consent is a process that helps research participants know what they are getting into, and is necessary for conducting an ethically sound study. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 3.1 TEXT LO: 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants. Topic: Ethical Issues in Research Design Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

125. Professor Wagner is explaining to his subjects the purpose behind the experiment they just participated in, along with a general description of the results. He needs to do this because the research involved some deception of the participants so that they would not be influenced by knowing the true purpose of the study. He is engaging in what aspect of a research study? A) debriefing Correct. Debriefing is a process that allows the researcher to fully disclose the nature of the study and provide more information. It occurs once an individual’s participation is complete. B) informed consent Incorrect. Informed consent is a process that helps research participants know what they are getting into, and is necessary for conducting an ethically sound study. It must be garnered before a participant contributes to a study. C) ethical considerations D) ethical consent Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 3.1 TEXT LO: 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants. Topic: Ethical Issues in Research Design 126. An overwhelming number of research studies that examine non-human participants involve the use of __________. A) monkeys and chimpanzees B) fish and insects C) rodents and birds D) dogs and cats Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 3.1 TEXT LO: 2.3b Describe both sides of the debate on the use of animals as research subjects. Topic: Ethical Issues in Research Design 127. Dr. Nolen wants to know the effects of removing portions of one’s hippocampus on long-term memory, in the hopes of one day finding a cure for patients with Alzheimer’s disease. The subjects for his study are most likely to be __________. A) humans Incorrect. Although it would probably be most useful for the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease to conduct this research on human beings, there is no ethical way this could be occur. B) nonhuman animals Correct. Some research cannot ethically be conducted on humans, so nonhuman animals (most often mice or rats) are used instead. C) robots D) insects Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 3.1TEXT LO: 2.3b Describe both sides of the debate on the use of animals as research subjects. Topic: Ethical Issues in Research Design

128. What is the authors’ position on the use of animal research in psychology? A) Animal research provides important insights but also comes with costs in terms of death and suffering of these subjects. Correct. This is a correct statement of the authors’ position on the use of animal research. B) All animal research must be ended as soon as is possible. Incorrect. Many people feel this way, but this is not the position taken by the authors. C) It is more desirable to harm animals than to harm humans in the research process. D) Results from animal research cannot inform us of how the same phenomenon occur with humans. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 3.1 TEXT LO: 2.3b Describe both sides of the debate on the use of animals as research subjects. Topic: Ethical Issues in Research Design 129. The application of mathematics to describe and analyze data is known as __________. A) dispersion B) data reduction C) statistics D) psychometrics Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 130. Numerical characterizations that describe data are known as __________. A) central tendencies B) inferential statistics C) dispersion D) descriptive statistics Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 131. Which of the following is one of the two types of statistics that researchers use to analyze the data that they collect? A) predictive statistics B) conscriptive statistics C) descriptive statistics D) computational statistics Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

132. Which of the following is a measure of central tendency? A) mode B) variability C) range D) standard deviation Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 133. Which of the following words is probably the best synonym for the mean of a data set? A) popular B) middle C) spread Incorrect. The spread of a set of data points would be indicated by the range, not the mean. D) average Correct. The mean is a measure of central tendency that refers to the average of a set of data points. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 134. A university president asks her psychology department chair if the university has more male or more female undergraduate psychology majors. What measure of central tendency is she asking about? A) mean Incorrect. The mean refers to the average of a data set. B) median C) mode Correct. The mode is a measure of central tendency that refers to the most frequently appearing value in a data set. D) range Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research

135. On Friday Dr. Utts’s history class took their first exam. On Monday, the students asked, “What was the most common grade on the exam, A, B, C, D, or F?” The students in Dr. Utts’s class were asking about the __________ of the set of scores on the exam. A) mean Incorrect. The mean is the average of a data set. B) mode Correct. The mode is a measure of central tendency that refers to the most frequently appearing value in a data set. C) median D) range Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 136. A British literature instructor examines the number of class periods his students have missed by mid-terms and has the following data: 1, 0, 10, 0, 2, 1, 0, 0, 5, 2, 3, 0, 0, 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 1, 2. What is the median for this data set? A) 0 B) 1 Correct. Fifty percent of the data points occur below and above 1, so it is the median. C) 1.7 Incorrect. 1.7 is the average of this data set, so it is the mean. D) 2.5 Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 137. In which situation would presenting the mean as one’s measure of central tendency be least accurate? A) when the distribution is normally distributed B) when the distribution is negatively skewed Correct. The mean is adversely affected by positively or negatively skewed data sets. C) when the distribution is bimodal Incorrect. A bimodal data set does not necessarily impact the meaning of that data set. D) when there are many scores in the data set Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research

138. If I wanted to determine, on average, how far apart any one score is from another, I should use a measure of __________. A) central tendency B) correlation C) variability D) statistical significance Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 139. This simplest measure of variability is the __________. A) mean B) mode C) range D) standard deviation Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 140. Which descriptive statistic is least likely to be influenced by the presence of skewed data? A) mean B) median C) range D) standard deviation Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 141. Which of the following is one of the two types of statistics that researchers use to analyze the data that they collect? A) referential statistics B) inferential statistics C) binomial statistics D) cyclical statistics Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research

142. In a data set, the measure of variability that indicates how far each individual data point is from the average of the entire set is called the __________. A) standard deviation B) canonical correlation C) regression from the mean D) variance Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 143. Mathematical methods that allow us to determine whether we can generalize findings from our sample to the full population are called __________. A) central tendencies B) inferential statistics C) dispersion D) descriptive statistics Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 144. A researcher wishes to generalize his findings beyond the people at the organization he is studying in Florida. He wants to attempt to show that the findings apply to all people who work in a similar type of organization throughout the United States. He should use __________ to analyze his data. A) correlational statistics B) descriptive statistics Incorrect. Descriptive statistics are used to describe a data set, not to generalize from a sample to a larger population. C) inferential statistics Correct. Inferential statistics are used to generalize findings from a sample to the larger population from which it was drawn. D) logical statistics Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research

145. Mary conducts research examining the efficacy of treatment of elderly persons in nursing facilities in her home state. In order for her to use this research to influence larger political policies regarding the care of the elderly on a state and federal level, she will have to generalize her findings to the larger population of elderly nursing home residents. What sort of statistics should she use to accomplish this goal? A) correlational statistics B) descriptive statistics Incorrect. Descriptive statistics are used to describe a data set, not to generalize from a sample to a larger population. C) inferential statistics Correct. Inferential statistics are used to generalize from a sample to the larger population from which it was drawn. D) logical statistics Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.4b Explain how inferential statistics can help us to determine whether we can generalize from our sample to the full population. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 146. When a given research finding is believed to have less than a __________ in 100 probability of occurring by chance, it is usually described as being statistically significant. A) 1 B) 5 C) 10 D) 25 Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4b Explain how inferential statistics can help us to determine whether we can generalize from our sample to the full population. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 147. The term statistical significance implies that the results are __________. A) important B) extremely meaningful C) valid D) not likely due to chance Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4b Explain how inferential statistics can help us to determine whether we can generalize from our sample to the full population. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research % correct 63 a = 6 b = 7 c = 23 d = 63 r = .32

148. What is the relationship between the p-value of a study and its statistical significance? A) The higher the p-value, the greater the statistical significance. Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. The higher the p-value, the lower the statistical significance. B) The p-value is unrelated to the level of statistical significance. C) The p-value is equal to the statistical significance. D) The lower the p-value, the greater the statistical significance. Correct. As p, or probability, drops, there is a greater chance that the findings are a real event and not caused by random chance or happenstance. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4b Explain how inferential statistics can help us to determine whether we can generalize from our sample to the full population. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 149. A therapist wishes to show that his new therapy is a marked improvement over the current best available therapy. To do so, he examines the number of participants who improved with each. A total of 125 participants received his treatment (and 100 of them improved). A total of 80 participants received the alternative treatment (and 64 of them improved). What should the therapist conclude? A) His treatment is superior to the alternative because 100 is greater than 64. B) His treatment is no better than the alternative because the percentages are the same. Correct. He has found the same probability in both cases, so there is no statistical difference between the two participant groups. C) His treatment is inferior because the percentages are the same. Incorrect. His treatment is neither inferior nor superior. His findings suggest that his treatment is equivalent. D) His treatment is superior because it included 125 people as opposed to 80. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.4b Explain how inferential statistics can help us to determine whether we can generalize from our sample to the full population. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research

150. After carefully observing thousands of students, Dr. O’Brien revealed to his colleagues that students with brown eyes are statistically more likely to write with pens instead of pencils. Although his colleagues did not question his statistics, they did suggest that a finding such as this lacked __________. A) authenticity B) standardization Incorrect. There is nothing in this example that suggests a lack of standardization. The practical significance of his findings is rather small. C) statistical measures D) practical significance Correct. Practical significance refers to whether a statistical difference “makes a difference” in the real world. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.4b Explain how inferential statistics can help us to determine whether we can generalize from our sample to the full population. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 151. A mechanism by which experts in a field carefully screen the work of their colleagues is known as __________. A) experimental validity B) experimenter bias effect C) peer review D) peer assessment Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.5a Identify flaws in research designs and how to correct them. Topic: Evaluating Psychological Research

152. The peer review process is designed to __________. A) block alternative therapies from being made available to the general public B) identify flaws in a research study’s methods, findings, and conclusions C) make researchers feel bad when their article is not published D) place obstacles in front of people whose theories differ from mainstream science Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.5a Identify flaws in research designs and how to correct them. Topic: Evaluating Psychological Research 153. In one research project, a scientist gave students subliminal cassette tapes and told them to play them for 2 months. After 2 months, she assessed whether the tapes helped the self-esteem of her participants and found that self-esteem had indeed risen! While she may have attributed this to the tapes, it is also possible that those students may have found college life to be manageable and thus experienced an increase in self-esteem for that reason. This demonstrates which principle of critical thinking? A) correlation vs. causation B) extraordinary claims C) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. In this case, there are alterative explanations that must be considered before assuming that a research finding is accurate. D) replicability Incorrect. Nothing in this example addresses repeating the research with the goal of producing the same findings. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 2.5b Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media. Topic: Evaluating Psychological Research % correct 59 a = 38 b = 0 c = 59 d = 3 r = .46 154. The general public is often misled by discussions of research in the media, because most reporters are ___________. A) not fair and balanced in their reporting of the facts B) actively working to bias the public against scientific research C) not trained in understanding research or how to accurately communicate about it D) lazy and attempting to do as little as possible in their jobs Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.5b Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media. Topic: Evaluating Psychological Research

155. Professor Bowden is in the middle of her lecture on marital satisfaction when a student in the back interrupts her and says, “Dr. Phil doesn’t agree with that theory!” Soon other students chime in to add fuel to the discussion. Professor Bowden just smiles and asks the original student to produce the research that Dr. Phil carried out to justify his statements. What lesson is Professor Bowden trying to teach? A) Information from the media is always inaccurate. B) One should never question a well-established theory. Incorrect. It is one of the most important aspects of critical thinking that the theories should be questioned, whether they are or are not well-established. C) Always check the source of your information before you believe it. Correct. The authors discuss how we should be skeptical of psychology-related claims in the media, and look for scientific evidence. D) Secondary sources are just as reliable as primary sources. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.5b Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media. Topic: Evaluating Psychological Research 156. A key factor to consider when reading about the results of a study on the Internet, in a newspaper, or in a news magazine is to A) consider the source of the information. Correct. One must always consider the source from which information is drawn. B) determine how well it fits with what others have told you in the past. C) rely on your common sense or “gut” intuition. D) popular media outlets always have inaccurate information. Incorrect. It is entirely possible that the results of the study reported on the Internet, a newspaper, or in a newsmagazine are accurate. One must simply not accept that to be the case just because it is published. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.5b Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media. Topic: Evaluating Psychological Research % correct 88 a = 88 b = 12 c = 0 d = 0 r = .34

157. A major limitation in reading about the results of psychological research in the newspaper is that __________. A) reporters provide too much detailed information about the research study that the general public cannot comprehend in their articles B) reporters are so well-trained to discuss research that they cannot easily communicate about it with the average lay person C) reporters create controversy where none exists by treating scientific evidence and dissenter’s biased opinions as equally compelling Correct. This is an important point to make, because those without basis for opinions are often given the same weight as those who do have scientific basis for opinions. D) reporters do not know how to identify experts to interview for many of their stories and end up unintentionally misleading the public Incorrect. Reporters may very well know how to interview people for their stories, but may choose to do so in such a way that makes the stories more sensational. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.5b Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media. Topic: Evaluating Psychological Research Fill-in-the-Blank 1. __________ communication is a process that involves one person sitting next to a child with autism spectrum disorder for the purpose of helping that child type out words and sentences. Research has demonstrated that it was an invalid way of assisting these children with communication deficits. Answer: Facilitated Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 2. A(n) __________ refers to a mental shortcut or rule of thumb that assists people with intuitive decision-making problems. Answer: heuristic Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.1a Identity two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning. Topic: The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design 3. If a researcher investigated the topic of aggression by simply recording instances of aggression on a school playground, in a place of business, in a nightclub, and in many other everyday settings, he or she would be using the research design of __________. Answer: naturalistic observation Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

4. __________ is the most important part of ensuring the generalizability of one’s results to the general population. Answer: Random selection Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 5. Dr. Barrios is examining the relationship between student scores on a practice test in his senior-level class with their actual performance, with different questions, on his first exam. If there is consistency or stability in these scores, Dr. Barrios would be able to say that ___________ exists. Answer: reliability Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 6. An important concern in research is that people will respond in a manner that conveys a specific impression rather than in a way that reflects his or her true behavior. If a person does this to make themselves appear more skilled than they really are, he or she is engaging in a(n) __________. Answer: response set Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 7. __________ is the degree of statistical association between two variables. Answer: Correlation (Correlation coefficient is also correct.) Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

8. The major advantage of a correlational design over a naturalistic observation or a case study design is that a correlational design allows us to __________. Answer: make predictions (or make predictions about future events or describe and make predictions about behavior) Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 9. When one variable under investigation rises while the second variable under investigation drops, a(n) __________ correlation would be the result. Answer: negative Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 10. According to the authors, many superstitious behaviors result from __________. Answer: illusory correlation Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 11. It is only possible to draw cause-and-effect conclusions about research data when employing a(n) __________ design. Answer: experimental Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

12. When a researcher provides a specific definition of the independent and dependent variables for the purpose of a study, they are creating __________ definitions for the research. Answer: operational Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 13. When a __________ variable exists, the ability to state that differences in the conditions of the independent variable led to the observed differences in the dependent variable is lessened. Answer: confounding Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 14. The two major features of an experiment—random assignment and manipulations of an independent variable—permit the researcher to infer __________ and __________ relationships between variables. Answer: cause, effect Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 15. Although, physiologically speaking, it should take approximately 30 minutes for an aspirin to relieve a headache, most people claim to feel better only minutes after taking the pill. This observation can best be explained by the __________ effect. Answer: placebo Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

16. One important limitation of the experimental design is that when research participants know what condition they have been assigned to, this knowledge, rather than the independent variable, may be the cause of the differences observed in the dependent variable. This is known as the __________ effect. Answer: placebo (nocebo is also correct) Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 17. When neither the experimenter nor the participant have any knowledge of the experimental condition to which the participant has been assigned, we say that this is a __________ study. Answer: double-blind Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 18. In psychological research studies, the researcher is required to obtain the participant’s __________. Answer: informed consent Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 3.1 TEXT LO: 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants. Topic: Ethical Issues in Research Design 19. Dr. Friesz asks his research assistant to gather information on how his data are clustering together on the variable, average daily temperature for December. He is asking for a measure of __________. Answer: central tendency Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 20. If a statistician asks you, his assistant, to calculate the middle score from a data set, he is asking you to determine the value of the __________. Answer: median Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research

21. The preferred measure of variability in descriptive statistics is the __________. Answer: standard deviation Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 22. The goal of inferential statistics is to __________ our results to the full population. Answer: generalize (apply is also correct) Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 23. Before Dr. Smith submits his new grant proposal to the committee, he asks several of his colleagues to read, revise, and make suggestions about his research design. He is engaging in one form of __________. Answer: peer review Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.5a Identify flaws in research designs and how to correct them. Topic: Evaluating Psychological Research 24. Jay is writing an article for the school newspaper about student attendance. His main point is that during the final semester of one’s senior year, a student is more likely to miss school. Data obtained from his principal indicate that, on any given day, 17% of the senior class is absent (compared to 12% of juniors, and 13% and 16% of sophomores and freshmen). His headline reads “Senioritis: A Real Phenomenon.” He has engaged in use of the misleading tool of __________. Answer: leveling Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.5b Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research 25. When the media provide information about a scientific question, it often does so using a balanced coverage approach. This creates an artificial appearance of __________, and thus gives the impression that a scientific debate exists where it does not. Answer: pseudosymmetry Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.5b Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research

Essay 1. Why is it necessary for psychologists to have so many different research designs to study human behavior? Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following points for full credit. ● Each research design has its own important limitations. Students should identify at least two examples from two different designs to earn full credit. ● The goals of research differ (some focus on description, others on predictions, and others on establishing causation). ● If different methods produce similar results, this increases our confidence in our understanding of a particular phenomenon (idea of convergence). Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation.; 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment and the potential pitfalls that can lead us to faulty conclusions and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills 2. Discuss how the concept of the illusory correlation would explain a friend’s complaint that his fraternity/her sorority (or other student group) is always being displayed in a negative light by the campus newspaper while other groups are not treated the same. Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following to earn full credit. ● Student should define or describe what the illusory correlation is in his/her answer (either directly or demonstrate an understanding indirectly). ● The student should discuss the general ideas associated with the “Great Fourfold Table of Life” (Table 2.2). ● More specifically, he or she should focus on the fact that the student—in the question—is focusing on instances where negative portrayal of the fraternity/sorority are occurring but is neglecting stories about the fraternity/sorority that are positive or have no evaluative component. Likewise, the student—in the question—is also ignoring when other groups are discussed negatively or other negative stories that are irrelevant to friend’s group are published. Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Topic: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

3. Describe the roles of institutional review boards and statements of informed consent within the human research process. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. ● Institutional review boards (IRBs) exist to ensure that participants are protected against abuses from researchers. The members are drawn from different departments and must give their approval, and their concerns and requests for changes addressed, before research with human participants may begin. ● The informed consent ensures that participants understand what is being asked of them and what will be involved in their experience. Participants must be given enough information to make a decision to voluntarily participate in the research. If they are misled during the research, the missing information must be explained during a debriefing. Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 3.1 TEXT LO: 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants. Topic: Ethical Issues in Research Design 4. Explain why no single measure of central tendency and measure of dispersion exists that a researcher can use every single time. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. ● Sometimes one measure is more appropriate than another. For example, the mean is distorted by the presence of outliers in a skewed distribution, so a researcher would be advised to report the median instead. ● It depends what information a researcher wants to highlight. For example, if a researcher wants to identify what was the most frequently endorsed option for a question, he or she would choose the mode. If he or she wants to report about how the scores were represented over all the possible answers, he or she would report the mean. ● Some people may wish to know the typical difference between scores and thus choose standard deviation, while others would look at the amount of difference from the most extreme scores and choose the range. ● A researcher cannot just report central tendency or dispersion because they each only tell part of the whole, either where scores are located (central tendency) or how much difference between scores is present (dispersion). Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research

5. Illustrate why being an informed consumer about research, research designs, and statistics will be helpful in identifying incorrect statements about research in the media and on the Internet. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain at least four of the following, and include the first idea, for full credit. ● Student should mention that understanding research designs will aid in identifying when statements of cause and effect are appropriate and when they are not. (Need to give supportive evidence for this and all statements to see that they truly demonstrate an understanding of each idea.) ● One will recognize misleading or inaccurate statistical statements. ● One will recognize when headlines are inaccurate summaries of the research results. ● One will recognize when reporters or writers have used sharpening or leveling. ● One will consider the source and whether the story coverage is balanced or whether it muddies the discussion. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 2.5b Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media. Topic: Evaluating Psychological Research Critical Thinking Discuss why researchers need to be familiar with both descriptive and inferential statistics. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following ideas for full credit. ● Student needs to mention that each gives a different kind of information because each has differing goals (organization and summarization for descriptive and generalization for inferential). ● Techniques in each can be misused in different ways to make effects appear that really are not accurate or appropriate. ● Often both are used in conjunction by the researcher rather than being two types that are chosen between (e.g., using the means of the groups to help see the statistically significant group differences). Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Topic: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research

CHAPTER 2: RESEARCH METHODS ________________________________________________________________________ Finding Relationships 1. A large group of people whom you want to know about is called a __________. a. control group b. treatment group c. population d. sample Answer c % correct 79 a= 3 b= 3 c= 79 d= 16 r = .30 2. In an experiment to test the effects of anxiety on performance, the dependent variable is the __________. a. amount of anxiety b. age of the person c. person's performance d. cause of the anxiety Answer c % correct 76 a= 18 b= 1 c= 76 d= 5 r = .30 3. A scientist, conducting a research study on sleep and learning, questions her own objectivity and decides to let a third person, not associated with conducting the experiment, score the tests. The scientist is probably trying to eliminate __________. a. experimenter bias b. sample bias c. control bias d. treatment bias Answer a % correct 95 a= 95 b= 2 c= 3 d= 1 r = .25 4. Psychologists use research techniques based on __________. a. inductive reasoning b. objective introspection c. deductive reasoning d. the scientific method Answer d % correct 86 a= 6 b= 3 c= 5 d= 86 r = .36 5. Research in which a carefully selected group of people is asked a set of predetermined questions in interviews or through questionnaires is known as __________. a. correlational research b. case study research c. survey research d. experimental research Answer c % correct 83 a= 4 b= 13 c= 83 d= 0 r = .20 6. In an experiment, a researcher manipulates one variable to see how it affects a second variable. The second variable, which is observed for any possible effects, is called the __________. a. dependent variable b. control variable c. independent variable d. hypothetical variable Answer a % correct 78 a= 78 b= 8 c= 9 d= 4 r = .47 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

7. A psychologist, studying pilot trainees, picks a select group of trainees who are hopefully representative of all other trainees. The group of trainees being studied by this psychologist are collectively known to researchers as a __________. a. sample b. population c. target group d. control group Answer a % correct 81 a= 81 b= 8 c= 7 d= 4 r = .46 8. Expectations by the experimenter that might influence the results of an experiment or their interpretation are called __________. a. experimental blinds b. experimenter bias c. sample bias d. treatment bias Answer b % correct 97 a= 1 b= 97 c= 1 d= 1 r = .29 9. In a controlled experiment, the group subjected to a change in the independent variable is called the __________ group. a. independent b. experimental c. dependent d. control Answer b % correct 77 a= 2 b= 77 c= 9 d= 12 r = .34 10. A scientist, conducting a research study on sleep and learning, questions her own objectivity and decides to let a third person, not associated with conducting the experiment, score the tests. The scientist is probably trying to eliminate __________. a. experimenter bias b. sample bias c. control bias d. treatment bias Answer a % correct 96 a= 96 b= 0 c= 4 d= 0 r = .21 11. A subset of cases selected from a larger population is a __________. a. control group b. target group c. treatment group d. sample Answer d % correct 89 a= 1 b= 9 c= 1 d= 89 r = .28

12. If explanation of the causes of thoughts, feelings, and behavior is a psychologist's goal, then the __________ method of research should be used. a. correlational b. experimental c. survey d. naturalistic observation Answer b % correct 45 a= 15 b= 45 c= 14 d= 26 r = .52

13. In a controlled experiment, the group not subjected to a change in the independent variable, and used for comparison with the group receiving the experimental change, is the __________ group. a. independent b. experimental c. dependent d. control Answer d % correct 90 a= 3 b= 4 c= 4 d= 90 r = .42 14. A research method in which the real-life behavior of a pre-selected person or a group is studied at an in-depth level for some time through the use of observation, interviews, and writings (such as letters) is the _____________ method of research. a. survey b. psychometric c. case study d. naturalistic observation Answer c % correct 95 a= 3 b= 1 c= 95 d= 2 r = .20 15. In an experiment, a researcher manipulates one variable to see how it affects a second variable. The manipulated variable is called the: a. dependent variable. b. experimental variable. c. independent variable. d. placebo. Answer c % correct 80 a= 14 b= 5 c= 80 d= 1 r = .45 16. A group of students was asked to write an essay in support of the legalization of marijuana. They were paid $.50. Another group of students received $2.00 for the same task. It was subsequently found that those students who received only $.50 developed a more positive attitude towards the legalization of marijuana. The experiment in this study was using (the) __________. a. correlational method b. experimental method c. naturalistic observation d. survey research Answer b % correct 44 a= 47 b= 44 c= 1 d= 8 r = .31 17. A sample that does not truly represent the population in question is known as a _____________sample. a. random b. chance c. biased d. representative Answer c % correct 85 a= 13 b= 1 c= 85 d= 2 r = .36 18. A weakness of ________ is that subjects participating in the research often report, consciously and unconsciously, inaccurate information. a. naturalistic observation b. surveys c. field experiments d. laboratory experiments Answer b % correct 80 a= 2 b= 80 c= 10 d= 8 r = .24

19. To obtain objective information, researchers sometimes must deceive their subjects. Ethically, research involving deception must always _________. a. pay participants b. maintain subject anonymity c. use double-blind control d. explain the deception to the subjects after the data are collected and obtain their informed consent to use the information obtained Answer d % correct 95 a= 0 b= 3 c= 3 d= 95 r = .34 20. As part of an assignment, Bill’s class was asked to complete an anonymous questionnaire on prejudice. Which research method was Bill’s professor using? a. field experiment b. survey c. naturalistic observation d. laboratory experiment Answer b % correct 98 a= 1 b= 98 c= 1 d= 1 r = .24 21. To determine if sugar-rich diets affect hyperactivity in kids, a researcher prepared two daily menus that children would receive for a 30-day period. A high-sugar diet was given to the boys, while the girls had a menu that seemed identical but was not a high sugar diet. At the end of 30 days, the boys and girls were evaluated to determine their levels of hyperactivity. In the study, the high-sugar diet is the ________. a. placebo b. independent variable c. dependent variable d. control group Answer b % correct 65 a= 8 b= 65 c= 13 d= 14 r = .51 22. Using both independent and dependent variables is associated with which of the following types of research used in psychology? a. experimentation b. naturalistic observation c. correlation d. correlation and experimentation Answer a % correct 55 a= 55 b= 1 c= 5 d= 39 r = .23 23. Manipulating an independent variable in a real-life setting is ________. a. an experiment b. an example of naturalistic observation c. a field experiment d. unethical Answer c % correct 65 a= 17 b= 11 c= 65 d= 6 r = .45 24. Almost all research done in psychology is analyzed ________. a. visually b. using correlational techniques c. statistically d. at the .1 level Answer c % correct 51 a= 13 b= 31 c= 51 d= 4 r = .34

25. As part of an assignment, Bill’s class was asked to complete an anonymous questionnaire on sexual discrimination. Which research method was Bill’s professor using? a. field experiment b. survey c. naturalistic observation d. laboratory experiment Answer b % correct 97 a= 2 b= 97 c= 1 d= 0 r = .27 26. Collecting objective data without interference in the subject's normal environment is associated with ________. a. survey research b. applied research c. laboratory research d. naturalistic observation Answer d % correct 95 a= 1 b= 1 c= 2 d= 95 r = .23 27. Experimenter bias can best be controlled using ________. a. a placebo b. double-blind control c. randomization d. subjects who do not know the purpose of the study Answer b % correct 79 a= 2 b= 79 c= 16 d= 4 r = .46 28. A researcher, based on her review of relevant scientific studies, believes that there is a relationship between the frequency of a baby's crying and whether it was nursed at set intervals or on a demand schedule. If this belief were tested by experimentally manipulating feeding schedules, the feeding schedule would be called the: a. independent variable. b. dependent variable. c. extraneous variable. d. control factors. Answer a % correct 76 a= 76 b= 17 c= 1 d= 6 r = .44 29. A researcher, based on her review of relevant scientific studies, believes that there is a relationship between the frequency of a baby’s crying and whether it was nursed at set intervals or on a demand schedule. If this belief were tested by experimentally manipulating feeding schedules, frequency of crying would be called the: a. latent factor. b. dependent variable. c. independent variable. d. control factor. Answer b % correct 64 a= 24 b= 64 c= 24 d= 9 r = .43 30. One of the main reasons for using a laboratory for psychological research is to: a. prevent subjects from escaping. b. study behavior in a natural setting. c. do large-scale studies. d. allow the researchers to control certain factors. Answer d % correct 98 a= 0 b= 0 c= 2 d= 98 r = .33

31. The process of establishing causal relationships is associated most with: a. naturalistic observation. b. experiments. c. correlation. d. surveys. Answer b % correct 33 a= 45 b= 33 c= 14 d= 9 r = .43 32. A researcher tests the hypothesis that students who study in the room where they take their tests will perform better on the tests than students who study in other rooms. She requires one group to study in the classroom where the exam is given and another group to study in the library. All students take the test in the classroom, and their test performance is compared. In this example, where students study is the: a. independent variable. b. dependent variable. c. manipulation. d. hypothesis. Answer a % correct 64 a= 64 b= 22 c= 10 d= 3 r = .27 33. A researcher tests the hypothesis that students who study in the room where they take their tests will perform better on the tests than students who study in other rooms. She requires one group to study in the classroom where the exam is given and another group to study in the library. All students take the test in the classroom, and their test performance is compared. In this example, test performance is: a. the dependent variable. b. the independent variable. c. the manipulation. d. the control group. Answer a % correct 67 a= 67 b= 16 c= 11 d= 7 r = .47 34. In psychological studies, randomization is used to ensure that: a. there will be an independent and dependent variable. b. each person has an equal chance of being assigned to each group. c. the control group does not know the purpose of the study. d. the experimenter won't know who is in each group. Answer b % correct 84 a= 5 b= 84 c= 3 d= 7 r = .33 35. A "fake treatment" is one way to define a ______. a. decoy b. demand characteristic c. control group d. placebo Answer d % correct 81 a= 7 b= 6 c= 6 d= 81

r = .39

36. In an experiment, a researcher manipulates one variable to see how it affects a second variable. The manipulated variable is called the __________. a. dependent variable b. control variable c. independent variable d. hypothetical variable Answer c % correct 83 a= 12 b= 4 c= 83 d= 1 r =.46

37. In an experiment, a researcher manipulates one variable to see how it affects a second variable. The second variable, which is observed for any possible effects, is called the __________. a. dependent variable b. control variable c. independent variable d. hypothetical variable Answer a % correct 87 a= 87 b= 1 c= 10 d= 3 r = .40 38. The method of psychological research which utilizes a control group, a dependent variable, and an independent variable is a. the experiment. b. the survey. c. the case study. d. naturalistic observation. Answer a % correct 93 a= 93 b= 0 c= 4 d= 3 r = .21 39. Professor McSpell designed an experiment to test her hypothesis that exercise will increase spelling ability. She divided children into three groups and had one group do 10 minutes of exercises, one group do 30 minutes of exercises, and the third group do no exercise. She then tested all three groups of children to see how many words they could spell correctly on a spelling test. In this experiment, the scores on the spelling test serve as the a. dependent variable. b. independent variable. c. control group. d. reliability measure. Answer a % correct 85 a= 85 b= 8 c= 0 d= 7 r = .46 40. Which of the following is a strength of experiments? a. They cannot be repeated by anyone other than the experimenter. b. They allow for the establishment of cause-effect relationships. c. They are not subject to demand characteristics since the subjects do not know they are being observed. d. They allow us to draw definitive conclusions about behavior in the natural environment based on subjects' behavior in the laboratory. Answer b % correct 71 a= 0 b= 71 c= 5 d= 23 r = .25 41. In an experiment, the “measurable aspect of the behavior of the subject” is called the __________ variable. a. dependent b. focal c. independent d. control Answer a % correct 76 a= 76 b= 1 c= 20 d= 3 r = .47 42. The purpose of an experiment is to discover whether there is a relationship between the ___________ and the ___________. a. independent variable; control variable b. dependent variable; control variable c. control group; experimental group d. independent variable; dependent variable Answer d % correct 69 a= 4 b= 3 c= 24 d= 69 r = .30

43. Cause-and-effect conclusions can be drawn from the results of an experiment because: a. it is almost always performed in a laboratory setting. b. statistical analysis can be applied to data from an experiment. c. the independent variable is manipulated while other possible causes of change in the dependent variable are held constant. d. several groups of subjects, not just one sample, are typically investigated in a laboratory experiment. Answer c % correct 68 a= 4 b= 15 c= 68 d= 13 r = .28 44. Almost all research done in psychology is analyzed _______. a. visually b. using correlational techniques c. statistically d. at the .01 level Answer c % correct 59 a= 15 b= 23 c= 59 d= 3 r = .27 45. In an experiment on the effects of level of motivation on the performance of typists, the researcher randomly assigned one third of her subjects to each of three levels of motivation (and then induced different levels of motivation in the three groups). She measured the average words typed per minute by each group, and found that performance was highest under medium motivation, average under low motivation, and worst under high motivation. What was the independent variable in this experiment? a. motivation b. typing speed c. variation in typing speed d. manipulation of typing speed Answer a % correct 85 a= 85 b= 10 c= 3 d= 2 r = .40 46. A psychologist wanted to see if people are more prone to seek the company of others when anxious than when calm. He randomly assigned half of his subjects to an anxiety group and then told them that, as part of the study, they would receive electric shocks. He did not frighten the other group of subjects. Finally, he recorded how many subjects in each group chose to be “tested” in a group setting and how many chose to be "tested" alone. What was the independent variable in this study? a. tendency to desire the company of others b. level of shock c. level of anxiety d. the anxious group Answer c % correct 54 a= 15 b= 22 c= 54 d= 9 r = .30 47. In an experiment, four groups of college students used different memorizing strategies to learn the material in one chapter of a textbook. Then each group was given the same multiple-choice test on the material. What was the dependent variable in this study? a. the students’ performance on the test b. the four different groups c. the four different memorizing strategies d. manipulation of memorizing strategies Answer a % correct 79 a= 79 b= 7 c= 9 d= 5 r = .58

48. A psychologist wanted to see if people are more prone to seek the company of others when anxious than when calm. He randomly assigned half of his subjects to an anxiety group and then told them that, as part of the study, they would receive electric shocks. He did not frighten the other group of subjects. Finally, he recorded how many subjects in each group chose to be “tested” in a group setting and how many chose to be “tested” alone. What was the dependent variable in this study? a. the two groups b. the level of anxiety c. preference for being alone or in a group d. manipulation of anxiety Answer c % correct 77 a= 4 b= 10 c= 77 d= 10 r = .64 49. A psychologist wanted to see if people are more prone to seek the company of others when anxious than when calm. He randomly assigned half of his subjects to an anxiety group and then told them that, as part of the study, they would receive electric shocks. He did not frighten the other group of subjects. Finally, he recorded how many subjects in each group chose to be "tested" in a group setting and how many chose to be "tested" alone. In this study, the group that was NOT frightened would be called the ____________ group. a. experimental b. control c. placebo d. test Answer b % correct 90 a= 8 b= 90 c= 2 d= 0 r = .27 50. The purpose of a control group in an experiment is to: a. serve as a check on the interpretation of results. b. increase the ability to generalize the findings. c. manipulate the dependent variable. d. represent the general, nonlaboratory population. Answer a % correct 59 a= 59 b= 5 c= 6 d= 30 r = .28 51. In an experiment, the group of subjects to which the experimental group is compared is called the: a. comparison group. b. standard group. c. confederate group. d. control group. Answer d % correct 97 a= 2 b= 1 c= 0 d= 97 r = .21 52. In an experiment concerning the effect of auditory feedback on accuracy in writing computer programs, one group hears a computer-simulated voice say each character or symbol that they type in as they are writing their programs. The second group does not receive the auditory feedback as they type their program lines. This second group is the ___________ group. a. experimental b. control c. placebo d. confederate Answer b % correct 79 a= 16 b= 79 c= 3 d= 3 r = .25

53. Why is it essential that the experimental and control groups be treated identically in every respect but one? a. so that the dependent variable can be accurately measured b. so that the results will apply outside the laboratory setting. c. so that if the behavior of the two groups differs, the difference can be credited to the one thing that distinguished the groups from one another. d. so that if the behavior of the two groups differs, that difference can be used to establish a functional relationship between the independent and dependent variables. Answer d % correct 40 a= 9 b= 1 c= 50 d= 40 r = .26 54. In an experiment, a researcher manipulates one variable to see how it affects a second variable. The manipulated variable is called the __________. a. dependent variable b. control variable c. independent variable d. hypothetical variable Answer c % correct 77 a= 17 b= 6 c= 77 d= 0 r = .40 55. In an experiment, a researcher manipulates one variable to see how it affects a second variable. The second variable, which is observed for any possible effects, is called the __________. a. dependent variable b. control variable c. independent variable d. hypothetical variable Answer a % correct 83 a= 83 b= 2 c= 14 d= 1 r = .45 56. As part of an assignment, Rick’s class was asked to complete an anonymous questionnaire on female sexual harassment. Which research method was Bill’s professor using? a. field experiment b. survey c. naturalistic observation d. laboratory experiment Answer b % correct 97 a= 1 b= 97 c= 1 d= 0 r = .26 57. Collecting objective data without interference in the subject's normal environment is associated with: a. survey research. b. applied research. c. laboratory research. d. naturalistic observation. Answer d % correct 94 a= 1 b= 2 c= 3 d= 94 r = .25 58. To determine if sugar-rich diets affect hyperactivity in kids, a researcher prepared two daily menus that children would receive for a 30-day period. A high-sugar diet was given to the boys, while the girls had a menu that seemed identical but was not a high sugar diet. At the end of 30 days, the boys and girls were evaluated to determine their levels of hyperactivity. In the study, the high-sugar diet is the _______. a. placebo b. independent variable c. dependent variable d. control group Answer b % correct 82 a= 3 b= 82 c= 9 d= 5 r = .49

59. An experiment was run in which group A was given 3 minutes to study a word list, while group B was given 10 minutes to study the same list. Later, both groups were asked to recall words from the list. In this study, the number of words recalled is the _______. a. independent variable b. dependent variable c. placebo d. control group Answer b % correct 82 a= 10 b= 82 c= 5 d= 3 r = 40. 60. Dr. Welsh is doing experiments using drugs. He is concerned that his subjects will respond to demand characteristics. He may want to control for this by using which of the following? a. stratification b. two independent variables c. a placebo d. randomization Answer c % correct 70 a= 4 b= 5 c= 70 d= 21 r = .33 61. Mr. Marshall hired June to collect data from a group of subjects. Neither June nor the subjects were aware of the independent variable that Mr. Marshall had manipulated. This is an example of _______. a. randomization b. a placebo c. double-blind control d. experimenter bias Answer c % correct 97 a= 2 b= 1 c= 97 d= 1 r = .20 62. Which of the following is NOT a strength of the experiment as a research method? a. Cause-and-effect relationships can be established. b. Experimental conditions usually seem realistic to subjects. c. Experiments can usually be replicated if the findings are valid. d. Variables can be analyzed carefully because of the degree of control over them. Answer b % correct 72 a= 11 b= 72 c= 2 d= 15 r = .23 63. Keeping responses anonymous helps researchers avoid the ethical problem of _______. a. deception b. experimenter bias c. invasion of privacy d. animal rights violations Answer c % correct 70 a= 7 b= 21 c= 70 d= 2 r = .41

Quiz 2.1: The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q2.1.1 Nobel prize winner Daniel Kahneman refers to intuitive thinking as System 1. What type of thinking does Kahneman refer to as System 2? a) analytical b) speculative c) descriptive d) impressionistic ANS: a Topic=The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning Difficulty=Easy Consider This: We engage in this type of thinking whenever we are trying to reason through a problem. LO 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning.

EOM Q2.1.2 The cases of facilitated communication and lobotomies demonstrate that good research design is important because intelligent, well-trained people __________. a) can be swayed into believing that a treatment is effective when it is not b) usually do not conduct experiments c) can be passively cruel in their pursuit of an outcome d) only seek confirmatory evidence of their beliefs ANS: a Topic=The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: These people also relied on intuitive thinking, relying largely on heuristics to infer whether a treatment was effective. LO 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning.

EOM Q2.1.3 A mental shortcut or general “rule of thumb” is referred to as a(n) __________ by psychologists. a) heuristic b) algorithm c) intuition d) deliberation ANS: a Topic=The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: These shortcuts can be useful, but sometimes they can let us down. LO 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning.

EOM Q2.1.4 Jerry is asked to estimate which is more common in the English language: Words that end in “ing” or words that have “-n-“ as the second-to-last letter. He mentally recites many examples of the first category (“running,” “jumping,” “flying,” “talking”) but can only think of a few examples of the second category (“sink,” “nine”). He judges that “ing” endings are more common, which of course is incorrect. (All words that end in “ing” also have “n” as the second-to-last letter; the addition of words that do not have an “”" and a “g” on either side of the “n” makes that second group larger.) After all this hubbub, it is clear that Jerry relied on __________ to reach his conclusion. a) System 1 thinking b) System 2 thinking c) analogical reasoning d) dialectical reasoning ANS: a Topic=The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Jerry did what most of us would do when trying to solve this problem, although the result was incorrect. LO 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning.

EOM Q2.1.5 Analytical thinking is __________ compared to intuitive thinking. a) slow b) immediate c) painful d) heuristic ANS: a Topic=The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Modes of thinking have different strengths and weaknesses. LO 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning.

Quiz 2.2: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Scientific Methodology: A Toolbox of Skills

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q2.2.1 If we want to study people’s actual behavior “in the wild” without them being influenced by the researcher, we can use __________. a) naturalistic observation b) repeated-measures designs c) correlational designs d) experimental designs ANS: a Topic=The Scientific Method: Toolbox of Skills Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: With this technique, we watch behavior take place without intervening. LO 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, selfreport measures, and surveys.

EOM Q2.2.2 Sherri wants to design a self-report measure for her study of personality traits, but she knows she should be concerned that respondents might distort their answers, especially to paint themselves in a positive light. This tendency is known as __________. a) a response set b) the halo effect c) a legitimacy set d) the mediator effect ANS: a Topic=The Scientific Method: Toolbox of Skills Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures. LO 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: On an anonymous survey, would you be completely frank in your evaluation of yourself? LO 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys.

EOM Q2.2.3 The easiest way to determine if two variables are associated with one another is to use a(n) __________ research design. a) correlational b) experimental c) naturalistic d) case study ANS: a Topic=The Scientific Method: Toolbox of Skills Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Different research designs have associated strengths and weaknesses. Which kind of design would be most appropriate to the goals stated here? LO 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation.

EOM Q2.2.4 The only research designs that allow us the possibility of drawing cause-and-effect inferences are __________. a) experimental designs b) correlational designs c) survey methods d) naturalistic designs ANS: a Topic=The Scientific Method: Toolbox of Skills Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This research approach is the “gold standard” for determining causality. LO 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls.

EOM Q2.2.5 The two ingredients that make a research study an experiment are 1) random assignment of participants to conditions, and 2) __________. a) manipulation of an independent variable b) manipulation of a dependent variable c) external validity gained through real-world control d) high inter-rater reliability ANS: a Topic=The Scientific Method: Toolbox of Skills Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control these pitfalls. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Experimentation, by definition, requires these two features to be present at a minimum. LO 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control these pitfalls.

Quiz 2.3: Ethical Issues in Research Design Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Ethical Issues in Research Design

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q2.3.1 The APA Ethical Principles for Human Research state: “A contact [person] who can answer questions about the research and the participant's rights should be provided.” This statement is most relevant in which of the following aspects of ethical research? a) informed consent b) protection from harm and discomfort c) deception and debriefing d) expectation of privacy ANS: a Topic=Ethical Issues in Research Design Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Participants should be given enough information to make a reasonable decision regarding their participation in a research study. LO 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants.

EOM Q2.3.2 The authors accept the philosophical belief that science is __________; that is, neither good nor bad in itself. a) value-neutral b) ethically static c) morally indefensible d) conscience-free ANS: a Topic=Ethical Issues in Research Design Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Scientific research is not considered to be this, as there are both ethical and unethical ways of searching for the truth. LO 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants.

EOM Q2.3.3 What shameful experiment was conducted over the course of 40 years to determine what would happen if syphilis was left to run its course in unsuspecting “subjects” (at a time when a cure for the disease was already available)? a) the Tuskegee study b) the Syphilis study c) the Milgram experiment d) the Vivisection experiment ANS: a Topic=Ethical Issues in Research Design Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The subjects did not know they were part of a research study, as the researchers had never informed them of that fact. LO 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants.

EOM Q2.3.4 Research involving animals can generate strong, often negative, feelings among people. This is especially so when the research involves __________ procedures that cause physical harm to the animals. a) invasive b) exploratory c) generative d) unplanned ANS: a Topic=Ethical Issues in Research Design Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 2.3b Describe both sides of the debate on the use of animals as research subjects Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Researchers must weigh carefully the potential scientific gains of their inquiries against the costs in death and suffering they produce. LO 2.3b Describe both sides of the debate on the use of animals as research subjects.

EOM Q2.3.5 Why do most individuals on both sides of the animal rights debate believe that it is a bad idea for animal activists to release captive laboratory animals? a) Many of the animals die shortly after being released. b) Humans may be bitten or clawed by fleeing animals. c) The animals could spread diseases to the nearby human population. d) Cures for diseases might not be found without these animal subjects. ANS: a Topic=Ethical Issues in Research Design Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 2.3b Describe both sides of the debate on the use of animals as research subjects. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Laboratory animals are typically bred and raised for that purpose. LO 2.3b Describe both sides of the debate on the use of animals as research subjects.

Quiz 2.4: The Language of Psychological Research Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q2.4.1 Which term indicates applying mathematics to describe and analyze data? a) statistics b) information c) research d) science ANS: a Topic=Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Psychologists use two different kinds: descriptive and inferential. LO 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability.

EOM Q2.4.2 The technical term for a score that is much higher or lower than the typical responses, and might produce a misleading interpretation of the data set, is __________. a) an outlier b) a variable c) the range d) a skewer ANS: a Topic=Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Imagine a situation where most people scored 53 on a test, but one person scored a 78 and another scored a 22. LO 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability.

EOM Q2.4.3 Questions such as, “What is the average level of extraversion in this sample?” call for the use of which kind of statistics? a) descriptive b) inferential c) influential d) deterministic ANS: a Topic=Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This term is used for techniques that summarize what is happening in a set of values. LO 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability.

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EOM Q2.4.4 Freda is reading a journal article in psychology, and sees that a statistically significant outcome would have occurred by chance alone only 5 out of 100 times. This statement would be summarized in the journal article as __________. a) p < .05 b) p = 5% c) p > .05 d) p x 5 = 100 ANS: a Topic=Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 2.4b Explain how inferential statistics can help us to determine whether we can generalize from our sample to the full population. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: If a result is likely to have occurred less than 5 times out of 100 by sheer chance alone, scientists usually agree that the result is statistically significant; that is, something noteworthy to be interpreted. LO 2.4b Explain how inferential statistics can help us to determine whether we can generalize from our sample to the full population.

EOM Q2.4.5 Mark Twain referred to three kinds of untruths: “Lies, damned lies, and statistics,” because __________. a) statistics sometimes can be used to mislead people b) inferential statistics are generally wrong c) descriptive statistics are generally wrong d) statisticians are generally unethical ANS: a Topic=Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 2.4c Show how statistics can be misused for purposes of persuasion Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Understanding how basic statistical procedures work is the first step toward being able to counter the unscrupulous use of statistics in the service of advancing a particular point of view. LO 2.4c Show how statistics can be misused for purposes of persuasion.

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Quiz 2.5: Evaluating Psychological Research Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Evaluating Psychological Research

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q2.5.1 Dr. Ingo Larsen is testing the effectiveness of a new memory-enhancing study technique. He greets each participant at the door and escorts them into either the control group (that receives the old memory technique) or the experimental group (that receives the new memory technique). He then conducts the experiment and analyzes the results. This is all quite problematic, because of the potential presence of __________. a) experimenter expectancy effects b) nocebo outcomes c) rival hypotheses d) sharpening and leveling ANS: a Topic=Evaluating Psychological Research Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 2.5a Identify flaws in research designs and how to correct them. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: To control for this effect and minimize confirmation bias, it might be better to keep Dr. Larsen blind to the group assignment when he collects data during the course of the study. LO 2.5a Identify flaws in research designs and how to correct them.

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EOM Q2.5.2 One primary purpose of sending research articles to peer reviewers prior to publication is to __________. a) identify flaws in the research b) give those with opposing views equal time for rebuttal c) give everyone an equal chance to publish her or his research. d) maintain leadership among experts in the field ANS: a Topic=Evaluating Psychological Research Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 2.5a Identify flaws in research designs and how to correct them. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Outside reviewers screen the articles carefully for quality control. LO 2.5a Identify flaws in research designs and how to correct them.

EOM Q2.5.3 One important aspect of a research study that peer reviewers consider is whether the study considers alternate explanations. This is called __________. a) ruling out rival hypotheses b) diminishing internal validity c) generating counterfactuals d) rendering external validity ANS: a Topic=Evaluating Psychological Research Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 2.5a Identify flaws in research designs and how to correct them. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Research should be designed in such a way as to keep most elements constant while varying only the key elements under study. LO 2.5a Identify flaws in research designs and how to correct them.

EOM Q2.5.4 In the popular media (as opposed to scientific journals), research results can be presented in a misleading way because reporters have the tendency to exaggerate the gist or central message of the study. This is called __________. a) sharpening b) oversimplifying c) leveling d) dumbing down ANS: a Topic=Evaluating Psychological Research Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 2.5b Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Secondary sources in the news media need to engage in a certain amount of this when reporting studies, because they cannot possibly describe every detail that took place in a scientific investigation. LO 2.5b Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOM Q2.5.5 Media reports have a tendency to try to present two opposing sides of an issue as though both sides were equally valid. What is this tendency called? a) pseudosymmetry b) balanced reporting c) placebo effect d) leveling ANS: a Topic=Evaluating Psychological Research Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 2.5b Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This is also known as the appearance of a scientific controversy where none exists. LO 2.5b Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media.

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Chapter 2 Quiz: Research Methods Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Chapter Quiz: Research Methods

Multiple Choice Single Select EOC Q2.1 Bruno is asked to estimate which California city occupies a greater area: San Francisco or San Jose. “San Francisco is a big city,” he muses, “whereas San Jose is out in the suburbs. San Francisco must be bigger.” In actuality, San Francisco occupies about 48 square miles, compared to San Jose’s 180 square miles. Bruno was mislead because he relied on __________. a) a heuristic b) an algorithm c) System 2 thinking d) hegemony ANS: a Topic=The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Bruno made a quick judgment based on his intuitions about population and city size. LO 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning.

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EOC Q2.2 Naturalistic observation can be problematic if people realize they are being observed. This is because they might __________. a) change their behavior b) get angry and attack the researcher c) violate the external validity of the study d) report unethical behavior ANS: a Topic=The Scientific Method: Toolbox of Skills Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Naturalistic behavior needs to be natural. LO 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures. EOC Q2.3 Which term refers to the type of descriptive statistic that tells us where the scores tend to cluster in a set of measurements? a) central tendency b) variability c) standard deviation d) measure of range ANS: a Topic=Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: There are three measures of this: mean, median, and mode. LO 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability.

EOC Q2.4 When we perceive a reliable association between two events (although none exists), such as the presence of rainy weather and arthritis flare-ups, we are experiencing the phenomenon called __________. a) statistical anomaly b) invalid assumption c) ethical mirage d) illusory correlation ANS: d Topic=The Scientific Method: Toolbox of Skills Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: For 20 years, Wade Boggs ate chicken before every game, believing this particular habit was correlated with successful performance at bat. 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation.

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EOC Q2.5 Which ethical procedure is being followed when researchers let test subjects know what they are likely to encounter during an experiment before the subjects agree to participate? a) informed consent b) debriefing c) scientific method d) institutional review ANS: a Topic=Ethical Issues in Research Design Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: During this process, participants can ask questions about the study and learn more about what will be involved. LO 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants.

EOC Q2.6 To be sure that we are not fooled by popular media reports about psychology research, we should be on the lookout for __________. a) sharpening and leveling b) dumbing down c) the placebo effect d) deliberate deception ANS: a Topic=Evaluating Psychological Research Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 2.5b Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This often ends up bringing the most important facts of a study into clearer focus, at the expense of pertinent details or caveats in the study. LO 2.5b Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media.

EOC Q2.7 You want to design a study that will be high in internal validity and will allow you to infer causation. Which research design should you use? a) experimental design b) correlational design c) case studies d) naturalistic observation ANS: a Topic=The Scientific Method: Toolbox of Skills Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control these pitfalls. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Researchers manipulate variables to see whether these manipulations produce differences in participants' behavior. LO 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q2.8 A central issue in considering medical and psychological research using animals is balancing the advances gained through such experimentation against __________. a) the costs in death and suffering they produce for the test subjects b) the backlash of animal rights activists c) possibly negative publicity focused on the research center d) the exhorbitant financial costs of animal research ANS: a Topic=Ethical Issues in Research Design Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 2.3b Describe both sides of the debate on the use of animals as research subjects. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Animal researchers are called upon to strike a balance between two basic considerations. LO 2.3b Describe both sides of the debate on the use of animals as research subjects.

EOC Q2.9 The process of soliciting feedback from qualified experts in a research area prior to publishing the results of a research study is called __________. a) peer review b) professional critique c) vetting for publication d) editorial correction ANS: a Topic=Evaluating Psychological Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 2.5a Identify flaws in research designs and how to correct them. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Nearly all psychological journals send submitted articles to outside reviewers, who screen the articles carefully for quality control. LO 2.5a Identify flaws in research designs and how to correct them.

EOC Q2.10 We say that a result has practical significance if it __________. a) makes a difference in the real world b) would occur by chance less than 5 times in 100 c) results from manipulating a single variable d) is not statistically significant ANS: a Topic=Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 2.4b Explain how inferential statistics can help us to determine whether we can generalize from our sample to the full population. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: There are different senses in which a research outcome might be "significant." LO 2.4b Explain how inferential statistics can help us to determine whether we can generalize from our sample to the full population. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q2.11 When a politician makes the statement that the average tax return will be $5,000 for citizens of her state, we should be suspicious of her statistics. It would be more meaningful to report the __________ as a measure of central tendency. a) median or mode b) highest and lowest refunds c) refund of an individual "typical" taxpayer d) average of refunds in all similar states ANS: a Topic=Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 2.4c Show how statistics can be misused for purposes of persuasion. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: There are multiple measures of central tendency for a reason; they reveal different kinds of information and have associated strengths and weaknesses. LO 2.4c Show how statistics can be misused for purposes of persuasion.

EOC Q2.12 Dr. Sardonicus is designing a case study in order to demonstrate that a particular psychological phenomenon actually happens. Case studies can be useful in providing this kind of demonstration, also known as __________. a) existence proof b) peer review c) internal validity d) external validity ANS: a Topic=The Scientific Method: Toolbox of Skills Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Before designing a fancy, complicated research study, a more basic question might be whether a phenomenon occurs at all. LO 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys.

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EOC Q2.13 Which term describes a curved line on a graph that can be bell shaped, negatively skewed, or positively skewed? a) distribution curve b) truncated line graph c) bar graph d) scatterplot ANS: a Topic=Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: The examples listed are all possible shapes that a set of measurements might take when graphed. LO 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability.

EOC Q2.14 The APA Ethical Principles for Human Research indicate that psychologists must take reasonable steps to __________. a) avoid harming participants b) ensure accurate data collection c) use human subjects instead of animals whenever possible d) use deceptive techniques ANS: a Topic=What is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Psychological researchers must carefully attend to several principles when designing and conducting research. LO 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants.

EOC Q2.15 The story of how facilitated communication was debunked is a powerful illustration of the triumph of science over __________. a) pseudoscience b) autism c) child abuse d) affliction ANS: a Topic=The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Properly designed scientific studies have been able to show when treatments work and when they do not. LO 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning.

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EOC Q2.16 You are reading an article in a psychology journal that has an accompanying, two-dimensional graph with dots representing data from individual people. This is called a __________. a) scatterplot b) scattershot c) data rendering d) point system ANS: a Topic=The Scientific Method: Toolbox of Skills Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Examining this type of graph can reveal patterns in the data, especially regarding how variables are related to one another. LO 2.2b Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation.

EOC Q2.17 When evaluating a story about psychology research, we should generally place more confidence in a reputable science journal than a popular magazine. Which phrase encapsulates that idea? a) Consider the source. b) There are two sides to every story. c) Every cloud has a silver lining. d) You get what you pay for. ANS: a Topic=Evaluating Psychological Research Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 2.5b Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: We should place more trust in findings from primary sources, such as original journal articles, than from secondary sources, such as newspapers, magazines, or websites. LO 2.5b Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media.

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EOC Q2.18 Because carefully controlled studies generate more trustworthy results, the high internal validity of these studies can lead to __________. a) high external validity b) correlation of causation c) further studies d) lack of falsifiability ANS: a Topic=The Scientific Method: Toolbox of Skills Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Recall the distinction between internal and external validity. LO 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls.

EOC Q2.19 The two kinds of statistics used by psychologists are descriptive statistics and __________ statistics. a) inferential b) variable c) ethical d) distributed ANS: a Topic=Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 2.4b Explain how inferential statistics can help us to determine whether we can generalize from our sample to the full population. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: These two types serve different functions; together, they help researchers fully understand what is going on in a set of measurements. LO 2.4b Explain how inferential statistics can help us to determine whether we can generalize from our sample to the full population.

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EOC Q2.20 Which group at every major American research college and university reviews all research carefully to protect participants against abuses? a) institutional review board b) institutional research bureau c) investigative review bureau d) investigative research board ANS: a Topic=Ethical Issues in Research Design Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: IRBs typically consist of faculty members drawn from various departments within a college or university, as well as one or more outside members, such as a person drawn from the nearby community. LO 2.3a Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants.

EOC Q2.21 The type of thinking that allows us to operate on "autopilot" and make snap decisions is called __________. a) intuitive b) analogical c) analytical d) System 2 ANS: a Topic=The Beauty and Necessity of Good Research Design Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: We engage in this type of thinking when we meet someone new and form an immediate first impression of him or her. LO 2.1a Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning.

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EOC Q2.22 Questionnaires fall into which category of measurement tools? a) self-report measures b) test-retest measures c) interrater reliability measures d) validity measures ANS: a Topic=The Scientific Method: Toolbox of Skills Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: If we want to find out about someone’s personality and attitudes, a good place to start is to ask them directly. LO 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys.

EOC Q2.23 Megan wanted to get a measure of the amount of variability in her set of data, so she subtracted the lowest score from the highest score. Megan computed the __________. a) range b) standard of deviation c) inferential d) integral ANS: a Topic=Statistics: The Language of Psychological Research Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Although this is the easiest measure of variability to calculate, it can be deceptive. LO 2.4a Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability.

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EOC Q2.24 In a study in which college students are pampered (given endless amounts of money, cable TV, and spicy Chinese food) to see whether this will improve their scores in their psychology course, what is the independent variable? a) whether students were pampered or not b) students' scores on the next psychology midterm c) students' scores on the next midterm minus the baseline score d) students' previous scores (or baseline) on psychology midterms ANS: a Topic=What Is Psychology? Science Versus Intuition Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Think about why the independent variable is called that. LO 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls.

EOC Q2.25 If subjects’ scores on a self-esteem scale are consistent over time, the scale has high __________ reliability. a) test-retest b) interrater c) interlocutor d) Meehl-determinant ANS: a Topic=Scientific Method: Toolbox of Skills Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 2.2c Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control these pitfalls. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The focus here is on stability over an extended period. LO 2.2a Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys.

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Chapter 3: Biological Psychology Total Assessment Guide

Topic Quick Quiz 1

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice

3–4, 6, 8–9

2, 10

1, 5, 7

Quick Quiz 2

Multiple Choice

1, 9

2, 5–6

3–4, 7–8, 10

Introduction and Learning Objective 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Learning Objective 3.1b Describe electrical responses of neurons and what makes them possible. Learning Objective 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Learning Objective 3.1d Describe how the brain changes as a result of development, learning, and injury. Learning Objective 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior.

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

2–7, 9–19 2

1 1

20–23, 25 4

24, 26 3

27–28

32, 34–38, 42 5

29–30, 39, 41

31, 33, 40

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

45–47 6–8

44, 48

Multiple Choice

49–51, 57, 59, 64, 66–71,77–79, 84– 86, 89–90 9, 11–14 1

61–62, 75–76, 80, 91 16

52–56, 58, 60, 63, 65, 72–74, 81–83, 87–88, 92–94 10, 15

95, 97–98, 101 17–19

100, 104

96, 99, 102–103

Learning Objective 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Learning Objective 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior.

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice

Learning Objective 3.4a Identify different brainstimulating, recording, and Fill-in-the-Blank Essay imaging techniques.

105–106, 108, 110 20

107, 109, 111

113–115, 117, 119, 121, 124–126 22

127

112, 116, 118, 120, 122–123 23

Critical Thinking

Topic Learning Objective 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Learning Objective 3.5a Describe genes and how they influence psychological traits. Learning Objective 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it.

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

128–129, 131–133, 135, 138

130, 136, 140

134, 137, 139 24

4 141–143, 145–147 25

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

144

148–150, 153

151–152 5

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 3 Quick Quiz 1 1. Your teacher asks you to describe the sequence of parts of a neuron that the impulse travels during neural conduction. Which of the following sequences will you offer? A) dendrites, axon, soma, synaptic knob B) terminal buttons, axon, soma dendrite C) axon, soma, dendrites, synaptic knob D) dendrites, soma, axon, axon terminal 2. During an action potential, the electrical charge inside the neuron is __________ the electrical charge outside the neuron. A) positive compared to B) larger than C) negative compared to D) smaller than 3. __________ play(s) a critical role as a neurotransmitter that stimulates muscle contraction as well as cortical arousal. A) acetylcholine B) GABA C) dopamine D) endorphins 4. Within neurons, the term potentiation refers to __________. A) synapses that show stronger and prolonged excitatory responses B) structural changes in the neuron C) neural plasticity D) maturational development 5. Marta was in an automobile accident and suffered an injury to her brain, resulting in paralysis of her left arm. What part of Marta’s brain was injured? A) auditory association area B) motor cortex C) somatosensory cortex D) Broca’s area 6. The flight-or-fight response is mobilized by the __________ nervous system. A) central B) somatic C) sympathetic D) parasympathetic 7. Ali is in the hospital about to undergo a brain-imaging process that involves taking many X-rays from different angles. What type of imaging technique is being used? A) electroencephalography (EEG) B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) C) positron-emission tomography (PET) D) computed tomography (CT) 8. Which of the following statements is true? A) Many parts of the brain appear to have no useful function in today’s world. B) Losses of small areas of certain parts of the brain rarely cause devastating, often permanent, losses of function. C) All the brain areas become active on brain scans at one time or another as we think, feel, and perceive. D) Every part of the brain has a redundant backup, which is why brain injuries are so rarely serious. 9. __________ are slender threads inside of a cell’s nucleus that carry genes. A) chromosomes B) ribosomes C) golgisomes D) DNA strands

10. If the heritability of a particular trait is found to be 60 percent, then by definition the other 40 percent is due to __________. A) random chance that impacts every organism B) prenatal environmental influences, such as toxins or viruses C) the effects of gene mutation D) differences in the individual’s environment

Chapter 3 Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1. D

Explanation: This answer describes the correct sequence. (Nerve Cells: Communication Portals, Applied, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 3.1a)

2. A

Explanation: During the action potential, there are more positively charged ions inside the cell than outside. (Nerve Cells: Communication Portals, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 3.1b)

3. A

Explanation: Acetylcholine is an excitatory neurotransmitter that stimulates muscles to contract. (Nerve Cells: Communication Portals, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 3.1c)

4. A

Explanation: As we develop the synaptic activity between neurons, the response becomes greater and more complex. (Nerve Cells: Communication Portals, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 3.1d)

5. B

Explanation: Each part of the motor cortex controls a specific part of the body. (The Brain– Behavior Network, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 3.2a)

6. C

Explanation: While the sympathetic nervous system is called “fight or flight,” the parasympathetic nervous system is sometimes called “rest and digest.” (The Brain–Behavior Network, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 3.2b)

7. D

Explanation: CT scanners can take multiple X-rays of the brain. (Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 3.4a)

8. C

Explanation: The myth that we only use 10 percent of our brains has not been substantiated by neuroimaging research. (Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 3.4b)

9. A

Explanation: A normal developing human being has 46 chromosomes, 23 from each parent. (Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It?, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 3.5a)

10. D

Explanation: Heritability and environmental differences together make up all of a given trait’s origin. (Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It?, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 3.5b)

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 3 Quick Quiz 2 1. A cell in the human nervous system whose primary function is to help form myelin and the blood-brain barrier, respond to injury, remove debris, and enhance learning and memory is called a(n) __________ cell. A) epidermal B) adipose C) glial D) polypeptide-Y 2. When a neuron fires, it fires in a(n) __________ fashion, as there is no such thing as “partial” firing. A) all-or-none B) rapid fire C) accidental patterned D) quick succession 3. Andy has decided to seek medical help for mood disturbances and sleep problems. Which neurotransmitter is most likely involved in the problems Andy is experiencing? A) GABA B) dopamine C) serotonin D) acetylcholine 4. Jack suffered a brain injury as a result of hitting his head while waterskiing. One of the problems that developed was that Jack could not pronounce certain words correctly for a long period of time until he had extensive speech therapy and can now speak as he did before his accident. This is an example of the brain’s __________, which allowed the structure and function of his brain cells to change to adjust to the trauma. A) adaptology B) stagnation C) plasticity D) reflex arc 5. According to __________ theory, memories are initially stored at multiple sites. Over time, storage strengthens at some sites, but weakens at others. A) memory transfer B) multiple trace C) memory consolidation D) neural realignment 6. The __________ gland is sometimes called the emergency center of the body. A) pineal B) pituitary C) thyroid D) adrenal 7. Hideki has had difficulty sleeping. His doctor wishes to examine his sleep patterns to determine the cause of his sleep problems. The doctor will most likely perform a(n) __________. A) EEG B) CT scan C) PET scan D) MRI. 8. If Darren’s brain is like that of most people, then fine-tuned language skills will be handled by his __________. A) corpus callosum B) occipital lobe C) right cerebral hemisphere D) left cerebral hemisphere 9. People’s genetic makeup is their __________. A) genotype. C) mRNA

B) phenotype D) genome

10. Kayla and Layla are twins who were separated at birth. A researcher interested in studying heredity tracks them down and speaks to their different families about the benefits that can be achieved by studying the two young girls. The girls and their different sets of parents agree to participate, and studies begin assessing various areas of the girls’ lives. In order for this type of twin study to be most effective, what kind of twins should Kayla and Layla be? A) conjoined B) monozygotic C) amorphous D) dizygotic

Chapter 3 Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1. C

Explanation: These are the functions of glial cells. (Nerve Cells: Communication Portals, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 3.1a)

2. A

Explanation: This is the term used to describe how neurons fire according to the textbook. (Nerve Cells: Communication Portals, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 3.1b)

3. C

Explanation: Serotonin is associated with mood and appetite. (Nerve Cells: Communication Portals, Applied, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 3.1c)

4. C

Explanation: This allowed Jack’s brain to adapt after the trauma. (Nerve Cells: Communication Portals, Applied, APA LO 1.d, TEXT LO 3.1d)

5. B

Explanation: The memory trace theory is also the basis for the decay theory of forgetting. (The Brain–Behavior Network, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 3.2a)

6. D

Explanation: This gland produces adrenaline and cortisol, which are essential in helping us respond to emergency or crisis situations. (The Endocrine System, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 3.3a)

7. A

Explanation: EEGs allow a doctor to examine the pattern of sleep stages by giving a graphical representation of the patient’s brain activity during sleep. (Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 3.4a)

8. D

Explanation: For most people, the left hemisphere controls language (Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 3.4b)

9. A

Explanation: Your genetic blueprint is your genotype. The physical expression of that blueprint is your phenotype. (Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It?, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 3.5a)

10. B

Explanation: Monozygotic, or identical, twins are of the best value to a twin study in the area of heritability. (Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It?, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 3.5b)

Chapter 3: Biological Psychology Test Bank Multiple Choice 1. When people experience intense emotions like fear, anger, or excitement, their hearts tend to speed up and pound. It would be easy to conclude that the heart is what is causing these emotions, but this would be incorrect. This lack of consistency between an apparent relationship between two events and the true course of events demonstrates which of the six principles of scientific thinking? A) falsifiability Incorrect. It is true that we’re interested in knowing what are false and what are accurate conclusions, but this is not the best answer to this question. B) Occam’s Razor C) correlation vs. causation Correct. This is a classic example of making the mistake of believing that just because two events occur together that one is causing the other. In this case, both events are caused by activities in the brain. D) replicability Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 2. The functioning of the human brain depends upon cross-talk among __________. A) glial cells B) neurons C) nodes of Ranvier D) reuptake vesicles Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 3. There are approximately __________ neurons in your brain alone. A) 85 million B) 850 million C) 85 billion D) 85 trillion Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals

4. The __________ is the central region of the neuron that manufactures new cell components, which consist of both small and large molecules. A) neuronal membrane B) dendrite C) axon D) cell body Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 5. In a neuron, proteins are manufactured in the nucleus of the __________. A) axon B) cell body C) dendrite D) membrane Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 6. The branchlike structures that receive messages from other neurons are called __________. A) axons B) nerve bundles C) dendrites D) synapses Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals % correct 58 a = 21 b = 5 c = 58 d = 16 r = .60 7. Which part of a neuron is a long, very thin, tail-like extension that carries messages out to other cells? A) soma B) axon C) dendrite D) cell membrane Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals

8. Your teacher asks you to describe the sequence of parts of a neuron that the impulse travels during neural conduction. Which of the following sequences will you offer? A) dendrites, axon, soma, synaptic knob B) terminal buttons, axon, soma dendrite C) axon, soma, dendrites, synaptic knob Incorrect. The neural impulse begins with the receipt of messages from the dendrites. D) dendrites, soma, axon, axon terminal Correct. This answer describes the correct sequence. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals % correct 44 a = 22 b = 25 c = 9 d = 44 r = .22 % correct 75 a = 19 b = 6 c = 0 d = 75 r = .59 9. The spherical sacs inside the axon terminals containing neurotransmitters are called __________. A) axon terminals B) synapses C) synaptic vesicles D) receptor sites Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 10. Neurotransmitters are found in the __________. A) mitochondria B) cell body C) synaptic vesicles D) dendritic spines Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals % correct 32 a = 8 b = 41 c = 32 d = 19 r = .66

11. The knoblike structures at the far end of the axon are called __________. A) axon terminals B) synaptic vesicles C) synapses D) receptor sites Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals % correct 47 a = 47 b = 21 c = 16 d = 16 r = .19 12. A __________ is a fluid-filled space between two neurons through which neurotransmitters travel. It is in this area where messages are transmitted chemically. A) terminal button B) synapse C) neuronal membrane D) synaptic vesicle Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 13. The gap into which neurotransmitters are released from synaptic vesicles is called a(n) ________. A) terminal button B) synaptic cleft Correct. The synaptic cleft is a smaller part of the larger synapse. C) presynaptic receptor D) axon terminal Incorrect. This is the knoblike end of the tail-like axon. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 14. The fluid-filled space between the axon terminal of one cell and the dendrites of the next cell is called the __________. A) receptor site B) synapse C) dendrite knob D) axon terminal Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

15. The two types of glial cells are called __________ and __________. A) occipital cells; lobitical cells B) astrocytes; oligodendrocytes C) occipitals; Schwann cells D) oligodendrocytes; lobitical cells Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 16. A cell in the human nervous system whose primary function is to help form myelin and the blood-brain barrier, respond to injury, remove debris, and enhance learning and memory is called a(n) __________ cell. A) epidermal B) adipose C) glial D) polypeptide-Y Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 17. What are two primary roles of glial cells? A) forming myelin and forming the blood-brain barrier B) shaping cells and moving new neurons into place C) regulating metabolic activity and serving as pain detectors D) monitoring neural transmission and releasing hormones in the brain Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 18. What is the function of the myelin sheath? A) to serve as a structure for neurons B) to monitor neural activity C) to speed up the neural transmission D) to produce neurotransmitters Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals % correct 74 a = 5 b = 5 c = 74 d = 16 r = .76

19. The _________ speeds up the passage of electrical messages by acting as an insulator of the neuronal signal. A) blood-brain barrier Incorrect. The blood-brain barrier is similar to the myelin sheath in that they are both contributed to by glial cells, but this barrier does not insulate neuronal signals. B) terminal button C) myelin sheath Correct. The myelin sheath helps electrical signals travel more efficiently. D) synaptic vesicles Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals % correct 73 a = 11 b = 3 c = 73 d = 13 r = .49 20. What do we call the state of a neuron when there are no neurotransmitters acting on it? A) action potential B) resting potential C) myelination countersignal D) transmission dormancy Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1b Describe electrical responses of neurons and what makes them possible. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 21. The state during which a neuron contains more negatively charged ions inside the cell than outside the cell and is not firing is referred to as the __________ potential. A) action B) quiet C) synaptic D) resting Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1b Describe electrical responses of neurons and what makes them possible. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals % correct 78 a = 10 b = 6 c = 6 d = 78 r = .54

22. The voltage of –60 millivolts is known as the neuron’s __________ potential. A) postsynaptic B) resting C) action D) graded Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1b Describe electrical responses of neurons and what makes them possible. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 23. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Action potentials can occur in a rapid-fire sort of process, with no break between them. B) Action potentials either fire completely or they do not fire at all. C) Action potentials travel from the axon terminal to the dendrite. D) Action potentials will jump from node to node only on demyelinated axons. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1b Describe electrical responses of neurons and what makes them possible. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 24. When a neuron fires, it fires in a(n) __________ fashion, as there is no such thing as “partial” firing. A) all-or-none Correct. This is the term used to describe how neurons fire, according to the book. B) rapid fire C) accidental patterned D) quick succession Incorrect. This is not the term referred to by the book. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1b Describe electrical responses of neurons and what makes them possible. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals % correct 66 a = 66 b = 34 c = 0 d = 0 r = .23 25. “All or none” is the principle stating that __________. A) a neuron either fires or does not fire B) a neuron either releases all of its neurotransmitters or it releases none at all C) all the dendrites must be receiving messages telling the neuron to fire or it will not fire at all D) all somas must be receiving messages telling the neuron to fire or it will not fire at all Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1b Describe electrical responses of neurons and what makes them possible. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals

26. During an action potential, the electrical charge inside the neuron is __________ the electrical charge outside the neuron. A) positive compared to Correct. During the action potential, there are more positively charged ions inside the cell than outside. B) larger than C) negative compared to Incorrect. During the resting potential, the inside is more negatively charged than the outside of the cell. D) smaller than Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1b Describe electrical responses of neurons and what makes them possible. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 27. Owantu let out an ear-piercing scream when he became frightened. He was unable to stimulate those neurons for a brief time after their firing because of the __________. A) regenerative timeout Incorrect. There is no such term as a “regenerative timeout” in the process of neural communication. B) potential gradation C) absolute refractory period Correct. During the absolute refractory period, a neuron is incapable of generating another action potential. D) relative refractory period Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1b Describe electrical responses of neurons and what makes them possible. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 28. Gunther is becoming frustrated with the television in his hotel room. He wants to scan through the channels very rapidly, but each time he switches the channel he has to wait a full two seconds before he can change it again. During that brief delay, it is impossible to change the channel. This is similar to how the __________ works in neural communication. A) regenerative timeout Incorrect. There is no such term as “regenerative timeout” in the process of neural communication. B) potential gradation C) absolute refractory period Correct. During the absolute refractory period, a neuron is incapable of generating another action potential. D) relative refractory period Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1b Describe electrical responses of neurons and what makes them possible. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals

29. Which structure is like a locked door that only certain neurotransmitter keys can unlock? A) synapses Incorrect. Synapses are microscopic fluid-filled spaces between neurons. B) receptor sites Correct. Only certain neurotransmitters can fit into each receptor site, so the analogy of a lock and key is appropriate. C) neural chiasms D) response terminals Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 30. Which of the following is TRUE about neurotransmitters? A) Neurotransmitters can bind to any receptor site. B) Neurotransmitters bind to receptor sites that are specific to that type of neurotransmitter. Correct. As your textbook chapter notes, the relationship between a neurotransmitter and its associated receptor site is much like a lock-and-key mechanism. C) Neurotransmitters are responsible for communication within one neuron. Incorrect. Neurotransmitters are responsible for communication between two neurons. D) Neurotransmission may be enhanced by reuptake of the neurotransmitter back into the axon terminal. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals % correct 56 a = 12 b = 56 c = 16 d = 16 r = .40 31. Isabella is putting mustard on her hot dog. She realizes she has put too much and sucks up some of it back into the squeeze bottle. This process is similar to __________. A) the action potential Incorrect. The action potential refers to the neural impulse that travels from the cell body of one neuron to its axon terminals. B) receptor site bindings C) binding specificity D) reuptake Correct. Reuptake is the process by which neurotransmitters are reabsorbed into the synaptic vesicles from which they were just released. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals

32. Which neurotransmitter is associated with sleep cycles, mood and temperature regulation, and aggression? A) GABA B) Serotonin C) Dopamine D) Acetylcholine Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 33. Andy has decided to seek medical help for mood disturbances and sleep problems. Which neurotransmitter is most likely involved in the problems Andy is experiencing? A) GABA Incorrect. GABA is involved in sleep and inhibits movement, but is not associated with mood or appetite. B) Dopamine C) Serotonin Correct. Serotonin is associated with mood and appetite. D) Acetylcholine Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 34. The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the nervous system, which plays a role in the relay of sensory information and learning, is A) glutamate. B) gamma-aminobutyric acid. C) acetylcholine. D) serotonin. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 35. The main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the nervous system is __________. A) glutamate. B) gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA). C) acetylcholine. D) serotonin. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

36. Both the consumption of alcohol and the ingestion of antianxiety drugs work to increase the activity of __________, which is an inhibitory neurotransmitter. A) GABA B) serotonin C) acetylcholine D) dopamine Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 37. __________ play(s) a critical role as a neurotransmitter that stimulates muscle contraction as well as cortical arousal. A) Acetylcholine B) GABA C) Dopamine D) Endorphins Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 38. Endorphins are __________. A) found where neurons meet skeletal muscles B) less powerful than enkaphalins C) pain-reducing neurotransmitters D) radically different in function from neurotransmitters Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 39. Because they have similar chemical structures, morphine and other opiates are able to lock into receptor sites for __________. A) GABA B) serotonin C) dopamine D) endorphins Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals

40. Mobombi had completed about a quarter of the distance in the marathon in which he was a participant. Suddenly, he stumbled and fell. Despite feeling a sharp pain initially, he got up and continued to run until he completed the race. Upon crossing the finish line, he fell down writhing in pain. When checked out, it was discovered that Mobombi had broken his leg. He was able to run the remainder of the marathon relatively pain free due to the release of __________. A) neuropeptides B) amino acids C) monoamines Incorrect. The monoamine neurotransmitters are identified in your textbook chapter as dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Endorphins, the correct answer to this question, is not a monoamine. D) endorphins Correct. Endorphins are neurotransmitters that reduce pain and produce euphoria experiences. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 41. Tranquilizers like Xanax work to diminish anxiety symptoms by stimulating the receptor sites for __________, thereby driving down neuronal activity at those sites. A) glutamate B) serotonin C) acetylcholine D) GABA Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 42. Drugs that decrease a neuron’s receptor site activity are called __________. A) agonists B) antagonists C) excitatory D) reuptake blockers Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals

43. Jack suffered a brain injury as a result of hitting his head while waterskiing. Afterward, Jack could not pronounce certain words correctly for a long period of time until he had extensive speech therapy. Now Jack can speak as he did before his accident. This is an example of the brain’s __________, which allowed the structure and function of Jack’s brain cells to change to adjust to the trauma. A) adaptology B) stagnation C) plasticity Correct. This allowed Jack’s brain to adapt after the trauma. D) reflex arc Incorrect. Plasticity accounts for Jack’s brain to allow him to speak correctly despite damage. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.1d Describe how the brain changes as a result of development, learning, and injury. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 44. One theory of autism spectrum disorder suggests that inadequate __________ may be the cause of the disorder. A) synaptogenesis B) dendrite and axon growth C) pruning Correct. The fact that those with this disorder have unusually large brains suggests that unneeded, excess neurons may not be appropriately removed (pruned) in these individuals. D) myelination Incorrect. There is nothing in the textbook chapter that speculates about the existence of a relationship between myelination rates and infantile autism. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.1d Describe how the brain changes as a result of development, learning, and injury. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 45. Within neurons, the term potentiation refers to __________. A) synapses that show stronger and prolonged excitatory responses B) structural changes in the neuron C) neural plasticity D) maturational development Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1d Describe how the brain changes as a result of development, learning, and injury. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals

46. __________ is the creation of new neurons in the adult brain. A) Neurogenesis B) Neural plasticity C) Long-term potentiation D) Synaptogenesis Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1d Describe how the brain changes as a result of development, learning, and injury. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 47. A cell, often originating in an embryo, that has the capacity to differentiate into a more specialized cell is called a(n) __________ cell. A) adipose Incorrect. An adipose cell is a type of fat cell in the body. B) stem Correct. Stem cells can, in some cases, transform into any other kind of human cell. C) functional D) transmorphic Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1d Describe how the brain changes as a result of development, learning, and injury. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 48. Which of the following is the primary ethical conundrum that surrounds the use of embryonic stem cells as a therapeutic tool for various medical conditions? A) whether or not insurance companies will pay for this sort of treatment B) the extent to which people would be willing to accept stem cells for their own illnesses C) whether or not stem cells come from an early form of human life Correct. Although stem cells can form in as little as five days, some argue that even that early they represent life and should not simply be used as a tool to fix another human being’s condition. D) the issue of whether the use of stem cells will fundamentally alter the recipient's genetic code Incorrect. This is not an issue that has been raised with regard to the use of embryonic stem cells. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 3.1 TEXT LO: 3.1d Describe how the brain changes as a result of development, learning, and injury. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals

49. The two main divisions of the nervous system are the __________ and __________. A) brain; spinal cord B) autonomic; somatic nervous systems C) peripheral nervous system; central nervous system D) glands; muscles Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network % correct 88 a = 9 b = 3 c = 88 d = 0 r = .27 50. The __________ nervous system is composed of the brain and the spinal cord. A) central B) autonomic C) peripheral D) somatic Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 51. The corpus callosum __________. A) facilitates communication between the two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex B) is made of fibrous muscle that holds the hemispheres together C) causes a vegetative state when severed accidentally D) is the boundary between the brainstem and the reticular activating system Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 52. Marta was in an automobile accident and suffered an injury to her brain resulting in paralysis of her left arm. What part of Marta’s brain was injured? A) auditory association area B) motor cortex Correct. Each part of the motor cortex controls a specific part of the body. C) somatosensory cortex D) Broca’s area Incorrect. This area plays a key role in language production. It is not involved in movement control. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network

53. Bill was admitted to the hospital last week after he fell. When Bill’s son visited, he found his father was unable to get words out in a smooth, connected fashion. If Bill’s difficulty speaking is due to brain damage, what is the likely location of the damage? A) Broca’s area Correct. Broca’s area is devoted to the production of fluent speech. B) Gall’s area C) Wernicke’s area Incorrect. Wernicke’s area is devoted to the comprehension of meaningful language. D) Korsakoff’s area Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network % correct 84 a = 84 b = 0 c = 16 d = 0 r = .38 54. After suffering a brain injury by falling from a ladder, Zack’s wife continues to tell the doctor that his personality has changed. He used to be fun loving and carefree, but he is now more critical and yells at his children for seemingly little reason. Zack is likely to have suffered damage to the __________ lobe of his cortex. A) occipital Incorrect. If his vision were affected, this would be accurate. B) parietal C) temporal D) frontal Correct. The frontal lobes contain the prefrontal cortices, which are connected to personality, mood, and self-awareness, among other functions. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network % correct 68 a = 0 b = 6 c = 26 d = 68 r = .30 55. Phineas Gage had a tamping iron propelled through his head. Both left and right sides of the prefrontal cortex were severely damaged. As a result of the accident, Phineas Gage __________. A) died from his injuries B) suffered loss of his arms and legs C) lost his sense of hearing Incorrect. The use of his auditory system was not affected. D) suffered a change in personality Correct. The case of Gage gave great insights into the way in which the frontal lobes are in control of many aspects of our personalities. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network % correct 87 a = 0 b = 8 c = 5 d = 87 r = .37

56. Ito was driving through a rough part of town late at night when a stray bullet hit the front side of his head. Both the left and right sides of his prefrontal cortex were severely damaged. As a result of the accident, Ito most likely __________. A) died from his injuries B) suffered loss of his arms and legs C) lost his sense of hearing Incorrect. The use of his auditory system would not have been affected by these particular brain injuries. D) suffered a change in personality Correct. These parts of the frontal lobes of the cerebral cortex are in control of many aspects of our personalities. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 57. Which of the following lobes of the cerebral cortex contains the primary sensory cortex? A) occipital B) frontal C) temporal D) parietal Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 58. Darla was in an automobile accident that resulted in an injury to her brain. Her sense of touch has been affected. Which part of the brain is the most likely site of the damage? A) frontal lobe B) temporal lobe Incorrect. The temporal lobes are responsible for the sense of hearing and meaningful speech, not touch. C) occipital lobe D) parietal lobes Correct. The parietal lobes contain the centers for touch, including pressure and pain, and temperature. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network

59. Of the following functions, which is NOT controlled by the temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex? A) storing memories of our past B) hearing C) processing visual images D) understanding language Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 60. Mary suffered a head injury in a car accident last week. Since that time she is able to speak fluently but has difficulty understanding what is being said to her. Mary may be exhibiting problems associated with __________ area. A) Broca’s Incorrect. Someone with problems in Broca’s area has difficulty in generating speech. B) Gall’s C) Wernicke’s Correct. Someone with damage to Wernicke’s area has difficulty with comprehension of meaningful speech. D) Korsakoff’s Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 61. Some research has shown that stimulating parts of the temporal lobe can produce vivid autobiographical memories. Others have suggested that these are not true memories, but rather are more like altered perceptions that do not reflect real past experiences. To date, the true answer has not yet been solidified. This uncertainty in research findings demonstrates which of the six principles of scientific thinking? A) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. In this case, the true answer may come from disproving alternate answers. To date, however, this has not been accomplished. B) correlation vs. causation C) extraordinary claims D) falsifiability Incorrect. The true answer has not yet been concluded because none of the research findings have been truly found to be incorrect, or false. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network

62. While it is well understood in neuroscience research that a deficit of dopamine activity contributes to the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, other research has found that damage to the basal ganglia is also a contributor to this very serious illness. The fact that there is more than one explanation for the condition demonstrates the critical thinking concept of ___________. A) correlation versus causation B) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. While a very simple (parsimonious) explanation for Parkinson’s disease would find only one cause, it turns out that it is a multifaceted illness. C) falsifiability D) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. Sometimes hypotheses are completely discredited by research, and in other cases they are found to be only one of many possible explanations for a phenomenon. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 63. After a head injury, a person reports that she is unable to see, although her eyes are uninjured. A doctor would suspect an injury in the __________ lobe. A) occipital Correct. The occipital lobe contains the brain’s visual cortex. B) parietal Incorrect. The parietal lobes contain the primary sensory cortex, not the visual centers. C) temporal D) frontal Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network % correct 89 a = 89 b = 0 c = 6 d = 6 r = .64 64. Which of the following is the section of the brain located at the rear of each cerebral hemisphere and contains the visual centers of the brain? A) occipital lobe B) frontal lobe C) temporal lobe D) parietal lobe Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network

65. John has decided to start to learn how to wrestle. On his first day at practice, a seasoned wrestler slams the back of his head to the mat. John was shaken and reported to the trainer that he “saw stars” after he hit his head. As a result of “seeing stars,” John’s __________ was temporarily affected as a result of the slam. A) corpus callosum B) occipital lobe Correct. This part of the brain is in the back of the head and controls vision. C) parietal lobe Incorrect. This is not correct, as the visual cortices are located in the occipital lobes. D) somatosensory cortex Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 66. Structures buried deep inside the cortex that help to control movement are called the __________. A) basal ganglia B) putamen C) meninges D) cerebral ventricles Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 67. The part of the brain dedicated to emotion is the __________. A) endocrine system B) limbic system C) reticular activating system D) lymphatic system Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network % correct 73 a = 14 b = 73 c = 5 d = 8 r = .59

68. Which of the following is a group of several interconnected brain structures involved in emotion, memory, smell, and motivation? A) the limbic system B) the cerebellum C) the cerebral cortex D) the neocortex Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 69. What part of the brain acts as a relay station for incoming sensory information? A) hypothalamus B) thalamus C) pituitary gland D) endocrine system Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network % correct 79 a = 10 b = 79 c = 11 d = 0 r = .71 70. Eating, drinking, sexual motivation, and body temperature control are most strongly influenced by the __________. A) hippocampus B) thalamus C) hypothalamus D) amygdala Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network % correct 47 a = 5 b = 11 c = 47 d = 37 r = .26 71. The __________ regulates and maintains constant internal bodily states. A) thalamus B) hypothalamus C) amygdala D) hippocampus Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network

72. Stan has been extremely afraid of cats since he was scratched as a 5-year-old. Whenever he sees a cat, he remembers the time he was scratched across his face and starts to feel afraid. If a cat comes towards him, he often runs away immediately, as he is afraid of being scratched again. Stan’s behaviors and recollection of this trauma are a result of the __________ in the limbic system. A) hippocampus B) thalamus C) amygdala Correct. This is the part of the brain responsible for excitement, arousal, and fear. D) medulla Incorrect. The medulla is responsible for critical life functions, such as breathing and heartbeat. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 73. As Joe walks to his car late at night, he hears footsteps behind him. Feeling afraid, Joe grips his keys and quickens his pace. It is likely that Joe’s __________ has been activated. A) central sulcus B) hippocampus C) amygdala D) cerebellum Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 74. Lucia has suffered an injury to one of the major structures of her limbic system. One of her symptoms is that she cannot seem to remember the layout of her own house. It is as if her mental map of the rooms, furniture, and other parts of her home have been scrambled up. It is most likely that the structure impacted by Lucia’s injury is the __________. A) hypothalamus B) hippocampus Correct. The hippocampus plays a crucial role in memory, particularly spatial memory. C) amygdala D) reticular activating system Incorrect. The reticular activating system, which is not part of the limbic system, plays a key role in arousal, and damage to it can lead to a coma. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network

75. According to __________ theory, memories are initially stored at multiple sites. Over time, storage strengthens at some sites, but weakens at others. A) memory transfer B) multiple trace C) memory consolidation D) neural realignment Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 76. The pathways emanating from the RAS activate the cortex by increasing the __________ among neurons in the brain. A) cerebral ventricles B) cortical membrane C) signal-to-noise ratio D) long-term potentiation Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 77. The area housed inside of the cortex and located at the very back of the brain is called the __________. It contains the midbrain, pons, and medulla. A) corpus callosum B) diencephalon C) brainstem D) arachnoid meninx Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 78. Which of the following structures is NOT considered a part of the brain stem? A) cerebrum Correct. The cerebrum is not a part of the brain stem. B) pons Incorrect. The pons is a part of the brain stem. C) midbrain D) medulla Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network

79. What is the main function of the reticular activating system? A) to control thinking B) to regulate emotions C) to control levels of arousal D) to coordinate involuntary rapid fine-motor movements Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network % correct 26 a = 11 b = 16 c = 26 d = 47 r = .24 80. If research finds that those who drive taxicabs have enlarged areas of their hippocampi, one may be tempted to infer that driving a cab and engaging in such visuospatial activities each day causes the hippocampus areas to grow. This may or may not be the case, and this riddle demonstrates the principle of __________. A) extraordinary claims B) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. There is nothing in this question that is related to the precepts of Occam’s Razor. C) correlation vs. causation Correct. Another explanation for this relationship is that people with enlarged areas of the hippocampus naturally seek out jobs with higher visuospatial demands, such as being a taxicab driver. D) ruling out rival hypotheses Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 81. An auto accident rendered Chris’s nervous system unable to send messages for him to breathe, so he is on a respirator. Which brain structure was damaged in the accident? A) pons Incorrect. The pons plays a role in sleep, dreaming, left–right body coordination, and arousal. B) medulla Correct. The medulla is responsible for breathing. C) cerebellum D) reticular activating system Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network % correct 53 a = 21 b = 53 c = 16 d = 10 r = .42

82. Damage to the cerebellum is likely to disrupt which of the following? A) playing basketball Correct. The cerebellum coordinates movements that have to happen in rapid succession. B) sleeping Incorrect. The pons plays a role in sleep and dreaming, not in movement. C) homeostasis D) thinking Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 83. Since Jamilla suffered a head injury in a car accident 3 months ago, she has not experienced dreams as she had in the past. She used to dream vivid, active dreams. Which part of her brain was most likely affected during the car accident, which is related to her problem dreaming? A) pons Correct. The pons has been shown to influence sleep and dreaming as well as arousal. B) cerebellum C) cerebral cortex D) pituitary gland Incorrect. The pituitary gland is part of the endocrine system. The best answer is the pons. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network % correct 58 a = 58 b = 11 c = 21 d = 10 r = .33 84. The brain is divided into several different structures on the bottom part of the brain referred to as the “hindbrain.” Which of the parts of the brain listed below is located in the hindbrain? A) amygdala B) reticular activating system C) medulla D) thalamus Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network

85. Which of the following extends from the brain stem down to the middle of the back, and is responsible for communicating information between the brain and the rest of the body? A) spinal cord B) cerebellum C) sympathetic nervous system D) amygdala Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 86. The __________ is a structure in the brain stem responsible for life-sustaining functions, such as breathing and heart rate. A) reticular activating system B) pons C) medulla D) cingulated gyrus Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 87. Jennifer has been diagnosed with spinocerebellar degeneration. The first stage of the disease involves tremors and unsteady gate. In the later stages, she will be unable to stand, walk, and will be uncoordinated in her movements. This disease probably affects the __________. A) hippocampus B) amygdala C) cerebellum Correct. Based on these symptoms, this is the part of the brain affected by this disease. D) hypothalamus Incorrect. These symptoms do not indicate a hypothalamic compromise. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network

88. Tracey has been unable to participate in her gymnastics class and is very uncoordinated since she was involved in an accident where she suffered a head injury. As a result of the accident, she was likely to have suffered damage to her __________. A) cerebellum Correct. Among other things, the cerebellum affects one’s sense of balance and coordination of motor skills. B) medulla C) cerebral cortex Incorrect. This is not the part of the brain that is affected. D) hypothalamus Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 89. Which of the following are the three basic types of neurons? A) reflexes, sensory nerves, motor nerves B) sensory nerves, motor nerves, stem cells C) motor nerves, stem cells, reflexes D) interneurons, sensory nerves, motor nerves Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 90. Neurons that send messages to other neurons are called __________. A) motor neurons B) sensory neurons C) interneurons D) efferent neurons Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network

91. Which of the following are responsible for acting as a facilitator of communication between neurons? A) motor nerves Incorrect. Motor nerves carry messages from the central nervous system to the muscles of the body. B) interneurons Correct. Interneurons connect the sensory neurons to the motor neurons. C) sensory nerves D) reflexes Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 92. Mary put her hand on a hot stove. Which neuron is responsible for sending a pain message up her spinal column, where it would then enter into the main area of the cord? A) motor nerve B) interneuron Incorrect. Sensory nerves carry information from the senses to the spinal cord. C) sensory nerve Correct. Sensory nerves carry information from the senses to the spinal cord. D) efferent neuron Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 93. LaKeisha stepped on a piece of glass and quickly pulled her foot away from that sharp object. Which of the following are responsible for sending a message to the muscles in LaKeisha’s foot, resulting in her pulling her foot away from the piece of glass? A) motor nerves Correct. Motor nerves carry messages from the central nervous system to the muscles of the body. B) interneurons Incorrect. Interneurons connect the sensory neurons to the motor neurons. C) sensory nerves D) reflex nerves Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network

94. Cameron touches a hot iron and immediately pulls his hand away. His quick response occurs because __________. A) the pain message only travels to the spinal cord instead of going all the way to the brain Correct. Pain messages initiate automatic reflexes without involving the brain. B) the brain has registered that pain is occurring and responds quickly Incorrect. This type of pain message does not go all the way to the brain. C) his glands have secreted chemical messengers called hormones D) neurons in the spinal cord touch end to end to increase response speed Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 95. The peripheral nervous system consists of the __________ and the __________ nervous systems. A) autonomic; somatic B) autonomic; sympathetic C) parasympathetic; somatic D) parasympathetic; sympathetic Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network % correct 69 a = 69 b = 12 c = 0 d = 19 r = .43 96. As she walks out of the living room, Gloriann turns out the light. In this example, Gloriann’s __________ nervous system is active and allows her to control this voluntary action. A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) autonomic Incorrect. Turning out the light requires voluntary muscle movement. D) somatic Correct. Turning out the light requires voluntary muscle movement. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network

97. Involuntary functions are controlled by the __________ nervous system. A) somatic B) autonomic C) iatrogenic D) central Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 98. The subdivision of the peripheral nervous system that consists of nerves that control all of the involuntary organs and glands is called the __________ nervous system. A) somatic B) autonomic C) sympathetic D) parasympathetic Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 99. When you see someone you have a crush on and your heart pounds, your hands get sweaty, and your cheeks feel hot, your __________ is/are active. A) skeletal nervous system B) spinal reflexes C) autonomic nervous system Correct. The autonomic nervous system controls involuntary muscles and glands. D) somatic nervous system Incorrect. The somatic nervous system controls voluntary muscles. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network

100. Calm is to aroused as __________ is to __________. A) parasympathetic; sympathetic Correct. When we are calm and not under stress, the parasympathetic system is doing its job. When we are in a heightened state of arousal, the sympathetic system is active. B) autonomic; motor C) sympathetic; parasympathetic Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. D) central; peripheral Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network % correct 66 a = 66 b = 7 c = 23 d = 4 r = .54 101. The flight-or-fight response is mobilized by the __________ nervous system. A) central B) somatic C) sympathetic D) parasympathetic Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network % correct 59 a = 5 b = 11 c = 59 d = 22 r = .46 102. As Molly is walking across campus, a car swerves toward her. Her heart races and sweat breaks out as she jumps out of harm’s way. This mobilization of energy is due to the action of Molly’s __________ nervous system. A) somatic B) skeletal C) parasympathetic Incorrect. The parasympathetic nervous system restores the body to normal functioning after arousal. D) sympathetic Correct. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for reacting to stressful events and bodily arousal. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network

103. Malcolm is studying alone in his room late at night when he hears a loud noise downstairs. His heartbeat increases significantly and his breathing becomes shallow. He wonders if a burglar has entered the house and decides to investigate. When he gets downstairs, he discovers his cat has knocked over a plant stand. His body begins to relax and return to normal. Which part of his nervous system is responsible for returning Malcolm to a normal state? A) spinal cord B) somatic nervous system C) sympathetic nervous system Incorrect. The sympathetic nervous system mobilizes the body in times of stress. D) parasympathetic nervous system Correct. The parasympathetic nervous system restores the body to normal functioning after arousal. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network % correct 37 a = 5 b = 21 c = 37 d = 37 r = .60 104. Which of the following nervous systems would be most aptly summarized by the phrase “rest and digest”? A) the sympathetic system Incorrect. The sympathetic system is sometimes referred to as the “fight or flight” system, and it is activated during times of crisis or emergency. B) the parasympathetic system Correct. The parasympathetic system is active during periods of rest and digestion. It kicks into gear when there is no immediate threat on our mental radar screen. C) the afferent system D) the efferent system Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 105. Hormones are chemicals that are secreted and go directly into __________. A) the bloodstream B) specific organs C) nerve endings D) the brain Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior. Topic: The Endocrine System

106. Which endocrine gland controls all of the other glands in the body? A) thyroid gland B) adrenal gland C) pancreas D) pituitary gland Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior. Topic: The Endocrine System % correct 72 a = 13 b = 9 c = 6 d = 72 r = .55 % correct 79 a = 5 b = 11 c = 5 d = 79 r = .40 107. The pituitary gland is known as the __________ gland because it controls the other glands in the body. A) master B) alpha C) dominant D) ventral Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior. Topic: The Endocrine System 108. The pituitary hormone that aids milk flow in nursing mothers, and that plays an essential function in both maternal and romantic love, is __________. A) oxytocin B) melatonin C) estrogen D) progesterone Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior. Topic: The Endocrine System

109. The __________ gland is sometimes called the emergency center of the body. A) pineal Incorrect. The pineal gland is responsible for secreting melatonin, which makes us drowsy when we are in darker settings. B) pituitary C) thyroid D) adrenal Correct. This gland produces adrenaline and cortisol, which are essential in helping us respond to emergency or crisis situations. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior. Topic: The Endocrine System 110. Which of the following is a true statement? A) The male sex hormone is called estrogen. B) The female sex hormone is called testosterone. C) Both sexes manufacture some amount of the sex hormone associated with the opposite sex. D) Only males secrete testosterone and only females secrete estrogen. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior. Topic: The Endocrine System 111. Theorists have long believed that testosterone is the hormone that increases sex drive in both men and women. One study conducted in Australia (Davis et al., 2005) found no relationship between testosterone levels in women and their sex drive. Other research, however, has failed to find similar results. The Australian study, therefore, cannot effectively challenge the long-held theory of testosterone’s influence on women’s sex drive because of the critical thinking concept of __________. A) extraordinary claims B) Occam’s Razor C) falsifiability D) replicability Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior. Topic: The Endocrine System

112. Rodney wanted to “have the bumps on his head examined” to determine certain aspects of his personality. To do this, he had to go to a __________. A) psychiatrist B) psychologist Incorrect. A modern psychologist would be very unlikely to use this form of examination, as phrenology has not been supported as a scientifically valid field of study. C) scientologist D) phrenologist Correct. Phrenology is an older field that suggested that enlargements (bumps) of the skull are related to enlargements of certain areas of the brain. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 113. Which of the following is the most outdated method for mapping the brain? A) phrenology B) stereotaxic methods C) electrical stimulation D) fMRI Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 114. A technique that permits scientists to pinpoint the location of specific brain areas using coordinates is called __________. A) phrenology B) the stereotaxic method C) functional imaging D) magnetoencephalography Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 115. An area of damage in the brain is called a(n) __________, A) wound B) lesion C) stereotoxic infiltration D) invasive cortical manifestation Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

116. Hideki has had difficulty sleeping. His doctor wishes to examine the electrical activity of his brain during different times of the night to help determine the cause of his sleep problems. The doctor will most likely perform a(n) __________. A) EEG B) CT scan C) PET scan D) MRI Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 117. Which of the following is a machine designed to record the brain wave patterns produced by electrical activity of the brain? A) DDT B) EMG C) ESG D) EEG Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 118. Small electrodes are pasted onto Miranda’s scalp and are connected by wire to a machine that translates the electrical energy from her brain into wavy lines on a moving piece of paper. From this description, it is evident that Miranda’s brain is being studied through the use of __________. A) a computer tomography (CT) scan Incorrect. CT scans take computer-controlled X-rays of the brain. B) functional magnetic resonance imaging C) a microelectrode D) an electroencephalograph (EEG) Correct. Electroencephalographs record brain wave patterns. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action

119. Electroencephalographs __________. A) are no longer used because of the amount of pain they cause in patients B) have low temporal resolution C) have high spatial resolutions D) help us understand schizophrenia, epilepsy, and various other conditions Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 120. Ali is in the hospital about to undergo a brain-imaging process that involves taking many Xrays from different angles. What type of imaging technique is being used? A) electroencephalography (EEG) B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) Incorrect. MRI is a brain-imaging method using radio waves and magnetic fields of the body. C) positron-emission tomography (PET) D) computed tomography (CT) Correct. CT scanners can take multiple X-rays of the brain. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 121. A brain-imaging method using magnetic fields to measure the release of energy from water in biological tissues is called __________. A) electroencephalography (EEG) B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) C) positron emission tomography (PET) D) computed tomography (CT) Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action

122. Samantha’s doctor is concerned that Samantha may have a brain tumor. Which method of neuroimaging should he use to detect the tumor? A) EEG B) CT scan Incorrect. The CT scan is inferior to an MRI at detecting soft-tissues, such as brain tumors. C) MRI Correct. As your book notes, MRI images are superior to CT scans at detecting soft tissues, such as brain tumors. D) PET scan Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 123. Libby’s physician refers her to a medical center in order to have the biochemical activity in her brain analyzed. She is given an injection of a radioactive glucose-like substance and then is told to lie down with her head in a scanner. The technique being used is __________. A) positron emission tomography Correct. PET involves injecting a radioactive glucose into the patient. B) functional magnetic resonance imaging Incorrect. fMRI does not involve injecting the patient with glucose. C) microelectrode recording D) an electroencephalogram Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action % correct 53 a = 53 b = 37 c = 0 d = 10 r = .23 124. A functional MRI (fMRI) measures __________. A) structures of the brain B) structural detail of various structures C) the release of energy from water in biological tissue D) changes in a patient’s blood oxygen level Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action

125. A functional MRI indirectly __________. A) applies magnetic fields to the brain B) measures tiny magnetic fields C) shows promise as a treatment for depression D) indicates changes in neural activity Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 126. Transcranial magnetic stimulation __________. A) uses strong and rapidly changing magnetic fields to create electric fields in the brain B) can be used to map electrical activity in the brain C) works by detecting areas of oxygenated blood in the brain D) has been replaced by transcranial phrenology as the most advanced neuroimaging technique Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 127. Which is the only noninvasive brain imaging technique that allows us to infer causation? A) EEG B) TMS Correct. Transcranial magnetic stimulation does allow for cause-and-effect conclusions while other non-invasive tests do not. C) fMRI Incorrect. fMRI is an invasive, not a non-invasive, technique. D) PET Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 128. Evidence against the 10-percent myth (that we only use 10 percent of our brains) comes from __________. A) courses to improve our brain power that are generally successful B) the effectiveness of self-help books to increase mental capacity C) neuroimaging studies, which fail to find any consistently silent areas D) psychics who are able to perform extraordinary feats of mental powers Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action % correct 88 a = 3 b = 6 c = 88 d = 3 r = .42 % correct 88 a = 0 b = 9 c = 88 d = 3 r = .44 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

129. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Many parts of the brain appear to have no useful function in today’s world. B) Losses of small areas of certain parts of the brain rarely cause devastating, often permanent, losses of function. C) All the brain areas become active on brain scans at one time or another as we think, feel, and perceive. D) Every part of the brain has a redundant backup, which is why brain injuries are so rarely serious. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 130. What is the danger of relying too much on neuroimaging tests? A) We will give up using traditional psychological tests for assessing brain functions. Incorrect. There is no indication of this risk of neuroimaging tests presented by your textbook. B) We may focus too much on activity in areas that are not traditionally thought to be specialized for a particular function. C) We run the risk of assigning narrowly defined functions to brain regions, rather than remembering that most functions are distributed. Correct. As your book points out, it is important to remember not to overemphasize localization of function and to be cautious in interpretation of neuroimaging results. D) We will pay too much attention to how different parts of the brain work together rather than focusing on individual parts and how they function. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 131. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Few, if any, complex psychological functions are likely to be confined to a single brain area. B) Most people use only 10 percent of their brains. C) Not every part of the brain has a function. D) Scientists have discovered a specific “God spot” in the brain because it becomes active when an individual thinks of God. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action % correct 79 a = 79 b = 5 c = 0 d = 16 r = .55

132. When a cognitive function relies on one cerebral hemisphere more than the other, this phenomenon is known as ___________. A) long-term potentiation B) lateralization C) self-awareness D) right-brained or left-brained people. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action % correct 43 a = 13 b = 43 c = 41 d = 3 r = .30 133. Sometimes a person’s corpus callosum is split, which separates the two hemispheres completely. This is done to __________. A) study the effects of a split brain B) change a person’s personality C) determine the precise area of cognitive functioning D) control epilepsy Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 134. If Darren’s brain is like that of most people, then fine-tuned language skills will be handled by his __________. A) corpus callosum B) occipital lobe C) right cerebral hemisphere Incorrect. The right hemisphere does not control language for most people. D) left cerebral hemisphere Correct. For most people, the left hemisphere controls language. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action % correct 69 a = 5 b = 5 c = 21 d = 69 r = .45

135. Which of the following is a function of the right hemisphere? A) perceptual grouping, face perception, tone of voice Correct. These are functions of the right hemisphere. B) sense of time and rhythm C) speech, handwriting, and calculation D) language processing in most individuals Incorrect. This is a function of the left hemisphere. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 136. According to the myths surrounding being right-brained or left-brained, __________ are supposed to be artistic, creative, and emotional. A) left-brained individuals Incorrect. The commonly-held belief is that left-brained individuals are scholarly, logical, and analytical. B) those who have undergone a split-brain procedure C) right-brained individuals Correct. The commonly held belief is that right-brained individuals are artistic, creative, and emotional. D) those who have undergone a frontal lobotomy Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 137. Your friend, Sheila, says she is definitely a right-brained person because she excels in her language and art classes but performs miserably in her math classes. You tell her ___________. A) indeed there is scientific evidence for some specialization across hemispheres, so she must have greater activation of one hemisphere compared to the other B) there is no scientific evidence for this type of hemispheric asymmetry for complex tasks, and actually the two hemispheres function together Correct. While the different hemispheres of the brain may have primary control over certain functions, there is no evidence that there is unique control on each side. C) she has it backwards: if she likes language but dislikes math, she must be left-brained Incorrect. The idea of being left-brained or right-brained has been greatly exaggerated by popular media. D) she needs to also assess her handedness before reaching this conclusion Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action

138. Left-brained people are __________. A) scholarly B) logical C) analytical D) There is no scientific evidence that distinguishes left-brained and right-brained individuals. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action % correct 63 a = 3 b = 6 c = 28 d = 63 r = .21 139. The concept of “goggle therapy” suggests that it is possible to treat __________ by wearing special sunglasses that flip up on one side or the other to allow extra light to reach the left or right hemisphere of the brain. This approach, however, has little to now scientific support. A) brain cancer B) mood disorders and anger Correct. These are two conditions that are supposed to be treatable with “goggle therapy”— however, the research into its effectiveness has not been supportive. C) chronic fatigue syndrome Incorrect. Goggle therapy is meant to treat mood disorders and anger, not CFS. D) leukemia Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 140. Television commercials have been seen advertising special sunglasses that allow differing amounts of light to the left or right eye, thereby helping to treat mood disorders. Because there is no science that supports these claims, this product demonstrates the principle of __________. A) ruling out rival hypotheses B) replicability Incorrect. There is nothing in this question that denotes the concepts of repeating research and achieving the same or similar findings. C) falsifiability D) extraordinary claims Correct. The incredible nature of these claims, combined with the lack of any empirical research support backing them up, makes them a classic example of extraordinary claims. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action

141. __________ are slender threads inside of a cell’s nucleus that carry genes. A) Chromosomes B) Ribosomes C) Golgisomes D) DNA strands Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.5a Describe genes and how they influence psychological traits. Topic: Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It? 142. People’s genetic makeup is their __________. A) genotype B) phenotype C) mRNA. D) genome Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.5a Describe genes and how they influence psychological traits. Topic: Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It? 143. A phenotype is __________. A) a person’s genetic makeup B) our set of observable traits C) made up of dominant genes only D) made up of recessive genes only Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.5a Describe genes and how they influence psychological traits. Topic: Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It? % correct 62 a = 16 b = 62 c = 6 d = 16 r = .47 144. Sophia is brown-haired, blue-eyed, and dark-skinned. It is likely that Sophia __________. A) has dominant genes only B) has recessive genes only Incorrect. Sophia’s brown hair, for example, is a result of a dominant gene. C) is adopted D) has both dominant and recessive genes Correct. Some of these traits would require recessive genes to meet in order for such a phenotypical expression. Others would be a result of dominant genes. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.5a Describe genes and how they influence psychological traits. Topic: Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It?

145. Darwin hypothesized that populations of organisms, rather than individuals, change by selective breeding with other organisms possessing some apparent advantage. This is known as __________. A) natural selection B) behavioral adaptation C) brain evolution D) behavioral genetics Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 3.5a Describe genes and how they influence psychological traits. Topic: Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It? 146. __________ refers to an organism’s capacity to pass their genes on to the next generation of their species. A) Preparedness B) Viability C) Reproductivity D) Fitness Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.5a Describe genes and how they influence psychological traits. Topic: Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It? 147. Which of the following animals has the largest brain-to-body size ratio? A) elephants B) human beings C) chimpanzees D) dolphins Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.5a Describe genes and how they influence psychological traits. Topic: Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It?

148. If the heritability of a particular trait is found to be 60 percent, then by definition the other 40 percent is due to __________. A) random chance that impacts every organism B) prenatal environmental influences, such as toxins or viruses Incorrect. This would be a partially correct answer, but the best answer is differences in an individual’s environment, which includes both pre- and post-natal influences. C) the effects of gene mutation D) differences in the individual’s environment Correct. Heritability and environmental differences together make up all of a given trait’s origin. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it. Topic: Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It? 149. Which of the following is a commonly held misconception about heritability? A) Heritability tells us whether or not a trait can be changed. Correct. This is, in fact, a commonly held inaccurate belief about heritability. B) Heritability applies to differences among individuals rather than a single individual. Incorrect. This is, in fact, a true statement. C) Heritability is a changing, never-constant number. D) Heritability is constant across people of different racial and ethnic backgrounds. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it. Topic: Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It? 150. Which of the following statements regarding heritability is accurate? A) Heritability applies to a single individual rather than differences among individuals. B) Heritability tells us whether a trait can be changed. C) Heritability is estimated by family studies, twin studies, and adoption studies. D) Heritability is a fixed number. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it. Topic: Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It?

151. Kayla and Layla are twins who were separated at birth. A researcher interested in studying heredity tracks them down and speaks to their different families about the benefits that can be achieved by studying the two young girls. The girls and their different sets of parents agree to participate, and studies begin assessing various areas of the girls’ lives. In order for this type of twin study to be most effective, what kind of twins should Kayla and Layla be? A) conjoined B) monozygotic Correct. Monozygotic, or identical, twins are of the best value to a twin study in the area of heritability. C) amorphous D) dizygotic Incorrect. Dizygotic, or fraternal, twins may shed some light on heritability, but the best participants for this type of research are monozygotic (identical) twins. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it. Topic: Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It? 152. Which of the following types of research would be very useful for examining the heritability of a particular trait? A) Family studies where researchers examine the extent to which a trait “runs” or goes together in intact families, those in which all family members are raised in the same home. B) Twin studies where researchers investigate whether fraternal twins are more alike on a psychological characteristic, like intelligence or extraversion, than are fraternal twins, and thus can infer that this characteristic is genetically influenced. C) Adoption studies where adoption agencies frequently place children in homes similar to those of the biological parents. D) Phenotype studies where individuals are tracked over time to find out whether their eventual phenotype is consistent with their phenotype at birth. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it. Topic: Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It? 153. One particular confound for the use of an adoption study of heritability is the phenomenon of __________ placement, in which a child is placed in a home that is similar to the home of the biological parents. A) unilateral B) forced C) matched Incorrect. The correct term for this sort of placement is selective placement. D) selective Correct. By using selective placement, the welfare of the child may be enhanced, but it introduces serious error into adoption studies. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it. Topic: Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It? Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Fill-in-the-Blank 1. You might think of __________ as being like a bodyguard for the nervous system, because they provide support for neurons, protect them, and respond to injury among other things. Answer: glial cells Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of the neuron and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 2. __________ are star-shaped glial cells that are found in abundant supply in the blood-brain barrier, a protective layer that insulates the brain. Answer: Astrocytes Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1a Distinguish the parts of the neuron and what they do. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 3. When a(n) __________ occurs, its motion begins near the cell body and works its way down toward the axon terminals. Answer: action potential Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1b Describe electrical responses of neurons and what makes them possible. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 4. The brief time during which another action potential cannot occur is called the absolute __________ period. Answer: refractory Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1b Describe electrical responses of neurons and what makes them possible. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 5. The process by which the synaptic vesicle absorbs the neurotransmitters that it just released is called __________. Answer: reuptake Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals

6. Scientists use the term “__________” to describe the nervous system’s ability to change. Answer: plasticity Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1d Describe how the brain changes as a result of development, learning, and injury. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 7. __________ is the creation of new cells in the adult brain. Answer: Neurogenesis Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1d Describe how the brain changes as a result of development, learning, and injury. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 8. The use of embryonic __________ cells, though hotly debated as both a medical and social issue, may have the potential for helping to cure many serious diseases and injuries. Answer: stem Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.1d Describe how the brain changes as a result of development, learning, and injury. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals 9. The part of the brain known as the __________ is the most highly developed area in the human brain. Answer: forebrain or cerebrum Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 10. Hortense was in a terrible accident, and part of her brain was injured. The result was that she lost the ability to control the musculature in her body and experienced random ticks, twitches, and movements nearly all of the time. Hortense probably suffered damage to the __________ cortex of her brain. Answer: motor Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 11. The frontal lobe is responsible for motor function, language, and memory, as well as the job of overseeing most other mental functions. We call this ability __________. Answer: executive functioning Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 12. When sensory information enters the brain from the various sensory organs, it does so in a Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

specific sequence. First it goes to the primary sensory cortex, and then it goes to the __________ where information is integrated to allow for the performance of complex tasks. Answer: association cortex Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 13. The integrated structures of the __________ in the brain are dedicated to emotion. Answer: limbic system Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 14. The __________ regulates and maintains constant internal bodily states such as hunger, thirst, sexual motivation, and body temperature. Answer: hypothalamus Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 15. After getting hit in the head with a line drive during a baseball game, Clancy had difficulties forming and encoding new memories. Strangely, though, he had no difficulty accessing his older memories. Clancy probably suffered an injury to his __________. Answer: hippocampus Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 16. The pathways emanating from the reticular activating system activate the cortex by increasing the __________. Answer: signal-to-noise ratio Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network

17. One part of the autonomic nervous system, the __________, helps us with voluntary muscle control. Your ability to voluntarily write an answer to this question, for example, is dictated by this system! Answer: somatic Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 18. The autonomic nervous system consists of two divisions: __________ and __________. Answer: sympathetic; parasympathetic Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 19. The sympathetic nervous system becomes aroused and prepares animals for the __________. Answer: fight-or-flight response Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network 20. The endocrine system is responsible for the production of __________, molecules that influence particular organs. Answer: hormones Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior. Topic: The Endocrine System 21. Seetra has just returned home to discover that her house has been vandalized while she was away. As she takes in this very stressful situation, her adrenal glands begin to increase their production of the hormones adrenaline and __________. Answer: cortisol Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior. Topic: The Endocrine System

22. The study of __________ assessed the bumps on a person’s head and attributed various personality traits and abilities as a result of the bumps. Answer: phrenology Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 23. If you wanted to investigate the possibility of a brain tumor, the best type of neuroimaging would be a(n) __________. Answer: MRI Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 24. Lizette is having an operation called a split-brain procedure to reduce the frequency of her epileptic seizures. During this surgery, the __________ in Lizette’s brain will be severed. Answer: corpus callosum Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action 25. A person’s set of observable traits is her/his __________. Answer: phenotype Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.5a Describe genes and how they influence psychological traits. Topic: Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It?

Essay 1. Discuss the lobes of the cerebral cortex, including their roles. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. The cerebral cortex contains four lobes, each associated with somewhat different functions. The frontal lobe lies in the forward part of the brain. The frontal lobe is responsible for motor function, language, and memory, as well as the job of overseeing most other mental functions, which we call executive function. The brain’s executive function provides a kind of top-level governance over simpler cognitive functions. In most brains a deep groove, called the central sulcus, separates the frontal lobe from the rest of the cerebral cortex. The motor cortex lies next to the central sulcus. Each part of the motor cortex controls a specific part of the body. In front of the motor cortex lies a large expanse of the frontal lobe called the prefrontal cortex. One region of the prefrontal cortex, Broca’s area, plays a key role in language production. People with damage to Broca’s area exhibit a speech deficit characterized by difficulties in speaking smoothly and an inability to find certain words. The prefrontal cortex serves additional functions, including memory, abstract thinking, and decision making. The prefrontal cortex also contributes to mood, personality, and self-awareness. The parietal lobe lies behind the frontal lobe. The part of the parietal lobe that lies next to the motor cortex is the primary sensory cortex, devoted to touch. It’s sensitive to pressure, temperature, and pain. The parietal lobe plays roles in many kinds of perception. Spatial perception, which is the placement of objects in space, is most frequently associated with the upper part of the parietal lobe. Other parietal lobe functions include the perception of object shape and orientation, the perception of actions of others, and the representation of numbers. The parietal lobe integrates visual and touch inputs with motor outputs every time we reach, grasp, and move our eyes. The temporal lobe is the site of hearing, understanding language, and storing autobiographical memories. This lobe is separated from the rest of the cerebral cortex by the lateral fissure. The top of the temporal lobe contains the auditory cortex, the part of the cerebral cortex devoted to hearing. We call the language area in the temporal lobe Wernicke’s area. Damage to Wernicke’s area leads to difficulties with understanding speech. The lower part of the temporal lobe contains circuitry critical to storing memories of past autobiographical events. At the very back of the brain lies the occipital lobe, containing the visual cortex, dedicated to vision. As human beings, we are highly dependent on our visual systems, so we have a lot of visual cortex. Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network

2. You are walking in the woods when suddenly you see a dangerous-looking snake in your path. Upon closer examination, you realize it is harmless. Explain the physiological reactions that occurred during this process. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. The sympathetic nervous system mobilized the fight-or-flight response. Since you encountered a threat, the sympathetic nervous system became aroused and prepared you for fighting or fleeing. Sympathetic activation triggers the flight-or-fight response, a variety of physical responses including increased heart rate, respiration, and perspiration. Autonomic nerves that reach the heart, diaphragm, and sweat glands control these actions. After it was determined that a threat no longer existed, the parasympathetic nervous system kicked in and reverse the physical responses. We started to calm down and things eventually returned to normal. Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Topic: The Brain–Behavior Network

3. Discus the various types of neuroimaging techniques, including any strengths or weakness in each type. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. Researchers developed imaging methods to meet clinical and research needs unmet by other techniques. Each imaging method offered some advantage over previous methods. As a group, these imaging methods enable us to peer inside the brain or body. The CT scan is a three-dimensional reconstruction of many X-rays taken though a part of the body, such as the brain. It shows much more detail than an individual X-ray. The MRI measures the release of energy from water in biological tissues following exposure to a uniform magnetic field. MRI images are superior to CT scans for detecting soft tissue, such as those in the brain. A brain tumor shows up particularly well on an MRI image because a tumor consists of soft tissue. Positron emission tomography (PET) is a functional imaging technique, meaning that it measures changes in the brain’s activity levels. PET is an invasive tool that requires the injection of glucose-like molecules attached to radiotracers into the patient. Because PET is invasive, researchers later looked for functional imaging methods that wouldn’t require injections of radiotracers. The fMRI measures the change in blood oxygen level and acts as an indirect correlate of neural activity. The fMRI relies on magnetic fields, as does MRI. Whereas MRI has a high resolution, fMRI operates at a low resolution so that researchers can snap many scans in rapid succession. Individual fMRI images aren’t very sharp, but the method shows changes in brain activity level over time because it creates a series of images. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) uses strong and rapidly changing magnetic fields to induce electric fields in the brain. Depending on the level of stimulation, TMS can either enhance or interrupt brain function. Some reports suggest that TMS provides relief for depression and may decrease auditory hallucinations. Whereas TMS applies magnetic fields to the brain, magnetoencephalography (MEG) measures tiny magnetic fields, and in this way detects electrical activity in the brain and in the rest of the nervous system. The resulting images produced by MEG reveal patterns of magnetic fields on the surface of the skull. MEG has good spatial resolution and excellent temporal resolution that measure activity changes millisecond by millisecond, whereas PET and fMRI scans measure activity changes second by second. Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action

4. Discuss the popular notion that people are either left-brained or right-brained. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. Despite the great scientific contribution of split-brain studies, the notion that normal people are either “left-brained” or “right-brained” is a myth. According to this myth, leftbrained people are scholarly, logical, and analytical, and right-brained people are artistic, creative, and emotional. One Internet blogger tried to explain the differences between people’s political ideologies in terms of the left-right brain distinction; conservatives, he claimed, tend to be left-brained and liberals tend to be right-brained. Yet these claims are vast oversimplifications. After reviewing numerous studies, one researcher concluded that we use both sides of our brains in a complementary way. Furthermore, the corpus callosum and other interconnections ensure that both hemispheres are in constant communication. If the right-brained versus left-brained myth were accurate, then people who were artistic would be unlikely to be verbally gifted. In reality, there are scores of multitalented people. Consider actors who are also screenwriters. We can trace the myth of exaggerated rightbrain versus left-brain differences to misinterpretations of what scientists reported. Selfhelp books incorporating the topic flourished. Robert E. Ornstein was among those to promote the idea of using different ways to tap into our creative rights brain versus our intellectual left brains in his 1997 book The Right Mind: Making Sense of the Hemispheres. Right brain-oriented educational programs for children sprang up that deemphasized getting the correct answers on tests in favor of developing creative ability. For a mere $195, “whole brain learning” supposedly expanded the mind in new ways using “mega subliminal messages,” heard only by the right or the left brain. Although there’s nothing wrong with trying to be more creative by using our minds in different ways, using both hemispheres in tandem works far better. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action

5. Discuss the various techniques used to study heritability. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. Behavior genetic designs also allow us to estimate the heritability of traits and diseases. By heritability, we mean the extent to which genes contribute to differences in a trait among individuals. Some traits, like height, are highly heritable. In contrast, other traits, like the accent in our speech, are due almost entirely to environment. That’s because our accents are almost entirely a product of the dialect spoken in the community in which we’re raised. Heritability isn’t as simple a concept as it seems, and it confuses even some psychologists. The first misconception is that heritability applies to a single individual rather than differences among individuals. That’s because heritability is a statistic that applies only to groups of people. Heritability tells us about the causes of differences among people, not within a person. A second misconception is that heritability tells us whether a trait can be changed. Many laypeople believe that if a trait is highly heritable, then by definition we can’t change it. Yet, logically speaking, heritability says little or nothing about how malleable or alterable a trait is. In fact, a trait can in principle have a heritability of 100 percent, yet still be extremely malleable. Scientists estimate heritability by means of one of three behavioral genetic designs: family studies, twin studies, and adoption studies. In such studies, scientists note the presence or absence of a behavioral trait or a psychological disorder among different relatives. These studies determine how much genetics contributes to the expression of that trait or disorder. In a family study, researchers examine the extent to which a trait “runs” or goes together in intact families, those in which all family members are raised in the same home. We can study correlations in a trait between two types of twins. Consequently, if identical twins are more alike on a psychological characteristic, such as intelligence or extraversion, than are fraternal twins, we can infer that this characteristic is genetically influenced. Nevertheless, twin studies hinge on the “equal environments assumption”—the assumption that the environmental influences on the characteristic we’re studying are the same on identical as on fraternal twins. Adoption studies examine the extent to which children adopted into new homes resemble their adoptive, as opposed to biological, parents. Children adopted into other homes are genetically similar to their biological relatives, but they don’t share the same environment with their biological relatives. As a consequence, if adopted children resemble their biological parents on a psychological characteristic, we can typically assume that it’s genetically influenced. Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it. Topic: Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It?

Critical Thinking 1. Will people paralyzed from spinal cord injury walk again someday? How does the use of stem cell research influence this important topic? Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. Stem cells provide at least two novel ways of treating neurodegenerative disease. First, researchers can implant stem cells directly into the host’s nervous system and induce them to grow and replace damaged cells. Second, researchers can genetically engineer stem cells so that the cells can administer gene therapy; in other words, provide the patient with replacement genes. There’s yet another way that researchers may be able to get around the problems associated with lack of regeneration following injury and neural degeneration. Neurogenesis is the creation of new cells in the adult brain. Neurogenesis is exciting because it opens up new possibilities. Another role might be recovery following brain injury. By manipulating neurogenesis, the adult nervous system might be coaxed into better healing itself. Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.1d Describe how the brain changes as a result of development, learning, and injury. Topic: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals

2. With all the different methods for studying the brain, how does one decide which one to use? Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. There are many different methods for studying the brain. The method one uses is often determined by factors such as the invasiveness of the procedure or the purpose of the study. For example, because it’s noninvasive, researchers frequently use EEG in both animal and human experiments. Even though the EEG is an old method, researchers still use it to study brain activity in normal brains and in brains of individuals afflicted with schizophrenia, epilepsy, and other psychiatric and neurological disorders. But EEGs have a few disadvantages. Because they show averaged activity that reaches the surface of the scalp, they tell us little, if anything, about what’s happening inside neurons. Furthermore, EEGs have low spatial resolution, meaning that they aren’t especially good for determining where in the brain the action is occurring. Although electrical recording and stimulation provided the initial probes to map mind functions onto brain areas, a virtual explosion of brain research occurred with the advent of brain scans or what we call neuroimaging. Researchers developed imaging methods to meet clinical and research needs unmet by other techniques. Each imaging method offered some advantage over previous methods. As a group, these imaging methods enable us to peer inside the brain or body. The CT scan shows much more detail than an individual X-ray. The MRI shows structural detail using a totally different principle. The MRI scanner measures the release of energy from water in biological tissues following exposure to a uniform magnetic field. MRI images are superior to CT scans for detecting soft tissues, such as those in the brain. A brain tumor shows up particularly well on an MRI image because a tumor consists of soft tissue. Neuroscientists interested in thinking and emotion typically don’t use CT or MRI scans, except to localize brain damage. Instead, they typically use the functional imaging techniques. Positron emission tomography (PET) is a functional imaging technique, which means that it measures changes in the brain’s activity levels. PET relies on the fact that neurons, like other cells in the body, increase their uptake of glucose when they’re active. PET is an invasive tool that requires the injection of glucose-like molecules attached to radiotracers into the patient. Radiotracers are radioactive, but because they’re short-lived, they do little or no harm. The scanner measures where in the brain the most glucose-like molecules are taken up, allowing neuroscientists to figure out which parts of the brain are most active during a psychological task. Clinicians use PET scans to see where brain activity increases when patients, such as those with Parkinson’s disease, take a medication. Because PET is invasive, researchers later looked for functional imaging methods that wouldn’t require injections of radiotracers. In 1990, researchers discovered that as neural activity quickens, there’s an increase in oxygenated blood in response to heightened demand by neurons. Like athletes who require more fluids as they exert themselves, brain cells require more oxygen to do their work when busy. The discovery of this response enabled the development of the functional MRI (fMRI). Because fMRI measures the change in blood oxygen level, it’s an indirect indicator of neural activity. Neuroscientists frequently use fMRI to image brain activity in response to specific tasks, like looking at emotions in faces or solving math problems. The fMRI relies on magnetic fields, as does MRI. fMRI’s strength, especially compared with PET, is its ability to provide detailed images of activity in small brain regions and over brief time intervals. But in contrast to PET and some other imaging techniques, fMRI is extremely sensitive to motion, so researchers often have to toss out fMRI data if participants move too much. Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Topic: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

CHAPTER 3: BIOLOGICAL PSYCHOLOGY ________________________________________________________________________ Neurons and Nerves: Building the Network 1. A long structure leaving the cell body that action potential travel along is called the __________. a. cell membrane b. dendrite c. axon d. myelin sheath Answer c % correct 70 a= 3 b= 16 c= 70 d= 11 r = .38 2. Neurons in the brain that carry messages from one neuron to another and do most of the work of the nervous system are called __________. a. afferent neurons b. active neurons c. efferent neurons d. interneurons Answer d % correct 42 a= 25 b= 14 c= 19 d= 42 r = .42 3. Physiological psychologists study __________. a. human mental and physical growth from the prenatal period through childhood, adolescence, adulthood, and old age b. the biological basis for human behavior. c. the differences among individuals in such traits as anxiety, sociability, self-esteem, the need for achievement, and aggressiveness d. how people influence one another Answer b % correct 49 a= 26 b= 49 c= 20 d= 5 r = .42 4. The short fibers which extend from the neurons allowing it to receive messages from other neurons are a. axons b. dendrites c. nerve bundles d. synapses Answer b % correct 79 a= 19 b= 79 c= 1 d= 1 r = .38 5. A young man reads in a letter that he has just won $1,000 in a state-wide lottery and he literally jumps for joy. Which neurons are sending messages from his brain to his legs ordering them to jump? a. sensory neurons b. motor neurons c. interaction neurons d. association neurons Answer b % correct 89 a= 4 b= 89 c= 2 d= 4 r = .34 6. When the electrical charge inside a neuron is negative in relation to the outside, the neuron is said to be in a state of: a. equilibrium. b. shock. c. polarization. d. depolarization. Answer c % correct 81 a= 3 b= 2 c= 73 d= 12 r = .27

7. The period in which the neuron begins to pump sodium ions out of the cell and can only fire if the incoming message is extremely powerful is called the a. absolute refractory period b. relative refractory period c. secondary refractory period d. recovery period Answer b % correct 64 a= 21 b= 64 c= 8 d= 7 r = .53 8. Which of the following neurotransmitters is known for its role in schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease? a. acetylcholine b. dopamine c. serotonin d. norepinephrine Answer b % correct 80 a= 11 b= 80 c= 2 d= 7 r = .21 9. Endorphins a. are found where neurons meet skeletal muscles b. are less powerful than enkaphalins c. reduce pain messages in the brain d. are radically different in function from neurotransmitters Answer c % correct 86 a= 3 b= 3 c= 86 d= 8 r = .23 10. Human beings have ______ pairs of chromosomes a. 12 b. 17 c. 23 d. 45 Answer c % correct 92 a= 3 b= 2 c= 92 d= 3

r = .25

11. The part of the neuron that carries outgoing messages either to another neuron or to a muscle or gland is the a. myelin sheath b. axon c. dendrite d. cell body Answer b % correct 80 a= 1 b= 80 c= 19 d= 0 r = .21 12. The cell body is enclosed by the a. axon b. dendrite c. cell membrane d. myelin sheath Answer c % correct 82 a= 3 b= 3 c= 82 d= 13

r = .23

13. Which of the following is true of neural impulses in a single neuron? a. The neuron may fire during the absolute refractory period. b. The strength of a neural impulse increases as the strength of the incoming message gets stronger. c. The strength of a neural impulse decreases as the strength of the incoming message gets stronger. d. The strength of a neural impulse is the same each time the neuron fires. Answer d % correct 60 a= 6 b= 30 c= 4 d= 60 r = .35

14. The three parts of every neuron are: a. myelin; glia; cell body. b. dendrite; cell body; axon. c. glia; dendrite; axon. d. myelin; cell body; dendrite. Answer b % correct 83 a= 1 b= 83 c= 3 d= 13

r = .23

15. The small gap between adjacent neurons is the: a. glia. b. myelin sheath. c. synaptic cleft. d. terminal. Answer c % correct 83 a= 2 b= 6 c= 83 d= 9

r = .20

16. The neural impulse traveling down the axon is _______; it gets across the synapse by _______. a. electrical; remaining electrical but changing from positively charged to negatively charged b. electrical; remaining electrical but changing from negatively charged to positively charged c. electrical; being changed into a chemical message d. chemical; being changed into an electrical message Answer c % correct 50 a= 13 b= 22 c= 50 d= 13 r = .37 17. Neurons are: a. cells in the brain that are believed to help clean and feed brain cells. b. cells that send and receive information. c. bundles of nerves. d. chemical transmitters found in the hypothalamus. Answer b % correct 96 a= 0 b= 96 c= 3 d= 1 r = .44 18. Axons: a. receive/detect neural impulses. b. carry messages away from a cell body. c. secrete chemicals to lubricate the cell body. d. are found in the cell body. Answer b % correct 82 a= 15 b= 82 c= 1 d= 3

r = .36

19. The myelin sheath: a. is a fatty substance protecting the dendrites. b. helps to speed up neural messages within the cell. c. is found in all neurons. d. protects the cell's vesicles. Answer b % correct 51 a= 30 b= 51 c= 5 d= 14

r = .44

20. The basic message-carrying cells of the nervous system are labeled: a. dendrites. b. neurons. c. nerves. d. ganglia. Answer b % correct 91 a= 5 b= 91 c= 4 d= 0 r = .23

21. What kinds of neurons are connected to receptor cells in the skin, muscles, and joints? a. peripheral neurons b. interneurons c. sensory neurons d. motor neurons Answer c % correct 70 a= 3 b= 5 c= 70 d= 22 r = .27 22. The human brain contains somewhere between __________ and __________ neurons. a. 50 million; 100 million b. 10 million; 20 million c. 10 billion; 100 billion d. 2 trillion; 5 trillion Answer c % correct 80 a= 5 b= 16 c= 80 d= 9 r = .24 23. A nerve impulse from one neuron affects the activity of a neighboring neuron at a point of interaction called the: a. corpuscle. b. synapse. c. transmission cleft. d. neuronal junction. Answer b % correct 96 a= 0 b= 96 c= 3 d= 1 r = .26 24. Assume that you are testing a split-brain human subject whose language center is in his left hemisphere. If you place a house key into his left hand, he will: a. not be able to later select the object he was holding from a group of various objects. b. not be able to tell you what object he is presently holding. c. immediately be able to tell you what he is holding. d. be able to tell you what he is presently holding if allowed to think about it for several seconds. Answer b % correct 80 a= 5 b= 80 c= 6 d= 8 r = .24 25. Specialized cells in the brain which send and receive information are called: a. limbic cells. b. neurons. c. ganglia d. gonads. Answer b % correct 83 a= 15 b= 83 c= 2 d= 0 r = .21 26. Our brain contains nerves and __________. a. neurons. b. synapse c. ganglia d. all of the above Answer d % correct 82 d= 8 b= 2 c= 8 d= 82

r = .29

27. Our brain contains __________. a. neurons. b. synapse c. ganglia d. all of the above Answer d % correct 88 a= 1 b= 9 c= 2 d= 88

r = .20

28. Axons a. may be up to a quarter of a mile long. b. carry messages away from a cell body. c. are primarily responsible for the hypothalamic functions of regulation and motivation of sexual functions. d. are contained within the cell nucleus. Answer b % correct 89 a= 7 b= 89 c= 1 d= 3 r = .33 29. Dendrites: a. may be up to a quarter of a mile long. b. carry messages to cell bodies. c. are primarily responsible for the hypothalamic functions of regulation and motivation of sexual functions. d. are contained within the cell nucleus. Answer b % correct 82 a= 10 b= 82 c= 4 d= 4 r = .26 30. The myelin sheath: a. is a special substance protecting the dendrites. b. helps to speed up transmission of neural messages. c. is responsible for polarization. d. all of the above Answer b % correct 71 a= 7 b= 71 c= 0 d= 22

r = .54

31. Neural messages travel faster on axons which a. are polarized. b. are not exposed to acetylcholine (ACh). c. are located in the hypothalamus. d. have a myelin sheath. Answer d % correct 88 a= 6 b= 2 c= 5 d= 88

r = .35

32. Dr. Chapin has just finished a delicate brain operation. He turns to a group of interns and says, “She probably lost about 1,000 ___________, but since she still has over 100 billion left, she should recover nicely.” Dr. Chapin was most likely referring to: a. parts of the brain. b. neurons. c. pituitary glands. d. speech and language areas. Answer b % correct 98 a= 1 b= 98 c= 1 d= 0 r = .21 33. A synapse is most important in: a. separating the medulla from the hindbrain. b. regulating the parasympathetic nervous system. c. the process of transmitting messages between neurons. d. connecting the basal ganglia. Answer c % correct 96 a= 2 b= 2 c= 96 d= 0 r = .37 34. The smallest unit in the nervous system is the _________. a. dendrite b. neuron c. axon d. myelin sheath Answer b % correct 64 a= 21 b= 64 c= 7 d= 8 r = .34

35. The cell which underlies the activity of the entire nervous system is the _________. a. transmitter cell b. amoeba c. neuron d. carcinoma Answer c % correct 83 a= 16 b= 0 c= 83 d= 1 r = .34 36. There are approximately _________ neurons in the brain of an average human being. a. 100 thousand b. 100 million c. 100 billion d. 100 trillion Answer c % correct 76 a= 0 b= 4 c= 76 d= 19 r = .30 37. The short fibers which extend from the neuron allowing it to receive messages from other neurons are __________. a. axons b. dendrites c. nerve bundles d. cell membranes Answer b % correct 86 a= 1 b= 1 c= 86 d= 12 r = .26 38. The part of the neuron that carries outgoing messages either to another neuron or to a muscle or gland is the _________. a. myelin sheath b. axon c. dendrite d. cell body Answer b % correct 81 a= 2 b= 81 c= 18 d= 0 r = .20 39. The purpose of the myelin sheath is to _________. a. provide a place for respiration and metabolism to occur b. carry messages from the spinal cord to the brain c. insulate the neuron so it can act more efficiently d. receive messages from outside the neuron and carry them to the cell nucleus Answer c % correct 87 a= 0 b= 3 c= 87 d= 10 r = .37 40. The tiny space between the axon terminal and the dendrites of another neuron is called the __________. a. synaptic vesicle b. synaptic knob c. synaptic cleft or gap d. synapse Answer c % correct 84 a= 8 b= 1 c= 84 d= 6 r = .31 41. The entire area composed of the axon terminal of one neuron, the synaptic cleft, and the dendrite, or cell body of the next neuron is called the _________. a. synaptic vesicle b. synaptic knob c. synaptic space d. synapse Answer d % correct 80 a= 11 b= 2 c= 6 d= 80 r = .22

42. Most axon terminals contain a number of tiny oval sacs called __________. a. synaptic vesicles b. synaptic knobs c. neurotransmitters d. receptor sites Answer a % correct 41 a= 41 b= 6 c= 35 d= 15 r = .21 43. When a neural impulse reaches the end of an axon, it causes the tiny oval sacs at the end of the axon to release chemicals called __________. a. effectors b. neurotransmitters c. stimulants d. ions Answer b % correct 95 a= 3 b= 95 c= 0 d= 2 r = .27 44. Which of the following is NOT true of all neurotransmitters? a. They are chemicals. b. They are stored in synaptic vesicles. c. They are released across the synaptic space. d. They increase the likelihood that the next neuron will fire. Answer d % correct 70 a= 11 b= 12 c= 7 d= 70 r = .31 45. The myelin sheath _______. a. is a fatty substance protecting the dendrites b. helps to speed up neural messages within the cell c. is found in all neurons d. protects the cell's vesicles Answer b % correct 60 a= 25 b= 60 c= 6 d= 8

r = .40

46. An emergency room physician must quickly treat a patient who has been bitten by a black widow spider. The physician knows she must: a. prevent the buildup of acetylcholine in the patient's nervous system. b. prevent the buildup of catecholamines in the patient's nervous system. c. prevent the breakdown of catecholamines in the patient's nervous system. d. prevent the reabsorption of acetylcholine in the patient's nervous system. Answer a % correct 73 a= 73 b= 2 c= 7 d= 18 r = .33 47. An emergency room physician must treat a patient who has recently eaten a can of tainted mushrooms. Suspecting botulism, the physician must treat the woman in order to: a. prevent the breakdown of catecholamines in the patient's nervous system. b. prevent the botulism toxin from blocking the release of acetylcholine. c. prevent the toxin from breaking down the acetylcholine in the patient's nervous system. d. prevent the botulism from blocking the release of catecholamines. Answer b % correct 78 a= 3 b= 78 c= 8 d= 11 r = .23 48. Axons _______. a. receive/detect neural impulses b. carry messages away from a cell body c. secrete chemicals to lubricate the cell body d. are found in the cell body Answer b % correct 80 a= 15 b= 80 c= 1 d= 3

r = .30

49. Nodes of Ranvier are: a. specialized synapses. b. gaps in the myelin sheath. c. functional divisions of the brain produced by the central, lateral, and longitudinal fissures. d. none of the above Answer b % correct 50 a= 5 b= 50 c= 12 d= 34 r = .29

The Peripheral Nervous System 50. The branch of the autonomic nervous system that prepares the body for quick action in an emergency is the __________ division. a. central b. secondary c. sympathetic d. parasympathetic Answer c % correct 73 a= 1 b= 7 c=73 d= 19 r = .34 51. The nervous system is comprised of two major parts: __________. a. the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system b. the afferent nervous system and the efferent nervous system c. the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system d. the brain and the spinal cord Answer a % correct 69 a= 69 b= 2 c= 11 d= 17 r = .38 52. The system that relays messages in the form of electrochemical impulses throughout the body is called __________. a. the arousal system b. the nervous system c. the limbic system d. the endocrine system Answer b % correct 92 a= 0 b= 92 c= 5 d= 2 r = .20 53. The autonomic nervous system has two divisions: __________. a. central and peripheral b. receptors and effectors c. sympathetic and parasympathetic d. limbic and endocrine Answer c % correct 79 a= 9 b= 5 c= 79 d= 7 r = .36 54. All nerve cells and fibers that are NOT in the brain or spinal cord make up the __________ nervous system. a. central b. peripheral c. autonomic d. sympathetic Answer b % correct 76 a= 9 b= 76 c= 10 d= 6 r = .48

55. Neurons whose primary purpose is to carry messages from the spinal cord or the brain to the muscles and glands are called __________. a. afferent neurons b. active neurons c. efferent neurons d. interneurons Answer c % correct 40 a= 27 b= 11 c= 40 d= 22 r = .21 56. Neurons whose primary purpose is to collect information from the sensory organs and carry that information to the spinal cord or brain are called __________. a. afferent neurons b. active neurons c. efferent neurons d. interneurons Answer a % correct 43 a= 43 b= 14 c= 22 d= 19 r = .21 57. The process of digesting your last snack or meal or the unconscious regulation of your breathing are all primarily rooted in the __________ nervous system. a. autonomic b. limbic c. somatic d. secondary Answer a % correct 66 a= 66 b= 12 c= 18 d= 4 r = .44 58. The branch of the autonomic nervous system that prepares the body for quick action in an emergency is the __________ division. a. central b. secondary c. parasympathetic d. sympathetic Answer d % correct 76 a= 1 b= 3 c= 19 d=76 r = .38 59. A young woman returns from a day at the beach to find she has developed a severe sunburn. Which neurons are sending the messages from her burned skin to her brain informing her of the pain from the burn? a. sensory neurons b. motor neurons c. synaptic neurons d. association neurons Answer a % correct 88 a= 88 b= 2 c= 7 d= 3 r = .24 60. The division of the nervous system that connects the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body is the __________ system. a. peripheral nervous b. endocrine c. central nervous d. secondary nervous Answer a % correct 42 a= 42 b= 12 c= 12 d= 4 r = .45

61. The idea that large fibers in the sensory nerves can prevent impulses from reaching the brain and thus prevent the sensation of pain is part of the _____________ theory of pain. a. gate-control b. primary process c. free nerve ending d. volley Answer a % correct 93 a= 93 b= 3 c= 4 d= 0 r = .43 62. The deer waits motionlessly, hidden in the thicket as the band of hunters approach. As they get closer, their dogs bark, picking up the scent of their prey. In a futile effort to escape, the deer bolts. Which of the following most accurately describes the nervous system of the hunted deer at this point? a. Its sympathetic nerve fibers are more active than its parasympathetic nerve fibers. b. Its parasympathetic nerve fibers are more active than its sympathetic nerve fibers. c. Both its sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers are equally active. d. Neither its sympathetic nor its parasympathetic nerve fibers are aroused. Answer a % correct 77 a= 77 b= 13 c= 10 d= 0 r = .37 63. It’s midnight, and you are alone in your room studying. You hear a loud crash outside your room, and your whole body reacts instantly and furiously. The system that produces these reactions is the ________ system. a. central nervous b. sympathetic nervous c. parasympathetic nervous d. limbic Answer b % correct 80 a= 6 b= 80 c= 12 d= 3 r = .52 64. The FIRST division of the nervous system consists of the: a. central and peripheral nervous systems. b. brain and spinal cord. c. somatic and autonomic nervous systems. d. sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. Answer a % correct 73 a= 73 b= 20 c= 4 d= 26 r = .41 65. The autonomic and somatic nervous systems are divisions of the _______ system. a. central b. parasympathetic c. peripheral d. sympathetic Answer c % correct 63 a= 22 b= 5 c= 63 d= 10 r = .28 66. The autonomic nervous system is responsible for: a. controlling the skeletal muscles. b. sending sensory input to the brain. c. making choices and decisions. d. the activity of internal organs and glands. Answer d % correct 70 a= 9 b= 11 c= 9 d= 70

r = .35

67. The part of the nervous system that allows the brain to regulate digestion, heart rate, and respiration without our conscious attention is the: a. autonomic nervous system. b. central nervous system. c. somatic nervous system. d. spinal cord. Answer a % correct 77 a= 77 b= 20 c= 3 d= 0 r = .27 68. The nervous system called the “fight or flight” system is the _______ system. a. central b. parasympathetic c. somatic d. sympathetic Answer d % correct 74 a= 5 b= 10 c= 10 d= 74 r = .45 69. Calm is to aroused as _______ is to _______. a. parasympathetic; sympathetic b. autonomic; motor c. sympathetic; parasympathetic d. central; peripheral Answer a % correct 77 a= 77 b= 3 c= 21 d= 0

r = .31

70. One evening Betty was walking to the dorm from the gym when she was stopped by two men who demanded her money. Since she was a good athlete, Betty decided to make a run for it. Pretending to open her purse, she suddenly turned and dashed off. Although pursued, Betty outran her assailants. During this incident, which part of Betty’s nervous system was most directly responsible for her successful escape? a. midbrain b. parasympathetic nervous system c. forebrain d. sympathetic nervous system Answer d % correct 78 a= 2 b= 14 c= 6 d= 78 r = .45 71. The autonomic nervous system is divided into two parts. These are termed the __________ nervous systems. a. ascending and descending b. frontal and temporal c. left and right d. parasympathetic and sympathetic Answer d % correct 96 a= 2 b= 2 c= 0 d= 96 r = .43 72. The parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions make up the: a. motor cortex. b. endocrine system. c. autonomic nervous system. d. neocortex. Answer c % correct 97 a= 2 b= 0 c= 97 d= 1 r = .31 73. The nervous system is comprised of two parts: ________. a. the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system b. the afferent nervous system and the efferent nervous system c. the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system d. the brain and the spinal cord Answer b % correct 96 a= 1 b= 96 c= 0 d= 3 r = .34 74. The central nervous system consists of the __________. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions b. brain and the spinal cord c. muscles and glands d. sense organs and sensory neurons Answer b % correct 94 a= 4 b= 94 c= 1 d= 1

r = .25

75. The two major divisions of the central nervous system are: a. left and right hemispheres. b. the brain and autonomic systems. c. brain and spinal cord. d. peripheral and autonomic systems. Answer c % correct 90 a= 3 b= 1 c= 90 d= 6 r = .26 76. When the sympathetic nervous system assumes control of the involuntary bodily processes during a stressful situation, which of the following changes is likely to occur? a. digestion stops b. less blood is pumped to muscles c. air passages become smaller d. sweat glands are less active Answer a % correct 68 a= 68 b= 12 c= 16 d= 3 r = .45 77. Calm is to aroused as _______ is to _______. a. parasympathetic; sympathetic b. autonomic; motor c. sympathetic; parasympathetic d. central; peripheral Answer a % correct 66 a= 66 b= 7 c= 23 d= 4

r = .54

78. Which of the following most directly controls bodily reflexes? a. peripheral nervous system b. brainstem c. spinal cord d. hindbrain Answer c % correct 55 a= 30 b= 4 c= 55 d= 11 r = .37

The Central Nervous System 79. Which hemisphere of the cerebral cortex is usually dominant in spatial tasks? a. the front hemisphere b. the rear hemisphere c. the left hemisphere d. the right hemisphere Answer d % correct 46 a= 13 b= 14 c= 27 d= 46 r = .46

80. The area in the back of the temporal lobe that is important in our ability to listen and in processing and understanding what others are saying is __________. a. Korsakoff’s area b. Wernicke’s area c. Broca’s area d. Sach’s area Answer b % correct 60 a= 4 b= 60 c= 34 d= 1 r = .35 81. The structure in the hindbrain that controls certain reflexes and coordinates the body’s movements is the __________. a. medulla b. cerebellum c. pons d. reticular formation Answer b % correct 70 a= 13 b= 70 c= 5 d= 12 r = .29 82. The part of the brain that receives sensations of touch, balance, bodily position, and oversees spatial abilities is the __________. a. occipital lobe b. temporal lobe c. parietal lobe d. frontal lobe Answer c % correct 61 a= 10 b= 15 c= 61 d= 13 r = .33 83. The outer surface of the two cerebral hemispheres that regulate most complex behavior is called the __________. a. cerebellum b. corpus callosum c. cerebral cortex d. substantia nigra Answer c % correct 74 a= 7 b= 12 c= 74 d= 7 r = .44 84. The part of the brain that helps process hearing and give meaning to words is the __________. a. the occipital lobe b. the temporal lobe c. the parietal lobe d. the frontal lobe Answer b % correct 72 a= 9 b= 72 c= 12 d= 6 r = .37 85. The cerebellum __________. a. controls blood pressure b. is involved in emotional behavior c. coordinates actions so that movements are efficient d. relays messages from the sensory receptors Answer c % correct 74 a= 4 b= 12 c= 74 d= 11

r = .44

86. Which hemisphere of the cerebral cortex is usually dominant in language tasks? a. the front hemisphere b. the rear hemisphere c. the left hemisphere d. the right hemisphere Answer c % correct 70 a= 8 b= 4 c= 70 d= 18 r = .38 87. The part of the brain which interprets visual information is the __________. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. occipital lobe b. temporal lobe c. parietal lobe d. frontal lobe Answer a % correct 89

a= 89 b= 6 c= 3 d= 2

r = .26

88. A young woman recovering from a blow to her head finds she has great difficulty maintaining her balance and coordinating her movements. Injury to which part of her brain is likely to be causing her difficulties? a. cerebellum b. medulla c. cerebral cortex d. thalamus Answer a % correct 47 a= 47 b= 18 c= 18 d= 17 r = .22 89. The part of the brain most people think of when they talk about the brain is the __________. a. cerebral cortex b. pons c. medulla d. cerebellum Answer a % correct 50 a= 50 b= 3 c= 13 d= 34 r = .33 90. The notion that human language production is controlled primarily by the left cerebral cortex was first proposed by __________. a. Paul Broca b. Sally Shaywitz c. Karl Wernicke d. Hermann Ebbinghaus Answer a % correct 53 a= 53 b= 3 c=35 d= 7 r = .31 91. The part of the hind brain that largely controls breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure is the ______________. a. cerebral cortex b. pons c. medulla d. cerebellum Answer c % correct 86 a= 3 b= 2 c= 86 d= 9 r = .29 92. Garfield is having great difficulty controlling his appetite. All he wants to do is eat and no matter how much he eats he is still hungry. His weight is approaching 400 pounds and he still constantly wants to eat. His physician says the problem is due to a disorder in a specific center of the brain. The brain center is most likely the __________. a. medulla b. cerebral cortex c. thalamus d. hypothalamus Answer d % correct 51 a= 0 b= 10 c= 39 d= 51 r = .28

93. The site of many mental processes that are unique to humans (self-awareness, initiative, planning ability, and goal-directed behavior) is the __________. a. occipital lobes b. temporal lobes c. parietal lobes d. frontal lobes Answer d % correct 68 a= 7 b= 12 c= 13 d= 68 r = .57 94. “Split Brain” patients are patients who have had _________. a. a prefrontal lobotomy b. their cerebellum split in the middle c. their corpus callosum cut d. a fracture skull in which bone fragments penetrated into the brain Answer c % correct 78 a= 7 b= 16 c= 78 d= 0 r = .36 95. Despite its dangers, a young man continues to take cocaine because of the feeling of euphoria it produces for him. This powerful arousal of his nervous system is probably due to cocaine’s ability to: a. inhibit enzymes that break down neurotransmitters. b. increase the release of neurotransmitters. c. block the receptor sites for neurotransmitters. d. prevent neurotransmitters from being reabsorbed into the synaptic vesicles. Answer d % correct 40 a= 2 b= 22 c= 35 d= 40 r = .43 96. The forebrain is one of _______ operationally distinct sections of the brain. a. two b. three c. four d. five Answer b % correct 57 a= 4 b= 57 c= 35 d= 4 r = .39 97. Eating, drinking, sexual behavior, temperature control, and sleeping are most strongly influenced by the: a. medulla. b. cerebral cortex. c. thalamus. d. hypothalamus. Answer d % correct 55 a= 10 b= 19 c= 15 d= 55 r = .40 98. The part of the brain which controls hearing, does some additional processing of visual information, and is probably the site of permanent memory storage is: a. the occipital lobe. b. the temporal lobe. c. the parietal lobe. d. the frontal lobe. Answer b % correct 74 a= 8 b= 74 c= 14 d= 3 r = .45 99. The structure that connects the two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex is the _________. a. corpus callosum b. pineal gland c. pons d. reticular formation Answer a % correct 84 a= 84 b= 0 c= 8 d= 8 r = .40

100. A “split brain” patient is asked to stare at a spot on a screen. When a picture of an object is shown to the left of the spot, the patient can ___________. a. identify the object verbally and pick it out of a group of hidden objects using her right hand b. identify the object verbally and pick it out of a group of hidden objects using her left hand c. pick the object out of a group of hidden objects using her left hand, but cannot identify it verbally d. pick the object out of a group of hidden objects using her right hand, but cannot identify it verbally Answer c % correct 46 a= 17 b= 8 c= 46 d= 29 r = .21 101. The limbic system is most closely connected to the __________. a. hypothalamus b. endocrine system c. frontal lobes d. thalamus Answer a % correct 24 a= 24 b= 38 c= 29 d= 9 r = .42 102. The medulla, pons, and thalamus are all part of the: a. limbic system. b. corpus callosum. c. cerebral cortex. d. brainstem. Answer d % correct 72 a= 9 b= 3 c= 15 d= 72

r = .38

103. The brain’s “relay station” is the _______. a. hypothalamus b. medulla c. pons d. thalamus Answer d % correct 72 a= 10 b= 13 c= 4 d= 72

r = .51

104. Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus? a. regulating eating b. regulating sleeping c. relaying sensory inputs to the higher centers in the brain d. regulating the “restorative” functioning of the autonomic nervous system after an emergency has passed Answer c % correct 39 a= 6 b= 19 c= 39 d= 36 r = .27 105. Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus? a. maintaining homeostasis b. regulating the output of the pituitary c. controlling the emergency response of the autonomic nervous system d. coordinating smooth muscle movement Answer d % correct 45 a= 27 b= 7 c= 21 d= 45 r = .24 106. A neuroanatomist destroyed a dog’s reticular formation to determine its function. Of the following, which is the most likely result? The dog: a. could no longer hear. b. could no longer see. c. lapsed into a complete and irreversible coma. d. became hyper alert and no longer slept normally. Answer c % correct 36 a= 4 b= 21 c= 36 d= 39 r = .20

107. If the limbic system were destroyed, which of the following structures would be damaged? a. cerebellum and corpus callosum b. cerebellum and amygdala c. amygdala and hippocampus d. hippocampus and corpus callosum Answer c % correct 69 a= 18 b= 8 c= 69 d= 3 r = .39 108. The part of our brain that MOST makes us human is the: a. cerebellum. b. cerebral cortex. c. medulla. d. pons. Answer b % correct 65 a= 20 b= 65 c= 11 d= 4 r = .46 109. Which of the following is NOT a lobe of the brain? a. corpus callosum b. frontal c. occipital d. parietal Answer a % correct 99 a= 99 b= 0 c= 0 d= 1 r = .15 110. The somatosensory cortex is located in the _______ lobe of the brain. a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal Answer c % correct 47 a= 32 b= 10 c= 47 d= 11 r = .37 111. The motor cortex is located in the _______ lobe of the brain. a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal Answer a % correct 74 a= 74 b= 6 c= 21 d= 9 r = .38 112. A victim of a car wreck with head injuries, whose involuntary bodily processes (breathing, heartbeat, etc.) have been disturbed, probably has had damage done to the _______. a. hindbrain b. pons c. medulla d. forebrain Answer c % correct 78 a= 10 b= 6 c= 78 d= 6 r = .36 113. Damage to the medulla can seriously impair one's ability to: a. sing. b. write. c. breathe. d. metabolize food. Answer c % correct 78 a= 3 b= 11 c= 78 d= 7 r = .35

114. Which part of the brain can be thought of as a major switching station that directs incoming information to the correct brain structure? a. midbrain b. thalamus c. cerebellum d. reticular activating system Answer b % correct 50 a= 15 b= 50 c= 13 d= 21 r = .32 115. The motor impulses/commands associated with the muscular coordination and movements necessary for one to write originate in which lobe of the cerebral cortex? a. temporal b. parietal c. occipital d. frontal Answer d % correct 55 a= 10 b= 33 c= 2 d= 55 r = .30 116. A brain tumor’s growth has caused Dick’s vision to suffer. Which lobe of the brain is being affected by the tumor’s growth? a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal Answer b % correct 91 a= 2 b= 91 c= 4 d= 3 r = .23 117. The bundle of nerves that connects the two hemispheres of the brain is called the: a. basal ganglia. b. longitudinal fissure. c. corpus callosum d. somatosensory cortex Answer c % correct 84 a= 7 b= 10 c= 84 d= 0 r = .40 118. After removal of a tumor from the LEFT side of her brain, Sharon recovered well. However, some of her former abilities are now limited. Which of the following abilities are most likely affected? a. coordinated walking movements b. solving algebra equations c. assembling puzzles d. recognizing objects that she sees Answer b % correct 68 a= 14 b= 68 c= 10 d= 8 r = .28 119. The two major divisions of the central nervous system are: a. left and right hemispheres. b. the brain and autonomic systems. c. brain and spinal cord. d. peripheral and autonomic systems. Answer c % correct 70 a= 2 b= 2 c= 70 d= 26 r = .20 120. The brain is part of the: a. nervous system. b. endocrine system. c. thalamic system. d. cranial system. Answer a % correct 92 a= 92 b= 3 c= 2 d= 3

r = .44

a. is an integrated system within itself. b. controls the endocrine system. c. is part of the nervous system. d. All of the above. Answer d % correct 95 a= 1 b= 1 c= 4 d= 95

r = .20

åß 122. The human brain a. weighs about 6 to 7 ounces. b. is composed of several thousand neurons. c. is half nerve tissue and half motor tissue. d. none of the above. Answer d % correct 62 a= 13 b= 16 c= 9 d= 62

r = .20

123. Which of the following statements about the brain is FALSE? a. It weighs about 3 pounds. b. It contains billions of neurons. c. It is composed of nerve tissues. d. It can be subdivided on the basis of structure, but not function. Answer d % correct 88 a= 5 b= 1 c= 6 d= 88 r = .21 124. The part of the brain which controls breathing, heartbeat, and posture is the a. pituitary gland. b. neocortex. c. hypothalamus. d. medulla. Answer d % correct 82 a= 0 b= 0 c= 18 d= 82 r = .41 125. If you are shot in the head and there is damage to the medulla this can seriously impair your ability to a. sing. b. write. c. breathe. d. urinate. Answer c % correct 87 a= 2 b= 8 c= 87 d= 3 r = .31 126. The medulla, pons, and cerebellum are all part of the: a. midbrain. b. hindbrain. c. spinal cord. d. forebrain. Answer b % correct 89 a= 4 b= 89 c= 5 d= 2 r = .47 127. The hypothalamus does NOT control: a. bowel movements. b. sweating. c. reactions to pain. d. fine motor coordination. Answer d % correct 59 a= 21 b= 7 c= 14 d= 59

r = .22

128. The corpus callosum: a. is an integral area of the hindbrain. b. is responsible for taste and smell sensations. c. connects the left and right cerebral hemispheres. d. supports the reticular activating system. Answer c % correct 90 a= 3 b= 3 c= 90 d= 4

r = .39

129. The left and right cerebral hemispheres are connected by the: a. occipital lobe. b. pons. c. sylvian fissure. d. corpus callosum. Answer d % correct 95 a= 1 b= 2 c= 3 d= 95 r = .38 130. The left cerebral hemisphere primarily controls: a. the right side of the body. b. the left side of the body. c. all motor functions. d. spatial reasoning. Answer a % correct 91 a= 91 b= 2 c= 4 d= 3

r = .35

131. The right cerebral hemisphere primarily controls: a. the right side of the body. b. the left side of the body. c. speech and language. d. a and c. Answer b % correct 93 a= 2 b= 93 c= 3 d= 2

r = .28

132. Individuals who have had their corpus callosum cut are said to have a: a. split brain b. disintegrating personality c. cranial refraction d. migraine headache Answer a % correct 96 a= 96 b= 2 c= 2 d= 0 r = .35 133. An individual with a “split brain”: a. will most likely die. b. will probably become schizophrenic. c. will probably develop a split personality. d. none of the above Answer d % correct 84 a= 3 b= 3 c= 10 d= 84

r = .21

134. The brain is connected to the rest of the body via the: a. corpus callosum. b. spinal cord. c. limbic system. d. cranial nerve. Answer b % correct 96 a= 0 b= 96 c= 2 d= 2 r = .21

135. The spinal cord: a. connects the brain to the rest of the body. b. is composed of nerve tissue. c. can work independently of the brain. d. all of the above Answer d % correct 80 a= 15 b= 4 c= 1 d= 80

r = .28

136. Which of the following is NOT one of the three distinct parts of the brain? a. hindbrain b. lateralbrain c. midbrain d. forebrain Answer b % correct 99 a= 1 b= 99 c= 0 d= 0 r = .06 137. The part of the hindbrain that controls such things as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure is the __________. a. cerebral cortex b. pons c. medulla d. cerebellum Answer c % correct 60 a= 3 b= 17 c= 60 d= 20 r = .22 138. A young woman recovering from a blow to her head finds she has great difficulty maintaining her balance and coordinating her movements. Injury to which part of her brain is likely to be causing her difficulties? a. cerebellum b. medulla c. cerebral cortex d. thalamus Answer a % correct 72 a= 72 b= 8 c= 18 d= 2 r = .37 139. The cerebellum __________. a. controls blood pressure b. is involved in emotional behavior c. coordinates actions so that movements are efficient d. relays messages from the sensory receptors Answer c % correct 84 a= 3 b= 5 c= 84 d= 8

r = .40

140. The structure in the center of the forebrain that relays sensory information is called the __________. a. medulla b. hypothalamus c. pons d. thalamus Answer d % correct 63 a= 10 b= 12 c= 15 d= 63 r = .41 141. Eating, drinking, sexual behavior, temperature control, and sleeping are strongly influenced by the __________. a. medulla b. cerebral cortex c. thalamus d. hypothalamus Answer d % correct 71 a= 3 b= 5 c= 21 d= 71 r = .29

142. The part of the brain responsible for emotional behavior and regulating the nervous system in times of stress is the _________. a. medulla b. cerebellum c. thalamus d. hypothalamus Answer d % correct 60 a= 8 b= 4 c= 28 d= 60 r = .35 143. Garcia is having great difficulty controlling his appetite. All he wants to do is eat and no matter how much he eats, he is still hungry. His weight is approaching 400 pounds and he still constantly wants to eat. His physician says the problem is due to a disorder in a specific center of the brain. That brain center is most likely the __________. a. medulla b. cerebral cortex c. thalamus d. hypothalamus Answer d % correct 60 a= 15 b= 8 c= 17 d= 60 r = .44 144. Darlene has just discovered that she made the dean’s list, and she’s in ecstasy—singing and dancing down the corridor. Which area of the brain is directing her behavior? a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. cerebellum d. midbrain Answer a % correct 21 a= 21 b= 16 c= 36 d= 28 r = .20 145. The part of the brain which controls hearing, does some additional processing of visual information, and is probably the site of permanent memory storage is __________. a. the occipital lobe b. the temporal lobe c. the parietal lobe d. the frontal lobe Answer b % correct 64 a= 15 b= 64 c= 11 d= 10 r = .37 146. The part of the brain that receives sensations of touch, balance, and bodily position is the __________. a. occipital lobe b. temporal lobe c. parietal lobe d. frontal lobe Answer c % correct 62 a= 9 b= 14 c= 62 d= 15 r = .51 147. Corey was in an automobile accident that resulted in an injury to her brain. She now has difficulty maintaining her balance and normal body positions. Her sense of touch has also been injured. The part of her brain most likely injured was her ___________. a. occipital lobe b. temporal lobe c. parietal lobe d. frontal lobe Answer c % correct 66 a= 4 b= 13 c= 66 d= 16 r = .34

148. Corey was in an automobile accident that resulted in an injury to her brain. She now has difficulty with her hearing and her memory. The part of her brain most likely injured was her __________. a. occipital lobe b. temporal lobe c. parietal lobe d. frontal lobe Answer b % correct 68 a= 10 b= 68 c= 11 d= 10 r = .34 149. The structure that connects the two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex is the _________. a. corpus callosum b. pineal gland c. pons d. reticular formation Answer a % correct 99 a= 99 b= 0 c= 1 d= 0 r = .02 150. Which hemisphere of the cerebral cortex is dominant in language tasks? a. front b. rear c. left d. right Answer c % correct 66 a= 18 b= 3 c= 66 d= 13 r = .38 151. Which hemisphere of the cerebral cortex is dominant in spatial tasks and concept formation? a. front b. rear c. left d. right Answer d % correct 62 a= 17 b= 6 c= 16 d= 62 r = .29 152. A “split brain” patient is a patient who has had __________. a. a prefrontal lobotomy b. their cerebellum split in the middle c. their corpus callosum cut d. a fractured skull in which bone fragments penetrated into the brain Answer c % correct 90 a= 2 b= 8 c= 90 d= 0 r = .38 153. The hemisphere of the brain that acts as an interpreter, helping us with sequencing and logic is the __________. a. front b. rear c. left d. right Answer d % correct 51 a= 12 b= 4 c= 51 d= 33 r = .24 154. A victim of a car wreck with head injuries, whose involuntary bodily processes (breathing, heartbeat, etc.) have been disturbed, probably has had damage done to the _______. a. hindbrain b. pons c. medulla d. forebrain Answer c % correct 81 a= 9 b= 1 c= 81 d= 9 r = .34 155. A brain tumor’s growth has caused Dick’s vision to suffer. Which lobe of the brain is being affected by the tumor’s growth? Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal Answer b

% correct 92

a= 5 b= 92 c= 3 d= 1

r = .21

156. The bundle of nerves that connects the two hemispheres of the brain is called the _______. a. basal ganglia b. longitudinal fissure c. corpus callosum d. somatosensory cortex Answer c % correct 88 a= 6 b= 3 c= 88 d= 3 r = .38 157. Which part of the brain can be thought of as a major switching station that directs incoming information to the correct brain structure? a. midbrain b. thalamus c. cerebellum d. reticular activating system Answer b % correct 54 a= 6 b= 54 c= 17 d= 23 r = .28 158. The brain is connected to the other parts of the nervous system by the ________. a. spinal cord b. corpus callosum c. brainstem d. peripheral nervous system Answer a % correct 58 a= 58 b= 2 c= 37 d= 3 r = .33 159. The _______ looks like two wrinkled hemispheres. a. cerebellum b. cerebrum c. forebrain d. all of the above Answer b % correct 35 a= 29 b= 35 c= 5 d= 31

r = .27

The Chemical Connection 160. The glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream are called __________. a. lymph glands b. exocrine glands c. hippocampal glands d. endocrine glands Answer d % correct 77 a= 6 b= 10 c= 7 d= 77 r = .31

161. Endocrine glands are glands that secrete __________. a. excitory neurotransmitters b. inhibitory neurotransmitters c. hormones d. enzymes Answer c % correct 73 a= 12 b= 5 c= 73 d= 10 r = .25 162. Chemical substances released by the endocrine glands to help regulate bodily functions are __________. a. enzymes b. neurotransmitters c. antigens d. hormones Answer d % correct 63 a= 14 b= 18 c= 4 d= 63 r = .51 163. The glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream are called _________. a. lymph glands b. exocrine glands c. hippocampal glands d. endocrine glands Answer d % correct 93 a= 3 b= 4 c= 0 d= 93 r = .28 164. Jeff is 13 years old and he has recently noticed some remarkable changes in himself. Over the past few months his voice has started to change, growing deeper. He has begun to grow pubic hair, as well as the beginnings of a facial beard. He is also filling out, with his muscles developing rapidly. These changes in Jeff are probably due to the action of _____________. a. gonads b. thyroid gland c. pineal gland d. adrenal gland Answer a % correct 60 a= 60 b= 24 c= 10 d= 6 r = .32 165. The pea-sized gland that is stimulated by light and helps regulate activity levels over the course of a day is the: a. adrenal b. pituitary c. pineal d. thyroid Answer c % correct 61 a= 13 b= 22 c= 61 d= 5 r = .43 166. Mendel postulated the existence of: a. genes b. chromosomes c. hormones d. DNA Answer a % correct 43 a= 43 b= 13 c= 17 d= 26

r = .42

167. The pituitary gland is controlled by the: a. brainstem. b. hypothalamus. c. reticular formation. d. spinal cord. Answer b % correct 73 a= 10 b= 73 c= 11 d= 5 r = .37 168. The thyroid and pituitary glands are parts of the _______ system. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. gonad b. endocrine c. steroid d. lymphatic Answer b % correct 84

a= 1 b= 84 c= 0 d= 15

r = .35

169. Hank has been overweight since childhood. He diets frequently and can lose weight but always seems to gain it back, because he is unable to control his eating. Hank may have a problem with his: a. catecholamine level. b. thyroid gland. c. pituitary gland. d. limbic system. Answer b % correct 87 a= 4 b= 87 c= 4 d= 3 r = .22 170. The endocrine system is made up of: a. special centers which control our language functions. b. neurons which transmit electrically charged messages. c. glands which release hormones into the bloodstream. d. none of the above Answer c % correct 95 a= 0 b= 3 c= 95 d= 2 r = .21 171. The __________ system is made up of glands which release hormones into the bloodstream. a. motor b. endocrine c. limbic d. autonomic Answer b % correct 81 a= 2 b= 81 c= 11 d= 6 r = .38 172. The thyroid and pituitary glands are part of our _________ system. a. motor b. glandular c. limbic d. endocrine Answer d % correct 81 a= 0 b= 8 c= 11 d= 81 r = .35 173. Which of the following is NOT a part of the endocrine system? a. thyroid b. pons c. pituitary d. pancreas Answer b % correct 88 a= 0 b= 88 c= 0 d= 12 r = .33 174. The limbic system is responsible for ___________. a. filtering incoming messages to the brain b. connecting the brain to most of the rest of the body c. fighting disease organisms that attempt to infect the brain d. controlling learning and emotional behavior Answer d % correct 60 a= 25 b= 11 c= 4 d= 60 r = .27

175. The ___________ gland produces the hormone which regulates the body’s rate of metabolism. a. pituitary b. adrenal c. thyroid d. parathyroid Answer c % correct 55 a= 34 b= 10 c= 55 d= 1 r = .22 176. Estrogen is to _______ as testosterone is to _______. a. gonads; testes b. testes; ovaries c. ovaries; testes d. ovaries; gonads Answer c % correct 89 a= 2 b= 1 c= 89 d= 8 r = .41

Quiz 3.1: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Nerve Cells: Communication Portals

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q3.1.1 Which of the following is the portion of a neuron that sends a signal to other neurons? a) axon b) dendrite c) synaptic vesicle d) node ANS: a Topic=Nerve Cells: Communication Portals Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This part of the cell is a transmitter that is specialized for sending messages to other neurons. LO 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. EOM Q3.1.2 When a neuron is neither being stimulated nor inhibited, the neuron is described as having a __________. a) resting potential b) action potential c) potency state d) potential difference ANS: a Topic=Nerve Cells: Communication Portals Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 3.1b Describe electrical responses of neurons and what makes them possible Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: In this baseline state, there are more negative particles inside than outside the neuron. LO 3.1b Describe electrical responses of neurons and what makes them possible.

EOM Q3.1.3 Endorphins are a type of __________, short strings of amino acids that are narrowly targeted to perform a specific job. For instance, endorphins specialize in reducing pain. a) neuropeptide b) monoamine c) dopamine d) anandamide ANS: a Topic=Nerve Cells: Communication Portals Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: These strings of amino acids also regulate hunger and fullness, as well as learning and memory. LO 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other.

EOM Q3.1.4 Scientists who study the brain use the term “plasticity” to describe __________. a) the ability of the nervous system to change over time b) a medical condition in which the brain hardens to a plastic-like consistency c) the ability of the brain to depict the environment in three dimensions d) the electrical basis underlying artificial intelligence ANS: a Skill=Remember the Facts Topic=Nerve Cells: Communication Portals Objective=LO 3.1d Describe how the brain changes as a result of development, learning, and injury Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Our brains do not mature fully until late adolescence or early adulthood. LO 3.1d Describe how the brain changes as a result of development, learning, and injury.

EOM Q3.1.5 Alcohol and antianxiety drugs both increase __________ activity, which is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter. a) gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) b) acetylcholine c) norepinephrine d) glutamate ANS: a Topic=Nerve Cells: Communication Portals Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Neurons in virtually every brain area use this and another chemical messenger to communicate with each other. LO 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other.

Quiz 3.2: The Brain–Behavior Network Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: The Brain-Behavior Network

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q3.2.1 Which part of the brain is used for hearing, understanding language, and storing memories, and is separated from the rest of the cortex by the lateral fissure? a) temporal lobe b) frontal lobe c) parietal lobe d) occipital lobe ANS: a Topic=The Brain-Behavior Network Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This lobe is located above and just behind the ear. LO 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior.

EOM Q3.2.2 Which part of the peripheral nervous system controls involuntary actions of internal organs and glands? a) autonomic nervous system b) somatic nervous system c) sympathetic nervous system d) central nervous system ANS: a Topic=The Brain-Behavior Network Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This system consists of two divisions: sympathetic and parasympathetic. LO 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations.

EOM Q3.2.3 What is the name for the part of the brain stem connecting the cortex to the cerebellum? a) pons b) hindbrain c) striatum d) interneuron ANS: a Topic=The Brain-Behavior Network Skill=Apply What You Know, Objective=LO 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This lies below the midbrain, near the medulla. LO 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior.

EOM Q3.2.4 Broca’s area, named for French surgeon Paul Broca, is a region of the __________ and plays a key role in language production. a) prefrontal cortex b) primary auditory cortex c) auditory association cortex d) primary sensory cortex ANS: a Topic=The Brain-Behavior Network Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This region of cortex is responsible for thinking, planning, and language. LO 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior.

EOM Q3.2.5 Which of the following responses is created by the sympathetic nervous system, which is active during the fight-or-flight response? a) Stomach slows digestion. b) Pupils constrict. c) Lungs constrict bronchi. d) Heart rate slows. ANS: a Topic=The Brain-Behavior Network Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Think about how you'd want your body to be mobilized to either fight or flee. LO 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations.

Quiz 3.3: The Endocrine System Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: The Endocrine System

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q3.3.1 Which bodily system controls the secretion of blood-borne chemical messengers? a) endocrine b) cardiovascular c) central nervous system d) peripheral nervous system ANS: a Topic=The Endocrine System Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Hormones are molecules that influence particular organs and are carried through our blood vessels. LO 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior.

EOM Q3.3.2 Which hormone triggers the opening of bronchioles in the lungs and the breakdown of glycogen into glucose? a) adrenaline b) cortisol c) oxytocin d) nonhuman primates only ANS: a Topic=The Endocrine System Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Both sexes manufacture some amount of the sex hormone associated with the opposite sex. LO 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior.

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EOM Q3.3.3 The hormone testosterone is found in __________. a) males and females b) males only c) females only d) nonhuman primates only ANS: a Topic=The Endocrine System Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Both sexes manufacture some amount of the sex hormone associated with the opposite sex. LO 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior.

EOM Q3.3.4 Which gland was once thought of as the “master gland” because it controls the other glands in the body? a) pituitary b) adrenal c) hypothalamus d) endocrinal ANS: a Topic=The Endocrine System Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This gland depends heavily on actions of other glands, and it is controlled by the hypothalamus. LO 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior.

EOM Q3.3.5 The pituitary hormone oxytocin has been called the “love molecule” because __________. a) it plays roles in maternal and romantic love b) the molecule is heart-shaped c) it makes people more welcoming to outsiders d) it makes male prairie voles seek new mates ANS: a Topic=The Endocrine System Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: “Love molecule” and “cuddle molecule” are shorthand ways of thinking about the actions of this hormone. LO 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior.

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Quiz 3.4: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q3.4.1 A discredited technique for “mapping” areas of the brain is called __________. a) phrenology b) magnetic resonance imaging c) positron emission tomography d) computed tomography ANS: a Topic=Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Difficulty=Easy, Consider This: The shape of the outer surface of the skull does not closely match that of the underlying brain. LO 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques.

EOM Q3.4.2 As an illustration that brain scan images are not always easy to interpret correctly, mischievous researchers were able to come up with “results” when they took brain scans of __________. a) a dead salmon b) a nonscientist c) each other d) coma patients ANS: a Topic=Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The activation of this brain was a result of the fact that the scientists computed so many analyses that a few were likely to be statistically significant. LO 3.4a Identify different brainstimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOM Q3.4.3 Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) measures changes in __________, which indirectly indicate neural activity. a) blood oxygen levels b) glucose-like molecules c) neurotransmitters d) oxytocin ANS: a Topic=Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Like athletes who require more fluids as they exert themselves, brain cells require more oxygen to do their work when busy. LO 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques.

EOM Q3.4.4 As a researcher, if you needed to track brain changes over milliseconds (1/1000 of a second), the imaging technology you would most likely choose would be __________. a) magnetoencephalography (MEG) b) transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) c) positron emission tomography (PET) d) computed tomography (CT) ANS: a Topic=Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This imaging technique detects electrical activity in the brain by measuring tiny magnetic fields. LO 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques.

EOM Q3.4.5 Which of the following is responsible for transferring information from one side of the brain to the other, and when cut, prevents information from the visual field on one side from reaching the visual cortex on the other side? a) corpus callosum b) caudate nucleus c) synaptic cleft d) myelin sheath ANS: a Topic=Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This part of the brain connects the two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex. LO 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function.

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Quiz 3.5: Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It? Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It?

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q3.5.1 Which type of gene is expressed only in the absence of a dominant gene? a) recessive b) prototypical c) environmental d) phenotypical ANS: a Topic=Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 3.5a Describe genes and how they influence psychological traits. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Two brown-eyed parents could have a blue-eyed child because the child inherited this gene for blue eyes from both parents. LO 3.5a Describe genes and how they influence psychological traits.

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EOM Q3.5.2 The basic difference between being biologically male or female comes down to chromosomes. Females have an XX pair and males have __________. a) an XY pair b) a YY pair c) two Y's and a Z d) a YZ pair ANS: a Topic=Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It Skill=Understand the Concepts, Objective=LO 3.5a Describe genes and how they influence psychological traits. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Humans have a total of 46 X and Y chromosomes. LO 3.5a Describe genes and how they influence psychological traits.

EOM Q3.5.3 What practice of adoption agencies can make adoption studies problematic for researchers interested in disentangling genetic and environmental contributions to human behavior? a) selective placement b) sealed records c) open adoption d) environmental grooming ANS: a Topic=Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Children adopted into other homes share genes, but not environment, with their biological relatives. LO 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it.

EOM Q3.5.4 The extent to which genes contribute to differences in a trait among a group of individuals is known as __________. a) heritability b) sociability c) g-force d) the genetic index ANS: a Topic=Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This measurement is typically expressed as a percentage. LO 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it.

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EOM Q3.5.5 What is the crucial drawback in using family studies to try to determine the risk of a genetic disorder among relatives sharing a household? a) Sharing both an environment and genetic background can make nature hard to distinguish from nurture. b) Family studies are an unnecessary intrusion as the same information can be obtained from strangers sharing an environment, such as those living in an apartment building. c) People with the same genetic background are unlikely to share an environment. d) Relatives will be less likely to tell the truth to researchers in order to look better compared to other family members. ANS: a Topic=Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Relatives share a similar environment as well as similar genetic material. LO 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it.

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Chapter 3 Quiz: Biological Psychology: Bridging the Levels of Analysis Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Chapter Quiz: Biological Psychology: Bridging the Levels of Analysis

Multiple Choice Single Select EOC Q3.1 Approximately how many neurons are contained in the human brain? a) 85 billion b) 100 million c) 160 billion d) 140 million ANS: a Topic=Nerve Cells: Communication Portals Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do Difficulty=Easy Consider This: There are more neurons in an average brain than there are people on planet Earth. LO 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do.

EOC Q3.2 Sensory information comes into which part of the two-way nervous system “superhighway”? a) central nervous system b) peripheral nervous system c) somatic nervous system d) autonomic nervous system ANS: a Topic=The Brain–Behavior Network Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Difficulty=Easy, module=Biological Psychology: Bridging the Levels of Analysis Consider This: This part of the nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord. LO 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior.

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EOC Q3.3 In evolutionary terms, “fitness” means that an organism __________ than other organisms in its environment. a) has a better chance of passing on its genes b) is bigger and stronger c) is more deserving of survival d) has greater cardiovascular capacity ANS: a Topic=Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Some organisms possess adaptations that make them better suited to their environments. They survive and reproduce at higher rates than other organisms. LO 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it.

EOC Q3.4 You have just had a nice dinner and are nodding off on the sofa. At this time, which part of your nervous system is going to work? a) parasympathetic b) sympathetic c) somatic d) central ANS: a Topic=The Brain–Behavior Network Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Difficulty=Difficult Objective=LO 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Consider This: This part of the nervous system kicks into gear when there is no threat on our mental radar screens. LO 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations.

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EOC Q3.5 What event affecting the brain can cause bizarre behavioral outcomes, such as the extreme example of one hand refusing to cooperate with the other, as in the case of the man whose left hand turned off the television and hit his family members? a) split-brain surgery b) stroke c) epileptic seizure d) multiple sclerosis ANS: a Topic=Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Because the corpus callosum transfers information between the two hemispheres, cutting it prevents most visual information in each of the right or left visual field from reaching the visual cortex on the same side. LO 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function.

EOC Q3.6 The reason stem cells are so interesting to researchers is that stem cells __________. a) are not yet specialized for a specific function b) create a great deal of controversy c) have highly specialized functions d) are created by genetic engineering ANS: a Topic=Nerve Cells: Communication Portals Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 3.1d Describe how the brain changes as a result of development, learning, and injury. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: These cells have the potential to become a wide variety of cells. LO 3.1d Describe how the brain changes as a result of development, learning, and injury.

EOC Q3.7 Although alcohol does not actually kill brain cells, it does cause brain shrinkage and can destroy __________. a) dendrites b) neurons c) axons d) synapses ANS: a Topic=Nerve Cells: Communication Portals Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Neurons contain these multiple branchlike extensions for receiving information from other neurons. LO 3.1 Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do.

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EOC Q3.8 Which of the following brain structures is part of the limbic system? a) thalamus b) temporal lobe c) corpus callosum d) cerebellum ANS: a Topic=The Brain-Behavior Network Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The limbic system is composed of several brain structures. LO 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior.

EOC Q3.9 Located on top of the kidneys, the adrenal glands release adrenaline and __________ during times of emotional arousal. a) cortisol b) oxytocin c) testosterone d) thimerosal ANS: a Topic=The Endocrine System Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This action regulates blood pressure and cardiovascular function. LO 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior.

EOC Q3.10 As recently as two decades ago, scientists believed we were born with all the neurons we would ever have. But the discovery of __________ occurring in certain brain areas in monkeys gave rise to the hope that someday scientists will be able to induce the adult human brain to heal itself. a) neurogenesis b) stem cells c) human growth factor d) neurofibrillary tangles ANS: a Topic=Nerve Cells: Communication Portals Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 3.1d Describe how the brain changes as a result of development, learning, and injury. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This process refers to the creation of new neurons in the adult brain. LO 3.1d Describe how the brain changes as a result of development, learning, and injury.

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EOC Q3.11 Who uses sophisticated tests of reason, attention, and verbal and spatial abilities to figure out where brain dysfunction is located in human patients? a) neuropsychologists b) psychoanalysts c) cognitive psychologists d) behavioral psychologists ANS: a Topic=Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Tests include laboratory, computerized, and paper-and-pencil measures designed to assess patients’ cognitive strengths and weaknesses. LO 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques.

EOC Q3.12 Women’s bodies produce about one-twentieth the amount of which hormone compared to men’s bodies? a) testosterone b) estrogen c) progestin d) adrenalin ANS: a Topic=The Endocrine System Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The adrenal gland makes low amounts of this in both sexes. LO 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior.

EOC Q3.13 Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) uses magnetic fields to measure the release of energy from water in biological tissues. MRI is better than __________ for detecting soft tissues, such as brain tumors. a) computed tomography (CT) b) positron emission tomography (PET) c) functional MRI (fMRI) d) transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) ANS: a Topic=Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: The correct answer uses a three-dimensional reconstruction of multiple X-rays taken through a part of the body. LO 3.4a Identify different brain-stimulating, recording, and imaging techniques.

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EOC Q3.14 The central nervous system is organized into various areas. Which structures control movement and motor planning? a) basal ganglia b) cortex c) limbic system d) medulla ANS: a Topic=The Brain-Behavior Network Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Tourette’s disorder, a condition characterized by both motor tics and vocal tics, appears to be associated with abnormalities in these structures. LO 3.2a Identify what roles different parts of the central nervous system play in behavior.

EOC Q3.15 Twin studies work best when using identical or __________ twins, because these twins share all of their genetic material in common. a) monozygotic b) multizygotic c) dizygotic d) fraternal ANS: a Topic=Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It? Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Identical twins originate from one zygote. LO 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it. EOC Q3.16 When Georgie goes to the sink to fill a glass with water, his brain sends signals telling different parts of his body what to do in order to complete this action. Which part of the nervous system carries out these directions? a) somatic b) autonomic c) central d) parasympathetic ANS: a Topic=The Brain-Behavior Network Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Whenever we stabilize or move our many joints, the CNS cooperates with this system to regulate our posture and bodily movement. LO 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q3.17 Identify the term that behavioral geneticists use to describe the extent to which genes limit how much a trait can change in response to new environments. a) reaction range b) heritability c) heredity d) adaptation ANS: a Topic=Nature and Nurture: Did Your Genes—or Parents—Make You Do It? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Eye color is limited because it will not change much over our lifetimes, even in the presence of radical environmental changes. LO 3.5b Explain the concept of heritability and the misconceptions surrounding it.

EOC Q3.18 During an experiment investigating the effects of hormones on behavior, men who were exposed to a certain chemical in a nasal spray were more likely to give money to a team partner during a risky investment game. That chemical was __________. a) oxytocin b) adrenaline c) cortisol d) testosterone ANS: a Topic=The Endocrine System Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This hormone is also responsible for several reproductive functions, including aiding milk flow in nursing mothers. LO 3.3a Describe what hormones are and how they affect behavior.

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EOC Q3.19 Which of the following is the name for the “nerve cable” that extends from the base of the brain to about two-thirds of the way down the vertebral column? a) spinal cord b) amygdala c) cerebellum d) cerebral cortex ANS: a Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations. Topic=The Brain-Behavior Network Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Along with the brain, this is a component that is part of the central nervous system. LO 3.2b Clarify how the somatic and autonomic nervous systems work in emergency and everyday situations.

EOC Q3.20 As neurotransmitters exit the sending axon and before passing into the receiving dendrite, they must pass through the __________. a) synaptic cleft b) cell nucleus c) myelin gap d) reticular activating system ANS: a Topic=Nerve Cells: Communication Portals Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This gap is surrounded by small patches of membrane on each side, one on the sending axon of the first neuron and the other on the receiving dendrite of the second neuron. LO 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do.

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EOC Q3.21 A popular notion is that people only use about 10 percent of their brains and that the remaining 90 percent has untapped potential. In fact, researchers now know that we use more of our brains than previously thought. The true brain use percentage is closer to __________. a) 100 percent b) 75 percent c) 55 percent d) 20 percent ANS: a Topic=Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: All brain areas become active on brain scans at one time or another as we think, feel, and perceive. LO 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function.

EOC Q3.22 There is a popular idea that people are either “left-brained” (scholarly, logical, analytical) or “rightbrained” (artistic, creative, emotional). The textbook authors note that these claims are __________. a) vast oversimplifications based on a small nugget of truth b) somewhat simplified but essentially accurate c) completely ridiculous as all parts of the brain function in essentially the same way d) backed by a vast, international conspiracy to favor left-brained people over right-brained ones ANS: a Skill=Understand the Concepts Topic=Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action Objective=LO 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The corpus callosum and other interconnections ensure that both hemispheres are in continual communication. LO 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function.

EOC Q3.23 The neurotransmitter __________ rapidly excites neurons, and is one of the most common neurotransmitters in the central nervous system. a) glutamate b) GABA c) cortisol d) excitorol ANS: a Topic=The Brain-Behavior Network Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Different neurotransmitters have different effects, but this one is a “main” neurotransmitter found throughout the brain. LO 3.1c Explain how neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q3.24 Research has found that a single area of the brain can have multiple functions. Which brain area plays a role in speech and also lets us know when a musical note is off key? a) Broca’s area b) Hippocampus c) Hypothalamus d) Occipital lobe ANS: a Topic=Mapping the Mind: The Brain in Action Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Originally, this area of the brain was thought to be involved in a single set of functions. LO 3.4b Evaluate results demonstrating the brain’s localization of function.

EOC Q3.25 In people with multiple sclerosis, the degradation of the __________ causes neural messages to become mixed up, creating many physical and emotional symptoms. a) myelin sheath b) cerebral ventricles c) meninges d) astrocytes ANS: a Topic=Nerve Cells: Communication Portals Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: In this autoimmune disease, these features are progressively “eaten away,” resulting in a loss of insulation of neural messages. LO 3.1a Distinguish the parts of neurons and what they do.

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Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception Total Assessment Guide Topic Quick Quiz 1

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice

4, 9

2, 6

1, 3, 5, 7, 8, 10

Quick Quiz 2

Multiple Choice

2, 4, 6, 9

5, 8

1, 3, 7, 10

Introduction & Learning Objective 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Learning Objective 4.1b Discuss the role of attention and the nature of the binding problem. Learning Objective 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process.

Multiple Choice

2–3, 8, 11, 15–16, 19 1

1, 4

5–7, 9–10, 12–14, 17–18, 20–24 2

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

25, 29-31 1

26, 28, 32 3–5 2

Multiple Choice

33–35, 37, 39–43, 46, 48–50, 52–53 6 3

36, 38, 44–45, 51

57 8

54–56

59–60

58, 61, 63

64, 66–67, 69–70, 72, 74–77 9–10

65, 68

71, 73

79, 83

80–82

84–87, 89-93, 99– 101 11

88, 94, 96–98

Learning Objective 4.2b Identify the different kinds of visual perception. Learning Objective 4.2c Describe different visual problems. Learning Objective 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Learning Objective 4.3b Identify the different kinds of auditory perception. Learning Objective 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes.

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Topic Learning Objective 4.5a Describe the three different body senses. Learning Objective 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Learning Objective 4.5c Describe the field of psychology called human factors. Learning Objective 4.6a Track how our minds build up perceptions. Learning Objective 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Learning Objective 4.6c Distinguish subliminal perception from subliminal persuasion. Learning Objective 4.6d Analyze the scientific evidence for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP).

Factual Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Conceptual

102–103, 115–118

105–106, 110, 113– 114 15–16

Applied 119

104, 107–108, 111

109, 112

13–14 1

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

120

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice

122, 126

124–125

123, 127–128 18

130, 134, 142, 145, 147–148

141, 150

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay

129, 131–133, 135– 140, 143–144, 146, 149, 151–152 20-22 4

Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice

121 17

153, 157 23

154–156

159, 161

163–165

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Essay Critical Thinking

1 2

158, 160, 162, 166– 167 25

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 4 Quick Quiz 1 1. Which of the following most closely mimics the process of transduction? A) Betty mixes eggs, flour, and sugar together to make a cake. B) While painting, Stan combines the colors red and blue to make purple. C) Gas companies convert crude oil into a fuel that car engines can run on. D) Nike changes its logo from a “swoosh” to a “panther.” 2. __________ processing is conceptually driven and influenced by our beliefs and expectations. A) Bottom-up B) Parallel C) Top-down D) Sensory 3. Psychics are often viewed as accurate because they make general statements like, “A major celebrity will spend time in jail in 2007,” and then we recall that Paris Hilton and Nicole Richie were sentenced to serve jail time in 2007. This is the psychic trick of __________. A) clairvoyance B) cold reading C) failed psychic predictions D) multiple end points 4. Changing the shape of the lens to focus on objects near or far is called __________. A) focusing B) accommodation C) constriction D) dilation 5. The monocular cue of __________ is being used when an artist places trees in front of riders to create a sense of depth when the picture is viewed. A) interposition B) light and shadow C) linear perspective D) relative size 6. Brightness refers to the intensity of light. The corresponding term when discussing the intensity (or amplitude) of sound is __________. A) hue B) loudness C) pitch D) timbre 7. Infant Esme is just waking up from her nap. As her mom enters the room, Esme turns her head in Mom’s direction. Which of the following allowed Esme to know the direction Mom would be entering from? A) echolocation B) sound shadow C) auditory perceptual cues D) binaural cues 8. Rafael has a cold and plugged sinuses. These symptoms are most likely to affect A) his ability to listen to his Art History professor’s lecture. B) his enjoyment of the food at the university cafeteria. C) his pain tolerance threshold. D) his sense of balance. 9. The name given to the sensory system that tells us about the position of our body in space is __________. A) gustation B) proprioception C) somatosensory sense D) the vestibular sense

10. A disorder of the inner ear would be most likely to impact our __________. A) equilibrium B) hearing C) sense of pain D) sense of smell

Chapter 4 Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1. C

Explanation: Transduction is the process of converting external energy into a form the brain can understand (neural activity). (Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception, Applied, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 4.1a)

2. C

Explanation: In top-down processing, we start with our own expectations that are based on experiences and construct a perceptual event thereafter. (Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 4.6a)

3. D

Explanation: The use of multiple end points means that psychics keep their predictions so open-ended that they are consistent with any conceivable set of outcomes. (Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 4.6d)

4. B

Explanation: Accommodation is what allows us to see objects at varying distances, and this ability declines predictably as we age. (Seeing: The Visual System, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 4.2a)

5. A

Explanation: The monocular cue of interposition states that an object blocking the view of another object is closer. (Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 4.6b)

6. B

Explanation: Loudness refers to the amplitude, or height, of the sound wave; it is measured in decibels. (Hearing: The Auditory System, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 4.3a)

7. D

Explanation: The fact that we have two ears, located at different points on our head, helps us to localize sound. (Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 4.3b)

8. B

Explanation: Our sense of taste is strongly influenced by our sense of smell; with our nose plugged, we become much less able to detect different tastes. (Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT, LO 4.4a)

9. B

Explanation: Our awareness of the position of our limbs in space is called proprioception. (Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 4.5a)

10. A

Explanation: The vestibular sense, or sense of equilibrium, relies on the cochlea and semicircular canals, which are located in the inner ear. (Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 4.5a)

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 4 Quick Quiz 2 1. Cason is initially blinded as he walks out of a daytime movie. However, very rapidly his eyes begin to adjust to the bright light. What is the best explanation for his rapid recovery? A) perceptual adjustments B) sensory deprivation C) oversensitivity of his rods and cones D) sensory adaptation 2. Attending to many modalities simultaneously is a phenomenon called __________. A) bottom-up processing B) top-down processing C) parallel processing D) selective attention 3. Clara, the psychic, is addressing her audience prior to the show. She notices that two of the audience members are wearing military uniforms. After a brief conversation with one of the soldiers, she suggests to him that he may be experiencing some doubt over recent events that took place. Which process is Clara engaging in? A) cold reading B) precognition C) telepathy D) clairvoyance 4. When light enters the eye, it first passes through what structure? A) Cornea B) Lens C) Pupil D) Sclera 5. According to __________, color vision evolved because perceiving color gave our ancestors an advantage when foraging for food. A) binocular theory B) trichromatic theory C) opponent process theory D) Gestalt theory 6. The part of the ear we see is called the __________. A) cochlea B) pinna C) tympanic membrane D) ossicle 7. Pete has played lead guitar in a rock band for years. He often would turn the volume on his guitar way up and spend a great deal of time in front of the speakers during the shows. His resulting hearing impairment over the past few years is most likely the result of __________. A) conductive deafness B) damaged hair cells C) noise-induced hearing loss D) tinnitus 8. A common symptom associated with depression is loss of appetite. Research indicates that this occurs because __________. A) our taste sensitivity is heightened by the neurotransmitters targeted by antidepressant drugs B) our taste thresholds are increased by the neurotransmitters targeted by antidepressant drugs C) our taste thresholds are unchanged by the neurotransmitters targeted by antidepressant drugs D) we are more likely to label food as “disgusting” when we are emotionally aroused. 9. The somatosensory system responds to sensory information about __________. A) body position and equilibrium B) temperature, touch and pain. C) taste and smell. D) sound and vision

10. Which of the following sensory difficulties is likely to be the most dangerous? A) blindness B) deafness C) loss of smell D) pain insensitivity

Chapter 4 Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1. D

Explanation: Sensory adaptation refers to the decline in activation of our sense receptors when a stimulus is unchanging. (Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception, Applied, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 4.1a)

2. C

Explanation: When we use different sensory systems at the same time, this is called parallel processing. (Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 4.6a)

3. A

Explanation: Cold reading is the art of convincing people we’ve just met that we know all about them. Several techniques contribute to this phenomenon, such as looking for physical cues (e.g., military uniforms). (Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 4.6d)

4. A

Explanation: The cornea is a transparent window that covers the front of the eye. (Seeing: The Visual System, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 4.2a)

5. B

Explanation: According to your authors, all scientists agree that seeing more colors gave our ancestors a leg up in foraging for food. (Seeing: The Visual System, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 4.2b)

6. B

Explanation: The technical name for your earlobe is the pinna. (Hearing: The Auditory System, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 4.3a)

7. C

Explanation: Loud sounds, especially those that last a long time or are repeated, can damage our hair cells and lead to noise-induced hearing loss. (Hearing: The Auditory System, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 4.3b)

8. A

Explanation: There does seem to be a relationship between the neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine, and our ability to taste. These are neurotransmitters that are affected by antidepressant drugs. (Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 4.4a)

9. B

Explanation: These are the types of sensory input that are processed by this system. (Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 4.5a)

10. D

Explanation: Although pain is unpleasant, it serves a very important adaptive and evolutionary function. The inability to experience pain can be a very dangerous medical condition. (Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 4.5b)

Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception Test Bank Multiple Choice 1. By presenting research participants with incomplete objects, psychologists have been able to see how the participants come to determine what they are viewing. This research suggests that our daily experiences are the result of __________. A) both reality and illusions Correct. Because we can be fooled by sensory events in our environment, our daily experiences are active by both reality and illusions. B) only illusions C) only reality Incorrect. We are not only affected by the reality of what is in our environment, but also by our misinterpretation of perceptual illusions. D) only sensory information Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 2. The interpretation of incoming gustatory information (or stimuli related to taste) is one example of __________. A) accommodation B) perception C) sensation D) transduction Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction

3. The ability to detect physical energy through our sense organs, which then send information off to the brain, is called __________. A) accommodation B) perception C) sensation D) transduction Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 4. __________ involves the detection of energy by sense organs, whereas __________ involves interpreting sensory inputs. A) Perception; sensation Incorrect. This is actually the opposite of the correct answer. B) Transduction; perception C) Sensation; perception Correct. Sensation is like the reception of information, while perception is when our brains actually do something with those data. D) Sensation; transduction Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 5. Roger feels something land on his hand but has yet to interpret that feeling in order to understand, recognize, or identify it. At this time, Roger has experienced which process(es)? A) sensation Correct. Sensation is the process of detecting physical energy from the environment using the sense organs. B) perception Incorrect. The brain’s interpretation of raw sensory input is called perception. C) transduction D) parallel processing Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction

6. If you close your eyes and touch a sharp object, your very first contact with the object involves which process(es)? A) perception Incorrect. The brain’s interpretation of raw sensory input is called perception. B) sensation Correct. Sensation is the process of detecting physical energy from the environment using the sense organs. C) transduction D) parallel processing Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 7. Cole was distressed to learn that he had a blind spot. In fact, he learned that everyone has a blind spot. Cole’s inability to notice his own blind spot is most likely the result of which perceptual process? A) illusion B) distorted reality C) retinal confusion Incorrect. Your textbook does not discuss a phenomenon called retinal confusion. D) filling-in Correct. The process of filling-in involves our tendency to blend the real with the imagined; in most cases, this tendency serves us well. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 8. The converting of external energy into something that the nervous system can understand is known as __________. A) accommodation B) perception C) sensation D) transduction Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception % correct 73 a = 0 b = 6 c = 21 d = 73 r = .61

9. Which of the following most closely mimics the process of transduction? A) Betty mixes eggs, flour, and sugar together to make a cake. B) While painting, Stan combines the colors red and blue to make purple. Incorrect. While this is an effective example of color mixing, it does not relate specifically to the concept of transduction. C) Gas companies convert crude oil into a fuel that car engines can run on. Correct. Transduction is the process of converting external energy into a form the brain can understand (neural activity). D) Nike changes its logo from a “swoosh” to a “panther.” Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception 10. Computer programmers often use binary codes (strings of 1s and 0s) to write programs for computers. These codes are then changed into patterns that the computer recognizes as words, pictures, sounds, and so forth. Which process does this most resemble in humans and other animals? A) transduction Correct. Transduction is the process of converting external energy into a form the brain can understand (neural activity). B) bottom-up processing C) top-down processing Incorrect. Top-down processing suggests that our perception of sensory events is influenced by our beliefs and expectations. D) conversion Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception 11. A __________ is a specialized cell responsible for converting external stimuli into neural activity for a specific sensory system. A) sense receptor B) sensory adaptation C) selective attention D) cell sensor Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception

12. Cason is initially blinded as he walks out of a daytime movie. However, very rapidly his eyes begin to adjust to the bright light. What is the best explanation for his rapid recovery? A) perceptual adjustments B) sensory deprivation C) oversensitivity of his rods and cones Incorrect. On the contrary, the recovery of his visual acuity in changing light circumstances suggests that his visual receptors are working properly. D) sensory adaptation Correct. Sensory adaptation refers to the decline in activation of our sense receptors when a stimulus is unchanging. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception 13. Zach and David decide to go exploring the forest behind their farm on a cold December day. The fact that they felt much colder when they initially got outdoors than they do five minutes later, despite having not done anything to warm themselves, is known as __________. A) sensory adaptation Correct. Sensory adaptation refers to the fact that the activation of sensory receptors is greatest when a stimulus is first detected. B) sensory illusion C) sensory interaction. D) transduction Incorrect. Transduction is the process of converting an external energy or substance into an electrical activity within neurons. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception

14. Jayda and Brendon get into the hot tub at the health club after coming in from a cold winter day. When they first get in, the water is so hot they can barely stand it, but after a few minutes they find it to be pleasantly hot without being uncomfortable. This reduction in their perception of the heat is probably due to __________. A) sensory adaptation Correct. The term “sensory adaptation” refers to the fact that the activation of sensory receptors is greatest when a stimulus is first detected. B) sensory illusion C) sensory interaction D) transduction Incorrect. Transduction is the process of converting an external energy or substance into an electrical activity within neurons. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception 15. The minimum sensitivity of our sensory abilities and systems is demonstrated in our __________ thresholds. A) absolute Correct. The absolute threshold is the lowest level of a stimulus needed for the nervous system to detect a change 50 percent of the time. B) difference Incorrect. The difference threshold, or just noticeable difference, is the smallest change in intensity of a stimulus that we can detect. C) pain D) psychophysical Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception 16. The lowest level of a stimulus needed for the nervous system to detect a change half the time is called the __________. A) sense receptor B) just noticeable difference C) sensory adaptation D) absolute threshold Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception % correct 88 a = 3 b = 6 c = 3 d = 88 r = .36

17. A soldier stationed at a base in northern Alaska is dressed in his all-white camouflage. He wants to know the exact distance from which another person can distinguish him from the snowbank in which he is hiding. The soldier is concerned with the __________. A) just noticeable difference Correct. The just noticeable difference is the smallest change in the intensity of a stimulus (in this case, a change in distance and visual sensation) that we can detect. B) absolute threshold Incorrect. The absolute threshold is the lowest level of a stimulus needed for the nervous system to detect a change 50 percent of the time. C) visual processing boundary D) limits of perceptual ability Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception 18. Dr. Balkin is heating up a liquid he just created in the lab. He has recruited students to observe his experiments and pinpoint the exact moment the liquid begins to change color. Dr. Balkin is concerned with the __________. A) signal-to-noise ratio B) just noticeable difference Correct. The just noticeable difference is the smallest change in the intensity of a stimulus (in this case, a change in color) that we can detect. C) perceptual accuracy D) absolute threshold Incorrect. The absolute threshold is the lowest level of a stimulus needed for the nervous system to detect a change 50 percent of the time. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception 19. __________ says that there is a constant proportional relationship between the just noticeable difference (JND) and the original intensity of a stimulus. A) Weber’s law B) Signal detection theory C) The signal-to-noise ratio D) Sensory adaptation Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception

20. As the number of people talking in a room increases, the stimulus intensity needed to detect a change in the number of people talking becomes __________. A) finer B) greater Correct. This is the basic premise of Weber’s law, which states that there is a constant proportional relationship between the JND and original stimulus intensity. C) same D) smaller Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer, because as the original stimulus intensity increases, the change in that stimulus that has to occur for us to detect that change must increase proportionally. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception 21. Alicia is talking on her cell phone to her friend Maya. If Maya is in a crowded subway terminal, Alicia finds that she has to nearly shout for Maya to be able to hear her. However, when Maya is in a meadow on her grandparents’ farm, she can easily tell what Alicia is watching on TV as they talk. This is one illustration of __________. A) absolute threshold Incorrect. The absolute threshold is the lowest level of a stimulus needed for the nervous system to detect a change 50 percent of the time. B) the just noticeable difference C) signal-to-noise ratio Correct. It becomes harder to detect a signal as background noise increases. D) transduction Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception

22. Which of the following is the best example of the signal-to-noise ratio? A) Lisa has to listen very carefully to hear her friend talking in the car. B) Bobby is shouting at the neighbor’s dog that is digging up his yard. Incorrect. Because there is no background noise interfering with Bobby shouting at the dog, this does not demonstrate the signal-to-noise ratio. C) While listening to the television, Kate is also reading her textbook. D) Robyn has to shout over the boisterous crowd at the football game to be heard. Correct. Signal detection theory predicts when we will detect certain stimuli. With the signal-to-noise ratio, it becomes harder to detect a signal as background noise increases. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception 23. You just ordered a pizza from your favorite restaurant and can’t wait for it to get here. As time passes, everything you hear sounds like a car driving by. What accounts for your “heightened” sense of hearing? A) signal-to-noise ratio Incorrect. It becomes harder to detect a signal as background noise increases. B) just noticeable difference C) signal detection theory Correct. Signal detection theory predicts under what circumstances we will detect a weak stimulus. D) the quiet environment you are waiting in Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception 24. When you are waiting for an important call, you may react immediately to the sound of your cell phone. At any other time, however, it may take you a second or two to notice that your phone is ringing. This difference is explained by the __________. A) signal detection theory Correct. Signal detection theory predicts under what circumstances we will detect a weak stimulus. B) signal-to-noise ratio Incorrect. It becomes harder to detect a signal as background noise increases. C) just noticeable difference D) quiet environment you are waiting in Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception

25. Cross-modal sensory experiences have long been explained as reflecting communication among different areas of the brain. If one were to speculate that individual brain regions might, in fact, be responsible for some level of perceptual processing for more than one sensory experience, this would provide an alternate explanation for such perceptual events. This would demonstrate the critical thinking concept of __________. A) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. This alternate explanation provides a rival hypothesis to the existing idea of how cross-modal perception works. B) extraordinary evidence C) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. While this explanation may indeed appear to be a more parsimonious explanation of crossmodal perception, this is not the best answer to the question. D) replicability Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 4.1b Discuss the role of attention and the nature of the binding problem. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception 26. Sarah is a pianist who reports that she sees musical tones as colors. This is one example of __________. A) binocular cues Incorrect. Binocular cues give our brain information about depth using both eyes simultaneously. B) the Ganzfield technique C) the Ponzo illusion D) synesthesia Correct. Synesthesia is a condition in which people experience cross-modal sensations. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception % correct 91 a = 3 b = 3 c = 3 d = 91 r = .53 27. The process of selecting one sensory channel and ignoring or minimizing others is called __________. A) selective perception B) selective attention C) a perceptual set D) selective processing Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1,1 TEXT LO: 4.1b Discuss the role of attention and the nature of the binding problem. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception

28. Clay has played professional soccer for seven years and is easily able to tune out the sound of the crowd and all other irrelevant sensory information during the game. Bruce is a rookie and is often distracted by what his opponents are saying and the mood of the crowd. Clay and Bruce are showing differing levels of __________. A) absolute thresholds B) parallel processing Incorrect. Parallel processing refers to the ability to attend to many sense modalities simultaneously. C) selective attention Correct. Selective attention allows us to focus our “attentional spotlight” on some aspects of our experience, while ignoring or minimizing others. D) top-down processing Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.1b Discuss the role of attention and the nature of the binding problem. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception % correct 88 a = 0 b = 12 c = 88 d = 0 r = .30 29. According to Donald Broadbent’s research, selective attention acts as a __________. A) mental filter Correct. Broadbent’s theory views attention as a bottleneck through which information passes, and says that this mental filter enables us to pay attention to important stimuli while ignoring others. B) key C) safety net. D) trapdoor Incorrect. The trapdoor image suggests that some information is simply discarded. Broadbent’s theory is better thought of as a mental filter. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.1b Discuss the role of attention and the nature of the binding problem. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception 30. When Anne Treisman (1960) repeated the research of Donald Broadbent in an attempt to clarify his theory that attentional processes act as a filter through which certain stimuli pass, she was able to verify his findings and extended his theory in different ways. This demonstrates the incredible value of __________. A) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. In this case Treisman was not ruling out Broadbent’s theory, but instead was looking to verify it. She was successful to an impressive degree. B) replicability Correct. By repeating (replicating) Broadbent’s findings, Treisman was able to support his original theory and then take it in new directions. This is the true value of science. C) falisification D) extraordinary claims Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 4.1b Discuss the role of attention and the nature of the binding problem. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception

31. Which of the following is an example of how our selective visual attention can lead us to miss important information? A) change blindness Correct. Change blindness refers to a failure to detect obvious changes in one’s environment. B) the cocktail party effect C) color blindness D) synesthesia Incorrect. Synesthesia is a condition in which people experience cross-modal sensations. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.1b Discuss the role of attention and the nature of the binding problem. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception % correct 56 a = 56 b = 32 c = 12 d = 0 r = .57 % correct 75 a = 75 b = 19 c = 0 d = 6 r = .47 32. Amanda notices a tree is brown, has a rough texture, and is solid. Although individually these characteristics do not define a tree, when combined, they do. Which perceptual process allows her to identify the object as a tree? A) selective attention Incorrect. Selective attention is the process of selecting one sensory channel and ignoring or minimizing others. B) top-down processing C) binding Correct. The binding problem refers to the mysterious complexity of thought and perception that allows us to take multiple pieces of information and bind, or combine, them to represent a unified whole. D) multi-tasking Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.1b Discuss the role of attention and the nature of the binding problem. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception 33. Light, a central player in our visual perception of the world, is a form of __________. A) chemical energy B) mechanical energy C) vibration D) electromagnetic energy Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System

34. The intensity of the reflected light that reaches our eyes is received as __________. A) hue B) contrast C) brightness D) saturation Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 35. The color of light is what psychologists call __________. A) brightness B) hue C) synesthesia D) timbre Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 36. Morris has gotten into the collection of paint cans that his mother uses to create beautiful works of art. Because it is fun, Morris takes the lids off of each can and pours the paints into a puddle on the floor. If every color is represented by the paints, what color will the puddle be? A) clear B) gray C) white Incorrect. In additive color mixing, the application of every color hue of light to a surface would result in a white color. D) black Correct. In subtractive color mixing, the application of every color pigment to a surface would result in a black color. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process.. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 37. The white part of the eye is the __________. A) pupil. B) retina C) fovea D) sclera Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

38. Bryan finds his girlfriend Christina far more attractive as she leaves the darkened movie theater than before they entered. What might account for Bryan’s reaction? A) Research suggests that attractiveness is affected by eye color. Incorrect. The colored part of the eye is the iris, and its color is not affected by changes in brightness. B) Research suggests that the lighting in theaters affects our visual perception. C) Research suggests that most people find enlarged pupils more attractive. Correct. In addition to helping us see in different levels of light, pupil size also has psychological significance. We tend to find a face with dilated pupils more attractive than one with smaller pupils. D) Research suggests that perceived attractiveness increases as the pupil becomes smaller. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 39. The __________ is a small circular opening that allows light to enter the eye. A) iris B) cornea C) pupil D) retina Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 40. When light enters the eye, it first passes through what structure? A) cornea B) lens C) pupil D) sclera Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System % correct 84 a = 84 b = 13 c = 3 d = 0 r = .61

41. Which of the following structures has a primary responsibility of focusing light on the back of the eye? A) pupil B) fovea C) lens D) retina Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 42. What structure changes its shape to focus light at the back of the eye? A) cone B) fovea C) lens D) retina Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 43. Changing the shape of the lens to focus on objects near or far is called __________. A) focusing B) accommodation C) constriction D) dilation Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 44. Jan can see objects well up close, but they appear blurry from afar. She is probably __________. A) color blind B) nearsighted Correct. Nearsightedness is the ability to see well close up but not far away. C) farsighted Incorrect. Farsightedness is the ability to see clearly objects that are far away, but to struggle seeing objects that are close up. D) developing a cataract Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System

45. Brigitta suffers from an eye condition that causes images to be focused in front of her retina instead of directly on it. The result is that she has to wear eyeglasses, and every few years she requires a stronger prescription. What is the name for this particular condition? A) amblyopia B) strabismus C) hyperopia Incorrect. Hyperopia is caused by an image being focused behind the retina. It is commonly referred to as farsightedness. D) myopia Correct. Myopia is the ability to see well close up but not far away. It occurs when an image is focused in front of the retina and is commonly referred to as nearsightedness. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 46. Which of the following occurs in people who suffer from hyperopia? A) Images are focused behind the retina instead of right on it. Correct. This is what happens in farsightedness, or hyperopia. B) The pupil opens too wide in response to normal light conditions. C) Images are focused in front of the retina instead of right on it. Incorrect. This would describe myopia, not hyperopia. D) The pupil does not open wide enough in response to normal light conditions. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 47. As we age, we are more likely to need glasses because __________. A) of damage to our corneas Incorrect. There is no age-related degeneration of the cornea that is commonly seen in most people. B) of damage to our retinas C) the lens loses its flexibility Correct. As we age the lens, like most other parts of our bodies, will become less flexible. This causes us to become myopic and need eyeglasses. D) the retina can no longer accommodate subtle changes in light Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System % correct 68 a = 0 b = 16 c = 68 d = 16 r = .32

48. Our visual sensory receptor cells are located in the __________. A) cornea B) fovea C) optic nerve D) retina Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System % correct 71 a = 3 b = 3 c = 23 d = 71 r = .43 49. Which type of receptor cell is associated with seeing colors? A) ganglia B) bipolar C) rods D) cones Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System % correct 92 a = 0 b = 3 c = 5 d = 92 r = .52 50. The central portion of the retina is the __________. A) fovea B) lens C) cornea D) cones Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System % correct 42 a = 42 b = 16 c = 16 d = 26 r = .45

51. When Stewart wakes up at night and has to walk from his bedroom to the bathroom in the dark, he is most directly aided in this process by his __________. A) cones Incorrect. Cones are receptor cells in the retina that become active in high light situations, and allow us to see detail and color. B) corneas C) irises D) rods Correct. Rods are receptor cells in the retina that become active in low light and allow us to see basic shapes and forms (but not color). Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System % correct 63 a = 32 b = 5 c = 0 d = 63 r = .53 52. The __________ carries sensory information from the retina to the brain areas where visual perception will occur. A) fovea B) lens C) optic nerve D) retina Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System % correct 94 a = 3 b = 3 c = 94 d = 0 r = .26 53. A blind spot is a part of the visual field we can’t see, where the __________ exits through to the __________. A) retina; pupil B) cornea; iris C) optic nerve; retina D) optic nerve; sclera Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System

54. The critical thinking concept of replicability is best demonstrated by which of the following examples? A) Research has found that there is a relationship between the amount of pain a person can tolerate and the color of their hair, suggesting that having red hair actually causes a decrease in pain tolerance. Incorrect. This example would demonstrate the error of correlation vs. causation. B) Von Helmholtz repeated and extended the research into the trichromatic theory of color vision he proposed with Thomas Young by examining the colors that color-blind individuals could see. Correct. Von Helmholtz was replicating the research into his own theory, and from there was able to take his theory in entirely new directions. C) There is evidence that color vision allowed animals to easily pick ripe fruit out of a green background, and more recent fossil evidence suggests that trichromatic vision may have enabled primates to find young, reddish, tender leaves that were nutritionally superior. D) People who suffer from synesthesia are unable to successfully complete the Ganzfield task because their cross-modal perception makes the selection of specific shapes impossible. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 4.2b Identify the different kinds of visual perception. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 55. According to __________, color vision evolved because perceiving color gave our ancestors an advantage when foraging for food. A) binocular theory B) Gestalt theory C) opponent process theory Incorrect. The ability to see more colors is explained by the trichromatic theory, and seems to provide an evolutionary advantage. D) trichromatic theory Correct. According to your authors, all scientists agree that seeing more colors gave our ancestors a leg up in forging for food. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2b Identify the different kinds of visual perception. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System

56. One of the problems with the trichromatic theory of color vision is that it cannot explain why negative afterimages (i.e., afterimages that appear in complementary colors) occur. The opponent process theory of color vision, however, neatly explains this phenomenon. Which principle of critical thinking does this remind us to consider? A) falsifiability B) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. In fact, using multiple theories to explain a phenomenon is not more parsimonious but rather less. This is not consistent with the concept of Occam’s Razor. C) extraordinary claims D) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. In this case, both theories of color vision are partially correct, and together they cover the entire range of color vision experiences. Remember that psychology very rarely has one theory that fully explains a phenomenon. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 4.2b Identify the different kinds of visual perception. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 57. According to the opponent process theory of color vision, the correct pairings of opposite colors are __________. A) black versus white, red versus green, and blue versus yellow B) black versus gray and white versus colored C) grayscales, blue versus red and green versus yellow D) blue versus green and red versus yellow Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2b Identify the different kinds of visual perception. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System % correct 84 a = 84 b = 5 c = 0 d = 11 r = .32 58. If you were excited at having passed the Ishihara test at the eye doctor's office today, which of the following conclusions could you reasonably make? A) You have a minimal chance of ever developing glaucoma or cataracts. B) You do not have a lazy eye. C) You can see things clearly. Incorrect. This might be better determined by the Snellen test. D) You have normal color vision. Correct. The Ishihara test is used to determine whether a person suffers from interrupted color vision. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.2c Describe different visual problems. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System

59. Although the term “color blind” is often used to refer to people who have difficulties with their perception of color, a true monochromat (person who does not see any color at all) is very rare. Most people with color blindness are called __________ and are missing only one type of cone. A) dichromats B) trichromats C) presbyopes D) tetrachromats Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2c Describe different visual problems. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 60. The majority of cases of blindness are caused by __________ and glaucoma and are treatable. A) genetic abnormalities B) retinitis pigmentosa C) cataracts D) macular degeneration Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.2c Describe different visual problems. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 61. Phoebie brags to her boyfriend that she scored a “twenty twenty” at the eye doctor’s office today. The boyfriend tells her how proud he is of her, although he doesn’t really know what that means. Phoebie is technically referring to her performance on the __________ eye chart. A) von Helmholtz B) Ishihara Incorrect. The Ishihara test is used to test for various forms of color blindness. C) Snellen Correct. The Snellen eye chart is used to test for visual acuity, and a “20/20” score reflects perfect vision. D) Colavita Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.2c Describe different visual problems. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System

62. Because those with “blindsight” report that they can see nothing but still do better than chance on tests of visual stimuli detection, some theorized that there was a paranormal explanation for their test results. Another hypothesis is that some blind people may use a form of echolocation to "see" what is in front of them. This alternate hypothesis demonstrates which principle of critical thinking? A) extraordinary claims Incorrect. The hypothesis that the test results were due to some paranormal event were certainly extraordinary, but there was no evidence to support such claims. B) Occam’s Razor Correct. This much simpler explanation demonstrates Occam’s Razor, or the rule of parsimony. C) replicability D) correlation vs. causation Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 4.2c Describe different visual problems. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 63. Quentin is suffering from a disorder that causes him to have problems recognizing everyday objects. The other day he was looking at a wine glass and couldn’t come up with its name. He said to his wife, “I want one of those things that you hold the wine in,” but try as he did, he could not find the word glass. This demonstrates a form of visual __________. A) ataxia B) apraxia C) aphasia Incorrect. Aphasia is a language disturbance, not a visual recognition problem. D) agnosia Correct. Agnosia refers to an inability to recognize things. Visual agnosia occurs when one can tell the shape or color of an object but cannot name it. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.2c Describe different visual problems. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 64. Our sense of hearing is called __________. A) audition B) gustation C) olfaction D) proprioception Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System

65. A whistle that gives a sound so high that it can only be heard by dogs, not humans. In this case, the auditory quality of the whistle that cannot be heard by a person is its __________. . A) loudness Incorrect. Loudness refers to the amplitude, or vertical size, of a sound wave. B) timbre C) pitch Correct. Pitch refers to the frequency of the sound wave. Because the human ear can only hear certain frequencies, a sensitivity that changes with age, a dog whistle could blast a higher-pitched tone. D) decibels Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System 66. The __________ is determined by the frequency of a sound wave. A) audition B) timbre C) amplitude D) pitch Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System 67. Humans can hear sounds ranging from 20 to __________. A) 2,000 dB B) 2,000 Hz C) 20,000 dB D) 20,000 Hz Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System

68. Brightness refers to the intensity of light. The corresponding term when discussing the intensity (or amplitude) of sound is __________. A) hue B) loudness Correct. Loudness refers to the amplitude, or height, of the sound wave; it is measured in decibels. C) pitch Incorrect. Pitch refers to the frequency of the sound wave, and is measured in hertz or megahertz. D) timbre Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System 69. Loudness is associated with a sound wave’s __________. A) amplitude B) length C) pitch D) timbre Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System 70. The complexity or quality of sound that makes instruments, voices, and other sources of sound unique is called __________. A) audition. B) acuity. C) timbre. D) wavelength. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System

71. Lanny has worked as a radio personality for the local professional baseball team for more than 20 years. Though he has gotten older, fans marvel at the fact that his "silky sweet voice" has remained almost unchanged. This quality to Lanny's "radio voice" is best described as its __________. A) audition B) acuity C) timbre Correct. The timber of a sound indicates its auditory quality, and high timbre sounds are often very pleasant to listen to. D) wavelength Incorrect. Wavelength, which is related to frequency, would describe the pitch of Lanny's voice. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System 72. The part of the ear we see is called the __________. A) cochlea B) pinna C) tympanic membrane D) ossicle Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System 73. Sierra is on a first date with a new guy and he comments to her about how cool her earrings are. "They really make your ears stand out," he tells her. Sierra has had a psychology class, but because she doesn't want to seem rude she resists the urge to correct her date and tell him that each of her earrings is actually located on a __________. A) cochlea B) pinna Correct. Your pinna is the external part of the ear. It is where earrings are usually located. C) tympanic membrane Incorrect. If an earring was on the tympanic membrane, also called the eardrum, Sierra would be in a lot of pain and her date would not be able to see the jewelry anyway! D) ossicle Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System

74. The bony, spiral-shaped, fluid-filled sense organ used for hearing is the __________. A) basilar membrane B) cochlea C) timbre D) pinna Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System 75. Which of the following would NOT be considered one of the ossicles? A) pinna B) hammer C) anvil D) stirrup Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System 76. Once sound waves have been converted into neural activity, the __________ carries them to the brain for auditory perception. A) auditory nerve B) basilar membrane C) cochlea D) pinna Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System

77. Which part of the ear has hair cells, also called auditory receptors, embedded within it? A) auditory nerve B) basilar membrane Correct. The basilar membrane and the Organ of Corti are both important to hearing because of the hair cells, or auditory receptors, embedded within them. C) cochlea D) pinna Incorrect. The pinna is the outermost portion of the ear and does not have auditory receptors within it. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System 78. Human perception of high-pitched tones is best explained by ___________ theory. A) frequency Incorrect. The frequency theory suggests that the rate at which neurons fire the action potential in the ear produces the pitch. It is not an effective theory at explaining the perception of high-pitched sounds. B) opponent process C) place Correct. The place theory of hearing suggests that a specific place along the basilar membrane matches a tone with a specific pitch. It is an effective theory at explaining the perception of high-pitched sounds. D) volley Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.3b Identify the different kinds of auditory perception. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System 79. One theory of pitch perception is the __________ theory, which suggests that the rate at which neurons in the ear fire produces different pitches. This theory is particularly effective at explaining humans’ perception of lower pitches. A) place B) frequency C) volley D) opponent-process Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.3b Identify the different kinds of auditory perception. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System

80. Dominic has a hearing problem that is caused by a problem with the ossicles in his inner ear. Technically, he would be described as suffering from __________ deafness. A) binaural B) nerve Incorrect. Nerve deafness occurs when there is a problem with the auditory nerve’s ability to send noise sensations to the brain. C) conductive Correct. Conductive deafness is caused by a malfunctioning of the eardrum or the ossicles. D) noise-induced Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.3b Identify the different kinds of auditory perception. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System 81. Pete has played lead guitar in a rock band for years. He often would turn the volume on his guitar way up and spend a great deal of time in front of the speakers during the shows. His resulting hearing impairment over the past few years is most likely the result of __________. A) conductive deafness Incorrect. Conductive deafness is due to a malfunctioning of the ear, especially a failure of the eardrum or the ossicles of the inner ear. B) damaged hair cells C) noise-induced hearing loss Correct. Loud sounds, especially those that last a long time or are repeated, can damage our hair cells and lead to noise-induced hearing loss. D) tinnitus Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.3b Identify the different kinds of auditory perception. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System

82. Chase was born four months premature. To help him develop normally, physicians gave him medications to promote lung development. As it turns out, these medications had the unfortunate side effect of damaging the structure that connects Chase's ears to his brain. The result is that Chase has a 90-percent hearing loss. This form of hearing loss would be best described as __________. A) conductive deafness Incorrect. Conductive deafness is due to a malfunctioning of the ear, especially a failure of the eardrum or the ossicles of the inner ear. B) nerve deafness Correct. Nerve deafness is due to damage to the auditory nerve. C) noise-induced hearing loss D) tinnitus Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.3b Identify the different kinds of auditory perception. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System 83. As we age, it becomes more difficult for us to hear __________ sounds. A) high-frequency B) low-frequency C) low- to middle-frequency D) moderate-frequency Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.3b Identify the different kinds of auditory perception. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System 84. Our sense of taste is called __________. A) gustation B) olfaction C) proprioception D) the vestibular sense Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses

85. The sense of smell is also known as __________. A) olfaction B) the salivary sense C) chemical infarctation D) gustation Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses 86. The average dog is about __________ as sensitive to smell as a human being, which is what makes dogs very effective in a variety of roles (e.g., detecting drugs or bombs). A) 1,000 times Incorrect. This answer is too low. The best answer is 10,000. B) 10,000 times Correct. Police dogs are particularly important because of this amazing smell sensitivity. C) 100,000 times D) 1,000,000 times Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses 87. The average human being has more than __________ olfactory genes. A) 1,000 B) 10,000 C) 100,000 D) 1,000,000 Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses

88. Which of the following statements about taste and smell is TRUE? A) Our nose and tongue identify approximately the same numbers of odors and tastes, respectively. Incorrect. Research into the gustatory and olfactory systems has found that we have the ability to perceive far more odors than tastes. B) Our nose and tongue identify exactly the same numbers of odors and tastes, respectively. C) Our nose identifies far more odors than our tongue identifies tastes. Correct. Our nose is designed to identify many odors, while research has only confirmed the existence of five basic taste sensations. D) Our tongue identifies far more tastes than our nose identifies odors. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses 89. What neurotransmitter seems to be very highly present in many food products that have umami as their primary taste profile? A) dopamine B) acetylcholine C) gamma-aminobutyric acid D) glutamate Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses 90. We are sensitive to __________ basic tastes. A) three B) five C) seven D) countless Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses % correct 56 a = 19 b = 56 c = 3 d = 22 r = .48

91. Which of the following is the most recently identified of the basic taste sensations? A) bitter B) salty C) umami D) sour Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses 92. Bumps on the tongue called __________ contain numerous __________. A) mechanoreceptors; taste buds B) papillae; taste buds C) taste buds; mechanoreceptors D) taste buds; papillae Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 21.1 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses 93. According to the authors, we experience the taste sensation of saltiness __________. A) at the tip of the tongue B) throughout all areas of the tongue; there is no one location for any of the tastes C) toward the front of the tongue, but not on the tip D) toward the rear area of the tongue Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses

94. Our ability to experience so many different tastes, despite the limited number of taste sensations, demonstrates the interplay between our senses of taste and __________. A) hearing B) smell Correct. Our sense of taste is strongly influenced by our sense of smell; with our nose plugged, we become much less able to detect different tastes. C) touch D) vision Incorrect. There is certainly a relationship between how something looks and how we perceive its taste, but the strongest relationship is between taste and smell. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses % correct 91 a = 0 b = 91 c = 6 d = 3 r = .48 95. Rafael has a cold and has plugged sinuses. These symptoms are most likely to affect __________. A) his ability to listen to his Art History professor’s lecture B) his enjoyment of the food at the university cafeteria Correct. Our sense of taste is strongly influenced by our sense of smell; with our nose plugged, we become much less able to detect different tastes. C) his pain tolerance threshold Incorrect. Nothing in your textbook discusses a relationship between pain tolerance and the olfactory system. D) his sense of balance Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses 96. We are able to distinguish pleasant from disgusting smells and tastes because of the contribution of the __________, the emotional center of the brain. A) brainstem B) cerebellum C) limbic system D) thalamus Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses

97. Our memories from childhood often involve not only visual information but olfactory information as well. This is because the olfactory cortex is located near the __________. A) brainstem Incorrect. The olfactory cortex is located near the limbic system, and is nowhere near the brainstem. B) cerebellum C) limbic system Correct. Because the limbic system is strongly involved in the experiencing of emotions, the relative location of the olfactory cortex and the limbic system connects smell experiences and emotional memories. D) thalamus Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses 98. A common symptom associated with depression is loss of appetite. Research indicates that this occurs because __________. A) our taste sensitivity is reduced when the activity of certain neurotransmitters declines Correct. There does seem to be a relationship between the neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine, and our ability to taste. These neurotransmitters may be reduced during periods of depression. B) our taste thresholds are increased by the neurotransmitters targeted by antidepressant drugs C) our taste thresholds are unchanged by the neurotransmitters targeted by antidepressant drugs Incorrect. The neurotransmitters that are related to depression may also play a role in our taste thresholds. D) we are more likely to label food as “disgusting” when we are emotionally aroused Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses 99. Odorless chemicals that serve as a social signal to other members of one’s species are called __________. A) pheromones B) nitriles C) umamis D) olfactoceptors Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses

100. Research on human pheromones should have what impact on a person’s decision to purchase pheromone-based products to make themselves more attractive and desirable to others? A) Human pheromones do not exist and pheromone-based products are therefore a waste of money. B) Human pheromones do exist and purchasing pheromone-based products is a useful way to influence others’ interest in you. C) Human pheromones do exist, but purchasing pheromone-based products is not an effective way to influence others’ interest in you. D) Human pheromones do exist, but the research on the usefulness of pheromone-based products is inconclusive. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses 101. In general, __________ is/are the least serious sensory and perceptual disorders. A) blindness B) deafness C) olfactory disorders D) pain insensitivity Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses 102. The name given to the sensory system that tells us about the position of our body in space is __________. A) gustation B) proprioception C) somatosensory sense D) the vestibular sense. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.5a Describe the three different body senses. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance

103. The somatosensory system responds to sensory information about __________. A) body position and equilibrium B) sound and vision C) taste and smell D) temperature, touch, and pain Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.5a Describe the three different body senses. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance % correct 65 a = 9 b = 12 c = 14 d = 65 r = .63 104. Why might it actually be less painful to sleep on a bed of nails than to be stabbed in the finger with one (at least in theory)? A) The mechanoreceptors are only sensitive to light touch. B) There are more free nerve endings in our fingers than our backs. Correct. We sense pain (as well as touch and temperature) with free nerve endings. There are many free nerve endings in our fingertips, and few in the middle of our backs. C) There are more mechanoreceptors devoted to the back than the fingers. D) There are fewer free nerve endings in our fingers than our backs. Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 105. Information about __________ travels to the spinal cord and brain more quickly than information about ____________. A) pain; touch B) pain; vision ` C) touch; pain D) touch; vision Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 106. The gate control theory of pain suggests that the __________. A) pain signals must pass through a kind of “gate” located in the spinal cord B) skin receptors act as a gate for the pain sensation C) cortex blocks pain unless released by substance P D) gate is a physical structure that blocks pain signals Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

107. The authors mentioned the interesting correlation between natural red hair and lower pain thresholds compared to persons with other natural hair colors. This is most likely to be due to the fact that __________. A) genetic factors that impact pain threshold are also somehow related to hair color B) natural hair color causes people to have an increased or decreased pain threshold C) natural pain thresholds cause people to be born with different natural colors of hair D) None of the above was mentioned by the authors as an explanation of the correlation between natural hair color and pain threshold Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 108. There appears to be a relationship between hair color and pain tolerance; specifically, people with red hair appear to have a lower pain threshold than other people. When interpreting this relationship, which principle of critical thinking do we need to be particularly sensitive to? A) replicability B) falsifiability C) correlation vs. causation Correct. The relationship is correlative, and does not suggest that (1) having red hair causes a lower pain tolerance or (2) having a lower pain tolerance causes your hair to turn red. Wouldn’t that second one be something? D) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. This is not a wrong answer, but the best answer is to remember that correlation does not imply causation. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 109. Who is likely to experience the most pain when given a shot by the nurse? A) Stan, who has blond hair B) Daisy, who has brown hair C) Mike, who has red hair Correct. We don’t know what causes red-haired people to tend toward lower pain thresholds and need to remember that correlation does not prove causation. The authors explain that there are probably genetic influences on pain tolerance that happen to be associated with genetic influences on red hair. D) Lizzie, who has black hair Incorrect. Research has found that people with red hair seem to have a lower pain threshold, although the explanation for their relationship has not been conclusively identified. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance

110. Endorphins are the neurotransmitters that __________. A) control your muscles B) act as natural painkillers C) generate pain sensations D) excite the ventral horn of the spinal cord Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 111. Which of the following seems least likely to have an impact on the degree of pain a person might experience? A) cultural expectations and background Incorrect. The authors specifically mention the idea that cultural background and upbringing can affect our experience and expression of pain. B) emotional reactivity C) individual thresholds for pain D) the number of people who are around when an injury takes place Correct. Nothing in your textbook speaks about the number of people in your surroundings affecting your experience of pain. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 112. Which of the following sensory difficulties is likely to be the most dangerous? A) blindness Incorrect. Certainly the loss of one’s vision can be a dangerous condition, but pain insensitivity is much more immediately threatening to one’s safety and well-being. B) deafness C) loss of smell D) pain insensitivity Correct. Although pain is unpleasant, it serves a very important adaptive and evolutionary function. The inability to experience pain can be a very dangerous medical condition. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance % correct 94 a = 3 b = 0 c = 3 d = 94 r = .22

113. Scientific research involving the use of psychic healing techniques for reducing pain seems to suggest that psychic healing is __________ as a method for alleviating pain. A) extremely detrimental B) extremely effective C) lacking in scientific support D) sometimes effective and sometimes not effective Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 114. Researchers investigating the relationship among reported level of pain, use of psychic healing techniques, and belief in psychic phenomena found __________ correlation between use of psychic healing and reported pain and __________ correlation between severity of pain and degreeof belief in belief in psychic phenomena. A) a negative; a positive B) a positive; no C) no; a negative D) no; a positive Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 115. The ability to detect our balance and keep our balance as we move around in our daily life is known as __________. A) olfaction B) the proprioceptive sense C) somatosensory information D) the vestibular sense Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.5a Describe the three different body senses. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 116. The vestibular senses rely on three __________, which are located in the inner ear. They are fluidfilled structures that provide information about balance and equilibrium. A) ossicles B) corpuscles C) tympanic membranes D) semicircular canals Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.5a Describe the three different body senses. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

117. Our sense of equilibrium is called __________. A) the vestibular sense B) proprioception C) balance D) kinesthesia Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.5a Describe the three different body senses. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 118. The receptors for the proprioceptive senses are located in the __________. A) inner and middle ears B) muscles and muscle tendons C) olfactory and visual cortices D) temporal and parietal lobes Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.5a Describe the three different body senses. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 119. A disorder of the inner ear would be most likely to impact our ___________. A) equilibrium Correct. The vestibular sense, or sense of equilibrium, relies on the cochlea and semicircular canals, which are located in the inner ear. B) hearing Incorrect. The three semicircular canals, highly involved in our vestibular sense, are located in the inner ear. C) sense of pain D) sense of smell Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.5a Describe the three different body senses. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance

120. What discipline within psychology seeks to optimize the interaction between equipment and technology and our human sensory and perceptual abilities? A) cognitive neuroscience B) human factors C) industrial-organizational psychology D) social psychology Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.5c Describe the field of psychology called human factors. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 121. Which of the following would probably not be a goal of human factors, or human engineering? A) decreasing physical strain when using technology B) increasing ease of use of technology C) increasing safety Incorrect. Increasing safety, particularly in the workplace, would be a very important goal of human factors psychology. D) enhancing pain reduction Correct. Human factors psychology seeks to study and improve the interaction of humans with their physical environments. The improvements would be related to less fatigue, greater ease of use, and increased safety—domains of everyday life. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.5c Describe the field of psychology called human factors. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 122. Attending to many modalities simultaneously is a phenomenon called __________. A) bottom-up processing B) top-down processing C) parallel processing D) selective attention Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.6a Track how our minds build up perceptions. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

123. Juanita is holding her pet cat, Belle. The fact that she is getting information about Belle’s weight as she sits on Juanita’s lap, the sound of Belle’s purrs, and the sight of Belle’s eye movements all at the same time is an example of __________. A) bottom-up processing B) parallel processing Correct. Parallel processing is the ability to attend to many sense modalities is simultaneously. C) subliminal processing D) top-down processing Incorrect. Top-down processing occurs when conceptually driven processing is influenced by beliefs and experiences. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6a Track how our minds build up perceptions. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains % correct 76 a = 15 b = 76 c = 6 d = 3 r = .68 124. In __________ processing, we construct a whole stimulus from its parts. A) parallel B) bottom-up C) perceptual set D) top-down Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.6a Track how our minds build up perceptions. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 125. __________ processing is conceptually driven and influenced by our beliefs and expectations. A) Bottom-up Incorrect. In bottom-up processing, we construct a meaningful perceptual experience from individual sensory details. B) Parallel C) Top-down Correct. In top-down processing, we start with our own expectations that are based on experiences and construct a perceptual event thereafter. D) Sensory Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.6a Track how our minds build up perceptions. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains % correct 56 a = 16 b = 16 c = 56 d = 12 r = .37

126. The fact that our beliefs and expectations often influence our sensory experiences is known as ________ processing. A) bottom-up B) parallel C) subliminal D) top-down Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.6a Track how our minds build up perceptions. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains % correct 42 a = 32 b = 5 c = 21 d = 42 r = .31 127. Contestants on the television shows Wheel of Fortune and Jeopardy! are given category labels before each new puzzle or question. Providing these labels is intended to activate __________ processing. A) bottom-down B) top-down Correct. Top-down processing occurs when we use higher-level brain functions (such as knowledge, memory, or expectations) to interpret sensations. C) bottom-up Incorrect. We use bottom-up processing when a whole is constructed from individual parts, or sensory details. D) top-up Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6a Track how our minds build up perceptions. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 128. Stanton is taking chemistry with Ms. Neville and has heard many negative stories about her class from his friends. The fact that his beliefs about Ms. Neville affect his interpretation of his interactions with her during the school year is an example of __________. A) bottom-up processing Incorrect. We use bottom-up processing when a whole is constructed from individual parts, or sensory details. B) parallel processing C) subliminal processing D) top-down processing Correct. Top-down processing occurs when conceptually driven processing is influenced by beliefs and experiences. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6a Track how our minds build up perceptions. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains % correct 73 a = 7 b = 8 c = 10 d = 73 r = .25

129. Even though the cars at the end of the train look miniature, we know they are full-size due to __________. A) binocular cues Incorrect. Binocular cues give our brain information about depth using both eyes simultaneously. B) monocular cues C) perceptual constancy Correct. Perceptual constancy is the process by which we perceive stimuli consistently across varied conditions. D) perceptual illusion Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 130. The tendency to interpret an object as always being the same physical dimensions, regardless of its distance from the viewer, is known as __________ constancy. A) size B) distance C) depth D) color Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 131. Jordan and her friends are in the front row for a rock concert. During the concert, the lead singer moves all around the stage but Jordan continues to perceive him as the same height even though the image received in her eye and brain constantly changes. This illustrates which type of perceptual constancy? A) color constancy Incorrect. Color constancy is our ability to perceive color consistently across different levels of lighting. B) location constancy C) shape constancy D) size constancy Correct. Size constancy allows us to perceive an object of consistent size, even as the sensations hitting our retinas change. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

132. The fact that you can easily recognize a picture of Mickey Mouse or Bart Simpson as that character, no matter what angle they are presented in during a cartoon, is an example of __________ constancy. A) color Incorrect. Color constancy is our ability to perceive color consistently across different levels of lighting. B) location C) shape Correct. Shape constancy allows us to perceive the same object, even as the retinal image (the sensation) changes. D) size Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains % correct 88 a = 6 b = 6 c = 88 d = 0 r = .30 133. Which of the following best exemplifies the concept of perceptual constancy? A) An open window looks less like a window than a closed window. B) An airplane flying off into the distance appears to get smaller. C) As a child throws a ball high into the sky, it looks like it is getting bigger when it comes back down. Incorrect. The fact that the ball appears to change in size violates the concept of size constancy. D) As a shadow passes over your newspaper, you know that the color in the full-page advertisement you are reading is not actually changing. Correct. Color constancy refers to our ability to perceive the same color across different levels of light. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 134. What psychological school first identified that visual perception occurs in terms of whole objects rather than individual component parts? A) behaviorism B) Gestalt C) humanistic D) psychoanalytic Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

135. As we listen to music on the radio or on our iPhones, we often are aware of the arrangement of tones into melodies rather than just focusing on the individual notes. This auditory perception is compatible with the principles established by __________. A) behavioral psychologists B) Gestalt psychologists Correct. Gestalt psychologists focus on our perceptions of the “whole” rather than the “parts.” C) humanistic psychologists D) psychodynamic psychologists Incorrect. If this question involved some unconscious motivation for listening to our iPods, then this might be the right answer. As the question is written, however, the best answer is Gestalt psychologists. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 136. Carol is at the football game and watching the half-time show. Which Gestalt principle best explains her ability to “recognize” her school’s letters as the band members spell them out on the field? A) proximity Incorrect. The Gestalt principle of proximity says that objects physically close to each other tend to be perceived as unified wholes. B) similarity Correct. The Gestalt principle of similarity says that we group items that have a similar appearance, such as band members wearing the same uniforms. C) symmetry D) closure Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

137. At a junior high dance, Mr. Holland tends to view boys and girls sitting together as “couples” regardless of whether they are actually dating. This illustrates the Gestalt principle of _________. A) closure B) proximity Correct. The Gestalt principle of proximity predicts that we will perceive objects that are close to each other as being part of a unified whole. C) similarity Incorrect. The Gestalt principle of similarity says that we group items that have a similar appearance, such as band members wearing the same uniforms. D) symmetry Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains % correct 68 a = 0 b = 69 c = 26 d = 5 r = .65 138. If these lines, --------- ----------, were seen as one long line, this would be an example of the Gestalt principle of ___________, A) proximity Incorrect. The Gestalt principle of proximity predicts that we will perceive objects that are close to each other as being part of a unified whole. B) closure Correct. The principle of closure leads the mind to fill in what’s missing to create a coherent whole. C) continuity D) symmetry Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains % correct 42 a = 11 b = 42 c = 47 d = 0 r = .47 139. Julio is playing paintball with his friends. He is wearing his new camouflage suit, hoping that it will interfere with which Gestalt principle? A) proximity Incorrect. The Gestalt principle of proximity predicts that we will perceive objects that are close to each other as being part of a unified whole. B) similarity C) closure D) figure-ground Correct. Figure-ground perception allows us to distinguish the central figure from the background. We usually make this perceptual decision instantaneously. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

140. When taking a picture, photographers attempt to draw people’s attention toward a particular image. This is one example of the Gestalt principle of __________. A) closure B) figure-ground Correct. The Gestalt principle of the figure-ground relationship suggests that we make a decision to focus on certain aspects of a visual stimulus, while allowing other aspects to recede into the background. C) proximity Incorrect. The Gestalt principle of proximity predicts that we will perceive objects that are close to each other as being part of a unified whole. D) symmetry Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 141. Our ability to see action in movies, rather than a series of static pictures, is the result of __________. A) closure Incorrect. The Gestalt principle of closure suggests that our brain automatically fills in missing pieces from a visual stimulus. B) good continuation C) the phi phenomenon Correct. The phi phenomenon is the illusory perception of movement produced by the success of flashing of images. D) symmetry Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains % correct 75 a = 16 b = 6 c = 75 d = 3 r = .23 142. The __________ is the illusory perception of movement produced by the successive flashing of images. A) trichromatic theory B) monocular cue C) phi phenomenon D) binocular cue Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains % correct 59 a = 16 b = 0 c = 59 d = 25 r = .44

143. The monocular cue of __________ is being used when an artist places trees in front of riders to create a sense of depth when the picture is viewed. A) interposition Correct. The monocular cue of interposition states that an object blocking the view of another object is closer. B) light and shadow C) linear perspective D) relative size Incorrect. The monocular cue of relative size states that all things being equal, more distant objects look smaller than closer objects. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains % correct 53 a = 53 b = 0 c = 21 d = 26 r = .72 144. Tom spent the morning taking pictures in the small coves of a local lake. What monocular cue is providing depth perception when the near objects in his photographs appear much larger than those on the opposite shore of the cove? A) height in plane B) interposition Incorrect. The monocular cue of interposition states that an object blocking the view of another object is closer. C) linear perspective D) relative size Correct. The monocular cue of relative size refers to our tendency to assume that closer objects look larger than more distant objects. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

145. The fact that your left eye and right eye receive somewhat different views of the world, and that those differences give your brain information about the distance of what you are looking at, is called __________. A) binocular disparity Correct. This slight difference is part of your binocular depth perception. B) binocular inversion C) convergence Incorrect. Convergence is a binocular depth cue that is related to the way your ocular muscles move when objects get closer or farther from you. D) stereophonic vision Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 146. When Bill looks at his lamp alternately with his left eye and right eye, the image seems to jump from one position to another. This phenomenon illustrates __________. A) binocular disparity Correct. The fact that, when we look at an object, each one of our two eyes receives a slightly different image of the object, is known as binocular disparity. B) convergence C) divergence D) interposition Incorrect. Interposition, or overlap, is the assumption that an object that appears to be blocking part of another object is in front of the second object and closer to the viewer. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains % correct 53 a = 53 b = 21 c = 10 d = 16 r = .56 147. Visual distance and depth cues that require the use of both eyes are called __________ cues. A) monocular B) diocular C) binocular D) dichromatic Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

148. What experimental apparatus has been used to study depth perception in infants? A) the Ames Room B) Escher lithographs C) the visual cliff D) Zener cards Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 149. Seven-month-old Mazie is crawling toward the end of the bed. How likely is it that she will continue on and fall off? A) unlikely, because depth perception develops by about 6 months of age in infants Correct. By the time infants are crawling, they are able to perceive (and usually avoid) a drop-off. The visual cliff has been used to study this perceptual ability in a variety of species. B) unlikely, because her mother will probably stop her before she reaches the end Incorrect. The visual cliff experiments by Gibson and Walk demonstrated that depth perception develops rather early in children. C) likely, because infants only use monocular cues when judging depth D) likely, because depth perception develops later in childhood Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 150. In locating the source of sounds, we tend to rely most heavily on __________ cues. A) binaural Correct. A binaural cue refers to the different perception of a sound in the left and right ear. B) binocular Incorrect. A binocular cue is a depth cue that gives our brain information about the distance of a visual object using information from both eyes simultaneously. C) monaural D) monocular Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

151. Infant Esme is just waking up from her nap. As her mom enters the room, Esme turns her head in Mom’s direction. Which of the following allowed Esme to know the direction Mom would be entering from? A) echolocation Incorrect. Although there is some evidence that echolocation may exist in a very rudimentary form in some human beings, this is not the best answer to this question. B) sound shadow C) auditory perceptual cues D) binaural cues Correct. The fact that we have two ears, located at different points on our head, helps us to localize sound. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 152. Scott is at lunch with his friends, playing with some straws. He places two pennies between straws that are parallel and two between two straws that are angled toward each other. What perceptual illusion is Scott trying to re-create? A) Müller-Lyer illusion B) horizontal-vertical illusion C) ponzo illusion Correct. The Ponzo illusion involves our perception that when converging lines enclose two objects of identical size, we perceive the object closer to the converging lines as larger. D) moon illusion Incorrect. The moon illusion states that the moon appears larger when it’s near the horizon than when it’s high in the sky. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

153. The processing of sensory information that occurs below the level of conscious awareness is called __________. A) selective attention B) top-down processing C) subliminal perception D) bottom-up processing Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.6c Distinguish subliminal perception from subliminal persuasion. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 154. Lucy has been in love with Charlie for a very long time. Every time they are together, she whispers the word love over and over again at a level that is barely audible. Although Charlie never remembers hearing the message, Lucy is convinced that she is getting through to him. Should Lucy be so optimistic? A) No; although Charlie may be “hearing” the message subliminally, it is not likely to persuade him one way or the other. Correct. Though there is compelling evidence that we can perceive some information subliminally, that information is unlikely in most cases to have any long-term or profound effect on our attitudes or behavior. B) Yes; subliminal perception is real and there is little doubt that it can alter behavior. Incorrect. This is exactly the opposite of what research has found regarding the effectiveness of subliminal messages. C) Maybe; if Lucy breaks through to a deeper level of consciousness, she can convince Charlie to fall in love. D) No; subliminal persuasion has been shown to be highly effective, but only when one is hungry or thirsty. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6c Distinguish subliminal perception from subliminal persuasion. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains % correct 79 a = 79 b = 5 c = 11 d = 5 r = .52

155. Matt is considering the purchase of subliminal self-help tapes to aid him in losing weight. His wife Marge is skeptical about this plan and asks your advice. Based on the evidence presented by your authors, what would you say about the effectiveness of subliminal self-help tapes? A) They are effective. B) They are highly effective, but only if you believe they’ll be effective. Incorrect. While there may be some placebo effect to the use of subliminal self-help tapes, research has not found them to be highly effective. C) They are ineffective. Correct. Research has found that subliminal self-help tapes are generally ineffective. D) More research is needed to assess their effectiveness or ineffectiveness. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6c Distinguish subliminal perception from subliminal persuasion. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 156. In 1990, the rock band Judas Priest was put on trial for contributing to the suicide of a teenager. It was alleged that their music, when played backward, encouraged a teenage boy to shoot himself. Expert witnesses at the trial testified that subliminal messages are very unlikely to cause major changes in behavior, and even less likely to do so when they are reversed. The musicians should be thankful that the jury remembered which principle of critical thinking? A) extraordinary claims Correct. The accusations were extraordinary (some say ludicrous), and there was no evidence to support the claims. B) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. While there is probably a much simpler explanation for the suicide of the young man, it is not addressed in this question. C) replicability D) correlation vs. causation Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 4.6c Distinguish subliminal perception from subliminal persuasion. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 157. Scores of studies have demonstrated that subliminal self-help tapes are __________. A) very effective B) moderately effective C) slightly effective D) ineffective Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6c Distinguish subliminal perception from subliminal persuasion. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

158. The old game show Let’s Make a Deal offered contestants the choice between a visible prize, usually cash, or the prize hidden behind one of three doors. Which of the following abilities would be most useful to those contestants? A) precognition B) insight recognition C) telepathy Incorrect. Telepathy refers to the ability to read another person’s mind. D) clairvoyance Correct. Clairvoyance is the ability to detect the presence of people or objects hidden from view. Psychologists generally agree that ESP phenomena such as this do not exist. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6d Analyze the scientific evidence for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP). Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 159. Perception of events outside the known channels of sensation is called __________. A) olfaction B) gustation C) extrasensory perception D) auditory perception Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.6d Analyze the scientific evidence for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP). Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 160. Dallas is an ex-football player who now hosts his own sports talk show. He spends most of his time predicting who will win the game on Sunday. Which of the following abilities would be most useful to Dallas? A) precognition Correct. Precognition is the ability to predict future events using paranormal means (outside traditional science). Psychologists generally agree that ESP phenomena such as this do not exist. B) telepathy Incorrect. Telepathy refers to the ability to read another person’s mind. C) clairvoyance D) top-down processing Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6d Analyze the scientific evidence for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP). Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

161. Extrasensory knowledge of someone else’s thoughts is called __________. A) telepathy B) precognition C) clairvoyance D) psychometry Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.6d Analyze the scientific evidence for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP). Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 162. Which of the following is the best example of telepathy? A) Kelsey is excellent at choosing winning horses at the track. Incorrect. This would be a demonstration of precognition, or the ability to predict events before they occur. B) Kyle, a professional gambler, seems to always know when the other players are bluffing. Correct. Telepathy is the ability to read other people’s minds. Psychologists generally agree that ESP phenomena such as this do not exist. C) Jason can almost always guess what his present is before opening the box. D) Brandon can sometimes make the papers on his desk move by just staring at them and “willing” them to move. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6d Analyze the scientific evidence for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP). Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 163. A major impediment for proponents of ESP is the lack of ability of subsequent researchers to verify earlier positive findings for the phenomena. In scientific terms, we say this indicates a lack of attention to __________. A) demand characteristics B) falsifiability Incorrect. In fact, ESP has been falsified in many different research studies. C) Occam’s Razor. D) replicability Correct. The inability of repeated research to produce the same results is a problem of replicability. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 4.6d Analyze the scientific evidence for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP). Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

164. A major concern about ESP claims is that proponents explain both the positive and negative findings. By explaining the negative findings via the experimenter and decline effects, proponents of ESP are faced with a problem in which principle of critical thinking? A) replicability B) falsifiability Correct. Remember that, in any science, a theory or claimant must be capable of being proven wrong. Proponents of ESP come up with ways of negating evidence that proves them to be wrong, so this is a problem for critical thinking principles. C) ruling out rival hypotheses D) correlation vs. causation Incorrect. There is nothing in this question that has to do with the relationship between correlation and causation. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 4.6d Analyze the scientific evidence for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP). Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains % correct 69 a = 6 b = 69 c = 16 d = 9 r = .30 165. According to your authors, one reason why people continue to believe in the existence of ESP is that __________. A) the general public is biased against science and reason Incorrect. While this may be a true statement, it is not one that has been used by your authors to explain why people believe in ESP. B) overestimation of the rate of occurrence of coincidences is more common than underestimation C) people don’t realize how probable some “improbable” events are Correct. Because people incorrectly assume that some events are very improbable, it seems almost magical when they occur. D) they fail to understand how scientific research is conducted Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6d Analyze the scientific evidence for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP). Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

166. Psychics are often viewed as accurate because they make general statements like, “A major celebrity will spend time in jail in 2007,” and then we recall that Paris Hilton and Nicole Richie were sentenced to serve jail time in 2007. This is the psychic trick of __________. A) clairvoyance B) cold reading Incorrect. Cold reading refers to the art of persuading people we’ve just met that we know all about them. C) failed psychic predictions D) multiple end points Correct. The use of multiple end points means that psychics keep their predictions so open-ended that they are consistent with any conceivable set of outcomes. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6d Analyze the scientific evidence for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP). Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 167. Clara, the psychic, is addressing her audience prior to the show. She notices that two of the audience members are wearing military uniforms. After a brief conversation with one of the soldiers, she suggests to him that he may be experiencing some doubt over recent events that took place. Which process is Clara engaging in? A) cold reading Correct. Cold reading is the art of convincing people we’ve just met that we know all about them. Several techniques contribute to this phenomenon, such as looking for physical cues (e.g., military uniforms). B) precognition C) telepathy D) clairvoyance Incorrect. Clairvoyance is the ability to detect the presence of objects or people that are hidden from view. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6d Analyze the scientific evidence for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP). Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

Fill-in-the-Blank 1. The brain’s interpretation of raw sensory inputs is called __________. Answer: perception Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 2. When Julius first entered and sat down in the classroom, he felt cold. However, ten minutes later he no longer feels cold. This change is most likely the result of sensory __________. Answer: adaptation Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception 3. Jim is a runner who jogs between 2 and 8 miles each morning. As he runs through his route each morning, he is exposed to millions of pieces of information; however, only a few ever capture his immediate attention. This ability to choose certain input while ignoring others is called __________. Answer: selective attention Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.1b Discuss the role of attention and the nature of the binding problem. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception 4. Mrs. Garrett is driving her children to the mall to see a movie. The children cannot agree on what movie they wish to see. The argument starts to get louder and louder but suddenly stops when Mrs. Garrett simply says the names of each of the three children. This shift in one’s attention is known as the __________ effect. Answer: cocktail party Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.1b Discuss the role of attention and the nature of the binding problem. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception

5. While walking across campus, Dr. Kotter is stopped by a young man asking directions for getting to a building on the opposite side of campus. While Dr. Kotter begins to explain the quickest route, two men carrying a large door pass between Dr. Kotter and the young man. Unbeknownst to Dr. Kotter, one of the men changes places with the young man who asked directions. Dr. Kotter finishes giving directions and then heads off blissfully unaware of his __________. Answer: change blindness Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.1b Discuss the role of attention and the nature of the binding problem. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception 6. The sensory receptors associated with vision are located in the __________. Answer: retina Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2a Identify how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 7. While Javion is looking into his girlfriend’s eyes, he says, “Amandine, I have to tell you that I’ve never met a woman with eyes as green as yours. I love your eyes so much!” Technically, Javion is complimenting Amandine on the part of her eyes called the __________. Answer: iris(es) Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2b Identify the different kinds of visual perception. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 8. People who discriminate between colors are said to be __________. Answer: color blind Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.2c Describe different visual problems. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System 9. The wave frequency of a sound is what we refer to as its __________. Answer: pitch Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System

10. The __________ is the ear structure that converts vibrations into neural activity that can be interpreted by the brain. Answer: cochlea Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Topic: Hearing: The Auditory System 11. __________ is the name given to the fifth, and most recently uncovered, “meaty” or “savory” taste. Answer: Umami Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses 12. A small cut on the back is perceived as less painful than a paper cut on one’s finger because of __________. Answer: fewer nerve endings being located there. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 13. Pedro is so fearful of getting hurt while playing sports that he often stops playing when he experiences the slightest degree of discomfort. His father refers him to a sports psychologist to deal with this problem. The sports psychologist is likely to help Pedro by showing him how to control his __________ reactions to pain. Answer: emotional Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 14. Huey, Dewey, and Louie are playing soccer and each rolls his ankle. However, Huey is experiencing such pain that he isn’t willing to put any weight on his leg while Dewey and Louie continue to play. This provides evidence that people have different __________ for pain. Answer: thresholds (or tolerances) Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance

15. The experience of pain or discomfort from body parts that have been amputated is known as __________. Answer: phantom pain (or phantom limb pain) Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 16. When researchers have used controlled, double-blind studies to assess the claims of psychic healing or spiritual healing, they have found __________ correlation between these practices and pain reduction. Answer: no (or no statistically significant) Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 17. Jamaal notices that whenever he gets into a rental car, it takes him several minutes to locate the gas tank. Such difficulties could be avoided if more car companies sought the input of professionals in __________. Answer: human factors, or ergonomics Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.5c Describe the field of psychology called human factors. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 18. Royce is listening to a debate involving the two candidates for state senator in his district. Prior to the debate, he had a strong opinion favoring one candidate over the other. As he listens to the debate, he interprets each candidate’s answers based on his own beliefs and expectations about them rather than listening and interpreting exactly what each said. Royce is engaging in __________ processing. Answer: top-down Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6a Track how our minds build up perceptions. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 19. The ability to perceive stimuli consistently despite variations in viewing conditions is called __________. Answer: perceptual constancy Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

20. When Mr. Goetz writes on the chalkboard, he often leaves letters like a, e, or o incomplete. However, his students are able to fill in the missing visual information thanks to the Gestalt principle of __________. Answer: closure Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 21. La Vonna is able to keep her attention focused on her biology professor despite the fact that two separate groups of students behind her are talking while the professor lectures. This is an example of the Gestalt principle of __________. Answer: figure-ground Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 22. As we look off in the distance, the lines on a road seem to shrink down to a point where it meets rather than staying parallel as we know it must. This is an example of the monocular cue of __________. Answer: linear perspective Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 23. The processing of sensory information that occurs just below the level of active awareness is called __________. Answer: subliminal perception Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.6c Distinguish subliminal perception from subliminal persuasion. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 24. A key impediment in scientifically demonstrating the existence of extrasensory perception is the lack of __________ of initial supportive findings. Answer: replication Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 4.6d Analyze the scientific evidence for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP). Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

25. At the beginning of the football season, Alex tells his friends that there are several different teams that could win the Super Bowl, and he makes compelling arguments for why each one is a contender. His logic is so strong that his buddies fail to realize that he has not actually made a real prediction. If one of his many choices wins the championship, he may look like he had ESP! Alex’s friends are falling for a technique of psychics called __________. Answer: multiple end points Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6d Analyze the scientific evidence for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP). Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains Essay 1. How might a proponent of ESP use signal detection theory to explain the experimenter effect that interferes with demonstrating that ESP exists? Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. Proponents of extrasensory perception sometimes claim that having experimenters who are skeptical or doubtful leads to negative results. What they might claim, based on the information from signal detection theory, is that this negative skepticism increases the noise that is present in the environment and thereby making it more difficult for the clairvoyant (or telepath or precog) to detect the ESP signal. This difficulty occurs because the “noise” will mask the ESP signal and cause it to be missed. Ultimately, however, this use of signal detection theory will also create a rival hypothesis and one that provides a simpler, more parsimonious explanation for supposed ESP (better detection of signals by reduced environmental noise rather than sensory abilities that operate outside normal processes). Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 4.1b Discuss the role of attention and the nature of the binding problem; 4.6d Analyze the scientific support for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP). Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception; Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

2. Discuss why selective attention is sometimes beneficial, and sometimes detrimental. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following ideas for full credit. Selective attention is helpful in that it minimizes the amount of information that we have to deal with from our environment by focusing on the most important or relevant bits rather than sifting through all possible information. However, this selective attention can come at a price. We may fail to see the “elephant/gorilla in the room” if we are too consumed with a particular task. This means that important later information may be missed because we have turned up a particular “channel” for information and aren’t watching another important “channel” at all. This is related to the concept of inattentional blindness. An additional issue, change blindness, may cause one to fail to notice subtle or even obvious changes in their surroundings. Under various conditions this sort of lack of attention to detail could potentially be disastrous. Instructors may wish to consider altering this question to require examples of different concepts. Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.1b Discuss the role of attention and the nature of the binding problem. Topic: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception 3. Describe the general process of how light enters the eye and is transmitted to the brain to be perceived. Answer: Answers will vary but should mention each of the following structures and the role they play in visual perception: cornea, lens, iris, pupil, retina, fovea, and optic nerve. The light enters through the cornea, which is the outermost covering of the eye. It passes through the pupil, whose size is determined by the iris. The light is then refracted by the lens and focused on the tissue at the back of the eye. The lens will change its shape, or accommodate, to focus either on a distant or nearby object as is needed. The light is focused at the back of the eye by the fovea, which is the center of the retina, the visual sensory receptor location at the back of the eye. The retina is responsible for changing the energy into neural activity that can be transmitted via the optic nerve to the thalamus, and eventually the visual cortex, where the process of visual perception begins. Some of the neural activity is transmitted directly to the midbrain, where it is processed, rather than through the thalamus route to the visual cortex. Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Topic: Seeing: The Visual System

4. Describe how an artist might make use of the monocular cues for depth perception to create a threedimensional feel in a two-dimensional painting. Make sure to include at least three different monocular depth cues in your answer. Answer: Answers will vary but a full credit answer should discuss at least three of the cues listed below with a descriptive example for each. Relative size: The artist would depict the object that is further away as being smaller than the object that is nearer. Answer also needs to discuss specifically how this would be used. Texture gradient: The artist would depict the closer objects in greater detail than those further away. Answer also needs to discuss specifically how this would be used. Interposition: The artist would place certain objects in front of others to create the sense of depth because the front object would appear to be blocking the more distant object. Answer also needs to discuss specifically how this would be used. Linear perspective: The artist would draw outlines where the lines would converge in the distance. Answer also needs to discuss specifically how this would be used. Height in plane: The artist would draw far objects so that they appear higher than the closer objects. Answer also needs to discuss specifically how this would be used. Light and shadow: The artist would draw the picture so that realistic light and shadow are present. Answer also needs to discuss specifically how this would be used. Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains 5. Explain why food tastes different when we have a cold versus when we do not. Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following information for full credit. Smell and taste are chemical senses that work in tandem. Our sense of taste is impacted by our ability to detect odors from the food we are eating. There are only either five or six basic taste sensations, while there are thousands of different odors that humans are able to detect. This ability to detect various odors from food biases our interpretation of our eating experiences. When our nasal passages are blocked and odors are kept from reaching the sensory receptors and thus the brain where they are interpreted, we are only receiving the information from our taste buds. However, when our nasal passages are open, we get additional information that helps us to make the distinction between different foods. Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Topic: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses

Critical Thinking 1. What is the danger of lacking the ability to sense pain? Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the ideas listed below to earn full credit. Pain is a slower-moving stimulus that indicates the need to take care of a part of the body. For example, pulling a muscle would indicate the need to stop an activity and to allow proper rest and recuperation before engaging in the activity again. Pain also often leads the body to naturally try to release endorphins to numb the pain and to help begin the healing process. The inability to detect pain would lead one to continue to do further harm to the body because there wouldn’t be the internal messages that something is wrong. In the absence of any external messages, such as the presence of blood, or seeing that something is pointing in a direction that isn’t “correct,” the person may continue to do further damage that could ultimately lead to death. Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Topic: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance 2. Discuss how the critical thinking principles of falsifiability and replicability enter into the scientific evaluation for claims of extrasensory perception (ESP). Answer: Answers will vary but should include the general points mentioned below for full credit. Falsifiability: Research theory can be shown to be incorrect (as well as correct). The student needs to explain why this is often/sometimes lacking with ESP claims. Also a student should describe why a theory that is not falsifiable is meaningless in the realm of science. Replicability: Research results need to be verified or repeated by others. In science, it is paramount that other investigators using the same procedures but working in different places with different participants can repeat the same pattern of findings as the original researchers. The student needs to explains what this means more generally in the realm of ESP claims. Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 4.6d Analyze the scientific evidence for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP). Topic: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

CHAPTER 4: SENSATION AND PERCEPTION ______________________________________________________________________________ The ABCs of Sensation 1. The wavelength of the light that reaches your eyes determines what __________ you see. a. brightness b. hue c. saturation d. fine detail Answer b % correct 89 a= 9 b= 89 c= 2 d=0 r = .25 2. The idea that large fibers in the sensory nerves can prevent impulses from reaching the brain and thus prevent the sensation of pain is part of the __________ theory of pain. a. gate-control b. primary process c. free nerve ending d. volley Answer a % correct 93 a= 93 b= 3 c= 4 d= 0 r = .43 3. The minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensations at all in a person is the ____________. a. absolute threshold b. difference threshold c. minimum threshold d. noticeable threshold Answer a % correct 70 a= 70 b= 16 c= 8 d= 7 r = .32 4. Which of the following statements is true? a. Only the difference threshold varies from person to person. b. Only the absolute threshold is constant for all people. c. Both the difference threshold and the absolute threshold are constant for all people at all times. d. Both the absolute threshold and the difference threshold vary from person to person over time. Answer d % correct 84 a= 3 b= 7 c= 6 d= 84 r = .21 5. "Sensation is to _______ as perception is to _______." a. psychological; physical b. gathering; understanding c. understanding; gathering d. interpreting; detecting Answer b % correct 77 a= 0 b= 77 c= 0 d= 23 r = .47 6. Detecting “environmental stimulation” is one way to define ______. a. perception b. feeling c. sensation d. awareness Answer c % correct 94 a= 6 b= 0 c= 94 d= 0 r = .28

7. The process whereby we receive information from the environment through our receptors is _______. a. encoding b. perception c. sensation d. transduction Answer c % correct 54 a= 8 b= 8 c= 54 d= 31 r = .32 8. Sensation is _______. a. the organization of stimuli to create meaningful patterns b. the stimulation of the senses c. the presence of sensory cell activity in the absence of external stimulation d. the result of activity in the efferent nervous system Answer b % correct 58 a= 24 b= 58 c= 8 d= 8 r = .43 9. Our ________ enable us to make sense of the sensations that we are continually experiencing. a. sensory organs b. motor abilities c. perceptual abilities d. sensory abilities Answer c % correct 90 a= 5 b= 2 c= 90 d= 3 r = .24 10. The components in the sense organs that respond to energy are called _______. a. sensor cells b. receptor cells c. transducers d. effector cells Answer b % correct 85 a= 3 b= 85 c= 10 d= 2 r = .30 11. The smallest change in stimulation that can be detected 50 percent of the time is called the __________. a. separation threshold b. difference threshold c. response threshold d. absolute threshold Answer b % correct 58 a= 2 b= 58 c= 4 d= 35 r = .43 12. Which of the following is NOT a measure of threshold? a. absolute threshold b. difference threshold c. just noticeable difference d. separation threshold Answer d % correct 74 a= 1 b= 7 c= 17 d= 74 r = .38

13. When Ann went to her doctor, he gave her a hearing test. During the test, the doctor struck several tuning forks, each of which vibrated at a distinct pitch, and asked her to choose two tones that sounded almost the same in pitch. The doctor was testing Ann’s __________. a. auditory convergence b. refractory threshold c. absolute threshold d. difference threshold Answer d % correct 66 a= 20 b= 4 c= 11 d= 66 r = .55 14. The point at which a person can detect a stimulus 50 percent of the time it is presented is called the __________. a. absolute threshold b. difference threshold c. range threshold d. noticeable threshold Answer a % correct 68 a= 68 b= 13 c= 2 d= 17 r = .36 15. The term “just noticeable difference” is loosely synonymous with __________. a. separation threshold b. difference threshold c. response threshold d. absolute threshold Answer b % correct 77 a= 1 b= 77 c= 3 d= 19 r = .34 16. If a subject in a perception study were listening to sounds and asked to assign a number that is proportional to each sound’s intensity, the method being used to measure the psychophysical function is ________. a. cross-modality matching b. category judgment c. magnitude estimation d. Weber's Law Answer c % correct 71 a= 16 b= 3 c= 71 d= 11 r = .40 17. If a subject in a perception study were listening to sounds and asked to assign one of a provided set of numbers to match to each sound’s intensity, the method being used to measure the psychophysical function is _________. a. cross-modality matching b. category judgment c. magnitude estimation d. Weber’s Law Answer b % correct 57 a= 21 b= 57 c= 11 d= 11 r = .55 18. Weber’s Law is I/I = K; and values for K are: .02 for weight; .08 for brightness; and .03 for length. If a line is 30" long, what is the minimum change in length before one would notice a difference between the two? a. .9" b. .6" c. .3" d. none of the above Answer a % correct 66 a= 66 b= 3 c= 16 d= 16 r = .42

19. According to Weber’s Law, how many grams would have to be added to a 150 gram weight to get a just noticeable difference? a. 1 g b. 3 g c. 8.5 g d. 25 g Answer b % correct 82 a= 3 b= 82 c= 8 d= 8 r = .31 20. Dr. Delmar wants to determine how loud a certain noise must be in order for it to be heard from a distance of 50 feet. Her question involves the concept of: a. relative magnitude. b. difference threshold. c. absolute threshold. d. just noticeable difference (jnd). Answer c % correct 85 a= 15 b= 0 c= 85 d= 0 r = .73 21. If a researcher wanted to know how loudly a person must speak in order to be heard above the noise of two other simultaneous conversations, the researcher would likely measure the ________ . a. difference threshold b. marginal intensity c. relative magnitude d. absolute threshold Answer a % correct 39 a= 39 b= 0 c= 22 d= 39 r = .27 22. _______ theory was developed to isolate the limits of sensory sensitivity. a. Method of loci b. Method adjustment c. Method of limits d. Method of constant stimuli Answer c % correct 67 a= 6 b= 11 c= 67 d= 17 r = .43 23. Weber’s Law states that a just noticeable change in a stimulus magnitude is ________ the original stimulus magnitude. a. proportional to b. equal to c. greater than d. less than Answer a % correct 72 a= 72 b= 11 c= 0 d= 17 r = .29 24. The relation between the amount of physical energy in a stimulus and the sensory experience of that stimulus is studied by: a. encoding psychology. b. psychophysics. c. sensory physiology. d. transduction psychology. Answer b % correct 67 a= 0 b= 67 c= 22 d= 11 r = .55

25. The minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensation at all in a person is the _______. a. absolute threshold b. difference threshold c. minimum threshold d. noticeable threshold Answer a % correct 83 a= 83 b= 8 c= 8 d= 0 r = .66 26. When Ann went to her doctor, he gave her a hearing test. During the test, the doctor struck several tuning forks, each of which was a distinct pitch, and asked her to choose two tones that sounded almost the same in pitch. The doctor was testing Ann's _______. a. auditory convergence b. refractory threshold c. absolute threshold d. difference threshold Answer d % correct 83 a= 17 b= 0 c= 0 d= 83 r = .66 27. When Ann went to her doctor, he gave her a hearing test. During the test, the doctor presented tones to Ann through earphones. The tones varied only along the loud-soft dimensions (from very loud to very soft). The doctor asked Ann to raise her hand whenever she heard a sound. The doctor was testing Ann’s _______. a. auditory convergence b. refractory threshold c. absolute threshold d. difference threshold Answer c % correct 38 a= 15 b= 0 c= 38 d= 46 r = .54 28. _______ studies the relationship between physical energies and psychological experiences. a. Physiology b. Psychophysics c. Psychometrics d. Psychopathology Answer b % correct 67 a= 17 b= 67 c= 0 d= 17 r = .69 29. Professor Zander wants to know how loud a certain noise must be in order to be heard from a distance of 50 feet. This question involves the concept of _______. a. relative magnitude b. difference threshold c. absolute threshold d. inverse discrimination Answer c % correct 78 a= 17 b= 6 c= 78 d= 0 r = .26 30. The problem of subjects knowing too much about the sequencing of intensities during sensation studies is overcome by the method of _______. a. adjustment b. limits c. constant stimuli d. none of the above Answer d % correct 56 a= 17 b= 6 c= 22 d= 56 r = .28

31. Everyone is asleep but you. You turn down the television set’s volume until you can just barely hear it. What method of measuring a sensory threshold are you using? a. method of incremented stimuli b. estimation method c. method of constant stimuli d. method of adjustment Answer d % correct 78 a= 6 b= 6 c= 11 d= 78 r = .23

The Science of Seeing 32. The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by the __________. a. cornea b. pupil c. lens d. retina Answer b % correct 68 a= 14 b= 68 c= 8 d= 9 r = .41 33. The pupil is the __________. a. opening in the center of the iris b. colored part of the eye c. white of the eye d. lining in the back of the eyeball Answer a % correct 93 a= 93 b= 6 c= 1 d= 0

r = .19

34. The colored part of the eye which contains muscles to contract or expand the pupil is the __________. a. lens b. fovea c. iris d. cornea Answer c % correct 95 a= 1 b= 2 c= 95 d= 3 r = .27 35. If you stare for 30 seconds at a red object and then look at a blank sheet of white paper, you will see a greenish image of the object. This phenomenon best supports the: a. Young-Helmholtz opponent-process theory of color vision. b. Young-Helmholtz trichromatic theory of color vision. c. Hering opponent-process theory of color vision. d. Hering trichromatic theory of color vision. Answer c % correct 54 a= 17 b= 21 c= 54 d= 8 r = .32 36. The depressed spot in the retina which occupies the center of the visual field in which images are focused MOST sharply is called the: a. fovea. b. cornea. c. iris. d. optic nerve. Answer a % correct 77 a= 77 b= 12 c= 7 d= 4 r = .59

37. A young man enters a completely darkened room and lights a candle. Which of the following sequences best represents the candle’s light as it enters his eye? a. cornea-pupil-lens-retina b. pupil-cornea-lens-retina c. lens-cornea-pupil-retina d. retina-pupil-lens-cornea Answer a % correct 61 a= 61 b= 13 c= 18 d= 8 r = .52 38. When John drives his car at night, he finds that he can barely see traffic and street signs if he looks directly at them. He can increase his visual sensitivity by looking at the signs: a. out of the side of his eye, because doing so focuses the image on the blind spot b. out of the side of his eye (using more rods) instead of focusing directly on them (using more cones) c. and squinting, which focuses the available light more precisely d. out of the side of his eye (using more cones) instead of focusing directly on them (using more rods) Answer b % correct 62 a= 2 b= 62 c= 16 d= 20 r = .37 39. The pupil is the: a. opening in the center of the iris. b. colored part of the eye. c. white of the eye. d. lining in the back of the eyeball. Answer a % correct 89 a= 89 b= 11 c= 0 d= 0

r = .29

40. The white, opaque outer wall of the eye is called the _________. a. cornea b. pupil c. sclera d. iris Answer c % correct 74 a= 24 b= 0 c= 74 d= 3 r = .57 41. Billy acted out in class and made poor grades. After a vision screening at the school, Billy’s teacher moved him to the front of the class. Billy’s academic and social behaviors improved. Billy probably has which vision problem? a. astigmatism b. farsightedness c. nearsightedness d. visual occlusion Answer c % correct 87 a= 3 b= 11 c= 87 d= 0 r = .61 42. Which type of receptor cell is associated with seeing colors? a. ganglia b. bipolar c. rods d. cones Answer d % correct 92 a= 0 b= 3 c= 5 d= 92 r = .52 43. Window pane is to _______ as color is to iris. a. retina b. cornea c. lens d. fovea Answer a % correct 97 a= 3 b= 0 c= 0 d= 97

r = .35

44. The lens: a. is the transparent outer membrane of the eye that covers the pupil and iris. b. allows one to focus on objects at different distances. c. allows light initially to enter the eye. d. controls the amount of light entering the eye. Answer b % correct 77 a= 15 b= 77 c= 8 d= 0 r = .47 45. The most common cause of blindness is which of the following? a. glaucoma b. cataracts c. astigmatism d. retinitis Answer a % correct 72 a= 72 b= 28 c= 0 d= 0 r = .26 46. In nearsightedness, the image is focused: a. on the retina. b. behind the retina. c. in front of the retina. d. on the fovea. Answer c % correct 92 a= 8 b= 0 c= 92 d= 0

r = .41

47. When the eye becomes elongated, people see near objects well, but see far objects poorly. This is what is called _______. a. farsightedness b. nearsightedness c. astigmatism d. accommodation Answer b % correct 92 a= 8 b= 92 c= 0 d= 0 r = .22 48. When people are nearsighted, this most likely means that their eye: a. focuses light behind the retina. b. focuses light on the blindspot. c. focuses light in front of the retina. d. has shifted the near point of accommodation due to distortion of the lens. Answer c % correct 44 a= 39 b= 0 c= 44 d= 17 r = .74 49. The eyes convert light energy into neural responses that we experience as sight. The conversion of light energy into sight is done by receptor cells in the _______. a. iris b. pupil c. blind spot d. retina Answer d % correct 92 a= 0 b= 8 c= 0 d= 92 r = .41 50. ________ are receptors that are best for seeing details. a. Cones b. Rods c. Bipolar cells d. Ganglion cells Answer a % correct 94 a= 94 b= 0 c= 0 d= 6 r = .20

51. Lory entered a dark movie theater from the bright sunlight. Which of the following was occurring in her retinal system? a. a slow shift from cone vision to rod vision b. a rapid shift from cone vision to rod vision c. a slow shift from rod vision to cone vision d. a rapid shift from rod vision to cone vision Answer a % correct 39 a= 39 b= 44 c= 0 d= 17 r = .29 52. For humans, the ability to _______ is probably the most important sense. a. hear b. taste c. see d. smell Answer c % correct 92 a= 8 b= 92 c= 0 d= 0 r = .30 53. Light first enters the eye through the _______. a. cornea b. pupil c. iris d. retina Answer a % correct 58 a= 58 b= 33 c= 0 d= 8

r = .33

54. The inner lining on the back of the eyeball which is sensitive to light is called the _______. a. fovea b. retina c. iris d. optic nerve Answer b % correct 83 a= 8 b= 83 c= 8 d= 0 r = .36 55. Light is focused on the retina by the _______. a. cornea b. pupil c. iris d. lens Answer d % correct 92 a= 0 b= 0 c= 8 d= 92

r = .28

56. The depressed spot in the retina which occupies the center of the visual field in which images are focused MOST sharply is called the _______. a. fovea b. cornea c. iris d. optic nerve Answer a % correct 77 a= 77 b= 8 c= 0 d= 15 r = .77 57. The shape of the lens adjusts in order to _______. a. protect the eye from too much light b. let in more light when it is dark c. focus on different objects at different distances d. allow time for the eye to adjust to bright light Answer c % correct 92 a= 8 b= 0 c= 92 d= 0

r = .28

58. Rods and cones are found in the _______. a. retina b. iris c. optic nerve d. cornea Answer a % correct 89 a= 89 b= 6 c= 0 d= 6

r = .30

59. Rods and cones are connected to ________. a. optic neurons b. bipolar neurons c. interneurons d. efferent neurons Answer b % correct 75 a= 17 b= 75 c= 8 d= 0

r = .30

60. The place in the retina where the axons of all the ganglion cells come together to leave the eye is called the _______. a. fovea b. optic chiasma c. blind spot d. optic nerve Answer c % correct 39 a= 6 b= 11 c= 39 d= 44 r = .23 61. When a person is nearsighted, this most likely means that their eye _______. a. is elongated b. is flattened c. is cataract d. is functionally blind Answer a % correct 67 a= 67 b= 33 c= 0 d= 0 r = .38 62. Light receptors which see best at night are the _______. a. foveas b. cones c. shafts d. rods Answer d % correct 100 a= 0 b= 0 c= 0 d= 100 r = .00 63. The eyes detect different colors by using the _______. a. cortex b. cones c. shafts d. rods Answer b % correct 83 a= 8 b= 83 c= 0 d= 8 r = .33 64. The range of electromagnetic wavelengths that we can see is called the: a. visible spectrum. b. acuity range. c. visual field. d. visual angle. Answer a % correct 94 a= 94 b= 0 c= 6 d= 0 r = .28

65. The ability to discern fine details in visual patterns is termed: a. temporal acuity. b. visual perspicacity. c. visual acuity. d. myopia. Answer c % correct 92 a= 0 b= 0 c= 92 d= 8 r = .41 66. What structure in your eye is most like the film in a camera? a. the retina b. the lens c. the cornea d. the pupil Answer a % correct 78 a= 78 b= 6 c= 11 d= 6 r = .66 67. Adaptation is the process in which _______. a. receptor cells become linked to one another b. receptor sensitivity changes depending upon the intensity of the stimulus c. visual acuity improves as one centers an object's light on the fovea d. nonspectral colors can be seen Answer b % correct 83 a= 8 b= 83 c= 8 d= 0 r = .36 68. The process by which rods and cones become more sensitive to light in response to lowered levels of illumination is called _______. a. afterimage resolution b. light adaptation c. dark adaptation d. afterimage adaptation Answer c % correct 77 a= 0 b= 15 c= 77 d= 8 r = .47

Color Vision 69. The aspect of color that corresponds to names such as red, green, and blue is __________. a. brightness b. hue c. saturation d. fine detail Answer b % correct 74 a= 7 b= 74 c= 16 d= 3 r = .39 70. The purity, richness, or vividness of a hue is known as its __________. a. brightness b. saturation c. additive mix d. depth Answer b % correct 60 a= 34 b= 60 c= 0 d= 7 r = .20

71. The vividness or richness of a hue is known as its: a. brightness. b. saturation. c. additive mix. d. complement. Answer b % correct 66 a= 32 b= 66 c= 1 d= 1

r = .44

72. Hue, saturation, and brightness are three separate aspects of our experience of: a. sensation. b. acuity. c. color. d. night vision. Answer c % correct 80 a= 3 b= 12 c= 80 d= 4 r = .39 73. The trichromat: a. can see all colors of the spectrum. b. sees only red, green, and white. c. cannot see color. d. cannot perceive red and green. Answer a % correct 51 a= 51 b= 28 c= 9 d= 12

r = .58

74. The Young-Helmholtz theory of color vision assumes that: a. color receptors exist in opposing pairs. b. color perception is determined by differences in the firing rates of three types of retinal cells. c. there are three different types of cones. d. all of the above Answer c % correct 39 a= 17 b= 17 c= 39 d= 27 r = .27 75 The opponent-process theory of color vision contends that color vision is a result of: a. lateral inhibition on the retina itself. b. lateral inhibition in the visual cortex. c. calculation of differences in the firing rates of three types of retinal cells. d. competition between three types of rods and three types of cones. Answer c % correct 72 a= 0 b= 8 c= 72 d= 20 r = .23 76. The trichromatic receptor theory explains how different color receptors in the eye combine to produce color vision. However, this theory does NOT explain: a. negative afterimages. b. how color receptors respond differently to different colors. c. how many color receptors the retina must utilize in order to produce color vision. d. color vision. Answer a % correct 64 a= 64 b= 25 c= 7 d= 4 r = .64 77. The wavelength of the light to reach your eyes determines what _______ you see. a. brightness b. hue c. saturation d. fine detail Answer b % correct 83 a= 8 b= 83 c= 0 d= 8 r = .30

78. Red, green, and blue are _______. a. primary colors b. secondary colors c. additive colors d. complementary colors Answer a % correct 85 a= 85 b= 0 c= 8 d= 8

r = .21

79. A dichromat _______. a. sees all colors b. is either red-green or yellow-blue color blind c. responds only to blue-yellow or red-green d. responds only to black and white Answer b % correct 92 a= 0 b= 92 c= 8 d= 0

r = .28

The Hearing Sense 80. The physical stimuli for the sense of hearing are called __________ waves. a. alpha b. infrared c. sound d. sine Answer c % correct 81 a= 10 b= 1 c= 81 d= 7 r = .22 81. The changes in pressure caused when molecules of air or fluid collide with one another then move apart again are called __________. a. hertz b. sound waves c. decibels d. pitch Answer b % correct 53 a= 15 b= 53 c= 20 d= 9 r = .27 82. The structures in the inner ear that are particularly sensitive to body rotation are the __________. a. vestibular sacs b. saccules c. semicircular canals d. papillae Answer c % correct 40 a= 40 b= 8 c= 40 d= 11 r = .20 83. Hertz is a unit of measurement of __________. a. frequency b. amplitude c. loudness d. overtones Answer a % correct 81 a= 81 b= 9 c= 10 d= 0

r = .26

84. Frequency theory proposes that: a. pitch is determined by the location on the basilar membrane where the message originated. b. pitch is determined by the quality of the sound wave. c. the frequency of the vibrations of the basilar membrane is translated into an equivalent frequency of nerve impulses. d. nerve cells fire in sequence, not individually. Answer c % correct 56 a= 21 b= 13 c= 56 d= 10 r = .21 85. The part of the ear that equalizes the pressure in the inner ear when the stirrup hits against the oval window is called the: a. cochlea. b. round window. c. earlobe. d. organ of Corti. Answer b % correct 32 a= 52 b= 32 c= 0 d= 16 r = .46 86. Long-term exposure to sounds with high decibels can result in ___________ deafness. a. rock and roll b. boilermakers' c. bone-conduction d. air-conduction Answer b % correct 95 a= 3 b= 95 c= 0 d= 3 r = .38 87. The outer ear is also known as the __________. a. funneloreum b. pinna c. canal d. lobe Answer b % correct 83 a= 0 b= 83 c= 6 d= 11

r = .23

88. The middle ear includes the __________. a. ear canal b. round window c. hammer d. basilar membrane Answer d % correct 67 a= 0 b= 33 c= 0 d= 67

r = .20

89. The flexible membrane inside the cochlea is called the: a. round window. b. eardrum. c. oval window. d. basilar membrane. Answer d % correct 69 a= 0 b= 23 c= 8 d= 69 r = .66 90. The oval window, cochlea, and basilar membrane are all part of the: a. middle ear. b. inner ear. c. external ear. d. auditory chamber. Answer b % correct 77 a= 15 b= 77 c= 8 d= 0 r = .58

91. An increase in the frequency of sound waves will correspond most directly to an increase in _______. a. amplitude b. pitch c. loudness d. decibels Answer b % correct 72 a= 11 b= 72 c= 11 d= 6 r = .53 92. Humans hear sounds ranging from 16 to ______ hertz. a. 100 b. 6,000 c. 20,000 d. 1,500 Answer c % correct 62 a= 0 b= 0 c= 62 d= 38 r = .59 93. As sounds become louder, their ______ increases. a. frequency b. pitch c. amplitude d. hertz Answer c % correct 85 a= 8 b= 8 c= 85 d= 0

r = .60

94. The boundary between the middle and inner ear is the: a. basilar membrane. b. cochlea. c. eardrum. d. oval window. Answer d % correct 50 a= 22 b= 11 c= 17 d= 50

r = .76

95. The physical stimuli for the sense of hearing are called _______ waves. a. alpha b. radio c. sound d. beta Answer c % correct 83 a= 8 b= 8 c= 83 d= 0 r = .27 96. Frequency determines _______. a. pitch b. amplitude c. timbre d. overtones Answer a % correct 75 a= 75 b= 8 c= 8 d= 8

r = .69

97. The height of a sound wave represents its _______. a. pitch b. amplitude c. timbre d. overtones Answer b % correct 92 a= 8 b= 92 c= 0 d= 0

r = .58

98. Hertz is a unit of measurement of _______. a. frequency b. amplitude c. loudness d. overtones Answer a % correct 67 a= 67 b= 17 c= 17 d= 0

r = .35

99. Decibels are used to measure _______. a. frequency b. amplitude c. loudness d. overtones Answer c % correct 72 a= 11 b= 17 c= 72 d= 0

r = .51

100. The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are the _______. a. three components of the eardrum b. three tiny bones in the middle ear c. membranes in the oval window d. three components of the basilar membrane cochlea Answer b % correct 92 a= 8 b= 92 c= 0 d= 0

r = .20

101. Hearing begins when sound waves bump against the _______. a. earlobe b. eardrum c. oval window d. round window Answer b % correct 92 a= 0 b= 92 c= 8 d= 0 r = .20 102. The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are all located in the _______. a. middle ear b. inner ear c. external ear d. oval window Answer a % correct 72 a= 72 b= 27 c= 0 d= 0 r = .34 103. An oscilloscope is used to _______. a. transmit air conduction sound b. measure the intensity of light c. convert sound waves to visible waves d. view the entire spectrum of light Answer c % correct 76 a= 0 b= 5 c= 76 d= 18

r = .58

104. Sound waves can be “seen” by using an _______. a. oscilloscope b. electromagnetic spectrum c. audio amplifier d. amp meter Answer a % correct 82 a= 82 b= 13 c= 3 d= 3

r = .37

105. The place theory and the frequency theory help to explain _______. a. how a wide range of frequencies is heard by the ear b. how amplitude is regulated by the ear c. how sounds are located d. how "boilermakers' deafness" occurs Answer a % correct 83 a= 83 b= 6 c= 11 d= 0 r = .63 106. The Doppler shift may be helpful for someone trying to _______. a. overcome a visual illusion b. block out irrelevant noises c. locate sounds d. see an object in very dim light Answer c % correct 83 a= 0 b= 11 c= 83 d= 6 r = .24 107. When a sound is straight ahead of you, it _______. a. sounds equally loud in both ears b. reaches both ears at the same time c. has the same waveform in each ear d. all of the above Answer d % correct 97 a= 3 b= 0 c= 0 d= 97 r = .21 108. The audible range of frequencies for human beings is _______ cycles per second. a. 2 to 50,000 b. 120 to 50,000 c. 1 to 10,000 d. 20 to 20,000 Answer d % correct 67 a= 22 b= 11 c= 0 d= 67 r = .59

Chemical Senses 109. The patch of nasal membrane tissue that houses receptor cells for smell is the __________. a. olfactory bulb b. Golgi tendon organ c. olfactory epithelium d. olfactory mucosa Answer c % correct 49 a= 35 b= 3 c= 49 d= 13 r = .18 110. Axons from the nerve cells in the nose carry messages directly to the __________ of the brain. a. olfactory epithelium b. olfactory bulbs c. papillae d. vomeronasal organ Answer b % correct 42 a= 46 b= 42 c= 6 d= 5 r = .23 111. The first location to receive smell information in the brain is the __________. a. olfactory bulb b. olfactory epithelium c. thalamus d. vomeronasal organ Answer a % correct 48 a= 48 b= 29 c= 20 d= 3 r = .22 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

112. The four primary taste sensations are sweet, bitter, sour, and _______. a. neutral b. tart c. acid d. salt Answer d % correct 89 a= 6 b= 6 c= 0 d= 89 r = .20 113. Our sensitivity to different tastes is greatest when food is between the temperatures of 71 degrees and _______ degrees F. a. 100 b. 78 c. 92 d. 89 Answer d % correct 56 a= 6 b= 28 c= 11 d= 56 r = .46 114. Which of the following is NOT one of the four primary taste qualities that humans perceive? a. bitter b. sour c. tart d. salt Answer c % correct 87 a= 1 b= 1 c= 87 d= 11 r = .49 115. Flavor is: a. taste. b. smell. c. a combination of taste and smell. d. a combination of touch and taste. Answer c % correct 91 a= 8 b= 2 c= 91 d= 0

r = .31

116. Taste buds are contained in the tongue's _______. a. papillae b. hair cells c. underside d. saccules Answer a % correct 83 a= 83 b= 8 c= 0 d= 8

r = .56

117. A spook house in a local carnival offered its potential patrons free admission if they would allow themselves to be blindfolded and then to eat raw worms. Although they were actually fed cold spaghetti, most of the customers believed they were swallowing real worms. What is the MOST plausible explanation for this finding? a. The cold spaghetti dulled nerve endings in the taste buds. b. This particular food failed to depolarize adjacent neurons in the tongue. c. Food flavor is really a composite of taste, smell, sight, and texture. d. Sensory receptors in the brain were not activated. Answer c % correct 92 a= 0 b= 8 c= 92 d= 0 r = .23

Somesthetic Senses 118. The senses that monitor our equilibrium and awareness of body position in space are the __________ senses. a. vestibular b. olfactory c. cutaneous d. kinesthetic Answer a % correct 32 a= 32 b= 6 c= 2 d= 58 r = .21 119. The vestibular sense governs our awareness of __________. a. pressure b. temperature c. equilibrium d. pain Answer c % correct 54 a= 13 b= 11 c= 54 d= 21 r = .31 120. Jane jumps out of bed to the sound of the alarm clock. As she reaches her feet, she feels very dizzy for a few seconds. As her system readjusts to her standing, she begins to regain her sense of balance. The source of Jane’s dizziness is probably in the: a. vestibular senses b. skin senses c. olfactory senses d. papillary senses Answer a % correct 78 a= 78 b= 0 c= 18 d= 3 r = .48 121. The vestibular sacs control that body’s sense of: a. gravity and movement. b. body rotation. c. pain. d. pressure. Answer a % correct 55 a= 55 b= 20 c= 12 d= 13 122. The vestibular system monitors: a. body orientation and its changes. b. hearing. c. visual acuity. d. temperature sensations. Answer a % correct 78 a= 78 b= 6 c= 0 d= 17

r = .31

r = .69

123. According to the __________ theory, distinct receptors exist for the sensation of temperature. a. magnitude estimation b. place c. vascular d. specific receptor Answer d % correct 53 a= 3 b= 11 c= 34 d= 53 r = .27

124. Research on the sense of touch has found that if two objects touch the skin very close to each other, they will be perceived as only one object. The smallest distance between the two objects which can still be felt as two distinct objects is the ______________________. a. least significant difference point b. minimum sensitivity c. dual receptor point d. two-point threshold Answer d % correct 79 a= 11 b= 8 c= 3 d= 79 r = .48 125. What sensations are detected by the skin? a. pressure, pain, warmth, and cold b. only pain, warmth, and cold c. only pressure, pain, and warmth d. only pressure and pain Answer a % correct 94 a= 94 b= 6 c= 0 d= 0

r = .23

126. When a warm object is placed against a “cold spot” on our skin, we feel cold. This is known as _______. a. transference b. the vascular effect c. temperature reversal d. paradoxical cold Answer d % correct 91 a= 3 b= 3 c= 3 d= 91 r = .45

The ABCs of Perception 127. Some pictures are intentionally designed so that one can see two different images in the same picture. This is called ______. a. the perceptual shift b. figure-ground reversal c. proximodistal perception d. an illusion Answer b % correct 63 a= 15 b= 63 c= 6 d= 16 r = .38

0000 XXXX 0000 128. In the figure above, seeing rows of 0s and rows of Xs illustrates the Gestalt law of ______. a. figure-ground b. similarity c. proximity d. closure Answer b % correct 82 a= 4 b= 82 c= 12 d= 3 r = .51

129. _______ tried to analyze sensation and perception separately, and _______ insisted on a unified analysis of sensations and perceptions. a. Structuralists; Gestalt psychologists b. Gestalt psychologists; structuralists c. Functionalists; Gestalt psychologists d. Structuralists; functionalists Answer a % correct 57 a= 57 b= 4 c= 21 d= 17 r = .24 130. Which Gestalt law of organization must always occur even if other laws of organization are also illustrated? a. figure-ground b. similarity c. proximity d. closure Answer a % correct 60 a= 60 b= 14 c= 21 d= 4 r = .30 131. Elements that share common features such as size, shape, or color are viewed as a set. This defines which Gestalt law of organization? a. figure-ground b. similarity c. proximity d. closure Answer b % correct 90 a= 5 b= 90 c= 3 d= 2 r = .20 132. Perceiving incomplete objects as complete define: a. figure-ground. b. similarity. c. proximity. d. closure. Answer d % correct 76 a= 10 b= 4 c= 10 d= 76

r = .21

133. Figure-ground is to _______ as dream interpretation is to psychoanalysis. a. structuralism b. functionalism c. Gestalt d. humanism Answer c % correct 57 a= 28 b= 13 c= 57 d= 3 r = .22 134. Experiencing MEANINGFUL patterns in the jumble of sensory information received by the brain is _______. a. sensation b. perception c. adaptation d. transduction Answer b % correct 80 a= 7 b= 80 c= 3 d= 10 r = .34 135. Gestalt theorists propose that much of what we see is divided into: a. proximal and distal. b. figure and ground. c. standard and deviant. d. chromatic and monocular. Answer b % correct 80 a= 7 b= 80 c= 6 d= 7 r = .34

136. Gestalt theorists are known for explaining: a. figure-ground reversals. b. the law of similarity. c. the law of proximity. d. all of the above Answer d % correct 68 a= 22 b= 6 c= 5 d= 68

r = .21

137. Perceptions differ from sensations in that: a. perceptions depend as much on prior experience as they do on neural cues traveling between receptors and the brain. b. perceptions are purely psychological, whereas sensations are purely neural. c. each sensation is actually a large set of perceptions. d. sensations depend mostly on learning, whereas perceptions are innate processes. Answer a % correct 49 a= 49 b= 30 c= 5 d= 17 r = .23

Perception and Perceptual Constancies 138. Our tendency to see objects as relatively stable and unchanging despite changing sensory information is called perceptual __________. a. closure b. constancy c. reversibility d. coherency Answer b % correct 91 a= 2 b= 91 c= 1 d= 5 r = .30 139. When we look at a white house, we can recognize it as a white house by day or night and from any angle. This is due to perceptual __________. a. closure b. constancy c. reversibility d. coherency Answer b % correct 86 a= 2 b= 86 c= 1 d= 10 r = .42 140. Whether you are standing right next to it or a mile away from it, you know a tree is the same size because of________. a. the figure-ground distinction b. the phi phenomenon c. perceptual constancy d. retinal disparity Answer c % correct 88 a= 10 b= 1 c= 88 d= 1 r = .42 141. You are told you are going to be shown some words related to food. The experiment then shows you the "pizao" and you perceive the word “pizza.” This shows that your perceptions are affected by your___________. a. motivations b. expectations c. cognitive style d. cultural background Answer b % correct 78 a= 0 b= 78 c= 11 d= 11 r = .23

142. Perrone’s result, using a rigid box moving away from the observer, suggests that the contraction of the retinal image causes the observer to perceive that the box was moving away and getting smaller. The perception of the box getting smaller SEEMS to violate which of the following? a. size constancy b. shape constancy c. figure-ground reversal d. proximity Answer a % correct 90 a= 90 b= 2 c= 2 d= 6 r = .24 143. As an object gets closer, its visual angle becomes _______, and its retinal image gets ________. a. larger; smaller b. smaller; larger c. smaller; smaller d. larger; larger Answer d % correct 47 a= 20 b= 27 c= 6 d= 47 r = .31 144. A contracting pattern of retinal image leads to the perception of an object that is: a. moving towards the observer. b. moving away from the observer. c. getting larger. d. moving towards the observer and getting larger. Answer b % correct 63 a= 4 b= 63 c= 6 d= 16 r = .38 145. The _______ states that we see an object’s size as constant even if the object’s distance from us changes. a. law of size constancy b. visual angle theory c. retinal image theory d. Ames Room theory Answer a % correct 88 a= 88 b= 2 c= 10 d= 1 r = .32 146. Which of the following is NOT a perceptual constancy? a. size b. shape c. brightness d. linear perspective Answer d % correct 71 a= 4 b= 7 c= 19 d= 71 r = .29 147. People with normal vision will perceive a pyramid whether they see the object from the side, top, or any other angle as long as the object is, in fact, a pyramid. This is the law of: a. shape constancy. b. size constancy. c. figure-ground. d. visual angle. Answer a % correct 89 a= 89 b= 1 c= 1 d= 9 r = .20 148. “Single-eye vision is to _______ as double-eye vision is to _______.” a. kinetic; monocular b. monocular; kinetic c. monocular; binocular d. binocular; monocular Answer c % correct 97 a= 1 b= 0 c= 97 d= 2 r = .22

149. You are seated at a small table talking to a friend opposite you who is drinking coffee. As she lifts the cup off the saucer and raises it to her mouth, the image made on your retina by the bottom of the cup actually changes shape, but you still "see" it as round due to: a. good continuation. b. movement parallax. c. perceptual constancy. d. proximity. Answer c % correct 85 a= 1 b= 12 c= 85 d= 2 r = .25 150. The effects of the Ames Room are DUE primarily to distortions in: a. aerial perspective. b. distance. c. size. d. texture gradient. Answer b % correct 53 a= 12 b= 53 c= 28 d= 7 r = .32 151. Our tendency to see objects as relatively stable and unchanging despite changing sensory information is called _______. a. closure b. constancy c. reversibility d. coherency Answer b % correct 91 a= 7 b= 91 c= 1 d= 1 r = .31 152. Color, shape, size, and brightness are all types of perceptual _______. a. closure b. constancy c. reversibility d. coherency Answer b % correct 78 a= 1 b= 78 c= 3 d= 19 r = .48 153. Size constancy explains why _______. a. objects are perceived as having constant dimensions regardless of distance b. perception of size is inversely related to distance c. closer objects are perceived as smaller than far-away objects d. distance affects perceived size Answer a % correct 53 a= 53 b= 8 c= 4 d= 35 r = .49 154. Whether you are standing right next to it or a mile away from it, you know a tree is the same size because of _______. a. the figure-ground distinction b. the phi phenomenon c. perceptual constancy d. retinal disparity Answer c % correct 73 a= 12 b= 3 c= 73 d= 12 r = .34 155. When you stand to the side of a window frame, it casts a trapezoidal (nonrectangular) image on your retina. It still seems rectangular to you, though, because of _______. a. size constancy b. shape constancy c. figure-ground constancy d. the phi phenomenon Answer b % correct 97 a= 2 b= 97 c= 1 d= 0 r = .18 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

156. The law of brightness constancy suggests that our perception of an object is a result of the _______ of the light from the object divided by the light surrounding it. a. sum b. ratio c. amount d. intensity Answer b % correct 23 a= 5 b= 23 c= 19 d= 53 r = .28

Depth Processing (Monocular) 157 The distance cue in which objects at greater distances appear to be smoother is __________. a. linear perspective b. aerial perspective c. texture gradient d. motion parallax Answer c % correct 84 a= 9 b= 4 c= 84 d= 4 r = .31 158. The distance cue in which two parallel lines extend into the distance and seem to come together at one point is called __________. a. linear perspective b. aerial perspective c. shadowing d. motion parallax Answer a % correct 94 a= 94 b= 1 c= 1 d= 4 r = .28 159. While riding on a train, David notices that the trees and telephone poles close to the tracks seem to flash by, while the buildings, trees, and mountains that are farther away seem to move by more slowly. This phenomenon is called_____________. a. aerial perspective b. subliminal motion c. motion parallax d. motion differential Answer c % correct 48 a= 12 b= 3 c= 48 d= 37 r = .31 160. How blurry-looking an object appears and linear perspective are cues associated with _______ depth perception. a. binocular disparity b. kinesthetic c. monocular d. binocular Answer c % correct 62 a= 7 b= 18 c= 62 d= 13 r = .58 161. Which of the following is an example of a monocular cue? a. far objects looking clear, and near ones looking blurry b. the trees in a forest converging in the distance c. the double image of a finger held in front of one eye d. the appearance of a small light making movements against a dark background Answer b % correct 54 a= 20 b= 54 c= 20 d= 6 r = .38

100

162. Which of the following is NOT a monocular cue? a. clearness b. linear perspective c. retinal disparity d. texture Answer c % correct 74 a= 8 b= 7 c= 74 d= 11

r = .46

163. When you look out the window of a car that is traveling 60 mph, objects at different locations appear to move in different directions and different speeds. This apparent motion is known as: a. the kinetic depth effect. b. motion parallax. c. movement illusion. d. linear perspective. Answer b % correct 85 a= 6 b= 85 c= 5 d= 3 r = .31 164. When you look out the window of a car that is traveling 60 mph, close objects appear: a. to be moving faster than far ones. b. to be moving slower than far ones. c. to be moving at the same speed as far ones. d. to be stationary and the far ones appear to be moving in the opposite direction as the car. Answer a % correct 92 a= 92 b= 3 c= 0 d= 5 r = .20 165. The distance cue in which two parallel lines extend into the distance and seem to come together at one point is called _______. a. linear perspective b. aerial perspective c. shadowing d. motion parallax Answer a % correct 95 a= 95 b= 1 c= 0 d= 4 r = .33 166. The distance cue in which faraway objects appear to be hazy and have a blurred outline is called _______. a. linear perspective b. aerial perspective c. shadowing d. motion parallax Answer b % correct 64 a= 16 b= 64 c= 14 d= 6 r = .43 167. An object’s elevation is a perspective cue to _______. a. distance b. shape c. shadowing d. size Answer a % correct 71 a= 71 b= 2 c= 8 d= 20 r = .34

101

168. Texture gradient refers to the fact that texture appears to become _______. a. more detailed in the distance b. less detailed in the distance c. more detailed as brightness increases d. less detailed as brightness increases Answer b % correct 94 a= 3 b= 94 c= 3 d= 0 r = .31 169. Shadowing is a cue to _______. a. linear perspective b. width perception c. depth perception d. color perception Answer c % correct 86 a= 4 b= 2 c= 86 d= 8

r = .43

170. Which of the following choices is NOT a monocular cue that painters can incorporate into their work to convey information about the relative distances of objects? a. superposition b. linear perspective c. aerial perspective d. convergence Answer d % correct 39 a= 38 b= 5 c= 17 d= 39 r = .37 171. The monocular distance cue in which objects closer than the point of visual focus seem to move in the direction opposite to the viewer’s moving head, and objects beyond the viewing point move in the same direction as the viewer’s head is _______. a. retinal disparity b. motion parallax c. subliminal motion d. motion differential Answer b % correct 64 a= 18 b= 64 c= 3 d= 16 r = .31 172. While riding on a train, David notices that the trees and telephone poles close to the tracks seem to flash by, while the buildings, trees, and mountains that are farther away seem to move by more slowly. This phenomenon is called ________. a. aerial perspective b. subliminal motion c. motion parallax d. motion differential Answer c % correct 85 a= 4 b= 3 c= 85 d= 8 r = .32 173. Clearness and linear perspective are examples of _______ cues for depth perception. a. binocular b. kinetic c. monocular d. all of the above Answer c % correct 67 a= 12 b= 2 c= 67 d= 19 r = .46

102

174. If perceptual information aiding in depth perception must be drawn simultaneously from both eyes, it is referred to as _______. a. a monocular cue b. a binocular cue c. contralateral input d. a duoretinal image Answer b % correct 93 a= 4 b= 93 c= 1 d= 2 r = .20 175. The impression of depth can be created or enhanced in visual art by encouraging the person viewing a drawing to assume that converging lines are actually parallel. This artistic ploy uses the depth cue of _______. a. interposition b. elevation c. accommodation d. linear perspective Answer d % correct 91 a= 4 b= 2 c= 3 d= 91 r = .28 176. A drawing of a gravel road depicts the tiny rocks as becoming smaller and less distinct as one looks “down the lane.” This simulation of depth on a two-dimensional sheet of paper is an example of the _______ cue. a. interposition b. texture gradient c. elevation d. shadowing Answer b % correct 87 a= 8 b= 87 c= 4 d= 1 r = .32 177. Railroad tracks converging in the distance best illustrate which monocular cue? a. texture gradient b. linear perspective c. texture gradient and linear perspective d. clearness and texture gradient Answer b % correct 90 a= 1 b= 90 c= 8 d= 1 r = .36

Depth Processing (Binocular) 178. The differences between the separate images each eye receives are known as __________. a. retinal disparity b. convergence c. binocular inversion d. stereoscopic vision Answer a % correct 55 a= 55 b= 11 c= 25 d= 8 r = .28 179. Because the eyes are separated by several centimeters, each eye's view of an object is different from the other's. This is called _______ disparity. a. monocular b. ocular c. visual d. binocular Answer d % correct 46 a= 4 b= 9 c= 41 d= 46 r = .24

103

180. Which of the following produces binocular disparity? a. the eyes being a few centimeters apart b. right-eye dominance in most people c. astigmatism d. the slightly elliptical shape of the eye Answer a % correct 72 a= 72 b= 7 c= 11 d= 9 r = .42 181. When we look at objects fairly close to us, our eyes tend to turn slightly inward toward each other. This process is called _______. a. retinal disparity b. convergence c. binocular inversion d. being cross-eyed Answer b % correct 79 a= 11 b= 79 c= 8 d= 2 r = .51 182. When objects are 60 or 70 feet away, _______ does not occur. a. convergence b. stereoscopic vision c. motion parallax d. retinal disparity Answer a % correct 66 a= 66 b= 13 c= 3 d= 17 r = .35 183. A person who is blind in one eye can use all of the visual cues except _______. a. aerial perspective b. convergence c. shadowing d. motion parallax Answer b % correct 85 a= 8 b= 85 c= 2 d= 5 r = .31 184. Which type of information helps with depth perception? a. revision b. dispartic c. binocular d. all of the above Answer c % correct 70 a= 2 b= 5 c= 70 d= 23 r = .54 185. Since our eyes are a few inches apart, we get a slightly different view from each eye. This is known as: a. binocular disparity. b. visual reference. c. ocular disparity. d. kinetic revision. Answer a % correct 67 a= 67 b= 7 c= 20 d= 6 r = .31 186. If a single line is projected onto the same parts of both retinas, the line will be seen clearly in a process called _______. a. redundance b. monocular cooperation c. binocular fusion d. binocular rivalry Answer c % correct 76 a= 7 b= 16 c= 76 d= 2 r = .34

104

Visual Illusions 187. Even though a motion picture actually consists of a series of still frames, we perceive them conveying continuous movement. This is an example of __________. a. autokinetic illusion b. stroboscopic motion c. induced movement d. the phi phenomenon Answer b % correct 62 a= 21 b= 62 c= 7 d= 10 r = .20 188. Many so-called UFOs may actually be caused by ________. a. the Muller-Lyer illusion b. the Ponzo illusion c. faulty monocular cues d. the autokinetic effect Answer d % correct 92 a= 4 b= 3 c= 2 d= 92 r = .36 189. Muller-Lyer, Ponzo, and Zollner are all _________. a. proponents of the unconscious inference theory b. geometrical illusions c. researchers in the field of audiology d. towns in Italy where illusions were first studied Answer b % correct 45 a= 29 b= 45 c= 26 d= 0

r = .36

190. The autokinetic effect is: a. the tendency for a stationary object viewed against a dark background to look as if it is moving. b. the tendency to perceive that a moving light viewed against a dark background to look as if it is stationary. c. the tendency to perceive that a stationary object against a dark background is closer than it actually is. d. the tendency to perceive that a stationary object against a dark background is farther away than it actually is. Answer a % correct 76 a= 76 b= 11 c= 10 d= 3 r = .39 191. The tendency for a stationary light viewed against darkness to look as though it's moving is called: a. the synthesizing process. b. the autokinetic effect. c. the kinetic depth effect. d. motion parallax. Answer b % correct 76 a= 1 b= 76 c= 8 d= 15 r = .50 192. An illusion due to misleading cues in stimuli which cause us to create perceptions that are inaccurate or impossible is called a(n) _______ illusion. a. perceptual b. induced c. physical d. stroboscopic Answer a % correct 67 a= 67 b= 17 c= 6 d= r = .33

105

193. The saying, “Birds of a feather flock together” is most closely aligned with the _______ principle of perceptual organization. a. closure b. similarity c. symmetry d. continuity Answer b % correct 80 a= 3 b= 80 c= 4 d= 13 r = .22

106

Quiz 4.1: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q4.1.1 When the way you perceive a stimulus does not match its physical reality, you are perceiving a(n) __________. a) illusion b) sensation c) illustration d) perception ANS: a Topic=Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Your brain—not your eyes—is the seat of perception. LO 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses.

EOM Q4.1.2 __________ is the process by which the nervous system converts an external stimulus (such as sound waves or light energy) into electrical signals within neurons. a) Transduction b) Transmogrification c) Transubstantiation d) Mollification ANS: a Topic=Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This is the process of getting the world “out there” into the perceptual system “inside.” LO 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

107

EOM Q4.1.3 Which theory addresses signal-to-noise ratio as a fundamental element of understanding perception? a) signal detection theory b) psychophysics c) Weber’s law d) absolute threshold theory ANS: a Topic=Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Separating meaning from the meaningless is a task we are faced with in many contexts. LO 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses.

EOM Q4.1.4 To test his theory that attention passes through a mental filter that gives priority to important information, Donald Broadbent used __________, an experimental technique in which listeners hear different messages in each ear. a) dichotic listening b) filter theory c) double-blind synesthesia d) change deafness ANS: a Topic=Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Participants directed attention to the message transmitted to one ear versus the other. LO 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses.

EOM Q4.1.5 The question of how we combine cues of shape, motion, color, and depth over time into a meaningful total picture is called __________. a) the binding problem b) inattentional blindness c) multiple perception d) agnosia ANS: a Topic=Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 4.1b Discuss the role of attention and the nature of the binding problem. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: The world is a blur of energy forms impinging on our senses, yet somehow we turn all of that into meaningful perceptions. LO 4.1b Discuss the role of attention and the nature of the binding problem.

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Quiz 4.2: Seeing: The Visual System Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Seeing: The Visual System

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q4.2.1 To see as we do, the human eye responds to a narrow range of light’s wavelengths known as __________. a) the human visible spectrum b) electromagnetic energy c) ultraviolet and infrared d) the visual perception field ANS: a Topic=Seeing: The Visual System Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Humans are sensitive to wavelengths ranging from slightly less than 400 nanometers (violet) to slightly more than 700 nanometers (red). LO 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process EOM Q4.2.2 The circular hole throuugh which light enters the eye is called the __________. a) pupil b) retina c) cornea d) lens ANS: a Topic=Seeing: The Visual System Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Recall the various structures of the human eye and the order in which light passes through them. LO 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process.

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EOM Q4.2.3 We perceive the __________ of an object based on the intensity of the light that is reflected to our eyes. a) brightness b) wavelength c) hue d) pigment ANS: a Topic=Seeing: The Visual System Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Completely white objects reflect all of the light shone on them and absorb none of it, whereas black objects do the opposite. LO 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process.

EOM Q4.2.4 There is an area right in front of your eyes all the time that you are unable to notice and cannot see. This region of the retina has no rods or sense receptors to capture light, yet your brain simply fills in the area based on what each eye does see. This is called __________. a) a blind spot b) inattentional blindness c) the absence region d) deficiency vision ANS: a Topic=Seeing: The Visual System Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 4.2b Identify the different kinds of visual perception. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Our brain fills in the gaps created by this, and because each of our eyes supplies us with a slightly different picture of the world, we do not ordinarily notice it. LO 4.2b Identify the different kinds of visual perception.

EOM Q4.2.5 A deficit in seeing objects, such as being unable to name or identify an object despite being able to note its shape or color, is called __________. a) visual agnosia b) sightblindness c) blindness d) scleraderma ANS: a Topic=Seeing: The Visual System Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 4.2c Describe different visual problems. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: There is a technical term used for this kind of deficit. LO 4.2c Describe different visual problems.

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Quiz 4.3: Hearing: The Auditory System Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Hearing: The Auditory System

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q4.3.1 __________, a variation of frequency theory, explains how we hear tones between 100 and 5,000 Hz. a) Volley theory b) Place theory c) Tone-based theory d) Auditory perception theory ANS: a Topic=Hearing: The Auditory System Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: According to this theory, sets of neurons fire at their highest rate slightly out of sync with each other to reach overall rates up to 5,000 Hz. LO 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process.

EOM Q4.3.2 Your neighbor’s garage band is playing loudly into the night. When you hear the sound, you are experiencing __________, mechanical energy traveling through the air. a) vibration b) wavelengths c) adulation d) frequencies ANS: a Topic=Hearing: The Auditory System Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Sound waves can travel through any gas, liquid, or solid, but we hear them best when they travel through air. LO 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOM Q4.3.3 Based on their relative __________ level, the sound of a nearby clap of thunder will be perceived as louder than that of a lawn mower. a) decibel b) pitch c) timbre d) plasticity ANS: a Topic=Hearing: The Auditory System Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Loud noise results in increased wave amplitude because there is more mechanical disturbance; that is, more vibrating airborne molecules. LO 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process.

EOM Q4.3.4 If as a young person, you liked to attend loud Motorhead stadium concerts or lived next to an airport, by the time you are elderly you may well find you do not hear as well as you used to. This is most likely due to __________. a) noise-induced hearing loss b) conductive deafness c) nerve deafness d) enhancement of the basilar membrane ANS: a Topic=Seeing: The Visual System Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 4.3b Identify the different kinds of auditory perception. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This type of hearing loss is often accompanied by tinnitus. LO 4.3b Identify the different kinds of auditory perception.

EOM Q4.3.5 An inability to hear due to ossicle failure is an example of __________. a) conductive deafness b) nerve deafness c) tinnitus d) noise-induced hearing loss ANS: a Topic=Seeing: The Visual System Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 4.3b Identify the different kinds of auditory perception. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Ossicles vibrate at the frequency of the sound wave, transmitting it from the eardrum to the inner ear. LO 4.3b Identify the different kinds of auditory perception.

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Quiz 4.4: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q4.4.1 Humans do not have the best sense of smell. Dogs, for example, are typically about __________ times more sensitive to scents than people are. a) 100,000 b) 10,000

c) 3,000 d) 1,000 ANS: a Topic=Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This explains why police use trained dogs rather than trained people to sniff for bombs and banned substances. LO 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes.

EOM Q4.4.2 With so few taste receptors, our sense of taste needs help from another sense. Which of the following senses helps the sense of taste? a) smell b) vision c) touch d) hearing ANS: a Topic=Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Think about your sensory reactions when faced with a glass of curdled milk. LO 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOM Q4.4.3 We like foods that taste and smell good, but what we tend to think of as “good” also depends on __________. a) culture b) visual appraisal c) texture d) ergonomics ANS: a Skill=Understand the Concepts Topic=Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses Objective=LO 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: One person's meat is another person's poison. LO 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes.

EOM Q4.4.4 A sensation related to “meaty” or “savory” taste is called __________. a) umami b) salty c) surly d) starchy ANS: a Topic=Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Today, most scientists consider this the fifth taste. LO 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes.

EOM Q4.4.5 Which term refers to our sense of smell? a) olfaction b) gustation c) nocioception d) proprioception ANS: a Topic=Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: "Smelliness" is not correct. LO 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes.

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Quiz 4.5: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q4.5.1 Also called kinesthesia, which of the following is the term for your sense of the position of your own body? a) proprioception b) vestibular c) equilibrium d) oppositional ANS: a Topic=Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 4.5a Describe the three different body senses. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: You may not be thinking about keeping your head and shoulders upright, because your brain is graciously taking care of all that for you. LO 4.5a Describe the three different body senses.

EOM Q4.5.2 In pain threshold studies, which of the following kinds of people required more anesthetic than others? a) people with naturally red hair b) post-menopausal women c) men under 35 d) people taller than 6 feet ANS: a Topic=Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Some of the differences in people’s thresholds are probably due to genetic factors that happen to be correlated with other characteristics. LO 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOM Q4.5.3 Our current understanding of pain has been vastly informed by the __________. a) gate control model b) hook-and-latch theory c) passive restraint model d) affective forecasting theory ANS: a Topic=Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This model explains how and why variations in pain might be felt. LO 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception.

EOM Q4.5.4 A patient who suffered a traumatic injury has his arm amputated just above the elbow. He complains that he can still feel the missing limb and that it feels cramped in a painful position. What tool could help this patient feel better? a) mirror box b) cognitive therapy c) gate control d) psychic healing ANS: a Topic=Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This is a novel way of "tricking" the brain's perceptual systems. LO 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception.

EOM Q4.5.5 A psychologist who designs technology that functions better for the people who use it, based on what we know about how the human mind and body work, is working in the field of __________. a) human factors b) cognitive psychology c) kinesthetic utility d) behavior modification ANS: a Topic=Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 4.5c Describe the field of psychology called human factors. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: We can use what we know about human psychology and sensory systems to build more worker-friendly tools. LO 4.5c Describe the field of psychology called human factors.

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Quiz 4.6: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q4.6.1 Which Gestalt principle holds that objects physically close to each other tend to be perceived as unified wholes? a) proximity b) similarity c) closure d) continuity ANS: a Topic=Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 4.6a Track how our minds build up perceptions. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: We tend to perceive the world in accord with some basic operating principles. LO 4.6a Track how our minds build up perceptions.

EOM Q4.6.2 The mental procedure that we use to create a whole by perceiving its parts is called __________. a) bottom-up processing b) top-down processing c) parallel processing d) intermittent processing ANS: a Topic=Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This kind of processing begins with activity in the primary visual cortex, followed by processing in the association cortex. LO 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOM Q4.6.3 The fact that you can recognize your red jacket in both bright light and shadow is an example of the effect of __________. a) color constancy b) size constancy c) Gestalt principles d) parallax view ANS: a Topic=Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: We evaluate the color of an object in the context of background light and surrounding colors. LO 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment.

EOM Q4.6.4 Information processing that occurs below the threshold of conscious awareness is called __________. a) subliminal b) superlative c) suboptimal d) suboptic ANS: a Topic=Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 4.6c Distinguish subliminal perception from subliminal persuasion. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Recall the technical term for a perceptual threshold. LO 4.6c Distinguish subliminal perception from subliminal persuasion.

EOM Q4.6.5 One reason people believe in ESP is that they tend to pay attention to and remember striking coincidences while forgetting events that are not as exciting and memorable. This phenomenon is called __________. a) illusory correlation b) experimenter effect c) clairvoyance d) Ganzfeld technique ANS: a Topic=Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 4.6d Analyze the scientific evidence for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP). Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Further contributing to belief in ESP is our tendency to underestimate the frequency of coincidences. LO 4.6d Analyze the scientific evidence for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP).

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Chapter 4 Quiz: Sensation and Perception Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Chapter Quiz: Sensation and Perception

Multiple Choice Single Select EOC Q4.1 Psychologists are not certain how people do it, but somehow when we look at an object, our brains manage to put together a lot of disparate information into a unified whole. This mystery is called __________. a) the binding problem b) inattentional blindness c) selective attention d) dichotic listening ANS: a Topic=Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 4.1b Discuss the role of attention and the nature of the binding problem. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: When we perceive an apple, different regions of our brains process different aspects of it. LO 4.1b Discuss the role of attention and the nature of the binding problem.

EOC Q4.2 What does your body use to transduce specific external stimuli into neural activity? a) sense receptors b) transducers c) sensory adaptation d) neural links ANS: a Topic=Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The process of transduction converts "the world out there" into "the world inside." LO 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q4.3 The ossicles, the smallest bones in the body, are found where? a) middle ear b) nasal passages c) ocular cavity d) foot ANS: a Topic=Hearing: The Auditory System Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The three tiniest bones in the body—named the hammer, anvil, and stirrup, after their shapes. LO 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process.

EOC Q4.4 Subliminal perception is quite different from subliminal persuasion. Although we may perceive stimuli that are below the threshold of conscious awareness, they do not necessarily spur us to action. Why is that? a) We cannot engage in very much in-depth processing of the subliminal message; therefore, there is not much effect on our attitudes and decisions. b) We realize we are being duped, and therefore marshall defense mechanisms that impede action. c) Subliminal perception has not been successfully documented; therefore, there is nothing to act upon. d) After processing a subliminal message, our "neural correction system" devalues the information. ANS: a Topic=Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 4.6c Distinguish subliminal perception from subliminal persuasion. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Seeing something and fully perceiving something are importantly different from one another. LO 4.6c Distinguish subliminal perception from subliminal persuasion.

EOC Q4.5 Numerous taste buds are contained in the little bumps called __________ on our tongues. a) papillae b) olfactants c) olfactory bulbs d) pockets ANS: a Topic=Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: There are separate taste buds for sweet, salty, sour, bitter, and umami. LO 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes.

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EOC Q4.6 Our brains rely on knowledge and experience to make educated guesses about the sensory information we receive. Which of the following is formed when our expectations influence our perceptions? a) perceptual set b) Gestalt field c) perceptual constancy d) monocular cues ANS: a Topic=Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: We may perceive a misshapen letter as an “H” or as an “A” depending on the surrounding letters and the words that would result from our interpretation. LO 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment.

EOC Q4.7 People have three body senses that work together. Which system do we use for touch and pain? a) somatosensory b) proprioception c) vestibular d) gustafaction ANS: a Topic=Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: We sense light touch, deep pressure, and temperature with specialized nerve endings located on the ends of sensory nerves in the skin. LO 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception.

EOC Q4.8 The ability of the human brain to attend to many sense modalities at the same time is called __________. a) parallel processing b) bottom-up processing c) top-down processing d) multilevel processing ANS: a Topic=Ethical Issues in Research Design Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 4.6a Track how our minds build up perceptions. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Two important concepts that accompany this are bottom-up processing and top-down processing. LO 4.6a Track how our minds build up perceptions.

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EOC Q4.9 Which of the following senses allows us to maintain balance by using fluid-filled canals in the inner ear? a) vestibular b) proprioception c) kinesthetic d) sensorimotor ANS: a Topic=Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 4.5a Describe the three different body senses Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This information reaches parts of the brain stem that control eye muscles and triggers reflexes that coordinate eye and head movements. LO 4.5a Describe the three different body senses.

EOC Q4.10 What classic experiment designed by Eleanor Gibson established that infants can perceive depth? a) the visual cliff b) binocular convergence c) texture gradient d) interposition ANS: a Topic=Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains Difficulty=Difficult Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Consider This: Infants were hesitant to continue crawling after a certain point on this apparatus. LO 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment.

EOC Q4.11 What are pheromones? a) odorless chemicals that serve as social signals to members of one’s species b) a set of bones in the inner ear that allow us to hear c) a system of gates in the spinal cord that regulate the perception of pain d) collections of taste buds concentrated in specific areas of the tongue ANS: a Topic=Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The impact of pheromones in influencing human behaviors is debatable. LO 4.4a Identify how we sense and perceive odors and tastes.

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EOC Q4.12 Which rule tells us that the stronger the stimulus, the bigger the change needed for a change in stimulus intensity to be noticeable? a) Weber’s law b) absolute threshold c) Haufe's principle d) figure-ground discontinuity ANS: a Topic=Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This was an important discovery in the early history of psychology. LO 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses.

EOC Q4.13 Which of the following is a binocular cue to distance? a) convergence b) relative size c) interposition d) texture gradient ANS: a Topic=Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains Skill=Apply What You Know, Objective=LO 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: When we look at nearby objects, we focus on them reflexively by using our eye muscles to turn our eyes inward. LO 4.6b Describe how we perceive people, objects, and sounds in our environment.

EOC Q4.14 You meet your brother’s new girlfriend and are immediately put off by the grating quality of her voice. Which aspect of her voice is bothering you? a) timbre b) pitch c) volume d) frequency ANS: a Topic=Hearing: The Auditory System Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Different musical instruments sound different because they differ in this quality, and the same holds for human voices. LO 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process.

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EOC Q4.15 The white part of the human eye is called the __________. a) sclera b) cornea c) lens d) retina ANS: a Topic=Seeing: The Visual System Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Recall the various structures of the eye. LO 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process.

EOC Q4.16 As you walk into an elevator, you notice the powerful scent of perfume left behind by someone who has just exited. By the time you reach your floor, you find that you hardly notice the smell anymore. What phenomenon is at work? a) sensory adaptation b) transduction c) absolute threshold d) Weber’s law ANS: a Topic=Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This is a way of conserving attentional resources. LO 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses.

EOC Q4.17 There are three major types of ESP or so-called psychic phenomena: precognition, clairvoyance, and __________. a) telepathy b) animism c) premonition d) astral projection ANS: a Topic=Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 4.6d Analyze the scientific evidence for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP). Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: All three of these phenomena suffer from a lack of replication of findings. LO 4.6d Analyze the scientific evidence for and against the existence of extrasensory perception (ESP).

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EOC Q4.18 Which term refers to our sense of hearing? a) audition b) audibility c) audial d) audient ANS: a Topic=Hearing: The Auditory System Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 4.3b Identify the different kinds of auditory perception. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Next to vision, hearing is probably the sensory modality we rely on most to acquire information about our world. LO 4.3b Identify the different kinds of auditory perception.

EOC Q4.19 Which of the following is found on the retina of the human eye? a) cones b) iris c) cornea d) pupil ANS: a Topic=Smell and Taste: The Sensual Senses Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Think about the location of various structures in the eye. LO 4.2a Explain how the eye starts the visual process.

EOC Q4.20 __________ explains how we can see a range of colors, whereas __________ explains why we see afterimages. a) Trichromatic theory; opponent process theory b) Opponent process theory; trichromatic theory c) Rod concentration; cone concentration d) Triarchic theory; oppositional force theory ANS: a Topic=Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 4.2b Identify the different kinds of visual perception. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: These are the two explanations of color vision. LO 4.2b Identify the different kinds of visual perception.

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EOC Q4.21 According to the gate control model, __________ is an effective way of short-circuiting painful sensations. a) distraction b) concentration c) talk therapy d) dwelling on the affected area ANS: a Topic=Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Think of the answer to this question — or, think of something else. LO 4.5b Explain how pain perception differs from touch perception.

EOC Q4.22 Which part of the ear is shaped like a spiral with a bony outer portion and an inner cavity filled with a thick fluid? a) cochlea b) organ of corti c) basilar membrane d) eardrum ANS: a Topic=Hearing: The Auditory System Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Recall the major structures of the human ear that you read about. LO 4.3a Explain how the ear starts the auditory process. EOC Q4.23 Some blind people can nonetheless make decent guesses about the location of objects in their environment. This phenomenon is called __________. a) blindsight b) hindsight c) precognition d) mindsight ANS: a Topic=Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 4.2c Describe different visual problems. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Remember, both the eyes and the brain are involved in visual perception. LO 4.2c Describe different visual problems.

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EOC Q4.24 Ingo Larsen is a psychologist who specializes in designing workplace environments to improve human efficiency, reduce worker fatigue, and decrease work-related stress and strain. What type of psychology does Ingo practice? a) human factors b) social psychology c) organizational behavior d) plangent visions ANS: a Topic=Perception: When Our Senses Meet Our Brains Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 4.5c Describe the field of psychology called human factors. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Ingo is an applied psychologist. LO 4.5c Describe the field of psychology called human factors.

EOC Q4.25 Your sister tells you that to her, the numeral 7 is always green and 4 is always red. She is surprised to find that you do not share this experience. You are surprised to discover that she has a rare condition known as __________. a) synesthesia b) numerical blindness c) sensoperceptual deficiency d) the McGurk effect ANS: a Topic=Two Sides of the Coin: Sensation and Perception Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: There are about 60 types of this phenomenon. LO 4.1a Identify the basic principles that apply to all senses.

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Chapter 5: Consciousness Total Assessment Guide Topic Quick Quiz 1

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice

1, 4–5, 9–10

3, 7–8

2, 6

Quick Quiz 2

Multiple Choice

1, 4–5, 9

7–8, 10

2–3, 6

Introduction and Learning Objective 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks. Learning Objective 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Learning Objective 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders.

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

1, 4–10, 12, 15 2

3, 17 1

2, 11, 13–14

Multiple Choice

18–21, 24, 26, 29– 30, 36–37 3–5 1

22, 28, 35, 39, 42

16, 23, 25, 27, 31–34, 38 6

40, 44, 56–58, 62– 63, 68–69 7, 9

43, 46–48, 50

41, 45, 49, 51–55, 5961, 6467 8

Learning Objective 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams. Learning Objective 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming.

Learning Objective 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Multiple Choice Learning Objective 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Fill-in-the-Blank

Learning Objective 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use.

Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

71–72, 81

88–89, 92

95–96, 101 14

102, 105, 107–108, 112–114 18 3 116–117, 120, 124

73, 75, 79–80

1 70, 74, 76–78

2 2 82–84, 86, 10–11, 13

85, 87, 90–91 12

2 94, 97–99 15 3

103–104, 110–111

106, 109, 115

16–17

123

93, 100

118–119, 121– 122 20

Topic Learning Objective 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness.

Multiple Choice

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

125, 129–131, 133, 137–139, 141–143, 145–146, 148–150 21, 23–24, 26

126–127, 144

128, 132, 134– 135–136, 140, 147, 151

22, 25 4

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 5 Quick Quiz 1 1. Of the various forms of altered consciousness, in which of the following do we spend the most time? A) dreaming B) under the influence of drugs C) out-of-body experiences D) sleeping 2. Abdulkadir had a very strange thing happen to him last night. He was sound asleep in bed, and he was dreaming that he was at a party when he won the $250 million dollar lottery spin. As everyone was screaming, jumping up and down, and celebrating, Abdulkadir had the strangest sensation that he was actually dreaming. As it turns out, unfortunately, he was right. What principle explains this experience? A) lucid dreaming B) conscious dreaming C) unconscious dreaming D) sentient dreaming

3. Which of the following conditions would you least like the pilot flying your airplane to have? A) enuresis C) daytime insomnia

B) sleep terror D) narcolepsy

4. Sleepwalking occurs most often during __________ sleep. A) REM B) stage 1 C) stage 2 D) stages 3 or 4 5. Which theorist, attempting to explain what dreams are all about, suggested that there are two levels of content to each dream—the manifest content and the latent content? A) Freud B) Cartwright C) Domhoff D) Van de Castle 6. Although he knows that it is wrong, Sean has a crush on his new stepmom. He dreams of the two of them running away together and living happily ever after. What aspect of dreaming does this represent? A) activation–synthesis B) repressed desires C) wish fulfillment D) dream–work 7. It is tempting, based on anecdotal evidence, to believe that when we die, we will be ushered into a utopian afterlife. After all, many who have had near death experiences (NDEs) have claimed to “see” friends or loved ones waiting for them. There is no scientific evidence, however, to support these claims. This reminds us of which principle of critical thinking? A) extraordinary claims B) replicability C) falsifiability D) ruling out rival hypotheses 8. At its most basic level, __________ is an exercise in suggestion. A) hypnosis B) meditation C) dreaming D) lucidity 9. The need to take a drug in order to avoid withdrawal symptoms is an indication of __________. A) a craving B) tolerance C) psychological dependence D) physical dependence

10. What is the most frequently used illegal drug in the United States? A) alcohol B) cocaine C) marijuana D) methamphetamine

Chapter 5 Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1. D

Explanation: We spend as much as one-third or more of our lives asleep. (The Biology of Sleep, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 5.1a)

2. A

Explanation: A lucid dream occurs when a person is aware that they are dreaming while the dream is taking place. (The Biology of Sleep, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 5.1b)

3. D

Explanation: Narcolepsy is characterized by sudden sleep, which might cause the pilot to lose control of the plane. (The Biology of Sleep, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 5.1c)

4. D

Explanation: Though many believe that sleepwalking is the acting out of dreams, it actually occurs in our deepest NREM stage when we typically are not dreaming. (The Biology of Sleep, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 5.1c)

5. A

Explanation: Freud believed that dreams are the “royal road to the unconscious.” (Dreams, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 5.2a)

6. C

Explanation: Freud believed our dreams were symbolic of how we wish things could be. (Dreams, Applied, APA LO 1.2, TEXT LO 5.2a)

7. A

Explanation: Recall that extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence, and in this case the evidence simply is not there. (Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences, Conceptual, APA LO 2.1, TEXT LO 5.3a)

8. A

Explanation: Most research into hypnosis has found that it is highly related to a person’s level of suggestibility. (Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 5.3b)

9. D

Explanation: This symptom, called tolerance, is an indication of physical dependence. (Drugs and Consciousness, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 5.4a)

10. C

Explanation: If you thought the answer was alcohol, remember that it is not illegal if you are “of age.” (Drugs and Consciousness, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 5.4b)

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 5 Quick Quiz 2 1. Even though sleep research suggests that most college students require approximately __________ hours of sleep nightly, they often get no more than __________ hours. A) 7; 6 B) 9; 6 C) 9; 8 D) 10; 8 2. Nathan was a psychologist in the 1930s. Which of the following would best represent his understanding of what happened inside the brain during sleep? A) Humans pass through five distinct stages of sleep. B) Humans, unlike animals, experience REM sleep but both experience non-REM sleep. C) Neurons fire and create the biological underpinnings of dreams and nightmares as we sleep. D) The brain is temporarily turned off while humans sleep 3. Which of the following statements might help you determine if an individual has narcolepsy? A) “I sometimes fall into a deep sleep in the middle of a conversation.” B) “I don’t have an adverse reaction to sleeping pills.” C) “I have difficulty getting to sleep.” D) “When I get up in the morning, I have the feeling that I had really bad nightmares.” 4. The treatment for __________ usually involves wearing a facemask device that forces air into the lungs during sleep. A) narcolepsy B) night terrors C) somnambulism D) sleep apnea 5. In a strange condition called sex sleep, or __________, people engage in sexual acts while asleep and don’t remember what occurred after they awaken. A) nocturnal erotica disorder B) circadian coitus syndrome C) erotoslumber D) sexsomnia 6. A client tells his therapist about a dream in which he drives his wife to the airport where she boards a plane. As the plane takes off, he is smiling. The therapist says the dream suggests a desire for a divorce. The therapist’s interpretation represents what Sigmund Freud called the dream’s __________ content. A) deep B) latent C) manifest D) subliminal 7. Enrico claims that déjà vu is evidence of a memory from one’s past life. This claim violates which principle of critical thinking? A) falsifiability B) parsimony C) replicability D) ruling out rival hypotheses

8. The positive effects that have been noted when using hypnosis have been explained in a number of ways. One suggestion is that the relaxed state that accompanies a “hypnotic trance” is uniquely responsible for all of the effects. This reminds us of which principle of critical thinking from your book? A) replicability B) ruling out rival hypotheses C) correlation vs. causation D) falsifiability 9. Which of the following drugs is categorized as a depressant? A) cocaine B) LSD C) alcohol D) marijuana 10. Which of the following pairs belong together? A) marijuana; tetrahydrocannabinol C) marijuana; acetylcholine

B) marijuana; psilocybin D) MDMA; acetylcholine

Chapter 5 Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1. B

Explanation: These are the numbers that are demonstrated by research. (The Biology of Sleep, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 5.1a)

2. D

Explanation: For much of human history, it was believed that sleep is a completely inactive, dormant period of time. (The Biology of Sleep, Applied, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 5.1b)

3. A

Explanation: Narcolepsy is characterized by sudden attacks of irresistible sleep. (The Biology of Sleep, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 5.1c)

4. D

Explanation: This mask, called a CPAP device, forces air into the patient’s lungs. (The Biology of Sleep, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 5.1c)

5. D

Explanation: This is the correct term for the condition described in this question. (The Biology of Sleep, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 5.1c)

6. B

Explanation: Latent (hidden) content refers to the meaning of the dream. (Dreams, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 5.2a)

7. A

Explanation: Enrico is using anecdotal evidence that cannot be verified or falsified. (Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences, Conceptual, APA LO 2.1, TEXT LO 5.3a)

8. B

Explanation: In this case, it is important to consider multiple explanations for the positive effects of hypnosis. Another possible hypothesis is the placebo effect. (Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences, Conceptual, APA LO 2.1, TEXT LO 5.3b)

9. C

Explanation: Though many believe that alcohol is a stimulant, it is actually a central nervous system depressant. (Drugs and Consciousness, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 5.4b)

10. A

Explanation: THC is the active ingredient in marijuana. (Drugs and Consciousness, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 5.4b)

Chapter 5: Consciousness Test Bank Multiple Choice 1. Our subjective experience of the world, our bodies, and our mental perspectives is what psychologists refer to as __________. A) consciousness B) motivation C) perception D) sensation Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 2. Eric had a sleep-related experience where he reported feeling strapped down and unable to move or examine much of his surroundings. This inability to move that occurs just after falling asleep or just before waking up is called __________. A) dissociation B) hypnosis C) an out-of-body experience Incorrect. Sleep paralysis is different from an out-of-body experience. D) sleep paralysis Correct. Sleep paralysis is the strange experience of being unable to move just after falling asleep or immediately upon awakening. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction

3. Research by Susan Clancy (2005) found that many people claim to have had experiences or interactions with extraterrestrial beings. A participant in her research assured them that their experience was likely real, and used hypnosis to draw out their repressed memories of the event. As it turns out, the participant’s entire experience may have actually been attributed to a bout of sleep paralysis, but this was not considered by the therapist. This case is an example of which concept of critical thinking? A) correlation vs. causation B) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. The therapist simply accepted the idea that a supernatural encounter had occurred, instead of considering other explanations for the event that was reported. C) replicability Incorrect. There was nothing in this case that spoke specifically to an attempt (or failure) to reproduce the same incidents. D) falsifiability Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 4. Of the various forms of altered consciousness, in which of the following do we spend the most time? A) dreaming B) under the influence of drugs C) out-of-body experiences D) sleeping Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 5. When you feel drowsy late at night, it is the result of activity occurring within your __________. A) amygdala B) cerebellum C) hypothalamus D) thalamus Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 5.3b TEXT LO: 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

6. The term circadian comes from the Latin for __________. A) “about a day” B) “operates at night” C) “slumber” D) “drop of consciousness” Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 7. The internal clock for humans is accurate to within a few minutes for most people. However, it tends to run on a 24-hour clock and therefore must be reset each day. The brain region that is responsible for resetting the internal clock is the __________. A) fornix B) hippocampus C) hypothalamus D) reticular activating system Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 8. A circadian rhythm is roughly __________ hours long. A) 1.5 B) 12 C) 6 D) 24 Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 9. A biological cycle, or rhythm, that is roughly 24 hours long is called a(n) __________ rhythm. A) infradian B) circadian C) diurnal D) ultradian Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks. Topic: The Biology of Sleep Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

10. __________, a hormone that triggers feelings of sleepiness, is released at higher levels when you are in dark surroundings. A) Serotonin B) Testosterone C) Estrogen D) Melatonin Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 11. Many over-the-counter remedies have names that resemble the actual chemical or physiological mechanism that they impact. Which of the following product names would be most likely to triggers feelings of sleepiness? A) Superserotone B) Melatonex Correct. Remember that melatonin is the hormone that is associated with causing sleepiness. C) Dopaminex D) Adrenalaccel Incorrect. Adrenaline is associated with wakefulness, not sleepiness. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 12. Also known as the brain’s biological clock, the hypothalamus has a mere __________ neurons that regulate our levels of drowsiness. A) 200 B) 2,000 C) 20,000 D) 200,000 Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

13. When Sophia flies across the country for work meetings, traversing several time zones, her circadian rhythm is likely to be interrupted by __________. A) jet lag Correct. The disruption in our circadian rhythm caused by changing time zones is called jet lag. B) sleep deprivation Incorrect. If you make the mistake of taking an overnight flight, you may, in fact, experience sleep deprivation, but jet lag is the best answer to this question. C) sleep debt D) REM rebound Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 14. Who is at most risk for causing an accident driving home? A) Sven, who just flew into New York from Florida Incorrect. This flight would stay within the same time zone, so it would probably not cause a person to experience sleep deprivation, jet lag, or an interruption in the circadian rhythm. B) Jess, who woke up early to take a final exam C) Amy, who just left her job as a night nurse Correct. Late shifts can disrupt our biological clocks. D) Melissa, who has been taking antidepressants for 3 months Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 15. Even though sleep research suggests that most college students require approximately __________ hours of sleep nightly, they often get no more than __________ hours. A) 7; 6 B) 9; 6 C) 9; 8 D) 10; 8 Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

16. Nathan was a psychologist in the 1930s. Which of the following would best represent his understanding of what happened inside the brain during sleep? A) Humans pass through five distinct stages of sleep. Incorrect. It was not until the middle of the twentieth century that the recognition of the existence of sleep stages occurred. B) Humans, unlike animals, experience REM sleep, but both experience non-REM sleep. C) Neurons fire and create the biological underpinnings of dreams and nightmares as we sleep. D) The brain is temporarily turned off while humans sleep. Correct. For much of human history, it was believed that sleep is a completely inactive, dormant period of time during which our consciousness was deactivated. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 17. Research finds that African Americans sleep less—and less well—than White Americans. Some may feel that this is caused by genetics, while others suggest that factors like social class and education may contribute to the difference. Another idea suggests that the stressors of being a minority may also affect sleep. These various ideas are an important example of __________. A) correlation vs. causation B) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. Looking for multiple explanations for a given phenomenon does not typify Occam’s Razor. C) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. The idea that we are considering many different dimensions of what may explain this phenomenon notes the idea of ruling out rival hypotheses. D) falsifiability Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 18. Which device would a sleep researcher use to monitor a sleeping person’s brain waves? A) electromyograph (EMG) B) electrocardiograph (EKG) C) electro-oculograph (EOG) D) electroencephalograph (EEG) Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

19. What does REM stand for? A) Random Excitatory Memory B) Rapid Eye Movement C) Repletion of Extra Melatonin D) Rigorous Energetic Motion Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 20. During what stage of sleep are we most likely to experience a vivid dream? A) non-REM sleep B) REM sleep C) stage 2 sleep D) stage 4 sleep Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep % correct 88 a = 6 b = 88 c = 6 d = 0 r = .32 % correct 88 a = 6 b = 88 c = 6 d = 0 r = .29 21. How many stages of sleep are there in human beings? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

22. What is the biggest difference between the different stages of the sleep cycle? A) changes in physical activity B) changes in respiratory effort C) changes in muscle tone Incorrect. Generally speaking, our muscle tone does not change significantly from sleep stage to sleep stage. D) changes in brain-wave activity Correct. The different EEG activity that occurs during sleep indicates when one has gone from one sleep stage to another. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 23. You are watching sleep researchers monitor the sleep of a normal adult. The participant is hooked up to an EEG. What brain waves would you observe as the person goes from a state of calm wakefulness to the first stage of sleep? A) alpha eventually replaced by delta Incorrect. Delta waves only occur in deep sleep. B) delta eventually replaced by theta C) alpha eventually replaced by theta Correct. The pattern sequence goes this way. D) delta eventually replaced by beta Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 24. What term do sleep researchers use to designate stages 1–4 of sleep? A) REM sleep B) non-REM sleep C) REMN sleep D) paradoxical sleep Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep % correct 76 a = 12 b = 76 c = 0 d = 6 r = .57

25. Paulette has been asleep for only a few minutes. Her brain activity is made up primarily of theta waves. Which sleep stage is Paulette currently in? A) REM sleep B) stage 3 C) stage 2 Incorrect. A majority of theta wave activity is indicative of stage 1 sleep, while sleep spindles indicate stage 2. D) stage 1 Correct. Stage 1 sleep is marked by theta wave activity. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 26. As we sleep during the night, we spend the majority of our time in __________ sleep. A) REM B) stage 1 C) stage 2 D) stage 4 Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 27. Troy is mowing the grass. As his lawnmower engine starts to run out of gas, it will sputter, run well for a while, then sputter again. What stage of sleep exhibits a similar pattern? A) stage 2 Correct. Stage 2 involves sudden bursts of electrical activity that create K-complexes. B) stage 3 C) stage 4 D) REM Incorrect. If this example resembled REM sleep, the lawnmower would turn on and keep running without interruption. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

28. Sleep research has continually shown that children spend more of their night getting deep sleep than do adults. This deep sleep corresponds to what stage(s) of sleep? A) REM Incorrect. Although REM sleep is when we do most of our dreaming, it is actually a very light stage of sleep. B) stages 2 and 3 C) stage 3 and REM D) stages 3 and 4 Correct. Stages 3 and 4 of REM sleep are the deepest sleep stages. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 29. Delta waves occur more than 50 percent of the time in stage __________ sleep. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 30. The REM stage of sleep occurs approximately every __________ during the night. A) 45 minutes B) 90 minutes C) 120 minutes D) 2–4 hours Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

31. Jemele has decided to remain awake two hours more than normal so that she can study for her British Literature exam. She also plans to wake 90 minutes earlier than normal to resume studying. This change in her sleep pattern will have the biggest effect on the amount of __________ sleep she gets. A) REM Correct. The particular times when she missed out on her sleep corresponds to more activity in the REM stages. B) stage 2 C) stage 3 D) stage 4 Incorrect. As we get closer to the end of the night of sleep, we spend less time in stage 4 of NREM sleep. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 32. Jackie has not slept for several days. When she finally dozes off, we can expect her to spend a lot of time dreaming. What process of sleep is being illustrated? A) paradoxical sleep Incorrect. REM sleep is also known as paradoxical sleep. Jackie’s lack of sleep will result in a phenomenon called REM rebound. B) hypnic myoclonia C) REM rebound Correct. When deprived of REM for a few nights, we experience REM rebound. This leads to an increase in amount and intensity of REM sleep. D) middle ear muscle activity Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

33. Curtis has been getting only four hours of sleep a night during final exams because he didn’t prepare like he should have during the semester. Upon returning home for the summer, he experiences intense dreams for three nights as he gets his more typical seven and a half hours of nightly sleep. Curtis is most likely experiencing __________. A) dissociation B) narcoleptic seizures C) REM rebound Correct. When deprived of REM for a few nights, we experience REM rebound. This leads to an increase in amount and intensity of REM sleep. D) sleep paralysis Incorrect. Curtis is sleep deprivation is not likely to lead to sleep paralysis, but rather will lead to REM rebound. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep % correct 91 a = 3 b = 3 c = 91 d = 3 r = .21 34. Nestor is in the middle of a fantastic dream. What is his body doing? A) acting out the movements of his dream B) twitching uncontrollably C) His arms are likely moving, but not his legs. Incorrect. The only part of the body that typically moves during REM sleep is the eyes. D) nothing Correct. Although the brain is active, the body is inactive; hence, paradoxical sleep. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep % correct 84 a = 3 b = 12 c = 1 d = 84 r = .25 35. Stage 5 sleep is often called paradoxical sleep because EEG patterns of people in stage 5 show __________. A) an abundance of K-complexes Incorrect. Sleep spindles and K-complexes are indicative of stage 2 of NREM sleep. B) excessive sleep spindles C) brain waves similar to beta activity D) heightened brain activity Correct. Although the body lies relatively inactive in bed, the brain activity of someone in REM sleep is often similar to a person who is fully awake. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

36. Which of the following types of physical activation have been found to occur during REM sleep? A) The muscles of the middle ear become active. B) The salivary glands in the mouth become active. C) The Raffini corpuscles in the nose become active. D) The ciliary muscles of the lungs become active. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 37. __________ dreaming is a phenomenon in which a person achieves an awareness of a dream as a dream while dreaming. A) Wakeful B) Sentient C) Lucid D) Self-aware Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 38. Caitlyn has been asleep for about 90 minutes and is experiencing a dream. Unlike most nights, however, she is aware that she is dreaming and she can control the story of her dream. Caitlyn is experiencing a(n) __________ dream. A) wakeful B) sentient C) lucid D) self-aware Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

39. Some research has found that the electrical activity of the brain indicates that lucid dreams may involve a mixture of REM sleep and wakefulness. If this research can be repeated, it may point to the idea that it is possible to be self-aware while one is asleep. This finding highlights the importance of __________. A) correlation vs. causation B) replicability Correct. One research finding would not be enough to make this leap, but multiple similar findings would be very important from a scientific perspective. C) falsifiability D) extraordinary claims Incorrect. Just because a concept is new does not make it either (a) extraordinary or (b) impossible. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 40. What relatively rare sleep disorder involves people acting out the movements and events of their dreams? A) sleepwalking B) narcolepsy C) REM behavior disorder D) sleep apnea Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 41. Abdulkadir had a very strange thing happen to him last night. He was sound asleep in bed, and he was dreaming that he was at a party when he won the $250 million dollar lottery spin. As everyone was screaming, jumping up and down, and celebrating, Abdulkadir had the strangest sensation that he was actually dreaming. As it turns out, unfortunately, he was right. What principle explains this experience? A) lucid dreaming Correct. A lucid dream occurs when a person is aware that they are dreaming while the dream is taking place. B) conscious dreaming C) unconscious dreaming D) sentient dreaming Incorrect. The correct term for this kind of dream is a lucid dream. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

42. Which of the following concepts most strongly challenges the conventional belief that one is either entirely awake and consciously aware or asleep and not consciously aware? A) dissociation B) hypnosis Incorrect. Hypnosis is an altered state of consciousness, but it is not related to being asleep. C) lucid dreaming Correct. In a lucid dream, an individual is aware that they are dreaming and may be able to exert some control over the context or content of their dreams. D) sleepwalking Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 43. A psychologist or a psychiatrist is likely to diagnose one’s recurring difficulty in attaining adequate nightly sleep as a psychological disorder __________. A) even if it occurs relatively infrequently Incorrect. Generally speaking, infrequent disruptions of the sleep cycle are not considered to be a sleep disorder, even if they are inconvenient or disruptive to a person’s life. B) if it interferes with daily activities such as work and negatively impacts a person’s health Correct. Everybody has the occasional difficulty sleeping, but when those difficulties significantly interfere with a person’s functioning, they may indicate a sleep disorder. C) only if the person feels that the lack of sleep is causing problems in other areas D) when it results from a deliberate choice, such as studying all night for an exam Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 44. The most commonly experienced sleep disorder is __________. A) insomnia B) narcolepsy C) night terrors D) sleep apnea Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep % correct 94 a = 94 b = 0 c = 3 d = 3 r = .24

45. Joaquin frequently experiences difficulty staying asleep through the night. He has no problem falling asleep initially, but recently he has experienced problems with waking up and then having trouble returning to sleep after receiving a new promotion at work approximately three weeks ago. Joaquin is most likely to be diagnosed as suffering from __________. A) insomnia Correct. Insomnia is a sleep disorder that can take several different forms, but generally interferes with the quality or duration of a person’s sleep. B) nightmares C) REM behavior disorder D) sleep apnea Incorrect. Sleep apnea is a sleep disorder marked by interruption of breathing while asleep. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 46. The difference between insomnia and narcolepsy is __________. A) insomnia causes people to have difficulty falling asleep when they want to, while narcolepsy causes people to fall asleep when they do not want to Correct. Insomnia impacts the ability to fall or stay asleep, while narcolepsy involves having a problem staying awake. B) narcolepsy causes people to have difficulty falling asleep when they want to, while insomnia causes people to fall asleep when they do not want to C) insomnia is a stage 1 and stage 2 disorder, while narcolepsy is a REM stage disorder D) narcolepsy is a stage 1 and stage 2 disorder, while insomnia is a REM stage disorder Incorrect. Narcolepsy does not occur during sleep, and insomnia can involve problems before sleep is achieved or at any stage during sleep. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 47. The difference between insomnia and sleep apnea is that __________. A) sleep apnea affects primarily the elderly, whereas insomnia is characteristic of children B) insomnia is treatable but sleep apnea is not Incorrect. Both of these disorders are treatable. C) sleep apnea is a precursor to narcolepsy, whereas insomnia is not D) insomnia is often characterized by sleeplessness, whereas sleep apnea is characterized by breathing difficulties Correct. Insomnia is characterized by sleeplessness but sleep apnea refers to breathing difficulties. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

48. Which of the following may contribute to insomnia? A) soft music playing Incorrect. In fact, many people find soft music to assist them in falling asleep. B) the air conditioner C) the clock on the wall Correct. Researcher James Maas recommends hiding clocks to avoid becoming preoccupied with the inability to fall asleep quickly. D) the fatigue you are feeling Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 49. Which of the following is a suggested treatment for insomnia? A) Consume caffeine if planning to stay up late. B) Remain in bed until you are able to fall asleep no matter how long it takes. C) Hide clocks to avoid becoming preoccupied with how long it is taking to fall sleep. D) Use an alarm clock to wake up in the morning. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep % correct 76 a = 0 b = 24 c = 76 d = 0 r = .30 50. Sleep research supports several “helpful hints” to avoid insomnia. Which of the following statements is one of those helpful hints? A) Make sure to have a clock near the bed so you will know when it is time to get up and stop trying to sleep. B) Sleep in a warm room to keep body temperature constant. C) Avoid napping during the day. Correct. This is one of the helpful hints. D) Enjoy some relaxing television in bed before going to help unwind. Incorrect. This actually is not one of the helpful hints. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

51. Which of the following statements might help you determine if an individual has narcolepsy? A) “I sometimes fall into a deep sleep in the middle of a conversation.” Correct. Narcolepsy is characterized by sudden sleep. B) “I don’t have an adverse reaction to sleeping pills.” C) “I have difficulty getting to sleep.” Incorrect. This describes insomnia. D) “When I get up in the morning, I have the feeling that I had really bad nightmares.” Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep % correct 94 a = 94 b = 6 c = 0 d = 0 r = .51 52. Which of the following conditions would you least like the pilot flying your airplane to have? A) enuresis Incorrect. This is bed wetting and should not interfere with flying. B) sleep terror C) daytime insomnia D) narcolepsy Correct. Narcolepsy is characterized by sudden sleep, which might cause the pilot to lose control of the plane. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 53. Ed often experiences an intense urge to sleep and has often fallen asleep for a few minutes while in business meetings, while driving, and talking on the phone. He is most likely to diagnosed as suffering from __________. A) narcolepsy Correct. Narcolepsy occurs when people suddenly go from a wakeful state directly to REM sleep. B) REM behavior disorder C) sleep apnea Incorrect. Sleep apnea is a sleep disorder marked by interruption of breathing while asleep. D) sleeptalking and sleepwalking Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

54. Your friend has experienced excessive daytime sleepiness. He is laughing at a joke you just told him and suddenly falls to the ground sound asleep. Your friend is probably suffering from __________. A) narcolepsy Correct. Narcolepsy is characterized by sudden sleep. B) parasomnia C) REM rebound D) sleep apnea Incorrect. Sleep apnea is a sleep disorder marked by interruption of breathing while asleep. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 55. Mr. Colbert is meeting with his doctor to discuss treatments for his recently diagnosed narcolepsy. Which of the following is likely to be a part of his treatment regimen? A) exercising to promote weight loss Incorrect. This is a course of action that would be taken to help treat sleep apnea. B) maintaining a consistent sleep schedule C) sleeping pills to promote deeper sleep D) taking a medication to replace the hormone orexin in his brain Correct. Some such medications have been found to be effective treatments for, and possibly a future cure for, narcolepsy. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 56. Many people who suffer from narcolepsy experience a complete loss of muscle tone, which can cause them to become limp as a rag doll. This phenomenon is called __________. A) cataplexy B) catapraxia C) catatonia D) catonahottinroof Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

57. Research has shown that people with narcolepsy have abnormally few brain cells that produce the hormone __________. A) adrenocorticosteroid B) orexin C) melatonin D) dopamine Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 58. __________ is a disorder caused by a blockage of the airway during sleep. A) Sleep apnea B) Narcolepsy C) Insomnia D) Sleepwalking Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 59. Your friend Megan is suffering from sleep apnea. What might you suggest she try first? A) watching television before she tries to fall asleep Incorrect. In fact, sleep experts suggest that this is a bad idea, and it is involved in the treatment of insomnia not sleep apnea. B) reading a book before bedtime C) losing some weight Correct. Apnea is associated with being overweight, so this is usually the first option. D) turning up the thermostat in her house Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 60. Jim is 56 years old and slightly overweight. His wife reports that he snores loudly. What sleep disorder seems to fit Jim’s symptoms? A) sleep apnea Correct. Sleep apnea is associated with excess weight and causes loud snoring. B) narcolepsy Incorrect. This occurs when you fall asleep without warning. C) sleep terror D) REM sleep behavior Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

61. A student nurse looks at a patient’s chart and does not understand the meaning of serious sleep apnea, so she asks the head nurse for assistance. How might the head nurse describe this condition? A) The patient has a potentially life-threatening condition in which air does not flow into or out of his nose or mouth for periods of time while he is asleep. Correct. This description defines sleep apnea. B) The patient cannot sleep unless he has several pillows he uses to deaden sounds that might awaken him. C) The patient appears to awaken throughout the night and start walking, but he will not respond to commands. Incorrect. This description defines sleepwalking and has nothing to do with apnea. D) The patient experiences extreme fear and screams and runs around during sleep without awakening fully. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 62. The treatment for __________ usually involves wearing a facemask device that forces air into the lungs during sleep. A) narcolepsy B) night terrors C) somnambulism D) sleep apnea Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 63. Which of the following disorders is more common among children than among adults? A) insomnia B) narcolepsy C) night terrors D) sleep apnea Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

64. Young Marita has periods during her sleep when she will appear to wake up and will scream, kick and thrash. She appears to be in significant distress as she breathes faster and faster. Which of the following statements best explains what is happening? A) Marita is experiencing night terrors. Correct. These are the symptoms of night terror disorder, which is most commonly seen in children. B) Marita is experiencing hyperstimulation of the sympathetic nervous system caused by sleep deprivation. C) Marita is responding to nightmares, which are common in young children. Incorrect. Because Marita “appears” to wake up but does not actually do so, this is probably a night terror and not a nightmare. D) Marita is not fully asleep, and is experiencing a disorder of first and second sleep stages. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 65. Which of the following is probably the best response for a parent to have when their child experiences an episode of night terrors? A) If the child is not in any physical danger, ignore it. Correct. As your textbook notes, many parents learn not to overreact and even to ignore night terror episodes if there is no risk of danger posed by the episode. B) Wake the child as often as the terrors occur so that the sleep cycle is “rebooted” and starts again at stage 1. Incorrect. Children in the throes of a night terror episode can be very difficult, if not impossible, to wake up. And there is no evidence that such awakenings will restart their sleep cycle. C) Check to make sure that the child’s oxygen mask is not obstructed. D) Bring the child into bed with them so that the scary dreams will be less likely to reoccur. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 66. Suzanne’s son has been under a lot of stress at school. Last night while sleeping, he began screaming and shaking. What did her son probably experience? A) a lucid dream B) a nightmare Incorrect. A nightmare occurs during REM sleep, while night terrors typically occur during the fourth stage of NREM sleep. C) a night terror Correct. More common in children, night terrors take place in deep sleep. D) sleeping consciousness Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

67. It is 3 A.M. and Jack is in the kitchen standing at the refrigerator. His wife walks in and asks him what he thinks he’s doing. Jack does not respond, but begins to take out items to make a sandwich. What might Jack be exhibiting? A) insomnia B) night terror Incorrect. Although night terrors and sleepwalking both occur during the deep stages of NREM sleep, they are not the same illness. C) middle ear muscle inactivity D) sleepwalking Correct. Sleepwalking often involves relatively little activity and is harmless. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 68. Sleepwalking occurs most often during __________ sleep. A) REM B) stage 1 C) stage 2 D) stages 3 or 4 Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep % correct 56 a = 12 b = 9 c = 23 d = 56 r = .38 69. In a strange condition called sex sleep, or __________, people engage in sexual acts while asleep and don’t remember what occurred after they awaken. A) nocturnal erotica disorder B) circadian coitus syndrome C) erotoslumber D) sexsomnia Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

70. Geoff is reading the science section of the newspaper. He should be most skeptical of which of the following headlines? A) Feeling bad? Angry? Dream your problems away Correct. Research has found that dreams tend to include more negative emotions than positive ones, and more misfortune than good fortune. This contradicts the headline that dreaming can simply make bad feelings or negative emotions go away. B) Gender differences in dream content found again Incorrect. There is no reason for him to be skeptical of this headline, because it is consistent with the extant research. C) Researcher claims dreaming not limited to deep sleep D) Sight restored in dreams for man blinded in recent accident Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams. Topic: Dreams 71. Interest in understanding dreams can be traced back __________. A) thousands of years B) only about 30 years C) to the research on REM sleep of Aserinsky and Kleitman D) to the work and theorizing of Sigmund Freud Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams. Topic: Dreams 72. Which theorist, attempting to explain what dreams are all about, suggested that there are two levels of content to each dream—the manifest content and the latent content? A) Freud B) Cartwright C) Domhoff D) Van de Castle Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams. Topic: Dreams % correct 82 a = 82 b = 18 c = 0 d = 0 r = .57

73. The perspective that one’s dreams contain more information than would be expected at first glance is most consistent with __________. A) activation–synthesis theory Incorrect. The activation–synthesis theory of dreaming suggests that dreams have no significant meaning, and are merely caused by the random firing of neurons in the brain while we sleep. B) dissociation theory C) dream protection theory Correct. The dream protection theory of Sigmund Freud suggested that dreams have different levels of meaning and content. D) information processing theory Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams. Topic: Dreams 74. Although he knows that it is wrong, Sean has a crush on his new stepmom. He dreams of the two of them running away together and living happily ever after. What aspect of dreaming does this represent? A) activation–synthesis Incorrect. The activation–synthesis model of dreaming was a counter theory to that of Sigmund Freud and suggested that dreams have no significant meaning whatsoever. B) repressed desires C) wish fulfillment Correct. Freud believed our dreams were symbolic of how we wish things could be. D) dream-work Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams. Topic: Dreams 75. Interpretation of the __________ content of a dream is expected to reveal the __________ content. A) latent; manifest Incorrect. Freud said latent was hidden interpretation and manifest was what was dreamed. B) manifest; latent Correct. Freud developed these categories of latent and manifest content. C) manifest; sublimated D) metaphorical; denotative Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams. Topic: Dreams

76. A newspaper advertisement describes a book that offers interpretations of dreams. In attempting to tell readers the meaning of the symbols of their dreams, the author intends to describe the __________ content. A) latent Correct. The definition of latent is “hidden.” B) deep C) manifest Incorrect. This would be the surface meaning. D) subliminal Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 51.3 TEXT LO: 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams. Topic: Dreams 77. A client tells his therapist about a dream in which he drives his wife to the airport where she boards a plane. As the plane takes off, he is smiling. The therapist says the dream suggests a desire for a divorce. The therapist’s interpretation represents what Sigmund Freud called the dream’s __________ content. A) deep B) latent Correct. Latent (hidden) content refers to the meaning of the dream. C) manifest Incorrect. Manifest content has to do with what actually happens in a dream, not with its meaning. D) subliminal Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams. Topic: Dreams 78. A client tells his therapist about a dream of riding on a train with his boss. At the end of the journey, the boss gets off the train at a terminal. The content of this dream, as related by the client to the therapist, is what Freud called its __________ content. A) primary B) manifest Correct. This content would be the surface meaning. C) secondary D) latent Incorrect. The definition of latent is “hidden,” that is, not observable. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams. Topic: Dreams

79. Sigmund Freud suggested that dreams represent the fulfillment of wishes, yet research suggests that quite a few dreams that people experience do not have positive themes or content. Which principle of critical thinking is involved in this apparent contradiction? A) replicability B) extraordinary claims Incorrect. Nothing in this question has to do with the principle of extraordinary claims. C) falsifiability Correct. The fact that dreams tend to have quite a bit of negative, or unpleasant, content does not support, or actively falsifies, Freud’s theory that dreams are about our deepest desires or wishes. D) correlation vs. causation Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams. Topic: Dreams % correct 47 a = 6 b = 18 c = 47 d = 29 r = .33 80. Sigmund Freud suggested that quite a bit of our dream content serves the purpose of wish fulfillment. Which of the following statements would be most consistent with the critical thinking concept of falsifiability with regard to Freud’s assertion? A) Most dream content is focused on misfortune rather than positive events. Correct. We don’t wish for misfortune, so the themes of our dreams should be more positive than negative. B) The dreams of most men are sexual, while the dreams of most women are relational. C) People with brain injuries often dream about “undoing” the event that led to their condition. Incorrect. If this were the case (and there is no research to support this statement), then it would actually support Freud’s theory rather than refute it. D) The time we spend dreaming diminishes as we age. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams. Topic: Dreams 81. One research finding that has challenged Freud’s concept of dreams as wish-fulfillment is the fact that as much as __________ percent of dreams do not seem disguised, but rather are straightforward descriptions of everyday events and problems. A) 50 B) 60 C) 80 D) 90 Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams. Topic: Dreams

82. What theoretical explanation of dreams explains dreaming as resulting from random neural transmission and interpretation? A) activation–synthesis theory Correct. This is the basis of the activation–synthesis model, which was a counter theory to that of Sigmund Freud. B) dream protection theory Incorrect. The dream protection theory of Sigmund Freud suggested that dreams have different levels of meaning and content. C) information processing theory D) neurocognitive theory Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Topic: Dreams % correct 65 a = 65 b = 0 c = 6 d = 29 r = .29 83. Because Alzheimer’s disease impacts the brain’s level of acetylcholine, what sleep-related impact are sufferers of this disease likely to experience? A) less frequent dreaming Correct. Less acetylcholine means fewer active nerve cells in the pons, therefore fewer signals to be interpreted as dreams. B) increased insomnia Incorrect. Acetylcholine levels are related to the amount of dreaming that we do, not specifically related to the amount of sleep we get or the ease with which we fall asleep. C) increased sleep apnea D) decreased memory for their dreams upon waking Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Topic: Dreams 84. The fact that damage to the forebrain can eliminate dreams entirely, even when the brainstem is still working, is a valid criticism of the activation–synthesis hypothesis of dreaming. Which critical thinking concept is at work here? A) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. This is actually a rather involved and complicated way of disproving the activation– synthesis hypothesis. It does not provide a more parsimonious explanation of dreams. B) replicability C) falsifiability Correct. This finding provides evidence that the activation–synthesis hypothesis may not be accurate, since it suggests that the brainstem plays a large role in dream activity. D) extraordinary claims Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Topic: Dreams

85. Mrs. Lassey is taking medication to reduce the activity of her acetylcholine-producing neurons. What might happen? A) Her dreams are likely to intensify. Incorrect. A decrease in acetylcholine levels will reduce the frequency and intensity of her dreams. B) She may dream less often, or not at all. Correct. Less acetylcholine means less active nerve cells, therefore fewer signals to be interpreted as dreams. C) She will be more likely to recall her dreams. D) Her dreams will become more bizarre. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Topic: Dreams % correct 47 a = 12 b = 47 c = 18 d = 23 r = .48 86. The best adjectives associated with the nature of the activation–synthesis hypothesis are __________. A) meaningless and random Correct. Meaningless and random reflect the nature of the activation–synthesis hypothesis since dreams are totally the result of brain activity. B) unconscious, symbolic, and meaningful Incorrect. These adjectives would be associated with Freud’s theory. C) meaningful, problem-oriented, and historical D) free and neurotic Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Topic: Dreams 87. “First I was walking down the street, then I was in psychology class taking notes, but the teacher was my dad, then I was in my bedroom playing video games with my professor. It was bizarre!” What theory of dreaming is being represented? A) activation–synthesis Correct. Activation–synthesis theory maintains that dreams reflect the activated brain’s attempt to make sense of random neural signals during REM sleep. B) wish fulfillment Incorrect. The dream protection theory of Sigmund Freud focused on wish fulfillment purposes of dreams. C) dream-work D) stream of consciousness Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Topic: Dreams

88. Research has highlighted the importance of what region of the brain in the process of dreaming? A) forebrain B) midbrain C) occipital lobe D) temporal lobe Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Topic: Dreams 89. Which of the following theories of dreaming emphasizes that dreams are a meaningful product of our cognitive capacities, which shape what we dream about? A) neodissociationist theory B) neurocognitive theory C) meta-linguistic theory D) dream-protection theory Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Topic: Dreams 90. Dwayne and his nine-year-old son are sitting at the breakfast table and talking about various things. The son mentions a dream he had about his favorite toy. Dwayne mentions a bizarre dream he had the previous night. These differences in the content of dreams is best explained by __________. A) activation–synthesis theory B) dream protection theory Incorrect. Freud’s dream protection theory did not specifically discuss differences between the dreams of children and adults. C) neurocognitive theory Correct. The neurocognitive theory of dreaming discusses the differences in our dream content as we go from childhood to adulthood. D) sleep dissociation theory Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Topic: Dreams

91. Which of the following was most likely to be dreamt by 5-year-old Cecilia? A) She dreamt that she was flying on her laptop over the city. Incorrect. According to the neurocognitive theory of dreaming, children’s dreams tend to have very little movement. B) She dreamt that her mom had grown wings. C) She dreamt about the pony she wants. Correct. Children’s dreams tend to be simple, lacking in movement, and less emotionally complex than adult dreams. D) She dreamt that her teachers had horns and were making her paint the fence with erasers. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Topic: Dreams 92. According to the dream __________ hypothesis, the content of our dreams mirrors our actual life circumstances. A) dissociation Incorrect. Dreams may have a dissociative component, but dissociation is not the best answer to this question. B) symmetry C) converse D) continuity Correct. Despite the lack of supporting evidence, this hypothesis reflects the idea that our dreams are an indication of what is going on in our waking lives. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Topic: Dreams 93. Carla reported observing herself help a pedestrian who had been hit by a taxicab driver from atop a building awning 15-feet off the ground. This is an example of what altered state of consciousness? A) dissociation Incorrect. Out-of-body experiences certainly have a dissociative component to them but dissociation is not the best answer to this question. B) hypnosis C) near-death experience D) out-of-body experience Correct. Out-of-body experiences are often accompanied by a sense of watching ourselves from a distance. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences

94. Those who report having had out-of-body experiences often suggest that they can see or hear things that are separated from their bodies. On the rare occasion when these claims have been positively verified by research, repetitions of that research have failed to produce the same outcomes. This is a problem for which principle of critical thinking mentioned in your textbook? A) falsifiability B) replicability Correct. The failure to reproduce the same research results is a problem of replicability. C) correlation vs. causation Incorrect. Nothing in this question is related to the principle of correlation vs. causation D) Occam’s Razor Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences 95. Hallucinations involving which sensory system can be brought about by oxygen and sensory deprivation, epilepsy, fever, dementia, and migraine headaches? A) vision B) hearing C) touch D) smell Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences 96. Having important life events replay quickly, and being in a tunnel moving toward a bright light, are common themes in __________. A) déjà vu experiences B) hypnotic trances C) near-death experiences D) out-of-body experiences Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences

97. It is tempting, based on anecdotal evidence, to believe that when we die we will be ushered into a utopian afterlife. After all, many who have had near death experiences (NDEs) have claimed to “see” friends or loved ones waiting for them. There is no scientific evidence, however, to support these claims. This reminds us of which principle of critical thinking? A) extraordinary claims Correct. Recall that extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence, and in this case the evidence simply is not there. B) replicability C) falsifiability D) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. This question does not provide any other hypotheses, but simply notes that the evidence for these extraordinary claims has not been seen. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences 98. While some use the visions they claim to have seen during a near-death experience (friends, loved ones, a tunnel of light) as evidence of a peaceful afterlife, scientists have suggested that such experiences may actually be the result of a massive release of endorphins in a dying brain. Which concept of critical thinking is most important in this example? A) extraordinary claims B) correlation vs. causation C) replicability Incorrect. There is no repeated research being discussed in this particular situation. D) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. In this case, alternative explanations for a particular phenomenon are being offered. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences

99. Many people have claimed to have near-death-experiences over the years, during which they report metaphysical events, such as seeing a bright light, walking through a tunnel, or even approaching the presence of God. Research, however, has suggested that these “experiences” are nothing more than the consequence of physiological changes of a dying brain. This simpler explanation represents which principle of critical thinking from your textbook? A) Occam’s Razor Correct. The simplest explanation for these experiences is that they reflect changes as the brain appears to be dying. This demonstrates the principle of Occam’s Razor. B) falsifiability C) replicability D) extraordinary claims Incorrect. Given the frequency with which these claims are made, they may not be considered that extraordinary. They are not, however, supported by extraordinary evidence. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences 100. Enrico claims that déjà vu is evidence of a memory from one’s past life. This claim violates which principle of critical thinking? A) falsifiability Correct. Enrico is using anecdotal evidence that cannot be verified or falsified. B) parsimony C) replicability Incorrect. There is no research presented in this question that can be repeated by another scientist, so replicability is not the best answer. D) ruling out rival hypotheses Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences 101. Which altered state of consciousness might be due to an excess of the neurotransmitter dopamine in the temporal lobes of the cerebrum? A) déjà vu experiences B) hypnosis C) near-death experiences D) out-of-body experiences Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences

102. __________ refers to suggestive techniques for altering a person’s perceptions, thoughts, feelings, memories, or behaviors. A) Déjà vu B) Hypnosis C) Meditation D) Perceptual sets Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences 103. At its most basic level, __________ is an exercise in suggestion. A) hypnosis Correct. Most research into hypnosis has found that it is highly related to a person’s level of suggestibility. B) meditation C) dreaming Incorrect. Hypnosis and being asleep are two different levels of conscious awareness. D) lucidity Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences 104. The positive effects that have been noted when using hypnosis have been explained in a number of ways. One suggestion is that the relaxed state that accompanies a “hypnotic trance” is uniquely responsible for all of the effects. This reminds us of which principle of critical thinking from your book? A) replicability Incorrect. This question does not involve the discussion of repeated research. B) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. In this case, it is important to consider multiple explanations for the positive effects of hypnosis. Another possible hypothesis is the placebo effect. C) correlation vs. causation D) falsifiability Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences

105. Which of the following has research found hypnosis to be effective at treating or helping to treat? A) reducing depression B) recovering memories C) reducing habit disorders D) reducing insomnia Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences 106. Jared is attending a comedy hypnosis show with his girlfriend, and he agrees to come up on stage and be hypnotized by the performer. While he is in a trance, he is given an instruction that when he wakes up he is to flap his arms like a chicken and grunt like a gorilla as he runs through the crowd. Because Jared is usually a rather quiet and laid back person, what do you think is most likely to happen when he “wakes up” from his trance? A) He is going to experience a new deep-seated fear of hypnosis, comics, and nightclubs because the experience will set up a conflict that his rooted in his unconscious. B) He is going to have a delayed response and will start acting like an animal in several hours because it will take time for the hypnotic suggestion to overcome his personality reservations. C) He is most likely to do exactly what the performer instructed him to do, because hypnosis is effective at getting us to act in direct contravention to our own personality. Incorrect. While this is an oft-believed myth of hypnosis, it is completely inaccurate. D) He is most likely to go back to his seat and sit quietly, since hypnosis cannot make us do things that we would not willingly do in our regular lives. Correct. Recall from your text that hypnosis is not a condition in which we lose control over our will. Gerald would be unlikely to do things when hypnotized that he would not willingly do when not hypnotized. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences 107. Contrary to popular public opinion regarding hypnosis, people can __________. A) experience highly enhanced memory for situational details when hypnotized B) experience a total lack of situational awareness when in a hypnotic state C) forget what happened while hypnotized D) resist and oppose hypnotic suggestions at will Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences % correct 82 a = 6 b = 6 c = 6 d = 82 r = .29

108. What does the research evidence suggest about the relationship between hypnosis and sleep states? A) When people are hypnotized, it is like they are in effect dreaming in REM sleep. B) When people are hypnotized, it is like they are in effect in deep stages 3 and 4 sleep. C) When people are hypnotized, it is like they are in effect dreaming within stage 1 and REM sleep. D) When people are hypnotized, it is a state that is entirely different from sleep. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences 109. You meet a psychologist who says she views hypnosis from the social-cognitive perspective. Which of the following is the best description of what her view of hypnosis would be? A) The hypnotized person role is only played when people who have been hypnotized are in a social setting. B) There is no hypnotized person role; hypnosis is an altered state of consciousness. C) People play the role of a hypnotized person; hypnosis is an altered state of consciousness. Incorrect. Although this position says we play a role, it also says there is no altered state. D) People’s expectations of whether they’ll respond to hypnotic suggestions are correlated with how they’ll respond. Correct. The sociocognitive view suggests that many factors, including one’s expectations, play a role in how we respond to hypnosis. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences 110. Which theory of hypnosis argues that hypnosis is not a trance state or a unique state of consciousness? A) activation–synthesis theory B) dissociation theory C) psychodynamic theory D) sociocognitive theory Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences

111. What theory of hypnosis posits that individuals who are highly suggestible are simply responding to waking imaginative suggestions? A) demand characteristics theory B) dissociation theory C) sociocognitive theory D) unconscious motivation theory Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences % correct 35 a = 12 b = 29 c = 35 d = 24 r = .35 112. Research on age-regression and past life regression therapeutic techniques suggests that __________. A) they are effective techniques for individuals who experience physical or sexual abuse during childhood B) they are more effective for male clients than for female clients in overcoming their psychological difficulties C) they say more about the patient’s beliefs than about any true healing properties D) they are an excellent means for producing accurate recall and recollections during hypnosis Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences 113. The thoughts, feelings, behaviors, and experiences that occur during age regression or past life regression are __________. A) always traumatic B) often accurate C) based in fact D) educated guesses Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences 114. Ernest Hilgard described the process of __________ as a dividing of consciousness, and claimed that this mechanism was at the very heart of hypnosis. A) sublimation B) reaction formation C) dissociation D) regression Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

115. What theory of hypnosis would be best able to account for research findings that suggest that an individual can be consciously telling a researcher that placing one’s hand in ice-cold water isn’t painful while unconsciously tapping a button that indicates they are experiencing pain? A) activation–synthesis theory B) dissociation theory Correct. The dissociation theory of hypnosis suggests that hypnotic suggestions result in a separation between personality functions that are normally well integrated. C) information processing theory D) sociocognitive theory Incorrect. According to sociocognitive theory, people’s attitudes, beliefs, motivations and expectations about hypnosis shape their reaction to a hypnotic suggestion. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences 116. Psychoactive drugs are drugs that __________. A) speed up activity in the central nervous system B) contain chemicals similar to those found naturally in our brains C) slow down activity in the central nervous system D) are derived from the opium poppy that relieve pain and produce euphoria Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 117. __________ occurs when people require larger amounts of a drug to experience the same effects experienced during their initial usage. A) Physical withdrawal B) Psychological withdrawal C) Satiety D) Tolerance Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness % correct 94 a = 3 b = 0 c = 3 d = 94 r = .33 % correct 82 a = 0 b = 12 c = 6 d = 82 r = .47

118. “I don’t know what is wrong with me,” says Lucy. “It used to take just a couple of drinks to get me ‘going,’ but now it takes four or five.” What is Lucy exhibiting? A) withdrawal B) tolerance Correct. Tolerance means that, over time, a user requires more and more of a drug to experience the same “high.” C) delirium D) resistance Incorrect. Resistance to the effect of the standard amount of the drug and the need for more of that drug in order to achieve the same effect is called tolerance, and it is an indication of physical addiction to a drug. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 119. Russell needs more of the drug he has been using to get the normal high he got when he first started. Russell is experiencing __________. A) drug tolerance Correct. The phenomenon of needing more and more of a drug as time goes on is called drug tolerance. B) drug detoxification C) withdrawal Incorrect. Withdrawal occurs when you stop getting the drug you have been using. D) overdrawal Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 120. The need to take a drug in order to avoid withdrawal symptoms is an indication of __________. A) a craving B) tolerance C) psychological dependence D) physical dependence Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness % correct 74 a = 1 b = 1 c = 22 d = 74 r = .30

121. After taking a drug for several years, Bruce decides to quit taking the drug. He begins to experience a variety of physical symptoms, psychological symptoms such as irritability, and a strong craving for the substance. What term is used to describe what Bruce is experiencing? A) tolerance Incorrect. Drug tolerance occurs when, over time, one needs more and more of a drug to get high. B) psychological dependence C) drug detoxification D) withdrawal Correct. Withdrawal occurs when one stops using a drug and is characterized by irritability, nausea, and other symptoms. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 122. Ward notices that as his supply of marijuana decreases he starts thinking more and more about where he can get another supply, and he starts feeling upset that he does not have “enough” marijuana. This is an example of __________. A) withdrawal B) psychological dependence Correct. He is thinking and feeling things about his drug. These are psychological issues. C) tolerance D) physical dependence Incorrect. Physical dependence causes physical symptoms. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 123. Unemployed people are at relatively high risk for alcohol abuse, and may use alcohol to cope with being out of work. The reverse may also be true, however, and the use of alcohol may be responsible for people losing their jobs. This uncertainty of the direction of relationship between variables demonstrates which principle of critical thinking? A) Occam’s Razor B) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. Considering multiple hypotheses is an important part of this discussion, but the best answer to this question is correlation vs. causation. C) replicability D) correlation vs. causation Correct. There may be a relationship between these two variables, but it’s impossible to know exactly which one causes the other. It may also be possible that both variables cause each other, or a third variable intervenes. This is why correlation does not imply causation. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness

124. The aldehyde 2 (ALDH2) gene may have a mutation that causes a distinctly unpleasant response to the ingestion of alcohol, including facial flushing, heart palpitations, and nausea. This gene is present in about 40 percent of people of __________ descent, who are at low risk for alcoholism and tend to drink less than people in most other ethnic groups. A) Asian B) Hispanic C) Native-American D) African-American Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 125. Which of the following drugs is categorized as a depressant? A) cocaine B) LSD C) alcohol D) marijuana Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 126. Even though many assume that alcohol is primarily a ___________, it is, in fact, primarily a(n) __________. A) depressant; psychedelic B) depressant; stimulant Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. C) stimulant; depressant Correct. Many people believe alcohol to be a stimulant because it seems to encourage behaviors that otherwise might not occur, but this is actually result of depression of inhibitions. D) stimulant; opiate Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness % correct 94 a = 0 b = 3 c = 94 d = 3 r = .26 % correct 88 a = 0 b = 12 c = 88 d = 0 r = .31

127. Behaviors such as flirting while using alcohol result primarily from __________. A) one’s genetic characteristics and how they interact with alcohol consumption B) an individual’s expectancies about the effects of alcohol Correct. Research has shown that even people without real alcohol in their system will behave as if they are intoxicated when they believe they have had alcohol to drink. C) physiological effects of the alcohol Incorrect. While the physiological effects of alcohol are well-documented, the research has also suggested that psychological effects from the belief that one has had alcohol to drink can change one’s behavior. D) physiological effects of the alcohol in combination with gender role differences Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 128. If one is experiencing difficulty sleeping, like with insomnia, he or she may go to their family doctor. What type of drug is the doctor most likely to prescribe to assist the person in falling asleep? A) narcotics Incorrect. Narcotics are prescribed for the relief of pain, and should not be used as sleep aids. B) psychedelics C) sedative-hypnotics Correct. Sedative-hypnotics are prescribed for symptoms including difficulty sleeping as well as excessive anxiety. D) stimulants Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 129. Which class of psychoactive drugs works by increasing activity within the nervous system? A) depressants B) opiates C) psychedelics D) stimulants Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness

130. Nicotine is classified as a __________. A) sedative B) narcotic C) hallucinogen D) stimulant Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness % correct 82 a = 18 b = 0 c = 0 d = 82 r = .43 131. The most powerful natural stimulant is __________. A) cocaine B) LSD C) marijuana D) tobacco Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 132. Although its use would be illegal and highly ill-advised, who might benefit from cocaine use in the short term? A) Ullie, who is depressed Correct. Cocaine is a stimulant, which produces short bouts of euphoria and indifference to pain. Even though cocaine might make Ullie feel better for a short time, this is a very ill-advised treatment for depression symptoms. B) Kellan, who is schizophrenic C) Kira, who is narcissistic D) Mindy, who is paranoid Incorrect. The ingestion of cocaine would not be of any benefit to someone who suffers from paranoid symptoms. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness

133. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning cocaine use in the United States? A) During the Civil War, many Confederate soldiers bought cocaine from Union soldiers. B) At one time, cocaine was an ingredient in Coca-Cola. C) Cocaine was used by early Greek philosophers. D) One of the powerful addictive ingredients in cocaine is heroin. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 134. Crystal is trying to study for her biology final tomorrow. She is exhausted but knows that she has to pass that test. What drug is she likely to turn to? A) cocaine Incorrect. Cocaine may be a stimulant, but it will not have the desired effect. Amphetamines is the best answer to this question, though she really should not take them. B) amphetamines Correct. Amphetamines are stimulants and are used to postpone fatigue, elevate mood while performing an unpleasant task, cram for a test, or experience well-being. C) LSD D) Quaaludes Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 135. You just found out that your friend Willard is using crystal meth. What is your number-one concern? A) He will experience withdrawal. B) He will become depressed. Incorrect. Depression is not an effect of the use of crystal methamphetamine. C) He will overdose. Correct. Crystal meth carries a high risk of overdose and dependence. D) He will become paranoid. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness

136. There is a famous quote from the movie Titanic that says “I am the king of the world!” What drug produces this same feeling? A) LSD B) Ecstasy Incorrect. Ecstasy is more likely to cause a feeling of contentment and well-being. C) marijuana D) heroin Correct. Heroin is a powerful narcotic and produces a sense of euphoria that lasts 3 to 4 hours. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 137. Drugs derived from the opium poppy are called __________. A) stimulants B) depressants C) narcotics D) psychogenic Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 138. What general category of drug is used in the controlling of pain? A) depressants and sedative-hypnotics B) narcotics C) psychedelics D) stimulants Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 139. Morphine is classified as a __________ because it relieves pain and induces sleep. A) sedative B) narcotic C) stimulant D) hallucinogen Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness % correct 53 a = 41 b = 53 c = 6 d = 0 r = .35

140. Which of the following people is LEAST likely to become addicted to the opiate drugs he or she is using? A) Demetria, who uses heroin frequently to avoid the painful withdrawal symptoms B) Phyllis, who is using morphine to help control her pain levels after a recent surgery Correct. The use of morphine for legitimate medical purposes is not necessarily associated with the development of addiction. C) Trevor, who desires the extreme euphoria and high he gets when using OxyContin D) Xavier, who is using narcotics to forget about the problems in his social and work life Incorrect. The use of a narcotic for this sort of psychological pain runs a significant risk of the development of addiction. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 141. Which type of drug could also be labeled “hallucinogens”? A) depressants B) narcotics C) psychedelics D) stimulants Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 142. The effects of LSD are similar to those of which of the following drugs? A) CHT B) Methadone C) PCP D) heroin Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 143. What is the most frequently used illegal drug in the United States? A) alcohol B) cocaine C) marijuana D) methamphetamine Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness

144. Which of the following pairs belong together? A) marijuana; tetrahydrocannabinol Correct. THC is the active ingredient in marijuana. B) marijuana; psilocybin C) marijuana; acetylcholine D) MDMA; acetylcholine Incorrect. MDMA is ecstasy and acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that is not associated with it. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness % correct 53 a = 53 b = 0 c = 35 d = 12 r = .66 145. Marijuana is often referred to as a mild hallucinogenic drug and differs from other hallucinogens in that it may also __________. A) create alterations in perception and mood B) bring about a strong rush of pleasure C) cause people to become quiet and introspective D) result in diminished fatigue with a sense of well-being Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 146. What drug was once investigated for use as a possible mind control device by the CIA in the United States? A) cocaine B) heroin C) LSD D) marijuana Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness

147. Franky is at the fair. He is inside the house of mirrors. Which drug may duplicate the images he is seeing? A) cocaine B) amphetamines C) crystal meth Incorrect. Crystal methamphetamine is a stimulant, and does not cause the hallucinogenic qualities that Franky might be experiencing in the house of mirrors. D) LSD Correct. LSD can produce hallucinations and flashbacks. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 148. With the use of even the tiniest amounts of which of the following drugs would a person experience extreme changes in perceptions and consciousness? A) alcohol B) cocaine C) LSD D) marijuana Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 149. What is the best pharmacological explanation scientists have been able to come up with to explain the experience of flashbacks after taking LSD? A) To date, no pharmacological explanation has been discovered. B) The ingestion of LSD changes the fundamental makeup of the suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus. C) The ingestion of LSD changes the way the thalamus routes incoming sensory information to the cerebral cortex. D) The ingestion of LSD impairs the occipital lobe of the cerebrum, where the visual processing centers are located. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness

150. MDMA, or methylenedioxymethamphetamine, is the chemical name for which popular street drug? A) LSD B) Slippies C) Ecstasy D) Hashish Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness % correct 82 a = 12 b = 6 c = 82 d = 0 r = .35 151. Chavonne has recently ingested a large dose of a popular designer drug. The drug is causing her to experience an enhanced state of well-being and self-confidence, and she is feeling highly empathetic toward others at the rave that she has attended. The drug she has most likely taken is __________. A) Ecstasy Correct. These are some of the effects of MDMA, though it does have serious risks of physical injury as well. B) marijuana Incorrect. These are not the effects that one would experience when high on marijuana. C) PCP D) LSD Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness Fill-in-the-Blank 1. One’s awareness of both the subjective world around them as well as themselves is what psychologists refer to as __________. Answer: consciousness Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 2. The daily release of hormones, as well as the regulation of one’s body temperature, brain waves, and drowsiness follow a(n) __________ rhythm. Answer: circadian Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

3. Vivid dreams are most likely to be experienced during __________ sleep. Answer: rapid eye movement (REM) Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 4. Sleep spindles are a type of brain activity that are associated with stage __________ of the sleep cycle. Answer: 2 (or NREM–2 or N2) Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 5. As we proceed through the sleep cycle during the night, the amount of time one spends in REM sleep __________. Answer: increases Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 6. As he sleeps, Chauncey begins dreaming. In his dream, he shows up late to his Introductory Psychology final. As he enters the room, Chauncey realizes he is dreaming and subsequently directs himself to approach the teacher to discuss why he was late for the final. This is an example of __________. Answer: lucid dreaming Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 7. The most commonly reported sleep problem is __________. Answer: insomnia Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

8. The sleep disorder __________ would be the most problematic for a taxi driver to be diagnosed with. Answer: narcolepsy Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 9. The sleep disorder(s) most likely to be diagnosed during childhood is/are __________. Answer: night terrors Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep 10. The __________ theory focuses entirely on the biological underpinnings of dreams. Answer: activation–synthesis Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Topic: Dreams 11. According to the activation–synthesis theory, the fact that our dream has any coherent story or focus is largely the result of __________. Answer: the forebrain Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Topic: Dreams 12. The __________ theory of dreaming might suggest that your dog, Barker, dreams about his favorite bone. Answer: neurocognitive Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Topic: Dreams 13. The __________ perspective on dreaming says that the complexity of our dreams is directly related to one’s mental abilities and capacities. Answer: neurocognitive Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 5.2b Explain three major theories of dreaming. Topic: Dreams

14. Claims of consciousness outside of the body during an out-of-body experience (OBE) are __________ by controlled empirical research. Answer: refuted (any appropriate synonym would be acceptable) Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences 15. The critical thinking principle of __________ requires that claims of near-death experiences should be interpreted as physiological changes within a dying brain rather than an altered state of consciousness. Answer: Occam’s Razor Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences 16. Research documenting that hypnosis fails to make amazing or unusual things happen, or that many hypnotic phenomena are not as unique as hypnotists would have an audience believe, provides supportive evidence for the __________ of hypnosis. Answer: sociocognitive theory Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences 17. The ___________ theory rejects claims that hypnosis is a true altered state of consciousness by demonstrating, through empirical research, that hypnotized behavior is largely a function of one’s expectancies. Answer: sociocognitive Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences 18. Researchers who are dubious of Hilgard’s and others’ claims of why hypnosis occurs have suggested that the __________ observer arises because the hypnotist suggests it, either directly or indirectly. Answer: hidden Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences

19. __________ drugs alter our conscious experience by altering the chemical processes in neurons. Answer: Psychoactive Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 20. Clark is trying to cut back his consumption of caffeine. Within a couple of days of stopping drinking caffeine entirely, he experiences a headache and feels extremely fatigued. Clark is experiencing __________. Answer: withdrawal Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 21. Your textbook authors identified __________ as the most widely used and abused drug. Answer: alcohol Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 22. Using tobacco produces physiological changes, including reported increases in alertness as well as increases in heart rate and blood pressure. It is most correct, therefore, to label tobacco as a ___________. Answer: stimulant Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 23. For several years around 1900, many health professionals and psychologists advocated the use of __________. It was even found as a key ingredient in a major soft drink. Answer: cocaine Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 24. The use of __________ represents the most commonly abused illegal drug in the United States. Answer: marijuana Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

25. Both infrequent and habitual use of __________ may cause users to experience distortions in visual, auditory, or any other mode of perception. Answer: psychedelics (or hallucinogens) Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness 26. In addition to having hallucinogenic properties, Ecstasy (MDMA) also has the qualities of a __________. Answer: stimulant Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness Essay 1. Describe the typical night’s sleep cycle, including the defining characteristics of each stage of sleep. Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following information for full credit. The human sleep cycle lasts approximately 90 minutes and is repeated several times over the course of eight to nine hours of sleep. This cycle is comprised of two different types of sleep: non-REM and REM sleep. The non-REM sleep comprises four different stages. In stage 1 sleep, the person is transitioning from wakefulness to sleep. This stage of sleep is quite brief, marked by the presence of theta waves, and sees brain activity decline by up to 50 percent. The majority of our sleep is spent in stage 2 sleep, which is marked by a continued slowing of brain wave activity that lasts between 10–30 minutes each time we pass through it. Every so often a person may experience sudden, quick, intense bursts of activity known as sleep spindles. Our brain activity decelerates, our heart rate slows, our body temperature drops, and our muscles relax further. Stages 3 and 4 are marked by deep, slow-wave sleep (delta waves). Stage 3 is denoted by delta waves occupying 20–50 percent of the brain activity, and stage 4 sleep is denoted by more than 50 percent delta waves. This type of sleep helps us to feel fully rested the next morning. REM sleep is characterized by high-frequency brain wave activity and the movement of our eyes under our eyelids. This stage is also characterized by increased heart rate and blood pressure levels and rapid, irregular breathing. Dreaming occurs more often during this sleep stage than any other. The initial REM sleep stage lasts between 10 and 20 minutes but each subsequent REM sleep stage increases in length. Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

2. Compare and contrast Freud’s wish fulfillment theory of dreaming with Hobson and McCarley’s activation–synthesis theory of dreaming. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. The one area of agreement between the two theories is that they both say that dreams are a real phenomena that occur as we sleep. The two perspectives differ in terms of a) general explanation for why we dream, b) the function of dreams, and c) the meaning of the content of dreams. Freud’s wish fulfillment approach is a largely psychological approach to why we dream. The psychological function of dreams is to protect the dreamer from his or her more inappropriate or socially unacceptable urges and desires. The ego protects sleep by using manifest content to cover the unacceptable id impulses that comprise the latent content and provide the ultimate meaning of one’s dreams. Hobson and McCarley’s activation–synthesis approach is a largely biological approach to why we dream. Dreams simply represent the brain activation that is occurring as we sleep and develop through the forebrain’s efforts to provide coherence and understanding of these random, internally generated signals during REM sleep. The content of the dreams therefore is less meaningful and, in fact, only involves meaning because the brain tries to impart that meaning, not knowing that there is no need to understand this internal activity. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams.; 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Topic: Dreams 3. Discuss how several of the principles of critical thinking apply to a discussion of altered states of consciousness such as out-of-body experiences, near-death experiences, or hypnosis. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain discussion of at least three of the principles of critical thinking and how they apply to these alterations of consciousness. The examples could be either based on material from the text or a student’s own original example. Extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence: This principle requires that claims that differ greatly from what is accepted about human consciousness require greater evidence for such claims to be accepted. Occam’s Razor/parsimony: This principle says that we choose the explanation that makes the fewest assumptions. Replicability: This implies that others are able to take the basic elements of our research and produce similar results with different people. If positive results cannot be verified by others, scientists come to doubt the existence of the particular phenomenon. Ruling out rival hypotheses: This principle requires that the data are not open to more than one particular interpretation. Diff: 3 Skill: Applied/Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences

4. Discuss how one’s expectations of the influence of a drug affect one’s subsequent behavior after using that drug. Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following information, along with supporting discussion, for full credit. The authors mention the importance of mental sets, that is, one’s beliefs and expectations, as an important influence on their behavior after taking that drug. The authors mentioned the importance of culturally learned expectancies that are most influential at low alcohol dose levels. People “act” as if they are more inebriated than they really, physiologically speaking, are. The authors also mentioned that marijuana users have to “learn” what it is to be high rather than automatically experiencing a high the first time they smoke it. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Topic: Drugs and Consciousness Critical Thinking 1. Design an intervention to help a person who is complaining of insomnia. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. The depth of this answer assumes that further detail was covered by the instructor during his or her discussion of sleep or the sleep disorder, insomnia. There are several suggestions made to overcome insomnia that were identified by the authors from the sleep research literature. The student should identify at least two in his or her answer. See below for the general points that should be made. o hide clocks to avoid becoming preoccupied with the amount of time it takes to fall asleep o sleep in a cool room o go to sleep and wake up at regular times o avoid caffeine, naps during the day, reading in bed, and watching television or surfing the Web before bedtime Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Topic: The Biology of Sleep

2. Discuss how the neurocognitive perspective on dreaming differs from the dream protection and activation–synthesis theories of dreaming. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. The neurocognitive perspective argues that one’s information-processing abilities influence the content of one’s dreams. The neurocognitive perspective argues that the information contained in one’s dreams represents the concerns of one’s daily life—such as issues in relationships, school, or at work—rather than the deep, dark secrets and symbolic imagery that Freud said were housed within our unconscious mind and occupied the content of our nightly dreams. The neurocognitive perspective, unlike activation–synthesis theory, does assert that these dreams are somewhat psychologically meaningful to people, because a person is ruminating over a lost phone number or concert ticket rather than just experiencing random content within the dream. The activation–synthesis theory, by contrast, suggests that the content of dreams is more random and any meaning is created by the forebrain in its attempt to bring coherence to one’s internal world, much like it brings coherence to our external and internal worlds during waking consciousness. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams.; 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Topic: Dreams 3. Why are many psychologists skeptical of claims that hypnosis represents a true altered state of consciousness? Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. One key point of contention is that the ability to experience hypnosis is related to one’s receptivity to suggestibility. Therefore, unlike dreams, it is a state of consciousness that only some people, not all, will experience. A second key point is the fact that much of what occurs during the hypnotic state involves one responding to cues from the hypnotist. For many, this seems to support the idea of role-playing rather than altered consciousness. Also, there is no unique brain state identified with being hypnotized as one might expect if it were, in fact, different from normal consciousness. Last, the idea of a hidden observer may serve as an additional cue to the person about how to act rather than represent a true, unique state of consciousness. Some have suggested that the “hidden observer” model actually represents suggestions that are made directly or indirectly by the hypnotist. Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Topic: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences

CHAPTER 5: CONSCIOUSNESS ________________________________________________________________________ Altered States: Sleep 1. Our awareness of various mental processes such as making decisions, daydreaming, reflecting, and concentrating is called __________. a. intelligence b. consciousness c. self-awareness d. creativity Answer b % correct 75 a= 5 b= 75 c= 0 d= 0 r = .48 2. Daydreaming, meditation, intoxication, sleep, and hypnosis are all types of __________. a. altered states of consciousness b. self-awareness c. waking consciousness d. self-absorption Answer a % correct 100 a= 100 b= 0 c= 0 d= 0 r = .0 3. Researchers investigating sleep __________. a. have observed a decrease in protein synthesis while we sleep b. have identified a substance destroyed during sleep c. have found a substance created only during sleep d. have not been able to fully explain why we sleep Answer d % correct 55 a= 10 b= 5 c= 30 d= 55 r = .58 4. Our sleeping-waking cycle follows a(n) __________ rhythm. a. infradian b. circadian c. diurnal d. ultradian Answer b % correct 85 a= 0 b= 85 c= 15 d= 0 r = .59 5. The low-voltage brain waves produced during relaxed wakefulness or the twilight stage between waking and sleeping are called __________ waves. a. alpha b. beta c. delta d. theta Answer a % correct 10 a= 10 b= 25 c= 65 d= 0 r = .35 6. The deepest stage of sleep is __________ sleep. a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. REM d. Stage 4 Answer d % correct 80 a= 0 b= 0 c= 20 d= 80

r = .55

7. The stage of sleep marked by the production of very slow delta waves is __________ sleep. a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4 Answer d % correct 55 a= 0 b= 25 c= 20 d= 55 r = .40

Altered States: Psychoactive Drugs 8. Chemical substances that change moods and perceptions are called __________ drugs. a. psychosomatic b. analgesic c. psychoactive d. prescription Answer c % correct 59 a= 29 b= 0 c= 59 d= 10 r = .74 9. The most frequently used drug in Western societies is __________. a. alcohol b. nicotine c. cocaine d. marijuana Answer a % correct 57 a= 57 b= 42 c= 0 d= 0 r = .29 10. __________ are used today for treating insomnia, epilepsy and other disorders. a. Barbiturates b. Opiates c. Hallucinogens d. Stimulants Answer a % correct 60 a= 50 b= 38 c=0 d= 12 r = .40 11. Amphetamines are __________. a. barbiturates b. stimulants c. hallucinogens d. opiates Answer b % correct 69 a= 19 b= 69 c= 8 d= 4

r = .24

12. Cocaine is a(n) __________. a. opiate b. stimulant c. barbiturate d. hallucinogen Answer b % correct 81 a= 8 b= 81 c= 4 d= 7

r = .27

13. The active ingredient in marijuana is __________. a. PCB b. THC c. LSD d. PCP Answer b % correct 92 a= 0 b= 92 c= 0 d= 7

r = .22

Altered States: Hypnosis 14. The trancelike state in which a subject responds readily to suggestions is __________. a. Stage 4 sleep b. hypnosis c. coma d. meditation Answer b % correct 100 a= 0 b= 100 c= 0 d= 0 r = .0

Quiz 5.1: The Biology of Sleep Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: The Biology of Sleep

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q5.1.1 Most people need between 7 and 10 hours of sleep each night. The exception to this rule of thumb are __________, who need around 16 hours out of every 24. a) newborns b) adolescents c) the middle-aged d) the elderly ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Sleep Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Think about the maintenance, rejuvenative, and health-related benefits that sleep confers. LO 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks.

EOM Q5.1.2 A region of about 20,000 neurons in the hypothalamus makes a person feel sleepy or alert during particular times of day. This area of the brain is more commonly known as the __________. a) biological clock b) circadian center c) frontal lobe d) delta wave center ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Sleep Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The hypothalamus is pretty small, and this refers to a small area within that small structure. But it is a quite important and rather timely area. LO 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks.

EOM Q5.1.3 Researchers using brain imaging have found that during a lucid dream, the parts of the dreamer's cerebral cortex associated with __________ become active. a) self-perceptions b) paradoxical thinking c) K-complexes d) circadian rhythms ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Sleep Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This discovery suggests that a certain level of awareness is maintained during sleep and dreaming. LO 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each.

EOM Q5.1.4 Stage 5 sleep is more commonly known as __________. a) REM sleep b) NREM sleep c) K-active sleep d) cataplexic sleep ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Sleep Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Think about the features that define each stage of sleep during a given night. LO 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each.

EOM Q5.1.5 Cindy Lou’s parents were awakened by screams and crying coming from the 4-year-old’s bedroom. Rushing in, they found Cindy Lou sweating, glassy-eyed, disoriented, and agitated. Just as her parents reached for the telephone to dial either a hospital or an exorcist, Cindy Lou fell back into a deep sleep. Confused, her parents did a little research and discovered Cindy Lou had experienced __________. a) a night terror b) an episode of sleep apnea c) the first signs of Kleine-Levin Syndrome d) a narcoleptic attack ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Sleep Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Recall the characteristics of the various sleep disorders you read about. 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders.

Quiz 5.2: Dreams Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Dreams

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q5.2.1 __________ believed that dreams revealed hidden wishes and desires. a) Sigmund Freud b) William James c) Heinrich Muller d) John B. Watson ANS: a Topic=Dreams Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The person in question wrote an entire book on the subject, called The Interpretation of Dreams. LO 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams.

EOM Q5.2.2 Freud argued that dreams have two levels of interpretation, which he called the __________ and the __________. a) manifest content; latent content b) central content; peripheral content c) masked content; revealed content d) psychoanalytic content; psychotherapeutic content ANS: a Topic=Dreams Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Freud thought that what you experienced in a dream was not necessarily what the dream signified. LO 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams.

EOM Q5.2.3 Which theory of dreaming specifically implicates the pons, thalamus, brain stem, amygdala, and other brain regions in explaining why we dream? a) activation-synthesis theory b) psychoanalytic theory c) neurocognitive approach d) forebrain activation ANS: a Topic=Dreams Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This theory was one of the first major challenges to Freud's view of dreaming. LO 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming.

EOM Q5.2.4 Evidence from studies of people with brain injuries reveals that damage to the forebrain can have the effect of __________. a) eliminating dreams entirely b) causing people to dream only in black and white c) making people more likely to forget their dreams the next morning d) increasing the frequency of dreams during NREM sleep ANS: a Topic=Dreams Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This evidence presents a challenge to some other major theories of dreaming. LO 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming.

EOM Q5.2.5 REM sleep is activated by surges of the neurotransmitter __________. a) acetylcholine b) melatonin c) serotonin d) norepinephrine ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Sleep Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This neurotransmitter activates nerve cells in the pons, located at the base of the brain. LO 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming.

Quiz 5.3: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q5.3.1 __________ are realistic waking perceptions that take place in the absence of any external stimuli. a) Hallucinations b) OBEs c) NDEs d) Hypnotic trance states ANS: a Topic=Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: These perceptions are primarily visual or auditory, although they can affect any sensory modality. LO 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness.

EOM Q5.3.2 In an experiment investigating alterations of consciousness, neuroscientists gave the hallucinogenic drug __________ to 36 participants in an effort to induce an experience that would seem mystical. a) psilocybin b) heroin c) cannabis d) LSD ANS: a Topic=Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This research was a way of studying what might otherwise be a very momentary, difficult-to-capture phenomenon. LO 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness.

EOM Q5.3.3 What evidence makes it likely that near-death experiences (NDEs) are not a genuine glimpse of what happens after death, but rather are constructed from the beliefs of the person having the experience? a) NDEs are not the same for all people from all cultures. b) Tunnels are only seen by native Pacific Islanders. c) Most people report meeting the same "spiritual being" during an NDE. d) NDEs are painful and people who experience them are unwilling to discuss the event. ANS: a Topic=Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Reports of NDEs have been collected from people from many different parts of the world. LO 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness.

EOM Q5.3.4 Before undergoing hypnosis to attempt to treat pain, anxiety, or smoking, it is important to be aware that __________. a) there is no evidence that hypnosis all by itself is an effective treatment for these ailments b) many people have been cured of addiction by hypnosis alone c) you might not remember the treatment d) the hypnotist might give you a suggestion to do something you would never do in real life ANS: a Topic=Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: The applications of hypnosis are growing along with our understanding of hypnosis, but there is a lot more to learn about this state of consciousness. LO 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis.

EOM Q5.3.5 Which term means a division of consciousness, a condition in which a person could carry out attention, effort, and planning without being aware of it? a) dissociation b) hallucination c) hypnotic trance d) out-of-body experience ANS: a Topic=Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences Difficulty=Easy Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Consider This: This is one of the principle explanations for hypnotic phenomena. LO 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis.

Quiz 5.4: Drugs and Consciousness Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Drugs and Consciousness

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q5.4.1 Which term refers to unpleasant side effects that happen when someone who is addicted to a drug stops taking it? a) withdrawal b) tolerance c) substance abuse d) physical dependence ANS: a Topic=Drugs and Consciousness Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Although the symptoms vary somewhat with the drug used, the experience is similar. LO 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use.

EOM Q5.4.2 Benny feels intense cravings for alcohol, even though his drinking has caused major problems in his personal relationships, work productivity, and levels of achievement. Benny is exhibiting signs of __________. a) psychological dependence b) physical dependence c) physiological dependence d) tolerance acceptance ANS: a Topic=Drugs and Consciousness Skill=Apply It Objective=LO 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: What are Benny's main motives for drinking? Is it only to avoid feeling physically ill? LO 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use.

EOM Q5.4.3 Crystal meth is more powerful than __________, and carries a high risk of both dependence and overdose. a) amphetamines b) narcotics c) depressants d) opiates ANS: a Topic=Drugs and Consciousness Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: What type of drug is being described, and what kinds of effects does it have? LO 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness.

EOM Q5.4.4 Psychoactive drugs that produce dramatic alterations of perception, mood, and thought are called __________. a) psychedelics b) opiates c) stimulants d) depressives ANS: a Topic=Drugs and Consciousness Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The major categories of psychoactive drugs are usually characterized by their principal effects on behavior. LO 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness.

EOM Q5.4.5 Heroin, opium, morphine, and codeine are all examples of __________. a) narcotics b) psychedelics c) stimulants d) depressants ANS: a Topic=Drugs and Consciousness Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: All of these drugs belong to the same major drug classification. LO 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness.

Chapter 5 Quiz: Consciousness Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Chapter Quiz: Consciousness

Multiple Choice Single Select EOC Q5.1 Latin for about a day, the __________ rhythm refers to the cyclical changes to our biological processes that occur on a 24-hour basis. a) circadian b) Caesarian c) circumferential d) Cistercian ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Sleep Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The Latin stems for this word are “circa” and “diem.” LO 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks.

EOC Q5.2 An analysis of the contents of tens of thousands of dreams demonstrated that adult dreams are to a great extent occupied with __________, emotional concerns, and preoccupations. a) everyday activities b) prophetic or psychic messages c) unfulfilled wishes d) deeply rooted desires ANS: a Topic=Dreams Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Recall the three major theories of dreaming, and think about which one would be supported by this evidence. LO 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming.

EOC Q5.3 A drug that enhances positive emotional reactions and minimizes negative ones, such as nicotine, is said to have __________. a) adjustive value b) stimulant effects c) powerful reinforcement d) responsivity ANS: a Topic=Drugs and Consciousness Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Nicotine is a very popular drug; why might that be? LO 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness.

EOC Q5.4 Rowan and Martin are chatting over lunch one day. “Man, I had the weirdest dream last night,” Rowan offered. “I was being chased by snakes and a gigantic blimp, and a creature who was a mix of my mother and father kept firing arrows at me until I finally jumped down a hole and fell through a long tunnel.” “Ah,” replied Martin, “you are frustrated by your sexual inadequacies and afraid of death.” What theory of dreaming does Martin most likely subscribe to? a) Freud's dream protection theory b) activation-synthesis theory c) augmented construction theory d) neurocognitive theory ANS: a Topic=Dreams Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Think about what Rowan said, and what Martin actually heard. LO 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOC Q5.5 Hypnosis increases the amount of information we recall. Most of this information is __________. a) inaccurate b) correct c) from witnesses to crime d) about forgotten childhood experiences ANS: a Topic=Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: “Remembering a lot” is not the same as “remembering what matters.” LO 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis.

EOC Q5.6 How many non-REM stages of sleep occur before the vivid dreaming stage of rapid-eye-movement (REM) sleep? a) 4 b) 6 c) 1 d) 3 ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Sleep Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Think about which “position” REM sleep occupies during a typical night's sleep. LO 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each.

EOC Q5.7 Sometimes people who suffer from narcolepsy also experience __________, a complete loss of muscle tone that can result in falls. a) cataplexy b) orexin c) hypnagogic states d) REM rebuttal ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Sleep Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: As you might imagine, this can pose a danger to people with this condition. LO 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders.

EOC Q5.8 Emily and Richard stop at their local bar for a drink after a hard day’s work. Two drinks in, Emily is slurring her words and having a difficult time holding her head up, whereas Richard appears in control of his faculties and speaks coherently. Both Emily and Richard drank the same amount of alcohol; why are their reactions so different? a) Individual differences in body weight, mental set, or genetics can modulate the effects of alcohol on an individual. b) Emily is an alcoholic. c) The environmental setting differed across their drinking experiences, and therefore influences their reactions. d) Richard “preloaded” with an additional three drinks before they left the office. ANS: a Topic=Drugs and Consciousness Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Chemical properties alone do not account for the effects of drugs on a person. LO 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use.

EOC Q5.9 A __________ is described as feeling at one with the world, usually in a spiritual way. a) mystical experience b) hypnotic trance c) lucid dream d) hallucination ANS: a Topic=Other Alterations Of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Many people would like to endorse non-scientific explanations for these events. LO 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness.

EOC Q5.10 Many dream theories propose that dreams reflect the circumstances of our lives. But studies of __________ have shown that this is not, in fact, true. a) disabled people b) young children c) people with forebrain damage d) people with high IQs ANS: a Topic=Dreams Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This is evidence against the dream-continuity hypothesis. LO 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming.

EOC Q5.11 Chronic heavy use of marijuana can impair __________. a) attention and memory b) energy c) growth d) the ability to sleep ANS: a Topic=Drugs and Consciousness Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: These losses are restored after a period of abstinence. LO5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness.

EOC Q5.12 Traveling across time zones can disrupt a person's biological clock, resulting in a phenomenon commonly called __________. a) jet lag b) circadian rhythms c) hypersomnia d) insomnia ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Sleep Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Think about what would happen during such travel. LO 5.1a Explain the role of the circadian rhythm and how our bodies react to a disruption in our biological clocks.

EOC Q5.13 Sigmund Freud made a distinction between what dreams seem to be about and what they were really about. He called this hidden meaning __________. a) latent content b) manifest content c) wish fulfillment d) dream work ANS: a Topic=Dreams Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Sometimes a cigar is just a cigar, but sometimes it is not. LO 5.2a Describe Freud’s theory of dreams.

EOC Q5.14 Placebo studies show that much of what we think of as "drunken behavior" is strongly influenced by __________. a) culturally learned expectations b) the type of drink consumed c) the amount of alcohol in the drink d) genetic factors ANS: a Topic=Drugs and Consciousness Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Chemical properties of a drug alone are not the only things that contribute to drug effects. LO 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness.

EOC Q5.15 Which theory suggests that dreams are complex cognitive achievements that develop as our visual imagination and other advanced cognitive abilities develop? a) neurocognitive theory b) activation-synthesis approach c) dream protection theory d) metacognitive perspective ANS: a Topic=Dreams Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Researchers adopting this perspective point out the differences between childhood and adult dream themes. LO 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming.

EOC Q5.16 The phenomenon of jamais vu is sometimes seen in neurological disorders such as amnesia or epilepsy. During jamais vu, people report experiencing __________. a) something that should be familiar as unfamiliar b) the feeling of having experienced something before c) auditory hallucinations d) olfactory hallucinations ANS: a Topic=Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The French translation of this phenomenon is “never seen.” LO 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness.

EOC Q5.17 Hypnotists use a(n) __________ to increase people's suggestibility. a) induction method b) pocket watch c) hypnotic suggestion d) spinning disc ANS: a Topic=Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Most hypnotists use this method, which typically includes suggestions for relaxation, calmness, and well-being. LO 5.3b Distinguish myths from realities concerning hypnosis

EOC Q5.18 When people need to consume increased quantities of a drug in order to get the same results they used to get from a lower dose, they have developed __________. a) tolerance b) physical dependence c) psychological dependence d) an addiction ANS: a Topic=Drugs and Consciousness Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: People in this state are looking for the same kind of kick they used to get from the drug in question. LO 5.4a Identify possible influences on substance use.

EOC Q5.19 Sleep apnea causes airways to become blocked during sleep. This condition leads to __________. a) multiple awakenings during the night b) odd behavior such as eating or driving while asleep c) sleepwalking d) night terrors ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Sleep Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: If left untreated, this can be a very dangerous condition. LO 5.1c Identify the features and causes of sleep disorders.

EOC Q5.20 By studying people who had sustained damage to the __________, scientists were able to determine that it plays an important role in our ability to dream. a) forebrain b) brain stem c) hypothalamus d) amygdala ANS: a Topic=Our Body Senses: Touch, Body Position, and Balance Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Patients who had various types of brain damage were studied to reach these conclusions. Their reports of dream experiences provided much valuable data. LO 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming.

EOC Q5.21 In the activation-synthesis model of dreaming, the “synthesis” part refers to __________. a) the forebrain trying to create a meaningful narrative from signals sent to it from lower brain centers b) the latent content that is hidden by the manifest content of the dream c) the meaning a dreamer assigns to a dream upon awakening d) solutions to problems that are recognized during the relaxed state of sleep ANS: a Topic=Dreams Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 5.4 Describe Freud’s theory of dreams. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: The brain is quite good at imposing structure even where none exists. LO 5.2b Explain three major modern theories of dreaming.

EOC Q5.22 The auditory hallucinations of psychotics differ from those of well-functioning nonpsychotics. Among psychotics, auditory hallucinations are much more __________ and perceived to be beyond the individual's control. a) negative b) strange c) specific d) verbose ANS: a Topic=Other Alterations of Consciousness and Unusual Experiences Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Auditory hallucinations (those involving sound) can occur when patients mistakenly attribute their thoughts, or inner speech, to an external source. LO 5.3a Determine how scientists explain unusual and seemingly “mystical” alterations in consciousness.

EOC Q5.23 Stimulants include which of the following drugs? a) cocaine b) LSD c) heroin d) marijuana ANS: a Topic=Drugs and Consciousness Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Recall the various classifications of drugs you read about. LO 5.4b Distinguish different types of drugs and their effects on consciousness.

EOC Q5.24 Jimmy often shows odd behavior while he is asleep. By all appearances he seems to be acting out the behaviors in his dreams, such as playing the banjo or feeding an imaginary baby. Having ruled out other disorders, his physician concluded that Jimmy is suffering from __________. a) REM behavior disorder (RBD) b) insomnia c) narcolepsy d) cataplexy ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Sleep Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Relatively few people suffer from this sleep disorder. LO 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOC Q5.25 If you know that you are dreaming when you are dreaming, you are experiencing a __________. a) lucid dream b) wish fulfillment dream c) narcoleptic attack d) withdrawal symptom ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Sleep Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Some dreamers can achieve this state of awareness. LO 5.1b Identify the different stages of sleep and the neural activity and dreaming behaviors that occur in each.

Chapter 6: Learning Total Assessment Guide Topic Quick Quiz 1

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice

9–10

1, 3–4

2, 5–8

Quick Quiz 2

Multiple Choice

3, 5, 9–10

1–2, 6–8

Introduction and Learning Objective 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Learning Objective 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning.

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

1, 3-8, 12-14, 18 1-3

2, 16

9–11, 15, 17, 19–22

Multiple Choice

23, 25, 27–28, 31, 35 5–6

38–39, 46

41–43

47–48

49–50

51, 53–54 10

57, 65, 68–71, 73, 76–78 11

55–56, 64, 75, 80

Learning Objective 6.1c Explain how complex behaviors can result from classical conditioning and how they emerge in our daily lives. Learning Objective 6.2a Distinguish operant conditioning from classical conditioning. Learning Objective 6.2b Describe Thorndike’s law of effect. Learning Objective 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Learning Objective 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each.

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

1–2

24, 26, 29–30, 32– 34, 37 7

40, 44–45 8–9

58–63, 66–67, 72, 74, 79, 81 12 3–4

1 85, 89, 91 14

83–84

82, 86–88, 90 15–17 3–4

Topic Learning Objective 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Learning Objective 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Learning Objective 6.3b Identify evidence of insight learning. Learning Objective 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Learning Objective 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning.

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice

93, 96, 98–99, 102

101, 104–109

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice

92, 94–95, 97, 100, 103 18, 20

110, 112, 115, 117, 122, 127– 128

118–119, 121, 123– 125

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice

111, 113–114, 116, 120, 126, 129–131 21–25 5

2 134

132–133, 135

136–137, 141– 144, 146–147, 149

140, 145

138–139, 148

151, 153–154, 156, 158–160

152, 155

150, 157

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 6 Quick Quiz 1 1. Which of the following statements about learning is TRUE? A) Habituation is a form of learning, but they aren’t the same thing. B) It can occur without having an experience. C) It does not involve changes in behavior. D) It does not involve changes in thinking. 2. Mitzi and her husband went out for a nice dinner, where Mitzi ordered a Diet Coke with her meal. When her drink was served, she took one sip and made a disgusted face. “That’s not Diet Coke,” Mitzi said with an irritated look. “That’s a Diet Pepsi.” Mitzi’s ability to distinguish one soda from another demonstrates __________. A) higher-order stimulation B) stimulus discrimination C) stimulus generalization D) stimulus overlap 3. Concerning the treatment of phobias using classical conditioning, it is TRUE that persons fearful of flying will __________. A) first need to address their childhood conflicts that are contributing to this phobia in order to eliminate this fear of flying B) first need to address the unresolved conflicts in their lives that are contributing to this phobia in order to eliminate the fear of flying C) need to associate flying with something pleasurable to reduce this fear D) need to avoid flying as a way to reduce this fear 4. Thorndike’s law of effect is most closely associated with which operant conditioning principle? A) negative reinforcement B) positive reinforcement C) Premack principle D) punishment 5. Which of the following is an example of positive reinforcement? A) allowing students homework passes if they work hard during class B) giving a child candy for completing their homework C) removing a child’s chores when he or she completes homework D) taking away privileges if a child does not follow classroom rules 6. The situation of a student’s final grade improving one letter grade for every three books read represents which schedule of reinforcement? A) fixed interval B) fixed ratio C) variable interval D) variable ratio

7. An animal trainer trying to teach a lion to perform tricks for circus. First, the lion is given food if he sits quietly on a chair. Next, the lion is given food if he raises one paw. Finally, the lion is given more food if he gives the trainer a “high-five.” In this example, the lion is being trained by __________. A) negative reinforcement B) generalization C) punishment D) shaping 8. Which of the following describes the main difference between observational learning and operant conditioning? A) Observational learning uses mainly punishment to condition behavior, as compared to operant conditioning, which uses both reinforcement and punishment. B) Observational learning uses mainly reinforcement to condition behavior, as compared to operant conditioning, which uses both reinforcement and punishment. C) Observational learning uses different schedules of punishment and reinforcement to condition behaviors, as compared to operant conditioning. D) Observational learning uses punishment and reinforcement of models to condition the behaviors of observers. 9. Who is best known for studying the phenomenon of insight in animals? A) Wolfgang Köhler B) Edward Tolman C) E. L. Thorndike D) Albert Bandura 10. Which theorist is responsible for suggesting that the distribution of phobias in the human population can be explained by biological preparedness? A) Breland B) Garcia C) Seligman D) Tolman

Chapter 6 Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1. A

Explanation: Habituation is defined by your textbook as the simplest form of learning that problem emerges earliest in human beings. (Introduction, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO Introduction)

2. B

Explanation: Stimulus discrimination occurs when an animal (or person) is able to associate a specific stimulus with a specific response. (Classical Conditioning, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 6.1b)

3. B

Explanation: This form of stimulus substitution is an underlying key to the treatment of phobic disorders. (Classical Conditioning, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 6.1c)

4. A

Explanation: The law of effect, in its simplest form, suggests that behaviors that are met with reinforcing outcomes (or rewarding consequences) will tend to be strengthened. This is a foundational part of concept of operant conditioning. (Operant Conditioning, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 6.2b)

5. A

Explanation: The child is presented with a reinforcer for engaging in a desired behavior. This is the basis of positive reinforcement. (Operant Conditioning, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 6.2c)

6. B

Explanation: A reward is received after a specific number of behaviors have occurred. This demonstrates a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement. (Operant Conditioning, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 6.2d)

7. D

Explanation: The lion is given praise for every step that gets him closer to the desired behavior, a process called shaping. (Operant Conditioning, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 6.2e)

8. D

Explanation: This is the correct distinction between these two forms of learning. (Cognitive Models of Learning, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 6.3a)

9. A

Explanation: Köhler is given credit for groundbreaking work on insight learning in animals. (Cognitive Models of Learning, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 6.3b)

10. C

Explanation: This is one of many theories of Martin Seligman that have had enormous influence on the field of psychology. (Biological Influences on Learning, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 6.4a)

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 6 Quick Quiz 2 1. Whenever five-year-old Claire goes to the dentist, she becomes anxious and cries. Since she was not afraid of the dentist on her first visit, her fear was a learned behavior. The UCS in this case was probably __________. A) the dentist’s beard B) sweet toothpaste C) the pain associated with teeth cleaning D) the sound of the music in the dentist’s waiting room 2. After Pavlov’s dogs became conditioned to salivate at the sound of the metronome, he experimented with sounding the metronome but not presenting the meat powder to the dogs. Soon they stopped salivating to the sound of the metronome. This represents the process called __________. A) acquisition B) testing C) extinction D) spontaneous recovery 3. According to __________ theory, learning is controlled by the consequences of an organism’s behavior. A) observational learning B) classical conditioning C) cognitive learning D) operant conditioning 4. The kind of learning that applies to voluntary behavior is called __________. A) operant conditioning B) classical conditioning C) effective based learning D) discovery learning 5. A small chamber used in operant conditioning of animals that limits the available responses and, thus, increases the likelihood that the desired response will occur, is called a(n) __________ box. A) trial B) Skinner C) Thorndike D) operant conditioning 6. Omar and Patrick sell magazine subscriptions by telephone. Omar is paid $1.00 for every 5 calls he makes, while Patrick is paid $1.00 for every subscription he sells. Omar is paid on a __________ schedule while Patrick is paid on a __________ schedule. A) fixed ratio; variable ratio B) fixed ratio; fixed interval C) variable ratio; fixed ratio D) fixed ratio; variable interval

7. Which of the following represents the findings of David Premack? A) prohibiting a child from having ice cream because he/she did not eat his/her vegetables B) allowing a child to have ice cream only if he/she eats his/her vegetables C) allowing a child to have ice cream even if he/she does not eat their vegetables D) allowing the child to have an extra ice cream cone if he/she dislikes the first cone 8. You wake up at 3:00 a.m., craving a glass of water. You get out of bed and walk to the kitchen but you do not turn on the light. Your ability to successfully navigate her house in the dark is due to the presence of __________. A) a cognitive map B) vicarious learning C) insight learning D) sleep learning 9. Which of the following is reflective of Seligman’s research on conditioned taste aversion? A) Once a taste aversion has been conditioned, it is relatively easily to extinguish. B) Repeated pairings of the CS with the UCS are needed to produce a taste aversion. C) Contrary to most classically conditioned reactions, only one pairing of the CS with the UCS is needed to produce a taste aversion. D) If a taste aversion to mayonnaise has emerged, it is likely that an aversion to other creamy sauces will emerge. 10. The tendency for animals to return to innate behaviors following repeated reinforcement is called __________. A) equipotentiality B) instinctive drift C) SALTT D) discovery learning

Chapter 6 Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1. C

Explanation: Claire did not have to acquire her fear of the painful teeth cleaning, and thus the pain is the UCS. (Classical Conditioning, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 6.1a)

2. C

Explanation: Extinction occurs when the CS loses its ability to elicit the CR over time. (Classical Conditioning, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 6.1b)

3. D

Explanation: Operant conditioning is predicated on Thorndike’s Law of Effect, which states that the outcomes of an action influence future repetitions of that action. (Operant Conditioning, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 6.2a)

4. A

Explanation: Operant conditioning involves a choice to act and is, thus, voluntary behavior. (Operant Conditioning, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 6.2a)

5. B

Explanation: B. F. Skinner first created this operant chamber, which he used to demonstrate the effects of reinforcements and punishments on animals. (Operant Conditioning, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 6.2c)

6. A

Explanation: Because Omar knows he gets one dollar for every five calls he makes, this demonstrates fixed ratio reinforcement. Because Patrick doesn’t know how many calls he’ll have to make before he makes a sale, he is getting paid on a variable ratio schedule. (Operant Conditioning, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 6.2d)

7. B

Explanation: Premack found that it is possible to positively reinforce a less frequently performed behavior with a more frequently performed behavior. (Operant Conditioning, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 6.2e)

8. A

Explanation: A cognitive map is a spatial representation of a given area that we keep in our minds. (Cognitive Models of Learning, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 6.3a)

9. C

Explanation: Taste aversion, unlike most other forms of conditioning, does not require multiple pairings of the CS and the UCS to be acquired. (Biological Influences on Learning, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 6.4a)

10. B

Explanation: Instinctive drift is a phenomenon that was first researched by the Brelands. (Biological Influences on Learning, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 6.4a)

Chapter 6: Learning Test Bank Multiple Choice 1. __________ refers to a change in an organism’s behavior or thinking that is a direct result of experience. A) Learning B) Adaptation C) Memory D) Accommodation Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 2. Which of the following statements about learning is TRUE? A) Habituation is a form of it, but they aren't the same thing. B) It does not involve changes in thinking. C) It does not involve changes in behavior. D) It can occur without having an experience. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 3. In 2000, neurophysiologist Eric Kandel was awarded the Nobel Prize for his research demonstrating that the process of habituation occurs even in very unsophisticated animals. What organisms did he use in this research? A) sea slugs B) sloths C) jellyfish D) earthworms Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction

4. The precursor to Pavlov’s groundbreaking work on classical conditioning came from a group of scholars called the British __________, who believed that we acquire all of our knowledge by forming associations between stimuli. A) Structuralists B) Associationists C) Aristocrats D) Functionalists Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning 5. __________ was the first person to describe learning as acquired through classical conditioning while studying the digestive process of dogs. A) John Watson B) Ivan Pavlov C) B. F. Skinner D) Albert Bandura Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning % correct 94 a = 6 b = 94 c = 0 d = 0 r = .51 6. According to the theory of classical conditioning, an unconditioned stimulus is a stimulus that elicits __________. A) a response after being paired with a conditioned stimulus B) a conditioned response C) a response after being paired with another stimulus D) an automatic, reflexive response Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning

7. The abbreviation UCS stands for __________. A) unconditional statement B) uniform-conditioned subject C) unconditioned sensation D) unconditioned stimulus Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning 8. The abbreviation UCR stands for __________. A) unconditional reinforcement B) uniform-conditioned rule C) unconditioned response D) unconventional response Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning 9. Whenever five-year-old Claire goes to the dentist, she becomes anxious and cries. Since she was not afraid of the dentist on her first visit, her fear was a learned behavior. The UCS in this case was probably __________. A) the dentist’s beard Incorrect. Because the beard would not automatically elicit a fear response, it would not be considered an unconditioned stimulus. B) sweet toothpaste C) the pain associated with teeth cleaning Correct. Claire did not have to acquire her fear of the painful teeth cleaning, and thus the pain is the UCS. D) the sound of the music in the dentist’s waiting room Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning % correct 91 a = 0 b = 3 c = 91 d = 6 r = .40

10. Because dogs do not need to be conditioned to salivate to food, salivation to food is a(n) __________. A) conditioned response Incorrect. If they do not need to be conditioned, then the response cannot be a conditioned response! B) conditioned reflex C) unconditioned response Correct. This innate, automatic, reflexive behavior is called an unconditioned response. D) neutral response Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning 11. Salivation in response to food being placed in the mouth, and an eye blink response to a puff of air, are both examples of __________. A) unconditioned stimuli B) conditioned responses Incorrect. Conditioned responses must be learned. Those in this question are unlearned. C) conditioned stimuli D) unconditioned responses Correct. Because these responses happen automatically (without learning), they are unconditioned responses. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning 12. In Pavlov’s “salivating dogs” studies, the UCS was __________. A) food B) noise C) salivation D) joy Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning % correct 87 a = 87 b = 10 c = 3 d = 0 r = .37

13. In Pavlov’s “salivating dogs” studies, the UCR was __________. A) salivation B) food C) tone D) biting Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning 14. In Pavlov’s “salivating dogs” studies, the salivation triggered by the sound of the tone was the __________. A) conditioned stimulus B) unconditioned response C) conditioned response D) unconditioned stimulus Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning 15. Alan always turns on the aquarium light before putting fish food into the tank. After a while, he notices that the fish swim to the top to look for the food as soon as he turns on the light. In this example, the __________ is the unconditioned stimulus. A) presence of Alan near the aquarium Incorrect. Alan’s presence is not what brings about a response, either conditioned or unconditioned, in this example. B) fish swimming to the top C) fish food Correct. The fish food is the unconditioned stimulus because, by definition, food is an unconditioned stimulus. D) aquarium light Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning

16. Which of the following statements pertaining to the conditioned response is accurate? A) It is elicited by the unconditioned stimulus. B) It is an instinctual behavior. Incorrect. It is the unconditioned response that is an instinctual, innate behavior. C) It is elicited by the conditioned stimulus. Correct. In classical conditioning, the only thing that can evoke a CR is the CS. D) It is a reflex. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning 17. For several weeks, Allen had to clean the men’s restroom at the restaurant where he worked. The task always made him nauseated. He has since gone on to better things, but still cannot walk by the door to a men’s restroom without becoming slightly queasy. For Allen, the door to the men’s room has become a(n) __________. A) unconditioned stimulus B) unconditioned response Incorrect. Allen’s aversive reaction to the unpleasant odors in the restroom is reflexive, and thus is an unconditioned response. C) reflexive stimulus D) conditioned stimulus Correct. Allen has learned to associate that door with his unpleasant work tasks. Therefore it is a conditioned stimulus. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning % correct 82 a = 18 b = 0 c = 0 d = 82 r = .55 18. A conditioned stimulus is defined as the __________. A) stimulus that automatically produces the unconditioned response B) previously neutral stimulus that automatically produces the unconditioned response C) stimulus that has acquired the capacity to produce the conditioned response D) previously neutral stimulus that automatically produces the conditioned response Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning

19. Young Albert is initially not afraid of white rats. However, if white rats and loud noises are presented in sequence, Albert will learn to fear rats. In this example, white rats would be the __________. A) CS Correct. Because Albert learned to be afraid of white rats, they represent the conditioned stimulus in this example. B) UCS Incorrect. If white rats were a UCS, Albert would have been afraid of them automatically. C) CR D) UCR Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning % correct 55 a = 55 b = 26 c = 13 d = 3 r = .36 20. Shelly has developed a fear of bridges due to the recent, graphic news coverage of people falling from a collapsed bridge. Which of the following is the CS? A) bridges Correct. Because Shelly had to learn her fear of bridges, the bridges are the conditioned stimuli. B) graphic news coverage Incorrect. The news coverage certainly contributed to the newly developed fear, however in this example the conditioned stimulus is the bridge. C) people falling D) collapsed bridges Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning

21. As an infant, Stephanie received many penicillin injections from the doctor. When she later saw a photographer in a white coat that was similar to the doctor’s coat, she started to cry. This is an example of __________. A) instrumental learning B) observational learning Incorrect. Observational learning involves watching others in a learning experience; in this example, Stephanie experienced these events herself. C) classical conditioning Correct. Stephanie demonstrates the spreading of a reflexive reaction from one stimulus to another. This indicates classical conditioning. D) habituation Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning 22. Every time Maricella goes to work in the morning, she notices that her dog looks very sad. Over several weeks, she notices that the dog gets unhappy when she picks up her car keys, immediately before leaving the house. Which phenomenon of learning best describes the dog’s behavior? A) observational learning B) innate learning C) punishments by removal Incorrect. While the dog may experience the departure of Maricella as a punishment, this does not explain his association with the sound of her car keys. D) classical conditioning Correct. The dog has come to associate the sound of the keys with the departure of Maricella, and his sadness has become a conditioned response. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning 23. Acquisition can be described as the process in which __________. A) the conditioned response is established B) stimulus discrimination occurs C) reinforcers are distinguished from punishers D) conditioned response diminish over time Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning

24. After Pavlov’s dogs became conditioned to salivate at the sound of the metronome, he experimented with sounding the metronome but not presenting the meat powder to the dogs. Soon they stopped salivating to the sound of the metronome. This represents the process called __________. A) acquisition B) testing Incorrect. Testing is not a term used in the paradigm of classical conditioning. C) extinction Correct. Extinction occurs when the CS loses its ability to elicit the CR over time. D) spontaneous recovery Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning 25. Extinction occurs when the __________ no longer produces the __________. A) CS; UCS B) CS; CR C) UCS; CR D) UCS; UCR Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning % correct 55 a = 6 b = 55 c = 26 d = 13 r = .58 % correct 65 a = 12 b = 65 c = 17 d = 6 r = .44 26. As a child, Blaine was attacked by a goose and subsequently developed a severe fear of waterfowl. As he got older, the fear gradually faded until it was all but forgotten. Blaine is now in his early twenties and recently went strolling through a park by the river where he came across a flock of geese. The geese gave him a stare, and Blaine experienced a sudden surge of fear. Blaine’s fear response is an example of __________. A) stimulus discrimination B) stimulus generalization Incorrect. Generalization is when a conditioned response is elicited by a stimulus that is similar, but not identical, to the conditioned stimulus. C) higher-order conditioning D) spontaneous recovery Correct. Spontaneous recovery is when a previously extinguished CR reappears for no apparent reason, though often in a weaker form than originally experienced. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning

27. The reappearance of a learned response after extinction has occurred is called __________. A) counterconditioning B) instinctive drift C) spontaneous recovery D) stimulus substitution Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning % correct 76 a = 12 b = 6 c = 76 d = 6 r = .57 28. The __________ effect refers to the sudden reemergence of a conditioned response following extinction when an animal is returned to the environment in which the conditioned response was first acquired. A) rebound B) recovery C) renewal D) bounceback Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning 29. Ken’s mouth waters every time he hears the ice cream truck’s familiar song in the distance. One day, a slightly different song is heard in the distance and Ken’s mouth waters. Ken’s behavior illustrates __________. A) stimulus generalization. Correct. Because Ken is responding to a different stimulus that is only similar to the original conditioned stimulus, this demonstrates stimulus generalization. B) stimulus assimilation. C) stimulus recovery. D) stimulus discrimination. Incorrect. If Ken had recognized that the different song should not elicit the same response, this would have demonstrated stimulus discrimination. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning

30. Julio served in the war in Iraq and was severely traumatized when a grenade exploded next to his Humvee. Recently, Julio was studying in the library and a large book fell off a high shelf and banged on the floor. The noise brought Julio instantly to his feet. In terms of classical conditioning, his response can best be explained by __________. A) spontaneous recovery Incorrect. Spontaneous recovery is when a previously extinguished CR reappears for no apparent reason. B) negative reflex C) reinforcement D) stimulus generalization Correct. Stimulus generalization is when a conditioned response is elicited by a stimulus that is similar, but not identical, to the conditioned stimulus. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning % correct 44 a = 38 b = 6 c = 12 d = 44 r = .39 31. The tendency to respond to a conditioned stimulus that is similar, but not identical, to the original conditioned stimulus is called __________. A) stimulus generalization B) stimulus adaptation C) response generalization D) transfer of habit strength Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning 32. While on a cruise ship, Kevin became sick after eating a seafood dinner. His food poisoning, coupled with seasickness, led to a terrible vacation, and consequently Kevin shivers at the mere sight of any large boat. Kevin’s behavior illustrates the process of __________. A) stimulus generalization Correct. Kevin has spread his response to one stimulus to a different stimulus. This demonstrates a form of stimulus generalization. B) stimulus discrimination Incorrect. If Kevin only became uncomfortable at the sight of seafood, and not at the sight of cruise ships, this would demonstrate stimulus discrimination. C) acquisition D) scapegoating Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning

33. When you learned that red lights mean “stop,” and green lights mean “go,” you were being trained to use a classical conditioning concept called stimulus __________. A) substitution B) generalization Incorrect. Stimulus generalization occurs when different stimuli evoke the same response. C) discrimination Correct. Stimulus discrimination occurs when an animal (or person) is able to associate a specific stimulus with a specific response. D) enhancement Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning 34. Mitzi and her husband went out for a nice dinner, where Mitzi ordered a Diet Coke with her meal. When her drink was served, she took one sip and made a disgusted face. “That’s not Diet Coke,” she said with an irritated look. “That’s a Diet Pepsi.” Mitzi’s ability to distinguish one soda from another demonstrates __________. A) higher-order stimulation B) stimulus discrimination Correct. Stimulus discrimination occurs when an animal (or person) is able to associate a specific stimulus with a specific response. C) stimulus generalization Incorrect. Stimulus generalization occurs when different stimuli evoke the same response. If she had failed to notice the difference and drank the soda, this would have demonstrated stimulus generalization. D) stimulus overlap Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning 35. When a conditioned response is established to a conditioned stimulus by virtue of its association with another conditioned stimulus, the process is called __________. A) spontaneous recovery B) higher-order conditioning C) extinction D) stimulus generalization Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning

36. After a CS comes to elicit the CR, the CS now can be paired with a new neutral stimulus and this second neutral stimulus will start to elicit a CR. This process is called __________. A) higher-order conditioning Correct. This process is called higher-order conditioning because another, or higher, layer of associations is being added. B) neoclassical conditioning C) generalization Incorrect. Responding to a similar stimulus is called generalization; in this case, it is not a similar stimulus but an entirely new stimulus that is paired with the original. D) operant conditioning Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning 37. Pavlov conditioned a dog to salivate at a metronome sound that was paired with a meat stimulus. After the CS–UCS linkage was strongly established, Pavlov then presented the dog with several flashes of a light followed by the metronome sound. After a few days, when the light flashes were presented by themselves, the dog salivated. This is an example of __________. A) higher-order conditioning Correct. This process of using a neutral stimulus with a conditioned stimulus to create a new conditioned stimulus out of the neutral stimulus is called higher-order conditioning. B) neoclassical conditioning C) generalization D) operant conditioning Incorrect. Operant conditioning refers to voluntary responses, such as bar presses for food, not involuntary responses, such as salivation. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning

38. Which of the following refers to the idea that it is more difficult to classically condition a response to a familiar stimulus than to a novel (or new) stimulus? A) stimulus generalization Incorrect. This refers to the idea that a stimulus that is similar to the conditioned stimulus can produce the conditioned response. B) higher-order conditioning C) the law of effect D) latent inhibition Correct. This is the correct term that is referenced by the definition in the question. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1c Explain how complex behaviors can result from classical conditioning and how they emerge in our daily lives. Topic: Classical Conditioning 39. Which of the following statements is supported by research concerning classical conditioning and advertising appeals for well-known products? A) It is easier to classically condition novel brands versus familiar brands. B) Well-known brands are more easily susceptible to extinction than are novel brands. C) Well-known brands are easier to convert into conditioned stimuli versus novel brands. D) Attempts to use classical conditioning to sell products have been largely unsuccessful. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1c Explain how complex behaviors can result from classical conditioning and how they emerge in our daily lives. Topic: Classical Conditioning 40. John Watson offered a white rat to Little Albert and then made a loud noise behind his head by striking a gong with a steel hammer. After several pairings, the child came to fear the white rat. The white rat served as the __________ in his study. A) discriminative stimulus B) conditioned stimulus Correct. The child was conditioned to respond to this stimulus with fear, even though he was not originally afraid of the rat. C) unconditioned stimulus Incorrect. An unconditioned stimulus is one that the child automatically responds to with fear, such as a loud noise. D) unconditional stimulus Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1c Explain how complex behaviors can result from classical conditioning and how they emerge in our daily lives. Topic: Classical Conditioning

41. Although ethically questionable, the classic work of Watson and Rayner with Little Albert demonstrated that Freud’s contention that phobias are seated deep in the unconscious was erroneous. Their research was an important demonstration of which one of the principles of scientific thinking? A) ruling out rival hypotheses B) replicability Incorrect. Rather than trying to repeat Freud’s findings, Watson and Rayner were trying to falsify his theory. C) falsifiability Correct. Watson and Rayner’s research was aimed at poking a hole in an established theory of Freud. This addresses the principle of falsifiability. D) extraordinary claims Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 6.1c Explain how complex behaviors can result from classical conditioning and how they emerge in our daily lives. Topic: Classical Conditioning 42. Watson’s experiment with Little Albert demonstrated that fears might be __________. A) based on classical conditioning Correct. Watson took a neutral stimulus, the rat, and paired it with a fear-producing noise to make the rat a fear-inducing stimulus. B) based on the innate unconscious of infants Incorrect. There was no focus on the unconscious in Watson’s experiment. He was demonstrating the relationship of classical conditioning to phobias. C) based on the principle of observational learning D) based on instinctive drift Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1c Explain how complex behaviors can result from classical conditioning and how they emerge in our daily lives. Topic: Classical Conditioning % correct 88 a = 88 b = 6 c = 3 d = 3 r = .27

43. Which of the following is TRUE concerning the treatment of phobias using classical conditioning? A) Persons fearful of flying will need to avoid flying as a way to reduce this fear. B) Persons fearful of flying will need to associate flying with something pleasurable to reduce this fear. Correct. This form of stimulus substitution is an underlying key to the treatment of phobic disorders. C) Persons fearful of flying will first need to address the unresolved conflicts in their lives that are contributing to this phobia in order to eliminate the fear of flying. Incorrect. This sort of psychoanalytic approach to treating phobias has not been found to be effective. It also does not have anything to do with classical conditioning theory. D) Persons fearful of flying will first need to address their childhood conflicts that are contributing this phobia in order to eliminate this fear of flying. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1c Explain how complex behaviors can result from classical conditioning and how they emerge in our daily lives. Topic: Classical Conditioning % correct 68 a = 3 b = 68 c = 19 d = 10 r = .44 44. One can be conditioned to become sexually aroused at the sight of a triangle, or really any unusual stimulus, if that stimulus is presented shortly __________ an appropriate __________. A) before; UCS B) before; CS C) after; UCS D) after; CS Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1c Explain how complex behaviors can result from classical conditioning and how they emerge in our daily lives. Topic: Classical Conditioning 45. Quinlan is sexually attracted to women's underwear. He does not need the woman to be wearing it but rather finds the silky material of a woman's panties to be arousing by itself. This attraction to a nonliving object is called __________. A) instinctive drift B) fetishism Correct. A fetish is a sexual attraction or preoccupation with a nonliving object. C) conditioned sexual proclivity D) a conditioned emotional response Incorrect. Although there is certainly an emotional component to this conditioned response, there is a better, more specific answer. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1c Explain how complex behaviors can result from classical conditioning and how they emerge in our daily lives. Topic: Classical Conditioning

46. Due to his extensive research in a specific area of learning, researcher Paul Rozin has earned the nickname of __________. A) The Psychologist of Phobias B) Professor Proton Incorrect. Although a physicist might want to be called by this moniker, Dr. Rozin's research is in the area of disgust. C) Dr. Disgust Correct. Dr. Rozin's research has examined the ways in which disgust reactions are conditioned. D) Animal Trainer to the Stars Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1c Explain how complex behaviors can result from classical conditioning and how they emerge in our daily lives. Topic: Classical Conditioning 47. According to __________ theory, learning is controlled by the consequences of an organism’s behavior. A) observational learning B) classical conditioning C) operant conditioning D) cognitive learning Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2a Distinguish operant conditioning from classical conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning 48. Operant conditioning is also known as __________. A) instrumental conditioning B) vicarious learning C) observational learning D) voluntary conditioning Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2a Distinguish operant conditioning from classical conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning

49. The kind of learning that applies to voluntary behavior is called __________. A) operant conditioning Correct. Operant conditioning involves a choice to act and is, thus, voluntary behavior. B) classical conditioning Incorrect. Classical conditioning involves involuntary responses, such as salivation. C) effective based learning D) discovery learning Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2a Distinguish operant conditioning from classical conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning % correct 66 a = 66 b = 12 c = 3 d = 19 r = .50 50. In classical conditioning, the organism’s responses depend primarily on the __________; in operant conditioning, the organism’s responses depend primarily on the __________. A) peripheral nervous system; central nervous system B) skeletal muscles; autonomic nervous system Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. C) endocrine system; somatic nervous system D) autonomic nervous system; skeletal muscles Correct. Classical conditioning involves changes in physiological functioning that are outside of our control, while operant conditioning involves changes in voluntary motor functions that are handled by the skeletal muscles. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2a Distinguish operant conditioning from classical conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning % correct 56 a = 26 b = 3 c = 15 d = 56 r = .55 51. A voluntary behavior that occurs in order to produce a reward is called a(n) __________. A) instinct B) reflex C) operant Correct. This is where the term “operant conditioning” comes from. D) stimulus Incorrect. A stimulus is some environmental event that triggers a response. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2b Describe Thorndike’s law of effect. Topic: Operant Conditioning

52. Thorndike’s law of effect is most closely associated with which operant conditioning principle? A) positive reinforcement Correct. The law of effect, in its simplest form, suggests that behaviors that are met with reinforcing outcomes (or rewarding consequences) will tend to be strengthened. This is a foundational part of concept of operant conditioning. B) higher-order conditioning C) Premack principle Incorrect. The Premack principle suggests that one can positively reinforce a less-frequently performed behavior with a more-frequently performed behavior. It is not directly related to the law of effect. D) stimulus generalization Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2b Describe Thorndike’s law of effect. Topic: Operant Conditioning 53. Which two theorists laid the groundwork for the theory of operant conditioning? A) Pavlov and Skinner B) Thorndike and Skinner C) Watson and Skinner D) Bandura and Skinner Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2b Describe Thorndike’s law of effect. Topic: Operant Conditioning 54. Which theorist believed that most of learning occurred by trial and error? A) Thorndike B) Watson C) Skinner D) Pavlov Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2b Describe Thorndike’s law of effect. Topic: Operant Conditioning

55. According to E. L. Thorndike, the fact that all learning occurs by trial and error negated the presence of __________ in the processes by which behaviors are learned. A) insight Correct .Thorndike thought that if such an "aha" quality existed, trial and error would not be needed. B) latency Incorrect. Thorndike's theory did not speak specifically to the existence of latent learning. C) cognitive maps D) classical conditioning Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning 56. A Skinner box is most likely to be used in research on __________. A) classical conditioning Incorrect. Classical conditioning involves involuntary responses and Skinner boxes use voluntary responses to study operant conditioning. B) operant conditioning Correct. A Skinner box is most likely to be used in research on operant conditioning. It is more formally known as an operant chamber. C) observational learning D) vicarious learning Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning

57. A small chamber used in operant conditioning of animals that limits the available responses and, thus, increases the likelihood that the desired response will occur is called a(n) __________. A) trial box B) Skinner box C) Thorndike box D) operant box Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning 58. Dr. Skarzinski uses a Skinner box to record the frequency with which rats press a level to earn a pellet of food. Which of the following is a risk associated with this data-gathering technique? A) It is impossible to know whether the rat truly pressed the level as many times as the recording device indicates. Incorrect. The assumption is that the Skinner box would work properly, and thus this is not a reasonable concern. B) The box is designed to provide only food and not water, and this is dangerous. C) The rat may die of starvation because in such a procedure the rats are not regularly monitored by people. D) Dr. Skarzinski may miss interesting behaviors that the box is not designed to record. Correct. An absence of human observation runs the risk of missing important events. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning 59. Which of the following is an example of positive reinforcement? A) giving a child candy for completing their homework Correct. The child is presented with a reinforcer for engaging in a desired behavior. This is the basis of positive reinforcement. B) removing a child’s chores when he or she complete homework C) allowing students homework passes if they work hard during class Incorrect. This would be an example of negative reinforcement, because something that is unpleasant or aversive is being removed, or taken away, as a means of rewarding a desirable behavior. D) taking away privileges if a child does not follow classroom rules Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning % correct 81 a = 81 b = 3 c = 16 d = 0 r = .44 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

60. Regarding operant conditioning, which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement? A) A student is sent to detention for fighting. B) A student is exempted from a weekly quiz for exemplary homework. Correct. In this example, an unpleasant or unattractive stimulus is removed as a means of encouraging a desirable behavior to continue. C) A student loses earned free time for playing with lab equipment. Incorrect. Because the goal here would be to cause a behavior to discontinue, this is an example of negative punishment. D) A student turns in neater homework when the teacher praises neatness. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning % correct 29 a = 10 b = 29 c = 39 d = 22 r = .43 61. Nicky bites his nails when he becomes nervous because it calms him down. Nicky’s behavior is an example of __________. A) negative reinforcement Correct. The diminishing of the nervousness leaves Nicky to bite his nails more when he gets nervous in the future. Therefore, this demonstrates negative reinforcement. B) generalization C) classical conditioning Incorrect. In fact, this is a demonstration of the operant conditioning phenomenon of negative reinforcement. What is also interesting is that Nicky is reinforcing himself in this example, rather than being reinforced by someone or something else. D) shaping Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning

62. Wearing shorts on a hot summer day is a behavior that is established by way of __________. A) negative reinforcement Correct. The reduction of the unpleasant feeling of being overheated will lead to wearing shorts on hot days more in the future. This demonstrates negative reinforcement. B) positive reinforcement Incorrect. Because something is being removed (the feeling of being too hot) rather than being presented, this demonstrates the concept of negative reinforcement. C) punishment D) classical conditioning Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning 63. Mark and Kathy take their two-year-old son to the supermarket every Saturday. Each week, the same sequence of events unfolds: Their son screams, demanding that they buy him treats. Although they refuse to give in to his demands, he continues to scream. Finally, either Mark or Kathy gets in their son’s face and yells at the top of their lungs “Shut up!” He stops screaming instantly. What operant conditioning concepts are illustrated in this story? A) The parents are using negative reinforcement to increase their son’s screaming. Incorrect. The parents are not attempting to increase their son’s screaming, but rather to make it stop. B) The parents are using punishment to suppress the screaming; their use of punishment is negatively reinforced by the cessation of screaming. Correct. The parents are using punishment, and they are negatively reinforced as cessation of screaming is a classic negative reinforcer. C) Their son probably learned how to scream by observing his parents at home, and now he is reinforced on a variable-interval schedule of reinforcement. D) Their son probably learned how to scream by observing his parents at home, and now he is reinforced on a fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning

64. A reinforcer is a consequence that __________ a behavior, while a punisher is a consequence that __________ a behavior. A) motivates; stimulates B) weakens; strengthens Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. C) inhibits; motivates D) strengthens; weakens Correct. A reinforcer may be thought of as a reward that strengthens a given behavior, while a punisher weakens that action. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning % correct 82 a = 12 b = 6 c = 0 d = 82 r = .28 65. A negative reinforcer occurs when a stimulus is __________ and therefore __________ the probability of a response. A) removed; increases B) removed; decreases C) presented; increases D) presented; decreases Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning 66. Bill hates to clean up after dinner. One night, he volunteers to bathe the dog before cleaning up. When he finishes with the dog and returns to the kitchen, his wife has cleaned everything up for him. Which of the following statements is accurate? A) In the future, Bill will start cleaning up the kitchen before he bathes the dog. B) Bill’s wife has positively reinforced him for bathing the dog. Incorrect. Positive reinforcement would occur if Bill’s wife gave him something to reward him for bathing the dog, but in this case she removed something unpleasant—his having to do the dishes. C) Bill’s wife has negatively reinforced him for bathing the dog. Correct. Bill’s wife negatively reinforced him for bathing the dog by removing something unpleasant—the task of cleaning up the kitchen. D) Bill’s wife has established bathing the dog as a secondary reinforcer. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning

67. Allowing a child to "skip" a homework assignment if she completes 5 word problems during class represents both __________ reinforcement and a __________ schedule of reinforcement. A) negative; fixed ratio Correct. In this case, the homework pass allows the child to avoid an unpleasant activity, and is associated with completing a specific number of tasks. Therefore, it demonstrates negative reinforcement and a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement. B) positive; variable ratio C) negative; variable ratio Incorrect. The reinforcement is indeed negative, but it is a fixed ratio because it is contingent upon a specific number of activities (completing 5 word problems). D) positive; fixed interval Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. & 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Topic: Operant Conditioning 68. Which of the following will weaken the likelihood of behavior reoccurring in the future? A) positive punishment B) negative reinforcement C) positive reinforcement D) negative punishment Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning 69. Which of the following will weaken the likelihood of behavior reoccurring in the future? A) positive punishment B) negative punishment C) positive reinforcement D) negative reinforcement Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.6 Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment Topic: Operant Conditioning

70. Punishment can be defined as any outcome __________. A) presented after a specific behavior that increases the likelihood of the behavior reoccurring B) presented after a specific behavior that decreases the likelihood of the behavior reoccurring C) presented before a specific behavior that increases the likelihood of the behavior reoccurring D) presented before a specific behavior that decreases the likelihood of the behavior reoccurring Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning % correct 94 a = 6 b = 94 c = 0 d = 0 r = .53 71. A stimulus presented to a person or animal that weakens the probability of a particular response is known as __________. A) positive punishment B) negative punishment C) negative reinforcement D) positive reinforcement Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning 72. If parents handle discipline by employing mainly a positive punishment approach, it can be assumed that they are interested in __________. A) teaching appropriate behaviors to their children through negative reinforcement Incorrect. Although negative reinforcement and punishment are frequently confused with each other, they are not the same thing. B) both eliminating bad behaviors and reinforcing good behaviors C) teaching appropriate behaviors to their children through positive reinforcement D) eliminating bad behaviors by presenting unpleasant consequences after bad behavior Correct. Punishment is defined as a technique that is used to discourage inappropriate behaviors from being repeated in the future. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning

73. When a stimulus is removed from a person or animal, resulting in a decrease in the probability of response, it is known as __________. A) positive punishment B) negative punishment C) positive reinforcement D) negative reinforcement Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning 74. Olivia is punished for spilling her cereal. Her parents give her a spanking and send her to her room where she cries. Later, her puppy makes a mess on the floor. Olivia kicks her puppy and puts it out in the yard where it whines sadly. Olivia’s behavior toward the puppy is a result of __________. A) correctly applying Skinnerian principles of negative reinforcement to change her dog’s behavior Incorrect. Olivia’s punishment led her to be aggressive. In any case, kicking the dog outside is punishment and not negative reinforcement. B) using negative punishment on her dog and it will change the dog’s behavior C) using vicarious punishment on her dog and it will change the dog’s behavior D) modeling the aggressive behavior her parents demonstrated to her Correct. Olivia is modeling the aggressive behavior, and that is a problem with punishment. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning

75. Research into the effects of “physical punishment” (e.g., spanking a child) has found that such discipline is associated with more behavioral problems in children. Reading these findings, you might be tempted to tell your parents, “See, I told you that if you spanked me you would regret it!” Which of the six principles of scientific thinking are you forgetting in this instance? A) correlation vs. causation Correct. Don’t ever forget that “correlation does not imply causation.” In short, this means that just because two events are related does not mean that one causes the other. It is just as likely that the behavior problems caused a greater number of spankings in the research participants. B) falsifiability C) replicability D) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. There is nothing in this question that addresses the concept of Occam’s Razor. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning 76. Research on spanking and aggression reveals that increased spanking __________. A) causes increased aggression in children B) causes decreased aggression in children C) is associated with higher levels of aggression in children from countries where spanking is rare D) is associated with higher levels of aggression in children from countries where spanking is common Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning 77. A discriminative stimulus is a stimulus that __________. A) provides the organism with a cue that making any of several responses will lead to reinforcement B) leads a person to discriminate against one group of people based on ethnicity or race C) cues the person into which schedule of reinforcement is being used in operant conditioning D) signals the presence of reinforcement Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning

78. A __________ stimulus is one that signals the presence of reinforcement. A) primary B) discriminative C) secondary D) generalized Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning 79. An example of a discriminative stimulus might be __________. A) a stop sign Correct. A stop sign is a discriminative stimulus because one has to determine the different response that a stop sign should elicit when compared to all other signs. B) the stimulus that acts as a UCS in classical conditioning C) the white rat in Watson’s Little Albert study of producing phobias Incorrect. The rat did not have to be picked from a set of other stimuli and, thus, was not a discriminative stimulus. A stop sign is a discriminative stimulus because one has to decide what to do from all the other signs. D) a salivating dog in Pavlov’s laboratory Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning 80. Extinction in operant conditioning involves __________. A) negative reinforcement Incorrect. The goal of reinforcement is to strengthen, not weaken, a target behavior. B) positive reinforcement C) negative punishment D) withholding reinforcement Correct. When reinforcement is withheld, behaviors tend to stop. This is the definition of extinction in operant conditioning. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning

81. Bob has learned that he can usually get what he wants from his parents if he keeps whining for something. One day Bob starts whining in the toy store because he wants a GI Joe action figure. His father refuses to give it to him and ignores his whining. What will happen? A) generalization B) extinction Correct. The whining will extinguish because the behavior is not being reinforced. C) spontaneous recovery Incorrect. The behavior will extinguish. It might show spontaneous recovery later after Bob’s father extinguishes his behavior, but the initial situation as presented will lead to extinction. D) negative reinforcement Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning % correct 70 a = 6 b = 70 c = 0 d = 24 r = .32 82. Julie is expected to cut the lawn weekly. Her parents only give her money once in a while after she cuts the lawn. Julie is being conditioned using a __________ schedule of reinforcement. A) continuous B) partial Correct. Because the reinforcer is not received after every action, this demonstrates partial reinforcement. C) classical D) fixed ratio Incorrect. If Julie received money after cutting the lawn a specific number of times in a predictable fashion, this would demonstrate a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Topic: Operant Conditioning

83. Learned behavior is less prone to extinction if it is conditioned by __________ reinforcement. A) partial Correct. Partial, or intermittent, reinforcement is more resistant to extinction than is continuous reinforcement. B) negative C) delayed D) continuous Incorrect. Continuous reinforcement is more likely to become extinguished than is partial, or intermittent, reinforcement. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Topic: Operant Conditioning % correct 38 a = 38 b = 10 c = 9 d = 38 r = .38 84. Which of the following statements is TRUE about operant conditioning? A) Neither partial nor continuous reinforcement leads to behaviors that will persist for long periods of time. B) Continuous reinforcement leads to behaviors that will persist longer than behavior learned through partial or intermittent reinforcement. Incorrect. Continuous reinforcement leads to very quick extinction as the animal or subject quickly learns the conditioning contingency is no longer operative. Extinction is delayed by partial reinforcement. C) Partial reinforcement leads to behaviors that will persist longer than behavior learned through continuous reinforcement. Correct. Partial reinforcement leads to behaviors that persist longer as the subject keeps looking for eventual reinforcement. D) Continuous reinforcement and partial reinforcement lead to behaviors that persist for equally long periods of time. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Topic: Operant Conditioning 85. Which of the following is TRUE concerning intermittent schedules of reinforcement? A) Interval schedules yield higher rates of responding as compared to ratio schedules. B) Ratio schedules yield higher rates of responding as compared to interval schedules. C) Fixed schedules yield higher rates of responding as compared to variable schedules. D) Variable schedules yield higher rates of responding as compared to fixed schedules. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Topic: Operant Conditioning Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

86. If a student’s final grade improves one letter grade for every three books he or she reads, this represents which schedule of reinforcement? A) fixed interval B) fixed ratio Correct. A reward is received after a specific number of behaviors have occurred. This demonstrates a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement. C) variable interval D) variable ratio Incorrect. If the number of books read were changing and not constant in order to receive the grade improvement, this would demonstrate a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Topic: Operant Conditioning 87. Omar and Patrick sell magazine subscriptions by telephone. Omar is paid $1.00 for every 5 calls he makes, while Patrick is paid $1.00 for every subscription he sells. Omar is paid on a __________ schedule while Patrick is paid on a __________ schedule. A) fixed ratio; variable ratio Correct. Because Omar knows who get one dollar for every five calls he makes, this demonstrates fixed ratio reinforcement. Because Patrick doesn’t know how many calls he’ll have to make before he makes a sale, he is getting paid on a variable ratio schedule. B) fixed ratio; fixed interval C) variable ratio; fixed ratio D) fixed ratio; variable interval Incorrect. Omar is getting paid on a fixed ratio schedule, but because Patrick doesn’t know how many calls he’ll have to make before he makes a sale, he is getting paid on a variable ratio schedule. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Topic: Operant Conditioning

88. Most employees work eight hours per day from Monday through Friday and are paid once every two weeks. This is a __________ schedule of reinforcement. A) fixed interval Correct. Because employees know that they’ll get paid after a specific amount of time has passed, this demonstrates a fixed interval schedule of reinforcement. B) fixed ratio Incorrect. In this question the employees’ pay is based on the passage of time, not based on the repetition of a specific behavior. This demonstrates a fixed interval, not fixed ratio, schedule of reinforcement. C) variable interval D) variable ratio Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Topic: Operant Conditioning 89. A fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement involves giving reinforcement after a __________. A) varied amount of time has elapsed B) specific amount of time has elapsed C) specific number of responses has occurred D) varied number of responses has occurred Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Topic: Operant Conditioning 90. Julie works at a job where she is paid a fee for each sale she makes rather than an hourly salary. She is a good salesperson but never knows when she will make her next sale. This means that her salary reflects a __________ schedule of reinforcement. A) variable interval B) variable ratio Correct. Because Julie does not know when she will make sales, and does not know how many customers she will have to interact with before she makes a sale, this demonstrates variable ratio reinforcement. C) fixed interval D) fixed ratio Incorrect. If Julie had been told that she would receive a specific amount of pay for a specific number of sale attempts, this would demonstrate a fixed ratio schedule of partial reinforcement. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Topic: Operant Conditioning

91. Which of the partial schedules produces the highest rates of responding? A) fixed interval B) fixed ratio C) variable interval D) variable ratio Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Topic: Operant Conditioning 92. An example of chaining is teaching a child to play tennis by __________. A) reinforcing them for effort and then pulling away from reinforcement once the child is skilled enough to play the complete game of tennis Incorrect. This answer would demonstrate the concept of fading, not chaining. B) reinforcing them for effort and not performance until the child is confident enough to play the complete game of tennis C) providing reinforcement every time the child hits the ball over the net until able to play the complete game of tennis D) providing reinforcement in steps for learning to serve, volley, and use the forehand and backhand until the child can play the complete game of tennis Correct. Chaining occurs when a number of interrelated behaviors are strung together to form a longer series. That is what is demonstrated in this case. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning 93. Which of the following is TRUE concerning operant conditioning principles? A) Chaining involves reinforcing behaviors that come closer to the target behavior. B) Fading involves gradually decreasing the frequency of reinforcement for “not-exactly-right” behaviors. C) Shaping involves delivering punishment for unwanted behaviors. D) Chaining involves the shaping of the behavior by use of punishment and reinforcement. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning

94. Mary’s parents want her to put her books in her bookcase. At first, they praise her for putting the books together in one pile. Then they praise her for getting the books on the same side of the room as the bookcase. When she gets the books on top of the bookcase, she gets praise. Finally, her parents praise her when she puts her books in the bookcase. This is an example of __________. A) negative reinforcement Incorrect. Negative reinforcement involves terminating an unpleasant stimulus. B) punishment C) extinction D) shaping Correct. Mary is given praise for every step that gets her closer to the desired behavior, a process called shaping. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning % correct 82 a = 6 b = 12 c = 0 d = 82 r = .24 95. An animal trainer is trying to teach a lion to perform tricks for circus. First the lion is given food if he sits quietly on a chair. Next the lion is given food if he raises one paw. Finally the lion is given even more food if he gives the trainer a “high-five.” In this example, the lion is being trained by __________. A) negative reinforcement Incorrect. Negative reinforcement involves terminating an unpleasant stimulus. B) generalization C) punishment D) shaping Correct. The lion is given praise for every step that gets him closer to the desired behavior, a process called shaping. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning

96. __________ is an operant-conditioning procedure in which actions are reinforced as they get closer and closer to a particular target behavior. A) Shaping B) Spontaneous recovery C) Stimulus generalization D) Stimulus discrimination Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning 97. Which of the following represents the findings of David Premack? A) prohibiting a child from having ice cream because he/she did not eat his/her vegetables B) allowing a child to have ice cream only if he/she eats his/her vegetables Correct. Premack found that it is possible to positively reinforce a less frequently performed behavior with a more frequently performed behavior. C) allowing a child to have ice cream even if he/she does not eat his/her vegetables Incorrect. Premack’s findings would not apply to this answer because it does not involve increasing the appearance of a less frequent they performed behavior. D) allowing the child to have an extra ice cream cone if he/she dislikes the first cone Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning 98. Which theorist noted that it is possible to positively reinforce a less frequently performed behavior with one that is more frequently performed? A) Honzik B) Thorndike Incorrect. Thorndike is noted for having postulated the law of effect. C) Flynn D) Premack Correct. This is sometimes called the Premack Principle. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning

99. A __________ reinforcer is any reward that naturally increases the frequency of a target behavior. A) primary B) negative C) positive D) secondary Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning 100. Kelsey just told her family a really funny joke that she made up herself. In order to use a primary reinforcer to encourage her in her joke-telling, Kelsey’s dad might __________. A) offer her money B) applaud her appropriate behavior C) offer her praise for a job well done Incorrect. Praise is not a biologically based necessity, such as food or drink. D) offer her a piece of candy Correct. A primary reinforcer is one that relates to food, drink, shelter, touch, or other biologicallybased necessities. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning 101. __________ is an example of a primary reinforcer, whereas __________ is an example of a secondary reinforcer. A) A cupcake; a certificate of achievement given to a student Correct. A cupcake is a type of food, which is naturally reinforcing. A certificate is a reward whose value must be learned; therefore, it is a secondary reinforcer. B) A kiss; money C) Water; food D) A gold star; cupcake Incorrect. A gold star is an example of a secondary reinforcer, whereas a cupcake is an example of a primary reinforcer. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning

102. Of the following, which would NOT be an example of a secondary reinforcer? A) food B) stickers C) praise D) tokens Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning 103. When Bobby is hungry, thirsty, and tired, he resolves this by getting food, water, and sleep. These are examples of __________ reinforcers. A) primary Correct. Primary reinforcers are those that are naturally rewarding. B) secondary Incorrect. Secondary reinforcers are those whose value must be learned, or acquired. The reinforcers in this example are things that are naturally rewarding on their own. C) intermittent D) partial Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning 104. A __________ reinforcer, such as money or praise, gets its value through an association with a __________ reinforcer. A) positive; negative Incorrect. Both positive and negative reinforcers can be primary or secondary. This is not the best answer. B) natural; artificial C) secondary; primary Correct. Secondary reinforcers get their value through an association with a primary reinforcer that is naturally rewarding on its own. D) secondary; artificial Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning

105. Token economies are reinforcement-based strategies that use points, tokens, and chips as __________ reinforcers. A) secondary Correct. As your textbook chapter notes, secondary reinforcers often get their value by becoming associated with primary reinforcers. B) primary Incorrect. Because none of these things—points, tokens, or chips—are naturally reinforcing, they would be examples of secondary reinforcers. C) negative D) neutral Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning 106. It is TRUE that token economies __________. A) work best when conditioning behavior over short periods of time B) work effectively when transferring behaviors learned in an institutional setting to the outside world Incorrect. Some research has found that this is the opposite of reality; in fact, some behaviors learned in an institutional setting do not effectively transfer to the outside world. C) have proven to be ineffective when used with those suffering from mental illness D) have proven to be effective in conditioning behavior in hospitals, group homes, and juvenile detention centers Correct. These are all settings where a token economy has proven to be effective. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning 107. Applied behavior analysis (ABA) has been used with children diagnosed with autism. The basic principle of this form of behavior modification is __________. A) partial reinforcement Incorrect. The basic principle is shaping because you need to slowly change the behavior of such children, as they are not capable of more extensive behavioral changes. B) classical conditioning C) negative punishment D) shaping Correct. The basic principle is shaping because you need small changes that are within the child’s capacity to implement. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning

108. A leading researcher and clinician in the treatment of autism is Ivar Lovaas, who claimed that the use of ABA (applied behavior analysis) with children diagnosed with autism led to increased language and intellectual skills. Others have argued that his intervention was not nearly as effective as he suggested, but rather that some of his participants were simply higher functioning to begin with. This alternate interpretation of Lovaas’s results is a demonstration of which of the six principles of scientific thinking? A) falsifiability B) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. Searching out alternate explanations for research/clinical findings demonstrates the principle of ruling out rival hypotheses. This is an essential part of any scientific examination. C) correlation vs. correlation Incorrect. There is no indication of a correlation/causation error in this particular question. D) extraordinary claims Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning 109. Regarding the two-processes of operant and classical conditioning, which is TRUE? A) Phobias are likely caused by classical conditioning maintained by operant conditioning. Correct. The idea is that the initial pairing of stimuli causes the phobia (classical conditioning) and then avoidance of the phobic trigger leads to negative reinforcement (operant conditioning). B) Concerning brain imaging scans, phobias are based largely in the frontal lobes. C) Concerning brain imaging scans, phobias are based largely in the temporal lobes. D) Phobias are likely caused by operant conditioning and maintained by classical conditioning. Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning

110. Many cognitive psychologists spend the majority of their careers studying the intricacies of human thought, asking and attempting to answer questions about the various processes we use to acquire knowledge and information from the world around us. B. F. Skinner, on the other hand, felt that thinking was merely another learned behavior, and that it was relatively useless to explore it as a process of any true depth. Skinner’s simplification of the process of thinking demonstrates which of the six principles of scientific thinking? A) Occam’s Razor Correct. Occam’s Razor explores answers in the simplest manner possible, which is reminiscent of the views Skinner had about thinking. B) correlation vs. causation C) replicability Incorrect. This question does not specify any issue related to the repeating of research to support or disconfirm its findings. D) extraordinary claims Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 111. In S-O-R learning, what does the “O” stand for? A) operant B) observation C) organism D) obfuscation Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 112. S-O-R psychology adds the concept of __________ into the complex recipe of learning, suggesting that our thought processes intercede in what would otherwise be an automatic process. A) expectations Correct. It is the expectation of what results individual behaviors will lead to that separates S-O-R psychology from older, more traditional, learning theories. B) spirituality C) emotions D) research Incorrect. Research is an important facet of all learning theories of psychology, not just S-O-R psychology. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning

113. The concept of latent learning was developed by __________. A) Watson B) Skinner C) Tolman D) Thorndike Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 114. Learning that is not directly and immediately observable is called __________. A) insight B) innate learning C) vicarious learning D) latent learning Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 115. The case of learning in the absence of reinforcement is demonstrated by studies of __________. A) latent learning B) generalization C) spontaneous recovery D) extinction Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 116. In Tolman and Honzik’s classic study of latent learning, it is true that the rats A) were able to learn even when they were not receiving reinforcement. B) learned when receiving punishment but not when receiving reinforcement. C) were not able to learn if reinforcement was withheld for long periods of time. D) learned only when reinforcement was presented immediately following behavior. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning

117. Studies of latent learning emphasize the importance of __________ on learning. A) reinforcement Incorrect. The fact is that studies in latent learning have demonstrated learning processes taking place even in the absence of direct or immediate reinforcement. B) experience C) cognitive processes Correct. Latent learning demonstrated that specific thought processes were active even when overt behaviors were not being demonstrated. D) punishment Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 118. Sarah has just received her drivers’ license and is now ready to drive to school. Although she’s never driven to her school before, Sarah knows the way. The fact that Sarah can drive herself to school suggests that __________ has occurred. A) latent learning Correct. Sarah is demonstrating that she learned this route before she actually used that knowledge. This is the concept of latent learning. B) classical conditioning C) operant conditioning Incorrect. Sarah’s demonstration of learning significantly after the learning took place is an example of latent learning. D) classical and operant conditioning Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning

119. You spend days wandering aimlessly around a park with many different paths that end at different parts of the park. One day when you arrive at the park, you get a call on your cell phone from your cousin whom you haven’t seen for years, and she says she is waiting for you in a particular section of the park. Even though the paths are complicated and twisted, you manage to find the shortest route to your cousin. Tolman would explain your efficient passage through the park as an example of __________. A) insight Incorrect. Tolman postulated that such an example would be due to the formation of a cognitive map. Cognitive maps were his explanation of latent learning effects. B) the formation of a cognitive map Correct. Tolman postulated the concept of the cognitive map, which was in marked contrast to the behaviorist views of the time. C) unconscious trial-and-error imagery D) higher-order conditioning Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 120. A __________ is a mental representation of how a physical space is laid out or organized. A) diathetical blueprint B) mental diagram C) internal schematic D) cognitive map Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 121. You wake up at 3:00 a.m., craving a glass of water. You get out of bed and walk to the kitchen but you do not turn on the light. Your ability to successfully navigate the house in the dark is due to the presence of __________. A) a cognitive map Correct. A cognitive map is a spatial representation of a given area that we keep in our minds. B) vicarious learning C) insight learning D) sleep learning Incorrect. Sleep learning, which has received very little research support, has nothing to do with this ability. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning

122. The main difference between observational learning and operant conditioning is that observational learning uses ___________. A) mainly punishment to condition behavior as compared to operant conditioning, which uses both reinforcement and punishment B) mainly reinforcement to condition behavior as compared to operant conditioning, which uses both reinforcement and punishment C) different schedules of punishment and reinforcement to condition behaviors as compared to operant conditioning D) punishment and reinforcement of models to condition the behaviors of observers Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 123. Which of the following is the best example of observational learning? A) Greg hears on the radio that a huge storm is blowing in, so he cancels his trip. B) After several hours of staring at the computer screen, Marley suddenly realizes the solution to the puzzle he is trying to solve. Incorrect. This is a demonstration of insight learning, not observational learning. C) Carey figures out if she doesn’t give her boss a hard time, he’s a lot nicer to be around. D) Ingrid swam poorly until she noticed the efficient stroke of the man in the next lane; now her swimming is greatly improved. Correct. This demonstrates the concepts of observational learning, and specifically the modeling effect, because Ingrid repeated a behavior that she observed in another. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning % correct 91 a = 3 b = 6 c = 0 d = 91 r = .25 % correct 88 a = 0 b = 0 c = 12 d = 88 r = .23

124. John sees others being praised for using good penmanship and now he attempts to use good penmanship. This behavior is reflective of __________ learning. A) observational Correct. Because John is first observing another’s behaviors, and then repeating the behaviors, this demonstrates observational learning. B) conditional Incorrect. There is no such theory as conditional learning discussed in this chapter. C) stimulus response D) stimulus organism response Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning % correct 94 a = 94 b = 3 c = 3 d = 0 r = .22 125. Which of the following theories provides the safest strategies for teaching a child to cross a busy street? A) operant conditioning Incorrect. Operant conditioning can be used to reinforce safe strategies for crossing a street, but the safest strategy would be observational learning. B) observational learning Correct. In this example, a child can watch an appropriate behavior without the risk associated in first performing that task. C) classical conditioning D) stimulus organism response Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 126. Which of the following is TRUE concerning Bandura’s classic “Bobo doll” study? A) Exposure to aggressive models led to increased aggression in nursery school children. B) Exposure to aggressive models did not influence levels of aggression in nursery school children. C) Exposure to aggressive models led to decreased levels of aggression in nursery school children. D) Exposure to nonaggressive models led to decreased levels of aggression in nursery school children. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning % correct 87 a = 87 b = 3 c = 0 d = 10 r = .28

127. Albert Bandura and his colleagues were able to get the same findings in their observational learning research when children watched aggressive models on film as they did when children watched aggressive models in person. This lent additional support for Bandura’s claims that observational learning represents a significant process by which certain behaviors are acquired. This demonstrates the critical thinking concept of __________. A) extraordinary claims B) correlation versus causation C) falsifiability Incorrect. In this example, the repeated research lent more weight, not doubt, to the findings of the original studies. D) replicability Correct. When the research is repeated with similar findings, replication has taken place. This strengthens the validity of the original research. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 128. Many people believe that research has provided conclusive evidence that watching violent television or playing violent video games causes children to behave in more aggressive ways. Others have suggested that this relationship is explained in reverse—that children who are more aggressive actively seek out more violent forms of media. This distinction demonstrates the value of remembering the critical thinking concept of __________. A) correlation versus causation Correct. A relationship between the two variables does not necessarily demonstrate the direction of cause and effect between them. B) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. In this case, there are multiple possible explanations for a phenomenon, which does not support the Occam’s Razor concept. C) falsifiability D) extraordinary claims Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning

129. Researchers studying the effects of television violence on aggression have found that media violence may cause aggression in children __________. A) but this is difficult to substantiate because correlational studies used to investigate this link are low in internal validity Correct. This statement represents the findings but also the limitations of this research. B) because most children who watch violent television programs display aggressive personality types Incorrect. Research has not consistently found that the type of personality a child has dictates the type of television he or she watches. C) because high correlations exist between media viewing and amounts of violence viewed and aggressive behaviors D) because most correlational studies used to investigate this link have been high in internal validity Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 130. According to research, which of the following groups of individuals is most likely to act aggressively in adulthood? A) females who watched a lot of violent television as children B) males who watched a lot of violent television as children C) females who watched a moderate amount of violent television as children D) males who watched a moderate amount of violent television as children Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 131. Which type of neuron becomes active when we engage in observational learning? A) motor neuron B) sensory neuron C) mirror neuron D) receiving neuron Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning

132. Who is best known for studying the phenomenon of insight in animals? A) Wolfgang Köhler B) Edward Tolman C) E. L. Thorndike D) Albert Bandura Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3b Identify evidence of insight learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 133. The sudden appearance of an answer to a question or puzzle after having contemplated the issue for a period of time illustrates __________. A) latent learning B) observational learning C) insight learning D) modeling Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3b Identify evidence of insight learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 134. You need to remove a broken light bulb from a lamp. Without a pair of gloves, you are likely to cut yourself on the jagged glass. Suddenly, it occurs to you that you can use a cut potato to remove the light bulb from the socket. You have just demonstrated __________. A) S-O-R learning B) a cognitive map C) latent learning Incorrect. The “aha!” experience, or sudden realization, is known as insight learning. Latent learning was an effect studied by Tolman. D) insight learning Correct. You have just demonstrated insight learning similar to Kohler’s chimps. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.3b Identify evidence of insight learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning

135. The “aha!” experience is known as __________. A) insight learning B) latent learning C) cognitive restructuring D) S-O-R learning Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3b Identify evidence of insight learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 136. Which of the following statements regarding conditioned taste aversions is TRUE? A) Repeated pairings between the CS and UCS are needed in order to establish a conditioned taste aversion. B) Conditioned taste aversions can be induced in human beings, but not in lower animals. C) The delay between the CS and UCS in a conditioned tasted aversion can be as long as 6 or even 8 hours. D) Conditioned taste aversions tend to be remarkably general, where an entire type of food will be found distasteful even after only one specific food causes an illness. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Topic: Biological Influences on Learning 137. Which of the following is reflective of Seligman’s research on conditioned taste aversion? A) Once a taste aversion has been conditioned, it is relatively easily to extinguish. B) Repeated pairings of the CS with the UCS are needed to produce a taste aversion. C) Contrary to most classically conditioned reactions, only one pairing of the CS with the UCS is needed to produce a taste aversion. D) If a taste aversion to mayonnaise has emerged, it is likely that an aversion to other creamy sauces will emerge. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Topic: Biological Influences on Learning

138. Last month, Walter became sick after eating two chili dogs, so he no longer likes chili dogs. Walter has experienced __________. A) blocking B) conditioned taste aversion Correct. Taste aversion is the term for a learned aversion to a particular food based on a previous bad experience with that food. C) operant conditioning Incorrect. Operant conditioning relates to voluntary behavior, whereas a taste aversion, such as the one Walter experienced, is an involuntary response. D) non-contingent conditioning Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Topic: Biological Influences on Learning % correct 44 a = 9 b = 44 c = 44 d = 3 r = .66 139. A farmer is being troubled by coyotes eating his sheep. In an attempt to solve the problem, he kills a sheep and laces its body with a nausea-inducing drug. He leaves the sheep out where he knows the coyotes roam. He hopes they will learn not to eat the sheep. The farmer is attempting to apply the principle of __________ to accomplish this. A) latent learning Incorrect. Latent learning has occurred when an animal or person seems not to learn something but later demonstrates the learned behavior in question. In this example, the farmer is attempting to cause a conditioned taste aversion in local coyotes to protect his sheep. B) S-O-R learning C) conditioned taste aversions Correct. The farmer hopes that the taste of the sheep will evoke a conditioned response. D) insight learning Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Topic: Biological Influences on Learning % correct 70 a = 13 b = 11 c = 70 d = 6 r = .40 % correct 82 a = 6 b = 0 c = 82 d = 6 r = .55

140. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between a CS and a UCS when discussing conditioned taste aversions? A) The delay between the CS and the UCS can be as long as six or even eight hours. Correct. This is a correct statement, and seems to be unique to the classical conditioning effect of conditioned taste aversions. Ordinarily the CS and UCS must appear very close together in order for classical conditioning to occur. B) The CS must immediately precede the UCS or the conditioning will not take place. C) The UCS and the CS must be paired together several times for the conditioning to take place. D) The CS will lead to a great amount of stimulus generalization because the UCS will be similar to many different stimuli. Incorrect. Research into conditioned taste aversions has found that stimulus generalization tends not to occur. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Topic: Biological Influences on Learning 141. The concept of equipotentiality suggests which of the following? A) The setting where conditioning occurs is unrelated to the success with which the conditioning will be accomplished. B) All conditioned responses will equally predict all unconditioned responses. C) All conditioned stimuli can be equally conditioned to all unconditioned stimuli. D) Conditioning can only occur in settings that are familiar to the organism being conditioned. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Topic: Biological Influences on Learning 142. Which of the following terms suggests that it is possible to condition all conditioned stimuli equally well to all unconditioned stimuli? A) simulus generalization B) shaping of successive approximations C) equipotentiality D) stimulus discrimination Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Topic: Biological Influences on Learning

143. Which theorist is responsible for suggesting that the distribution of phobias in the human population can be explained by biological preparedness? A) Breland B) Garcia C) Seligman D) Tolman Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Topic: Biological Influences on Learning 144. Which of the following terms refers to the fact that animals and human beings may be evolutionarily predisposed to fear certain stimuli that threaten their survival? A) instinctive drift B) construct survival C) emotional aversions D) preparedness Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Topic: Biological Influences on Learning 145. Researchers exploring the concept of biological preparedness have not been able to consistently find that fear is acquired faster to a prepared stimulus than it is to an unprepared stimulus. This lack of research consistency is a problem for which of the six principles of scientific thinking? A) falsifiability B) replicability Correct. Research findings that are consistent from study to study are considered replicable. In this case, the lack of consistency in the research is a problem of replicability. C) Occam’s Razor D) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. There are no alternate hypotheses suggested in this question. The lack of one consistent finding is an issue of replicability. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Topic: Biological Influences on Learning

146. The early work into the phenomenon called instinctive drift was performed by __________. A) Reinhard Conrad B) Marian and Keller Breland C) Mineka and Michael Cook D) Insoo Kim Berg Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Topic: Biological Influences on Learning 147. When Keller and Marian Breland decided to train raccoons to drop tokens into a piggy bank, they found that __________. A) food was not an effective reinforcer for the raccoons, and so learning didn’t occur B) when given edible roots as reinforcers, the raccoons learned the task in less than ten trials C) the raccoons displayed instinctive drift by rubbing the coins together, dropping them, and rubbing them together again Correct. Despite Skinner’s views, the raccoons had some built-in behaviors that came to demonstrate the principle of instinctive drift. D) the raccoons showed intrinsic interest in the task and so reinforcement was unnecessary Incorrect. Reinforcement was necessary to make the behaviors occur. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Topic: Biological Influences on Learning 148. A behavioral psychologist tries to train a bird to climb a tree to get a reward of a piece of fruit. At first, the bird learns how to climb the tree with its legs and beak. After a while, it starts flapping its wings and hopping around before it starts to climb. Eventually, the bird flies up to the piece of fruit, even though the use of its wings prevents it from being reinforced with the fruit. According to the Brelands’ analysis of biological constraints, the bird is demonstrating __________. A) response generalization B) a reversion to behavior that was instinctual for it Correct. The Brelands discovered that animals revert to instinctual behavior in gathering food, a phenomenon they called instinctive drift. C) the law of effect Incorrect. The law of effect was proposed by Thorndike; because the bird isn’t getting the fruit, that principle is not applicable here. D) stimulus discrimination Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Topic: Biological Influences on Learning Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

149. The tendency for animals to return to innate behaviors following repeated reinforcement is called __________. A) equipotentiality B) instinctive drift C) SALTT D) discovery learning Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Topic: Biological Influences on Learning 150. Lanissa has decided that the best way to study for her upcoming chemistry exam is to read the formulas she needs to memorize into an mp3 file on her computer, upload it to her mp3 player, and listen to it while she sleeps. She has read that it is possible to learn vast amounts of information while asleep. Unfortunately, Lanissa does not realize that there is no scientific evidence to support the concept of sleep-assisted learning. With which of the six principles of scientific thinking does Lanissa need to become familiar? A) Occam’s Razor B) ruling out rival hypotheses C) replicability Incorrect. In fact, research demonstrating the efficacy of sleep-assisted learning has not been impressive, and has had no replicable results. D) extraordinary claims Correct. The idea of sleep-assisted learning is particularly attractive to those who do not like spending their time studying, but there is no real evidence to suggest that we can absorb information in this manner. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning. Topic: Learning Fads: Do They Work? % correct 56 a = 10 b = 6 c = 28 d = 56 r = .40 151. Which of the following statements concerning sleep learning is TRUE? A) Sleep learning studies confirm that we can learn languages while we sleep. B) Sleep learning tapes work because we actively process information while we sleep. C) Sleep learning tapes work because we are likely not asleep the entire time they listen to the tapes. D) Most evidence from studies on sleep learning suggests that it is an effective learning strategy. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning. Topic: Learning Fads: Do They Work?

152. Early studies into the effectiveness of “sleep learning” tapes suggested that learning could indeed occur if a tape was played while a subject was asleep. These studies failed, however, to monitor the electrical activity of the participants’ brains, and thus did not consider the possibility that the tapes had actually awakened these individuals. This alternative explanation for the findings is consistent with the critical thinking concept of __________. A) extraordinary claims B) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. There was an alternate suggestion to why certain findings were achieved, and this demonstrates the value of examining other explanations for a given finding. C) replicability Incorrect. This answer does not speak to the need for repeated research to verify one’s findings. D) correlation versus causation Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning. Topic: Learning Fads: Do They Work? 153. Which of the following is TRUE concerning Accelerated Learning techniques? A) Playing classical music for students appears to increase their rates of learning. B) Asking students to visualize information that they are learning appears to increase their rates of learning. C) Students who employ relaxed breathing techniques appear to learn more quickly than those students who do not use these techniques. D) Research concerning suggestive learning techniques does not provide strong evidence supporting the effectiveness of these techniques. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning. Topic: Learning Fads: Do They Work? 154. What does SALTT stand for? A) Suggestive Accelerative Learning and Teaching Techniques B) Symbiotic Approach to Learning Tactile Techniques C) Supplemental Administrative Learning and Teaching Tools D) Shared Authority for Learning Times Tables Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning. Topic: Learning Fads: Do They Work?

155. A learning strategy called Suggestive Accelerative Learning and Teaching Techniques has suggested that people using this method can learn anywhere from 25 to several hundred times their normal learning speeds. When this set of techniques is subjected to scientific scrutiny, however, such results are not achieved. Which critical thinking concept should this bring to mind? A) Occam’s Razor B) replicability Incorrect. In fact, the results promised were never supported by research, so it would not be possible to replicate such findings. C) extraordinary claims Correct. The amazing results promised by this method are not supported by the achieved results in research, and thus they should be taken with a great amount of caution. D) correlation versus causation Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning. Topic: Learning Fads: Do They Work? 156. According to the research of David Klahr, what type of instruction/learning results in the greatest and most immediate ability to solve problems? A) discovery learning B) accelerated learning C) direct instruction D) vicarious learning Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning Topic: Learning Fads: Do They Work? 157. Which of the following is an example of discovery learning? A) a teacher individually assisting a student with a problem set B) a student serving as a skilled assistant who teaches another student Incorrect. This describes a form of mentoring, not discovery learning. C) a student working independently on a science project Correct. In this circumstance, the student is given the opportunity to figure out the answer on their own. This is discovery learning. D) a student scoring well on a re-test after scoring low the first time Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning Topic: Learning Fads: Do They Work?

158. An individual’s preferred or optimal method of acquiring new information is called their __________. A) investigative modality B) input matrix C) acquisition mode D) learning style Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning Topic: Learning Fads: Do They Work? 159. Which of the following is most representative of research concerning learning styles? A) Certain teaching approaches seem to work best irrespective of the learning style that an individual student has. B) Most students have a specific learning style and teachers should tailor instruction to the individual student based on their learning style. C) Visual learners are not likely to enjoy tasks that involve analytical skills. D) Linguistic learners are likely to struggle with tasks that involve mathematical skills. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning Topic: Learning Fads: Do They Work? 160. The research into the usefulness of considering an individual’s learning style has found which of the following? A) Certain teaching approaches tend to be the most effective irrespective of individual learning styles. B) The visual learning style is most predictive of academic success. C) People who have kinesthetic learning styles are less likely to do well in a classroom than people with visual or auditory learning styles. D) People who have a read/write learning style tend to have higher “analytic intelligence,” which in turn predicts more academic success at the college level. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning Topic: Learning Fads: Do They Work?

Fill-in-the-Blank 1. __________ is credited with developing the theory of classical conditioning. Answer: Ivan Pavlov Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning 2. In Pavlov’s classic salivating dog experiment, meat powder was the __________ stimulus. Answer: unconditioned Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning 3. In classical conditioning, the CR and the __________ are usually the same. Answer: UCR (Some instructors may use the abbreviation UR.) Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1,1 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning 4. The paradigm used to demonstrate Pavlov’s classical conditioning principles is applicable to just about any animal with an intact nervous system. This repeated evidence demonstrates the critical thinking skill of __________. Answer: replicability Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning 5. __________ is the term used to describe the situation in which a CS comes to elicit a CR. Answer: Acquisition Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning

6. The process by which a CS gradually loses its ability to produce a CR is called __________. Answer: extinction Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning 7. If a white rat is conditioned to produce fear in a child and then all white furry animals are feared by the child, __________ has occurred. Answer: stimulus generalization Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Topic: Classical Conditioning 8. Marketing executives use __________ conditioning when they employ celebrities to sell products. Answer: classical Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1c Explain how complex behaviors can result from classical conditioning and how they emerge in our daily lives. Topic: Classical Conditioning 9. In Watson’s study involving “Little Albert,” a __________ was the CS. Answer: white rat Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1c Explain how complex behaviors can result from classical conditioning and how they emerge in our daily lives. Topic: Classical Conditioning 10. Thorndike’s __________ asserts that rewards following behavior lead to increased production of the behavior. Answer: law of effect Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2b Describe Thorndike’s law of effect. Topic: Operant Conditioning

11. __________ is most closely associated with developing the theory of operant conditioning. Answer: B. F. Skinner Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning 12. Allowing students with “A” averages exemptions from taking a final exam is an example of __________ reinforcement. Answer: negative Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning 13. __________ increases the likelihood of behavior being repeated, while __________ decreases the likelihood of behavior being repeated. Answer: Reinforcement; punishment Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning 14. The schedule of reinforcement described as being most resistant to extinction is __________. Answer: partial (or intermittent) Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Topic: Operant Conditioning 15. A teacher states that all students who complete 5 word problems by the end of class will be exempt from homework. The teacher is using a __________ schedule of reinforcement. Answer: fixed ratio Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Topic: Operant Conditioning

16. Employees who work 40 hours per week are most likely to be paid on a __________ schedule. Answer: fixed interval Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Topic: Operant Conditioning 17. While shooting craps one night, Eli got a big payoff on a roll of the dice after hopping on one foot prior to the roll. For years since, he has hopped on one foot before shooting dice at the craps table, and is convinced that this will bring him luck. Eli has been influenced by a(n) __________. Answer: superstition Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Topic: Operant Conditioning 18. Most token economy conditioning strategies use chips, tokens, or points as __________ reinforcers. Answer: secondary Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning 19. Food and water are examples of __________ reinforcers. Answer: primary Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning 20. If Sam is afraid of spiders, the two-process theory suggests that his fear of spiders is the result of __________ conditioning and this fear is maintained by __________ conditioning. Answer: classical; operant Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Topic: Operant Conditioning

21. __________ was an advocate of radical behaviorism. Answer: B. F. Skinner Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 22. __________ uses the principles of operant conditioning with the addition of models being reinforced and punished. Answer: Observational learning Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 23. __________ suggested that aggression is learned by watching aggressive models. Answer: Bandura Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 24. The activity of mirror neurons is most salient in a discussion of __________ learning. Answer: observational Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning 25. Conditioned taste aversions result from only one pairing of the __________ and __________. Answer: CS; UCS Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning

Essay 1. Using classical conditioning, describe how you would train a three-year-old to safely cross the street. Be sure to identify the CS, UCS, CR, and UCR. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. CS is street, UCS are loud car horns, CR is fear and looking both ways, UCR is fear and looking both ways. Child approaches the busy street (CS) and cars beep loudly (UCS) as child nears the curb. The child becomes startled and looks both ways (UCR and CR). After several pairings of CS and UCS, the child naturally looks both ways when nearing the busy street. Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning 2. Describe how you would condition a child who is afraid of cats to enjoy playing with a neighbor’s cat using ice cream. Answer: The cat is the CS and ice cream is the UCS. Each time the child plays with the cat, the parents take the child out for ice cream. After several pairings of the CS with the UCS, the child may develop positive feelings for the cat. Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Topic: Classical Conditioning 3. Describe how a parent could use operant conditioning to motivate their 9th grade child to move from a “C” student to an “A” student. Discuss positive and negative reinforcement, punishment, and schedules of reinforcement that you would employ. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. Positive reinforcement would consist of increased allowance or the promise of new electronic games or CDs and presents in the form of gift cards for improved grades. Negative reinforcement would consist of periodic removal of chores and early bedtimes, and periodic removal of restrictions on television viewing during the week. Fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement would be used such that for each .5 improvement in overall GPA, the child will be given various combinations of reinforcements listed above: 2.0–2.5 (reinforcement), 2.5–3.0 (reinforcement), 3.0–3.5 (reinforcement), and 3.5–4.0 (reinforcement). Punishment in the form of increased restrictions placed on television viewing, increased chores, suspended allowance, and restrictions placed on electronic games. Punishments will occur if grades fall under a C average. Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment.; 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Topic: Operant Conditioning

4. If you owned a business and needed to increase worker productivity, describe how you would do so using operant conditioning. Outline the reinforcers that you would use and the schedules of reinforcement that you would use. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. A fixed ratio schedule would be used to set the level of productivity that was needed, and all workers achieving the appropriate level of productivity would be paid bonuses if this productivity lasted more than 2–3 months. Other reinforcers for top producers would include salary increases, promotions, extra vacation time, and time off for increased productivity over 3–5 months. Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment.; 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Topic: Operant Conditioning 5. Provide information in support of an argument that there is a biological basis for observational learning. Answer: Answers will vary but should focus on the existence and activity of mirror neurons. Research has found that there is a group of neurons in the prefrontal cortex, near the motor cortex, that show greater activity when monkeys watch other monkeys engage in an action. These are called mirror neurons, and they do not activate in the same way when non-active events are observed. Therefore, there is something related to watching others engage in actions that activate parts of the observers brains. This mirror neuron system, or at least a similar one, has also been identified in human beings using neuroimaging techniques. The exact nature of what those neurons do in humans has yet to be uncovered, but the presence of such systems in higher animals and possibly human beings suggests a biological component to learning by observation. Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning Critical Thinking 1. Suppose a student uses inappropriate language in class. Describe how you would attempt to change this student’s behavior using positive or negative reinforcement. Answer: The student can be praised, offered points, or given privileges if he or she does not use inappropriate language or if there is a decrease in the use of inappropriate language (positive reinforcement). The student could be given an exemption from undesirable tasks if his or her language decreases. For example, homework passes or classroom chores can be removed if the student’s language improves (negative reinforcement). Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior, and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Topic: Operant Conditioning

2. Describe the similarities and differences between operant conditioning theory and classical conditioning theory. Answer: Similarities: Both types of learning involve a relationship between behaviors (responses) and stimuli. Both types of learning address the concepts of acquisition, extinction, spontaneous recovery, generalization, and discrimination. Both types of learning involve, to various degrees, the will of the actor (that is to say, we are not simply programmable robots who are governed by pure stimulus-response relationships). Both forms of learning can be used to alter behaviors and can be used to (partially) explain the development of different types of psychological disorder (e.g., phobias, anxiety disorders, etc.). Differences: Classical conditioning shows a stimulus-response relationship, while operant conditioning involves a response-stimulus relationship. Different types of learning may invoke activity in different areas of the brain. Classical conditioning largely focuses on the spreading of reflexive behavior while operant conditioning focuses on voluntary (volitional) behavior. Commonalities: It does appear that both processes can be used in concert with each other to cause and sustain certain psychological events. The two-process model used to explain phobias involves both classical and operant conditioning. Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Topic: Cognitive Models of Learning

CHAPTER 6: LEARNING ________________________________________________________________________ Definitions of Learning 1. The process by which experience or practice results in a relatively permanent change in behavior or potential behavior is known as __________. a. learning b. intelligence formation c. imprinting d. cognition Answer a % correct 89 a= 89 b= 2 c= 5 d= 4 r = .40 2. Learning is a process by which experience results in __________. a. acquisition of motivation b. relatively permanent behavior change c. amplification of sensory stimuli d. delayed genetic behavioral contributions Answer b % correct 80 a= 10 b= 80 c= 10 d= 0 r = .25 3. By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, the presentation of the meat was the: a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. Answer a % correct 88 a= 88 b= 3 c= 7 d= r = .42 4. An experiment finds that a certain male subject always has an increased heartbeat when he hears a certain piece of music. The experimenter sounds a buzzer and then plays the piece of music. The experimenter repeats this procedure until the man responds with an increased heartbeat to the sound of the buzzer alone. In this situation the UNCONDITIONED response is the: a. increased heartbeat. b. piece of music. c. sound of the buzzer. d. listening to the music. Answer a % correct 81 a= 86 b= 6 c= 4 d= 9 r = .23 5. Many individuals decide that they feel hungry and eat lunch when they see both hands of the clock on the 12, indicating that it is noontime. This may occur regardless of how recently they ate breakfast. In this example, the conditioned response is: a. the act of eating breakfast. b. the act of eating lunch. c. the counting of the number of hours since breakfast. d.watching of the hands of the clock. Answer b % correct 79 a= 1 b= 79 c= 0 d= 20 r = .35

6. Some of the simplest and most basic learning, that involves the acquisition of fairly specific patterns of behaviors in the presence of well-defined stimuli is: a. motivation. b. cognitive dissonance. c. integration. d. conditioning. Answer d % correct 89 a= 3 b= 3 c= 4 d= 89 r = .30 7. Learning that is not manifested until some later time is called _________. a. manifest content b. latent content c. latent learning d. manifest learning Answer c % correct 91 a= 0 b= 4 c= 91 d= 5 r = .26 8. Which of the following statements about learning is TRUE? a. Learning can be directly observed and measured. b. Learning cannot be directly observed or measured, so performance is observed and learning is inferred based on what the person is able to do. c. The results of learning must immediately change behavior. d. none of the above Answer b % correct 81 a= 6 b= 81 c= 1 d= 12 r = .21 9. The process by which experience results in a relatively permanent change in what one is capable of doing is called: a. knowledge. b. intelligence. c. learning. d. performance. Answer c % correct 96 a= 1 b= 0 c= 96 d= 3 r = .24 10. Which of the following is an example of learning? a. The human brain continues to grow and develop after birth. b. A human male develops the capacity to produce sperm cells at puberty. c. Drinking coffee makes a person more aroused. d. A student does not swat at a wasp buzzing around her head. Answer d % correct 82 a= 11 b= 0 c= 7 d= 82 r = .26

Classical and Operant Theorists 11. Thorndike was known for his work with __________. a. a puzzle box b. modeling c. monkeys d. a Skinner box Answer a % correct 77 a= 77 b= 16 c= 4 d= 1 r = .29

12. In the experiment with Little Albert, the conditioned stimulus was __________. a. Albert b. the rat c. the loud noise d. the laboratory room Answer b % correct 63 a= 1 b= 63 c= 36 d= 0 r = .49 13. Ivan Pavlov is most closely associated with __________. a. vicarious learning b. the Law of Effect c. operant conditioning d. classical conditioning Answer d % correct 95 a= 0 b= 0 c= 5 d= 95 r = .27 14. Who was Little Albert? a. developer of the concept of classical conditioning b. an animal trained by using operant conditioning procedures c. creator of methods for teaching children d. a child who developed a fear as part of a demonstration of classical conditioning Answer d % correct 98 a= 0 b= 2 c= 0 d= 98 r = .25 15. The law of effect was proposed by __________. a. Thorndike b. Pavlov c. Watson d. Skinner Answer a % correct 60 a= 60 b= 7 c= 11 d= 20

r = .48

16. The person most directly associated with operant conditioning is ______. a. Pavlov b. Watson c. Thorndike d. Skinner Answer d % correct 81 a= 5 b= 8 c= 5 d= 81 r = .29 17. Classical is to _____ as operant is to _____. a. Pavlov; Skinner b. Skinner; Pavlov c. Pavlov; Watson d. Watson; Pavlov Answer a % correct 96 a= 96 b= 2 c= 1 d= 1

r = .33

18. Thorndike is to _______ as Skinner is to _______. a. reinforcement; law of effect b. law of effect; reinforcement c. reinforcement; punishment d. positive reinforcement; negative reinforcement Answer b % correct 79 a= 9 b= 79 c= 7 d= 5

r = .45

19. The law of effect was proposed by: a. Titchener. b. Watson. c. Skinner. d. Thorndike. Answer d % correct 49 a= 15 b= 9 c= 26 d= 49 20. Classical conditioning was discovered by: a. Pavlov. b. Watson. c. Thorndike. d. Skinner. Answer a % correct 88 a= 88 b= 1 c= 3 d= 8

r = .20

r = .30

21. We associate the name of _______ most closely with classical conditioning. a. B. F. Skinner b. Robert Rescorla c. Albert Bandura d. Ivan Pavlov Answer d % correct 95 a= 5 b= 0 c= 0 d= 95 r = .25 22. Thorndike conducted research on: a. operant conditioning. b. classical conditioning. c. shaping. d. higher-order conditioning. Answer a % correct 38 a= 38 b= 35 c= 23 d= 3

r = .40

23. Thorndike’s main apparatus in his operant conditioning research was: a. a wire monkey. b. a cognitive map. c. a puzzle box. d. a buzzer. Answer c % correct 65 a= 3 b= 19 c= 65 d= 13 r = .25 24. The “law of effect” was first proposed in the modern scientific community by: a. James. b. Skinner. c. Thorndike. d. Pavlov. Answer c % correct 83 a= 2 b= 14 c= 83 d= 1 r = .20 25. The person associated with the law of effect is _______. a. Watson b. Pavlov c. Skinner d. Thorndike Answer d % correct 64 a= 12 b= 10 c= 14 d= 64 r = .24

26. B. F. Skinner is known for his theory of: a. cognitive learning. b. intelligence. c. classical conditioning. d. operant conditioning. Answer d % correct 70 a= 19 b= 2 c= 8 d= 70

r = .35

27. The learning process studied in the Skinner box is known as: a. social learning. b. higher-order conditioning. c. cognitive learning. d. operant conditioning. Answer d % correct 85 a= 2 b= 5 c= 8 d= 85 r = .31 28. The apparatus that has come to symbolize the theory of operant conditioning is the: a. Rubik’s cube. b. Skinner box. c. Pavlov bell. d. Thorndike puzzle. Answer b % correct 84 a= 1 b= 84 c= 9 d= 5 r = .32 29. Classical is to _______ as operant is to _______. a. Pavlov; Skinner b. Skinner; Pavlov c. Pavlov; Watson d. Watson; Pavlov Answer a % correct 79 a= 79 b= 11 c= 9 d= 1

r = .41

Classical Conditioning 30. What must be paired together for classical conditioning to occur? a. unconditioned stimulus and unconditioned response b. conditioned response and unconditioned response c. neutral stimulus and unconditioned stimulus d. neutral stimulus and conditioned stimulus Answer c % correct 38 a= 38 b= 8 c= 38 d= 16 r = .43 31. Taste aversions seem to be specific examples of what type of learning? a. classical conditioning b. insight learning c. vicarious learning d. operant conditioning Answer a % correct 38 a= 38 b= 8 c= 7 d= 47 r = .20

32. When Ivan Pavlov presented meat powder, the dog salivated. The meat powder was the __________ and salivation was the __________. a. UCR, UCS b. UCS, UCR c. CS, CR d. CR, CS Answer b % correct 83 a= 2 b= 83 c= 15 d= 0 r = .34 33. By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, the ringing of the bell was the __________. a. unconditioned stimulus b. unconditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. conditioned response Answer c % correct 92 a= 5 b= 1 c= 92 d= 1 r = .22 34. Rachel has found that when she opens the cupboard door to get the cat food, the cats come running to the kitchen. Rachel knows that this is classical conditioning and that the conditioned stimulus is the __________. a. cat food b. cat c. running of the cats d. cupboard door opening Answer d % correct 93 a= 6 b= 0 c= 1 d= 93 r = .23 35. Which of the following illustrates an unconditioned stimulus (UCS)? a. blinking when air is blown into your eye b. blinking, when you hear your favorite song c. your favorite song d. a puff of air to your eye Answer d % correct 67 a= 24 b= 1 c= 7 d= 67 r = .23 36. A research participant hears a tone followed by a puff of air directed toward his eye. Later, he blinks when he hears the tone. Before ending the experiment, what could the researcher do in order to extinguish the blinking to that tone? a. present the tone alone repeatedly b. present the puff of air alone repeatedly c. increase the loudness of the tone d. increase the amount of air that is directed toward the eye Answer a % correct 81 a= 81 b= 17 c= 1 d= 1 r = .37 37. When Casey opens the closet door to get some dog food, her dog salivates. What is the conditioned stimulus in this example? a. dog food b. the cat running c. the sound of the closet door opening d. the dog Answer c % correct 94 a= 3 b= 0 c= 94 d= 3 r = .21

38. By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, the presentation of the meat was the __________. a. unconditioned stimulus b. unconditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. conditioned response Answer a % correct 74 a= 74 b= 4 c= 17 d= 4 r = .58 39. Rachel has found that when she opens the cupboard door to get the cat food, the cats come running to the kitchen. Rachel knows that this is classical conditioning and that the unconditioned stimulus is the __________. a. cat food b. cat c. running of the cats d. cupboard door opening Answer a % correct 74 a= 74 b= 0 c= 3 d= 23 r = .61 40. A kind of therapy closely related to classical conditioning is known as __________ therapy. a. desensitization b. conditioned c. psychoanalytic d. response Answer a % correct 61 a= 61 b= 14 c= 7 d= 18 r = .33 41. Which of the following statements about classical conditioning is true? a. Most classical conditioning requires repeated trials. b. One trial is usually enough for conditioning to occur. c. Learning will continue to increase indefinitely. d. Learning is more effective if trials follow each other very quickly. Answer a % correct 83 a= 83 b= 3 c= 6 d= 9 r = .25 42. New learning that works in the opposite direction from the original learning results in ________ . a. shaping b. generalization c. spontaneous recovery d. extinction Answer d % correct 66 a= 16 b= 12 c= 5 d= 66 r = .43 43. Instinctive or involuntary behavior would probably be BEST modified by ___________ . a. operant conditioning b. trial and error c. classical conditioning d. shaping Answer c % correct 57 a= 23 b= 3 c= 57 d= 16 r = .55

44. We associate the name of ___________ most closely with classical conditioning. a. B. F. Skinner b. Robert Rescorla c. Albert Bandura d. Ivan Pavlov Answer d % correct 99 a= 1 b= 0 c= 0 d= 99 r = .03 45. Rachel has found that when she opens up the cupboard door to get the cat food, the cats come running to the kitchen. Rachel knows that this is classical conditioning, that the unconditioned stimulus is the __________ and that the conditioned stimulus is the ___________. a. cat food; cupboard door opening b. kitchen; cat food c. cupboard door opening; cat food d. cat food; kitchen Answer a % correct 76 a= 76 b= 2 c= 20 d= 0 r = .26 46. In classical conditioning, the interstimulus interval refers to the amount of time between ________. a. learning trials b. extinction trials c. presentation of the conditioned stimulus and presentation of the unconditioned stimulus d. experimental sessions Answer c % correct 95 a= 2 b= 3 c= 95 d= 0 r = .24 47. Presenting the unconditioned stimulus before the conditioned stimulus is known as _________ conditioning. a. classical b. operant c. backward d. aversive Answer c % correct 52 a= 30 b= 6 c= 52 d= 11 r = .42 48. Little Albert (Watson, 1920) learned through classical conditioning to fear ______. a. brown cats b. black dogs c. white rats d. his mother Answer c % correct 97 a= 1 b= 1 c= 97 d= 1 r = .24 49. An automatic, innate, and involuntary response to an environmental events is an ________. a. UR b. reflexive response c. unconditioned response d. all of the above Answer d % correct 83 a= 4 b= 3 c= 10 d= 83 r = .31 50. In classical conditioning, when a neutral stimulus is paired with a stimulus that naturally elicits a response, the neutral stimulus eventually elicits a similar response or becomes a/an _______ stimulus. a. conditioned b. discriminative c. higher-order d. unconditioned Answer a % correct 77 a= 77 b= 2 c= 7 d= 15 r = .40

51. How does one know he/she has classically conditioned a person or an animal? a. The unconditioned stimulus all by itself elicits the unconditioned response. b. The unconditioned stimulus all by itself elicits the conditioned response. c. The conditioned stimulus all by itself elicits the conditioned response. d. The unconditioned response all by itself elicits the conditioned response. Answer c % correct 64 a= 11 b= 21 c= 64 d= 3 r = .35 52. Which of the following is an example of classical conditioning? a. A child learns to blink her eyes to a bell because the ringing of the bell has been followed by a puff of air to the eye. b. A pigeon learns to peck at a disk in a Skinner box to get food. c. Rich saw that when Donna banged her fist against a particular vending machine, she got a free soft drink, so now he bangs his fist against that machine when he wants a free soft drink. d. A monkey learns to escape from a cage. Answer a % correct 89 a= 89 b= 6 c= 3 d= 2 r = .47 53. Most young children put their hands over their ears when they hear the loud boom of firecrackers at a Fourth of July festival, but at first pay just scant attention to the person lighting the firecrackers. However, after just a few firecrackers have been exploded, some of the children put their hands over their ears as soon as they see the person approach the firecracker with a match! What is the unconditioned stimulus? a. the person lighting the firecrackers b. the loud booming sound made by the firecrackers c. the children putting their hands over their ears when they see the person about to light the firecrackers d. the children putting their hands over their ears when the firecrackers explode Answer b % correct 63 a= 26 b= 63 c= 8 d= 4 r = .41 54. Most young children put their hands over their ears when they hear the loud boom of firecrackers at a Fourth of July festival, but at first pay scant attention to the person lighting the firecrackers. However, after just a few firecrackers have been exploded, some of the children put their hands over their ears as soon as they see the person approach the firecracker with a match! What is the conditioned stimulus? a. the person lighting the firecrackers b. the loud booming sound made by the firecrackers c. the children putting their hands over their ears when they see the person about to light the firecrackers d. the children putting their hands over their ears when the firecrackers explode Answer a % correct 74 a= 74 b= 11 c= 15 d= 0 r = .36 55. Most young children put their hands over their ears when they hear the loud boom of firecrackers at a Fourth of July festival, but at first pay scant attention to the person lighting the firecrackers. However, after just a few firecrackers have been exploded, some of the children put their hands over their ears as soon as they see the person approach the firecracker with a match! What is the unconditioned response? a. the person lighting the firecrackers b. the loud booming sound made by the firecrackers c. the children putting their hands over their ears when they see the person about to light the firecrackers d. the children putting their hands over their ears when the firecrackers explode Answer d % correct 52 a= 6 b= 3 c= 38 d= 52 r = .47 56. Classical conditioning: a. is primarily concerned with reflexes. b. is primarily concerned with involuntary responses. c. is passive. d. all of the above Answer d % correct 69 a= 7 b= 22 c= 2 d= 69

r = .20

57. Bobby and Sue were parked at Lover’s Lane. When Bobby kissed Sue, his breathing accelerated. Sue always wore Chanel #5 when she went out with Bobby. Whenever Bobby smelled Chanel #5, he began to breathe faster. Sue’s kiss was the: a. UCS. b. UCR. c. CS. d. CR. Answer a % correct 76 a= 76 b= 8 c= 10 d= 4 r = .35 58. Bobby and Sue were parked at Lover’s Lane. When Bobby kissed Sue, his breathing accelerated. Sue always wore Chanel #5 when she went out with Bobby. Bobby’s accelerated breathing when he and Sue kissed is the: a. UCS. b. UCR. c. CS. d. CR. Answer b % correct 79 a= 2 b= 79 c= 2 d= 18 r = .34 59. Bobby and Sue were parked at Lover’s Lane. When Bobby kissed Sue, his breathing accelerated. Sue always wore Chanel #5 when she went out with Bobby. Chanel #5 is the: a. UCS. b. UCR. c. CS. d. CR. Answer c % correct 69 a= 26 b= 2 c= 69 d= 2 r = .33 60. Bobby and Sue were parked at Lover’s Lane. When Bobby kissed Sue, his breathing accelerated. Sue always wore Chanel #5 when she went out with Bobby. Bobby’s faster breathing rate when he smells Chanel #5 is the: a. UCS. b. UCR. c. CS. d. CR. Answer d % correct 70 a= 3 b= 20 c= 7 d= 70 r = .29 61. In classical conditioning, one must pair the _______ before conditioning can occur. a. UCS and CR b. UCS and CS c. CR and CS d. UCR and CR Answer b % correct 65 a= 15 b= 65 c= 15 d= 4 r = .45 62. Of the four basic elements of classical conditioning, the one the organism learns to respond to is the: a. UCS. b. UCR. c. CS. d. CR. Answer c % correct 69 a= 10 b= 3 c= 69 d= 18 r = .44

63. As she walked through her neighborhood, Jodie, a 6 year old girl, frequently saw a large brown dog. She repeatedly walked to the dog to pet it, but as her hand approached the animal, it barked and bit her. The bite was painful and caused her to cry. Now Jodie cries when she sees dogs of any color or size. In the example, the dog’s bark and bite is the: a. UCS. b. CS. c. UCR. d. CR. Answer a % correct 77 a= 77 b= 10 c= 1 d= 13 r = .40 64. As she walked through her neighborhood, Jodie, a 6-year-old girl, frequently saw a large brown dog. She repeatedly walked to the dog to pet it, but as her hand approached the animal, it barked and bit her. The bite was painful and caused her to cry. Now Jodie cries when she sees dogs of any color or size. Jodie’s crying when she sees dogs is the: a. UCS. b. CS. c. UCR. d. CR. Answer d % correct 92 a= 0 b= 6 c= 2 d= 92 r = .21 65. As she walked through her neighborhood, Jodie, a 6-year-old girl, frequently saw a large brown dog. She repeatedly walked to the dog to pet it, but as her hand approached the animal, it barked and bit her. The bite was painful and caused her to cry. Now Jodie cries when she sees dogs of any color or size. The sight of dogs is the: a. UCS. b. CS. c. UCR. d. CR. Answer b % correct 54 a= 18 b= 54 c= 8 d= 21 r = .53 66. Paul is coming down with the flu, but he eats spaghetti anyway and subsequently becomes violently ill. A month later he sees that spaghetti is being served in the dining hall and is overcome by nausea. What type of learning is illustrated by this episode? a. operant conditioning b. cognitive learning c. latent learning d. classical conditioning Answer d % correct 55 a= 19 b= 5 c= 21 d= 55 r = .44 67. In classical conditioning the stimulus that normally evokes an automatic response even without new learning is called the: a. conditioned stimulus. b. reflexive stimulus. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. orienting stimulus. Answer c % correct 84 a= 10 b= 5 c= 84 d= 0 r = .37

68. When Luke kissed Laura, her heart rate increased. Luke always wore Old Spice After Shave. Whenever Laura smelled Old Spice, her heart raced. Luke’s kiss was the: a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. Answer a % correct 71 a= 71 b= 3 c= 22 d= 4 r = .28 69. When Luke kisses Laura, her heart rate increases. Luke always wore Old Spice After Shave. Whenever Laura smelled Old Spice, her heart raced. Laura’s increased heart rate when Luke kissed her was the: a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. Answer b % correct 61 a= 5 b= 61 c= 4 d= 30 r = .41 70. When Luke kissed Laura, her heart rate increases. Luke always wore Old Spice After Shave. Whenever Laura smelled Old Spice thereafter, her heart raced. Old Spice After Shave was the: a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. Answer c % correct 80 a= 2 b= 11 c= 80 d= 6 r = .32 71. When Luke kissed Laura, her heart rate increased. Luke always wore Old Spice After Shave. Whenever Laura smelled Old Spice, her heart would race. Laura’s increased heart rate when she smelled Old Spice was the: a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. Answer d % correct 77 a= 11 b= 1 c= 11 d= 77 r = .39 72. In classical conditioning, one must be sure to pair the: a. US and CS. b. US and UR. c. CS and CR. d. CS and UR. Answer a % correct 72 a= 72 b= 6 c= 8 d= 14 r = .40 73. Pairing the US and CS is essential for _______ to occur. a. extinction b. classical conditioning c. operant conditioning d. shaping Answer b % correct 92 a= 1 b= 92 c= 4 d= 3 r = .31

74. By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, the presentation of the meat was the _______. a. unconditioned stimulus b. unconditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. conditioned response Answer a % correct 67 a= 3 b= 67 c= 6 d= 24 r = .35 75. By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, the ringing of the bell was the _______. a. unconditioned stimulus b. unconditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. conditioned response Answer c % correct 89 a= 7 b= 2 c= 89 d= 2 r = .33 76. By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, salivation to the meat was the _______. a. unconditioned stimulus b. unconditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. conditioned response Answer b % correct 74 a= 5 b= 74 c= 2 d= 19 r = .28 77. By pairing the ringing of a bell with the presentation of meat, Pavlov trained dogs to salivate to the sound of a bell even when no meat was presented. In this experiment, salivation to the meat was the _______. a. unconditioned stimulus b. unconditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. conditioned response Answer d % correct 79 a= 3 b= 16 c= 2 d= 79 r = .46 78. Rachel has found that when she opens up the cupboard door to get the cat food, the cats come running to the kitchen. Rachel knows that this is classical conditioning and that the unconditioned stimulus is the _______. a. cat food b. cats c. running of the cats d. cupboard door opening Answer a % correct 61 a= 61 b= 0 c= 6 d= 31 r = .49

79. An experimenter finds that a certain male subject always has an increased heartbeat when he sees a picture of a nude female. The experimenter sounds a buzzer and then presents such a picture. The experimenter repeats this procedure until the man responds with an increased heartbeat to the sound of the buzzer alone. In this situation the UNCONDITIONED response is the _______. a. increased heartbeat b. female’s picture c. sounds of the buzzer d. viewing of the picture Answer a % correct 79 a= 79 b= 10 c= 4 d= 7 r = .41 80. An experimenter finds that a certain male subject always has an increased heartbeat when he sees a picture of a nude female. The experimenter sounds a buzzer and then presents such a picture. The experimenter repeats this procedure until the man responds with an increased heartbeat to the sound of the buzzer alone. In this situation the CONDITIONED response is the ________. a. increased heartbeat b. nude female’s picture c. sounds of the buzzer d. viewing of the picture Answer a % correct 91 a= 91 b= 1 c= 6 d= 2 r = .21 81. In the experiment with Little Albert, the unconditioned stimulus was _______. a. the experimenter b. the laboratory c. the loud noise d. the rat Answer c % correct 57 a= 2 b= 4 c= 57 d= 37 r = .31 82. In the experiment with Little Albert, the conditioned stimulus was _______. a. the experimenter b. the laboratory c. the loud noise d. the rat Answer d % correct 49 a= 2 b= 0 c= 49 d= 49 r = .19 83. In the experiment with Little Albert, the unconditioned response was _______. a. fear of the loud noise b. fear of the rat c. fear of the experimenter d. fear of the laboratory Answer a % correct 66 a= 66 b= 31 c= 0 d= 2 r = .51 84. One of the best known examples of classical conditioning in humans was the Little Albert study, conducted by _______. a. Pavlov b. Freud c. Watson d. Skinner Answer c % correct 82 a= 5 b= 4 c= 82 d= 9 r = .25

85. In the classic study of fear conditioning in a human infant (the “Albert” experiment), what was the CS? a. the rat b. the rabbit c. the loud noise d. the crying response Answer a % correct 63 a= 63 b= 1 c= 34 d= 2 r = .39 86. In the classic study of fear conditioning in a human infant (the “Albert” experiment), what was the UCS? a. the rat b. the rabbit c. the loud noise d. the crying response Answer c % correct 66 a= 30 b= 3 c= 66 d= 1 r = .42 87. When a stimulus similar to the CS also elicits the CR, the phenomenon is called _______. a. stimulus discrimination b. stimulus generalization c. spontaneous recovery d. 2nd order conditioning Answer b % correct 85 a= 4 b= 85 c= 5 d= 6 r = .46 88. If a researcher presents the US first, then presents the CS, the pairing method used is _______. a. trace b. delayed c. simultaneous d. backward Answer d % correct 64 a= 9 b= 18 c= 9 d= 64 r = .23 89. Repeatedly presenting a CS by itself will result in ________. a. extinction b. spontaneous recovery c. stimulus discrimination d. stimulus generalization Answer a % correct 82 a= 82 b= 2 c= 11 d= 5 r = .43 90. As she walked through her neighborhood, Jodie, a 6-year-old girl, frequently saw a large brown dog. She repeatedly walked to the dog to pet it, but as her hand approached the animal, it barked and bit her. The bite was painful and caused her to cry. Now Jodie cries when she sees dogs of any color or size. Jodie’s crying when she sees dogs is the ________. a. US b. CS c. UR d. CR Answer d % correct 78 a= 2 b= 2 c= 18 d= 78 r = .26

Reinforcement 91. A grandmother gives her grandchild a cookie because the child cleaned up her room. What is the cookie in this example? a. conditioned response b. punisher c. positive reinforcer d. negative reinforcer Answer c % correct 99 a= 0 b= 0 c= 99 d= 1 r = .02 92. A negative reinforcer is a stimulus that is ________ and thus ________ the probability of a response. a. removed; increases b. presented; decreases c. removed; decreases d. presented; increases Answer a % correct 59 a= 59 b= 18 c= 15 d= 9 r = .45 93. Which of the following is an example of punishment? a. taking away a child's favorite toy for hitting another child b. removing a penalty you imposed on a child after he began acting better c. giving a child a star for telling a lie d. giving a child a cookie for cleaning her room Answer a % correct 98 a= 99 b= 0 c= 0 d= 1 r = .01 94. When you were first learning to make your bed, your parents told you that you did a good job when you got the bedspread pulled up, even though the bed was still a little messy. For the next week they showed you how to be a little neater each time you made the bed. What operant conditioning procedure did your parents use? a. generalization b. extinction c. shaping d. punishment Answer c % correct 97 a= 2 b= 1 c= 97 d= 0 r = .20 95. A child is praised for using his fork instead of his fingers to eat some spaghetti. This is an example of __________ reinforcement. a. positive b. extrinsic c. higher-order d. secondary Answer a % correct 86 a= 86 b= 0 c= 1 d= 13 r = .30 96. A reinforcer that removes something unpleasant from a situation is a __________. a. primary reinforcer b. positive reinforcer c. negative reinforcer d. secondary reinforcer Answer c % correct 85 a= 2 b= 11 c= 85 d= 1 r = .30

97. On a variable-interval schedule, reinforcement is given for the __________. a. first correct response after a fixed amount of time has passed b. first correct response after varying amounts of time have passed c. next correct response after a fixed number of responses have occurred d. next correct response after a varying number of responses have occurred Answer b % correct 72 a= 6 b= 72 c= 3 d= 18 r = .49 98. Elizabeth was given a $1000 raise after her last performance evaluation. Her raise is a: a. primary reinforcer. b. punisher. c. negative reinforcer. d. secondary reinforcer. Answer d % correct 60 a= 39 b= 0 c= 2 d= 60 r = .34 99. What has occurred when there is a decrease in the likelihood or rate of a target response? a. positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. punishment d. positive reinforcement Answer c % correct 64 a= 4 b= 29 c= 64 d= 2 r = .40 100. A positive reinforcer is a stimulus that is __________ and thus __________ the probability of a response. a. removed; decreases b. presented; increases c. presented; decreases d. removed; increases Answer b % correct 96 a= 2 b= 96 c= 1 d= 1 r = .26 101. Any event whose presence decreases the likelihood that ongoing behavior will recur is __________. a. a secondary reinforcer b. an aversive stimulus c. punishment d. negative reinforcement Answer c % correct 59 a= 6 b= 10 c= 59 d= 26 r = .47 102. Which of the following is a secondary reinforcer? a. a bar of candy b. warm, physical contact c. money d. a drink of water Answer c % correct 66 a= 12 b= 20 c= 66 d= 3

r = .25

103. Nagging someone to do something until they do it is an example of __________. a. negative reinforcement b. aversive conditioning c. punishment d. positive reinforcement Answer a % correct 61 a= 61 b= 29 c= 1 d= 9 r = .22

104. A reinforcer that adds something rewarding to a situation is called a(n) __________ reinforcer. a. positive b. additive c. primary d. secondary Answer a % correct 99 a= 99 b= 0 c= 0 d= 1 r = .05 105. On a fixed-ration schedule reinforcement is given ________ . a. for the first correct response after randomly varying amounts of time have passed b. for the next correct response after a fixed number of responses have been made c. for the first correct response after a fixed amount of time has passed d. for the next correct response after a varying number of responses have been made Answer b % correct 82 a= 3 b= 82 c= 14 d= 2 r = .44 106. On a fixed-interval schedule, reinforcement is given _______. a. for the first correct response after a fixed amount of time has passed b. for the first correct response after randomly varying amounts of time have passed c. for the next correct response after a fixed number of responses have been made d. for the next correct response after a varying number of responses have been made Answer a % correct 86 a= 86 b= 3 c= 10 d= 0 r = .30 107. On a variable-interval schedule, reinforcement is given _________ . a. for the first correct response after a fixed amount of time has passed b. for the first correct response after varying amounts of time have passed c. for the next correct response after a fixed number of responses have been made d. for the next correct response after a varying number of responses have been made Answer b % correct 84 a= 1 b= 84 c= 3 d= 13 r = .34 108. When someone uses negative reinforcement to change a behavior the behavior is likely to __________ . a. occur less frequently b. occur more frequently c. occur at the same rate d. completely stop Answer b % correct 53 a= 38 b= 53 c= 1 d= 9 r = .41 109. A camp leader repeatedly hugs a camper after she helps her friend. Each time, the camper is embarrassed and shies away from future acts of assistance. In the example, “Hugging the camper” is _______. a. a positive reinforcer b. a primary reinforcer c. a punishment d. none of the above Answer c % correct 34 a= 2 b= 8 c= 34 d= 56 r = .29

110. Mary arrives home to find her son washing the dirty dishes left from his party the night before. When she discovers his first-semester grade report on the table and sees that he got straight A’s, Mary rewards him by relieving him of the unpleasant task of finishing the dishes. Which operant process does the example illustrate? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. extinction d. punishment Answer b % correct 62 a= 34 b= 62 c= 4 d= 0 r = .41 111. Which of the following is an example of a primary reinforcer? a. water b. a thank-you letter c. a smile from a loved one d. money Answer a % correct 89 a= 89 b= 0 c= 5 d= 6 r = .53 112. Wearing sunglasses ALL THE TIME because people tell you they make you look “irresistible” is an example of which of the types of punishment and reinforcement? a. aversive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement d. response cost Answer c % correct 79 a= 12 b= 2 c= 79 d= 6 r = .40 113. Negative reinforcement is best thought of as: a. reinforcement for an undesirable activity. b. punishment. c. something that was predicted to serve as reinforcement but did not do so. d. stimuli whose termination or removal increases behavior. Answer d % correct 79 a= 10 b= 11 c= 0 d= 79 r = .52 114. Putting on sunglasses to relieve glare is an example of which type of punishment or reinforcement? a. aversive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement d. response cost Answer b % correct 34 a= 8 b= 34 c= 51 d= 5 r = .37 115. To avoid getting a headache, Lory always lets her dog outside when it sits by the door and howls. This is an example of which type of punishment or reinforcement? a. aversive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement d. response cost Answer b % correct 52 a= 8 b= 52 c= 38 d= 1 r = .36

116. Training a rat to push a lever to escape from an electric shock is an example of: a. aversive punishment. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive reinforcement. d. response cost. Answer b % correct 78 a= 12 b= 78 c= 9 d= 0 r = .31 117. Positive reinforcers: a. weaken behaviors they follow. b. are always learned. c. strengthen behaviors they follow. d. are always unlearned. Answer c % correct 96 a= 3 b= 1 c= 96 d= 0

r = .22

118. Which of the following statements about positive reinforcers is accurate? a. They are used in negative reinforcement. b. They weaken behaviors that they follow. c. They strengthen behaviors that they follow. d. They strengthen behaviors that lead to their removal. Answer c % correct 91 a= 1 b= 2 c= 91 d= 5 r = .33 119. If a positive reinforcer is added after a behavior and the behavior is strengthened/increased, the process used is called: a. negative reinforcement. b. positive reinforcement. c. extinction. d. punishment. Answer b % correct 93 a= 2 b= 93 c= 2 d= 3 r = .41 120. Mom and Dad think it is real funny, and laugh when their 2-year-old, Bruce, says dirty words. When Bruce is sent home from kindergarten because of swearing, they don't understand why he cusses. Now when he cusses at home they ignore the cussing (they don't think it's cute anymore). Laughing in this example is: a. positive reinforcer. b. a negative reinforcer. c. a primary reinforcer. d. a neutral stimulus. Answer a % correct 68 a= 68 b= 23 c= 9 d= 0 r = .36 121. Which of the following is NOT a negative reinforcer? a. turning off an electric shock b. giving a spanking c. removing a noxious odor d. silencing a banging door Answer b % correct 87 a= 3 b= 87 c= 3 d= 7 r = .42 122. Animals exposed to unavoidable, uncontrollable aversive stimulation exhibit _______ when later trained in an avoidance procedure. a. experimental neurosis b. better learning c. learned helplessness d. enhanced performance Answer c % correct 85 a= 5 b= 2 c= 85 d= 8 r = .40 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

123. Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? a. grades b. water c. money d. recognition Answer b % correct 53 a= 11 b= 53 c= 20 d= 16 124. Which of the following is a secondary reinforcer? a. water b. food c. grades d. physical support Answer c % correct 83 a= 1 b= 2 c= 83 d= 14

r = .33

r = .27

125. At the National Zoological Park in Washington, D.C., a polar bear suffered a broken tooth, and keepers needed a safe way of treating the problem. The bear was rewarded first for sticking its nose through a slot in the cage door, then for allowing a keeper to lift its lip and touch its teeth. Finally, a veterinarian was able to treat the damaged tooth while the bear waited placidly for its familiar reward. This is an example of _______. a. modeling b. shaping c. negative reinforcement d. secondary learning Answer b % correct 96 a= 1 b= 96 c= 0 d= 3 r = .20 126. Anything that increases the likelihood that a behavior will increase is called a(n) _______. a. aversive control b. punishment c. antecedent d. reinforcer Answer d % correct 97 a= 2 b= 0 c= 1 d= 97 r = .25 127. When someone uses negative reinforcement to change a behavior, the behavior is likely to ______. a. decrease b. increase c. remain the same d. completely stop Answer b % correct 42 a= 44 b= 42 c= 6 d= 8 r = .29 128. When someone uses punishment to change a behavior, the behavior is likely to ______. a. decrease b. increase c. remain the same d. generalize Answer a % correct 93 a= 93 b= 4 c= 1 d= 2 r = .27 129. Which of the following statements is true? a. Punishment does not always work. b. The effectiveness of punishment depends solely on its force. c. Punishment should be applied intermittently. d. Punishment usually enhances the learning process. Answer a % correct 75 a= 75 b= 3 c= 8 d= 14 r = .29

130. Which of the following statements about punishment is NOT true? a. Punishment does not always work. b. Rewards should always immediately follow punishments. c. Effective punishment is consistent punishment. d. In itself, punishment serves to inhibit responses. Answer b % correct 76 a= 7 b= 76 c= 11 d= 6 r = .26 131. A reinforcer that adds something rewarding to a situation is called a ________ reinforcer. a. positive b. negative c. primary d. secondary Answer a % correct 87 a= 87 b= 0 c= 9 d= 4 r = .21 132. A reinforcer that removes something unpleasant from a situation is called a ________ reinforcer. a. positive b. negative c. primary d. secondary Answer b % correct 80 a= 15 b= 80 c= 0 d= 5 r = .44 133. The 5-year-old of two very busy parents has been throwing tantrums. Whenever the child goes off the deep end, one or both of his parents immediately come to his side and fuss over and cajole him. Nevertheless, his tantrums do not diminish; they even seem to increase. We may assume that his parents’ fussing over him serves as a _______. a. negative reinforcer b. punisher c. positive reinforcer d. model Answer c % correct 70 a= 26 b= 1 c= 70 d= 3 r = .42 134. A child is scolded for using his fingers instead of his fork to eat some spaghetti. The scolding stops when he picks up his fork. This is an example of _______ reinforcement. a. positive b. negative c. tertiary d. secondary Answer b % correct 68 a= 30 b= 68 c= 0 d= 2 r = .36 135. Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? a. money b. a bar of candy c. a buzzer d. poker chips Answer b % correct 74 a= 21 b= 74 c= 3 d= 0

r = .55

136. Which of the following would be classified as a secondary reinforcer? a. a sandwich b. the word “good” c. reduction of pain d. a drink of soda Answer b % correct 74 a= 1 b= 74 c= 22 d= 3 r = .20 137. Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? a. a sandwich b. praise c. money d. grades Answer a % correct 77 a= 77 b= 15 c= 5 d= 3

r = .52

138. Electric shock, scoldings, and bad grades are: a. secondary reinforcers. b. primary reinforcers. c. aversive stimuli. d. conditioned stimuli. Answer c % correct 51 a= 28 b= 12 c= 51 d= 9

r = .30

139. The fact that a reward will increase the future likelihood of a response that produced it is known as: a. the discrimination principle. b. the law of practice. c. the law of effect. d. the Premack principle. Answer c % correct 78 a= 2 b= 0 c= 78 d= 20 r = .27 140. A woodchuck tries to crack a walnut shell in two different ways--with his paws and with his teeth. The last method worked and the first did not; hence, the woodchuck will be more likely to rely on his teeth for splitting the next nut. This observation illustrates the: a. the discrimination principle. b. the Law of Practice. c. the Law of Effect. d. the Premack principle. Answer c % correct 62 a= 21 b= 3 c= 62 d= 14 r = .24 141. When the removal of an event increases the likelihood of a prior response, _______ has occurred. a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment Answer b % correct 71 a= 10 b= 71 c= 10 d= 9 r = .49 142. The Internal Revenue Service threatens Sue with a penalty if she fails to pay her back taxes. She pays, and the threat is withdrawn. In the future, she is more prompt in meeting her obligation. This is an example of the use of _______ to control behavior. a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment Answer b % correct 61 a= 6 b= 61 c= 13 d= 20 r = .36

143. What is the typical dependent variable used in studies of the operant conditioning of lever pressing in rats? a. the number of responses per minute b. the cumulative record of lever presses c. the average intensity of lever presses d. none of the above Answer b % correct 58 a= 9 b= 58 c= 13 d= 20 r = .50 144. If a rat has learned to press a lever to obtain pellets of food and, all of a sudden, the response permanently ceases to produce any food, then _______ will occur. a. shaping b. discrimination c. generalization d. extinction Answer d % correct 94 a= 1 b= 3 c= 2 d= 94 r = .24 145. Which of the following is a conditioned positive reinforcer? a. money b. sex c. food d. warmth Answer a % correct 66 a= 66 b= 4 c= 20 d= 11 r = .47 146. The presentation of an aversive stimulus following a particular operant response is called: a. negative reinforcement. b. discrimination training. c. aversion conditioning. d. punishment. Answer d % correct 60 a= 21 b= 6 c= 13 d= 60 r = .38 147. Analogy: Negative reinforcement is to punishment as _______ is to _______. a. presenting; withdrawing b. withdrawing; presenting c. aversive; pleasant d. give; take Answer b % correct 67 a= 10 b= 67 c= 7 d= 16 r = .44 148. Which of the following is not a negative reinforcer? a. turning off an electric shock b. giving a spanking c. removing a noxious odor d. silencing a banging door Answer b % correct 89 a= 3 b= 89 c= 3 d= 5 r = .35 149. Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? a. grades b. water c. money d. recognition Answer b % correct 88 a= 3 b= 88 c= 5 d= 5

r = .46

150. Which of the following is a primary reinforcer? a. grades b. water c. money d. recognition Answer b % correct 74 a= 5 b= 74 c= 12 d= 8

r = .35

151. Billy throws rocks. Each time he throws a rock, he is immediately spanked. Spanking is a ________. a. positive reinforcer b. negative reinforcer c. secondary reinforcer d. punishment Answer d % correct 78 a= 5 b= 16 c= 0 d= 78 r = .42 152. Negative reinforcement is negative in the sense that: a. a consequence stimulus is delivered in a negative manner. b. it results in the removal of the behavior. c. the behavior results in the removal of a negative reinforcer. d. the behavior is decreased/weakened. Answer c % correct 50 a= 23 b= 15 c= 50 d= 12 r = .39 153. Aunt Bea gave Opie fried chicken livers every time he made his bed. Opie began making his bed more often than he used to. In this example, chicken livers are a _______ reinforcer. a. neutral b. negative c. secondary d. primary Answer d % correct 86 a= 2 b= 2 c= 10 d= 86 r = .26

Stimulus Generalization, Stimulus Discrimination, Extinction and Spontaneous Recovery 154 Which two learning processes seem to be opposites? a. acquisition and generalization b. discrimination and extinction c. discrimination and generalization d. acquisition and discrimination Answer c % correct 65 a= 9 b= 5 c= 65 d= 21 r = .52 155. Giving different responses to the same stimuli to which you were classically conditioned illustrates ____________ . a. response generalization b. spontaneous recovery c. stimulus generalization d. vicarious conditioning Answer a % correct 65 a= 65 b= 9 c= 13 d= 13 r = .42

156. A pigeon learns to peck only at a red disk. It will not peck at an identical disk of any other color. This illustrates the concept of ___________. a. extinction b. discrimination c. avoidance training d. desensitization Answer b % correct 82 a= 1 b= 82 c= 11 d= 6 r = .43 157. The process of presenting the conditioned stimulus alone so often that the learner no longer associates it with the unconditioned stimulus and stops making the conditioned response is called _________ . a. extinction b. generalization c. spontaneous recovery d. shaping Answer a % correct 91 a= 91 b= 4 c= 2 d= 3 r = .39 158. The process of learning to respond only to a single specific object or event is called _________ . a. extinction b. inhibition c. stimulus generalization d. discrimination Answer d % correct 81 a= 1 b= 5 c= 13 d= 81 r = .57 159. Reacting to a stimulus that is similar to the one you have learned to react to is called ___________ . a. stimulus generalization b. response generalization c. higher-order conditioning d. modeling Answer a % correct 72 a= 72 b= 21 c= 2 d= 4 r = .42 160. If a dog salivates when it sees a green light or a yellow light, it is exhibiting ________. a. generalization b. discrimination c. higher-order conditioning d. extinction Answer a % correct 71 a= 71 b= 6 c= 22 d= 1 r = .35 161. The spread of conditioning to stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus is called: a. associative linkage. b. generalization. c. higher-order conditioning. d. spontaneous recovery. Answer b % correct 70 a= 8 b= 70 c= 17 d= 4 r = .42 162. Of the following phenomena, which one best explains the spreading of phobias to objects similar to the one to which the phobia was originally acquired? a. discrimination b. extinction c. generalization d. spontaneous recovery Answer c % correct 89 a= 8 b= 1 c= 89 d= 2 r = .38

100

163. A small boy has just recently delighted his parents because he learned to call his father “daddy.” However, it has now become an embarrassment to his mother when she takes him out with her because he keeps calling other men “daddy.” This is an example of: a. associative linkage. b. generalization. c. higher-order conditioning. d. spontaneous recovery. Answer b % correct 83 a= 12 b= 83 c= 4 d= 0 r = .34 164. Once conditioning has been acquired, presenting just the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus produces: a. extinction. b. generalization. c. a new conditioned response. d. spontaneous recovery. Answer a % correct 45 a= 45 b= 18 c= 24 d= 12 r = .33 165. Repeatedly presenting a CS by itself will result in: a. extinction. b. spontaneous recovery. c. stimulus discrimination. d. stimulus generalization. Answer a % correct 76 a= 76 b= 5 c= 12 d= 7

r = .46

166. As she walked through her neighborhood, Jodie, a 6 year old girl, frequently saw a large brown dog. She repeatedly walked to the dog to pet it, but as her hand approached the animal, it barked and bit her. The bite was painful and caused her to cry. Now Jodie cries when she sees dogs of any color or size. Jodie now cries when she sees any dog, big or small, brown or black, etc. This illustrates which of the following? a. generalization b. discrimination c. extinction d. spontaneous recovery Answer a % correct 89 a= 89 b= 10 c= 0 d= 2 r = .30 167. When a CS is repeatedly presented by itself, ______ will occur. a. generalization b. discrimination c. extinction d. stimulus substitution Answer c % correct 81 a= 6 b= 8 c= 81 d= 5 r = .46 168. John’s heart has been conditioned to beat rapidly whenever he smells Windsong perfume on a woman. However, John’s heart also races when he smells Chanel #5 and other perfumes. This illustrates: a. stimulus generalization. b. discrimination. c. extinction. d. spontaneous recovery. Answer a % correct 91 a= 91 b= 7 c= 0 d= 2 r = .21

101

169. Stimulus discrimination: a. is a response followed by a reinforcer. b. occurs when responses are made to stimuli that are similar to the original CS. c. is the removal of a stimulus. d. occurs when responses are made to certain stimuli, but not to others. Answer d % correct 74 a= 0 b= 25 c= 1 d= 74 r = .34 170. The process of presenting the conditioned stimulus alone so often that the learner no longer associates it with the unconditioned stimulus and stops making the conditioned response is called _______. a. extinction b. generalization c. spontaneous recovery d. shaping Answer a % correct 86 a= 86 b= 3 c= 3 d= 8 r = .45 171. When a CR has been conditioned to a particular stimulus, the organism will also tend to make the CR in response to other stimuli. This phenomenon is called: a. discrimination. b. spread of effect. c. generalization. d. response shifting. Answer c % correct 93 a= 0 b= 4 c= 93 d= 3 r = .38 172. Spontaneous recovery: a. occurs before the pairing of the CS and US. b. occurs after a fixed interval schedule of reinforcement. c. is an unlearned response. d. can occur once a response has been extinguished. Answer d % correct 81 a= 4 b= 6 c= 9 d= 81 r = .38 173. Laura’s heart rate had been conditioned to increase whenever she smelled Old Spice After Shave. However, her heart would also race to the aroma of Brut and English Leather. This reaction is known as: a. shaping. b. stimulus generalization. c. operant conditioning. d. discrimination. Answer b % correct 93 a= 5 b= 93 c= 2 d= 1 r = .46 174. Stimulus generalization occurs: a. only when a response is followed by a reinforcer. b. only to those with a high capacity to learn. c. after extinction. d. when a conditioned response is elicited by stimuli similar to the CS. Answer d % correct 95 a= 3 b= 0 c= 2 d= 95 r = .22 175. This is the first exam you have ever taken in Professor Smith’s class. You know nothing about her tests, and she has never done anything harmful to you or anyone else. Nonetheless, you are anxious about the test. Your anxiety in this situation is an example of: a. generalization. b. discrimination. c. backward conditioning. d. none of the above. Answer a % correct 75 a= 75 b= 8 c= 8 d= 8 r = .47 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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176. Cody’s mouth waters when he sees Ball Park Franks, but not when he sees other brands of franks. This response is known as: a. extinction. b. discrimination. c. generalization. d. intelligence. Answer b % correct 96 a= 1 b= 96 c= 3 d= 0 r = .32 177. The opposite of stimulus generalization is: a. stimulus discrimination b. unconditioned stimulus. c. conditioned stimulus. d. response generalization. Answer a % correct 90 a= 90 b= 1 c= 0 d= 9

r = .32

178. Reacting to a stimulus that is similar to the one which you have learned to react is called _______. a. stimulus generalization b. response generalization c. higher-order conditioning d. modeling Answer a % correct 51 a= 51 b= 44 c= 2 d=3 r = .39 179. The process of learning to respond only to a single specific object or event is called _______. a. extinction b. inhibition c. stimulus generalization d. discrimination Answer d % correct 77 a= 2 b= 12 c= 9 d= 77 r = .45 180. A person is conditioned to fear white rats. Soon after, she also begins to fear white cats, white dogs, and white rabbits. Her new, unconditioned fears result from _______. a. modeling b. discrimination c. response generalization d. stimulus generalization Answer d % correct 82 a= 1 b= 5 c= 12 d= 82 r = .38 181. A person originally feared great heights, such as standing on top of tall buildings. Now the person has also developed fears of flying in airplanes, standing on ladders, and even watching high-wire artists perform. These new fears are probably the result of _______. a. modeling b. discrimination c. stimulus generalization d. response generalization Answer c % correct 63 a= 3 b= 4 c= 63 d=30 r = .27 182. A pigeon learns to peck only at a red disk. It will not peck at an identical disk of any other color. This illustrates the concept of _______. a. extinction b. discrimination c. avoidance training d. desensitization Answer b % correct 85 a= 1 b= 85 c= 9 d= 5 r = .32 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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183. A child who calls all four-legged animals “dogs” is exhibiting ______. a. simplification b. response generalization c. stimulus generalization d. equipotentiality Answer c % correct 44 a= 17 b= 39 c= 44 d= 0 r = .32 184. Being able to solve new problems faster because of previous experience with similar problems is called ________. a. rote behavior b. a learning set c. latent learning d. insight learning Answer b % correct 49 a= 1 b= 49 c= 26 d= 23 r = .56

Schedules of Reinforcement 185. You have a class in which you have a quiz every Friday. Your studying for quizzes is reinforced on what type of schedule? a. fixed ratio b. fixed interval c. variable ratio d. variable interval Answer b % correct 82 a= 13 b= 82 c= 1 d= 4 r = .23 186. Which schedule of reinforcement is programmed into slot machines? a. fixed ratio b. variable interval c. variable ratio d. fixed interval Answer c % correct 67 a= 7 b= 21 c= 67 d= 4 r = .40 187. According to the law of effect, a behavior is MOST likely to be stamped in, or repeated, when it is __________ . a. ignored b. preceded by reinforcement c. followed by reinforcement d. accompanied by a neutral stimulus Answer c % correct 96 a= 0 b= 1 c= 96 d= 3 r = .25 188. A reinforcer that removes something unpleasant from a situation is called a __________ reinforcer. a. positive b. negative c. primary d. secondary Answer b % correct 88 a= 11 b= 88 c= 0 d= 1 r = .47

104

189. A reinforcer that is reinforcing in and of itself is called a ________ reinforcer. a. direct b. delayed c. primary d. secondary Answer c % correct 92 a= 4 b= 1 c= 92 d= 3 r = .46 190. Research suggests that delayed reinforcement ____________ . a. is much more effective than immediate reinforcement b. is slightly more effective than immediate reinforcement c. is equally effective as immediate reinforcement d. is less effective than immediate reinforcement Answer d % correct 89 a= 7 b= 2 c= 0 d= 89 r = .23 191. Lila doesn’t like her psychology class because the instructor uses unannounced pop exams to test the class. As a result, she never knows when she will be tested. Her instructor is testing her on a __________ schedule. a. fixed-ratio b. fixed-interval c. variable-ratio d. variable-interval Answer d % correct 79 a= 0 b= 2 c= 17 d= 79 r = .23 192. Sandy’s favorite activity is to go to Las Vegas and play the slot machines. Her gambling behavior is being reinforced on a __________ schedule. a. fixed-ratio b. fixed-interval c. variable-ratio d. variable-interval Answer c % correct 65 a= 12 b= 11 c= 65 d= 13 r = .56 193. An animal is placed in a box with a bar and also a wire floor that can deliver a mild shock. The experimenter first sounds a buzzer, then a few seconds later turns on the shock. Pressing the bar after the buzzer sounds but before the shock is delivered will prevent the shock from occurring. This is an example of __________ . a. avoidance training b. modeling c. classical conditioning d. punishment learning Answer a % correct 81 a= 81 b= 0 c= 12 d= 7 r = .55 194. On a fixed-ratio schedule reinforcement is given _________ . a. for the first correct response after randomly varying amounts of time have passed b. for the next correct response after a fixed number of responses have been made c. for the first correct response after a fixed amount of time has passed d. for the next correct response after a varying number of responses have been made Answer b % correct 81 a= 1 b= 81 c= 18 d= 1 r = .32

105

195. On a variable-ratio schedule, reinforcement is given ________ . a. for the first correct response after a fixed amount of time has passed b. for the first correct response after varying amounts of time have passed c. for the next correct response after a fixed number of responses have been made d. for the next correct response after a varying number of responses have been made Answer d % correct 77 a= 1 b= 19 c= 3 d= 77 r = .37 196. Anything that increases the likelihood that a behavior will occur more frequently is called a(n) __________ . a. aversive control b. punishment c. antecedent d. reinforcer Answer d % correct 99 a= 1 b= 0 c= 0 d= 99 r = .26 197. The schedule of reinforcement that yields the slowest increase in a behavior and the fastest extinction of the behavior when the schedule is stopped is ________. a. variable ratio b. continuous reinforcement c. partial reinforcement d. fixed interval Answer b % correct 22 a= 30 b= 22 c= 29 d= 18 r = .20 198. Five-year-old Tommy is helping get ready for a family reunion at Thanksgiving by polishing the good silverware. If his mother gives him a dime for each piece he polishes, what kind of reinforcement schedule is she using? a. fixed interval b. fixed ratio c. variable interval d. variable ratio Answer b % correct 78 a= 17 b= 78 c= 2 d= 3 r = .45 199. Linda sees a sign on a farmer's fence that reads: HELP ME PICK STRAWBERRIES FOR EVERY 5 QUARTS YOU PICK, KEEP ONE FOR YOURSELF. If Linda decides to pick strawberries for this farmer, she would be under a _______ schedule of reinforcement. a. fixed interval b. fixed ratio c. variable interval d. variable ratio Answer b % correct 87 a= 8 b= 87 c= 1 d= 4 r = .24 200. A very high rate of responding is produced by a _______ schedule of reinforcement. a. fixed interval b. fixed ratio c. variable interval d. variable ratio Answer d % correct 36 a= 11 b= 29 c= 24 d= 36 r = .21

106

201. The only vending machine in your dorm is notorious for delivering its merchandise only occasionally when people put money in it. This is most similar to a _______ schedule of reinforcement. a. fixed interval b. fixed ratio c. variable interval d. variable ratio Answer d % correct 42 a= 2 b= 2 c= 54 d= 42 r = .45 202. Your professor has informed you at the beginning of the term that you will have eight tests—but they will all be unannounced. This is most similar to a _______ reinforcement schedule. a. fixed interval b. fixed ratio c. variable interval d. variable ratio Answer c % correct 71 a= 6 b= 5 c= 71 d= 17 r = .21 203. Gretta spends a lot of time at the race track betting on ponies, and occasionally she wins. The frequency of her betting is controlled by which of the following? a. fixed ratio schedules b. a continuous reinforcement schedule c. a partial schedule of reinforcement d. luck Answer c % correct 80 a= 7 b= 5 c= 80 d= 8 r = .32 204. An infant who is fed every four hours is on a schedule that is SIMILAR to which of the following? a. fixed ratio b. variable ratio c. fixed interval d. variable interval Answer c % correct 87 a= 10 b= 0 c= 87 d= 3 r = .42 205. A person receiving a monthly salary is on a: a. continuous reinforcement schedule. b. fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement. c. fixed-interval schedule of reinforcement. d. variable-ratio schedule of reinforcement. Answer c % correct 81 a= 7 b= 11 c= 81 d= 1

r = .32

206. On a fixed-ratio schedule, reinforcement is given ________. a. for correct responses after randomly varying amounts of time have passed b. after a specific number of responses are given c. for the first correct response after a specific amount of time has passed d. after a randomly varying number of responses are given Answer b % correct 79 a= 8 b= 79 c= 2 d= 11 r = .24 207. On a fixed-interval schedule, reinforcement is given ________. a. for the first correct response after a specific amount of time has passed b. for correct responses after randomly varying amounts of time have passed c. after a specific number of responses are given d. after a randomly varying number of responses are given Answer a % correct 74 a= 74 b= 8 c= 18 d= 0 r = .42

107

208. On a variable-interval schedule, reinforcement is given _______. a. for the first correct response after a specific amount of time has passed b. for correct responses after randomly varying amounts of time have passed c. after a specific number of responses are given d. after a randomly varying number of responses are given Answer b % correct 67 a= 13 b= 67 c= 3 d= 17 r = .35 209. Scott works at a job where he is paid a salary every 2 weeks. Scott is being reinforced on a _______ schedule. a. fixed-ratio b. fixed-interval c. variable-ratio d. variable-interval Answer b % correct 81 a= 15 b= 81 c= 1 d= 3 r = .25 210. Sandy’s favorite activity is to go to Las Vegas and play the slot machines. Her gambling behavior is being reinforced on a _______ schedule. a. fixed-ratio b. fixed-interval c. variable-ratio d. variable-interval Answer c % correct 48 a= 11 b= 8 c= 48 d= 33 r = .30 211. Perry works at a job where he is paid by commission. For every car Perry sells, he gets 10% of the profits. Perry is being reinforced on a _______ schedule. a. fixed-ratio b. fixed-interval c. variable-ratio d. variable-interval Answer a % correct 53 a= 53 b= 3 c= 32 d= 12 r = .33 212. Abigail is trying to figure out how she can BEST use employee pay to shape her employees’ behavior. She is worried about consistent behavior, not speed. Therefore, she is interested in getting a slow but steady rate of response from her workers. According to reinforcement principles, she should probably use a ________ schedule. a. fixed-ratio b. fixed-interval c. variable-ratio d. variable-interval Answer d % correct 48 a= 13 b= 10 c= 29 d= 48 r = .30 213. Abigail is trying to figure out how she can BEST use employee pay to shape her employees’ behavior. She is interested in short-term productivity (speed), not consistency, long-term productivity, or employee turnover. According to reinforcement theory, she should probably use a _______ schedule. a. fixed-ratio b. fixed-interval c. variable-ratio d. variable-interval Answer a % correct 32 a= 32 b= 20 c= 28 d= 21 r = .21

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214. If Billy was praised every fourth time he collected rocks without throwing them, his behavior would be on which schedule of reinforcement? a. variable ratio b. fixe d interval c. fixed ratio d. variable interval Answer c % correct 69 a= 4 b= 26 c= 69 d= 2 r = .35 215. Which schedule of reinforcement reinforces the first correct response after a constant interval of time has elapsed? a. fixed ratio b. variable ratio c. fixed interval d. variable interval Answer c % correct 82 a= 9 b= 1 c= 82 d= 8 r = .21

Operant Conditioning 216. An example of a behavior that is learned through operant conditioning is _____________. a. blinking in response to a flash of light b. studying in order to get a teacher's approval c. sneezing in response to dust d. pulling one's hand away from a flame Answer b % correct 72 a= 8 b= 72 c= 4 d= 16 r = .34 217. Emitted, voluntary behavior is BEST modified by _____________. a. operant conditioning b. trial and error c. classical conditioning d. extinction Answer a % correct 77 a= 77 b= 3 c= 14 d= 6 r = .37 218. Shaping is achieved through: a. discrimination training. b. generalization. c. higher-order conditioning. d. successive approximations. Answer d % correct 45 a= 24 b= 7 c= 23 d= 45

r = .55

219. To teach a tiger to jump through a flaming hoop, the tiger is first reinforced for jumping up on a certain pedestal, then for leaping from that pedestal to another. Next the tiger has to jump through a hoop between the pedestals to get the reward. Finally, the hoop is set afire and the tiger must jump through it to get the reward. This is an example of __________ . a. modeling b. shaping c. negative reinforcement d. secondary learning Answer b % correct 91 a= 4 b= 91 c= 1 d= 4 r = .33

109

220. A young girl is just learning to dress herself. At first, the parents call her a “big girl” just for putting on her clothes “frontwards,” even if they are not buttoned. Then, they call her a “big girl” if she tries to button them—even if the buttons are not in the right holes. Then, they call her a “big girl” only if she buttons them correctly. They have been using: a. discrimination. b. generalization. c. higher-order conditioning. d. successive approximation. Answer d % correct 45 a= 1 b= 3 c= 51 d= 45 r = .27 221. Operant conditioning assumes that: a. events that follow behavior affect whether the behavior is repeated in the future. b. one's mental processes (e.g., memory and perception) mediate what behaviors one does in a situation. c. voluntary behaviors are reflexive. d. one learns by watching others’ behavior. Answer a % correct 55 a= 55 b= 16 c= 10 d= 19 r = .47 222. Peggy wanted to teach her dog how to roll over. She tried giving him instructions, but it didn’t work. She tried waiting for him to roll over so she could reinforce the behavior, but she had to go to bed before the dog rolled. Finally, she began reinforcing the dog when it made behaviors that more closely resembled rolling over. At last, using _______, she was able to teach the dog to do the trick. a. shaping b. positive reinforcement c. positive reinforcers d. secondary reinforcers Answer a % correct 88 a= 88 b= 4 c= 4 d= 5 r = .48 223. Reinforcing behaviors that more closely resemble a final, terminal behavior is called: a. positive reinforcement. b. shaping. c. positive reinforcers. d. secondary reinforcers. Answer b % correct 88 a= 4 b= 88 c= 4 d= 3 r = .25 224. A procedure used to teach a whole behavior by first training its parts is called: a. higher order conditioning. b. shaping. c. modeling. d. response generalization. Answer b % correct 86 a= 6 b= 86 c= 7 d= 0 r = .39 225. Changing behavior through the reinforcement of partial responses is called _______. a. modeling b. shaping c. negative reinforcement d. classical conditioning Answer b % correct 88 a= 11 b= 88 c= 0 d= 1 r = .20

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Cognitive Learning Theory and Observational Learning 226. The type of learning that involves a sudden coming together of the elements of a situation so that the solution to a problem is instantly clear is __________. a. cognitive mapping b. vicarious learning c. latent learning d. insight Answer d % correct 68 a= 16 b= 5 c= 11 d= 68 r = .35 227. Which type of learning occurs when we observe other people act? a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. insight learning d. observational learning Answer d % correct 93 a= 1 b=2 c= 4 d= 93 r = .18 228. What do we call learning that has taken place but is not demonstrated? a. insight learning b. serial enumeration c. latent learning d. shaping Answer c % correct 73 a= 16 b= 0 c= 73 d= 7 r = .32 229. Learning that occurs but is not immediately reflected in a behavior change is called __________. a. vicarious learning b. innate learning c. latent learning d. insight Answer c % correct 63 a= 6 b= 28 c= 63 d= 1 r = .39 230. In a study on learning, the psychologist conducting the study seeks to explain the inner needs and desires that made learners pursue their goals. She is interested in the inner processes that result in learning. She is studying ___________ . a. neurophysiological learning b. primary learning c. secondary learning d. cognitive learning Answer d % correct 70 a= 7 b= 11 c= 11 d= 70 r = .33 231. The idea that for classical conditioning to occur, the presentation of the conditioned stimulus must tell you something about whether the unconditioned stimulus is going to occur is called ___________ theory. a. social learning b. contingency c. operant conditioning d. autonomic conditioning Answer b % correct 79 a= 6 b= 79 c= 9 d= 6 r = .37

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232. In Bandura’s classic (1965) study of children exposed to a film of an adult hitting a Bobo doll, __________ . a. children who saw the model punished learned to be more aggressive than children who say the model rewarded b. children who saw the model rewarded learned to be more aggressive than children who say the model punished c. children who saw the model punished performed more aggressively in a free play situation than children who saw the model rewarded d. children who saw the model rewarded performed more aggressively in a free play situation than children who saw the model punished Answer d % correct 23 a= 13 b= 10 c= 54 d= 23 r = .38 233. Learning that depends on mental processes that are not able to be observed directly is called _________ learning. a. autonomic b. primary c. secondary d. cognitive Answer d % correct 85 a= 5 b= 1 c= 9 d= 85 r = .23 234. The concept of latent learning was developed by __________ . a. Watson b. Skinner c. Thorndike d. Tolman Answer d % correct 61 a= 6 b= 13 c= 20 d= 61 r = .47 235. The mental image of an area, such as a maze or the floor plan of a building, is called _____________. a. a Gestalt b. insight c. a Skinner response d. a cognitive map Answer d % correct 98 a= 0 b= 2 c= 0 d= 98 r = .12 236. The process by which prior conditioning prevents conditioning to a new (second) stimulus, even when the two stimuli are presented simultaneously, is called ___________ . a. a learning set b. learned helplessness c. diffusion d. blocking Answer d % correct 89 a= 4 b= 5 c= 1 d= 89 r = .27 237. Social learning theory’s foremost proponent is __________ . a. Watson b. Thorndike c. Skinner d. Bandura Answer d % correct 54 a= 12 b= 25 c= 9 d= 54 r = .49

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238. A key to social learning theory is ____________ . a. insight learning b. cognitive mapping c. latent learning d. observational learning Answer d % correct 71 a= 13 b= 7 c= 9 d= 71 239. Cognitive learning involves: a. an association between events or phenomena. b. an association between responses. c. an association between behavior and its consequences. d. internal representations of events in the world. Answer d % correct 33 a= 14 b= 21 c= 33 d= 33

r = .20

r = .39

240. During your very first visit to your campus, you probably needed a map to get around efficiently. However, a little while later you no longer needed the map, because _______ had occurred. a. classical conditioning b. cognitive learning c. instrumental conditioning d. operant conditioning Answer b % correct 73 a= 7 b= 73 c= 4 d= 16 r = .24 241. Insight is a concept associated with _______ learning theory. a. classical b. operant c. social d. cognitive Answer d % correct 77 a= 1 b= 14 c= 8 d= 77 r = .34 242. Though Jenny tried in vain to reach a puzzle on the top shelf by standing on a chair, she simply could not reach. Suddenly she realized that by placing a thick catalog on the seat of the chair, she would be high enough to reach the puzzle. Jenny’s solution is best explained by which of the following? a. her previous history of conditioning b. her previous experiences with reaching objects that are out of reach c. latent learning d. insight Answer d % correct 74 a= 0 b= 6 c= 19 d= 74 r = .42 243. Cognitive learning theories attempt to explain how learning occurs using: a. observation and imitation. b. unobservable mental processes. c. classical conditioning processes. d. classical, operant, and observational processes. Answer b % correct 37 a= 27 b= 37 c= 7 d= 29 r = .41 244. The founder of Gestalt psychology and pioneer of insight problem solving was: a. Thorndike. b. Terman. c. Kohler. d. Harlow. Answer c % correct 72 a= 19 b= 3 c= 72 d= 6 r = .30

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245. The mental storing of an entire image of an area, such as a maze or floor plan of a building is called __________. a. Gestalt b. insight c. Skinner response d. a cognitive map Answer d % correct 93 a= 1 b= 5 c= 1 d= 93 r = .22 246. The type of learning that involves a sudden coming together of the elements of a situation so that the solution to a problem is instantly clear is _____. a. insight b. latent learning c. cognitive mapping d. contingency blocking Answer a % correct 80 a= 80 b= 10 c= 8 d= 2 r = .46 247. Cognitive maps are __________. a. observable mental events b. consistent with conditioning theories c. learned without reinforcement d. inconsistent with insightful problem solving Answer c % correct 42 a= 37 b= 17 c= 42 d= 4

r = .27

248. Insight is a concept associated with ________ learning theory. a. classical b. operant c. social d. cognitive Answer d % correct 85 a= 4 b= 6 c= 5 d= 85 r = .20

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Quiz 6.1: Classical Conditioning Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Classical Conditioning

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q6.1.1 Ivan Pavlov discovered __________ while conducting research on digestion in dogs. a) classical conditioning b) systematic desensitization c) habituation d) sensitization ANS: a Topic=Classical Conditioning Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The dogs seemed to be anticipating the meat powder and responding to stimuli that signaled its arrival. LO 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses.

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EOM Q6.1.2 The process whereby someone responds less strongly over time to a given stimulus represents one of the simplest forms of learning. This process is called __________. a) habituation b) aplysia c) sensitization d) higher-order conditioning ANS: a Topic=Classical Conditioning Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Human fetuses display this tendency as early as 32 weeks. LO 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses.

EOM Q6.1.3 During the acquisition phase of classical conditioning, when the pairing of the CS and the UCS are closer in time, learning occurs __________. a) more quickly b) more slowly c) less reliably d) more reliably ANS: a Topic=Classical Conditioning Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Longer delays between the CS and UCS usually decrease the speed and strength of the organism’s response. LO 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning.

EOM Q6.1.4 Pavlov discovered a phenomenon of classical conditioning called __________, which means that a similar stimulus can elicit the same response as the conditioned stimulus. a) stimulus generalization b) renewal effect c) stimulus discrimination d) acquisition ANS: a Topic=Classical Conditioning Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: For example, once we have learned to drive our own car, we can borrow a friend’s car without needing a full tutorial on how to drive it. LO 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOM Q6.1.5 Who was the subject of the ethically questionable study of classical conditioning in which an infant was conditioned to fear white, furry objects? a) Little Albert b) Little Walter c) Baby Jane d) Baby Huey ANS: a Topic=Classical Conditioning Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 6.1c Explain how complex behaviors can result from classical conditioning and how they emerge in our daily lives. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The infant also displayed stimulus generalization. LO 6.1c Explain how complex behaviors can result from classical conditioning and how they emerge in our daily lives.

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Quiz 6.2: Operant Conditioning Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Operant Conditioning

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q6.2.1 In operant conditioning, the response of the organism to the stimulus is __________. a) emitted voluntarily b) elicited automatically c) contingent on behavior d) adaptive ANS: a Topic=Operant Conditioning Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 6.2a Distinguish operant conditioning from classical conditioning. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The organism’s response is generated by the organism in a seemingly non-coerced fashion. LO 6.2a Distinguish operant conditioning from classical conditioning.

EOM Q6.2.2 E. L. Thorndike’s experiments using a puzzle box demonstrated that cats learn by __________. a) trial and error b) insight c) observation d) instinctive drift ANS: a Topic=Operant Conditioning Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 6.2b Describe Thorndike’s law of effect. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: By sheer accident, the cat eventually found the correct solution to free itself from the box. LO 6.2b Describe Thorndike’s law of effect.

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EOM Q6.2.3 B.F. Skinner was able to produce what he called __________ in pigeons by delivering reinforcement in the form of food regardless of what the birds did. a) superstitious behavior b) random acts c) phobic anomaly d) performance anxiety ANS: a Topic=Operant Conditioning Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: As Stevie Wonder told us, “when you believe in things that you don’t understand,” this can result. LO 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment.

EOM Q6.2.4 Which term describes a stimulus that signals the presence of reinforcement? a) discriminative stimulus b) stimulus discrimination c) stimulus generalization d) extinction ANS: a Topic=Operant Conditioning Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This term describes an element in the environment that carries informational value. LO 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each.

EOM Q6.2.5 The persistence of anxiety disorders can be explained by the __________ theory, because phobias created by classical conditioning are negatively reinforced by avoidance behavior. a) two-process b) higher-order c) latent learning d) preparedness and phobias ANS: a Topic=Operant Conditioning Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: According to this theory, we need both classical and operant conditioning to explain the persistence of anxiety disorders. LO 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning.

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Quiz 6.3: Cognitive Models of Learning Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Cognitive Models of Learning

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q6.3.1 How someone responds to something depends on her or his interpretation of what that something means. This is the underlying difference that distinguishes __________ from previous views of learning. a) S-O-R psychology b) S-R psychology c) behaviorism d) higher-order conditioning ANS: a Topic=Cognitive Models of Learning Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The organism’s response to a stimulus depends on what this stimulus means to it. LO 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning.

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EOM Q6.3.2 While watching some friends skateboarding, you wince in empathy when one of them falls and scrapes her leg very badly. This is the result of the firing of your mirror neurons, which are found in what part of the brain? a) prefrontal cortex b) parietal lobe c) occipital lobe d) cerebellum ANS: a Topic=Cognitive Models of Learning Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This area of the brain is responsible for lots of important functions. LO 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. EOM Q6.3.3 Tolman and Honzik conducted an experiment using a maze to discover __________ in rats, demonstrating that direct reinforcement is not necessary in order for learning to take place. a) latent learning b) discovery learning c) accelerated learning d) instinctive learning ANS: a Topic=Cognitive Models of Learning Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: We learn many things without immediately showing that we have learned them. LO 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning.

EOM Q6.3.4 According to B.F. Skinner, different people react differently to the same stimulus, such as receiving criticism, because of their __________. a) learning histories b) learning styles c) behavior modification d) insight into their own preparedness ANS: a Topic=Cognitive Models of Learning Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The same stimulus conditions may lead to slightly different responses. LO 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning.

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EOM Q6.3.5 When we suddenly see the solution to a problem and get that “aha reaction,” we have learned something through __________. a) insight b) observation c) trial-and-error d) cause-and-effect ANS: a Topic=Cognitive Models of Learning Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 6.3b Identify evidence of insight learning. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This kind of learning seems to take place in a flash. LO 6.3b Identify evidence of insight learning.

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Quiz 6.4: Biological Influences on Learning Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Biological Influences on Learning

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q6.4.1 Conditioned taste aversions are usually highly specific to a particular food and show little evidence of __________. a) stimulus generalization b) fading away over time c) evolutionary advantage d) long-term change ANS: a Topic=Biological Influences on Learning Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Avoiding spaghetti while still enjoying angel hair, mostacciolli, zitti, or rigatone is an example. LO 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations.

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EOM Q6.4.2 When an animal, despite repeated attempts at conditioning, returns to its innate behavior, researchers call this __________. a) instinctive drift b) genetic influence c) conditioned aversion d) preparedness ANS: a Topic=Biological Influences on Learning Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This suggests that we cannot fully understand learning without taking into account innate biological influences. LO 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations.

EOM Q6.4.3 When the chimpanzee named Sultan figured out that he could get bananas that were out of his reach by putting one piece of bamboo inside another to make an extra-long bamboo stick, __________ theorized that this was insight rather than trial and error. a) Wolfgang Köhler b) B. F. Skinner c) Ivan Pavlov d) E. F. Hutton ANS: a Topic=Biological Influences on Learning Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This person was a founder of Gestalt psychology. LO 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations.

EOM Q6.4.4 Chemotherapy can cause severe nausea and an aversion to foods that might have been eaten prior to receiving this treatment. To help patients keep their taste for their usual foods, health psychologists developed the idea of offering alternative or __________ foods to which the patient will develop a taste aversion instead. a) scapegoat b) unhealthful c) equipotent d) healthful ANS: a Topic=Biological Influences on Learning Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations., Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Something—or someone—has got to take the blame. LO 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOM Q6.4.5 People often have phobias about things they have little experience with, which is a challenge to the assumption of __________. a) equipotentiality b) evolutionary advantage c) stimulus extinction d) pluripotentiality ANS: a Topic=Biological Influences on Learning Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Phobias of razors, knives, the edges of furniture, ovens, and electrical outlets are extremely rare, although many of us have been cut, bruised, burned, or otherwise hurt by them. LO 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations.

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Quiz 6.5: Learning Fads: Do They Work? Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Learning Fads: Do They Work?

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q6.5.1 A popular way to impart knowledge is __________, whereby students are given experimental materials and asked to figure out the relevant scientific principles on their own. a) discovery learning b) accelerated learning c) direct instruction d) aspirational instruction ANS: a Topic=Learning Fads: Do They Work? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: A psychology professor who is teaching operant conditioning might set her students up with a rat, a maze, and a supply of cheese, and ask them to figure out which variables affect the rat’s learning. LO 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning.

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EOM Q6.5.2 Although early studies appeared promising, better-controlled studies that monitored subjects’ brain activity under experimental conditions offered little evidence in support of __________. a) sleep-assisted learning b) latent learning c) observational learning d) insight learning ANS: a Topic=Learning Fads: Do They Work? Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Numerous websites and books claim that you can master a foreign language, become a better public speaker, and even improve your marriage while you are sound asleep. LO 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning.

EOM Q6.5.3 Studies of Suggestive Accelerative Learning and Teaching Techniques (SALTT) were faulty because the control groups did little or nothing compared to the SALTT groups. This did not allow the researchers to __________. a) rule out rival hypotheses b) develop sufficient hypotheses c) make any extraordinary claims d) rule out extraordinary evidence ANS: a Topic=Learning Fads: Do They Work? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Even when researchers have reported positive results for SALTT, these findings have been open to alternative explanations. LO 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning.

EOM Q6.5.4 Which learning fad divides people into different types, such as “analytical” and “holistic”? a) learning styles b) accelerated learning c) hyperbaric learning d) stylistic learning ANS: a Topic=Learning Fads: Do They Work? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Few of us are purely analytical or holistic learners, verbal or spatial learners, and so on; most of us are a blend of multiple styles. LO 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOM Q6.5.5 In an experiment on the effectiveness of discovery learning involving a ball and ramp, what percentage of third- and fourth-graders were able to solve a slightly different problem on their own? a) 23 percent b) 55 percent c) 77 percent d) 100 percent ANS: a Topic=Learning Fads: Do They Work? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This poor showing suggests that other forms of learning might be more effective. LO 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning.

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Chapter 6 Quiz: Learning Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Chapter Quiz: Learning

Multiple Choice Single Select EOC Q6.1 Pavlov discovered that if he repeatedly paired a neutral stimulus, such as the sound of a metronome, with a stimulus that provided an automatic response, eventually the neutral stimulus alone would produce a(n) __________. a) conditioned response b) unconditioned response c) conditioned stimulus d) unconditioned stimulus ANS: a Topic=Classical Conditioning Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The repeated pairing of a CS and UCS led to this outcome. LO 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses.

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EOC Q6.2 Because __________ activity seems to play a central role in empathy, some psychologists speculate that defects in this area may be associated with infantile autism. a) mirror neuron b) chromosome c) brain stem d) conditioning ANS: a Topic=Cognitive Models of Learning Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: It is possible that lower activity of this system in autism is a consequence, rather than a cause, of the empathy deficits often observed in this condition. LO 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning.

EOC Q6.3 Spectators often marvel at shows that feature animals doing amazing stunts and complicated maneuvers. Animal trainers use __________ to accomplish this, by reinforcing behaviors that are progressively closer to the target behavior until the target behavior is achieved. a) shaping b) fading c) scheduling d) intervals ANS: a Topic=Operant Conditioning Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: By means of this process (and also a technique called “chaining”), B. F. Skinner taught pigeons to play Ping-Pong. LO 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning.

EOC Q6.4 Which phenomenon may explain why marketers are not always successful in establishing a connection for their target audience between a particular product and the celebrity who is endorsing it? a) latent inhibition b) spontaneous recovery c) acquisition error d) extinction ANS: a Topic=Classical Conditioning Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Experiencing a conditioned stimulus many times can make it difficult to condition it to a new stimulus. LO 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q6.5 A popular learning method that suggests students can figure out important principles on their own by trying out experimental materials is called __________. a) discovery learning b) experiential learning c) trial and error d) the learning style hypothesis ANS: a Topic=Learning Fads: Do They Work? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Many students may never figure out how to solve certain scientific problems independently, so this technique is ill-advised as a stand-alone approach. LO 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning.

EOC Q6.6 One reason preparedness might lead to phobias is that we develop __________ between fear-provoking stimuli and negative consequences. a) illusory correlations b) irrational responses c) latent inhibitions d) predisposition awareness ANS: a Topic=Biological Influences on Learning Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Thinking that rats are present every time one feels anxious might lead to an assumed association between those two events. LO 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations.

EOC Q6.7 Negative reinforcement __________ the rate of behavior, whereas punishment __________ the rate of behavior. a) increases; decreases b) decreases; increases c) decreases; maintains d) maintains; increases ANS: a Topic=Operant Conditioning Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Recall the fundamental distinction between reinforcement and punishment. LO 6.2c Describe reinforcement and its effects on behavior and distinguish negative reinforcement from punishment. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q6.8 Which principle asserts that rewards will be more likely to promote repeated responses to a stimulus? a) law of effect b) classical conditioning c) S-O-R psychology d) instinctive drift ANS: a Topic=Operant Conditioning Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 6.2b Describe Thorndike’s law of effect. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This principle formed the basis of how and why operant conditioning works. LO 6.2b Describe Thorndike’s law of effect.

EOC Q6.9 Alastair has used classical conditioning to train his dog to salivate every time Ingo whistles a C#. After the dog has mastered this association, Alastair then pairs a flashing light with the sound of a whistled C#, and finds that over time, his dog now salivates to the flashing light. Which principle of classical conditioning is at work here? a) higher-order conditioning b) reinforcement c) extinction d) stimulus discrimination ANS: a Topic=Classical Conditioning Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 6.1c Explain how complex behaviors can result from classical conditioning and how they emerge in our daily lives Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Alastair's dog was conditioned to respond to one CS, but that CS was then paired with another, different CS that elicited the same response. LO 6.1c Explain how complex behaviors can result from classical conditioning and how they emerge in our daily lives.

EOC Q6.10 Wolfgang Köhler’s studies with chimpanzees demonstrated the animals were using insight to solve a problem. Unfortunately, flaws in the study's design mean that we cannot rule out the possibilities that the chimps were learning by trial and error or by __________. a) observational learning b) latent learning c) instinctive drift d) analytical learning style ANS: a Topic=Cognitive Models of Learning Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 6.3b Identify evidence of insight learning. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Perhaps the chimps simply paid really good attention to the activities in their surroundings. LO 6.3b Identify evidence of insight learning. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q6.11 When a conditioned response appears to be extinct, it can sometimes come back, but will often be weaker than it was originally. This return of the CR is called __________. a) spontaneous recovery b) stimulus generalization c) stimulus generation d) acquisition ANS: a Topic=Classical Conditioning Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: It is as though the CR were lurking in the background, waiting to emerge following another presentation of the CS. LO 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning.

EOC Q6.12 Which of the following reinforcement schedules typically yields the highest rate of responding from an organism? a) variable ratio b) variable interval c) fixed interval d) fixed ratio ANS: a Topic=Operant Conditioning Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Recall that the consistency and basis of reinforcement are both at work here. LO 6.2d Identify the four schedules of reinforcement and the response pattern associated with each.

EOC Q6.13 Early reports of the success of sleep-assisted learning fail to consider an important rival hypothesis: namely, that the recordings might have __________. a) awakened the subjects b) covered material previously known to the subjects c) disturbed the subjects with the EEG equipment d) been inaccurate to begin with ANS: a Topic=Learning Fads: Do They Work? Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Some fundamental monitoring seems to be in order in this type of investigation. LO 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning.

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EOC Q6.14 Most classically conditioned reactions require repeated pairings of the conditioned stimulus with the unconditioned stimulus in order to develop a relationship in the mind of the subject. Which of the following is an example of a situation in which only one pairing is necessary? a) conditioned taste aversion b) negative reinforcement c) punishment d) sleep-assisted learning ANS: a Topic=Biological Influences on Learning Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: It does not take much to make this outcome occur, and biologically and evolutionarily, that makes sense. LO 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations.

EOC Q6.15 As we become accustomed to a particular place, we develop a representation in our minds of how that physical space is organized. This is known as developing a __________. a) cognitive map b) spatial understanding c) spatial learning style d) place-based observation representation ANS: a Topic=Cognitive Models of Learning Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning., Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: You no doubt have stored versions of this for your hometown, college campus, route to work, and so on. LO 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning.

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EOC Q6.16 Bridgette feeds her cat canned food every night. The ritual is always the same: Bridgette takes out the electric can opener, whirs the can around the blade to open it, scoops the food into a bowl, and presents it to Zorro. Bridgette has noticed, however, that Zorro will run into the kitchen in eager anticipation as soon as she hears the sound of the cabinet door open and hears the whir of the can opener in motion. According to the principles of classical conditioning, the sound of the can opener is the __________. a) CS b) UCS c) CR d) UCR ANS: a Topic=Classical Conditioning Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The arrival of Zorro's food has been associated with other elements in the environment. LO 6.1a Describe Pavlov’s model of classical conditioning and discriminate conditioned stimuli and responses from unconditioned stimuli and responses.

EOC Q6.17 Marjoe had trained his dog that whenever it saw a photo of the cat next door, it would receive a treat. Through multiple pairings of the photo and the treat, the dog came to salivate when the photo alone was presented. Marjoe then extinguished the salivation behavior by presenting the photo but withholding the treat. He was surprised to find that, a week later, when he happened to hold up the photo of the cat, his dog started to salivate. What is going on here? a) spontaneous recovery b) stimulus discrimination c) stimulus generalization d) regenerative responding ANS: a Topic=Classical Conditioning Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Marjoe used all the correct principles of classical conditioning and verified that extinction had occurred. Think about what extinction means in this context. LO 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning.

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EOC Q6.18 According to the principles of latent learning, there is a crucial distinction to be made between __________. a) competence and performance b) nature and nurture c) classical and operant conditioning d) sleep-assisted learning and traditional instruction ANS: a Topic=Cognitive Models of Learning Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This distinction is important because it implies that reinforcement is not necessary for learning to take place. LO 6.3a Outline the evidence that supports latent learning and observational learning.

EOC Q6.19 Praise, money, good grades, compliments, and applause are all examples of __________. a) secondary reinforcers b) primary reinforcers c) fixed interval reinforcement d) primitive reinforcers ANS: a Topic=Operant Conditioning Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Some aspects of our environment can acquire characteristics through their association with other aspects of our environment. LO 6.2e Describe some applications of operant conditioning.

EOC Q6.20 Although some educational psychologists have claimed to boost learning by matching different instructional methods to different types of students, the theory of __________ has yet to be proven because tests have lacked reliability. a) learning styles b) discovery learning c) accelerated learning d) sleep-assisted learning ANS: a Topic=Learning Fads: Do They Work? Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: According to this view, some children will be impoverished learners when faced with a mismatched instructional style. LO 6.5a Evaluate popular techniques marketed to enhance learning.

136

EOC Q6.21 The idea that we are predisposed by evolution to fear some stimuli more than others, even when we have had no bad experiences with those stimuli in real life, is referred to as __________. a) preparedness b) instinctive drift c) survival phobia d) innate phobia ANS: a Topic=Biological Influences on Learning Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Certain stimuli, like steep cliffs and poisonous animals, posed a threat to our early human ancestors. LO 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations.

EOC Q6.22 Another term for operant conditioning is __________ conditioning. a) instrumental b) classical c) observational d) inherent ANS: a Topic=Operant Conditioning Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 6.2a Distinguish operant conditioning from classical conditioning. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The organism "gets something" from the response. LO 6.2a Distinguish operant conditioning from classical conditioning.

EOC Q6.23 Which term refers to a situation in which an organism responds more strongly to a stimulus over time? a) sensitization b) habituation c) aplysia d) conductivity ANS: a Topic=Classical Conditioning Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This is especially likely when a stimulus is dangerous, irritating, or both. LO 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning.

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EOC Q6.24 Reggie likes to eat chicken fingers dipped in honey mustard sauce. One night, just after eating at Chester's Chicken Shack, he becomes painfully ill with stomach cramps and nausea due to the flu virus that had been percolating in his body the past few days. When his friends invite him back to Chester’s in a month, Reggie swiftly declines. What principle of classical conditioning is at work in Reggie’s reaction? a) conditioned taste aversion b) stimulus discrimination c) stimulus identification d) learned taste discrimination ANS: a Topic=Biological Influences on Learning Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Reggie associated a favorite food with an undesirable outcome. LO 6.4a Explain how biological predispositions can facilitate learning of some associations.

EOC Q6.25 Which term refers to the classical conditioning phenomenon in which a new CR “writes over” an existing CR? a) extinction b) inhibition c) spontaneous recovery d) renewal effect ANS: a Topic=Classical Conditioning Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: After numerous presentations of the metronome without meat powder, Pavlov’s dogs eventually stopped salivating. LO 6.1b Explain the major principles and terminology associated with classical conditioning.

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Chapter 7: Memory Total Assessment Guide Topic Quick Quiz 1

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice

3, 5, 10

1–2, 4, 6, 8–9

Quick Quiz 2

Multiple Choice

3, 5, 10

7–8

1–2, 4, 6, 9

Introduction and Learning Objective 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences. Learning Objective 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems.

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

2–3, 7

1, 4–6, 8–10 1

Learning Objective 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory. Learning Objective 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Learning Objective 7.2b Identify the role that schemas play in the storage of memories. Learning Objective 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory.

Multiple Choice

11–12, 19, 27, 31, 34, 40, 47, 49, 51

21, 30, 42–43, 45–46, 54

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

3–4, 6–7 2

56–57, 61–62 9

55, 58, 63

59–60, 64–65

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

66–67, 72, 74 11–13

68, 70–71, 73, 75–76 10

80, 82

77–79, 81, 83 14

85, 88, 94

89, 91–92, 95

15 4

84, 86–87, 90, 93, 96–101 16–17

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

102, 105 106, 108, 110 Learning Objective 7.2d Describe how the relation between 1 encoding and retrieval conditions influences Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. remembering. 1

13–18, 20, 22-26, 28–29, 32–33, 35– 39, 41, 44, 48, 50, 52–53 2, 5, 8

103–104, 107, 109

Topic Learning Objective 7.3a Describe the role of long-term potentiation in memory. Learning Objective 7.3b Distinguish different types of amnesia and the relevance of amnesia to the brain’s organization of memory. Learning Objective 7.3c Identify the key impairments of Alzheimer’s disease. Learning Objective 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age. Learning Objective 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Learning Objective 7.5b Describe some of the real-world implications of false memories and memory errors.

Factual

Conceptual

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

112–115 18

111

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

116, 120, 122–124 19

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

125–127 20

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

128

Multiple Choice

139–140, 142–143, 148, 150 22

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Applied

117–119, 121

129–130, 133, 135

131–132, 134 21

141

136–138, 144–147, 149 23 2

152, 154–155 24

151, 156

153

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 7 Quick Quiz 1 1. Which of the following best illustrates the paradox of memory? A) Jillian can remember all of her favorite baseball players’ statistics for the last 7 years but forgets where she put her cell phone on a daily basis. B) Amy remembers the names of most of her third-grade students from the last several years. C) Ryan can remember almost all of the states and capitols, but is struggling to remember the names of foreign countries. D) Nina finds it difficult to accurately recall some of her childhood memories. 2. The first day of class, Sheila asked her professor what was the best way to learn and remember the material for the course. The professor responded, “Focus on identifying and understanding the meaning of the important terms and concepts.” The instructor is advocating a __________ level of processing. A) phonological B) semantic C) verbal D) visual 3. It is believed the __________ memory system may handle automatic remembering, while the __________ memory system requires conscious effort. A) depth; elaborative B) prospective; retrospective C) primacy; recency D) implicit; explicit 4. While attempting to visit a friend in Boston, Enrique is struggling with his friend’s directions. Enrique’s friend told him: “Turn left at the ball park, right at the movie theater, go around the mall, and make a left turn.” The directions are almost meaningless, because Enrique has never been to Boston before. Which of the following provides the best explanation for the breakdown in communication? A) Enrique is experiencing retroactive interference. B) Enrique is experiencing the recency effect. C) Enrique does not have a preexisting schema to which he can attach the new information. D) Enrique is trying to process too much information at one time. 5. For students to show the best performance on their exams, they are advised to engage in __________. A) delayed practice B) distributed practice C) massed practice D) maintenance rehearsal 6. The character of Dory from the movie Finding Nemo keeps complaining that she has short-term memory loss because she can’t remember the name of the friend she just met. What is a more likely explanation for her memory failure? A) anterograde amnesia B) retrograde amnesia C) hippocampal damage D) blocking 7. An adult is able to remember that CIA stands for “Central Intelligence Agency,” and yet a child is not. Why is this, according to your text? A) Because at some point in our lives, we will probably have some interaction with the CIA, or know someone who’s had an interaction with them B) Because as we age, our conceptual understanding increases C) Because we have more exposure to movies and television shows where the CIA is present D) Because children do not watch news programs, which is where the CIA is usually mentioned

8. Roseanne claims that she can remember instances of childhood sexual abuse that started at 6 months of age. Why are most psychologists likely to be skeptical of this and other such claims? A) Because decay leads to almost immediate forgetting of newly learned information. B) Because infantile amnesia makes it unlikely that these are true memories from that age. C) Because proponents of the realism of such claims are charging less to treat the victims of this abuse than those who are dubious of the claims. D) Repression inhibits the conscious recognition of traumatic events such as childhood sexual abuse. 9. You are telling your friend about a trip you took to Sea World when you were a child. During the middle of the show, the trainer slipped, fell into the water, and was nearly killed. You can remember the scene as if it happened yesterday. This is an example of which type of memory? A) phantom B) semantic C) flashbulb D) procedural 10. Eyewitness testimony has been found to be most accurate when __________. A) the witness has ample time to observe the person under good viewing conditions B) the witness is presented a simultaneous, as opposed to a sequential, lineup C) a weapon is used in the commission of a crime D) the witness is distracted or must fill in gaps in their memory with stereotyped information

Chapter 7 Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1. A

Explanation: The paradox of memory is the fact that our memory system is so powerful, yet so imperfect. (How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 7.1a)

2. B

Explanation: Semantic, or meaning-related, encoding processes information on a deep level. (How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 7.1b)

3. D

Explanation: Implicit memories are those that can occur without our active awareness, while explicit memories require our attention and effort. (How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 7.1c)

4. C

Explanation: Schemas are organized knowledge structures stored in memory that help us figure out how to behave and what to expect in new situations. Since Enrique has no schema for Boston, he has trouble making sense of his friend’s directions. (The Three Processes of Memory, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 7.2b)

5. B

Explanation: Spacing your studying out over time instead of “cramming” it all in at once has repeatedly been found to be more effective when it comes to test performance. (The Three Processes of Memory, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 7.2c)

6. A

Explanation: Anterograde amnesia is the inability to form new memories. (The Biology of Memory, Applied, APA LO 1.c, TEXT LO 7.3b)

7. B

Explanation: An enhanced understanding of concepts allows for greater ability to chunk information in related ways. (The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 7.4a)

8. B

Explanation: Infantile amnesia refers to the fact that most adults do not have any significant memories prior to the age of three years. (The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History, Applied, APA LO 1.3, LO 7.4a)

9. C

Explanation: Flashbulb memories are most likely to form when the event in question is surprising, traumatic, or highly meaningful to the person. (False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 7.5a)

10. A

Explanation: Removing time pressure and giving adequate lighting maximizes eyewitnesses’ accuracy when it comes to giving testimony. (False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad, Factual, APA LO 1.3, LO 7.5b)

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 7 Quick Quiz 2 1. Ophelia is writing a fictitious autobiography for a composition class. She is combining real events with those that could have happened, as well as a few creative additions. In terms of the memory system, this approach is most similar to __________. A) the three systems of memory B) parallel distributed processing C) reconstructive memory D) implicit memory 2. Just before taking your French I exam you were reviewing 5 terms that you had missed on the last vocabulary test. When you get to your exam, you find that you have an easy time answering several questions because they are related terms you just studied. This is an example of the __________ effect. A) primacy B) von Restorff C) serial position D) recency 3. In long-term memory, the __________ memory division does not require much effort or attention to recall information. A) procedural B) episodic C) visual-spatial D) prospective 4. Although you have never taken a class with Dr. Hua, you walk into class, sit down, open your notebook, and wait for the professor to begin his lecture. What concept is being illustrated? A) script B) storage C) priming D) primacy effect 5. When one attempts to recreate a retrieval environment that is as similar as possible to the initial encoding, or learning, environment as possible, he or she is making use of the principle of __________. A) distributed practice B) encoding specificity C) parsimony D) priming 6. Who is most likely suffering from retrograde amnesia? A) Billy, who can’t seem to learn a foreign language B) Mariana, who struggles to remember the names of the people she just met C) Cecil, who can’t remember much of anything after his wife died D) Margie, who can’t remember much of anything before being attacked on the street after a late-night party 7. As we age, our ability to recognize the strengths and limitations of our own memories improves. This is known as __________. A) meta-cognition B) meta-memory C) permastore D) transience

8. According to your textbook, some proponents of Scientology have suggested that negative statements overheard by fetuses, embryos, and even zygotes can be “reactivated” in adulthood, triggering low selfesteem and psychological difficulties. The research, however, has failed to support these claims. Which principle of critical thinking is best demonstrated by this example? A) Occam’s razor B) replicability C) extraordinary claims D) correlation vs. causation 9. “You should have seen it! First the car flipped over and then it exploded! I will never forget it!” What type of memory did this eyewitness just form? A) flashbulb B) implicit C) semantic D) procedural 10. With regard to the idea of patients’ memories being shaped by suggestive psychotherapy techniques, psychologists __________. A) are in agreement that this frequently happens B) are in agreement that this rarely happens C) are divided about whether such memories are real or false memories D) need more evidence to demonstrate that false memories can be implanted

Chapter 7 Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1. C

Explanation: Using cues and available information, memory involves patching together many ideas of what we think happened. (How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 7.1a)

2. D

Explanation: Our tendency to remember things that were presented at the end of a list is known as the recency effect. (How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 7.1b)

3. A

Explanation: Procedural memory is implicit; that is, it often does not require active consciousness or attention to encode or retrieve. (How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 7.1c)

4. A

Explanation: Scripts are preconceived or preconstructed schemas that relate to the order of events in a given situation. (The Three Processes of Memory, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 7.2b)

5. B

Explanation: Encoding specificity explains why you are likely to do better on a final exam given in your normal classroom than on an exam given in a new, unfamiliar environment. (The Three Processes of Memory, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 7.2d)

6. D

Explanation: Retrograde amnesia is the loss of some memories of our past. (The Biology of Memory, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 7.3b)

7. B

Explanation: Meta-memory refers to knowledge about our own memory abilities and limitations. (The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 7.4a)

8. C

Explanation: Recall from your text that extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence. In this case, there is no evidence—extraordinary or otherwise—to back up these most unusual claims. (The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History, Conceptual, APA LO 2.1, TEXT LO 7.4a)

9. A

10. C

Explanation: While some psychologists believe that false memories can result from psychotherapy techniques—an event called an iatrogenic effect—others do not believe this is possible. (False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad, Factual, APA LO 1.1, LO 7.5b)

Chapter 7: Memory Test Bank Multiple Choice 1. Hideki and Thao are reviewing for an exam. Thao asks the following question: “What term refers to how people retain information over time?” Hideki would be most correct if he answered __________. A) elaborative rehearsal B) encoding Incorrect. Encoding is only the first of the three key processes of memory. C) memory Correct. This is the correct definition of memory. D) suggestive memory Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 2. The case of A. J., which demonstrates hyperthymestic syndrome, has been explored at length by many different researchers. Some subtle brain differences between people with and without the disorder have been found. This demonstrates the importance of remembering the critical thinking concept of __________. A) extraordinary claims Correct. The incredible memory skills of people with this disorder have actually been supported by equally extraordinary evidence. B) replicability C) correlation vs. causation D) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. Perhaps unfortunately for those with hyperthymestic syndrome, there is no simple explanation for their amazing abilities. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line

3. According to the authors, our memory is most like __________. A) hardened metal Incorrect. Once you have a memory, it is not permanently stored in one form. It can change or alter over time. B) melting wax Correct. Memories can change over time, which is why they are thought of as melting wax rather than hardened metal. C) an old photograph D) a tape recorder Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 4. Dr. Vargas can remember hundreds of students’ names from his twenty-five years of university teaching, but has difficulty remembering the new three-digit area code for his home phone number. This is one illustration of __________. A) false memories Incorrect. There is no indication of false memories in this question, but rather difficulties with retrieval. B) iconic memory C) meta-memory D) the paradox of memory Correct. As your authors point out, the same processes that assist us in memory in one moment may hinder us in another. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 5. Danny has been collecting comic books since he was a child. If you ask him, he can tell you the name of every comic in his collection. However, he routinely struggles to remember the names of his new employees at work. Which concept is being illustrated? A) retrieval failure B) the paradox of memory Correct. The paradox of memory is the fact that our memory system is so powerful, yet so imperfect. C) encoding difficulties Incorrect. In this particular question, encoding difficulties are not relevant; rather, Dan is having difficulty with retrieval. D) retrieval interference Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line

6. Which of the following best illustrates the paradox of memory? A) Jillian can remember all of her favorite baseball players’ statistics for the last 7 years but forgets where she put her cell phone on a daily basis. Correct. The paradox of memory is the fact that our memory system is so powerful, yet so imperfect. B) Amy remembers the names of most of her third-grade students from the last several years. C) Ryan can remember almost all of the states and capitals but is struggling to remember the names of foreign countries. D) Nina finds it difficult to accurately recall some of her childhood memories. Incorrect. It would not be unusual for somebody to have difficulty recalling childhood memories, particularly those that came from very early childhood. These difficulties could be explained by the concept of infantile amnesia or the decay theory of forgetting. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 7. A key theme that has emerged from the memory research literature is that __________. A) we actively reconstruct our memories using the cues and information available to us B) all explicit and implicit memories are stored in the hippocampus C) memory illusions are evidence of serious memory problems such as Alzheimer’s disease or amnesia D) the passage of time has little or no effect on the accuracy of our memories Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 8. Donte is seeing a sports psychologist to help improve his mental preparation and performance. The psychologist asks Donte to see himself making each of his kicks right into the goal. As Donte visualizes his technique, kicking procedure, and follow-through, he sees himself as an outside observer would. Memory researchers argue this demonstrates __________. A) brain stimulation that leads to the development of engrams B) the presence of iconic and echoic memory Incorrect. Iconic and echoic memories are forms of sensory memory, and are not relevant to this question. C) the reconstructive nature of memory Correct. When we try to recall an event, we actively reconstruct our memories using the cues and information available to us. D) that working memory differs from short-term memory Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line

9. Ophelia is writing a fictitious autobiography for a composition class. She is combining real events with those that could have happened, as well as a few creative additions. In terms of the memory system, this approach is most similar to __________. A) the three systems of memory B) parallel distributed processing C) reconstructive memory Correct. Using cues and available information, memory involves patching together many ideas of what we think happened. D) implicit memory. Incorrect. Implicit memory refers to those memory processes that do not require our conscious involvement. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 10. Billy has just returned home from visiting his grandparents. His grandfather always had a jar of jelly beans on the table, and his mother asked Billy about the jar. “Sure,” says Billy, “it was right there where it always was.” Billy’s mother knew that the jar was gone. The grandfather had recently been diagnosed with diabetes and had cut down on his sugar intake. Why did Billy remember seeing the jar of jelly beans? A) He probably has a damaged hippocampus. B) He was using the representativeness heuristic. C) Too much time had passed between the visit and the conversation with his mother. Incorrect. This option suggests that decay was responsible for Billy’s memory error. This is not the best answer to the question, as Billy’s mistake demonstrates the reconstructive nature of memory. D) He reconstructed his memory using new and old information. Correct. We actively reconstruct our memories using the cues and information available to us. If there had always been a jar of jelly beans on the table, Billy is likely to reconstruct his memory of the table and include the sight of the jar. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 11.Of the three most clearly identified systems of memory, ________ memory has the largest span and longest duration. A) flashbulb B) long-term C) sensory D) short-term Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line

12. The brief storage of perceptual information before it is passed to short-term memory is called __________ memory. A) flashbulb B) long-term C) sensory D) working Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 13. After you finish reading this sentence, the information will remain in your __________ memory as you consider each of the answers below. A) long-term B) photographic C) sensory Incorrect. Sensory memory is where sensory—in this case of visual—information lasts for just a brief second when it is first received by our sensory systems. D) short-term Correct. Our short-term memory will hold information for 15 to 20 seconds while we decide whether or not to move to a longer-term storage facility. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line % correct 81 a = 0 b = 3 c = 16 d = 81 r = .23 14. You watch LeShon wave his Fourth of July sparkler as he runs. As you watch, you notice a circle of light rather than just a single point of light. This effect demonstrates the functioning of your __________ memory. A) echoic B) flashbulb C) iconic Correct. Iconic memory is a type of sensory memory that applies to vision; it involves a continuous stream of information that your mind blends together. D) short-term Incorrect. The immediate processing of visual information is done by sensory memory, before it is routed to short-term memory. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line

15. A bolt of lightning may appear to be moving across the sky at a pace that you can see, but in fact it moves far faster than the human eye can detect. The fact that you “see" it is because you are having a(n) __________ memory of where it was. A) echoic B) flashbulb C) iconic Correct. Iconic memory is a type of sensory memory that applies to vision; it involves a continuous stream of information that your mind blends together. D) short-term Incorrect. The immediate processing of visual information is done by sensory memory, before it is routed to short-term memory. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 16. Lizzie is staring at a diagram of the human digestive system that will appear on the exam she will take in the next few minutes. She thinks that by staring at the diagram for a very long time she can “burn” the image into her brain. Although this strategy won’t work, she is hoping to take advantage of her __________ memory. A) short-term B) flashbulb Incorrect. Iconic memory is another way of saying visual sensory memory. Flashbulb memories are long-term memories of emotionally impactful or important events. C) repetitive D) iconic Correct. Iconic memory is the type of sensory memory that applies to visual stimuli; visual images last only about a second. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 17. Kira is jogging down the street listening to her portable music player. Abruptly, her batteries die and the music stops. __________ memory accounts for her ability to still “hear” the last part of the song that was playing for several seconds after the machine stopped working. A) Short-term B) Eidetic C) Iconic Incorrect. Iconic memory is our visual sensory memory. D) Echoic Correct. Echoic memory is our auditory sensory memory; it allows us to replay whatever was heard in the previous few seconds. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line

18. Rebecca stops after reading two or three paragraphs in her psychology text. She rehearses and thinks about the material she has just read before continuing on. The aspect of memory Rebecca is most concerned with is the limited duration of __________ memory. A) sensory Incorrect. Rehearsal is associated with short-term memory, not sensory memory. B) short-term Correct. Without active processing, information in short-term memory will fade after about 10–15 seconds. C) iconic D) echoic Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line % correct 88 a = 3 b = 88 c = 3 d = 6 r = .20 19. Which researcher examined the existence of iconic memory by flashing letters on a screen and measuring how many of them could be retained by a viewer? A) Sperling Correct. Sperling used an instrument called a tachistoscope (or a t-scope) to do this research. B) von Helmholtz C) Miller D) Loftus Incorrect. Loftus's work was in the area of eyewitness memory. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 20. While driving in the car with her children, Adriana’s car broke down. She called her husband for the number of a towing company. If the children’s behavior prevents her from repeating the number to herself, Adriana will probably need to dial the phone number within the next __________ seconds or she will forget the number. A) 2 Incorrect. Two seconds is the upper boundary of the duration of sensory memory. Short-term memory is limited to somewhere around 15 seconds. B) 15 Correct. Without rehearsal, short-term memory is limited to 10 or 15 seconds. C) 45 D) 60 Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line % correct 82 a = 12 b = 82 c = 6 d = 0 r = .49

21. The research by Lloyd and Margaret Peterson suggests that the duration of short-term memory is about 15 seconds, but some have proposed that it may be as short as 5 seconds. These other theorists have suggested that some of the participants in the Petersons’ study were able to silently rehearse the letters they were shown, thus appearing to have a longer short-term memory duration. This alternate explanation for the Petersons’ findings demonstrates which principle of critical thinking? A) replicability Incorrect. In this example, there is no mention of repeating the Petersons’ research to try to come up with the same results. B) extraordinary claims C) falsifiability D) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. This attempt to explain the findings from a different perspective demonstrates the principle of ruling out rival hypotheses. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 22. During lecture each day, a psychology professor may explain four main points he or she wishes the class to retain. However, most students do not think about the material again until the following class period two days later. The forgetting that occurs between classes is most likely the result of __________. A) bias B) decay Correct. The decay theory of forgetting suggests that memories fade over time if they are not actively used. C) interference Incorrect. The interference theory of forgetting suggests that some information that we are trying to encode and store interferes with other information that is being encoded at the same time. D) suggestibility Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line % correct 68 a = 0 b = 68 c = 26 d = 6 r = .31 % correct 71 a = 6 b = 71 c = 23 d = 0 r = .37

23. Skip has a big test tomorrow and has studied late into the night. If Skip falls asleep and takes the test first thing in the morning, which of the following would best explain any information he forgets? A) retrograde amnesia B) decay Correct. Decay involves information fading from memory. C) anterograde amnesia D) interference Incorrect. The interference theory of forgetting suggests that some information that we are trying to encode and store interferes with other information that is being encoded at the same time. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 24. When information that you learned in your high school psychology class gets in the way of learning new information from your college-level psychology class, __________ has occurred. A) interference Correct. The interference theory of forgetting suggests that some information that we are trying to encode and store interferes with other information that is being encoded at the same time. B) long-term blocking C) misinformation Incorrect. The misinformation effect suggests that while we get specific kinds of cues, they can “trick” us into constructing memories that don’t truly exist. D) transience Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 25. Sabrina has a psychology midterm tomorrow afternoon. Before taking her test, she has to go to her sociology class in the morning. Which of the following provides the best explanation as to why Sabrina might struggle on her psychology exam? A) decay Incorrect. The decay theory of forgetting suggests that memories fade over time if they are not actively used. B) limited capacity of long-term memory C) interference Correct. Decay involves information fading from memory, whereas interference occurs when new information interrupts our ability to remember current information. D) retrieval inhibition Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line % correct 91 a = 3 b = 0 c = 91 d = 6 r = .21

26. Shanna has a quiz covering research methods for both her biology and psychology classes. As she studies, she is continually getting information confused between the classes. The resulting memory loss is explained by __________. A) interference Correct. In short-term memory, new information interferes with old information, as well as the reverse. B) retrieval failure Incorrect. Interference in memory might be thought of as a type of retrieval failure, but it occurs more during the encoding and storage phases of memory. C) distortion D) serial position effects Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 27. The system of memory that can hold approximately seven “chunks” of information for approximately 15 seconds is called __________ memory. A) long-term B) permastore C) sensory D) short-term Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line % correct 84 a = 0 b = 13 c = 3 d = 84 r = .48 28. Which of the following best illustrates retroactive interference? A) Susie struggles to learn how to play the violin, after playing the guitar for many years. Incorrect. This would be an example of proactive interference, which occurs when old information interferes with the remembering of new information. B) Chet struggles to learn the names of the new players he added to his fantasy baseball roster. C) Professor Jones struggles to learn the names of his new students after teaching for many years prior. D) Coach Todd calls one of her old softball players the name of one of her new players. Correct. Retroactive interference occurs when we have trouble remembering old information because of new information we’ve acquired. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line % correct 59 a = 35 b = 0 c = 6 d = 59 r = .29

29. In high school, Deanna took three years of Spanish. Upon enrolling in college ten years later, she registered for a remedial French course. When required to speak in French during a class discussion with her teacher and classmates, Deanna frequently responds with Spanish words instead of French words. This is one example of __________. A) blocking B) decay C) proactive interference Correct. This would be an example of proactive interference, which occurs when old information interferes with the remembering of new information. D) retroactive interference Incorrect. Retroactive interference occurs when we have trouble remembering old information because of new information we’ve acquired. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: .1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 30. Researchers exploring the relative influence of decay and interference on memory found that whether a list of digits was read at a slow or fast pace, items that came later in the list were more difficult to remember. This provided evidence that interference, and not decay, is the major factor in forgetting. For those who had subscribed to the decay theory of forgetting, this research points out the importance of __________. A) extraordinary claims B) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. This research found compelling evidence that decay is not the primary culprit in forgetting processes. C) falsifiability Incorrect. This research did not demonstrate that decay theory is wrong, but rather that another process (interference) was more salient in a discussion of why forgetting occurs. D) replicability Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 31. The Magic Number of short-term memory is __________. A) fifteen plus or minus two B) nine plus or minus two C) seven plus or minus three D) seven plus or minus two Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line % correct 76 a = 6 b = 12 c = 6 d = 76 r = .33 % correct 88 a = 0 b = 0 c = 12 d = 88 r = .31

32. Which of the following provides the best explanation for why your history teacher can remember 14 random historic dates, while you can only recall about 7? A) retroactive interference Incorrect. Retroactive interference occurs when we have trouble remembering old information because of new information we’ve acquired. It is not relevant to this question. B) Magic Number C) chunking Correct. Chunking material into meaningful units helps us to extend our memory capacity beyond what it would normally be. The history teacher’s broad knowledge base of dates and events would help him or her to remember more randomly provided dates than the average person. D) limited short-term memory capacity Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 33. Which of the following is the best example of chunking? A) Cedric is able to remember all of the names of the kids in his class. B) Caroline uses the first letter of each of her vocabulary words and spells out the word butterfly to help her remember. Incorrect. Caroline is not putting different bits of information together and storing them as meaningful groups, so she is not using the technique of chunking. C) Katie writes down an example for each of her vocabulary words. D) Andrea creates a sentence using all of her vocabulary words. Correct. Chunking involves organizing material into meaningful groupings, such as sentences, to help us remember more than we would normally be able to. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 34. The process of organizing information into meaningful groupings, thereby allowing one to extend the efficiency of short-term memory, is called __________. A) priming B) maintenance rehearsal Incorrect. This involves rote repetition of a stimulus to avoid decay in short-term memory. C) chunking Correct. Chunking involves organizing material into meaningful groupings, such as sentences, to help us remember more than we would normally be able to. D) clustering Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line

35. Liv has just seen a commercial advertising a fancy kind of make-up that she would like to buy. She does not have a pen or a piece of paper to write down the telephone number, so she repeats it to herself over and over again while she runs into the kitchen to find the telephone. Liv is currently using the process of __________ rehearsal to keep the telephone number active in her short-term memory. A) distributed B) elaborative Incorrect. Elaborative rehearsal refers to linking a stimulus to other stimuli in a meaningful way in order to enhance retention. C) maintenance Correct. Maintenance rehearsal refers to repeating a stimulus in its original form to retain it in short-term memory. D) semantic Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 36. In the text, the authors discussed the astounding memory capabilities of Rajan. He could recall the digits for the number pi starting from nearly any place in the sequence. His amazing ability is due, in part, to his use of __________. A) chunking Correct. Rajan was able to remember larger groups of numbers by storing them in meaningful patterns, or chunks, of information. B) flashbulb memory C) hypnotic regression D) photographic memory Incorrect. First, the term photographic memory is actually a misnomer that refers to eidetic memory. Second, there is no indication that Rajan had eidetic memory. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line % correct 59 a = 59 b = 9 c = 0 d = 32 r = .47 37. All night, Pedro has been staring at Samantha from across the dance floor. At the end of the night, he finally gets the courage to ask her for her telephone number. His mental repetition of her number on the drive home is one example of __________. A) chunking B) the power of suggestion C) rehearsal D) transference of memory Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line

38. When calling for directory assistance, operators used to tell their customers to “Have a nice day” after providing them with a phone number. As a consequence, many people forgot the number they were just given. What is the most likely explanation? A) The customers were not paying attention to the number they were given. Incorrect. This example does not mention anything related to attention, but rather suggests that the operator is interfering with the customer’s ability to engage in immediate maintenance rehearsal. B) The customers were prevented from engaging in immediate rehearsal. Correct. If we can’t immediately engage in rehearsal of information, it is likely to fade from shortterm memory in a matter of seconds (10–15, on average). C) The customers failed to engage in elaborative rehearsal. D) The phone number exceeded the capacity of their short-term memory. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 39. To aid students in their retention of information, which subsequently enables them to earn higher exam scores, memory researchers would be most likely to highlight the use of __________. A) eidetic memory B) elaborative rehearsal Correct. Elaborative rehearsal occurs when we attach a new stimulus to some bit of information that has been previously stored in memory. C) maintenance rehearsal Incorrect. Maintenance rehearsal involves the immediate repetition of a stimulus to keep it active in short-term memory. D) rote memorization Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 40. Elaborative rehearsal involves __________. A) synthesizing the information to be remembered in a meaningful way B) decreasing the complexity of the information to be remembered C) increasing the complexity of the information to be remembered D) linking the information to be remembered to other information Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line % correct 32 a = 41 b = 12 c = 15 d = 32 r = .38

41. Who is most likely to obtain the top score on his or her vocabulary test? A) James, who made flash cards of all his words and is going over and over them. B) Cynthia, who has written down each word and definition five times in her notebook. C) Ryan, who has drawn a picture to illustrate each word. Correct. Ryan is engaging in elaborative rehearsal, which involves linking stimuli to each other in a meaningful way. It generally helps us to improve our retention of information. D) Harriet, who says the words and definitions over and over to herself all day long. Incorrect. Harriet is using maintenance rehearsal, which can be an effective memory strategy. In this example, however, Ryan is using elaborative rehearsal, which has been consistently shown to enhance memory more than maintenance rehearsal. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 42. According to the levels-of-processing model, which pair of words should be the easiest to remember? A) Football – Baseball B) Plain – Train Incorrect. Encoding two words that sound alike would involve intermediates, or phonological, processing. Semantic, or meaning-related encoding, will process information at a deeper level and enhance remembering. C) Rake – Snake D) Clinton – Obama Correct. Information encoded by meaning is more likely to be remembered than information encoded by appearance or by sound. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 43. The levels-of-processing model proposed by Craik and Lockhart (1972) has been criticized because it is impossible to determine how deeply a memory has been processed. Thus, there is no way to truly and scientifically prove or disprove the theory. This should remind you of which principle of critical thinking noted in your text? A) falsifiability Correct. Remember, in order for a theory to be useful, it must be capable of being disproved. B) extraordinary claims C) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. In this example, no alternate hypotheses are given, because the initial premise is not capable of being scientifically proven or disproven. D) correlation vs. causation Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line

44. The first day of class, Sheila asked her professor what was the best way to learn and remember the material for the course. The professor responded, “Focus on identifying and understanding the meaning of the important terms and concepts.” The instructor is advocating a __________ level of processing. A) phonological Incorrect. Phonological encoding, which processes information based on how it sounds, is an intermediate level of processing. B) semantic Correct. Semantic, or meaning-related, encoding processes information on a deep level. C) verbal D) visual Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line % correct 70 a = 18 b = 70 c = 0 d = 12 r = .22 45. An important criticism of the levels-of-processing model is that it is __________. A) an extraordinary claim that is unsupported by research Incorrect. The levels-of-processing model is actually not that “extraordinary” at all. It has had quite a bit of support over the years. B) an incomplete explanation of the working of memory C) unfalsifiable Correct. Because it is difficult, if not impossible, to determine how deeply someone has processed a bit of information, it may be impossible to scientifically disprove this theory. D) unsupported by research data Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 46. Which of the following comparisons between long-term and short-term memory is TRUE? A) The duration of long-term memory is significantly shorter than that of short-term memory. B) The mistakes made in long-term memory are different from those made in short-term memory. C) The mistakes made in long-term memory are the same as those made in short-term memory. D) The storage capacity of long-term memory is significantly smaller than that of short-term memory. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line

47. The memory system that has an almost unlimited storage system is __________ memory. A) working B) depth C) motivated D) long-term Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line % correct 75 a = 16 b = 9 c = 0 d = 75 r = .42 48. Which of the following is likely to be stored in long-term memory? A) The phone number of an acquaintance that your friend just gave you B) The phone number from your last home address Correct. Information that is meaningful to us is most likely to be stored in long-term memory over time. This information can endure for years, or even decades. C) The phone number of a moving company that you just saw advertised on their truck Incorrect. Because you just saw this stimulus, it is still being stored in short-term memory. D) The phone number on the billboard that you just passed while driving at 65 miles per hour on the highway Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 49. In his research on long-term memory, psychologist Harry Bahrick found that memory declined __________. A) consistently the longer ago the information was learned and used B) markedly for about two years, but only gradually thereafter C) significantly for about one year but then reversed, and long-term memory increased D) slowly, if at all Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line

50. According to the research on the primacy effect, if your father read you a list of 10 items to pick up at the hardware store, you would most easily recall those items __________. A) from early in the list Correct. The primacy effects suggest that you will recall information that is presented at the beginning of a list. B) in the middle of the list C) from the end of the list Incorrect. Our tendency to remember things that were presented at the end of a list is known as the recency effect, not the primacy effect. D) that are most distinctive Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line % correct 61 a = 61 b = 3 c = 23 d = 13 r = .29 51. The tendency to remember the items that came at the end of a presented list is called the __________ effect. A) recency B) primacy C) locus D) semantic Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 52. Just before taking your French I exam, you were reviewing five terms that you had missed on the last vocabulary test. When you get to your exam, you find that you have an easy time answering several questions because they are related terms you just studied. This is an example of the __________ effect. A) primacy Incorrect. The primacy effect suggests that you will recall information that is presented at the beginning of a list. The best answer to this question is the recency effect. B) recency Correct. Our tendency to remember things that were presented at the end of a list is known as the recency effect. C) serial position D) von Restorff Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line % correct 62 a = 18 b = 62 c = 17 d = 3 r = .46 % correct 76 a = 12 b = 76 c = 12 d = 0 r = .24

53. Steve just joined a fraternity. He was introduced to 55 new “brothers.” If asked to recall all of their names, which ones would he be most likely to struggle with? A) the names of brothers in the middle of the group Correct. We tend to remember information at the beginning of a list (primacy effect) and at the end of a list (recency effect) better than information in the middle. B) the names of brothers at the beginning of the group C) the names of brothers at the end of the group Incorrect. In fact, we would have a very good memory of the things that came at the end of the group. This is referred to as the recency effect. D) any names that were strange or peculiar Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 54. What does the result of research on primacy and recency effects suggest about human memory? A) The forgetting of information occurs in predictable ways. Correct. Research studies that have been repeated time and time again have found very predictable patterns of memory loss in human beings. B) The forgetting of information occurs in a random manner. C) Human memory abilities are quite poor. Incorrect. Human memory is not poor, but it is subject to change over time. Only in rare situations do people have very poor memories, and the problem is usually caused by some sort of medical condition or event. D) We only recall information that is somehow unique and distinctive. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 55. Which of the following forms of memory requires conscious attention for encoding, storage, and retrieval? A) episodic memory Correct. Episodic memory is our recollection of events that have occurred in our lives, and it requires conscious attention. B) implicit memory C) priming memory D) procedural memory Incorrect. Procedural memory is our remembering of how to do things, and it is a form of implicit memory. That means it does not require conscious attention. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line % correct 59 a = 59 b = 23 c = 12 d = 6 r = .35

56. The memory system that contains memories for factual information about the world around us is __________ memory. A) elaborative B) maintained C) procedural D) semantic Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 57. Which two types of memories are both considered to be part of explicit memory? A) semantic and episodic B) semantic and procedural C) conceptual and schematic D) reconstructive and recalled Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line % correct 88 a = 88 b = 6 c = 0 d = 6 r = .21 58. Unlike explicit memory, implicit memory __________. A) involves no deliberate attention or effort Correct. Explicit memory is a type of memory that requires conscious attention and processing. Other memories can be formed implicitly, or without conscious effort. B) keeps track of important events from our lives C) refers to our factual knowledge Incorrect. Our knowledge about facts from the world is called the semantic memory, and is one of two types of explicit memory. D) requires conscious awareness Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line

59. Shonda cannot remember where she parked her car. Specifically, which type of memory could currently be causing Shonda a problem? A) implicit B) episodic Correct. Episodic memory refers to our recollection of events in our lives, such as parking our car. C) semantic D) procedural Incorrect. Procedural memory is our remembering of how to do things. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 60. Remembering that your father used to read The Cat in the Hat to you every night best illustrates which type of memory? A) semantic B) implicit C) procedural Incorrect. Procedural memory is our remembering of how to do things D) episodic Correct. Episodic memory refers to our recollection of events in our lives, such as reading a particular story. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line % correct 65 a = 17 b = 6 c = 12 d = 65 r = .37 61. It is believed that the __________ memory system may handle automatic remembering, while the ___________ memory system requires conscious effort. A) depth; elaborative B) prospective; retrospective C) primacy; recency D) implicit; explicit Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line

62. In long-term memory, __________ memory does not require much effort or attention to recall information. A) procedural B) episodic C) visual-spatial D) prospective Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 63. Exposing people to stereotype-consistent information before meeting with an individual from the stereotyped group is often sufficient to produce stereotypic interpretations of that person’s actions and thoughts. This is an example of __________. A) encoding failure Incorrect. An encoding failure, which is usually the result of inadequate attention, suggests that memories never actually make it to the storage facilities. B) misinformation C) priming Correct. Priming refers to our ability to identify a stimulus more easily or more quickly when we’ve previously encountered similar stimuli. D) transference Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line % correct 70 a = 0 b = 12 c = 70 d = 18 r = .25 64. After presenting groups of research participants with words like thread, eye, pin, syringe, sewing, sharp, and thimble, a memory researcher asks the participants whether they remember seeing the word needle. The fact that many participants do is an example of __________. A) amnesia B) déjà vu Incorrect. The experience of déjà vu occurs when we feel like a novel experience is familiar to us. C) priming Correct. Priming is our ability to identify a stimulus more easily or more quickly when we’ve previously encountered similar stimuli. D) permastore Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line

65. Charlie is completing a “word search” puzzle. He first finds the word SOLDIER after looking for some time, but then is able to find the word MILITARY much more rapidly. This ability to find a stimulus more easily after encountering a similar stimulus demonstrates the process of __________. A) pegwording B) rehearsal Incorrect. Rehearsal refers to one of two processes used when information is active in short-term memory. C) chunking D) priming Correct. When we have encountered one stimulus, we have an easier time identifying similar stimuli. This is called priming. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1,3 TEXT LO: 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 66. The order of the basic memory processes in which information enters the memory system and is later used is __________. A) encoding, retrieval, and storage B) encoding, storage, and retrieval C) acquisition, elaboration, and storage D) acquisition, encoding, and retrieval Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 67. __________ is the first process of getting information into memory. A) Acquisition B) Memorization C) Elaboration D) Encoding Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

68. Jeff is studying with a fellow classmate and is frustrated that he is missing several important concepts from his notes. Jeff claims that the professor “never said that in class,” and yet his friend has the information recorded in his notes. What kind of failure of memory might Jeff have experienced? A) retrieval B) storage Incorrect. In this case, Jeff has failed to adequately encode the information, probably as a result of a lack of adequate attention. C) encoding Correct. Encoding involves getting the information into our memory storage system. If Jeff claims to have missed certain ideas in class, that would be a failure of encoding. D) rehearsal Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 69. According to the authors, most of the events we experience __________. A) are encoded and lost in long-term memory Incorrect. In fact a vast majority of the sensory information is going on around us is never even encoded. B) are implicitly encoded and thus lost within our long-term memory C) are never encoded and thus never stored in long-term memory Correct. We are constantly bombarded by sensory information on a minute-by-minute basis, and most of it is never encoded because it is not relevant to us. D) are encoded and easily retrieved from long-term memory Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 70. During new worker orientation, you wish to make a good impression by being able to recall everyone’s name. Research on encoding would suggest that you are most likely to forget the name of __________. A) the first few people who introduced themselves B) the last few people who introduced themselves C) the person immediately after you Incorrect. According to the next-in-line effect, we would forget the name of the person immediately before us. D) the person immediately before you Correct. This refers to the next-in-line effect, which suggests that we are not paying much attention to what a person right before us would say. In this case we would forget that person’s name. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

71. Jasmine needs to remember an 8-line poem for her 5th-grade English class next week. Her mother suggests that she link the first few words from each line with a different part of their home, starting with the front door. This suggestion is most similar to the memory strategy known as _________. A) an acronym B) the keyword method C) the method of loci Correct. The method of loci relies on imagery of places, that is, locations, hence the name of the mnemonic. D) the pegword method Incorrect. The pegword method uses rhyming as its key components. That is not demonstrated in this example. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 72. Mnemonics will be most helpful as encoding devices if we __________. A) have only a few pieces of information to recall B) have a nearly photographic memory to begin with C) practice them on a regular basis. D) stop making lists and other external memory aids Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory % correct 52 a = 45 b = 0 c = 52 d = 3 r = .15 73. Daniel is learning French and is trying to remember the word for "love." He knows the romantic song That's Amore and uses that as a way of remembering that the French word for love is amour. This utilizes the __________, a mnemonic for assisting memory. A) method of loci Incorrect. This method involves the use of locations and a cognitive map. B) keyword method Correct. Connecting the word to something he already knows involves the keyword method. C) pegword method D) use of acrostics Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applying APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

74. Gingko, or any other memory booster, presumably works by increasing the amount of __________ in the human brain. A) acetylcholine B) dopamine C) norepinephrine D) serotonin Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 75. Lamont is walking through his local health and nutrition store. An employee comes up and asks if he needs any assistance. Lamont asks the employee for the most effective and cheapest memory-enhancing herbal remedy they carry. If the employee answers this question based on the evidence from controlled, scientific research, he or she would recommend __________. A) any sugary liquid Correct. The research into the effectiveness of ginkgo has found that any sugary liquid can produce the same short-term memory boost as ginkgo appears to do. B) gingko Incorrect. There would be nothing wrong with taking ginkgo, but the research suggests that any sugary liquid will produce the same effect. So save your money and make some lemonade. C) lemonade D) Prozac Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 76. Although many students attend every class and take notes, they struggle to remember everything they need to know for an exam. Where does this breakdown in memory most likely occur? A) encoding Incorrect. The problem is not with putting things into memory, the problem is keeping them where they are organized over time without any loss of data. B) storage Correct. Storage is the process of keeping information in memory. Many students “know” the information shortly after reading it or attending class, but fail to keep the information there long enough to do well on an exam. C) retrieval D) blocking Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

77. While attempting to visit a friend in Boston, Enrique is struggling with his friend’s directions. Enrique’s friend told him, “Turn left at the ball park, right at the movie theater, go around the mall, and make a left turn.” The directions are almost meaningless, because Enrique has never been to Boston before. Which of the following provides the best explanation for the breakdown in communication? A) Enrique is experiencing retroactive interference. B) Enrique is experiencing the recency effect. Incorrect. The recency effect would be seen if Enrique only understood or remembered the first one or two directions he was given. In this case, the entire set of instructions has caused confusion, suggesting that this is a problem with schemas. C) Enrique does not have a preexisting schema to which he can attach the new information. Correct. Schemas are organized knowledge structures stored in memory that help us figure out how to behave and what to expect in new situations. Since Enrique has no schema for Boston, he has trouble making sense of his friend’s directions. D) Enrique is trying to process too much information at one time. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2b Identify the role that schemas play in the storage of memories. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 78. A high school student’s organized set of expectations about the order of events that will take place in a new class is an example of a __________. A) script B) chunk C) semantic network D) primer Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2b Identify the role that schemas play in the storage of memories. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 79. Knowing how to navigate the route from one’s residence hall room to the location of one’s college algebra class is an example of a __________. A) priming cue B) retrieval cue C) script D) schema Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2b Identify the role that schemas play in the storage of memories. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

80. Schemas and scripts are valuable memory tools because they __________. A) assist us in interpreting new situations Correct. Schemas and scripts are mental shortcuts that allow us to have an idea of how to behave in novel situations. B) facilitate the encoding of information in memory C) often oversimplify a complex reality Incorrect. While this answer may be a somewhat true statement, it does not discuss the primary value of schemas and scripts. D) reduce the amount of information that must be stored in long-term memory Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.2b Identify the role that schemas play in the storage of memories. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 81. Although you have never taken a class with Dr. Hua, you walk into class, sit down, open your notebook, and wait for the professor to begin his lecture. What concept is being illustrated? A) script Correct. Scripts are preconceived or preconstructed schemas that relate to the order of events in a given situation. B) storage C) priming D) primacy effect Incorrect. The primacy effect suggests that information presented at the beginning of a list will be more easily remembered. It is not relevant to this example. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2b Identify the role that schemas play in the storage of memories. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 82. Which of the following is a legitimate criticism of the use of schemas in remembering? A) Schemas always lead to stereotypical categorizations of the world. B) The use of schemas can lead us to remember things that never happened. Correct. Schemas can sometimes oversimplify things, so that they lead to memory illusions. C) Schemas over-rely on explicit memory and under-rely on implicit memory. D) Schemas are far too likely to lead to script-based behaviors. Incorrect. A script is actually a type of schema, and it is not a problem related to schemas. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.2b Identify the role that schemas play in the storage of memories. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

83. Aleixo just started his job as an advertising intern. When he arrived at the office, he was surprised that everyone was wearing jeans or other types of informal attire. The situation most likely violates Aleixo’s __________ of office workers. A) chunk B) mnemonic Incorrect. A mnemonic is a learning aid, strategy, or device that enhances recall. The best answer to this question is a schema. C) primer D) schema Correct. A schema is a frame of reference for interpreting new information. In this case, Aleixo has a stored model in memory that differs from what he sees on his first day at work. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2b Identify the role that schemas play in the storage of memories. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 84. In answering this, and all other questions for this exam, you are making use of __________. A) encoding B) priming C) retrieval Correct. Retrieval is the process of extracting information from our memory storage facilities. D) storage Incorrect. Storage is the retaining of information over time. The extraction and use of that information is retrieval. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory % correct 87 a = 6 b = 7 c = 87 d = 0 r = .23 85. __________ is the process of reactivating or reconstructing information from your memory store. A) Remembering B) Recall C) Retrieval D) Recognition Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

86. Which of the following situations best illustrates the use of retrieval cues? A) bringing an eyewitness back to the scene of the crime Correct. Retrieval cues are hints that make it easier for us to recall information. B) asking Grandma to tell you about the “good old days” when she is visiting C) using a calculator to help you with an algebra exam D) taking your psychology test outside under a tree, instead of in the classroom Incorrect. This would be an ineffective way of taking an exam, because it does not provide for retrieval cues that were present when information was first and coded. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 87. What concept best explains why students often do worse on standardized tests like the SAT or ACT that are often taken in cafeterias and gymnasiums, as opposed to their regular classroom? A) blocking B) priming C) retrieval cues Correct. Retrieval cues are hints that make it easier for us to recall information. In this case, the hints may be the books, calculators, posters, and so forth, that are present in the typical classroom. D) relearning Incorrect. This is not an appropriate application of the concept of relearning. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 88. An essay exam question or a fill-in-the-blank question with no word bank is similar to the __________ method of assessing one’s memory. A) priming B) recall C) recognition D) relearning Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

89. A recognition memory task is often easier than a recall memory task because __________. A) we compare the difference in the amount of time to remember the information correctly with the amount of time taken initially to remember the information B) we have to both generate options and eliminate the incorrect options Incorrect. This describes a recall task, not a recognition task, and thus is the opposite of the correct answer. C) we are able to eliminate the incorrect options to get the correct answer Correct. In a recognition task, the individual must only compare options with what is stored in memory. Anything that does not match those data is eliminated. D) we seem to prefer multiple-choice memory assessments to those involving self-generated recall. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 90. As Dominique reviews the vocabulary terms for her French class, she is most likely to experience the greatest degree of forgetting immediately __________. A) after learning new words Correct. According to the curve of forgetting by Ebbinghaus, our greatest amount of forgetting occurs immediately after being exposed to a novel stimulus. B) after finishing a semester C) after taking a test Incorrect. While there certainly may be some information that is forgotten immediately after a test is completed, the greatest amount of forgetting occurs immediately after exposure to a new stimulus. D) before taking a test Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 91. The most sensitive measure of memory is __________. A) priming B) recall C) recognition D) relearning Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

92. Students often sit in class before an exam looking exhausted from having pulled an all-night studying session. Their professors are often frustrated because they’ve suggested spreading the studying out over longer periods of time instead of using a massed-practice approach. The effectiveness of distributed practice has been supported by repeated research studies. This reminds us of the importance of ___________. A) Occam’s Razor B) falsifiability Incorrect. The repeated research does not falsify the hypothesis that distributed practice is more effective than massed practice; rather, it strengthens it. C) replicability Correct. The repetition of similar research has produced similar findings. This strengthens our confidence that the findings are valid. D) correlation vs. causation Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 93. Which of the following situations best illustrates relearning? A) Juan has memorized all his multiplication tables and can repeat them at will. B) Stanley studied Spanish in high school and is now learning Latin in college. Incorrect. Stanley is not demonstrating relearning because he is now learning a new language, rather than trying to go back and pick up Spanish for the second time. C) Brooklyn hasn’t ridden her bike in years, but she climbs on her boyfriend’s bike and takes off. Correct. Relearning occurs when we learn something faster the second time we do it (showing at least some unconscious memory for the task). D) Riley has forgotten a friend’s phone number and has to look it up. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 94. For students to show the best performance on their exams, they are advised to engage in __________. A) delayed practice B) distributed practice C) massed practice D) maintenance rehearsal Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

95. Your authors report that the research into the effectiveness of distributed practice has been clear and unequivocal—spreading out our learning over longer intervals is much more effective then cramming our learning into shorter periods of time. This research has been repeated with the same findings over and over again. This demonstrates which principle of critical thinking from your textbook? A) replicability Correct. The ability to repeat the same research and come up with consistent findings demonstrates replicability. B) falsifiability C) correlation vs. causation D) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. There is no indication in this question that there is a “simpler” explanation for these research findings, so Occam’s Razor does not really apply. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 96. When a teacher tells you to start studying weeks before the exam rather than waiting until the last minute, he or she is really advising you to use __________. A) distributed practice Correct. Our memory improves when we study information in small increments over time. B) overlearning C) metamemory D) semantic practice Incorrect. The two types of practice discussed in your textbook are distributed practice and massed practice. Semantic practice is not a concept that is covered. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory % correct 88 a = 88 b = 3 c = 0 d = 9 r = .60 % correct 76 a = 76 b = 3 c = 3 d = 18 r = .56 97. Who is engaging in distributed practice? A) Geoff, who has been studying an hour a night over the last three weeks for his anatomy final Correct. Distributed practice occurs when we study material in smaller amounts over a longer time period (it is contrasted with massed practice, in which learning is crammed into a short time period). B) Angela, who just read through her notes on the way to take her algebra final Incorrect. Angela is demonstrating massed practice, not distributed practice, because she is trying to cram her learning into a short period of time. C) Kris, who made flash cards last night for his psychology final today D) Alan, who pulled an “all-nighter” to get ready for his biology final Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

98. Darryl decides to start reviewing for his exam by studying 20 minutes a day for 10 days rather than just studying 3 or 4 hours the night before his exam. He is making use of __________. A) cramming B) delayed practice C) distributed practice Correct. Distributed practice occurs when we study material in smaller amounts over a longer time period D) massed practice Incorrect. In massed practice, learning is crammed into a short time period. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 99. Leola has a comprehensive final for her organic chemistry class. For her to be able to retain the information from early in the semester, she should be advised to use __________ in her studying throughout the term. A) cramming B) delayed practice C) distributed practice Correct. Distributed practice occurs when we study material in smaller amounts over a longer time period D) massed practice Incorrect. In massed practice, learning is crammed into a short time period. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 100. When listening to the radio, Ramona hears a song; she cannot immediately recall the band’s name, but she is sure she knows it. It feels as if the name is just outside of her reach! This is one example of __________. A) encoding failure B) interference Incorrect. Interference occurs when different bits of information obstruct the retrieval of other bits of information from memory. C) priming D) the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon Correct. The tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon occurs when we’re sure that we know the answer to a question, but we temporarily have difficulty coming up with it. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

101. Giada has a bet with her boyfriend. He bets her $5 that she cannot name all 32 teams in the National Football League. She gets 31 of them and struggles to remember the last team. She knows that she knows it but cannot retrieve the "New York Giants" before her time expires. Giada is experiencing __________. A) encoding failure B) interference Incorrect. Interference occurs when different bits of information obstruct the retrieval of other bits of information from memory. C) priming D) the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon Correct. The tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon occurs when we’re sure that we know the answer to a question, but we temporarily have difficulty coming up with it. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 102. When one attempts to recreate a retrieval environment that is as similar as possible to the initial encoding, or learning, environment as possible, he or she is making use of the principle of __________. A) distributed practice B) encoding specificity C) parsimony D) priming Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.2d Describe how the relation between encoding and retrieval conditions influences remembering. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 103. Your best friend is an airline pilot. You often ask him about his flying experiences, but the stories he tells are rather bland. One day he invites you to accompany him on a flight. Surprisingly, once you are up in the air, he begins to share with you all kinds of interesting stories. What is the best explanation for this change? A) state-dependent learning Incorrect. State-dependent learning refers to the superior retrieval of memories when the organism is in the same physiological or psychological state as it was during encoding. B) encoding specificity C) context-dependent learning Correct. Context-dependent learning refers to our tendency to remember information better when the context in which we learned it matches the context in which we recall it. D) mood-dependent learning Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2d Describe how the relation between encoding and retrieval conditions influences remembering. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

104. Dr. James advises that if you study for your next psychology exam in the same room where you take the exam, your score will improve. He is basing this advice on __________. A) state-dependent learning Incorrect. State-dependent learning refers to the superior retrieval of memories when the organism is in the same physiological or psychological state as it was during encoding. B) recognition specificity C) context-dependent learning Correct. Context-dependent learning refers to increased ability to retrieve memories when the context of the original memories matches the context of to-be-retrieved memories. D) familiarity schemas Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2d Describe how the relation between encoding and retrieval conditions influences remembering. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 105. State-dependent learning is superior for retrieval of information when the organism __________. A) is highly motivated to perform B) stores information while very emotional C) is very relaxed D) is in the same state as it was during encoding Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.2d Describe how the relation between encoding and retrieval conditions influences remembering. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 106. Your textbook suggests that the research into state-dependent learning has not consistently found the effect to be very powerful. Reasons for this lack of consistent findings include the idea that we learn information in multiple settings, not just one. These different findings provide a problem for the critical thinking concept of ___________. A) correlation vs. causation B) extraordinary claims Incorrect. The idea of state-dependent memory does have some supporting research, even though the research is not completely consistent. In addition, it is not what would be considered an extraordinary claim. C) Occam’s Razor D) replicability Correct. The lack of repeated findings for research studies into state-dependent memory challenges the importance of this particular effect. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

107. Mimi is recovering from serious back surgery and has been taking pain medication for the last several days. She has received multiple phone calls from friends and family. Later that week, off her medication, she can’t seem to remember the names of anyone who called her. Which of the following provides the best explanation for her memory failure? A) context-dependent learning Incorrect. Context-dependent learning refers to increased ability to retrieve memories when the context of the original memories matches the context of to-be-retrieved memories. B) state-dependent learning Correct. State-dependent learning refers to our tendency to remember information better when our psychological state (such as being sedated or happy) when we learned it matches the state we are in when we recall it. C) mood-dependent learning D) physiological-dependent learning Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2d Describe how the relation between encoding and retrieval conditions influences remembering. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 108. If a researcher showed that people remember pleasant memories better when they are happy than sad, this would be one method for demonstrating the importance of ___________. A) context-dependent learning Incorrect. Context-dependent learning refers to increased ability to retrieve memories when the context of the original memories matches the context of to-be-retrieved memories. B) priming C) mood-dependent learning Correct. Mood-dependent learning is a tendency to have an easier time recalling positive memories when in a positive emotional state and negative memories when in a negative emotional state. D) trait-dependent learning Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.2d Describe how the relation between encoding and retrieval conditions influences remembering. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

109. Misty and her family just got back from a vacation at Disney World, where they had a great time. Under which of the following circumstances is Misty likely to struggle remembering what they did? A) right after viewing a documentary about serial killers Correct. State-dependent learning refers to our tendency to remember information better when our psychological state (such as being happy or intoxicated) when we learned it matches the state we are in when we recall it. B) later that week at a sleepover with her friends C) during a lunch break at school D) several weeks later while attending the circus Incorrect. State-dependent learning suggests that it will be easier to remember happy memories from a vacation after a happy event like attending a circus. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2d Describe how the relation between encoding and retrieval conditions influences remembering. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 110. Though many people suffering from depression report that they were treated harshly by their parents during childhood, it is possible that this was not, in fact, the case. Another explanation is that people suffering from depression experience memory distortions of their childhood, where negative themes predominate. This demonstrates the importance of __________. A) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. This alternate explanation for the reported childhood treatment of some suffering from depression is a very logical alternative to the possibility that such harsh treatments actually occurred. B) correlation vs. causation C) replicability D) Hume’s dictum Incorrect. Hume’s dictum is not specified in the critical thinking concepts noted by your textbook. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 7.2d Describe how the relation between encoding and retrieval conditions influences remembering. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

111. Research seeking the engram, conducted by Lashley, has conclusively demonstrated that __________. A) the cerebellum is the place in the brain where memory is stored B) the hippocampus is the place in the brain where memory is stored Incorrect. The hippocampus is very important in memory storage, but it is not the only part of the brain that is responsible for this activity. C) the prefrontal cortex is the place in the brain where memory is stored D) there is no single place in the brain where memory is exclusively stored. Correct. The research of Lashley and others has failed to demonstrate a particular place in the brain that is responsible for the storage of all memories. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.3a Describe the role of long-term potentiation in memory. Topic: The Biology of Memory 112. The logical conclusion from years of searching for the engram is that __________. A) human memories are diffused throughout the brain in many different structures B) human memory is centered in the cerebellum C) human memory is largely contained within the hippocampus D) human memory is a primary function of the occipital and temporal lobes Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.3a Describe the role of long-term potentiation in memory. Topic: The Biology of Memory 113. The area of the brain heavily involved in the formation of lasting, long-term memories is __________. A) the amygdala B) the hippocampus C) Wernicke’s area D) the thalamus Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.3a Describe the role of long-term potentiation in memory. Topic: The Biology of Memory 114. The gradual strengthening of the connections between neurons by repetitive stimulation over time is referred to as long-term __________. A) enhancement B) potentiation C) inhibition D) synaptization Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.3a Describe the role of long-term potentiation in memory. Topic: The Biology of Memory Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

115. Long-term potentiation, which enhances learning, depends on the neurotransmitter __________. A) dopamine B) acetylcholine C) glutamate D) GABA Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.3a Describe the role of long-term potentiation in memory. Topic: The Biology of Memory 116. Memory recovery from amnesia is __________. A) gradual, if at all B) never likely to happen C) sometimes gradual, sometimes sudden D) usually sudden Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.3b Distinguish different types of amnesia and the relevance of amnesia to the brain’s organization of memory. Topic: The Biology of Memory 117. The character of Dory from the movie Finding Nemo keeps complaining that she has shortterm memory loss because she can’t remember the name of the friend she just met. What is a more likely explanation for her memory failure? A) anterograde amnesia Correct. Anterograde amnesia is the inability to form new memories. B) retrograde amnesia Incorrect. Retrograde amnesia refers to the inability to recall past memories. C) hippocampal damage D) blocking Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.3b Distinguish different types of amnesia and the relevance of amnesia to the brain’s organization of memory. Topic: The Biology of Memory

118. Who is most likely suffering from retrograde amnesia? A) Billy, who can’t seem to learn a foreign language B) Margie, who can’t remember much of anything before being attacked on the street after a latenight party Correct. Retrograde amnesia is the loss of some memories of our past. C) Cecil, who can’t remember much of anything after his wife died Incorrect. Anterograde amnesia is the inability to form new memories. D) Mariana, who struggles to remember the names of the people she just met Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.3b Distinguish different types of amnesia and the relevance of amnesia to the brain’s organization of memory. Topic: The Biology of Memory 119. Following a car accident, Jane and Joan both suffer head injuries with resulting amnesia. Joan cannot remember events that occurred before the accident, while Jane cannot remember events that occurred after the accident. Joan suffers from __________ amnesia and Jane from __________ amnesia. A) anterograde; retrograde Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. B) retrograde; anterograde Correct. Retrograde amnesia is loss of past memories, whereas anterograde amnesia is loss of the ability to form new memories. C) proactive; retroactive D) retroactive; proactive Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.3b Distinguish different types of amnesia and the relevance of amnesia to the brain’s organization of memory. Topic: The Biology of Memory 120. Although both Clive Wearing and a patient known as H.M. had severely damaged hippocampi or removed hippocampi, they both showed evidence of __________ memory. A) episodic B) explicit C) implicit D) eidetic Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.3b Distinguish different types of amnesia and the relevance of amnesia to the brain’s organization of memory. Topic: The Biology of Memory

121. Chase was in a bad motorcycle accident. He suffered severe damage to his hippocampus. What is the likely effect on his memory? A) total loss of episodic and implicit memories B) partial loss of semantic and procedural memories C) loss of primarily explicit and implicit memories Incorrect. Research into the neurophysiology of memories suggests that the hippocampus is primarily responsible for explicit memories. D) partial loss of explicit memories Correct. The hippocampus is important for storing new memories that are consciously (explicitly) recalled. Damage to the hippocampus usually leaves older and procedural memories intact. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.3b Distinguish different types of amnesia and the relevance of amnesia to the brain’s organization of memory. Topic: The Biology of Memory 122. The hormones adrenaline and __________ are released in the face of stress and stimulate protein receptors on nerve cells, which help explain why emotional memories may persist over time. A) glutamate B) acetylcholine C) norepinephrine D) gamma-aminobutyric acid Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.3a Describe the role of long-term potentiation in memory. Topic: The Biology of Memory 123. The part of the brain where the emotional components of memories are stored is called the __________. A) reticular formation B) corpus callosum C) hypothalamus D) amygdala Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.3b Distinguish different types of amnesia and the relevance of amnesia to the brain’s organization of memory. Topic: The Biology of Memory

124. Cahill and colleagues (1994) found that administering a drug called __________ to participants who were told an emotionally impactful story caused them to recall the story without the emotional component. A) propranolol B) monurol C) nadolol D) sodium amobarbital Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.3b Distinguish different types of amnesia and the relevance of amnesia to the brain’s organization of memory. Topic: The Biology of Memory 125. Alzheimer’s disease is one of the most well-known forms of dementia. Because of neurofibrillary tangles, a person with this illness will __________. A) suffer uncontrolled growth of synapses in the hippocampus B) forget his or her children’s names before forgetting his or her grandchildren’s names C) suffer loss of synapses and death of cells in the hippocampus and cerebral cortex D) experience memory impairments but not language impairments Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.3c Identify the key impairments of Alzheimer’s disease. Topic: The Biology of Memory 126. Estimates suggest that as many as 14 to 16 million Americans will suffer from Alzheimer’s disease by the year __________ if a cure cannot be found before that time. A) 2035 B) 2050 C) 2065 D) 2080 Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.3c Identify the key impairments of Alzheimer’s disease. Topic: The Biology of Memory 127. The most common drugs that are used to treat Alzheimer’s disease work by boosting the amount of __________ in the brain by inhibiting its breakdown. A) glutamate B) acetylcholine C) dopamine D) serotonin Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.3c Identify the key impairments of Alzheimer’s disease. Topic: The Biology of Memory Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

128. Which of these age groups has the strongest memory abilities? A) children B) infants C) older adults D) young adults Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age. Topic: The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History 129. As we age, our ability to recognize the strengths and limitations of our own memories improves. This is known as __________. A) meta-cognition Incorrect. Meta-cognition refers to thinking about our own thinking processes. B) meta-memory Correct. Meta-memory refers to knowledge about our own memory abilities and limitations. C) permastore D) transience Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age. Topic: The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History 130. An adult is able to remember that CIA stands for “Central Intelligence Agency,” and yet a child is not. Why is this, according to your text? A) Because at some point in our life we will probably have some interaction with the CIA, or know someone who’s had an interaction with them Incorrect. This is simply not the correct answer, as very few people actually have to interact with the CIA. B) Because as we age, our conceptual understanding increases Correct. An enhanced understanding of concepts allows for greater ability to chunk information and related ways. C) Because we have more exposure to movies and television shows where the CIA is present D) Because children do not watch news programs, which is where the CIA is usually mentioned Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age. Topic: The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History

131. Textbooks often give quizzes at the end of chapters to help students identify what material they know and what material they need to spend more time reviewing. This understanding demonstrates __________. A) meta-memory Correct. Meta-memory is the awareness of one’s own memory abilities and limitations. B) implicit memory Incorrect. The understanding of our own memory processes is called meta-memory. C) source monitoring D) semantic networking Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age. Topic: The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History 132. Albert realizes that he has to study differently for essay tests in history than the multiplechoice test in his psychology class. In which aspect of memory is he demonstrating growth? A) metacognition Incorrect. Metacognition refers to thinking about our own thinking processes. B) meta-awareness C) meta-mnemonics D) meta-memory Correct. Meta-memory refers to our knowledge about our own memory skills and limitations. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age. Topic: The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History 133. Many parents refuse to take their infants on vacations on the basis that they will not remember it anyway. Which of the following may lend some credence to their decision? A) Most people don’t have accurate memories before the age of 3. Correct. Although a lot of important development obviously happens in the first few years of life, we do not consciously remember it. B) Many people possess the memories from their earlier years but cannot access them. C) Most adults had no sense of self until they were 3 years old, making encoding more difficult. D) Despite popular belief, many adults have distinct memories dating back to infancy. Incorrect. In fact, most people have no significant memories prior to the age of three years. This is called infantile amnesia. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age. Topic: The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History % correct 53 a = 53 b = 12 c = 35 d = 0 r = .25

134. Roseanne claims that she can remember instances of childhood sexual abuse that started at 6 months of age. Why are most psychologists likely to be skeptical of this and other such claims? A) Because decay leads to almost immediate forgetting of newly learned information Incorrect. First decay does not lead to immediate forgetting, and second the best answer to this question is infantile amnesia. B) Because infantile amnesia makes it unlikely that these are true memories from that age Correct. Infantile amnesia refers to the fact that most adults do not have any significant memories prior to the age of three years. C) Because proponents of the realism of such claims are charging less to treat the victims of this abuse than those who are dubious of the claims D) Repression inhibits the conscious recognition of traumatic events such as childhood sexual abuse Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age. Topic: The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History 135. According to your textbook, some proponents of Scientology have suggested that negative statements overheard by fetuses, embryos, and even zygotes can be “reactivated” in adulthood, triggering low self-esteem and psychology difficulties. The research, however, has failed to support these claims. Which principle of critical thinking is best demonstrated by this example? A) Occam’s Razor B) replicability C) extraordinary claims Correct. Recall from your text that extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence. In this case, there is no evidence—extraordinary or otherwise—to back up these most unusual claims. D) correlation vs. causation Incorrect. Nothing in this question addresses the issue of the relationship between correlation and causation. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age. Topic: The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History 136. Which of the following situations is most likely to create a flashbulb memory? A) watching a favorite movie for the fifteenth time B) playing tennis with a friend C) finding out that one or one’s partner is pregnant Correct. Flashbulb memories are most likely to form when the event in question is surprising, traumatic, or highly meaningful to the person. D) attending a basketball game with one’s father and grandfather Incorrect. Although this may be an emotionally impactful event, it is not the best answer to this question. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

137. You are telling your friend about a trip you took to Sea World when you were a child. During the middle of the show, the trainer slipped, fell into the water, and was nearly killed. You can remember the scene as if it happened yesterday. This is an example of which type of memory? A) phantom B) semantic Incorrect. Semantic memory refers to a remembering of general facts and information from the world around us. The best answer to this question is flashbulb memory. C) flashbulb Correct. Flashbulb memories are most likely to form when the event in question is surprising, traumatic, or highly meaningful to the person. D) procedural Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad % correct 83 a = 7 b = 9 c = 83 d = 1 r = .27 138. “You should have seen it! First the car flipped over and then it exploded! I will never forget it!” What type of memory may have just formed in this eyewitness? A) flashbulb Correct. Flashbulb memories are most likely to form when the event in question is surprising, traumatic, or highly meaningful to the person. B) implicit C) semantic Incorrect. Semantic memory refers to a remembering of general facts and information from the world around us. The best answer to this question is flashbulb memory. D) procedural Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad 139. Research on flashbulb memories indicates that __________. A) decay does not occur for these memories B) interference does not occur for these memories C) these memories are often the result of reconstruction rather than true memories D) they are largely susceptible to the same errors as other types of memory Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad % correct 35 a = 12 b = 6 c = 47 d = 35 r = .32

140. Researchers asked students about their initial recollections a few days after the Challenger explosion and then 2 1/2 to 3 years later. The results showed that __________. A) few students showed significant changes in their memories with the passage of time and their initial recollections were largely accurate B) few students failed to show changes in their memories with the passage of time and about one-third showed dramatic changes in memory C) most students showed dramatic changes from their initial recollections to their later recollections D) most students showed changes in their memories with the passage of time and about onethird showed dramatic changes in memory Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad 141. Recent research into the accuracy of flashbulb memories has found that they are as susceptible to distortion over time as any other kind of memories. There have been many attempts to explain these findings, but one line of reasoning suggests that it is because flashbulb memories are exactly the same as any other kind of memories, just more intense. Which principle of critical thinking does this very simple explanation illustrate? A) extraordinary claims Incorrect. This explanation for the distortion of flashbulb memories is not extraordinary; in fact, it is the lack of extraordinariness that is what makes it such a likely explanation. That is what defines Occam’s Razor. B) Occam’s Razor Correct. Recall that Occam’s Razor suggests that the simplest explanation is usually the correct one, and that is what is demonstrated in this question. C) correlation vs. causation D) falsifiability Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad % correct 44 a = 6 b = 44 c = 19 d = 31 r = .45 142. The ability to identify the origins of a memory is known as __________. A) encoding B) memory detection C) sensory memory D) source monitoring Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad

143. An important source of false memories comes from __________. A) anterograde amnesia B) permastore C) retrograde amnesia D) source monitoring confusion Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad 144. Paolo is positive he told his roommate to feed the cats while he was at work. His roommate is positive he did not. If Paolo begins to doubt whether or not he told his roommate to feed the cats or just thought about telling his roommate, he is experiencing __________. A) absentmindedness Incorrect. Absentmindedness, which is one of the seven sins of memory, is usually attributed to a lack of attention at the time of encoding or retrieval. B) misinformation C) source monitoring confusion Correct. Source monitoring is the ability to identify the origins of a memory; source monitoring confusion happens when we lack clarity about that origin. D) suggestibility Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applying APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad 145. Seth is using visualization to imagine himself throwing pitches for strikes when he plays baseball. The ability to recognize that he is constructing these images rather than recalling them from an actual game in which he played results from accurate __________. A) encoding B) memory detection C) sensory memory Incorrect. Sensory memory is one of the three storage facilities according to the Atkinson and Shiffrin model. The best answer to this question is source monitoring. D) source monitoring Correct. We often experience source monitoring confusion with our memories; we think something happened to us when it actually happened in a movie or in someone else’s life, for example. In Seth’s case, he is able to accurately identify the origins of his memories. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad

146. Jermaine sees a car accident and he initially estimates the offending driver to be traveling at 39 miles per hour. However, after hearing another witness’s report of the cars “bumping” and answering a police officer’s questions about the rate of speed when the cars “contacted,” he subsequently revises his estimate to 30 miles per hour and his memory of the accident changes. This is an example of __________. A) bias B) decay Incorrect. The decay theory of forgetting suggests that information that is not actively used at some point tends to fade away over time. C) interference D) the misinformation effect Correct. The misinformation effect refers to providing people with misleading information after an event in order to elicit fictitious memories. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad % correct 61 a = 29 b = 0 c = 10 d = 61 r = .35 147. Which of the following situations is most likely to lead to the misinformation effect? A) Professor Weiss asked his chemistry students how terrifying the explosion was. Correct. The inclusion of the word “terrifying” may lead the students to remember the explosion as more traumatic and frightening than it actually was. B) Jared’s mother asks him about his day at school. C) The police detective asked the witness to describe what happened during the shooting in the cafeteria. D) Danny asks his girlfriend if it was her idea to go to a movie last week. Incorrect. There is no example of the misinformation effect at play in this answer. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad 148. False memories are easier to implant when the events that are said to have occurred are perceived as __________. A) atypical B) implausible C) plausible D) unusual Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad

149. As an adult and a parent of a 4-year-old child, Camille has seen many children begin to cry when placed on the lap of the mall Santa or Easter Bunny. When discussing this with her brother, Luis, he reminds her of the time when she was 5 years old, that she began crying hysterically, ran from Santa’s lap, and was lost for nearly two hours. Luis has made all of this up, but Camille has a clear and distinct memory of the event he described. This demonstrates the role of __________ in producing false memories. A) atypical events B) exaggerated suggestion C) implausible events Incorrect. Research into false memories has found that it is more difficult to produce false memories of the implausible or impossible events than other events that are plausible, or likely to have actually occurred. D) plausible events Correct. Because it is likely that the events that Luis discussed actually occurred, it was easier to produce the false memories of that event. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad 150. Researchers have attempted to implant false memories in the memories of individuals. To be certain that the event never occurred, they asked students if they recall getting to meet Bugs Bunny (a Warner Brothers character) at Disneyland. When approximately 16% of the students reported this memory, the researchers knew it was indeed evidence of a false memory because the memory __________. A) was of an impossible event B) was of a possible event C) occurred in the distant past D) occurred in the recent past Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad

151. According to your text, one of the leading reasons for the conviction of innocent persons is __________. A) biased prosecutors B) faulty eyewitness identification Correct. A majority of prisoners acquitted by DNA testing are mistakenly identified by eyewitnesses. C) police corruption Incorrect. Nothing in your text suggests that police corruption is responsible for the conviction of innocent defendants. D) racial prejudice Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.5b Describe some of the real-world implications of false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad 152. The most important factor in the majority of the cases where DNA evidence led to the overturning of a unjust conviction of an innocent person was __________. A) false confessions B) faulty eyewitness identification C) the use of jailhouse snitches D) the use of “junk” science Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.5b Describe some of the real-world implications of false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad 153. An eyewitness to a crime says in court, while pointing to the defendant, “I was there; I saw that man pull the trigger!” How likely is it that the defendant will be found guilty? A) Quite likely, because eyewitness testimony is very persuasive. Correct. Juries tend to believe the testimony of confident eyewitnesses, even though the correlation between confidence and accuracy is weak. B) Quite likely, because eyewitness testimony is very accurate. Incorrect. There is compelling research that suggests that eyewitness testimony is not very accurate, and is even subject to manipulation. C) Not likely, because jurors usually need more evidence to convict someone. D) Not likely, because eyewitness testimony has been shown to be inaccurate. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.5b Describe some of the real-world implications of false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad

154. Eyewitness testimony has been found to be most accurate when __________. A) the witness has ample time to observe the person under good viewing conditions B) the witness is presented a simultaneous, as opposed to a sequential, lineup C) a weapon is used in the commission of a crime D) the witness is distracted or must fill in gaps in their memory with stereotyped information Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.5b Describe some of the real-world implications of false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad 155. With regard to the idea of patients’ memories being shaped by suggestive psychotherapy techniques, psychologists __________. A) are in agreement that this frequently happens B) are in agreement that this rarely happens C) are divided about whether such memories are real or false memories D) need more evidence to demonstrate that false memories can be implanted Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.5b Describe some of the real-world implications of false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad 156. What point did the authors make regarding claims of recovered memories of childhood abuse? A) Childhood abuse frequently happens and all claims should be treated as accurate recall of past abuse. B) Childhood abuse claims need to be supported by supporting evidence in order to be believed as real. Correct. Because of the seriousness of the claims of childhood abuse, they must be supported by real verifiable evidence. C) Childhood abuse rarely happens and all claims should be dismissed as implanted false memories. Incorrect. It would be foolish and irresponsible to assume that childhood abuse claims are necessarily false. D) Recovered memories are always the result of faulty memory processes. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.5b Describe some of the real-world implications of false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad

Fill-in-the-Blank 1. Peter is trying to accurately remember what his wife, Lois, looked like and was wearing the first time he ever saw her. Research suggests this will involve actual details stored in his memory as well as his best guesses and hunches based on his current knowledge. This suggests that people actively __________ many of their recollections of the past. Answer: reconstruct Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 2. LaShon has a quiz over research methods for both his psychology and biology classes. As he studies, he is continually getting information from one class confused with information from the other. The resulting memory loss is called __________. Answer: interference Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 3. The Magic Number 7 plus or minus 2 refers to the storage capacity of __________ memory. Answer: short-term Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 4. The process of repeating a stimulus to yourself over and over again is called __________ rehearsal. Answer: maintenance Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 5. As he studies the different structures and regions of the brain, Jerious works to link nearby structures together to more easily remember and recall them during his test. This attempt to make the information more meaningful, and thereby easier to remember later, is one example of __________. Answer: elaborative rehearsal Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line

6. When a student is attempting to bring an answer to an exam question out of memory, they are attempting to access their __________-term memory storage. Answer: long Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 7. The memory system with the largest storage capacity is __________ memory. Answer: long-term Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 8. Loi is reading over the teams that have won the National Basketball Association (NBA) championship since 1980. His recall of the first nine and last nine champions at significantly higher rates than the ten champions in the middle would clearly demonstrate the __________. Answer: serial position curve Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 9. An individual’s knowledge about the world—such as Wilhelm Wundt being considered the father of psychology, or Sigmund Freud’s claims that the id, ego, and superego are three different structures of everyone’s personality—is called __________ memory. Answer: semantic Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 10. An undergraduate student hypothesizes that having research participants perform arithmetic problems that produce an answer of 24 will make them more likely to respond with the word diamond when they are later asked to name a gemstone than participants whose problems produce an answer other than 24. This research study clearly is examining the role that __________ can play in memory. Answer: priming Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

11. Learning strategies that are used to enhance memories are called __________. Answer: mnemonics Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 12. Controlled, scientific studies have cast doubts on claims that the herbal remedy __________ can enhance one’s memory abilities. Answer: ginkgo (or Ginkgo biloba) Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 13. The process of retaining information in memory is called __________. Answer: storage Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 14. Although LaShonda has never actually been on a job interview before, she knows what to expect based on her three practice interviews with her high school guidance counselor. This mental model of an interview is one example of what psychologists call a(n) __________. Answer: schema (script may also be considered acceptable) Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2b Identify the role that schemas play in the storage of memories. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 15. Retrieving information through __________ tends to be more difficult than retrieval through recognition. Answer: recall Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 16. James has decided that he is going to pull an “all-nighter” to study for his physics final examination tomorrow. In psychology terms, he is planning to engage in __________ practice. Answer: massed Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

17. In classes where comprehensive or cumulative exams are given, a student would be best advised to engage in __________ practice. Answer: distributed Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory 18. Although its existence has not been definitively demonstrated, the existence of a(n) __________, or a physical trace of each memory in the brain, has been speculated about for some time. Answer: engram Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.3a Describe the role of long-term potentiation in memory. Topic: The Biology of Memory 19. Scientific research suggests that the total loss of memory, or __________ amnesia, is extremely rare. Answer: generalized Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.3b Distinguish different types of amnesia and the relevance of amnesia to the brain’s organization of memory. Topic: The Biology of Memory 20. The most frequent cause of senility is __________ disease. Answer: Alzheimer’s Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.3c Identify the key impairments of Alzheimer’s disease. Topic: The Biology of Memory 21. Some professors give students quizzes so that they can clearly and easily identify what material they know well, what material they need to spend more time reviewing, or if they need to change their study strategies. Awareness of one’s own memory limitations is what psychologists refer to as __________. Answer: meta-memory Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age. Topic: The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History

22. When Bethany attempts to determine if she merely imagined being lost in a department store as a child, or if she really was lost in a department store as a child, she is engaged in __________. Answer: source monitoring Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad 23. Diego witnessed an assault where a person with brown hair attacked another person. However, when he is later questioned by a police officer, who mistakenly asked him to further describe the other characteristics of the person with black hair, Diego comes to hold a memory where the suspect has black, not brown, hair. This is an example of the __________. Answer: misinformation effect Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad 24. According to the authors, when one is attempting to determine whether a claim of repressed childhood sexual abuse is based on real or false memories, we should look for clear-cut __________ evidence. Answer: corroborating Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.5b Describe some of the real-world implications of false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad

Essay 1. Discuss how our memories both serve us well and lead to memory errors. Answer: Answers will vary. A full credit answer should address at least one of the points from each section of the answer suggested here. Memories can serve us well in different ways. o When asking people to recognize whether they have seen a particular object previously, or presenting information in a multiple-choice format, many people are able to show strikingly good recall of information (above 90% accuracy). o There are certain persons who have naturally gifted memory abilities. For some, this allows them to remember quite clearly many of the events that have occurred throughout their lives. For others, it means that they are able to encode and retrieve large amounts of information from several specific domains (like Rajan’s ability to recall long lists of digits from the number pi). Human memory, however, is far from perfect. o Rather than functioning like an uncorrupted computer file or videotape of the event, our memories are reconstructions, rather than representations, of the past. These reconstructions can be influenced by suggestions from authority figures, such as therapists or the police, and lead to the implanting of false memories. o Our normal adaptive memory processes lead us to remember seeing or hearing things that were not presented (i.e., remembering the word sleep after reading a list of words that were all related to the word sleep but did not actually contain it). This reconstruction can also occur because we fail to encode certain information and then fill in the gaps in our memories with our best guesses about what occurred. This can lead to errors in memory due to misattribution, bias, as well as transience and absentmindedness, blocking, and persistence. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line

2. Discuss the three important ways in which the short-term and long-term memory systems differ. Answer: Answers will vary but need to include the three distinctions noted in the answer below. Short-term and long-term memory processes differ in terms of storage capacity, duration, and in the types of memory errors that occur. Short-term memory seems to be limited to a storage capacity of approximately five to nine chunks of information, although some researchers have suggested an even more limited capacity (more chunking may be occurring than researchers can either assess or simply realize). Long-term memory, by contrast, has a seemingly unending storage capacity. Short-term memories vanish after approximately 20 seconds while long-term memories endure for days, months, years, and even the rest of our lives. As long as we have appropriate retrieval cues, we may be able to access information from our long-term memory. Short-term memory errors seem to be based on acoustic information rather than the semantic information that accompanies long-term memory errors. While short-term memory errors are likely to involve mistaking what word we’ve heard (e.g., a heavily accented statement of lake is heard as like by someone unfamiliar with the dialect), longterm memory errors occur regarding the meaning of the information. For example, a witness to an automobile accident misremembers a car driving through a yellow light and hitting another car as the offending driver running through a red light. Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line 3. Describe and differentiate by duration and capacity the various systems of memory. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain many of the following points. Most psychologists believe that there are at least three separate systems of memory: sensory, short-term, and long-term memory. These systems differ in both span (amount of information that may be held) and duration (how long the information may be retained). Sensory memory is the initial memory system. Information from any of the five senses is briefly retained here and then either moves on to the next system or the information is “lost.” Even though research by Sperling suggests that all information is available to use, our limited attention only allows us to be able to recall a few items of all possible items through sensory memory. For example, a student can only recall a few items of what a professor is saying during class lecture as he or she is writing down information in his or her notes. The information that moves on is said to be in short-term, or working, memory. This system of memory can hold between 5 and 9 “pieces” of information at any single time and can keep this information for about 15 to 20 seconds. These pieces of information may either be individual pieces of information or may be “chunked” together (e.g., remembering Freud’s three structures of personality—the id, ego, and superego—as a single chunk because they are interrelated. Or remembering the three types of memory systems as a “chunk” of memory systems—sensory, short-term, and long-term). The information may be lost here as well, through processes such as decay or interference, or moved on to the next system via either elaborative or maintenance rehearsal. The third, and final, system is known as long-term memory. This system is thought to be quite large and the information can remain here for years or decades. The information in memory is stored here until accessed through retrieval cues or priming. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Topic: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

4. Describe how the three methods of measuring memory differ and provide an example of each. Answer: Answers will vary. A full credit answer will provide information that distinguishes each method from the others and also includes an example to demonstrate the student’s understanding of the difference. Recall is sometimes referred to as the most difficult method of measuring memory because the individual has to generate the information on his or her own with little or no external information. The authors refer to recall as being similar to an essay question. There are the retrieval cues the student interprets from the question, but the information in the student’s answer is entirely generated from his/her knowledge of the subject that is retrieved from their long-term memory. Recognition involves choosing or selecting the previously stored information from an array of options (one is, or some are, correct and the remaining items are incorrect). This type of method gives the person more cues to work from. They have the cues in the item or question itself and then the cues from the options listed. This type of assessment method is like a multiple-choice question. The question is posed, and thus may provide a retrieval cue, or several retrieval cues, and then the person looks over all of the options listed and makes his or her choice. Relearning involves measuring memory by seeing how quickly a person can again learn information or a procedure to which they have had previous exposure (e.g., relearning the names of all 50 U.S. state capitals or correct basketball shooting technique). Relearning is considered a more sensitive measure of memory than the other two methods because we don’t just make a correct/incorrect judgment (or right/wrong judgment), but rather we make a relative judgment (how much faster or quicker the information was correctly recalled or the procedure correctly performed this time versus the first time). This type of memory measurement also allows us to access information for not only explicit memory (semantic memory or episodic memory) but also implicit memory (procedural memory). Diff: 2 Skill: Factual/Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

5. Why do you as an adult have a superior memory to an elementary school child? Answer: Answers will vary but should include discussion on all three of these elements listed below (memory span increases, conceptual knowledge of world increases, and meta-memory skills increases). There are several important reasons why an adult has a better memory than a child. First, as we grow older, our memory span increases. Research suggests that part of this increase in memory span is due to an increase in sophisticated encoding strategies (using maintenance or rote rehearsal, beginning to use elaborative rehearsal). However, there is also evidence that biological maturation also plays a role. We have to wait for an individual’s natural memory abilities to increase as we age. Memory span is seemingly influenced by both nature and nurture factors. Second, a child’s conceptual knowledge of the world is less than an adult’s. Children often have “poorer” memories because they have less experience in and with the world and all of the knowledge that an adult might have and take for granted. Because of this larger conceptual knowledge base, the adult learner can make better and more efficient use of this knowledge as he or she attempts to make newly encountered information easier to recall by relating it to information that is already meaningful. Third, children are more likely to be unaware of the limitations of their own memory abilities, an area called meta-memory. They have yet to consider the strengths and limitations of their strategies. As we grow older, we pick and choose between various memory strategies depending how effective each would be. Children are often unaware of how limited their abilities are and overestimate their ability to recall information at a later time. Again, with the passage of time, as they grow older, children begin to understand this and become more accurate, or at least more realistic, in their remembering abilities. Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age. Topic: The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History

Critical Thinking 1. Pretend for a moment that you are the chairperson of the psychology department. Based on the information discussed on context-dependent learning, justify to your faculty why they should not reassign students to different seats on the day of an exam or should not give exams in different classrooms from where the material was learned. Answer: Answers will vary. Full credit answer should discuss how information about the learning environment is encoded along with the information about facts learned during class lecture/discussion and also mention information that the authors covered in the chapter reading (students do better on exams in same classroom where they learned the material). Researchers have noted that people tend to recall information better when the conditions associated with the original learning context are also present at the later retrieval context. It seems that this external, or incidental, information provides retrieval cues that assist in the recall of information. One such context-dependent cue may be the student’s location in the classroom. While it is the source of continued debate, some researchers have documented that students perform better when they are tested in the same classroom as opposed to a different classroom. The same may then be true of the location of their seat or being surrounded by the same persons on exam day as on lecture, or discussion, days. Research has documented that persons who were asked to learn information either standing on a beach or submerged in 15 feet of water tended to have significantly better recall when tested in similar conditions at a later time versus being tested in a different environment. By moving the student from the back of the room, the student is placed in a different context. Because the location of others and the location of one’s self within the room may provide explicit or implicit retrieval cues that assist the student in attempting to recall information for the exam, I respectfully ask that all of you as faculty refrain from shuffling student seating arrangements and locations within the classroom and thereby removing an important retrieval cue from your students. Diff: 3 Skill: Applied/Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.2d Describe how the relation between encoding and retrieval conditions influences remembering. Topic: The Three Processes of Memory

2. Suppose that you have been called as an expert witness for a defendant accused of robbing a bank. Prior to your being called as a witness, two bank tellers confidently identified the defendant as the robber. What research evidence might you introduce to the jury to caution them about assuming that the defendant must be guilty because he or she was identified in court? Answer: Answers will vary. A full credit answer should mention at least three of the following points. Research examining the phenomenon of flashbulb memories has shown that people’s initial and later recollections of events often differ dramatically. This should serve as a caution against automatically accepting them as evidence, and it challenges the conventional belief that certain memories are impervious to forgetting or other memory errors. Post-event information, such as questions asked by the police, may become part of one’s memory of the event. Therefore, what one recalls and what one actually saw are two different events. People can be led astray in their recall of information by suggestive questioning. Researchers have documented several instances of false implanted memories that seemed to be plausible memories to the person. Research involving people who were exonerated by DNA evidence points to errors in eyewitness identification as one important factor in the individual’s being found guilty of a crime. Juries often believe eyewitness identification and are unaware that eyewitness confidence is, at best, a weak indicator of eyewitness accuracy. Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors.; 7.5b Describe some of the real-world implication of false memories and memory errors. Topic: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad

CHAPTER 7: MEMORY _______________________________________________________________________ Three Stages of Memory 1. What is the system or process by which the products or results of learning are stored for future use? a. cognition b. memory c. perception d. sensation Answer b % correct 91 a= 7 b= 91 c= 1 d= 0 r = .21 2. What are the components of the information processing model in order? a. retrieval, encoding, storage b. encoding, capturing, retrieval c. capturing, encoding, retrieval d. encoding, storage, retrieval Answer d % correct 84 a= 8 b= 2 c= 6 d= 84 r = .49 3. The process of selective looking, listening, smelling, and feeling is called ____________. a. retention b. cognition c. recognition d. attention Answer d % correct 80 a= 2 b= 8 c= 9 d= 80 r = .49 4. Memory is classically defined as: a. a capacity for learning. b. the ability retain information over time. c. an ability of humans only. d. unchangeable. Answer b % correct 76 a= 21 b= 76 c= 0 2 d= 1

r = .28

5. One feature of the Atkinson and Shiffrin model of memory is that: a. important information can bypass short-term memory and go from sensory directly into long-term. b. important information can bypass sensory memory and go directly to long-term. c. all information going into long-term memory must first pass through both sensory store and short-term memory. d. information can bypass sensory memory and go directly to short-term memory. Answer c % correct 73 a= 14 b= 5 c= 73 d= 9 r = .37 6. The step in the memory process that actually makes our memories available to us is: a. retrieval. b. encoding. c. rehearsal. d. storage. Answer a % correct 84 a= 84 b= 6 c= 2 d= 8 r = .34

7. Memory is: a. a capacity for learning. b. a system that allows people to retain information over time. c. an ability of humans only. d. unchangeable. Answer b % correct 88 a= 11 b= 88 c= 0 d= 1 r = .28 8. A system that allows people to retain information over time is called: a. memory. b. cognition. c. computer. d. intelligence. Answer a % correct 97 a= 97 b= 2 c= 0 d= 1 r = .24

Sensory Memory 9. In what way are sensory memory and long-term memory similar? a. Storage in both is essentially permanent. b. Retrieval from both is immediate. c. Both have a large capacity. d. Both make exclusive use of semantic retrieval cues. Answer c % correct 47 a= 9 b= 19 c= 47 d= 33 r = .34 10. A visual image held in the sensory register is _____________. a. an icon b. a pictograph c. a trace d. a symbol Answer a % correct 79 a= 79 b= 9 c= 5 d= 7 r = .28 11. The passing of time causes forgetting according to ___________. a. interference theory b. optimization theory c. reduction theory d. decay theory Answer d % correct 96 a= 2 b= 0 c= 1 d= 96 r = .45 12. The sensory registers _____________. a. are measures of retention b. retain past information c. control our attention span d. receive sensory information from the external world Answer d % correct 94 a= 1 b= 1 c= 4 d= 94

r = .32

13. The auditory equivalent of the icon is the ____________. a. echo b. vibration c. sound wave d. neural trace Answer a % correct 70 a= 70 b= 8 c= 18 d= 4 r = .43 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

14. Our visual sensation of a passing automobile would be initially stored in ___________. a. the sensory registers b. short-term memory c. long-term memory d. the hippocampus Answer a % correct 73 a= 73 b= 23 c= 2 d= 2 r = .27 15. An echo usually stays in the sensory registers for __________. a. 1/4 of a second b. one second c. several seconds d. 40 seconds Answer c % correct 59 a= 25 b= 12 c= 59 d= 4 r = .42 16. Sensing is to _______ memory as rehearsal is to _______. a. sensory store; attention b. short-term; long-term c. attention; short-term d. sensory; short-term Answer d % correct 50 a= 1 b= 45 c= 5 d= 50 r = .37 17. The process we use to notice important stimuli and ignore irrelevant ones is ______. a. encoding b. attention c. masking d. chunking Answer b % correct 72 a= 17 b= 72 c= 7 d= 4 r = .49 18. Attention is the process of ________. a. storing information b. representing information c. selectively noticing stimuli d. recognizing visual sensations Answer c % correct 91 a= 4 b= 0 c= 91 d= 5

r = .53

19. Sensory store memory: a. holds information for as long as you rehearse it. b. holds information for about 30 seconds. c. holds information for one or two seconds. d. processes information for permanent encoding. Answer c % correct 91 a= 1 b= 5 c= 91 d= 4

r = .36

20. Iconic and echoic memory are types of _______ memory. a. working b. sensory c. short-term d. long-term Answer b % correct 53 a= 4 b= 53 c= 24 d= 19 r = .24

21. Unprocessed stimulation from the environment is first held in: a. short-term store. b. sensory memory. c. long-term store. d. intermediate store. Answer b % correct 91 a= 7 b= 91 c= 0 d= 1 r = .35 22. Sensory store memory: a. holds information for as long as you rehearse it. b. holds information for about 30 seconds. c. holds information for one or two seconds. d. processes information for permanent encoding. Answer c % correct 89 a= 2 b= 7 c= 89 d= 2

r = .27

23. Which of the following statements concerned with sensory memory is true? a. Sensory memory affects both vision and hearing. b. Sensory memory affects only vision. c. Sensory memory affects only touch. d. Sensory memory affects only hearing. Answer a % correct 89 a= 89 b= 7 c= 2 d= 2 r = .30 24. The sensory memory associated with the visual sense is called the: a. iconic memory system. b. echoic memory system. c. optical memory system. d. occipital memory system. Answer a % correct 66 a= 66 b= 4 c= 18 d= r = .40 25. Which of the following statements about the visual sensory memory system is false? a. The codes in it are of a semantic type. b. The codes in it are quite similar to the original sensation. c. Its traces last for 1 to 2 seconds, maximally. d. Its codes seem susceptible to disturbance by other visual stimuli. Answer a % correct 60 a= 60 b= 12 c= 19 d= 8 r = .27 26. Iconic memory and echoic memory represent what many theorists call: a. precepts. b. imaginal systems. c. sensory memory systems. d. rapid retrieval systems. Answer c % correct 88 a= 1 b= 7 c= 88 d= 4 r = .38 27. The process by which we notice stimuli selectively is called: a. attention. b. recognition. c. saving. d. recalling. Answer a % correct 47 a= 47 b= 44 c= 1 d= 8 r = .44

28. How long do the contents of the sensory store normally last? a. less than one second b. about four to twenty seconds c. about five to nine minutes d. up to a lifetime Answer a % correct 77 a= 77 b= 16 c= 1 d= 7 r = .38

Short-Term Memory or Working Memory 29. You looked up a friend’s address for a letter you wrote. Suddenly the phone rings—wrong number. Even though you were interrupted for only a few seconds, you’ve forgotten the address. Which memory system failed you? a. permanent memory b. long-term memory c. sensory memory d. short-term memory Answer d % correct 95 a= 0 b= 2 c= 3 d= 95 r = .21 30. Information selected from sensory memory is transferred to conscious awareness or: a. primary memory. b. short-term memory. c. factual memory. d. long-term memory. Answer b % correct 73 a= 14 b= 73 c= 4 d= 7 r = .58 31. What we are thinking of at any given moment, or what we commonly know as “consciousness,” is ____________. a. long-term memory b. short-term memory c. secondary memory d. cognitive dissonance Answer b % correct 68 a= 10 b= 68 c= 4 d= 16 r = .46 32. If the most recent theories regarding the capacity of short-term memory are correct, then _____________. a. five sentences should be easier to remember than five words b. five sentences should be as difficult to remember as five words c. five sentences should be more difficult to remember than five words d. five sentences and five words should both be easier to remember than five letters, because the words and sentences both have inherent meaning Answer c % correct 46 a= 7 b= 6 c= 46 d= 41 r = .21 33. Dreams occur in _____________. a. the sensory registers b. short-term memory c. long-term memory d. eidetic memory Answer b % correct 56 a= 3 b= 56 c= 9 d= 31

r = .47

34. The hippocampus is instrumental in: a. the formation of short-term memory. b. the retrieval of memories from long-term memory. c. maintaining a constant level of information filtration by the sensory registers. d. transferring information from short-term to long-term memory. Answer d % correct 58 a= 10 b= 16 c= 16 d= 58 r = .20 35. Students in a psychology experiment were exposed to three notes of music for a very short period of time and then asked to recall them. If the instructions to recall the notes came immediately, the students usually succeeded. If the instructions came more than three seconds after the notes were played, the students were much less successful. The MOST plausible explanation for this phenomenon is that, in the latter case, _____________ . a. the echo never made it to the sensory registers b. the echo faded after being stored in short-term memory c. the echo was already stored in long-term memory d. the echo faded before being stored in short-term memory Answer d % correct 46 a= 0 b= 53 c= 1 d= 46 r = .20 36. What is the capacity of short-term memory? a. five, plus or minus pieces of information b. eleven, plus or minus two chunks c. fifteen, plus or minus two engrams d. three, plus or minus two numbers Answer a % correct 43 a= 77 b= 20 c= 1 d= 2

r = .25

37. Students in a psychology experiment were exposed to three nonsense syllables for a very short period of time and then asked to recall them. If the instructions to recall the syllables came immediately, the students were usually successful. If the instructions came even one second after the syllables were shown, the students were much less successful. The MOST plausible explanation for this phenomenon is that, in the latter case, _____________. a. the icon never made it to the sensory registers b. the icon was already stored in short-term memory c. the icon faded after being stored in short-term memory d. the icon faded before being stored in short-term memory Answer d % correct 53 a= 5 b= 0 c= 42 d= 53 r = .26 38. The working memory is known as the _____________ memory. a. tertiary b. primary c. short-term d. long-term Answer c % correct 92 a= 1 b= 1 c= 92 d= 6 r = .33 39. Many years ago, telephone numbers had only four or five digits. Even now, no more than seven digits are used for phone numbers. The most reasonable psychological explanation for this is that ________________. a. there is a direct relationship between the number of items in the sensory registers and their retention b. there is an inverse relationship between the number of items in the sensory registers and their retention c. there is a direct relationship between the number of items in short-term memory and their retention d. there is an inverse relationship between the number of items in short-term memory and their retention Answer d % correct 11 a= 10 b= 3 c= 76 d= 11 r = .29

40. If you want to remember something for a couple of minutes, the MOST effective device is __________. a. visual imagery b. tactile imagery c. rote rehearsal d. elaborative rehearsal Answer c % correct 87 a= 2 b= 1 c= 87 d= 10 r = .27 41. Information in short-term memory is retained ________. a. for about 60 seconds b. as long as it is rehearsed c. for several seconds without rehearsal d. up to several minutes Answer b % correct 43 a= 14 b= 43 c= 38 d= 5 r = .25 42. The capacity of STM is _______ items. a. unlimited b. 7 +or - 2 c. 12 d. 22 Answer b % correct 95 a= 4 b= 95 c= 1 d= 1

r = .34

43. Memory span is _______ and is associated with _______ memory. a. the duration that information is stored; short-term b. number of items stored; long-term c. the number of items stored; short-term d. the duration that information is stored; long-term Answer c % correct 50 a= 20 b= 9 c= 50 d= 22 r = .48 44. What is the capacity of short-term memory? a. five, plus or minus two letters b. seven, plus or minus two chunks c. five, plus or minus two engrams d. seven, plus or minus two numbers Answer b % correct 43 a= 5 b= 43 c= 4 d= 47

r = .15

45. What is the capacity of short-term memory? a. 7 bits of information b. 7 chunks of information c. 12 letters, if measured by Sperling's partial report technique d. 16 letters, if measured by Sperling's partial report technique Answer b % correct 61 a= 37 b= 61 c= 1 d= 0 r = .22 46. Information that has been transferred out of sensory memory enters: a. long-term. b. short-term. c. savings. d. either short-term or long-term depending on the level at which it is processed. Answer b % correct 73 a= 5 b= 73 c= 0 d= 22 r = .43

47. Most normal adults have a memory span: a. of between 5 and 9 items. b. that averages 7. c. of 7 plus-or-minus 2. d. all of the above. Answer d % correct 74 a= 2 b= 0 c= 23 d= 74

r = .42

48. The short-term memory capacity (digit-span) in a normal adult is about: a. 9 items. b. 7 or 8 items. c. 4 or 5 items. d. 14 or 15 items. Answer b % correct 98 a= 0 b= 98 c= 1 d= 1 r = .27 49. Encoding is: a. recalling information. b. recognizing information. c. representing information. d. remembering information. Answer c % correct 55 a= 2 b= 27 c= 55 d= 16

r = .30

50. Verbal and visual codes are types of _______ encoding. a. primary b. secondary c. short-term d. long-term Answer c % correct 56 a= 26 b= 4 c= 56 d= 14 r = .31 51. The average memory span consists of _______ items. a. five b. six c. seven d. nine Answer c % correct 96 a= 1 b= 1 c= 96 d= 2 r = .21 52. Memory span is a characteristic of: a. long-term memory. b. short-term memory. c. sensory memory. d. semantic memory. Answer b % correct 46 a= 34 b= 46 c= 3 d= 17

r = .27

53. Information in short-term memory is coded _______. a. abstractly b. visually only c. acoustically only d. acoustically and visually Answer d % correct 90 a= 4 b= 3 c= 3 d= 90 r = .34

54. Information is grouped for storage in short-term memory through the process of __________. a. rote rehearsal b. cueing c. chunking d. categorizing Answer c % correct 92 a= 4 b= 1 c= 92 d= 4 r = .28 55. Chunking is a means of _______________. a. immediately forgetting irrelevant details b. organizing information into meaningful units c. arranging details into a hierarchy from most important to least important d. storing long-term memories Answer b % correct 96 a= 0 b= 96 c= 4 d= 0 r = .43 56. Most people cannot store the following list of letters in short-term memory. G O T O Y O U R B E D R O O M However, if the letters are grouped meaningfully into words, they fit short-term’s memory span: Go to your bedroom. This illustrates _________. a. chunking b. backward masking c. verbal coding d. selective attention Answer a % correct 89 a= 89 b= 1 c= 9 d= 1 r = .39 57. Chunking aids: a. understanding. b. perception. c. retention. d. encoding. Answer c % correct 63

a= 2 b= 0 c= 63 d= 35

r = .26

58. Information is grouped for storage in short-term memory through a process called _______. a. chunking b. categorizing c. rehearsal d. cueing Answer a % correct 79 a= 79 b= 10 c= 8 d= 3 r = .31 59. Chunking is a means of _______. a. immediately forgetting irrelevant details b. organizing information into meaningful units c. arranging details into a hierarchy from most important to least important d. storing long-term memories Answer b % correct 90 a= 3 b= 90 c= 5 d= 2 r = .45

Long Term Memory 60. A soldier was injured when a mortar exploded next to him. Although he recovered from his wounds, he is not able to recall information from years ago. What term is used to describe this soldier’s condition? a. retroactive amnesia b. retrograde amnesia c. proactive amnesia d. anteretrograde amnesia Answer b % correct 72 a= 14 b= 72 c= 4 d= 9 r = .34 61. Why is implicit memory so difficult to study? a. It does not operate on a conscious level. b. It is a more recently identified type of memory. c. It is concerned with the identification of only certain words and objects. d. People with perfectly intact memories are often the focus of study. Answer a % correct 79 a= 79 b= 4 c= 16 d= 1 r = .35 62. Which type of memory is concerned with remembering the day your parents bought you a car? a. implicit memory b. semantic memory c. episodic memory d. procedural memory Answer c % correct 88 a= 5 b= 6 c= 88 d= 1 r = .35 63. Which memory system provides us with a very brief image of all the stimuli present at a particular moment? a. long-term memory b. sensory memory c. primary memory d. short-term memory Answer b % correct 87 a= 0 b= 87 c= 2 d= 10 r = .35 64. Hermann Ebbinghaus found that memory is best immediately after we learn information, and we gradually forget more as time passes. What name is given to this observation? a. serial position curve b. mirage effect c. free recall curve d. curve of forgetting Answer d % correct 78 a= 13 b= 2 c= 7 d= 78 r = .43 65. The state psychology association has invited teams from all the colleges in the state to compete in a Psych Bowl. The teams will answer questions such as “Who founded the first psychology laboratory?” Where is this information stored? a. long-term memory b. short-term memory c. conceptual memory d. primary memory Answer a % correct 82 a= 82 b= 2 c= 9 d= 8 r = .39

66. The type of memory that is most like an encyclopedia or a dictionary is __________. a. emotional memory b. episodic memory c. procedural memory d. semantic memory Answer d % correct 81 a= 1 b= 9 c= 9 d= 81 r = .40 67. Memories that concern events that are highly significant and are vividly remembered are called __________. a. elaborative rehearsals b. flashbulb memories c. eidetic images d. eyewitness images Answer b % correct 93 a= 1 b= 93 c= 3 d= 2 r = .28 68. The portion of long-term memory that stores specific information that has personal meaning is called __________ memory. a. emotional b. episodic c. semantic d. procedural Answer b % correct 83 a= 8 b= 83 c= 8 d= 0 r = .42 69. Your street address, telephone number, and social security number are stored in: a. numerical memory. b. short-term memory. c. long-term memory. d. sensory memory. Answer c % correct 87 a= 2 b= 7 c= 87 d= 4 r = .09 70. Steve was recalling his first day in college, including walking into the wrong class, dropping his books as he left, and the long line at the registrar's office he encountered when he had to switch classes. These memories are examples of: a. semantic memory. b. implicit memory. c. procedural memory. d. episodic memory. Answer d % correct 90 a= 7 b= 1 c= 2 d= 90 r = .28 71. Korsakoff syndrome is caused by chronic alcohol abuse and damages the _______ in the brain. a. hypothalamus b. pituitary gland c. pineal gland d. none of the above Answer d % correct 56 a= 37 b= 4 c= 4 d= 56 r = .46 72. “Forgetting that occurs as a function of the passage of time” defines ________. a. motivated forgetting b. decay theory c. cue-dependent forgetting d. interference theory Answer b % correct 92 a= 2 b= 92 c= 2 d= 4 r = .27

73. The hippocampus seems to be essential for __________. a. the recall of old memories b. maintaining one's balance c. the formation of new long-term memories d. proactive and retroactive inhibition Answer c % correct 60 a= 21 b= 1 c= 60 d= 17 r = .29 74. Which statement concerning long-term memory is TRUE? a. Information in long-term is stored permanently. b. Rehearsal is one of the primary methods information is moved from short-term to long-term. c. The longer information is in short-term, the more likely it will be stored in long-term. d. all of the above Answer d % correct 86 a= 0 b= 11 c= 3 d= 86 r = .20 75. An individual’s semantic memory contains: a. memories about events. b. background knowledge about words, symbols, concepts and rules arranged as hierarchies of information in categories and subordinate categories. c. autobiographical information about one's previous experiences. d. the order and sequence of information from specific to general. Answer b % correct 85 a= 5 b= 85 c= 5 d= 6 r = .39 76. Connie lost her keys. She searches her memory for when she last had them, and goes to that place in the hope that it will help her remember where she misplaced them. Connie is ________ activating her _________. a. unconsciously; semantic memory b. conscious; semantic memory c. unconsciously; episodic memory d. consciously; episodic memory Answer d % correct 83 a= 1 b= 7 c= 9 d= 83 r = .32 77. Your memories of personal information such as what you wore to work yesterday or what you ate for breakfast this morning are stored in _______________. a. procedural memory b. semantic memory c. episodic memory d. eidetic memory Answer c % correct 81 a= 2 b= 14 c= 81 d= 2 r = .54 78. Information that was either unintentionally committed to or unintentionally retried from memory is known as ___________ . a. eidetic memory b. procedural memory c. implicit memory d. explicit memory Answer c % correct 86 a= 9 b= 0 c= 86 d= 5 r = .49 79. “Use it or lose it” would most likely be associated with ________. a. trace decay theory b. proactive inhibition c. retroactive inhibition d. interference Answer a % correct 85 a= 85 b= 5 c= 9 d= 2 r = .49 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

80. Scott remembers all of the details of his wedding seven years ago. This information is most likely stored in _______ memory. a. iconic b. episodic c. semantic d. short-term Answer b % correct 89 a= 2 b= 89 c= 9 d= 0 r = .36 81. Semantic memory is organized __________. a. in chunks b. sequentially and chronologically c. hierarchically d. chronologically Answer c % correct 63 a= 9 b= 24 c= 63 d= 4

r = .55

82. Flashbulb memories _______. a. are not subject to periodic revision b. concern events that are highly significant c. are almost always highly accurate d. include a memory's main subject, but not the background events Answer b % correct 79 a= 6 b= 79 c= 3 d= 12 r = .31 83. Flashbulb memories ______________. a. are not subject to periodic revision b. usually concern events that are emotionally charged c. are almost always highly accurate d. usually concern events from early childhood Answer b % correct 74 a= 4 b= 74 c= 12 d= 9

r = .27

84. Flashbulb memories are: a. eidetic memories. b. clear and vivid memories of where one was and what one was doing when a special event occurred. c. photographic memories. d. visual images that are extremely difficult to describe. Answer b % correct 88 a= 5 b= 88 c= 4 d= 3 r = .30 85. Memories that concern events that are highly significant and are vividly remembered are called _______. a. eidetic images b. elaborative rehearsals c. flashbulb memories d. eyewitness images Answer c % correct 92 a= 4 b= 0 c= 92 d= 4 r = .40 86. Korsakoff’s syndrome is due to: a. insufficient dopamine. b. excessive dopamine. c. insufficient thiamine. d. excessive thiamine. Answer c % correct 63 a= 17 b= 10 c= 63 d= 9

r = .27

87. “Iconic” and “echoic” are to sensory memory as “episodic,” “semantic,” and “procedural” are to _______ memory. a. long-term b. short-term c. procedural d. semantic Answer a % correct 79 a= 79 b= 17 c= 1 d= 3 r = .32 88. What theory of forgetting attributes it to the mere passage of time? a. decay b. proactive interference c. repression d. retroactive interference Answer a % correct 92 a= 92 b= 4 c= 2 d= 2 r = .40 89. Deciding what information to store and how to represent it is known as: a. remembering. b. decoding. c. encoding. d. recall. Answer c % correct 89 a= 2 b= 8 c= 89 d= 1 r = .40 90. Which of the following is an example of semantic memory? a. events b. concepts c. time d. place Answer b % correct 72 a= 12 b= 72 c= 8 d= 7 r = .31 91. Which of the following is an example of episodic memory? a. words b. concepts c. symbols d. events Answer d % correct 91 a= 3 b= 5 c= 2 d= 91 r = .25 92. An individual’s memory can be distorted by: a. exposure to new information. b. unconscious reconstruction. c. being asked leading questions. d. all of the above. Answer d % correct 94 a= 4 b= 1 c= 2 d= 94

r = .26

93. Which of the following is NOT an example of long-term memory? a. identifying a perfume as that worn by your grandmother 20 years ago b. repeating an address after it was told to you c. repeating a poem learned in nursery school d. remembering how to ride a bike Answer b % correct 94 a= 4 b= 94 c= 1 d= 1 r = .20

94. Retrieval cues ______. a. are important in helping us remember items stored in long-term memory b. are aids in rote rehearsal in short-term memory c. can be helpful in both long and short-term memory d. have been recently shown to be inefficient in accessing available information in memory Answer a % correct 80 a= 80 b= 11 c= 8 d= 1 r = .37 95. Which of the following is an example of semantic memory? a. events b. concepts c. time d. place Answer b % correct 67 a= 18 b= 67 c= 10 d= 5 r = .42 96. Long-term memory is sometimes unreliable because of _______ of information. a. reconstruction b. retention c. coding d. chunking Answer a % correct 80 a= 80 b= 9 c= 6 d= 5 r = .22 97. The process of getting information out of memory is known as: a. retention. b. retrieval. c. reconstruction. d. reliable. Answer b % correct 95 a= 0 b= 95 c= 2 d= 3 r = .34 98. The concept of a house would be stored in _______. a. the sensory registers b. short-term memory c. eidetic memory d. long-term memory Answer d % correct 56 a= 5 b= 1 c= 36 d= 56

r = .30

99. Our memories of general knowledge items such as the meanings of words or the dates of famous historical events are stored in _______. a. procedural memory b. semantic memory c. episodic memory d. eidetic memory Answer b % correct 56 a= 10 b= 56 c= 20 d= 14 r = .38 100. Your memories of personal information such as what you wore to work yesterday, what you ate for breakfast this morning, or who your spouse is, are stored in ______. a. procedural memory b. semantic memory c. episodic memory d. eidetic memory Answer c % correct 53 a= 6 b= 31 c= 53 d= 10 r = .32

101. When Rip Van Winkle returns to his native village, after 20 years of sleeping in the mountains, he goes immediately to the location of his former house and asks for his wife and children by name. The kind of memory that he is exhibiting is _______. a. procedural memory b. semantic memory c. episodic memory d. eidetic memory Answer c % correct 54 a= 21 b= 17 c= 54 d= 8 r = .39 102. On a TV game show, Jeannette is asked to name the state capital of Vermont. This information is most likely stored in ______. a. procedural memory b. semantic memory c. episodic memory d. eidetic memory Answer b % correct 78 a= 4 b= 78 c= 8 d= 10 r = .31 103. Tim is studying for a test. After seven consecutive hours of studying, he finds he can remember what he just finished studying, but he can no longer remember what he studied five or six hours ago. Tim’s memory problems are BEST explained by __________. a. proactive interference b. retrograde amnesia c. memory diffusion d. retroactive interference Answer d % correct 60 a= 20 b= 5 c= 14 d= 60 r = .23 104. Proactive interference of long-term memory means ___________ . a. new material interferes with memory of old material b. new material has suppressed short-term memories c. old material interferes with memory of new material d. old material has eliminated memories of new material Answer c % correct 73 a= 27 b= 0 c= 73 d= 0 r = .42 105. Retroactive interference of long-term memory means __________. a. new material interferes with memory of old material b. new material has suppressed short-term memories c. old material interferes with memory of new material d. old material has eliminated memories of new material Answer a % correct 85 a= 85 b= 1 c= 12 d= 2 r = .28 106. Tim is studying for a test. After seven consecutive hours of studying he finds he can remember what he just finished studying, but he can no longer remember what he studied five or six hours ago. Tim’s memory problems are BEST explained by _____________. a. proactive interference b. memory diffusion c. retroactive interference d. retrograde amnesia Answer c % correct 72 a= 24 b= 1 c= 72 d= 2 r = .30

107. “Old information inhibits one's ability to remember newer information” defines _________. a. interference b. retroactive inhibition c. proactive inhibition d. suppression Answer c % correct 49 a= 21 b= 29 c= 49 d= 1 r = .45 108. What kind of forgetting does the following incident illustrate? Ruth studied the names of learning theorists for her psychology class, after which she began studying the names of political theorists for her political science class. Much to her frustration, she found the names of the learning theorists were keeping her from being able to learn the names of the political theorists. a. decay b. proactive interference c. repression d. retroactive interference Answer b % correct 62 a= 0 b= 62 c= 2 d= 36 r = .32 109. The theory that states that we forget information because other information gets in the way is the _______ theory. a. signal detection b. trace decay c. interference d. inhibition Answer c % correct 94 a= 0 b= 4 c= 94 d= 1 r = .41 110. Kerry’s grandparents moved to a new neighborhood last year. Today, Kerry can easily remember their address but messes up their old one. This illustrates: a. trace decay. b. interference. c. retroactive inhibition. d. proactive inhibition. Answer c % correct 55 a= 14 b= 13 c= 55 d= 19 r = .46 111. Retroactive interference of long-term memory means _______. a. new material interferes with memory of old material b. new material has suppressed short-term memories c. old material interferes with memory of new material d. old material has eliminated memories of new material Answer a % correct 56 a= 56 b= 3 c= 40 d= 1 r = .21 112. Proactive interference of long-term memory means ______. a. new material interferes with memory of old material b. new material has suppressed short-term memories c. old material interferes with memory of new material d. old material has eliminated memories of new material Answer c % correct 62 a= 35 b= 2 c= 62 d= 1 r = .28

113. Little Tammy is talking to her grandfather. She loves to listen to him tell stories about when he was a child. He has very vivid recollections of his youth and enjoys telling people about his fond memories. Unfortunately, grandpa has a difficult time remembering what happened within the last few days or weeks. If there are no physiological problems, grandpa’s memory problems are best explained by ______. a. proactive interference b. memory diffusion c. retroactive interference d. retrograde amnesia Answer a % correct 50 a= 50 b= 8 c= 19 d= 22 r = .28 114. Last week Lisa took an abnormal psychology test and did not miss a question. However, when a guest speaker came to class a week later to talk about schizophrenia, she had trouble remembering some of the relevant class material. She remembered even less about the topic when she saw a news report on schizophrenia a month later. What memory phenomenon explains what Lisa is experiencing? a. mirage effect b. serial position curve c. free recall curve d. curve of forgetting Answer d % correct 75 a= 4 b= 5 c= 16 d= 75 r = .42 115. Your tutor has “one last word” for you before she ends today's session. She tells you to study material in the middle of your study session a little harder. What concept from memory research is the basis of her advice? a. serial position effect b. state-dependent learning c. transfer test d. imagery Answer a % correct 88 a= 88 b= 10 c= 0 d= 2 r = .52 116. Someone a short distance away, to whom we have been paying no attention, quietly speaks your name, and suddenly you are attending to that conversation. This is an example of ____________. a. Broadbent's filter theory b. shadowing c. the cocktail party phenomenon d. cue-controlled inhibition Answer c % correct 80 a= 6 b= 0 c= 80 d= 14 r = .34 117. Reproducing what one has learned exactly as one learned it, is required in the ______ method of testing memory. a. cued matching b. savings c. recognition d. serial recall Answer d % correct 77 a= 6 b= 7 c= 9 d= 77 r = .47 118. The items on this test illustrate which method of testing memory? a. cued recall b. savings c. recognition d. free recall Answer c % correct 68 a= 24 b= 4 c= 68 d= 5 r = .49

119. A test that requires one to reproduce information in any order is a _______ test of memory. a. cued recall b. savings c. recognition d. free recall Answer d % correct 86 a= 8 b= 2 c= 4 d= 86 r = .47 120. A recognition test requires one to: a. reproduce material when provided a cue. b. profit from previous learning to relearn faster. c. pick the correct answer from among several possible ones provided. d. reproduce material without cues provided. Answer c % correct 72 a= 19 b= 2 c= 72 d= 5 r = .30 121. Which of the following is NOT true of schemas? a. They are a part of short-term memory. b. They can influence the amount of attention you pay to a given event. c. They help people retrieve information from memory. d. They help determine what you will recall. Answer a % correct 63 a= 63 b= 31 c= 1 d= 5 r = .43 122. Which of the following is NOT a type of memory test? a. schemata b. savings c. recognition d. free recall Answer a % correct 58 a= 58 b= 23 c= 8 d= 1 r = .40 123. The TOT is: a. the process of selectively noticing certain stimuli. b. the uncomfortable state of being close to recalling but not actually being able to recall it. c. a technique that improves memory. d. where one subconsciously substitutes one word for another (e.g., a malapropism). Answer b % correct 93 a= 1 b= 93 c= 4 d= 3 r = .48 124. You are asked to recall the word that means “a woman who houses and manages prostitutes.” You are confident that you know what the term is, and you feel as though you are about to remember it, but it just will not pop out of your memory. You are experiencing: a. repression b. the partial recall phenomenon. c. the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon. d. the exhaustive memory search process. Answer c % correct 88 a= 4 b= 4 c= 88 d= 5 r = .45 125. Christine has always had an unusually effective memory. She credits this to the fact that after seeing something just once, she can visualize the object in great detail, as if she was looking at a photograph of it. Christine's ability is an example of ________. a. clairvoyance b. eidetic imagery c. episodic imagery d. mnemonics Answer b % correct 74 a= 3 b= 74 c= 14 d= 9 r = .53

126. Which of the following is NOT true of eidetic imagery? a. It is much more common in children than in adults. b. It seems to vary from person to person. c. Children with eidetic imagery outperform other children on tests of memory. d. Some people can produce eidetic images of three-dimensional objects. Answer c % correct 83 a= 0 b= 13 c= 83 d= 4 r = .36 127. Memories that concern events that are highly significant and are vividly remembered are called _______________ . a. eidetic images b. elaborative rehearsals c. flashbulb memories d. eyewitness images Answer c % correct 73 a= 20 b= 4 c= 73 d= 3 r = .23 128. Randy is recovering from an automobile accident in which he injured his head. The only noticeable psychological symptom of his injury is that he cannot remember what happened immediately prior to the accident. Randy's symptoms are typical of _____________. a. organic amnesia b. retrograde amnesia c. psychogenic amnesia d. proactive inhibition Answer b % correct 89 a= 2 b= 89 c= 5 d= 4 r = .21 129. Some studies indicate that learning due to classical conditioning is stored in the _____________. a. medulla b. hippocampus c. cerebrum d. cerebellum Answer d % correct 35 a= 7 b= 42 c= 16 d= 35 r = .27 130. An explanation for the widespread storage of memories is that ____________. a. the hippocampus is one of the most easily damaged areas of the brain b. several different senses may be involved in memory c. some specific parts of the brain are necessary for the formation of memory d. the memory center is located in the parietal lobes of both cerebral hemispheres Answer b % correct 79 a= 0 b= 79 c= 17 d= 4 r = .38

Quiz 7.1: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q7.1.1 Which mental phenomenon can be defined as “the retention of information over time”? a) memory b) knowledge c) thinking d) understanding ANS: a Topic=How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Often psychologists use terms and definitions in the same way laypeople do. LO 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences.

EOM Q7.1.2 When trying to recall an event, which of the following processes best describes how that takes place? a) We actively reconstruct our memories using cues and information available to us. b) We passively recall information that is stored in long-term memory. c) We "rewind the tape" to review the details of what we originally stored in memory. d) We inevitably fall prey to biases, errors, and shortcomings when trying to recall even the simplest information. ANS: a Topic=How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The memory system is not like a camera, video recorder, iPhone, photocopier, or any other mechanical metaphor. LO 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q7.1.3 In which memory system is information retained for the shortest amount of time? a) sensory memory b) short-term memory c) long-term memory d) working memory ANS: a Topic=How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Recall the "places" of memory and their defining characteristics. LO 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems.

EOM Q7.1.4 What type of graph would be used to illustrate the primacy and recency effects? a) serial position curve b) Ebbinghaus curve c) enneagram d) histogram ANS: a Topic=How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Most psychologists believe that the primacy and recency effects in this curve are the telltale signs of two different memory systems: long-term and short-term memory, respectively. LO 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory.

EOM Q7.1.5 To remember information such as a telephone number until you can finish dialing it, you could just say the number over and over again until it is fixed in your mind. This memory technique is called __________. a) maintenance rehearsal b) chunking c) elaborative rehearsal d) processing level ANS: a Topic=How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Think about what each of these terms means, then think about the process described in the question. LO 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory.

Quiz 7.2: The Three Processes of Memory Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: The Three Processes of Memory

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q7.2.1 We can use mnemonics to help us __________ information we want to retain in our memories. a) encode b) store c) retrieve d) comprehend ANS: a Topic=The Three Processes of Memory Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Mnemonics help us get information into the memory system to begin with. LO 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge.

EOM Q7.2.2 Hermann Ebbinghaus discovered the law of __________, which says that people tend to remember information better when they spread their learning out over long intervals rather than cram it into short ones. a) distributed versus massed practice b) strategic short-term retention c) memory sensitivity over time d) temporal memorization ANS: a Topic=The Three Processes of Memory Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 7.2b Identify the role that schemas play in the storage of memories. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This is pretty much what your parents and teachers have consistently advised you to do. LO 7.2b Identify the role that schemas play in the storage of memories. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q7.2.3 The memory technique that associates rhymes with a list of words in a particular order is called the __________. a) pegword method b) keyword method c) method of loci d) schema method ANS: a Topic=The Three Processes of Memory Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 7.2b Identify the role that schemas play in the storage of memories. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: One is a bun, two is a shoe, three is your knee; you need to stop at the grocery store, shoe store, and orthopedist. LO 7.2b Identify the role that schemas play in the storage of memories.

EOM Q7.2.4 Under most circumstances, which is a comparatively easier memory retrieval task to perform? a) recognition b) recall c) encoding d) rehearsal ANS: a Topic=The Three Processes of Memory Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Which items in this group are types of memory retrieval? LO 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory.

EOM Q7.2.5 Studies have shown the students perform slightly better on exams if they are tested in the same room where they learned the material. This is evidence for __________. a) context-dependent learning b) state-dependent learning c) encoding specificity d) retrospective bias ANS: a Topic=The Three Processes of Memory Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 7.2d Describe how the relation between encoding and retrieval conditions influences remembering. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Recall the distinctions between the terms mentioned here. LO 7.2d Describe how the relation between encoding and retrieval conditions influences remembering.

Quiz 7.3: The Biology of Memory Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: The Biology of Memory

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q7.3.1 Long-term potentiation enhances the release of which neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft, resulting in enhanced learning? a) glutamate b) aspartate c) anadamide d) GABA ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Memory Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 7.3a Describe the role of long-term potentiation in memory. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: LTP tends to occur at synapses where the sending neuron releases this neurotransmitter. LO 7.3a Describe the role of long-term potentiation in memory.

EOM Q7.3.2 In the 1920s, Karl Lashley hoped to discover the __________, the actual physical trace of a memory in the brain. He later concluded that memories are not stored this way. a) engram b) assembly c) postsynaptic receptors d) hippocampus ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Memory Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 7.3a Describe the role of long-term potentiation in memory. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: He taught rats how to run mazes and lesioned different parts of their brains to see if they forgot how to find their way. LO 7.3a Describe the role of long-term potentiation in memory. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q7.3.3 Which part of the brain plays an important role in remembering the emotional content of the memory of a frightening event? a) amygdala b) hippocampus c) thalamus d) forebrain ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Memory Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 7.3b Distinguish different types of amnesia and the relevance of amnesia to the brain’s organization of memory. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This structure interacts with the hippocampus during the formation of memory. LO 7.3b Distinguish different types of amnesia and the relevance of amnesia to the brain’s organization of memory.

EOM Q7.3.4 The primary cognitive impairments in patients with Alzheimer’s disease are related to __________. a) language and memory b) long-term memory and problem solving c) facial recognition and mathematical calculation d) multiple strokes and short-term memory loss ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Memory Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 7.3c Identify the key impairments of Alzheimer’s disease. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Patients with Alzheimer’s disease forget their grandchildren’s names well before forgetting their own children’s names, for example. LO 7.3c Identify the key impairments of Alzheimer’s disease.

EOM Q7.3.5 The brains of people with Alzheimer’s disease contain senile plaques and __________, abnormalities that contribute to both synapse loss and the death of hippocampal and cerebral cortex cells. a) neurofibrillary tangles b) beta-adrenergic receptors c) amygdala cells d) propranolol ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Memory Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 7.3c Identify the key impairments of Alzheimer’s disease. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: These abnormalities are one of the hallmarks of a post-mortem Alzheimer’s diagnosis. LO 7.3c Identify the key impairments of Alzheimer’s disease.

Quiz 7.4: The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q7.4.1 Because younger children have not developed their meta-memory skills to the extent that older children have, younger children can be mistaken about __________. a) their own memory abilities b) eyewitness accounts c) reports of abuse d) conditioning experiences ANS: a Topic=The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Memory, like other processes, develops over time. LO 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age.

EOM Q7.4.2 Most people cannot accurately remember anything they experienced in their earliest years of life. This phenomenon is known as __________. a) infantile amnesia b) retrograde amnesia c) anterograde amnesia d) juvenile amnesia ANS: a Topic=The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Purported memories before age 1 are almost certainly either false memories or true memories of something that happened several years later. LO 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age. EOM Q7.4.3 Even before we are born, we can show signs of __________ memory through habituation. a) implicit b) explicit c) engrammatic d) deliberate ANS: a Topic=The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: There are novel ways of assessing whether this is the case. LO 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age.

EOM Q7.4.4 As they develop, children's memories become increasingly sophisticated. Which of the following is not a reason why this occurs? a) The presence of siblings increases over time. b) Memory spans increase with age. c) Conceptual understanding increases with age. d) Meta-memory develops over time. ANS: a Topic=The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: There are several factors that explain this growing sophistication. LO 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age.

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EOM Q7.4.5 What is one likely reason why we cannot remember information and events from our own infancy? a) The hippocampus takes time to develop, and is only partially developed during infancy. b) Fetuses lack ears, and therefore cannot overhear conversations in the external world. c) Most parents "talk around" their children, rather than "talking to" their children. d) Infants operate in a post-conventional state, and only gradually achieve the formal operations necessary for memory formation. ANS: a Topic=The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Think about the options you see presented here, then rely on your reasoning skills. LO 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age.

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Quiz 7.5: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q7.5.1 The fact that people usually correctly remember where they were when they learned of the September 11th, 2001, attacks but are less exact about what they were doing or who told them, leads researchers to believe that __________, although not completely reliable, contain “substantial kernels of accuracy.” a) flashbulb memories b) initial recollection c) recovered memories d) source monitoring ANS: a Topic=False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: These vivid memories appear as though they should be indelible and infallible. LO 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors.

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EOM Q7.5.2 Which of the following can account for the fact that some people believe they have engaged in a particular action when, in fact, they watched someone else perform that action? a) source monitoring failure b) ego enhancing fantasy c) memory retrieval error d) eidetic imagery error ANS: a Topic=False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Recall some of the ways our memories can be distorted, inaccurate, and fallible. LO 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors.

EOM Q7.5.3 Scientists devise __________ in order to ensure that the memories elicited in their false-memoryimplantation experiments are actually false. a) existence proofs b) statistical estimates c) plausibility estimates d) cryptomnesia proofs ANS: a Topic=False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: It is crucial to rule out an obvious alternative explanation: perhaps the event really did take place. LO 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors.

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EOM Q7.5.4 Which of the following is a compelling argument against the existence of repressed traumatic memories? a) There is growing evidence that painful and disturbing memories are actually remembered well, and in fact, too well by the people plagued with them. b) Repression has been identified as one of Freud's "lesser defenses" in his writings, and therefore carries little weight in this memory process. c) It is virtually impossible to implant false memories of an event in the mind of an individual, so there is nothing there for the mental system to repress. d) There are usually behavioral manifestations of psychic trauma, suggesting that repression has not accomplished its goals in the memory system. ANS: a Topic=False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 7.5b Describe some of the real-world implications of false memories and memory errors. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Think about the impact a stressful, traumatic, or painful memory is likely to have in a person's life. LO 7.5b Describe some of the real-world implications of false memories and memory errors.

EOM Q7.5.5 When someone witnesses a crime in which a gun was involved, her or his description of the perpetrator's appearance can be flawed. This is often due to __________, a psychological process demonstrated in many experiments. a) weapon focus b) sequentializing c) segmentation d) forced testimony ANS: a Skill=Remember the Facts Topic=False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad Difficulty=Easy Objective=LO 7.5b Describe some of the real-world implications of false memories and memory errors. Consider This: Some elements of the environment capture our attention to a greater extent than others. LO 7.5b Describe some of the real-world implications of false memories and memory errors.

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Chapter 7 Quiz: Memory Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Chapter Quiz: Memory

Multiple Choice Single Select EOC Q7.1 The two primary reasons why short-term memories fade are __________ and __________. a) decay; interference b) intrusion; obstruction c) reversal; proaction d) substitution; migration ANS: a Topic=How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: There is considerable evidence for both of these processes. LO 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory.

EOC Q7.2 Which of the following describes the term “schema”? a) an organized knowledge structure or mental model that we have stored in memory b) the process of keeping information in memory c) the process of getting information into our memory banks d) a learning aid, strategy, or device that enhances recall ANS: a Topic=The Three Processes of Memory Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 7.2b Identify the role that schemas play in the storage of memories. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Schemas equip us with frames of reference for interpreting new situations. LO 7.2b Identify the role that schemas play in the storage of memories.

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EOC Q7.3 In Elizabeth Loftus’s “lost in the mall” study, approximately what percentage of people distinctly remembered being lost in a shopping mall after being told that this had happened to them, even though it did not really happen? a) 10 percent b) 25 percent c) 32 percent d) 67 percent ANS: b Topic=False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Using suggestive questions and statements, researchers have successfully implanted memories of a wide variety of events. LO 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors.

EOC Q7.4 Dee Dee has to remember 4 items that he needs at the corner market, so he visualizes the path he will take to get there. He imagines a bar of soap hanging from a large tree, envisions a roll of paper towels next to a stoplight, "sees" a packet of gum on the newspaper rack, and imagines the fire hydrant spurting out soda. Which memory strategy is Dee Dee relying on? a) method of loci b) pegword technique c) keyword technique d) means-end analysis ANS: a Topic=The Three Processes of Memory Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Dee Dee is assigning items to a familiar route. LO 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge.

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EOC Q7.5 Although it is presented as the most common kind of memory loss in the popular media, with depictions of someone losing all memory of his or her past, __________ is not actually the most common kind of amnesia. a) generalized amnesia b) anterograde amnesia c) retrograde amnesia d) infantile amnesia ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Memory Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 7.3b Distinguish different types of amnesia and the relevance of amnesia to the brain’s organization of memory. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: You are on Item 5, Chapter 7, end-of-chapter quiz. Does that ring a bell? LO 7.3b Distinguish different types of amnesia and the relevance of amnesia to the brain’s organization of memory.

EOC Q7.6 That frustrating feeling of knowing you know something but cannot pull it out of your brain at the moment you want it is known as the TOT phenomenon, because __________. a) TOT stands for “tip-of-the-tongue” b) it primarily happens to very young children or “tots” c) TOT stands for Too Old to Think d) it was identified by the research team of Tattinger, Osprey, and Thomas ANS: a Topic=The Three Processes of Memory Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 7.2d Describe how the relation between encoding and retrieval conditions influences remembering. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This phenomenon highlights the difference between encoding and retrieval. LO 7.2d Describe how the relation between encoding and retrieval conditions influences remembering.

EOC Q7.7 Psychologists measure people’s memory abilities by assessing three capacities: __________. a) recall, recognition, and relearning b) retrieval, recall, and relearning c) relearning, receptivity, and retrieval d) recall, retrieval, and reconstruction ANS: a Topic=The Three Processes of Memory Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Try to generate the correct answer on your own, or select it from the choices here. If you are still stumped, try going over the information again. LO 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q7.8 A memory that is actually false but “feels real” and can be triggered by, for example, looking at a list of associated words, is called a(n) __________. a) memory illusion b) representative heuristic c) paradoxical memory d) active reconstruction ANS: a Topic=How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Like visual illusions, most of these are by-products of our brain’s generally adaptive tendency to go beyond the information available to it. LO 7.1a Identify the ways that memories do and don’t accurately reflect experiences.

EOC Q7.9 What is the general progression of memory loss for patients with Alzheimer’s disease? a) Memory for recent events fades first, with distant memories usually being the last to go. b) Older memories are more easily corrupted, whereas recent memories remain intact. c) Short-term memory disappears within a month of diagnosis. d) Memory loss is random, haphazard, and unpredictable. ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Memory Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 7.3c Identify the key impairments of Alzheimer’s disease. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: There is usually a pattern to the deficits seen in this disease. LO 7.3c Identify the key impairments of Alzheimer’s disease.

EOC Q7.10 Over time, children develop greater knowledge of their own memory abilities and limitations. The term used to describe this is __________. a) meta-memory b) comprehension c) learning d) habituation ANS: a Topic=The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Memory skills develop over time, as do many behaviors and cognitions among children. LO 7.4a Identify how children’s memory abilities change with age.

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EOC Q7.11 The connections among neurons gradually strengthen over time, and do so by means of repetitive stimulation. This process is known as __________. a) long-term potentiation b) lateral processing c) connective synchrony d) elaborative rehearsal ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Memory Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 7.3a Describe the role of long-term potentiation in memory. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: A tautology refers to saying the same thing twice in different words. LO 7.3a Describe the role of long-term potentiation in memory.

EOC Q7.12 There are various techniques available to help people improve their ability to recall material. For example, when you remember something new by connecting it mentally to something you already know, you are using __________. a) elaborative rehearsal b) a mnemonic device c) distributed study d) levels of processing ANS: a Topic=False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: One way of accomplishing this goal is to come up with a meaningful visual image that combines both stimuli. LO 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems.

\EOC Q7.13 George Sperling’s partial report method studies from the 1960's demonstrated that when a display of 12 letters was viewed, participants retained all of the letters in __________ but not all of them could be transferred to short-term memory. a) sensory memory b) semantic memory c) explicit memory d) episodic memory ANS: a Topic=How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This “memory location” also allows us to “fill in the blanks” in our perceptions and see the world as an unbroken stream of events. LO 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q7.14 Zhenya remembers that St. Paul is the capital of Minnesota. Alina remembers that she lived in St. Paul when she was 12 years old. Zhenya is demonstrating __________ memory, whereas Alina is demonstrating __________ memory. a) semantic; episodic b) episodic; semantic c) semantic; procedural d) procedural; semantic ANS: a Topic=The Development of Memory: Acquiring a Personal History Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Recall the varieties of long-term memory you have learned about. LO 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory.

EOC Q7.15 Which of the following statements is true? a) It is easier to implant a false memory that is plausible than one that is implausible. b) It is easier to implant a false memory from the recent past than a false memory from the distant past. c) It is nearly impossible to implant a false memory in a person, unless the person is high in suggestibility. d) Recovering repressed memories is like rewinding a videorecording of one’s life events. ANS: a Topic=False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 7.5b Describe some of the real-world implications of false memories and memory errors. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: As you know, memory is a reconstructive process. LO 7.5b Describe some of the real-world implications of false memories and memory errors. EOC Q7.16 Without even noticing that you are doing it, what memory technique do you use to remember larger quantities of information, even though your short-term memory capacity only holds about nine bits of information? a) chunking b) the Magic Number technique c) elaborative rehearsal d) depth of processing ANS: a Topic=The Three Processes of Memory Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Capacity limits can be overcome with a bit of ingenuity. LO 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems.

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EOC Q7.17 When we have encountered a stimulus before, we are able to identify it more quickly and easily. The term for this subtype of implicit memory is __________. a) priming b) conditioning c) habituation d) sensitization ANS: a Topic=How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This memory is implicit because it does not require any deliberate effort on our part. LO 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory.

EOC Q7.18 Unintentional plagiarism has been attributed to __________, which occurs when someone says they forgot having been exposed to the plagiarized material earlier and thought they had created it themselves. a) cryptomnesia b) monitoring failure c) suggested memory d) misinformation effect ANS: a Topic=False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Sometimes originality is not all that original. LO 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors.

EOC Q7.19 Which of the following is one of the three processes of memory? a) retrieval b) literacy c) schema d) pegword ANS: a Topic=The Three Processes of Memory Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Memories exist; whether we can access them is another matter entirely. LO 7.2a Identify methods for connecting new information to existing knowledge.

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EOC Q7.20 __________ allows you to remember auditory stimuli for up to 5 or 10 seconds. a) Echoic memory b) Iconic memory c) Eidetic memory d) Recovered memory ANS: a Topic=How Memory Operates: The Memory Assembly Line Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This is pretty helpful for getting information into the memory system. LO 7.1b Explain the function, span, and duration of each of the three memory systems.

EOC Q7.21 Although using __________ can sometimes lead to mistakes, they provide us with a frame of reference for interpreting new situations. a) schemas b) storage menus c) disambiguation tables d) interpretive expectations ANS: a Topic=The Three Processes of Memory Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 7.2b Identify the role that schemas play in the storage of memories. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Without these, we would find some information almost impossible to comprehend. LO 7.2b Identify the role that schemas play in the storage of memories.

EOC Q7.22 ZAK, BOL, GID, YAF, and other nonsense syllables were used in some of the earliest studies of memory, conducted by __________. a) Hermann Ebbinghaus b) Arnold Swanson c) Herman von Helmholtz d) Martin Barre ANS: a Topic=The Biology of Memory Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This person was quite famous in the history of memory research. LO 7.2c Distinguish ways of measuring memory.

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EOC Q7.23 More than 300 convicted prisoners to date have been released because DNA evidence showed they were innocent, despite confident testimony from __________. a) eyewitnesses b) forensic specialists c) prosecutors d) psychologists ANS: a Topic=False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 7.5b Describe some of the real-world implications of false memories and memory errors. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The correlation between confidence and accuracy is often modest. LO 7.5b Describe some of the real-world implications of false memories and memory errors.

EOC Q7.24 When we are not sure where a memory really came from (“Did it actually happen? Or was it all a dream?”) we can use cues such as how vivid and detailed the memory is to determine the answer. This process is called __________. a) source monitoring b) initial recollection c) considered recollection d) cryptomnesia ANS: a Topic=False Memories: When Good Memory Goes Bad Skill=Remember the Facts, Objective=LO 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Separating fact from fiction is a good thing to do. LO 7.5a Identify factors that influence people’s susceptibility to false memories and memory errors.

EOC Q7.25 Our memory for how to do things is called __________. a) procedural memory b) explicit memory c) semantic memory d) mnemonic memory ANS: a Topic=The Three Processes of Memory Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: For example, by now you know how to answer these types of questions. LO 7.1c Differentiate the subtypes of long-term memory.

113

Chapter 8: Thinking, Reasoning, and Language Total Assessment Guide Topic Quick Quiz 1

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice

1, 7–8, 10

2–4, 6, 9

Quick Quiz 2

Multiple Choice

7–10

1, 5

2–4, 6

Introduction and Learning Objective 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Learning Objective 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Learning Objective 8.2a Discover what influences our decisionmaking. Learning Objective 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Learning Objective 8.2c Describe various models of the human mind.

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

1, 4, 9, 19 1–2, 4

2–3, 5–7, 11, 17 3 1

8, 10, 12–16, 18

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

20–23, 34

26, 28, 30, 33

24–25, 27, 29, 31–32

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

35, 39–40

37–38

Multiple Choice

41, 43–44, 47, 50

45, 54

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

6-7 3

42, 46, 48–49, 51– 53, 55–58 5, 8

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice

63, 65, 68–71, 73– 74, 76–77, 81, 89, 92, 95 9, 11–13

61, 64, 66–67, 83, 86, 91, 93, 96

Learning Objective 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Learning Objective 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children.

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

62, 72, 75, 78–80, 82, 84–85, 87–88, 90, 94

10, 14

97–100, 103, 107, 104, 112, 116, 125, 110–111, 114, 127, 129–132 117–118, 120-121, 126, 128, 134–135 15–19, 22

2 1

101–102, 105–106, 108–109, 113, 119, 133 21 4–5 2

Topic Factual Conceptual Applied Name _____________________________________________ Multiple Choice 122, 124 115, 123 Learning Objective 8.3c Fill-in-the-Blank 20 Chapter 8 Quick Quiz 1 Identify the pros and Essay cons of bilingualism. Critical Thinking 1. What problem-solving strategies are essentially mental shortcuts? Multiple Choice 136–138,B) 141 140 Learning Objective A) heuristics algorithms 139 Fill-in-the-Blank 23–24 D) cognitive shortcuts 8.3d C) mnemonic devices Essay Distinguish human Critical Thinking 2. You just discovered a nomadic people who have lived in the desert their whole lives. Their language language from contains more than 20 words to describe the various types and textures of sand in their environment. nonhuman animal According to research on linguistic determinism, what is the likely origin for all of these terms? communication. A) The people of the tribe created these terms to make finer distinctions among the various types of Multiple Choice 144–145 148 142–143, 146–147 Learning Objective sand they encounter. Fill-in-the-Blank 25 8.4a B) Their environment dictated that multiple terms be created to enhance their understanding. C) Their thought processes Essay enabled them to make finer distinctions among the different kinds of sand in Identify the skills their environment, so they Thinking were able to create a language that reflected their knowledge. required to learn to read. Critical D) It is impossible to know whether the language caused them to think differently about their Multiple Choice 149–151 152–153 Learning Objective environment or the way they perceive their environment caused them to create their language. Fill-in-the-Blank 8.4b Essay Analyze the relationship 3. As symbolic systems of communication, most languages __________. Critical A) generally soundsThinking to the meaning of words between reading speed match and reading B) are arbitrary in the relationship between words and meaning C) can be translated to another without impaired meanings of complex concepts comprehension. D) do not have concepts that are unique to just one particular language

4. Our co-worker says, “It’s awful in here.” To understand what she means, we must __________.

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 8 Quick Quiz 1 1. What problem-solving strategies are essentially mental shortcuts? A) heuristics B) algorithms C) mnemonic devices D) cognitive shortcuts 2. You just discovered a nomadic people who have lived in the desert their whole lives. Their language contains more than 20 words to describe the various types and textures of sand in their environment. According to research on linguistic determinism, what is the likely origin for all of these terms? A) The people of the tribe created these terms to make finer distinctions among the various types of sand they encounter. B) Their environment dictated that multiple terms be created to enhance their understanding. C) Their thought processes enabled them to make finer distinctions among the different kinds of sand in their environment, so they were able to create a language that reflected their knowledge. D) It is impossible to know whether the language caused them to think differently about their environment or the way they perceive their environment caused them to create their language. 3. As symbolic systems of communication, most languages __________. A) generally match sounds to the meaning of words B) are arbitrary in the relationship between words and meaning C) can be translated to another without impaired meanings of complex concepts D) do not have concepts that are unique to just one particular language 4. Our co-worker says, “It’s awful in here.” To understand what she means, we must __________. A) take into account extralinguistic information, such as location and facial expressions B) examine the grammatical structure of her comment C) examine the morphemes in the statement to determine the smaller units of meaning in the sentence D) ignore nonverbal cues so that we are not distracted. 5. Fred is on a popular TV game show where you can win $1,000,000. He is currently at $16,000 and is not certain that he knows the answer to the $32,000 question. His decision could be influenced if the host says “You can take the $16,000 and go home, and that’s a lot of money,” or “$32,000 is way more money than $16,000.” There is a tendency for the contestants to do whatever the host suggests, and Fred will probably be no different. This is the effect of __________. A) an availability heuristic B) a representativeness heuristic C) an additive strategy D) framing 6. If I am given 10 math problems, and I can and do solve the first nine in the same way, I may struggle with the tenth problem if it requires a different method to solve it. This best illustrates the concept of __________. A) the salience of surface properties B) thin slicing C) mental sets D) hindsight bias 7. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding sign language and talking? A) Learning sign language speeds up the process of learning to talk. B) Deaf children who rely on sign language rarely acquire any true vocal skills. C) Children who are partially deaf and who use sign language have the worst chance of learning to talk because they use sign language as a “crutch.” D) Research has found that only deaf children who get cochlear implants ever truly learn to talk effectively. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8. In nonhuman animals, the most common circumstances under which communication occurs are __________, A) feeding and labor B) hunting and food distribution C) violence and sex D) mating and food distribution 9. Young Jonah is learning to read, and his father writes MOMMY on a card and asks him to read it. When Jonah struggles, his father says, “Sound it out one letter at a time!” As Jonah does this, he eventually puts the sounds together and triumphantly shouts the correct word. What method has Jonah used to read this word? A) phonetic decomposition B) pragmatic delineation C) semantic structuring D) whole-word recognition 10. It is possible to increase both our reading speed and comprehension, as long as our speed does not exceed __________ words per minute. A) 100 B) 200 C) 300 D) 400

Chapter 8 Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1. A

Explanation: Heuristics don’t guarantee a solution but are shortcuts to solving problems. (Thinking and Reasoning, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 8.1a)

2. D

Explanation: We can’t be sure whether having 20 terms for sand caused the people to make finer distinctions or whether the tendency to make fine distinctions caused the development of 20 terms. (Thinking and Reasoning, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 8.1b)

3. D

Explanation: The manner in which a decision is presented—whether that presentation emphasizes positive or negative aspects of the situation—is called framing. (Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 8.2a)

4. C

Explanation: A mental set refers to attempting to solve the problem using past successful solution approaches to similar problems. (Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 8.2b)

5. B

Explanation: The exact same word, or symbol, can have very different meanings in different contexts. (How Does Language Work?, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 8.3a)

6. A

Explanation: Depending on the facial expression and body posture of the co-worker, her statement could mean many things. (How Does Language Work?, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 8.3a)

7. A

Explanation: The linguistic nature of sign language helps promote the use of verbal skills. (How Does Language Work?, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 8.3b)

8. C

Explanation: Aggression and mating are the most common needs for communication. (How Does Language Work?, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 8.3d)

9. A

Explanation: Taking words and breaking them down by the sound of each letter is referred to as phonetic decomposition. (Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 8.4a)

10. D

Explanation: Above a reading speed of about 400 words per minute, comprehension becomes compromised. (Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 8.4b)

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 8 Quick Quiz 2 1. One explanation for schizophrenia holds that individuals suffering from that mental illness have difficulty in filtering their attention. This is most closely related to the concept of __________. A) cognitive economy B) schema development C) chunking D) top-down processing 2. Eduardo is from Brazil. He is fluent in both Portuguese and English. When he uses English to speak to you of his home in Brazil, he seems to have trouble remembering details. Yet when he is speaking Portuguese to another Brazilian, he has no trouble remembering. This phenomenon can best be explained by __________. A) linguistic determinism B) linguistic relativity C) extralinguistic information D) cryptophasia 3. People with cancer tend to be more optimistic if their doctor says “You are 90 percent certain to survive” as opposed to “There is a 1 in 10 chance you will die.” This is an example of __________. A) poor bedside manners B) a heuristic C) framing information D) developing a healthful concept 4. A loose screw on the visor causes it to drop down while Brianna drives; however, she keeps forgetting to take a screwdriver out to the car to fix it. When she notices the visor drop again, she reaches into her pocket for a dime, which she uses to tighten the screw holding the visor. What problem-solving difficulty did Brianna overcome? A) relative comparison B) functional fixedness C) poor problem representation D) the representative heuristic 5. Much of our language use serves non-informational purposes, such as __________. A) establishing or maintaining social relationships B) telling the barista that we want a skim latte C) advising a friend what time to show up at a party D) providing directions to an event 6. E-mail can often lead to misunderstandings. This is because __________. A) it lacks extralinguistic information B) people misspell more often with e-mail than with pen-and-paper writing C) of decreasing literacy levels D) most people read e-mail more rapidly than other written forms. 7. Even those who are well-skilled at reading lips can only pick up about __________ percent of what is being said because most of our verbal expression is done inside of the mouth. A) 5–10 B) 10–20 C) 20–30 D) 30–35 8. Which of the following brain areas is primarily involved in speech comprehension? A) Corpus’s area B) Wernicke’s area C) Broca’s area D) Munchausen’s area Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

9. The average reader uses __________ to read the vast majority of printed words. A) phonetic decomposition B) whole word recognition C) surface salience D) the representativeness heuristic 10. The average college student reads at a rate of about __________ words per minute. A) 50–100 B) 100–150 C) 150–200 D) 200–300

Chapter 8 Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1. A

Explanation: Cognitive economy refers to the fact that we process a tremendous amount of information and need to simplify it somehow. This tendency keeps the information we need for decision making to a manageable minimum. (Thinking and Reasoning, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 8.1a)

2. B

Explanation: Linguistic relativity proponents believe that language shapes our thought processes. (Thinking and Reasoning, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 8.1b)

3. C

Explanation: If information is presented in a way that emphasizes advantages or disadvantages, this is an example of framing. (Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 8.2a)

4. B

Explanation: Brianna overcame the problem of functional fixedness. (Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 8.2b)

5. A

Explanation: If you’ve ever insulted a friend as a way of saying hello, you’ve used language to create or maintain a social relationship rather than for the conveyance of information. (How Does Language Work?, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 8.3a)

6. A

Explanation: Because you cannot get information like facial expressions or voice inflection in an e-mail, people often misunderstand the intent of what somebody else meant to communicate. (How Does Language Work?, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 8.3a)

7. D

Explanation: Because quite a bit of the speaking that we do is generated by the tongue, teeth, and throat, lip reading misses a lot of what is said. (How Does Language Work?, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 8.3b)

8. B

Explanation: This is the part of the area that is primarily involved in the understanding of received speech. (How Does Language Work?, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 8.3b)

9. B

Explanation: This is the primary way that most people read printed words. (Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 8.4a)

10. D

Explanation: This is the average rate of reading among college students. (Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 8.4b)

Chapter 8: Thinking, Reasoning, and Language Test Bank Multiple Choice 1. Generally speaking, __________ refers to any mental activity or processing of information, including learning, remembering, perceiving, believing, and deciding. A) psychophysics B) decision making C) thinking D) consciousness Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 2. Behaviorists attempted to explain thinking in the narrow terms of __________. A) feeling and perceiving B) stimulus and response C) remembering and feeling D) believing and deciding Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning % correct 72 a = 16 b = 72 c = 2 d = 9 r = .44 3. The term cognitive __________ is used to reflect the fact that human beings seek expend as little mental effort as possible, while still being able to make accurate decisions. A) miser B) parsimony C) heuristic D) frugality Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning

4. What problem-solving strategies are essentially mental shortcuts? A) heuristics Correct. Heuristics don’t guarantee a solution but are shortcuts to solving problems. B) algorithms C) mnemonic devices D) cognitive biases Incorrect. Cognitive biases refer to our tendency to have certain styles of interpreting and thinking about situations. They can lead us to incorrect conclusions. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 5. One explanation for schizophrenia holds that individuals suffering from that mental illness have difficulty in filtering their attention. This is most closely related to the concept of __________. A) cognitive economy Correct. Cognitive economy refers to the fact that we process a tremendous amount of information, and need to simplify it somehow. This tendency keeps the information we need for decision making to a manageable minimum. B) schema development C) chunking Incorrect. Chunking is a term that refers to a memory skill of putting individual pieces of information together and storing them as groups in short-term memory. It is not related to this question. D) top-down processing Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 6. The use of heuristics is adaptive for our survival, according to the __________ perspective. A) humanistic Incorrect. The humanistic approach examines the positive aspects of humanity and emphasizes freedom of choice and potential for achievement. B) structural C) psychoanalytic D) evolutionary Correct. The evolutionary model focuses on survival and reproductive fitness, with an emphasis on the concept of survival of the fittest. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning

7. Because our snap judgments are probably “good bets,” the tendency to use heuristics and intuition might be considered __________. A) adaptive Correct. From an evolutionary perspective, if snap judgments generally lead to good outcomes, they could be considered an adaptive behavior. B) a maladaptation C) a failure of cognitive miserliness Incorrect. In fact, snap judgments are a good demonstration of cognitive miserliness if they lead to good outcomes. D) too risky to use Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 8. Corrina is on a blind date. After only 15 minutes with this new man, she decides that she likes him. Is this snap decision a wise one? A) Yes; our mental shortcuts are accurate more often than chance is, even when judging people. Correct. Although this is a true statement, the authors warn that even these decisions can occasionally be “wildly wrong.” B) Yes; many people report falling in love immediately or the idea of love at first sight. C) No; although mental shortcuts are beneficial, snap decisions concerning people are often inaccurate. Incorrect. As your authors point out, snap judgments, even those that involve people, tend to be more accurate than chance; however, because they are not perfect predictors of outcomes, we cannot rely on them exclusively. D) No; typically when employing mental shortcuts, one needs to gather as much information as possible about the situation. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 9. John Gottman and his colleagues were able to predict divorce rates of couples with startling accuracy using techniques related to the concept of __________. A) thin slicing B) linear regression C) the availability heuristic D) cognitive load Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning

10. Many people drew faulty conclusions about the relative safety of air travel compared to automobile travel in the wake of the September 11, 2001, terrorist attacks. Such poor reasoning was the result of __________. A) thin slicing B) hindsight bias C) mental sets Incorrect. Mental set is defined as the tendency to perceive and approach problems in the same ways that have worked in the past. D) the availability heuristic Correct. The availability heuristic tells us to judge the likelihood of an event on the basis of how easy it is to generate an example of it. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 11. According to your authors, which cognitive heuristic is most salient in the formation of stereotypes? A) the availability heuristic B) the representativeness heuristic Correct. The formation of a stereotype is often related to the past experiences we have had with people of a particular group or type. C) thin slicing Incorrect. Thin slicing is an observational method that is not related to stereotype formation. D) the door-in-the-face bias Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 12. Dan recently watched a television program about rabies and those animals that are typically carriers of the disease. Last night, when he stepped outside to call his cat, he saw a raccoon waddling across his yard. The animal acted strangely and came straight toward him. Dan immediately decided it must have rabies. He made his decision based on __________. A) exemplars B) an algorithm C) a representativeness heuristic Incorrect. The representativeness heuristic is a thinking strategy based on how closely a new object or situation is judged to resemble an existing prototype in memory. D) an availability heuristic Correct. The availability heuristic is a heuristic that says that the probability of an event or the importance assigned to it is based on its availability in memory. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

13. Jay, a popular TV show host, made a joke regarding Ford Pintos and the dangers of owning them because of their “perceived” tendency to blow up. Many Pinto owners took issue with Jay’s view as presented, in part due to a fear that they could never re-sell their car. Jay’s very public joke and its potential to impact peoples’ perceptions is an example of a(n) __________. A) representative heuristic Incorrect. The representativeness heuristic is a thinking strategy based on how closely a new object or situation is judged to resemble an existing prototype in memory. B) availability heuristic Correct. The availability heuristic is a rule of thumb that says that the probability of an event or the importance assigned to it is based on its availability in memory. C) exemplar D) additive strategy Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 14. In the movie Grumpier Old Men, the oldest character claims that he has had bacon, alcohol, and cigarettes every day for his entire adult life and that none of these behaviors have harmed him. If you were to go out now and start doing these behaviors because you thought they were, in fact, safe, you’d be falling prey to the __________. A) explanatory bias B) mental set Incorrect. A mental set refers to attempting to solve the problem using past successful solution approaches to similar problems. C) hindsight bias D) availability heuristic Correct. The availability heuristic is a rule of thumb that says the probability of an event or importance assigned to it is judged to resemble an existing prototype in memory. If the immediate prototype is an old man who has managed to engage in unsafe behaviors without consequence, this could affect your behaviors. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning

15. After reading the best-selling book 50 Shades of Grey and seeing the subsequent movie, Eric began believing that his girlfriend would be very interested in sexual behaviors that involved bondage and spanking. He was extremely surprised to find out that she had no interest in this and that she was unwilling to continue dating after he suggested these activities. Eric's behaviors were most immediately influenced by the __________. A) explanatory bias B) mental set Incorrect. A mental set refers to attempting to solve the problem using past successful solution approaches to similar problems. C) hindsight bias D) availability heuristic Correct. Eric was immediately able to call to mind the behaviors from the novel/movie and then believed that they would be appropriate in his personal life. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 16. Benny and Darla are driving to a concert downtown. Benny decides to drive one route, and Darla does not object. When they get stuck in traffic, Darla mumbles, “I just knew it would have been faster if we’d gone my way.” What sort of heuristic is Darla employing? A) the hindsight bias Correct. Also referred to as the “I knew it all along” bias, this occurs when we are very certain that we could accurately have predicted an event only after it has occurred. B) the availability heuristic C) the representativeness heuristic D) the confirmation bias Incorrect. This is not a case of seeking out affirming data while ignoring disproving data. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 17. Which of the following do you think would be most applicable to a gambler who is betting on a football game? A) the availability heuristic Incorrect. Nothing discussed concerning the availability heuristic would relate specifically to this example. This is not the best answer. B) the representativeness heuristic C) the confirmation bias D) the hindsight bias Correct. A gambler may feel sure that they knew what was going to happen only after the event takes place. This would probably occur whether they won or lost their bet. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

18. While taking an exam in her philosophy class, Erynn was very disappointed to see two essay questions that emphasized the writings of Socrates because she had studied Plato instead. "I just knew I should have studied Socrates," she said to herself. This demonstrates __________. A) the availability heuristic Incorrect. Nothing discussed concerning the availability heuristic would relate specifically to this example. This is not the best answer. B) the representativeness heuristic C) the confirmation bias D) the hindsight bias Correct. Also referred to as the “I knew it all along” bias, this occurs when we are very certain that we could accurately have predicted an event only after it has occurred. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 19. What term do psychologists use to describe our tendency to search for evidence that supports our belief and to ignore evidence that might disprove it? A) confirmation bias B) attribution bias C) availability heuristic D) representativeness heuristic Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 20. The brain’s tendency to streamline our thinking processes by use of preexisting knowledge is referred to as __________. A) top-down processing B) bottom-up processing C) inductive reasoning D) taxonomic construction Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning

21. The process by which your brain processes only the information that it receives, irrespective of past experiences or expectations, is called __________ processing. A) top-down B) misinformed C) bottom-up D) dorsal-lateral Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 22. Concepts are ideas that represent __________. A) a class or category of objects, events, or activities that share core properties B) patterns of behavior C) higher-order conditioning and secondary reinforcers D) tangible objects Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 23. What are mental categories representing activities, objects, qualities, or situations that share some core qualities? A) classes B) attributes C) patterns D) concepts Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning

24. Mitzi tells her mother Barbara that she wants to get a new outdoor refrigerator to keep by the swimming pool. Barbara immediately understands why, because she is familiar with the common characteristics of outdoor refrigerators and knows what makes them different from other appliances. Barbara is using mental categories called __________. A) classes B) concepts Correct. Barbara is using mental categories called concepts, which are ideas that represent a category of objects or events. C) attributes D) classifications Incorrect. Barbara is using mental categories called concepts, which are ideas that represent a category of objects or events. Classifications is not a term used for this process. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 25. The fact that you recognize golden retrievers, poodles, Irish setters, and cocker spaniels as being dogs is an example of a(n) __________. A) concept Correct. A concept helps to organize information based on shared features or qualities. B) image C) template D) cohort Incorrect. A cohort refers to a group of peers with whom you share some common experience or quality. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 26. A car would be an example of a __________, while the way we behave at a new restaurant is an example of a(n) __________. A) heuristic; algorithm B) concept; schema Correct. A concept refers to an object, while a schema refers to a series of actions or behaviors. C) schema; concept Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. D) concept; heuristic Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning

27. You just discovered a nomadic people who have lived in the desert their whole lives. Their language contains more than 20 words to describe the various types and textures of sand in their environment. According to research on linguistic determinism, what is the likely origin for all of these terms? A) The people of the tribe created these terms to make finer distinctions among the various types of sand they encounter. Incorrect. Although this may be a possible explanation for the variety of words used to describe sand, the best answer speaks to the uncertain relationship between correlation and causation. B) Their environment dictated that multiple terms be created to enhance their understanding. C) Their thought processes enabled them to make finer distinctions among the different kinds of sand in their environment, so they were able to create a language that reflected their knowledge. D) It is impossible to know whether the language caused them to think differently about their environment or the way they perceive their environment caused them to create their language. Correct. We can’t be sure whether having 20 terms for sand caused the people to make finer distinctions or whether the tendency to make fine distinctions caused the development of 20 terms. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 28. Research on the relation between cognition and language suggests that __________. A) cultures that have only two “color” words, dark and bright, cannot distinguish other colors B) language shapes all aspects of perception, thought, and memory Incorrect. In fact, this research suggested that all aspects of thoughts are not necessarily shaped by language. C) language cannot affect thinking and memory D) some aspects of thinking are more vulnerable to language influence than others Correct. This research suggested that the linguistic relativity theory did not seem to apply equally to all aspects of language. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 29. The hypothesis that language influences, but does not uniquely determine, what we think is called the __________. A) dynamic hypothesis B) language reaction hypothesis C) cognitive linguistic hypothesis D) linguistic relativity hypothesis Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning

30. The linguistic relativity hypothesis suggests that __________. A) one’s language determines the pattern of one’s thinking Correct. The linguistic relativity hypothesis suggests that one’s language determines the pattern of one’s thinking. B) one’s thinking and view of the world determines the structure of one’s language C) we decide which objects belong to a concept according to what is most probable or sensible, given the facts at hand Incorrect. The linguistic relativity hypothesis suggests that one’s language determines the pattern of one’s thinking. D) perception of surface structure precedes deep structure in understanding a sentence Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 31. Eduardo is from Brazil. He is fluent in both Portuguese and English. When he uses English to speak to you of his home in Brazil, he seems to have trouble remembering details. Yet when he is speaking Portuguese to another Brazilian, he has no trouble remembering. This phenomenon can best be explained by __________. A) linguistic determinism Incorrect. Linguistic determinism suggests that all thought processes occur linguistically. The best answer to this question is linguistic relativity. B) linguistic relativity Correct. Linguistic relativity proponents believe that language shapes our thought processes. C) extralinguistic information D) cryptophasia Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 32. A famous lecturer argues that because the Hopi Indians have only two nouns for things that fly, one for birds and another for non-birds, the Hopi most likely interpret all flying things in terms of these two nouns. This argument is based on __________. A) the linguistic relativity hypothesis Correct. This argument is based on the linguistic relativity hypothesis, which states that language shapes thought patterns. B) bottom-up processing Incorrect. This argument is based on the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Bottom-up processing is a concept in perception and is not relevant here. C) top-down processing D) deep structure elaboration Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

33. Researchers have found that despite the number of color names in a language, the basic abilities to perceive color are unchanged. This finding would be troublesome for the theory of __________. A) Piccard and Worf Incorrect. These are crew members of the starship Enterprise in a television show. B) Sapir and Whorf Correct. This finding would be troublesome for the theory of Sapir and Whorf, who predict that color perceptions should change according to language usage. C) Skinner and Watson D) Tolman and Thorndike Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 34. According to the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis, a person’s language shapes __________. A) his or her thought processes B) the understanding of syntax C) the speed with which the language is acquired D) the length of the critical period Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 35. __________ is the process of selecting among a set of possible alternatives. A) Framing B) Problem solving C) Decision making D) Anchoring Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.2a Discover what influences our decision making. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving

36. People tend to make different decisions when they focus on what they might gain from an action rather than what they might lose. This is an effect of __________. A) framing Correct. When an action is presented in a particular light so it emphasizes gains or losses, this is the use of framing. B) availability Incorrect. Availability refers to a heuristic that discusses the extent to which an event is immediately available in one’s memory. C) representativeness D) additive decision making Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.2a Discover what influences our decision making. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 37. People with cancer tend to be more optimistic if their doctor says “You are 90 percent certain to survive” as opposed to “There is a 1 in 10 chance you will die.” This is an example of __________. A) poor bedside manners B) a heuristic Incorrect. A heuristic is a rule of thumb for problem solving or decision making that is based on past experience. C) framing information Correct. If information is presented in a way that emphasizes advantages or disadvantages, this is an example of framing. D) developing a healthful concept Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.2a Discover what influences our decision making. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving

38. Fred is on a popular TV game show where you can win $1,000,000. He is currently at $16,000 and is not certain that he knows the answer to the $32,000 question. His decision could be influenced if the host says “You can take the $16,000 and go home, and that’s a lot of money,” or “$32,000 is way more money than $16,000.” There is a tendency for the contestants to do whatever the host suggests, and Fred will probably be no different. This is the effect of __________. A) an availability heuristic Incorrect. The availability heuristic is a rule of thumb that says that the probability of an event or the importance assigned to it is based on its availability in memory. B) a representativeness heuristic C) an additive strategy D) framing Correct. The manner in which a decision is presented—whether that presentation emphasizes positive or negative aspects of the situation—is called framing. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.2a Discover what influences our decision making. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 39. __________ refers to the fact that the way a question is presented—with certain wording or emphasis on certain aspects of the question—can influence the answer that is given. A) Metalinguistics B) Framing C) Pragmatizing D) Whorfing Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.2a Discover what influences our decision making. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 40. The field of __________ emphasizes research into the way the brain works when one makes financial decisions. A) neuroeconomics Correct. This field involves the use of fMRI brain imaging techniques. B) financial pragmatics C) fiduciary cognition D) econometrics Incorrect. This is an area within economics, but it does not involve examination of brain processes. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.2a Discover what influences our decision making. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving

41. Generating a cognitive strategy to accomplish a goal is the definition of __________. A) the availability heuristic B) a mental set C) decision making D) problem solving Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 42. Sally is enrolled in a high school geometry course, which she describes as “drawing figures and figuring out drawings.” In a typical class, students draw geometric figures and use a formula to calculate an aspect of the figure such as its area. Each time Sally uses a formula, she is making use of what psychologists call __________. A) heuristics Incorrect. Sally is making use of algorithms because the geometric rules always work. Heuristics don’t guarantee a solution. B) logarithms C) algorithms Correct. Sally is making use of algorithms because the rules will always produce a solution. D) convergence Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 43. A step-by-step learned procedure for solving a problem is called a(n) __________ A) schema B) cognitive map C) heuristic D) algorithm Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving

44. What systematic problem-solving method guarantees that all steps in solving a problem will be addressed? A) the heuristic method Incorrect. The heuristic strategy is called a “rule of thumb” and does not guarantee a solution. B) an algorithm Correct. The systematic problem-solving method that guarantees that you will address all steps in solving a problem is the use of an algorithm. It is useful when a solution to a problem is absolutely required. C) a cognitive shortcut D) the chunking method Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 45. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding the use of algorithms? A) They always break problems down into sub-goals. Incorrect. This refers to a specific heuristic, not an algorithm. B) They are not based on formulas or step-by-step processes. C) They do not consider more than one problem-solving alternative. D) They are fairly inflexible. Correct. This is a feature of an algorithm. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 46. Roberto is thinking about redoing the walls in his bedroom, but there is 30-year old wallpaper currently in place. He knows that this will be a big task, but he thinks that he will first remove the wallpaper, then remove the glue-strip layer, then repair the wall before priming and painting it. These steps make the job feel less cumbersome and more manageable. Which heuristic is Roberto using? A) a means-end analysis Incorrect. This is a different kind of heuristic that involves taking steps toward a desired outcome. B) reframing C) breaking into subproblems Correct. Taking a large problem and breaking into smaller ones can make it seem more manageable. D) employing an algorithm Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving

47. The use of __________ refers to the process of finding similar structures between two problems and thus finding similarities between their solutions. A) heuristics B) algorithms C) mental sets D) analogies Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 48. When a student is given two seemingly different problems to solve, but the problems have the same underlying logical requirements, the student may miss this similarity due to the apparent differences in the wording of the questions. The relationship between two problems is called __________. A) salience of surface similarities B) mental sets C) functional fixedness D) parallel paradigms Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 49. If I am given 10 math problems, and I can and do solve the first nine in the same way, I may struggle with the tenth problem if it requires a different method to solve it. This best illustrates the concept of __________. A) the salience of surface properties B) thin slicing C) mental sets Correct. A mental set refers to attempting to solve the problem using past successful solution approaches to similar problems. D) hindsight bias Incorrect. The hindsight bias refers to our overestimation of our ability to predict the outcome of an event after the event has occurred. It is not related to this question. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving % correct 77 a = 19 b = 3 c = 77 d = 1 r = .18

50. The tendency to perceive and approach problems in the same ways that have worked in the past is called __________. This barrier to problem-solving can inhibit one’s ability to generate alternative solutions A) means–end analysis B) functional fixedness C) prototypical idealization D) mental set Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 51. Anastasia is building a sand castle at the beach. She is frustrated by the fact that the water keeps washing it away. She has rebuilt the castle five times already, each one a little further from the waves. Her brother Christopher walks up, sees the problem, and proceeds to dig a channel for the water that bypasses her latest sand castle completely. Which cognitive block was Anastasia demonstrating? A) functional fixedness Incorrect. Functional fixedness refers to the inability to look at an object and see it in flexible ways and for uses other than its most common function. B) convergent thinking C) mental set Correct. Mental set occurs when we get stuck in a specific problem-solving strategy and can’t see the problem from a new angle. D) thin slicing Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 52. Rosemary, a college professor, has not been able to give up her overhead projector and transparencies even though her classroom has equipment that will support computer-generated projected images. This might be an example of a(n) __________. A) heuristic B) mental set Correct. Rosemary continues to use a past problem-solving strategy even though there are better, more efficient strategies available to her. C) algorithm D) analogy heuristic. Incorrect. Rosemary is not looking for a relationship to a past solution. She is reapplying a past solution to the exclusion of other possibilities. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving

53. Heriberto hears that there is bad traffic on his route to work, but he takes that same route anyway hoping that he won't get stuck. He gets frustrated when he is in standstill traffic shortly after leaving his home and arrives at work 35 minutes late. Heriberto's use of the same route demonstrates __________. A) functional fixedness Incorrect. Functional fixedness refers to the inability to look at an object and see it in flexible ways and for uses other than its most common function. B) the representativeness heuristic C) a mental set Correct. A mental set refers to attempting to solve the problem using past successful solution approaches to similar problems. D) salience of surface characteristics Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 54. The fact that a person may only use objects in a way that is most common in his or her culture, failing to see unusual or innovative uses for the same object, is called __________. A) functional fixedness Correct. Functional fixedness refers to the inability to look at an object and see it in flexible ways and for uses other than its most common function. B) availability heuristic C) mental sets Incorrect. A mental set refers to attempting to solve the problem using past successful solution approaches to similar problems. D) salience of surface characteristics Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving

55. A loose screw on the visor causes it to drop down while Brianna drives; however, she keeps forgetting to take a screwdriver out to the car to fix it. When she notices the visor drop again, she reaches into her pocket for a dime she uses to tighten the screw holding the visor. What problemsolving difficulty did Brianna overcome? A) relative comparison B) functional fixedness Correct. Brianna overcame the problem of functional fixedness. C) poor problem representation D) the representative heuristic Incorrect. Brianna overcame the problem of functional fixedness. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 56. MacGyver, a fictional TV hero, is able to solve nearly any problem with duct tape, chewing gum, and some luck. Which of the following cognitive tendencies is one that MacGyver has clearly overcome? A) functional fixedness Correct. Functional fixedness is our tendency to have trouble imagining uses for objects other than their originally intended uses. B) linguistic relativity C) mental sets Incorrect. A mental set refers to attempting to solve the problem using past successful solution approaches to similar problems. D) availability heuristic Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 57. Alex and Nicole just got married. They move into their new apartment and realize they need a coffee table. Alex takes four stacks of old textbooks and forms the legs of the table. He then takes an old piece of cardboard and lays it across the four “legs.” Alex and Nicole enjoy a romantic candle-lit dinner on their new "table." Which cognitive tendency has Alex clearly mastered? A) mental set Incorrect. A mental set refers to attempting to solve the problem using past successful solution approaches to similar problems. B) functional fixedness Correct. Functional fixedness is our tendency to have trouble imagining uses for objects other than their originally intended uses. C) creative inhibition D) availability heuristic Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

58. Using a wire coat hanger to unclog a stopped toilet or fish a hair plug out of a blocked drain demonstrates that you are not hindered by __________. A) functional fixedness Correct. Functional fixedness is our tendency to have trouble imagining uses for objects other than their originally intended uses. B) availability heuristic C) mental sets Incorrect. A mental set refers to attempting to solve the problem using past successful solution approaches to similar problems. D) salience of surface characteristics Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 59. In the 1980s, many psychologists adopted the analogy of a(n) __________ to try to describe and explain the different working processes of the human mind. A) automobile B) television C) kitchen sink D) computer Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.2c Describe various models of the human mind. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 60 The need for cognitive efficiency is very important, but sometimes it can lead people to poor decision making. For example, when considering whether or not to buy the latest “Ultra-Fast Laptop Computer,” ,one should balance cognitive efficiency with __________. A) the principle of Occam’s Razor B) the fact that correlation does not equal causation Incorrect. Nothing in this particular statement is consistent with this critical thinking concept. C) the fact that extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence Correct. When a product suggests it can do amazing things, it must have scientific evidence to support its claims. If it does not, then it is probably going to be disappointing. D) the premise of replicability Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 8.2c Describe various models of the human mind. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving

61. The ambiguity of language is BEST illustrated by which of the following examples? A) calling a friend about whom you are worried B) disagreements about the interpretations of laws Correct. Different people reading the same words can come up with very different interpretations of what they mean. This demonstrates the ambiguity of language. C) telling someone what time a party starts D) giving instructions for an exam Incorrect. Provided that the instructions are clear, this should not contain any ambiguity. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 62. Newspaper headlines, such as “Two Convicts Evade Noose, Jury Hung,” may strike us as funny. From the perspective of language, this is because the phrase or headline __________. A) is impossible to interpret Incorrect. Based on our understanding of social context, this headline is actually easy to interpret. B) has ambiguous meaning Correct. Depending on the emphasis that you put on different words, this headline could have very different meanings. C) has no literal interpretation D) lacks subject-verb agreement Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 63. Which of the following statements is TRUE about language? A) It is not symbolic. B) It can be written, spoken, or signed. C) It is incapable of an infinite set of meaningful utterances. D) It has no set structure or rules that must be obeyed. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work?

64. As symbolic systems of communication, most languages __________. A) generally match sounds to the meaning of words B) are arbitrary in the relationship between words and meaning Correct. The exact same word, or symbol, can have very different meanings in different contexts. C) can be translated to another without impaired meanings of complex concepts Incorrect. If you’ve ever seen a sign in a foreign country translated into English, you would see that sometimes the impairment of meanings can be very comical. D) do not have concepts that are unique to just one particular language Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 65. Language is __________. A) a system of communication that combines symbols in rule-based ways to create meaning B) rarely ambiguous, as the meanings of symbols are inflexible and concrete C) a communication system that includes words, but not gestures D) a communication system that requires little implicit processing Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 66. Much of our language use serves non-informational purposes, such as __________. A) establishing or maintaining social relationships Correct. If you’ve ever insulted a friend as a way of saying hello, you’ve used language to maintain a social relationship rather than for the conveyance of information. B) telling the barista that we want a skim latte Incorrect. While this may be a very important purpose of language, it is an informational purpose. C) advising a friend what time to show up at a party D) providing directions to an event Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work?

67. We often do not consider the complexity of language. This is in part because __________. A) language acquisition is easy B) language acquisition requires little practice Incorrect. Anyone who has ever raised a child and tried to teach them how to use language knows that it requires enormous patience. C) our use of language is generally automatic Correct. We tend not to think very consciously about the words that we use, but rather communicate linguistically with great automaticity. D) humans do not often consider complex phenomena Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 68. Language is based on basic sound units called __________. A) morphemes B) semantics C) registers D) phonemes Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 69. The sounds t, th, and sh are __________. A) morphemes B) phonemes C) semantics D) sound bytes Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 70. The English language has __________ phonemes. A) more than 100 B) between 60 and 75 C) between 40 and 45 D) no more than 15 Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work?

71. According to your textbook, different languages contain different numbers of phonemes. The fewest number of phonemes found in any language mentioned by your authors is about __________. A) 8 B) 15 C) 26 D) 40 Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 72. You are learning Russian in preparation for a trip next summer. Although you are doing a good job recognizing the written signs you need to know, you are having trouble with the sounds of the Russian language. Some of the sounds do not regularly occur in your native language, and you find that your pronunciation of those sound units does not sound authentic. Which of the following aspects of language is giving you trouble? A) syntax B) phonemes Correct. Phonemes are the basic units of sound in a language. C) morphemes Incorrect. Morphemes are the smallest units of meaning in a language; the problem in this case is with the sounds, not their meaning. D) audiograms Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 73. The smallest units of speech that are meaningful are referred to as __________. A) phonemes B) lingmemes C) anomias D) morphemes Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work?

74. The basic meaningful units of any language are called __________. A) phonemes B) morphemes C) semantics D) sound bytes Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 75. How many morphemes are there in the sentence “I wanted it”? A) three Incorrect. There are four morphemes, but three words. The word wanted has two morphemes in it. B) four Correct. There are four morphemes: I, want, ed, it. C) six D) five Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 76. The meanings derived from words or sentences are collectively known as the __________ of language. A) semantics B) proxemics C) syntatics D) pragmatics Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work?

77. The rules that determine how sounds and words can be combined and used to communicate meaning within a language are collectively known as __________. A) morphemic rules B) phonemic rules C) linguistic relativity D) syntax Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 78. Let’s say we could teach a dolphin to understand the difference between the sentences “The parrot kissed the dolphin” and “The dolphin was kissed by the parrot.” If this were demonstrated, it might mean the dolphin had an understanding of __________. A) phonemes B) morphemes Incorrect. Morphemes are the smallest units of meaning in a language. C) syntax Correct. Syntax is the system of rules for combining words and phrases to form grammatically correct sentences. D) pragmatics Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 79. What is wrong in the following sentence? “Eggs the ham and green delicious are.” A) phonemes Incorrect. Phonemes refer to the basic units of spoken sound of the language. There is nothing phonemically incorrect about the sentence. It does, however, contain important syntax errors. B) morphemes C) syntax Correct. Syntax refers to the grammatical rules that help us compose words into meaningful strings. D) dialect Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work?

80. When speakers of English add ed to a verb to indicate past tense, they are applying a __________. A) morphological marker Correct. A morphological marker is a grammatical element that modifies words by adding sounds to them to change their meanings. B) dialectical marker C) phoneme Incorrect. Phonemes are the basic units of sound in the language. D) prefix Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 81. A __________ marker is a grammatical element that modifies words by adding sounds that change their meanings. A) phonetic B) phonemic C) morphological D) syntactic Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 82. The rule in English that adjectives usually come before nouns is part of __________. A) semantics Incorrect. Semantics refers to the meaning that is communicated in one’s use of language. B) surface structure C) syntax Correct. Syntax refers to the rules for combining letters into words and words into sentences. D) grammatics Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work?

83. In most cases, the rules of syntax __________. A) are the same across different languages Incorrect. Different languages have very different syntactic structures. B) are the same across different dialects C) are perfectly applied in conversation D) are rarely followed perfectly in real-world language Correct. Real-world language use tends to be less formal and more casual. The rules of syntax tend to be applied with more lenience. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 84. What is missing when a student who skips class copies notes from another student? A) extralinguistic information Correct. Extralinguistic information includes parts of communication that aren’t part of the content of the transmission but that are needed for interpreting its meaning, such as tone of voice and facial expressions. B) syntax clues C) morphological markers Incorrect. The best answer to this question is extralinguistic information, because the student who is just getting the information from notes loses the nonverbal communication of the instructor. D) phonesthemes Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 85. E-mail can often lead to misunderstandings. This is because __________. A) it lacks extralinguistic information Correct. Because you cannot get information such as facial expressions or voice inflection in an e-mail, people often misunderstand the intent of what somebody else meant to communicate. B) people misspell more often with e-mail than with pen-and-paper writing Incorrect. People may not misspell words quite as much, but there is a common practice of using abbreviations in e-mails that is socially accepted. This may be misinterpreted as misspellings. C) of decreasing literacy levels D) most people read e-mail more rapidly than other written forms Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work?

86. Although extralinguistic information is not a formal part of language, it does serve the purpose of __________. A) generally providing entertainment value, which captures our attention B) providing literal and factual information Incorrect. It is verbal information, and not extralinguistic information, that provides literal and factual information. C) assisting in interpretation Correct. Extralinguistic information can give you cues in interpreting an ambiguous verbal statement. D) distracting us from the emotional aspects of communication Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 87. Our co-worker says, “It’s awful in here.” To understand what she means, we must __________. A) take into account extralinguistic information, such as location and facial expressions Correct. Depending on the facial expression and body posture of the co-worker, her statement could mean many things. B) examine the grammatical structure of her comment Incorrect. Examining the grammatical structure of her comment will not help us understand its meaning. Looking at the extralinguistic information, however, will give us quite a bit of data. C) examine the morphemes in the statement to determine the smaller units of meaning in the sentence D) ignore nonverbal cues so that we are not distracted Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 88. Brian and Devonte are watching a football game, and the men are cheering for different teams. After Brian's team loses, he tells Devonte, "I hate you so much right now." Devonte knows that Brian is kidding because of his open body posture and big smile. In this example there was no miscommunication because of __________. A) extralinguistic information Correct. Extralinguistic information can give you cues in interpreting an ambiguous verbal statement. B) the grammatical structure of his comment Incorrect. Examining the grammatical structure of her comment will not help us understand its meaning. Looking at the extralinguistic information, however, will give us quite a bit of data. C) the morphemes in the statement D) the statement's ambiguous phonemes Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

89. The term dialect is used to indicate ___________. A) distinct and different languages found in the same country B) language forms that are based on another language, but that do not have a syntactic structure of their own C) variations of the same language based on geographical or ethnic similarities D) variations of a language that follow no structural patterns Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 90. A person from one part of the United States might ask you for a glass of “soda,” while a person from a different region might ask for a glass of “pop.” Still a third person might ask for a “Coke,” while a fourth would request a glass of “tonic.” All of these individuals want the same thing, but the variation in how they request it demonstrates a __________. A) dialect Correct. Different regions use different dialects to express the same thought. B) colloquialism C) semantic error Incorrect. None of these examples demonstrates a semantic error, but rather dialects that are specific to a given region or location. D) phonemic shift Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 91. Why do people speak in different dialects? A) The culture and environment in which a person is raised impacts the way they communicate linguistically. Correct. Because language is at least in part imitative, dialects tend to be transmitted from generation to generation. B) Dialects represent grammatical errors that are reinforced by one’s surroundings. C) People in different areas have genetic variations that impact the way their brains interpret language skills. D) People from different countries naturally speak different languages, and that is all a dialect really is. Incorrect. A dialect represents variations in the usage of the same language. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work?

92. Language is a very complex form of communication that separates humans from other animal groups. For this reason, __________ theorists believe that language must offer a survival advantage. A) psychoanalytic B) cognitive C) evolutionary D) behaviorist Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 93. A key difficulty in explaining how language evolved is the __________ phonemes, words, and rules of syntax. A) consistency of Incorrect. Phonemes, words, and syntax represent very different concepts. B) arbitrariness of Correct. Some scholars suggest that the arbitrariness of language allows for a necessary flexibility in communication. C) resemblance of meaning to D) rigidness and uniformity of Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 94. Using words like hee-haw or cock-a-doodle-doo to describe the sound that a donkey or rooster might make provides us with examples of __________. A) onomatopoeia Correct. Onomatopoeia refers to a word that resembles the sound to which it refers. B) anomia C) a morphological marker D) a dialect Incorrect. A dialect refers to variations in the way the same language is used in different regions or locations. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work?

95. Which of the following is an example of onomatopoeia? A) car B) grass C) hair D) buzz Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 96. The textbook authors note that the word for mother in most languages begins with an “m” or “n” sound. They speculate that this may be because __________. A) these phonemes tend to be the first that children acquire Correct. Because these tend to be the easiest phonemes to say, they are related to the first words that children acquire. B) all languages have the same origin C) these are the most common phonemes in all languages Incorrect. There is nothing in your chapter that refers to the most common phonemes across languages. D) they all derive from the Latin word mater. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 97. Using the __________ procedure, researchers have found that infants can recognize sounds to which they were exposed in utero. A) habituation B) high-amplitude sucking C) auditory cliff D) Cat in the Hat Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 98. Fetuses can hear inside the womb __________. A) by the second month B) no earlier than the seventh month C) by the fifth month D) only after the sixth month Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

99. Newborn infants show a preference for __________. A) the English language B) the Spanish language C) their mother’s native language D) any language if it is spoken by a familiar voice Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 100. Babies engage in intentional vocalizations that sound meaningful, but are not. This is referred to as __________. A) babbling B) telegraphic speech C) holographic speech D) two-word utterances Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 101. Linda’s 3-month-old infant keeps saying “ga-ga-ga-ga-ga” and “doh-doh-doh-doh-doh.” Should she be worried? A) Yes; parents should not encourage nonsense language in their infants, because it can lead to language problems later on. B) Maybe; her 3-month-old should be saying at least a couple of words by now. C) No; this behavior is called babbling and it is normal for infants. Correct. Babbling (any intentional vocalization that lacks specific meaning) is normal for infants. D) No, although the infant should start to string these syllables together to form words in the next month or two. Incorrect. In fact, it will be several months before Linda’s child starts putting syllables together to form words. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work?

102. Your friend’s six-month-old baby has begun to vocalize long strings of repeated syllables in a continuous stream. For example, the baby vocalizes “Malamalamalamalamala.” This baby is in the __________ stage. A) cooing B) babbling Correct. Babbling is the repetition of individual syllables. C) syllables D) holophrastic speech Incorrect. Holophrastic speech refers to the use of one word to represent an entire concept. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 103. By the age of ten months, an infant will generally __________. A) use only the phonemes of the native language of adult speakers around them B) be in the cooing stage of vocalization C) have a vocabulary of approximately 100 words D) speak in two-word “sentences” Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 104. Which of the following represents the most accurate statement about how children learn language? A) Reduplicative babbling precedes the syllables stage of vocalization. B) Children can produce many more words than they can understand. Incorrect. On the contrary, children tend to understand far more words than they can produce at an early age. C) Comprehension of words precedes production. Correct. Typically infants will understand words before they start to use them. D) Most children recognize their own names as early as two months. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work?

105. Should Serina be surprised that her 10-month-old infant understands her command to pick up her rattle? A) Yes, because most infants don’t develop true comprehension until after their first birthday B) No, because most infants can comprehend hundreds of words by their first birthday Incorrect. While infants may be able to understand several words by their first birthday, the estimate of hundreds is an exaggeration. C) Yes, because although most infants can produce hundreds of words before their first birthday, comprehension usually lags behind D) No, because infants’ comprehension of their world precedes their production ability Correct. In early word learning, children can understand words before they can produce them. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 106. Your family dog is named “Happy.” Any time your young child sees a dog, she calls out “Happy.” This is an example of __________. A) overextension Correct. Overextension refers to the application of one word to many related but different concepts. B) undergeneralization C) incorrect word meaning D) comprehension before production Incorrect. This refers to the fact that children tend to be receptive to language before they can produce it, but it is not related to this question. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 107. When a child applies a word in a much narrower sense than is needed—for example, thinking that the word “house” refers only to their own house—they are engaging in __________. A) overextension B) overregulation C) underextension D) underregulation Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work?

108. Marcy is having lunch with her mother when a friend stops by the table to say hello. “Marcy, this is my friend, and her name is Marcy, too,” the mother says. The child looks up and says, “You can’t be named Marcy. That is my name.” In a linguistic sense, this example demonstrates __________. A) overregulation Incorrect. Overregulation is the overly broad application of the rules of grammar and a lack of recognition where the exceptions to those rules occur. B) overextension C) underregulation D) underextension Correct. This narrow application of a word is an example of underextension. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 109. One-year old Matthew wanders into the kitchen where his father is making dinner for the family. He points to the counter and says, “Nana!” His father looks down and says, “Do you want to eat a banana?” Matthew then gets very excited and starts jumping up and down. Matthew is currently in the __________ stage of language development. A) holographic B) one-word C) telegraphic D) fast-mapping Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 110. By the time children reach __________ age, they have usually acquired most of the syntactic rules of their language. A) preschool B) kindergarten C) first grade D) second grade Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work?

111. Which of the following was the individual who was chained to a potty chair in the back of a bedroom and deprived of social interaction until she was 13 years old? A) Helen Keller B) Genie C) Noam Chomsky D) Raymond Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 112. The case of Genie and her failure to acquire meaningful language ability best supports __________. A) the nativist approach B) the limitations of bilingualism C) metalinguistic deficiency Incorrect. Metalinguistic insight refers to our awareness of how language is structured and used. The case of Genie does not involve a deficit of metalinguistic insight. D) the critical period theory Correct. A critical period is a window of time in development in which an organism must learn an ability if it’s going to learn it at all. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 113. A group of deaf children was discovered after a terrible earthquake had nearly destroyed the town. The children had been hiding together for nearly a month. When an interpreter was brought in, she could not make sense of the signs she saw, yet the children were clearly communicating with one another. What is the most likely explanation? A) The children were engaged in cryptophasia. B) The children were just pretending to use sign language. Incorrect. These children were not pretending to use anything. They were engaged in a form of communication called homesign. C) The interpreter was not fluent in signed English. D) The children had developed a form of homesign. Correct. In situations in which children are not instructed in any language, they may invent their own signs; this phenomenon is called homesign. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work?

114. A __________ period is a time during which people are more receptive to learning and can acquire knowledge more easily. A) critical B) sensitive C) receptive D) potentiated Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 115. Susan would like for her child to learn a second language. If she wants the child to be fluent in the second language, research suggests that she should begin instruction no later than age __________. A) three B) five C) seven Correct. Researchers found that skills for learning language proficiency seemed to drop off after the age of seven. D) ten Incorrect. Generally speaking, the earlier a child is exposed to a language, the more proficient he or she will become at that language. Prior to the age of seven, however, appears to be the best time to teach a new language. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3c Identify the pros and cons of bilingualism. Topic: How Does Language Work? 116. If you didn’t already know sign language and you observed two deaf persons using signs, you would probably __________. A) have an easy time deciphering their conversation B) understand little to nothing about what was being communicated Correct. Sign language is a fully productive language with its own phonemes, words, syntax, and extralinguistic information. ASL has little in common with any spoken language and would not be decipherable to someone who is not fluent. C) have to rely on their facial expressions Incorrect. Facial expressions are an important part of sign language, but it is not adequate to read the facial expressions to understand the conversation is taking place. D) be able to join in the conversation after a few minutes Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work?

117. Which of the following is TRUE of sign language? A) There is one universal form of sign language. B) Most deaf babies are born to deaf parents. C) It has its own phonemes, words, syntax, and extralinguistic information. D) It lacks generativity. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 118. According to research, which of the following aspects of language is the least susceptible to the effects of age? A) syntax B) pronunciation C) vocabulary D) pragmatics Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 119. Buck has a friend who is deaf and was born to deaf parents who used sign language. It is most likely that his friend __________. A) developed sign language in much the same way Buck learned to speak Correct. Sign language is a fully productive language with its own phonemes, words, syntax, and extralinguistic information. Though 90 percent of deaf children are born to hearing parents, babies born to fluent signers do not experience significant challenges to learning language. B) learned sign language as a whole rather than a series of stages C) has not learned to sign because he can lip read Incorrect. In fact, research has found that lip reading is not terribly effective as a form of receptive communication, and the use of lip reading does not impair the development of sign language skills. D) developed a secret language with his parents that only they can understand Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work?

120. Even those who are well-skilled at reading lips can pick up only about __________ percent of what is being said, because most of our verbal expression is done inside of the mouth. A) 5–10 B) 10–20 C) 20–30 D) 30–35 Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 121. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding sign language and talking? A) Learning a sign language speeds up the process of learning to talk. B) Deaf children who rely on sign language rarely acquire any true vocal skills. C) Children who are partially deaf and who use sign language have the worst chance of learning to talk because they use sign language as a “crutch.” D) Research has found that only deaf children who get cochlear implants ever truly learn to talk effectively. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 122. The best predictor of whether someone will achieve fluency in a second language is __________. A) motivation B) IQ C) age of acquisition D) the simplicity of the second language’s structure Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3c Identify the pros and cons of bilingualism. Topic: How Does Language Work?

123. Henry hears German spoken in his home, but he is exposed only to English in school. It is likely that Henry will __________. A) fail to experience difficulties in either language B) have improved metalinguistic ability Correct. People who are bilingual tend to have a better understanding of metalinguistics. C) show metalinguistic deficits Incorrect. On the contrary, people who speak more than one language tend to have metalinguistic advantages. D) have difficulties in vocabulary, but not syntax Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3c Identify the pros and cons of bilingualism. Topic: How Does Language Work? 124. __________ insight refers to our awareness of how language is structured and used. A) Metacognitive B) Metalinguistic C) Linguistico-pragmatic D) Semantico-linguistic Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3c Identify the pros and cons of bilingualism. Topic: How Does Language Work? 125. Proponents of the imitation theory of language acquisition suggest that this model is the simplest for explaining the varieties of how children gain language skills. These theorists are banking on which principle of critical thinking to support their views? A) ruling out rival hypotheses B) replicability Incorrect. Nothing in this question speaks about replicability, or repeating research with the aim of coming up with the same results. C) Occam’s Razor Correct. Occam’s Razor suggests that the simplest explanation for a phenomenon is usually the correct explanation. It is sometimes referred to as the rule of parsimony. D) extraordinary claims Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work?

126. When psychologists say language is generative, they mean that __________. A) children learn syntax gradually B) language acquisition is solely a function of nurture C) language is a function of social pragmatics D) a limited number of symbols can be used to create an unlimited number of sentences Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 127. Which aspect of language is analogous to an assignment in which children are given a bag containing glue, popsicle sticks, and rubber bands, and then allowed to create as many things as they can? A) imitation Incorrect. The correct answer to this question, generativity, is actually a problem for the imitation theory of language acquisition. B) production C) generativity Correct. A key feature of language is that it is generative, meaning that it is a system that allows us to create an infinite number of sentences. Even very young children use language in a generative way. D) holophrase Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 128. According to famed linguist Noam Chomsky, humans have an innate ability to understand and produce language through a device he called __________. A) syntax synthesizer (SS) B) grammar grabber (GG) C) language acquisition device (LAD) D) language learning system (LLS) Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work?

129. The imitation theory of language acquisition is hindered by a finding that children learn to use syntax gradually and that even adults use grammatically incorrect sentences. This is the basis of which principle of critical thinking? A) falsifiability Correct. This is evidence that contradicts a widely explored theory, and it is an important part of critical thinking. B) correlation vs. causation C) extraordinary claims Incorrect. There is nothing extraordinary in either the claims made by the theory or the evidence produced to falsify that model. D) replicability Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 130. While it offers compelling explanations for language development, the most significant shortcoming of the nativist account is __________. A) many of its claims are difficult to falsify Correct. This principle of critical thinking is a problem for the nativist account of language acquisition. B) its emphasis on extralinguistic information C) the emphasis on neurophysiology Incorrect. In fact, the nativist account places the most emphasis on neurophysiology by discussing brain parts that lead us to use language skills. D) it does not address generativity Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 131. Which theory of language development is supported by the observation that many children can use contextual cues to guess the meaning of unfamiliar words? A) social pragmatics account Correct. The social pragmatics account holds that children use the context to make sense of a topic. B) imitation account C) nativist account Incorrect. The nativist account suggests that we have parts of our brains that inevitably lead us to use language skills. It does not place much stock in the importance of social context. D) general cognitive processing account Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work?

132. According to __________ theory, children can deduce the meaning of words they do not understand by inferring meaning from the context. A) social pragmatics Correct. This theory suggests that extralinguistic information and social context are important parts of language acquisition. B) nativist Incorrect. The nativist account suggests that we have parts of our brains that inevitably lead us to use language skills. It does not place much stock in the importance of social context. C) general cognitive processing D) imitation Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 133. Learning to ride a bike is just like learning to hit a baseball. Which theory of language acquisition might support this statement? A) imitation account B) general cognitive processing account Correct. The general cognitive processing account holds that children learn language in the same way they learn any other skill. The idea is that for language, all children need is the ability to perceive, learn, and recognize patterns. C) nativist account Incorrect. The nativist account suggests that we have parts of our brains that inevitably lead us to use language skills. It does not place much stock in the importance of social context. D) social pragmatics account Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 134. Which of the following brain areas is primarily involved in speech production? A) Corpus’s area B) Wernicke’s area C) Broca’s area D) Munchausen’s area Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work?

135. Which of the following brain areas is primarily involved in speech comprehension? A) Corpus’s area B) Wernicke’s area C) Broca’s area D) Munchausen’s area Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 136. In nonhuman animals, the most common circumstances under which communication occurs are __________. A) feeding and labor B) hunting and food distribution C) violence and sex D) mating and food distribution Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3d Distinguish human language from nonhuman animal communication. Topic: How Does Language Work? 137. Honeybees communicate through ___________. A) the waggle dance B) the release of pheromones C) changing pitch of buzzing D) touching antennae Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3d Distinguish human language from nonhuman animal communication. Topic: How Does Language Work? 138. In studies of attempts to teach chimpanzees language, researchers have found that __________. A) chimpanzees are similar to human children in requiring few trials to associate signs with meaning B) chimpanzees frequently engage in naming behaviors C) children master syntax later than chimpanzees D) chimpanzees require many trials to associate meaning in communication Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3d Distinguish human language from nonhuman animal communication. Topic: How Does Language Work?

139. Which of the following statements refutes the idea that chimpanzees can use language? A) Chimpanzees sometimes use symbols to engage in social interactions. Incorrect. This is a correct statement, but it does not refute the idea that chimpanzees can use language. B) Chimpanzees learn better as young animals than as adults. C) Chimpanzees are unable to effectively master syntax. Correct. Although some researchers believe that chimpanzees can use human-like language, most believe that they typically learn only through conditioning and never master syntactic rules. D) Chimpanzees learn new words or signs easily. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3d Distinguish human language from nonhuman animal communication. Topic: How Does Language Work? 140. If you wanted to teach a nonhuman animal to communicate using language, which of the following animals does research suggest would be the best choice? A) chimpanzees Incorrect. Chimpanzees do not seem to be able to master any of the basics of the syntax of human language. B) parakeets C) bonobos Correct. Bonobos seem to have the most success at developing rudimentary language skills. D) gorillas Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 4.1f TEXT LO: 8.3d Distinguish human language from nonhuman animal communication. Topic: How Does Language Work? 141. Parrots seem to talk. They utter words that sound like human language. Thus, can this behavior be thought to be speech? Which statement about parrots is supported by the research? A) Parrots have been shown to be able to master syntax. B) Parrots have the language abilities of a 3-year-old child. C) Parrots’ use of humanlike language appears to be based primarily on imitation and mimicry. They do not appear to understand the underlying structure of what they “say.” D) When compared to chimpanzees or bonobos, parrots appear to have a much higher capacity for learning the syntax and structure of human language. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3d Distinguish human language from nonhuman animal communication. Topic: How Does Language Work?

142. Masha has been asked to participate in a research study where she is presented with words on a screen. The words include the names of colors, such as “BLACK,” “WHITE”, and “GREEN.” The words are printed in different colors, however. For example, the word “BLACK” appears in blue type, and the word “GREEN” appears in yellow type. What task is Masha performing? A) the Stroop task Correct. The Stroop color naming task helps to identify the automaticity with which people read. B) the Luscher test C) the Rorschach test Incorrect. This is an example of a projective personality assessment tool. D) the Beck inventory Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.4a Identify the skills required to learn to read. Topic: Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading 143. Neetu attempts to identify correctly the colors in the Stroop task interference list, but has difficulty doing so. This illustrates __________. A) color-blindness Incorrect. Colorblindness is not something that would be effectively demonstrated by the Stroop task. B) the automaticity of language Correct. The automaticity of language suggests that we don’t use as much conscious thought in the expression of what we say as one might believe. C) the tendency to recognize colors before words D) that cognitive load is unimportant Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.4a Identify the skills required to learn to read. Topic: Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading 144. The average reader uses __________ to read the vast majority of printed words. A) phonetic decomposition B) whole word recognition C) surface salience D) the representativeness heuristic Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.4a Identify the skills required to learn to read. Topic: Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading

145. A reading strategy that involves identifying common words based on their appearance without having to sound them out is called __________. A) neologistic processing B) bottom-up linguistics C) phonetic decomposition D) whole word recognition Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.4a Identify the skills required to learn to read. Topic: Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading 146. Young Jonah is learning to read, and his father writes MOMMY on a card and asks him to read it. When Jonah struggles, his father says, “Sound it out one letter at a time!” As Jonah does this, he eventually puts the sounds together and triumphantly shouts the correct word. What method has Jonah used to read this word? A) phonetic decomposition Correct. Taking words and breaking them down by the sound of each letter is referred to as phonetic decomposition. B) pragmatic delineation C) semantic structuring D) whole-word recognition Incorrect. When Jonah’s father tells him to break the word down into its component sounds, this is phonetic decomposition, not whole-word recognition. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.4a Identify the skills required to learn to read. Topic: Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading 147. Which of the following words would present the most difficulty using phonetic decomposition? A) pleasure Correct. Because many of the letters in this word do not make their individual sounds, a child would have difficulty pronouncing this word if he or she did not recognize it immediately. B) livid Incorrect. Each letter in this word makes its individual sound. Phonetic decomposition would not be difficult for a child to use to learn to read this word. C) letter D) bit Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.4a Identify the skills required to learn to read. Topic: Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading

148. For some time, U.S. educational policy was based on the research-based belief that teaching children to recognize whole words was the best way to teach reading skills. As it turns out, this was incorrect. The best way to teach reading skills is to teach analysis and recognition of sound-letter relationships. The mistake was a result of incorrect conclusions based on specific types of research. What error of critical thinking took place? A) extraordinary claims Incorrect. There is nothing “extraordinary” in the question, and as such this is not the best answer. B) replicability C) Occam’s Razor D) correlation vs. causation Correct. The policy was based on correlational data, and those who shaped the policy incorrectly concluded that the presence of a relationship meant that a causal path existed. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 8.4a Identify the skills required to learn to read. Topic: Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading 149. Research on speed-reading courses indicates that __________. A) comprehension suffers as reading speed increases B) comprehension is not negatively impacted C) speed is completely unrelated to comprehension D) the faster we read, the better able we are to retain attention to the text. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.4b Analyze the relationship between reading speed and reading comprehension. Topic: Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading 150. It is possible to increase both our reading speed and comprehension, as long as our speed does not exceed __________ words per minute. A) 100 B) 200 C) 300 D) 400 Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.4b Analyze the relationship between reading speed and reading comprehension. Topic: Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading

151. The average college student reads at a rate of about __________ words per minute. A) 50–100 B) 100–150 C) 150–200 D) 200–300 Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.4b Analyze the relationship between reading speed and reading comprehension. Topic: Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading 152. Speed-reading programs are popular because they are based on a scientifically-valid relationship that exists between reading speed and comprehension. When examining this relationship, however, we must remember which conceptual precept? A) replicability B) correlation vs. causation Correct. The assumption that higher reading speed causes higher comprehension is not necessarily accurate. The true causal relationship may be quite different, if not the complete opposite. C) falsifiability D) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. Occam’s Razor suggests a simpler explanation, and in this case, the alternate explanations are no less complex, just different in direction. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 8.4b Analyze the relationship between reading speed and reading comprehension. Topic: Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading 153. Speed-reading programs have been “all the rage,” as they have promised to increase your ability to read and comprehend at incredible levels. Some have even claimed to increase their reading speed to 30,000 words per minute. Research, however, has found that their actual reading speed is not nearly this high, and that their comprehension of what they read “tested miserably.” Which principle of critical thinking is this problematic for? A) replicability Incorrect. In fact, the research has been well replicated; that is, it has always found these claims to be unsupported! B) extraordinary claims Correct. Remember that extraordinary claims must be supported by extraordinary evidence. In this case, the evidence is extraordinarily contradictory to the claims that have been made. C) Occam’s Razor D) falsifiability Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 8.4b Analyze the relationship between reading speed and reading comprehension. Topic: Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading

Fill-in-the-Blank 1. As noted in both Chapters 2 and 8, human beings tend to be cognitive __________; that is, we economize mentally in a variety of ways that reduce our mental effort. Answer: misers Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 2. When people refer to a “Monday morning quarterback,” or a person who acts like they knew what was going to happen after an event actually took place, they are actually referencing the __________ bias. Answer: hindsight Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 3. Researchers must be wary of __________ bias, which causes them to ignore evidence that contradicts their views. Answer: confirmation Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 4. When we fill in gaps or missing information in a situation or stimulus using our experiences and background knowledge, we are engaging in __________ processing. Answer: top-down Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 5. Erika has lost her car keys. She remembers having them when she came in the house, so she goes back to the front door, and tries retracing her steps from when she came home. Eventually, she finds them in the refrigerator next to the milk that she just bought. Erika has used a(n) __________ to solve the problem of the lost keys. Answer: algorithm Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving

6. __________ help us draw conclusions and solve problems in a “fast and frugal” way. Answer: Heuristics Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 7. __________ refers to how attention-grabbing something is. Answer: Salience Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 8. When Jonathan uses a twisted wire coat hanger to connect a heavy door to the wall so that it doesn’t slam shut, he is demonstrating the fact that he is not hindered by __________. Answer: functional fixedness Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 9. __________ is a system of communication that combines symbols according to rules and in a way that conveys meaning. Answer: Language Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 10. To say that using and interpreting language typically requires little attention is to say that it is __________. Answer: automatic Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 11. The basic units of sound in a language, which are called __________, vary in number from one language to the next. Answer: phonemes Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work?

12. __________ refers to the rules of a language that guide us in the proper ways to construct a sentence. Answer: Syntax Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 13. Social context and the use of gestures and facial expressions by the speaker are examples of __________ information. Answer: extralinguistic Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 14. Because language is arbitrary, it allows great __________ in conveying complex ideas and thoughts. Answer: flexibility Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Topic: How Does Language Work? 15. By the time they are roughly one year old, babies tend to use the __________ of their native language when babbling. Answer: phonemes Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 16. When babies use nonsense syllables in a conversational tone, they are engaging in __________. Answer: babbling Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 17. Sign language requires the signer to use her/his face, hands, body, and __________ to communicate. Answer: “sign space” Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

18. Spoken English and American Sign Language have __________ syntactic structures. Answer: different Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 19. Many children who are deaf, who are born to hearing parents, invent their own signs when they are not instructed in formal sign language. This is known as __________. Answer: homesign Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 20. One explanation for the difficulty of second language acquisition among adults is that when someone learns a second language in adulthood, they use different __________ than those who learn a second language in early childhood. Answer: brain areas Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3c Identify the pros and cons of bilingualism. Topic: How Does Language Work? 21. __________ means that there are an infinite number of unique sentences to be created by combining words in novel ways. Answer: Generativity Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 22. The __________ account holds that language is not a specialized ability, but rather an application of overall skills that children employ to navigate their world successfully. Answer: general cognitive processing Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? 23. The closest vocalizations observed among animals that mirror human language are the different __________ of the vervet monkey. Answer: alarm calls Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3d Distinguish human language from nonhuman animal communication. Topic: How Does Language Work? Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

24. In addition to the bonobo, the __________ appears to use language in a way that is more similar to human use than other animals. Answer: African gray parrot Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.3d Distinguish human language from nonhuman animal communication. Topic: How Does Language Work? 25. In most cases, adults use __________ recognition to read the vast majority of printed text. Answer: whole word Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.4a Identify the skills required to learn to read. Topic: Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading Essay 1. Cognitive economy serves an adaptive function for humans, but does so at a price. Discuss the benefits and potential liabilities of cognitive economy. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. Benefits: The most significant benefit is that our tendency to be cognitive misers offers a tremendous advantage in the speed of decision making. Also, by allowing us to categorize objects and ideas, we do not face each encounter with a new object in a vacuum. Our categorization and schemas afford transference. The ability to make snap judgments, or “thin-slicing,” shows that we have a remarkable capacity for assessing information quickly based on top-down processing and access to previous experiences. In addition, we are able to restrict the focus of our attention to help us manage information in an efficient way that aids in decision making. Liabilities: The downside of cognitive economy is that it is only a probable good choice, which means at times we suffer from poor judgment and make faulty decisions based on limited or no examination of alternatives. Various forms of bias can also cloud our decision making. These include confirmation bias and hindsight bias, as well as the availability heuristic. We also experience faulty reasoning due to mental sets and functional fixedness. Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning

2. Discuss the ways in which cognitive economy may be implicated in various forms of discrimination. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. Because the principles of cognitive economy encourage us to conserve our cognitive abilities, we make generalizations based on previous experiences and knowledge and categorize, not just objects, but also persons. Just as we do not have to treat each encounter with an object as completely new, we also do not approach other people without preconceived notions about them according to their characteristics. Our tendency to categorize and develop schemas can make thinking very efficient, but it can also lead us to overgeneralize in ways that may lead to stereotyping and discrimination. Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 3. Compare and contrast functional fixedness and mental set. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. Functional fixedness is the failure to use familiar objects in novel ways to solve problems. It is getting caught in familiar patterns of activity to the extent that you cannot innovate even when the situation demands it. Mental set is a mental rut in one’s approach to solving problems, the tendency to use the same old method even though another approach might be better. Both functional fixedness and the mental set are barriers to effective problem solving, and both are ordinarily based on our experiences with past attempts to solve problems. Culture may play a role in both barriers, as can one’s exposure to certain types of problem-solving strategies. Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Topic: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving 4. How might we apply the concept of generativity to investigations of plagiarism? Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. One key weakness of the imitation account of language is the principle of generativity. Humans do not merely mimic others and then respond to the consequence that the behavior brings. The symbol system of language allows people the opportunity to combine words in novel ways, producing sentences and even ideas never expressed in exactly the same way before. This concept is important as we consider plagiarism: The likelihood of spontaneously generating an identical sentence or passage is highly improbable. Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work?

5. Theoretical perspectives seeking to explain the development of language fall within both nature and nurture orientations. Compare and contrast the strengths and weaknesses of the naturebased perspectives, as well as those based on nurture. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. Nature: Children appear to have inborn ability for syntax and vocalization, which supports the nativist account, specifically Chomsky’s language acquisition device. Brain structures, such as Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area, are specific to language production and comprehension, respectively. Stages of language development, such as babbling and holophrases, appear to be relatively universal in terms of the developmental timeline. Also, children, unlike adults, appear to be able to recognize and produce phonemes from languages other than that of their parents. A weakness is the lack of falsifiability of the nativist account. Nurture: Children mimic, especially if reinforced. Specifics of acquisition vary according to culture and native language exposure. Over time, and unless they learn a second language, children lose the ability to recognize and produce phonemes from languages other than that used by their caregivers. The capacity in language for infinite generativity supports our use of language in novel ways that can vary according to circumstances. A key component in understanding language is the use of context to infer meaning. Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? Critical Thinking 1. Provide an example of how cognitive economy benefits you. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. Explain that cognitive economy allows us to ignore a multitude of distracting stimuli while maintaining our focus on relevant aspects of our environment (e.g., successfully studying for an exam despite the loud music being played by your neighbors). An inclusive answer should also include the mention of at least one heuristic discussed in this chapter, which would include the confirmation bias and the availability heuristic. Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Topic: Thinking and Reasoning 2. The case of Genie allows us to draw few conclusions about language development. Discuss the obstacles to such understanding relevant to this case. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. Because Genie was reared in isolation, her case presents particular challenges. We cannot exclude rival explanations for her failure to learn to speak fluently. On one hand, her case supports the notion of a critical period of language development, as she was discovered at the age of 13, having had little exposure to language. Because she was not “activated” during this critical period, she never acquired a meaningful ability to speak or read. However, her lack of language development could also have stemmed from social isolation, as well as abuse. Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Topic: How Does Language Work? Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

CHAPTER 8: THINKING, REASONING, AND LANGUAGE ________________________________________________________________________ Cognition 1. Cognition is a synonym for __________. a. perception b. learning c. thinking d. intelligence Answer c % correct 77 a= 23 b= 0 c= 77 d= 0

r = .44

2. The basic sound units of any language are called __________. a. phonemes b. sound bytes c. semantics d. morphemes Answer a % correct 89 a= 89 b= 0 c= 8 d= 4 r = .34 3. The sounds of t, th, and sh are __________. a. semantics b. morphemes c. phonemes d. sound bytes Answer c % correct 61 a= 19 b= 15 c= 61 d= 4

r = .60

4. The smallest meaningful units in a language are __________. a. morphemes b. semantics c. phonemes d. processors Answer a % correct 73 a= 73 b= 12 c= 12 d= 4 r = .64 5. Prefixes, suffixes, and words are examples of __________. a. subjugations b. semantics c. morphemes d. phonemes Answer c % correct 69 a= 8 b= 15 c= 69 d= 8 r = .49 6. The system of rules that governs how we assign meaning to the morphemes we use is called __________. a. syntax b. phonology c. regularization d. semantics Answer d % correct 31 a= 65 b= 0 c= 4 d= 31 r = .37

7. Laboratory experiments suggest that animals have __________. a. some cognitive capacities b. cognitive capacities better than most humans c. almost no cognitive capabilities d. cognitive capabilities similar to most humans Answer a % correct 73 a=73 b= 0 c= 4 d= 23

Quiz 8.1: Thinking and Reasoning Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Thinking and Reasoning

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q8.1.1 Because we process so much information every day, our brains have become __________ in order to economize our mental effort. a) cognitive misers b) stingy thinkers c) simplistic d) lazy ANS: a Topic=Thinking and Reasoning Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: We economize mentally in a variety of ways that reduce our mental effort, but enable us to get things right most of the time. LO 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy.

EOM Q8.1.2 Mental activities such as learning, remembering, perceiving, communicating, believing, and deciding can all be included under the overarching term __________. a) thinking b) consciousness c) behaving d) heuristics ANS: a Topic=Thinking and Reasoning Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Generally speaking, we can define this as any mental activity or processing of information. LO 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy.

EOM Q8.1.3 The term “mondegreen” refers to certain song lyrics that are commonly misheard as completely different strings of words, often combinations that make no sense. Mondegreens are an example of __________ processing. a) top-down b) bottom-up c) sideways d) perceptual ANS: a Topic=Thinking and Reasoning Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: We often fill in the gaps of missing information using our experience and background knowledge. LO 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world.

EOM Q8.1.4 When we seek out evidence that supports an opinion or belief that we already hold, we are engaging in __________. a) the confirmation bias b) the hindsight bias c) top-down processing d) System 3 thinking ANS: a Topic=Thinking and Reasoning Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This is a common tendency among thinkers, and one that can limit and color the conclusions reached. LO 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world.

EOM Q8.1.5 When we make a guess as to how likely something is to happen based on how quickly the answer comes to mind we are using __________. a) the availability heuristic b) the blacktop illusion c) the representativeness heuristic d) System 2 thinking ANS: a Topic=Thinking and Reasoning Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: If you are asked whether there is a higher density of trees (a) on your college campus or (b) in the downtown area of the nearest major city, you are likely to answer (a). LO 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world.

Quiz 8.2: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision-Making and Problem Solving Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q8.2.1 What new field tries to incorporate scientific evidence into the decision-making process for businesses? a) decision management b) framing science c) corporate deliberation d) neuroeconomics ANS: a Topic=Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 8.2a Discover what influences our decision making. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Business communities are increasingly encouraging managers to be more strategic in their decision making about personnel, resources, and organizational structure. LO 8.2a Discover what influences our decision making.

EOM Q8.2.2 Nathalia listens intently as her economics professor describes the 4 percent unemployment rate in her county. Troubled by this statistic, she later talks with her friend Gigi, who is enrolled in a different section of the same economics course. “Unemployment in our county is horrible!” laments Nathalia. “What do you mean?” replies Gigi. “The professor clearly told us that 96 percent of people in our county have a job, which sounds pretty good to me.” Which barrier to reasoning rationally could be affecting Nathalia and Gigi's conclusions? a) framing b) the availability heuristic c) the affect heuristic d) the hindsight bias ANS: a Topic=Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving, Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 8.2a Discover what influences our decision making. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Both Nathalia and Gigi received identical information in slightly different forms. LO 8.2a Discover what influences our decision making.

EOM Q8.2.3 Which term describes a step-by-step process of learned procedures we can use to solve particular problems? a) algorithms b) mental sets c) salience of surface similarities d) functional fixedness ANS: a Topic=Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: These come in handy for problems that depend on the same basic steps for arriving at a solution every time the solution is required. LO 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges.

EOM Q8.2.4 In a research study in which people were asked to figure out how to mount a candle on the wall when they were given only a candle, a book of matches, and a box of tacks, what concept was being tested? a) functional fixedness b) parallel distributed processing c) availability heuristic d) mental set ANS: a Topic=Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This occurs when we experience difficulty conceptualizing that an object typically used for one purpose can be used for another. LO 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges.

EOM Q8.2.5 Neuroimaging studies of the brain show that the sensory areas become active when we think about objects, actions, and events. This is consistent with the __________ view of thinking. a) embodied b) computer model c) disambiguation d) emotional ANS: a Topic=Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making a Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 8.2c Describe various models of the human mind. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Recall the various models of thinking you learned about. LO 8.2c Describe various models of the human mind.

Quiz 8.3: How Does Language Work? Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: How Does Language Work?

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q8.3.1 Variations within a language that are used by people from certain geographic areas, social groups, or ethnic backgrounds are called __________. a) dialects b) dialectics c) dianetics d) dialogs ANS: a Topic=How Does Language Work Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Texans are known for their “twang,” y’all. LO 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language.

EOM Q8.3.2 The definition of “morpheme” is __________. a) the smallest meaningful unit of speech b) the category of sounds the human vocal apparatus produces c) a vowel or consonant d) the vibration of vocal chords ANS: a Topic=How Does Language Work? Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: These are created by stringing phonemes together. LO 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q8.3.3 Although we do not fully understand why it is easier for younger children to learn new languages than for older children and adults, learning a language does appear to have what psychologists call a(n) __________, an interval when people are receptive to learning and can acquire new knowledge more easily. a) sensitive period b) anterior phase c) critical mass d) exposure point ANS: a Topic=How Does Language Work? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Children learn language more naturalistically and gradually from the “ground up.” LO 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children.

EOM Q8.3.4 Bilingual people have greater awareness of how language is structured and used than do people who speak only one language. This awareness is called __________ insight. a) metalinguistic b) linguistically dominant c) multilinguistic d) hierarchical linguistic ANS: a Topic=How Does Language Work? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 8.3c Identify the pros and cons of bilingualism. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This seems like a decided advantage to bilingualism. LO 8.3c Identify the pros and cons of bilingualism.

EOM Q8.3.5 Which animal uses a “waggle dance” to tell others of its kind where to find food? a) honeybees b) bonobos c) canaries d) grey parrots ANS: a Topic=How Does Language Work? Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 8.3d Distinguish human language from nonhuman animal communication. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Visualize an animal waggling, then rule out which animals would do that to communicate. LO 8.3d Distinguish human language from nonhuman animal communication.

Quiz 8.4: Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Written Communication: Connecting Language and Reading

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q8.4.1 The two basic paths children take to learning how to read are __________ and __________. a) whole word recognition; phonetic decomposition b) phonetic structuring; phonemic structuring c) whole-part analysis; phonemic rendering d) word-choice learning; word-path learning ANS: a Topic=Communication and the Mind: Connecting Thinking, Language, and Reading Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 8.4a Identify the skills required to learn to read. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: These two approaches each have their merits. LO 8.4a Identify the skills required to learn to read.

EOM Q8.4.2 The mistaken belief that children's use of whole word recognition leads to better reading is an example of __________. a) inferring causality from correlation b) political pressure in the education system c) thought influencing language d) external validity ANS: a Topic=Communication and the Mind: Connecting Thinking, Language, and Reading Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 8.4a Identify the skills required to learn to read. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Mature readers do indeed rely on whole word recognition, but beginning readers are better served by a different strategy. LO 8.4a Identify the skills required to learn to read. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q8.4.3 The term “phonetic decomposition” refers to __________. a) sounding out words based on correspondences between printed letters and sounds b) identifying common words based on their appearance without having to sound them out c) taking words apart to separate the Greek or Latin roots from the prefixes and suffixes d) the disintegration of meaning that occurs when readers approach speeds of 2,000 words per minute ANS: a Topic=Communication and the Mind: Connecting Thinking, Language, and Reading Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 8.4a Identify the skills required to learn to read. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Unfortunately, not all sounds in the English language are linked to a unique letter. LO 8.4a Identify the skills required to learn to read.

EOM Q8.4.4 Most people have difficulty reading a list of color names when the words are printed in a different color (for example, reading the word “red” printed in blue ink). The name for this test is __________, named after the researcher who discovered it. a) the Stroop color-naming task b) the Jabsco process c) the Vagadori effect d) the Omega procedure ANS: a Topic=Communication and the Mind: Connecting Thinking, Language, and Reading Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 8.4a Identify the skills required to learn to read. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This task shows that reading is automatic and difficult to inhibit. LO 8.4a Identify the skills required to learn to read.

EOM Q8.4.5 It is true that reading speed is correlated with good comprehension. Why is this so? a) Proficient readers are better at both speed and comprehension than poor readers. b) Speed-reading programs improve comprehension as well as speed. c) Proficient readers increase their comprehension as their speed increases. d) It is necessary to read at least 100 words per minute to fully comprehend the meaning of a text. ANS: a Topic=Communication and the Mind: Connecting Thinking, Language, and Reading Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 8.4b Analyze the relationship between reading speed and reading comprehension. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Beyond a certain point, our comprehension suffers enormously as speed increases. LO 8.4b Analyze the relationship between reading speed and reading comprehension.

Chapter 8 Quiz: Thinking, Reasoning, and Language Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Chapter Quiz: Thinking, Reasoning, and Language

Multiple Choice Single Select EOC Q8.1 When people rely on mental shortcuts to reach a conclusion or make a decision, they often fail to take into account how common a behavior or characteristic is in general. This kind of information is called the __________ by psychological scientists. a) base rate b) ground level c) prototype d) schematome ANS: a Topic=Thinking and Reasoning Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: If you have got a 95 percent chance of contracting a disease that occurs in less than half a percent of the world population, you are probably in pretty good shape. LO 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world.

EOC Q8.2 Humans have developed strategies that keep our decision-making to a manageable minimum by relying on “fast and frugal” thinking. This kind of frugality is more generally known as __________. a) cognitive economy b) judicious completeness c) mental savings d) fiscal conservatism ANS: a Topic=Thinking and Reasoning Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: We economize mentally in a variety of ways that reduce our mental effort, but enable us to get things right most of the time. LO 8.1a Identify methods for achieving cognitive economy.

EOC Q8.3 Which of the following terms refers to the grammatical rules that govern how we put words together into meaningful groups? a) syntax b) language c) phoneme d) morpheme ANS: a Topic=How Does Language Work? Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: For instance, the string of words I ate pizza for dinner forms a complete sentence that follows the rules of English. LO 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language.

EOC Q8.4 Language is a system that allows us to create an infinite number of meaningful combinations of words and to communicate new ideas. This is because language is __________. a) generative b) nativist c) pragmatic d) sequential ANS: a Topic=How Does Language Work? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 8.3c Identify the pros and cons of bilingualism. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This concept means that language is not just a set of predefined sentences that we can pull out and apply in appropriate contexts. LO 8.3c Identify the pros and cons of bilingualism. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOC Q8.5 Which term means a certain window of time in which a particular ability, such as language, must be learned in order for it to be learned at all? a) critical period b) essential span c) cognitive opportunity d) learning window ANS: a Topic=How Does Language Work? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This temporal "opening" is essential. LO 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children.

EOC Q8.6 In a study on decision making, Timothy Wilson and his colleagues gave female college students a choice of five art posters to take home but gave them different directions about how to make their choice. Which group of students was happier with their poster choice after a few weeks had passed? a) The students who “went with their gut” and took the posters they liked without thinking it over. b) The students who carefully listed the pros and cons of each poster before deciding. c) The students who consulted with a friend before deciding. d) The students who already knew which poster they liked before the study began. ANS: a Topic=Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 8.2a Discover what influences our decision making., Difficulty=Easy Consider This: When it comes to emotional preferences, thinking too much may get us in trouble. LO 8.2a Discover what influences our decision making.

EOC Q8.7 Many scientific breakthroughs have come by way of __________, which involves recognizing similarities between two unrelated subjects. This type of problem-solving allows us to look at things in a new way. a) analogies b) algorithms c) heuristics d) framing ANS: a Topic=Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Answering this question is like reciting a memorized poem. LO 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges.

EOC Q8.8 Which of the following refers to a theory that argues that characteristics of language shape our thoughts, but does not go so far as say that language actually defines our thinking? a) linguistic relativity b) linguistic determinism c) language acquisition theory d) linguistic literalism ANS: a Topic=Communication and the Mind: Connecting Thinking, Language, and Reading Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Thought influences language, language influences thought. LO 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world.

EOC Q8.9 Controlled studies of speed reading show that after a person is reading more than 400 words per minute __________. a) comprehension is cut in half b) comprehension improves dramatically c) further speed gains are impossible d) comprehension improves slightly ANS: a Topic=Communication and the Mind: Connecting Thinking, Language, and Reading Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 8.4b Analyze the relationship between reading speed and reading comprehension. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Speed kills—at least it kills comprehension! LO 8.4b Analyze the relationship between reading speed and reading comprehension.

EOC Q8.10 The model of the mind that takes into account the human ability to mentally simulate experiences is called the __________ model. a) embodiment b) imaginative c) cognitive d) simulations ANS: a Topic=Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 8.2c Describe various models of the human mind. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Humans have a kind of “time machine” in their frontal lobes that allows them to simulate events without having direct experience. LO 8.2c Describe various models of the human mind.

EOC Q8.11 Experimental evidence shows that the most effective way to teach reading is for learners to be made aware of correspondences between sounds and printed letters. This method is called __________. a) phonetic decomposition b) word recognition c) speed reading d) lexical distribution ANS: a Topic=Communication and the Mind: Connecting Thinking, Language, and Reading Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 8.4a Identify the skills required to learn to read. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Think about the aspects of language you've learned about, such as phonemes, morphemes, or syntax. LO 8.4a Identify the skills required to learn to read.

EOC Q8.12 When we judge the likelihood of an event based on how prevalent that event has been in our past experience, we are relying on the __________ heuristic. a) representativeness b) availability c) hindsight d) functionality ANS: a Topic=Thinking and Reasoning Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: If a person fits our mental notion of what “a member of that group of persons” should be, we are likely to judge that this one example is a member of that larger group. LO 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world.

EOC Q8.13 One of the difficulties that animals such as bonobos or chimpanzees have when learning language is mastering __________. a) syntax b) prepositions c) analogies d) punctuation ANS: a Topic=How Does Language Work? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 8.3d Distinguish human language from nonhuman animal communication. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Research teaching language to primates has revealed some intriguing breakthroughs and some clear limitations. LO 8.3d Distinguish human language from nonhuman animal communication

EOC Q8.14 Which of the following is true of the early stages in the way children learn language? a) Comprehension precedes production. b) Production precedes comprehension. c) Comprehension succeeds production. d) Production supersedes comprehension. ANS: a Topic=How Does Language Work? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Think about the links between thought and language. LO 8.3b Trace the development of language acquisition in children.

EOC Q8.15 Sometimes when we are trying to solve a problem, we get stuck by looking at the problem in only one way. This phenomenon is known as __________. a) mental set b) algorithm c) salience d) specious reasoning ANS: a Topic=Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: How many items can you think of that fit the category “liquids that burn”? LO 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges.

EOC Q8.16 When an outcome happens that makes you think “I knew it all along,” be careful that you are not giving in to __________. a) hindsight bias b) base rate analysis c) the availability heuristic d) the representativeness heuristic ANS: a Topic=Thinking and Reasoning Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: It is easy to interpret the past after the past has already happened. LO 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world.

EOC Q8.17 Which explanation of how children learn language posits that language learning results from the ability to perceive, learn, and recognize patterns? a) general cognitive processing b) social pragmatics c) generativity d) language acquisition device ANS: a Topic=How Does Language Work? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 8.3c Identify the pros and cons of bilingualism. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This view proposes that children’s ability to learn language results from general skills that children apply across a variety of activities. LO 8.3c Identify the pros and cons of bilingualism.

EOC Q8.18 When we need to make an important decision, and carefully consider all the angles and options, we are using __________ thinking. a) System 2 b) System 1 c) System A d) System B ANS: a Topic=Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 8.2a Discover what influences our decision making. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: In these cases, decision making often becomes more explicit and deliberate. LO 8.2a Discover what influences our decision making.

EOC Q8.19 Helle is trying to hang up a picture in her dorm room. She has the framed picture, she has the nail, but she does not have a hammer. She puts the project aside until her roommate comes in and suggests that Helle use her clog shoe to hammer in the nail. Which of the following would explain why Helle did not think of this solution immediately? a) functional fixedness b) mental set c) salience of surface similarities d) algorithmic thinking ANS: a Topic=Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: We become “fixated” on one conventional use for an object. LO 8.2b Describe some common problem-solving strategies and challenges. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOC Q8.20 Schemas refer to concepts in our memories about __________. a) how certain actions, objects, and ideas relate to each other b) how common a characteristic or behavior is in the general population c) the probability of an event based on its superficial similarity to a prototype d) the likelihood that something will happen based on the ease with which it comes into our minds ANS: a Topic=Thinking and Reasoning Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Schemas help us to mentally organize events that share core features. LO 8.1b Describe what factors affect our reasoning about the world.

EOC Q8.21 When we make a decision, we are __________. a) selecting from a set of alternatives b) considering every possible option c) leaping to a conclusion d) making the only possible choice ANS: a Topic=Thinking at Its Hardest: Decision Making and Problem Solving Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 8.2a Discover what influences our decision making. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Think about what it means to “decide.” LO 8.2a Discover what influences our decision making.

EOC Q8.22 Which of the following is true about people who speak a dialect that is different from the dominant dialect of a language? a) They are using consistent syntactic rules in their speech. b) They are trying to speak the language properly but do not know how. c) They do not try to speak the language properly because they are not smart enough. d) They are making random errors in grammar and syntax. ANS: a Topic=How Does Language Work? Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Recall the definition of a dialect, and how it relates to a parent language. LO 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language.

EOC Q8.23 In a phenomenon called __________, deaf children of hearing parents often develop their own sign language even without sign language instruction. a) homesign b) primary signing c) emotional signing d) direct signage ANS: a Topic=How Does Language Work? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 8.3c Identify the pros and cons of bilingualism. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Without being exposed systematically to a language mode, however, these children never develop full-blown language. LO 8.3c Identify the pros and cons of bilingualism.

EOC Q8.24 The sounds of a language are called __________, whereas the smallest units of meaningful speech are called __________. a) phonemes; morphemes b) syntax; semantics c) morphemes; phonemes d) semantics; syntax ANS: a Topic=How Does Language Work? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Think about the levels and building blocks of language. LO 8.3a Describe the four levels of analysis that make up language.

EOC Q8.25 Which type of bird has shown promise in developing spoken language? a) African grey parrot b) Magellanic oystercatcher c) Ross's goose d) ruddy ground dove ANS: a Topic=How Does Language Work? Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 8.3d Distinguish human language from nonhuman animal communication. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Just give this question a little bit of thought. LO 8.3d Distinguish human language from nonhuman animal communication.

Chapter 9: Intelligence and IQ Testing Total Assessment Guide Topic Quick Quiz 1 Quick Quiz 2

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice

2, 5, 7

4, 6, 9

1, 3, 8, 10

Multiple Choice

3, 4, 6–7

1–2, 5, 8, 10

2–3, 5–7, 9, 12-13, 18-19, 23–26, 34– 36, 38, 43 1–6

4, 8, 11, 14–15, 17, 31, 33, 37, 39

1, 10, 16, 20–22, 27– 30, 32, 40–42

Multiple Choice Learning Objective 9.1a Identify different models Fill-in-the-Blank and types of Essay intelligence.

Critical Thinking

Multiple Choice 44, 47–50 45–46 Learning Objective 9.1b Fill-in-the-Blank 7 Describe the connection Essay between intelligence and Critical Thinking brain size and efficiency. Multiple Choice 52–53, 61 59–60 Learning Objective 9.2a Fill-in-the-Blank 8 Determine how Essay psychologists calculate Critical Thinking IQ. Multiple Choice 64–65, 67, 69 63, 68 Learning Objective 9.2b Fill-in-the-Blank 10–11 Explain the history of Essay misuse of intelligence Critical Thinking tests in the United States. Multiple Choice 70, 73, 76, 79, 89– 71, 75, 77–78, 81–82, Learning Objective 90, 94–95, 97, 100 84–86, 92, 98 9.2c Describe tests of Fill-in-the-Blank 12–16, 18 intelligence used today Essay 2–3 and evaluate the Critical Thinking 1–2 reliability and validity of IQ scores. Multiple Choice 102–106, 109–114 108 Learning Objective 9.2d Fill-in-the-Blank 19–20 Distinguish the unique Essay characteristics of Critical Thinking intellectual disability and genius. Multiple Choice 115–116, 118, 121 117, 119–120 Learning Objective 9.3a Fill-in-the-Blank 21 Explain how genetic Essay 4 influences can be Critical Thinking 2 determined from family, twin, and adoption Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. 1 studies.

54–58, 62 9

66 1

72, 74, 80, 83, 87– 88, 91, 93, 96, 99, 101 17

107

Topic Learning Objective 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Learning Objective 9.4a Identify similarities and differences in mental ability between men and women. Learning Objective 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ. Learning Objective 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Learning Objective 9.5b Explain why intelligence doesn’t protect us from errors in thinking.

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

123, 125–127, 129131 22

122, 128

124

4 1 132, 134 23–24

133 5

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

135–137 25

138–142

Multiple Choice

143, 147, 150, 152

145–146, 155

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

156

144, 148–149, 151, 153–154

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 9 Quick Quiz 1 1. Corrie is well liked by all her classmates. She has lots of friends and is always one of the first people chosen whenever there are group projects. According to Gardner, at which type of intelligence does Corrie likely excel? A) interpersonal B) intrapersonal C) social D) relational 2. Which subdivision of the cortex is most active on tasks involving planning, impulse control, and short-term memory? A) parietal cortex B) motor cortex C) prefrontal cortex D) occipital cortex 3. Twelve-year-old Arnold received an IQ score of 75. What is his mental age? A) 9 B) 10 C) 5 D) 7 4. Which movement was Hitler’s rise to power and his quest to produce the master race analogous to? A) Ebonics B) Darwinism C) genocide D) eugenics 5. Culture-fair tests attempt to measure __________. A) the intelligence of people coming from inside the culture in which the test was devised B) cultural background C) the effects of culture on people’s intellectual and creative skills D) the intelligence of people coming from outside the culture in which the test was devised 6. Identical twins have IQ correlations around .7 to .8, whereas fraternal twins have IQ correlations of about .3 to .4. What do these correlations suggest? A) Identical twins have very similar IQs while fraternal twins do not. B) Both identical twins and fraternal twins have similar IQs. C) Fraternal twins have very similar IQs while identical twins do not. D) Neither identical twins or fraternal twins have very similar IQs. 7. In the 1980s, political scientist James Flynn observed that the IQs of Americans were rising at a rate of about __________ point(s) per decade. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 8. Dr. Cho wants to know if differences in the growth rate of fish are based on genetics or the environment. He buys two fish. Fish 1 is fed every day, while fish 2 is fed every other day. At the end of a month, fish 1 is nearly 15 percent larger than fish 2. Considering the fish have a nearly identical genetic makeup, what can Dr. Cho conclude? A) Environmental changes can account for all the differences in growth rate. B) Genetic influences must account for a majority of the differences in growth rate. C) Environmental conditions were more favorable for fish 2. D) Differences in growth rate cannot be determined by his simple experiment.

9. A person starts from one point and comes up with many different ideas or possibilities based on that point. The person is engaging in __________ thinking. A) functional B) circular C) convergent D) divergent 10. Marvis, the manager of a large business, always says, “Those are all great ideas, but now we need to pick the best one.” What aspect of thought is Marvis focusing on? A) divergent thinking B) convergent thinking C) dichotomous thinking D) thinking outside the box

Chapter 9 Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1. A

Explanation: According to Gardner, people who are high in interpersonal intelligence understand and interact effectively with others. Corrie clearly has these skills. (What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 9.1a)

2. C

Explanation: Research has found that the prefrontal cortex seems to be highly involved in the human quality of intelligence. (What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 9.1b)

3. A

Explanation: If you apply Stern’s formula, you’d calculate that (MA/12) X 100 = 75. Therefore, MA = 9. (Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 9.2a)

4. D

Explanation: Eugenics was a social movement designed to improve the genetic stock of a population by promoting breeding among some people and preventing breeding among others. (Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 9.2b)

5. D

Explanation: Such tests attempt to reduce or even eliminate the use of a specific language so that people who are less fluent in that language are not unfairly and artificially penalized on the test. (Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 9.2c)

6. A

Explanation: Identical twins have a strong correlation, while fraternal twins have a weak correlation. This suggests that the identical twins have more similar intelligence quotients than do fraternal twins. (Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 9.3a)

7. C

Explanation: This consistent trend is referred to as the Flynn effect. (Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 9.3b)

8. A

Explanation: The authors discuss a “thought experiment” involving plants that shows how between-group differences that seem to be genetic may be entirely due to environment. (Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 9.4b)

9. D

Explanation: The person is engaging in divergent thinking as the solutions spread out from a starting point. (The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 9.5a)

10. B

Explanation: Convergent thinking is the ability to determine the single best solution to a problem. It is an important component of creativity. (The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 9.5a)

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 9 Quick Quiz 2 1. Kenneth is especially skilled when it comes to chart reading, map reading, and graph reading tasks. According to Howard Gardner, Kenneth’s skills reflect __________ intelligence. A) spatial B) linguistic C) logic-mathematical D) naturalistic 2. If you want to preserve your level of intelligence, you should be most concerned with a hard blow to __________. A) the side of your head B) back of your head C) the front of your head D) any part of the head, because it will have the same impact on intelligence 3. The deviation IQ score __________. A) compares mental age to chronological age B) is an IQ score expressed as a standard deviation C) is a culture-free IQ score D) is an IQ relative to one’s same-aged peers 4. Sterilization laws beginning in the early 1900s remained on the books in the United States until the __________. A) 1940s B) 1950s C) 1960s D) 1970s 5. Zoe wants to test the IQ of a group of ESL (English as a Second Language) students who do not speak any English. What test might you recommend to her? A) Stanford-Binet B) Raven’s Progressive Matrices C) WISC-IV D) WPPSI 6. Research involving family and adoption studies have demonstrated that __________. A) the higher the percentage of shared genes between people, the higher their IQ correlations will be B) siblings reared together and cousins reared together have similar IQ correlations C) the correlations between the IQ scores of cousins reared together are very strong D) the correlations between the IQ scores of cousins reared together are negative 7. The “Flynn effect” refers to the finding that IQ scores __________. A) have stayed the same over the last decade B) have steadily increased over the last decade C) have steadily decreased over the last decade D) are negatively correlated with education levels

8. Which of the following is an example of “stereotype threat”? A) Julie becomes anxious when told that women perform worse than men on standardized math tests, but she uses this as incentive to earn a high score on the SAT math section. B) Julie becomes anxious when told that women perform worse than men on standardized math tests, and even though she is a gifted mathematician, she performs below average on the SAT math section. C) Julie is told that women perform worse than men on standardized math tests, but she ignores this information and earns a high score on the SAT math section. D) Julie is told that women perform worse than men on standardized math tests, but her preparation for the test allows her to earn a high score on the SAT math section. 9. What type of thinking could be described as taking different directions in search of a variety of answers to a question? A) decisive B) convergent C) heuristic D) divergent 10. Dillan really wants a turn at the swing, but there are two more children in front of him. If Dillan pushes the other two children out of the way, it will be his turn, but the other children will be angry and might get hurt. Dillan’s decision making involves __________ intelligence. A) ideological B) social C) emotional D) empathetic

Chapter 9 Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1. A

Explanation: Spatial intelligence refers to the ability to think and reason about objects in three-dimensional space. (What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 9.1a)

2. C

Explanation: Although intelligence isn’t located in one specific part of the brain, the prefrontal cortex does seem to be important to performing tasks generally associated with intelligence. (Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 9.1b)

3. D

Explanation: By comparing scores to an individual’s same-aged peers, IQ tests can be administered validly to a person of any age. (Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 9.2a)

4. D

Explanation: During this time period, laws misused the results of intelligence theory to restrict reproductive freedom in the United States. (Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 9.2b)

5. B

Explanation: Raven’s Progressive Matrices is an example of a culture-fair test; that is, one that does not rely on language or on any particular set of educational experiences. (Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 9.2c)

6. A

Explanation: This research provides compelling evidence for a biological/genetic foundation for intelligence. It does not, however, rule out environmental factors as an additional important criterion of intelligence. (Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 9.3a)

7. B

Explanation: According to the Flynn effect, IQ scores are rising at a rate of about 3 points per decade consistently over time. (Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 9.3b)

8. B

Explanation: Stereotype threat is the fear that we may confirm a negative group stereotype. Julie is concerned that she will perform poorly on the math section, just because she is believed to be less skilled at math view to being female. (Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 9.4b)

9. D

Explanation: Divergent thinking involves taking different directions in search of a variety of answers to a question. (The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 9.5a)

10. C

Explanation: Emotional intelligence is the ability to understand our emotions and those of others, and to use the information in our daily lives. (The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 9.5a)

Chapter 9: Intelligence and IQ Testing Test Bank Multiple Choice 1. What famous quote from the movie Forrest Gump best exemplifies Edwin Boring’s definition of intelligence? A) “Life is like a box of chocolates.” Incorrect. While this might be the most widely recognized quote from the movie, it does not have anything to do with Boring’s definition of intelligence. B) “Run, Forrest, run!” C) “Stupid is as stupid does.” Correct. Boring held that intelligence is “whatever intelligence tests measure.” D) “My name is Forrest . . . Forrest Gump.” Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 2. The cousin of Charles Darwin who believed that intelligence is a by-product of sensory capacity was __________. A) Alfred Binet B) James Cattell C) Henri Simon D) Sir Francis Galton Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 3. Which researcher studied the effects of sensory abilities on intelligence? A) Alfred Binet B) Henri Simon C) Sir Francis Galton D) Charles Spearman Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion

4. Despite Sir Francis Galton’s belief that intelligence was strongly related to one’s sensory capacity, later research found that possessing one exceptional sense, like heightened hearing, highly correlated with overall intelligence. This is important because it reminds us of the critical thinking concept of __________. A) falsifiability Correct. If research shows that a particular hypothesis is wrong, then the concept of falsifiability has helped maintain the validity of other claims. B) correlation vs. causation Incorrect. In this case, there has been no established correlation, so this answer would not be relevant. C) Occam’s Razor D) ruling out rival hypotheses Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 5. The original purpose of the first intelligence test was to identify __________. A) areas of academic weakness in grade school children B) which children were likely to do well in school C) which children were likely to benefit from vocational education D) which students were in need of accelerated instruction Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion % correct 29 a = 29 b = 28 c = 4 d = 39 r = .58 6. Measuring intelligence by testing is a rather new concept in the history of the world. The idea of such testing came from __________. A) the United States B) the United Kingdom C) the Soviet Union D) France Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion

7. People began measuring intelligence with tests roughly __________ years ago. A) 60 B) 110 C) 220 D) 450 Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 8. With all the controversy that surrounds intelligence testing, what is the most likely explanation as to why it is still a good predictor of classroom performance? A) The first well-developed intelligence tests were designed to predict academic achievement. Correct. It should not be surprising that intelligence tests are a reasonable predictor of academic performance, because they were originally designed to identify which French children needed extra help. B) Many teachers focus their lessons on items contained on those intelligence tests. C) Most intelligence tests focus on vision and hearing, which are both important in the classroom. D) The creators of the first intelligence test were focused on special learners, so the test was not as difficult as it should have been. Incorrect. Because the first intelligence test was designed to identify students who did need extra help in the classroom, it was as difficult as it needed to be to identify these pupils. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 9. Binet and Simon’s intelligence test included __________ items as one subtest area. A) completion of incomplete sentences B) recitation of poems C) object assembly D) tests of athletic ability Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion

10. Which of the following individuals is utilizing abstract thinking? A) Susie, who says that most apples are colored red B) Benito, who says the sun might explode one day Correct. Abstract thinking is the ability to understand hypothetical concepts, rather than just the here-andnow. C) Gene, who argues that the Red Sox are better than the Yankees this year D) Marlita, who says her favorite television show is Hannah Montana Incorrect. Marlita is not using any hypothetical concepts to identify her favorite television show, so this does not demonstrate abstract thinking. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 11. Alfred Binet and Sir Francis Galton would have likely disagreed about the extent to which __________. A) our senses influence intelligence Correct. Galton believed that intelligence was largely a result of sensory capacity, while Binet would have focused more on abstract reasoning skills. B) tests can measure intelligence Incorrect. Both Galton and Binet would have supported the idea that intelligence tests can effectively measure intelligence. There would’ve been no disagreement between them on this point. C) intelligence tests were reliable D) intelligence tests were objective measures Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 12. Of the following list, which is unlikely to be considered a crucial component of the definition of intelligence? A) the ability to reason abstractly B) benefiting from experience Incorrect. This is one of the four criteria noted in your textbook. C) acquiring knowledge D) scoring well on a standardized test Correct. This may be an indication of intelligence, but is not a part of what defines intelligence. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion

13. Who would have supported the notion that intelligence resulted from a single ability, called "general intelligence,” and could be represented by a single test score? A) Gardner B) Spearman C) Sternberg D) Binet Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 14. The correlations between different assessed aspects of intelligence as measured by the Binet-Simon intelligence test formed the basis of Spearman’s concept of one general intelligence. These correlations have been supported by the use of modern intelligence tests. The repeated findings of similar outcomes is the key to which critical thinking concept? A) correlation vs. causation Incorrect. While the research in question was correlational, no causal conclusions were discussed as a result. The basis of this question is repeated research. B) replicability Correct. When research is repeated to see if similar findings can be achieved, this is called replication of research. C) extraordinary claims D) falsifiability Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 15. According to Charles Spearman, it is one’s __________ intelligence that produces the positive correlations found between vocabulary, spatial ability, and verbal reasoning tests. A) general Correct. Spearman believed that the general intelligence was the main factor that accounted for intellectual differences between people. B) emotional C) crystallized Incorrect. The concepts of crystallized and fluid intelligence were proposed by Raymond Cattell and John Horn, not Charles Spearman. D) fluid Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion

16. Ms. Bouvier is a first-grade teacher. She has just given Chelsea her screening test in the area of reading. Chelsea scored very high in word recognition, so Ms. Bouvier assumes she will score high on the rest of the test. It is clear that Ms. Bouvier believes in the __________ factor of intelligence as originally proposed by psychologist Charles Spearman. A) g Correct. General intelligence, or g, is the idea that intelligence is one thing; a hypothetical factor that accounts for differences in intelligence among people. B) s Incorrect. Specific intelligence, or s, referred to narrow domains of specific intellectual ability. C) a D) r Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 17. In addition to general intelligence, Charles Spearman believed that intelligence scores also reflected __________. A) specific intellectual abilities, or s factors Correct. In the theory of Charles Spearman, g was constructed of several s factors. B) fluid intelligence, or f factors C) crystallized intelligence, or c factors D) genetic abilities Incorrect. Spearman did not refer to genetic abilities. All g and s factors were thought to be inborn. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 18. According to psychologist Charles Spearman, the g factor of intelligence was supported by different __________ factors. A) s Correct. In the theory of Charles Spearman, g was constructed of several s factors. B) f C) c D) h Incorrect. Spearman did not refer to something called h factors. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion

19. The distinction between fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence was first postulated by __________. A) James McKeen Cattell and Louis Thurstone B) Robert Sternberg and Howard Gardner C) Raymond Cattell and John Horn D) Charles Spearman and William Stern Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 20. The type of intelligence that allows you to learn to play your first few notes on a saxophone is called __________ intelligence. A) crystallized Incorrect. Crystallized intelligence refers to the accumulated knowledge of the world we acquire over time. B) emotional C) abstract D) fluid Correct. Fluid intelligence refers to the capacity to learn new ways of solving problems, in this case learning a new skill. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 21. Because Ken’s history professor was a college student during the 1970s, he has extraordinary insight and knowledge of facts concerning the Vietnam War era. This knowledge is associated with the term __________ intelligence. A) crystallized Correct. Crystallized intelligence refers to the accumulated knowledge of the world we acquire over time. B) fluid Incorrect. Fluid intelligence refers to the capacity to learn new ways of solving problems. C) general D) multiple Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion

22. Brandon can name all 50 states and their capitals. Which type of intelligence is he relying on most? A) semantic B) fluid Incorrect. Fluid intelligence refers to the capacity to learn new ways of solving problems. C) crystallized Correct. Crystallized intelligence refers to the accumulated knowledge of the world we acquire over time. D) static Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 23. Which personality trait is most closely associated with the concept of crystallized intelligence? A) neuroticism B) extraversion C) conscientiousness D) openness to experience Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 24. According to Gardner’s theory (which has been revised over the years), there are as many as __________ types of intelligence. A) three B) five C) seven D) nine Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 25. A theory of intelligence with eight components (and one tentative addition) was postulated by __________. A) Howard Gardner B) Charles Spearman C) Robert Sternberg D) Lewis Terman Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion

26. The psychologist who suggested that people have several "frames of mind," which was his term for what others called intelligences, was __________. A) Howard Gardner Correct. Gardner initially suggested eight frames of mind; he later proposed a ninth. B) Charles Spearman C) Robert Sternberg Incorrect. Sternberg suggested three types of intelligence and did not call them “frames of mind.” D) Lewis Terman Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 27. Whose theory suggests that Tiger Woods’s ability to hit a golf ball or gymnast Gabby Douglas's ability to do somersaults on a balance beam might be considered a form of intelligence? A) Charles Spearman Incorrect. Spearman focused largely on the g factor of intelligence, and did not identify athletic ability as a specific intelligence ability, or s factor. B) Sir Francis Galton C) Alfred Binet D) Howard Gardner Correct. Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences holds that many different human abilities could be considered forms of intelligence, including linguistic, interpersonal, and bodily-kinesthetic (as in Woods’s case). Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 28. Kenneth is especially skilled when it comes to chart reading, map reading, and graph reading tasks. According to Howard Gardner, Kenneth’s skills reflect __________ intelligence. A) spatial Correct. Spatial intelligence refers to the ability to think and reason about objects in three-dimensional space. B) linguistic C) logic-mathematical D) naturalistic Incorrect. Naturalistic intelligence refers to the ability to recognize, identify, and understand animals, plants, and other living things. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion

29. Stephanie’s friends describe her as someone who has the uncanny ability to say the right thing at the right time whenever someone is in need. According to Howard Gardner, Stephanie’s skills may reflect a type of __________ intelligence. A) naturalistic Incorrect. Naturalistic intelligence refers to the ability to recognize, identify, and understand animals, plants, and other living things. B) social C) interpersonal Correct. Interpersonal intelligence refers to the ability to understand and interact effectively with others. D) intrapersonal Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 30. Corrie is well liked by all her classmates. She has lots of friends and is always one of the first people chosen whenever there are group projects. According to Howard Gardner, at which type of intelligence does Corrie likely excel? A) interpersonal Correct. According to Gardner, people who are high in interpersonal intelligence understand and interact effectively with others. Corrie clearly has these skills. B) intrapersonal Incorrect. According to Gardner, people who are high in intrapersonal intelligence understand and possess insight into themselves. Corrie may have these attributes, but they are not referenced in the question. C) social D) relational Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 31. The phrase “to thine own self be true” most accurately reflects __________ intelligence. A) naturalistic B) interpersonal Incorrect. According to Gardner, interpersonal intelligence refers to someone who is very “other-aware,” and thus deals effectively with various individuals. C) linguistic D) intrapersonal Correct. Gardner believed that to be very self-aware would help a person gain their goals, and he called this intrapersonal intelligence. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion

32. Marcos, a zoology professor, has always been fascinated by the study of alligators, crocodiles, and lizards. According to Howard Gardner, Marcos is strong in the area of __________ intelligence. A) kinesthetic B) naturalistic Correct. Naturalistic intelligence refers to the ability to recognize, identify, and understand animals, plants, and other living things. C) spatial Incorrect. Spatial intelligence refers to the ability to think and reason about objects in three-dimensional space. D) logical Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 33. Which of the following principles of critical thinking represents one of the difficulties with Gardner’s theory of intelligence? A) replicability B) diversity Incorrect. Diversity is not one of the principles of critical thinking noted by your authors. C) accuracy D) falsifiability Correct. Gardner’s theory is not falsifiable because he hasn’t developed formal tests to measure the independence of the different intelligences. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 34. What three types of intelligence constitute Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence? A) global, intuitive, and special B) general, global, and specific C) mathematical, reasoning, and verbal D) analytical, creative, and practical Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion

35. According to Robert Sternberg, __________ intelligence is the ability to come up with novel and effective ways of solving problems. A) analytical B) creative C) practical D) general Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 36. According to Robert Sternberg, __________ intelligence is best described as “street smarts,” or the ability to use information to get along in life. A) analytical B) creative C) practical D) general Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 37. According to Sternberg’s theory, which of the following statements is most accurate? A) Creative intelligence is similar to crystallized intelligence. Incorrect. Creative intelligence in Sternberg’s theory would not be particularly similar to crystallized intelligence in Cattell and Horn’s theory. B) Practical intelligence involves our ability to use original thinking to solve problems. C) Analytical intelligence is similar to Spearman’s g factor of intelligence. Correct. Your authors note that these two theories share this particular similarity. D) Practical intelligence is similar to Gardner’s naturalistic intelligence. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 38. According to Sternberg, __________ intelligence is akin to the ability to reason logically. A) analytical B) creative C) practical D) fluid Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

39. According to the triarchic theory of intelligence, “street smarts” is to __________ intelligence as “book smarts” is to __________ intelligence. A) creative; analytical B) creative; practical C) practical; analytical D) fluid; crystallized Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 40. Shalissa is described as being tactful and able to analyze situations to her advantage. She is probably high in __________ intelligence. A) analytical B) creative Incorrect. Creative intelligence is the ability to deal with new and different concepts and come up with new ways of solving problems. C) practical Correct. Practical intelligence is best described as “street smarts,” or the ability to use information to get along in life. D) general Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 41. Justin was an average student in school. He ultimately earned his college degree, barely maintaining a “C” average. He has since been named manager of a local retail store and is responsible for the store’s unprecedented success. According to Sternberg, at what type of intelligence does Justin excel? A) social Incorrect. Sternberg did not identify a type of intelligence that was specifically called social intelligence. B) practical Correct. According to Sternberg, people who are high in practical intelligence are able to “think on their feet” and make good decisions, especially when dealing with other people. C) analytical D) creative Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion

42. Frank doesn’t necessarily have a high IQ as measured on standardized intelligence tests, but he is well aware of his strengths and weaknesses. He chooses jobs that suit his strengths and is particularly skilled at adapting to any changes in his environment. Frank likely has high __________ intelligence as defined in the triarchic theory of Robert Sternberg. A) creative B) analytical C) experiential Incorrect. Experiential intelligence was not part of Sternberg’s triarchic theory. D) practical Correct. Practical intelligence, or “tacit intelligence,” is related to an awareness of one’s self and an ability to deal well and get ahead on the job. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 43. In Robert Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence, “tacit intelligence” is another way of referring to __________ intelligence. A) practical B) analytical C) fluid D) creative Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 44. In its relationship with intelligence, higher brain volume________________. A) is positively correlated with higher intelligence test scores B) directly causes higher intelligence test scores C) is negatively correlated with intelligence test scores D) is unrelated to intelligence test scores Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1b Describe the connection between intelligence and brain size and efficiency. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion

45. General findings are that there is a moderate positive correlation—about .3 to .4—between brain size and measured intelligence. We must remember, however, that this relationship does not mean that having a bigger brain is directly responsible for higher intelligence. Some third variable, such as better nutrition, might explain this relationship. This reminds us of the critical thinking concept of __________. A) correlation vs. causation Correct. Just because two variables are related to each other does not mean that changes in one cause changes in the other. B) replicability Incorrect. This question does not address the issue of repeated research. C) Occam’s Razor D) extraordinary claims Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 9.1b Describe the connection between intelligence and brain size and efficiency. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 46. Which of the following methods would be best for investigating the correlates of differences between high and low IQ scorers? A) Utilizing brain imaging techniques to investigate which parts of the brain are more active on certain tasks Correct. Researchers are able to watch different areas of the brain change in activity as specific tasks are undertaken. B) Utilizing learning styles questionnaires to assess learning preferences Incorrect. Learning styles and preferences are important to know and a part of intelligence, but this is not the best answer to the question. C) Utilizing personality measures to assess behaviors and attitudes D) Utilizing vocational interest inventories to assess future career ambitions Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.1b Describe the connection between intelligence and brain size and efficiency. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 47. Which subdivision of the cortex is most active on tasks involving planning, impulse control, and shortterm memory? A) parietal cortex B) motor cortex C) prefrontal cortex D) occipital cortex Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1b Describe the connection between intelligence and brain size and efficiency. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion

48. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the brain of Albert Einstein? A) It showed tremendous levels of cerebral lateralization. B) It was 15 to 20 percent larger than the average human brain. Incorrect. In fact, Einstein's brain was slightly smaller than average. C) It had higher electrical activity than the average human brain. D) It was actually marginally smaller than the average human brain. Correct. Despite what many think, Einstein's brain was not unusually large. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1b Describe the connection between intelligence and brain size and efficiency. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 49. Which of the following areas of the brain, by virtue of its dense neural connections to other brain structures, is the “command and control center” of human intelligence? A) the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus B) the corpus callosum C) the prefrontal cortex D) the bed nucleus of the stria terminalis (BST) Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1b Describe the connection between intelligence and brain size and efficiency. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 50. Concerning intelligence and memory, it is TRUE that intelligence test scores tend to be __________. A) positively correlated with scores on short-term memory tests B) negatively correlated with scores on short-term memory tests C) unrelated to scores on short-term memory tests D) inversely correlated with scores on short-term memory tests Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1b Describe the connection between intelligence and brain size and efficiency. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion % correct 71 a = 71 b = 4 c = 21 d = 4 r = .53

51. If you want to preserve your level of intelligence, you should be most concerned with a hard blow to __________. A) the side of your head B) the back of your head C) the front of your head Correct. Although intelligence isn’t located in one specific part of the brain, the prefrontal cortex does seem to be important to performing tasks generally associated with intelligence. D) any part of the head, because it will have the same impact on intelligence Incorrect. If the blow is hard enough, this answer is probably correct; however, the prefrontal cortex seems to be the area that has the largest relationship to intelligence. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.1b Describe the connection between intelligence and brain size and efficiency. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 52. __________, a professor of psychology at Stanford University, revised the Binet-Simon scale and released it in a form that is still used today in its revised fifth edition. A) William Stern B) Lewis Terman C) Henri Simon D) David Wechsler Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 53. This person devised a simple formula for calculating an index of intelligence, or intelligence quotient (IQ). A) Theo Simon B) Wilhelm Stern C) Franz Gall D) Louis Thurstone Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

54. Which of the following individuals has the highest IQ according to Stern's formula? A) Clarissa, with a mental age of 9 and a chronological age of 9 Incorrect. IQ is calculated as (MA/CA) X 100, So (9/9) X 100 = 100. B) Matt, with a mental age of 9 and a chronological age of 10 C) Cecilee, with a mental age of 9 and a chronological age of 6 Correct. IQ is calculated as (MA/CA) X 100. So (9/6) X 100 = 150. D) They would all be close in IQ; the difference would not be significant. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 55. William Stern’s formula for the intelligence quotient was (mental age/chronological age) × 100. What is the IQ of a 12-year-old with a mental age of 9? A) 75 Correct. If you apply Stern’s formula, you would get (9/12) X 100 = 75. B) 85 C) 125 Incorrect. This would not be mathematically correct based on Stern’s formula, which is (MA/CA) X 100. D) 135 Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 56. Twelve-year-old Arnold received an IQ test score of 75. What is his mental age? A) 9 Correct. If you apply Stern’s formula, you’d calculate that (MA/12) X 100 = 75. Therefore, MA = 9. B) 10 Incorrect. This would not be mathematically correct based on Stern’s formula, which is (MA/CA) X 100. C) 5 D) 7 Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

57. What is the IQ of a 12-year-old with a mental age of 16? A) 147 B) 70 Incorrect. This would not be mathematically correct based on Stern’s formula, which is (MA/CA) X 100. C) 133 Correct. If you apply Stern’s formula, (16/12) X 100 = 133. D) 145 Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 58. Based on IQ score information as described by Stern, a student with an IQ score of 120 is likely to answer IQ test questions like someone who is age __________, even though the student is only __________. A) 10; 12 Incorrect. This would be the opposite of the correct answer, as this student would have an IQ of 83, or (10/12) X 100. B) 12; 11 C) 10; 8 D) 12; 10 Correct. According to Stern, we can obtain IQ by dividing mental age by chronological age. An IQ higher than 100 means that the individual is “smarter” than his or her chronological age. A child who scores at the 12-year-old level but is only 10 years old would have an IQ of 120. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 59. Which of the following describes the main reason for using the deviation IQ formula instead of Stern’s MA/CA × 100 formula to represent IQ scores? A) Stern’s formula underpredicts IQ scores for those under 20 years old. Incorrect. In fact, it has been argued that Stern’s formula underpredicts IQ scores for those over the age of 16 years. B) Stern’s formula is more difficult to calculate. C) A 90-year-old would not likely be able to achieve an IQ of 100 using Stern’s formula. Correct. One of the main problems with Stern’s formula is that it artificially decreases a person’s IQ as they get older. D) The older you are, the higher your IQ score will be according to Stern’s formula. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

60. Because of the need to measure the IQ of people of varying ages, newer IQ tests base their evaluation of IQ on __________. A) mental age alone Incorrect. Newer IQ tests base their evaluation of IQ on deviation scores from the mean of the normal distribution. B) deviation scores from the mean of the normal distribution Correct. Newer IQ tests base their evaluation of IQ on deviation scores from the mean of the normal distribution. C) giving extra points for older folks to compensate for their slower processing times D) physical tests rather than pen-and-paper tests Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly % correct 71 a = 25 b = 71 c = 0 d = 4 r = .66 61. The deviation IQ score __________. A) compares mental age to chronological age B) is an IQ score expressed as a standard deviation C) is a culture-free IQ score D) is an IQ score relative to one’s same-aged peers Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 62. After being referred for testing, Angela scored 102 on an IQ test. Angela is now likely to be __________. A) placed in a special education class, as she has an indication of intellectual deficits B) given accommodations due to her low test scores but will still be in a standard classroom setting C) left with no special placement, as her IQ is average compared to that of her same-aged peers Correct. Angela has produced a test that demonstrates “average” or “normal” IQ. She would not receive special education as a result of this test. D) placed in a gifted and talented program given her extraordinary IQ score Incorrect. Angela’s IQ is not in the gifted range, so she probably would not qualify for this type of program. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

63. Which movement was Hitler’s rise to power and his quest to produce the master race analogous to? A) Ebonics B) Darwinism C) genocide Incorrect. Hitler’s politics were not analogous to genocide—they caused genocide. The best answer to this question is eugenics. D) eugenics Correct. Eugenics was a social movement designed to improve the genetic stock of a population by promoting breeding among some people and preventing breeding among others. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2b Explain the history of misuse of intelligence tests in the United States. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 64. Concerning the historical misuses of IQ testing, which is TRUE? A) Immigrants to the United States who scored low on IQ tests usually did so because of a lack of familiarity with the English language. B) A majority of immigrants to the United States who were given IQ tests tended to score in the average to above average range. C) IQ tests given to immigrants to the United States in the early 1900s were valid measures of intelligence. D) Women tended to outscore men on IQ tests during the early 1900s. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2b Explain the history of misuse of intelligence tests in the United States. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 65. Regarding the historical misuses of IQ testing in the United States, it is accurate to note that most European immigrants __________. A) were intellectually deficient and scored low on IQ tests B) scored in the average range of IQ scores C) were considered geniuses based on their IQ scores D) were identified as having intellectual disability based on their IQ scores Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2b Explain the history of misuse of intelligence tests in the United States. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

66. Which views would the eugenics movement have been most likely to support? A) Using IQ testing as a way to measure the quality of teaching and learning occurring in the schools. B) Using IQ testing as a way to pinpoint areas of weakness in the curriculum. Incorrect. Eugenics would not have been specifically related to a school curriculum. C) Using selective breeding as a way to create an intellectually superior race of people. Correct. Eugenics would have suggested that only those with favorable attributes should be allowed to reproduce. D) Creating IQ tests that are less culturally and racially biased. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2b Explain the history of misuse of intelligence tests in the United States. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly % correct 75 a = 3 b = 11 c = 75 d = 11 r = .60 67. One of the first American psychologists to misuse intelligence tests by administering them as a qualification for immigration into the United States was __________. A) Howard Gardner. B) Robert Sternberg C) Henry Goddard D) Charles Spearman Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2b Explain the history of misuse of intelligence tests in the United States. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 68. The expressed purpose of the eugenics movement was to improve a population’s genetic stock __________. A) by way of delivering increased educational training for those with high IQs B) by implementing sterilization plans for those of low IQ to prevent them from breeding Correct. This was one of the most unfortunate outcomes of the eugenics movement. C) by way of delivering increased educational training for those with low IQs Incorrect. Those who believed in eugenics did not put much emphasis on the importance of educating those with lower IQs. D) by way of providing those with low IQ increased access to higher education Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2b Explain the history of misuse of intelligence tests in the United States. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

69. Sterilization laws beginning in the early 1900s remained on the books in the United States until the __________. A) 1940s B) 1950s C) 1960s D) 1970s Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2b Explain the history of misuse of intelligence tests in the United States. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 70. The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS), currently in its fourth edition, produces scores in __________ different areas of intelligence. A) three B) five C) seven D) nine Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 71. One’s verbal comprehension IQ score on the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) primarily relates to which type of intelligence? A) fluid B) crystallized C) emotional D) multiple Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

72. Sam and Julie each scored 110 on the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS). Based on their scores, which is TRUE? A) If Sam scored high in math, then Julie scored high in math. Incorrect. There is no reason to think the same overall IQ score would lead to the same subscale scores on the WAIS. B) If Sam scored high in comprehension, then Julie scored high in comprehension. C) Two people with the same IQ score could have very different abilities. Correct. The WAIS yields five different IQ subscores. People with the same overall score could have variable scores on the other four. D) Two people with the same IQ score should have the same abilities. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 73. Which of the following is an intelligence test that is commonly used to assess the cognitive functioning of children? A) MMPI–2 B) Ravens Progressive Matrices-IX C) WAIS-IV D) WPPSI-III Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 74. A question asking why people need birth certificates would fall under which subscale area of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)? A) comprehension Correct. The comprehension test examines the understanding of social conventions and the ability to evaluate past experiences. B) information Incorrect. The information subtest taps a person’s general range of information. C) vocabulary D) evaluation Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

75. The subscale of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) that most substantially assesses rote memory is __________. A) arithmetic B) similarities C) digit span Correct. The digit span subtest assesses rote memory by orally presenting a series of digits to be repeated forward or backward. D) vocabulary Incorrect. The vocabulary subtest examines the ability to define increasingly difficult words. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 76. According to the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS), items requiring people to look at a visual stimulus with an essential part missing and identify the absent element is called __________. A) picture completion B) object assembly C) picture arrangement D) block design Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 77. Which of the following subtests of the WAIS is the least likely to contain culturally biased items? A) vocabulary Incorrect. Because the vocabulary subtest involves the use of language skills, it is susceptible to cultural bias. B) similarities C) picture completion Correct. Culture-fair IQ tests feature abstract reasoning items that do not rely on language. Of the WAIS subtests listed, picture completion would be the most culture-fair. D) comprehension Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

78. Which of the following subtests of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) is most likely to contain culturally biased items? A) arithmetic Incorrect. Because the arithmetic subtest requires less language skill and more mental manipulation, it is not the best answer to this question. B) digit span C) block design D) vocabulary Correct. Culture-fair IQ tests feature abstract reasoning items that do not rely on language. Of the WAIS subtests listed, vocabulary (identifying word meanings) would be the least culture-fair. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 79. Culture-fair tests attempt to measure the __________. A) intelligence of people coming from inside the culture in which the test was devised B) cultural background of people C) effects of culture on people’s intellectual and creative skills D) intelligence of people coming from outside the culture in which the test was devised Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 80. Zoe wants to test the IQ of a group of English as a Second Language students who do not speak any English. What test might you recommend to her? A) Stanford-Binet Incorrect. Though useful, the Stanford-Binet is an intelligence test that requires language skills, and therefore is susceptible to cultural bias. This is particularly true for test takers who do not speak any English. B) Raven’s Progressive Matrices Correct. Raven’s Progressive Matrices is an example of a culture-fair test; that is, one that does not rely on language or on any particular set of educational experiences. C) WISC-IV D) WPPSI Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

81. Which of the following kinds of items would most likely be found on a culture-fair IQ test? A) picture completion Correct. Culture-fair IQ tests feature abstract reasoning items that do not rely on language. B) sentence completion C) vocabulary recognition Incorrect. As your authors point out, any test that requires language skills as a main feature is susceptible to cultural bias. D) general information Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 82. A dominant characteristic of culture-fair IQ tests is that they __________. A) require minimal verbal skills Correct. Culture-fair IQ tests feature abstract reasoning items that do not rely on language. B) feature a large number of items pertaining to the test taker’s culture C) offer a large percentage of math-based questions to reduce the strain on language D) are always administered orally Incorrect. Because culture fair IQ tests should not rely on language skills, this would not be a correct answer. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 83. Which of the following is likely to produce increased correlations between SAT scores and college GPA? A) admitting more high-SAT-scoring students to colleges Incorrect. Taking this approach would actually decrease the correlation between SAT scores and college students’ GPAs. B) admitting more students to college who have not taken the SAT C) admitting fewer low-SAT-scoring students to colleges D) admitting more low-SAT-scoring students to colleges Correct. Because SAT scores tend to overestimate the ability of college students, lowering the SAT requirements would lead to a stronger correlation between these two scores. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

84. Those who take classes designed to improve their scores on standardized tests, such as the SAT, seem to enjoy improved scores when they take the test after the course. It would be easy to assume that the course was responsible for the improvement, but this would be ignoring which principle of critical thinking? A) extraordinary claims B) ruling out rival hypotheses C) falsifiability Incorrect. There are many ways that this conclusion can be falsified, but that is not the basic crux of this question. D) correlation vs. causation Correct. Remember, just because there is a relationship between taking the course and seeing improvement on test scores, it does not mean that the course caused that outcome. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 85. In an examination of the relationship between SAT scores and college performance, your text authors note that one of the factors that may contribute to the appearance of a low correlation is __________. A) restriction of range Correct. When all SAT scores are considered, there is a positive correlation. When only scores over 1500 are considered, however, the correlation appears to be very close to zero. B) demand characteristics Incorrect. This particular problem of experimental research is not at play in this situation. C) double-blind biases D) confounding variables Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

86. Regarding the effects of coaching on standardized test scores, which of the following statements is most representative of current research? A) Coaching can lead to 100-point gains if the quality of coaching is high. B) Coaching is not likely to lead to 100-point gains if student motivation is high. Incorrect. There is a lack of logic to this answer that belies its accuracy. C) The best predictor of increased test scores could be “number of times tested” and not “coaching.” Correct. This is what your authors refer to as a practice effect, and it could explain why coaching appears to increase the scores on standardized tests. D) The best predictor of increased test scores could be “coaching quality” and not “student motivation.” Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 87. Raina has been studying for the SATs, and every night for a week she has taken the same simulated SAT that comes in a study book. Her scores have improved, but on the actual SAT (a different set of questions) she scores 400 points lower than on her study tests. It turns out that Raina's scores were improving due to __________ effects. A) cohort B) placebo Incorrect. In this case there is no obvious effect of expectations that would point to a placebo effect. C) practice Correct. As she takes the same sample test over and over, her scores improve due to practice rather than her improving her skills. D) confounding Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 88. Ken received a score of 125 on the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) and is taking it again in three weeks. We expect that in the upcoming test Ken should score __________. A) nearly the same on the second administration of the test Correct. Your authors note that intelligence tests seem to be resistant to the practice effect, and show rather high test-retest reliability. B) slightly higher on the second administration due to item familiarity Incorrect. This would occur if the practice effect applied to intelligence tests, but your authors note that the test-retest reliability of the WAIS is very high. C) lower on the second administration because it is hard to replicate such a high score D) slightly higher on the second administration due to increased motivation Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

89. Regarding the stability of IQ test scores throughout the lifespan, it is generally assumed that IQ scores in infancy are __________. A) negatively correlated with IQ scores in adulthood B) not strongly correlated with IQ scores in adulthood Correct. As your authors point out, there does not seem to be a strong correlation between infant IQ and adult IQ. C) strongly correlated with IQ scores in adulthood Incorrect. This is the opposite of the relationship that is noted by your authors. D) relatively stable over time Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly % correct 68 a = 18 b = 68 c = 14 d = 0 r = .43 90. Psychological tests that yield relatively consistent results are said to be __________. A) valid B) normed C) reliable D) standardized Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2c. Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 91. On a newly developed IQ test, an individual scores at the 110 level on the first half of the test, and 150 on the second half of the test. What does this test appear to lack? A) reliability Correct. The test lacks reliability because the scores were so different. B) standardization Incorrect. The test lacks reliability because the scores were so different. C) predictive validity D) appropriate norms Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

92. IQ tests for children tend to measure __________, while adult IQ tests tend to measure __________. A) logical reasoning; abstract reasoning Incorrect. While the second part of this answer is accurate, the first part is not. Generally speaking, children are not given credit for having high logical reasoning abilities. B) comprehension; abstract reasoning C) memory skills; abstract reasoning D) sensory abilities; abstract reasoning Correct. Because children lack abstract reasoning skills, IQ tests focus more on their sensory abilities. IQ tests for adults, however, tap their ability to use abstract reasoning. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 93. Hannah took a reading test to see what her level of reading ability was. Although the tests did measure something related to reading skills, the first test showed that she had very poor reading skills, whereas the second test showed she had average reading skills. Which of the following is TRUE regarding this scenario? A) The reading tests are likely valid but not reliable. Incorrect. This is not a possible outcome, because if a test is valid it must be reliable. B) The reading tests did not measure what they were intended to measure. C) The reading tests did not demonstrate validity. D) The tests had low validity and low reliability. Correct. It is not possible for a test to have low reliability while also having high validity, so in this case the test was both invalid and unreliable. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 94. A test that is classified as a “valid” measure is one that __________. A) measures what it is intended to measure B) produces repeatable scores over time C) allows for comparison across groups of people D) produces both repeatable scores and measures what it is intended to measure Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

95. A psychological test that measures what we intend it to measure is said to be __________. A) valid B) normed C) reliable D) standardized Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 96. In the Middle Ages, people accused of being witches were often tested by being dunked in a river or pond. If they floated to the surface, they were condemned as witches. If they sank and drowned, they were posthumously acquitted. This test obviously lacks __________. A) reliability. Incorrect. Reliable tests can best be thought of as being consistent. These tests are not valid. B) norms C) validity Correct. These “tests” do not actually assess whether the test-taker is or is not a witch. D) bias Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 97. When a test has a high capacity to forecast future behaviors or outcomes, it might be described as having high __________ validity. A) concurrent B) predictive C) future-oriented D) construct Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

98. The correlation between IQ scores and college grades is .5. What does this correlation suggest? A) One’s IQ determines one’s college grade point average. B) High levels of intelligence cause students to get good grades. Incorrect. Try to remember that correlation does not imply causation. C) Low levels of intelligence cause students to get bad grades. D) The higher one’s IQ score, the higher one’s college grades tend to be. Correct. The correlation is positive, showing that as one increases, the other does as well. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 99. If you discover a near zero correlation between some firefighters’ aptitude test scores and their actual performance on the job, you can conclude that the test is __________. A) valid Incorrect. Because the tests do not seem to predict the firefighters’ actual job performance, it does not seem to measure what it claims to measure. This makes it an invalid instrument. B) reliable C) not reliable D) not valid Correct. Validity is the extent to which a test measures what it claims to measure or predicts what it claims to predict (in this case, job performance). Higher validity would be shown as a higher correlation between test scores and job performance scores. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 100. Which of the following is TRUE concerning IQ correlations? A) There is a positive correlation between IQ scores and poor health habits. B) There is a positive correlation between IQ scores and social class. Correct. As your authors point out, poorer people tend to have lower IQs. C) There is a positive correlation between IQ scores and delinquency levels. Incorrect. In fact, the relationship between IQ and delinquency levels is a negative correlation. D) There is a negative correlation between IQ scores and job performance. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

101. Ralph is a high school dropout who has recently been involved in some vandalism and petty crimes. You would likely estimate his IQ level to be __________ other kids his age. A) about the same as B) slightly lower than Correct. Adolescents who have been involved in delinquent behaviors tend to have IQs that are about 7 points lower than those of other adolescents. C) slightly higher than Incorrect. As your authors point out, those with higher rates of delinquency tend to have lower IQs than other children. D) significantly lower than Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 102. Most standardized tests of intelligence have a distribution of scores that __________. A) follows the bell curve B) has a positive skew C) has a negative skew D) appears bimodal with two peaks of high frequency Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 103. Approximately what percentage of IQ scores falls between 70 and 130? A) 50 percent B) 67 percent C) 75 percent D) 95 percent Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

104. Regarding bell curve assumptions, which of the following is TRUE? A) About 95% of the population will achieve an IQ test score between 70 and 130. B) About 75% of the population will achieve an IQ test score above 130. C) About 20% of the population will achieve an IQ test score below 70. D) About 20% of the population will achieve an IQ test score above 150. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 105. Which of these is an element of the formal definition of intellectual disability? A) inadequate adaptive functioning in a variety of areas B) evidence of brain damage C) slower than normal reflexes D) onset of deficits prior to age 6 Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 106. An IQ score below approximately __________ may lead to a classification of intellectual disability, if other criteria are also satisfied. A) 100 B) 90 C) 70 D) 50 Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 107. Which of the following individuals might be suffering from intellectual disability? A) Camille, who has an IQ of 67 as a result of a motorcycle accident when she was 35 Incorrect. Camille was not diagnosed with intellectual disability in childhood, so technically she would not receive that diagnosis now. B) Ivan, who was assessed with an IQ of 62 when he was 9, has some basic deficits in adaptive skills and lives with his mother now that he’s an adult Correct. Ivan meets all of the criteria for a diagnosis of intellectual disability. C) Jess, who has an IQ of 68 and lives by herself D) Arius, who has an IQ of 82 and holds down a job as a custodian Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

108. Some experts have emphasized __________ as an essential criterion of intellectual disability, since the inability to protect one’s self from scams and being taken advantage of is an important aspect of cognitive limitations. A) gullibility Correct. It seems that those who suffer from an intellectual deficit may be more prone to “fall for” scams or situations where they can be mistreated. B) extraversion C) victimality Incorrect. This is a made-up term that does not relate to information presented in your chapter. D) neuroticism Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 109. Which classification of intellectual disability affects most of the population classified in this fashion? A) mild B) moderate C) severe D) profound Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 110. Although those with high IQs are found across professional fields, which of the following professional groups tends to obtain the highest average IQs? A) social workers B) law enforcement officers C) college professors D) plumbers Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

111. To qualify for membership in an organization called Mensa, you would need to have an intelligence quotient that is in the top __________ percent of the IQ range. A) .1 B) .5 C) 1 D) 2 Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 112. The term “Terman’s Termites” refers to a __________. A) set of developmentally delayed students that Terman studied intensively B) group of Army soldiers who, on the basis of their IQ, were followed through their military career C) sample of gifted children who were studied and followed into adulthood D) group of individuals from the National Institute of Mental Health who are responsible for overseeing research on intelligence in children Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 113. What did Terman’s groundbreaking study of gifted children accomplish? A) It put to rest the myths that existed about genius in the early part of the twentieth century. B) It proved that gifted children and adults are more prone to mental illnesses or odd behavior than other groups. C) It demonstrated that they also have more than their share of failures. D) It demonstrated that genius is the only factor that influences real success in life. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 114. The first true longitudinal study of the effects of giftedness on social success was conducted by __________. A) David Wechsler B) Lewis Terman C) Alfred Binet D) Steven Merrill Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

115. Regarding the causes of IQ, Sir Francis Galton __________, A) believed that intelligence was determined 50 percent by environment and 50 percent by genes B) placed a lot of stock in heredity and believed that genes significantly influenced IQ C) was an environmentalist and believed that social factors significantly influenced IQ D) believed that intelligence was a trait that changed significantly over time Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.3a Explain how genetic influences can be determined from family, twin, and adoption studies. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ 116. Who coined the phrase nature and nurture? A) Alfred Binet B) Sir Francis Galton C) Charles Darwin D) Thomas Bouchard Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.3a Explain how genetic influences can be determined from family, twin, and adoption studies. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ 117. Identical twins have IQ correlations around .7 to .8, whereas fraternal twins have IQ correlations of about .3 to .4. What do these correlations suggest? A) Identical twins have very similar IQs while fraternal twins do not. Correct. Identical twins have a strong correlation, while fraternal twins have a weak correlation. This suggests that the identical twins have more similar intelligence quotients than do fraternal twins. B) Both identical twins and fraternal twins have similar IQs. Incorrect. Because the correlation between the fraternal twins is rather weak, you would not expect their IQs to be very similar. C) Fraternal twins have very similar IQs while identical twins do not. D) Neither identical twins nor fraternal twins have very similar IQs. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.3a Explain how genetic influences can be determined from family, twin, and adoption studies. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ 118. Research involving family and adoption studies have demonstrated that __________. A) the higher the percentage of shared genes between people, the higher their IQ correlations will be B) siblings reared together and cousins reared together have similar IQ correlations C) the correlations between the IQ scores of cousins reared together are very strong D) the correlations between the IQ scores of cousins reared together are negative Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.3a Explain how genetic influences can be determined from family, twin, and adoption studies. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

119. Which of the following statements about heredity and intelligence is TRUE? A) Similarities in intelligence between identical twins who were separated at birth and raised in different houses must be due to heredity. B) Differences in intelligence between identical twins who were separated at birth and raised in different houses must be due to heredity. C) Differences in intelligence between identical twins must be due to differences in their environments. D) If identical twins are separated at birth and raised in different homes, yet still have similar intelligence scores, the similarity in their scores must be due to hereditary influences. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.3a Explain how genetic influences can be determined from family, twin, and adoption studies. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ 120. If intelligence is determined primarily by heredity, which pair should show the highest correlation between IQ scores? A) fraternal twins Incorrect. Fraternal twins would not show the highest correlation because they are not genetically identical. B) identical twins Correct. Identical twins should show the highest correlation because they are genetically identical. C) brothers and sisters D) parents and children Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.3a Explain how genetic influences can be determined from family, twin, and adoption studies. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ 121. Which of the following is TRUE concerning “twin study” research findings? A) Fraternal twins and identical twins share similarly high IQ correlations. B) Fraternal twins have more similar IQ scores than identical twins. C) Identical twins have more similar IQ scores than fraternal twins. D) Identical twins raised together have less similar scores than identical twins raised apart. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.3a Explain how genetic influences can be determined from family, twin, and adoption studies. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ

122. In a study of twins reared apart in the 1980s and 1990s, a sample of identical twins who were raised in separated environments produced scores on three measures of intelligence that were as similar to each other as a sample of twins who were raised together. Though the sample sizes were relatively small, this research has been repeated with approximately the same findings. We can have some confidence that these findings are valid because of the critical thinking principle of __________. A) replicability Correct. Recall that for us to have faith that research findings are valid and accurate, such should be achieved when that research is repeated. This is what it means to replicate findings. B) falsifiability Incorrect. There are many ways this research could have been falsified, but it was not. It was, in fact, supported by replication! C) Occam’s Razor D) extraordinary claims Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ 123. According to the research of psychologist __________, people who believe that intelligence is a fixed quality that does not change tend to take fewer academic risks, such as enrolling in more challenging classes. A) Carol Dweck B) Phillip Zimbardo C) James Rogers D) Nels Sandaahl Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ 124. According to Robert Zajonc, which of the following individuals would be likely to have the lowest intelligence? A) Erika, who is an only child B) Roscoe, who is the second born of four children C) Ennis, who is the youngest of five children Correct. Zajonc proposed the birth order effect, which suggested that IQ declines steadily with increasing numbers of children in a family. D) Jessica, who is the only child in her family and who was adopted Incorrect. Without having any information about the intelligence of her biological parents, we can make no assumptions about Jessica’s intelligence. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ

125. Regarding IQ similarities between parents and adopted children, which findings are most common? A) Over time, the IQs of adopted children are more similar to their biological parents than their adoptive parents. B) Over time, the IQs of adopted children are more similar to their adoptive parents than their biological parents. C) Adoptive parents do not tend to have much influence on their children’s IQs. D) Biological parents do not tend to have much influence on their children’s IQs. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ 126. Which is TRUE regarding correlational research that focuses on family size and IQ? A) Children from larger families report higher IQs than children from smaller families. B) Children from smaller families report higher IQs than children from larger families. C) The IQ correlations of children from large families are similar to the IQ correlations of children from small families. D) Positive correlations between family size and IQ have mainly been found. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ 127. Which statement would best reflect Arthur Jensen’s views concerning IQ and preschool enrichment programs? A) Preschool enrichment programs using exceptional teaching strategies can boost children’s IQ scores. B) Preschool enrichment programs are likely to negatively affect children’s IQ scores. C) Preschool enrichment programs cannot appreciably boost children’s IQ scores. D) Preschool enrichment programs can significantly boost children’s IQ scores. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ

128. Rosenthal’s “bloomers” study demonstrated that __________. A) higher teacher expectations of students led to higher academic performance Correct. This study suggested that teacher expectation of student performance is a very important variable in the classroom. B) students who believed they were smart outperformed those who did not believe that they were smart Incorrect. This study examines teacher expectations, not student expectations of their own abilities. C) students who believed they were less intelligent performed worse than students believing that they were more intelligent D) highly achievement-motivated students tended to outperform students with low achievement motivation Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ 129. The “Flynn effect” refers to the finding that IQ scores __________. A) have stayed the same over the last decade B) have steadily increased over the last decade C) have steadily decreased over the last decade D) are negatively correlated with education levels Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ % correct 86 a = 11 b = 86 c = 4 d = 0 r = .51 130. In the 1980s, political scientist James Flynn observed that the IQs of Americans were rising at a rate of about __________ point(s) per decade. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ

131. According to the Flynn effect, for at least several generations __________. A) the IQ scores of children are higher than those of their parents and grandparents Correct. The Flynn effect is the finding that IQ scores have been rising each decade. B) the IQ scores of children are lower than those of their parents Incorrect. In fact, the Flynn effect has found that with each decade, IQ scores are increasing. C) the IQ scores of both children and parents have remained about the same D) there is no correlation between the IQ scores of children and their parents Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ 132. General findings concerning gender differences and IQ scores reveal that women tend to score higher than men do on some tasks of __________. A) spatial ability B) verbal ability C) advanced math D) geographical knowledge Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.4a Identify similarities and differences in mental ability between men and women. Topic: Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics 133. No matter how hard she tries, Karen can never seem to do as well as her brother when it comes to tasks such as reading maps, solving mazes, or mentally orienting objects properly. Karen’s experience is __________. A) cause for concern and may reflect damage in the prefrontal cortex B) cause for concern and may reflect perceptual problems Incorrect. Though the explanation for this relationship is complicated, generally speaking men tend to do better than women on spatial ability tests. C) not cause for concern, as this is a trend that occurs quite often Correct. Men tend to do better on most tasks involving spatial ability. D) not cause for concern because her brother likely has a special talent Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.4a Identify similarities and differences in mental ability between men and women. Topic: Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics

134. Which factor does the text authors cite as being at least partially responsible for the underrepresentation of women in the “hard sciences”? A) discrimination and societal expectations B) genetic disadvantages C) stereotype threat D) demand characteristics Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.4a Identify similarities and differences in mental ability between men and women. Topic: Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics 135. The difference between the scores of African Americans and Caucasians on standardized IQ tests has been estimated to be as high as __________ points. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 25 Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ. Topic: Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics 136. Which controversial book caused a rather significant uproar when its authors, Richard Herrnstein and Charles Murray, suggested that some of the IQ gap between the races is genetic in origin? A) Science and Politics B) Outliers C) The Mismeasure of Man D) The Bell Curve Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ. Topic: Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics 137. In the 1960s, a psychologist named Arthur Jensen claimed the difference in scores on IQ tests between African Americans and White Americans was due to __________. A) social circumstances B) environmental disadvantages C) genetics D) educational opportunities Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ. Topic: Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics % correct 29 a = 39 b = 11 c = 29 d = 21 r = .35 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

138. Dr. Cho wants to know if differences in the growth rate of fish are based on genetics or the environment. He buys two fish. Fish 1 is fed every day, while fish 2 is fed every other day. At the end of a month, fish 1 is nearly 15 percent larger than fish 2. Considering the fish have a nearly identical genetic makeup, what can Dr. Cho conclude? A) Environmental changes can account for all the differences in growth rate. Correct. The authors discuss a “thought experiment” involving plants that shows how between-group differences that seem to be genetic may be entirely due to environment. B) Genetic influences must account for a majority of the differences in growth rate. Incorrect. This study examines environmental influences, not genetic influences. C) Environmental conditions were more favorable for fish 2. D) Differences in growth rate cannot be determined by this simple experiment. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ. Topic: Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics 139. If the correlation between SAT scores and college grades is __________ for women and __________ for men, the SAT would be termed a “test biased” measure. A) .7; .3 Correct. A test is not biased just because different groups tend to get different scores; it is biased if it differentially predicts outcomes for different groups. Test bias would be seen as a dramatically different correlation between test scores and outcomes for one versus another group. B) .7; .8 C) .7; .6 Incorrect. In this answer, there would not be a very significant difference between the correlations for women than men, so it would not indicate test bias. D) .7; .7 Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ. Topic: Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics

140. Stereotype threat can be seen in an example in which Julie __________. A) becomes anxious when told that women perform worse than men on standardized math tests, but she uses this as incentive to earn a high score on the SAT math section B) becomes anxious when told that women perform worse than men on standardized math tests and, even though she is a gifted mathematician, she performs below average on the SAT math section Correct. Stereotype threat is the fear that we may confirm a negative group stereotype. Julie is concerned that she will perform poorly on the math section, just because she is believed to be less skilled at math due to being female. C) is told that women perform worse than men on standardized math tests, but she ignores this information and earns a high score on the SAT math section Incorrect. In this answer, Julie has resisted the effects of stereotype threat. D) is told that women perform worse than men on standardized math tests, but her preparation for the test allows her to earn a high score on the SAT math section Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ. Topic: Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics 141. Taylor is the only girl on her baseball team. Today she will be playing in the championship game and is worried that she will “choke” (not be able to play as well as she usually does) because she was told that girls always “choke” in the big games. What concept is being represented? A) between-group heritability B) confirmation bias Incorrect. The confirmation bias occurs when we attend only to information that confirms our beliefs, and disregard information that disproves our beliefs. It is not relevant in this particular question. C) stereotype threat Correct. Stereotype threat occurs when knowledge that one is expected to perform worse on a task than those in some other group leads one to perform less well than he or she could. D) test bias Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ. Topic: Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics

142. Jackie Robinson, the first African-American to play in the major leagues, was told all his life that he was inferior. Yet time after time he was able to outperform many of the other players on the field. Which potential problem did Jackie Robinson overcome? A) test bias Incorrect. A test bias occurs when a particular measure or instrument unfairly benefits or punishes a member of a particular group, for example, a member of a given race or sex. B) heritability C) low self-esteem D) stereotype threat Correct. Stereotype threat occurs when knowledge that one is expected to perform worse on a task than those in some other group leads one to perform less well than he or she could. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ. Topic: Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics 143. The ability to produce solutions to problems that are novel and successful is called __________. A) creativity B) insight C) latent learning D) convergent thinking Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Topic: The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect 144. Professor Bach hands each of his students an eraser. He then asks them to list as many possible uses for the eraser as they can think of. Which aspect of thought was Professor Bach exploring? A) divergent thinking Correct. Divergent thinking is the ability to think of many different solutions to a problem; it is associated with creativity. B) convergent thinking Incorrect. Convergent thinking occurs when problems are seen as having only one correct answer. All lines of thinking converge on that one answer. C) dichotomous thinking D) creative thinking Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Topic: The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect

145. What type of thinking could be described as taking different directions in search of a variety of answers to a question? A) decisive B) convergent Incorrect. Convergent thinking occurs when problems are seen as having only one correct answer. All lines of thinking converge on that one answer. C) heuristic D) divergent Correct. Divergent thinking involves taking different directions in search of a variety of answers to a question. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Topic: The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect 146. A person starts from one point and comes up with many different ideas or possibilities based on that point. The person is engaging in __________ thinking. A) functional B) circular C) convergent Incorrect. Convergent thinking occurs when problems are seen as having only one correct answer. D) divergent Correct. The person is engaging in divergent thinking as the solutions spread out from a starting point. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO:1.3 TEXT LO: 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Topic: The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect 147. Which type of thinking is most closely related to creativity? A) heuristic B) divergent C) insightful D) convergent Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Topic: The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect

148. Linus, Adjoa, and Jelani were all asked by their professor to take 60 seconds and list as many different uses for a note card as they could think of in that time frame. Jelani came up with two uses and Linus came up with only one. Adjoa, however, was able to come up with fourteen uses for a note card. Based on the research, Adjoa is __________. A) a convergent thinker Incorrect. Convergent thinking occurs when problems are seen as having only one correct answer. B) a conventional thinker C) experiencing a mental set D) a divergent thinker Correct. Because Adjoa can come up with multiple solutions to a given problem, she demonstrates divergent thinking. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Topic: The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect 149. Which of the following questions would be more likely to produce divergent thinking? A) “What is a stapler?” B) “How do you spell stapler?” C) “How many uses can you think of for a stapler?” Correct. “How many uses can you think of for a stapler?” will produce more divergent thinking because there are many possible answers. D) “What does a stapler look like?” Incorrect. “How many uses can you think of for a stapler?” will produce more divergent thinking. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Topic: The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect 150. __________ thinking refers to the capacity to generate the single best solution to a problem. A) Convergent B) Divergent C) Crystallized D) Creative Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Topic: The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect

151. Marvis, the manager of a large business, always says, “Those are all great ideas, but now we need to pick the best one.” What aspect of thought is Marvis focusing on? A) divergent thinking Incorrect. Divergent thinking involves taking different directions in search of a variety of answers to a question, while Marvis is trying to focus on a singular (best) answer. B) convergent thinking Correct. Convergent thinking is the ability to determine the single best solution to a problem. It is an important component of creativity. C) dichotomous thinking D) thinking outside the box Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Topic: The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect 152. A form of intelligence that refers to how effectively people perceive and understand their own feelings and the feelings of others, and can regulate and manage their emotional behavior, is __________ intelligence. A) interpersonal B) emotional C) crystallized D) fluid Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Topic: The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect 153. Dillan really wants a turn at the swing, but there are two more children in front of him. If Dillan pushes the other two children out of the way, it will be his turn, but the other children will be angry and might get hurt. Dillan’s decision making involves __________ intelligence. A) emotional Correct. Emotional intelligence is the ability to understand our emotions and those of others, and to use the information in our daily lives. B) social Incorrect. There is no theory of intelligence as noted by your authors that specifies the concept of social intelligence. C) ideological D) empathetic Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Topic: The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect

154. Kabi is a well-respected supervisor at a major corporation. Co-workers describe her as very selfaware, empathic toward others, and very good at managing relationships. Based on this information, it is likely that Kabi has a high degree of __________. A) heritability B) emotional intelligence Correct. Emotional intelligence is the ability to understand our emotions and those of others, and to use the information in our daily lives. C) convergent thinking abilities D) culture-fair intelligence Incorrect. Culture-fair intelligence tests are those that do not unfairly punish someone who does not speak the native language in which a test is constructed. It is not relevant to this particular question. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Topic: The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect 155. While some have suggested that emotional intelligence is a concept that is distinct from other measures of cognitive skill, others have posited that emotional intelligence is nothing new, and is simply a measure of certain personality traits that have been studied for decades. This simplistic way of conceptualizing emotional intelligence is consistent with the critical thinking principle of __________. A) correlation vs. causation B) falsifiability C) Occam’s Razor. Correct. Looking at emotional intelligence as a complicated way of thinking about personality, and viewing it in a more parsimonious way, is consistent with Occam’s Razor. D) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. There certainly is a rival hypothesis found in this question, but the most important part of the question is the search for a simpler answer. This is the basis of Occam’s Razor. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Topic: The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect 156. The duping of famed author Sir Arthur Conan Doyle in the “Cottingley fairies” hoax reminds us of which principle of critical thinking? A) correlation vs. causation B) extraordinary claims Correct. As your authors point out, even Doyle forgot that extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence. In this case, the evidence was disappointing at best. C) replicability Incorrect. There was no research to repeat in this case, so this is not a relevant principle to consider. D) ruling out rival hypotheses Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 9.5b Explain why intelligence doesn’t protect us from errors in thinking. Topic: The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Fill-in-the-Blank 1. The first intelligence test, created by Alfred Binet and Théodore Simon, was originally intended to identify and separate “__________” learners from their classmates. Answer: slower Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 2. __________ hypothesized that there was one single common factor (g) that accounted for the intellectual differences among people. Answer: (Charles) Spearman Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 3. __________ intelligence refers to the accumulated knowledge we acquire as we age. Answer: Crystallized Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 4. __________ suggested that intelligence could be comprised of musical ability, athletic ability, interpersonal skills, and public speaking ability, in addition to several other skills. Answer: (Howard) Gardner Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 5. Gardner’s intelligence type that is associated with the ability to excel in the arena of sports is __________ intelligence. Answer: bodily-kinesthetic Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion

6. __________ proposed that intelligence was comprised of analytical, practical, and creative thinking skills. Answer: (Robert) Sternberg Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 7. The brain region found to be most active in tasks that involve planning, reasoning, and short-term memory is the __________. Answer: prefrontal cortex Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.1b Describe the connection between intelligence and brain size and efficiency. Topic: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion 8. Stern’s formula for calculating IQ is __________. Answer: MA/CA × 100 Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 9. The IQ of a 10-year-old with a mental age of 12 would be __________. Answer: 120 Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 10. __________ was a key figure in the history of IQ testing in the United States and arranged for immigrants to be tested as a standard practice. Answer: (Henry) Goddard Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2b Explain the history of misuse of intelligence tests in the United States. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 11. __________, the social movement headed by psychologists that gained momentum in the early 1900s in the United States, pushed for sterilization plans for those of low IQ. Answer: Eugenics Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2b Explain the history of misuse of intelligence tests in the United States. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

12. The WAIS-IV contains __________ different subtests that assess five different areas of intelligence. Answer: fifteen Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 13. The __________ is the most widely used intelligence test for adults. Answer: WAIS Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 14. An item asking you about the temperature at which water boils would be found on the __________ subscale section of the WAIS. Answer: information Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 15. Items asking you to arrange blocks into a particular design would be found on the __________ subscale section of the WAIS. Answer: block design Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 16. Items on the WAIS asking you to repeat random numbers forward and backward would be found on the __________ subscale section of the WAIS. Answer: digit span Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

17. If your IQ test score is 120 and you take the same test two months later and arrive at the same score, the test is said to be __________. Answer: reliable Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 18. Because the correlation between SAT scores and college grades is approximately .30 or so, this test can be seen to have low __________ validity. Answer: predictive Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 19. The term “intellectual disability” is associated with IQ scores falling around __________ and under. Answer: 70 Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 20. Terman’s __________, as they were nicknamed, were the participants in the first longitudinal study of those with higher-than-average (gifted) intelligence quotients. Answer: Termites Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 21. __________ twin types are found to have the most similar IQs. Answer: Monozygotic (The teacher can decide if “Identical” is also acceptable.) Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.3a Explain how genetic influences can be determined from family, twin, and adoption studies. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ 22. The phenomenon of IQ test scores rising 3 points per decade is referred to as the __________. Answer: Flynn effect Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

23. Women tend to outscore men on __________ tasks. Answer: verbal Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.4a Identify similarities and differences in mental ability between men and women. Topic: Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics 24. Men tend to outscore women on __________ tasks. Answer: spatial Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.4a Identify similarities and differences in mental ability between men and women. Topic: Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics 25. The tendency to underperform on standardized tests due to perceptions that you come from a group that has fared poorly on such tests is called __________. Answer: stereotype threat Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ. Topic: Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics Essay 1. Describe at least three ways in which IQ tests have been misused historically. Answer: Answers should be associated with the eugenics movement and its involvement in the following: Eugenics was a social policy that suggested that those with less favorable characteristics, including IQs, should be prohibited from reproducing. This would, in theory, enhance the quality of the human species. Establishing immigration restriction laws for low-scoring groups Sterilization plans for low-scoring groups Classification of certain groups as intellectually inferior Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2b Explain the history of misuse of intelligence tests in the United States. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

2. Describe two ways in which IQ tests can be culturally biased. What would be the primary feature of a “culture-fair” IQ test? Answer: Answers should include some discussion of the following: Familiarity with the primary language, lexicon, and testing-based expectations of the test writer In addition, some mention of the impact of socioeconomic status on test scores could be mentioned A culture-fair IQ test would be one that consists of abstract reasoning skills that are not dependent on language; more specifically, the test taker would not be artificially handicapped if her or his native language differed from that of the person administering the test or the person/people who created the test Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 3. Describe and provide an example for the following statement: “A test can be reliable and not valid.” Answer: Answers should involve a discussion of a given test providing repeatable scores when taken multiple times, but not accurately measuring what it is intended to measure. In addition, a test such as the SAT could be taken twice by a student and both scores could be similar (reliable), but the test may not be predictive of the student’s college grades (not valid). Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly 4. Based on your understanding of family, twin, and adoption studies, provide examples of findings that would support the claim that intelligence is primarily genetically determined. Answer: Answers should include some mention of higher IQ correlations found for MZ twins as compared to DZ twins and higher correlations found between biological parent and child as compared to adoptive parent and child. In order to strengthen the answer, information regarding research into various environmental influences on IQ can also be provided. Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 31.1 TEXT LO: 9.3a Explain how genetic influences can be determined from family, twin, and adoption studies.; 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Topic: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ

5. Describe how stereotype threat may be seen to account for the differences found between men and women on standardized math tests. Answer: Answers should mention a tendency for negatively stereotyped groups to experience undue pressure in the context of an evaluation related to the stereotype. For example, women may be told that men perform better on the SAT math section, which may lead to self-doubt and second guessing, leading to underperformance on the SAT math section. Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.4a Identify similarities and differences in mental ability between men and women.; 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ. Topic: Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics Critical Thinking 1. In your estimation, which subtests of the WAIS are most significantly environmentally influenced? Answer: Scores on the information and vocabulary section are likely the result of schooling and exposure to certain information through upbringing. Scores on the comprehension section are likely linked to familiarity with the social norms, traditions, and morals of those writing IQ test items. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores.; 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly; Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ 2. Which subtests of the WAIS do you believe are most significantly genetically influenced? Answer: Performance scale items including digit symbol, picture completion, block design, picture arrangement, and object assembly could be linked to genetics in cases that involve visual impairments, perceptual deficiencies, or motor skill delays. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 9.2c. Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores.; 9.3a Explain how genetic influences can be determined from family, twin, and adoption studies. Topic: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly; Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ

CHAPTER 9: INTELLIGENCE AND IQ TESTING ______________________________________________________________________________ Intelligence 1. Which of these is one of Howard Gardner’s multiple intelligences? a. poetic b. naturalistic c. creative d. digital Answer b % correct 71 a= 2 b= 71 c= 24 d= 3 r = .33 2. Ted and Jessica's son was recently diagnosed as having an intellectual disability. What is his likely degree of this disability? a. severe b. moderate c. profound d. mild Answer d % correct 85 a= 3 b= 10 c= 2 d= 85 r = .26 3. Which of these might be an example of a performance item on the Wechsler tests of intelligence? a. repeating a series of digits b. defining a word such as lunch c. using blocks to make a design like one shown in a picture d. adding a series of orally presented numbers Answer c % correct 52 a= 25 b= 17 c= 52 d= 6 r = .21 4. What number reflects the amount of differences in a population attributable to genetic influences? a. concordance b. heritability c. eugenics index d. correlation coefficient Answer b % correct 52 a= 2 b= 52 c= 18 d= 26 r = .21 5. Psychological tests that yield relatively consistent results are said to be: a. reliable. b. standardized. c. valid. d. normed. Answer a % correct 76 a= 76 b= 13 c= 8 d= 4 r = .54 6. The ability to produce work that is both novel and appropriate is called: a. insight. b. heuristics. c. creativity. d. latent learning. Answer c % correct 65 a= 11 b= 7 c= 65 d= 17 r = .40

7. What is one criticism of the conclusions offered by Richard Herrnstein and Charles Murray in The Bell Curve? a. They confused polygenic and monogenic inheritance. b. Few people have taken intelligence tests, so their conclusions have limited generalizability. c. They failed to distinguish between correlation and causation. d. Their data were obtained improperly. Answer c % correct 52 a= 10 b= 20 c= 52 d= 18 r = .21 8. A committee has been set up to identify young people who are likely to become great Olympics skaters. In addition to physical skills, the committee believes that an understanding of one's emotions is a plus because it will help the skaters through training and competitions. Using Howard Gardner's types of intelligences, which two should be the focus of their search? a. bodily kinesthetic and intrapersonal b. logical/mathematical and visual/spatial c. visual/spatial and interpersonal d. verbal/linguistic and logical/mathematical Answer a % correct 79 a= 79 b= 2 c= 16 d= 2 r = .43 9. The Binet and Simon intelligence test measured children on what new concept? a. divergent thinking b. mental set c. mental age d. creativity Answer c % correct 79 a= 11 b= 4 c= 79 d= 7 r = .20 10. A psychological test that measures what we intend it to measure is said to be a. valid. b. normed. c. standardized. d. reliable. Answer a % correct 80 a= 80 b= 2 c= 8 d= 10 r = .31 11. The theory of multiple intelligences was proposed by __________. a. Gardner b. Sternberg c. Thurstone d. Spearman Answer a % correct 39 a= 39 b= 23 c= 30 d= 8 r = .08 12. The ability to reproduce unusually sharp and detailed images of something that has been seen is called __________. a. eidetic imagery b. semantic imagery c. episodic imagery d. flashbulb memory Answer a % correct 39 a= 39 b= 5 c= 24 d= 32 r = .31

13. The Binet-Simon scale was originally developed to __________. a. identify children who might have difficulty in school b. identify gifted children c. measure scholastic achievement d. measure the intelligence of normal children Answer a % correct 66 a= 66 b= 10 c= 7 d= 15 r = .43 14. Creativity is the ability to __________. a. produce novel or unique ideas or objects b. think about concrete objects abstractly c. work well with input from internal sources d. work well without input from internal sources Answer a % correct 80 a= 80 b= 17 c= 1 d= 0

r = .22

15. Geoffrey has a Stanford-Binet IQ score of 60 and deficits in adaptive behavior. He is likely to be considered to have a __________ intellectual disability. a. mild b. moderate c. severe d. profound Answer a % correct 85 a= 85 b= 13 c= 2 d= 0 r = .34 16. The concept of generalized intelligence is largely based on the theories of __________. a. Thurstone b. Simon c. Gardner d. Spearman Answer d % correct 73 a= 11 b= 6 c= 9 d= 73 r = .53 17. Thurstone's definition of intelligence includes __________. a. seven distinct mental abilities b. operations, contents, and products c. fluid general ability d. s factors Answer a % correct 95 a= 95 b= 2 c= 1 d= 2 r = .20 18. A valid test is one that __________. a. produces consistent results b. has split-half reliability c. actually measures what it sets out to measure d. has a correlation coefficient of .50 Answer c % correct 79 a= 20 b= 1 c= 79 d= 1

r = .49

19. __________ percent of the population has IQ scores between 70 and 130. a. Sixty-five b. Seventy-five c. Eighty-five d. Ninety-five Answer d % correct 52 a= 6 b= 19 c= 23 d= 52 r = .29

20. A form of intelligence that refers to how effectively people perceive and understand their own feelings and the feelings of others, is __________ intelligence. a. fluid b. emotional c. bodily-kinesthetic d. crystallized Answer b % correct 92 a= 0 b= 92 c= 7 d= 2 r = .23 21. Charles Spearman believed that intelligence is composed of: a. crystallized and visual-motor abilities. b. general intelligence and specific abilities. c. analytical, creative, and practical intelligence. d. verbal and mathematical abilities. Answer b % correct 65 a= 1 b= 65 c= 23 d= 10 r = .48 22. When you took your college entrance exam, students across the country took the same test at the same time with the same instructions. What characteristic of a good psychological test do these similarities reflect? a. reliability b. standardization c. validity d. norms Answer b % correct 70 a= 13 b= 70 c= 10 d= 7 r = .27 23. Which of these is one of Howard Gardner's multiple intelligences? a. poetic b. naturalistic c. digital d. creative Answer b % correct 77 a= 1 b= 77 c= 1 d= 22 r = .40 24. Which of these might be an example of a performance item on the Wechsler tests of intelligence? a. defining a word such as lunch b. repeating a series of digits c. using blocks to make a design like one shown in a picture d. adding a series of orally presented numbers Answer c % correct 65 a= 7 b= 21 c= 65 d= 7 r = .11 25. What number reflects the amount of differences in a population attributable to genetic influences? a. correlation coefficient b. concordance c. heritability d. eugenics index Answer c % correct 53 a= 25 b= 17 c= 53 d= 13 r = .17 26. The original purpose of the first well established test of intelligence was to a. make accurate diagnoses of savant syndrome b. classify children as to their level of intellectual disability c. select those children who could benefit from classes for slow learners d. determine who required services under Public Law 94-142 Answer c % correct 80 a= 4 b= 14 c= 80 d= 2 r = .34

27. What is one criticism of the conclusions offered by Richard Herrnstein and Charles Murray in The Bell Curve? a. They failed to distinguish between correlation and causation. b. Few people have taken intelligence tests, so their conclusions have limited generalizability. c. Their data were obtained improperly. d. They confused polygenic and monogenic inheritance. Answer a % correct 70 a= 70 b= 17 c= 11 d= 2 r = .12 28. On Monday, Sal took a test developed to measure levels of sensation seeking and obtained a score of 13; he took the same test one week later and obtained the same score. Based on this information, you can most accurately conclude that the test is likely to be: a. standardized. b. reliable. c. valid. d. normed. Answer b % correct 78 a= 3 b= 78 c= 17 d= 2 r = .22 29. What score indicates how one individual compares to others on an intelligence test? a. intelligence quotient b. deviation c. intelligence component d. mental estimate Answer a % correct 48 a= 48 b= 44 c= 5 d= 3 r = .04 30. Sal is being evaluated as a possible candidate for the space program. On which of Howard Gardner's multiple intelligences would we expect him to excel if he is a good candidate? a. spatial reasoning b. interpersonal c. naturalist d. intrapersonal Answer a % correct 63 a= 63 b= 10 c= 17 d= 8 r = .32

Quiz 9.1: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q9.1.1 Which of the following terms refers to the capacity to learn new ways to solve problems, a capacity that tends to decline with age? a) fluid intelligence b) crystalized intelligence c) specific abilities d) general intelligence ANS: a Topic=What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Recall the distinctions between different types of intelligence. LO 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence.

EOM Q9.1.2 Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences can also be thought of as comprising different __________. a) frames of mind b) existential crises c) developmental stages d) levels of emotional awareness ANS: a Topic=What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence., Difficulty=Moderate, bookAuthor=Lilienfeld, et al. Consider This: Different intelligences may be exhibited by different people. LO 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q9.1.3 Charles Spearman did not believe that g or “general intelligence” explained everything. He posited the existence of another factor that he called “s” for __________, which would govern how well we perform in a particular domain. a) specific intelligence b) skills acquisition c) sensitivity to context d) special intelligence ANS: a Topic=What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Even if we are really smart—high in overall g—we might be stumped by a problem because we have a specific deficiency when it comes to spatial reasoning. LO 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence.

EOM Q9.1.4 What part of the brain did investigators note was “highly g-loaded” for reasoning tasks? a) prefrontal cortex b) hypothalamus c) left parietal lobe d) right parietal lobe ANS: a Topic=What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 9.1b Describe the connection between intelligence and brain size and efficiency. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The intellectual tasks all activated this brain region that plays key roles in planning, impulse control, and short-term memory. LO 9.1b Describe the connection between intelligence and brain size and efficiency.

EOM Q9.1.5 Studies of intelligence and memory, reaction time, brain structure, and other related concepts converge on a core finding: Intelligence is related (although imperfectly) to __________. a) speed of information processing b) attention to detail c) number of siblings d) complexity of myelination ANS: a Topic=What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 9.1b Describe the connection between intelligence and brain size and efficiency. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Generally, being an efficient thinker is not a bad thing. LO 9.1b Describe the connection between intelligence and brain size and efficiency.

Quiz 9.2: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q9.2.1 It is not useful to estimate IQ based on self-reports because people with __________ may well overestimate their own abilities. a) poor metacognitive skills b) multiple intelligences c) poor hindsight bias d) average intelligence ANS: a Topic=Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ. Difficulty=Easy, CH=09 Consider This: It is difficult to estimate how smart you are if you are not that smart to begin with. LO 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ.

EOM Q9.2.2 Which IQ test, first published in 1916, was originally developed for children but has since been extended to adults, and involves testing vocabulary and memory for pictures, naming familiar objects, repeating sentences, and following commands? a) Stanford-Binet b) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale c) Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children d) Raven’s Progressive Matrices ANS: a Topic=Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This test was really the forerunner of all other intelligence tests. LO 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ.

EOM Q9.2.3 During the eugenics movement in the 1920s, laws were passed in 33 U.S. states requiring the __________ of people with low IQs. a) sterilization b) incarceration c) institutionalization d) segregation ANS: a Topic=Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 9.2b Explain the history of misuse of intelligence tests in the United States. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Eugenics was the effort to improve a population’s “genetic stock” by encouraging people with “good genes” to reproduce, by discouraging people with “bad genes” from reproducing, or both. LO 9.2b Explain the history of misuse of intelligence tests in the United States.

EOM Q9.2.4 The WISC, WIPPSI, and WAIS-IV are all variations on an approach to intelligence testing originally developed by __________. a) David Wechsler b) Alfred Binet c) Theodore Simon d) Lewis Terman ANS: a Topic=Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Think about what all these tests, designed for different age ranges, have in common. LO 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores.

EOM Q9.2.5 Longitudinal studies of the stability of IQ through adulthood generally reveal that __________. a) intelligence is relatively stable over time, but not perfectly so, as indicated by strong positive correlations b) intelligence dips during early adulthood, then progresses steadily upward until death c) there are very low correlations between intelligence measured in younger years and intelligence measured in the same people later d) intelligence test scores show an inverted-U pattern when people are tested across each decade of life ANS: a Topic=Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Termites, Scottish school children, and studies of test-retest reliability all point to this same conclusion. LO 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius.

Quiz 9.3: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q9.3.1 Studies of twins raised apart showed that intelligence correlations between these siblings was __________ those of twins raised together. a) similar to b) slightly higher than c) significantly different from d) somewhat less than ANS: a Topic=Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 9.3a Explain how genetic influences can be determined from family, twin, and adoption studies. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This conclusion points to a strong genetic component of intelligence. LO 9.3a Explain how genetic influences can be determined from family, twin, and adoption studies.

EOM Q9.3.2 Although many types of studies show that IQ is heritable (that is, it runs in families), there is one situation in which this does not appear to be the case. This is for people, especially children, who __________. a) live at or below the poverty line b) are fraternal rather than identical twins c) do not get along with their family members. d) are more highly educated than their siblings ANS: a Topic=Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 9.3a Explain how genetic influences can be determined from family, twin, and adoption studies. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This conclusion points to the effects of the environment on intelligence. LO 9.3a Explain how genetic influences can be determined from family, twin, and adoption studies. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q9.3.3 People who believe intelligence is __________ tend to take more academic risks than people who do not have this mindset. a) flexible b) fixed c) persistent d) pervasive ANS: a Topic=Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: How we think about intelligence can influence performance on intelligence tests. LO 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ.

EOM Q9.3.4 The average IQ of the population has been rising by about three points per decade. This phenomenon, named for the researcher who discovered it, is called the __________. a) Flynn effect b) Terman effect c) Laird increase d) Binet manifold ANS: a Topic=Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: It suggests that, on average, our IQs are a full 10 to 15 points higher than those of our grandparents. LO 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ.

EOM Q9.3.5 Researchers told teachers that 20 percent of children who had taken an IQ test were “bloomers” who would soon reach their full intellectual potential, even though in reality those children were no different from the other children in the group. Later in the year, when these “bloomer” children were tested, they scored four points higher than the rest of the group. This outcome is an example of __________. a) expectancy effects b) test-taking practice c) bloomer identification d) the effect of lying on educational attainment ANS: a Topic=Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Subtle interpersonal mechanisms are likely to be at work in producing this effect. LO 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ.

Quiz 9.4: Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q9.4.1 In testing situations, men tend to do better than women on __________. a) mental rotation tasks b) quickly repeating tongue twisters c) detecting and recognizing facial expressions of emotion d) calculating arithmetic problems in childhood ANS: a Topic=Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 9.4a Identify similarities and differences in mental ability between men and women. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This task is an aspect of spatial ability. LO 9.4a Identify similarities and differences in mental ability between men and women.

EOM Q9.4.2 What is a reasonable conclusion to reach regarding evidence of sex differences in specific mental abilities? a) Although a genetic component may be involved, there is considerable evidence that environmental factors play a substantial role. b) Women generally outperform men on “reality-based” tasks, whereas men generally outperform women on “school-based” tasks. c) Previous evidence of mental ability differences between women and men has been discredited. d) Sex differences in mental abilities are essentially genetic differences in those same abilities. ANS: a Topic=Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 9.4a Identify similarities and differences in mental ability between men and women. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: The pattern of evidence is intriguing, and some conclusions can be reached. LO 9.4a Identify similarities and differences in mental ability between men and women.

EOM Q9.4.3 For IQ score distributions, the __________ within any given race tends to be greater than between races. a) variability b) variation c) abilities d) environments ANS: a Topic=Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This finding means that the distributions of IQ scores for different races overlap substantially. LO 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ.

EOM Q9.4.4 To psychological scientists, the term “test bias” means that __________. a) the test predicts outcomes better for members of one group than for another b) some groups perform better on the test than others do c) test designers slant the test to favor one group over another d) the test accurately predicts outcomes for all groups ANS: a Topic=Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The same test is behaving differently for different groups of test-takers. LO 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ.

EOM Q9.4.5 Shortly after World War II, a study conducted in Germany compared IQ scores of children of African-American soldier fathers and Caucasian-German mothers with those of children with Caucasian-American soldier fathers and Caucasian-German mothers. The results showed __________. a) no difference in IQ between the two groups b) higher IQs for the children of African-American fathers c) higher IQs for the children of Caucasian-American fathers d) higher IQs for the children of Caucasian-German mothers ANS: a Topic=Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: The different race-related genes appeared to have no bearing on children’s IQ when environment was roughly equated. LO 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ.

Quiz 9.5: The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q9.5.1 The ability to understand our own feelings as well as those of other people is a component of __________. a) emotional intelligence b) expressive understanding c) feeling-knowledge bias d) creative understanding ANS: a Topic=The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Difficulty=Easy, UUID_v5=558d3856-2738-513e-a92a-5ee59163e2c6, UUID_v4=70227891-7382-40a3-869b4377b503cb5e

EOM Q9.5.2 How many uses can you think of for a brick? If you were to compile a long, creative list of tasks that a brick could be used for, you would be engaged in __________. a) divergent thinking b) convergent thinking c) ideo-motor action d) expansive awareness ANS: a Topic=The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Try it, and then count all the unique instances you come up with. LO 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence.

EOM Q9.5.3 The term “convergent thinking” is defined as __________. a) the ability to find the single best answer to a problem b) the tendency to be distracted from the topic at hand c) the ability to think of a number of problems at the same time d) the tendency for different people to think of different solutions to problems ANS: a Topic=The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Sometimes thinking “inside the box” is useful. LO 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence.

EOM Q9.5.4 When someone challenges our beliefs, especially about something important to us such as religion or politics or the existence of elves, our __________ raises our defenses against evidence that contradicts our views. Oddly, this is more of a problem for people with higher IQs. a) ideological immune system b) plausibility shield c) intellectual sophistry system d) confirmation bias effect ANS: a Topic=The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 9.5b Explain why intelligence doesn’t protect us from errors in thinking. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: First, we feel defensive, and then we frantically search our mental knowledge banks to find arguments that could refute the irksome evidence. LO 9.5b Explain why intelligence doesn’t protect us from errors in thinking.

EOM Q9.5.5 The textbook authors propose that the current Dalai Lama exemplifies the quality of __________ because “despite arguing forcefully for Tibet’s independence from China, he has consistently advocated for nonviolence and a willingness to engage in constructive dialogue with his opponents.” a) wisdom b) emotional intelligence c) intellectual ability d) creativity ANS: a Topic=The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 9.5b Explain why intelligence doesn’t protect us from errors in thinking. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Wise persons channel their intelligence into avenues that benefit others. LO 9.5b Explain why intelligence doesn’t protect us from errors in thinking.

Chapter 9 Quiz: Intelligence and IQ Testing Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Chapter Quiz: Intelligence and IQ Testing

Multiple Choice Single Select EOC Q9.1 Which of the following is the term that describes the age corresponding to the average individual’s performance on an intelligence test? a) mental age b) age group c) intellectual age d) intelligence quotient ANS: a Topic=Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: A girl who takes an IQ test and does as well as the average 6-year-old has a mental age of 6, regardless of her actual age. LO 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ.

EOC Q9.2 Which test is most commonly administered to assess intelligence in adults? a) WAIS b) WISC c) WPPSI d) Stanford-Binet ANS: a Topic=Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This test was developed by David Wechsler; other varieties are for administration to different age groups. LO 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOC Q9.3 When we fear that we may confirm a negative stereotype about the group to which we belong, we are experiencing the feeling of __________. a) stereotype threat b) self-fulfilling prophecy c) bias dread d) hindsight bias ANS: a Topic=Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This creates a self-fulfilling prophecy in which those who are anxious about confirming a negative stereotype actually increase their likelihood of doing so. LO 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ.

EOC Q9.4 Although IQ tests assess how efficiently we process information, they do not measure our ability to process information scientifically. For instance, measures of IQ barely correlate with measures of __________. a) confirmation bias b) hindsight bias c) ideological immunity d) emotional intelligence ANS: a Topic=The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 9.5b Explain why intelligence doesn’t protect us from errors in thinking. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Data reveal that people with high IQs are at least as prone as other people to beliefs in conspiracy theories. LO 9.5b Explain why intelligence doesn’t protect us from errors in thinking.

EOC Q9.5 Environmental influences on intelligence exist, such as poverty, malnutrition, or exposure to lead. However, it is often difficult to disentangle the effects of such influences. Why is that? a) Environmental factors, such as poverty, malnutrition, or exposure to lead, tend to be correlated with one another. b) There are no good ways to quantify factors such as lead exposure. c) Environmental factors contribute to genetic expression; poverty, for example, may have a genetic basis. d) People from impoverished environments do not participate in studies of intellectual ability. ANS: a Topic=Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: “The environment” is a big place, with lots of things occurring simultaneously. LO 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ.

EOC Q9.6 The term “progressive” in Raven’s Progressive Matrices indicates that __________. a) test items start off easy and increase in difficulty b) this is a culture-fair test c) the test measures fluid intelligence d) the test was administered in progressive schools in Great Britain ANS: a Topic=Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This test is like many others in this regard. LO 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores.

EOC Q9.7 The extent to which genetics influences the variability of a trait for members of a particular group is called __________ heritability. a) within-group b) between-group c) group membership d) total group ANS: a Skill=Remember the Facts Topic=Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics Objective=LO 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: These differences always need to be interpreted along with another source of differences. LO 9.4b Evaluate the evidence concerning racial differences in IQ.

EOC Q9.8 When Robert Zajonc released his findings in the mid-1970s that showed that later-born children have lower IQs than earlier-born children, he failed to take into account that __________. a) lower-IQ parents tend to have more children than higher-IQ parents b) these correlations only hold within families, not across groups of families c) later-born children actually have much higher IQs than earlier-born children. d) the time of day that a person is born has no impact on IQ ANS: a Topic=Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 9.3a Explain how genetic influences can be determined from family, twin, and adoption studies. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: A more accurate way to state the correlation is that children who come from larger families have slightly lower IQs than do children who come from smaller families. LO 9.3a Explain how genetic influences can be determined from family, twin, and adoption studies.

EOC Q9.9 Although it is a complicated relationship, brain volume (or “size,” as measured by MRI) does correlate with intelligence (as measured by performance on intellectual tasks). What is the typical range of those correlations? a) .80 to .90 b) .60 to .70 c) .30 to .40 d) .10 to .20 ANS: c Topic=What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 9.1b Describe the connection between intelligence and brain size and efficiency. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: The common sense belief that “big brains”equate to intelligence has shown marginal research support. LO 9.1b Describe the connection between intelligence and brain size and efficiency.

EOC Q9.10 Two-time Nobel Prize winner Linus Pauling said that to be creative, we first need to come up with lots of ideas and then toss out all the bad ones. This is a good way to describe __________ thinking. a) convergent b) divergent c) motivated d) goal-directed ANS: a Topic=The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Difficulty=Easy, module=Intelligence and IQ Testing Consider This: This is the capacity to find the single best answer to a problem. LO 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence.

EOC Q9.11 Which of the following findings is one of the lines of evidence suggesting that schooling has a causal influence on intelligence? a) Dropouts have lower IQs later in life than graduates, even if they started out with the same IQ. b) People with high IQs tend to enjoy school more and take more classes. c) Children’s IQs tend to be higher after summer vacation. d) Children who have a year more schooling than similar-age peers have lower IQs. ANS: a Topic=Genetic and Environmental Influences on IQ Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Stay in school, kids! LO 9.3b Identify potential environmental influences on IQ.

EOC Q9.12 Which term refers to an early 20th-century movement to encourage people with “good genes” to have more children and to stop those with “bad genes” from doing so? a) eugenics b) euphonics c) eubola d) euthanasia ANS: a Topic=Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 9.2b Explain the history of misuse of intelligence tests in the United States. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Thirty-three states passed laws requiring the sterilization of low-IQ individuals. LO 9.2b Explain the history of misuse of intelligence tests in the United States.

EOC Q9.13 According to Sternberg’s triarchic model, which type of intelligence do we use when we apply our “street smarts” to size someone up or get ahead in a job? a) practical intelligence b) creative intelligence c) analytical intelligence d) interpersonal intelligence ANS: a Topic=What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This is also called “tacit intelligence”: the ability to solve real-world problems, especially those involving other people. LO 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. EOC Q9.14 When computing adult intelligence, most modern intelligence researchers use a statistical measure of variability to determine the __________, which expresses individual results in relation to the norms for that age group. a) deviation IQ b) mental age c) intelligence quotient d) metacognitive statistic ANS: a Topic=Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: An IQ of 100, which is average, means that a person’s IQ is exactly typical of people of her or his peer group. LO 9.2a Determine how psychologists calculate IQ.

EOC Q9.15 Data collected by the Educational Testing Service was analyzed and researchers found a(n) __________ correlation between SAT scores and IQ as measured by the Raven’s Progressive Matrices and other tests. a) high b) low c) causative d) insignificant ANS: a Topic=Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: ETS kept the data private for many years until finally releasing it for independent analysis. LO 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores.

EOC Q9.16 Intellectual disability is defined by three criteria: Onset before adulthood, IQ below approximately 70, and __________. a) inadequate adaptive functioning b) self-diagnosis c) history of institutionalization d) poor performance in standard school subjects ANS: a Topic=The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: “Intellectual disability” replaces the earlier term “mental retardation.” LO 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius.

EOC Q9.17 Sir Francis Galton conducted extensive research to determine whether __________ correlated to higher intelligence. a) having better sensory capacities such as exceptional vision or hearing b) being able to grasp analogies c) the ability to think abstractly d) memorizing large amounts of information on a variety of topics ANS: a Topic=What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Galton proposed a radical hypothesis regarding the origins of intelligence. LO 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence.

EOC Q9.18 Psychologists have found that __________ is easier to identify than define. a) creativity b) high IQ c) emotional intelligence d) wisdom ANS: a Topic=The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Most psychologists agree that these kinds of accomplishments consist of two features: They are novel and successful. LO 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence.

EOC Q9.19 According to Howard Gardner’s model of __________, someone with interpersonal intelligence would be better able to understand other people and interact with them effectively. a) multiple intelligences b) general intelligences c) human intelligences d) special intelligences ANS: a Topic=What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion, Division=Humanities and Social Sciences Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Each frame of mind is a different and fully independent intelligence in its own right, according to Gardner. LO 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence.

EOC Q9.20 An important indicator of an IQ test’s __________ is its ability to forecast or predict future outcomes. a) validity b) reliability c) functionality d) purpose ANS: a Topic=Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores., Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: IQ scores do a good job of predicting academic success; they correlate about .5 with grades in high school and college. LO 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores.

EOC Q9.21 Investigations of other dimensions of intellect reveal that measures of intelligence are only moderately correlated with measures of __________. a) wisdom b) academic performance c) productivity d) verbal skills ANS: a Topic=The Rest of the Story: Other Dimensions of Intellect, Division=Humanities and Social Sciences Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: There are several aspects of "intelligence" that do not fit standard conceptions of that term. LO 9.5a Describe how creativity and emotional intelligence relate to intelligence.

EOC Q9.22 Intelligence tests that rely on abstract-reasoning items rather than language-based questions are considered to be __________. a) culture-fair b) bias-blind c) progressive d) ineffective ANS: a Topic=Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Perhaps the best-known of these types of tests is Raven's Progressive Matrices. LO 9.2c Describe tests of intelligence used today and evaluate the reliability and validity of IQ scores.

EOC Q9.23 To answer specific questions by using accumulated knowledge of the world acquired over time, we rely on our __________. a) crystallized intelligence b) fluid intelligence c) emotional intelligence d) naturalistic intelligence ANS: a Topic=What Is Intelligence? Definitional Confusion Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: We rely on this to answer questions such as "What’s the capital of Italy?" or "How many justices sit on the U.S. Supreme Court?" LO 9.1a Identify different models and types of intelligence.

EOC Q9.24 The tendency to judge the validity of an idea by our emotional reaction to it, such as the way many people feel when discussing IQ differences between people of different sexes or races, is called “emotional reasoning” or the __________. a) affect heuristic b) availability heuristic c) relativity heuristic d) discrimination heuristic ANS: a Topic=Group Differences in IQ: The Science and the Politics Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 9.4a Identify similarities and differences in mental ability between men and women. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Just because some of the ideas regarding intelligence may make us feel uneasy or even angry does not mean we should dismiss them out of hand. LO 9.4a Identify similarities and differences in mental ability between men and women.

EOC Q9.25 Lewis Terman studied a group of intellectually gifted children over many decades. What was one of the major conclusions from that study (that also debunked a popular myth)? a) No substantial link existed between genius and madness. b) Smarter people do not enjoy higher levels of attainment than do less-smart people. c) Child prodigies tended to burn out in adulthood. d) Brain damage was present in a significant percentage of his test subjects. ANS: a Topic=Intelligence Testing: The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Laypeople believe a lot of wacky things about the nature and origins of intelligence. LO 9.2d Distinguish the unique characteristics of intellectual disability and genius.

Chapter 10: Human Development Total Assessment Guide Topic Quick Quiz 1

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice

2, 4

1, 3, 8

5–7, 9–10

Quick Quiz 2

Multiple Choice

2-5

1, 6–8, 10

Learning Objective 10.1a Clarify how nature and nurture can contribute to development. Learning Objective 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Learning Objective 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development and identify barriers to normal development. Learning Objective 10.2b Describe how infants learn to coordinate motion and achieve major motor milestones. Learning Objective 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence. Learning Objective 10.2d Explain which aspects of physical ability decline during aging. Learning Objective 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops.

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

1, 3, 5–6

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

7, 10, 14 1

8–9, 12, 15

11, 13, 16–18

Multiple Choice

19–20, 22–24, 27– 29 2–4

25–26

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

30, 32–33

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

35–41, 43–45 5–7

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

47–48, 50–51 8

Multiple Choice

52, 57, 59, 61–62, 66, 74–75, 80–81, 83 9–12, 14

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

46, 49

60, 68–73, 76, 78

13 2

53–56, 58, 63–65, 67, 77, 79, 82

Topic Learning Objective 10.3b Explain how children acquire knowledge in important cognitive domains. Learning Objective 10.3c Describe how attitudes toward knowledge change during adolescence. Learning Objective 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Learning Objective 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Learning Objective 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Learning Objective 10.4d Identify developmental changes during major life transitions in adults. Learning Objective 10.4e Summarize different ways of conceptualizing old age.

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

85, 87–88

84, 89

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

91–93 15

90, 94

Multiple Choice

96-97, 99, 101, 105–106, 108–112, 117 17

98, 100, 107, 116, 118–119

120, 124, 126, 128, 130–131 18–19

125, 127

121–123, 129

Multiple Choice

133, 137, 140

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

21–23 3

132, 135, 138– 139, 146, 148–149 20, 24

134, 136, 141–145, 147 25 4

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

150–151

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

95, 102–104, 113–115, 16

153

156

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

152, 154–155

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 10 Quick Quiz 1 1. Cross-sectional research studies gather data from many people who are of the same age, and compare them to others who are at a different age, and thus a different level of development. The name for a group of people who are the same age and thus were raised during the same time period is a(n) __________. A) cohort B) experimental subject group C) control group D) schema 2. The correct order of the stages of prenatal development is __________. A) fetal stage, embryonic stage, zygotic stage B) germinal stage, embryonic stage, fetal stage C) zygotic stage, fetal stage, germinal stage D) zygotic stage, embryonic stage, germinal stage, fetal stage 3. Which of the following is true with regard to the order of development of motor skills? A) Babies develop motor skills based on what they see, so it is largely a function of imitation. B) Babies develop motor skills in very unique sequences, so there is no “order” of skills that is considered typical. C) Motor skills tend to develop in the same sequence from child to child, although the ages of each milestone vary. D) Motor development in babies has two predictable paths—one for sighted children and one for blind children. 4. Which hormone increases in production during puberty and is generally believed to be responsible for physical growth and the development of pubic hair in both males and females? A) gall bladder bile B) estrogen in girls and testosterone in boys C) androgens D) serotonin 5. Gail has just turned 53 and is beginning menopause. Gail is likely to begin experiencing __________. A) a significant loss of appetite B) a significant loss of physical energy C) depression D) hot flashes 6. Karla understands her world by grasping, sucking, and physically handling objects in her path. Karla is in Piaget’s __________ stage of development. A) preoperational B) sensorimotor C) concrete operational D) formal operational

7. Lyette has recently given birth to her first child. She decides to start playing classical music near the baby’s crib at night so that the child will develop greater intelligence. Which of the following may be an explanation for why such strategies appear to have some impact on the developing child? A) These strategies are like “vegetables for the brain,” and impact virtually every area of brain growth and development. This is why it is a good idea to play classical music for a child even before (s)he is born. B) These strategies impact the use of echoic memory, which is distinctly tied to the ability to boost intellectual growth. C) These strategies boost the activity of the temporal lobes, which are responsible for both hearing and intellectual development. Therefore, long-term intelligence improvement is likely to occur. D) These strategies boost short-term arousal, which may help performance on mentally demanding tasks for a brief period of time; however, there is no evidence that they will impact long-term intelligence. 8. Researcher Konrad Lorenz explored the concept of __________ by establishing himself as the first moving thing a clutch of newly hatched goslings saw. The result, as he predicted, was that the young animals followed him around religiously, clearly demonstrating their belief that he was their mother. A) imprinting B) sensory primacy C) neonatality D) the higher species-lower species schism 9. 16-year-old Brenda’s parents are political conservatives, while she identifies more with liberal political views. When asked her political orientation, Brenda seems uncertain and does not respond. Brenda is dealing with the __________ crisis. A) industry versus inferiority B) autonomy versus shame and doubt C) ego integrity versus despair D) identity versus role confusion 10. “Man, I cannot believe how smart David is! He is so much more intelligent than other kids his age, and he also seems to have a good head on his shoulders when it comes to making decisions. He is polite, doesn’t get into trouble, and seems to naturally make good decisions. It is hard to believe he is only 13 years old!” David’s __________ age appears to be well ahead of his __________ age. A) chronological; mental B) mental; social C) social; chronological D) chronological; social

Chapter 10 Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1. A

Explanation: A cohort refers to a person’s same-aged peer group. (Special Considerations in Human Development, Conceptual, APA LO 2.4, TEXT LO 10.1b)

2. B

Explanation: This is the correct order, and remember, there is no such thing as a “zygotic” stage. (The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 10.2a)

3. C

Explanation: The progression of motor skills may occur in a predictable order, but the timing of that sequence varies from child to child. (The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 10.2b)

4. C

Explanation: Androgens appear to be primarily responsible for growth in boys and girls. (The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 10.2c)

5. D

Explanation: Hot flashes are a known symptom that many women experience during menopause. (The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 10.2d)

6. B

Explanation: Karla understands her world in terms of what her body tells her. This demonstrates the sensorimotor stage of Piaget’s theory. (The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 10.3a)

7. D

Explanation: This hypothesis has been forwarded as one explanation for the “Mozart effect.” (The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 10.3b)

8. A

Explanation: Konrad Lorenz achieved notoriety for his study of imprinting. (The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 10.4a)

9. D

Explanation: Erikson believed that part of adolescence is forming a stable sense of self. Until this happens, we experience identity crisis. (The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 10.4c)

10. C

Explanation: In this particular case David’s social age is well ahead of his chronological age. (The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 10.4e)

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 10 Quick Quiz 2 1. Which of the following statements is illustrative of the post hoc fallacy? A) Believing that because most professional athletes lift weights, weightlifting produces professional athletes B) Believing that because someone is muscular in body type, she is more likely to become a professional athlete C) Believing that because someone is specially trained, he is more likely to become a professional athlete D) Believing that because someone has benefited from the best coaching, she will have a good chance of becoming a professional athlete 2. Which of the following is not a known symptom of fetal alcohol syndrome? A) facial malformations B) respiratory difficulties C) behavioral disorders D) learning disabilities 3. __________ behaviors are defined as bodily motions that are self-initiated and move bones and muscles. A) Motor B) Volitional C) Physical D) Physiological 4. During menarche, teenagers experience __________. A) the start of menstruation B) the first ejaculation C) voice changes D) the end of menstruation 5. Which of the following physical changes is associated with aging in men? A) a loss of ability to hear low-pitched sounds B) a gradual reduction in testosterone levels C) a reduction in interest in his career D) an increase in the speed at which a man gets an erection 6. Young Eli, only a bit over 18 months of age, has been fooled by his parents. In order to get him to willingly take a children’s chewable vitamin every day, his parents have taught him that it is a “candy.” Now, whenever Eli sees any product that is small and brightly colored, he says “Candy! YUMMM!” and tries to put it into his mouth. Eli’s attempt to make new stimuli consistent with his existing mental structures is an example of __________. A) centration B) egocentrism C) accommodation D) assimilation 7. At five years old, Sammy is better able to understand his friends’ feelings as compared to when he was three years old. Sammy is acquiring a __________. A) theory of mind B) self-concept C) sense of identity D) sense of self-reflection 8. “Human beings do not demonstrate __________,” said Professor Spiegelman. “Otherwise, most newborns would think that the physician who was handling the childbirth was its mother or father!” A) plasticity B) reflexes C) instincts D) imprinting Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

9. Responses to moral dilemmas are only moderately correlated with actual behavior. Which of the following may be seen to increase the strength of correlations between hypothetical responses and actual behavior? A) posing dilemmas focused on abstract situations not likely to be faced by respondents B) posing dilemmas focused on life-or-death decisions that will lead to more honest responding C) posing dilemmas focused on lighthearted subjects that will put respondents more at ease D) posing dilemmas focused on realistic situations that are likely to be faced on a regular basis 10. In several of his movies, actor Adam Sandler has achieved fame by playing buffoons whose __________ ages were clearly far behind their __________ ages. A) social; chronological B) adolescent; adult C) mental; social D) chronological; mental

Chapter 10 Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1. A

Explanation: The post hoc fallacy makes the error of believing that if one event precedes another, that the first event causes the other. (Special Considerations in Human Development, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 10.1b)

2. B

Explanation: Respiratory difficulties have not been documented as a known symptom of fetal alcohol syndrome or its related illnesses. (The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 10.2a)

3. A

Explanation: This is the correct definition of motor behaviors. (The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 10.2b)

4. A

Explanation: Menarche means the beginning of menstruation in pubescent females. (The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 10.2c)

5. B

Explanation: The research discussed in your textbook suggests that a reduction in testosterone levels often accompanies aging in men. (The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 10.2d)

6. D

Explanation: Mentally changing information from our surroundings to adjust to our existing cognitive structures is how Piaget defined assimilation. (The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 10.3a)

7. A

Explanation: The ability to understand others’ thoughts and feelings is central to the theory of mind. (The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 10.3b)

8. D

Explanation: Professor Spiegelman’s example effectively demonstrates that there is no such thing as imprinting in human beings. (The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 10.4a)

9. D

Explanation: One criticism of Kohlberg’s work is that the moral dilemmas he gave the participants were not realistic enough to generate true responses that would translate into real life circumstances. (The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 10.4c)

10. A

Explanation: Sandler’s immature behavior demonstrates a social age that is behind the chronological age of his characters. (The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 10.4e)

Chapter 10: Human Development Test Bank Multiple Choice 1. __________ psychology is the study of how behavior changes over the life span. A) Evolutionary B) Cognitive C) Social D) Developmental Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Topic: Special Considerations in Human Development 2. Charmaine is interested in going to graduate school to gain expertise into the way in which people’s behaviors change over the course of their lives. The type of program that Charmaine should be applying to is __________ psychology. A) developmental Correct. This would be the correct field for Charmaine to explore. B) child Incorrect. Child psychology focuses exclusively on the psychological functioning of children. Developmental psychology focuses on the entire life span. C) social D) ecological Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Topic: Special Considerations in Human Development 3. The major issue of __________ explores how development is influenced by both genetics and life experiences. A) continuity–stages B) nature–nurture C) plasticity–formidity D) stability–change Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.1a Clarify how nature and nurture can contribute to development. Topic: Special Considerations in Human Development

4. Which of the following is TRUE concerning the nature–nurture debate? A) Most researchers believe that genes and environment interact to influence human behavior. Correct. This is a correct statement of the overall results of the nature–nurture debate. B) Most researchers are either pro-nature or pro-nurture when describing the causes of human behavior. C) People with genetic predispositions for anxiety will eventually express this type of behavior. Incorrect. The nature–nurture debate usually comes down to a combination of factors from both sides of the argument. D) Gene expression is not substantially influenced by the environment. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.1a Clarify how nature and nurture can contribute to development. Topic: Special Considerations in Human Development % correct 71 a = 71 b = 16 c = 3 d = 10 r = .46 5. Children with certain genetic predispositions often seek out and create their own environments, a phenomenon termed by some developmentalists as __________. A) diathesis-stress B) nature via nurture C) nature versus nurture D) correlation opposing causation Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.1a Clarify how nature and nurture can contribute to development. Topic: Special Considerations in Human Development 6. Gene __________ is a term used to refer to the fact that the environmental experiences that one has throughout his or her development can turn on or off specific genes that are located in every cell in the human body. A) promotion B) promulgation C) expression D) activation Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.1a Clarify how nature and nurture can contribute to development. Topic: Special Considerations in Human Development

7. A(n) __________ refers to a group of people who lived during the same time period. A) cohort B) constituency C) peer group D) age cluster Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Topic: Special Considerations in Human Development % correct 61 a = 61 b = 3 c = 15 d = 21 r = .25 8. Cross-sectional research studies gather data from many people who are of the same age and compare them to others who are at a different age and thus a different level of development. The name for a group of people who are the same age and thus were raised during the same time period is a(n) __________. A) cohort Correct. A cohort is a person’s same-aged peer group. B) experimental subject group C) control group Incorrect. A control group consists of the participants in experimental research who do not receive an independent variable. D) schema Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.4 TEXT LO: 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Topic: Special Considerations in Human Development 9. Which research method is most suitable for studying factors that influence behavioral change over time? A) longitudinal Correct. Longitudinal research tracks the same group of participants as they age. B) cohort C) cross-sectional Incorrect. Cross-sectional research is not particularly effective at tracking behavioral change over time. D) correlational Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.4 TEXT LO: 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Topic: Special Considerations in Human Development % correct 65 a = 65 b = 6 c = 16 d = 13 r = .36

10. __________ studies observe different individuals at different ages at a single point in time to track age differences. A) Sectional B) Cross-sequential C) Sequential D) Cross-sectional Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.4 TEXT LO: 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Topic: Special Considerations in Human Development 11. Xiao is gathering research on the number of meals people eat. He gathers data about the number of daily meals eaten by 25 people at each of the following ages—10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, and 70 years—over the course of one week and looks for developmental differences. What type of research design is Xiao using? A) continuous B) cross-sectional Correct. Cross-sectional research compares participants of different ages at one moment in time. C) sequential D) longitudinal Incorrect. Longitudinal research tracks the same group of participants as they age. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.4 TEXT LO: 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Topic: Special Considerations in Human Development 12. When attempting to understand developmental transitions that people face throughout their life span, which of the following research designs would be most informative? A) cross-sectional designs B) longitudinal designs Correct. Longitudinal research is the best for tracking age-related changes over time. C) correlational research designs D) cohort research designs Incorrect. Longitudinal research and cross-sectional research are both cohort research designs. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.4 TEXT LO: 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Topic: Special Considerations in Human Development

13. Daniel is interested in studying how children’s behavior changes when they grow up in highrisk environments. He enlists 500 children and their parents to take part in his research and observes these children once a year for 20 years. Despite the fact that this research is very timeconsuming and expensive, it gives very good information about how the children age over time. This type of research is an example of a __________ study. A) sequential B) cross-sectional Incorrect. Cross-sectional research does not follow the same participants over time. C) longitudinal Correct. Longitudinal research tracks the same group of participants as they age. D) continuous Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.4 TEXT LO: 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Topic: Special Considerations in Human Development 14. __________ studies collect data from the same individuals over a period of time to track age changes. A) Cross-sectional B) Continual C) Contiguous D) Longitudinal Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.4 TEXT LO: 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Topic: Special Considerations in Human Development 15. If you wanted to study developmental effects, which type of research would be the best to conduct? A) a longitudinal study Correct. Longitudinal research is the best for tracking developmental effects over time. B) a cross-sectional study Incorrect. Cross-sectional research is not effective at tracking age-related changes over time. C) a quasi-experimental study D) a naturalistic observation Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.4 TEXT LO: 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Topic: Special Considerations in Human Development % correct 88 a = 88 b = 9 c = 0 d = 0 r = .66

16. Which of the following statements is illustrative of the post hoc fallacy? A) believing that because most professional athletes lift weights, weightlifting produces professional athletes Correct. The post hoc fallacy makes the error of believing that if one event precedes another, that the first event causes the other. B) believing that because someone is muscular in body type, she is more likely to become a professional athlete C) believing that because someone is specially trained, he is more likely to become a professional athlete D) believing that because someone has benefited from the best coaching, she will have a good chance of becoming a professional athlete Incorrect. This is not the best answer to this question. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Topic: Special Considerations in Human Development 17. Gina went out one evening and got herself a shiny new tattoo of a bouquet of flowers on her lower back. The next day, Gina’s girlfriend, Shanae, ended their relationship. Mutual friends of theirs assumed that Shanae ended the relationship because of the new tattoo. These friends have not read your textbook carefully because they have just fallen prey to the __________ fallacy. A) ad libitum B) post hoc Correct. The post hoc fallacy makes the error of believing that if one event precedes another, then the first event caused the second event. C) mens rea Incorrect. This is a term from the legal industry, not developmental psychology. D) modus operandi Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Topic: Special Considerations in Human Development

18. Aylla is very athletic and thus she tends to participate in a lot of sports. Her regular practice of swimming, basketball, and hockey increases her athletic skills, which makes her want to spend more time participating in these activities. This example demonstrates the __________ nature of development. A) bidirectional Correct. As your text points out, human development is often a two-way (or bidirectional) street, wherein factors affect each other simultaneously. B) correlational Incorrect. The relationship described in this example may be correlational, but this is not the best answer to this question. C) confounding D) diathetical Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Topic: Special Considerations in Human Development 19. Of the following, the __________ stage is not one of the identified stages of prenatal development. A) amniotic B) germinal C) embryonic D) fetal Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development, and identify barriers to normal development. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 20. The correct order of the stages of prenatal development is __________. A) fetal stage, embryonic stage, zygotic stage B) germinal stage, embryonic stage, fetal stage C) zygotic stage, fetal stage, germinal stage D) zygotic stage, embryonic stage, germinal stage, fetal stage Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development, and identify barriers to normal development. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development

21. Your best friend comes to you, visibly excited. “I just couldn’t wait to tell you the big news. I’m pregnant,” she screams. She is clearly overjoyed by the news, and goes on to tell you, “It is SO amazing. The doctor says I’m about 6 weeks pregnant, and I already feel SO different!” Wanting to show off your new knowledge of developmental psychology and the prenatal stages, you smugly reply, “It is just so great that your child is in the __________ of development because its organs are just starting to develop!” A) embryonic Correct. The embryonic stage of prenatal development lasts from approximately the second through the eighth week of pregnancy. B) fetal C) zygotic D) germinal Incorrect. The germinal stage of prenatal development lasts for the first two weeks of pregnancy. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development, and identify barriers to normal development. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 22. Early in a pregnancy, a ball of identical cells that have not yet begun to take any specific function or body part develops. This ball is called a(n) __________. A) endometrium Incorrect. This refers to the internal lining of a woman's uterus. B) blastocyst Correct. The blastocyst keeps growing as the cells continue to divide for the first week and a half or so after fertilization. C) amnion D) zygote Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development, and identify barriers to normal development. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 23. The heart, lungs, and brain begin to form during the __________ period of prenatal development. A) fetal B) zygotic C) embryonic D) blastocyst Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development, and identify barriers to normal development. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development

24. The prenatal period during which tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become functional is called the __________ period. A) germinal B) embryonic C) fetal D) gestational Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development, and identify barriers to normal development. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development % correct 56 a = 4 b = 12 c = 56 d = 27 r = .30 25. Low birth weight is directly linked to many complications in babies, including a high risk of death, infection, developmental delays, and even psychological disorders. It is not known, however, if these symptoms are a direct effect of low birth weight or if the low birth weight is a result of other pregnancy-related complications. This is an important demonstration of the critical thinking concept of __________. A) correlation vs. causation Correct. It is difficult to know if these symptoms are caused by low birth weight, if they cause low birth weight, or if both are caused by something else. B) falsifiability C) replicability D) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. In fact, the true relationship may be much more complex than a simple one-to-one causal relationship. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development, and identify barriers to normal development. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 26. The fetal brain begins as a long structure that develops into a variety of different structures. What does the early shape of the fetal brain most resemble? A) a disc B) a ball Incorrect. The zygote initially starts as a cell that rapidly develops into a ball of cells, but this is not how the fetal brain begins. C) a pyramid D) a tube Correct. Sometimes called the neural tube, this is the beginning of the fetal brain. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development, and identify barriers to normal development. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development

27. The age of viability, a term that refers to the time at which an infant could survive outside of the womb, occurs at around __________ months into a pregnancy. A) 19 Incorrect. This early in the pregnancy, a child is simply not developed enough to sustain life. B) 22 C) 25 Correct. Before this, the chance of survival outside of the mother's body is very low. D) 28 Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development, and identify barriers to normal development. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 28. Any environmental factor that can cause a birth defect is known as a(n) __________. A) babinski B) pollutant C) teratogen D) mutation Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development, and identify barriers to normal development. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development % correct 74 a = 0 b = 15 c = 74 d = 11 r = .65 29. Which of the following is not a known symptom of fetal alcohol syndrome? A) facial malformations B) respiratory difficulties C) behavioral disorders D) learning disabilities Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development, and identify barriers to normal development. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development

30. The rooting reflex refers to a newborn’s tendency to __________. A) stand up and attempt to walk when placed on its knees B) open its mouth to seek food when touched on the cheek C) cry when approached by unfamiliar people D) close its eyes when startled by loud noises Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2b Describe how infants learn to coordinate motion and achieve major motor milestones. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 31. Elizabeth is nursing her newborn daughter, and holds the baby up to her breast. As the breast strokes the child’s cheek, the child turns her head toward the breast, finds her mother’s nipple, and begins to feed. This turning of the head toward in the direction of the stroked cheek is a demonstration of the __________ reflex. A) rooting Correct. When a child’s cheek is stroked and he turns his head in that direction, this demonstrates the routing reflex. B) suckling Incorrect. A child’s willingness to suckle on anything that is placed at his lips demonstrates the suckling reflex. C) Moro D) grasping Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.2b Describe how infants learn to coordinate motion and achieve major motor milestones. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 32. An automatic behavior that is triggered by a specific stimulus is called a(n) __________.This type of behavior happens instinctively and does not have to be learned. A) response Incorrect. A reflex is a response, but this is too general to be the best answer. B) operant C) impulse D) reflex Correct. Two examples include the sucking reflex and the rooting reflex. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2b Describe how infants learn to coordinate motion and achieve major motor milestones. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development

33. __________ behaviors are defined as bodily motions that are self-initiated and move bones and muscles. A) Motor B) Volitional C) Physical D) Physiological Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2b Describe how infants learn to coordinate motion and achieve major motor milestones. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 34. Which of the following is TRUE with regard to the order of development of motor skills? A) Babies develop motor skills based on what they see, so it is largely a function of imitation. B) Babies develop motor skills in very unique sequences, so there is no “order” of skills that is considered typical. Incorrect. The sequence, or order, of motor skills that develops tends to be very uniform across different children. C) Motor skills tend to develop in the same sequence from child to child, although the ages of each milestone vary. Correct. The progression of motor skills may occur in a predictable order, but the timing of that sequence varies from child to child. D) Motor development in babies has two predictable paths—one for sighted children and one for blind children. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.2b Describe how infants learn to coordinate motion and achieve major motor milestones. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 35. The research of Michael Hermanussen and colleagues found that physical development is marked by “mini growth spurts” that occur every 30 to 55 days in people as young as __________ years of age. A) 3 B) 5 C) 8 D) 10 Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development

36. The research of Michael Hermanussen and colleagues found that physical development is marked by “mini growth spurts” that occur every 30 to 55 days in people as old as __________ years of age. A) 16 B) 25 C) 40 D) 65 Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 37. The period of transition from childhood to adulthood commonly associated with the teenage years is called __________. A) puberty B) adolescence C) preadulthood D) the teens Answer B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 38. Which hormone increases in production during puberty and is generally believed to be responsible for physical growth and the development of pubic hair in both males and females? A) gall bladder bile B) estrogen in girls and testosterone in boys C) androgens D) serotonin Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 39. Which of the following is an example of a primary sex characteristic? A) changes in vocal tone B) growth of the breasts C) growth of the genitals D) growth of facial hair Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development

40. The body’s reproductive organs are an example of __________. A) adrenal glands B) thyroid glands C) primary sex characteristics D) secondary sex characteristics Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development % correct 97 a = 0 b = 0 c = 97 d = 3 r = .38 % correct 89 a = 4 b = 0 c = 89 d = 7 r = .36 41. Which is an example of a secondary sex characteristic? A) genitals B) ovaries C) pubic hair D) sperm Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development % correct 87 a = 10 b = 3 c = 87 d = 0 r = .35 42. __________ is to girls as __________ is to boys. A) Menarche; spermarche Correct. Menarche refers to the beginning of menstrual cycles, while spermarche refers to the first ejaculation. B) Spermarche; menarche Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. C) Puberty; adolescence D) Adolescence; puberty Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 43. During menarche, teenagers experience __________. A) the start of menstruation B) the first ejaculation C) voice changes D) the end of menstruation Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

44. Puberty is associated with the onset of __________. A) menopause B) menstruation C) dementia D) generativity Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 45. According to your textbook, boys from which racial group have the earliest average age for the onset of puberty? A) African American Correct. The average age of puberty in African American boys is 9 years. B) White C) Asian American D) Hispanic Incorrect. The average age of puberty in Hispanic boys is 10 years. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 46. Kevin is a 45-year-old college professor. Compared to when he was 20, Kevin is now likely to __________. A) struggle hearing students’ questions during lecture Correct. A decline in hearing is a normal physical event as we age. B) struggle analyzing students’ questions during lecture Incorrect. There is no reason to believe that Kevin must lose his analytical abilities, particularly in his area of expertise, as he ages. C) struggle formulating his thoughts when responding to students’ questions D) struggle verbalizing his thoughts when responding to students’ questions Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.2d Explain which aspects of physical ability decline during aging. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development

47. Fertility reaches its peak in women between __________ and __________ years of age. A) 15; 20 B) 20; 25 C) 25; 30 D) 30; 35 Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2d Explain which aspects of physical ability decline during aging. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 48. Menopause is __________. A) the loss of sexual interest occurring in late adulthood B) the onset of puberty in early adulthood C) the end of the menstruation period in middle adulthood D) the loss of sexual potency in late adulthood Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2d Explain which aspects of physical ability decline during aging. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 49. Gail has just turned 53 and is beginning menopause. Gail is likely to begin experiencing __________. A) a significant loss of appetite B) a significant loss of physical energy C) depression Incorrect. Despite common belief, most women view menopause as a happy event and do not experience the symptoms of depression as a result of menopause. D) hot flashes Correct. Hot flashes are a known symptom that many women experience during menopause. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.2d Explain which aspects of physical ability decline during aging. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 50. The discontinuation of menstrual cycles and the end of a woman’s ability to bear children is known as __________. A) andropause B) menopause C) infertility D) reproductive halting Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2d Explain which aspects of physical ability decline during aging. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development

51. Which of the following physical changes is associated with aging in men? A) a loss of ability to hear low-pitched sounds B) a gradual reduction in a man’s testosterone levels C) a reduction in a man’s interest in his career D) an increase in the speed at which a man gets an erection Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2d Explain which aspects of physical ability decline during aging. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 52. Jean Piaget is best known for his pioneering work in the area of __________ development. A) social B) cognitive C) psychosocial D) identity Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 53. Sarah has developed a sucking scheme as a way of understanding objects around her. Sarah’s behavior of sucking on a harmonica to make music is an example of __________. A) accommodation Incorrect. There is no evidence that Sarah is adapting her existing cognitive structures around new information in this question. B) assimilation Correct. Sarah is taking a new bit of information and “morphing” it into her existing cognitive structures. This demonstrates assimilation. C) equilibration D) conservation Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development % correct 58 a = 42 b = 58 c = 0 d = 0 r = .29

54. “Raindrops keep falling on my head. And just like the guy whose feet are too big for his bed, nothing seems to fit!” These lyrics to a popular song describe a very uncomfortable sleeping arrangement! There are several ways this problem can be solved. If the singer chooses to cut off his feet so that he fits in the existing bed, this would be similar to the Piagetian concept of __________. A) accommodation Incorrect. Adjusting the way we think to meet the demands of our environment is how Piaget defined as accommodation. B) assimilation Correct. Mentally changing information from our surroundings to adjust to our existing cognitive structures is how Piaget defined assimilation. C) adaptation D) schema transformation Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 55. Young Eli, only a bit over 18 months of age, has been fooled by his parents. In order to get him to willingly take a children’s chewable vitamin every day, his parents have taught him that it is a “candy.” Now, whenever Eli sees any product that is small and brightly colored, he says “Candy! YUMMM!” and tries to put it into his mouth. Eli’s attempt to make new stimuli consistent with his existing mental structures is an example of __________. A) centration B) egocentrism C) accommodation Incorrect. Adjusting the way we think to meet the demands of our environment is how Piaget defined accommodation. D) assimilation Correct. Mentally changing information from our surroundings to adjust to our existing cognitive structures is how Piaget defined assimilation. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development

56. Marko believed that all red go-carts were fast until he drove a very slow one at the fair. Marko’s revised views on red go-carts illustrates __________. A) accommodation Correct. Marko adjusted his cognitive structures around new information. This demonstrates accommodation. B) assimilation Incorrect. Marko’s flexibility with his own cognitive structures demonstrates accommodation, not assimilation. C) conservation D) equilibration Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development % correct 55 a = 55 b = 29 c = 13 d = 3 r = .41 57. According to Piaget, equilibration involves the processes of __________. A) assimilation and accommodation B) egocentrism and constructivism C) maturation and conservation D) conservation and scaffolding Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 58. Karla understands her world by grasping, sucking, and physically handling objects in her path. Karla is in Piaget’s __________ stage of development. A) sensorimotor Correct. Karla understands her world in terms of what her body tells her. This demonstrates the sensorimotor stage of Piaget’s theory. B) preoperational Incorrect. Karla is not yet demonstrating the internal mental events associated with graduating to the preoperational stage of Piaget’s theory. C) concrete operational D) formal operational Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development % correct 82 a = 82 b = 9 c = 9 d = 0 r = .61

59. Which of the following indicates the correct order of stages in Piaget’s theory of cognitive development? A) formal operations, concrete operations, preoperational, sensorimotor B) preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations, sensorimotor C) preoperational, sensorimotor, formal operations, concrete operations D) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development % correct 91 a = 0 b = 6 c = 3 d = 91 r = .43 60. According to Piaget, egocentrism and a lack of conservation ability are both qualities that are seen in the __________ stage of development. A) sensorimotor B) preoperational Correct. These are both skills that are deficient in the preoperational stage of Piaget’s theory. C) concrete operations Incorrect. Piaget believed that by the time a child gets to the concrete operations stage, he or she would have overcome egocentrism and conservation limitations. D) formal operations Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development % correct 76 a = 9 b = 76 c = 15 d = 0 r = .66 61. According to Piaget, egocentrism involves the perception that __________ A) others view the world as you do B) others view the world differently than you do C) you might be incorrect in your judgments D) you are better than others Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development % correct 61 a = 61 b = 26 c = 3 d = 3 r = .31

62. What is meant by the term egocentric? A) A child is unable to see the world from others’ point of view. B) A child is extremely arrogant and feels that he or she is better than others. C) A child is very selfish and refuses to share his or her possessions with others. D) A child lacks the motivation do things for him- or herself and expects them to be done by others. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 63. Alice is sitting at the table with her son Nikko. She takes his tall glass of milk, which is only half full, and pours it into a shorter wider glass. Then she says “Honey, which glass has more milk?” Nikko immediately points to the taller glass, as he is chewing his peanut butter sandwich. Nikko has not yet mastered Piaget’s skill of __________. A) centration B) egocentrism Incorrect. This particular example does not demonstrate anything related to Piaget’s concept of egocentrism. C) object permanence D) conservation Correct. Nikko does not yet understand that changing the appearance of an object does not change its quantity. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development % correct 91 a = 0 b = 0 c = 9 d = 91 r = .37 64. Miss Johnson gave Mark and Tia equal-sized lumps of clay. Tia immediately rolled hers into a long shape. Mark cried and complained that Tia had received more clay. Mark’s behavior represents __________. A) an inability to accommodate Incorrect. This particular example is not related to Piaget’s theory of accommodation. B) an inability to engage in conservation Correct. Mark does not understand that the amount of clay has not changed just because its appearance has. This demonstrates an absence of conservation. C) difficulty with formal operational tasks D) an inability to assimilate Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development

65. Ken is able to perform mathematical operations only if he can use real objects and familiar examples in working up his answers. Ken is in Piaget’s __________ stage. A) sensorimotor B) preoperational C) concrete operations Correct. Ken is using mental schemes to complete his answers, but he lacks the ability to consider hypotheticals and abstracts. This places him in the concrete operational stage of Piaget’s theory. D) formal operations Incorrect. Piaget believed that formal operational thinking is marked by the ability to use abstracts and hypotheticals. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 66. During which of Piaget’s stages does a child demonstrate the ability to reason about abstract ideas and hypothetical situations? A) sensorimotor B) preoperational C) concrete operations D) formal operations Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 67. Asking students to predict how the course of history may have changed if the first president were a woman would likely motivate students in which of Piaget’s stages to answer thoroughly? A) sensorimotor B) preoperational C) concrete operations Incorrect. The ability to consider something that has not yet existed requires formal operational thinking. D) formal operations Correct. Because there has never been a woman president of the United States, the consideration of such an individual would require abstract thinking. This would denote the formal operational stage of Piaget’s theory. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development

68. In which stage of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development do people begin to think logically about abstract concepts? A) the sensorimotor stage B) the formal operations stage Correct. The consideration of abstract concepts requires formal operational thinking, according to Piaget. C) the concrete operations stage Incorrect. The inability to consider abstracts is the major limitation of the concrete operational stage, according to Piaget. D) the preoperational stage Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 69. Piaget overestimated the degree to which __________. A) object permanence takes time to develop in children Correct. Research conducted since Piaget’s time has demonstrated that skills such as object permanence may typically develop earlier than Piaget thought. B) social factors influence skill development Incorrect. The large influence of social factors in cognitive development is part of Vygotsky’s theory, not Piaget’s. C) cultural factors influence the rate of skill development D) prenatal factors influence the rate at which skills emerge Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 70. Piaget’s theory is often criticized because it appears to be biased in favor of children from __________ societies. A) Asian Incorrect. Children from Asian backgrounds have not been found to be favored by Piaget’s theory. B) Westernized Correct. One major criticism of Piaget’s theory is that it seems to allow Westernized children to do better on tests of cognitive development. C) primitive D) European Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development

71. Which of the following is one of the major contributions that Piaget’s theory of development, despite some serious limitations, has made to the field of developmental psychology? A) characterizing learning as a passive rather than active process Incorrect. In fact, Piaget suggested that learning is an active process. B) viewing children simply as small adults, and addressing their developmental processes as such C) considering that the changes in multiple domains of development involve fewer rather than more numerous underlying processes Correct. Proponents of Piaget’s theory have cited it as a more parsimonious way of looking at cognitive development in children. D) recognizing that culture plays no role in development and viewing all children as being essentially identical in their developmental paths Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 72. Piaget's theory of cognitive development conceptualized children's thinking as containing fewer rather than more processes, thus providing a more simplified view of this development. This is related to the critical thinking principle of __________. A) Occam’s Razor Correct. Occam's Razor suggests that the simplest explanation for a phenomenon tends to be the most accurate one. B) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. In this case, it is not alternate hypotheses that are the issue; rather, it is the fact that the major theorist has created a situation in which any circumstance—in this case, any child’s schedule of development—can be explained by his theory. This makes falsifiability a problem. C) replicability D) falsifiability Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development

73. Piaget suggested that, in some cases, two children of the same age may be at different skill levels in a specific domain of cognitive ability. This claim makes it very difficult, if not impossible, to provide an argument against the developmental schedule forwarded by Piaget’s theory. This is a major issue related to the principle of __________. A) Occam’s Razor B) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. In this case, it is not alternate hypotheses that are the issue; rather, it is the fact that the major theorist has created a situation where any circumstance—in this case any child’s schedule of development—can be explained by his theory. This makes the problem of falsifiability a problem. C) replicability D) falsifiability Correct. If a theory has a “failsafe” built into it so that the theory is impervious to counterevidence, it has a problem with falsifiability. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development % correct 79 a = 1 b = 12 c = 8 d = 79 r = .42 74. Which theorist led the case for the influence of social and cultural influences on cognitive development? A) Urie Bronfrenbrenner B) Jean Piaget C) Sigmund Freud D) Lev Vygotsky Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 75. According to Vygotsky, cognitive development results, at least in part, from __________. A) biological maturation B) scaffolding C) genetics D) innate intelligence Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development

76. Which of the following statements is representative of Vygotsky’s approach to learning? A) One’s course of cognitive development is genetically fixed and cannot be significantly influenced by social factors. Incorrect. Vygotsky believed that cognitive development is largely social in nature. B) One’s course of cognitive development can be significantly influenced by instructional style and scaffolding. Correct. These are the major tenets of Vygotsky’s approach to learning. C) All children pass through the same cognitive developmental stages at similar points in time. D) To prevent frustration, children should be presented with tasks that they can fully complete unaided. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development % correct 81 a = 0 b = 81 c = 19 d = 0 r = .26 77. As compared to Piaget’s theory, Vygotsky’s theory of cognitive development best explains how a child learns to __________ for the first time. A) cross a street safely Correct. This would be a skill that we learned by watching others. Vygotsky believed that social interactions form the basis of our cognitive development. B) speak C) crawl Incorrect. This would not be the best answer to this question. D) stand upright Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 78. Which of the following statements is the best summary of the cognitive development theory of Lev Vygotsky? A) Children are little scientists who learn by exploring. Incorrect. Vygotsky was in favor of exploration, but not without guidance and support from parents. B) Children are in need of strict boundaries from their parents so they can learn what to and what not to do. C) Cognitive development occurs when children are left to their own devices, with as little influence as possible from outside factors. D) Cognitive development occurs on a social level before it occurs at the individual level. Correct. This statement is the basis of Vygotsky’s concept of scaffolding. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development

79. Robin is working as a student teacher while she finishes her degree in education. Each day she has a portion of the class time where she is in charge, and the teacher who serves as her mentor observes her, takes notes, and offers her constructive feedback on how to improve her work. This “mentor/apprentice” model of learning is most similar to __________’s theory of cognitive development. A) Erik Erikson B) Lev Vygotsky Correct. Vygotsky believed in scaffolding, which is the process of providing only as much support as is needed. That is the basis of a mentor/apprentice model of learning. C) Jean Piaget Incorrect. This social interaction is not a major tenet of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development. D) Carl Jung Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 80. The zone of __________ development, from the theory of Lev Vygotsky, refers to the difference between what a child can do alone and what a child can do together with a more competent person. A) proximal B) assistive C) supplemented D) distal Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development % correct 29 a = 29 b = 48 c = 19 d = 3 r = .27 % correct 33 a = 33 b = 46 c = 21 d = 0 r = .26 81. The cognitive skill of knowing that an object continues to exist when it is no longer perceived (seen, heard, etc.) is called object __________. A) solidity B) stability C) continuity D) permanence Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development

82. When her older brother hides behind the sofa, Carmen looks behind the sofa to find him. Carmen has developed __________. A) object permanence Correct. Carmen understands that even though she can’t see her brother, he still exists. B) equilibration C) conservation Incorrect. Conservation is a limitation of the preoperational stage that focuses on the maintenance of amounts or quantities. The best answer to this question is object permanence. D) assimilation Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development % correct 77 a = 77 b = 0 c = 7 d = 16 r = .19 83. Piaget suggested that children do not develop object permanence until between 8 and 12 months of age. The research of Renee Baillargeon has found that this skill may develop much earlier. What was the difference that allowed Baillargeon to find such an earlier development of object permanence? A) Baillargeon substituted monkey infants for human infants, and generalized her findings from the earlier development of object permanence in the monkey infants. Incorrect. The use of monkeys had nothing to do with Baillargeon’s research. B) Baillargeon removed a parent from the room so that the child could stop using the parent as a “reference tool” for finding the object on their own. C) Baillargeon added the element of “emotional connection” by using objects for which the children she studied had a particular affinity. D) Baillargeon eliminated the need for a child to have the motor skills necessary to display object permanence and focused instead on the patterns of their gazes. Correct. By eliminating this need, the age at which object permanence developed dropped by as many as five months. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development

84. Lyette has recently given birth to her first child. She decides to start playing classical music near the baby’s crib at night so that the child will develop greater intelligence. Which of the following may be an explanation for why such strategies appear to have some impact on the developing child? A) These strategies are like “vegetables for the brain,” and impact virtually every area of brain growth and development. This is why it is a good idea to play classical music for a child even before (s)he is born. B) These strategies impact the use of echoic memory, which is distinctly tied to the ability to boost intellectual growth. Incorrect. This explanation has not been offered in response to the “Mozart effect.” C) These strategies boost the activity of the temporal lobes, which are responsible for both hearing and intellectual development. Therefore, long-term intelligence improvement is likely to occur. D) These strategies boost short-term arousal, which may help performance on mentally demanding tasks for a brief period of time; however, there is no evidence that they will impact long-term intelligence. Correct. This hypothesis has been forwarded as one explanation for the “Mozart effect.” Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3b Explain how children acquire knowledge in important cognitive domains. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 85. Research exploring the so-called “Mozart Effect” has resulted in which of the following outcomes? A) There was no evidence that listening to classical music has any lasting impact on intelligence. B) Children forced to listen to this music actually suffered a decrease in intellectual ability due to deficits in alertness. C) Significant improvements in intellectual ability were found in longitudinal studies. D) There was such a variety of findings that no one conclusion was supported by a majority of the research. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3b Explain how children acquire knowledge in important cognitive domains. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development

86. Investigators exploring the so-called “Mozart Effect” have suggested that one very simple explanation for the phenomenon is that listening to classical music, like any other stimulating activity, enhances arousal in children. This “simpler” explanation demonstrates the principle of __________. A) replicability B) falsifiability Incorrect. Coming up with an alternate, and in this case, simpler explanation for a phenomenon is not necessarily the same as falsifying other hypotheses. C) extraordinary claims D) Occam’s Razor Correct. Occam’s Razor states that when all things are equal, the simplest explanation tends to be the correct explanation. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 10.3b Explain how children acquire knowledge in important cognitive domains. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 87. A child’s ability to understand that others’ perspectives can differ from theirs is called the theory of __________. A) schema B) disintegration C) mind D) egocentrism Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3b Explain how children acquire knowledge in important cognitive domains. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 88. To explore the idea that babies can distinguish themselves from others, researchers allowed infants to watch a live-action video of part of their own bodies side-by-side with the same body part in another infant. They found that babies preferred to watch the other infant’s body instead of their own. Which body part did the babies watch in this research? A) their faces B) their legs C) their arms D) their backsides Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3b Explain how children acquire knowledge in important cognitive domains. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development

89. At five years old, Sammy is better able to understand his friends’ feelings as compared to when he was three years old. Sammy is acquiring a __________. A) theory of mind Correct. The ability to understand others’ thoughts and feelings is central to the theory of mind. B) self-concept C) sense of identity Incorrect. Identity plays a part in the theory of mind, but it is not the best answer to this question. D) sense of self-reflection Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3b Explain how children acquire knowledge in important cognitive domains. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development % correct 76 a = 76 b = 6 c = 3 d = 15 r = .26 90. Which of the following phenomena casts doubt on the suggestion that undeveloped parts of the brain are solely responsible for the teenage proclivity to act in unreasonable and irrational manners? A) fMRI readings of impulsive teenagers have been found to be identical to fMRI results in nonimpulsive teenagers. Incorrect. Findings such as this are not discussed in your textbook. B) Twin studies have not found a high concordance of teenage acting out between monozygotic twins. C) Impulsive behaviors do not routinely appear in adolescents in non-Westernized countries. Correct. This is an accurate finding that does not support a nature-only explanation for these behaviors. D) The use of medications designed to “calm down” impulsive teenagers has been generally ineffective across most research studies. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3c Describe how attitudes toward knowledge change during adolescence. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 91. Which of the following skills/abilities show relatively little decline as adults age? A) free recall B) the ability to learn new tasks C) recalling information that is pertinent to everyday life D) the ability to complete complex tasks Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3c Describe how attitudes toward knowledge change during adolescence. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development % correct 18 a = 18 b = 37 c = 30 d = 15 r = .27

92. One’s accumulated knowledge gained over time is called __________. A) crystallized intelligence B) fluid intelligence C) emotional intelligence D) formal intelligence Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3c Describe how attitudes toward knowledge change during adolescence. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 93. Recent findings associated with aging and cognitive functioning show that older adults outscore younger adults on __________ tests. A) vocabulary B) memory C) visual D) auditory Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3c Describe how attitudes toward knowledge change during adolescence. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 94. William Perry has done research that shows a transition in the way college students think. They go from a staunch need to have a “right” or “wrong” answer to a more flexible and tolerant way of viewing problems as ambiguous and having multiple levels of “rightness.” Perry’s findings have generally persisted in the decades since they were first published. This demonstrates the principle of __________. A) replicability Correct. Perry’s research has “stood the test of time,” which suggests that it has been successfully found by other researchers. This demonstrates replicability. B) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. In this case, other hypotheses have not been offered to counter the theories of William Perry. C) correlation vs. causation D) extraordinary claims Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 10.3c Describe how attitudes toward knowledge change during adolescence. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development

95. On your lunch break, you decide to try a new restaurant that you’ve been hearing about. Once you are seated, a family with a young infant who looks to be about one year old sits next to you. As you smile at the child, thinking how adorable she is, she breaks into tears, screams, and reaches for her father. You should __________. A) take offense that the parents have not taught the child manners yet B) smile and order your lunch, because stranger anxiety is very normal at this age Correct. At about eight months of age is when stranger anxiety normally appears. C) worry that you look very scary to children and go get a haircut and a fashion consult D) change tables, because children who act like this are usually suffering from a stomach virus, and the kid could start vomiting on you any minute Incorrect. While this would be a very upsetting outcome, there is no reason to believe it will happen based on the information in this question. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 96. Research exploring infantile temperament has found that there are generally three different temperaments. They are __________. A) anxious, responsive, and relaxed B) sensorimotor, preoperational, and operational C) secure, insecure, and disorganized D) easy, difficult, and slow-to-warm-up Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development % correct 70 a = 9 b = 21 c = 70 d = 0 r = .48 97. In an exploration of cultural differences regarding temperament, researchers took four-day-old Chinese-American and European-American babies and did “something” to them. They found stark differences in the babies’ reactions to this event. What was done to the babies? A) Their parents were removed from sight for 20 minutes. B) A piece of cloth was placed over their faces. C) They were shown different cartoon characters. D) They were deprived of their pacifiers. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

98. Some research has found that children from different cultures have a different percentage of kids who have the three temperamental styles. For example, Chinese American babies have been found to generally be calmer than European American infants. One possible explanation for this difference is the presence of different intrauterine exposure to hormones. This demonstrates the principle of __________. A) extraordinary claims B) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. While one explanation is that there are cultural differences in temperament, an alternate hypothesis explores prenatal biological causes. C) Occam’s Razor D) falsifiability Incorrect. Nothing in this question speaks specifically to the question of falsifiability in research. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 99. The emotional connection that a newborn baby shares with his or her caregiver(s) is called __________. A) maternal love B) paternality C) affective link D) attachment Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development % correct 85 a = 7 b = 4 c = 4 d = 85 r = .48 100. Researcher Konrad Lorenz explored the concept of __________ by establishing himself as the first moving thing a clutch of newly hatched goslings saw. The result, as he predicted, was that the young animals followed him around religiously, clearly demonstrating their belief that he was their mother. A) imprinting Correct. Konrad Lorenz achieved notoriety for his study of imprinting. B) sensory primacy C) neonatality Incorrect. Imprinting is the correct answer to this question, and while it is related to the newborn, neonatality is not the right answer. D) the higher species-lower species schism. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

101. __________ is a process of early attachment in which the first thing a newborn sees is considered its mother. A) Primacing B) Familiarity C) Imprinting D) Plasticity Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 102. “Human beings do not demonstrate __________,” said Professor Spiegelman. “Otherwise most newborns would think that the physician who was handing the childbirth was its mother or father!” A) plasticity B) reflexes C) instincts Incorrect. It might be instinctive for an infant to cling to its parent, but this example debunks the idea that human beings engage in imprinting at birth. D) imprinting Correct. Professor Spiegelman’s example effectively demonstrates that there is no such thing as imprinting in human beings. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 103. A zookeeper finds that a flock of geese follow her wherever she moves because she is the first object that they see after hatching. What is this situation an example of? A) trust B) imprinting Correct. This demonstrates imprinting in the truest sense of the term. C) contact comfort Incorrect. Contact comfort was studied by Harry Harlow with monkeys. This question demonstrates the concept of imprinting. D) insecure attachment Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

104. Which of the following is an example of imprinting? A) A young child’s behavior is influenced by peer pressure. B) A young child imitates the behaviors of older siblings. C) Young geese demonstrate an attachment to a round ball. Correct. If the round ball is the first thing that the geese see after they are born, the geese will attach to the ball and believe that it is their mother. D) Young geese scatter away in fear when a ball approaches them. Incorrect. This example does not demonstrate imprinting. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 105. A(n) __________ period refers to the specific time period when the development of a particular skill must take place. A) maturation B) initiation C) critical D) fast-mapping Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 106. Harlow’s study of infant rhesus monkeys showed that __________. A) surrogate mothers who were cold to the touch but provided food and water produced the strongest attachment responses B) surrogate mothers who were soft to the touch but did not provide food and water produced the strongest attachment responses C) early imprinting led to the strongest attachments of monkeys to their surrogate mothers D) surrogate mothers who were inconsistent in providing food and water produced the weakest attachment responses Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development % correct 68 a = 6 b = 68 c = 23 d = 3 r = .38

107. Which of the following theories of attachment was effectively discredited by the work of Harry Harlow? A) Babies become attached to adults who are pleasant to touch. B) Babies become attached to adults who provide them with nourishment. Correct. This is the explanation of attachment that Harlow’s monkeys experiment debunked. C) Babies become attached to adults who smile at them. Incorrect. Harlow’s work did not involve adults smiling at babies. D) Babies become attached to adults who talk in quiet voices. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development % correct 61 a = 30 b = 61 c = 9 d = 0 r = .29 108. What kind of animals did Harry Harlow and his colleagues use to discredit the most commonly accepted theory of attachment of the time? A) geese B) monkeys C) pigeons D) rats Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 109. Which psychologist investigated the different types of attachment through the use of the “strange situation” experiment? A) John Bowlby B) Konrad Lorenz C) Harry Harlow D) Mary Ainsworth Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

110. Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the __________ test to assess the different types of attachment that might exist between a child and his or her primary caregiver. A) separation-reunification B) separation C) strange situation D) attachment schema Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development % correct 88 a = 9 b = 0 c = 88 d = 3 r = .43 111. The majority of children who were studied by Mary Ainsworth had were labeled as having which of the following attachment styles? A) secure B) insecure-anxious C) insecure-avoidant D) disorganized Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development % correct 76 a = 76 b = 24 c = 0 d = 0 r = .51 112. Researchers studying infant stress levels using the “Strange Situation” method have found that __________. A) most infants are upset with the mom when she departs and remain upset at her when she returns B) most infants are upset with the mom when she departs but are happy when she returns C) most infants are not upset with the mom when she departs because they know she will return shortly D) most infants are happy with the mom when she departs and they remain happy with her when she returns Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

113. Young Pemba is being observed as he plays in a room with his mother. Pemba frequently goes to the toys in the room, but occasionally looks back at his mother to make sure she is there. After a quick smile is exchanged between mother and child, Pemba goes back to the task of building with the toys. When Pemba’s mother leaves the room, he becomes moderately upset, but is easily soothed when she returns. Which type of attachment does Pemba seem to have with his mother? A) loving B) secure Correct. Pemba is demonstrating all of the qualities of a securely attached child. C) interdependent Incorrect. There is no attachment style referred to as interdependent. D) developmental Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 114. Which of the following children is most likely to have a temper tantrum when her father leaves the room? A) Ilsa, who has an insecure-anxious attachment to her father Correct. An insecure-anxious child often has a tantrum when their attachment figure leaves their presence. B) Nola, who has a secure attachment to her father Incorrect. A securely attached child will be distressed when their attachment figure leaves the room, but are not likely to have a temper tantrum. C) Denia, who has a disorganized attachment to her father D) Lakesha, who has an insecure-avoidant attachment to her father Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 115. Which one of the following children would most likely be described as “independent”? A) James, who has an insecure-avoidant attachment to his mother Correct. The insecure-avoidant attachment style appears very independent, and some have suggested that this style is marked by a problematic lack of attachment. B) Jesse, who has an insecure-anxious attachment to his mother C) Jerome, who has a secure attachment to his mother Incorrect. A securely attached child will appear to be interdependent, not independent. D) Jeremiah, who has a disorganized attachment to his mother Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

116. Some children who were observed did not demonstrate one consistent attachment style, but instead seemed unable to decide how they should react to their mother and to new circumstances. Researchers have labeled this the __________ attachment style. A) secure B) disorganized Correct. The disorganized attachment pattern was identified after Ainsworth’s work was completed. C) insecure-anxious D) insecure-avoidant Incorrect. Inconsistency in attachment style is known as disorganized attachment. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 117. Which of the following represents cross-cultural differences in attachment study research? A) More infants from Japan fall into the insecure-anxious category as compared to U.S. infants. B) More infants from Japan fall into the insecure-avoidant category as compared to U.S. infants. C) More infants from the United States display disorganized attachments as compared to infants from Japan. D) Infants from Japan are more likely to react to their mom’s departure with indifference as compared to U.S. infants. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 118. Children involved in “Strange Situation” research change attachment styles frequently in follow-up studies, meaning that this method of measuring attachment style lacks __________. A) reliability Correct. A lack of consistency in research findings suggests a deficit of reliability. B) validity. C) integrity D) honesty Incorrect. There is no reason to believe that the researchers exploring the Strange Situation tests were dishonest. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

119. When the work of Mary Ainsworth and the “Strange Situation” experiment is examined in cultures beyond the United States of America, there is often criticism that this type of investigation is not appropriate for assessing the attachment of children in other cultures. Which of the following does your textbook state is one such argument against this type of research in other cultures? A) In Somalia, the scarcity of resources necessitates that children be kept very close to their parents at all times. Therefore, a test that calls for separation is not valid. B) In Finland, only boys are to be separated from their parents to foster independence, while girls are taught to be very dependent. Therefore, a test that calls for separation is not valid. Incorrect. This is not a criticism of the Strange Situation tests mentioned in your textbook. C) In Iran, infants are expected to be very dependent on their parents, and are praised for such behaviors. Therefore, a test that calls for separation is not valid. D) Japanese infants are rarely separated from their mothers, so the use of a test that calls for separation is not valid. Correct. This is a cultural phenomenon that makes the Strange Situation experiment problematic for testing children from different parts of the world. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 120. Authoritarian parents are __________ disciplinarians and they are __________ with punishment. A) strict; quick B) lenient; slow C) strict; slow D) lenient; quick Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development % correct 90 a = 90 b = 0 c = 3 d = 7 r = .26 % correct 91 a = 91 b = 9 c = 0 d = 0 r = .33

121. Helena is a model child at school who is popular with her peers. She has high standards for herself, but is realistic about attaining them. It is likely that her parents use a(n) __________ model for discipline. A) authoritative Correct. The authoritative parent sets limits, but also encourages communication and independence in their children. Their children tend to do well with social and emotional adjustment. B) authoritarian Incorrect. The authoritarian parenting style involves making arbitrary rules, expecting unquestioned obedience, using punishment, and failing to foster communication with children. C) permissive D) indulgent Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 122. Bertram is a surly child who can’t bear to be alone, yet he has few friends because he has little self-control. Even the children he prefers to be with, who are much younger than he is, get frustrated with his impulsiveness. His parents are probably of the __________ type. A) authoritative B) authoritarian C) uninvolved D) permissive Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 123. The Carmichaels do not believe in punishing their children; instead, they shape their children’s behaviors by praising them and showering them with affection. This parenting style most closely resembles __________. A) authoritarian parenting Incorrect. Authoritarian parents use a high amount of discipline and structure to raise their children. B) permissive parenting Correct. The lack of structure that the Carmichaels provide for their children is consistent with Baumrind’s permissive parenting. C) uninvolved parenting D) authoritative parenting Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development % correct 84 a = 3 b = 84 c = 0 d = 13 r = .18 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

124. Which of the following parenting styles is associated with the most favorable outcomes for children? A) uninvolved B) permissive C) authoritarian D) authoritative Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development % correct 67 a = 0 b = 18 c = 15 d = 67 r = .39 125. Elementary school teachers from China would likely employ a(n) __________ style of teaching. A) authoritarian Correct. A focus on structure and discipline would be central to elementary school teachers from this culture. B) authoritative C) permissive Incorrect. The structure and discipline the teachers in this culture use is consistent with authoritarian teaching. D) uninvolved Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 126. Which of the following is TRUE regarding parenting research? A) Children tend to select mothers over fathers as playmates. B) Children of single fathers do not differ in behaviors from children of single mothers. C) Fathers spend more time with their babies on average than do mothers. D) Fathers display similar levels of affection toward their babies as do mothers. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

127. Some researchers believe that the higher numbers of single-parent families is a key reason for the increased rates of violent crime in the United States compared to 40 or 50 years ago. On the other hand, it is true that there are many differences between single-parent and two-parent families, any one or combination of which may explain these increases in violent crime. This is an issue that addresses the principle of __________. A) extraordinary claims. Incorrect. The assertions of these researchers are not necessary extraordinary; rather, they are simply making the assumption that correlation equals cause. This assumption is inaccurate. B) replicability C) correlation vs. causation Correct. It is important to be careful when making assumptions that two correlated events necessarily indicate causality between them. In this case, such claims are not necessarily accurate. D) Occam’s Razor Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 128. A person’s gender __________ refers to their sense of being male or female, which may or may not correspond to their biological sex. A) permanence B) role C) schema D) identity Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

129. When siblings Marcia and Greg come home from school, Marcia is expected to clean any dishes that have been left in the kitchen and to vacuum the family room rug. Greg, on the other hand, is expected to take out the trash and, when needed, to mow the lawn. These different responsibilities are examples of gender __________. A) roles Correct. A gender role refers to behaviors that are typically associated with being male or female. B) identities Incorrect. Gender identity refers to a person’s sense of being male or female, which may or may not correspond with their biological sex. C) rules D) schemas Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 130. According to research noted in your textbook, children as young as __________ year(s) of age already demonstrate a preference for different types of toys, even if they have been exposed only to gender-neutral toys or have had equal access to toys commonly associated with both genders. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 131. Research investigating the causes of gender differences in behavior suggests that __________. A) during infancy, there are no gender differences between the toy preferences of boys and girls B) no gender differences have been found between the toy preferences of boy and girl monkeys C) females exposed to excessive levels of testosterone during birth tend to dislike rough-andtumble play D) females exposed to excessive levels of testosterone during birth tend to enjoy rough-andtumble play. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

132. Theorist __________ believed that every stage of life has a crisis in need of resolution. A) Carl Jung B) Erik Erikson Correct. Erikson believed that life encompasses eight different stages, each of which has a crisis to be resolved. C) Lev Vygotsky D) Jean Piaget Incorrect. Piaget’s theory only involved four stages, and he did not focus on the resolution of crises. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 133. According to the theory of Erik Erikson, the very first developmental crisis that human beings experience during the infancy year is __________. A) trust vs. mistrust Correct. This is the crisis that marks the infancy stage of the first year of life. B) autonomy vs. shame and doubt Incorrect. The first crisis that we encountered during infancy is trust vs. mistrust. C) initiative vs. guilt D) intimacy vs. isolation Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 134. 16-year old Brenda’s parents are political conservatives, while she identifies more with liberal political views. When asked her political orientation, Brenda seems uncertain and does not respond. Brenda is dealing with the __________ crisis. A) industry versus inferiority B) autonomy versus shame and doubt C) ego integrity versus despair Incorrect. This is the eighth stage of Erikson’s theory, and we do not encounter it until we are at the end of our lives. D) identity versus role confusion Correct. Erikson believed that part of adolescence is forming a stable sense of self. Until this happens, we experience identity crisis. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

135. According to Erikson, failure to successfully resolve an early development crisis leads to which outcome? A) It increases the likelihood that a future crisis will not be successfully resolved. Correct. Erikson believed that each stage has to be resolved in order for us to successfully move onto the next stage. B) Unsuccessful resolution of a crisis has no effect on whether a future crisis will be successfully resolved. Incorrect. Erikson believed that each stage is tied to the other stages of development across the lifespan. C) In most cases, psychosocial crises go unresolved with no detrimental effects on social development. D) In most cases, psychosocial crises are unsuccessfully resolved, leading to detrimental effects on social development. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 136. When she first got her job teaching at a college, Dr. Kline was primarily worried about establishing herself in her career. Now, 20 years later, she is more interested in mentoring newer faculty members and making a substantial contribution to the department where she teaches. Dr. Kline is currently in Erikson's stage of __________. A) identity versus role confusion Incorrect. This is the stage that is encountered during adolescence, primarily in the teenage years. B) intimacy versus isolation C) generativity versus stagnation Correct. Dr. Kline is in her middle adult years and is worried about the welfare of others and the world around her. D) ego integrity versus despair Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

137. __________ adulthood is a period during a person’s late teens and early 20s in which they still depend on their parents for financial and emotional support. A) Early B) Emerging C) Transitional D) Adolescent Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 138. According to Piaget, one’s level of moral development is linked to one’s level of __________. A) intelligence B) social development Incorrect. Piaget did not focus on social development as a requisite for moral development. C) emotional development D) cognitive development Correct. This is the intersection between Piaget’s theory and that of Kohlberg. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 139. Kohlberg’s belief that the development of moral judgment is intricately related to the development of cognitive skills built on the work of __________. A) Gilligan Incorrect. In fact, the work of Carol Gilligan came after that of Lawrence Kohlberg, and she proposed a different model of moral development that criticized Kohlberg’s work. B) Erikson C) Piaget Correct. There was great intersection between the theories of these two individuals. D) Freud Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

140. According to Kohlberg, behavior motivated by the avoidance of punishment and the gaining of rewards represents __________ morality. A) preconventional B) conventional C) postconventional D) formal conventional Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 141. Regarding the Heinz dilemma, as discussed in your textbook, a person who decides not to steal the drug for fear of being imprisoned is reasoning at the __________ stage. A) preconventional Correct. Decisions made to avoid punishment demonstrate preconventional morality. B) conventional Incorrect. The decision to act in a manner that either avoids punishment or gains reward demonstrates preconventional morality, not conventional morality. C) postconventional D) formal conventional Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development % correct 39 a = 39 b = 39 c = 9 d = 13 r = .31 142. Karla can speed on a certain stretch of the interstate without being ticketed, yet she decides not to speed because it is unlawful. Karla’s reasoning reflects __________ reasoning. A) preconventional Incorrect. If Karla were specifically focused on not speeding so that she would not get a ticket, this would demonstrate preconventional morality. B) conventional Correct. This would be an assessment of morality that is consistent with the conventional stage of Kohlberg’s theory. C) postconventional D) formal conventional Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development % correct 36 a = 21 b = 36 c = 27 d = 15 r = .42

143. Joseph refuses to vote in major elections because he believes that most political candidates seeking office are motivated by personal gain and not to create positive social change. Joseph’s reasoning reflects __________ moral reasoning. A) preconventional B) conventional C) postconventional Correct. Joseph is acting in a manner that he believes represents higher, universal ethical standards. This demonstrates postconventional moral reasoning. D) formal conventional Incorrect. In Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, there’s no such thing as formal conventional moral reasoning. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development % correct 34 a = 30 b = 24 c = 34 d = 12 r = .48 144. Johnny has never been harassed by the school bully, but most of his friends have. Johnny’s decision to stand up to the bully to protect his friends represents a type of __________ morality. A) preconventional Incorrect. If Johnny were operating at a preconventional level, he would avoid the bully to avoid the punishment of getting beat up. B) conventional C) postconventional Correct. The decision to stand up to a bully and protect friends represents universal ethical standards. This demonstrates postconventional morality. D) formal conventional Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

145. Karen has the impulse to shoplift, but when she begins thinking about how others would be disappointed with her actions, she resists. Karen’s thinking illustrates __________ reasoning. A) preconventional B) conventional Correct. Karen’s decision is a good one, but because it still focuses on external determinants of behavior, it demonstrates conventional moral reasoning. C) postconventional Incorrect. If Karen decided not to shoplift based solely on internal decision-making, this would demonstrate postconventional morality. D) formal conventional Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 146. The highest levels of moral reasoning, called __________ morality, are based on internal principles that may differ from societal values. A) conventional Incorrect. In conventional moral reasoning, decisions about right or wrong are based on a combination of internal and external principles. B) postconventional Correct. These are the qualities that denote postconventional moral reasoning. C) preconventional D) retroconventional Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

147. Young Jamal is asked whether it is right for a police officer to give a speeding ticket to a man who is driving his daughter to the hospital after a serious injury that left her with several broken bones. Which of the following answers would demonstrate the postconventional level of moral reasoning in Jamal? A) “He broke the rules. He should get a ticket, but should have to pay less than someone who was speeding for no good reason.” B) “Everyone speeds and he has a good reason, so he shouldn’t get a ticket.” C) “Speeding is breaking the rules, and when you break the rules, you deserve to be punished.” Incorrect. Seeing right and wrong as being strictly tied to rules demonstrates preconventional moral reasoning. D) “The man was trying to get his daughter to help, and he wasn’t hurting anyone. As long as he doesn’t normally speed, he should be let off with a warning.” Correct. Jamal is demonstrating an internal application of universal ethical principles. This demonstrates postconventional moral reasoning. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 148. Responses to moral dilemmas are only moderately correlated with actual behavior. Which of the following may be seen to increase the strength of correlations between hypothetical responses and actual behavior? A) posing dilemmas focused on abstract situations not likely to be faced by respondents B) posing dilemmas focused on life-or-death decisions that will lead to more honest responding C) posing dilemmas focused on lighthearted subjects that will put respondents more at ease D) posing dilemmas focused on realistic situations that are likely to be faced on a regular basis Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

149. Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory of moral development has been criticized for its lack of correlation with moral behavior. It has been argued that when scores on Kohlberg’s system correlate with behavior, they provide evidence for his theory, but when they do not correlate with behavior they do not provide evidence against his theory. This is a problem of which of the six principles of scientific thinking? A) correlation vs. causation Incorrect. There is no issue of correlation and causation implied in this question. B) falsifiability Correct. In order for a theory to withstand critical evaluation, it must be capable of being proven wrong. In this case, there is no avenue to disprove Kohlberg’s theory. C) ruling out rival hypotheses D) replicability Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 150. The __________ represents a period of anxiety and emotional disturbance related to the aging process and it sometimes results in futile attempts to regain one’s youth. A) empty nest syndrome B) primary aging hypothesis C) climacteric D) midlife crisis Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4d Identify developmental changes during major life transitions in adults. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 151. Empty-nest researchers have found that __________. A) women who do not define themselves exclusively as parents have an easier time adjusting after their children leave home B) most empty-nesters are men who experience a period of depression after their children leave home C) women are less likely than men to experience depression after their children leave home D) women are more likely than men to experience depression after their children leave home Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4d Identify developmental changes during major life transitions in adults. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

152. “Man, I cannot believe how smart David is! He is so much more intelligent than other kids his age, and he also seems to have a good head on his shoulders when it comes to making decisions. He is polite, doesn’t get into trouble, and seems to naturally make good decisions. It is hard to believe he is only 13 years old!” David’s __________ age appears to be well ahead of his __________ age. A) chronological; mental B) mental; social C) social; chronological Correct. In this particular case, David’s social age is well ahead of his chronological age. D) chronological; social Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4e Summarize different ways of conceptualizing old age. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 153. The maturity level a person develops based upon his or her life experiences describes that individual’s __________ age. A) social B) cognitive C) chronological D) affective Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4e Summarize different ways of conceptualizing old age. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development % correct 55 a = 55 b = 37 c = 4 d = 4 r = .37 154. In several of his movies, actor Adam Sandler has achieved fame by playing buffoons whose __________ ages were clearly far behind their __________ ages. A) social; chronological Correct. Sandler’s immature behavior demonstrates a social age that is behind the chronological age of his characters. B) adolescent; adult Incorrect. Adolescent age and adult age are not two of the four types of ages discussed in this chapter. C) mental; social D) chronological; mental Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4e Summarize different ways of conceptualizing old age. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

155. There is a famous collection of movies about a trio of kids who are in the same “year” at school. You may have heard of them, but just in case you haven’t, they are the Harry Potter films. Of the three characters, Hermione is very level-headed, dislikes breaking the rules, and always tries to act responsibly. Ron, on the other hand, tends to be a bit of a slacker, is irresponsible, and is often more interested in having fun than he is in taking care of his obligations. Hermione’s __________ age appears to be much higher than Ron’s. A) chronological Incorrect. Chronological age is simply a measure of how much time has passed since an individual’s birth. B) cognitive C) psychological Correct. The ability to deal with stresses and ever-changing environments, and our mental attitude and ability to learn, demonstrates psychological age. D) developmental Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4e Summarize different ways of conceptualizing old age. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 156. An individual’s ability to handle their given roles in society is called their __________ age, and it may be a better indicator of that person’s readiness to retire from work then chronological age. A) biological B) social C) psychological Incorrect. Psychological age is certainly a part of this question, but the best answer is functional age. D) functional Correct. Research shows that forcing people to retire at 65 when they still have good work years left in them is unhealthy for their psychological functioning. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4e Summarize different ways of conceptualizing old age. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development Fill-in-the-Blank 1. In a(n) __________ research design, a psychologist would track the same group of participants over time, which would allow the determination of developmental effects on various psychological qualities. Answer: longitudinal Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.4 TEXT LO: 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Topic: Special Considerations In Human Development

2. A fertilized egg that is the result of conception is called a(n) __________. Answer: zygote Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development, and identify barriers to normal development. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 3. Environmental factors that can exert a negative impact on prenatal development are called __________. Answer: teratogens Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development, and identify barriers to normal development. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 4. The __________ point in a pregnancy—that is, the age at which an infant could survive outside of its mother’s womb—is about 25 weeks. Answer: viability Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development, and identify barriers to normal development. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 5. The period of transition between childhood and young adulthood is called __________. Answer: adolescence Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 6. The reproductive organs and genitals that distinguish the sexes are called __________ sex characteristics. Answer: primary Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 7. __________ is the start of menstruation. Answer: Menarche Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8. The termination of menstruation signaling the end of a woman’s reproductive potential is termed __________. Answer: menopause Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.2d Explain which aspects of physical ability decline during aging. Topic: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development 9. Piaget’s theory of __________ development focuses on ways in which children learn, think, reason, and remember. Answer: cognitive Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 10. During Piaget’s __________ stage of development, infants learn about objects by physically handling and manipulating them. Answer: sensorimotor Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 11. Piaget’s term for the idea that an object continues to exist even when it is out of sight is object __________. Answer: permanence Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 12. The inability to see events from others’ perspectives during Piaget’s preoperational stage is called __________. Answer: egocentrism Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 13. A teenager is most likely functioning in Piaget’s __________. Answer: formal operations stage Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development

14. According to Vygotsky, the provision of assistance to those who cannot perform activities alone is called __________. Answer: scaffolding Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 15. The type of intelligence that involves our accumulated knowledge over time is called __________ intelligence. Answer: crystallized Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.3c Describe how attitudes toward knowledge change during adolescence. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 16. A baby cheetah follows a zookeeper’s every move because the zookeeper was the first person observed by the cheetah after birth. This behavior is called __________. Answer: imprinting Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 17. The most common type of attachment formed between infants and primary caregivers is __________ attachment. Answer: secure Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 18. The __________ style of parenting is associated with strict discipline, punishment, and limited displays of affection. Answer: authoritarian Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

19. The __________ style of parenting is associated with the best social and emotional outcomes for children and the lowest levels of behavior problems. Answer: authoritative Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 20. In each stage of Erikson’s proposed stages of development, a person is believed to confront a __________ crisis. The way in which each crisis is resolved helps determine the nature of their identity. Answer: psychosocial Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 21. The major crisis facing adolescents, according to Erikson, involves the crisis of __________ versus __________. Answer: identity; role confusion Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 22. During old age (the aging years), Erikson suggests that the crisis of __________ versus __________ is faced. Answer: ego integrity; despair Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 23. Kohlberg’s theory of how __________ develops focuses on how people reason about right and wrong behaviors. Answer: morality Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

24. The belief that you should not steal because you could go to jail represents reasoning associated with Kohlberg’s __________ level. Answer: preconventional Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 25. Believing that you should smoke cigarettes because others would think you are “cool” represents Kohlberg’s __________ level of reasoning. Answer: conventional Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development Essay 1. Using specific examples, differentiate between the thinking patterns of a 6-year-old student and a 9-year-old student, according to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development. Answer: Information related to 6-year-olds should involve difficulty with conservation tasks, reversing operations, and some issues with logical thinking because intuitive thinking is more prevalent. A 9-year-old can conserve amounts through physical transformation, and reason more logically and less intuitively about information. The answer may also be strengthened by discussing the egocentrism that typifies the thinking of a 6-year-old but may not be present in that of a 9-year-old. Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development 2. Discuss three pros and three limitations of Piaget’s theory. Answer: Pros include viewing children as different in kind rather than in degree from adults, characterizing learning as an active rather than a passive process, and exploring cognitive processes that may cut across multiple domains of knowledge and thus being a more parsimonious model. Limitations include the idea that research has found development to be more continuous and less stage-like than Piaget suggested, the underestimation of children’s true abilities, and cultural bias in favor of children from Westernized societies. Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development

3. Identify at least four of the eight psychosocial stages hypothesized by Erik Erikson, including the developmental period of each stage. Answer: Erikson’s stages, along with their developmental ranges, are as follows: 1. Trust versus Mistrust (Infancy) 2. Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt (Toddlerhood) 3. Initiative versus Guilt (Early Childhood) 4. Industry versus Inferiority (Middle Childhood) 5. Identity versus Role Confusion (Adolescence) 6. Intimacy versus Isolation (Young Adulthood) 7. Generativity versus Stagnation (Adulthood) 8. Ego Integrity versus Despair (Aging) Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development 4. Regarding Kohlberg’s theory, use specific examples to differentiate between a conventional moral reasoner and a postconventional moral reasoner. Answer: A conventional moral reasoner focuses on societal values. What is right is what society approves of, and what is wrong is what society disapproves of. A conventional moral reasoner may hold certain political beliefs because most of the person’s peers hold those beliefs. A postconventional moral reasoner focuses on internal moral principles that may differ from conventional societal values For postconventional reasoners, acts that produce the greatest good for the greatest number of people are moral acts, even if they produce disfavor from others or involve acting against self-interest. A postconventional reasoner will not likely conform or change political attitudes due to majority influence; they tend to have internal principles of right and wrong that may not adhere to social norms. Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development Critical Thinking 1. What tasks could be presented to students to assess whether they have entered Piaget’s formal operations stage of development? Answer: Tasks dealing with abstract thinking, deductive reasoning, or theory development would tap into formal operational development. For example, tasks involving the completion of calculus problems, term papers focusing on philosophical debates, or the development of original research projects are formal operational tasks. Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Topic: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development

2. Correlations between Kohlberg’s dilemmas and real-world moral behavior are relatively low because responses to hypothetical dilemmas are often incongruent with a person’s behaviors. Does this suggest that Kohlberg’s theory is not a valid measure of moral development? Answer: Kohlberg’s theory is a measure of how people reason about moral problems, but it is not a measure that predicts the behaviors that people will present in real-world situations. In this way, it could be considered both a valid and invalid measure of moral development depending on how the term “moral development” is defined. If moral development is defined as a type of reasoning about right and wrong, his theory could be a valid measure. If moral development is defined as a style of behavior one presents in real contexts, his theory may not be a valid measure. Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Topic: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

CHAPTER 10: HUMAN DEVELOPMENT _____________________________________________________________________________ Defining Development 1. A psychologist spends her entire career studying how and why changes occur in people as they get older. This psychologist is most likely a(n) __________ psychologist. a. evolutionary b. personality c. health d. developmental Answer d % correct 98 a= 2 b= 0 c= 0 d= 98 r = .21 2. Before puberty, males do not produce sperm, even though their genitals are physically equivalent to a man’s. This illustrates which of the following? a. empiricism b. behaviorism c. humanism d. maturation Answer d % correct 95 a= 3 b= 0 c= 3 d= 95 r = .24 3. "Experience is the key to all knowledge" is associated with ___________. a. empiricism b. nativism c. humanism d. maturation Answer a % correct 68 a= 68 b= 8 c= 21 d= 3 r = .26 4. Which approach to the study of development views one’s early experiences as a more critical period than later (e.g., adult) experiences? a. functionalism b. behaviorism c. psychodynamic d. life span Answer c % correct 53 a= 13 b= 16 c= 53 d= 18 r = .31 5. How one develops is determined by continuous interaction between _________ and __________. a. learning; environment b. heredity; environment c. nurture; environment d. heredity; nature Answer b % correct 81 a= 14 b= 81 c= 3 d= 3 r = .47 6. A psychologist spends his entire career studying how and why changes occur in people as they get older. This psychologist is most likely a(n) __________ psychologist. a. evolutionary b. personality c. health d. developmental Answer d % correct 96 a= 2 b= 2 c= 0 d= 96 r = .24

7. The description and explanation of behavior changes in the individual and the differences between individuals from conception to death is called _________. a. developmental psychology b. the whole life approach c. the life-span development approach d. the longitudinal method Answer c % correct 86 a= 10 b= 3 c= 86 d= 1 r = .36 8. The life-span development approach has which of the following goals? a. Describe the physical changes that occur between birth and adolescence. b. Describe and explain behavior changes within an individual and differences between individuals from conception to death. c. Explain the results of learning from conception to death. d. Investigate the influence of heredity and environment upon individuals from conception to death. Answer b % correct 78 a= 1 b= 78 c= 4 d= 16 r = .48 9. The field of _______ focuses on the questions of how people of different ages differ from one another and what caused those differences. a. personality b. comparative psychology c. developmental psychology d. geriatrics Answer c % correct 75 a= 0 b= 25 c= 75 d= 0 r = .37 10. What major shift in emphasis has taken place in developmental psychology across the last 20 years? a. The field has become less experimental and more anecdotal. b. The study of adolescence has pretty much supplanted the study of childhood. c. The focus has broadened to include the entire life span. d. Cognitive theory has been largely replaced by behaviorism. Answer c % correct 93 a= 0 b= 7 c= 93 d= 0 r = .23 11. The study of psychological and physical changes from conception to death is _______ psychology. a. personality b. developmental c. evolutionary d. physiological Answer b % correct 91 a= 5 b= 91 c= 0 d= 4 r = .60 12. An approach which is concerned with description and explanation of changes within an individual and between individuals from conception until death is call the _______ approach. a. whole life b. life-span developmental c. entire life developmental d. childhood/adulthood developmental Answer b % correct 68 a= 5 b= 68 c= 0 d= 27 r = .35

Developmental Research Methods 13. A researcher who selects a sample of people of varying ages and studies them at one point in time is, by definition, using the __________ method. a. longitudinal b. correlational c. cross-sectional d. biographical study Answer c % correct 88 a= 5 b= 5 c= 88 d= 2 r = .48 14. A researcher who studies a fixed group of people over a long period of time is, by definition, using the __________ method. a. longitudinal b. correlational c. cross-sectional d. biographical study Answer a % correct 88 a= 88 b= 2 c= 10 d= 0 r = .42 15. A researcher who studies a fixed group of people over a long period of time is, by definition, using the __________. a. longitudinal method b. correlational method c. cross-sectional method d. case study method Answer a % correct 71 a= 71 b= 1 c= 18 d= 9 r = .53 16. A researcher tries to reconstruct a person’s past by interviewing the person and by consulting various other sources that relate to the person’s life. This method of conducting research is called the _______________ approach. a. longitudinal b. cross-sectional c. biographical d. convergent Answer c % correct 94 a= 0 b= 1 c= 94 d= 4 r = .39 17. Mary’s physician is trying to test her visual perception. She shows six-month old Mary a picture of a boat until Mary no longer pays any attention to it. Then she shows Mary a picture of a house and immediately Mary begins to stare at the picture in entranced curiosity. Mary’s physician was using the _______________ to test her visual perception. a. habituation technique b. longitudinal technique c. attention-span technique d. novelty technique Answer a % correct 86 a= 86 b= 1 c= 9 d= 4 r = .42 18. The description and explanation of behavior changes in the individual and the differences between individuals from conception to death is called __________. a. developmental psychology b. the whole life approach c. the life-span development approach d. the longitudinal method Answer c % correct 73 a= 27 b= 0 c= 73 d= 0 r = .34 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

19. Dr. Cross is studying whether the psychological trait of dependency vs. independence changes as one gets older. He collects data from first, fourth, and ninth graders. Dr. Cross is studying the relationship between age and dependency/independence using _______ research. a. longitudinal b. cross-sectional c. case study d. applied Answer b % correct 95 a= 5 b= 95 c= 0 d= 0 r = .73 20. Comparing the same group of people on the same measure(s) over a lengthy time period defines _______ research. a. longitudinal b. cross-sectional c. basic d. applied Answer a % correct 95 a= 95 b= 0 c= 5 d= 0 r = .73 21. Collecting the responses of different people at different ages all at the same time characterizes _______ research. a. longitudinal b. cross-sectional c. basic d. applied Answer b % correct 92 a= 8 b= 92 c= 0 d= 0 r = .36 22. Cultural and historical influences are BEST controlled using _______ research. a. longitudinal b. cross-sectional c. basic d. applied Answer a % correct 80 a= 80 b= 12 c= 0 d= 8 r = .38 23. Which of the following is a weakness associated with longitudinal research? a. It cannot measure the stability of behavior. b. Cultural experiences cannot be controlled. c. It costs a lot in terms of time and money. d. Historical influence cannot be controlled. Answer c % correct 68 a= 9 b= 9 c= 68 d= 14 r = .16 24. Dr. Halk is studying a group of 25 youngsters from the time they are born until they reach school age. This is known as _______ research. a. cross-sectional b. mixed design c. longitudinal d. historical Answer c % correct 82 a= 14 b= 0 c= 82 d= 4 r = .50

25. Dr. Halk is studying the influence of getting older on intelligence. He tests a group of first graders, a group of third graders, and a group of sixth graders. They are all tested in one day. This is an example of _______ research. a. cross-sectional b. longitudinal c. mixed design d. fixed effects Answer a % correct 79 a= 79 b= 7 c= 11 d= 4 r = .55 26. Which of the following is an advantage of longitudinal research? a. It takes a relatively short period of time. b. It is quite flexible. c. It can measure stability of behavior. d. It is extremely practical. Answer c % correct 92 a= 4 b= 2 c= 92 d= 2 r = .23 27. A developmental psychologist believes that increased TV watching by young children is responsible for a decline in reading scores when these children enter school. To explore her hypothesis, she records the TV watching habits of toddlers in a suburban community. She examines these habits again when the children enter kindergarten and once more when they complete first grade. This method is _______. a. longitudinal b. cross-sectional c. convergent d. experimental Answer a % correct 71 a= 71 b= 7 c= 11 d= 4 r = .55 28. An audience of 20-year-olds finds a series of off-color jokes highly amusing. A group of 50year-olds finds the same jokes highly offensive. It is concluded that, as people age, their senses of humor become more rigid and narrow. The major difficulty in drawing conclusions of this sort is that _______. a. longitudinal studies cannot distinguish between age differences and generational differences b. cross-sectional studies cannot distinguish between age differences and generational differences c. longitudinal studies cannot distinguish between age differences and differences in the time at which measurements are taken d. cross-sectional studies cannot distinguish between age differences and differences in the time at which measurements are taken Answer b % correct 59 a= 27 b= 59 c= 5 d= 9 r = .51 29. A weakness of longitudinal studies is that they _______. a. take far too long to gather the appropriate data b. cannot eliminate sample biases c. cannot distinguish age differences from cohort differences d. do not distinguish significant from non-significant relationships Answer a % correct 82 a= 82 b= 7 c= 7 d= 4 r = .24

Infancy and Childhood Development 30. Erik is a newborn. According to Erikson, his main task will be to develop a sense of __________. a. trust b. initiative c. industry d. autonomy Answer a % correct 95 a= 95 b= 2 c= 0 d= 2 r = .30 31. Erikson’s theory of social development viewed the ages of two to three, his second stage, as being characterized by the major challenge of __________. a. identity versus role diffusion b. basic trust versus mistrust c. industry versus inferiority d. autonomy versus shame and doubt Answer d % correct 60 a= 7 b= 19 c= 14 d= 60 r = .30 32. Erikson’s theory of social development viewed the ages of three to six, his third stage, as being characterized by the major challenge of __________. a. identity versus role diffusion b. initiative versus guilt c. industry versus inferiority d. autonomy versus shame and doubt Answer b % correct 52 a= 10 b= 52 c= 24 d= 14 r = .20 33. The period of life between roughly the ages of 10 and 20 when a person is transformed from a child to an adult is __________. a. puberty b. menarche c. maturation d. adolescence Answer d % correct 69 a= 29 b= 0 c= 2 d= 69 r = .48 34. Erikson saw the major challenge of young adulthood as that of __________. a. intimacy versus isolation b. identity versus role diffusion c. generativity versus stagnation d. integrity versus despair Answer a % correct 33 a= 33 b= 62 c= 2 d= 2 r = .22 35. The major turning point in most adults’ lives is __________. a. getting their first job b. buying their first house c. dealing with aging parents d. having and raising children Answer d % correct 76 a= 17 b= 5 c= 2 d= 76 r = .23

36. Erikson’s intimacy vs. isolation crisis would most likely be associated with which event in the family cycle? a. your last child leaving home b. your first child leaving home c. marrying d. adolescence Answer c % correct 42 a= 26 b= 8 c= 42 d= 23 r = .36 37. Which of the following theorists believe that people go through stages, each of which has a “crisis” associated with it? a. Bandura b. Kohlberg c. Piaget d. Erikson Answer d % correct 63 a= 6 b= 24 c= 6 d= 63 r = .35 38. According to Erikson, a conflict of identity vs. role confusion occurs during: a. adolescence. b. young adulthood. c. middle adulthood. d. old age. Answer a % correct 77 a= 77 b= 9 c= 9 d= 5 r = .43 39. Erik Erikson found that each stage in personality development has a particular _______. a. crisis b. conflict c. identity d. anxiety Answer a % correct 66 a= 66 b= 16 c= 13 d= 5 r = .41 40. Which of the following stages is the most critical, according to Erikson? a. generativity vs. stagnation b. autonomy vs. self-doubt c. identity vs. role confusion d. trust vs. mistrust Answer d % correct 50 a= 5 b= 18 c= 27 d= 50 r = .28 41. According to Erikson, the last stage of development involves the crisis of: a. identity vs. role confusion b. generativity vs. stagnation c. autonomy vs. doubt d. ego-integrity vs. despair Answer d % correct 63 a= 5 b= 24 c= 8 d= 63 r = .29 42. An identity crisis is most likely experienced, according to Erikson, at which of the following stages? a. late childhood b. adolescence c. early adulthood d. middle adulthood Answer b % correct 64 a= 0 b= 64 c= 14 d= 23 r = .42

43. According to Erikson, a sense of producing and contributing to the world is called _______. a. generativity b. self-actualization c. maturation d. worthiness Answer a % correct 73 a= 73 b= 5 c= 9 d= 14 r = .25 44. In Erikson’s theory, children between the ages of 3 and 5 are concerned with the issue of _______. a. trust vs. mistrust b. autonomy vs. shame c. initiative vs. guilt d. industry vs. inferiority Answer c % correct 43 a= 14 b= 43 c= 43 d= 0 r = .53 45. The first stage of Erikson’s Personality Theory is known as: a. autonomy vs. doubt. b. trust vs. mistrust. c. initiative vs. guilt. d. industry vs. inferiority. Answer b % correct 89 a= 7 b= 89 c= 4 d= 0 r = .50 46. Holly, at age 13, is suspicious of both friends and strangers, and very cautious before trying anything new. According to Erikson, these traits were probably formed during Holly’s passage through the stage of _______. a. introversion vs. extroversion b. trust vs. mistrust c. autonomy vs. doubt d. initiative vs. guilt Answer b % correct 79 a= 7 b= 79 c= 11 d= 4 r = .27 47. Jean Piaget is noted for his theory of __________. a. cognitive development b. language development c. perceptual development d. motor development Answer a % correct 95 a= 95 b= 5 c= 0 d= 0

r = .46

48. Which of the following is the correct order for Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development? a.sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations b. preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations, sensorimotor c. preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operations, formal operations d. preoperational, formal operations, sensorimotor, concrete operations Answer a % correct 81 a= 81 b= 2 c= 17 d= 0 r = .74 49. According to Piaget, which of the following is crucial to cognitive development at the sensorimotor stage? a. egocentrism b. attachment c. language d. object permanence Answer d % correct 60 a= 2 b= 33 c= 5 d= 60 r = .58

50. According to Piaget, the stage of cognitive development between two and seven years of age, in which the individual becomes able to use mental representations and language to describe, remember, and reason about the world, though only in an egocentric fashion, is the __________ stage. a. concrete operations b. preoperational c. sensorimotor d. formal operations Answer 71 % correct b a= 17 b= 71 c= 7 d= 5 r = .58 51. The mother of a young child who didn’t like to drink milk was trying to coax him to drink some. Taking the glass of milk, she poured it all into a smaller cup and said, “There! Now you won’t have to drink so much.” She would never have fooled the child if he had not been in the __________ stage. a. preconventional b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational Answer b % correct 64 a= 5 b= 64 c= 21 d= 10 r = .39 52. According to Piaget, children learn to retrace their thoughts, correct themselves, see more than one dimension to a problem, but cannot yet handle abstract concepts during the __________ stage. a. preoperational b. formal operational c. concrete operational d. sensorimotor Answer c % correct 81 a= 5 b= 7 c= 81 d= 7 r = .48 53. According to Piaget, children begin to develop concepts and the ability to think in terms of abstractions in the __________ stage. a. preoperational b. formal operational c. concrete operational d. sensorimotor Answer b % correct 76 a= 14 b= 10 c= 76 d= 7 r = .49 54. Jean Piaget is noted for his theory of _______________. a. cognitive development b. language development c. perceptual development d. attachment Answer a % correct 86 a= 86 b= 1 c= 7 d= 4 r = .42 55. Which of the following is the correct order for Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development? a. Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations. b. Preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations, sensorimotor. c. Preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operations, formal operations. d. Preoperational, formal operations, sensorimotor, concrete operations. Answer a % correct 83 a= 83 b= 4 c= 6 d= 7 r = .58

56. Which of the following concepts was NOT used by Piaget? a. schema b. assimilation c. accommodation d. critical period Answer d % correct 82 a= 9 b= 5 c= 5 d= 82 r = .28 57. Adjusting behavior or thoughts to fit new environmental demands is called _______. a. schema b. accommodation c. assimilation d. structure Answer b % correct 68 a= 0 b= 68 c= 32 d= 0 r = .44 58. Piaget’s theory of intellectual development assumes that: a. children pass through certain stages at a specific age. b. children pass through a series of 6 sequential stages. c. children pass through a series of stages in the same order. d. children pass through stages but in no particular order and at no specified ages. Answer c % correct 45 a= 32 b= 18 c= 45 d= 5 r = .26 59. _______ is most famous for his theory that all children go through a series of sequential intellectual stages. a. Ainsworth b. Bowlby c. Gesell d. Piaget Answer d % correct 88 a= 2 b= 0 c= 10 d= 88 r = .22 60. The proper sequence of the intellectual stages of development are: a. preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete, and formal. b. sensorimotor, concrete, preoperational, and formal. c. formal, sensorimotor, preoperational, and concrete. d. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete, and formal. Answer d % correct 89 a= 3 b= 5 c= 3 d= 89 r = .29 61. The belief that one is the center of the world is called, by Piaget: a. animism. b. egocentrism. c. self-centering. d. centrismic thinking. Answer b % correct 91 a= 0 b= 91 c= 5 d= 5 r = .57 62. Which of the following states has as a main theme the ability to consider many possible solutions to a problem and the ability to systematically test those possibilities? a. preoperational b. sensorimotor c. formal operations d. concrete operations Answer c % correct 82 a= 6 b= 6 c= 82 d= 6 r = .21

63. Based on Piagetian theory, which of the following relationships is NOT correct? a. concrete operations—have attained conservation b. preoperational—animism c. formal operations—egocentrism d. sensorimotor—developing object permanence Answer c % correct 71 a= 11 b= 13 c= 71 d= 5 r = .42 64. According to Piaget, what are the ages for the formal operational stage? a. birth to age two b. age two to seven c. age seven to eleven d. beyond age eleven or twelve Answer d % correct 73 a= 5 b= 5 c= 18 d= 73 r = .44 65. What event marks the end of the Piagetian stage of sensorimotor development? a. the ability to do abstract thinking b. the ability to do reversible thinking c. the development of conservation d. the development of object permanence Answer d % correct 61 a= 18 b= 14 c= 6 d= 61 r = .44 66. Piaget attributed cognitive development to the interaction of what two processes? a. assimilation and accommodation b. assimilation and egocentric thinking c. egocentric thinking and conservation d. conservation and accommodation Answer a % correct 82 a= 82 b= 0 c= 0 d= 18 r = .21 67. Erik knows that the Saint Bernard is a large dog instead of a little pony. This is an example of what Piaget called ________. a. accommodation b. assimilation c. conservation d. egocentric thinking Answer a % correct 49 a= 49 b= 41 c= 2 d= 8 r = .26 68. The adage, “Out of sight, out of mind,” is most accurately applied to the early part of the _______ stage of development. a. formal operations b. concrete operations c. preoperational d. sensorimotor Answer d % correct 41 a= 5 b= 27 c= 27 d= 41 r = .21

69. Suppose that you show a small boy two bars of fresh fudge that are equal on all dimensions (exactly the same size, shape, and weight). You ask him if the two bars are the same, and he says “Yes.” You then cut one of the bars into 10 chunks as he watches. You are surprised when he now asks if he can have the cut up fudge because it has more candy than the intact bar. This episode illustrates that the youngster: a. probably has an intellectual disability. b. lacks the concept of object permanence. c. is in the preoperational stage. d. is in the concrete operational stage. Answer c % correct 64 a= 0 b= 18 c= 64 d= 7 r = .39 70. In which stage of cognitive development does the conservation concept first appear? a. formal operations b. concrete operations c. preoperational d. sensorimotor Answer b % correct 82 a= 7 b= 82 c= 7 d= 4 r = .33 71. If a child can tell you what “Y” is equal to when you give her the equation X = Y + 10, then she is in the _______ stage of cognitive development. a. formal operations b. concrete operations c. preoperational d. sensorimotor Answer a % correct 35 a= 35 b= 49 c= 12 d= 4 r = .39 72. Piaget’s stage theory assumes that: a. all children pass through certain stages at a specified age. b. all children pass through a series of 6 stages. c. all children pass through stages in the same order. d. children often skip some of the stages. Answer c % correct 32 a= 36 b= 18 c= 32 d= 14 r = .50 73. Which of the following sequences of Piagetian stages is the correct order? a. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations b. preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations, sensorimotor c. concrete operations, preoperational, formal operations, sensorimotor d. sensorimotor, concrete operations, preoperational, formal operations Answer a % correct 91 a= 91 b= 5 c= 0 d= 5 r = .47 74. Preoperational, concrete operations, and formal operations are all stages devised by _______. a. Bruner b. Freud c. Skinner d. Piaget Answer d % correct 93 a= 0 b= 4 c= 4 d= 93 r = .55 75. Jean Piaget is noted for his theory of _______. a. cognitive development b. language development c. perceptual development d. attachment Answer a % correct 82 a= 82 b= 4 c= 14 d= 0

r = .53

76. A characteristic that first shows up in the formal operations stage is _______. a. irreversibility b. abstract thinking c. egocentrism d. logical thinking Answer b % correct 77 a= 0 b= 77 c= 14 d= 9 r = .37 77. A characteristic that first shows up in the concrete operations stage is _______. a. irreversibility b. abstract thinking c. egocentrism d. logical thinking Answer d % correct 50 a= 0 b= 29 c= 21 d= 50 r = .29 78. Lawrence Kohlberg is noted for his theories of __________ development. a. cognitive b. social c. moral d. emotional Answer c % correct 74 a= 14 b= 10 c= 74 d= 2 r = .38 79. According to Kohlberg, children interpret behavior in terms of concrete consequences at the __________ level of moral development. a. precognitive b. preconventional c. conventional d. postconventional Answer b % correct 36 a= 7 b= 36 c= 48 d= 10 r = .43 80. The shift to formal operational thought sets the stage for moral reasoning at the __________ level. a. conventional b. moral realism c. postconventional d. preconventional Answer a % correct 28 a= 28 b= 12 c= 55 d= 5 r = .35 81. Katherine is nice to Sally, even though she doesn’t like Sally at all, because most of her friends like Sally. Katherine is in which stage of moral development according to Kohlberg? a. moral autonomy b. preconventional c. conventional d. postconventional Answer c % correct 57 a= 14 b= 24 c= 57 d= 5 r = .33 82. On what did Kohlberg think moral reasoning was principally based? a. decision-making skill and ability b. formal parental teachings c. parental actions d. religious teachings Answer a % correct 45 a= 45 b= 14 c= 41 d= 0 r = .32

83. Kohlberg found that the typical responses of seven-year-old children to the moral dilemmas he presented them were at the _______ level. a. amoral b. preconventional c. conventional d. postconventional Answer b % correct 84 a= 8 b= 84 c= 8 d= 0 r = .23 84. Kohlberg found that the typical responses of adolescents to the moral dilemmas he presented them were at the _______ level. a. amoral b. preconventional c. conventional d. postconventional Answer c % correct 78 a= 2 b= 8 c= 78 d= 12 r = .24 85. Reasoning out what one should do in posed moral dilemmas based on abstract principles of right and wrong and justice illustrates the _______ level of moral development. a. preconventional b. postconventional c. conventional d. nonconventional Answer b % correct 59 a= 11 b= 59 c= 26 d= 4 r = .39 86. A man beat up two men who had raped his daughter. If you were asked, “Was the old man right to do this?,” which answer would be HIGHEST according to Kohlberg’s level of moral development? a. The man was right according to his belief that his daughter had been unjustly wronged, and he was correcting this wrong. b. The man was wrong because he could be sent to jail for beating the boys. c. The man was wrong because his neighbors would think he should have gone to the police. d. The man was right because now he is a hero in the eyes of the community. Answer a % correct 78 a= 78 b= 18 c= 3 d= 1 r = .28 87. A typical statement of someone in the _______ level of Kohlberg’s moral development would be, “I’m not going to steal because I’ll probably be punished if I do.” a. conventional b. preconventional c. law-abiding d. none of the above Answer b % correct 64 a= 11 b= 64 c= 7 d= 18 r = .63 88. In the _______ level of moral development, right and wrong are decided by the probability of subsequent punishment. a. conventional b. preconventional c. law-abiding d. none of the above Answer a % correct 42 a= 42 b= 42 c= 12 d= 3 r = .29

Infancy and Childhood 89. The period of development from conception to birth is called the __________. a. neonate period b. prenatal period c. natal period d. postnatal period Answer b % correct 95 a= 2 b= 95 c= 3 d= 0 r = .22 90. From the second week until the third month after conception, the developing organism is called a(n) __________. a. neonate b. fetus c. zygote d. embryo Answer d % correct 76 a= 2 b= 2 c= 19 d= 76 r = .44 91. The __________ roughly resembles a human being. a. zygote b. fetus c. embryo d. placenta Answer b % correct 74 a= 0 b= 74 c= 26 d= 0

r = .26

92. Toxic substances such as alcohol and nicotine that cross the placenta and may result in birth defects are called __________. a. neuroleptics b. teratogens c. pathogens d. antigens Answer b % correct 98 a= 0 b= 98 c= 2 d= 0 r = .38 93. The drug most abused by pregnant women is __________. a. nicotine b. marijuana c. cocaine d. alcohol Answer d % correct 64 a= 36 b= 0 c= 0 d= 64 r = .20 94. A newborn baby is called a __________. a. neonate b. fetus c. zygote d. bionate Answer a % correct 93 a= 93 b= 2 c= 2 d= 2

r = .26

95. A reflex crucial to an infant’s survival is __________. a. cooing b. grasping c. sucking d. stepping Answer c % correct 98 a= 0 b= 2 c= 98 d= 0 r = .20 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

96. The ability to see the world in three dimensions is called __________. a. visual acuity b. visual acumen c. depth perception d. spatial awareness Answer c % correct 57 a= 26 b= 0 c= 57 d= 17 r = .21 97. The visual cliff was developed to measure __________. a. whole-part perception b. object perception c. distance perception d. depth perception Answer d % correct 95 a= 0 b= 0 c= 4 d= 95 r = .21 98. When infants are presented with a sound at one side of their heads, they __________. a. do not appear to perceive it b. will begin to cry c. will try to move away from it d. will turn their head toward it Answer d % correct 93 a= 7 b= 0 c= 2 d= 93 r = .26 99. Which of the following statements is true? a. Newborns prefer sweet flavors. b. Newborns prefer salty flavors. c. Newborns have no preference regarding smells. d. Newborns have no preference regarding tastes. Answer a % correct 57 a= 57 b= 17 c= 14 d= 12

r = .53

100. At birth, babies ______________. a. are color-blind, except for black, white, and shades of grey b. can distinguish only blues and purples in addition to black, white, and shades of grey c. can distinguish most, but not all, colors d. can distinguish all of the colors Answer c % correct 53 a= 29 b= 7 c= 53 d= 11 r = .23 101. Which statement about maturation is true? a. It ends at puberty. b. It is a more or less automatic thing. c. It is only used to describe psychological changes, not physical changes, in a growing child. d. It begins at birth. Answer b % correct 94 a= 1 b= 94 c= 0 d= 4 r = .35 102. Which of the following is a false statement? a. Newborns will turn their heads toward a sound source. b. Babies have the ability to match vision and hearing. c. Babies cannot hear until after they are born. d. In some ways, infants are better at distinguishing sounds than adults are. Answer c % correct 82 a= 3 b= 11 c= 82 d= 4 r = .31

103. Developmental norms are useful because they ___________________. a. tell parents when their child will begin to talk b. tell parents when their child is ready to talk c. give an indication of future skills and potentials d. alert parents to extreme developmental deviations Answer d % correct 70 a= 2 b= 2 c= 26 d= 70 r = .26 104. Which of the following is true of newborns? a. They are passive creatures who eat, sleep, and remain relatively oblivious to their world. b. Most of their senses operate very poorly at birth. c. They hear and understand very little of what is going on around them. d. They absorb and process information from the outside world almost as soon as, or even before, they enter it. Answer d % correct 94 a= 3 b= 1 c= 0 d= 94 r = .32 105. Which of the following developmental sequences is in correct order? a. embryo, zygote, fetus, infant b. ovum, embryo, fetus, infant c. fetus, embryo, ovum, infant d. ovum, fetus, embryo, infant Answer b % correct 96 a= 1 b= 96 c= 0 d= 3 r = .21 106. Which of the following is NOT a stage of development? a. ovum b. uterine c. embryo d. fetal Answer b % correct 93 a= 4 b= 93 c= 0 d= 3 r = .25 107. Gloria was born prematurely. Gloria may be able to live out of her mother’s body if: a. she was born less than 2 months before she was due. b. she had passed her age of viability. c. she was in the 7th or later month of her prenatal development. d. all of the above Answer d % correct 89 a= 1 b= 7 c= 3 d= 89 r = .23 108. The strange situation procedure has been used to study _________. a. social smiling b. attachment c. identification d. dependence and independence Answer b % correct 45 a= 26 b= 45 c= 11 d= 16 r = .45 109. The strange situation procedure, in which researchers unobtrusively watch an infant in the presence or absence of several combinations of the child, caretaker, and stranger, is used to study _________. a. social smiling b. attachment c. identification d. dependence and independence Answer b % correct 48 a= 18 b= 48 c= 12 d= 21 r = .43

110. At birth, the infant’s nervous system is best described as _________. a. complete b. modified c. incomplete d. immature Answer c % correct 58 a= 0 b= 0 c= 58 d= 42 r = .28 111. Important nerve coverings that are lacking or not fully developed at birth are called _________. a. ganglia b. cortical endings c. myelin sheaths d. none of the above Answer c % correct 92 a= 3 b= 3 c= 92 d= 3 r = .36 112. Drugs that can distort the prenatal organism's physical development are called ___________. a. mutagens b. teratogens c. controlled substances d. congenital defectors Answer b % correct 92 a= 5 b= 92 c= 0 d= 3 r = .34 113. When adults are surprised by a loud noise, they often show the startle reflex. In infants, the same reflex is called the ________ reflex. a. rooting b. Moro c. grasping d. sucking Answer b % correct 89 a= 8 b= 89 c= 0 d= 3 r = .39 114. Researchers have discovered that during specific periods in one’s life, certain abilities must develop or they will not develop later. These are known as ____________. a. developmental milestones b. imprinting c. critical periods d. maturational readiness Answer c % correct 81 a= 12 b= 1 c= 81 d= 5 r = .58 115. Postnatal is to after being born as _______ is to before being born. a. fetal b. prenatal c. neonatal d. pregnancy Answer b % correct 90 a= 4 b= 90 c= 4 d= 2 r = .29 116. During prenatal development, the organism depends on the ________ to exchange food and waste products with the mother's blood stream. a. ovum b. umbilicus c. placenta d. uterus Answer c % correct 78 a= 0 b= 20 c= 78 d= 2 r = .56

117. Which of the following is NOT incompletely developed at birth? a. myelinization b. size of the brain c. cortex d. none of the above Answer d % correct 57 a= 20 b= 12 c= 10 d= 57 r = .20 118. Drugs that can distort the prenatal organism's physical development are called ___________. a. mutagens b. teratogens c. controlled substances d. congenital defectors Answer b % correct 82 a= 5 b= 82 c= 0 d= 13 r = .24 119. An infant will turn his head toward anything which touches his cheek. This is the ________ reflex. a. rooting b. Moro c. grasping d. sucking Answer a % correct 90 a= 90 b= 8 c= 0 d= 2 r = .55 120. The observation that infant attachment occurs in a variety of cultures supports the idea that ______ play(s) a role in attachment. a. learning b. society c. child-rearing practices d. heredity Answer d % correct 36 a= 18 b= 27 c= 18 d= 36 r = .43 121. Which of the following phenomena is most closely associated with the concept of critical period? a. classical conditioning b. imprinting c. motor programs d. creolization Answer b % correct 32 a= 14 b= 32 c= 46 d= 7 r = .22 122. Which of the following are newborn humans capable of doing? a. locating sound sources b. discriminating their mother's voice from other voices c. noticing the differences among three objects d. all of the above Answer d % correct 55 a= 5 b= 41 c= 0 d= 55 r = .35 123. In humans, the machinery for perceiving the world: a. must await the second year of physical maturation. b. is pretty much ready at birth. c. develops during the second half of the child's first year. d. is pretty much dependent on learning experiences. Answer b % correct 64 a= 7 b= 64 c= 4 d= 25 r = .53

124. Human and animal neonates come into the world equipped with a number of built-in responses called _______. a. reflexes b. tropisms c. instincts d. motor programs Answer a % correct 89 a= 89 b= 0 c= 7 d= 4 r = .27

Adolescence 125. The most obvious change ushering in adolescence is __________. a. voice change b. intellectual growth c. the growth spurt d. emotional upheaval Answer c % correct 79 a= 5 b= 10 c= 79 d= 7 r = .22 126. Most young adolescents are at the level of thinking which Piaget described as __________. a. formal operational b. preoperational c. sensorimotor d. concrete operational Answer d % correct 33 a= 64 b= 2 c= 0 d= 33 r = .21 127. Fifteen-year-old Harriet has begun to write an impassioned novel about growing up in America. In her novel she describes her experiences in a way that portrays herself as unique and special, such that no one has ever thought such deep thoughts or experienced such ecstasy before. Harriet’s writings most clearly reflect __________________. a. her sense of autonomy b. the personal fable c. the period of rebellion common to all adolescents d. her developing sense of conscience Answer b % correct 89 a= 9 b= 89 c= 1 d= 0 r = .39 128. In order to make the transition from dependence on parents to dependence upon one’s self, the adolescent must develop a stable sense of ____________________. a. identity b. control c. status d. acceptance Answer a % correct 92 a= 92 b= 3 c= 3 d= 1 r = .34 129. Which of the following couples are MOST likely to have a happy, stable marriage, all other factors being equal? a. couples who get married in their teens b. couples who get married in their 20s or 30s c. couples who get married in their 40s or 50s d. couples who get married in their 40s or 50s after previous divorces from other partners Answer b % correct 88 a= 0 b= 88 c= 7 d= 4 r = .34

130. When adolescents are asked what they MOST dislike about themselves, they are most likely to say they dislike their __________________. a. personality b. social status c. physical appearance d. inability to control their own life Answer c % correct 91 a= 0 b= 3 c= 91 d= 6 r = .61 131. Tim and Jean are both young adolescents who are maturing earlier than most of their peers. Based on this information, which of the following is MOST likely to be true? a. Tim is more comfortable with his physical development than Jean is with hers. b. Jean is more comfortable with her physical development than Tim is with his. c. Both Tim and Jean are equally comfortable with their physical appearance. d. Tim's body is accumulating proportionally larger amounts of fat than Jean's body. Answer a % correct 79 a= 79 b= 7 c= 12 d= 1 r = .43 132. Research indicates that onset of puberty _______________. a. has remained relatively unchanged for several centuries b. is occurring at later ages than ever before in developed countries c. is occurring at earlier ages than ever before in developed countries d. is less important to teenagers today than it has been historically Answer c % correct 88 a= 9 b= 3 c= 88 d= 0 r = .51 133. Betty and Bob are 12-year-old twins. Which of the following is probably an accurate statement about their physical development? a. Betty may be taller and heavier than Bob. b. Bob may be taller and heavier than Betty. c. Bob and Betty, because they are twins, should be about the same height and weight. d. Betty should be heavier, but Bob should be taller. Answer a % correct 68 a= 68 b= 18 c= 12 d= 1 r = .22 134. Betty and Bob are 12-year-old twins. Which of the following is probably an accurate statement about their physical development? a. Bob should almost double his strength during his teen years. b. Betty should almost double her strength during her teen years. c. Betty and Bob's strength will remain equal during their teen years. d. At age 10, Bob should have been stronger than Betty. Answer a % correct 92 a= 92 b= 1 c= 1 d= 5 r = .32 135. Parents often feel that, as their child gets older, the child shares less intimacy with them. Which statement about the intimacy between parents and adolescents is true? a. Adolescence is noted for a decrease in parent/child intimacy. b. Adolescence is noted for an increase in parent/child intimacy. c. The intimacy the child has with the parent stays about the same through adolescence as it was in childhood. d. Adolescents become less intimate with peers during this period. Answer c % correct 39 a= 55 b= 3 c= 39 d= 3 r = .51

136. Traits which are typical of a sex but not directly concerned with reproduction are called _______. a. secondary sexual characteristics b. primary sexual characteristics c. non-primary sexual characteristics d. non-reproductive traits Answer a % correct 82 a= 82 b= 5 c= 5 d= 9 r = .64 137. Which of the following ages is considered the period of adolescence? a. 11-13 years b. 13-15 years c. 10-15 years d. 12-19 years Answer d % correct 86 a= 5 b= 0 c= 9 d= 86 r = .41 142. The development of secondary sexual characteristics: a. is directly concerned with reproduction. b. provides external signs of the approach of puberty. c. occurs only in boys. d. occurs only in girls. Answer b % correct 91 a= 9 b= 91 c= 0 d= 0 r = .60 138. Which of the following is directly concerned with reproduction? a. complex changes in hormones b. primary sexual characteristics c. secondary sexual characteristics d. the onset of menarche Answer b % correct 63 a= 12 b= 63 c= 6 d= 18 r = .51 139. Facial hair in boys and breast development in girls are both signs of: a. primary sexual characteristics. b. menarche. c. adolescent growth spurt. d. secondary sexual characteristics associated with puberty. Answer d % correct 89 a= 8 b= 0 c= 3 d= 89 r = .26 140. According to Erikson’s theory, the _______ stage of development occurs in old age. a. generativity versus stagnation b. intimacy versus isolation c. integrity versus despair d. trust versus mistrust Answer c % correct 51 a= 33 b= 12 c= 51 d= 4 r = .35 141. According to Erik Erikson, the crucial task confronting a person approaching death is that of establishing or attaining _______. a. trust b. ego identity c. ego integrity d. autonomy Answer c % correct 41 a= 32 b= 18 c= 41 d= 9 r = .63

142. As children approach their teen years, contact with _______ becomes more important in their development. a. peers b. parents c. teachers d. adults Answer a % correct 89 a= 89 b= 4 c= 0 d= 7 r = .28 143. The most obvious change ushering in adolescence is _______. a. voice change b. intellectual growth c. the growth spurt d. emotional upheaval Answer c % correct 61 a= 4 b= 14 c= 61 d= 21 r = .22 144. The emergence of sexual feelings in adolescence is closely followed by and intertwined with a need for _______. a. independence b. control c. excitement d. intimacy Answer d % correct 93 a= 0 b= 4 c= 4 d= 93 r = .33

Adulthood 145. The cessation of menstruation is called __________. a. menopause b. endometriosis c. menarche d. the climacteric Answer a % correct 95 a= 95 b= 0 c= 5 d= 0 r = .21 146. Men experience __________ in testosterone levels between the ages of 48 and 70. a. virtually no decline b. a gradual decline of between 10 to 20 percent c. a gradual decline of between 30 and 40 percent d. a gradual decline of between 50 and 60 percent Answer c % correct 48 a= 12 b= 33 c= 48 d= 7 r = .25 147. The FIRST major event in the family cycle is: a. the birth of the first child. b. marrying. c. leaving the parents’ home. d. children marrying. Answer c % correct 42 a= 27 b= 30 c= 42 d= 0

r = .22

148. The pattern of events that is repeated in each new generation is referred to as the __________. a. developmental sequence b. family cycle c. family circle d. family pattern Answer b % correct 73 a= 21 b= 73 c= 1 d= 5 r = .41 149. John was a real hell-raiser in his 20s. After marrying and having children, though, John seemed to calm down. He took life more seriously; he quit smoking, drank moderately, and focused on his career and family. Levinson would describe John's transition as one of _________. a. stabilizing b. settling down c. securing d. fixation Answer b % correct 59 a= 26 b= 59 c= 12 d= 3 r = .24 150. Which of the following is NOT typically a characteristic of successful women? a. first born in the family b. successful in school c. entered the same career as their father d. received the support of their fathers Answer c % correct 92 a= 0 b= 0 c= 92 d= 8 r = .42 151. Which of the following statements about marital satisfaction appears to be true? a. It is low for elderly couples. b. It is highest for young adults. c. It may reach its highest level during late adulthood. d. It is highest for those who marry young. Answer c % correct 89 a= 0 b= 11 c= 89 d= 0 r = .38 152. Which of the following is NOT considered a major event in the FAMILY CYCLE? a. birth of the first child b. last child leaving home c. grandchildren being born d. parents die Answer d % correct 65 a= 0 b= 29 c= 6 d= 65 r = .30 153. During late adulthood, husbands and wives: a. find they cannot express their true feelings. b. often have a high marital satisfaction. c. often have a low level of marital satisfaction. d. turn to children for companionship. Answer b % correct 73 a= 0 b= 73 c= 16 d= 8

r = .56

154. George, at age 42, lost his job, was divorced by his wife, and couldn’t seem to keep friends for very long. George came more and more to feel that he was accomplishing nothing with his life. According to Erikson, George is probably: a. not going to undergo a midlife transition. b. about to undergo a nervous breakdown. c. experiencing feelings of stagnation. d. not responsible for his own life situation. Answer c % correct 86 a= 9 b= 5 c= 86 d= 0 r = .52 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

155. Generativity or stagnation are two feelings that may dominate a person’s life during: a. middle adulthood. b. young adulthood. c. late adulthood. d. the period after he is told that he has a terminal illness. Answer a % correct 50 a= 50 b= 7 c= 43 d= 0 r = .49 156. One way to minimize the effects of aging on physical condition is to _______. a. not worry about aging b. have a proper diet c. engage in vigorous exercise d. all of the above Answer c % correct 93 a= 0 b= 0 c= 93 d= 7 r = .28 157. A gradual and inevitable decline in the life processes begins in __________. a. adolescence b. young adulthood c. middle age d. old age Answer c % correct 69 a= 0 b= 17 c= 69 d= 14 r = .25 158. In one study, a little more than half of the elderly people surveyed reported being __________ as when they were younger. a. much less happy b. somewhat less happy c. just as happy d. somewhat happier Answer c % correct 43 a= 5 b= 14 c= 43 d= 38 r = .23 159. The vast majority of older adults are __________. a. impotent or incapable of sexual response b. uninterested in sex, even if capable of sexual activity c. sexually active, but no longer orgasmic d. sexually active and orgasmic Answer d % correct 64 a= 5 b= 7 c= 24 d= 64

r = .29

160. Older people who were often labeled as “senile” in the past, were most likely suffering from __________. a. normal aging b. Parkinson's disease c. Huntington's disease d. Alzheimer's disease Answer d % correct 67 a= 26 b= 5 c= 2 d= 67 r = .24 161. A disorder common in late adulthood that is characterized by losses in memory and cognition, and changes in personality, and that is believed to be caused by deterioration of the brain's structure and function is __________. a. Wernicke’s syndrome b. Parkinson’s disease c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Korsakoff’s syndrome Answer c % correct 98 a= 2 b= 0 c= 98 d= 0 r = .20

162. The typical sequence of the five stages of dying postulated by Kubler-Ross is __________. a. anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance b. depression, anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance c. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance d. anger, bargaining, depression, denial, acceptance Answer c % correct 83 a= 12 b= 2 c= 83 d= 2 r = .55 163. Which of the following statements is true? a. Kubler-Ross believed that only a few people follow the five-stage model of the dying process. b. Some critics question the universality of the Kubler-Ross model. c. Kubler-Ross believed that American culture is death affirming. d. By trying to protect people from the unpleasant realities of death, we may actually increase their fear of it. Answer b % correct 38 a= 5 b= 38 c= 2 d= 55 r = .37 164. The most severe challenge to be faced during adulthood is probably __________. a. divorce b. loss of one’s job c. retirement d. death of a spouse Answer d % correct 83 a= 12 b= 2 c= 2 d= 83 r = .21 165. Which group of retired men would be MOST likely to consider “women’s work” demeaning? a. working-class men b. college professors c. physicians d. upper middle-class men Answer a % correct 71 a= 71 b= 3 c= 5 d= 21 r = .28 166. The second stage of the grief process is: a. worrying about suffering a nervous breakdown. b. an obsessional review of how the death could have been averted. c. overwhelming sorrow d. redeveloping a positive outlook. Answer a % correct 32 a= 32 b= 36 c= 21 d= 12 r = .22 167. How did Erikson identify the conflict experienced in old age? a. industry vs. inferiority b. intimacy vs. isolation c. generativity vs. stagnation d. integrity vs. despair Answer d % correct 55 a= 5 b= 9 c= 32 d= 55 r = .41 168. How many stages did Kubler-Ross identify among terminally ill patients who knew they were going to die? a. 2 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10 Answer b % correct 78 a= 2 b= 78 c= 28 d= 0 r = .27

169. Who interviewed terminally ill patients and concluded they went through a series of stages in dealing with their impending deaths? a. Erikson b. Kohlberg c. Kubler-Ross d. Piaget Answer c % correct 95 a= 5 b= 0 c= 95 d= 0 r = .09 170. John, a 43-year-old father dying of cancer, makes frequent nasty remarks to his wife such as, “You can’t wait until I die so you can get the insurance money and live it up, can you?” This illustrates which of Kubler-Ross’ stages? a. anger b. depression c. bargaining d. denial Answer a % correct 86 a= 86 b= 5 c= 0 d= 9 r = .66 171. Each of the following is a main theme of one of Kubler-Ross’ five stages in accepting one’s own death except _______. a. loneliness b. anger c. depression d. acceptance Answer a % correct 77 a= 77 b= 9 c= 5 d= 9 r = .62 172. Kubler-Ross has identified denial and isolation as the _______ stage in the adjustment to dying process. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth Answer a % correct 63 a= 63 b= 22 c= 12 d= 2 r = .27 173. The final stage of accepting one’s impending death is, according to Kubler-Ross: a. reactive depression. b. acceptance. c. isolation. d. despair. Answer b % correct 92 a= 1 b= 92 c= 3 d= 4 r = .35 174. The five stages of dying postulated by Kubler-Ross is _______. a. anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance b. depression, anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance c. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance d. anger, bargaining, depression, denial, acceptance Answer c % correct 86 a= 7 b= 7 c= 86 d= 0 r = .54 175. Kubler-Ross is associated with research on: a. the process of grieving over a divorce. b. the peer-group structure development process. c. the process of adjustment involved in dying. d. none of the above Answer c % correct 86 a= 0 b= 0 c= 86 d= 14

r = .28

176. The typical sequence of the five stages of dying postulated by Kubler-Ross is _________________. a. anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance b. depression, anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance c. denial anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance d. anger, bargaining, depression, denial, acceptance Answer c % correct 65 a= 10 b= 19 c= 4 d= 65 r = .51

Quiz 10.1: Special Considerations in Human Development Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Special Considerations in Human Development

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q10.1.1 The branch of psychology that considers how behavior changes over the lifetime is called __________ psychology. a) developmental b) cognitive c) educational d) behavioral ANS: a Topic=Special Considerations in Human Development Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: You read the title of this chapter, right? LO 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings.

EOM Q10.1.2 Which type of research design examines people of different ages at a single point in time? a) cross-sectional design b) longitudinal design c) latitudinal design d) cohort design ANS: a Topic=Special Considerations in Human Development Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Comparing 6-year-olds to 9-year-olds to 13-year-olds would be an example. LO 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q10.1.3 Some people think that if a particular event precedes a particular behavior, then that proves that the behavior was caused by the event. This type of thinking is called the __________. a) post hoc fallacy b) ad hoc fallacy c) a posteriori fallacy d) ad hominem fallacy ANS: a Topic=Special Considerations in Human Development Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: “Post hoc, ergo propter hoc” is a fancy Latin way of describing this problem. LO 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings.

EOM Q10.1.4 Children with certain genetic predispositions often seek out and create their own environments. This observation has been dubbed __________, and illustrates the importance of considering multiple interacting influences on human development. a) nature via nurture b) nature versus nurture c) nurture without nature d) nature over nurture ANS: a Topic=Special Considerations in Human Development Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 10.1a Clarify how nature and nurture can contribute to development. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: They are both present. How they interact and what they contribute is the question. LO 10.1a Clarify how nature and nurture can contribute to development.

EOM Q10.1.5 The activation or deactivation of particular genes is called __________ and can be influenced by environmental factors. a) gene expression b) gene-environment interaction c) gene-environment influence d) genetic heritage ANS: a Topic=Special Considerations in Human Development Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 10.1a Clarify how nature and nurture can contribute to development. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Children with genes that predispose them to anxiety may never become anxious unless a highly stressful event triggers these genes to become active. LO 10.1a Clarify how nature and nurture can contribute to development. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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Quiz 10.2: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q10.2.1 In the __________ stage of prenatal development, the zygote begins to divide and double, forming a blastocyst. a) germinal b) preliminary c) embryonic d) fetal ANS: a Topic=The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development and identify barriers to normal development. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The blastocyst keeps growing as cells continue to divide for the first week and a half or so after fertilization. LO 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development and identify barriers to normal development.

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EOM Q10.2.2 The intake of the teratogen alcohol by a pregnant woman can lead to __________ in her child, which can include learning disabilities, delays in physical growth, facial malformations, and behavioral disorders. a) fetal alcohol syndrome b) infant alcoholism c) alcoholic teratogenic disorder d) neural malformation disorder ANS: a Topic=The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development and identify barriers to normal development. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: There are several symptoms associated with this tragic condition. LO 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development and identify barriers to normal development.

EOM Q10.2.3 Self-initiated bodily movements that activate bones and muscles—such as sitting up, crawling, standing, and walking—are called __________. a) motor behaviors b) movement behavior c) developmental movements d) physical accomplishments ANS: a Topic=The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 10.2b Describe how infants learn to coordinate motion and achieve major motor milestones. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: There is a lot of stuff to learn when you are a baby—even actions we take for granted as adults. LO 10.2b Describe how infants learn to coordinate motion and achieve major motor milestones.

EOM Q10.2.4 What type of hormone produces the growth of pubic hair in adolescent girls? a) androgen b) estrogen c) progesterone d) melatonin ANS: a Topic=The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: People often think of these as “male” or “female” hormones exclusively. LO 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence.

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EOM Q10.2.5 Which of the following begins to drop off significantly when women are in their 30s? a) fertility b) sense of smell c) muscle tone d) cognitive processing ANS: a Topic=The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 10.2d Explain which aspects of physical ability decline during aging. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The risks of serious birth defects increase among women who become pregnant in their thirties and forties. LO 10.2d Explain which aspects of physical ability decline during aging.

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Quiz 10.3: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q10.3.1 At which of Jean Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development does a child develop the ability to perform hypothetical and abstract reasoning? a) formal operations b) sensorimotor c) preoperational d) concrete operations ANS: a Topic=The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: They can also begin to think about abstract questions like the meaning of life. LO 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops.

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EOM Q10.3.2 Lev Vygotsky identified the __________ when children are receptive to learning something new but have not yet succeeded at it. a) zone of proximal development b) conservation tasks c) preoperational stage d) egocentric reasoning stage ANS: a Topic=The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: In Vygotsky’s view, children gradually learn to perform a task independently, but require guidance when getting started. LO 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops.

EOM Q10.3.3 When children learn to mentally group objects by kind, such as recognizing that birds of all shapes and sizes are still birds, they have learned __________. a) to categorize b) object permanence c) to create modular accounts d) scaffolding ANS: a Topic=The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 10.3b Explain how children acquire knowledge in important cognitive domains. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This is a fundamental cognitive task that seems rudimentary in retrospect, but is an important part of cognitive development. LO 10.3b Explain how children acquire knowledge in important cognitive domains.

EOM Q10.3.4 On simple tasks regarding impulse control, teens __________ compared to adults. a) have more difficulty and use more brain processing power b) have a much easier time and get better results c) respond impressively d) participate in fewer research studies ANS: a Topic=The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 10.3c Describe how attitudes toward knowledge change during adolescence. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: The frontal lobes are still maturing during adolescence. LO 10.3c Describe how attitudes toward knowledge change during adolescence.

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EOM Q10.3.5 What kind of cognitive function tends to stay the same or get better as we age? a) crystallized intelligence b) processing speed c) short-term memory d) fluid intelligence ANS: a Topic=The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 10.3c Describe how attitudes toward knowledge change during adolescence. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: A beacon of hope in a sea of aging! LO 10.3c Describe how attitudes toward knowledge change during adolescence.

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Quiz 10.4: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q10.4.1 Harry Harlow conducted research with monkeys in the 1950s and discovered that baby monkeys preferred an inanimate “surrogate mother” covered in terry cloth to a wire-mesh “mother” that provided milk. Harlow called this phenomenon __________. a) contact comfort b) strange situation c) texture consolation d) textile preference ANS: a Topic=The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This phenomenon may help us understand why humans find simple touch so reassuring. LO 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers.

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EOM Q10.4.2 At around the age of eight or nine months, children begin to react to new people with fear. This behavior is called __________. a) stranger anxiety b) stranger danger c) novelty avoidance d) temperamentalism ANS: a Topic=The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This may be an adaptive mechanism for keeping infants away from dangers, including unknown adults. LO 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children.

EOM Q10.4.3 Lawrence Kohlberg argued that people operating at a preconventional stage of moral development obey rules because __________. a) they fear being punished b) they know it is the right thing to do c) they understand the larger moral principles behind the rules d) they have an innate understanding of morality ANS: a Topic=The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 10.4c Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Kohlberg’s formulation of moral development proposed different levels of moral response across different age ranges. LO 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood.

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EOM Q10.4.4 Some mothers are believed to experience __________, a period of depression that comes on after their children leave home, although most research suggests there are cohort effects on the incidence of this condition. a) empty-nest syndrome b) midlife crises c) moral dilemmas d) memento mori ANS: a Topic=The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 10.4d Identify developmental changes during major life transitions in adults. Difficulty=Moderate, Division=Humanities and Social Sciences Consider This: The assumed universality of this experience is questionable. LO 10.4d Identify developmental changes during major life transitions in adults.

EOM Q10.4.5 Chronological age is not necessarily the best way of measuring the impact the changes of aging will have on a person’s life. Which of the following refers to whether people behave in a way that is age-appropriate? a) social age b) functional age c) psychological age d) biological age ANS: a Topic=The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 10.4e Summarize different ways of conceptualizing old age. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: When people judge a woman as “dressing too young for her age” they are invoking expectations about this. LO 10.4e Summarize different ways of conceptualizing old age.

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Chapter 10 Quiz: Human Development Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Chapter Quiz: Human Development

Multiple Choice Single Select EOC Q10.1 Which of the following situations is an example of a bidirectional influence in developmental psychology? a) Parents influence their children's behavior, but the children's behavior also influences their parents' reactions. b) Genes cause certain traits to be manifested. c) A child's environment contributes to her or his intellectual development. d) Children seek out stimulating activities in their home and school environments. ANS: a Topic=Special Considerations in Human Development Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: There are many ways in which human development proceeds via bidirectional influences. LO 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings.

EOC Q10.2 Which parenting style combines the best features of authoritarian and permissive approaches? a) authoritative b) uninvolved c) incisive d) decisive ANS: a Topic=The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Recall the key features of the major styles of parenting. LO 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q10.3 A few studies have demonstrated a correlation between low production of the enzyme monoamine oxidase and heightened risk for criminally violent behavior in cases when (and only when) the person also has a history of mistreatment. This is an example of __________. a) gene-environment interaction b) genetic destiny c) nature against nurture d) gene expression ANS: a Topic=Special Considerations in Human Development Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 10.1a Clarify how nature and nurture can contribute to development. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The impact of genes on behavior depends on the environment in which the behavior develops. LO 10.1a Clarify how nature and nurture can contribute to development.

EOC Q10.4 Which of the following examples of “popular psychology wisdom” turns out to actually be true? a) Children grow in spurts rather than at a constant, steady rate. b) Playing Mozart for a baby will greatly increase her or his IQ. c) The teenage years are full of turmoil, marked by mood swings and acting out. d) When adults reach midlife, they go through a period of trying to capture their lost youth. ANS: a Topic=The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Sometimes what people believe about the world actually turns out to be correct. LO 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence.

EOC Q10.5 Which of the following sequences summarizes the correct order of prenatal development? a) zygote - blastocyst - embryo - fetus b) blastocyst - embryo - zygote - fetus c) embryo - zygote - blastocyst - fetus d) zygote - embryo - blastocyst - fetus ANS: a Topic=The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development and identify barriers to normal development. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: You have heard all these terms before; what is the correct order in which they occur? LO 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development and identify barriers to normal development.

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EOC Q10.6 Jean Piaget concluded that children did not grasp __________ until between 8 and 12 months of age but other researchers demonstrated that children as young as five months (and possibly younger) could do it. a) object permanence b) and hold objects c) unsupported objects d) theories of mind ANS: a Topic=The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 10.3b Explain how children acquire knowledge in important cognitive domains. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Piaget thought that “out of sight, out of mind” characterized this developmental period. LO 10.3b Explain how children acquire knowledge in important cognitive domains.

EOC Q10.7 The termination of menstruation in women is called __________. a) menopause b) menarche c) andropause d) genetopause ANS: a Topic=The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 10.2d Explain which aspects of physical ability decline during aging. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This signals the end of reproductive capacity. LO 10.2d Explain which aspects of physical ability decline during aging.

EOC Q10.8 Jean Piaget proposed several stages of cognitive development in children. Which stage did he argue occurred between the ages of 7 and 11 years? a) concrete operations b) sensorimotor c) formal operations d) preoperational ANS: a Topic=The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Recall the order in which Piaget thought children progressed through cognitive development. LO 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops.

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EOC Q10.9 The major milestones of motor development in children include (in this order) sitting up, crawling, __________, and walking. a) standing unsupported b) two-footed jumping c) rolling over d) running ANS: a Topic=The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 10.2b Describe how infants learn to coordinate motion and achieve major motor milestones. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Different children typically achieve major motor milestones in the same order. LO 10.2b Describe how infants learn to coordinate motion and achieve major motor milestones.

EOC Q10.10 What part of the brain does not mature until late adolescence or early adulthood and is responsible for planning, decision making, and impulse control? a) frontal lobes b) Broca’s area c) parietal lobe d) cerebellum ANS: a Topic=The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 10.3c Describe how attitudes toward knowledge change during adolescence. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This may explain some of the impulsive behaviors for which teens are notorious. LO 10.3c Describe how attitudes toward knowledge change during adolescence.

EOC Q10.11 A “soft” approach to parenting is described as __________, whereas a “hard” approach to parenting is described as __________. a) child-centered; parent-centered b) parent-centered; child-centered c) community-centered; achievement-centered d) achievement-centered; community-centered ANS: a Topic=The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Difficulty=Moderate, Division=Humanities and Social Sciences, chapterTitle=Human Development Consider This: These approaches emphasize different roles and expectations for both parents and children. LO 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q10.12 One problem that can arise with longitudinal research designs is that participants may drop out of the study for a variety of reasons or even die. This term for this problem is __________. a) attrition b) attribution c) longevity d) depreciation ANS: a Topic=Special Considerations in Human Development Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This can be a particular problem when the participants who drop out of a study differ in important ways from those who stay in the study. LO 10.1b Identify ways to think scientifically about developmental findings.

EOC Q10.13 The Strange Situation refers to __________. a) an experimental procedure for investigating attachment b) the first weeks of a newborn’s life in a cultural context c) conflicting sources of contact comfort d) an emo rock group ANS: a Topic=Special Considerations in Human Development Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers. Difficulty=Moderate, Division=Humanities and Social Sciences, chapterTitle=Human Development, bookAuthor=Lilienfeld, et al., bookTitle=Psychology: From Inquiry to Understanding, 4e Consider This: The Strange Situation was developed for a specific purpose. LO 10.4a Describe how and when children establish emotional bonds with their caregivers.

EOC Q10.14 Signs of sexual maturity in girls are the onset of menstruation and the development of __________. Signs of sexual maturity in boys are the growth of body hair and an increase in __________. a) breasts; muscle strength b) pubic hair; estrogens c) spermarche; testosterone d) sexual attitudes; opposite-sex play ANS: a Topic=The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The physiology of adolescence is characterized by some notable developments. LO 10.2c Describe physical maturation during childhood and adolescence.

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EOC Q10.15 A crucial ingredient of social development is self-control, or the ability to __________. a) inhibit impulses b) frustrate ambitions c) gratify desires d) delay development ANS: a Topic=The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: If you are offered one marshmallow now or two later, if you are patient—wait it out for the two. LO 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children.

EOC Q10.16 Having the ability to reason about what other people know or believe, we are said to have a capacity called __________. a) theory of mind b) object permanence c) general cognitive account d) intuitive physics ANS: a Topic=The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 10.3b Explain how children acquire knowledge in important cognitive domains. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Children eventually realize that “other people may not know what I know.” LO 10.3b Explain how children acquire knowledge in important cognitive domains.

EOC Q10.17 In the __________ stage in Jean Piaget’s theory of development, children develop the ability to perform mental operations on physical events but do not yet think abstractly or hypothetically. a) concrete operational b) formal operations c) conservation d) preoperational ANS: a Topic=The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Children need physical experience as an anchor to which they can tether their mental operations. LO 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops.

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EOC Q10.18 Jerry sees a bicycle sitting unattended in an alleyway. His first impulse is to take it; he would have a new bike, and that would be pretty cool. However, he reasons to himself that taking the bicycle is against the law, and laws are laws; they are there for a reason. According to Larry Kohlberg's model of moral reasoning, what stage of morality has Jerry achieved? a) conventional b) preconventional c) postconventional d) contractual ANS: a Topic=Special Considerations in Human Development Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Jerry's reasoning seems to be consistent with that of most adults. LO 10.4c Determine how morality and identity develop during adolescence and emerging adulthood.

EOC Q10.19 The majority of parenting research indicates that as long as parents provide __________, in which they meet their children’s basic needs for affection and appropriate discipline, most kids will turn out just fine. a) an average expectable environment b) the best possible environment c) an individualistic environment d) a collectivist environment ANS: a Topic=The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Parents need not lose sleep about everything they do or every word they utter. LO 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children.

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EOC Q10.20 An environmental factor—such as alcohol, cigarettes, and certain drugs—that has a negative effect on the development of a baby in utero is called a __________. a) teratogen b) genetic disorder c) brysosome d) blastocyst ANS: a Topic=The Developing Body: Physical and Motor Development Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development and identify barriers to normal development. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: These elements run the gamut from drugs and alcohol to chicken pox and X-rays. LO 10.2a Track the trajectory of prenatal development and identify barriers to normal development.

EOC Q10.21 Jerome Kagan identified a temperamental style called __________ for infants who are frightened by new or unexpected stimuli such as unfamiliar faces, loud noises, or moving toys. a) behavioral inhibition b) fraidy cats c) difficult d) slow to warm up ANS: a Topic=The Developing Personality: Social and Moral Development Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Their hearts pound, their bodies tense up, and their amygdalae become active. LO 10.4b Explain the environmental and genetic influences on social behavior and social style in children.

EOC Q10.22 What does the popular (but scientifically mythical) term “midlife crisis” refer to? a) A period of emotional distress regarding the aging process and an attempt to regain one’s youth. b) A reflective period of evaluation as people enter their 70s. c) A time of "re-nesting" and "feathering" that many parents go through in their 50s. d) A developmental stage characterized by exploration of alternatives and heightened social achievement. ANS: a Topic=The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 10.4d Identify developmental changes during major life transitions in adults. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The popularity of a belief is not always an indication of the correctness of a belief. LO 10.4d Identify developmental changes during major life transitions in adults. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q10.23 Jean Piaget referred to the process of absorbing new experience into current knowledge structures by the term __________. a) assimilation b) accommodation c) sensorimotor development d) object permanence ANS: a Topic=The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The child reinterprets new experiences to fit with what she already knows. LO 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops.

EOC Q10.24 Lev Vygotsky developed a comprehensive theory of cognitive development that included __________, the notion that parents provide structure to help their children learn, then gradually remove structure when the children can manage the task on their own. a) scaffolding b) structuralism c) zone of proximal development d) modular construction of learning ANS: a Topic=The Developing Mind: Cognitive Development Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This is pretty much what it sounds like. LO 10.3a Understand major theories of how children’s thinking develops.

EOC Q10.25 Chronological age is one way to measure how aging will affect us, especially as we grow older. Which of the following is another way of conceptualizing age? a) functional age b) intellectual age c) cohort age d) expectational age ANS: a Topic=Special Considerations in Human Development Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 10.4e Summarize different ways of conceptualizing old age. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Recall four alternative ways of conceptualizing the aging process. LO 10.4e Summarize different ways of conceptualizing old age.

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Chapter 11: Introduction: Emotion and Motivation Total Assessment Guide

Topic Quick Quiz 1

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice

3, 6, 8

1, 4, 7, 9

2, 5, 10

Quick Quiz 2

Multiple Choice

3–4, 6, 8

7, 9

1–2, 5, 10

Learning Objective 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion.

Multiple Choice

1, 4, 9–12, 15–16, 32, 38 1

2, 5–7, 13, 21, 23, 26–27, 31, 34–37 3 1

3, 8, 14, 17-20, 22, 24– 25, 28–30, 33, 39–41 2

Learning Objective 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion. Learning Objective 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Learning Objective 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls. Learning Objective 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and selfesteem. Learning Objective 11.3b Describe the emerging discipline of positive psychology. Learning Objective 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation.

43–44, 50 5

53–55, 58–61, 64– 65 8

56–57, 62–63 6–7 2

68–69, 71–74, 76– 77 9

66–67, 70, 75

78, 82, 86–88, 90, 92 10–12

79, 84

80–81, 83, 85, 89, 91,

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

94 13–14

Multiple Choice

95, 99, 102, 112, 114 16, 18

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

49, 51 4

1 45–48, 52

93 15 1 97–98, 105, 107– 111, 113

96, 100–101, 103–104, 106

Topic Factual Conceptual Applied Multiple Choice 117, 119, 121, 123– 115–116, 118, 120, Learning Objective Name _____________________________________________ 124 122, 125 11.4b Fill-in-the-Blank 17, 20 19 Describe the Chapter 11 Quick Quiz 1 Essay determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity. Critical Thinking 1. According to the discrete emotions Multipletheory, Choiceemotions 126,__________. 129, 131 127 128, 130 Learning Objective A) differ significantly across cultures B) are independent of physiological responses at all Fill-in-the-Blank 21D) are found only in civilized cultures 11.4c C) exist to serve evolutionary functions Essay 4 Identify the symptoms Critical Thinking of bulimia anorexia. 2. Val hasand a crush on Ilene. What is one thing he might do to make himself more desirable? A) Bring her flowers. B) Stop by every day to say hello. Multiple Choice 132–134, 137–139 135–136 Learning Objective C) Compliment her on her hair. D) Tell her she has nice shoes. Fill-in-the-Blank 23 22 11.4d Essay Describe the human 3. Our unconscious spillover Critical of emotions into nonverbal behavior is called __________. Thinking sexual response cycle A) nonverbal communication B) a manipulator and factors that C) an illustrator D) nonverbal leakage influence sexual activity. Multipleduring Choicewhich141, 143–144 142 Learning 4. BasedObjective on the realities of happiness, holiday should we be the140, happiest? A) Easter Fill-in-the-Blank 11.4e B) common Valentine’s Day Essay Identify C) Halloween Critical Thinking misconceptions about D) Thanksgiving and potential influences on sexual orientation. 5. Who is being driven by intrinsic motivation? Multiple Choice 146, 149–150 145, 147–148, 151 Learning Objective A) Matt, who is dying to win the trophy he sees behind the podium B) Lucia, who hopes to earn a scholarship for college so her parents won’t have to pay for her tuition Fill-in-the-Blank 11.5a C) principles Kira, who enjoys marathons for the challenge Essay 5 Identify and running D) Kip, who is working for a promotion and a raise at his job Critical Thinking factors that guide attraction and 6. Manipulations that decrease glucose levels cause __________; ones that increase glucose levels cause relationship formation. __________. 164 in hunger;152, 158, 161–163 A) anObjective increase in arousal;Multiple a decreaseChoice in arousal 153–155, B) a decrease an increase in hunger 156–157, 159–160 Learning C) a decrease in arousal; an increase in arousal D) an increase in hunger; a decrease in hunger Fill-in-the-Blank 24 11.5b Describe the major types Essay 7. Which following factors is the best predictor of homosexuality? Critical Thinking of love and of thetheelements A) being left-handed or right-handed of loveB)and hate. in gender nonconformity engaging C) being sexually attracted to the members of the same sex D) feeling estranged from your same sex peers 8. According to the work of Hatfield and Rapson (1996), the two major kinds of love that people experience are called __________ love. A) passionate and companionate B) fatuous and empty C) consummate and adaptive D) interpersonal and intrapersonal 9. According to the triangular theory of love proposed by Sternberg, __________ love is the ultimate love. A) romantic B) companionate C) fatuous D) consummate

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 11 Quick Quiz 1 1. According to the discrete emotions theory, emotions __________. A) differ significantly across cultures B) are independent of physiological responses at all C) exist to serve evolutionary functions D) are found only in civilized cultures 2. Val has a crush on Ilene. What is one thing he might do to make himself more desirable? A) Bring her flowers. B) Stop by every day to say hello. C) Compliment her on her hair. D) Tell her she has nice shoes. 3. Our unconscious spillover of emotions into nonverbal behavior is called __________. A) nonverbal communication B) a manipulator C) an illustrator D) nonverbal leakage 4. Based on the realities of happiness, during which holiday should we be the happiest? A) Easter B) Valentine’s Day C) Halloween D) Thanksgiving 5. Who is being driven by intrinsic motivation? A) Matt, who is dying to win the trophy he sees behind the podium B) Lucia, who hopes to earn a scholarship for college so her parents won’t have to pay for her tuition C) Kira, who enjoys running marathons for the challenge D) Kip, who is working for a promotion and a raise at his job 6. Manipulations that decrease glucose levels cause __________; ones that increase glucose levels cause __________. A) an increase in arousal; a decrease in arousal B) a decrease in hunger; an increase in hunger C) a decrease in arousal; an increase in arousal D) an increase in hunger; a decrease in hunger 7. Which of the following factors is the best predictor of homosexuality? A) being left-handed or right-handed B) engaging in gender nonconformity C) being sexually attracted to the members of the same sex D) feeling estranged from your same sex peers 8. According to the work of Hatfield and Rapson (1996), the two major kinds of love that people experience are called __________ love. A) passionate and companionate B) fatuous and empty C) consummate and adaptive D) interpersonal and intrapersonal 9. According to the triangular theory of love proposed by Sternberg, __________ love is the ultimate love. A) romantic B) companionate C) fatuous D) consummate

10. “Look at those two, they can’t keep their hands off of each other! They’ve only been10. “Look at those two, they can’t keep their hands off of each other! They’ve only been on two dates, and they barely know each other!” What type of love is being depicted? A) companionate B) infatuation C) committed D) intimate

Chapter 11 Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1. C

Explanation: Advocates of the discrete emotions theories suggest that each emotion we experience is associated with a set of distinct biological roots and evolutionary functions. (Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 11.1a)

2. B

Explanation: The mere exposure effect suggests that repeated exposure to a stimulus (in this case Val) makes us view the stimulus more favorably. (Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 11.1b)

3. D

Explanation: Expressions like facial movements and body language are very important in communication. (Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 11.2a)

4. D

Explanation: Gratitude increases short-term happiness. (Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 11.3a)

5. C

Explanation: Kira alone is driven by internal goals; the others are driven by external ones. (Motivation: Our Wants and Needs, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 11.4a)

6. D

Explanation: This is the basis of the glucostatic theory of hunger. (Motivation: Our Wants and Needs, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 11.4b)

7. C

Explanation: The sexual attraction to persons of one’s same sex is the best predictor of homosexuality, and none of the other options have any true research support. (Motivation: Our Wants and Needs, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 11.4e)

8. A

Explanation: There are many different theories that propose the existence of multiple types of love. This is one of them. (Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 11.5b)

9. D

Explanation: Consummate love is marked by the presence of intimacy, passion, and commitment. (Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 11.5b)

10. B

Explanation: Infatuation is marked by a powerful longing for one’s partner, but lacks intimacy and commitment. (Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 11.5b)

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 11 Quick Quiz 2 1. A three-month-old baby named Bryan smiles even when he is alone. Scientific research has suggested that his smile should be attributed to __________. A) effective training by his mom B) his motivation to learn something new C) the reinforcements from his immediate surroundings D) his innate motor programs 2. Mrs. Woodham wants her students to embrace the book The Giving Tree by Shel Silverstein. She believes the message is a powerful one. What might you encourage her to do? A) Have each student read the book and write a response. B) Get the book on CD and play it for her students. C) Read the book to the students every day. D) Read the book to the students and then have them read it themselves. 3. Types of gestures and movements that can display our emotions are called __________. A) facial feedback B) nonverbal leakage C) mere exposure D) primary emotions 4. Which best characterizes the correlation between income and subjective feelings of happiness? A) negative, but weak B) positive and strong C) negligible D) positive, but modest 5. Before entering first grade, little Mina used to love to read books. Once school started, her teacher began a program to motivate her students to read. She began to give stars to those children who finished a new book. As a result, Mina no longer reads while she is at home. What has likely occurred? A) Mina’s intrinsic motivation decreased. B) Mina’s extrinsic motivation decreased. C) Mina’s intrinsic motivation was unchanged. D) Mina’s intrinsic motivation was increased. 6. According to the glucostatic theory, the level of __________ is a primary control mechanism for the regulation of hunger. A) lipids in the liver B) glucose in the blood C) metabolites in the pancreas D) phospholipids in the spleen 7. The fact that identical twins are more likely to share sexual orientation than fraternal twins suggests that sexual orientation is at least partly __________. A) environmental B) genetic C) chemical D) hormonal 8. Who proposed the triangular theory of love? A) Robert Sternberg C) Stanley Milgram

B) Soloman Asch D) Philip Zimbardo

9. Commitment without intimacy or passion might be referred to as __________. A) fatuous love B) companionate love C) empty love D) liking

10. Jane just met Allen at a bar. They talked for awhile and shared a cab home. She tells her roommates that she cannot stop thinking about him. What type of love is she experiencing? A) fatuous B) empty C) romantic D) infatuation

Chapter 11 Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1. D

Explanation: The fact that some emotional expressions emerge even without direct reinforcement suggests that they may be byproducts of an innate motor program. (Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?, Applied, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 11.1a)

2. C

Explanation: The mere exposure effect suggests that the more they hear it, the more they will like it and the message. (Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 11.1b)

3. B

Explanation: Displays like facial expressions and body language can be extremely important in communication, whether paired with verbalizations or displayed alone. (Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 11.2a)

4. D

Explanation: Money can have an effect on happiness, but usually only in the short-term and only modestly, up to $50,000. (Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology, Factual, APA LO .1, TEXT LO 11.3a)

5. A

Explanation: Certain reinforcements may undermine intrinsic motivation, in this case, making Mina less likely to read for pleasure. (Motivation: Our Wants and Needs, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 11.4a)

6. B

Explanation: The amount of this powerful sugar in the blood can have important influences on our level of hunger and easting activities. (Motivation: Our Wants and Needs, Factual, APA 1.1, TEXT LO 11.4b)

7. B

Explanation: Remember that identical twins are nature’s true clones, and that similarities between them are often used to explore genetic influences on development. (Motivation: Our Wants and Needs, Conceptual, APA LO 2.1, TEXT LO 11.4e)

8. A

Explanation: Sternberg is responsible for promoting the triangular theory of love. (Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 11.5b)

9. C

Explanation: When there is no intimacy or passion, Sternberg’s theory calls this empty love. (Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 11.5b)

10. D

Chapter 11: Introduction: Emotion and Motivation Test Bank Multiple-Choice 1. Mental states or feelings that are associated with our evaluation of our experiences are called __________. A) motivations Incorrect. Motivations are psychological drives that propel us in a specific direction. B) emotions Correct. This is how many psychologists define emotions. C) instincts D) reflexes Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 2. According to the discrete emotions theory, emotions __________. A) differ significantly across cultures Incorrect. In fact, according to the discrete emotions theory, genetically influenced physiological responses to emotions are essentially the same in all of us. B) are independent of physiological responses at all C) exist to serve evolutionary functions that are the same in all of us Correct. Advocates of the discrete emotions theory suggest that each emotion we experience is associated with a set of distinct biological roots and evolutionary functions. D) are found only in civilized cultures Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?

3. A three-month-old baby named Bryan smiles even when he is alone. Scientific research has suggested that his smile should be attributed to __________. A) effective training by his mom B) his motivation to learn something new C) reinforcements from his immediate surroundings Incorrect. The evolutionary basis of emotions suggests that reinforcement may not be necessary to learn particular emotional expressions. D) his innate motor programs Correct. The fact that some emotional expressions emerge even without direct reinforcement suggests that they may be byproducts of an innate motor program. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 4. Which theorist was among the first to point out the similarities between the emotional expressions of humans and those of animals? A) Ekman B) Friesen C) Galton Incorrect. Though Galton was related to Charles Darwin, he is not the correct individual. D) Darwin Correct. Evolutionary theorist Charles Darwin is the correct individual. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 5. There are several proposed hypotheses for why many different types of animals tend to exhibit similar, if not identical, expressions of emotion. One such hypothesis, demonstrating the critical thinking concept of __________, suggests that these reactions all share the same evolutionary roots. A) Occam’s Razor Correct. This is the simplest explanation for why different animals, including human beings, have similar emotional expressions. B) falsifiability Incorrect. There is nothing in this hypothesis that demonstrates the inaccuracy of any competing hypotheses. C) replicability D) extraordinary claims Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?

6. The fact that different expressions of emotions tend to appear across cultures might lead one to believe that these expressions are evolutionarily based, and not affected by culture. At the same time, another explanation of this similarity is that because many people have been exposed to Western culture, they have taken on Western facial expressions of emotions. This alternate explanation for the apparent universality of emotional expression demonstrates which principle of critical thinking? A) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. In fact, this alternate explanation might be more complex, rather than simpler, and thus is the opposite of the precepts of Occam’s Razor. B) correlation vs. causation C) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. The search for alternate explanations for phenomena demonstrates the principle of ruling out rival hypotheses. D) extraordinary claims Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 7. The research of Carol Izard (1971), demonstrating that participants in North American and European countries can recognize and generate the same emotional expressions as people in other cultures, has been well-supported by additional research follow-up. This supports Izard’s claims based on the grounds of __________. A) falsifiability Incorrect. The follow-up research has supported Izard’s findings, not disproved them. B) replicability Correct. Producing similar research findings is the hallmark of replication, and it provides support for the original findings. C) correlation vs. causation D) extraordinary claims Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 8. As you walk into your dorm room, you notice that your roommate is crying. Why is it difficult to know if she is happy or sad? A) Her facial expressions are likely to be similar. B) Her physiological reactions are likely to be similar. Correct. Surprisingly, happiness and sadness aren’t terribly different in their patterns of brain activation. C) Her nonverbal cues are likely to be similar. Incorrect. The nonverbal cues associated with sadness and happiness are decidedly different. The physiological changes we experience in response to these emotions, however, may be very similar. D) It is impossible to pick up on the physiological responses that distinguish happiness from sadness. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

9. Ekman’s research proposed that there are __________ distinct primary emotions that appear to exist cross-culturally. A) three B) four C) seven D) nine Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 10. Paul Ekman's research of the facial expressions of emotions has suggested that the emotions of happiness, disgust, sadness, fear, surprise, contempt, and anger are all __________ emotions that appear across cultures. A) hierarchical B) instinctive Incorrect. While the expression of these emotions may have an instinct-based component, this is not the term he used. C) secondary D) primary Correct. Ekman felt that these primary emotions are common to the human species, irrespective of cultural influence. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 11. Ekman conducted a number of studies of facial expressions and found that __________. A) expression varies from culture to culture B) there are too many emotions to classify C) seven primary emotions are almost universal D) common expressions exist only for happiness Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?

12. Which of the following emotions has been shown in research to have considerable cross-culture agreement? A) fear B) envy C) melancholia D) suspicion Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 13. Which of the following emotions would be most difficult to read from facial expression alone? A) envy Correct. Envy is not a primary emotion and is therefore harder to interpret. B) anger Incorrect. Anger is one of the primary emotions, and has its own distinct facial expressions. C) fear D) surprise Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? % correct 85 a = 85 b = 3 c = 9 d = 3 r = .32 14. Which of the following emotions might Sven, an exchange student from Europe, have the most difficulty recognizing? A) contempt Incorrect. Because contempt is one of the seven primary emotions, and these are thought to be relatively consistent across cultures, Sven would probably not have difficulty recognizing this emotion. B) happiness C) anger D) jealousy Correct. Jealousy is a secondary emotion that seems less likely to be cross-culturally universal. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?

15. The emotion “alarm,” a mixture of fear and surprise, is one example of a __________ emotion. A) primary B) secondary C) real D) fake Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 16. Cultural guidelines that can regulate how and when emotions should be expressed are called __________. A) covert observation B) polygraphs C) display rules D) emotional cues Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 17. Alisa stood on stage with one corner of her mouth lifted. This is one illustration of a __________ expression. A) happy B) sad C) fearful Incorrect. This would not be a facial feature associated with the expression of fear. D) contempt Correct. The lifting of the corners of the mouth is often associated with the expression of contempt. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?

18. When Marco arrived, he was smiling but with no drooping of eyelids or crinkling in the corners of his eyes. He is probably showing a(n) __________. A) emotional expression B) fake emotion Correct. Genuine happiness is reflected in the eyes as well as smile. Marco is demonstrating a Pan Am smile. C) display rule D) Duchenne smile Incorrect. A Duchenne smile demonstrates true happiness, which should involve the eyes as well as the mouth. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 19. “Look, Mom, she is not really happy; you can see it in her eyes!” cries Amelia’s little sister. What might this sharp little 4-year-old have spotted? A) a masked reaction B) a Duchenne smile Incorrect. A Duchenne smile demonstrates true happiness, which should involve the eyes as well as the mouth. C) a Pan Am smile Correct. The Pan Am smile is a fake smile marked by a movement of the mouth but not the eyes. D) a forced smile Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 20. When people pose for photographs, they are often instructed to "say cheese" so that they appear to be smiling. When you see one of their pictures later, you may notice that the smiles are not real based on the absence of movement around the eyes. The people in the photograph are failing do demonstrate a genuine, or __________, smile. A) Ekman Incorrect. Paul Ekman conducted important research in the facial expression of emotions, but there is no smile that has been named after him. B) Duchenne Correct. A Duchenne smile demonstrates true happiness, which should involve the eyes as well as the mouth. C) Pan Am D) Fickerman Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?

21. Which of the following theories states that emotions derive from our interpretations of our bodily reactions to stimuli? A) James-Lange theory of emotion Correct. The James-Lange theory of emotion suggests that first we experience a physiological reaction to a stimulus, and then we experience the cognitive emotional state. B) somatic marker theory C) Cannon-Bard theory of emotion Incorrect. The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion suggests that we experience the physiological and cognitive reactions to an emotion-evoking stimulus simultaneously. D) two-factor theory of emotion Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? % correct 79 a = 79 b = 0 c = 15 d = 6 r = .60 22. Larry comes home to find his house on fire. Which of the following statements best represents the James-Lange theory? A) “I am shaking because I am afraid.” Incorrect. This would be the opposite of that which is postulated by the James-Lange theory. B) “My shaking must be due to fear because my house is on fire.” C) “I am afraid because I am shaking.” Correct. According to the James-Lange theory, emotions result from our interpretations of our bodily reactions to stimuli. D) “My fear is an automatic reaction to a dangerous situation.” Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 23. According to the James-Lange theory, the conscious experience of emotion __________ physiological arousal. A) follows Correct. This theory suggests that physiological arousal precedes our conscious experience of emotional stimulation. B) precedes Incorrect. This would be the opposite of that which is postulated by the James-Lange theory. C) coincides with D) causes Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?

24. You are sitting in the living room of your girlfriend’s house when you notice that your hands are perspiring. What theory of emotions suggests that you will now decide that you are nervous about meeting her parents? A) James-Lange Correct. James-Lange proposes that interpretations of physiological responses lead to emotional experience. B) Cannon-Bard Incorrect. The Cannon-Bard theory proposes that physiological responses and emotional experiences occur simultaneously. C) two-factor D) discrete emotions Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 25. Jon is sitting in his psychology class across from Della when he realizes that he has been smiling. What theory of emotion suggests that Jon will now decide that he has a crush on Della? A) Cannon-Bard Incorrect. The Cannon-Bard theory proposes that physiological responses and emotional experiences occur simultaneously. B) James-Lange Correct. James-Lange proposes that interpretations of physiological responses lead to emotional experience. C) two-factor D) discrete emotions Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?

26. Which sequence of events in emotional responses is characteristic of the James-Lange theory of emotion? A) stimulus --> emotion --> physiological changes Incorrect. The idea that the stimulus caused the emotion and the emotion caused the physiological changes is logical, and that is the sequence that most psychologists assumed occurred; however, no one ever formally proposed this sequence as part of an official theory, and what research has been done into this model has not been compelling. B) stimulus --> physiological changes --> emotion Correct. James and Lange both came up with the idea that physiological changes occurred before the emotion. C) physiological changes --> stimulus --> emotion D) stimulus --> emotion AND physiological changes (simultaneous) Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 27. According to the James-Lange theory, people use __________ cues to differentiate and label their emotions; according to the two-factor theory, people look to __________ cues to differentiate and label their emotions. A) physiological; situational Correct. According to the James-Lange theory, emotions result from our interpretations of our bodily reactions to stimuli; Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory proposes that emotions depend on autonomic arousal and the cognitive interpretation of that arousal. B) situational; physiological Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. C) situational; situational D) physiological; physiological Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? % correct 69 a = 69 b = 25 c = 0 d = 6 r = .20

28. Zoe was on the cusp of passing her statistics course this semester. Her palms started sweating and her heart started pounding while she was preparing to enter the instructor’s office to check her final grade. Zoe might have changed her mind and ran away because her heart was pounding too fast. This explanation is most likely based on the __________. A) James-Lange theory of emotion B) somatic marker theory of emotion Correct. The somatic marker theory of emotion suggests that we use our gut reactions to determine our behaviors. These gut reactions occur in response to environmental stimuli. C) Cannon-Bard theory of emotion Incorrect. The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion suggests that the physiological reaction and the cognitive experience of an emotion would occur at the same time. D) two-factor theory of emotion Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 29. According to the __________, seeing a crocodile in the swamp would lead simultaneously to both the emotion of fear and running away at the same time. However, the __________ would suggest that people are afraid because they run away. A) Cannon-Bard theory of emotion; somatic marker theory of emotion B) two-factor theory of emotion; Cannon-Bard theory of emotion C) Cannon-Bard theory of emotion; James-Lange theory of emotion Correct. The Cannon-Bard theory proposes that physiological responses and emotional experiences occur, while the James-Lange proposes that interpretations of physiological responses lead to emotional experience. D) two-factor theory of emotion; James-Lange theory of emotion Incorrect. The second half of this answer is correct but the first half is wrong. The first half refers to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotions, because it suggests the simultaneous activation of different emotional response systems. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? % correct 73 a = 6 b = 6 c = 73 d = 15 r = .59 % correct 64 a = 9 b = 15 c = 64 d = 12 r = .66

30. As Stella watches the TV lotto drawing, she realizes she has the winning combination. If her heart starts to race at the same instant that she feels euphoria over winning, her response pattern would tend to support __________. A) the Cannon-Bard theory Correct. The Cannon-Bard theory claims that an emotion-provoking event leads simultaneously to an emotion and to bodily reactions. B) Izard’s evolutionary theory C) the James-Lange theory Incorrect. The James-Lange theory of emotions suggests that we first have a bodily reaction to a stimulus, and then we experience the cognitive emotional state. D) Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 31. “That race was too close to call!” cried the announcer. “It looked like the horses crossed the finish line at the exact same time!” Which theory of emotions that suggests that the different components of an emotion happen simultaneously is similar to this situation? A) James-Lange Incorrect. The James-Lange theory of emotions suggests that we first have a bodily reaction to a stimulus, and then we experience the cognitive emotional state. If this horse race were similar to this theory, then one horse would clearly cross the finish line before the other. B) two-factor C) facial feedback hypothesis D) Cannon-Bard Correct. Cannon-Bard proposes that emotion-provoking experiences lead simultaneously to an emotion and bodily reaction. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 32. The __________ theory of emotion states that the experience of emotion occurs simultaneously with biological changes. A) Cannon-Bard B) James-Lange C) Plutchik D) Schachter and Singer Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?

33. According to this theory, the fear you feel when you are startled by a bear in the woods occurs at about the same time that your heart starts pounding. A) James-Lange theory Incorrect. James-Lange theory suggests that the physical component of emotion comes before the behavioral and cognitive components. B) Cannon-Bard theory Correct. Cannon-Bard theory suggests that the three components of emotion all occur at the same time. C) Schachter-Singer theory D) Lazarus theory Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 34. What is the correct sequence of events in emotional response according to the Cannon-Bard theory? A) stimulus --> emotion --> physiological changes B) stimulus --> physiological changes --> emotion Incorrect. James and Lange theorized that physiological changes cause the emotion. C) physiological changes --> stimulus --> emotion D) stimulus --> emotion AND physiological changes (simultaneous) Correct. Cannon and Bard suggested that the emotion and physiology occur simultaneously. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 35. Many people believe the “common sense” view of emotions that states “we react physically and behaviorally to the emotions that we are feeling.” The James-Lange view, however, takes the opposite approach. It suggests that emotions don’t lead to behaviors, but that behaviors lead to emotions. These opposing views remind us to consider __________. A) the concept of Occam’s Razor Incorrect. Neither explanation is “simpler” than the other. They are just different attempts to explain a relationship. B) falsifiability C) that correlation does not imply causation Correct. The direction of cause between the two variables is unknown, even though there is a relationship between them. D) replicability Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?

36. The two-factor theory of emotion suggests that __________. A) emotions are produced by both autonomic arousal and cognition Correct. These are the two factors suggested by Schachter and Singer. B) emotions are from our interpretations of bodily reactions to stimuli C) emotions are based upon our gut feelings D) emotions and bodily reactions are simultaneously produced by stimuli Incorrect. This would be a description of the Cannon-Bard theory of emotions. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 37. Which two different terms best describe Schachter and Singer’s theory of emotion? A) arousal and physiology Incorrect. Arousal and physiology are basically the same thing. B) behavior and genetics C) arousal and surroundings Correct. In Schachter and Singer’s theory of emotion, first there is arousal, which is followed by situational labeling. D) nature and nurture Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 38. Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory of emotion suggests that we distinguish between the experience of different emotions based on __________. A) the type of behavior involved B) the type of bodily reaction C) our cognitive interpretation of the situation D) the emotional expression of others Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?

39. Which theory of emotions best explains why the girl Ben saw on his way into the gym seemed more attractive to him as he was leaving the gym? A) two-factor Correct. After physical activity, Ben experienced an undifferentiated state of arousal, followed by labeling that arousal with a particular emotion that seems appropriate for the situation. B) Cannon-Bard Incorrect. According to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotions, Ben would be more attracted to the girl while he was exercising. C) James-Lange D) somatic marker Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? % correct 46 a = 46 b = 15 c = 15 d = 24 r = .63 40. Which of the following best illustrates the two-factory theory of emotions? A) Ulrich’s heart is pounding before his speech in world history, so he decides that he is nervous. B) After several fast dances, Mario decides his date looks really good tonight. Correct. Following an increase in physiological arousal, Mario determines that his date caused the emotion. C) Norton sees Millie and his heart begins to race at the same time he feels excited. Incorrect. The simultaneous experience of physiological and cognitive components of an emotion is reminiscent of the Cannon-Bard theory. D) Benny notices that his heart races whenever Gloria is around and decides he is in love. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 41. Pam just set up her best friend Olivia on a blind date with her brother. According to the two-factor theory, what might she do to enhance the likelihood that Olivia will find her brother desirable? A) Give them tickets to a scary movie. Correct. A scary movie will raise the general level of arousal, increasing the chances of desirability. B) Encourage them to go to a quiet dinner. C) Lend them a tape of soft music. Incorrect. The lack of physiological arousal that results from listening to soft music would probably not result in an increased likelihood of attraction between Olivia and Pam’s brother. D) Send them on a carriage ride through the park. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? % correct 79 a = 79 b = 12 c = 3 d = 6 r = .47

42. Emotions are subject to __________ influences as well as direct stimuli. A) negative B) positive C) unconscious D) conscious Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 43. Studies on the mere exposure effect demonstrate that the more often we see something, the __________ likely we will like it. A) more B) less C) same D) least Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 44. According to the __________, repeated exposure to a stimulus leads to increased liking of the stimulus. A) facial feedback hypothesis B) mere exposure effect C) James-Lange theory D) Cannon-Bard theory Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?

45. The phenomenon whereby Imani prefers how she looks in the mirror to her image in a photograph can best be explained by __________. A) the facial feedback hypothesis B) the mere exposure effect Correct. Because we see ourselves in the mirror every day, sometimes many times a day, the mere exposure effect would cause us to prefer that image over one seen in a photograph. C) the automatic generation of emotion D) display rules Incorrect. Display rules refer to culturally-sanctioned facial expressions of emotions. They are not relevant to this question. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 46. Mrs. Woodham wants her students to embrace the book The Giving Tree by Shel Silverstein. She believes the message is a powerful one. What might you encourage her to do? A) Have each student read the book and write a response. B) Get the book on CD and play it for her students. C) Read the book to the students every day. Correct. The mere exposure effect suggests that the more they hear it, the more they will like both the book and its message. D) Read the book to the students and then have them read it themselves. Incorrect. This is the second best answer, because it does refer to repeated exposures, but the mere exposure effect suggests that reading the book to the students would be a more effective way to get the students to like the book. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 47. Val has a crush on Ilene. What is one thing he might do to make himself more desirable? A) Bring her flowers. Incorrect. Flowers are nice, if expensive, but to use the mere exposure technique, Val should stop by every day to say hello. B) Stop by every day to say hello. Correct. The mere exposure effect suggests that repeated exposure to a stimulus (in this case Val) makes us view the stimulus more favorably. C) Compliment her on her hair. D) Tell her she has nice shoes. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?

48. Who are you most likely to marry? A) the girl/boy who sits beside you on the bus once or twice a month B) the girl/boy you saw in the supermarket C) the girl/boy in your psychology class Incorrect. This situation would include repeated exposure, but not extended proximity. Therefore it is not the best answer to this question. D) the girl/boy who lives next door Correct. This situation includes factors of both proximity and repeated exposure, increasing the likelihood of attraction. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 49. Some research examining the facial feedback hypothesis has found that subliminal exposure to faces displaying a specific emotion is associated with changes in the observer’s facial muscles that correspond to that displayed emotion. These findings have not been consistently repeated, however. This makes it harder to know if subliminal emotional perception is or is not real due to the concept of __________. A) ruling out rival hypotheses B) Occam’s Razor C) correlation vs. causation Incorrect. If the research had claimed that the corresponding facial changes were caused by the observation of subliminal emotional messages, this would be a correct answer. D) replicability Correct. If attempts to repeat the research have not found similar outcomes, then the validity of the initial research is still in question. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 50. The idea that blood vessels in the face send temperature information to the brain, affecting the emotion we feel, is known as the __________. A) James-Lange theory B) Cannon-Bard theory C) facial feedback hypothesis D) two-factor theory Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?

51. As suggested by the facial feedback hypothesis, our emotions are most likely to be affected by __________. A) external stimuli B) the facial blood vessels Correct. One theory explaining the facial feedback hypothesis suggests that the particular changes of the blood vessels in the face feed back information about temperature to the brain. C) our bodily movement D) the face shape Incorrect. Strangely, it is not the shape of the face, but rather the activity of the facial blood vessels that seems to underlie the facial feedback hypothesis. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 52. If our behaviors and physiological reactions can give rise to our emotional changes, holding a pen with our teeth would most likely make us feel __________. A) happier Correct. Holding a pen in your teeth would cause you to adopt the physical facial posture of a smile. The facial feedback hypothesis suggests that this would make you start to feel happy. B) sadder Incorrect. Unless you hold a pen in your teeth in a very unusual way, one that makes you look sad, it is not likely to make you feel sadder. C) more scared D) more surprised Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 53. Many people believe that having a good crying episode is an effective way to vent negative emotions, such as anger or sadness, and that such spells are healthy. What does the research of Rottenberg, Bylsma, and Vingerhoets (2008) say about this belief? A) The research found that crying tends to increase distress and arousal in most people. B) The research found that crying actually led to anger in more than 80 percent of those who were polled. C) It found support for this belief by showing reduced physiological markers of tension, apprehension, and anxiety after a “good cry.” D) It found mixed results, with a few of the participants reporting crying to be very unpleasant, but most reporting it to be a relaxing event. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It

54. Our unconscious spillover of emotions into nonverbal behavior is called __________. A) nonverbal communication B) a manipulator C) an illustrator D) nonverbal leakage Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 55. Types of gestures and movements that can display our emotions are called __________. A) facial feedback B) nonverbal leakage C) mere exposure D) primary emotions Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 56. Susan is interviewing for a job. Although she is smiling and making good eye contact with her interviewer, he notices that she is also tapping her foot rapidly on the floor. Despite her best intentions, what is Susan exhibiting? A) nonverbal leakage Correct. An unconscious spillover of emotions into nonverbal behavior is often a powerful cue that we are trying to hide an emotion. B) illustrators Incorrect. An illustrator is used to highlight or emphasize a particular point of speech. C) emblems D) miscommunication Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It

57. During the lecture, Dr. Brown moved his right hand forward while highlighting an important point. This gesture is one example of __________. A) a manipulator B) an emblem Incorrect. An emblem is a gesture that conveys widely understood conventional meanings that are recognized by members of the culture. C) an illustrator Correct. An illustrator is used to highlight or emphasize a particular point of speech. D) a proxeme Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 58. People sometimes bite their fingernails when they are anxious. This is one example of __________. A) a manipulator B) an emblem C) an illustrator D) nonverbal communication Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 59. A gesture that conveys conventional meanings that are recognized by members of a given culture, such as a hand wave or a nod of the head, is called a(n) __________. A) archetype B) emblem C) illustrator D) manipulator Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 60. Nodding the head during a conversation is one example of __________. A) an emblem B) a manipulator C) an illustrator D) nonverbal leakage Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

61. The study of personal space and distancing that occurs between individuals is called __________. A) proxemics Correct. Experts in this area study topics like intimate, public, social, and personal distance. B) pragmatics C) psychophysics Incorrect. This is the study of sensation and perception. D) social influence Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 62. Dustin usually keeps a distance of about 4–12 feet while having conversations with strangers. This is one example of __________ distance. A) public Incorrect. A distance of more than 12 feet that is primarily maintained during public speaking, such as lecturing, is called public distance. B) social Correct. A distance of 4 to 12 feet that is maintained during conversations with strangers or casual acquaintances is called social distance. C) personal D) intimate Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Application APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 63. Dori and Ephraim are out on their fourth date, and they are really enjoying their time together. They sit next to each other during dinner, occasionally touching hands and whispering into each other’s ears. At no point during the meal is there more than one foot of space between them. Technically this is a description of __________ space. A) public B) social C) personal Incorrect. Personal space is usually 1.5 to 4 feet and is typically used for conversations among close friends or romantic partners. D) intimate Correct. Intimate space is usually less than 1.5 feet and is used for kissing, hugging, whispering “sweet nothings,” and affectionate touching. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It

64. Studies have suggested that the personal space in many Middle Eastern countries is __________ than in the United States, and women, in general, tend to have a __________ personal space than men. A) closer; closer B) closer; further C) further; further D) further; closer Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 65. __________ percent of people believe that “shifty eyes” indicate lying. A) 10 B) 35 C) 55 D) 70 Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 66. Which of following is the assumption that the polygraph test is based on? A) Pinocchio response Correct. The Pinocchio response refers to a perfect physiological or behavioral indication of lying, wherein a person’s bodily reactions supposedly give them away whenever they are telling a lie. B) habitual response C) shifty eyes Incorrect. Although many people believe that shifting eyes are a reliable indicator of dishonesty, research has not supported this belief. D) dishonest rules Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It

67. Many people believe that the polygraph test is actually a very good “lie detector.” Some groups have suggested that the polygraph is as high as 98 percent accurate, while research has found that it yields a high rate (as much as 40 percent) of false positives. This discrepancy highlights the critical thinking concept of __________. A) extraordinary claims Correct. The extraordinary claim that the polygraph is a “human lie detector” is rarely backed up by equally extraordinary evidence. B) correlation vs. causation C) falsifiability D) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. Nothing in this question speaks specifically to this principle. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 68. Which of the following is one of the changes detected by a polygraph? A) skin conductance B) mood C) body temperature D) electrical activity in the brain Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 69. According to research by Ekman and colleagues (1999), which of the following professionals has the highest rate of being able to detect when they are being lied to? A) federal officers B) sheriffs C) clinical psychologists D) federal judges Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It

70. One problem with the polygraph test is that people who are innocent may fail the test, a situation called a false positive. When this happens, some experts (or polygraph technicians) may assume that the individual is, in fact, guilty but simply won’t admit to their guilt. In this case, the inaccuracy of the polygraph test is no longer possible to demonstrate, and this is a problem that involves which principle of critical thinking? A) falsifiability Correct. In this case, a false reading is explained as being, in fact, an accurate reading. If the test cannot be shown to be inaccurate, it is not of any true practical use. B) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. There is nothing in this question that seeks a simpler explanation for a phenomenon, so Occam’s Razor does not apply. C) extraordinary claims D) correlation vs. causation Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 71. Which of the following cannot be used to detect lies? A) the polygraph test B) the Controlled Question Test C) the guilty knowledge test D) shifty eyes Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 72. The test that is based on the assumption that criminals usually conceal knowledge about the crime is known as the __________. A) polygraph test B) Controlled Question Test C) guilty knowledge test D) integrity test Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It

73. Which of the following tests will most likely have a lower false-positive rate? A) the polygraph test B) the Controlled Question Test C) the guilty knowledge test D) the integrity test Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 74. Which of the following tests will most likely have a higher rate of false-negatives? A) the polygraph test B) the Controlled Question Test Incorrect. The CQT may produce more false-positives than false-negatives. C) the guilty knowledge test Correct. Because people who commit a crime may not notice specific details of the crime scene, the guilty knowledge test may produce false-negatives. D) the integrity test Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 75. Many people have heard of sodium pentothal, which is more commonly known as truth serum. There is widespread belief that it is infallible as a means of getting a person to behave honestly; however, some research has found that people are actually capable of lying even when under the influence of truth serum. This is most relevant to the critical thinking concept of __________. A) extraordinary claims B) falsifiability Correct. The research is in direct opposition to this commonly held belief, demonstrating that the belief that truth serum is infallible is incorrect. C) correlation vs. causation D) replicability Incorrect. Nothing in this question deals with the idea of repeating research to confirm the findings. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It

76. Many companies, including the McDonald’s chain of restaurants, administer ___________ tests to prospective employees to find out if this person would cheat or steal on the job. Such tests may be unfairly biased against innocent applicants. A) personality B) guilty knowledge C) integrity D) projective Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 77. Of the following indices, which would not ordinarily appear on an integrity test used by a company looking to hire the most honest employees? A) history of stealing B) attitudes toward stealing C) perception of others’ honesty D) psychopathic deviate Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 78. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the broaden and build theory of happiness? A) Happiness leads to unhealthy behaviors that can shorten the lifespan. B) Happiness may help people look at the “big picture.” C) Happiness obstructs people from thinking more openly. D) Happiness may make people focus on details. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology 79. The broaden and build theory suggests that happier people tend to __________. A) be more successful B) think more openly C) be more generous D) be more sociable Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology

80. Professor Wilheim is trying to get his students to broaden their perspective. What might you suggest he do? A) Discuss multicultural ideas. B) Tell them to try to put themselves in his shoes. C) Encourage them to be more open-minded. Incorrect. Simply encouraging his students to be broader in their worldviews is not enough. By encouraging happiness, he may predispose them to having a more open point of view. D) Show them cartoons before his lecture. Correct. Happiness predisposes us to think more openly, allowing us to see the “big picture,” according to the broaden and build theory. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology 81. For whom are a majority of people more likely to vote? A) Laura, who says she can restore the health care system Correct. Optimists tend to be happier in everyday life than pessimists; Laura’s campaign is the only optimistic one. B) Eddie, who says the next couple of years are going to be tough, but we can do it C) Ronald, who says that cutting spending is the only way to restore the economy D) Denise, who promises to raise taxes by only a small percentage to fund education Incorrect. Although Denise may think that promising a small tax raise is going to make voters happy, what the voters will probably hear is just that taxes are going to be raised. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology 82. Which best characterizes the correlation between income and subjective feelings of happiness? A) negative, but weak B) positive and strong Incorrect. It is a widely held myth that money holds the key to happiness. C) negligible D) positive, but modest

Correct. Though increased income is related to increased subjective happiness, the relationship is not as strong as some might think. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology

83. Being a single mom, Lisa has to work two part-time jobs to pay the rent and buy the diapers. According to the research on happiness, which of the following ideas could most likely benefit her? A) As long as she can make more money, she will be happy. Incorrect. Money can have an effect on happiness, but usually only in the short-term and only modestly up to about $75,000. B) If she can move to the West Coast, she will be happy. C) As long as she can keep the two jobs, she will be happy. D) As long as she is optimistic about her future, she will be happy. Correct. The ability to stay optimistic and believe that things will improve is highly related to happiness. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology 84. Based on the realities of happiness, during which holiday should we be the happiest? A) Easter B) Valentine’s Day Incorrect. Think about somebody who does not have a romantic partner. They probably are not very happy on Valentine’s Day, are they? C) Halloween D) Thanksgiving Correct. Gratitude increases short-term happiness. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology 85. Hao and Chang are totally immersed in their video game. Their mom has been calling them to dinner for 5 minutes, but they have not responded. How would you describe their mental state? A) immersed in flow Correct. During moments of flow, we’re so engaged in a rewarding activity that we screen out unpleasant distractions. B) distracted Incorrect. This mental state of being fully involved in a rewarding activity is called flow. C) intense D) disrespectful Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology

86. __________ forecasting refers to a person’s ability to predict both their own as well as others’ happiness. A) Hedonic B) Affective C) Socioemotional D) Schizoaffective Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology 87. Studies on the durability bias suggest that people tend to __________ the long-term impacts of events on our happiness and unhappiness. A) underestimate B) overestimate C) estimate accurately D) estimate at random Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology % correct 94 a = 3 b = 94 c = 3 d = 0 r = .23 88. The belief that your current mood will last longer than it actually does is known as __________. A) defensive pessimism B) durability bias C) affective forecasting D) flow. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology

89. Annalisa just broke up with her boyfriend of over a year. She is positive that she will be miserable forever. What bias has Annalisa fallen victim to? A) expectancy B) confirmation Incorrect. The confirmation bias refers to our tendency to attend to information that supports our beliefs, while ignoring information that disconfirms our beliefs. C) longevity D) durability bias Correct. The durability bias maintains that we believe our bad (and good) moods will last longer than they do. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology 90. The tendency for our moods to adapt to external circumstances is known as __________. A) the hedonic treadmill B) affective adaptation C) display rules D) the locus of control Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology 91. Joe received an e-mail about getting a 50% payroll increase this year. He had been expecting this moment for eight months. Ironically, he went back to his normal life in just one day. Joe’s reaction could best be explained by the __________. A) hedonic treadmill Correct. The hedonic treadmill refers to the tendency of our moods to adapt to external circumstances. B) durability bias Incorrect. The durability bias maintains that we believe that our moods will last longer than they actually do. C) positivity effect D) broaden and build theory Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology % correct 56 a = 56 b = 20 c = 12 d = 12 r = .51

92. People who are more likely to attempt and stick with new challenges usually have __________ selfesteem. A) high B) low C) moderate D) no Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology 93. Which of the following is an example of defensive pessimism? A) Bud thinks he might have failed his psychology test but doesn’t really care. B) Katherine thinks her boyfriend is going to break up with her, so she has already taken down all his pictures. Correct. Defensive pessimism is a strategy of anticipating failure and then compensating for the expectation by overpreparing for negative outcomes. C) Michele doesn’t think she is going to win the lottery this week. Incorrect. Michele is not demonstrating defensive pessimism; rather, she is demonstrating an accurate perception of her chances of winning. D) Nolin can’t figure out how to replace a switch in his car, so he just gives up. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.3b Describe the emerging discipline of positive psychology. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology 94. The strategy of anticipating failure and then compensating for this expectation by mentally overpreparing for negative outcomes is known as __________. A) positive psychology B) negative adaptation C) defensive pessimism D) pessimistic psychology Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.3b Describe the emerging discipline of positive psychology. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology

95. The psychological drives, particularly wants or needs, that impel us in a specific direction are called __________. A) instincts B) motivation Correct. This is a correct definition of motivation. C) affects D) emotions Incorrect. Emotions are mental states or feelings that are associated with our evaluation of our experiences. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 96. According to drive reduction theory, who is likely to be the most motivated? A) Joanna, who is hungry Incorrect. Hunger is an important drive, but it is not as powerful as thirst. This is probably because we can survive longer without something to eat than we can without something to drink. B) Tony, who wants to kiss Joanna C) Arnold, who is thirsty Correct. Thirst is the most powerful drive, ensuring our survival. D) Hillary, who needs an “A” in psychology to graduate Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 97. Which word is most synonymous with the term homeostasis? A) emotion B) incentives Incorrect. Incentives are external factors that influence motivation, while homeostasis is a state of internal equilibrium. C) instincts D) equilibrium Correct. Homeostasis involves a sense of equilibrium, or balance, within the body. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

98. The Yerkes-Dodson law describes an inverted U-shaped relationship between __________ and __________. A) arousal; intelligence Incorrect. The Yerkes-Dodson law does not have anything to do with intelligence. B) intelligence; performance C) arousal; performance Correct. The Yerkes-Dodson law suggests that at moderate levels of arousal, we tend to have our best performance. D) intelligence; motivation Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 99. An external goal or motivation that has the capacity to affect behavior is referred to as __________. A) extrinsic B) an expectancy C) intrinsic D) homeostasis Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 100. Daniel works hard this semester because he needs to pass all the courses to graduate in time. If he does not finish his degree this semester, his employer will probably lay him off and find someone else to do his job. This is one example of __________. A) intrinsic motivation Incorrect. If Daniel was working hard just for the personal satisfaction of accomplishing his goal, this might demonstrate intrinsic motivation. B) extrinsic motivation Correct. It was being motivated by external needs, which is the definition of extrinsic motivation. C) approach D) avoidance Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

101. Who is being driven by intrinsic motivation? A) Matt, who is dying to win the trophy he sees behind the podium B) Lucia, who hopes to earn a scholarship for college so her parents won’t have to pay for her tuition C) Kira, who enjoys running marathons for the challenge Correct. Kira alone is driven by internal goals; the others are driven by external ones. D) Kip, who is working for a promotion and a raise at his job Incorrect. Kip is being motivated by the promise of external rewards, and this demonstrates extrinsic motivation. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 102. Some evidence exists suggesting that rewards may __________ intrinsic motivation. A) reinforce B) not affect C) undermine D) bolster Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 103. Before entering first grade, little Mina used to love to read books. Once school started, her teacher began a program to motivate her students to read. She began to give stars to those children who finished a new book. As a result, Mina no longer reads while she is at home. What has likely occurred? A) Mina’s intrinsic motivation decreased. Correct. Certain reinforcements may undermine intrinsic motivation, in this case, making Mina less likely to read for pleasure. B) Mina’s extrinsic motivation decreased. Incorrect. Because Mina used to enjoy reading just for the love of it, it is her intrinsic motivation that has decreased as a result of the external rewards that she was given. C) Mina’s intrinsic motivation was unchanged. D) Mina’s intrinsic motivation increased. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

104. According to research on intrinsic and extrinsic motivation, you would be most likely to say you enjoyed a task if you were told you would __________. A) be given $10 after getting the task done B) receive a certificate after finishing the task C) not be offered anything after completing the task Correct. If you completed the task without getting a reward, you would be more likely to believe that you completed the task just for the internal satisfaction. D) receive $100 after finishing the task Incorrect. If a reward of $100 were given to you, you would likely attribute your willingness to complete the task to that reward rather than some intrinsic motivation. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 105. If we do not receive a reward for a behavior that has been previously rewarded, we may lose the desire to engage in that action. This can best be explained by __________. A) intrinsic motivation B) positive motivation C) approach D) contrast effect Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 106. Keyvon had a very good day playing at the playground and cooperating with his parents. Before bedtime his father told him, “You were very good today and I’m proud. Here’s a quarter for being so wonderful today!” According to __________, Keyvon may now expect to receive a quarter every time he behaves for the whole day, and if he does not get that reward, his good behavior may disappear. A) intrinsic motivation Incorrect. In this case, Keyvon is really responding to extrinsic motives that lead to the contrast effect. B) the facial feedback hypothesis C) the drive-reduction approach D) the contrast effect Correct. When one receives a reward for an action and then expects to be rewarded every time they repeat that action, they are demonstrating the contrast effect. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

107. Some research has found that attaching an external reward to a task can cause children to lose their intrinsic motivation to complete that task. Other research, however, has not consistently come up with the same findings. This is a problem for which principle of critical thinking? A) falsifiability B) replicability Correct. The inability to produce consistent research findings in response to the same question casts some level of doubt on the initial conclusion. C) ruling out rival hypotheses D) correlation vs. causation Incorrect. This research can be conducted experimentally, which allows for the conclusions of causal relationships. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 108. Some have argued that giving an external reward for a particular action will cause intrinsic motivation to repeat that action to decrease. In other words, if you reward someone for doing something that they want to do, they will experience a reduction in the desire to repeat that action. Others have suggested that intrinsic motivation does not actually decrease but that their reluctance to repeat the activity is better explained by the contrast effect. This points out to us the importance of the critical thinking concept of __________. A) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. This idea presents a different explanation for the findings that people are less likely to engage in a behavior if they do not continue receiving rewards for it. B) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. This alternate hypothesis is not simpler, but rather a different explanation of observed phenomena. C) correlation vs. causation D) extraordinary claims Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

109. According to Maslow, __________ are the most fundamental and must get satisfied first. A) safety needs Incorrect. Safety needs are second on Maslow’s hierarchy, and physiological needs have to be satisfied before safety needs are addressed. B) physiological needs Correct. Maslow suggested that physiological needs must be addressed before any other level or type of need. C) esteem needs D) belonging needs Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs % correct 48 a = 33 b = 48 c = 15 d = 3 r = .15 110. The fact that people living in poverty are less likely to pursue their dreams can best be explained by the __________ theory. A) incentive motivation Incorrect. The incentive theory of motivation does not adequately answer this question. It has to do with the attaining of external rewards. B) intrinsic motivation C) extrinsic motivation D) hierarchy of needs Correct. The hierarchy of needs theory of Abraham Maslow suggests that there is a specific order in which needs must be satisfied. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 111. Which level of Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy is epitomized by the U.S. Army’s previous slogan, “Be all that you can be”? A) safety B) self-esteem Incorrect. Maslow never used the term self-esteem. C) belonging D) self-actualization Correct. Being all that you can be is part of the definition of self-actualization. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

112. According to Abraham Maslow, developing one’s potential to its fullest extent results in __________. A) safety Incorrect. According to Abraham Maslow, developing one’s potential to its fullest extent results in selfactualization. B) self-esteem C) belonging D) self-actualization Correct. According to Abraham Maslow, developing one’s potential to its fullest extent results in selfactualization. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs % correct 94 a = 0 b = 6 c = 0 d = 94 r = .44 113. According to Maslow, the motive of self-actualization makes one want to __________. A) fulfill one’s full psychological potential Correct. According to Maslow, the motive of self-actualization makes one want to fulfill one’s potential. B) have frequent contact with others C) possess as many material goods as possible Incorrect. Self-actualization is not about acquiring material goods but is about improving oneself. D) convince others of one’s true worth Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 114. As your textbook points out, many people are willing to endure very bad circumstances—going hungry, living in dangerous neighborhoods—because they are passionate about their professions. This is particularly important for artists, actors, singers, and other such adults. These priorities are inconsistent with Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, thus reminding us about the importance of the critical concept of __________. A) extraordinary claims B) Occam’s Razor C) replicability Incorrect. Nothing in this example speaks directly about repeating research to explore similar findings. D) falsifiability Correct. These situations are direct counterevidence with regard to the absolute validity of Maslow’s proposed pyramid. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

115. A lab rat had part of its hypothalamus destroyed. The rat seems to have lost all interest in food and won’t eat even when food is available. It would appear that part of the __________ has been destroyed. A) lateral hypothalamus Correct. After destroying the lateral hypothalamus, researchers concluded that this structure plays a key role in initiating eating. B) ventromedial hypothalamus Incorrect. The ventromedial hypothalamus is thought to be the part of the brain that inhibits eating behaviors, so if it had been destroyed, this rat would continue eating nonstop. C) satiety center D) forebrain Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4b Describe the determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs % correct 33 a = 55 b = 33 c = 6 d = 6 r = .16 116. Dr. Addle has implanted an electrode in the hypothalamus of a rat. When the rat’s brain is electrically stimulated, the rat stops eating. The electrode is most likely activating the __________. A) pituitary gland B) ventromedial hypothalamus Correct. Rats stopped eating when this area was stimulated. C) lateral hypothalamus Incorrect. If this area of the brain had been stimulated, the rats would continue eating. D) brain stem Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4b Describe the determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 117. According to the glucostatic theory, the level of __________ is a primary control mechanism for the regulation of hunger. A) lipids in the liver B) glucose in the blood C) metabolites in the pancreas D) phospholipids in the spleen Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4b Describe the determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

118. As Barney is driving down the road, he notices that his fuel gauge is nearing empty and decides to pull over and get some gas. What theory of hunger is he simulating? A) glucostatic Correct. Glucostatic theory suggests that when our blood glucose levels drop, hunger creates a drive to eat to restore the proper level. B) regulatory C) internal-external D) pancreatic Incorrect. While the pancreas does secrete insulin, an important chemical for removing glucose from the blood, this is not the right answer to this question. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4b Describe the determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 119. Manipulations that decrease glucose levels cause __________; ones that increase glucose levels cause __________. A) an increase in arousal; a decrease in arousal B) a decrease in hunger; an increase in hunger C) a decrease in arousal; an increase in arousal D) an increase in hunger; a decrease in hunger Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4b Describe the determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 120. While Debbie was in the hospital, she received glucose continuously through an intravenous line. When her blood glucose levels started to rise, it is likely that she ___________. A) experienced decreased autonomic arousal B) lost interest in food Correct. According to glucostatic theory, when glucose levels are high, our drive to eat is less. C) felt hungry Incorrect. According to the glucostatic theory, we will feel hungry when we have a decreased glucose level in our blood. D) became agitated Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4b Describe the determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs % correct 52 a = 12 b = 52 c = 30 d = 6 r = .45

121. Which hormone is produced by fat cells in the body and serves to relay information about nutrition to the hypothalamus? A) cholecystokinin B) leptin Correct. Leptin is a hormone that is secreted by the body’s fat tissue. The more fat you have, the more leptin is produced. Higher levels of leptin in the blood should serve to inhibit eating behaviors. C) glucose D) insulin Incorrect. Insulin is secreted by the pancreas, not by fat tissue. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4b Describe the determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 122. A newspaper reporter looks for interesting stories related to weight, weight control, and obesity. In recent years, which of these titles might have been used for a story? A) “Leptin: A Hormone Regulating Body Fat” Correct. Leptin is involved in appetite control. B) “Stomach Size: An Overlooked Factor in Hunger” Incorrect. Stomach size has not been seen as a big factor in hunger. C) “When It Comes to Weight, Focus on the Right Hemisphere” D) “Obesity: Not Really a Problem Anymore” Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4b Describe the determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 123. __________ is a value that establishes a range of body fat and muscle mass we tend to maintain. A) Leptin B) Set point C) Contrast effect D) Physiological need Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4b Describe the determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

124. Schachter’s internal-external theory suggests that obese people eat more because of __________ cues, such as smell or taste. A) external B) internal C) biological D) psychological Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4b Describe the determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs % correct 85 a = 85 b = 3 c = 0 d = 12 r = .19 125. After dinner, Sophia started to read a cookbook that is full of colorful pictures of desserts. She decided to make a cake. After the cake was ready, she felt hungry again, so she ate the whole cake! This phenomenon can best be explained by the __________ theory. A) glucostatic Incorrect. This theory suggests that our level of hunger is controlled by the amount of glucose in our blood. B) internal-external Correct. This theory suggests that people with obesity are motivated to eat more by external cues, like portion size, rather than by internal cues such as a growling stomach. C) genetic reason D) eating disorder Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4b Describe the determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 126. Of the following behaviors, in which is a person with bulimia least likely to engage? A) eat excessive amounts of food B) binge and purge in a cycle C) overeat D) lose weight Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4c Identify the symptoms of bulimia and anorexia. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs % correct 85 a = 3 b = 3 c = 9 d = 85 r = .53

127. Media portrayals of women (movies, televisions shows, and magazines) typically show women who are 15 percent below the average woman’s weight. Women who view these images tend to have higher levels of body dissatisfaction. It would be easy to conclude that the portrayals are responsible for this lower body satisfaction, but this would be making which error related to the principles of critical thinking? A) replicability Incorrect. There is no research mentioned here that could be repeated in the hopes of finding the same conclusions. B) ruling out rival hypotheses C) falsifiability D) correlation vs. causation Correct. It is also possible that women who already have low body satisfaction look to these idealized portrayals of women as a function of their dissatisfaction with their own bodies. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 11.4c Identify the symptoms of bulimia and anorexia. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 128. Charlotte is preparing dinner for her family. She just finished running nearly 10 miles and plans on another run after dinner. As she dishes out meatloaf and potatoes to her mother, father, and brother, she reserves a small bowl of broccoli for herself. What eating disorder is Charlotte at risk for? A) bulimia nervosa Incorrect. Bulimia nervosa is marked by a cycle of binge eating and purging behaviors. Charlotte’s symptoms are most indicative of anorexia nervosa. B) bulimianorexia C) anorexia nervosa Correct. Symptoms of anorexia include a “fear of fatness” and a distorted perception of body size, which can lead to overexercising and undereating. D) hysteria Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4c Identify the symptoms of bulimia and anorexia. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 129. Which of the following is least likely to be a symptom of anorexia? A) being overweight B) hair loss C) electrolyte imbalances D) heart problem Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4c Identify the symptoms of bulimia and anorexia. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

130. Jenny has an intense interest in food but eats sparingly and with disgust. She has an intense fear of becoming obese, and even though she looks emaciated, she still claims she “feels fat” and refuses to eat enough to maintain even a minimal normal body weight for her frame. She is most likely suffering from __________. A) anorexia nervosa Correct. People with anorexia nervosa refuse to maintain their body weight at or above a minimal normal weight. B) bulimia Incorrect. Individuals suffering from bulimia nervosa do not refuse to eat; in fact, they often overeat. C) hormone under secretion D) leptin reduction Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4c Identify the symptoms of bulimia and anorexia. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 131. Which of the following is one of the major differences between someone who is dieting and someone who suffers from anorexia nervosa? A) People with anorexia nervosa have poorer academic performance. Incorrect. In fact, research suggests that those with anorexia nervosa are often very good students. B) People with anorexia nervosa are less likely to be interested in food or food preparation. C) People with anorexia nervosa are more likely to experience behavior problems. D) People with anorexia nervosa have more unrealistic perceptions of their body size. Correct. Distortion in body perception is a symptom of anorexia nervosa that is not normally seen with simple dieting. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4c Identify the symptoms of bulimia and anorexia. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 132. The term used to indicate people’s wish or craving for sexual activity and sexual pleasure is __________. A) urge B) libido C) appetite D) appeal Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4d Describe the human sexual response cycle and factors that influence sexual activity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

133. Which of the following statements is generally TRUE about sexual desire? A) Men always have a much stronger desire for sex than women. B) Men experience more sexual desire than women. C) Men usually have more sexual partners than women. D) People with migraines tend to have a lower level of sexual desire. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4d Describe the human sexual response cycle and factors that influence sexual activity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 134. The phase in which people experience sexual pleasure and notice physiological changes associated with it is called the __________ phase. A) desire B) excitement C) orgasm D) resolution Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4d Describe the human sexual response cycle and factors that influence sexual activity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs % correct 82 a = 0 b = 82 c = 18 d = 0 r = .27 135. James is reading an erotic story in a magazine when he notices his respiration and heart rate increasing. He is also experiencing penile erection. Which phase is James currently experiencing? A) desire Incorrect. The desire stage is more about psychological interest in sexual behavior than it is about physiological changes. B) orgasm C) excitement Correct. Excitement is marked by autonomic nervous system arousal. D) resolution Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4d Describe the human sexual response cycle and factors that influence sexual activity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

136. Janelle is attending an "All-Male Revue" show with her girlfriends and is enjoying watching as the men dance and remove their clothes on stage. Her heart rate has increased, her face is flushed, and she is experiencing an increase in vaginal lubrication. Which stage of the sexual response cycle is Janelle experiencing? A) desire Incorrect. The desire stage is more about psychological interest in sexual behavior than it is about physiological changes. B) orgasm C) excitement Correct. Excitement is marked by autonomic nervous system arousal. D) resolution Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4d Describe the human sexual response cycle and factors that influence sexual activity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 137. During which phase of the human sexual response cycle does a series of muscular contractions pulsate through the genital area of both women and men? A) excitement B) resolution C) orgasm D) desire Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4d Describe the human sexual response cycle and factors that influence sexual activity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 138. Which is the correct sequence of the phases of the human sexual response? A) plateau, excitement, resolution, orgasm B) orgasm, plateau, resolution, excitement C) excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution D) resolution, orgasm, excitement, plateau Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4d Describe the human sexual response cycle and factors that influence sexual activity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

139. During the __________ phase of the sexual response cycle, people tend to experience relaxation and a sense of well-being. A) plateau B) orgasm C) excitement D) resolution Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4d Describe the human sexual response cycle and factors that influence sexual activity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 140. Which of the following factors is the best predictor of homosexuality? A) being left-handed or right-handed B) engaging in gender nonconformity Incorrect. While there may be some relationship between gender nonconformity and homosexuality, the strength of that relationship is not nearly as strong as is commonly believed. C) being sexually attracted to the members of the same sex Correct. The sexual attraction to persons of one’s same sex is the best predictor of homosexuality, and none of the other options have any true research support. D) feeling estranged from your same-sex peers Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4e Identify common misconceptions about and potential influences on sexual orientation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 141. Which of the statements is TRUE about homosexuality? A) Homosexuality needs to be treated. B) Homosexual people are as likely as heterosexual people to be good parents. C) Homosexual people need to be changed to fit the society. D) Most homosexual people fall within either a masculine or feminine role. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4e Identify common misconceptions about and potential influences on sexual orientation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

142. The fact that identical twins are more likely to share sexual orientation than fraternal twins suggests that sexual orientation is at least partly __________. A) environmental Incorrect. Remember that the relationship between behaviors seen in identical twins is used for the determination of genetic influence, not environmental effects. B) genetic Correct. Remember that identical twins are nature’s true clones, and that similarities between them are often used to explore genetic influences on development. C) chemical D) hormonal Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 11.4e Identify common misconceptions about and potential influences on sexual orientation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 143. In males, having older brothers increases the odds of homosexuality by __________ percent for each older brother. A) 15 B) 27 C) 33 D) 42 Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4e Identify common misconceptions about and potential influences on sexual orientation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 144. Brain imaging studies on sexuality have demonstrated that a small cluster of neurons in the __________ is about half the size in gay men as it is in heterosexual men. A) hypothalamus B) thalamus C) lateral ventricles D) corpus callosum Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4e Identify common misconceptions about and potential influences on sexual orientation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

145. For no reason, Matthew started to pay special attention to a girl named Madison, a girl in his homeroom class, from the first day of school. This is one example of the __________ principle of attraction and relationship formation. A) proximity Correct. The principle of proximity suggests that we will be more attracted to people who are physically or geographically closer to us. B) similarity Incorrect. Other than sharing the same homeroom, there is nothing in the question that indicates unusual similarity of interests between Matthew and Madison. The best answer to this question is proximity. C) reciprocity D) serendipity Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All 146. Hanging out with friends with the same hobbies can best be explained by the __________ principle of relationship formation. A) proximity Incorrect. The principle of proximity suggests that we will be more attracted to people who are physically or geographically closer to us. B) similarity Correct. The principle of similarity suggests that we are most attracted, either socially or romantically, to people who share our interests and are similar to ourselves. C) reciprocity D) serendipity Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All % correct 82 a = 6 b = 82 c = 12 d = 0 r = .26 147. Lonnie just met Lennie at a rally for their favorite political candidate. What idea suggests that they may find themselves attracted to one another? A) similarity Correct. When people have more in common and share interests, they are more likely to be attracted to each other. B) proximity Incorrect. The principle of proximity suggests that we will be more attracted to people who are physically or geographically closer to us. C) reciprocity D) identity Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All % correct 95 a = 95 b = 1 c = 0 d = 1 r = .21 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

148. Johnny just passed a note to Kelsey in math class. The note says that his friend Jake has a crush on her. What idea suggests that Kelsey will now find Jake more attractive? A) similarity B) reciprocity Correct. Reciprocity refers to the rule of give and take, a predictor of attraction. C) proximity Incorrect. The principle of proximity suggests that we will be more attracted to people who are physically or geographically closer to us. D) desirability Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All 149. Among the major principles guiding attraction and relationship formation, __________ plays a more important role when a relationship moves to deeper levels. A) proximity Incorrect. Proximity is an important determiner of initial attraction, but reciprocity is necessary in order for relationships to move to a deeper level. B) similarity C) reciprocity Correct. For a relationship to move to a deeper level, there has to be give and take as indicated in the theory of reciprocity. D) serendipity Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All 150. Which of the following statements about reciprocity is TRUE? A) Significantly different reciprocities are evident across cultures. B) Absolute reciprocity is necessary for deeper relationships. C) Reciprocity is not a learned practice. Incorrect. In fact, learning give and take is an important practice in a relationship. D) Maintaining equity in a relationship is crucial for a relationship to move to deeper levels. Correct. Equity, or give and take, is the essential feature of reciprocity and it is very important in order for a relationship to grow. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All

151. Rebecca is going on a blind date. Her friend has told her all about Byron, and she is excited to meet him. What will be the best predictor of Rebecca's attraction toward him? A) how he looks Correct. Physical attractiveness matters in everyday life, although opinions on attractiveness may vary. B) whether he likes sports Incorrect. This might be a very important factor if we knew that Rebecca was interested in sports, but because we don’t, physical attractiveness would probably be one of the most important factors in determining her attraction to Byron. C) how he fits in with her friends D) whether he is outgoing and friendly Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All 152. Emotional attachment to others is to __________ as sexual desire is to __________. A) melatonin; acetylcholine B) oxytocin; testosterone and estrogen C) ghrelin; leptin D) androgens; estrogens Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All 153. According to the work of Hatfield and Rapson (1996), the two major kinds of love that people experience are called __________ love. A) passionate and companionate B) fatuous and empty C) consummate and adaptive D) interpersonal and intrapersonal Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All

154. Who proposed the triangular theory of love? A) Robert Sternberg Correct. Sternberg is responsible for promoting the triangular theory of love. B) Solomon Asch Incorrect. Asch is known for his contribution to theories of conformity, not love. C) Stanley Milgram D) Philip Zimbardo Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All 155. The element of love that describes one’s willingness to stay with the partner is known as __________. A) intimacy B) infatuation C) commitment D) passion Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All 156. Jane and Joe have been dating for three months. Jane likes to be around Joe but couldn’t feel any overwhelming emotions. This is one example of __________ love. A) passionate B) companionate Correct. Companionate love is that which resembles friendship. It has intimacy and commitment, but lacks passion. C) Hollywood D) empty Incorrect. Empty love has commitment, but lacks intimacy and passion. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All

157. Linda and Joseph have been crazy about each other since they met three weeks ago. Even though they don’t know very much about each other yet, they want to spend the rest of their lives with each other. According to the triangular theory of love proposed by Sternberg, their relationship can best be described as a __________ love. A) romantic B) companionate Incorrect. Companionate love is that which resembles friendship. It has intimacy and commitment, but lacks passion. C) fatuous Correct. Fatuous love is marked by the presence of passion and commitment, though it lacks intimacy. D) infatuation Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All 158. According to the triangular theory of love proposed by Sternberg, __________ love is the ultimate love. A) romantic Incorrect. Romantic love is marked by the presence of intimacy and passion, but lacks commitment. B) companionate C) fatuous D) consummate Correct. Consummate love is marked by the presence of intimacy, passion, and commitment. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All 159. “Look at those two, they can’t keep their hands off of each other! They’ve only been on two dates, and they barely know each other!” What type of love is being depicted? A) companionate Incorrect. Companionate love is marked by deep friendship and fondness, but not passion. B) infatuation Correct. Infatuation is marked by a powerful longing for one’s partner, but lacks intimacy and commitment. C) committed D) intimate Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All

160. Jane just met Allen at a bar. They talked for a while and shared a cab home. She tells her roommates that she cannot stop thinking about him. What type of love is she experiencing? A) fatuous B) empty Incorrect. On the contrary, empty love lacks the passion that Jane and Allen seem to share. C) romantic D) infatuation Correct. Infatuation is marked by a powerful longing for one’s partner, but lacks intimacy and commitment. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All 161. Commitment without intimacy or passion might be referred to as __________. A) fatuous love B) companionate love Incorrect. Companionate love is the combination of intimacy and commitment without passion. C) empty love Correct. When there is no intimacy or passion, Sternberg’s theory calls this empty love. D) liking Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All 162. Which of the following is an element that is common to Sternberg’s theories of both hate and love? A) negation of intimacy B) desire to impede Incorrect. This is an aspect of Sternberg’s theory of hate, but not his theory of love. C) proximity D) commitment Correct. Commitment is an aspect that is present in both of Sternberg’s theories of hate and love. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All

163. Which of the following is an element that is common to Sternberg’s theories of both hate and love? A) negation of intimacy B) desire to impede Incorrect. This is an aspect of Sternberg’s theory of hate, but not his theory of love. C) proximity D) passion Correct. Passion is an aspect that is present in both of Sternberg’s theories of hate and love. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All 164. Sternberg developed a theory of hate consisting of which three elements? A) intimacy, passion, infatuation B) negation of intimacy, passion, commitment C) negation of passion, intimacy, commitment D) passion, negation of commitment, intimacy Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All Fill-in-the-Blank 1. The research by Ekman proposed that there are __________ distinct emotions across most cultures. Answer: seven Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 2. Allen welcomed us at the entrance, smiling with an upward turning of the corners of his mouth, but with no drooping of his eyelids or a crinkling of the corners of his eyes. This is one example of a(n) __________ smile. Answer: Pan Am Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?

3. Opposed to the discrete emotion theory, __________ theories of emotion recognize the idea that emotions are determined by thinking. Answer: cognitive Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 4. In addition to direct stimuli, emotions are also subject to __________ influences. Answer: unconscious Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 5. The mere exposure effect suggests that repeated presentations of a stimulus lead to __________ liking of the stimulus. Answer: more Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 6. People tend to overestimate how easily others can understand the intended meaning of their e-mail messages. Misunderstood message meanings are often caused by the lack of __________. Answer: nonverbal cues Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 7. To make important points during lectures, instructors tend to use a lot of __________, a form of nonverbal expression. Answer: illustrators Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 8. The study of personal spaces is called __________. Answer: proxemics Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It

9. The polygraph test is based on the assumption that lying is always accompanied with a set of physiological or behavioral indicators. This assumption is called the __________ response. Answer: Pinocchio Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It 10. The mental state in which people are completely immersed in what they are doing is given the name of __________. Answer: flow Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology 11. The ability to predict the happiness that we or others will experience is called affective __________. Answer: forecasting Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology 12. The belief that both good and bad moods will last longer than they actually do is known as the __________ bias. Answer: durability Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology 13. Because happiness is largely a matter of comparison, research has demonstrated that second-place finishers tend to be __________ happy than third-place finishers. Answer: less Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.3b Describe the emerging discipline of positive psychology. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology 14. The discipline that emphasizes resilience, coping, life satisfaction, love, and happiness is called __________. Answer: positive psychology Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 11.3b Describe the emerging discipline of positive psychology. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

15. People with positive illusions about themselves usually have __________ self-esteem. Answer: high Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.3b Describe the emerging discipline of positive psychology. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology 16. A predisposition toward certain stimuli, such as food, is known as __________. Answer: approach Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 17. Scientific studies have demonstrated that the __________ plays a key role in initiating eating. Answer: lateral hypothalamus Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1,1 TEXT LO: 11.4b Describe the determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 18. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, __________ have to be satisfied first. Answer: physiological needs Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 19. Jacob has not eaten since this morning. While waiting for his girlfriend to bring him lunch, he started to feel starving and exhausted. This phenomenon is most likely the result of a drop in his blood __________ level. Answer: glucose Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4b Describe the determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 20. The value that establishes a range of body fat and muscle mass we tend to maintain is known as __________. Answer: set point Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4b Describe the determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

21. The symptom of experiencing hunger but denying food is most likely to be diagnosed with an eating disorder called __________. Answer: anorexia nervosa (Depending on this topic is presented, the instructor may wish to accept “anorexia” as a full-credit answer.) Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4c Identify the symptoms of bulimia and anorexia. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 22. Ava has suffered migraines for more than a year. While trying different medications that have decreased her levels of serotonin activity, her sexual desire has most likely __________. Answer: increased Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4d Describe the human sexual response cycle and factors that influence sexual activity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 23. In the sexual arousal cycle, people usually experience relaxation and a sense of well-being during the __________ phase. Answer: resolution Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4d Describe the human sexual response cycle and factors that influence sexual activity. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs 24. According to the triangular theory of love, the element of love that describes one’s willingness to stay with the partner is known as __________. Answer: commitment Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All

Essay 1. Describe two major cognitive theories of emotion and demonstrate their theoretical differences. Answer: Answers will vary but should include any two of the following cues for full credit. The James-Lange theory of emotion proposes that emotions result from our interpretations of our bodily reactions to stimuli. People experience an emotion because they observe their physiological and behavioral reactions to a stimulus. The somatic marker theory of emotion proposes that people use their “gut reactions,” their autonomic response, to gauge how they should act. It has been contended that this process occurs almost instantaneously, so people are not aware of it. The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion proposes that an emotion-provoking event leads simultaneously to both emotional and bodily reactions. The two-factor theory of emotion proposes that emotions are produced by two consecutive events: 1) people experience an undifferentiated state of autonomic arousal after encountering an emotion-provoking event; and 2) people label the arousal with an emotion to explain the cause of it. The explanations people attach to their arousal are emotions. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? 2. Describe the levels of personal space and provide an example for each level. Answer: Answers will vary but a full credit answer should include at least three of the four levels listed below with a descriptive example for each. Even though the separations between the levels of personal space are not clear-cut, four levels have been commonly recognized in our social life as follows: o Public distance is typically used for public speaking, such as lecturing. It keeps a distance of 12 feet or more. Also needs to discuss specifically how this would be used. o Social distance is typically used for conversations among strangers and casual acquaintances. It keeps a distance of 4–12 feet. Also needs to discuss specifically how this would be used. o Personal distance is typically used for conversations among close friends or romantic partners. It keeps a distance of 1.5–4 feet. Also needs to discuss specifically how this would be used. o Intimate distance is typically used for kissing, hugging, whispering, and affectionate touching. It keeps a distance of 0–1.5 feet. Also needs to discuss specifically how this would be used. Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Topic: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It

3. Identify at least five variables that are correlated with happiness and briefly explain how they are important to happiness. Answer: Answers will vary but a full credit answer should include at least five of the cues listed below with an explanation for each. Marriage: Married people tend to be happier than unmarried people. Friendship: People with many friends tend to be happier than people with few friends. College: People who graduate from college tend to be happier than people who don’t. Religion: People who are deeply religious tend to be happier than people who aren’t. Political affiliation: Republicans tend to be happier than Democrats, both of whom tend to be happier than Independents. Exercise: People who exercise regularly tend to be happier and less stressed than people who don’t. Gratitude: Short-term happiness can be enhanced if people feel grateful about their lives, having good friends, intimate romantic partners, and fulfilling jobs. Flow: People feel happier when they are completely immersed in what they are doing, such as writing, reading, performing manual labor, playing sports, performing music, and creating art works. Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Topic: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology 4. Suppose your older sister Amanda was diagnosed with bulimia nervosa by the doctor. Your mom is very worried about her situation. Write your mom a short letter explaining what bulimia is, including the symptoms, possible cause, and possible outcomes. Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following information for full credit. Individuals with bulimia engage in recurrent binge eating, followed by efforts to minimize weight gains through purging. Bingeing and purging set up a vicious cycle. People who try to lose a lot of weight over a short period of time are prone to binge eating. During a binge, some people could gorge themselves with food equaling more than 10,000 calories in a 2-hour period. After a binge, they feel guilt and anxiety over their loss of control and the prospect of gaining weight. Frequently, they will purge, which typically takes the form of self-induced vomiting. Purging is rewarding because it relieves anxious feelings after overeating and sidesteps weight gain, but it can set the stage for bouts of overeating. Bulimics often see themselves as fat when they are of normal weight. This is in part caused by societal pressures to be thin. As eating spirals out of control, bulimics’ self-esteem plummets, increasing their concerns about dieting and the likelihood of a binge. This completes the self-destructive circle. Bulimia could be physically hazardous, resulting in heart problems, tears to the esophagus, and erosion of tooth enamel. Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.4c Identify the symptoms of bulimia and anorexia. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

5. Identify three principles that guide attraction and relationship formation and discuss each by providing examples. Answer: Answers will vary but a full credit answer should include all three cues listed below with a descriptive example for each. Proximity: Physical nearness affords the opportunity for relationship formation. For example, people living in the same apartment are more likely to befriend each other than those who do not. Similarity: The more common interests people have, the more likely they will form a relationship. Having the same interest in music, books, and food can help establish a personal connection. Reciprocity: For a relationship to move to deeper levels, people should follow the principle of give and take. People tend to feel obligated to give what they get and maintain equity in a relationship. Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation. Topic: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All Critical Thinking 1. After a severe car accident, Adam was hurt badly and couldn’t move his facial muscles. What could be the result of lacking the physiological ability to smile? Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following information for full credit. Facial feedback hypothesis proposes that changes in the blood vessels in the face feed back temperature information to the brain, altering our experience of emotions. People without the facial ability to smile could have a different emotional state—likely less happy—than those with a smile. In Adam’s case, lacking the physiological ability to smile might affect his mood, at least in the short term. Happiness makes people live longer, predisposes people to think more openly, allows people to see the “big picture.” Life will be easier for optimists than for pessimists. Thus, people with less happiness might have a shorter life and think more locally, paying too much attention to details. Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion.; 11.3b Describe the emerging discipline of positive psychology. Topic: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?; Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology

2. Discuss the fallacies and realities about self-esteem. Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following information for full credit FALLACIES: Low self-esteem is not the root of all unhappiness, because self-esteem may not be the only variable causing unhappiness. In addition, a third variable might lead to both low self-esteem and unhappiness. The evidence linking self-esteem to mental health and life success is feeble. People with high self-esteem aren’t much more likely than people with low self-esteem to have good social skills or to do well in school. People with low self-esteem are not the only group that is prone to be aggressive. People with high self-esteem are also prone to aggression when confronted with ego threats. REALITIES: High self-esteem is associated with greater initiative and persistence, a willingness to attempt new challenges, and to stick with them even when the going gets rough. High self-esteem is associated with happiness and resilience in the face of stress. Self-esteem is related to positive illusion; that is, people with high self-esteem tend to perceive themselves more positively than others do. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Topic: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

CHAPTER 11: INTRODUCTION: EMOTION AND MOTIVATION ______________________________________________________________________________ Approaches to Motivation 1. James and McDougall were proponents of which of the following theories of motivation? a. drive theory b. incentive theory c. instinct theory d. cognitive theory Answer c % correct 38 a= 21 b= 21 c= 38 d= 21 r = .22 2. Which of the following theorists laid the groundwork for the development of drive theories? a. Clark Hull b. William McDougall c. Carl Rogers d. Sigmund Freud Answer d % correct 35 a= 50 b= 12 c= 3 d= 35 r = .25 3. Who proposed that the human expression of emotion is innate and has survival value? a. William James b. Stanley Schachter c. Charles Darwin d. Emmett Kelly Answer c % correct 81 a= 7 b= 6 c= 81 d= 6 r = .24 4. The major shortcoming of the instinct concept is that: a. instincts have never been shown to exist in any species. b. the instinct concept is too complex an explanation of most motivated behavior. c. asserting the existence of an instinct does not help us to understand the behavior in question. d. it is too physiological in theoretical orientation. Answer c % correct 78 a= 0 b= 17 c= 78 d= 6 r = .33 5. Motivation refers to that which: a. explains the physical make-up of an organism. b. energizes the behavior of an organism. c. directs the behavior of an organism. d. both b and c Answer d % correct 90 a= 0 b= 5 c= 5 d= 90

r = .20

6. An example of a primary motive is _______. a. greed b. thirst c. wantonness d. piety Answer b % correct 86 a= 11 b= 86 c= 0 d= 3

r = .34

7. The concept of primary motives would explain our need for _______. a. food b. Gucci jeans c. a water bed d. companionship Answer a % correct 96 a= 96 b= 1 c= 0 d= 3 r = .24 8. Social motives are: a. not affected by primary motives. b. common to all people. c. derived from social interactions and learning. d. essential for the survival of an organism. Answer c % correct 90 a= 0 b= 6 c= 90 d= 4

r = .32

9. The concept that a person acts in a certain manner because of an innate predisposition to do so is based on the _______ theory. a. aggression b. drive c. instinct d. incentive Answer c % correct 85 a= 10 b= 0 c= 85 d= 5 r = .21 10. Which of the following best describes the instinct theory of motivation? a. Tension is created within an organism when it has been deprived of something it needs, thus compelling it to satisfy its needs. b. External cues elicit behavior from an organism. c. Organisms have inborn patterns of behavior and innate desires to perform in a certain manner. d. Organisms have desires to act in specific ways, but these behaviors can be modified by learning. Answer c % correct 77 a= 6 b= 8 c= 77 d= 10 r = .35 11. Instincts are thought to: a. exist within the individual. b. explain why people act differently in the same situation. c. explain what an individual does but not why. d. be caused by conditions outside the organism that push it into action. Answer a % correct 54 a= 54 b= 15 c= 23 d= 8 r = .42 12. Which of the following does NOT support drive-reduction theory? a. getting some food when you are hungry b. going to sleep when you are tired c. getting something to drink when you are thirsty d. going jogging when you are bored Answer d % correct 94 a= 3 b= 0 c= 3 d= 94 r = .41 13. Daniel, age 5, saw a clock on the shelf and took it apart to see what made it tick. Which theory best explains this behavior? a. cognitive b. drive-reduction c. instinct d. behavioral Answer a % correct 56 a= 56 b= 18 c= 9 d= 18 r = .47

14. Which of the following theorists found that monkeys reared in isolation avoided social contact? a. Schacter b. Singer c. Murray d. Harlow Answer d % correct 76 a= 3 b= 9 c= 12 d= 76 r = .31 15. Social learning theorists would suggest which of the following to parents? a. Monitor and control the television programs you allow your children to watch. b. Let children watch violent television shows to release their hostility. c. Allow children to behave violently in controlled settings to decrease their violence elsewhere. d. Don't let children watch television. Answer a % correct 88 a= 88 b= 3 c= 9 d= 0 r = .52 16. Betty is a first-born child and she has a younger brother and sister. Which child is most likely to show a high need for affiliation when confronted with a fear situation? a. the younger sister b. the younger brother c. Betty d. Affiliation is not related to birth order. Answer c % correct 40 a= 30 b= 0 c= 40 d= 30 r = .47 17. Two important elements of stimulus-seeking behavior are _________. a. novelty and complexity b. comfort and friendship c. sex and aggression d. rest and relaxation Answer a % correct 50 a= 50 b= 25 c= 25 d= 0 r = .64 18. Which of the following appears to strongly affect the affiliation motive? a. hormones b. learning and early experience c. instinct d. anxiety Answer b % correct 75 a= 0 b= 75 c= 5 d= 20 r = .37 19. An example of intrinsic motivation is reading a textbook because: a. you want to earn an A on a test. b. you want to avoid a D or F. c. you enjoy reading it. d. you are being paid to read it. Answer c % correct 45 a= 25 b= 25 c= 45 d= 5 r = .70 20. A need that energizes and directs behavior towards some goal is known as a _______. a. cue b. behavior c. motive d. stimulus Answer c % correct 81 a= 7 b= 5 c= 81 d= 7 r = .24

21. Hugh has such powerful sexual needs that he engages in dangerously promiscuous behavior. In this case, Hugh's sexual needs are a(n) _______. a. emotion b. motive c. stimulus d. cue Answer b % correct 78 a= 22 b= 78 c= 0 d= 0 r = .45 22. Stimulus motives _________________. a. are set in motion by internal stimuli b. deal with information about the environment in general c. function to assure the bare survival of the organism d. depend less on external stimuli than primary drives do Answer a % correct 81 a= 6 b= 81 c= 6 d= 6 r = .27 23. Greg cannot stand being cooped up in the house all day. He is happiest when he is outdoors engaging in some vigorous activity. His need for activity is a _________________. a. primary drive b. primary motive c. stimulus drive d. stimulus motive Answer d % correct 35 a= 16 b= 9 c= 38 d= 35 r = .66 24. A decline in the level of testosterone in either men or women leads to ___________________. a. an increase in sexual desire b. abnormal sexual desires c. pain and discomfort during sexual activity d. a decrease in sexual desire Answer d % correct 100 a= 0 b= 0 c= 0 d= 100 r = .00 25. ________________ are largely innate motives that push us to investigate, and often change, the environment. a. Primary drives b. Stimulus motives c. Secondary motives d. Secondary drives Answer b % correct 65 a= 1 b= 65 c= 25 d= 6 r = .21 26. ______________________ center around our relationships with people. a. Stimulus motives b. Social motives c. Aggression motives d. Primary motives Answer b % correct 100 a= 0 b= 100 c= 0 d= 0 r = .00

Drive Reduction Theory 27. Which of the following is the most recent conclusion concerning the role of stomach contractions in signaling hunger? They: a. have no influence. b. play a minor role. c. play a major role. d. cannot be studied because of lack of technology. Answer b % correct 65 a= 15 b= 65 c= 15 d= 5 r = .37 28. The concept that an organism is motivated to act because its body is in a state of need is based on the __________ theory. a. incentive b. affiliation c. drive d. instinct Answer c % correct 88 a= 10 b= 0 c= 88 d= 2 r = .33 29. It is believed that the hypothalamus controls ________. a. aggression b. social learning abilities c. long-term mechanisms of body weight d. biological motives Answer c % correct 59 a= 12 b= 3 c= 59 d= 26 r = .21 30. Bill hasn’t eaten for four days and is very hungry. A friend offers to take him to lunch or to a new Arnold Schwarzenegger movie that she knows Bill wants to see. The drive theory of motivation would predict: a. Bill is equally likely to select either option. b. Bill will select the lunch. c. Bill will select the movie. d. Bill will not select either option. Answer b % correct 95 a= 5 b= 95 c= 0 d= 0 r = .55 31. Primary motives are: a. learned. b. unlearned. c. cognitive. d. socially determined. Answer b % correct 85

a= 10 b= 85 c= 5 d= 0

r = .43

32. Which of the following is NOT a social motive? a. affiliation b. aggression c. need for rest d. achievement Answer c % correct 91 a= 0 b= 9 c= 91 d= 0

r = .31

33. Drives that are unlearned are called _______________. a. primary b. secondary c. reflexive d. learned Answer a % correct 90 a= 90 b= 6 c= 4 d= 0 r = .20 34. A group of people is watching a movie in which an attractive man and woman are shown getting undressed. Which of the following is most likely to become MOST aroused? a. a healthy young man b. a healthy young woman c. an adolescent of either sex d. a healthy adult of either sex Answer a % correct 94 a= 94 b= 0 c= 3 d= 3 r = .47 35. An innate or inborn predisposition to act in a specific way is called a/an _______. a. instinct b. drive c. incentive d. need Answer a % correct 96 a= 96 b= 0 c= 2 d= 2 r = .21 36. When you get too warm, you begin to perspire. This is an example of: a. a drive. b. homeostasis. c. a need. d. adjustment. Answer b % correct 87 a= 2 b= 87 c= 2 d= 10 r = .26 37. Clark Hull’s drive-reduction perspective was based on which of the following principles? a. homeostasis b. instinct c. psychic energy d. genetics Answer a % correct 75 a= 75 b= 15 c= 5 d= 5 r = .47 38. The observation that people often seek stimulation and that not all motives are aroused by internal states contradicts the _______ theory of motivation. a. incentive b. drive-reduction c. Gestalt d. cognitive Answer b % correct 40 a= 20 b= 40 c= 10 d= 30 r = .30 39. Homeostasis refers to: a. realizing one's full potential. b. a balanced state in the body's internal environment. c. a state of optimum stimulation either above or below equilibrium. d. the mechanism by which unconscious needs are satisfied. Answer b % correct 85 a= 5 b= 85 c= 10 d= 0 r = .65

40. The concept of _______ replaced the concept of instinct in motivation theory. a. purpose b. optimal level of stimulation c. drive reduction d. homeostasis Answer c % correct 67 a= 11 b= 11 c= 67 d= 11 r = .32 41. The process by which the body maintains a balance or equilibrium in its internal environment is called ______. a. neoteny b. autoregulation c. homeostasis d. hypothalamus Answer c % correct 94 a= 3 b= 0 c= 94 d= 3 r = .25 42. A(n) _______ is an external stimulus that can motivate behavior even if no drive is initially present. a. homeostatic mechanism b. motor program c. arousal mechanism d. incentive Answer d % correct 81 a= 0 b= 3 c= 17 d= 81 r = .67 43. The basis of drive theory is the principle of ________. a. reinforcement b. achievement c. homeostasis d. homeopathy Answer c % correct 38 a= 29 b= 31 c= 38 d= 2 r = .43 44. Which of the following is NOT true about hunger? a. It is a physiological motive. b. It is a drive-reduction motive. c. It is a social motive. d. It is a motive common to most people. Answer c % correct 55 a= 5 b= 25 c= 55 d= 15

r = .28

45. A famed psychologist claims that motivated behaviors result from an effort to reduce tension caused by bodily needs such as hunger or thirst. This psychologist's philosophy most closely matches _______ theory. a. threshold b. trait c. homeostatic d. drive reduction Answer d % correct 78 a= 3 b= 0 c= 19 d= 78 r = .41 46. Thirst, sex, and hunger are examples of _______ drives. a. primary b. secondary c. internalized d. externalized Answer a % correct 80 a= 80 b= 5 c= 15 d= 0 r = .23

Eating Behavior 47. Investigators believe that the number of fat cells we have is determined partly by genetics and partly by our diet during: a. the first two years of life. b. adolescence. c. the prenatal period. d. the first five years of life. Answer a % correct 75 a= 75 b= 15 c= 5 d= 5 r = .22 48. According to set-point theory, the size of fat cells is determined by: a. heredity. b. eating habits during adolescence and adulthood. c. diet during the first two years of life. d. the mother's diet before birth of the child. Answer b % correct 35 a= 25 b= 35 c= 40 d= 0 r = .45 49. Considering external cues in obesity, which of the following statements is true? a. Obese subjects ate more than thin subjects if the food tasted good. b. Thin subjects increase food intake if the food is attractive. c. Thin subjects increase food intake if the food is easily available. d. Obese people will eat more than normal-weight people if the food is difficult to obtain. Answer a % correct 75 a= 75 b= 10 c= 5 d= 10 r = .34 50. Sweet taste seems to play a role in ___________. a. stimulating eating b. cutting calories c. weight gain d. stomach contractions Answer a % correct 85 a= 85 b= 0 c= 12 d= 3

r = .37

51. According to __________ theory, the number of fat cells in the body is established during early childhood. a. drive b. caloric c. hypothalamic d. set-point Answer d % correct 85 a= 0 b= 0 c= 15 d= 85 r = .71 52. Bulimia is most common among which of the following? a. females in their late teens and early 20's b. middle-age females c. adolescent males d. both males and females in their late teens and early 20's Answer a % correct 85 a= 85 b= 3 c= 3 d= 9 r = .40

53. Dorothy is both hungry and thirsty. Which of the following is involved in both of these drives? a. the hippocampus b. spinal reflexes c. the hypothalamus d. the amygdala Answer c % correct 94 a= 3 b= 0 c= 94 d= 3 r = .20

Hierarchies of Motives 54. Which motivational theorist is associated with the following assumption? “Before higher level needs can be addressed or acted on, one’s lower level needs must be met.” a. Freud b. Maslow c. McClelland d. Harlow Answer b % correct 92 a= 2 b= 92 c= 0 d= 4 r = .33 55. What is the lowest need in Maslow’s hierarchy? a. physiological b. safety c. achievement d. self-actualization Answer a % correct 52 a= 52 b= 15 c= 17 d= 13

r = .38

56. Maslow is associated with which of the following notions? a. that when the body temperature falls, we are motivated to eat b. that the motive to explore and manipulate is important for individual survival c. that our motives are organized into a hierarchy d. that some people are driven by the achievement motive Answer c % correct 88 a= 0 b= 4 c= 88 d= 6 r = .48 57. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of motives theory, which one of the following needs must first be satisfied? a. self-actualization b. esteem needs c. physiological needs d. safety needs Answer c % correct 78 a= 3 b= 3 c= 78 d= 17 r = .28 58. For Maslow, the most highly evolved motive is _______. a. esteem b. physiological need c. intellectual need d. self-actualization Answer d % correct 81 a= 5 b= 14 c= 0 d= 81 r = .36

59. The correct order of Maslow’s hierarchy of motives from most primitive to the most complex and human is _______. a. safety, physiological, belongingness, esteem, self-actualization b. physiological, esteem, self-actualization, safety, belongingness c. physiological, esteem, safety, belongingness, self-actualization d. physiological, safety, belongingness, esteem, self-actualization Answer d % correct 78 a= 19 b= 0 c= 3 d= 78 r = .36 60. Which theory maintains that emotion is caused by the interaction of physiological processes and interpretation? a. James-Lange theory b. cognitive theory c. activation theory d. Cannon-Bard theory Answer b % correct 53 a= 28 b= 53 c= 3 d= 17 r = .24 61. Bob tells Jan that he is feeling fine, but Jan doesn't believe him. What should she focus on to have the BEST chance of identifying any emotions Bob might be hiding? a. his words b. his body posture c. his vocal intonations d. his facial expressions Answer d % correct 63 a= 2 b= 21 c= 12 d= 63 r = .53 62. Abraham Maslow theorized that human needs are: a. basically identical to those of animals. b. arranged in a hierarchy of importance. c. destined to conflict with one another at all times. d. less important than emotions. Answer b % correct 97 a= 3 b= 97 c= 0 d= 0

r = .24

Definitions and Theories Emotions 63. A careful examination of emotions can be traced back to ___________. a. B. F. Skinnerian emotion b. Charles Darwin c. The Renaissance d. World War I Answer b % correct 68 a= 6 b= 68 c= 12 d= 15 r = .40 64. Affective states accompanied by physiological changes that often influence behavior are called __________. a. motives b. drives c. emotions d. traits Answer c % correct 80 a= 20 b= 0 c= 80 d= 0 r = .20

65. The statement “If you expect something to make you feel bad, chances are it will” is reflective of which of the following theories of emotion? a. somatic b. Darwinian c. appraisal d. opponent-process Answer c % correct 65 a= 15 b= 20 c= 65 d= 0 r = .58 66. Schacter-Singer’s famous emotion experiment showed that: a. physiological arousal came after emotional arousal. b. a physiological aroused person will label his arousal as greater when people are duped or misled. c. emotional arousal is greater when people are duped or misled. d. emotions start in the cortex and are sent to one's internal organs. Answer b % correct 30 a= 35 b= 30 c= 30 d= 5 r = .23 67. Researchers have concluded that the ________ is/are the most important part of the body in nonverbal communication. a. hands b. face c. legs d. torso Answer b % correct 85 a= 15 b= 85 c= 0 d= 0 r = .44 68. The study of body language is termed _________. a. kinematics b. kinesthesia c. kinesis d. kinetics Answer c % correct 90 a= 5 b= 0 c= 90 d= 5

r = .33

69. If you want to get people to do something for you, the best time to try to persuade them is when they are __________. a. unemotional b. scared c. happy d. emotionally aroused Answer d % correct 55 a= 0 b= 5 c= 40 d= 55 r = .56 70. Which of the following is NOT a physiological reaction to fear? a. increase in heart rate b. muscle tension c. slow-down of digestive function d. reduction of epinephrine in the bloodstream Answer d % correct 80 a= 0 b= 5 c= 15 d= 80 r = .37 71. One of the least studied emotional expressions is ________. a. hate b. anger c. love d. fear Answer c % correct 50 a= 45 b= 0 c= 50 d= 5 r = .32

72. Which of the following is the better predictor of psychological and physical health, according to Lazarus? a. hassles b. uplifts c. life events d. negative attitudes Answer a % correct 15 a= 15 b= 25 c= 40 d= 20 r = .43 73. Unpredictability is stressful because: a. we don’t know when “uplifts” will occur. b. we must expect too much control. c. we cannot plan for random events. d. hassles cancel good effects of “uplifts.” Answer c % correct 85 a= 10 b= 0 c= 85 d= 5

r = .46

74. Overall, research has indicated that __________ influences the amount of stress that people experience. a. the seriousness of life events b. degree of control people have over their lives c. intelligence d. physical health Answer b % correct 65 a= 15 b= 65 c= 5 d= 15 r = .29 75. Emotion is to affect as appraisal is to __________. a. mood b. arousal c. interpretation d. sense Answer a % correct 80 a= 80 b= 7 c= 7 d= 6

r = .34

76. Speisman’s 1964 study using a film on circumcision rites practiced by an aboriginal tribe showed that: a. judgment of the event affects emotion. b. emotion affects arousal. c. labeling arousal causes one's emotion. d. arousal precedes emotion. Answer a % correct 59 a= 59 b= 18 c= 12 d= 12 r = .24 77. The distance we place between ourselves and others is called __________. a. kinesis b. intimate space c. personal space d. interactive space Answer c % correct 85 a= 0 b= 3 c= 85 d= 12 r = .60 78. Which of the following was NOT a result of Harlow’s study with isolated monkeys? They: a. were unable to form friendships. b. were not receptive to sexual advances. c. would not care for their offspring. d. were indifferent, but not cruel, to their offspring. Answer d % correct 53 a= 9 b= 21 c= 18 d= 53 r = .46

79. Which of the following statements about stress is TRUE? a. It is an emotion. b. Stress necessarily involves negative events. c. Positive situations can lead to stress. d. Stress arises only from threatening events. Answer c % correct 74 a= 12 b= 3 c= 74 d= 12 r = .71 80. In a conflict situation, the closer we get to the goal, the: a. weaker the approach and avoidance forces become. b. stronger the approach and avoidance forces become. c. easier the conflict is to resolve. d. less anxiety we feel. Answer b % correct 62 a= 15 b= 62 c= 12 d= 12 r = .26 81. Type A behavior is characterized by ____________. a. learned helplessness b. relaxed attitude c. anger and impatience d. lack of competitiveness Answer c % correct 71 a= 18 b= 6 c= 71 d= 6

r = .49

82. John has never missed his sales quota, but believes that each quarter he must sell more than he did the previous quarter in order to keep his job. Accordingly, he is working 60 or more hours a week, and is not taking a vacation this year. John is likely experiencing burnout if he exhibits which of the following? a. a high level of energy b. a reduced sense of accomplishment c. an increased sense of control over his life and earnings d. increased interest in his job Answer b % correct 85 a= 9 b= 85 c= 6 d= 0 r = .28 83. According to Seligman, the response of “giving up” and not attempting to control the environment is called _________. a. Type A behavior b. Type B behavior c. vacillating in a conflict situation d. learned helplessness Answer d % correct 79 a= 6 b= 6 c= 9 d= 79 r = .46 84. General diffuse feeling states that are often long-lasting and of low intensity are called _______. a. emotions b. arousals c. moods d. motives Answer c % correct 85 a= 15 b= 0 c= 85 d= 0 r = .58 85. The ability to experience love appears to be strongly influenced by one’s ____________. a. ability to fantasize b. degree of attractiveness c. past experience d. sexual preference Answer c % correct 80 a= 5 b= 15 c= 80 d= 0 r = .53

86. Dr. Zhivago and Lara fell in love while working in a hospital in a war zone. It is possible that their passion was heightened by _________. a. their lack of experience b. boredom with the hospital routine c. arousal caused by fear of attack d. professional knowledge about human reproduction Answer c % correct 95 a= 0 b= 5 c= 95 d= 0 r = .55 87. Emotions vary from one another in: a. quality. b. intensity. c. both of the above d. none of the above Answer c % correct 81 a= 7 b= 7 c= 81 d= 5

r = .30

88. Which of the following labels does NOT represent one of the basic categories of emotion revealed in a study by Shaver et al. involving the sorting of emotion words? a. horror b. fear c. anger d. love Answer a % correct 85 a= 85 b= 0 c= 5 d= 10 r = .50 89. Which is NOT a typical physiological change during an emotional episode? a. Less blood goes to the muscles, and more goes to the internal organs. b. Saliva production in the mouth decreases. c. The pupils of the eyes dilate. d. The galvanic skin response occurs. Answer a % correct 50 a= 50 b= 10 c= 21 d= 19 r = .44 90. When photographs of facial expressions conveying different emotions were shown to subjects in different countries, the subjects: a. tended to agree on the emotional meaning of the different expressions. b. rarely agreed on the emotional meaning of the different expressions. c. agreed only on expressions of anger and fear. d. none of the above Answer a % correct 85 a= 85 b= 6 c= 6 d= 4 r = .49 91. The emotions which are most easily recognized from facial expressions include happiness, anger, and _______. a. love b. disgust c. fear d. sadness Answer b % correct 23 a= 0 b= 23 c= 42 d= 35 r = .27 92. Anger is a(n) _______.. a. primary reflex b. emotion c. motive d. social drive Answer b % correct 97

a= 0 b= 97 c= 3 d= 0

r = .20

93. Which of the following is NOT an emotion? a. anger b. thirst c. fear d. lust Answer b % correct 94 a= 0 b= 94 c= 0 d= 6

r = .33

94. The _______ nervous system influences physiological effects associated with emotions. a. apathetic b. primal c. empathic d. sympathetic Answer d % correct 85 a= 4 b= 2 c= 8 d= 85 r = .52 95. Which of the following is NOT a physiological change associated with emotion? a. adrenalin secretion b. saliva secretion c. increased perspiration d. increased breathing Answer b % correct 71 a= 13 b= 71 c= 12 d= 2 r = .43 96. Which of the following researchers found that cats continued to show typical behavioral reactions of fear, anger, and pleasure after the sympathetic nervous system tract had been severed? a. William James b. Walter B. Cannon c. Carl Lange d. Charles Darwin Answer b % correct 45 a= 30 b= 45 c= 10 d= 15 r = .62 97. According to the _______ theory, arousal of organs and the experience of emotion are simultaneous. a. Schacter and Singer b. Cannon-Bard c. James-Lange d. appraisal Answer b % correct 48 a= 12 b= 48 c= 38 d= 0 r = .49 98. Which theory of emotion includes activation of the thalamus? a. James-Lange b. Cannon-Bard c. Schacter-Singer d. appraisal Answer b % correct 50 a= 30 b= 50 c= 20 d= 0 r = .48

99. Emotional arousal and experience occur at the same time because of stimulation of the cerebral cortex, according to the _______ theory. a. James-Lange b. Cannon-Bard c. Schacter-Singer d. appraisal Answer b % correct 45 a= 25 b= 45 c= 20 d= 10 r = .51 100. According to the _______ theory, the thalamus plays a significant role in one’s emotions. a. James-Lange b. Cannon-Bard c. Schacter-Singer d. cognitive Answer b % correct 52 a= 13 b= 52 c= 6 d= 25 r = .24 101. The _______ theory of emotion placed the source of emotions in the thalamus. a. James-Lange b. Cannon-Bard c. Activation d. Jukebox Answer b % correct 64 a= 22 b= 64 c= 11 d= 3 r = .30 102. Note the following sequence of events: Emotional stimulus-->thalamus-->simultaneous physiological arousal and emotional experience. The order of occurrences summarizes the _______ theory of emotion. a. James-Lange b. Cannon-Bard c. Activation d. Jukebox Answer b % correct 53 a= 33 b= 53 c= 11 d= 3 r = .45 103. Emotional experience and arousal occur at the same time due to stimulation of the cerebral cortex, according to ________. a. Schachter-Singer b. James-Lange c. Valins d. Cannon-Bard Answer d % correct 81 a= 3 b= 17 c= 0 d= 81 r = .33 104. According to Cannon-Bard, which of the following plays an important role in experiencing emotion? a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. limbic system d. sympathetic nervous system Answer a % correct 30 a= 30 b= 20 c= 10 d= 40 r = .20

Quiz 11.1: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings?

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q11.1.1 Which theory posits that people have just a few emotions that combine in many complex ways? a) discrete emotions theory b) conservative evolution theory c) equilibrium maintenance theory d) minimal limbic response theory ANS: a Topic=Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Advocates of this theory propose that each basic emotion has its own biological roots and serves one or more distinctive evolutionary functions that are essentially the same in all humans. LO 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion.

EOM Q11.1.2 Support for the __________ theory of emotion has been mixed at best, because other research shows that although arousal can make an emotion stronger, some emotions happen without it. a) two-factor b) Cannon-Bard c) somatic marker d) James-Lange ANS: a Topic=Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This theory takes a somewhat novel approach to producing and explaining emotion. LO 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q11.1.3 Carol meets Andy and Brad outside of her psychology classroom. Both young men smile at her, but when Brad smiles, he uses only his mouth, whereas Andy also has crinkles in the corner of his eyes. Carol feels that only Andy is genuinely happy to see her because Andy has displayed a __________, whereas Brad has used a __________. a) Duchenne smile; Pan Am smile b) Pan Am smile; Duchenne smile c) forced smile; spontaneous smile d) Duquesne smile; miserable smile ANS: a Topic=Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: There are anatomical markers associated with the true and posed expressions of emotion. LO 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion.

EOM Q11.1.4 Although basic emotions are experienced the same way across cultures, there are cultural guidelines that govern how and when to express emotions. These are called __________. a) display rules b) exhibitionism markers c) demonstrativeness customs d) overt expressiveness norms ANS: a Topic=Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: These guidelines produce variability in expression across cultures, even though the underlying emotion may be genuinely felt. LO 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion.

EOM Q11.1.5 Which theory advances the idea that blood vessels in a particular area of the body send temperature information to the brain, which alters our experience of emotions? a) facial feedback hypothesis b) ice water hand test c) polygon habituation theory d) mere exposure effect ANS: a Topic=Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This idea has deep roots in emotion theory. LO 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion.

Quiz 11.2: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q11.2.1 Nonverbal leakage is defined as __________. a) unconscious spillover of emotions into nonverbal behavior b) silent crying c) intentional communication without the use of words d) inappropriate affective responses for a given situation ANS: a Topic=Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This can be a source of information in lie detection, for example. LO 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion.

EOM Q11.2.2 Gestures of stroking, biting, pressing, or otherwise touching a part of one’s own body while under stress are called __________. a) manipulators b) illustrators c) emblems d) releasers ANS: a Topic=Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: For example, while cramming for an exam, we may twirl our hair or bite our fingernails. LO 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion.

EOM Q11.2.3 The gestures we use when talking to highlight or accentuate the verbal message we are saying are called __________. a) illustrators b) manipulators c) emblems d) emoticons ANS: a Topic=Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: These include forcefully moving our hands forward to make an important point. LO 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion.

EOM Q11.2.4 Polygraph or “lie detector” tests are based on the idea of the __________, that there are reliable physiological or behavioral indicators of lying. a) Pinocchio response b) guilty knowledge reaction c) Cyrano effect d) Diogenes response ANS: a Topic=Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: If this were the case, evolutionary forces would have counteracted it long ago. LO 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls

EOM Q11.2.5 The __________ is based on the premise that criminals harbor concealed information about a crime that an innocent person would not know. a) guilty knowledge test b) polygraph c) arousal detector d) voice stress analysis ANS: a Topic=Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This technique has a fairly high false-negative rate. LO 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls.

Quiz 11.3: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q11.3.1 Happiness may serve an important evolutionary function, such as predisposing us to think more openly about our experiences and see a bigger picture that might be overlooked during other affective states. This observation is the basis for __________ theory. a) broaden and build b) tend and befriend c) live free or die d) see and believe ANS: a Topic=Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Happiness, like all emotions, surely has an adaptive function. LO 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem.

EOM Q11.3.2 Which term refers to the ability to predict our own happiness or that of someone else? a) affective forecasting b) effectiveness predictions c) durability bias d) availability heuristic ANS: a Topic=Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: We tend to overestimate the long-term impact of events on our moods. LO 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q11.3.3 The personality trait of extreme self-centeredness is called __________. a) narcissism b) psychopathy c) self-regard d) ego inflation ANS: a Topic=Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This is related to, but distinguishable from, self-esteem. LO 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem.

EOM Q11.3.4 A field of study has emerged since the beginning of the twenty-first century that emphasizes human strengths such as resilience and coping; it is called __________. a) positive psychology b) character building c) defensive optimism d) spiritual buoyancy ANS: a Topic=Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 11.3b Describe the emerging discipline of positive psychology. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This field also focuses on helping people to find ways of enhancing emotions such as happiness and fulfillment. LO 11.3b Describe the emerging discipline of positive psychology.

EOM Q11.3.5 The tactic of anticipating failure and compensating for this expectation by mentally overpreparing for negative outcomes, is called __________. a) defensive pessimism b) proactive preparation c) hyperdefensiveness d) optimistic counterintuition ANS: a Topic=Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 11.3b Describe the emerging discipline of positive psychology. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Expecting the worst means anything better is good. LO 11.3b Describe the emerging discipline of positive psychology.

Quiz 11.4: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Motivation: Our Wants and Needs

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q11.4.1 Which theory proposes that experiencing unpleasant states, such as being hungry or thirsty, leads us to take action to minimize those negative conditions? a) drive reduction theory b) approach avoidance theory c) stimulus avoidance theory d) stimulus reduction theory ANS: a Topic=Motivation: Our Wants and Needs Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: For example, the unpleasant feeling of hunger motivates food seeking and eating, which, in turn, produce satisfaction and pleasure. LO 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation.

EOM Q11.4.2 Which hormone signals the hypothalamus and the brain stem to reduce appetite and increase the amount of energy used? a) leptin b) serotonin c) melatonin d) glucagon ANS: a Topic=Motivation: Our Wants and Needs Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 11.4b Describe the determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Mice that lacked the gene for this become obese at an early age. LO 11.4b Describe the determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q11.4.3 Which term refers to an eating disorder associated with excessive weight loss and an irrational perception of being overweight? a) anorexia nervosa b) bulimia nervosa c) binging d) ox hunger ANS: a Topic=Motivation: Our Wants and Needs Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 11.4c Identify the symptoms of bulimia and anorexia. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Even people with bones showing through their skin may describe themselves as fat. LO 11.4c Identify the symptoms of bulimia and anorexia.

EOM Q11.4.4 Which of the following is the correct sequence of the human sexual response cycle? a) excitement - plateau - orgasm - resolution b) excitement - orgasm - plateau - resolution c) excitement - plateau - resolution - orgasm d) excitement - initiation - foreplay - orgasm ANS: a Topic=Motivation: Our Wants and Needs Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 11.4d Describe the human sexual response cycle and factors that influence sexual activity. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Masters and Johnson reported that this sequence was the same for women and men. LO 11.4d Describe the human sexual response cycle and factors that influence sexual activity.

EOM Q11.4.5 About what percentage of females and males over the age of 18 identify themselves as gay, lesbian, or bisexual? a) about 2 percent b) about 5 percent c) about 10 percent d) about 15 percent ANS: a Topic=Motivation: Our Wants and Needs Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 11.4e Identify common misconceptions about and potential influences on sexual orientation. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Public opinion surveys and other types of research yield this estimate, although methods could be flawed. LO 11.4e Identify common misconceptions about and potential influences on sexual orientation.

Quiz 11.5: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q11.5.1 During the last 50 years, women and men have become more similar in what they look for in a mate, which is consistent with __________ theory. a) social role b) evolutionary c) attractiveness d) reciprocity ANS: a Topic=Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Think about what has also changed for women and men during the past 50 years. LO 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation.

EOM Q11.5.2 The principle of __________ says that having things in common with other people predicts attraction. a) similarity b) proximity c) resemblance d) vicinity ANS: a Topic=Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Scientists have found that there is more truth to the adage “Birds of a feather flock together” than the equally well-worn proverb “Opposites attract.” LO 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q11.5.3 Which term describes the principle of give and take, as happens when someone reveals personal information to us and we generally feel obliged to reveal some of our own personal information? a) reciprocity b) mutuality c) tradeoff d) interchange ANS: a Topic=Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This is a basic norm governing social interaction. LO 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation.

EOM Q11.5.4 Robert Sternberg reversed his triangular theory of love to develop a triangular theory of hate. The components of this theory are the negation of intimacy, passion, and __________. a) commitment b) closeness c) desire d) empathy ANS: a Topic=Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Think about the components of both triangular approaches. LO 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate.

EOM Q11.5.5 It may be possible for people to “unlearn” hate if they can be taught to overcome the __________ that makes them notice only those negative aspects of the hated individuals or groups that reinforce their hatred. a) confirmation bias b) hindsight bias c) availability heuristic d) proximity heuristic ANS: a Topic=Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: There is good and bad in everyone. LO 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate.

Chapter 11 Quiz: Emotion and Motivation Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Chapter Quiz: Emotion and Motivation

Multiple Choice Single Select EOC Q11.1 Which theory proposes that the emotions we feel come from interpretations of our bodily reactions to particular stimuli? a) James-Lange theory of emotion b) cognitive theory of emotion c) discrete emotions theory d) Darwinian emotion model ANS: a Topic=Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: We are afraid because we run away. LO 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion.

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EOC Q11.2 Like a thermostat that is programmed to return a room to a given temperature, most drive reduction theories assume that humans are motivated to maintain a particular level of psychological equilibrium or __________. a) homeostasis b) homeopathy c) proprioception d) variable correlation ANS: a Topic=Motivation: Our Wants and Needs Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Similarly, when we are hungry, we are motivated to satisfy that drive by eating, but ideally not too much. LO 11.4a Explain basic principles and theories of motivation. EOC Q11.3 Gestures that convey meaning recognized by all members of a culture are known as __________. a) emblems b) manipulators c) illustrators d) proxemics ANS: a Topic=Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Occasionally these gestures have a consistent meaning across cultures as well. LO 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion.

EOC Q11.4 In one experiment on the phenomenon of __________ as a cause of attraction, women posing as students were rated as more attractive when they had attended a class more often even though none of the women interacted with other students in the class. a) proximity b) similarity c) reciprocity d) companionship ANS: a Topic=Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: The effects of this variable may be explained by mere exposure. LO 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation.

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EOC Q11.5 Although researchers still have much to learn about crying, it is clear that crying has a useful survival function for infants. Crying triggers __________. a) lactation in new mothers b) a release of stress hormones c) an emotional release unavailable to adults d) a decrease in distress and arousal ANS: a Topic=Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Crying clearly has an impact on parents. LO 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion.

EOC Q11.6 Bingeing followed by purging is typically associated with which disorder? a) bulimia b) anorexia c) anorexia nervosa d) binge eating disorder ANS: a Topic=Motivation: Our Wants and Needs Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 11.4c Identify the symptoms of bulimia and anorexia. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Think carefully about what you have learned regarding eating disorders. LO 11.4c Identify the symptoms of bulimia and anorexia.

EOC Q11.7 Humans have a range of body fat and muscle mass they tend to maintain, and this can vary from person to person. Researchers call this __________, and it helps explain why losing and keeping off vast amounts of weight can be so difficult. a) a set point b) a homeostatic regulator c) the Omega zone d) the distal-proximal balance ANS: a Topic=Motivation: Our Wants and Needs Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 11.4b Describe the determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: It is rather like a genetically-programmed gauge. LO 11.4b Describe the determinants of hunger, weight gain, and obesity.

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EOC Q11.8 Which term describes the tendency of our moods to adapt to external circumstances, such as feeling especially good for a short time when something good happens, then going back to how we usually feel? a) hedonic treadmill b) affective forecasting c) durability bias d) positivity effect ANS: a Topic=Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem., Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This is rather like a set point for happiness. LO 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem.

EOC Q11.9 The pioneering researchers who studied the physiology of the human sexual response cycle starting in the 1950s were __________. a) Virginia Johnson and William Masters b) Sandra Musselman and Martin Williams c) Shere Hite and Alfred Kinsey d) Helle Sorensen and Walter Jabsco ANS: a Topic=Motivation: Our Wants and Needs Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 11.4d Describe the human sexual response cycle and factors that influence sexual activity. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: These people are famously associated with this line of research. LO 11.4d Describe the human sexual response cycle and factors that influence sexual activity. EOC Q11.10 The study of personal space, the distance people feel comfortable with between themselves and others in different social situations, is called __________. a) proxemics b) relativity c) spatial relationships d) proximity ANS: a Topic=Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The farther we stand from a person, the less emotionally close we usually feel to her or him, and vice versa. LO 11.2a Explain the importance of nonverbal expression of emotion.

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EOC Q11.11 Our evaluation of our own worth as a human being is called __________. a) self-esteem b) narcissism c) insight d) optimism ANS: a Topic=Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: It is pretty much called just what you would think it would be called. LO 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem.

EOC Q11.12 According to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, the __________ triggers both an emotion and a bodily reaction to it, but later researchers have found that many regions in the limbic system also play key roles in emotions. a) thalamus b) hypothalamus c) amygdala d) hippocampus ANS: a Topic=Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This is a relay station for the senses, which triggers both an emotion and bodily reactions. LO 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion.

EOC Q11.13 Human lie detectors, unaided by mechanical devices, are typically accurate in distinguishing lies from truths about __________ percent of the time, where a 50/50 guess would be expected by chance alone. a) 25 b) 55 c) 64 d) 70 ANS: b Topic=Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: These results, confirmed over numerous studies and decades of research, are rather discouraging. LO 11.2b Identify major lie detection methods and their pitfalls.

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EOC Q11.14 When Elaine Hatfield and her colleagues conducted pioneering research on attraction in 1966, they randomly paired students for a first date. Which characteristic was overwhelmingly the most likely to predict whether the students would want to go on a second date? a) physical attractiveness b) common interests c) similar personalities d) dissimilar backgrounds ANS: a Topic=Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Discouraging, perhaps, but true. LO 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation.

EOC Q11.15 Which level of happiness is correlated with higher levels of education, income, and political participation? a) moderate b) very low c) low d) high ANS: a Topic=Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 11.3b Describe the emerging discipline of positive psychology. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This is reminiscent of the Yerkes-Dodson law. LO 11.3b Describe the emerging discipline of positive psychology.

EOC Q11.16 Which of the following is not a potential influence on sexual orientation? a) effeminate mothers b) sex hormones c) prenatal influences d) brain differences ANS: a Topic=Motivation: Our Wants and Needs Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 11.4e Identify common misconceptions about and potential influences on sexual orientation. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Recall what you learned in this major section of the chapter. LO 11.4e Identify common misconceptions about and potential influences on sexual orientation.

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EOC Q11.17 Research shows that people have different physiological reactions to different emotions. For instance when we are afraid, our __________ slows down and when we are angry, it speeds up. a) digestive system b) heart rate c) blink rate d) breathing ANS: a Topic=Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This explains why our “stomachs churn” when we are furious. LO 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion.

EOC Q11.18 The changes in emotions that we feel in response to the condition of our physical selves is purely biochemical and noncognitive; “thinking” has little to do with the process. This view summarizes the __________. a) facial feedback hypothesis b) two-factor theory of emotion c) James-Lange theory of emotion d) Cannon-Bard theory of emotion ANS: a Topic=Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This is a view consistent with Darwinian notions of emotion. LO 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion.

EOC Q11.19 According to one long-standing theory, __________ is a powerful, overwhelming desire for one’s partner, whereas __________ is a sense of deep friendship and fondness for one’s partner. a) passionate love; companionate love b) companionate love; passionate love c) longing; desire d) platonic love; erotic love ANS: a Topic=Nonverbal Expression of Emotion: The Eyes, Bodies, and Cultures Have It Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This view also holds that relationships tend to progress from the first type to the second type. LO 11.5b Describe the major types of love and the elements of love and hate.

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EOC Q11.20 The eating disorder with the highest mortality among all mental disorders is __________. a) anorexia b) bulimia c) binge-eating disorder d) night-eating disorder ANS: a Topic=Motivation: Our Wants and Needs Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 11.4c Identify the symptoms of bulimia and anorexia. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: The causes of the mortality are varied, but they all stem from this disorder. LO 11.4c Identify the symptoms of bulimia and anorexia.

EOC Q11.21 Certain body shapes tend to be more attractive to the opposite sex. Men seem to be especially attracted to women with a waist-to-hip ratio of about __________, which may be because this ratio is a cue (if an imperfect one) to fertility. a) 0.7 b) 0.5 c) 0.2 d) 0.1 ANS: a Topic=Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: That is, with a waist a certain percent as large as the hips. LO 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation.

EOC Q11.22 Data suggests that high self-esteem paired with __________ can be a higher risk factor for hostility than low selfesteem. a) narcissism b) criticism c) loud noises d) contradictory evidence ANS: a Topic=Happiness and Self-Esteem: Science Confronts Pop Psychology Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This combination predicts some bad stuff, man. LO 11.3a Identify common myths and realities about happiness and self-esteem.

107

EOC Q11.23 In keeping with the discrete emotions theory, brain-imaging data shows that certain emotions seem to be associated with specific areas of the brain, such as __________’s association with the frontal cortex behind the eyes. a) anger b) happiness c) pleasure d) surprise ANS: a Topic=Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: As other examples, fear is relatively specific to the amygdala and disgust to the insula, a region within the limbic system. LO 11.1a Describe the major theories of emotion.

EOC Q11.24 Using a computer to progressively combine faces of students, Judith Langlois and Lori Roggman discovered that, in general, people prefer faces that are __________. a) average b) exotic c) like their own d) distinctly different from their own ANS: a Topic=Attraction, Love, and Hate: The Greatest Mysteries of Them All Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Our preferences might be due to these faces’ greater symmetry. LO 11.5a Identify principles and factors that guide attraction and relationship formation.

EOC Q11.25 Contrary to the popular saying that familiarity breeds contempt, which theory proposes that familiarity instead breeds comfort? a) mere exposure effect b) accustomization effect c) increasing exposure theory d) Darwinian evolutionary model ANS: a Topic=Theories of Emotion: What Causes Our Feelings? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Because of the process under consideration, we come to feel more favorably about an object or person. LO 11.1b Identify unconscious influences on emotion.

108

Chapter 12: Stress, Coping, and Health Total Assessment Guide 3

Topic Quick Quiz 1

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice

2, 4, 7, 9

3, 8, 10

1, 5–6

Quick Quiz 2

Multiple Choice

4, 7, 9–10

2, 6

1, 3, 5, 8

Learning Objective 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Learning Objective 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress. Learning Objective 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome.

Multiple Choice

1 4, 6, 8, 10, 13, 15 1-2 1

3, 5, 7, 9

2, 11–12, 14, 16–18

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

19–20, 23, 28 4

21–22, 24, 27

25–26

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice

29–34, 38–40, 42 6–7 2

36–37, 41, 44–45

35, 43, 46–47 5, 8

Learning Objective 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses. Learning Objective 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Learning Objective 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personalities may influence our responses to stress. Learning Objective 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress.

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice

3 1

48, 51–52

55, 57, 59, 61–62, 68, 70–71 11

49–50, 53–54 9–10

58, 60, 63–67, 69 12

1 72, 79, 81, 83–84, 86

75, 80, 82, 85

73–74, 76–78, 87–88

89–90, 92, 94, 96, 98, 100 13

95, 97, 101–102

91, 93, 99

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Topic Learning Objective 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Learning Objective 12.4c Describe the role of personality, everyday experiences, and socioeconomic factors in coronary heart disease. Learning Objective 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Learning Objective 12.5b Identify why it is difficult to change our lifestyles. Learning Objective 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos.

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

103–105, 107, 111– 112, 114 16

108–110, 113

106

118, 120, 122–124 18 3

117, 11

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

127–128 19

126, 129, 134

125, 130–133 20

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

135, 137

136

Multiple Choice

138–140, 142–143, 145–147, 149, 152153 22, 24–25 5

148, 151, 154–156

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

14–15

115–116, 12 17

141, 144, 150

21, 23

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 12 Quick Quiz 1 1. Vanna’s mother is ill and Vanna is feeling overwhelmed and sad. To cope with this stress of her mother’s illness, Vanna has been writing her feelings down in a journal. Vanna is using __________. A) problem-focused coping B) emotion-focused coping C) distraction D) reappraisal 2. Which of the following statements is true? A) Hassles have a greater effect on adjustment than major life events. B) Hassles are minor annoyances or nuisances that tax one’s ability to cope. C) Only major life events, and not hassles, are associated with poor general health. D) Difficulties with relaxing and insomnia only reflect everyday hassles and are not related to depression or anxiety. 3. In which stage of the general adaptation syndrome has the body reached the limits of its ability to adapt to stress, which may result in the development of stress-related diseases? A) alarm B) collapse C) exhaustion D) resistance 4. Research into the post-event reactions of those who were living in New York City many months after the attacks on September 11, 2001, found which of the following to be true? A) A majority of those polled demonstrated remarkable resilience to the potential effects of the trauma of 9/11. B) A majority of those living in New York City at that time had moved to the city since the attacks, indicating that most of those who lived in the city when the attack occurred had left the area. C) A majority of those polled were suffering significant levels of PTSD symptoms. D) A majority of those polled were willing to discuss mundane details of their lives, but were very resistant to discussing anything related to the 9/11 attacks. 5. Jayci lost her husband, daughter, and home in a widespread wildfire in California. To overcome this ordeal, she turns to old friends and support groups in the community for emotional comfort, information, companionship, advice, and financial assistance. This relationship is known as __________. A) coping B) camaraderie C) networking D) social support 6. Tad seems to thrive when faced with difficult challenges and usually feels in control of his life. He would probably be labeled a __________ personality. A) stressed B) Type B C) Type C D) hardy 7. The purpose of __________ is to protect the body against the invasion of bacteria, viruses, fungi, or other illnessproducing organisms. A) antigens B) lymphocytes C) phagocytes D) the immune system

8. The Type A behavior pattern is a significant predictor of __________. A) mental illness B) coronary heart disease C) cancer D) respiratory illnesses 9. Which is true about the DARE program? A) It is very unpopular in schools. B) It targets first and second graders. C) It teaches the negative effects of using drugs. D) It produces long-lasting effects. 10. “Like cures like” is the foundation of __________. A) alternative medicine B) homeopathy C) complementary medicine D) traditional medicine

Chapter 12 Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1. B

Explanation: Emotion-focused coping involves changing the way a person emotionally reacts to a stressor. Writing in the journal helps Vanna cope with her mother’s illness. (What Is Stress?, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 12.1a)

2. B

Explanation: This is a correct depiction of hassles. (What Is Stress?, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 12.1b)

3. C

Explanation: During the exhaustion stage, the body has reached its limit. (How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 12.2a)

4. A

Explanation: Though some people were very profoundly affected by the events of 9/11 and struggled in the aftermath, a majority of those polled showed remarkable resilience to these very traumatic events. (How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 12.2b)

5. D

Explanation: The reliance on friends, support groups, and others in our community is the definition of social support. (Coping With Stress, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 12.3a)

6. D

Explanation: Hardy personalities thrive on challenge and feel in control. (Coping With Stress, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 12.3b)

7. D

Explanation: The immune system acts as a basic defense system to fight various illness-causing agents. (How Stress Impacts Our Health, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 12.4a)

8. B

Explanation: Studies show that people with Type A behavior patterns have an increased risk of coronary heart disease. (How Stress Impacts Our Health, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 12.4c)

9. C

Explanation: The goal of DARE is to educate kids about the negative effects of drugs and hopefully reduce the “glamour” of using such substances. (Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 12.5b)

10. B

Explanation: Homeopathic medicine involves introducing a small amount of an illness-producing substance so that the body will naturally start fighting that illness. (Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 12.5c)

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 12 Quick Quiz 2 1. Edgar is learning deep-breathing techniques to reduce anxiety about having been robbed at knifepoint. This is an example of __________. A) problem-focused coping B) emotion-focused coping C) avoidance D) reappraisal 2. Which of the stages of the general adaptation syndrome is demonstrated by initial activation of the fight-or-flight system? A) alarm B) resistance C) rumination D) exhaustion 3. Amanda signed up with the army right after she graduated from high school. She was soon sent to Iraq. During her two years in Iraq, she witnessed many gruesome catastrophes. Upon returning home, she felt detached and estranged from her old friends, was easily startled, and had difficulties sleeping due to the vivid memories of the horrific events. Amanda displays the symptoms of __________. A) flashbacks B) posttraumatic stress disorder C) anxiety D) depression 4. Research has consistently shown that having a good __________ is of critical importance in a person’s ability to cope with stressors. A) friendship B) camaraderie C) therapist D) social support system 5. Melissa’s mother was recently diagnosed with leukemia. As a result, Melissa is now required to take care of all of her mother’s personal needs and manage her financial affairs. Melissa is already a full-time student and is also the primary caregiver for her son. However, Melissa has an attitude that things could be worse. She is confident that she will get through this crisis. Thus, she is displaying __________. A) self-enhancement B) rumination C) hardiness D) self-confidence 6. The prevailing explanation for the relationship between stress and illness has been that increased levels of stress result in a decrease in the immune system’s ability to protect the body from illness. On the other hand, it is possible that people who are experiencing stress engage in more health-damaging behaviors, this leads us to a greater likelihood of illness. This different explanation of the relationship demonstrates the importance of __________. A) falsifiability B) ruling out rival hypotheses C) replicability D) extraordinary claims 7. Research has found that the body’s immune system can attack the body’s own parts. Which is an example of such an autoimmune disease? A) Crohn’s disease B) agranulocytosis C) multiple sclerosis D) polycystic acne 8. Joanna has a type-A personality. Which of the following traits are descriptive of her personality? A) competitive and driven B) negative and distressed C) relaxed and easygoing D) unfriendly and asocial

9. __________ is the mental shortcut we use to judge the likelihood of an event and the ease with which it comes to mind. A) The representativeness heuristic B) The availability heuristic C) Automatic processing D) Rumination 10. Which of the following has been shown to be an outcome of using meditation? A) increased blood pressure B) increased blood flow to the brain C) decrease in blood glucose levels D) decreases in nightmares and night terror episodes

Chapter 12 Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1. B

Explanation: Emotion-focused coping involves changing the way a person emotionally reacts to a stressor. Deep breathing helps Edgar feel less stressed about his bad experience. (What Is Stress?, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 12.1a)

2. A

Explanation: The alarm stage involves the activation of the sympathetic nervous system, or the fight-orflight response system. (How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 12.2a)

3. B

Explanation: These are many of the symptoms that depict the diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder. (How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 12.2b)

4. D

Explanation: The health effects, both physical and psychological, of having a strong social support network, have been well documented. (Coping With Stress, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 12.3a)

5. C

Explanation: People who demonstrate a hardy personality are able to combine the best aspects of type-A and type-B. (Coping With Stress, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 12.3b)

6. B

Explanation: This is an alternate explanation for the relationship that was found that is as viable as the proposed explanation. (How Stress Impacts Our Health, Conceptual, APA LO 2.1, TEXT LO 12.4a)

7. D

Explanation: Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disorder. (How Stress Impacts Our Health, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 12.4a)

8. A

Explanation: These are two facets of a type-A personality. (How Stress Impacts Our Health, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 12.4c)

9. B

Explanation: This is a definition of the availability heuristic. (Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 12.5b)

10. B

Explanation: Some forms of meditation actually increase vascular activity in the brain. (Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 12.5c)

Chapter 12: Stress, Coping, and Health Test Bank Multiple-Choice 1. Research suggests that stress-producing events are __________. A) found in all sectors of society B) less likely to affect residents of rural areas or nonindustrialized countries C) more likely to affect people living in urban areas and developed countries D) more impactful to men than to women Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 2. According to research, who is at the highest risk for experiencing stressful events? A) Sean, a young unmarried man Correct. According to your textbook, young and unmarried people have a very high-risk profile for stress. B) Jon, a wealthy African American man Incorrect. While it is true that African-Americans also have a high profile for stress, Jon’s financial wealth probably serves to insulate him from some of that effect. C) Mike, an Asian American man D) Saida, a married mother of two children Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 3. Which of the following is an explanation for the clinician’s illusion? A) Clinicians recognize that because people tend not to think clearly and objectively about their own stressors, they assume that most people are not able to deal effectively with their own stressors. B) Clinicians are used to dealing with other clinicians, and thus they assume that most people are wellbalanced, resilient, and perfectly able to handle their own stressors. Incorrect. There is nothing in the textbook that addresses this as an explanation for the clinician’s illusion. C) Clinicians realize that their “fees” are usually going to be paid for by insurance companies, and thus assume that their clients will be highly motivated to improve as rapidly as possible so that they don’t “run out” of benefits. D) Clinicians tend to see only those who react emotionally to stress, so they overestimate people’s fragility and underestimate their resilience. Correct. The fact that clinicians tend to see people who are struggling with difficulties is part of what leads to the clinician’s illusion. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

4. The tendency to overestimate people’s fragility and underestimate their resilience is known as __________. A) clinician’s illusion B) the fundamental attribution error C) affective forecasting D) the hedonic treadmill Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 5. Stress is a(n) __________ while a stressor is a(n) __________. A) stimulus; response B) adaptive event; maladaptive event C) emotion; behavior D) response; stimulus Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Topic: What Is Stress? 6. __________ consist(s) of the tension, discomfort, or physical symptoms that arise when a situation strains our ability to cope effectively. A) Stress B) Anxiety C) Trauma D) Stimuli Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Topic: What Is Stress? % correct 74 a = 74 b = 23 c = 3 d = 0 r = .30 7. Researchers view stress in the following three ways: __________. A) a stimulus, a transaction with the environment, and as a response Correct. According to your textbook, these are the three facets of stress that researchers deal with. B) a response, an apprehension, and a stimulus Incorrect. These are probably three parts of stress, but they are not of specific concern to researchers. C) a fear, an attack, and a rage D) a stimulus, an uneasiness, and a response Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Topic: What Is Stress? % correct 85 a = 85 b = 6 c = 0 d = 9 r = .49 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8. Corticosteroids are stress hormones that __________. A) calm the body when facing a stressful situation B) interfere with the body’s ability to function during stressful events C) stimulate nervous breakdowns D) activate the body and prepare it to respond to stressful circumstances Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Topic: What Is Stress? % correct 76 a = 6 b = 18 c = 0 d = 76 r = .74 9. When encountering a potentially threatening event, people first decide whether the event is harmful; this is known as __________ appraisal. Then, a(n) __________ appraisal is made about how well one can cope with that event. A) primary; secondary Correct. According to Lazarus and Folkman, the primary and secondary appraisals are the two evaluations we make when dealing with a potential stressor. B) initial; general C) secondary; primary Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. D) general; initial Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Topic: What Is Stress? 10. According to Lazarus and colleagues, our first task when faced with a potential stressor is to assess whether the event is harmful to us. This evaluation is referred to as __________. A) primary appraisal B) secondary appraisal C) stress-related decision D) hassle-related decision Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Topic: What Is Stress?

11. Mary just received a traffic ticket but decided it is not worth being upset about. Mary just made a __________. A) primary appraisal Correct. A primary appraisal involves evaluating the level of stress or threat in a situation. In this case, Mary decided the ticket was not very important. B) secondary appraisal Incorrect. A secondary appraisal involves estimating the resources available for coping with a stressor. C) stress-related decision D) hassle-related decision Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Topic: What Is Stress? 12. Imagine that you have just flunked a class. You evaluate this situation and decide that flunking a class is stressful and important enough to be upset about. Next, you decide to repeat the class in summer school. You have made __________. A) a primary appraisal only Incorrect. You have made both a primary appraisal (the decision that flunking the class is important) and a secondary appraisal (to deal with it by repeating the class). B) both a primary and a secondary appraisal Correct. You have made both a primary appraisal (the decision that flunking the class is important) and a secondary appraisal (to deal with it by repeating the class). C) a stress-related decision D) a hassle-related decision Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Topic: What Is Stress? 13. After we have decided that a certain event is a stressor, we must decide how we will deal with it. This process is called __________. A) primary appraisal B) secondary appraisal C) tertiary appraisal D) distress-eustress dichotomy Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Topic: What Is Stress?

14. Which of the following is TRUE regarding coping strategies? A) Eric engages in problem-focused coping when he faces the challenges of life head-on. Correct. When we deal with the actual problem that causes us to stress, this is defined as problemfocused coping. B) Marilee engages in problem-focused coping when she places a positive spin on her feelings and situation. C) Bao engages in emotion-focused coping when he believes he is unable to deal with the stressful event. D) Westin engages in emotion-focused coping when he cries uncontrollably to comfort himself. Incorrect. It would be hard to make the argument that uncontrollable crying is an effective emotionfocused form of coping. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Topic: What Is Stress? 15. Coping strategies can be either __________-focused or __________-focused in nature. A) problem; emotion B) distress; eustress C) physiologically; spiritually D) internally; externally Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Topic: What Is Stress? 16. Working a second job to pay off your credit card bills is an example of ___________. A) problem-focused coping Correct. Problem-focused coping is aimed at reducing the impact of a stressor, as in the case of the example of credit card bills. B) emotion-focused coping Incorrect. Emotion-focused coping involves changing the way a person emotionally reacts to a stressor. C) distraction D) reappraisal Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Topic: What Is Stress?

17. Vanna’s mother is ill and Vanna is feeling overwhelmed and sad. To cope with this stress of her mother’s illness, Vanna has been writing her feelings down in a journal. Vanna is using __________. A) problem-focused coping Incorrect. Problem-focused coping is aimed at eliminating the stressor. Writing in the journal cannot eliminate Vanna’s mother’s illness. B) emotion-focused coping Correct. Emotion-focused coping involves changing the way a person emotionally reacts to a stressor. Writing in the journal helps Vanna cope with her mother’s illness. C) distraction D) reappraisal Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Topic: What Is Stress? 18. Edgar is learning deep-breathing techniques to reduce anxiety about having been robbed at knifepoint. This is an example of __________. A) problem-focused coping Incorrect. Problem-focused coping is aimed at eliminating the stressor. Deep breathing cannot change what happened to Edgar. B) emotion-focused coping Correct. Emotion-focused coping involves changing the way a person emotionally reacts to a stressor. Deep breathing helps Edgar feel less stressed about his bad experience. C) avoidance D) reappraisal Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Topic: What Is Stress? 19. Which scale is used to rank order different life events, such as “jail term” or “personal injury or illness,” in terms of their stressfulness? A) Social Readjustment Rating Scale B) Beck Stress Response Inventory C) Minnesota Multiphasic Stress Scale D) Rorschach Test Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress. Topic: What Is Stress?

20. David Holmes and colleagues developed the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS) to measure change due to __________. A) natural disasters B) major life events C) social difficulties D) negative life events Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress. Topic: What Is Stress? 21. According to Holmes and Rahe, a person who has a higher score on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale is more likely than are people with lower scores to have what kind of experience in the near future? A) more frequent changes of job B) a divorce Incorrect. Divorce does cause stress, but it is not likely to be the result of stress. C) commission of a crime D) a higher chance of becoming ill Correct. A higher score suggests a high level of stress and, therefore, the possibility of experiencing more health problems than usual. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress. Topic: What Is Stress? 22. Many people believe that difficult events such as divorce are caused by stress, and yet they fail to consider the possibility that these events may actually BE the cause of stress. In fact, the relationship may go both ways at the same time! Which concept from this chapter is demonstrated by this uncertain relationship? A) correlation vs. causation Correct. This question looks at the direction of causation between two events, which is defined as the concept of correlation versus causation. B) replicability C) extraordinary claims Incorrect. There is nothing particularly extraordinary in the events discussed in this question. D) falsifiability Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress. Topic: What Is Stress?

23. Which of the following statements is the most accurate? A) Hassles have a greater effect on adjustment than major life events. B) Hassles are minor annoyances or nuisances that tax one’s ability to cope. C) Only major life events, and not hassles, are associated with poor general health. D) Difficulties with relaxing and insomnia only reflect everyday hassles and are not related to depression or anxiety. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress. Topic: What Is Stress? 24. The fact that hassles can be used to predict psychological adjustment even when major life events are removed from the equation demonstrates which of the following concepts in this chapter? A) correlation vs. causation B) replicability Incorrect. This particular question has nothing to do with replicating research results. C) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. This is an attempt to look for alternate explanations for a particular research finding. D) Occam’s Razor Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress. Topic: What Is Stress? 25. Burning your toast, having trouble opening an e-mail attachment, breaking a glass, and running late for an appointment are all examples of __________. A) uplifts B) hassles Correct. Burning toast and breaking a glass are considered hassles, which are daily annoyances in everyday life. C) downturns D) distress Incorrect. Distress is the effect of stress, whereas hassles are a cause of stress. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress. Topic: What Is Stress?

26. Monroe and his wife have to deal with the fact that her mother calls their house at least ten times a day, usually with no important reason for the call. She is a lonely individual, and her calls seem to be about finding something to do. Monroe finds her calls bothersome, but he tries not to let them get to him because deep down he really does love his mother-in-law. In this case, the repeated telephone calls are best described as a __________. A) stressor B) hassle Correct. Because this person is a daily annoyance, she would best be described as a hassle. C) major life event Incorrect. Monroe’s mother is not causing enough of a problem to be considered a major life event. D) eustress inducer Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress. Topic: What Is Stress? 27. Some have suggested that the relationship between hassles and stress, as demonstrated by the Hassles Scale, might actually be better explained by the fact that some of the symptoms noted may reflect symptoms of a psychological disorder such as depression. This is an important reminder of the value of __________. A) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. This is an alternate explanation for the relationship that was found that is as viable as the proposed explanation. B) replicability C) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. This alternate explanation does not, on its face, seem to be a simpler explanation for the noted relationship. D) extraordinary claims Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress. Topic: What Is Stress? 28. The stress-response pattern proposed by Hans Selye that consists of three stages—alarm, resistance, and exhaustion—is called the ___________ syndrome. A) tension remediation B) stress inoculation C) functional limitation D) general adaptation Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress. Topic: What Is Stress?

29. Which psychologist is credited with proposing the general adaptation syndrome? A) Hans Selye B) David Berkowitz C) David Holmes and Richard Rahe D) Richard Lazarus Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 30. The hypothalamus sits atop a mind-body link known as the hypothalamus-pituitary-__________ axis that controls the way the body responds to the presence of a stressor. A) anticholinergic B) adrenal C) antigenic D) adaptive Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 31. What is the correct sequence of stages in the general adaptation syndrome? A) resistance, alarm, exhaustion B) exhaustion, resistance, alarm C) alarm, exhaustion, resistance D) alarm, resistance, exhaustion Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 32. During the alarm stage of the general adaptation syndrome, __________. A) the central and somatic systems are activated B) synaptic activity and the somatic nervous system activate to send messages from the CNS to muscles C) the sympathetic nervous system is activated and the adrenal glands release hormones D) neurotransmitter levels and the central nervous system are activated Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge

33. The limbic system, which is sometimes referred to as the emotional brain, contains which of the following structures? A) the hippocampus Correct. The limbic system includes the hippocampus, the hypothalamus, and the amygdala, among other structures. B) the cerebellum Incorrect. The cerebellum is not a part of the limbic system. C) the reticular activating system D) the insula Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 34. Which of the following is sometimes referred to as the emotional brain? A) the somatosensory cortex Incorrect. This is a part of the parietal lobe of the cerebral cortex. B) the cerebral cortex C) the diencephalon D) the limbic system Correct. The limbic system contains some of our emotional-regulation centers, including the hippocampus, the hypothalamus, and the amygdala. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 35. Adelaida hears a rattling sound as she hikes through the desert. Her muscles tense and her blood pressure rises. According to Hans Selye, she is in the __________ phase of the general adaptation syndrome. A) chronic stress B) alarm Correct. In the alarm phase, the sympathetic nervous system responds to the threatening sound by activating and causing the adrenal glands to release hormones that increase heart rate and blood pressure. C) exhaustion D) resistance Incorrect. The resistance phase would follow the alarm phase, which is the initial response to the threatening sound. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge

36. According to Hans Selye, resistance to stress is lowest at the __________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome. A) alarm B) resistance C) exhaustion Correct. The third stage of the general adaptation syndrome is exhaustion, during which our resistance to stress is lowest. D) collapse Incorrect. This is not a stage of the general adaptation syndrome model. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 37. Which of the stages of the general adaptation syndrome is demonstrated by initial activation of the fight-or-flight system? A) alarm Correct. The alarm stage involves the activation of the sympathetic nervous system, or the fight-or-flight response system. B) resistance C) rumination D) exhaustion Incorrect. The exhaustion stage, or the third stage of the general adaptation syndrome, is marked by a depletion of our stress fighting resources. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 38. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome has the potential to last for the longest duration? A) alarm Incorrect. The alarm stage is generally regarded as the shortest stage of the general adaptation syndrome. B) reactance C) resistance Correct. During the resistance stage, our stress-fighting resources are at their highest level as we spend time trying to "resist" the impact of stressors. D) exhaustion Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge

39. Which of the following terms was coined to indicate the presence of positive, or adaptive, stress in a person’s life? A) distress B) counterstress C) prostress D) eustress Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 40. Which of the following terms indicates the presence of negative, or bad, stress in a person’s life? A) distress B) counterstress C) prostress D) eustress Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 41. Despite popular misconception, stress can actually be good for you and serve positive functions. The stress that we experience in response to positive events is called __________. A) adaptive stress B) distress C) positive stress D) eustress Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 42. A person in the __________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome has adapted to the presence of a stressor and is beginning to find ways to cope with it. A) alarm B) resistance C) exhaustion D) termination Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge

43. For the past six months, Dahlia’s job has been extremely stressful, but she doesn’t feel that she can quit because she needs the money for tuition. Dahlia has doing her best to maintain a positive attitude even though she has really felt quite stressed. According to Hans Selye, Dahlia is in the __________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome. A) alarm B) collapse C) exhaustion Incorrect. Only after Dahlia has experienced prolonged stress and her bodily resources are so depleted that stress-related diseases, such as chronic headaches, develop, will she be in the exhaustion stage. D) resistance Correct. During the resistance stage, the body uses its resources to fight off the stressors. Dahlia is currently coping with the stressors as well as she can. If she becomes ill, she will enter the exhaustion stage. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 44. In which stage of the general adaptation syndrome has the body reached the limits of its ability to adapt to stress, which may result in the development of stress-related diseases? A) alarm B) collapse C) exhaustion Correct. During the exhaustion stage, the body has reached its limit. D) resistance Incorrect. During the resistance stage, the body fights off the stressor until its resources give out. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 45. According to Selye, some people may develop illnesses such as organ damage, depression, anxiety, or a weakened immune system during the __________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome. A) alarm B) collapse C) exhaustion Correct. During the exhaustion stage, the body’s resources are so depleted that stress-related diseases can develop. D) resistance Incorrect. During the resistance stage, the body uses its resources to fight off the stressors. It is not until the next stage, exhaustion, that bodily resources are so depleted that stress-related diseases can develop. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

46. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome might explain why college students tend to experience a higher rate of absenteeism from class around midterm and final exam time each semester? A) resistance B) exhaustion Correct. Because the exhaustion stage is marked by physical illness and the depletion of our stressfighting resources, this could explain why so many students miss classes during these times in the semesters. C) alarm D) surrender Incorrect. There is no surrender stage in the general adaptation syndrome. The three stages are alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 47. For the past six months, Jenna’s job has been extremely stressful, but she doesn’t feel that she can quit because she needs the money for tuition. Jenna has been having chronic headaches and is behind in all of her classes. According to Hans Selye, Jenna is in the __________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome. A) alarm B) collapse C) exhaustion Correct. Jenna has experienced prolonged stress, and her bodily resources are so depleted that stressrelated diseases, such as chronic headaches, can develop. D) resistance Incorrect. During the resistance stage, the body uses its resources to fight off the stressors. It is not until the next stage, exhaustion, that bodily resources are so depleted that stress-related diseases, such as chronic headaches, can develop. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 48. The term “fight-or-flight response” was coined by American psychologist __________. A) William James B) Walter Cannon C) Francis Sumner D) Mary Carver Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge

49. Jamie has worked for the Jones & Miller law firm for the past five years. The firm is in the process of downsizing and laying off employees. Jamie is afraid that she may lose her job. To help deal with this stressful situation, Jamie tends to rely on her social contacts for support, in addition to nurturing those around her. This is known as __________. A) fight or flight Incorrect. Fight or flight refers to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system, and is not unique to women. B) tend and befriend Correct. The tendency that women have to reach out to others during times of high stress is called tend and befriend. C) reliance and coping D) friend or relationship Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge % correct 91 a = 0 b = 91 c = 9 d = 0 r = .27 50. Which of the following individuals would be most likely to engage a “tend-and-befriend” approach to dealing with significant stress in their life? A) David, who is 75 years old, single, and retired from a long career in the Navy Incorrect. The tend-and-befriend approach tends to be seen mostly in women. B) Christopher, who is 42 years old, married, and works long hours to support his family C) Chantel, who is a 37-year-old single mother living with her son and two roommates Correct. The tend-and-befriend approach tends to be seen mostly in women. D) Tamal, who is a 14-year-old first-generation Indian-American middle-school student living with his grandparents Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 51. Research into the post-event reactions of those who were living in New York City many months after the attacks on September 11, 2001, found which of the following to be TRUE? A) A majority of those polled demonstrated remarkable resilience to the potential effects of the trauma of 9/11. B) A majority of those living in New York City at that time had moved to the city since the attacks, indicating that most of those who lived in the city when the attack occurred had left the area. C) A majority of those polled were suffering from significant levels of PTSD symptoms. D) A majority of those polled were willing to discuss mundane details of their lives, but were very resistant to discussing anything related to the 9/11 attacks. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge

52. Which hormone, known for its role in love, trust, and bonding, can help to fight the effects of stress and promote the tend-and-befriend response? A) estrogen Incorrect. Estrogen plays many important roles but is not the right answer. B) oxytocin Correct. This hormone has many benefits for our psychological well-being. C) progestin D) progesterone Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 53. Amanda signed up with the army right after she graduated from high school. She was soon sent to Iraq. During her two years in Iraq, she witnessed many gruesome catastrophes. Upon returning home, she felt detached and estranged from her old friends, was easily startled, and had difficulties sleeping due to the vivid memories of the horrific events. Amanda displays the symptoms of __________. A) flashbacks Incorrect. Flashbacks are one symptom of posttraumatic stress disorder, but they are not a diagnosis unto themselves. B) posttraumatic stress disorder Correct. These are many of the symptoms that depict the diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder. C) anxiety D) depression Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 54. Donald served in the military and was deployed during wartime. He does not often talk about the things he saw and did in combat, but sometimes he has __________, which include vivid memories, feelings, and images of the traumatic experiences he endured. As a result, he has been diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder by a psychiatrist who specializes in working with combat veterans. A) trips B) delusions C) flashbacks Correct. Flashbacks are often experienced by people who suffer from PTSD. D) hallucinations Incorrect. Donald is not having sensory experiences that occur in the absence of a stimulus. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge

55. What is the term for the people and groups that can provide emotional comfort and personal and financial resources during times of need? A) friendship B) camaraderie C) peer counseling D) social support Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 56. Social support encompasses social relations with ___________. A) people and groups B) the larger community C) people, groups, and the larger community Correct. Although some believe that social support only involves family, it can be very important to make these connections with other people in our communities. D) individual people Incorrect. Social support can involve groups as well as individual people. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 57. Research has consistently shown that having a good __________ is of critical importance in a person’s ability to cope with stressors. A) friendship B) camaraderie C) therapist D) social support system Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress

58. Jayci lost her husband, daughter, and home in a widespread wildfire in California. To overcome this ordeal, has she turned to old friends and self-help groups in the community for emotional comfort, information, companionship, advice, and financial assistance. This relationship is known as __________. A) coping Incorrect. The use of a social support system is an important coping mechanism, but coping is not the best answer to this question. B) camaraderie C) networking D) social support Correct. The reliance on friends, support groups, and others in our community is the definition of social support. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 59. What has research on social support and rates of mortality shown? A) There is no relationship between social support and mortality. B) People with more social support have higher rates of mortality. C) People with less social support have higher rates of mortality. D) Levels of social support are equal to rates of mortality. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress % correct 76 a = 6 b = 18 c = 76 d = 0 r = .34 60. Eric was recently fired from his job. His response to this stressful event was to take charge of the situation and research available jobs in his field. Then, to reduce the impact of the situation, he applied to each of the open positions for which he was qualified. This active type of coping is known as __________ control. A) emotional B) behavioral Correct. Behavioral control is the ability to step up and do something to reduce the impact of a stressful situation. C) cognitive D) decisional Incorrect. Decisional control involves the ability to choose among multiple courses of action. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress % correct 32 a = 0 b = 32 c = 18 d = 50 r = .24

61. Research in the United States and Iceland has found that high school and college students who are more inclined to use problem-focused coping techniques are less likely to __________. A) smoke marijuana B) drop out of high school C) engage in unprotected sex D) develop drinking problems Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 62. Cognitive control is the ability to __________. A) cognitively suppress and express emotions and thoughts B) reduce the impact of stressful circumstances by actively doing something C) choose between alternative choices for action D) think differently about negative emotions that stem from stressful events Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 63. Mario has been struggling with his college classes as of late. He has been working many hours, taking care of his children, and trying to carry a full load of classes. This semester he wants to take classes that are known to be a bit easier, so he consults with his friends at the college to get an idea of which courses will be less challenging. Mario’s plan of gathering information before selecting a class is a demonstration of __________ control. A) emotional Incorrect. Emotional control involves getting a hold of our own affective responses to a situation. B) informational C) decisional Correct. Decisional control involves the ability to choose among multiple courses of action. D) behavioral Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress

64. Jorge recently learned that his son was going to need some supplemental instruction to help him be successful at school; however, the extra assistance would cost a lot of money and Jorge had not prepared for the expense. Two months before the extra bills would start coming in, Jorge started working 4 extra hours per week and saving the additional money to pay for the tutors. When the time came for the extra instruction to begin, Jorge had saved more than enough to pay for the help for his son. Jorge used __________ coping to deal with the unexpected stress of new expenses. A) reactive Incorrect. Reactive coping involves trying to adjust to an event after it has already occurred. B) informational C) decisional D) proactive Correct. Proactive coping involves look ahead and dealing with things before they happen. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 65. Darci wants to go to medical school. She has a grade point average of 4.0 in her undergraduate coursework, but she is stressed with having to take the MCATs. To minimize this stress, she is signing up for MCAT prep classes. Darci is engaging in __________ coping. A) proactive Correct. Proactive coping involves looking ahead and dealing with things before they happen. B) reactive Incorrect. Reactive coping involves trying to adjust to an event after it has already occurred. C) academic D) problem-focused Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress

66. Katie and Jessica were college freshman when a sniper killed six students on campus. Katie suppressed her negative emotions of the event, and Jessica accepted the situation as an event that cannot be changed. Which of the following is most likely TRUE regarding their responses? A) Katie and Jessica will both have difficulty with this situation. B) Katie and Jessica will both be able to successfully deal with the situation. Incorrect. This answer may be correct, but Jessica is probably going to have an easier time than Katie will in dealing with the situation. C) Katie will be able to successfully deal with this situation, and Jessica will have difficulty dealing with this situation. D) Katie will have difficulty dealing with this situation, and Jessica will be able to successfully deal with this situation. Correct. Jessica’s acceptance of that which cannot be changed will help her deal more effectively with the situation than Katie will. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 67. Khadija recently suffered a broken heart when her romantic partner decided to end their relationship. She has started writing in a journal whenever she is feeling particularly down, and this has helped her stay focused at school and work and not let her sadness get the better of her. Khadija is using a(n) __________ control technique. A) behavioral B) cognitive C) emotional Correct. Emotional control involves getting a hold of our own affective responses to a situation. D) decisional Incorrect. Decisional control involves the ability to choose among multiple courses of action. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 68. Disclosing painful feelings is known as __________. A) liberation B) releasing C) debriefing D) catharsis Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress

69. Stacie is interested in researching the effects of catharsis on health. What will she likely find in the literature? A) Yelling, punching pillows, and throwing balls significantly reduce long-term stress. B) Catharsis can be harmful when it reinforces a sense of helplessness. C) Catharsis can be harmful when it involves problem solving and/or constructive means to make the stressful situation “right.” D) Catharsis has been found to be universally negative, as it has physical effects that promote aggression, hostility, and anger. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 70. __________ is administered to people who have experienced trauma in order to ward off posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). A) Crisis debriefing B) Catharsis C) Proactive coping D) Psychoanalysis Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 71. Research on crisis debriefing and posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) suggests that __________. A) crisis debriefing involves actively separating the individual from the source of his/her trauma B) the risk of PTSD may actually increase with crisis debriefing C) crisis debriefing is only effective when it is combined with the use of antianxiety medication D) crisis debriefing is an outdated, archaic form of crisis intervention, and it has not been used since the Vietnam War Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress

72. A set of attitudes marked by a sense of control over events, commitment to life and work, and motivation and courage to confront stressful events is known as __________. A) proactive integration B) hardiness C) rumination D) self-enhancement Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personalities may influence our responses to stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 73. Tad seems to thrive when faced with difficult challenges and usually feels in control of his life. He would probably be labeled a __________ personality. A) stressed Incorrect. Tad is thriving on the challenges in his life rather than being stressed by them. B) Type B C) Type C D) hardy Correct. Hardy personalities thrive on challenge and feel in control. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personalities may influence our responses to stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 74. Melissa’s mother was recently diagnosed with leukemia. As a result, Melissa is now required to take care of all of her mother’s personal needs and manage her financial affairs. Melissa is already a full-time student and is also the primary caregiver for her son. However, Melissa has an attitude that things could be worse. She is confident that she will get through this crisis. Thus, she is displaying __________. A) hardiness Correct. People who demonstrate a hardy personality are able to combine the best aspects of Type A and Type B personalities. B) rumination Incorrect. Rumination involves mentally recycling an event again and again and again, often with a result of producing more anxiety. C) self-enhancement D) self-confidence Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personalities may influence our responses to stress. Topic: Coping With Stress

75. When looking at a glass that is neither completely full nor completely empty, a(n) __________ might say “that glass is half full,” while a(n) __________ might say “no, that glass is half empty!” A) pessimist; optimist Incorrect. A pessimist views things negatively, while an optimist views things positively. B) realist; pessimist C) optimist; realist D) optimist; pessimist Correct. An optimist views things positively, while a pessimist views things negatively. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personalities may influence our responses to stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 76. Adena looks on the bright side of life. When a situation is not going well, she is able to bring to light something positive. This is known as __________. A) optimism Correct. People who are optimists generally look for the positive aspects of life. B) pessimism Incorrect. Have you ever known someone who always finds something to be unhappy about? This is an example of a pessimist. C) rumination D) self-enhancement Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personalities may influence our responses to stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 77. Ajeenah gets upset that roses have thorns. Paxton, on the other hand, is grateful that thorns have roses. Paxton would be best described as having a high level of __________. A) optimism Correct. People who are optimists generally look for the positive aspects of life. B) pessimism Incorrect. Have you ever known someone who always finds something to be unhappy about? This is an example of a pessimist. C) rumination D) self-enhancement Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personalities may influence our responses to stress. Topic: Coping With Stress

78. Kadijah gets upset that roses have thorns. Malcolm, on the other hand, is grateful that thorns have roses. Kadijah would be best described as having a high level of __________. A) optimism Incorrect. People who are optimists generally look for the positive aspects of life. B) pessimism Correct. Have you ever known someone who always finds something to be unhappy about? This is an example of a pessimist. C) rumination D) self-enhancement Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personalities may influence our responses to stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 79. Optimism is linked with __________. A) a more vigorous immune response B) a higher mortality rate C) genetic inheritance D) racial and ethnic background Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personalities may influence our responses to stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 80. Which three factors impact an individual’s ability to effectively deal with stress? A) hardiness, optimism, and spirituality Correct. These are three individual factors that deal with our ability to effectively handle stress. B) optimism, rumination, and control Incorrect. In fact, hardiness, optimism, and spirituality are the best answer to this question. C) hardiness, commitment, and avoidance D) rumination, avoidance, and obsession Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personalities may influence our responses to stress. Topic: Coping With Stress % correct 56 a = 56 b = 18 c = 15 d = 9 r = .54

81. __________ is the search for the sacred, which may or may not extend to belief in God. A) Spirituality B) Religion C) Humanism D) Optimism Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personalities may influence our responses to stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 82. Some believe that religious involvement has health benefits because it activates an internal healing energy that scientists cannot identify or measure. One conceptual problem with this hypothesis is __________. A) that it is unfalsifiable Correct. If such healing energy cannot be measured, how can its existence be proven or disproven? B) that it is not replicable Incorrect. To replicate a finding, an initial finding would have to be achieved. In this case, the energy in question cannot be initially verified. C) correlation vs. causation D) ruling out rival hypotheses Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personalities may influence our responses to stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 83. According to studies, people who describe themselves as religious are more likely to __________. A) live a shorter life than those who do not have religious beliefs B) lack a social support system C) have lower mortality rates than those who do not have religious beliefs D) feel alone with their struggles Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personalities may influence our responses to stress. Topic: Coping With Stress

84. In comparison to nonreligious people, religious individuals have __________. A) higher mortality rates and higher blood pressure B) lower mortality rates and lower blood pressure C) higher mortality rates and lower blood pressure D) lower mortality rates and higher blood pressure Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personalities may influence our responses to stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 85. Membership in a religious organization and regular attendance at religious functions __________. A) can boost a person’s social support system Correct. Membership in a religious organization makes a person feel less alone and provides a support system to help in coping with life’s struggles. B) will definitely extend one’s life expectancy Incorrect. Although there is some correlation between religiosity and longer life expectancy, this does not mean that one causes the other or that any individual will live longer by participating in a religion. C) are a psychological defense mechanism D) promote one’s cognitive abilities Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personalities may influence our responses to stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 86. __________ is also known as “recycling the mental garbage.” A) Cynicism B) Pessimism C) Rumination D) Self-doubt Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personalities may influence our responses to stress. Topic: Coping With Stress

87. After he asked Rachel to be his girlfriend and she declined his request, Trey spent the next several days recounting the rejection in his mind. He thought about different ways he might have asked and reasons why she might have said no. He was sure that everyone would be talking about him behind his back. Each time he thought of these unpleasant things, he got a little more upset. Trey was engaging in a practice called __________. A) meditation B) rumination Correct. When we dwell on things that make us unhappy, recycling them in our minds repeatedly, we are ruminating. C) CAM-ing Incorrect. CAM stands for “complementary and alternative medicine.” D) initialing Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personalities may influence our responses to stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 88. Cassie spends all of her time thinking about the things she has done wrong. She replays negative events over and over in her mind. As a result, Cassie is suffering from depression. This is caused by the process known as __________. A) rumination Correct. Rumination is defined as mentally recycling negative events over and over, producing increased stress. B) remembering C) confusion D) pessimism Incorrect. Rumination and pessimism are not the same thing. Pessimists expect things to go wrong. Those who ruminate can’t stop thinking about things that have gone wrong. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personalities may influence our responses to stress. Topic: Coping With Stress % correct 85 a = 85 b = 0 c = 0 d = 15 r = .15 89. The purpose of __________ is to protect the body against the invasion of bacteria, viruses, fungi, or other illness-producing organisms. A) antigens B) lymphocytes C) phagocytes D) the immune system Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health % correct 97 a = 0 b = 3 c = 0 d = 97 r = .19 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

90. The body’s first shield from foreign invaders is __________. A) the skin B) antigens. C) pathogens D) white blood cells Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 91. Jeremiah has an infection on his pinky finger that developed as a result of a simple cut. As the infection first penetrates the skin, what type of cell would be responsible for engulfing the offending invaders to prevent them from doing any damage? A) macrocytes B) macrophages Incorrect. Macrophages do their job in a very different way. The correct answer to this question is phagocytes. C) killer t-cells D) phagocytes Correct. This is how phagocytes work. By engulfing and surrounding the foreign invaders, they prevent them from affecting the host cells. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 92. Antibodies, which stick to the surface of foreign invaders to slow their progress and attract other proteins that destroy them, are produced by __________. A) B cells B) killer t-cells C) K cells D) G cells Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health

93. Julie has a serious disorder of the immune system that is life-threatening and incurable. This is a condition in which the human immunodeficiency virus attacks and damages the immune system. Julie has __________. A) multiple sclerosis B) Alzheimer’s C) acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) Correct. AIDS is the disease that is caused by HIV. D) human papilloma virus (HPV) Incorrect. HPV is a sexually transmitted disease but does not attack and damage the immune system as AIDS does. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 94. Research has found that the body’s immune system can attack the body’s own parts. Which is an example of such an autoimmune disease? A) Crohn's disease B) agranulocytosis C) multiple sclerosis D) polycystic acne Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 95. Why are illnesses like multiple sclerosis and arthritis referred to as autoimmune diseases? A) because these illnesses take automatic immune functions and reduce their activity B) because these illnesses do their damage by actually attacking the body’s own organs Correct. When these illnesses cause the body to attack its own organs, this is the definition of autoimmune. C) because these illnesses cannot be diagnosed by normal medical examinations and tests D) because these illnesses are easily treated by using medications that bolster the body’s immune system Incorrect. In fact, many autoimmune diseases are not easily treated and in some cases have no treatment. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health

96. The field of __________ studies the effects of psychological factors such as stress, emotions, thinking, and behavior on the immune system. A) social psychology B) organic medicine C) psychoneuroimmunology D) interactive psychology Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 97. Many people believe that the “power of positive thinking” can effectively counteract serious and potentially terminal diseases. While it is certainly true that positive thinking is essential in helping with recovery, there is no research that suggests that positive thinking can reverse illnesses like cancer. These facts demonstrate which concept from this chapter? A) replicability B) extraordinary claims Correct. The very idea that one can think of himself into health, particularly when facing a terminal illness, is a prime example of an extraordinary claim. Unfortunately, this claim has found no research support. C) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. There is nothing in this question that has anything to do with the concept of Occam’s Razor. D) ruling out rival hypotheses Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 98. In one research study, the relationship between hours of sleep and the development of a cold when exposed to viruses was studied. The investigators found that those who got __________ hours of sleep were four times as likely to develop a cold as those who got at least __________ hours of sleep. A) 6; 7 B) 7; 9 C) 9; 8 D) 8; 10 Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health

99. Which of the following stressors is likely to lead to disruption in the immune system? A) going on a mild diet B) having a party for several people this coming weekend Incorrect. Having a party can certainly be stressful, but it is unlikely that such an event that is occurring so soon will have an impact on an individual’s immune functioning. C) having some work done on your home D) unemployment Correct. This sort of stressor, which could potentially be chronic and lead to a need for major life adjustment, could impact an individual’s immune system. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 100. The immune system can be strengthened by __________. A) engrossing one’s self in work so that the feeling of productivity is enhanced B) social support C) any number of herbal supplements D) avoiding foods that cause indigestion or heartburn Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 101. The prevailing explanation for the relationship between stress and illness has been that increased levels of stress result in a decrease in the immune system’s ability to protect the body from illness. On the other hand, it is possible that people who are experiencing stress engage in more health-damaging behaviors, which can lead to a greater likelihood of illness. This different explanation of the relationship demonstrates the importance of __________. A) falsifiability Incorrect. In this example, there is no attempt to falsify the hypothesis, per se, but rather to come up with alternative explanations for the observed relationship between stress and illness. B) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. This is an alternate explanation for the relationship that was found that is as viable as the proposed explanation. C) replicability D) extraordinary claims Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health

102. People living under stressful conditions tend to get sick more often than they would otherwise. How do researchers in psychoneuroimmunology explain this phenomenon? A) The stress response reduces immune system functioning, thus making us more vulnerable to diseases. Correct. Researchers in psychoneuroimmunology believe that the stress response reduces immune system functioning, thus making us more vulnerable to diseases. B) The stress response in the long run leads to a lowering of the heart rate, which makes the heart inefficient. C) The stress response makes muscles stronger, which places a greater burden on the heart and respiratory systems. D) The body tends to adapt to the constant call for the stress response and, thus, future responses are not as strong as before. Incorrect. The body’s future responses to stress tend to be just as strong as past ones. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 103. A stomach ulcer is an __________. A) inflamed lung that can cause difficulty breathing B) inflamed area in the gastrointestinal tract that can cause pain, nausea, and loss of appetite C) enlarged esophagus due to excessive eating D) enlarged small intestine due to eating hot foods Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 104. Which of the following statements regarding ulcers is TRUE? A) Helicobacter pylori is a bacterium that lives in stomach acid and is the most common cause of stomach ulcers. B) Stress is the primary cause of ulcers. C) Spicy foods and an unhealthy diet are the primary causes of ulcers. D) Ulcers are uniquely genetic and stress has nothing to do with the symptoms of ulcers. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health

105. __________ is the term used to describe illnesses in which emotions and stress contribute to, maintain, or aggravate the physical symptoms. A) Psychophysiological B) Biopsychosocial C) Psychoneuroimmunology D) Generalized anxiety Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 106. Eun Jung suffers from stress-induced migraines. Whenever she has a particularly bad day at work, she can count on having terrible pain that evening, accompanied by nausea, light-sensitivity, and visual disturbances. Because her symptoms are easily associated with specific psychological stressors, Eun Jung’s migraines are an example of a __________ disorder. A) somatic symptom Incorrect. A somatic symptom disorder occurs when there is no actual physical cause for the physical symptoms. B) psychophysiological Correct. Psychophysiological illnesses are those where stress contributes to an existing physical problem. C) conversion D) hypochondriacal Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 107. Which of the following would NOT be an example of a psychophysiological illness? A) diabetes B) asthma C) coronary heart disease D) AIDS Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health

108. According to the __________ perspective, medical conditions (i.e., AIDS) depend on the interaction of genes, lifestyle, immunity, social support, and self-perceptions. A) psychophysiological Incorrect. The psychophysiological model does not consider social events as contributors to medical problems. B) biopsychosocial Correct. The biopsychosocial model takes into account many different contributors to medical conditions. C) psychoneuroimmunology D) psychological Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 109. The __________ perspective recognizes that most medical conditions are contributed to by a multitude of factors, and are not exclusively physical or psychological. A) biopsychosocial Correct. The biopsychosocial model considers many different sources as contributors to medical conditions. B) health psychology C) biomedical D) psychophysiological Incorrect. The psychophysiological model does not consider social factors as contributors to medical conditions. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 110. When the incidence of a condition called “Morgellons” seemed to be increasing, the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) conducted research that found no evidence of such infections actually taking place. Soon after, the Mayo Clinic in Minnesota conducted similar research and obtained nearly identical findings. As it turned out, most people who thought they had Morgellons had very simple skin conditions, or no condition at all. The repetition of the CDC’s research that was used to support the findings is crucial to critical thinking, in a principle called __________. A) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. It was important to consider alternate explanations for the symptoms, but the crux of this question is the repetition—or replication—of the research. B) correlation vs. causation C) replicability Correct. When research is repeated and similar findings are garnered, this lends more support to the validity of the results. D) Occam’s Razor Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

111. The number-one cause of death and disability in the United States is __________. A) coronary heart disease B) cancer C) motor vehicle accidents D) suicide Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 112. The buildup of cholesterol that restricts the flow of blood through large arteries is called ___________. A) arteriosclerosis B) atherosclerosis C) cerebrovascular impingement D) CAM Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 113. There is plenty of research that shows a relationship between stress levels and heart-damaging symptoms, such as high blood pressure and enlargement of the heart. It is possible, however, that some third factor may be responsible for both increases in stress as well as increases in heart-related symptoms. This fact utilizes which critical thinking concept? A) Occam’s Razor B) falsifiability Incorrect. The idea of showing that a given hypothesis is wrong is not at the heart of this question. C) replicability D) correlation vs. causation Correct. Remember that a relationship between two variables does not, by itself, demonstrate a causeand-effect direction. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health

114. Which of the following are the leading indicators of coronary heart disease? A) advanced age and lifestyle B) stress and personality type C) diabetes and stress D) high blood pressure and family history of the disease Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health % correct 41 a = 0 b = 41 c = 12 d = 47 r = .24 115. John is the type of person who wants everything done perfectly the first time. When playing a game, he feels like he must win. He is easily provoked to anger, but he is also readily ambitious. Based on these traits, John must have a __________ personality. A) Type D B) Type A Correct. Ambition, hostility, and perfectionism are three qualities of a Type A personality. C) Type B Incorrect. People with Type B personalities tend to be more easy-going, laid-back, and relaxed. D) Type T Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.4c Describe the role of personality, everyday experiences, and socioeconomic factors in coronary heart disease. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 116. Joanna has a Type A personality. Which of the following traits are descriptive of her personality? A) competitive and driven Correct. These are two facets of a Type A personality. B) negative and distressed C) relaxed and easygoing Incorrect. These are two facets of a Type B personality. D) unfriendly and asocial Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.4c Describe the role of personality, everyday experiences, and socioeconomic factors in coronary heart disease. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health

117. The Type A behavior pattern is a significant predictor of __________. A) mental illness B) coronary heart disease Correct. Studies show that people with Type A behavior patterns have an increased risk of coronary heart disease. C) cancer Incorrect. The Type A behavior pattern is a main predictor of coronary heart disease in both men and women. D) respiratory illnesses Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4c Describe the role of personality, everyday experiences, and socioeconomic factors in coronary heart disease. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 118. Which Type A personality characteristic is the key trait that is the most predictive of heart disease? A) hostility Correct. Hostility is the most significant factor linked to hardening of the arteries to the heart. B) compulsiveness C) competitiveness Incorrect. Competitiveness is a characteristic of Type A personalities, but hostility is the most significant factor linked to heart disease. D) chronic irritability Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4c Describe the role of personality, everyday experiences, and socioeconomic factors in coronary heart disease. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 119. Research exploring the relationship between Type A personalities and coronary heart disease (CHD) is not as strong as was previously believed. Some studies found support for this relationship, while others did not. While this inconsistency may at first glance seem to be a bad thing, it does provide avenues for further exploration and clarity. The lack of consistent research findings is important for which of the following concepts from this chapter? A) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. Attempting to replicate research results is the main thrust of this question. B) falsifiability C) Occam’s Razor D) replicability Correct. This question addresses the concept of repeated research findings. This is known as replicability. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 12.4c Describe the role of personality, everyday experiences, and socioeconomic factors in coronary heart disease. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

120. The field of psychology that integrates the behavioral sciences with the practice and science of medicine is known as __________. It is also called health psychology. A) behavioral integration B) psychology integration C) behavioral medicine D) psychology medicine Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 121. Dr. Atkinson is seeing a client who was referred for psychotherapy after having a heart attack. This client has been terribly anxious since the heart attack and now has a rather extreme fear that he is going to have another heart attack and will not survive. Dr. Atkinson helps the client with a stress-management program, uses psychoeducation to give the client information about guided relaxation and meditation, and helps the client formulate a weight-loss plan in consultation with the client’s physician. Dr. Atkinson can best be described as a __________. A) biological psychologist B) counseling psychologist Incorrect. A counseling psychologist might use some of these techniques, but this is not the best answer to this question. C) clinical psychologist D) health psychologist Correct. Health psychologists focus on establishing and maintaining health, rather than waiting for illness to arrive. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 122. According to some research, smokers are __________ times as likely to suffer from clinical depression as non-smokers are. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 5.1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!

123. __________ is the leading cause of preventable disease and death in the United States. A) Asbestos exposure B) Drug use C) Alcohol use D) Smoking and exposure to secondhand smoke Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 124. Research has found that smokers who successfully quit the habit before the age of __________ can reduce their risk of premature death by about 90 percent. A) 20 B) 40 C) 70 D) 90 Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 125. Marvin is at a party with some friends, and on a dare he drinks seven shots of tequila inside of a single hour. According to your text, Marvin has engaged in an episode of __________. A) conformation drinking B) milieu drinking C) environmental press drinking Incorrect. This is a made-up term that has no meaning. D) heavy episodic drinking Correct. For men, heavy episodic drinking is defined as having more than five drinks in one hour. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 126. Which of the following would NOT be useful to help promote a healthy lifestyle? A) Stop smoking. Incorrect. Clearly the cessation of smoking is important in promoting a healthy lifestyle. B) Curb alcohol consumption. C) Lose weight. D) Reduce unnecessary exercise. Correct. To promote a healthier lifestyle, we want to increase exercise, not reduce it. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

127. Body mass index (BMI) is calculated by __________ and multiplying by a conversion factor of 703. A) dividing weight in pounds by height in inches squared B) multiplying weight in pounds by height in inches squared C) dividing height in inches squared by weight in pounds D) multiplying height in inches squared by weight in pounds Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 128. Which of the following are reasons for weight increase, apart from diet and exercise? A) lack of adequate sleep and use of medicines B) use of medicines and genetic influences C) lack of adequate sleep and genetic influences D) lack of adequate sleep, use of medicines and genetic influences Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 129. There are many interesting and alluring products available that claim to help with weight loss efforts. They include, but are not limited to, appetite-suppressing eyeglasses, weight-loss earrings, electrical muscle stimulators, and magnet diet pills that flush fat out of the body. What do all of these products have in common? A) They are effective at inspiring weight loss for the first few weeks of use, but then their results taper off. B) They are extremely dangerous, as they can be misused and lead to severe illnesses. C) There is no scientific support for the effectiveness of any of these products. Correct. Although these products look flashy on television, they are probably completely useless. D) They work very well, but only as a result of the placebo effect. Incorrect. It would be nice if these products worked, even if only as a result of the placebo effect, but the extant research has found them to be generally useless. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!

130. Julie follows the latest diet fad. These diets frequently require her to restrict her caloric intake to 1,000 calories a day for several weeks. What kind of diet is this known as? A) crash diet Correct. Diets that call for us to significantly reduce our intake of food are called crash diets. B) healthy diet Incorrect. There is simply nothing healthy about a diet that restricts our caloric intake to 1,000 calories a day. C) balanced diet D) limited diet Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 131. As a result of crash dieting, Julie lost 20 pounds in two weeks. Unfortunately, as soon as she went off the diet, she gained 20 to 25 pounds. Julie experienced the __________ effect. A) disequilibrium Incorrect. The correct term for this kind of effect is a yo-yo effect. B) equilibrium C) yo-yo Correct. Yo-yo diets are those that cause us to lose and gain weight alternately over the course of time. D) butterfly Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 132. Seth loves to eat at McDonald’s. Whenever he eats there, he always supersizes his meals. This is an example of __________. A) failing to control portion size Correct. Supersized meals cause us to eat much more in one sitting than we otherwise might. B) eating a balanced meal Incorrect. There is very little support for the idea that a supersized fast food meal could possibly be nutritionally balanced. C) unit bias D) balancing “good” and “bad” cholesterol Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!

133. Iram made a New Year’s resolution to promote wellness in his life. Which of the following are ways in which he can begin to incorporate wellness into his life? A) Exercise regularly. Correct. Exercise is associated with health and wellness. B) Eat fatty foods. C) Take on more responsibility at work. D) Spend more time alone. Incorrect. Spending a lot of time alone is not associated with wellness. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 134. Your text authors note that perhaps as many as 30 to 70 percent of patients do not take the medical advice of their physician. One explanation for this is the concept of __________, which reminds us that many people find it difficult to try something new. A) xenophobia Incorrect. This refers to a fear of foreign people, not unfamiliar actions. B) personal inertia Correct. We tend to be very set in our ways, so overcoming that familiarity can be difficult. C) misestimating risk D) feeling powerless Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 135. ___________ is the mental shortcut we use to judge the likelihood of an event and the ease with which it comes to mind. A) The representativeness heuristic B) The availability heuristic C) The automatic process D) Rumination Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5b Identify why it is difficult to change our lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!

136. Prevention efforts should begin __________. A) by preschool age Incorrect. While promoting healthy lifestyles in children is important, prevention efforts should begin by adolescence. B) by school age C) by adolescence Correct. Your textbook suggests that prevention efforts are most effective if they begin by adolescence. D) by young adulthood Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.5b Identify why it is difficult to change our lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 137. Which statement is TRUE about the DARE program? A) It is very unpopular in schools, with teachers and parents alike. B) It teaches the negative effects of using alcohol and drugs. C) It targets first and second graders. D) It produces long-lasting effects that do not reduce over time. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5b Identify why it is difficult to change our lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 138. __________ medicine involves health care practices and products that are used in place of conventional medicine. A) Alternative B) Complementary C) Integrative D) Conventional Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 139. Often, promising herbal remedies __________. A) are more effective than pharmaceutical products B) are just as effective as pharmaceutical products C) are almost as effective as pharmaceutical products D) are little better than a placebo Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

140. Of the following CAM treatments, which have been used by the highest percentage of Americans in the past year? A) natural products B) deep breathing C) meditation D) massage Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 141. Bob is going to the doctor for treatment of a painful back condition. The doctor regularly manipulates Bob’s spine as part of the treatment. Bob’s doctor is practicing __________. A) alternative medicine B) homeopathy C) chiropractic manipulations D) conventional medicine Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 142. While nearly __________ percent of Americans report that they have visited a chiropractor at some point, your authors point out that chiropractic procedures are no better than standard approaches, such as exercise or physical therapy. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!

143. Biofeedback is the feedback by a device that gives output of __________. A) biological function B) stress or illness C) level of relaxation D) cytokines excreted through sweat glands Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 144. If Drew is practicing a relaxation technique called meditation, he is most likely __________. A) trying to train his attention and awareness Correct. The practice of meditation involves the training of one’s attention and awareness. B) using biofeedback equipment C) focusing on the sound of his breathing D) sleeping Incorrect. Those who meditate do achieve a heightened state of awareness and relaxation, but they are not asleep. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 145. Which of the following has been shown to be an outcome of using meditation? A) increased blood pressure B) increased blood flow to the brain C) decrease in blood glucose levels D) decreases in nightmares and night terror episodes Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!

146. __________ is the ancient Chinese practice of inserting thin needles into more than 2,000 points in the body to alter energy forces. A) Acupressure B) Acupuncture C) Homeopathic medicine D) Chiropractic manipulation Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 147. An increasingly popular form of treatment is the use of __________ medicines, which are based on the idea that disruptions in our body’s different fields can be mapped and treated. A) homeopathic B) mantra C) qi D) energy Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 148. Acupuncture has been promoted as a way of restoring health, and the method behind this procedure is to release blockages of a “life force” or energy called qi. A problem with this theory, however, is that it is not possible to disprove that qi exists or that releasing it can improve health. This problem demonstrates which of the following concepts from this chapter? A) replicability B) falsifiability Correct. The crux of this question is that the claims made by acupuncturists are resistant to research that pokes holes in their accuracy. This involves the concept of falsifiability. C) extraordinary claims D) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. There is nothing about Occam’s Razor, which deals with finding the simplest answer, contained in this question. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!

149. __________ includes remedies that involve a small dose of illness-inducing substance, which activates the body’s natural defenses. A) Homeopathic medicine B) Acupuncture C) Acupressure D) Chiropractic manipulation Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 150. Dr. Jones is treating Danielle’s illness by giving her a diluted dose of an illness-producing substance. What is Dr. Jones is using? A) acupressure B) homeopathic medicine Correct. Homeopathic medicine involves introducing a small amount of an illness-producing substance so that the body will naturally start fighting that illness. C) alternative medicine D) complementary medicine Incorrect. Complementary medicine involves those techniques that are used alongside mainstream medicine. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 151. “Like cures like” is the foundation of __________. A) alternative medicine B) homeopathy Correct. Homeopathic medicine involves introducing a small amount of an illness-producing substance so that the body will naturally start fighting that illness. C) complementary medicine Incorrect. Complementary medicine involves those techniques that are used alongside mainstream medicine. D) traditional medicine Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!

152. Judging the similarity of two objects based on the extent to which they resemble each other is using the __________. A) representativeness heuristic B) availability heuristic C) automatic process D) rumination Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 153. Which of the following effects is a common outcome of eating hot chili, slamming your finger with a hammer, acupuncture, or the placebo effect? A) the opening of spinal gates B) the release of endorphins C) the stimulation of adrenal androgens D) inhibition of gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 154. Research into the effectiveness of CAM treatments like acupuncture have failed to produce evidence of their value. Some have suggested that the positive results they occasionally produce are nothing more than the placebo effect. Which of the following concepts from this chapter is illustrated by this fact? A) Occam’s Razor Correct. Occam’s Razor is a precept that suggests that the simplest explanation is usually the right one. In this case, the research suggests that it is more likely that the placebo effect explains the results of CAM treatments rather than the claims made by providers of such treatments. B) correlation vs. causation C) ruling out rival hypotheses D) extraordinary claims Incorrect. Certainly providers of CAM treatments make extraordinary claims, but in this case Occam’s Razor is the best answer to this question. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!

155. Which of the following is NOT cited by your textbook as a possible explanation for the apparent effectiveness of CAM treatment, including homeopathy? A) The symptoms of many physical conditions come and go, so a treatment may appear to be effective when the symptoms have simply diminished. B) A condition may have been diagnosed as being more severe than it really was in the first place. C) The treatment may be interacting with some other valid medical intervention to cause a faster amelioration of symptoms. D) People perceive that the treatment has been effective because they have no evidence to counter that belief. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 156. Some people believe that St. John’s Wort may be helpful for cases of mild depression, but the small amount of research supporting this claim has not been achieved in all subsequent research. Which critical thinking concept should have us wondering whether this herbal remedy is really effective or if the placebo effect is a better explanation for these findings? A) correlation vs. causation B) replicability Correct. Mixed research results speak directly to the issue of replication of research. C) extraordinary claims Incorrect. The idea that an herbal remedy may be effective is not such an extraordinary claim, as many have been verified by scientific studies. D) falsifiability Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! Fill-in-the-Blank 1. __________ consists of the tension, discomfort, or physical symptoms that arise when a situation strains our ability to cope effectively. Answer: Stress Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Topic: What Is Stress?

2. Scientists study stress by measuring many physical responses to stress. One thing they measure is the release of stress hormones called __________. Answer: corticosteroids Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress. Topic: What Is Stress? 3. Alex is facing his first semester in college. Although he is the first member of his family to obtain a higher education, he is confident he will be successful. He has plans for how to spend his time studying and balancing a new social life. Alex is engaged in __________ coping. Answer: problem-focused Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Topic: What Is Stress? 4. Minor annoyances or nuisances that bother us and interfere with our ability to cope are called __________. Answer: hassles Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress. Topic: What Is Stress? 5. Selye studied the effect of stress. He argued that we are sensitive to the environment and tend to kick into high gear in response to stressful situations. According to Selye, when Janice experiences a physical reaction in response to an upcoming exam, her pattern of responding to stress is called __________. Answer: general adaptation syndrome (GAS) Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 6. According to Selye, we go through three stages in reaction to stress. Excitement of the autonomic nervous system, release of stress hormones, and physical symptoms of anxiety are part of the __________ stage. Answer: alarm Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge

7. After the initial physical reaction to a stressor, Sonya enters the second stage of Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. This stage is known as __________. Answer: resistance Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 8. Jerome was very anxious about his final exam in General Psychology. On the day of the exam, his heart rate was faster, his breathing was faster, and his hands were sweaty. As Jerome worked his way through the exam, he began to relax and focus on the questions. After the exam, Jerome went back to his dorm room and fell asleep. Jerome is in the __________ stage of Selye’s GAS. Answer: exhaustion Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 9. Laquisha reacts to stress by reaching out to her friends and family. She is displaying the coping mechanism known as __________. Answer: tend and befriend Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 10. Ramon was in a serious car accident in which he was almost killed. Since recovering from his injuries, Ramon finds he has difficulty sleeping. He jumps at the slightest noise and he keeps remembering the details of the accident. Ramon is likely experiencing __________ disorder. Answer: posttraumatic stress Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge 11. __________ control is defined as the ability to choose between two or more alternative courses of action. Answer: Decisional Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress

12. Marlon always tries to anticipate possible problems and stressful events so that he can plan how to react. Marlon is displaying __________. Answer: proactive coping Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 13. Our __________ system protects us from illness by neutralizing or destroying harmful viruses. Answer: immune Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 14. Andrew is very interested in the effects of positive emotions on illness. He is especially interested in the connection between the nervous system and the immune system. Andrew wants to study __________. Answer: psychoneuroimmunology Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 15. Dr. Adams believes that illnesses are caused by a variety of factors. He believes that heart disease is caused by a combination of genetics, lifestyle, social support, and everyday stress. Dr. Adams takes the __________ view of medicines. Answer: biopsychosocial Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 16. Coronary heart disease is the number one cause of death in the United States. CHD is caused by a buildup of cholesterol in the arteries causing a condition known as __________. Answer: atherosclerosis Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health

17. Melinda is a hard working college student. She wants to finish at the top of her class at Harvard Law School. She writes for the Harvard Law Review. In her spare time, she donates time to the Innocence Project. She is hard-working, driven, and ambitious. Melinda has a __________ personality. Answer: Type A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.4c Describe the role of personality, everyday experiences, and socioeconomic factors in coronary heart disease. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 18. The Type A personality trait that is most predictive of heart disease is __________. Answer: hostility Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4c Describe the role of personality, everyday experiences, and socioeconomic factors in coronary heart disease. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 19. __________ combines education, research, and psychological interventions to promote health. Answer: Health psychology Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 20. Allison likes to attend off-campus parties on the weekend. She attends one almost every weekend and always drinks at least four or more beers. At least twice, Allison has suffered from a blackout. Allison is engaging in __________ drinking. Answer: heavy episodic Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 21. Dr. Simpson is treating Katherine for ulcers. Dr. Simpson prescribed a common acid-reducing drug. He also advised Katherine to practice deep breathing techniques three times each day and to massage certain areas on her feet every night. Dr. Simpson is practicing __________ medicine. Answer: complementary Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!

22. __________ are health care professionals who manipulate the spine to treat pain-related conditions. Answer: Chiropractors Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 23. Jeremy is having his wisdom teeth removed. He is allergic to traditional medications used to numb the mouth during the procedure. As an alternative, Jeremy is choosing to control his pain by having needles inserted into his body to alter the flow of energy. Jeremy is using __________. Answer: acupuncture Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 24. Judging the similarity of two things based on resemblance is called the __________ heuristic. Answer: representativeness Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! 25. A treatment approach that relies on the representativeness heuristic and treats illness with a small dose of an illness-inducing substance is __________. Answer: homeopathic medicine Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!

Essay 1. First, provide a clear definition of stress. Next, compare and contrast stress as a stimulus, stress as a transaction, and stress as a response. Answer: Answers may vary but should contain the ideas listed below to earn full credit. Stress is the tension, discomfort, or physical symptoms that arise when a situation strains the ability to cope effectively. CONTRAST: Stress as a stimulus: focuses on identifying types of stressful events (i.e., natural disasters, breakups, or retirement). Stress as a transaction: examines how people interpret (i.e., primary appraisal and secondary appraisal) and cope (i.e., problem-focused coping and emotion-focused coping) with stressful events. Stress as a response: revolves around links between psychological and physical reactions to stressful situations. COMPARE: They are all types of stress (i.e., tension, discomfort, or physical symptoms that arise when a situation strains the ability to cope effectively). Diff: 1 Skill: Factual/Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Topic: What Is Stress? 2. Discuss Selye’s general adaptation syndrome (GAS) and include the three stages of adaptation. Answer: Answers may vary but should contain the ideas listed below to earn full credit. According to Selye, excess stress results in breakdowns. The human body has a sensitive physiology that deals with stressful situations by igniting us into “high gear.” The responding pattern to stress is known as the GAS. All extended stressors go through three adaptive stages, including alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. o 1st Stage: Alarm Reaction: Excites the autonomic nervous system, the release of adrenaline (stress hormone), and physical anxiety. o 2nd Stage: Resistance: The adaptation and coping of stress due to activation of the “thinking brain” (cerebral cortex), which leads to the examination of the unfolding of events, evaluation of alternative solutions, and investigation of attempted coping strategies. o 3rd Stage: Exhaustion: Results from a lack of coping and limited personal resources that leads to resistance breaking down; high levels of activation can no longer be sustained. This can lead to organ system damage, immune system breakdown, depression or PTSD. Diff: 2 Skill: Factual/Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Topic: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge

3. Describe the Type A and hardy personalities. Which aspect of a Type A personality is most predictive of coronary heart disease? Answer: Answers may vary but should contain the ideas listed below to earn full credit. Type A Personality: competitive, driven, hostile, ambitious, impatient, perfectionist, stubborn, opinionated, cynical, and controlling. Research finds that people with a Type A personality who are also high in hostility tend to be at a higher risk for developing CHD. Hardy Personality: thrives on challenge, works hard, and is ambitious and driven, but lacks the hostility, negativity, and impatience of the Type A personality. This person does not let the challenges of life get to them, but rather they hit those challenges head on and attack them. Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.4c Describe the role of personality, everyday experiences, and socioeconomic factors in coronary heart disease. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 4. Discuss the role of stress in coronary heart disease (CHD). Answer: Answers may vary but should contain the ideas listed below to earn full credit. CHD is correlated to job stress and dissatisfaction. African American women that are discriminated against and report high levels of stress have more artery blockages than other African American women. Stressful events predict reoccurring heart attacks, high blood pressure, and heart enlargement related to CHD. Extreme stress, which leads to high levels of stress hormones, disrupts heart patterns, may lead to abrupt death, increases atherosclerosis for individuals that are extremely reactive to stress. Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.4c Describe the role of personality, everyday experiences, and socioeconomic factors in coronary heart disease. Topic: How Stress Impacts Our Health 5. Describe alternative and complementary medicine. Answer: Answers may vary but should contain the ideas listed below to earn full credit. Alternative medicine is a type of health care practice/product that replaces conventional medicine. Complementary medicine is a type of health care practice/product used in addition to conventional medicine. Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!

Critical Thinking 1. Discuss the role of control on stress. Based on personal experience, what do you believe to be the most effective method of control and the least effective method of control? Why? Answer: Answers may vary but should contain the ideas listed below to earn full credit. Stress can be relieved by acquiring control of the situation. Behavioral Control: This is the ability to take charge and do “something” to reduce the severity of the stressful situation (i.e., problem-focused). Such control is more effective in dealing with stress than avoiding action (i.e., avoidance oriented coping). Cognitive Control: This is the ability to “cognitively restructure or think differently about” the emotions that arise from a stressful situation. Such a strategy (i.e., emotion-focused coping) enables individuals to adjust to uncertain circumstances that cannot be controlled or changed. Strentz and Auerback (1988) found that individuals were less distressed when using emotionfocused coping rather than problem-focused coping. Decisional Control: This is the ability to choose among alternate choices, in regard to which choice is the best. Informational Control: This is the ability to gain information about a stressful circumstance. Anticipating such situations and moving forward to prevent/minimize problems from arising is known as proactive coping. Emotional Control: This is the ability to repress and express emotions, based on the situation. “There’s a time and place for everything.” Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Topic: Coping With Stress 2. Discuss stress as both a cause and effect of illness. Answer: Answers may vary but should contain the ideas listed below to earn full credit. Stress as a cause of illness: o Stress can have a negative impact on the immune system, hastening the consequences of the illness. o Physical or emotional responses to stress can trigger an asthma attack. o Stress can increase harmful behaviors, such as smoking, that make illnesses worse. Stress as an effect of illness: o The diagnosis of a fatal illness can result in extreme stress, making the situation worse. Stress as both a cause and effect of illness: o Ulcers are triggered by H. pylori bacterium and stress. The bacterium alone is not sufficient to develop ulcers. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!

3. Discuss three of the four health tips given in the chapter. Include the benefits and implications of each tip. Answer: Answers may vary but should contain the ideas listed below to earn full credit. HEALTH TIPS: Stop Smoking: Smoking is an unhealthy way to “reduce” stress, placing oneself at risk for health and other stress-related problems (i.e., CHD, lung disease, strokes, cancer) over time. Implications: It is extremely difficult to quit smoking (80% of smokers want to stop, but only 5% of the 40% who try to stop actually succeed). Curb Alcohol Consumption: Heavy drinking is associated with health issues (i.e., cancer, liver problems, pregnancy complications, brain shrinkage, neurological problems, and cardiovascular disease). Implications: Alcohol studies are controversial because of their conflicting results. Achieve a Healthy Weight: Those who are obese tend to be less wealthy, limited in school progress, and less likely to marry, in addition to being at greater risk of heart disease, strokes, high blood pressure, arthritis, cancer, respiratory problems, and diabetes. Implications: Diet, genes, and everyday habits impact one’s ability to lose weight. Exercise: Jogging, lifting weights, and yoga can relieve depression. Other exercises can reduce anxiety and improve fitness/activeness. These exercises lead to numerous health benefits, such as lower blood pressure and CHD risk, enhance lung functions, reduce arthritis, lower diabetes risk, and reduce breast/colon cancer. Implications: Exercise must be consistent. Research shows jogging, lifting weights, and yoga must be done for eight weeks to relieve depression. OVERALL IMPLICATIONS: People see health issues as a distant threat, but stress as an imminent threat; therefore, they do not comply with these health tips. People are aware of the risks, but ignore them. People rely on the availability heuristic. People feel powerless to change. Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Topic: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!

CHAPTER 12: STRESS, COPING, AND HEALTH ______________________________________________________________________________ 1. According to studies done by Holmes, there is a positive correlation between stress and ________. a. positive life changes b. negative life changes c. low scores on the Scale d. major illness Answer d % correct 50 a= 10 b= 35 c= 5 d= 50 r = .32 2. Which of the following is the better predictor of psychological and physical health, according to Lazarus? a. hassles b. uplifts c. life events d. negative attitudes Answer a % correct 15 a= 15 b= 25 c= 40 d= 20 r = .43 3. Unpredictability is stressful because: a. we don't know when "uplifts" will occur. b. we must expect too much control. c. we cannot plan for random events. d. hassles cancel good effects of "uplifts." Answer c % correct 85 a= 10 b= 0 c= 85 d= 5

r = .46

4. Overall, research has indicated that __________ influences the amount of stress that people experience. a. the seriousness of life events b. degree of control people have over their lives c. intelligence d. physical health Answer b % correct 65 a= 15 b= 65 c= 5 d= 15 r = .29 5. Which of the following statements about stress is TRUE? a. It is an emotion. b. Stress necessarily involves negative events. c. Positive situations can lead to stress. d. Stress arises only from threatening events. Answer c % correct 74 a= 12 b= 3 c= 74 d= 12 r = .71

Quiz 12.1: What Is Stress? Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: What Is Stress?

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q12.1.1 Which of the following refers to a coping strategy that uses positive feelings or outlooks to reduce painful emotions? a) emotion-focused coping b) problem-focused coping c) cognitive coping d) behavioral coping ANS: a Topic=What Is Stress? Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: After the breakup of a relationship, we may remind ourselves that we were unhappy months before it occurred and reenter the dating arena. LO 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways.

EOM Q12.1.2 There are several ways that researchers approach the study of stress. Which of the following is the way that focuses on identifying different types of stressful events, specifically those most people would find dangerous or unpredictable? a) stressors as stimuli b) stress as response c) stress as transaction d) stressors as harbingers ANS: a Topic=What Is Stress? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The focus here is on identifying categories of stressful events. LO 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways.

EOM Q12.1.3 Deciding whether an event is harmful or threatening to us represents __________, whereas deciding how well we can cope with that event represents __________. a) primary appraisal; secondary appraisal b) initiating structure; initiating action c) social appraisal; personal appraisal d) basic appraisal; enhanced appraisal ANS: a Topic=What Is Stress? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: There is the event itself, and then there is our assessment of the event. LO 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways.

EOM Q12.1.4 Which research method provides a more in-depth picture of life stress than self-reported measures do? a) interview-based b) questionnaire c) crisis debriefing d) secondary appraisal ANS: a Topic=What Is Stress? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: As with any research design, a balance between depth and efficiency must be struck. LO 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress.

EOM Q12.1.5 Which scale measures how stressors ranging from small annoyances to major daily pressures affect our ability to adjust? a) Hassles Scale b) Social Readjustment Rating Scale c) Holmes and Rahe Stress Scale d) Perceived Stress Scale ANS: a Topic=What Is Stress? Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Stress can come in the form of major events or “the daily grind.” LO 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress.

Quiz 12.2: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q12.2.1 During which phase of Hans Selye’s general adaption syndrome does a person adapt to the stressor and find a way to cope with it? a) resistance b) exhaustion c) alarm d) capitulation ANS: a Topic=How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Recall the three phases of the general adaptation syndrome. LO 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome.

EOM Q12.2.2 Because stress can be a positive force as well as a negative one, Selye coined the term __________ to mean positive or good stress. a) eustress b) beneficial stress c) exstress d) positive stress factor ANS: a Topic=How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Distress indicates “bad stress”; what would be the opposite of that? LO 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome.

EOM Q12.2.3 A common pattern of reacting to stress, especially among women, is __________. a) tend and befriend b) fight or flight c) put up or shut up d) fish or cut bait ANS: a Topic=How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: There are many potential reactions to stress. LO 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses.

EOM Q12.2.4 In a study of 2,752 adults in New York after the 9/11 attacks, people were judged to be resilient if they __________ PTSD symptoms in the first six months after the attack. By this measure, 65.1 percent of the sample populations fit the qualifications for resiliency. a) reported zero or one b) sought treatment for c) reported between three and five d) reported a declining number of ANS: a Topic=How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Other research indicates that although most Americans were profoundly upset for several days following the 9/11 attacks, nearly all quickly regained their equilibrium and returned to their previous level of functioning. LO 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses.

EOM Q12.2.5 Which hormone plays a key role in love and emotional bonding and helps reduce stress? a) oxytocin b) corticosteroid c) serotonin d) adrenalin ANS: a Topic=How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This "love drug" has been hyped in the media. LO 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses.

Quiz 12.3: Coping With Stress Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Coping With Stress

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q12.3.1 The type of problem-focused approach that lets you step up and take an action to prevent a stressful situation or reduce its impact is known as __________ control. a) behavioral b) cognitive c) proactive d) leadership ANS: a Topic=Coping With Stress Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Problem-focused coping is a valuable skill to put into practice. LO 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress.

EOM Q12.3.2 The relationships we maintain with other individuals and with groups that give us emotional comfort as well as personal and sometimes financial resources are collectively known as __________. a) sources of social support b) social service outlets c) acquaintance networks d) societal structures ANS: a Topic=Coping With Stress Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: People who need people are the luckiest people in the world. LO 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q12.3.3 When we are able to think differently about the negative emotions that come up during a stressful incident, we are exerting __________. a) cognitive control b) behavioral control c) decisional control d) informational control ANS: a Topic=Coping With Stress Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Shakespeare wrote, "There is nothing either good or bad but thinking makes it so." LO 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress.

EOM Q12.3.4 Which of the following types of people would be predicted to be more productive, focused, persistent, and better at handling frustration, according to research findings you read about in this chapter? a) optimists b) pessimists c) self-actualized d) spiritually-minded ANS: a Topic=Coping With Stress Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personality may influence our responses to stress. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Always look on the bright side of life. LO 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personality may influence our responses to stress.

EOM Q12.3.5 The popular idea that __________, expressing extreme emotions about painful feelings, is always beneficial has been challenged by research showing that although it may make us feel better in the short-term, it can actually make things worse in the long-term. a) catharsis b) emotional coping c) crisis debriefing d) proactive coping ANS: a Topic=Coping With Stress Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personality may influence our responses to stress. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This idea has origins in the distant historical past. LO 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personality may influence our responses to stress.

Quiz 12.4: How Stress Impacts Our Health Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: How Stress Impacts Our Health

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q12.4.1 Which of the following disorders that damage the human immune system is caused by a virus? a) AIDS b) arthritis c) multiple sclerosis d) lupus ANS: a Topic=How Stress Impacts Our Health Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This is a currently incurable yet often treatable condition. LO 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress.

EOM Q12.4.2 __________ examines the relationship between the immune system and the central nervous system. a) Psychoneuroimmunology b) Medicodynamics c) Health psychology d) The biopsychosocial perspective ANS: a Topic=How Stress Impacts Our Health Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Think about the meaning of the terms listed here. LO 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress.

EOM Q12.4.3 What aspect of the human body can be negatively affected by stress but strengthened by positive emotions and social support? a) immune system b) cognitive abilities c) musculoskeletal system d) central nervous system ANS: a Topic=How Stress Impacts Our Health Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: A lot of bad things can impact this system, but a lot of good things can as well. LO 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress.

EOM Q12.4.4 Which of the following was found to be caused by Helicobacter pylori rather than by stress, as was believed for decades? a) ulcers b) Alzheimer’s disease c) psychosomatic illness d) Morgellons disease ANS: a Topic=How Stress Impacts Our Health Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 12.4c Describe the role of personality, everyday experiences, and socioeconomic factors in coronary heart disease. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Nonetheless, stress may play an indirect role in contributing to this condition. LO 12.4c Describe the role of personality, everyday experiences, and socioeconomic factors in coronary heart disease.

EOM Q12.4.5 Of the different Type A personality traits, identified as a risk factor in coronary heart disease (CHD), which trait have researchers found to be most predictive of developing CHD? a) hostility b) perfectionism c) cynicism d) competitiveness ANS: a Topic=How Stress Impacts Our Health Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 12.4c Describe the role of personality, everyday experiences, and socioeconomic factors in coronary heart disease. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This is the thing that will kill you—the rest is bad, but not as bad as this. LO 12.4c Describe the role of personality, everyday experiences, and socioeconomic factors in coronary heart disease. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Quiz 12.5: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress!

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q12.5.1 There are several behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. The textbook authors recommend limiting alcohol consumption, engaging in exercise, achieving a healthy weight, and __________. a) quitting smoking b) pursuing spirituality c) developing hobbies d) adopting a pet ANS: a Topic=Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: These behaviors help promote a healthy lifestyle. LO 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle.

EOM Q12.5.2 If they do not suffer from the complications that have been commonly associated with obesity, such as uncontrolled diabetes or high blood pressure, obese people live __________. a) as long as lean people b) about 10 fewer years than lean people c) about five fewer years than lean people d) about five more years than lean people ANS: a Topic=Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: If an obese person, say a 300-pound man, sheds even 10 percent of his weight, his health is likely to improve. LO 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q12.5.3 Which of the following is a reason that as many as 80 percent of people do not follow their physician’s recommendations to exercise, quit smoking, improve their diet, or take prescribed medicines? a) misestimating risk b) poor moral character c) lack of information d) low intelligence ANS: a Topic=Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 12.5b Identify why it is difficult to change our lifestyle. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: We overestimate the probability of accidents and homicides and underestimate the probability of many diseases in affecting our health and longevity. LO 12.5b Identify why it is difficult to change our lifestyle.

EOM Q12.5.4 Contrary to popular belief, scientific research shows that __________ does not slow cognitive decline in aging adults. a) ginkgo biloba b) St. John’s wort c) shark cartilage d) acai berries ANS: a Topic=Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: It also does not prevent Alzheimer’s disease, or reduce heart attacks or strokes. LO 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos.

EOM Q12.5.5 An alternative approach to medical treatment based on the notion that “like cures like” is called __________. a) homeopathy b) meditation c) acupuncture d) acupressure ANS: a Topic=Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Like so many other “alternatives,” this one does not offer many helpful options. LO 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos.

Chapter 12 Quiz: Stress, Coping, and Health Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Chapter Quiz: Stress, Coping, and Health

Multiple Choice Single Select EOC Q12.1 Which term refers to the tension, discomfort, or physical symptoms that arise when a situation strains our ability to cope? a) stress b) trauma c) strain d) shock ANS: a Topic=What Is Stress? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The everyday use of this term closely matches the scientific use of this term. LO 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways.

EOC Q12.2 In times of stress, women often rely more on their social contacts, nurture others, or turn to others for support. This type of reaction has been dubbed __________. a) tend and befriend b) now or never c) all for one d) sink or swim ANS: a Topic=How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This reaction is often contrasted with “fight or flight.” LO 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOC Q12.3 Hans Selye, a Canadian physician who noticed the connection between the adrenal gland and stress-related illnesses, developed the __________ to describe the three stages of adaptation to a stressor. a) general adaptation syndrome b) landmark book, Stress Is Your Friend c) engineering analogy d) diversity hypothesis ANS: a Topic=How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: According to Selye, all prolonged stressors take us through three stages of adaptation: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. LO 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome.

EOC Q12.4 According to research conducted by Susan Nolen-Hoeksema and others, women tend to have higher rates of depression than men do because __________. a) women tend to ruminate about their problems more than men do b) women tend to make less money than men who are doing the same or similar jobs c) women exercise frequently and pay attention to their weight d) women face discrimination in the workplace in fields as varied as art and science ANS: a Topic=Coping With Stress Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personality may influence our responses to stress. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Stressed men are more likely to focus on pleasurable or distracting activities. LO 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personality may influence our responses to stress.

EOC Q12.5 Popular alternative medical practitioners such as Deepak Chopra assert that positive thinking can reverse serious illnesses such as cancer. This assertion __________. a) is not supported by scientific evidence b) cannot be evaluated by scientific research c) has helped millions of cancer sufferers to overcome their illnesses d) shows that cancer is the result of the individual’s own faulty thinking ANS: a Topic=How Stress Impacts Our Health Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The popularity of an idea is not necessarily a measure of the correctness of an idea. LO 12.4b Identify how physical disorders such as ulcers are related to stress.

EOC Q12.6 Simply counting up the number of stressful events in a person’s life is not a perfect predictor of who will become physically or psychologically ill. In part, it does not account for __________ such as feeling discriminated against. a) chronic stressors b) daily hassles c) self-inflicted stressors d) nocebo effects ANS: a Topic=What Is Stress? Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress. Difficulty=Difficult, Consider This: Ongoing sources of stress can have a major impact as well. LO 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress.

EOC Q12.7 Which type of active coping is problem-focused and generally rather effective as a coping strategy? a) behavioral control b) cognitive control c) decisional control d) informational control ANS: a Topic=Coping With Stress Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: It is the ability to step up and do something to reduce the impact of a stressful situation or prevent its recurrence. LO 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress.

EOC Q12.8 In a seven-year study of 16- to 24-year-olds, the young people in the study who were overweight were less wealthy, less likely to be married, and had lower academic success than the other people in the study. Because intelligence and financial status had been controlled for at the beginning of the study, the results support the claim that overweight people suffer from __________. a) prejudice and discrimination b) self-fulfilling prophecies c) anxiety disorders that keep them from achieving success d) a lack of good character ANS: a Topic=Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 12.5b Identify why it is difficult to change our lifestyle. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: It is tough to be different from others sometimes. LO 12.5b Identify why it is difficult to change our lifestyle. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOC Q12.9 The physiological reactions that both people and animals have to defend themselves or run away from a threatening situation is called __________. a) the fight-or-flight response b) eustress versus distress. c) tend and befriend d) pre-traumatic stress reaction ANS: a Topic=How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: These are two fairly basic options in these kinds of situations. LO 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses.

EOC Q12.10 A popular and well-meaning treatment called __________, which consists of a single session of three to four hours following a traumatic event, can actually increase the risk of PTSD in trauma survivors, possibly because it gets in the way of people’s natural coping strategies. a) crisis debriefing b) catharsis c) journal therapy d) social support ANS: a Topic=Coping With Stress Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personality may influence our responses to stress., Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Most often, therapists conduct this procedure within one or two days of a traumatic event such as a terrible accident. LO 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personality may influence our responses to stress.

EOC Q12.11 The term psychophysiological refers to authentic physical illnesses that are caused or aggravated by emotions and stress. Which of the following conditions fits in this category? a) asthma b) Morgellons disease c) poison ivy rash d) common cold ANS: a Topic=How Stress Impacts Our Health Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 12.4c Describe the role of personality, everyday experiences, and socioeconomic factors in coronary heart disease. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Physical responses to stress or responses, such as crying, laughing, and coughing, can trigger attacks. LO 12.4c Describe the role of personality, everyday experiences, and socioeconomic factors in coronary heart disease.

EOC Q12.12 Which measuring instrument assesses the kinds of everyday annoyances and frustrations we all face? a) Hassles Scale b) Annoyance Inventory c) PTSD Scale d) Psychosomatic Illness Inventory ANS: a Topic=What Is Stress? Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Researchers developed this to measure how stressful events, ranging from small annoyances to major daily pressures, impact our adjustment. LO 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways.

EOC Q12.13 Which of the following is a practice that trains attention and awareness, and is sometimes used to treat pain and other medical conditions? a) meditation b) biofeedback c) chiropractic d) acupuncture ANS: a Topic=Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: These practices are embedded in many world religions and integrated into the lives of people of all races and creeds. LO 12.5c Describe different alternative and complementary medical approaches and compare their effectiveness with placebos.

EOC Q12.14 Research initiated by James Pennebaker, and subsequently replicated by numerous researchers worldwide, demonstrated that __________ traumatic events can lead to academic, social, cognitive, and health benefits. a) writing about b) suppressing memories of c) repressing d) distracting ourselves from ANS: a Topic=Coping With Stress Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Keeping a diary, for example, can help us examine our deepest feelings. LO 12.3a Describe the role of social support and different types of control in coping with stress.

EOC Q12.15 Hardiness is defined as a set of attitudes marked by a commitment to one’s life and work, the courage and motivation to confront stressful events, and __________. a) a sense of control over events b) low levels of arousal in stressful situations c) the wisdom to know the difference d) an ongoing search for the sacred ANS: a Topic=Coping With Stress Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personality may influence our responses to stress. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This is a helpful triad to have. LO 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personality may influence our responses to stress. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOC Q12.16 Symptoms of __________ include flashbacks, efforts to avoid reminders of the trauma, feelings of detachment or estrangement from others, difficulty sleeping, and startling easily. a) PTSD b) MMPI c) SSRI d) MMRI ANS: a Topic=How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The severity, duration, and nearness to the stressor all affect people’s likelihood of developing this. LO 12.2b Describe the diversity of stress responses.

EOC Q12.17 Studies using the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS) and similar measures show that __________ people report over a year or so is associated with physical and psychological disorders such as depression. a) the number of stressful events b) the type of stressful events c) the stressful quality of events d) the coping behavior used during stressful events ANS: a Topic=What Is Stress? Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The SRRS is based on 43 life events such as “jail term” and “personal injury or illness,” ranked in terms of their stressfulness. LO 12.1b Identify different approaches to measuring stress.

EOC Q12.18 The __________ assumes that certain ways of coping and regulating emotions are consistently beneficial across stressful situations. This "one size fits all" approach is not too useful in daily coping nor supported by scientific research. a) fallacy of uniform efficacy b) post-traumatic confirmation hypothesis c) selfish-gene theory d) readjustment alignment hypothesis ANS: a Topic=Coping With Stress Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personality may influence our responses to stress. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: There is a time and a place for everything. LO 12.3b Explain how our attitudes, beliefs, and personality may influence our responses to stress.

EOC Q12.19 When a stressor is prolonged and uncontrollable, Selye’s general adaptation syndrome (GAS) predicts that a person will enter the third stage of GAS, called __________. a) exhaustion b) compliance c) resignation d) depression ANS: a Topic=How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: When resistance is futile, we enter this stage. LO 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome.

EOC Q12.20 Phagocytes, T cells, and B cells are all types of __________ found in the immune system. a) white blood cells b) red blood cells c) hormones d) assistant cells ANS: a Topic=Coping With Stress Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: These are very handy to have on hand. LO 12.4a Describe how the immune system is affected by stress.

EOC Q12.21 The leading cause of preventable disease and death worldwide is __________. a) smoking and exposure to second-hand smoke b) AIDS c) hypoglycemia d) alcohol consumption ANS: a Topic=Coping With Stress Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: It is never too early, or too late, to do something about this. LO 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle.

EOC Q12.22 Stress can be conceptualized as a transaction; not all people react to the same stressful events in the same way. Which of the following approaches to understanding stress adopts this perspective? a) primary and secondary appraisal b) tend and befriend c) hassles and uplifts d) readjustment and realignment ANS: a Topic=What Is Stress? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Our assessment of a situation contributes to our reactions to that situation. LO 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways.

EOC Q12.23 When people encounter a potentially threatening event, they have to decide whether the event is harmful before determining how well they will be able to cope with it. This decision comes from the __________. a) primary appraisal b) secondary appraisal c) initial evaluation d) problem-focused evaluation ANS: a Topic=What Is Stress? Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Assessment is an important first step in responding to stressful situations. LO 12.1a Explain how stress is defined and approached in different ways.

EOC Q12.24 In the first stage of Selye’s general adaptation syndrome, the __________ reaction involves an excitation of the autonomic nervous system, followed by the excretion of adrenaline and physical symptoms of anxiety. a) alarm b) resistance c) exhaustion d) confirmation ANS: a Topic=How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The body is getting ready to throw down with the stressor. LO 12.2a Describe Selye’s general adaptation syndrome.

EOC Q12.25 Curbing alcohol consumption is a good way to improve one's health. How is light-to-moderate drinking generally defined in this context? a) One drink per day for women, two drinks per day for men b) Two drinks per day for women, four drinks per day for men c) One drink per day for women, one drink per day for men d) Three drinks per day for women, three drinks per day for men ANS: a Topic=How We Adapt to Stress: Change and Challenge Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Less is more when it comes to improving your health. LO 12.5a Identify four behaviors that contribute to a healthy lifestyle.

Chapter 13: Social Psychology Total Assessment Guide Topic Quick Quiz 1

Factual Multiple Choice

Quick Quiz 2

Multiple Choice

5, 8

Conceptual

Applied

1, 10

2–9

1–2, 4, 6–7, 9–10

Multiple Choice 1–4, 6, 8, 17 5, 7, 9, 15–16 Learning Objective Fill-in-the-Blank 1, 6 2–3 13.1a Essay Identify the ways in Critical Thinking which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Multiple Choice 22–23, 26, 33 24, 30, 34 Learning Objective 13.1b Fill-in-the-Blank 7 Essay 1 Explain how the Critical Thinking fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Multiple Choice 36, 38–40, 42, 44– 41, 43, 47, 51, 53–54 Learning Objective 45, 49–50, 52 13.2a Fill-in-the-Blank 9 8 Determine the factors Essay that influence when we Critical Thinking 1 conform to others. Multiple Choice 55, 62, 64, 67–68 56, 58–59, 61, 65 Learning Objective 13.2b Fill-in-the-Blank 10, 12 Recognize the dangers Essay 3 of group decision Critical Thinking making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Multiple Choice 71–72, 74 69, 73 Learning Objective 13.2c Fill-in-the-Blank Identify the factors that Essay maximize or minimize Critical Thinking 1 obedience to authority. Multiple Choice 76, 80, 85, 88, 90, 75, 89 Learning Objective 92 13.3a Fill-in-the-Blank 13, 15 Explain which aspects of Essay 4 a situation increase or Critical Thinking decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Multiple Choice 93–94, 97–98 Learning Objective 13.3b Fill-in-the-Blank 16–17 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. Describe the social and Essay 1 individual difference Critical Thinking variables that contribute to human aggression.

10–14, 18–21 4–5

25, 27–29, 31–32, 35

37, 46, 48

2 57, 60, 63, 66 11

77–79, 81–84, 86– 87, 91 14

95–96

Topic Learning Objective 13.4a Describe how attitudes relate to behavior. Learning Objective 13.4b Evaluate theoretical accounts of how and when we alter our attitudes. Learning Objective 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Learning Objective 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Learning Objective 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it.

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Multiple Choice

Factual

Conceptual

99–100, 102, 104– 105 18

101, 103

106, 109

110

107–108

111–112, 114, 117, 120, 124–125 21–23

127

113, 115–116, 118– 119, 121–123, 126

128, 130, 132–133, 136, 138, 141, 143 24

137, 139

129, 131, 134–135, 140, 142

146–147, 149, 152, 154

144, 148, 151, 153

145, 150

19-20

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Applied

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 13 Quick Quiz 1 1. According to research, humans have a biological need for interpersonal interactions. This is called the __________. A) need for friends theory B) need for intimacy theory C) need for interpersonal interactions theory D) need to belong theory 2. When half of his class earned D’s and F’s on the midterm exam, Professor Bush came back to the next class and delivered a stern lecture about their effort. He admonished the class for failing to meet their obligations, for being lazy, and for not taking their studies seriously. These attributions, which were all __________ attributions, did not really give any consideration to the fact that the students may have had other reasons for failing the exam that were beyond their immediate control. A) cooperative B) dispositional C) accusatory D) situational 3. You get on an elevator. Everyone is facing to the right. You turn and also face to the right. This is an example of __________. A) obedience B) comparison C) attribution D) conformity 4. A group of chemists, who have been working together on a new diet pill for the last four years, met to discuss their new drug. Over the years, they have all come to respect each other and have formed a close bond. Upon discussing the effectiveness and safety of the diet pill, many members of the group found themselves agreeing with most of the comments that were made. Somewhere along the way, no one seemed to pay much attention to the fact that some of the subjects in the clinical trials of that drug became ill. It seemed that because nobody wanted to disrespect anyone else, the topic of ill subjects was dropped. What psychological phenomenon occurred here? A) social facilitation B) group polarization C) groupthink D) social loafing 5. While walking downtown one day, you find a man wearing street clothes who is slumped on the sidewalk. You look around and see others walking and not paying attention. You decide to do the same thing and walk past without intervening. You have demonstrated __________ ignorance. A) monistic B) pluralistic C) singular D) triangular 6. Who is more likely to engage in physical aggression? A) Billy, who was raised in North Dakota B) Mao Lin, who was raised in Beijing, China C) Beau, who was raised in Savannah, Georgia D) Tanaka, who was raised in Tokyo, Japan 7. When she is not at the bar, Jayla preaches to everyone about the dangers of smoking. However, she does smoke an occasional cigarette when she is at the bar with her friends—although at those times, she feels somewhat frustrated by her own smoking behavior. Jayla is likely experiencing __________ when she smokes. A) groupthink B) cognitive dissonance C) social facilitation D) compliance

8. When Sam went looking for a new car, he met a beautiful saleswoman who described the beauty of the car and its flashiness, and how good Sam would look driving it. She did not mention the poor gas mileage, the exorbitant price, and poor road performance. Sam made a snap decision to buy the car from the persuasive saleswoman. Sam was using which alternative pathway in making a decision? A) the central route B) the peripheral route C) the afferent route D) the efferent route 9. Devin holds the viewpoint that a female physician will not be as effective as a male physician because females are too emotional in nature. Devin’s way of thinking about this situation can best be described as ___________. A) prejudiced B) ethnoracial C) an example of poor cognition D) discriminatory 10. __________ hypothesis is the claim that our attributions and behaviors are shaped by a belief that the world is fair and people always get what they deserve. A) the just-world B) the scapegoat C) the bandwagon D) the maladaptive gullibility

Chapter 13 Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1. D

Explanation: Human beings need to have interpersonal connections with one another. This is a biological need. (What Is Social Psychology?, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 13.1a)

2. B

Explanation: The professor is blaming their performance on their personalities, not considering the situational influences of his students. (What Is Social Psychology?, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 13.1b)

3. D

Explanation: Conformity is the tendency of people to alter their behavior as a result of being in a group. You conformed to the actions of the group. (Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 13.2a)

4. C

Explanation: Groupthink is occurring here, as the decision makers are emphasizing group unanimity. (Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 13.2b)

5. B

Explanation: This is the error of assuming that no one in a group perceives things as we do. You do not perceive this as an emergency. (Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 13.3a)

6. C

Explanation: Rates of violent crime in different regions of the United States mirror the average temperatures in these regions. This is a warmer region of the United States and would have more aggression. (Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 13.3b)

7. B

Explanation: Cognitive dissonance is an unpleasant mental experience of tension resulting from two conflicting thoughts or beliefs. Jayla is experiencing two conflicting thoughts. (Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 13.4b)

8. B

Explanation: The peripheral route leads us to respond to persuasive arguments on the basis of snap judgments. (Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 13.4c)

9. A

Explanation: Devin is drawing negative conclusions about a person, group of people, or situation prior to evaluating the evidence. (Prejudice and Discrimination, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 13.5a)

10. A

Explanation: The just-world hypothesis implies that many of us have a deep-seated need to perceive the world as fair—to believe that all things happen for a reason. (Prejudice and Discrimination, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 13.5b)

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 13 Quick Quiz 2 1. Marika was confronted by the jealous girlfriend of a guy that Marika had dated. She backed down from the confrontation and fled the scene. Later, she asked several others what they would have done in that type of a situation, and they agreed that they would have done the same thing. Marika felt better. This is an example of __________. A) fundamental attribution theory B) social comparison theory C) collective delusions D) mass hysteria 2. When their friend Vincent was walking down the hall after a pleasant conversation, Neil and Michaela watched as he suddenly tripped and fell to the floor, scattering his schoolbooks all over the hallway. They ran over to him, helped him pick up his books, and commented, “I didn’t know that the floor was so slippery in this part of the hall!” Neil and Michaela have made a __________ attribution to explain why Vincent fell over. A) dispositional B) assistive C) situational D) cooperative 3. What is the moral or take-home message of Solomon Asch’s series of experiments in which participants were asked to judge the lengths of lines? A) People will go to great lengths to please people on whom they depend. B) People will go to great lengths to fit in with others. C) People will go to great lengths to assert their independence. D) People will go to great lengths to convince others of their points of view. 4. In a televised “social experiment” by the local television network, 12 people—6 white and 6 African American— were asked to live together for one week. They varied in their level of prejudice; however, those with low levels of prejudice became less prejudiced, while those with high levels became more prejudiced. A psychologist from the university coined this behavior __________. A) group polarization B) group norms C) groupthink D) group dynamics 5. One of the key themes in Milgram’s paradigm is the __________ psychological distance between the teacher/participant and the experimenter, the __________ the obedience. A) less; less B) less; greater C) greater; less D) greater; greater 6. In which of the following situations is the person more likely to be helped? A) A young woman is being mugged while people are watching from their bedroom windows. B) An old woman with a cane trips and falls while crossing an isolated street with only a couple of people around. C) An angry mob watches while an old man is attacked by a dog. D) A woman collapses on the sidewalk of a crowded street. 7. Who is least likely to be aggressive? A) Cody, a Southerner who has just been insulted by a neighbor B) Juan, who just watched a daylong marathon of slasher movies C) Jeff, who has been drinking heavily at a bar D) Shoshone, who lives in Anchorage, Alaska

8. The phenomenon whereby we are more likely to believe something we’ve heard many times is known as the __________. A) availability heuristic B) recognition heuristic C) rule of thumb D) bandwagon fallacy 9. Your friend asks to borrow $50 from you. You tell him no. Then he asks for a mere $10, which you gladly give him. While you feel glad to have helped him out, you may have just experienced the __________ technique. A) foot-in-the-mouth B) foot-in-the-door C) door-in-the-face D) door-in-the-foot 10. Aleta is looking at a stack of applications for the open position she has at her bakery. She called all of the applicants acting as if she were asking an important question about their application. Really, however, she wanted to know who had an accent so she could put those applications in the “no” pile. Aleta just engaged in __________. A) prejudice B) the bystander effect C) discrimination D) social inhibition

Chapter 13 Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1. B

Explanation: Social comparison theory states that we seek to evaluate our abilities and beliefs by comparing them with those of others. Marika compared her actions to others and felt better. (What Is Social Psychology?, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 13.1a)

2. C

Explanation: His friends attributed Vincent’s fall to the current situation and not some internal characteristics of Vincent himself. (What Is Social Psychology?, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 13.1b)

3. B

Explanation: Conformity is the tendency of people to alter their behavior as a result of the group. (Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 13.2a)

4. A

Explanation: Group polarization is the tendency of a group discussion to strengthen the dominant positions held by an individual group. (Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 13.2b)

5. C

Explanation: Milgram found that the greater the psychological distance between teacher and learner, the less the obedience. (Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 13.2c)

6. B

Explanation: When there are fewer people around, people are more likely to help. (Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 13.3a)

7. D

Explanation: Rates of violent crime in different regions of the United States mirror the average temperatures in these regions. Alaska is a cooler region of the United States and would presumably have less aggression. (Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 13.3b)

8. B

Explanation: The recognition heuristic makes us more likely to believe something we’ve heard many times. (Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 13.4a)

9. C

Explanation: The door-in-the-face is a persuasive technique involving making an unreasonably large request before making the small request we’re hoping to have granted. (Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 13.4c)

10. C

Explanation: Aleta refuses to hire anyone with an accent, which is discriminatory. (Prejudice and Discrimination, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 13.5a)

Chapter 13: Social Psychology Test Bank Multiple-Choice 1. Social psychology is best defined as the scientific study of __________. A) deviant behavior B) sociology C) social mores Incorrect. Social psychology studies more than social mores. D) social influence Correct. Social psychology studies how people influence others’ behaviors, beliefs, and attitudes. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 2. The way we each affect the thoughts, feelings, and behaviors of others and are, in turn, affected by others is the study of __________. A) social psychology B) sociology C) anthropology D) social philosophy Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 3. The approximate number of people that each of us knows reasonably well is __________. A) 50 B) 100 C) 150 D) 200 Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? % correct 72 a = 7 b = 14 c = 72 d = 7 r = .54

4. Which individual proposed the number 150 as being the approximate size of the average person's social group? A) Solomon Asch B) Robin Dunbar Correct. Dunbar was the anthropologist who proposed this number. C) Leon Festinger Incorrect. Festinger's most noted work was in the area of cognitive dissonance. D) Muzafer Sherif Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 5. According to research, humans have a biological need for interpersonal interactions. This is called the __________. A) need-for-friends theory B) need-for-intimacy theory C) need-for-interpersonal-interactions theory Incorrect. There is no such theory presented in this chapter. D) need-to-belong theory Correct. Humans need to have interpersonal connections and this is a biological need. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 6. Stanley Schacter asked five male volunteers to live alone in separate rooms for an extended period of time. One of the participants quit after __________ minutes, three others lasted only __________ day(s), and the fifth participant made it to __________ days. A) 10; 1; 6 B) 20; 2; 8 C) 30; 2; 10 D) 5; 4; 10 Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology?

7. Research on inmates placed in solitary confinement suggests that they experience more psychological symptoms, especially mood and anxiety problems, than other inmates. However, this finding may be difficult to interpret because some inmates may be more emotionally maladjusted to begin with. Which of the six principles of scientific thinking does this research finding fit into? A) extraordinary claims Incorrect. This is not an extraordinary claim, but one in which other alternative explanations for these findings have not been excluded. B) replicability C) Occam’s Razor D) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. Other alternative explanations for these findings have not been excluded. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 8. Jean Twenge asked undergraduates to complete a personality measure and gave them bogus feedback on their test results. Students who received feedback that they would be isolated toward the end of their lives were __________. A) significantly less likely than other students to engage in unhealthy behaviors B) significantly more likely than other students to engage in healthy behaviors C) significantly more likely than other students to engage in unhealthy behaviors D) no more likely than other students to engage in unhealthy behaviors Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 9. Research finds that increases in loneliness are tied to heightened rates of depression in both teenagers and adults, but this does not suggest that the depression is a direct result of loneliness. This is an important consideration for the critical thinking concept of __________. A) falsifiability B) replicability C) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. There is nothing in this question that speaks to the simplest explanation for a phenomenon. D) correlation vs. causation Correct. Remember that a correlation between two variables does not prove a cause-and-effect relationship. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology?

10. Marika was confronted by the jealous girlfriend of a guy that Marika had dated. She backed down from the confrontation and fled the scene. Later, she asked several others what they would have done in that type of a situation and they agreed that they would have done the same thing. Marika felt better. This is an example of __________. A) fundamental attribution theory Incorrect. Marika compared her actions to others and felt better; she did not overestimate the impact of dispositional influences on other people’s behaviors. B) social comparison theory Correct. Marika compared her actions to others and felt better. C) collective delusions D) mass hysteria Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 11. After a particularly difficult psychology exam, you and your friends confide in one another about the test, comparing your answers and reactions to the test. This is known as Leon Festinger’s social __________ theory. A) relevance Incorrect. There is no such theory. B) experiment C) comparison Correct. You are comparing your actions to others in order to feel better. D) comprehensive Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 12. Aviva is reasonably successful as an electronics store manager. Her older sister, Rachel, is a nationally renowned surgeon who is regularly interviewed on television, makes far more money than Aviva does, and is regarded as far more successful. When thinking about all that Rachel has accomplished, Aviva tends to feel that her life is going nowhere. Aviva is engaging in __________ social comparison. A) upward Correct. When we compare ourselves to a person who is in some way superior to ourselves, we are engaging in upward social comparison. B) lateral C) downward Incorrect. When we compare ourselves to a person who is in some way inferior to ourselves, we are engaging in downward social comparison. D) relative Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

12. When Buck finds out that he is not getting the promotion that he wanted, he makes himself feel better by thinking, "At least I didn't get fired like Marvin did!" Buck is engaging in __________ social comparison. A) upward Incorrect. When we compare ourselves to a person who is in some way superior to ourselves, we are engaging in upward social comparison. B) proximal C) downward Correct. When we compare ourselves to a person who is in some way inferior to ourselves, we are engaging in downward social comparison. D) relative Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 14. Coworkers in one office building noticed a foul odor outside and suspected it might be a terrorist plot using a biochemical weapon. Soon, a number of reporters covered the story and reports of foul odors were popping up everywhere. Despite the mayor and the sewer department stating that a line in the sewer had burst, workers were convinced of the possible attack. This phenomenon is better explained by mass __________. A) hysteria Correct. This is an example of an outbreak of irrational behavior that spreads. B) stupidity C) delusions D) reactions Incorrect. This is an example of mass hysteria. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 15. After a couple of cars were broken into, neighbors began to believe that there was a crime spree occurring in their neighborhood. In fact, many were reporting minor dings and scratches on their cars to the police, claiming that criminals had tried to break in and steal their cars. The police believed that the original crimes were isolated incidents carried out by teenagers as nothing was stolen. Which of the six principles of scientific thinking does this example best fit? A) extraordinary claims B) replicability C) Occam’s Razor Correct. The simplest explanation is often the best. D) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. Other alternative explanations for these findings have been excluded. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

16. “Oh my gosh, it’s a UFO!” This scream came from the backyard of a suburban neighborhood home, after which several other people came out and agreed that they were all seeing a UFO. As it turns out, there was merely a weather balloon flying high in the sky after it had separated from its tethering cord. This simpler explanation for the sighting of a UFO is consistent with the conceptual principle of __________. A) Occam’s Razor Correct. The simplest explanation for the sighting of UFOs is usually some very simple “terrestrial” event. B) correlation vs. causation C) falsifiability D) replicability Incorrect. There is no research being conducted that must be repeated in order to make replicability the correct answer. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 17. Demonstrating the phenomenon of __________, Zajonc found that cockroaches will run faster when __________. A) conformity; running together B) learning; reinforced C) social facilitation; other cockroaches are present D) social loafing; they are alone Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? % correct 97 a = 3 b = 0 c = 97 d = 0 r = .19 18. When Jacob’s girlfriend and her friends stopped by his house during a basketball game with his friends, Jacob’s performance increased slightly due to what Zajonc calls __________. A) social facilitation Correct. His performance was enhanced by the presence of his girlfriend. B) prosocial facilitation C) attribution D) social disruption Incorrect. His performance was enhanced, not worsened, by the presence of his girlfriend. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology?

19. Mike is a great football player. Last Saturday, his new girlfriend attended the game to watch him play, and Mike played even better than usual. Mike’s enhanced performance demonstrates the phenomenon known as __________. A) social influence. B) social facilitation. Correct. His performance was enhanced by the presence of his girlfriend. C) social conformity. D) the bystander effect. Incorrect. This refers to others not willing to help in the presence of many persons. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 20. Alan and his friends were playing a game of pool at the local bar and grill. Jackie, a girl Alan likes, and her friends came over to talk. As Alan is an inexperienced pool player, his pool game suffered from Jackie’s presence. Social psychologists would explain his poor performance as __________. A) social facilitation Incorrect. His performance was not enhanced by the presence of Jackie. B) prosocial facilitation C) attribution D) social disruption Correct. His performance was negatively affected by the presence of Jackie. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 21. As Devorah was just learning how to play racquetball, she did worse when in the presence of others. This is a phenomenon known as __________. A) social facilitation Incorrect. Her performance was not enhanced by the presence of others. B) social disruption Correct. Her performance worsened as a result of other people watching. C) attribution D) social agitation Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology?

22. When we attempt to explain the cause of someone’s behavior, we are utilizing __________. A) impression management B) attributions C) the self-serving bias D) behavior assignment Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 23. A(n) ___________ is a claim about the cause of a person’s behavior. A) explanation B) inference C) attribution D) assumption Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 24. When a person assigns causes to another individual’s behavior and assumes that the behavior is due to that individual’s personal characteristics, a(n) __________ is made. A) situational attribution Incorrect. This refers to underestimating the situational influences on one’s behavior. B) dispositional attribution Correct. This refers to enduring personality traits, attitudes, and intelligence. C) attribution error D) external attribution Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Topic: What Is Social Psychology?

25. While sitting in the theater watching the latest Iron Man movie, Michael hears a person behind him talking on his cell phone. “What an inconsiderate jerk that person is,” Michael thinks to himself. He does not consider that the telephone call may have been some very serious emergency that required immediate attention. Michael has fallen prey to the __________ error. A) self-serving B) fundamental attribution Correct. The fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency to overestimate the impact of dispositional influences on other people’s behaviors. C) ultimate attribution Incorrect. The ultimate attribution error is the assumption that behaviors among individual members of a group are due to internal dispositions. D) actor-observer Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 26. A(n) __________ attribution is made when we blame an individual’s behavior on the situation; a(n) __________ attribution is made when we blame the individual’s behavior on his or her personality or other personal characteristics. A) external; situational B) internal; external C) external; internal D) dispositional; situational Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Topic: What Is Social Psychology?

27. When driving down the highway, Caesar could not help but notice the young-looking teenager who seemed to be driving in a reckless manner. He immediately assumed that he was one of those defiant, careless, and irresponsible teens who really did not deserve a license. Caesar just made a(n) __________. A) situational attribution Incorrect. Caesar is underestimating the situational influences on one’s behavior. B) impression attribution C) personal attribution D) dispositional attribution Correct. Caesar is blaming the enduring personality traits, attitudes, and intelligence on the teenager’s bad driving habits. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? % correct 85 a = 5 b = 8 c = 1 d = 85 r = .30 28. Gianna was coming home from work and could not help but notice a young woman who seemed to be driving in a reckless manner. She immediately wondered if the girl was in an emergency or if something important was going on to make her drive like that. Gianna just made a(n) __________ attribution. A) internal Incorrect. Gianna is not blaming the enduring personality traits, attitudes, and intelligence on the woman’s bad driving habits. B) dispositional C) situational Correct. Gianna is appropriately considering the situational influences on one’s behavior. D) impression Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Topic: What Is Social Psychology?

29. Wendy is walking down the street when she suddenly falls down and lands squarely on her backside. A group of girls standing about 50 feet away start laughing hysterically, telling each other what a klutz Wendy is. The unsympathetic girls in this group are making a(n) ___________ attribution to explain why Wendy fell down. A) situational Incorrect. The girls are not considering the situational influences on Wendy’s fall. B) negative C) positive D) dispositional Correct. The girls are blaming Wendy’s fall on her assumed clumsiness rather than some external factor, like a wet sidewalk. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 30. A __________ attribution looks at __________ factors, while a __________ attribution looks at ___________ factors. A) biased: genuine; unbiased; influenced B) biased; influenced; unbiased; genuine C) dispositional; external; situational; internal D) situational; external; dispositional; internal Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 31. When half of his class earned D’s and F’s on the midterm exam, Professor Bush came back to the next class and delivered a stern lecture about their effort. He admonished the class for failing to meet their obligations, for being lazy, and for not taking their studies seriously. These attributions, which were all ___________ attributions, did not really give any consideration to the fact that the students may have had other reasons for failing the exam that were beyond their immediate control. A) cooperative B) dispositional Correct. The professor is blaming their performance on their personalities and not considering the situational influences of his students. C) accusatory D) situational Incorrect. The professor is blaming their performance on their personalities and not considering the situational influences of his students. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

32. When their friend Vincent was walking down the hall after a pleasant conversation, Neil and Michaela watched as he suddenly tripped and fell to the floor, scattering his schoolbooks all over the hallway. They ran over to him, helped him pick up his books, and commented, “I didn’t know that the floor was so slippery in this part of the hall!” Neil and Michaela have made a __________ attribution to explain why Vincent fell over. A) dispositional Incorrect. His friends did not attribute Vincent’s fall to his personal characteristics. B) assistive C) situational Correct. His friends attributed Vincent’s fall to the current situation and not some internal characteristics of Vincent himself. D) cooperative Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? % correct 88 a = 5 b = 1 c = 88 d = 1 r = .22 33. The ___________ attribution error is a phenomenon in which people make an attribution based on character while disregarding the influence of situational factors. A) dispositional B) negative C) presumptive D) fundamental Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Topic: What Is Social Psychology?

34. What is the basic underlying reason why we tend to make attributional mistakes? A) We generally do not pay enough attention to our surroundings, and thus miss essential information that would help us avoid attributional mistakes. B) We are generally quick to assume the worst of intents in other people, so this leads us to attributional mistakes. C) We don’t have enough information to know why a person behaved as they did, so we make rapid assumptions. Correct. We tend to often overlook the situation the person is in. D) We are more concerned with getting an attribution made quickly than getting it made correctly, and this causes us to make mistakes. Incorrect. We tend to often overlook the situation the person is in, especially if we were never in that situation ourselves. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 35. Which of the following individuals is least likely to engage in an attribution that demonstrates the fundamental attribution error? A) Anas, who is from Syria B) Nayal, who is from India Incorrect. Your textbook does not indicate that people of Indian descent are more or less prone to making the fundamental attribution error. C) Hiroki, who is from Japan Correct. Research finds that people from China and Japan show reduced tendencies to make the fundamental attribution error. D) Eduardo, who is from El Salvador Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Application APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Topic: What Is Social Psychology?

36. The tendency of people to alter their behavior as a result of group pressure is called __________. A) obedience B) attribution C) conformity D) social comparison Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 37. You get on an elevator. Everyone is facing to the right. You turn and also face to the right. This is an example of __________. A) obedience Incorrect. There is no larger authority that is compelling you to face to the right, so this is not an example of obedience. B) comparison C) attribution D) conformity Correct. You are conforming to the actions of the group. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 38. Which of the following researchers’ work was the most influential in shaping our understanding of conformity? A) Hans Eysenck B) Solomon Asch C) Martin Seligman D) Muzafer Sherif Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience

39. In the experiments conducted by Solomon Asch, what was the main task that subjects had to perform? A) Pretend they were prison guards B) Selecting line sizes C) Plunge their hands into buckets of water that were either ice cold or scalding hot D) Deliver electric shocks to helpless victims Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 40. If you’re like __________ percent of participants in the original Asch study, you’d conform to the incorrect norm on at least one of 12 trials. A) 45 B) 55 C) 65 D) 75 Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 41. What is the moral or take-home message of Solomon Asch’s series of experiments in which participants were asked to judge the lengths of lines? People will go to great lengths __________. A) to please people on whom they depend B) to fit in with others Correct. People have a tendency to conform to the group. C) to assert their independence Incorrect. People have a tendency to conform to the group. D) to convince others of their points of view Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience % correct 84 a = 0 b = 84 c = 11 d = 0 r = .61

42. Although he knew he was right, Paul changed his answer under pressure from the other three members on the panel. Paul’s behavior demonstrates the power of __________. A) conformity B) the social foci C) leadership D) the social attribution error Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 43. Asch also tried to rule out alternative hypotheses for his findings. He examined whether group norms affected participants’ perceptions of the lines, and he then conducted his original study but asked participants to write, rather than call out, their responses. In this condition, he found the answers to be right more than 99 percent of the time. Which of the six principles does this example demonstrate? A) extraordinary claims B) replicability Correct. Asch replicated his results by repeating the study and looking at the consistency of his findings. C) Occam’s Razor D) correlation vs. causation Incorrect. Correlation vs. causation was not the main objective, replicability was. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 44. According to Asch and others, all of the following are social factors that influence conformity EXCEPT __________. A) status of the group Correct. Status of the group had nothing to do with conformity in the Asch experiments discussed in the textbook. B) unanimity of the group C) difference in the wrong answer D) size of the majority Incorrect. The size of the group is important up until about 5 or 6 confederates. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience

45. People with low self-esteem are prone to conformity; however, research finds that __________ are also more likely to conform than __________. A) Asians; Americans B) Asians; African Americans C) Americans; Asians D) African Americans; Asians Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 46. Based on research on differences in conformity, which of the following individuals would you most expect to conform to a group? A) Patrick, an American male B) Masami, a Japanese female Correct. Asian individuals are more likely to conform. C) Beth, an American female D) Marcel, a French male Incorrect. The textbook does not discuss any research findings on the conforming behaviors of French individuals. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 47. Many early studies have suggested that women are more likely to conform than men. This sex difference may have been due to the experimenters being all male. Later studies found these differences had vanished when the studies were conducted by female experimenters. Which of the six principles does this example demonstrate? A) extraordinary claims Incorrect. This is not an extraordinary claim. B) replicability C) Occam’s Razor D) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. There is an alternative explanation to the findings that women conform more than men. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience

48. Devoid of any retribution, thousands of fans at a football game swarmed the field, climbed on the goal posts, yelled, screamed, and took their clothes off. This behavior of normally mild-mannered citizens is known as __________. A) individuation Incorrect. The term for people engaging in atypical behavior, usually amidst a crowd where individual responsibility is decreased, is deindividuation. B) deindividuation Correct. This is an example of people engaging in uncharacteristic behavior when usual identities were reduced. C) demoralization D) demonification Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 49. In his famous study, this researcher recruited college students to portray either guards or prisoners with some rather shocking results. A) Douglas Spears B) Stanley Milgram C) Solomon Asch D) Philip Zimbardo Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 50. The Stanford prison study involved a total of __________ male undergraduates. A) 12 B) 24 C) 36 D) 48 Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience

51. Zimbardo concluded from his Stanford prison study that prisoners and guards adopted their designated roles more easily than anyone might have imagined because of __________. A) conformity Incorrect. While there was a level of conformity, the guards and prisoners assumed their roles and this is a clear example of deindividuation. B) obedience C) influence D) deindividuation Correct. The prisoners and guards engaged in atypical behavior when they were stripped of their usual identities. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience % correct 58 a = 21 b = 5 c = 16 d = 58 r = .40 % correct 71 a = 10 b = 13 c = 3 d = 71 r = .37 52. The Stanford prison study ended __________ days early. A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 9 Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 53. As the Stanford prison study was not carefully controlled, it was more of a demonstration than an experiment, and the prisoners and guards may have experienced demand characteristics to behave in their more assigned roles. Researchers have not been able to demonstrate Zimbardo’s findings. This lack of research consistency is a problem for which of the six principles of scientific thinking? A) falsifiability B) replicability Correct. Research findings that are consistent from study to study are considered replicable. In this case, the lack of consistency in the research is a problem of replicability. C) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. There are no alternate hypotheses suggested in this question. The lack of one consistent finding is an issue of replicability. D) Occam’s Razor Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience

54. The overwhelming majority of U.S. prison guards during the Iraqi War did not engage in abuse, so the reasons for such abuse, when it occurs, don’t lie entirely in the __________, but in the __________ of the guards. A) disposition; situation Incorrect. The disposition of the guards is of more concern here, as the situation does not tell the whole story since most did not engage in such behavior. These answers are in the opposite order. B) situation; propositional stance C) situation; oppositional defiance D) situation; disposition Correct. The situation is not the entire story here; the guards themselves may have underlying issues. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 55. The emphasis on group unanimity at the expense of critical thinking is called __________. A) deindividuation B) conformity C) obedience D) groupthink Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 56. The Bay of Pigs invasion, the Challenger explosion, and countless other meetings where group unanimity comes at the expense of critical thinking and sound decision making, is known as __________. A) socialthink B) thinktank C) groupthink Correct. Groupthink is the correct answer. D) group polarization Incorrect. Groupthink is at work here as the decision makers in all of these events emphasized group unanimity. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience

57. The Bay of Pigs fiasco was the result of __________. A) mob action B) deindividuation Incorrect. Groupthink is at work here as the decision makers in all of these events emphasized group unanimity. C) blind obedience D) groupthink Correct. Groupthink is the correct answer as the decision makers in all of these events emphasized group unanimity. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 58. The best way to avoid groupthink is to encourage ___________ within an organization. A) passive agreement B) dissent Correct. One way to prevent groupthink is by having someone speak up. C) active agreement Incorrect. This is still unquestioned belief in the group’s decision. D) apathetic presence Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 59. ___________ can occur when individuals who are part of a group focus on preserving group solidarity at the expense of considering all possible alternatives or even failing to use rational thought in the process. A) Social facilitation B) Groupthink Correct. Groupthink is the correct answer, as the decision makers in all of these events emphasize group unanimity. C) Social loafing D) Group polarization Incorrect. Groupthink is at work here, as the decision makers in all of these events emphasize group unanimity. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience

60. A group of chemists, who have been working together on a new diet pill for the last four years, meet to discuss their new drug. Over the years, they have all come to respect each other and have formed a close bond. Upon discussing the effectiveness and safety of the diet pill, many members of the group found themselves agreeing with most of the comments that were made. Somewhere along the way, no one seemed to pay much attention to the fact that some of the subjects in the clinical trials of that drug became ill. It seemed that because nobody wanted to disrespect anyone else, the topic of ill subjects was dropped. What psychological phenomenon occurred here? A) social facilitation B) group polarization C) groupthink Correct. Groupthink is the correct answer, as the decision makers in all of these events emphasize group unanimity. D) social loafing Incorrect. There is no evidence of social loafing. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 61. Which of the following statements is most likely to contribute to groupthink? A) “Let’s hear some differing opinions.” B) “What do you think?” Incorrect. Groupthink occurs because no one expresses an opinion or dissent. C) “I’m sure we all agree on this.” Correct. This is an unquestioned belief in the group’s moral correctness. D) “We need to look at all of the evidence.” Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience % correct 68 a = 21 b = 0 c = 68 d = 11 r = .71 62. The tendency of a group discussion to strengthen the dominant positions held by individual group members is known as ___________. A) social facilitation. B) group polarization C) groupthink D) social loafing Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience % correct 22 a = 7 b = 22 c = 64 d = 7 r = .44 63. In a televised “social experiment” by the local television network, 12 people—6 white and 6 African Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

American—were asked to live together for one week. They varied in their level of prejudice; however, those with low levels of prejudice became less prejudiced, while those with high levels became more prejudiced. A psychologist from the university coined this behavior ___________. A) group polarization Correct. This is the tendency of a group discussion to strengthen the dominant positions held by an individual group. B) group norms C) groupthink Incorrect. Groupthink occurs because no one expresses an opinion or dissent. D) group dynamics Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience % correct 86 a = 86 b = 1 c = 3 d = 3 r = .33 64. In extreme forms, groupthink can lead to __________. A) new clubs B) anger C) loyalty D) cults Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 65. Research suggests that cults promote groupthink in the following ways EXCEPT __________. A) having a persuasive leader who fosters loyalty B) connecting group members to the outside world Correct. A cult’s power is to keep their members unattached to the outside world, to any outside influences. C) discouraging questioning of the group’s or leader’s assumptions Incorrect. A cult demands unquestioning devotion to a single cause or entity. D) utilizing training practices that gradually indoctrinate members Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience

66. Guru Mana is the leader of the cult of “The Divine Purification of the Body.” His members __________. A) are probably emotionally disturbed B) are probably brainwashed C) probably have had their beliefs permanently altered Incorrect. There is reason to doubt if brainwashing permanently alters person’s beliefs. D) are probably psychologically normal Correct. Most cult members are psychologically normal; cult leaders, on the other hand, may suffer from serious mental illnesses. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 67. __________ is the treatment in which people are first introduced to the reasons why a belief seems to be correct, and then exposed to the reasons why the belief is incorrect. A) Brainwashing B) Groupthink C) The bystander effect D) Inoculation Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 68. In order to reduce the influence of cults, McGuire demonstrated that the best way is to first introduce reasons why the perspective might be correct and then debunk it in an approach known as the __________ effect. A) introspection B) introduction C) innovation D) inoculation Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience

69. The difference between conformity and obedience is __________. A) conformity is influence from peers or colleagues and obedience is influence from authority. B) conformity occurs to most anything, while obedience is unquestioning devotion to a single cause. C) conformity is the result of inoculation, while obedience is the result of fear. D) nonexistent, since there is no difference. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2c Identify the factors that maximize or minimize obedience to authority. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience % correct 89 a = 89 b = 11 c = 0 d = 0 r = .41 % correct 86 a = 86 b = 7 c = 7 d = 0 r = .35 70. The textbook uses the example of the actions of Lieutenant William Calley at My Lai in the Vietnam War to demonstrate the dangers of which social psychological concept? A) persuasion B) conformity C) compliance D) obedience Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2c Identify the factors that maximize or minimize obedience to authority. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 71. In Stanley Milgram’s classic study on obedience, the teacher was the __________, whereas the learner was the __________. A) confederate; person posing to be a subject B) confederate; naive subject C) person posing to be a subject; a true subject D) naive subject; confederate Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2c Identify the factors that maximize or minimize obedience to authority. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience

72. One of the key themes in Milgram’s paradigm is the __________ psychological distance between the teacher/participant and the experimenter, the __________ the obedience. A) less; less B) less; greater C) greater; less D) greater; greater Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2c Identify the factors that maximize or minimize obedience to authority. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 73. Milgram examined other explanations for obedience and was able to manipulate the independent variables such as the amount of feedback and proximity from the learner to the teacher, and the physical proximity and prestige of the experimenter. Milgram was not only trying to replicate his original findings, but he was also trying to demonstrate which of the other principles of scientific thinking? A) falsifiability B) replicability Incorrect. Replicability was already mentioned in the question. C) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. Milgram was examining alternative hypotheses as suggested in this question. D) Occam’s Razor Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 13.2c Identify the factors that maximize or minimize obedience to authority. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 74. All of the following conclusions were reached based on the Milgram study EXCEPT __________. A) morally advanced subjects are more willing to defy the experimenter B) people with high levels of authoritarianism are more likely to comply with the experimenter’s demands C) there were no differences between males and females D) Americans were more likely to obey the experimenter’s commands than non-Americans Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2c Identify the factors that maximize or minimize obedience to authority. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience % correct 78 a = 5 b = 8 c = 5 d = 78 r = .21

75. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Human nature is basically good. B) Human nature is generally bad. C) Human nature is a blend of both socially constructive and destructive tendencies. Correct. Milgram’s studies made us aware that good people can do bad things and rational people can behave irrationally. D) Human nature exhibits either prosocial behavior or antisocial behavior but not both. Incorrect. Milgram’s studies made us aware that good people can do bad things and rational people can behave irrationally. People are capable of both. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression 76. Actions that are intended to help others are often referred to as __________ behavior. A) bystander B) compliant C) prosocial D) obedient Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression 77. Tarek is a college student who lives on campus. While riding his bike to class the other day, he witnessed a bike accident between two other students. Both were badly injured. Tarek stopped to offer help, knowing that he might be late or even miss his class. The two students involved in the accident were grateful for his assistance. Tarek demonstrated __________ in this situation. A) social facilitation Incorrect. There is nothing that indicates Tarek’s performance improved. B) conformity C) prosocial behavior Correct. Tarek stopped to help others despite the fact that he would be late for class. D) compliance Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression

78. While walking downtown one day, you find a man wearing street clothes who is slumped on the sidewalk. You look around and see others walking and not paying attention. You decide to do the same thing and walk past without intervening. You have demonstrated __________ ignorance. A) monistic B) pluralistic Correct. This is the error of assuming that no one in a group perceives things as we do. You do not perceive this as an emergency. C) singular Incorrect. This is the error of assuming that no one in a group perceives things as we do. You do not perceive this as an emergency, thus this is pluralistic ignorance. D) triangular Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression 79. You are sitting in a very difficult class dedicated to explaining how differential equations are relevant to the study of particle physics. The professor quickly reviews this complicated material, and you are totally confused. She asks "Does anyone have any questions?," and nobody raises a hand. You think to yourself, "Why does everyone else but me understand this stuff?" You are suffering from __________ ignorance. A) monistic B) pluralistic. Correct. This is the error of assuming that no one in a group perceives things as we do. You do not perceive this as an emergency. C) singular Incorrect. This is the error of assuming that no one in a group perceives things as we do. You do not perceive this as an emergency, thus this is pluralistic ignorance. D) triangular Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression 80. The reduction in feelings of personal responsibility that you experience when in the presence of others is called __________ of responsibility. A) diffusion B) contusion C) infusion D) illusion Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

81. At a crowded park, Kayla sees an old man clutching his heart and stumbling. If Kayla assumes that someone else will help the old man, she is experiencing the phenomenon known as __________. A) pluralistic ignorance Incorrect. This is a crowded park, and Kayla is less likely to help. Diffusion of responsibility is the correct answer. B) social loafing C) diffusion of responsibility Correct. This is a crowded park, and Kayla is less likely to help. D) evaluation apprehension Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression % correct 74 a = 16 b = 5 c = 74 d = r = .33 82. Nabila was at a busy grocery store when she and many others saw a gentleman on the ground. She stopped to stare and thought to herself that surely someone had already called for help for this man. She decided that because so many people were present to see the gentleman, help was already on the way. Nabila’s decision not to call for help can be best explained by __________. A) groupthink B) the diffusion of responsibility Correct. This is a busy store, and Nabila is less likely to help, assuming someone else will. C) social facilitation D) the fundamental attribution error Incorrect. This is diffusion of responsibility, as Nabila is less likely to help, assuming someone else will. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression 83. In which of the following situations is the person more likely to be helped? A) A young woman is being mugged while people are watching from their bedroom windows. B) An old woman with a cane trips and falls while crossing an isolated street with only a couple of people around. Correct. When there are fewer people around, people are more likely to help. C) An angry mob watches while an old man is attacked by a dog. D) A woman collapses on the sidewalk of a crowded street. Incorrect. People are less likely to assist on a crowded street. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression

84. Amanda, Sarah, Jonas, and William have been assigned a group project. Amanda ends up doing almost none of the work, while the others complete the project. Amanda ends up getting the same grade as the other group members. This is an example of __________. A) the bystander effect B) social loafing Correct. Amanda is the unproductive member of the group. C) pluralistic ignorance D) diffusion of responsibility Incorrect. Social loafing is the best answer, as diffusion of responsibility refers to helping someone in times of need, not group behavior. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression 85. When an individual, who is part of a larger group, chooses to put forth less effort than other group members, that individual is said to be engaged in __________. A) cognitive dissonance B) social loafing C) conformity D) the bystander effect Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression 86. A group of engineers was assigned the task to create a more useful dashboard for cars. All of the members, except for one, put forth quite a bit of effort. The individual who chose not to work very diligently knew that the other members of the group would pick up his slack. In the end, their hard work paid off. The group’s new dashboard was named “design of the month” by the company. With that honor came a monetary bonus. Which of the following can be used to describe the one individual who seemed not to put forth any effort at all, but still reaped the rewards of everyone else’s hard work? A) compliant B) conformist C) social loafer Correct. The one individual was the only non-productive member of the group. D) conscientious Incorrect. The individual was the opposite. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression

87. You and your group have had four weeks to complete a group project for your economics class. You are now four days away from the due date, and you and one other group member have been putting in all of the time and effort. The other two members come occasionally to group meetings and do the minimal work required. This unfortunate situation is known as __________ loafing. A) prosocial Incorrect. There is nothing prosocial about not pulling one’s weight in a group. B) antisocial C) social Correct. You and one other member are the only productive members of the group. D) nonsocial Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression 88. Which of the following statements is TRUE about brainstorming? A) More heads are better than one. B) Brainstorming groups come up with better ideas than individuals. C) Group brainstorming generally results in ideas that are less creative than does individual brainstorming. D) Brainstorming results in confusion and hostility. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression % correct 42 a = 21 b = 11 c = 42 d = 26 r = .39 89. Group brainstorming is less effective than individual brainstorming because __________. A) group members may be anxious about being evaluated by others B) of social loafing Incorrect. Social loafing is only half of the answer. C) of social facilitation D) group members may be anxious about being evaluated by others and because of social loafing Correct. This is the best answer. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression

90. Helping others for unselfish reasons is called __________. A) altruism B) egoism C) situationalism D) influentialism Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression % correct 95 a = 95 b = 6 c = 0 d = 0 r = .57 91. Galen decided to join the Peace Corps after college and turned down three very financially lucrative job offers in the process. He believed that by joining the Peace Corps, he could assist more people than he would via his job offers in the field of advertising. Which of the following BEST describes Galen’s decision? A) social facilitation B) altruism Correct. This is truly a selfless act. C) the halo effect D) cognitive dissonance Incorrect. There is no mention that Galen was in conflict with his decision. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression % correct 90 a = 1 b = 90 c = 2 d = 6 r = .17 92. Learning about psychological research can change real-world behavior for the better. This is known as the __________ effect. A) bystander B) altruism C) enlightenment D) helping Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression

93. The intent to harm another, either physically or verbally, is referred to as __________. A) scapegoating B) prejudice C) aggression D) discrimination Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.3b Describe the social and individual difference variables that contribute to human aggression. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression 94. Some research has shown that there are gender differences in aggression. These findings suggest that __________. A) higher levels of testosterone may produce more outward aggression in males B) males are more likely to engage in relational aggression than females C) males engage in more nondirect aggression than females D) females are more likely to be affected by high temperatures than males Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.3b Describe the social and individual difference variables that contribute to human aggression. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression 95. Who is least likely to be aggressive? A) Cody, a Southerner who has just been insulted by a neighbor B) Juan, who just watched a daylong marathon of slasher movies C) Jeff, who has been drinking heavily at a bar Incorrect. Alcohol contributes to aggressive tendencies. D) Shoshone, who lives in Anchorage, Alaska Correct. This is a cooler region of the United States and has less aggression. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.3b Describe the social and individual difference variables that contribute to human aggression. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression % correct 90 a = 0 b = 5 c = 5 d = 90 r = .20

96. Who is more likely to engage in physical aggression? A) Billy, who was raised in North Dakota Incorrect. This is a cooler region of the United States and may have less aggression. B) Mao Lin, who was raised in Beijing, China C) Beau, who was raised in Savannah, Georgia Correct. This is a warmer region of the United States and would foster more aggression. D) Tanaka, who was raised in Tokyo, Japan Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.3b Describe the social and individual difference variables that contribute to human aggression. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression 97. On a typical day in the United States, there are between __________ murders. A) 30 and 35 B) 40 and 45 C) 45 and 55 D) 50 and 60 Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.3b Describe the social and individual difference variables that contribute to human aggression. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression 98. A form of aggression that is more prevalent in girls and involves spreading rumors, gossiping, and nonverbal putdowns is called __________ aggression. A) generational B) passive C) active D) relational Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.3b Describe the social and individual difference variables that contribute to human aggression. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression 99. A belief __________. A) is a conclusion regarding factual evidence B) includes an emotional component C) is an attitude D) includes a behavioral component Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.4a Describe how attitudes relate to behavior. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

100. An attitude __________. A) is a conclusion regarding factual evidence. B) includes an emotional component. C) predicts behavior reasonably well. D) includes a physiological component Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.4a Describe how attitudes relate to behavior. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 101. A(n) __________ is a conclusion regarding factual evidence, while a(n) __________ is a belief that includes an emotional component. A) belief; prejudice B) belief; attitude C) attitude; thought D) thought; attitude Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.4a Describe how attitudes relate to behavior. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 102. A trait that assesses the extent to which people’s behaviors reflect their true feelings and attitudes is called __________. A) an excessive characteristic B) self-monitoring C) a belief D) predictive Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.4a Describe how attitudes relate to behavior. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds

103. While attitudes may predict behaviors, that doesn’t mean that behaviors do not cause attitudes. In addition, one could argue that environmental stressors predict attitudes or behaviors. Which of the six principles of scientific thinking does this example describe? A) extraordinary claims B) replicability C) correlation vs. causation Correct. We cannot be sure that A causes B. Don’t forget that correlation does not mean causation. D) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. Unfortunately there is no simple answer here. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 13.4a Describe how attitudes relate to behavior. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds % correct 77 a = 6 b = 7 c = 77 d = 6 r = .40 % correct 79 a = 7 b = 0 c = 79 d = 14 r = .30 104. The shortcut that typically helps a person to make surprisingly accurate snap decisions is called a(n) __________. A) belief B) attitude C) recognition heuristic D) self-monitor Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.4a Describe how attitudes relate to behavior. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 105. The phenomenon whereby we are more likely to believe something we’ve heard many times is known as the __________. A) availability heuristic B) recognition heuristic C) rule of thumb D) bandwagon fallacy Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.4a Describe how attitudes relate to behavior. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds

106. When we experience an unpleasant state of tension between two or more conflicting thoughts, we are experiencing __________. A) implicit egotism B) maladaptive gullibility C) self-monitoring D) cognitive dissonance Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.4b Evaluate theoretical accounts of how and when we alter our attitudes. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds % correct 81 a = 7 b = 7 c = 3 d = 81 r = .33 % correct 93 a = 7 b = 0 c = 0 d = 93 r = .47 107. When she is not at the bar, Jayla preaches to everyone about the dangers of smoking. However, she does smoke an occasional cigarette when she is at the bar with her friends, although at those times she feels somewhat frustrated by her own smoking behavior. Jayla is likely experiencing __________ when she smokes. A) groupthink B) cognitive dissonance Correct. Jayla is in conflict between two conflicting thoughts. C) social facilitation Incorrect. Jayla is in conflict between two conflicting thoughts, hence cognitive dissonance. D) compliance Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.4b Evaluate theoretical accounts of how and when we alter our attitudes. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 108. Tamika met Samantha, who was new to the school. Tamika began to develop a friendship with Samantha and soon they became good friends. Then Tamika learned that Samantha had been a troublemaker at her old school. Tamika liked Samantha, but now saw her as a troublemaker. Tamika finally resolved these conflicting emotions by deciding that Samantha should be admired for turning over a new leaf at her new school. This can be explained by __________. A) implicit egotism theory B) maladaptive gullibility C) cognitive dissonance theory Correct. Tamika is in conflict between two conflicting thoughts. D) self-monitoring theory Incorrect. This is an example of cognitive dissonance. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.4b Evaluate theoretical accounts of how and when we alter our attitudes. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds % correct 74 a = 5 b = 5 c = 74 d = 16 r = .38

109. __________ theory proposes that we acquire our attitudes by observing our behaviors. A) Self-perception B) Cognitive dissonance C) Impression management D) Implicit egotism Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.4b Evaluate theoretical accounts of how and when we alter our attitudes. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 110. __________ theory proposes that we don’t really change our attitudes, but that we report that we have done so to make our behaviors appear consistent with our attitudes. A) Self-perception B) Cognitive dissonance Incorrect. The correct answer, impression management, is certainly related to the concept of cognitive dissonance, but this is not the best answer. C) Impression management Correct. This creates the illusion of consistency, which we tend to be much more comfortable with. D) Implicit egotism Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.4b Evaluate theoretical accounts of how and when we alter our attitudes. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 111. There are two alternative pathways to persuading others. One leads us to evaluate the merits of the persuasive arguments carefully and thoughtfully. This is known as the __________ route. A) central B) peripheral C) afferent D) efferent Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds % correct 64 a = 64 b = 21 c = 12 d = 3 r = .43

112. There are two alternative pathways to persuading others. One leads us to respond to persuasive arguments on the basis of snap judgments. This is known as the __________ route. A) central B) peripheral C) afferent D) efferent Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 113. When Sam went looking for a new car, he met a beautiful saleswoman who described the beauty of the car and its flashiness, and how good Sam would look driving it. She did not mention the poor gas mileage, the exorbitant price, and the poor road performance. Sam made a snap decision to buy the car from the persuasive saleswoman. Sam was using which alternative pathway in making a decision? A) the central route Incorrect. This route leads us to evaluate the merits of the persuasive arguments carefully and thoughtfully. B) the peripheral route Correct. This route leads us to respond to persuasive arguments on the basis of snap judgments or characteristics of the person doing the persuading rather than the argument itself. C) the afferent route D) the efferent route Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 114. __________ suggests that we start with a small request before asking for a bigger one. A) The foot-in-the-door technique B) The door-in-the-face technique C) The low-ball technique D) The bait-and-switch technique Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds % correct 93 a = 93 b = 0 c = 7 d = 0 r = .24

115. Raoul wanted a new cell phone. One of the companies was offering free cell phones with the purchase of a two-year contract. Along with the offer came free text messaging for a month. Raoul purchased the contract. After the month, he liked the text package so much that he kept it at a rather hefty price. This is an example of the __________. A) foot-in-the-door technique Correct. A small request was made before a bigger one. B) door-in-the-face technique Incorrect. A big request was not made before a smaller one. C) low-ball technique D) bait-and-switch technique Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 116. A local charity sends you return mailing labels and asks you to contribute whatever you can. You go ahead and send $5. A month later, you receive another request, but this time for $10, along with numerous other charities to contribute to. Although you feel good that you contributed, you may be a victim of the __________ technique. A) foot-in-the-mouth B) foot-in-the-door Correct. A small request was made before a bigger one. C) door-in-the-face Incorrect. A big request was not made before a smaller one. D) door-in-the-foot Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 117. The __________ technique involves asking for an unreasonably large request before reducing the demand and asking for the small request you are hoping to have granted. A) foot-in-the-door B) door-in-the-face C) low-ball D) bait-and-switch Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds

118. Miranda received a phone call from a telemarketer for a local charity. The telemarketer asked for a $1,000 donation. When Miranda refused, the telemarketer then asked for $25, to which Miranda agreed. This is an example of the __________ technique. A) foot-in-the-door Incorrect. A small request was not made before a bigger one. B) door-in-the-face Correct. A big request was made before a smaller one. C) low-ball D) bait-and-switch Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 119. Your friend asks to borrow $50. You tell him no. Then he asks for a mere $10, which you gladly give him. While you feel good to have helped him out, you may have just experienced the __________ technique. A) foot-in-the-mouth B) foot-in-the-door Incorrect. A small request was not made before a bigger one. C) door-in-the-face Correct. A big request was made before a smaller one. D) door-in-the-foot Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds % correct 70 a = 0 b = 27 c = 70 d = 3 r = .41 120. The __________ technique involves having someone agree to a request and then revealing that there are additional hidden obligations. A) foot-in-the-door B) door-in-the-face C) low-ball D) bait-and-switch Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds

121. Emilio saw a wonderful all-in-one kitchen appliance for sale on TV. The appliance would allow him to get rid of six small appliances and leave more room in his kitchen. Emilio called the number and agreed to purchase the product. He then found out that the price only covered the product base and he would have to purchase each appliance add-on individually. When he did this, the product cost significantly more than he originally thought. This is an example of the ___________ technique. A) foot-in-the-door Incorrect. A small request was not made before a bigger one. B) door-in-the-face C) low-ball Correct. The price was quoted lower than actual price and has add-on items. D) bait-and-switch Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 122. Audrey has been offered a free, four-day cruise for two just for filling out an online survey. As she and her husband board the cruise liner and leave the shore, all those on board are told that the cruise activities and meals are not included. Audrey was on the receiving end of the __________ technique. A) high-ball Incorrect. The price was not quoted higher than the actual price. B) door-in-the-face C) foot-in-the-door D) low-ball Correct. The price was quoted lower than actual price and has add-on items. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds

123. “If you sign up for our exclusive membership warehouse, we guarantee that you will save at least 30 to 40 percent on the majority of your future big-ticket purchases. The membership fee is $4999.99 for the first three years. You don’t have to sign up today if you don’t want to, but you won’t have another chance to do so in the future.” This sales pitch is using the “__________” persuasion technique. A) but you are free Correct. This is a persuasive technique in which we convince someone to perform a favor for us by telling them that they are free not to do it. B) foot-in-the-door Incorrect. This is a persuasive technique in which we make a small request as a means of increasing the demand to a larger request. C) door-in-the-face D) low-ball Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 124. The following are all examples of pseudoscience tactics EXCEPT __________. A) creation of a “phantom” goal B) vivid testimonials C) manufacturing source credibility D) the surplus heuristic Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 125. The __________ heuristic can be summarized by the statement, “If most people believe that something works, then it must work.” A) consensus Correct. It is important to remember that many people can be wrong, all at the same time. B) ad hominem C) ex post facto D) scarcity Incorrect. This refers to the idea that something must be valuable if it is very rare. The truth is that sometimes something may be very rare simply because nobody wants it. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO1.1 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds

126. Many television shopping networks put a countdown timer on the screen while trying to solicit the purchase of specific items. This gives the impression that there are only a few of that particular item available, and creates pressure to make a purchase very quickly. Thinking that one must buy “before time runs out” is known as the __________ heuristic. A) consensus Incorrect. This refers to the idea that, if most people think that something works, then it must work. It is important to remember that many people can be incorrect all at once. B) scarcity Correct. This refers to the idea that something must be valuable if it is very rare, which is why they give the impression that there is limited time to make a purchase. C) availability D) representativeness Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 127. Research demonstrates that to persuade a person that their beliefs are false, an effective technique would be to provide them with an alternate explanation for those beliefs. This is most similar to which of the six principles of critical thinking highlighted in your textbook? A) replicability B) extraordinary claims Incorrect. While there may be some extraordinary beliefs that people hold, this principle is not related to this specific question. C) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. The idea that we can provide alternate, or competing, explanations for a given belief is similar to the idea of ruling out rival hypotheses. D) Occam’s Razor Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 128. Drawing negative conclusions about a person, group of people, or situation prior to evaluating the evidence is known as __________. A) prejudice B) adaptive conservatism C) discrimination D) in-group bias Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination % correct 74 a = 74 b = 0 c = 16 d = 10 r = .63 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

129. Devin holds the viewpoint that a female physician will not be as effective as a male physician because females are too emotional in nature. Devin’s way of thinking about this situation can best be described as ___________. A) prejudiced Correct. Devin has drawn a negative conclusion about an entire gender. B) ethnoracial C) an example of poor cognition D) discriminatory Incorrect. Devin has drawn a negative conclusion about an entire gender—he has not decided against seeing the doctor. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination 130. A belief about the characteristics of members of a group that are applied generally to most members of the group is known as a(n) __________. A) cognitive miser B) prejudice C) stereotype D) illusionary correlation Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination 131. Cynthia has recently begun a career with a Jewish-based agency. Up until this point in her life, she had not had any interaction with anyone who was Jewish. Based on the individuals she works with, she has found them to be a very close-knit group who cares for their own in the community who may need assistance. Additionally, she has found them to be very educated and assertive. Cynthia now holds the view that all Jewish people are the same: educated, close knit within their own group, assertive, and caring toward other Jewish people who need help. Cynthia’s view represents __________. A) the in-group perspective B) social facilitation C) a stereotype Correct. Cynthia has stereotyped beliefs. Remember that not all stereotypes involve negative assumptions. D) discrimination Incorrect. Her attitudes are at play here, she has not engaged in discriminatory actions. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination

132. __________ is the assumption that behaviors among individual members of a group are due to internal dispositions of individuals within the group. A) The ultimate attribution error B) Implied association C) The scapegoat hypothesis D) The just-world hypothesis Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination % correct 55 a = 55 b = 33 c = 12 d = 0 r = .55 133. __________ creates a predisposition toward distrusting anything or anyone unfamiliar or different. A) Prejudice B) Adaptive conservatism C) In-group bias D) Discrimination Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination 134. Sumatra, who is a high school senior, a cheerleader, and the class vice president, would be more likely to be positively predisposed to which of the following students? A) Andy, a sophomore computer geek B) Marika, a cellist in the school orchestra and a freshman C) Jamal, a senior captain of the football team and class treasurer Correct. This is an example of in-group bias. D) Sandy, a freshman cheerleader who wants to be an auto mechanic Incorrect. Jamal best fits within Sumatra’s in-group. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination

135. Jordan and Doris are teenagers who live near six other teens. All eight of the teens tried out for the high school play, and all but Jordan and Doris were rewarded with a part in that play. Though Jordan and Doris were disappointed about not getting a part, they were more upset by the behaviors of the other six teens. It seemed that all of the students in the play formed a strong bond and sense of togetherness. They did not want anything to do with other students who were not in the play. Because of that, Jordan and Doris rarely see the other six teens from the neighborhood anymore. According to research in social psychology, which of the following is TRUE? A) Doris is part of the out-group; Jordan is part of the in-group. B) Jordan and Doris are part of the out-group. Correct. This is an example of in-group behavior. C) Jordan is part of the out-group; Doris is part of the in-group. D) Doris and Jordan are part of the in-group. Incorrect. Doris and Jordan are in the out-group. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination 136. The out-group __________ bias refers to the tendency to view all individuals outside of one’s group as being highly similar. A) monitoring B) stereotyping C) discriminatory D) homogeneity Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination 137. Which of the following phrases best summarizes the concept of out-group homogeneity? A) “Those people are all alike.” Correct. This effect refers to the tendency to view all individuals outside of one’s in-group as being very similar. B) “We should probably all agree.” C) “I want to be like everyone else.” Incorrect. This statement is most similar to the concept of conformity. D) “I’ll do what my boss tells me to do so that I don’t get fired.” Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination

138. __________ is the act of treating members from out-groups differently from members of one’s own group. A) Prejudice B) Adaptive conservatism C) In-group bias D) Discrimination Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination % correct 74 a = 21 b = 0 c = 5 d = 74 r = .58 139. The typically negative behaviors an individual displays toward others based on membership in a particular group is referred to as __________; the typically negative attitudes an individual has toward others based on membership in a particular group is referred to as __________. A) discrimination; aggression B) stereotypes; discrimination C) prejudice; discrimination D) discrimination; prejudice Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination % correct 95 a = 0 b = 0 c = 0 d = 95 r = .15 140. Aleta is looking at a stack of applications for the open position she has at her bakery. She called all of the applicants acting as if she were asking an important question about their application. Really, however, she wanted to know who had an accent so she could put those applications in the “no” pile. Aleta just engaged in __________. A) prejudice Incorrect. While her attitudes are at play here, it is her behavior that is discriminatory. B) the bystander effect C) discrimination Correct. Aleta refuses to hire anyone with an accent, which is a discriminatory behavior, not just an attitude. D) social inhibition Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination

141. __________ occurs when an individual aims his/her aggression toward an innocent target. A) Obedience B) Conformity C) Prejudice D) Scapegoating Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination 142. Roger felt the need to blame other groups for his misfortunes, despite the fact that he could have taken the reins of his own life any time, rather than wallowing in the __________. A) scapegoat hypothesis Correct. Roger is blaming other groups for his misfortunes. B) just-world hypothesis Incorrect. Roger does not believe the world is fair. C) just-me hypothesis D) external hypothesis Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination 143. Prejudice arises from a need to blame other groups for our present misfortunes, according to the _________ hypothesis. A) just-world B) bandwagon C) maladaptive gullibility D) scapegoat Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination

144. The __________ hypothesis is the claim that our attributions and behaviors are shaped by a belief that the world is fair and people always get what they deserve. A) just-world Correct. This is the belief that the world is fair. B) scapegoat Incorrect. This is the need to blame other groups for our misfortunes. C) bandwagon D) maladaptive gullibility Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination 145. Sonya, who believes that people get what they deserve, thinks that Sander is responsible for his getting AIDS because of his lifestyle of abusing intravenous drugs. This phenomenon is known as __________. A) the scapegoat hypothesis Incorrect. This is the need to blame other groups for our misfortunes. B) the ultimate attribution error C) implicit association D) the just-world hypothesis Correct. This is the belief that the world is fair and that everything happens for a reason. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination % correct 90 a = 0 b = 7 c = 1 d = 90 r = .19 146. People with high levels of __________ religiosity, who view religion as a means to an end, tend to have high levels of prejudice. A) authoritative B) extrinsic C) intrinsic D) optimistic Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination

147. People with high levels of intrinsic religiosity, for whom religion is a deeply ingrained part of their belief system, tend to have __________ levels of prejudice than nonreligious people. A) equal or lower B) higher C) average D) equal or higher Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination 148. The following types of people may exhibit high levels of prejudice against a wide variety of outgroups EXCEPT people with __________. A) authoritarian personality traits B) high levels of extrinsic religiosity Incorrect. They tend to have higher levels of prejudice. C) high levels of intrinsic religiosity Correct. They tend to have lower levels of prejudice. D) a high need for conformity Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination 149. Unfounded negative beliefs of which we are aware regarding the characteristics of an out-group are known as __________ prejudice. A) implicit B) implied C) expanded D) explicit Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination

150. Neil has had a difficulty getting along with Latino individuals for his entire life. He always seems to have conflict with Latino coworkers and does not have a good relationship with one of his neighbors of Latino descent. He does not believe that he has any specific problem with this group of people, but it is possible that he holds some level of __________ prejudice. A) explicit Incorrect. Explicit prejudice is an unfounded negative belief of which we are aware regarding the characteristics of an out-group. B) implicit Correct. Implicit prejudice is an unfounded negative belief of which we are not aware regarding the characteristics of an out-group. C) direct D) experiential Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination 151. Some researchers examining the validity of the Implicit Associations Test (IAT) have suggested that an absence of correlation between the IAT and measures of explicit prejudice actually supports the IAT’s validity. This is because the IAT is believed to measure unconscious, or implicit, prejudice. The result is that the validity of the IAT can be supported whether correlations with other measure of prejudice are low or high. This is a problem for which of the six principles of critical thinking? A) correlation vs. causation B) replicability Incorrect. The same findings may or may not be achieved with repeated research. This is not addressed by this particular question. C) falsifiability Correct. Because the measure is deemed valid no matter what the research findings are, there is no real way to disprove its usefulness. D) extraordinary claims Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination 152. Sherif’s “Robbers Cave” experiment demonstrated that prejudice can be reduced by __________. A) engaging all members in competitive play B) engaging each team against each other in a tournament C) getting boys within each group to form strong bonds within the group D) engaging the groups in activities that require them to cooperate to achieve a goal Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination

153. The Robbers Cave study and the jigsaw classroom underscore a lesson confirmed by many other social psychology studies; that is, __________. A) increased contact between racial groups is sufficient to reduce prejudice Incorrect. Increased contact between racial groups is rarely sufficient to reduce prejudice. B) increased contact between racial groups is rarely sufficient to reduce prejudice Correct. This is the correct answer. C) cooperative contact between groups is sufficient to reduce prejudice D) increased enjoyable contact between racial groups is sufficient to reduce prejudice Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination 154. Which of the following is true of the classic Robber’s Cave study by Sherif and Sherif (1967)? A) It demonstrated that when the in-group and out-group mentality develops, prejudice and hostility are likely to follow. B) It showed just how obedient males and females can be when faced with an authority figure. C) By providing unlimited resources, groups did not need to work together; the hostility ended and friendships eventually formed. D) It demonstrated that when the in-group and out-group mentality develops, prejudice and hostility are likely to follow, and by limiting resources, thereby forcing the groups to work together, the hostility ended and friendships eventually formed. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination Fill-in-the-Blank 1. __________ is the study of how people influence others’ behavior, beliefs, and attitudes. Answer: Social psychology Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 2. The __________ theory suggests that we humans have a biologically based need for interpersonal connections. Answer: need-to-belong Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology?

3. According to __________ theory, we evaluate our beliefs, abilities, and reactions by comparing them to those of others. Answer: social comparison Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 4. People over the years have claimed to see flying saucers, particularly when others in their community have made similar claims. This is an example of __________. Answer: mass hysteria Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 5. When Clorinda was young, she heard the story that Walt Disney had been frozen and that when scientists find a cure for the disease he died from, they will bring him back to life. This is an example of a(n) __________. Answer: urban legend Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 6. The mere presence of others can enhance our performance in a phenomenon known as __________. Answer: social facilitation Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? 7. The __________ refers to the tendency to overestimate the impact of dispositional influences on others’ behavior. Answer: fundamental attribution error Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Topic: What Is Social Psychology? % correct 90 a = 5 b = 90 c = 5 d = 0 r = .78

8. __________ is the tendency of people to change their behavior as a consequence of group behavior. Answer: Conformity Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Social Obedience 9. __________ is the tendency to engage in uncharacteristic behavior when people are stripped of their usual identities. Answer: Deindividuation Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Social Obedience 10. __________ is an emphasis on group unanimity at the expense of critical thinking. Answer: Groupthink Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Social Obedience 11. Despite warnings from NASA engineers that the shuttle might explode because rubber rings on the rocket booster could fail in freezing temperatures, the project managers of the Challenger agreed to launch it after a series of bitterly cold days in January. This is an example of intelligent people making a catastrophic decision due to the phenomenon of __________. Answer: groupthink Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Social Obedience 12. The __________ is an approach to convincing someone to change his or her mind about something by first introducing reasons why the perspective might be correct. Answer: inoculation effect Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Social Obedience

13. __________ is a phenomenon whereby the more people that are present at an emergency, the less each person feels responsible for the negative consequences of not helping. Answer: Diffusion of responsibility Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression 14. Nokia, Billy, Jamal, and Samara are assigned a group project. Jamal ends up doing almost the entire project because the others did not contribute much to the project. This phenomenon is known as __________. Answer: social loafing Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression 15. __________ is helping others for unselfish reasons. Answer: Altruism Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression 16. People from southern regions of the United States are more likely than people from other regions of the country to adhere to a(n) __________, a social norm of defending one’s reputation in the face of a perceived insult. Answer: culture of honor Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.3b Describe the social and individual difference variables that contribute to human aggression. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression 17. __________ is a trait that assesses the extent to which people’s behaviors reflect their true feelings and attitudes. Answer: Self-monitoring Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.3b Describe the social and individual difference variables that contribute to human aggression. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression

18. According to __________ theory, we alter our attitudes because we experience an unpleasant state of tension between two or more conflicting thoughts. Answer: cognitive dissonance Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.4a Describe how attitudes relate to behavior. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 19. __________ theory suggests that we acquire our attitudes by observing our behaviors. Answer: Self-perception Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 20. __________ theory suggests that we don’t really change our attitudes, but that we report that we have done so, so as to appear consistent. Answer: Impression management Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 21. A persuasive technique involving asking for a small request before asking for a bigger one is called the __________. Answer: foot-in-the-door technique Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 22. The __________ is a persuasive technique that involves making an unreasonably large request before making the small request you are hoping to have granted. Answer: door-in-the-face technique Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds

23. The __________ is a persuasive technique involving having someone agree to a request and then revealing that there are additional hidden obligations. Answer: low-ball technique Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds 24. __________ is an evolutionary principle that creates a predisposition toward distrusting anything or anyone unfamiliar or different. Answer: Adaptive conservatism Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Topic: Prejudice and Discrimination Essay 1. What is the fundamental attribution error? Discuss the cultural influences on the fundamental attribution error. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following points, along with supportive discussion, for full credit. Fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency to overestimate the impact of dispositional influences on others’ behavior. By dispositional influences, we mean enduring characteristics, such as personality traits, attitudes, and intelligence. Because of this error, we attribute too much of people’s behavior to who they are. Because of the fundamental attribution error, we also tend to underestimate the impact of situational influences on others’ behavior, so we also attribute too little of people’s behavior to what’s going on around them. We may assume incorrectly that a boss in a failing company who fired several of his loyal employees to save money must be callous, when in fact, he was under enormous pressure to rescue his company and spare the jobs of hundreds of other loyal employees. The fundamental attribution error is associated with cultural factors. Although almost everyone is prone to this error, Japanese and Chinese people seem to be less so. That may be because they’re more likely than those in Western cultures to perceive behaviors in context. As a result, they may be more prone to seeing others’ behavior as a complex stew of both dispositional and situational influences. For example, after reading newspaper descriptions of mass murderers, Chinese subjects are considerably less likely to invoke dispositional explanations for their behavior (“He must be an evil person”) and more likely to invoke situational explanations for their behavior (“He must have been under terrible stress in his life”). In contrast, American subjects tend to show the opposite pattern. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Topic: What Is Social Psychology?

2. Explain conformity and discuss the social factors that influence the level of conformity. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following points, along with supportive discussion, for full credit. Conformity is the tendency of people to change their behavior as a consequence of group behavior. Sometimes, when you belong to an organization or group like a club, school committee, fraternity, or sorority, you may just go along with one of the group’s ideas even though you know that it is bad, perhaps even unethical. Almost everyone conforms to social pressure from time to time. There are several social factors that influence the level of conformity. The first is unanimity. If all confederates give the wrong answer, the subject is more likely to conform. However, if one confederate gives the correct response, the level of conformity drops by three-fourths. Another factor is difference in the wrong answer. Knowing that someone else in the group differs from the majority, even if that person holds a different view from us, can make us less likely to conform. A third factor is size. The size of the majority makes a difference, but only up to about five or six subjects. People are no more likely to conform in a group of fifteen subjects than in a group of five subjects. Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience

3. Discuss groupthink. Give several examples and explain the treatments for groupthink. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following points, along with supportive discussion, for full credit. Groupthink is an emphasis on group unanimity at the expense of critical thinking and sound decision making. Groups sometimes become so intent on ensuring that everyone agrees with everyone else that they lose their capacity to evaluate issues objectively. Some of the more memorable examples of groupthink were the Bay of Pigs invasion and the Challenger shuttle disaster. Following lengthy discussions with cabinet members, President John F. Kennedy recruited 1,400 Cuban immigrants to invade Cuba and overthrow its dictator, Fidel Castro. But Castro found out about the invasion in advance. As a result, the invaders were massively outnumbered and outgunned, and they lacked adequate air backup from American forces. Almost immediately after landing at the Bay of Pigs, nearly all the invaders were captured, and some were killed. It was an enormous humiliation for the United States. The members of Kennedy’s cabinet were an uncommonly brilliant group of politicians and diplomats. Yet, their actions were astonishingly foolish. They became convinced that their plan was a good one because they all agreed to it and they failed to ask themselves the tough questions that could have averted the disaster. In 1986, the space shuttle Challenger exploded, killing the seven astronauts aboard a mere 73 seconds after takeoff. Project managers of the Challenger agreed to launch it after a series of bitterly cold days in January, despite warnings from NASA engineers that the shuttle might explode because rubber rings on the rocket booster could fail in freezing temperatures. As a psychological condition, groupthink is often treated within an organization. It is recommended that all groups appoint a “devil’s advocate,” a person whose role is to voice doubts about the wisdom of the group’s decisions. Another suggestion is having independent experts on hand to evaluate whether the group’s decisions make sense. Finally, it can be useful to hold a follow-up meeting to evaluate whether the decision reached in the first meeting still seems reasonable. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making, and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience

4. Discuss bystander nonintervention and what factors influence intervention. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following points, along with supportive discussion, for full credit. Bystander nonintervention occurs when bystanders do not intervene in an emergency situation. It has been suggested that the presence of others makes people less, not more, likely to help in emergencies. Researchers maintain that two major factors explain bystander nonintervention. The first is pluralistic ignorance: the error of assuming that no one in the group perceives things as you do. To intervene in an emergency, we first need to recognize that the situation is, in fact, an emergency. So pluralistic ignorance is relevant when we’re trying to figure out whether an ambiguous situation is really an emergency. A second step is required for us to intervene in an emergency. We need to feel a burden of responsibility for the consequences of not intervening. Here’s the rub: the more people present at an emergency, the less each person feels responsible for the negative consequences of not helping. Researchers have called this phenomenon diffusion of responsibility: the presence of others makes each person feel less responsible for the outcome. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression

5. Discuss attitude change and the types of persuasive techniques that can be used on people. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following points, along with supportive discussion, for full credit. What makes us change our attitudes? According to cognitive dissonance theory, we alter our attitudes because we experience an unpleasant state of tension—cognitive dissonance— between two or more conflicting thoughts (cognitions). Because we dislike this state of tension, we’re motivated to reduce or eliminate it. If we hold an attitude or belief (cognition A) that’s inconsistent with another attitude or belief (cognition B), we can reduce the anxiety resulting from this inconsistency in three major ways: change cognition A, change cognition B, or introduce a new cognition, C, that resolves the inconsistency between A and B. Some scholars contend that it’s not dissonance itself that’s responsible for shifting our attitudes, but rather threats to our self-concept. There are at least two other alternative explanations for cognitive dissonance effects. The first, self-perception theory, proposes that we acquire our attitudes by observing our behaviors. The second, impression management theory, proposes that we don’t really change our attitudes in cognitive dissonance studies; we only tell the experimenters we have. We do so because we don’t want to appear inconsistent. Drawing on the research literature concerning attitudes and attitude change, psychologists have identified a host of effective techniques for persuading others. The foot-in-the-door technique suggests that we start with a small request before asking for a bigger one. Alternatively, we can start with a large request, like asking for a $100 donation to our charity, before asking for a small one, such as a $10 donation. This is the door-in-the-face technique. With the low-ball technique, the seller of a product starts by quoting a price well below the actual sales price. Once the buyer agrees to purchase the product, the seller mentions all of the desirable or necessary “add-ons” that come along with the product. By the time we’re done, we may end up paying twice as much as we initially agreed to pay. The “But you are free” technique suggests that people are more likely to do a favor for a person if they are informed that they are free not to. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.4a Describe how attitudes relate to behavior.; 13.4b Evaluate theoretical accounts of how and when we alter our attitudes.; 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Topic: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds

Critical Thinking 1. Can the Milgram obedience study and the Zimbardo prison study be considered ethical? Could they be conducted today? Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following points, along with supportive discussion, for full credit. Both the Milgram obedience study and the Zimbardo prison study were unethical by today’s APA standards. Both studies did not protect the subjects from physical or psychological harm. In both studies, psychological harm could have easily occurred. Subjects needed to be debriefed after the studies and told the nature of the study. Every attempt should have been made to reduce any harmful psychological effects from participating in the study. Also, subjects were forced to continue in the study whether they wished to or not. When subjects tried to stop, they were strongly told to continue. Today’s ethics allow for subjects to stop at any time. They do not have to complete the study. This was not allowed in either of the studies. The studies could be conducted today if safeguards were in place. Subjects should be allowed to stop at any time during the study. At the end of their participation, subjects should be thoroughly debriefed to minimize any psychological harm. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others.; 13.2c Identify the factors that maximize or minimize obedience to authority. Topic: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience 2. What factors may contribute to a person’s likelihood of engaging in aggressive behaviors? List at least 3 and explain why they are related to aggressive behaviors. Answer: Answers will vary but must include at least 3 of the following, with adequate explanation of each point as discussed in the textbook for full credit. Interpersonal provocation Frustration Media influences Aggressive cues Arousal Alcohol and other drugs Temperature Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 13.3b Describe the social and individual difference variables that contribute to human aggression. Topic: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression

CHAPTER 13: SOCIAL PSYCHOLOGY ______________________________________________________________________________ Social Behavior 1. Car salesmen often encourage a test drive. Perhaps they know about ___________. a. the door-in-the-face approach b. Leon Festinger c. the foot-in-the-door approach d. making large requests first Answer c % correct 72 a= 28 b= 0 c= 72 d= 0 r = .69 2. Guilt may play an important role in getting people to make a commitment using the __________ approach. a. door-in-the-face b. foot-in-the-door c. sleeper effect d. supersales Answer a % correct 77 a= 77 b= 23 c= 0 d= 0 r = .22 3. A new self-image makes it more difficult to refuse later requests with the ___________ technique. a. door-in-the-face b. effort justification c. foot-in-the-door d. face-in-the-door Answer c % correct 48 a= 52 b= 0 c= 48 d= 0 r = .32 4. The ___________ technique may work because, compared to the large first request, the second request seems reasonable. a. foot-in-the-door b. face-in-the-door c. door-in-the-face d. guilt by association Answer c % correct 81 a= 19 b= 0 c= 81 d= 0 r = .60 5. Giving in to indirect pressure to change your behavior and thoughts is called: a. conformity. b. compliance. c. obedience. d. persuasion. Answer a % correct 78 a= 78 b= 15 c= 2 d= 5 r = .20 6. To conform is to yield to __________. a. social norms b. cognitive dissonance c. secondary processes d. response cues Answer a % correct 93 a= 93 b= 4 c= 1 d= 1

r = .32

7. A dealer persuades a customer to buy a new car by reducing the price to well below that of his competitors. Once the customer has agreed to buy the car, the terms of the sale are shifted, by lowering the value of the trade-in and requiring the purchase of expensive extra equipment. Now the car costs well above the current market rate. This is an example of the __________ procedure. a. primacy b. lowball c. foot-in-the-door d. bait-and-switch Answer b % correct 88 a= 1 b=88 c= 11 d= 0 r = .35 8. Society's main standard for judging abnormal behavior is __________. a. the person's experience of inner distress b. whether behavior conforms to the existing social order c. an individual's personal sense of well-being d. the person's success in meeting societal expectations for performance in work, school, and in social relationships Answer b % correct 43 a= 2 b= 43 c= 6 d= 47 r = .07 9. Informational influence is motivated by the desire to be ________. a. fun b. correct c. approved by the social group d. in touch with your social environment Answer b % correct 49 a= 0 b= 49 c= 44 d= 7 r = .36 10. Asch (1951) used __________ to study informational conformity. a. the "autokinetic effect" b. the latency of response c. social loafing in a tug of war group d. line lengths Answer d % correct 65 a= 16 b= 11 c= 8 d= 65 r = .51 11. John is a member of a local rock band and the Army Reserves. To be accepted in the band and by fans, John must wear long hair. However, the Reserves require John to keep his hair short. This is called a __________. a. avoidance-avoidance conflict b. social dilemma c. role conflict d. reactance Answer c % correct 63 a= 0 b= 32 c= 63 d= 4 r = .33 12. Behavior that occurs when we change our actions or attitudes because of real or imagined group pressures is called _____________. a. cooperation b. coercion c. obedience d. conformity Answer d % correct 98 a= 1 b= 1 c= 1 d= 98 r = .33 13. Rules that govern behavior and apply to all members of a group are called __________. a. roles b. patterns c. laws d. norms Answer d % correct 94 a= 2 b= 2 c= 2 d= 94 r = .51 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

14. Milgram's study on obedience has been criticized on the basis of _____________. a. methodological weaknesses b. inability to replicate it c. lack of real-life application d. ethics Answer d % correct 87 a= 3 b= 1 c= 9 d= 87 r = .36 15. In the famous Milgram experiment on obedience, who received a shock? a. the "learner" b. no one c. the confederate d. the subject Answer b % correct 66 a= 21 b= 66 c= 5 d= 8 r = .37 16. Roles are similar to, but different from, norms because they also specify _____________. a. what must be done b. how it should be done c. who must do it d. when it must be done Answer c % correct 87 a= 8 b= 5 c= 87 d= 1 r = .24 17. Early studies indicated that women conformed more than men. Later research has shown that women's conforming behavior is motivated by their desire to ________. a. be popular b. avoid rejection c. become the group leader d. keep group conflict at a minimum Answer d % correct 62 a= 3 b= 32 c= 4 d= 62 r = .24 18. Following orders is referred to as _______ by social psychologists. a. compliance b. conformity c. influence d. obedience Answer d % correct 57 a= 27 b= 16 c= 0 d= 57 r = .21 19. Which of the following is an example of obedience, as defined by social psychologists? a. A soldier shoots enemy women and children on orders from his commanding officer. b. People clean their own table in a restaurant that has a sign reading, "Help keep costs down and clean off your table." c. Passengers move to the back of the bus as soon as the driver tells them to. d. Stan has thrown away all of his old ties and bought new ones to "be in style." Answer a % correct 46 a= 46 b= 14 c= 13 d= 27 r = .24 20. Changing one's behavior in response to real or perceived social pressures is referred to as _______ by social psychologists. a. compliance b. conformity c. influence d. obedience Answer b % correct 71 a= 15 b= 71 c= 7 d= 7 r = .32

21. Which of the following is an example of conformity? a. A soldier shoots enemy women and children on orders from his commanding officer. b. A policeman beats a prisoner to force a confession on orders of his commanding officer. c. Passengers move to the back of the bus as soon as the driver tells them to. d. Stan has thrown away all of his old ties and bought new ones to "be in style." Answer d % correct 88 a= 3 b= 1 c= 7 d= 88 r = .34 22. What did Milgram study? a. the authoritarian personality b. bystander apathy c. the effects of watching violence on television d. obedience to authority Answer d % correct 95 a= 4 b= 1 c= 0 d= 95

r = .26

23. What percent of subjects in Milgram's experiment on obedience actually completed the shock series? a. less than 1% b. between 5% and 10% c. about 65% d. about 90% Answer c % correct 72 a= 1 b= 6 c= 72 d= 20 r = .44 24. Even though he thought the Army Reserve's short hair regulation was silly, Ted really wanted the extra money Reserve duty provided to him, so he kept his hair short. This is an example of: a. conformity. b. reactance. c. private acceptance. d. a role. Answer a % correct 47 a= 47 b= 13 c= 24 d= 16 r = .52 25. According to several research studies, conformity will be greatest among people who: a. do not expect future interaction with group members. b. are not strongly attracted to the group. c. feel accepted by the group. d. are not completely confident about their ability. Answer d % correct 68 a= 1 b= 3 c= 28 d= 68 r = .23 26. Group conformity is greatest when: a. the task is difficult or ambiguous. b. the group is all female. c. males outnumber females. d. the pressure source is categorized into a unit. Answer a % correct 58 a= 58 b= 2 c= 3 d= 37

r = .34

27. Following the direct orders of someone in a position of higher authority is called: a. compliance. b. conformity. c. obedience. d. consent. Answer c % correct 74 a= 18 b= 8 c= 74 d= 1 r = .20

28. _______ found that normal people in normal times will often follow orders to hurt innocent people. a. Solomon Asch b. Kurt Lewin c. Carolyn Sherif d. Stanley Milgram Answer d % correct 73 a= 17 b= 2 c= 8 d= 73 r = .43 29. In the Milgram experiment on obedience, the _______ was a confederate of the experimenter. a. subject b. female subject c. learner d. normal person Answer c % correct 62 a= 34 b= 1 c= 62 d= 3 r = .39 30. In the Milgram experiment on obedience, the dependent variable was the: a. learner's incorrect responses. b. intensity of shock delivered. c. learner's screams of pain. d. number of mistakes made by the learner. Answer b % correct 54 a= 21 b= 54 c= 18 d= 7 r = .36 31. Asch had subjects judge the length of straight lines after they heard "fake" subjects consistently give the same incorrect length judgment. Under this kind of social influence, the real subjects conformed to a distorted view of reality on about ________ of the judgment trials. a. 90% b. 1/3 c. 50% d. 2/3 Answer b % correct 38 a= 22 b= 38 c= 3 d= 38 r = .27 32. Norms usually do NOT: a. apply only to certain group members. b. apply to all group members. c. exist in unwritten form. d. exist in written form. Answer a % correct 22 a= 22 b= 18 c= 12 d= 48

r = .24

33. Even though she thought it was silly, Emily wore pink and green ribbons in her hair as her friends did. This is an example of: a. a group role. b. a group norm. c. conformity. d. obedience. Answer c % correct 94 a= 1 b= 4 c= 94 d= 1 r = .22 34. Normative social pressure is based on: a. a group's power because of informational value. b. a group's power because of goal achievement. c. a group's power because of wanting to be accepted. d. a group's power because of social stability. Answer c % correct 75 a= 8 b= 5 c= 75 d= 12

r = .26

35. Which of the following is a factor influencing conformity? a. the individual b. the group c. the task d. all of the above Answer d % correct 80 a= 1 b= 18 c= 1 d= 80 r = .22 36. In Asch's research study on conformity, he found that students conformed to group behavior: a. only on difficult tasks. b. at least one-third of the time. c. only if they knew the individuals in the group. d. over half of the time. Answer b % correct 49 a= 4 b= 49 c= 1 d= 46 r = .46 37. The technique used for studying conformity was developed by: a. Festinger. b. Asch. c. Lewin. d. Thorndike. Answer b % correct 71 a= 13 b= 71 c= 4 d= 11 r = .23 38. Conformity is greatest when: a. one or two go against the group. b. the task is difficult. c. the task is easy. d. there are more than eight people in a group. Answer b % correct 20 a= 7 b= 20 c= 34 d= 38

r = .37

39. Following direct and explicit orders of a person in authority is called: a. group think. b. obedience. c. prejudice. d. deindividualization. Answer b % correct 97 a= 1 b= 97 c= 0 d= 2 r = .26 40. Milgram is known for his research in: a. prejudice. b. group think. c. obedience. d. deindividualization. Answer c % correct 95 a= 0 b= 1 c= 95 d= 4

r = .26

41. When Milgram tested the assumption that the subjects blindly obeyed instructions because they were in a "safe" university setting, he found that: a. the setting had no effect on the subjects' behavior. b. the setting had little effect on the subjects' behavior. c. subjects applied greater levels of shock in a non-university setting. d. subjects applied much lower levels of shock in a non-university setting. Answer b % correct 28 a= 14 b= 28 c= 23 d= 34 r = .27

42. The Milgram obedience study has been criticized on the basis of: a. validity. b. ethics. c. reliability. d. applicability. Answer b % correct 67 a= 7 b= 67 c= 13 d= 12 r = .32 43. Which of the following is NOT a positive outcome of the Milgram obedience study? a. The subjects learned that they would obey an order to hurt another. b. The subjects were glad they had been in the study. c. The results further our knowledge about human behavior. d. The results further our knowledge about the power of orders. Answer a % correct 62 a= 62 b= 28 c= 6 d= 4 r = .32 44. Experiments showing the effects of group pressure on conformity were conducted by _______. a. Asch b. Luchens c. Milgram d. Singer Answer a % correct 71 a= 71 b= 7 c= 9 d= 13 r = .32 45. Asch's studies showed that conformity to group pressure occurred about _______ of the time. a. 5% b. 35% c. 65% d. 95% Answer b % correct 8 a= 1 b= 8 c= 46 d= 45 r = .32 46. Asch found that the likelihood of conformity increased with group size until _______ confederates were present. a. three b. four c. five d. six Answer b % correct 36 a= 24 b= 36 c= 12 d= 29 r = .28 47. Conformity tends to be higher when a task is _______. a. easy b. ambiguous c. clearly defined d. illegal Answer b % correct 57 a= 19 b= 57 c= 20 d= 4 r = .37 48. _______ is a response to pressure exerted by norms that are generally left unstated. a. Conformity b. Compliance c. Obedience d. Deindividualization Answer a % correct 38 a= 38 b= 50 c= 5 d= 7 r = .23

49. The person who conducted the most well-known research on obedience is _______. a. Asch b. Milgram c. Luchens d. Kelley Answer b % correct 87 a= 9 b= 87 c= 2 d= 2 r = .22 50. In Milgram's studies about _______ percent of his subjects administered the entire range of electric shocks. a. 25 b. 45 c. 65 d. 85 Answer c % correct 72 a= 8 b= 8 c= 72 d= 12 r = .42 51. Altruistic behavior is behavior that: a. is intended to be helpful to others. b. unintentionally harms others. c. intentionally harms others. d. has no known motivation behind it. Answer a % correct 56 a= 56 b= 6 c= 1 d= 36

r = .23

52. A major reason why people won't help when there are many bystanders is because: a. of diffusion of responsibility. b. people are egoistic. c. people like to see others hurt. d. people are not altruistic. Answer a % correct 91 a= 91 b= 2 c= 1 d= 6 r = .40 53. According to research, the larger the group, the: a. safer you are. b. more likely you are to receive help. c. more likely you are to give assistance. d. less likely you are to give or receive help. Answer d % correct 93 a= 2 b= 2 c= 4 d= 93

r = .41

54. Which of the following is NOT true? a. Bystanders often do not perceive a crisis as an emergency. b. Bystanders fail to help because of basic human callousness. c. The greater the number of bystanders, the less likely it is that anyone will come forward to help the victim of a crisis situation. d. all of the above. Answer b % correct 68 a= 4 b= 68 c= 7 d= 21 r = .41 55. The term ______ refers to the tendency to help others who are in need even when there is not likely to be a reward for helping. a. bystander mitigation b. altruism c. empathy d. sympathetic collusion Answer b % correct 74 a= 11 b= 74 c= 9 d= 6 r = .42

56. Which of the following is NOT a step in making a decision to help? a. supplying help b. moving away to observe c. noticing the distressed person d. interpreting the situation Answer b % correct 74 a= 22 b= 74 c= 4 d= 0 r = .27 57. If a person sees a victim in dire need, but doesn't know how to help, that person will most likely: a. stay with the victim. b. do nothing. c. go for help. d. attempt to offer first aid. Answer b % correct 66 a= 5 b= 66 c= 27 d= 3 r = .29 58. In which of the following situations is a person the LEAST likely to do nothing: a. The person sees a victim, but doesn't have training to do first aid. b. The person sees a victim and there are many others around. c. The person sees a victim collapse next to him or her. d. The person sees two children, who look similar, fighting. Answer c % correct 35 a= 2 b= 57 c= 35 d= 6 r = .46 59. Behavior directed at helping others with no thought or expectation of personal gain is called _______ behavior. a. primacy b. conformity c. altruistic d. manipulative Answer c % correct 90 a= 9 b= 0 c= 90 d= 1 r = .32 60. The most important situational variable in altruism is the _______. a. weather b. time of day c. presence of other people d. ambiguity of the situation Answer c % correct 66 a= 1 b= 0 c= 66 d= 33 r = .20

Group Behavior 61. A very cohesive group, insulated from outside opinion, with a respected leader must make a decision quickly. As they deliberate, this group should be especially aware of the phenomenon called: a. deindividuation. b. social facilitation. c. groupthink. d. group polarization. Answer c % correct 68 a= 5 b= 9 c= 68 d= 17 r = .37

62. What is the tendency to exert less effort when working on a group task if individuals' contributions will not be evaluated? a. social facilitation b. the goof-off phenomenon c. social idleness d. social loafing Answer d % correct 86 a= 9 b= 0 c= 5 d= 86 r = .37 63. Dan really doesn't feel like riding the stationary bicycle today, but he doesn't want the people around him to think he is a slacker. If he decides to continue exercising, what concept might explain his actions? a. social productivity b. social loafing c. social facilitation d. social idleness Answer c % correct 68 a= 24 b= 1 c= 68 d= 8 r = .40 64. Social influence in its most direct and powerful form is known as __________. a. deindividuation b. obedience c. compliance d. conformity Answer b % correct 44 a= 3 b= 44 c= 6 d= 0 r = .42 65. When a group exerts such strong pressure to conform that it prevents people from expressing critical ideas, the group is suffering from __________. a. groupthink b. polarization c. risky shift d. deindividuation Answer a % correct 73 a= 73 b= 9 c= 1 d= 17 r = .40 66. Any group of people who feel a sense of solidarity and exclusivity in relation to nonmembers is __________. a. an in-group b. a dominance hierarchy c. an out-group d. a support group Answer a % correct 77 a= 77 b= 4 c= 13 d= 6 r = .42 67. According to research: a. a person will get more help in a crowd. b. there is safety in numbers. c. the fewer people present, the greater chance of receiving help. d. people are not altruistic. Answer c % correct 95 a= 0 b= 5 c= 95 d= 0 r = .38 68. It is unusual to find a group ________________. a. where the same person is always the leader b. led by a woman c. that has a task specialist d. that has a socioemotional leader Answer a % correct 43 a= 43 b= 7 c= 11 d= 38

r = .46

69. According to the text, the Bay of Pigs invasion of Cuba was a result of ___________. a. a weak leader b. groupthink c. risky shift d. group polarization Answer b % correct 80 a= 2 b= 80 c= 1 d= 16 r = .41 70. When group members feel their efforts are going unrecognized, ____________ occurs. a. inconsistency b. coordination loss c. motivation loss d. groupthink Answer c % correct 83 a= 9 b= 2 c= 83 d= 6 r = .32 71. Research has shown that the person who ___________ often becomes the group's leader. a. remains standing when others are seated b. possesses certain traits that correlate with leadership c. is seated at the head of the table d. arrives at the meeting late Answer c % correct 36 a= 4 b= 59 c= 36 d= 1 r = .41 72. One effect of deindividuation that may contribute to mob violence is ___________. a. group depolarization b. abdicating personal responsibility c. unjustified negative attitudes toward certain individuals d. social loafing Answer b % correct 61 a= 15 b= 61 c= 18 d= 7 r = .45 73. Failure to critically evaluate ideas when concern is for reaching agreement is called _________. a. group polarization b. social comparison c. groupthink d. deindividuation Answer c % correct 77 a= 12 b= 8 c= 77 d= 4 r = .51 74. Which of the following theories of leadership has largely been abandoned? a. situational b. great person c. popular person d. interaction Answer b % correct 59 a= 11 b= 59 c= 20 d= 10 r = .35 75. Groups tend to move people to believe more strongly in the position that they first held. This is called ________. a. "risky shift" b. deindividuation c. group polarization effect d. groupthink Answer c % correct 80 a= 2 b= 3 c= 80 d= 15 r = .41

76. The major problem associated with groupthink is which of the following? a. There is no leadership during the decision making process. b. Group polarization occurs. c. Risky shift occurs. d. No critical evaluation occurs. Answer d % correct 64 a= 14 b= 17 c= 5 d= 64 r = .47 77. The excitement and arousal that occurs in the presence of others aids in can be best explained by_________. a. learning new behavior b. the performance of well-learned responses c. social loafing d. learning complex behaviors Answer b % correct 55 a= 24 b= 55 c= 12 d= 9 r = .38 78. Which of the following IS an example of a group norm? a. playing sports b. watching television c. working at a part-time job d. standing when the national anthem is played Answer d % correct 93 a= 2 b= 2 c= 1 d= 93 r = .33 79. The major problem with the groupthink theory is which of the following? a. There is no leadership during the decision-making process. b. Group polarization occurs. c. Risky shift occurs. d. No critical evaluation occurs. Answer d % correct 51 a= 14 b= 34 c= 1 d= 51 r = .49 80. Early studies showed that people and ants work _____ when in the presence of others than when alone. a. faster b. more for themselves c. slower d. more effortlessly Answer a % correct 79 a= 79 b= 2 c= 13 d= 6 r = .25 81. The arousal and excitement that occurs in the presence of others aids in: a. learning new behavior. b. the performance of well-learned responses. c. social loafing. d. learning complex behaviors. Answer b % correct 48 a= 32 b= 48 c= 13 d= 7 r = .27 82. _______ may result when a person performs in a group in which his or her contribution is not easily observable. a. Groupthink b. Social inhibition c. Deindividuation d. Social loafing Answer d % correct 67 a= 1 b= 9 c= 23 d= 67 r = .40

83. According to Irving Janis, the Bay of Pigs fiasco occurred because of: a. a weak leader. b. groupthink. c. the risky shift phenomenon. d. group polarization. Answer b % correct 64 a= 15 b= 64 c= 7 d= 15 r = .49 84. Which of the following conditions is NOT conducive to group think? a. critical evaluation of ideas b. a strong leader c. individuals who are proud to be members of the group d. a close-knit group Answer a % correct 48 a= 48 b= 28 c= 17 d= 7 r = .36 85. Which of the following conditions is conducive to creating a group think effect? a. the illusion of disagreement b. a weak leader c. failing to critically evaluate ideas d. members who do not like each other Answer c % correct 68 a= 12 b= 17 c= 68 d= 3 r = .50 86. Group think can be avoided by: a. having a strong leader. b. inviting outsiders to give their opinions. c. striving for a consensus among members. d. having bright, well-informed members. Answer b % correct 68 a= 17 b= 68 c= 9 d= 5

r = .45

87. When the presence of others enhances one's performance of a task, we call this effect the _______ phenomenon. a. social-facilitation b. law-of-numbers c. spectator d. self-presentation Answer a % correct 77 a= 77 b= 0 c= 6 d= 17 r = .24 88. The factor most likely to determine whether group think becomes a problem for a group is group _______. a. size b. status c. intellect d. cohesiveness Answer d % correct 68 a= 25 b= 6 c= 1 d= 68 r = .34

Social Thoughts 89. Learning how groups evaluate us influences our ____________. a. attitudes b. values c. prejudices d. self image Answer d % correct 78 a= 15 b= 5 c= 3 d= 78 r = .31 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

90. Beliefs, attitudes, and behaviors of other people are called ________________. a. group norms b. social reality c. group roles d. social comparison Answer b % correct 59 a= 25 b= 59 c= 2 d= 13 r = .54 91. The idea that we often learn about ourselves by comparing our performance with that of other people is reflective of: a. social comparison theory. b. LeBon's view on mob violence. c. cognitive dissonance. d. performance comparison theory. Answer a % correct 65 a= 65 b= 2 c= 3 d= 30 r = .23 92. Social comparison theory is associated with which reason for joining groups? a. self identification b. information and evaluation c. social support d. achieving a goal Answer b % correct 28 a= 43 b= 28 c= 25 d= 3 r = .38 93. Social comparison theory suggests that we often learn about ourselves by comparing: a. one individual's performance with that of another. b. our present performance with our past performance. c. our performance with that of other people. d. different groups to find the one we are most compatible with. Answer c % correct 85 a= 9 b= 4 c= 85 d= 2 r = .24 94. Social comparison theory suggests that we often learn about our behaviors: a. by comparing one individual's performance with that of another. b. by comparing our present performance with our past performance. c. by comparing our performance with that of other people. d. none of the above. Answer c % correct 86 a= 10 b= 2 c= 86 d= 2 r = .22 95. The ________ theory suggests that we often learn about ourselves by comparing our performance with that of other people. a. dissonance b. attribution c. social comparison d. conformity Answer c % correct 90 a= 3 b= 5 c= 90 d= 2 r = .29 96. In the realm of person perception, the phenomenon called ______ is most closely associated with "first impressions." a. construct accessibility b. the recency effect c. the primacy effect d. situationalism Answer c % correct 93 a= 0 b= 6 c= 93 d= 1 r = .25

97. The extent to which the first information we receive about someone influences our impression of that person more than later information is called _______. a. the phi phenomenon. b. the halo effect. c. attribution theory. d. the primacy effect. Answer d % correct 85 a= 0 b= 12 c= 3 d= 85 r = .20 98. According to the scapegoat theory, prejudice and discrimination are a result of __________. a. frustration b. religion c. imitation d. reinforcement Answer a % correct 64 a= 64 b= 5 c= 19 d= 13 r = .30 99. Which of the following statements about prejudice and discrimination is NOT true? a. Discrimination often leads to aggressive behavior. b. They are formed from facts and personal experience. c. They are practiced even if it hurts the person practicing them. d. The targets of prejudice often take on prejudicial attitudes. Answer b % correct 81 a= 7 b= 81 c= 10 d= 2 r = .23 100. Which of the following is a negative, often aggressive behavior aimed at the target of prejudice? a. stereotypes b. bias c. discrimination d. reactance Answer c % correct 89 a= 5 b= 4 c= 89 d= 2 r = .28 101. According to research, prejudice is reduced when people must: a. come into contact with one another. b. change their attitudes and behaviors. c. cooperate with one another to achieve a goal. d. live together. Answer c % correct 88 a= 7 b= 4 c= 88 d= 2 r = .33 102. Prejudice differs from discrimination in that it is: a. unjustified. b. a behavior. c. an attitude. d. negative. Answer c % correct 86 a= 4 b= 8 c= 86 d= 2 103. Discrimination differs from prejudice in that it is: a. unjustified. b. a behavior. c. an attitude. d. negative. Answer b % correct 68 a= 8 b= 68 c= 14 d= 8

r = .22

r = .31

104. What is the tendency to make internal attributions when we succeed and external attributions when we fail? a. self-attribution error b. fundamental attribution error c. self-serving bias d. actor-observer bias Answer c % correct 72 a= 19 b= 6 c= 72 d= 4 r = .32 105. The theory that addresses the question of how people make judgments about the causes of behavior is __________ theory. a. exchange b. social learning c. attribution d. social influence Answer c % correct 44 a= 1 b= 31 c= 44 d= 23 r = .22 106. Inferring characteristics of people based on their observable behavior is called ___________. a. social psychology b. attribution c. attitudes d. personality psychology Answer b % correct 80 a= 10 b= 80 c= 0 d= 10 r = .71 107. Assigning a trait to a person explains that person's behavior and _________________. a. helps explain our own behavior b. lowers our feelings of guilt c. predicts future behavior d. lowers that person's anxiety Answer c % correct 76 a= 14 b= 5 c= 76 d= 5 r = .41 108. When others act, our attention is focused on __________. When we act, our attention is focused on ___________. a. the environment; ourselves b. them; the environment c. their facial expressions; our feelings d. their body language; our appearance Answer b % correct 76 a= 5 b= 76 c= 14 d= 5 r = .41 109. The tendency to overestimate the number of people who hold the same opinions as we do is called _____________. a. a schema b. the self consensus effect c. the self-fulfilling prophecy d. the false consensus effect Answer d % correct 76 a= 5 b= 14 c= 5 d= 76 r = .45 110. Research has indicated that when we set the stage for the self-fulfilling prophecy, we are _____________ that behavior. a. observing b. criticizing c. guiding d. evaluating Answer c % correct 81 a= 5 b= 5 c= 81 d= 10 r = .30 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

111. The tendency for people to exaggerate the importance of their contributions in shaping events is termed ___________. a. bias b. egocentricity c. prejudice d. self-esteem fallacy Answer b % correct 90 a= 0 b= 90 c= 0 d= 10 r = .52 112. The cognitive process of deciding who or what caused an event is: a. attribution. b. balance theory. c. cognitive dissonance. d. confirmation bias. Answer a % correct 80 a= 80 b= 4 c= 12 d= 2 r = .36 113. The fundamental attribution error refers to: a. people's tendencies to ignore situational causes of behavior and favor internal explanations. b. people's tendencies to ignore internal causes of behavior and favor external explanations. c. people's tendencies to deal with someone else's behavior without trying to figure out what made them behave that way. d. people's tendencies to go along with the majority opinion in deciding what caused an event rather than reasoning it out for themselves. Answer a % correct 47 a= 47 b= 30 c= 10 d= 13 r = .49 114. The tendency to base attributions solely on behavior without considering the situation is called: a. projection. b. behavioral relevance. c. fundamental attribution error. d. hedonic relevance. Answer c % correct 79 a= 6 b= 14 c= 79 d= 1 r = .29 115. In general, the first information we receive about a person has greater influence than later information. This is called: a. first impressions. b. recency effect. c. hedonic decision. d. the primacy effect. Answer d % correct 62 a= 38 b= 0 c= 0 d= 62 r = .49 116. An influential attribution theory was developed by ________. a. Snyder b. Luchins c. Kelley d. Milgram Answer c % correct 90 a= 2 b= 3 c= 90 d= 5 r = .26

117. The tendency to give too much emphasis to personal factors when accounting for other people's actions is called _______. a. the primacy effect b. defensive attribution c. fundamental attribution error d. the just world hypothesis Answer c % correct 85 a= 4 b= 11 c= 85 d= 0 r = .36 118. The fundamental attribution error is based on the: a. confirmatory bias. b. need to believe that one can control one's fate. c. basic distrust that we have of other humans. d. need to accurately detect causes of behavior. Answer d % correct 65 a= 9 b= 16 c= 9 d= 65

r = .21

119. Over-simplified generalizations about the characteristics of a group are called: a. prejudices. b. stereotypes. c. biases. d. discrimination. Answer b % correct 83 a= 9 b= 83 c= 6 d= 3 r = .29 120. _______ puts people into categories with each category having its own set of characteristics. a. Stereotyping b. Prejudice c. Discrimination d. Bias Answer a % correct 94 a= 94 b= 5 c= 0 d= 1 r = .31 121. Stereotypes can easily become the basis for ________. a. primary drives b. negating the primacy effect c. self-fulfilling prophecies d. the development of unifying traits Answer c % correct 78 a= 4 b= 4 c= 88 d= 4 r = .26 122. Which of the following phenomena usually involves an excessively negative, overgeneralized assumption about a socially defined category of people? a. self-fulfilling prophecy b. confirmation bias c. attitude d. stereotype Answer d % correct 87 a= 3 b= 4 c= 6 d= 87 r = .25 123. The notion that "mental patients are dangerous" is an example of a(n): a. self-fulfilling prophecy b. confirmation bias c. attitude d. stereotype Answer d % correct 91 a= 7 b= 0 c= 2 d= 91 r = .22

124. What is the process of explaining why certain events occurred or why a particular person acted in a certain manner? a. attribution b. causality analysis c. ascribing d. stereotyping Answer a % correct 70 a= 70 b= 15 c= 10 d= 3 r = .44 125. Each of the following is identified by the communication model of persuasion as a key element in changing people's behaviors EXCEPT __________. a. characteristics of the audience b. the medium of communication c. the context d. the source Answer c % correct 29 a= 34 b= 21 c= 29 d= 15 r = .28 126. A relatively stable organization of beliefs, feelings, and behavior tendencies toward something or someone else is a(n) __________. a. affect b. cognition c. archetype d. attitude Answer d % correct 88 a= 2 b= 4 c= 4 d= 88 r = .26 127. Learned, relatively enduring feelings about objects, events, or issues are called ___________. a. norms b. opinions c. attitudes d. emotions Answer c % correct 95 a= 5 b= 0 c =95 d= 0 r = .34 128. Bill thinks that drug use is bad, but he has friends who use illicit drugs and he sometimes gets high himself. Socializing with drug users and using drugs himself illustrate which component of attitude? a. evaluation b. action c. belief d. moral Answer b % correct 81 a= 5 b= 81 c= 5 d= 10 r = .21 129. The media is a powerful influence on our attitudes because it is frequently _____________. a. rejecting b. our only source of information about certain things c. with us from birth d. entertaining Answer b % correct 95 a= 0 b= 95 c= 5 d= 0 r = .25 130. Jim has written a book, but it looks like he will not get it published. He said, "I don't care about publishing it. It is the joy of writing it that counts." This illustrates ___________. a. value conflict b. effort rationalization c. effort justification d. freedom of choice Answer c % correct 57 a= 0 b= 43 c= 57 d= 0 r = .32 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

131. The foot-in-the-door approach encourages people to perform a larger or more costly act because: a. refusing a costly act makes them feel guilty. b. of a new self-image. c. they feel their effort is justified. d. they do not feel threatened. Answer b % correct 29 a= 14 b= 29 c= 48 d= 10 r = .20 132. A model used to understand how attitudes are changed is ___________. a. cognitive dissonance b. the ELM c. attribution rationalization d. information processing Answer b % correct 50 a= 40 b= 50 c= 10 d= 0 r = .67 133. According to the door-in-the-face technique, people will go along with a smaller request after they have refused a larger request because: a. they feel guilty. b. of the primacy effect. c. they feel threatened. d. they do not want to be cheated. Answer a % correct 90 a= 90 b= 10 c= 0 d= 0 r = .27 134. What theory was advanced by Festinger? a. balance b. cognitive heuristic c. cognitive dissonance d. confirmation bias Answer c % correct 73 a= 1 b= 8 c= 73 d= 18

r = .28

135. According to Festinger, the feeling of discomfort that results from the realization that our beliefs and our behaviors are discrepant is called: a. attribution. b. balance theory. c. cognitive dissonance. d. confirmation bias. Answer c % correct 83 a= 4 b= 4 c= 83 d= 9 r = .36 136. To relieve dissonance, people will try to change _______, so that attitudes, beliefs, and behavior will once again support one another. a. the subject b. their cognitions c. their values d. their actions Answer b % correct 38 a= 5 b= 38 c= 29 d= 29 r = .37 137. Even though Jane thought it was wrong to take from others, she didn't want to be rejected by her peers, so she began shoplifting along with them. Jane probably experienced _______ when she stole. a. the fundamental attribution error b. reactance c. central route change d. cognitive dissonance Answer d % correct 60 a= 10 b= 30 c= 0 d= 60 r = .46

138. Getting a person to make a small commitment in order to get that person to make a larger commitment later is known as: a. the door-in-the-face technique. b. the foot-in-the-door technique. c. the sleeper effect method. d. the supersales technique. Answer b % correct 81 a= 5 b= 81 c= 10 d= 5 r = .30 139. Which of the following is NOT one of the four categories of factors that can influence the effectiveness of attempts to change people's attitudes? a. the communicator b. the audience c. the motive d. the message itself Answer c % correct 58 a= 5 b= 19 c= 58 d= 18 r = .24 140. The theory of _______ attempts to explain what happens when people behave in ways that are contrary to their beliefs or attitudes. a. social comparison b. cognitive dissonance c. opponent processes d. social exchange Answer b % correct 79 a= 14 b= 79 c= 4 d= 3 r = .23 141. Research studying attitude change has focused on all of the following factors EXCEPT: a. the communicator. b. the message. c. the context. d. the audience. Answer c % correct 71 a= 10 b= 5 c= 71 d= 14 r = .23 142. Factors that determine the effect of a communicator include: a. credibility. b. similarity. c. trustworthiness. d. all of the above Answer d % correct 78 a= 18 b= 1 c= 3 d= 78 r = .20 143. Whenever a person has two contradictory cognitions at the same time, a state of _______ exists. a. cognitive congruence b. nonreciprocity c. cognitive dissonance d. identity diffusion Answer c % correct 77 a= 10 b= 2 c= 77 d= 10 r = .24

Social Relations 144. How are proximity to others and the establishment of friendships related? a. not related b. inversely correlated c. negatively related d. positively related Answer d % correct 82 a= 3 b= 15 c= 1 d= 82 r = .33 145. The fact that you are most likely to marry someone who lives near you illustrates the _______ effect. a. propinquity b. numerosity c. similarity d. reciprocity Answer a % correct 91 a= 91 b= 0 c= 8 d= 1 r = .27 146. The adage "Birds of a feather flock together" pertains most directly to the _______ factor in liking. a. propinquity b. numerosity c. similarity d. reciprocity Answer c % correct 95 a= 2 b= 1 c= 95 d= 1 r = .20 147. The most important factor in attraction is ________. a. proximity b. similarity c. attractiveness d. reciprocity Answer a % correct 37 a= 37 b= 43 c= 14 d= 6

r = .25

148. Studies on similarity and attractiveness have found that _______. a. the more similar two people are, the stronger the attraction between them, up to a point b. similarity appears to be unrelated to attraction c. complementarity is a more powerful influence on attraction than similarity d. the more similar two people are, the weaker the attraction between them, due to boredom Answer a % correct 85 a= 85 b= 5 c= 9 d= 1 r = .20

Quiz 13.1: What Is Social Psychology? Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: What Is Social Psychology?

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q13.1.1 The study of how people influence the behavior, attitudes, and beliefs of others is called __________. a) social psychology b) sociopathy c) cognitive psychology d) sociology ANS: a Topic=What Is Social Psychology? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: It is a discipline that studies normal people in normal settings. LO 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals.

EOM Q13.1.2 Which of the following is the theory that suggests people seek to evaluate their own beliefs and abilities by comparing them with those of others? a) social comparison theory b) social recognition theory c) human comparison theory d) equivalency hypothesis ANS: a Topic=What Is Social Psychology? Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Doing so helps us to understand ourselves and our social worlds better. LO 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q13.1.3 From an evolutionary perspective, irrational behaviors based in blind obedience and leading to dangerous results are by-products of basically __________ processes that have gone terribly wrong. a) adaptive b) coercive c) independent d) associative ANS: a Topic=What Is Social Psychology? Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: There is nothing wrong with looking to a persuasive leader for guidance, as long as we do not stop asking questions. LO 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals.

EOM Q13.1.4 Urban legends, mass hysteria, and UFO sightings are all examples of __________. a) social contagion b) social comparison c) social facilitation d) social inhibition ANS: a Topic=What Is Social Psychology? Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Think about the factors these examples share in common. LO 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals.

EOM Q13.1.5 Because of __________, we tend to assign causality too readily to a person's disposition, and underestimate the impact of situational influences on their behavior. a) the fundamental attribution error b) attributional hoaxes c) social facilitation d) social contagion ANS: a Topic=What Is Social Psychology? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This is a bias toward reaching a particular kind of conclusion about an individual. LO 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors.

Quiz 13.2: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q13.2.1 What did Solomon Asch discover in his famous experiment on judging the lengths of lines? a) Many people conformed to the opinions of a group, despite those opinions being obviously wrong. b) Most people dissented when the group’s opinions were at odds with their own. c) Only “weak-willed” individuals, defined as such by their friends, conformed to the group’s opinions. d) Many people asserted their informational authority and swayed the group to their own beliefs. ANS: a Topic=Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: What people think they will do and what they actually do in a given situation are not always the same. LO 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others.

EOM Q13.2.2 Barnabas is asked to play the role of a prison guard in a realistic simulation of an actual prison setting. Over time, what do you predict Barnabas's behavior will be like in this environment? a) He will adopt many of the mannerisms, attitudes, and behaviors of actual prison guards. b) He will stay true to his own beliefs and personal values. c) He will disobey the unreasonable requests of those in power over him. d) He will start to act more like a prisoner than like a guard. ANS: a Topic=Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Situational factors, coupled with encouragement from authority figures, can exert a powerful influence on our behavior. LO 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions.

EOM Q13.2.3 The tendency for group members to strive for consensus and agreement at the expense of realistically considering other viewpoints and relevant information is called __________. a) groupthink b) group mind c) social loafing d) group polarization ANS: a Topic=Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Many times groups would rather have the appearance of unanimity than weigh all available options in pursuit of a goal. LO 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions.

EOM Q13.2.4 Which term means “adherence to instructions from those of higher authority”? a) obedience b) conformity c) groupthink d) deindividuation ANS: a Topic=Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience Skill=Understand the Concepts, Objective=LO 13.2c Identify the factors that maximize or minimize obedience to authority. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Social psychologists often use terms in the same sense as ordinary people do. LO 13.2c Identify the factors that maximize or minimize obedience to authority.

EOM Q13.2.5 How many participants administered at least some electrical shock to the “learners” in Stanley Milgram’s original obedience experiment? a) 100% b) 60% c) 50% d) 32% ANS: a Topic=Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 13.2c Identify the factors that maximize or minimize obedience to authority. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This result was unpredicted by many beforehand. LO 13.2c Identify the factors that maximize or minimize obedience to authority.

Quiz 13.3: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q13.3.1 The more people who are around you in an emergency, the less likely it is that one of them will offer assistance. What produces this curious and disturbing finding? a) diffusion of responsibility b) groupthink c) obedience d) allocentrism ANS: a Topic=Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Although the presence of more people seems as though it ought to increase the chances of someone helping, the opposite takes place; recall why that is. LO 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention.

EOM Q13.3.2 Which term refers to the tendency of people to slack off when they are supposed to be working as part of a group? a) social loafing b) "lazy worker" syndrome c) group shirking d) social idling ANS: a Topic=Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: As a consequence of this, the whole is less than the sum of its parts. LO 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention.

EOM Q13.3.3 Help offered for unselfish reasons, without the expectation of reward, personal gain, or self-satisfaction, is called __________. a) altruism b) selflessness c) ontogeny d) proactive behavior ANS: a Topic=Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Evidence suggests that people can act in this fashion. LO 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention.

EOM Q13.3.4 The presence of __________, such as guns or knives, can make people more likely to act violently when provoked. a) aggressive cues b) media influences c) convenient weapons d) conventional weapons ANS: a Topic=Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 13.3b Describe the social and individual difference variables that contribute to human aggression. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: A gun can hurt more people than a badminton racket can. LO 13.3b Describe the social and individual difference variables that contribute to human aggression.

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EOM Q13.3.5 Males tend to exhibit more __________, whereas females tend to exhibit more __________. a) physical aggression; relational aggression b) social bonding behaviors; social distancing behaviors c) relational aggression; physical aggression d) altruism; prosocial behavior ANS: a Topic=Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 13.3b Describe the social and individual difference variables that contribute to human aggression. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: These findings show good replicability. LO 13.3b Describe the social and individual difference variables that contribute to human aggression.

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Quiz 13.4: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q13.4.1 People who tend to be social chameleons, matching their behavior and professed attitudes to those of other people around them, are likely to be __________. a) high self-monitors b) low self-monitors c) unwilling to self-monitor d) more trustworthy ANS: a Topic=Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 13.4a Describe how attitudes relate to behavior. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This personality dimension has been examined by social psychologists for more than 40 years. LO 13.4a Describe how attitudes relate to behavior.

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EOM Q13.4.2 In a study of the theory of __________, participants who ate fried grasshoppers were more likely to say the bugs were tasty if a friendly person was distributing the “treat” than if an unfriendly person was. a) cognitive dissonance b) social groups c) social comparison d) self-perception ANS: a Topic=Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 13.4b Evaluate theoretical accounts of how and when we alter our attitudes. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: According to this theory, we alter our attitudes because we experience an unpleasant state of tension between two or more conflicting thoughts. LO 13.4b Evaluate theoretical accounts of how and when we alter our attitudes.

EOM Q13.4.3 Britney has announced to her friends that she wants to exercise more this semester. As her friends head off to the school gym, she flips on the television and settles in for a night of relaxed inactivity. Which of the following terms describes her mental state at the moment? a) cognitive dissonance b) cognitive consonance c) implicit familiarity d) cognitive bias ANS: a Topic=Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 13.4b Evaluate theoretical accounts of how and when we alter our attitudes. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Britney is currently holding two attitudes that are at odds with one another; her stated desire to exercise, and her knowledge of her current behavior. LO 13.4b Evaluate theoretical accounts of how and when we alter our attitudes.

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EOM Q13.4.4 When we focus on the informational content of an argument and determine if it holds up under scrutiny, we are using the __________ of the dual process model of persuasion. This way works well when we have plenty of time and results in strongly held, relatively enduring attitudes. a) central route b) peripheral route c) surface route d) direct route ANS: a Topic=Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This route leads us to evaluate the merits of persuasive arguments carefully and thoughtfully. LO 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists.

EOM Q13.4.5 The method of getting someone to agree to give something small, such as an hour of volunteer time or a few dollars to charity, in order to put her in the frame of mind to give something larger later on is called the __________ technique. a) foot-in-the-door b) door-in-the-face c) low-ball d) “but you are free” ANS: a Topic=Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Think about how you would get $20 from someone who does not want to give it to you. LO 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists.

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Chapter 13 Quiz: Social Psychology Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Chapter Quiz: Social Psychology

Multiple Choice Single Select EOC Q13.1 According to social psychologists John Darley and Bibb Latané, the bystander effect is due less to apathy and more to “__________” that makes people feel unable to respond to the emergency. a) psychological paralysis b) pluralistic ignorance c) diffusion of responsibility d) fear of negative consequences ANS: a Topic=Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Bystanders in emergencies typically want to intervene but often find themselves frozen, seemingly helpless to help. LO 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention.

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EOC Q13.2 When we hold two conflicting attitudes or beliefs, we experience an unpleasant state of tension called cognitive __________, and look for a way to reduce or eliminate this tension. a) dissonance b) assonance c) prescience d) deindividuation ANS: a Topic=Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 13.4b Evaluate theoretical accounts of how and when we alter our attitudes. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: We can reduce the conflict by changing the first cognition, changing the second cognition, or introducing a third cognition that resolves the conflict.LO 13.4b Evaluate theoretical accounts of how and when we alter our attitudes.

EOC Q13.3 People with __________ personality traits tend to have high levels of prejudice, as do people who tend to “pigeonhole” others into distinct categories. a) authoritarian b) altruistic c) authoritative d) independent ANS: a Topic=Prejudice and Discrimination Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: For people high on this dimension, authority figures are to be respected, not questioned. LO 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it.

EOC Q13.4 The mere presence of others can enhance our individual performance in some situations. This phenomenon is known as __________. a) social facilitation b) social inhibition c) social empowerment d) social enrichment ANS: a Topic=What Is Social Psychology? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This effect tends to work best on tasks that are easy or well-learned. LO 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals.

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EOC Q13.5 Which term is used to describe a trait that assesses the extent to which our behavior reflects our true feelings and attitudes? a) self-monitoring b) groupthink c) social loafing d) conformity ANS: a Topic=Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 13.4a Describe how attitudes relate to behavior. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This personality dimension predicts behavior in social interactions. LO 13.4a Describe how attitudes relate to behavior.

EOC Q13.6 Stanley Milgram's studies of obedience indicate that __________. a) aggression toward a victim increases as nearness to the victim decreases b) aggression toward a victim increases as nearness to the victim increases c) an aggressive model is necessary to carry out aggressive acts d) proximity has little effect on aggression directed toward a victim ANS: a Topic=Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 13.2c Identify the factors that maximize or minimize obedience to authority. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Recall the various conditions that Milgram tested across all of his obedience experiments. LO 13.2c Identify the factors that maximize or minimize obedience to authority.

EOC Q13.7 Conformity differs from obedience in that __________. a) with obedience, a direct request is made from someone of elevated status b) with conformity, a direct request is made by a legitimate authority c) with obedience, an indirect request is made by our peers d) with conformity, a direct request is made by our peers ANS: a Topic=Promoting Good Health—and Less Stress! Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Think of the social dimensions—metaphorically, "vertical" and "horizontal"—at work in these two forms of social influence. LO 13.2a Determine the factors that influence when we conform to others.

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EOC Q13.8 Research on aggression shows that even within a geographical area, __________ result(s) in a higher crime rate. a) warmer temperatures b) the number of gang members c) the accessibility of the media d) aggressive cues from influential leaders ANS: a Topic=Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 13.3b Describe the social and individual difference variables that contribute to human aggression. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This is an aspect of a well-replicated finding in aggression research. LO 13.3b Describe the social and individual difference variables that contribute to human aggression.

EOC Q13.9 __________ refers to negative attitudes toward others, whereas __________ refers to negative behaviors toward others. a) Prejudice; discrimination b) Stereotyping; prejudice c) Discrimination; prejudice d) Discrimination; stereotyping ANS: a Topic=Prejudice and Discrimination Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Recall the distinctions between the related terms prejudice, discrimination, and stereotypes. LO 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior.

EOC Q13.10 Which term refers to the tendency of group discussion to strengthen the dominant position held by members of the group? a) group polarization b) confirmation bias c) availability heuristic d) groupthink ANS: a Topic=Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This tendency can be destructive, as when juries rush to unanimous decisions before they’ve considered all the evidence. LO 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions.

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EOC Q13.11 Which term is used to describe the tendency to favor members of our own group? a) in-group bias b) in-crowd bias c) adaptive bias d) confirmation bias ANS: a Topic=Prejudice and Discrimination Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This membership can often result from an arbitrary assignment to one group or another. LO 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it.

EOC Q13.12 Some scientists have argued that we only help others out of self-centered reasons, such as relieving our own distress, vicariously enjoying someone else’s joy, or anticipating reciprocation. Research has shown that __________. a) people help others also because of genuine altruism b) people only help others for the prospect of a reward c) people only help others so they will not feel bad about themselves d) people help each other far less than was previously believed. ANS: a Topic=Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: There is a distinction to be made among types of helping and motives for helping. LO 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention.

EOC Q13.13 Which term refers to the social norm of defending one’s reputation in the face of perceived insults that can lead to high levels of violence in the parts of the world where it is practiced? a) culture of honor b) culture of violence c) Napoleonic code d) code of honor ANS: a Topic=Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 13.3b Describe the social and individual difference variables that contribute to human aggression. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Interestingly, these rates are higher only for violence that arises in the context of disputes. LO 13.3b Describe the social and individual difference variables that contribute to human aggression.

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EOC Q13.14 The fundamental attribution error occurs when __________. a) observers underestimate situational influences and overestimate dispositional influences on an actor's behavior b) observers fail to discount the effects of dispositional qualities of the actor c) observers overestimate situational influences and underestimate dispositional influences on an actor's behavior d) we perceive others to be more similar to ourselves than they really are ANS: a Topic=What Is Social Psychology? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This is a robust bias in social interaction. LO 13.1b Explain how the fundamental attribution error can cause us to misjudge others’ behaviors.

EOC Q13.15 The just-world hypothesis holds that __________. a) good things happen to good people and bad things happen to bad people b) people will behave in response to the situation and downplay their dispositional tendencies c) favorable outcomes are due to dispositional causes, whereas unfavorable outcomes are due to the effects of the situation d) there is just this world, and no afterlife ANS: a Topic=Prejudice and Discrimination Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: There are many attributional biases that people fall prey to; this is one of them. LO 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it.

EOC Q13.16 Which behavioral theory would be described by the sentence, “We acquire our attitudes by observing our behaviors”? a) self-perception theory b) impression management theory c) cognitive dissonance theory d) social comparison theory ANS: a Topic=Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 13.4b Evaluate theoretical accounts of how and when we alter our attitudes. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: "Why am I answering this question? It must be because I want to." LO 13.4b Evaluate theoretical accounts of how and when we alter our attitudes.

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EOC Q13.17 Dr. Sardonicus tells her students that she will give each of them a 20 percent increase in their course grades if they answer five consecutive questions correctly on the final exam. After both parties agree to the deal, Dr. Sardonicus mentions that the five questions have to be answered during the next 60 seconds. The professor is apparently using the __________ technique of persuasion. a) low-ball b) “but you are free” c) foot-in-the-door d) door-in-the-face ANS: a Topic=Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The deal agreed to is not the deal that results. LO 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists.

EOC Q13.18 The inoculation effect, used to help reverse cult indoctrination, means to __________. a) first expose people to information consistent with cult beliefs and then debunk it b) give the person a dose of sodium pentothal to help them accept the truth c) provide literature warning against the cult prior to the person joining it d) continue to make arguments against the cult without letting the person interrupt ANS: a Topic=Social Influence: Conformity and Obedience Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: In this way, they will be more resistant to arguments for this belief—and more open to arguments against it—in the future. LO 13.2b Recognize the dangers of group decision making and identify ways to avoid mistakes common in group decisions.

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EOC Q13.19 Which term describes the situation in which people do not come to the aid of another because there are many other people around to help? a) diffusion of responsibility b) pluralistic ignorance c) social loafing d) groupthink ANS: a Topic=Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The presence of others makes each person feel less accountable for the outcome. LO 13.3a Explain which aspects of a situation increase or decrease the likelihood of bystander intervention.

EOC Q13.20 When a belief includes an emotional component, it becomes a(n) __________. a) attitude b) idea c) conviction d) principle ANS: a Topic=Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 13.4a Describe how attitudes relate to behavior. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: They reflect how we feel about an issue or a person. LO 13.4a Describe how attitudes relate to behavior.

EOC Q13.21 Research from a diversity of perspectives—psychology, anthropology, evolutionary theory, surveys—leads to the conclusion that __________. a) humans are a highly social species; belonging and interacting are good, loneliness is not so great b) group decision-making usually surpasses individual decision-making, both socially and cognitively c) humans are rational animals that rely on evidence and logic to reach conclusions about themselves and others d) sociologists have made the majority of advances in understanding human behavior, more so than social psychologists ANS: a Topic=What Is Social Psychology? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Think about the title of this chapter. LO 13.1a Identify the ways in which social situations influence the behavior of individuals. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q13.22 In the dual process model of persuasion, the two routes people rely on when engaged in an attitude-change situation are called __________. a) central and peripheral b) major and minor c) factual and counterfactual d) productive and perceptive ANS: a Topic=Attitudes and Persuasion: Changing Minds Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: All roads lead to Rome; some roads are better-paved than others. LO 13.4c Identify common and effective persuasion techniques and how they’re exploited by pseudoscientists.

EOC Q13.23 Which of the following terms describes the notion that prejudice comes from a need to blame other groups for our misfortunes? a) scapegoat hypothesis b) just-world hypothesis c) intergroup paradigm d) out-group homogeneity ANS: a Topic=Prejudice and Discrimination Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This tendency can also stem from competition over scarce resources. LO 13.5b Identify some of the causes of prejudice and describe methods for combating it.

EOC Q13.24 Mary believes that all Asian people excel at mathematics. Although that might be considered a complimentary view, it is also nonetheless __________. a) a stereotype b) prejudicial c) discriminatory d) acculturative ANS: a Topic=Helping and Harming Others: Prosocial Behavior and Aggression Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Mary is relying on rigid and unrealistic categories. LO 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior.

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EOC Q13.25 When someone draws a negative conclusion about a group of people or situation prior to evaluating the evidence, she or he is demonstrating __________. a) prejudice b) stereotyping c) out-group homogeneity d) in-group bias ANS: a Topic=Prejudice and Discrimination Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior. Difficulty=Easy, Consider This: This term reflects the etymology of the word. LO 13.5a Distinguish prejudice and stereotypes as beliefs from discrimination as a behavior.

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Chapter 14: Personality Total Assessment Guide Topic Quick Quiz 1

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice

3, 6, 8, 10

2, 7

1, 4–5, 9

Quick Quiz 2

Multiple Choice

2–3, 6, 8-9

5, 7

1, 4, 10

Learning Objective 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Learning Objective 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory.

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

2–4, 13-15 1

1, 5, 10

6–9, 11–12

Multiple Choice

16–19, 22, 35–38, 43, 49, 54–55, 58, 62–63 4, 8

23–25, 27–28, 30–32, 34, 39, 41, 53, 57, 60, 64 2–3 1, 2, 3

20-21, 26, 29, 33, 40–42, 44–48, 50– 52, 56, 59, 61 5–7

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice

68, 70–72, 74–77, 65–67, 69, 78 Learning Objective 79 14.2b Fill-in-the-Blank 10–11 9, 12 Describe key criticisms 3 of psychoanalytic theory Essay Critical Thinking and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Multiple Choice 80, 82, 84–86, 88 81, 83, Learning Objective 14.3a Fill-in-the-Blank 15 13–14 Identify the core Essay 2, 3 assumptions of Critical Thinking 1 behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Multiple Choice 94 93, 95–96 Learning Objective 14.3b Fill-in-the-Blank Describe key criticisms Essay 3 of behavioral and social Critical Thinking learning approaches. Multiple Choice 101, 103–104 97–98, 100, 102, 108, Learning Objective 110–111 14.4a Fill-in-the-Blank 17 16 Explain the concept of 1, 3 self-actualization and its Essay Critical Thinking 2 role in humanistic models. Multiple Choice Learning Objective CopyrightFill-in-the-Blank © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. 14.4b 1 Describe key criticisms Essay 3 of humanistic Critical Thinking approaches.

87, 89, 90–92

99, 105–107, 109

112–113

Topic Learning Objective 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Learning Objective 14.5b Identify key criticisms of trait models. Learning Objective 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI-2 and their methods of construction. Learning Objective 14.6b Describe projective tests, particularly the Rorschach, and their strengths and weaknesses. Learning Objective 14.6c Identify common pitfalls in personality assessment.

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

115, 119–120, 123, 125 18–19

114, 122, 126, 129

116–118, 121, 124, 127, 134

128

133

130–132 20

4 136–140, 142

135 21

141

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

143–146, 149 23 5

150 22

147–148

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

151, 155–157

154 25

152–153 24

5 3

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 14 Quick Quiz 1 1. Which of the following represents a shared environmental influence? A) Todd and Vie are siblings whose parents give both 5 dollars for each “A” they earn on their report cards. B) Taryn has chores to do around the house. C) June goes to ballet, while Mitch is at football. D) Eli gets to go to sleepaway camp while Jonah gets to stay home for camp. 2. According to Freud, habits such as smoking, drinking excessively, or overeating could result from a fixation in the __________ stage. A) oral B) anal C) genital D) phallic 3. What theorist strongly disagreed with Freud’s ideas about women and their feelings of inferiority and the Oedipus complex, arguing instead that women come to push back against their societally ingrained dependency on men? A) Adler B) Horney C) Jung D) Klein 4. Achak is upset. He tells his roommate that if his psychology teacher knew how to teach, Achak would not have flunked his midterm. In fact, "it's all their fault" is a commonly heard phrase from Achak. What locus of control is Achak demonstrating? A) latent B) reciprocal C) internal D) external 5. Which of the following statements might lead to feelings of incongruence? A) “If you want to go out for the cheerleading squad, I think that is wonderful.” B) “I would rather you join the band than go out for the basketball team.” C) “I think it is wonderful when you draw pictures, but please draw on your desk instead of on the carpet.” D) “I know that you are shy, so why don’t you sit in the back of the class?” 6. Research suggests that the Big Five personality traits are __________. A) unique to each culture B) identical in every culture C) fairly consistent across many cultures D) useless for cultural evaluation 7. A key criticism of the trait perspective on personality development is that it A) fails to explain the cause of the differences in the various trait dimensions. B) focuses too much on the role of unconscious forces in personality development. C) ignores the evil and selfishness that humans are capable of. D) lacks supportive evidence for the existence of multiple trait dimensions. 8. The __________ is the most extensively researched of all structured personality tests. A) TAT B) MMPI C) Rorschach D) NEO 9. William’s father wants him to join the army. William has no desire to join. What personality test could William fool the easiest into believing he had a psychological disorder that might keep him out of the army? A) MMPI–2 B) Rorschach C) CPI D) MBQ Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

10. The book suggests that criminal profiling can fall victim to __________. A) social durability bias B) the P. T. Barnum effect C) confirmation bias D) projective hypotheses

Chapter 14 Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1. A

Explanation: Todd and Vie share experiences that would make individuals in the same family more alike. (Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It?, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 14.1a)

2. A

Explanation: The oral stage focuses on the mouth and the actions of sucking and drinking. (Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 14.2a)

3. B

Explanation: Karen Horney was a neo-Freudian who took great exception with many aspects of Freud’s theories. (Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 14.2b)

4. D

Explanation: People with an external locus of control believe that life events are largely a product of chance and fate. (Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 14.3a)

5. B

Explanation: According to Rogers, incongruence results when our personalities are inconsistent with our innate dispositions. (Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 14.4a)

6. C

Explanation: In many of the cultures explored, the Big Five personality traits are seen with consistency. (Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 14.5a)

7. A

Explanation: Trait theorists do not focus on the origin of personality, but rather in describing individual personalities. (Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior, Conceptual, APA LO 2.1, TEXT LO 14.5b)

8. B

Explanation: The MMPI and MMPI–2 are the personality inventories that have been subjected to more research investigation than any other personality assessment tool. (Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 14.6a)

9. B

Explanation: There is little evidence to support that the Rorschach validly detects mental disorders, so it might be the easiest to manipulate. (Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 14.6b)

10. B

Explanation: The P. T. Barnum effect identifies our tendency to accept as true descriptions that can be applied to almost everyone. (Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 14.6c)

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 14 Quick Quiz 2 1. Cailee and Rick’s parents take them to church every week. What type of influence on personality is being exhibited? A) genetic B) nonshared environmental C) shared environmental D) sociological 2. The main conflict of the anal stage comes from __________. A) the Oedipal complex B) toilet training C) sexual repression D) weaning off the breast or bottle 3. The neo-Freudian Carl Jung suggested the existence of a collective unconscious that contains cross-cultural universal symbols called __________. A) schemas B) archetypes C) prototypes D) instincts 4. Dylan believes that his hard work, rather than luck or chance, resulted in his promotion at work. Dylan probably has __________. A) an external locus of control B) self-delusions C) an internal locus of control D) an inferiority complex 5. A major difference between the humanists and both the behaviorists and psychodynamic theorists is that the humanists focus on __________. A) the destructive side of human nature B) free will C) the scientific method D) unconscious information processing 6. Which of the following is NOT one of the dimensions of the Big Five? A) conscientiousness B) extraversion C) openness to experience D) sociability 7. The practice of physiognomy, as well as that of phrenology, have been summarily discredited by modern scientific research. As it turns out, the bumps on a person’s head and one’s facial characteristics give virtually no information about their personality characteristics. This is an important reminder of the importance of the critical thinking principle of __________. A) falsifiability B) correlation vs. causation C) extraordinary claims D) ruling out rival hypotheses 8. The MMPI and MMPI–2 are personality tests that are designed to detect __________. A) individual differences in personality patterns B) symptoms of mental disorders C) relationships between body types and personality patterns D) differences in interpretation of ambiguous stimuli

9. Many projective assessment tools have disputed levels of __________. A) standardization B) representativeness C) subjectivity D) validity 10. Lena answered true to most of the questions that asked her about her participation in outdoor activities or social gatherings. When she received her results, she was amazed that the test had accurately described her extraverted personality. What may Lena be a victim of? A) self-validation B) confirmation bias C) personal validation D) projective accuracy

Chapter 14 Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1. C

Explanation: Shared environmental experiences make individuals within the same family more alike. (Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It?, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 14.1a)

2. B

Explanation: The process of learning toileting activity is the central crux of Freud’s anal stage. (Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 14.2a)

3. B

Explanation: Jung suggested that archetypes are passed from generation to generation as a means of transmitting the collective unconscious to our children. (Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 14.2b)

4. C

Explanation: People with an internal locus of control believe that life events are largely within their control. (Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 14.3a)

5. B

Explanation: Free will is a major component of humanistic theories of personality. (Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force, Conceptual, APA LO 1.2, TEXT LO 14.4a)

6. D

Explanation: Sociability is not one of the five factors, but it is part of the factor called Extraversion. (Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 14.5a)

7. A

Explanation: The research has demonstrated that these practices are without any validity or merit, and thus it has falsified early claims to the contrary. (Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche, Conceptual, APA LO 2.1, TEXT LO 14.6a)

8. B

Explanation: One criticism of the MMPI and MMPI–2 is that they are not terribly useful for assessing the personalities of those who have no psychopathological indications. (Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 14.6a)

9. D

Explanation: One of the criticisms of projective personality tools is that they have low validity, which means that they may not be assessing what they claimed to measure. (Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 14.6b)

10. C

Explanation: Also known as the P.T. Barnum effect, personal validation is our tendency to accept as true descriptions that can be applied to almost everyone. (Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 14.6c)

Chapter 14: Personality Test Bank Multiple-Choice 1. Psychologists believe that personality is largely the result of __________. A) genetics Incorrect. Research has found that genetics do play a role in the development of personality, but genetics are not the only factor to consider. B) multiple factors Correct. Remember that psychologists are generally wary of single-factor explanations of human behavior. Personality is a result of many different contributing factors. C) parental and peer influences D) responses to life stressors. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 2. According to your authors, radio and talk show personalities are often guilty of __________. A) assuming that correlation implies causation regarding human behavior B) offering nonfalsifiable theories to explain human behavior C) proposing single-cause explanations of human behavior D) supplying nonparsimonious explanations for the causes of various human behaviors Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: Introduction Topic: Introduction 3. A person’s __________ is their typical way of thinking, feeling, and behaving. A) temperament B) personality C) attribution D) psyche Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Topic: Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It?

4. Studying personality by attempting to identify general laws that govern the behaviors of all individuals describes a(n) __________ approach. A) idiographic Incorrect. An idiographic approach to studying personality identifies the unique configuration of characteristics and life-history influences within an individual. B) nomothetic Correct. This definition refers to a nomothetic approach to studying personality. C) individualistic D) collectivistic Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Topic: Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? 5. Although the idiographic approach to studying personality might give a very rich and detailed accounting of a person’s life, the findings are often based on post-hoc explanations of events that have already occurred. This makes the findings difficult to contest. This is a problem for which principle of critical thinking? A) falsifiability Correct. In order for data to be useful, their claims must be capable of being shown to be false. B) ruling out rival hypotheses C) Occam’s Razor D) correlation vs. causation Incorrect. There is nothing in this question, per se, that relates to the issue of correlation and causal relationships. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Topic: Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? % correct 55 a = 55 b = 21 c = 0 d = 21 r = .58

6. Cailee and Rick’s parents take them to church every week. What type of influence on personality is being exhibited? A) genetic B) nonshared environmental C) shared environmental Correct. Shared environmental experiences make individuals within the same family more alike. D) sociological Incorrect. Sociological factors take into account the influences of one’s surrounding society on individual behavior. The best answer to this question is a shared environmental influence. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Topic: Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? 7. Which of the following represents a shared environmental influence? A) Todd and Vie are siblings whose parents give both 5 dollars for each “A” they earn on their report cards. Correct. Todd and Vie share experiences that would make individuals in the same family more alike. B) Taryn has chores to do around the house. Incorrect. Because this answer only involves one individual, it does not reflect shared environmental influence. C) June goes to ballet, while Mitch is at football. D) Eli gets to go to sleepaway camp while Jonah gets to stay home for camp. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Topic: Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? % correct 85 a = 85 b = 3 c = 9 d = 3 r = .34 8. Growing up, Eric was always favored over his sister by their parents. If this unequal treatment leads to differences in the children’s personalities, it would be an example of a(n) __________. A) epigenetic influence B) genetic influence C) nonshared environmental factor Correct. These are experiences that make individuals within the same family less alike. D) shared environmental factor Incorrect. These are experiences that make individuals within the family more alike. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Topic: Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It?

9. Dr. Longbottom is researching personality traits in pairs of identical twins. He believes that genetics play a large role in personality development. Which of the following traits is LEAST likely to support his position? A) anxiousness B) traditionalism Incorrect. Traditionalism is not a personality trait that had the lowest concordance rate between identical twins, whether they were reared together or apart. C) impulse control D) achievement orientation Correct. Of the choices, achievement has the weakest correlation and is the most influenced by environment. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Topic: Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? 10. The important study of twins conducted at the University of Minnesota has found that many personality traits are influenced by genetic factors. These findings have been repeatedly confirmed by examining twin samples from intact families. This is an important reminder of the critical thinking concept of __________. A) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. In fact, these studies have confirmed the existing hypothesis from the Minnesota study—that genetics are important in the determination of many aspects of personality. B) extraordinary claims C) falsifiability D) replicability Correct. The repeated research that has supported the findings of the Minnesota study gives us more confidence in the accuracy of those findings. This is the crux of replicability. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Topic: Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It?

11. Your friend Kate is a new mom. She is constantly worried that she is going to ruin her child by doing or saying the wrong thing. What advice might you give her? A) Most of her parenting will have minimal impact on her child’s adult personality. Correct. Twin studies reveal that much of the basis of personality is biological. B) Although she can afford to make a few mistakes, if she isn’t careful her child may have lifelong problems. Incorrect. While very poor parenting will certainly have an influence on a child’s development of personality, research has found that much of the basis of personality is genetic. C) Often children’s personalities are shaped initially by genetics, but environmental influences take over in adolescence, so she has plenty of time. D) As long as her child has enough shared environmental influences with his siblings, the child will be fine. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Topic: Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? 12. Mike and Elizabeth have a new baby. If you wanted to see what she will be like as an adult, where might you focus your attention? A) Examine the frequency of interactions between the parents and the child. B) Observe Mike and Elizabeth’s basic personalities. Correct. Twin and adoption studies reveal that much of the basis of personality is biological, so we should look to the parents. C) Look at the friends she makes growing up and their respective personalities. D) Wait until the baby has a sibling and look at the various activities they engage in together. Incorrect. One of the best predictors of a child’s later-life personality is the personalities of the child’s parents. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Topic: Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It?

13. Which of the following represents the best summary of the relationship between one’s environment and the development of their personality traits? A) Shared environment plays little or no role in adult personality. B) Personality is almost entirely genetic, despite the fact that many would prefer to believe otherwise. C) Nonshared environmental factors are exclusively responsible for personality differences between family members. D) Shared environment plays a strong role in adult personality, but only in siblings who were raised in different homes. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Topic: Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? 14. Which method of studying personality helps researchers separate the different influences of genetic and environmental factors? A) genealogical analyses Incorrect. Genealogical analyses are not discussed in this chapter's review of personality research approaches. B) family pedigree studies C) twin studies D) adoption studies Correct. By comparing those who are adopted to their adoptive families and their biological families, we can separate the influences of genes and the environment. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Topic: Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? 15. A(n) __________ genetic study is an investigation that allows researchers to pinpoint specific genes associated with specific personality traits. A) epiphysical B) molecular C) confirmatory D) exploratory Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Topic: Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It?

16. According to the text authors, __________ is undeniably one of the most influential personality theorists in all of psychology. A) Gordon Allport B) Sigmund Freud C) Abraham Maslow D) B. F. Skinner Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 17. In which areas of science did Sigmund Freud take his initial training? A) psychology Incorrect .Despite his enormous contribution to the field of psychology, Freud was not a psychologist. B) psychiatry C) neurology Correct. Freud's initial training and occupation was in neurology. D) phrenology Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 18. The Freudian idea of “psychic determinism” implies that __________. A) all psychological events have an underlying cause B) childhood experiences determine adult adjustment C) no action is ever meaningless D) unconscious desires and urges drive human behavior Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 19. The idea that all psychological events have an underlying cause is better known as __________. A) common sense B) experimental psychology C) popular psychology D) psychic determinism Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

20. “There is no such thing as a true accident, and everything that we say or do has some sort of important purpose.” Such statements represent Freud’s concept of __________. A) psychic determinism Incorrect. Freud's model of psychic determinism suggested that all psychological events have a cause. B) unconscious motivation C) catharsis D) symbolic meaning Correct. Freud believed that no action, regardless of how trivial it seemed, was without meaning or purpose. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 21. Miranda is a psychoanalytic theorist who uses this perspective to guide her therapeutic treatment of psychological disorders. As a result, she is most likely to improve her understanding of their __________. A) unconscious motivations Correct. Psychoanalysis focuses on unconscious motivations and how they impact a person’s functioning. B) desire for personal growth C) patterns of thinking and behaving D) different personality traits Incorrect. The psychoanalytic model focuses on the unconscious determinants of behaviors, not different personality traits. That would be correct if the question had asked about the trait model of personality. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 22. Which theory of personality is most concerned with understanding people’s unconscious motivations? A) behavioral B) humanism C) psychoanalytic D) trait Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers % correct 66 a = 21 b = 7 c = 65 d = 7 r = .46

23. Some authors relate Freud’s personality structure to an iceberg, saying that the __________ is completely submerged in our unconscious. A) id Correct. Freud believed that the id is entirely unconscious. B) ego C) superego Incorrect. In Freud’s theory, the superego is thought to be influenced by both conscious and unconscious factors. D) defense mechanisms Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 24. Freud’s theory of personality is most interested in understanding the interaction among the three structures of personality within the __________ mind. A) conscious B) preconscious Incorrect. Because the id is thought to be submerged completely in the unconscious, the preconscious would only involve the ego and superego. C) split D) unconscious Correct. The majority of psychoanalytic theory, first posited by Freud, is that the influence of the unconscious is very relevant to the development of personality. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers % correct 77 a = 7 b = 6 c = 10 d = 77 r = .21 25. In Freud's psychoanalytic theory, the id is believed to be motivated by the desire for __________. A) free will B) immediate gratification C) moral perfection D) social acceptability Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

26. Jamal has a very bad temper. He is notorious for lashing out at his friends when he doesn’t get his way. What is dominating Jamal’s actions? A) ego B) id Correct. The id is an unconscious reservoir of our impulses and drives. C) superego Incorrect. The superego would recognize the social inappropriateness of having temper tantrums whenever Jamal does not get his way. D) libido Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 27. Which motto would best fit the id? A) “I can’t do that because it is against the rules.” Incorrect. This would be a statement most appropriately attached to the superego, which concerns itself with morals and social standards of right and wrong B) “I would like to do that, but it can wait for later.” C) “If it feels good, then do it.” Correct. The id is only concerned with primitive impulses and does not delay gratification. D) “If she did it, I can, too.” Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers % correct 71 a = 7 b = 3 c = 71 d = 19 r = .17 28. According to Freud, the ego is the __________. A) moral component B) decision maker C) primitive instinct D) collective unconscious Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers % correct 88 a = 3 b = 88 c = 3 d = 6 r = .20

29. Justin is working on his psychology paper for class when he gets a phone call inviting him to a party. His decision to finish the paper before going to the party reflects the functioning of the __________. A) conscious B) ego ideal Incorrect. In psychoanalytic theory, ego ideal is a part of the superego. C) id D) ego Correct. The ego is the primary decision maker, keeping the id in check. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 30. The __________ seeks to find a resolution between the competing demands of the __________. A) ego; id and superego Correct. The ego is a peacemaker that mediates between the demands of the id and superego. B) id; ego and superego Incorrect. The id operates on the pleasure principle, and so it does not find resolutions between the ego and superego. It is only concerned with gratification of its own needs. C) superego; alter ego and ego D) superego; id and ego Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 31. The __________ could be described as similar to a judgmental parent looking down on the __________. A) ego; superego Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. B) ego; id C) superego; ego Correct. The superego concerns itself with standards of right and wrong, and influences the decisions made by the ego. D) superego; id Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

32. What personality structure(s) is/are tasked with the responsibility of keeping the id’s impulsive and destructive actions in check? A) the actual self and the ideal self Incorrect. These are terms associated with Carl Rogers’s humanistic theory. B) the ego C) the ego and the superego Correct. The ego and the superego together counterbalance the pleasure-seeking needs of the id. D) the archetype Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 33. As you are preparing for your biology exam, you notice two of your classmates in the library. After going to talk with them, you discover they are planning to use a cheat sheet during tomorrow’s exam. What part of your personality would cause you to feel ashamed or guilty if you also cheated on the exam? A) the actual self B) the ego C) the id Incorrect. The id would not care about being good or obeying rules. It would only be concerned with doing whatever it needed to do to pass the exam, which includes cheating. D) the superego Correct. Freud believed that the superego represents our conscience, which makes us feel guilty when we engage in immoral behaviors. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers % correct 79 a = 9 b = 3 c = 9 d = 79 r = .51 34. In the metaphor of the angel, the devil, and me, the angel is the __________. A) id B) ego Incorrect. The “me” is the ego because it is trying to balance the needs of the id and superego. C) superego Correct. The superego is the angel because it serves as the moral conscience. D) unconscious Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers % correct 75 a = 17 b = 5 c = 75 d = 3 r = .50

35. For Freud, the moral guardian of personality is the ___________. A) id B) superego C) ego D) libido Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers % correct 85 a = 2 b = 85 c = 8 d = 5 r = .31 36. Which of the following is one of the three components of the Freudian personality structure? A) alter ego B) archetype C) collective unconscious D) superego Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 37. According to Freud, defense mechanisms are unconscious attempts to minimize feelings of __________. A) denial B) anxiety C) repression D) regression Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

38. According to Freud, the motivated forgetting of distressing external experiences is known as __________. A) amnesia B) regression. C) archetyping D) repression Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 39. According to your text authors, __________ is the most critical defense mechanism in psychoanalytic theory. A) denial B) displacement C) projection D) repression Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 40. Hiram just finished the most difficult statistics exam he has ever taken. When asked the next day by his mother how the exam went, Hiram tells her that he cannot remember a single thing from the previous two days. This experience is most similar to which Freudian defense mechanism, a mechanism that is “shielding” Hiram from the anxiety of his exam? A) denial Incorrect. Denial is the motivated forgetting of distressing external experiences. B) displacement C) projection D) repression Correct. Repression is the motivated forgetting of emotionally threatening memories or impulses. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

41. Research into the memories of animals such as mice and rats suggests that they experience infantile amnesia. A psychoanalytic theorist might suggest that this is because these animals have repressed the memories of traumatic events, but the critical thinking principle of __________ suggests that this is rather implausible assertion. A) Occam’s Razor Correct. The simplest explanation for the failure of these animals to remember early events is infantile amnesia, not an unconscious defense mechanism like repression. B) replicability C) extraordinary claims Incorrect. It is certainly extraordinary to consider mice and rats capable of unconscious defense mechanisms, but the simplest explanation is infantile amnesia. This is consistent with Occam’s Razor. D) correlation vs. causation Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 42. Whenever Olivia feels bad about an exam performance, she visits the professor and breaks down into tears. As the professor attempts to console her, she is psychologically returned to her childhood. Sigmund Freud would say that Olivia is using __________ to alleviate her anxieties about her academic abilities. A) displacement Incorrect. Displacement occurs when we direct an impulse from a socially unacceptable target onto a safer and more socially acceptable target. B) projection C) sublimation D) regression Correct. Regression is the act of returning psychologically to a younger age, typically early childhood, when life was simpler and safer. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 43. The Freudian defense mechanism of __________ involves returning psychologically to a younger and safer age. A) denial B) repression C) displacement D) regression Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

44. Concerned with his own academic flaws and weaknesses, Preston often aggressively lashes out at his instructors via his evaluations of their teaching ability on instructor rating websites and during class teaching evaluations. This is an example of which Freudian defense mechanism? A) displacement B) intellectualization Incorrect. Intellectualization is avoiding the emotions associated with anxiety-provoking experiences by focusing on abstract and impersonal thoughts. C) projection Correct. Projection is the unconscious attribution of our negative characteristics to others. D) reaction formation Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 45. In one of Aesop’s fables, a fox is unable to obtain some grapes that he truly wishes to have. However, after failing to obtain them, he downplays their importance. This behavior is most consistent with the defense mechanism of __________. A) displacement Incorrect. Displacement occurs when we direct an impulse from a socially unacceptable target onto a safer and more socially acceptable target. B) intellectualization C) rationalization Correct. Rationalization is providing a reasonable-sounding explanation for unreasonable behaviors or failures. D) sublimation Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 46. Eila is a 16-year-old girl. Her mom just got remarried to Brick, a strikingly handsome and very kind man. Recently, Eila has begun to taunt Brick about his physique and even tells her mom that she can’t stand him even though deep down she is sexually attracted to her stepfather. What defense mechanism is she exhibiting? A) rationalization B) regression Incorrect. Regression is the act of returning psychologically to a younger age, typically early childhood, when life was simpler and safer. C) reaction-formation Correct. Reaction-formation involves transforming an anxiety-producing experience into its opposite, in this case, attraction into repulsion. D) projection Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

47. After a day when all of Nicole’s students complained about the way she graded their papers, her boss doubled her workload, and she got a speeding ticket on her way home, she yelled at her wife for leaving a toothbrush on the bathroom counter. This is an example of __________/ A) displacement Correct. Displacement involves directing an impulse from a socially unacceptable target onto a more acceptable one. B) projection C) regression D) sublimation Incorrect. Sublimation is transforming a socially unacceptable impulse into an admired and socially valued goal. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 48. Shyteria is a toll-booth operator. At least once every hour, she typically has an encounter with a motorist who berates and belittles her because they are upset about traffic, they don’t have enough change, or they are just unhappy that day. As a result, when she gets home Shyteria often yells at her roommates and slams cabinet doors closed when she can’t find what she wants. She is displaying classic symptoms of __________. A) displacement Correct. Displacement occurs when we direct an impulse from a socially unacceptable target onto a safer and more socially acceptable target. B) projection Incorrect. Projection is the unconscious attribution of our negative characteristics to others. C) regression D) sublimation Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 49. Rationalization involves __________. A) motivated forgetting of distressing experiences B) unconscious attribution of our negative qualities onto others C) providing reasonable-sounding explanations for unreasonable behaviors or failures D) transforming an anxiety-producing experience into its opposite Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

50. Geoffrey is a clinical psychologist who is separated from his wife and is in the process of filing for divorce. Whenever his friends or colleagues ask Geoffrey to talk about it or attempt to cheer him up, he focuses on the statistical evidence about the likelihood of divorce, clinical experience he has had, and anything but his emotions and the pain of the marriage ending. Freud would say that Geoffrey is displaying a living, breathing example of __________. A) displacement B) intellectualization Correct. Intellectualization is avoiding the emotions associated with anxiety-provoking experiences by focusing on abstract and impersonal thoughts. C) projection D) repression Incorrect. Repression is the motivated forgetting of emotionally threatening memories or impulses. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 51. Oscar redirects his aggressive urges to beat up and dominate others into a lucrative career as a professional boxer. This is an example of what Freudian defense mechanism? A) displacement B) projection C) rationalization Incorrect. Rationalization is providing a reasonable-sounding explanation for unreasonable behaviors or failures. D) sublimation Correct. Sublimation is transforming a socially unacceptable impulse into an admired and socially valued goal. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 52. Lucinda notices that her retirement fund has lost half of its value based on the investments that she chose. She tells herself "it's just a down market, and the money will come back." She does not speak with her financial advisor and ignores the seriousness of her poor financial decisions. Which defense mechanism is being demonstrated? A) denial Correct. Denial is the motivated forgetting of distressing external experiences. B) reaction formation C) sublimation D) regression Incorrect. Regression is the act of returning psychologically to a younger age, typically early childhood, when life was simpler and safer. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

53. A person becomes stuck in a specific psychosexual stage. Freud would note that this person is __________ and that this could have implications for later behaviors. A) sublimating Incorrect. This refers to an ego defense mechanism that involves an unacceptable unconscious urge being expressed in a socially appropriate manner. B) regressing C) lodged D) fixated Correct. Failing to fully resolve a psychosexual stage is called fixation. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 54. Which order is correct for Freud’s psychosexual stages of development? A) oral, phallic, genital, latency, anal B) anal, oral, genital, latency, phallic C) genital, anal, oral, phallic, latency D) oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 55. A newborn baby is in what stage of psychosexual development? A) anal stage B) latency stage C) oral stage D) phallic stage Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

56. You notice your classmate Hannah chewing on her pencil as she takes her psychology final. Which psychosexual stage may not have been resolved? A) genital B) phallic C) oral Correct. Oral fixation in childhood leads to activities centered around the mouth in adulthood. D) anal Incorrect. Anal fixation in childhood would lead to an anal-expulsive or anal-retentive personality and adulthood. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 57. According to Freud, habits such as smoking, drinking excessively, or overeating could result from a fixation in the __________ stage. A) oral Correct. The oral stage focuses on the mouth and the actions of sucking and drinking. B) anal Incorrect. Inappropriate adult behaviors that focus on the mouth are probably a result of fixation at the oral stage, according to Freud’s theory. C) genital D) phallic Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 58. The main conflict of the anal stage comes from __________. A) the Oedipal complex B) toilet training C) sexual repression D) weaning off the breast or bottle Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

59. Jayne is a 2½-year-old child. She is most likely in the __________ stage. A) oral Incorrect. The oral stage lasts from birth to 12 to 18 months. B) anal Correct. The anal stage lasts from about 18 months to 3 years of age. C) phallic D) genital Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 60. Conflicts over toilet training, and other attempts by a 2-year-old to exert control over his or her environment, are most evident during the __________ stage of psychosexual development. A) anal Correct. The primary conflict during the anal stage, which lasts for 18 months until three years of age, is gaining control over toileting behaviors. B) latency Incorrect. The latency period, which lasts from six years until 12 years of age, is marked by a diminishing of sexual interests and a focus on social development. C) oral D) phallic Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 61. Stewie has developed strong feelings for his mother and views his father as a rival for her attention. However, he is afraid that his father will find out and interfere with these plans. Stewie is clearly immersed in the __________ stage. A) anal B) genital Incorrect. The genital stage, which lasts from puberty throughout adulthood, is marked by the emergence of mature sexual and romantic interests. C) oral D) phallic Correct. During the phallic stage, we see the emergence of the Oedipus and Electra complexes. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers % correct 85 a = 2 b = 13 c = 0 d = 85 r = .24

62. The Oedipus (or Electra) complex is most likely experienced in the __________ stage. A) genital B) oral C) phallic D) anal Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 63. Sexual impulses are submerged into the unconscious during the ___________ stage. A) genital B) latency C) phallic D) anal Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 64. According to Freud, mature romantic relationships are only possible when an individual has attained the __________ stage of psychosexual development. A) anal B) genital Correct. The genital stage, which lasts from puberty throughout adulthood, is marked by the emergence of mature sexual and romantic interests. C) oral D) phallic Incorrect. During the phallic stage, we see the emergence of the Oedipus and Electra complexes. This occurs between the ages of three and six years. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

65. When reviewing Freud’s theory of personality development, a critical thinker would be most concerned about the __________. A) mixture of correlation with causation B) lack of falsifiable hypotheses for key aspects Correct. One of the main criticisms of Freud’s theory is that it is not scientifically validated and it is not falsifiable in several areas. C) lack of extraordinary evidence for extraordinary claims Incorrect. Although controversial, its claims were not so extraordinary as to warrant this answer. D) high level of support for many key aspects Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers % correct 76 a = 9 b = 76 c = 12 d = 3 r = .25 66. A major issue that many people have with Freud’s theory is __________. A) that our awareness of the causes for our behaviors is quite good B) he overemphasized the importance of the conscious mind C) the generalization of his ideas from an unrepresentative sample D) he underemphasized the importance of shared environmental influences in personality development Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers % correct 90 a = 0 b = 3 c = 90 d = 7 r = .41 % correct 76 a = 3 b = 0 c = 76 d = 21 r = .50 67. Most of the neo-Freudians agreed with Freud’s ideas on __________. A) our inborn, basic destructive impulses B) the importance of later adult experiences influencing personality development C) the important roles of sexuality and aggression in personality development D) the unconscious influences on behavior Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

68. Freud placed much more emphasis on __________ than did Alfred Adler, Karen Horney, or Carl Jung. A) the unconscious B) sexuality C) anxiety D) childhood Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 69. Compared to Freud himself, the neo-Freudians placed more importance on __________ and less on __________. A) sexuality; social drives Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. B) the unconscious; personality C) social drives; the unconscious D) social drives; sexuality Correct. Neo-Freudian theories placed less emphasis on sexuality and more emphasis on social drives, such as the need for approval. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 70. Adler suggested that the principal motive in human personality is __________. A) sex B) striving for superiority C) aggression D) self-actualization Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

71. Which of the following theorists is not associated with the psychoanalytic school of thought? A) Carl Rogers B) Alfred Adler C) Sigmund Freud D) Carl Jung Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 72. Which neo-Freudian introduced the concept of the inferiority complex into discussions of psychological adjustment? A) Alfred Adler B) Erik Erikson C) Karen Horney D) Carl Jung Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 73. Noah, the backup quarterback on the football team, never stops talking about how great he is. He insists that if the coach would only give him a chance, he would show everyone that he is the best. What might psychiatrist Alfred Adler suggest that Noah is exhibiting? A) inferiority complex Correct. An inferiority complex refers to feelings of low self-esteem that can lead to overcompensation for such feelings. B) style of life C) an archetype D) superiority complex Incorrect. Although Noah is acting superior, it is an overcompensation for his inferiority complex. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

74. Jung believed that there were two levels to the unconscious mind, the personal and the __________. A) collective B) animus C) anima D) preconscious Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 75. Jung’s theory suggests that the __________ is a collection of latent memories from people’s ancestral past. A) conscious B) collective unconscious C) personal unconscious D) locus of control Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 76. Neo-Freudian Carl Jung suggested the existence of a collective unconscious that contains crosscultural universal symbols called __________. A) schemas B) archetypes C) prototypes D) instincts Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

77. Which neo-Freudian emphasized the importance of the collective unconscious in personality development? A) Adler Incorrect. The collective unconscious was part of the theory of Carl Jung, not Alfred Adler. B) Fromm C) Horney D) Jung Correct. Jung suggested that the unconscious exists in two levels, the collective unconscious and the personal unconscious. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers % correct 42 a = 48 b = 3 c = 7 d = 42 r = .47 78. A common criticism of Adler, Freud, and Jung’s theories of personality development is that __________. A) they place too much importance on adolescence and not enough on early childhood experiences B) they overestimate the importance of the conscious mind in personality development Incorrect. On the contrary, these theorists placed great emphasis on the importance of the unconscious. C) they are filled with unfalsifiable claims Correct. This is a criticism that runs through most psychodynamic theories. D) they underestimate the human capacity for engaging in selfish and destructive actions Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers % correct 79 a =4 b = 14 c = 79 d = 3 r = .58 79. What theorist strongly disagreed with Freud’s ideas about women and their feelings of inferiority and the Oedipus complex, arguing instead that women come to push back against their societally ingrained dependency on men? A) Alfred Adler B) Karen Horney C) Carl Jung D) Melanie Klein Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

80. Which perspective on personality development is most concerned with how one’s learning history influences who they later become? A) behavioral B) humanism-existential C) psychoanalytic/psychodynamic D) trait Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality 81. The behavioral theories tend to focus on __________. A) unconscious desires B) learning Correct. Behaviorists believe that differences in our personalities stem largely from differences in our learning histories. C) genetics D) self-actualization Incorrect. Self-actualization was an important tenet of humanistic theory, not of the behavioral theory of personality. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality % correct 68 a = 19 b = 68 c = 6 d = 7 r = .66 82. An area of agreement between the psychodynamic and behaviorist perspectives is __________. A) the belief that free will is an illusion B) the importance of the conscious mind C) the importance of sexuality and aggression as human motives that drive personality D) their focus on the unconscious mind as it was conceptualized by Sigmund Freud Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality % correct 35 a = 36 b = 19 c = 19 d = 26 r = .62

83. The role of one’s thinking in personality development was emphasized by __________. A) classical conditioning theorists B) humanistic theorists C) operant conditioning theorists Incorrect. Such theorists, like Skinner, are criticized for having placed too little importance on the role of cognitive processes. D) social learning theorists Correct. Social learning theorists believe that what happens to us is important, but equally as important is how we think about those experiences. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality 84. The role of reciprocal determinism was highlighted by the __________. A) behaviorists B) humanists C) social learning theorists D) trait theorists Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality 85. What is Albert Bandura’s term for the relationship among the three factors that influence personality? A) feedback loops B) learned responses C) reciprocal determinism D) external expectancies Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality % correct 73 a = 6 b = 12 c = 73 d = 9 r = .29

86. Albert Bandura’s notion that people are affected by their environment, but can simultaneously influence that environment, is known as ___________. A) self-efficacy B) locus of control C) phenomenology D) reciprocal determinism Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality 87. After watching an episode of the educational cartoon Caillou in which the little boy helps his mother put away dishes, little Aviva goes into the kitchen and helps her mom put away the dishes. What type of learning has Aziza engaged in? A) reciprocal determinism B) social reinforcement C) observational learning Correct. Observational learning occurs by watching others and greatly expands the range of stimuli from which we can benefit. D) altruistic learning Incorrect. Aziza’s behaviors may have altruistic components to them but there’s no concept called altruistic learning that is discussed in this chapter. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality 88. The extent to which people believe that reinforcers and punishers lie inside or outside of their control refers to __________. A) humanism B) locus of control C) self-actualization D) archetypes Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality

89. Dylan believes that his hard work, rather than luck or chance, resulted in his promotion at work. Dylan probably has __________. A) an external locus of control Incorrect. People with an external locus of control believe that life events are largely a product of chance and fate. B) self-delusions C) an internal locus of control Correct. People with an internal locus of control believe that life events are largely within their control. D) an inferiority complex Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality 90. Achak is upset. He tells his roommate that if his psychology teacher knew how to teach, he would not have flunked his midterm. In fact, "it's all their fault" is a commonly heard phrase from Achak. What locus of control is Achak demonstrating? A) latent B) reciprocal C) internal Incorrect. People with an internal locus of control believe that life events are largely within their control. D) external Correct. People with an external locus of control believe that life events are largely a product of chance and fate. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality 91. Who is at the LEAST risk for depression? A) Carrie, who believes that her team will lose if she doesn’t wear her lucky ribbon B) Jackie, who believes that she will make an “A” if she studies hard enough Correct. Almost all forms of psychological distress are associated with an external locus of control. C) Amelia, who believes that she was fated to break up with her boyfriend D) Courtney, who believes that she will win the lottery this week Incorrect. People with an external locus of control, like Courtney, are at greater risk for depression than people with an internal locus of control. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality

92. Who is at the greatest risk for anxiety problems? A) Homer, who believes that if he delivers a good interview, he can get the job Incorrect. People who have an internal locus of control have greater insulation from mental illnesses than do people with an external locus of control. B) Krissa, who believes that she can win the race because of her intense training C) Vanessa, who believes that her rabbit’s foot will help her bowl better Correct. Almost all forms of psychological distress are associated with an external locus of control. D) Daisy, who believes that all the extra work she has done will earn her a promotion Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality 93. B. F. Skinner’s approach is most open to criticism about its neglect of the importance of __________ in personality development. A) environmental contingencies B) other people’s behavior C) the self D) thoughts Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.3b Describe key criticisms of behavioral and social learning approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality 94. Which early theory of personality development stands most strongly on scientific footing? A) behaviorism Correct. Behaviorism has the greatest level of scientific validation. B) Gestalt C) humanistic-existential D) psychoanalytic/psychodynamic Incorrect. These models have many aspects that are completely resistant to empirical validation. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.3b Describe key criticisms of behavioral and social learning approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality

95. What evidence argues most strongly against social learning theorists’ claims that observational learning is a key causal factor in personality development? A) Conscious processing occurs more infrequently than unconscious processing. Incorrect. This claim, which is not consistent with the research, would not be a criticism against the social learning theory. B) The effects of shared environment on adult personality are weak or even nonexistent. Correct. If the social learning theorists’ claims were correct, then we would expect to see a stronger relationship between shared environment and adult personality. C) It is difficult to show how reciprocal determinism would exist in daily life. D) Researchers consistently find that adult personality is stable rather than changing. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.3b Describe key criticisms of behavioral and social learning approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality 96. Some research has shown that classical conditioning and/or observational learning has been noted in animals with very small cerebra, including honeybees and starfish. Other research has failed to consistently support these findings. This is a problem for which principle of critical thinking? A) extraordinary claims Incorrect. The fact that there is some evidence to support these claims means that this is not an entirely unlikely phenomenon; however, the problem is that the research has been inconsistent in its attempt to replicate these findings. B) replicability Correct. The more researchers can repeat an experiment and come up with consistent findings, the greater our ability to trust that those findings represent reality and not some chance or fluke occurrence. C) correlation vs. causation D) Occam’s Razor Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 14.3b Describe key criticisms of behavioral and social learning approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality 97. What was the third major force in the field of personality psychology? A) behaviorism B) humanism Correct. Humanism is often described as the third force in psychology. C) psychoanalytic/psychodynamic Incorrect. Psychoanalytic theory, and the psychodynamic theories that followed, are often described as the first major force in the field of personality psychology. D) social learning Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force

98. A major difference between the humanists and both the behaviorists and psychodynamic theorists is the humanists’ focus on __________. A) the destructive side of human nature Incorrect. The humanists are very positive and optimistic about human nature, so much so, in fact, that they are often criticized for being overly positive and ignoring some of the negative aspects of humanity. B) free will Correct. Free will is a major component to humanistic theories of personality. C) the scientific method D) unconscious information processing Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force 99. Which statement best fits the humanistic philosophy? A) I had to take psychology. B) I felt compelled to take psychology. C) I don’t know why I signed up for psychology. Incorrect. Humanists believe in free will and control over our own actions. Therefore, we would know why we signed up for a particular course. D) I wanted to take psychology. Correct. Humanistic psychologists embrace the notion of free will. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force 100. According to the humanists, a core motive in human personality development was __________. A) achieving desired behavioral contingencies B) conditional acceptance Incorrect. In Carl Rogers’s humanistic theory, unconditional acceptance is a necessary event, not conditional acceptance. C) self-actualization Correct. Self-actualization, or the reaching of one’s own full potential, is the major motivation in the humanistic theory of personality development. D) resolving internal motivational conflict Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force

101. Which of the following believed that humans have a natural motivation to reach their highest potential? A) Carl Rogers B) B. F. Skinner C) Alfred Adler D) Carl Jung Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force 102. “Becoming what one ought to be” is one way to define __________. A) a peak experience Incorrect. A peak experience is a single transcendent moment of intense excitement and tranquility marked by a profound sense of connection to the world. B) self-actualization Correct. Self-actualization refers to the drive to become everything that one is capable of becoming. C) achievement potential D) self-concept Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force % correct 79 a = 0 b = 79 c = 8 d = 13 r = .57 103. The best-known humanistic theorist was __________. A) Sigmund Freud B) Carl Rogers C) Carl Jung D) Alfred Adler Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force

104. According to Rogers, expectations we place on ourselves for appropriate and inappropriate behaviors are called __________. A) self-actualization B) conditions of worth C) locus of control D) openness to experience Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force 105. Colin really loves to dance, but his father insists that he goes out for the rugby team. What is Colin likely to experience while playing rugby? A) incongruence Correct. According to Rogers, incongruence results when our personalities are inconsistent with our innate dispositions. B) disequilibrium Incorrect. Disequilibrium is not a term that would have been used in Rogers’s humanistic theory. It is found in Piaget’s cognitive developmental theory. C) disconnected D) self-analysis Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force 106. Which of the following statements might lead to feelings of incongruence? A) If you want to go out for the cheerleading squad, I think that is wonderful. B) I would rather you join the band than go out for the basketball team. Correct. According to Rogers, incongruence results when our personalities are inconsistent with our innate dispositions. C) I think it is wonderful when you draw pictures, but please draw on your desk instead of on the carpet? Incorrect. There is nothing in the statement that would direct a child against his or her own natural impulse, and thus it would not lead to incongruence. D) I know that you are shy, so why don’t you sit in the back of the class? Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force

107. Gordon is concerned that his parenting will lead his son and two daughters to feel that they are only loved and accepted when they do things that he approves of and values. This is most similar to __________. A) Bandura’s notion of reciprocal determinism B) Freud’s notion of the id, ego, and superego Incorrect. There is nothing in this question that has anything to do with Freud’s notions of the id, ego, and superego. C) Rogers’s notion of conditions of worth Correct. Rogers suggested that giving children conditions upon which love is earned is inherently unhealthy for their developing personalities. D) Skinner’s notion of reinforcers and punishers Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force % correct 64 a = 15 b = 3 c = 64 d = 18 r = .32 108. The key difference between Maslow’s and Rogers’s work was the former’s focus on __________ and the latter’s focus on __________. A) determinism; free will B) free will; reciprocal determinism C) self-actualized individuals; how self-actualization was thwarted D) self-actualized individuals; unconscious mental processing Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force % correct 44 a = 19 b = 5 c = 44 d = 29 r = .34 109. After having completed and done well at the 500-mile endurance triathlon, Rob declares it the most satisfying experience of his 37 years of life. This might be labeled a __________. A) condition of worth B) moment of self-actualization Incorrect. Peak experiences are related to self-actualization, but they are not the same thing. C) peak experience Correct. This would qualify as what Maslow referred to as a peak experience. D) defining moment Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force

110. According to Maslow, a self-actualized person is someone who is __________. A) concerned with developing friendships with others Incorrect. On the contrary, Maslow believed that people who were self-actualized did not concern themselves with popularity and impressing others. B) creative and spontaneous Correct. These were two characteristics of a self-actualized person, according to Maslow. C) extroverted and outgoing D) self-centered Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force 111. One path for achieving self-actualization was through the attainment of __________. A) desired reinforcers B) gratification of the id Incorrect. Gratification of the id is a concept that would be noted in Freud’s theory, not noted in a humanistic theory that addresses self-actualization. C) peak experiences Correct. Maslow believed that the attaining of peak experiences was an essential course toward reaching self-actualization. D) gratification of the superego Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force 112. Dr. Iness is studying the distress calls of several different types of animals. What field of psychology is his specialty? A) humanistic B) biological Incorrect. There certainly is a biological component to comparative psychology, but this is not the best answer to the question. C) behavioral D) comparative Correct. Comparative psychology compares behavior across species. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.4b Describe key criticisms of humanistic approaches. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force

113. Ramon is a psychotherapist whose therapeutic orientation follows that of Maslow and Rogers. He readily has an explanation for why his depressed and anxious clients improve with treatment (“They have removed the conditions inhibiting a sense of worth from their lives”) as well as why some of his patients fail to improve with treatment (“Important people in his/her life continue to thwart the development of selfactualization”). A critical thinker would recognize that Ramon’s approach __________. A) cannot be falsified Correct. One of the main criticisms of the humanistic theory of personality development is that it is not open to research, and therefore cannot be falsified. B) fails to rule out rival hypotheses C) lacks extraordinary evidence for his extraordinary claims Incorrect. There are no extraordinary claims made by the humanistic theories of personality development. D) reflects his own personal biases and therefore cannot be trusted Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 14.4b Describe key criticisms of humanistic approaches. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force 114. "When people spend too much time in hospitals, they are likely to get sick, but when you get sick, you are going to spend too much time in a hospital." These two seemingly compatible statements demonstrate the __________ fallacy. A) diminishing returns B) ad hoc C) circular reasoning Correct. These two statements are a simple restatement of each other and neither provides any true information that is not supported by the other. D) Occam's Razor Incorrect. Occam's Razor is a philosophical doctrine that suggests that the simplest explanation for an event is usually the most accurate. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior 115. A statistical technique that analyzes the correlations among responses on personality inventories and other measures is called __________. A) the Big Five B) factor analysis C) self-actualization D) standard deviation Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior

116. If you surveyed 100 trait theorists, you would expect to see many of them argue that personality is structured on __________ different dimensions. A) 2 Incorrect. Most trait theorists would say that two is far too few a number of traits to adequately encapsulate the entire variety of human personalities. B) 4 C) 5 Correct. Many trait theorists adhere to the five-factor model, which is also known as the Big Five. D) 7 Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior 117. Who probably scored the highest on the conscientiousness scale? A) Garrett, who is about to go bungee jumping B) Marlene, who is captain of the cheerleading squad Incorrect. Marlene probably does rank high on conscientiousness, given that she is in charge of others, but Cathy is probably the best answer to this question. C) Cathy, who is the oldest of three children and has cared for her younger siblings Correct. Conscientious people tend to be careful and responsible. D) Mable, who is very quiet around strangers Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior % correct 76 a = 3 b = 6 c = 76 d = 15 r = .37 118. If Sylvia is described as being very sociable and easy to get along with, then she probably is fairly high on the Big Five superfactor known as ___________. A) extraversion B) neuroticism C) openness Incorrect. An individual high on the openness trait would be described as intellectually curious and unconventional in their view of the world. D) agreeableness Correct. An individual high on the agreeableness trait would be described like Sylvia is in this question. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior

119. Which of these is an acronym that could help you remember the Big Five traits? A) START B) BEGIN C) DUNES D) OCEAN Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior 120. Which of the following is not one of the dimensions of the Big Five? A) conscientiousness B) extraversion C) openness to experience D) sociability Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior 121. Marques loves to go to parties, and while there, he can have a conversation with just about anyone, whether he knows them or not. Which of the following Five Factors would Marques probably rate highly on based on this information? A) neuroticism Incorrect. Neuroticism, or a negative emotional style, is not indicated in this question. B) conscientiousness C) extraversion Correct. Marques clearly has a very outgoing, or extraverted, nature. D) openness to new experiences Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior

122. Which of the following is an important criticism of the Big Five and other lexical models of personality? A) It fails to correlate with important real-world behaviors. Incorrect. This would not be a criticism that is consistently validated by existing research. B) It focuses too little on the conscious processing of information. C) People may not be consciously aware of all aspects of personality. Correct. Because we are not consciously aware of all aspects of personality, it may be difficult to accurately quantify all of those dimensions. D) People’s attitudes are seldom useful as a means for predicting their aggregated behavior. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.5b Identify key criticisms of trait models. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior 123. Research suggests that the Big Five personality traits are ___________. A) unique to each culture B) identical in every culture Incorrect. The Big Five personality traits have been seen consistently, but not identically, in every culture explored. C) fairly consistent across many cultures Correct. In many of the cultures explored, the Big Five personality traits are seen with consistency. D) useless for cultural evaluation Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior % correct 84 a = 10 b = 3 c = 94 d = 3 r = .28 124. Joe works hard to avoid embarrassing himself or his family. He is most likely from __________. A) Finland B) Canada C) the United States Incorrect. The question speaks about somebody from a collectivist culture, and the United States is a decidedly individualistic culture. D) the Philippines Correct. This is consistent with the findings about individualism versus collectivism in different cultures. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior

125. A concern with personal goals and increased individual self-esteem is most characteristic of those from __________ cultures. A) collectivistic B) individualistic C) narcissistic D) selfish Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior % correct 97 a = 0 b = 97 c = 2 d = 1 r = .28 126. A key point from the research on individualism-collectivism is that __________. A) there are consistent differences between cultures on these personality styles and seldom any differences within cultures B) there are consistent differences between and within cultures on these personality styles Correct. It is impossible to make one blanket statement about all members of a particular culture. C) persons from collectivistic cultures are more emotionally and socially well-adjusted than those from more individualistic cultures Incorrect. People from all sorts of different cultures have members who are well-adjusted and members who are not well adjusted. D) persons from individualistic cultures are more emotionally and socially well-adjusted than those from more collectivistic cultures Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior 127. Tony enjoys “extreme” skateboarding. He likes to ride in places where he knows it is forbidden, he enjoys doing bigger and bigger tricks, and the risk of getting hurt or even killed only compounds his enjoyment of his sport. He is constantly looking for new ways to push the envelope of skateboarding. Tony would probably be considered to be a(n) __________. A) neurotic Incorrect. Neuroticism is one of the Big Five factors of personality, and describes people who tend to be tense and moody. B) illusory correlation C) extrovert D) sensation seeker Correct. People who are high in sensation seeking have the tendency to seek out new and exciting stimuli. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior

128. The 1968 book Personality and Assessment was written by __________. A) Alfred Adler B) Abraham Maslow C) B. F. Skinner D) Walter Mischel Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.5b Identify key criticisms of trait models. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior 129. Mischel would most likely explain an individual’s behavior by focusing on __________. A) personality traits B) unconscious motives Incorrect. Mischel was not a psychodynamic theorist who focused on unconscious motives. C) situational factors Correct. Mischel found low correlations among different behaviors believed to reflect the same trait. D) genetic factors Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior 130. Roberta has collected data on students’ attitudes toward cheating. According to Walter Mischel, the students’ attitudes will likely ___________ predict whether or not they cheat on an upcoming exam. A) fail to Incorrect. Mischel did not claim that traits do not predict behaviors, but said that they were weaker predictors of specific behaviors. B) moderately C) strongly D) weakly Correct. Mischel found that personality traits were rather weak predictors of specific behaviors. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.5b Identify key criticisms of trait models. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior

131. Based on trait theorists’ response to Mischel’s critique, how would you expect Donovan’s prejudiced attitude toward Latinos to impact his behavior as a waiter at a restaurant? A) His general attitude will have no direct impact on his behavior. Incorrect. General attitude will have a weak influence on individual behaviors, but a stronger relationship with aggregated behaviors over time. B) If one looks at his aggregated behaviors, they will see a relationship between his attitude and his behavior. Correct. If we look at individual behaviors, traits are weak predictors of those actions. If we look at aggregated behaviors over time, however, traits are better predictors. C) His behavior will be the opposite of his attitude because of the training he received in appreciating diversity. D) If one looks at his aggregated behaviors, they will not see a relationship between his attitude and his behavior. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.5b Identify key criticisms of trait models. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior 132. Jennette scored very low on a measure of extraversion contained on a personality inventory she took in her psychology class. According to the theories of Walter Mischel, what can we predict about her likeliness to attend Saturday’s homecoming dance? A) This would indicate a preference for quiet, reserved settings, so she probably won’t attend. Incorrect. While she might be less likely to attend than somebody who is more extraverted, the relationship between individual traits and specific behaviors is weak at best. B) We would not do very well predicting her attendance at the dance. Correct. Mischel’s research confirmed that personality traits are not highly predictive of isolated behaviors in a single situation. C) Despite a low score on extraversion, if Jennette has nothing better to do, she will probably attend. D) If her other scores on the inventory are high, she will probably attend the dance. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.5b Identify key criticisms of trait models. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior

133. A key criticism of the trait perspective of personality development is that it __________. A) fails to explain the cause of the differences in the various trait dimensions Correct. Trait theorists do not focus on the origin of personality, but rather in describing individual personalities. B) focuses too much on the role of unconscious forces in personality development C) ignores the evil and selfishness that humans are capable of D) lacks supportive evidence for the existence of multiple trait dimensions Incorrect. In fact, the trait theories of personality have some of the strongest empirically supported evidence. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 14.5b Identify key criticisms of trait models. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior % correct 50 a = 50 b = 14 c = 3 d = 30 r = .32 % correct 52 a = 52 b = 19 c = 3 d = 23 r = .37 134. According to Eysenck, who would have the LEAST active reticular activating system (RAS)? A) Grace, who likes to read Incorrect. Someone who is less likely to seek out stimulation would not have a hypoactive reticular activating system, according to Eysenck. B) Tucker, who likes to fish C) Lily, who likes to listen to soft music D) Ben, who likes to surf Correct. Eysenck argued that those with an underactive RAS are habitually underaroused and bored and therefore seek out stimulation. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior 135. The practice of physiognomy, as well as that of phrenology, have been summarily discredited by modern scientific research. As it turns out, the bumps on a person’s head and one’s facial characteristics give virtually no information about their personality characteristics. This is an important reminder of the importance of the critical thinking principle of __________. A) falsifiability Correct. The research has demonstrated that these practices are without any validity or merit, and thus it has falsified early claims to the contrary. B) correlation vs. causation C) extraordinary claims D) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. Alternate hypotheses have not been offered for the use of phrenology and physiognomy; in fact, they are practices that may have no value whatsoever. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI–2 and their methods of construction. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

136. According to the text authors, two key criteria for evaluating personality assessments are __________. A) objectivity and reliability B) objectivity and validity C) reliability and objectivity D) reliability and validity Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI–2 and their methods of construction. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche 137. __________, typically pencil-and-paper tests, are the best-known personality instruments. A) Projective tests B) Inkblots C) Thematic Appreciation Tests D) Structured personality tests Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI–2 and their methods of construction. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche 138. The __________ is the most extensively researched of all structured personality tests. A) TAT B) MMPI C) Rorschach D) NEO Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI–2 and their methods of construction. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche 139. The MMPI and MMPI–2 are personality tests that are designed to detect __________. A) individual differences in personality patterns B) symptoms of mental disorders C) relationships between body types and personality patterns D) differences in interpretation of ambiguous stimuli Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI–2 and their methods of construction. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche % correct 67 a = 24 b = 67 c = 9 d = 0 r = .36 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

140. The extent to which respondents can tell what the items are measuring is known as __________. A) projective hypothesis B) the P. T. Barnum effect C) face validity D) content reliability Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI–2 and their methods of construction. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche 141. Sheila is taking a personality test for a waitress job at a new restaurant in town. Despite her shy nature, she wants to answer the questions in such a way that she appears outgoing. What aspect of this test will give her problems if it is low? A) external validity Incorrect. Sheila is hoping for a test that has strong face validity, not external validity. B) surface validity C) face validity Correct. Face validity is the extent to which respondents can tell what the items are measuring. D) empirical validity Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI–2 and their methods of construction. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche % correct 70 a = 13 b = 5 c = 70 d = 11 r = .35 142. Many people are familiar with the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator. However, few students are knowledgeable about the fact that this popular personality assessment instrument has __________. A) high reliability and high validity B) high reliability and low validity C) low reliability and high validity D) low reliability and low validity Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI–2 and their methods of construction. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche % correct 79 a = 0 b = 12 c = 9 d = 79 r = .45

143. Tests consisting of ambiguous stimuli that examinees must interpret are called __________. A) structured personality tests B) Rorschach tests C) projective tests D) face validity Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.6b Describe projective tests, particularly the Rorschach, and their strengths and weaknesses. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche % correct 73 a = 3 b = 24 c = 73 d = 0 r = .54 144. A person’s responses to a projective test are thought to reflect __________. A) current events B) daydreaming themes C) maladaptive patterns of behavior D) unconscious thoughts and feelings Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.6b Describe projective tests, particularly the Rorschach, and their strengths and weaknesses. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche % correct 88 a = 6 b = 0 c = 6 d = 88 r = .22 145. What method of personality assessment is considered the most controversial in psychology today? A) clinical Interviews B) polygraph tests C) projective tests D) structured personality tests Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.6b Describe projective tests, particularly the Rorschach, and their strengths and weaknesses. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche 146. Many projective assessment tools have disputed levels of __________. A) standardization B) representativeness C) subjectivity D) validity Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.6b Describe projective tests, particularly the Rorschach, and their strengths and weaknesses. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

147. William’s father wants him to join the army. William has no desire to join. What personality test could William fool the easiest into believing he had a psychological disorder that might keep him out of the army? A) MMPI–2 Incorrect. The MMPI–2 has validity scales built in that are designed to “catch” people who are answering dishonestly. B) Rorschach Correct. There is little evidence to support that the Rorschach validly detects mental disorders, so it might be the easiest to manipulate. C) CPI D) MBQ Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.6b Describe projective tests, particularly the Rorschach, and their strengths and weaknesses. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche 148. Ulrich goes to a psychologist for a personality assessment and is asked to look at a series of ambiguous inkblots. "Tell me what you see in each blot," the doctor says. Ulrich is taking the __________. A) MMPI–2 Incorrect. The MMPI-2 is a pen-and-paper personality inventory. It does not involve interpreting inkblots. B) Rorschach Correct. The Rorschach is sometimes referred to as the "inkblot test." C) CPI D) MBQ Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.6b Describe projective tests, particularly the Rorschach, and their strengths and weaknesses. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche 149. Which psychological test asks the subject to tell a story based on a picture of one or more people in which it is unclear what is going on? A) Rorschach test B) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) C) California Psychological Inventory (CPI) D) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.6b Describe projective tests, particularly the Rorschach, and their strengths and weaknesses. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche % correct 88 a = 9 b = 88 c = 0 d = 3 r = .64

150. According to the authors, persons who employ the assessment technique of graphology are often more influenced by the __________ than they are by the actual differences in people’s writing styles. A) availability heuristic B) confirmation bias Incorrect. The confirmation bias may, in fact, come into play in the way a graphologist interprets a particular handwriting sample, but it is not the heuristic that is mentioned by the authors. C) hindsight bias D) representativeness heuristic Correct. Because certain handwriting characteristics bear a superficial resemblance to certain personality traits, graphologists assume that they go together. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.6b Describe projective tests, particularly the Rorschach, and their strengths and weaknesses. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche % correct 67 a = 9 b = 20 c = 2 d = 67 r = .21 151. The fact that a general statement can be seen by five different individuals as being an insightful analysis of their personality is most likely due to the __________. A) information given by the individuals B) skills of the assessor C) P. T. Barnum effect D) reliability and validity of personality assessment tools Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.6c Identify common pitfalls in personality assessment. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche 152. When Kate read her horoscope for the day, she was amazed to find that it described her very well. She is probably a victim of __________. A) the P. T. Barnum effect Correct. The P. T. Barnum effect is the tendency of people to accept high base rate descriptions—those that could apply to almost everyone. B) mental set bias Incorrect. There is no heuristic called the mental set bias. The mental set refers to attempts to solve problems using past successful solutions to similar problems. C) self-actualization D) social desirability bias Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.6c Identify common pitfalls in personality assessment. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche % correct 42 a = 42 b = 42 c = 0 d = 12 r = .34

153. Lena answered true to most of the questions that asked her about her participation in outdoor activities or social gatherings. When she received her results, she was amazed that the test had accurately described her extraverted personality. What may Lena be a victim of? A) self-validation B) confirmation bias Incorrect. The confirmation bias refers to the tendency to attend to information that supports our beliefs, while ignoring information that counters our beliefs. C) personal validation Correct. Also known as the P.T. Barnum effect, personal validation is our tendency to accept as true descriptions that can be applied to almost everyone. D) projective accuracy Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.6c Identify common pitfalls in personality assessment. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche 154. Many people believe in the validity of activities like palmistry, tarot card reading, and astrology. The evidence to support the usefulness of these activities as anything other than entertainment is virtually non-existent. This reminds you to consider which principle of critical thinking the next time you are at a carnival with a mind reader or a fortune teller? A) falsifiability B) ruling out rival hypotheses C) replicability Incorrect. There is not a problem of replicability in this question, because there is no research that has found evidence to support these activities. Therefore, there is no useful research to repeat! D) extraordinary claims Correct. Extraordinary claims, like the ability to read minds or see the future, have not been supported by extraordinary evidence. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 14.6c Identify common pitfalls in personality assessment. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche % correct 65 a = 14 b = 7 c = 14 d = 65 r = .39 155. A(n) __________ correlation refers to the perception of nonexistent statistical associations between variables. A) illusory B) projective C) thematic D) apperceptive Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.6c Identify common pitfalls in personality assessment. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche

156. According to the authors, criminal profilers are __________. A) no more accurate and insightful than college students with no training in criminology B) much more accurate and insightful than college students with no training in criminology C) more accurate and insightful than college students, but not any more accurate than clinical psychologists in their judgments D) less accurate and insightful than both college students and clinical psychologists in their judgments Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.6c Identify common pitfalls in personality assessment. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche 157. The book suggests that criminal profiling can fall victim to __________. A) social durability bias B) the P. T. Barnum effect C) confirmation bias D) projective hypotheses Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.6c Identify common pitfalls in personality assessment. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche Fill-in-the-Blank 1. An examination of a single person’s unique characteristics is at the heart of the __________ approach to studying personality. Answer: idiographic Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Topic: Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? 2. According to Freud, the __________ is the part of one’s personality that enables us to feel guilt and shame when we fail to live up to our internal standards of appropriate behavior. Answer: superego Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

3. Defense mechanisms, according to Sigmund Freud, are unconscious attempts to reduce our feelings of __________ and are used in such a manner by the __________. Answer: anxiety; ego Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 4. The Freudian defense mechanism of __________ involves the motivated forgetting of distressing external experiences. Answer: denial Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 5. Emilio had an important presentation at work that did not go well. As a result, he spent nearly two and a half hours getting scolded and reprimanded by his immediate boss and the company owner. After getting home, he yelled at his children to “clean up this mess” after they left a couple of toys in the living room. Emilio has engaged the defense mechanism of __________ to attempt to relieve his stress and anxiety. Answer: displacement Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 6. Clyde is a 2½-year-old child who is in the middle of toilet training. According to Freud, Clyde is in the __________ stage of development. Answer: anal Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 51.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 7. Ethan and Eva are fraternal twins who were born about two months ago. According to Freud’s theory of personality development, they will experience the Oedipus and Electra complex respectively during the __________ stage. Answer: phallic Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

8. __________ is the theorist who has had the widest sphere of influence in how people think about the topic of personality development. Answer: Sigmund Freud (or Freud) Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 9. In contrast to Freud’s theory, the neo-Freudians placed more importance on the role of __________ in achieving healthy personality development. Answer: social drives Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 10. Alfred Adler was most interested in understanding how the __________ complex led to differences in psychological adjustment for psychologically healthy individuals versus those who developed a mental illness. Answer: inferiority Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 51.1 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 11. The biased assumption that females were inferior to males was a major point of contention between Freud’s ideas and those of the neo-Freudian theorist __________. Answer: Karen Horney (or Horney) Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers 12. A common criticism of many psychoanalytic and humanistic perspectives on personality development is that they are __________. Answer: unfalsifiable (or difficult to falsify) Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

13. The role of environmental contingencies in producing different personality patterns was a key idea of the __________ view. Answer: behavioral Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality 14. The personality approach offered by the __________ theorists focused on how we influence and are influenced by our differing social environments. Answer: social learning Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality 15. The __________ perspective on personality has the strongest scientific footing of the three major forces in the history of personality psychology. Answer: behavioral (or behaviorist or behavioral and social learning) Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality 16. The major force in personality psychology that asserted that people were free to choose either adaptive or self-defeating patterns was called __________. Answer: humanism Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force 17. According to humanistic theory, the desire to achieve all that one is capable of is called __________. Answer: self-actualization Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force 18. The statistical tool of __________ is most important to the trait theory of personality. Answer: factor analysis Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior % correct 97 a = 0 b = 0 c = 3 d = 97 r = .41 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

19. A concern with one’s self-image and achieving personal goals is most important for people in __________ cultures. Answer: individualistic Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior 20. Donnell tells his friend, Marques, that he has noticed that people with different body types fall into neat, discrete categories associated with very different patterns of personality traits. Marques, who is a psychology major, would be wise to warn Donnell of the __________ bias. Answer: confirmation Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.5b Identify key criticisms of trait models. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior 21. One concern with the use of structured personality tests, like the MMPI, is that certain questions do not appear to be relevant to the psychological dimensions they supposedly measure. A psychologist would say such questions have a low degree of __________. Answer: face validity Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI–2 and their methods of construction. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche 22. Darnell is a psychotherapist who asks his clients to describe what is going on in ambiguous situations that are presented one at a time on different cards. His use of __________ is one method to attempt the assessment of an individual’s personality. Answer: projective tests (or thematic apperception test) Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.6b Describe projective tests, particularly the Rorschach, and their strengths and weaknesses. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche 23. The extent to which a test contributes information beyond other more easily collected measures is called __________ validity. Answer: incremental Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.6b Describe projective tests, particularly the Rorschach, and their strengths and weaknesses. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche

24. Lyle Crane is a motivational speaker who gives seminars to parents of teenagers. During his talks, he mentions that, on the basis of questionnaires, the individuals on stage with him are anxious about their responsibilities as parents, have serious doubts about whether their discipline methods are effective in instilling desired values to their children, and worry about what the future holds in their relationship with their kids. Those on stage, and many in the audience, nod in agreement. Lyle tells them that with his Parenting Kit (which can be theirs today for a low price of $249), he can help them to become more effective parents. He is quickly inundated with cash, checks, and credit card information. Many of these parents are falling victim to the __________ effect. Answer: P. T. Barnum Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.6c Identify common pitfalls in personality assessment. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche 25. According to your authors, criminal profiles seem to be examples of __________. Answer: the P. T. Barnum effect (or Barnum statements or obvious general guesses) Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.6c Identify common pitfalls in personality assessment. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche Essay 1. Contrast Freud’s theory of personality with that of the humanists’ theory of personality. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. Freud’s psychoanalytic theory assumed psychic determinism, focused on the unconscious level of the mind, and assumed that people were naturally destructive (the id and the pleasure principle). The humanists asserted that individuals had free will, focused on conscious level of the mind, and sought constructive personal growth. Freud argued for the importance of society in constraining one’s biologically based, destructive urges. Rogers argued that others set conditions of worth on us, and being too concerned about what we should/ought to do stifles our tendency toward our fullest potential. Freud argued that personality was fully developed by adolescence and unchanging throughout adulthood. Rogers focused on the idea of free will and the ability of the self to become congruent with the organism. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory.; 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers; Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force

2. Compare and contrast the views of Sigmund Freud with those of B. F. Skinner as they apply to a discussion of personality development. Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following ideas for full credit. Both theorists superficially agree on the issues of determinism and unconscious processing. Answer needs to distinguish between how this determinism occurs between Freud’s and Skinner’s views. Freud would focus on the determinism from arising within the individual, while Skinner would see it in our passive responses to external contingencies. Answer needs to distinguish between how each discusses the unconscious. Freud thought of the unconscious as something that the individual could not access. Skinner talks about the unconscious in our inability to determine the immediate influences on our behaviors. As a result, we assume free will because we cannot identify our responding to causally determined influences in the environment around us. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory.; 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers; Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Behavior 3. Categorize the similarities and differences between the psychoanalytic, behavioral, and humanistic perspectives on personality. Answer: Answers will vary but all should address the following issues for full credit. A student should discuss the following ideas within their answer: Basic view of human nature (Psychoanalytic: basically bad; Behavioral: neutral/neither good nor bad; Humanistic: basically good) Basic view of culture/society (Psychoanalytic: basically good; Behavioral: neutral/neither good nor bad; Humanistic-basically bad/controlling and stifling) Important factor in personality development (Psychoanalytic: early experiences and unconscious motivational conflict; Behavioral: experiences with external contingencies and modeling; Humanistic: the self and the opportunity to have congruency in personality) Differing levels of research support (Behavioral perspective has the firmest grounding of the three; many concerns about the falsifiability of keys ideas within the Psychoanalytic and Humanistic perspectives) Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory.; 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories.; 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality.; 14.3b Describe key criticisms of behavioral and social learning approaches.; 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models.; 14.4b Describe key criticisms of humanistic approaches. Topic: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers; Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Behavior; Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force

4. Demonstrate that Walter Mischel is correct in his assertion that general personality traits are not accurate predictors of specific behaviors, while the trait theorists are also correct in their assertion that personality traits are accurate predictors of a person’s behavior. Use examples from your own life or a friend’s life to support your position(s). You may create a fictitious example, if you prefer. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following points for full credit. Mischel is correct in saying that a general personality trait is not a good or accurate predictor of what a person will do in a particular situation. (Student should give an example of this from their own life or a friend’s life to demonstrate this.) Through the principle of aggregation, the student should show that the personality trait is a better predictor across time and/or situations than for any single incident. (Students should give an example from their own life or a friend’s life to demonstrate this. It does not have to follow from the above, but that would be best). Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.5b Identify key criticisms of trait models. Topic: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior 5. Illustrate the acceptable and dubious forms of personality assessment that have existed or exist today in the field of personality psychology. Your discussion needs to identify at least one acceptable and two dubious forms of personality assessment. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. Student identifies and mentions information about reliability and validity evidence for MMPI 1 or 2, CPI, NEO-PI-R, and the Myers-Briggs, as well as the projective tests discussed in the chapter (Rorschach, TAT, and Human Figure Drawing tests, as well as graphology, phrenology, and physiognomy). Student identifies limitations of above. Student identifies and mentions the lack of reliability and/or validity evidence for phrenology, physiognomy, MBTI, Rorschach, TAT, graphology, or polygraph (needs to identify problems with at least two). Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI–2 and their methods of construction.; 14.6b Describe projective tests, particularly the Rorschach, and their strengths and weaknesses.; 14.6c Identify common pitfalls in personality assessment. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche

Critical Thinking 1. Contrast the important differences between persons with an internal locus of control and an external locus of control. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. Students should identify that internals believe that life outcomes are under their direct control, either through their efforts or through their personal characteristics. Externals perceive life outcomes as the result of environmental or situational factors, such as luck, fate, chance, or others’ whims. Students should note at least one research finding mentioned in the text (internals experience less emotional upset in the face of stressors than do externals; externals are more likely to be diagnosed with stress-related psychological disorders such as anxiety or depression than internals; or mention the results of the nursing home resident study or any other examples given in class). Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Topic: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality 2. Using Carl Rogers’s idea of conditions of worth, explain how an interest you had as a child was either stifled or enhanced by the responses you received from your parents and closest friends. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. The student should clearly identify a specific interest and whether he or she will discuss how it was stifled or enhanced by others’ responses. The student should make the point, either directly or indirectly, that important others’ responses influenced his or her own acceptance of his or her ability or inability with regard to that interest. The student should note that the conditions of worth might lead to incongruence between his or her actual/true self and his or her idealized self. Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Topic: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force 3. Identify a situation in which you or a friend fell victim to the P. T. Barnum effect. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. Should demonstrate a correct understanding of the definition or description of the P. T. Barnum effect. Example should highlight the presentation of general information to the person (either the student or the friend) and describe how that information was perceived as credible, accurate, and specific to the person—even when it really wasn’t. Example needs to be a correct example of the P. T. Barnum effect and not some other idea from the chapter. Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 14.6c Identify common pitfalls in personality assessment. Topic: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche

CHAPTER 14: PERSONALITY ______________________________________________________________________________ Theories of Personality 1. An individual’s personality, as well as situational variables, will determine that person's _______. a. behavior b. predispositions c. uniqueness d. all of the above Answer a % correct 55 a= 55 b= 3 c= 20 d= 23 r = .24 2. The pattern of characteristic thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that persists over time and situations and distinguishes one person from another is called _______. a. a trait. b. an emotional profile. c. personality. d. the primary process. Answer c % correct 59 a= 38 b= 3 c= 59 d= 0 r = .20 3. The pattern of characteristic thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that persists over time and situations and distinguishes one person from another is called ____________________. a. a trait b. a habit c. personality d. learning Answer c % correct 83 a= 16 b= 0 c= 83 d= 0 r = .22 4. _______ is a unique set of behaviors and enduring qualities that influence the way a person adapts to her/his environment. a. Instinct b. Personality c. Trait d. Motivation Answer b % correct 64 a= 7 b= 64 c= 23 d= 7 r = .33 5. Behavior is influenced by: a. personality. b. situational characteristics. c. individual interpretations of unique situations. d. all of the above Answer d % correct 90 a= 3 b= 3 c= 3 d= 90

r = .30

Psychoanalytic View 6. According to the Highlight article, Freud asserted that ________ lay at the core of his patients’ neurotic behavior. a. low self-esteem b. casual attitudes toward sex c. repressed sexual desires d. cultural bias Answer c % correct 90 a= 0 b= 10 c= 90 d= 0 r = .68 7. Which aspect of the mind held the greatest fascination for Freud? a. the preconscious mind b. the conscious area c. suppressions d. the unconscious Answer d % correct 86 a= 14 b= 0 c= 0 d= 86 r = .26 8. Sally has a desire to eat a steak with a baked potato smothered with butter and sour cream. One component of her personality tells her, because she is overweight, that instead of eating the meal, she should fast and direct her efforts to ending world hunger. Another component suggests that it would be better to eat a salad and a bran muffin, then run two miles. The fasting suggestion most likely was made by which component of personality? a. id b. ego c. superego d. oral Answer c % correct 33 a= 5 b= 62 c= 33 d= 0 r = .65 9. According to Bill’s psychoanalyst, he was traumatized during the anal stage of his psychosexual development, which accounts for Bill's tightwad habits. Which of the following would be Freud’s term for Bill’s behavior? a. anal retentive b. anal expulsive c. parsimonious d. serendipitous Answer a % correct 95 a= 95 b= 5 c= 0 d= 0 r = .25 10. Individual memory is to preconscious as ancestral memory is to ________. a. unconscious b. personal unconscious c. ego d. collective unconscious Answer d % correct 76 a= 10 b= 14 c= 0 d= 76 r = .47 11. According to Jung’s psychoanalytic theory, each of us has ________, which are inherited predispositions to respond to certain concepts. a. drive b. instincts c. archetypes d. archegos Answer c % correct 62 a= 5 b= 24 c= 62 d= 10 r = .56

12. According to Jung, our repressed thoughts, undeveloped ideas, and forgotten experiences are contained in the ____________________. a. persona b. archetype c. personal unconscious d. collective unconscious Answer c % correct 61 a= 11 b= 11 c= 61 d= 16 r = .31 13. Jamie is a joiner. She is interested in other people and events going on around her in the world. In Jung's view, she is an ___________________. a. archetype b. endomorph c. introvert d. extrovert Answer d % correct 89 a= 5 b= 0 c= 5 d= 89 r = .31 14. Carl Jung stressed the ___________________ of people. a. sexual instincts b. learned motives c. spiritual qualities d. primary drives Answer c % correct 39 a= 11 b= 33 c= 39 d= 17 r = .29 15. Steve has an overriding need to submit to others and feels safe only when receiving their guidance and protection. Horney would label him a ____________________ type. a. detached b. compliant c. recessive d. dominant Answer b % correct 83 a= 0 b= 83 c= 11 d= 5 r = .38 16. Adler believed that people often are motivated by __________. a. feelings of inferiority b. sexual instincts c. their locus of control d. traumatic events during childhood Answer a % correct 76 a= 76 b= 0 c= 14 d= 10 r = .20 17. John dreamed that he was in a train that entered a tunnel. If a psychologist believed that the dream expressed John's unconscious sexual desires, the psychologist would likely be a _________. a. humanist b. learning theorist c. personologist d. psychoanalyst Answer d % correct 97 a= 0 b= 0 c= 3 d= 97 r = .25

18. Jane is an angry, hostile woman. At work and in her personal life, she is described as energetic go-getter because she is a workaholic and does a great deal and does a great deal of volunteer work for abused children and women. Jane's behavior may be an example of which defense mechanism? a. sublimation b. displacement c. reaction formation d. projection Answer a % correct 34 a= 34 b= 10 c= 41 d= 14 r = .24 19. The view that personality results from struggles between opposites within each of us is an assumption of which of the following? a. Jung b. Adler c. Maslow d. Mischel Answer a % correct 34 a= 34 b= 41 c= 10 d= 14 r = .27 20. In Adler’s theory, _______ is the energy behind personality and ________ represents form of personality. a. style of life; striving for superiority b. libido; eros c. instinct; reality d. striving for superiority; style of life Answer d % correct 66 a= 0 b= 17 c= 17 d= 66 r = .36 21. The pleasure principle is to the reality principle as the _______ is to the _______. a. ego; id b. id; ego c. ego; superego d. id; superego Answer b % correct 62 a= 7 b= 62 c= 14 d= 17 r = .44 22. Which of the following gives the stages of development outlined by Freud in the order in which they occur? a. anal, oral, latency, phallic, genital b. anal, latency, oral, phallic, genital c. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital d. oral, anal, latency, phallic, genital Answer c % correct 90 a= 0 b= 0 c= 90 d= 10 r = .32 23. What did Freud call the part of the personality that had to be socialized by parents? a. id b. ego c. authentic self d. superego Answer b % correct 66 a= 10 b= 66 c= 3 d= 21 r = .44 24. What did Freud call the part of the personality that learns that we will be happier if we postpone gratification? a. id b. ego c. authentic self d. superego Answer b % correct 56 a= 13 b= 56 c= 5 d= 26 r = .46

25. What did Freud call the part of the personality that begins to develop at about age five? a. id b. ego c. authentic self d. superego Answer d % correct 49 a= 8 b= 41 c= 3 d= 49 r = .20 26. The fundamental or most basic defense mechanism is _______. a. rationalization b. repression c. denial d. projection Answer b % correct 60 a= 10 b= 60 c= 30 d= 0 r = .56 27. Anna is a morally rigorous person who demands that her daughter remain a virgin until she is married. Anna cannot remember her own premarital sexual encounters. Which defense mechanism would likely account for this memory lapse? a. rationalization b. denial c. repression d. projection Answer c % correct 76 a= 3 b= 21 c= 76 d= 0 r = .24

28. “I didn’t get the job even though I was the most qualified applicant because the company has to hire a minority worker.” This probably illustrates which defense mechanism? a. rationalization b. denial c. repression d. projection Answer a % correct 87 a= 87 b= 3 c= 3 d= 8 r = .37 29. A college professor continually implies that his students are intellectually inferior. Which of the following defense mechanisms is this professor likely using? a. projection b. denial c. reaction formation d. sublimation Answer a % correct 49 a= 49 b= 15 c= 23 d= 13 r = .24 30. Behaving in ways that are the opposite of what one would unconsciously like to do defines _______. a. sublimation b. displacement c. reaction formation d. projection Answer c % correct 33 a= 23 b= 33 c= 33 d= 10 r = .21

31. If a person becomes a Catholic priest or nun because of latent homosexual desires, their occupational choice might represent which defense mechanism? a. sublimation b. displacement c. reaction formation d. projection Answer a % correct 26 a= 26 b= 18 c= 46 d= 10 r = .22 32. Which structure of personality houses one's instincts, according to Freud? a. ego-ideal b. ego c. id d. superego Answer c % correct 79 a= 3 b= 17 c= 79 d= 0 r = .24 33. The part of personality, according to Freud, that seeks to avoid pain is the ________. a. id b. ego c. superego d. ego-ideal Answer a % correct 43 a= 43 b= 24 c= 33 d= 0 r = .36 34. Which statement about the id is most accurate? a. It is in close contact with bodily needs. b. It follows the reality principle. c. It houses the conscience. d. It drives us to live up to our ideals. Answer a % correct 67 a= 67 b= 0 c= 14 d= 19

r = .33

35. Which component of personality mediates between the forces of desire and reality on a moral basis? a. id b. ego c. superego d. ego-ideal Answer c % correct 62 a= 0 b= 34 c= 62 d= 3 r = .49 36. Which of the following Freudian concepts motivates us to better ourselves and live up to our ideals? a. id b. ego c. reality principle d. superego Answer d % correct 67 a= 14 b= 5 c= 14 d= 67 r = .35 37. Identifying with one’s opposite-sex parent occurs in which psychosexual stage? a. oral b. anal c. phallic d. genital Answer c % correct 87 a= 0 b= 0 c= 87 d= 13 r = .53

38. According to Freud, an inadequate resolution of the Oedipus complex leads to: a. child molestation. b. a high regard for women. c. a personality that is reckless and self-assured. d. love of nature. Answer c % correct 52 a= 24 b= 19 c= 52 d= 5 r = .35 39. Which of the following is the most criticized and least empirically supported of Freud’s ideas? a. superego b. ego c. latency period d. Oedipus and Electra complexes Answer d % correct 95 a= 0 b= 5 c= 0 d= 95 r = .21 40. Freud developed his theory of personality on the basis of: a. carefully controlled experiments. b. systematic observations of children. c. cross-cultural investigations. d. case studies of patients. Answer d % correct 95 a= 0 b= 5 c= 0 d= 95 r = .30 41. According to Freud, _______ is the basic motivation for all human behavior. a. instinct b. the striving for self-actualization c. the need to know d. the desire to become superior Answer a % correct 36 a= 36 b= 41 c= 9 d= 14 r = .29 42. After a brief early commitment to hypnosis as a method of uncovering unconscious material, Freud later developed his psychoanalytic method of: a. factor analysis. b. situational determinism. c. empathy. d. free association. Answer d % correct 64 a= 23 b= 14 c= 0 d= 64 r = .41 43. According to psychoanalytic theory, the _______ is the most basic personality system. a. preconscious b. ego c. id d. superego Answer c % correct 69 a= 10 b= 18 c= 69 d= 3 r = .39 44. Joe seems to be constantly condemning himself for being bad and “sinful.” In psychoanalytic terms, we would say that Joe has an overdeveloped _______. a. libido b. id c. ego d. superego Answer d % correct 55 a= 0 b= 23 c= 23 d= 55 r = .47

45. Sheila was upset by her boss, so she goes home and beats her children, who, in turn, kick the dog. This episode is an example of _______. a. displacement b. undoing c. projection d. reaction formation Answer a % correct 69 a= 69 b= 0 c= 14 d= 17 r = .23 46. The old adage, “Everyone is queer but me and thee,” illustrates the defense mechanism of _______. a. displacement b. undoing c. projection d. reaction formation Answer c % correct 69 a= 17 b= 0 c= 69 d= 14 r = .28 47. A college student takes a lot of psychology courses so that he will be able to talk about his personal psychological problems in a calm, detached, clinical fashion. He is using the defense mechanism of _______. a. displacement b. intellectualization c. projection d. reaction formation Answer b % correct 68 a= 14 b= 68 c= 14 d= 5 r = .42 48. Picasso’s paintings often contained exaggerated sexual symbolism. This way of expressing a basic impulse in a socially praiseworthy fashion illustrates the use of _______. a. displacement b. sublimation c. projection d. reaction formation Answer b % correct 76 a= 7 b= 76 c= 7 d= 10 r = .23 49. Maria takes good notes in class. Whenever someone who has missed class due to illness asks her if he can copy her notes, she grips them tightly and says “No! They’re mine, and I don’t wish to share them.” A psychoanalytic theorist would probably contend that Maria has a(n) _______ fixation. a. oral b. anal c. phallic d. genital Answer b % correct 51 a= 10 b= 51 c= 31 d= 8 r = .20 50. One of the most serious criticisms of psychoanalytic theory is its: a. reliance on tests. b. lack of flexibility. c. unrealistic optimism. d. use of after-the-fact explanations. Answer d % correct 41 a= 19 b= 32 c= 9 d= 41 r = .42 51. According to Freud, the _______ makes up the largest part of our personality. a. preconscious b. conscious c. unconscious d. These three areas contribute equally to personality. Answer c % correct 82 a= 0 b= 9 c= 82 d= 9 r = .22 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

52. The id is that part of the personality which operates according to the: a. pleasure principle. b. superego. c. rules of reality. d. past experiences of the individual. Answer a % correct 91 a= 91 b= 0 c= 9 d= 0 r = .52 53. Six-year-old Suzie sees her younger brother approaching with the new toy he received for his birthday. Suzie suddenly decides she wants the toy, so she pushes her brother to the ground, grabs his toy, and rushes into the next room to play with it. During this situation, the part of Suzie’s personality which is most likely in control is her _______. a. conscious b. superego c. ego d. id Answer d % correct 85 a= 0 b= 8 c= 8 d= 85 r = .48 54. That part of the personality which operates on the reality principle is the _______. a. superego b. ego c. id d. eros Answer b % correct 82 a= 9 b= 82 c= 9 d= 0 r = .50 55. The superego is that part of the personality which represents the _______. a. pleasure principle b. reality principle c. thanatos d. conscience Answer d % correct 62 a= 8 b= 31 c= 0 d= 62 r = .52 56. An orally fixated person would most likely: a. be an only child. b. dislike his or her father. c. be a sloppy dresser. d. eat and smoke a great deal. Answer d % correct 95 a= 5 b= 0 c= 0 d= 95

r = .20

57. The process of toilet training occurs during the _______ stage. a. phallic b. oral c. anal d. genital Answer c % correct 95 a= 0 b= 0 c= 95 d= 5 r = .55 58. The Oedipus and Electra complexes occur during the _______ stage. a. anal b. phallic c. oral d. latency Answer b % correct 86 a= 7 b= 86 c= 3 d= 3 r = .39

59. Four-year-old Kevin is in love with his mother, and wants very much to get rid of his father so that he can have his mother all to himself. According to Freud, Kevin is undergoing: a. a regression. b. the genital stage. c. an Oedipus complex. d. all of the above Answer c % correct 95 a= 0 b= 0 c= 95 d= 5 r = .45 60. The stage of personality development which lasts from about age 6 until puberty is known as the _______ stage. a. phallic b. anal c. genital d. latency Answer d % correct 79 a= 10 b= 0 c= 10 d= 79 r = .32 61. The latency period lasts from _______ years of age. a. 1–3 b. 3–6 c. 6–12 d. 12–18 Answer c % correct 73 a= 5 b= 5 c= 73 d= 18

r = .50

62. Erikson stresses the quality of _______ in personality development. a. sexual motives b. stimulus motives c. primary-process thinking d. parent-child relationships Answer d % correct 91 a= 9 b= 0 c= 0 d= 91 r = .27 63. Jeremy is eighteen years old. According to Erikson, his chief task will be acquiring a sense of _______. a. trust b. autonomy c. initiative d. identity Answer d % correct 68 a= 14 b= 5 c= 14 d= 68 r = .27 64. Agnes is seventy years old. According to Erikson, her main task will be to develop a sense of _______. a. identity b. initiative c. generativity d. integrity Answer d % correct 95 a= 0 b= 5 c= 0 d= 95 r = .33

Humanist Theories 65. ___________________theory emphasizes that humans are positively motivated and progress toward higher levels of functioning. a. Humanistic b. Psychoanalytic c. Social learning d. Trait Answer a % correct 89 a= 89 b= 5 c= 6 d= 0 r = .44 66. Which of the following is NOT a humanist? a. May b. Maslow c. Bandura d. Rogers Answer c % correct 50 a= 30 b= 20 c= 50 d= 0

r = .27

67. “Becoming what one ought to be” is one way to define _______. a. peak experience b. self-actualization c. achievement potential d. self concept Answer b % correct 79 a= 0 b= 79 c= 8 d= 13 r = .57 68. Carl Rogers, Abraham Maslow, and Rollo May are all _______. a. behaviorists b. psychoanalysts c. humanists d. cognitivists Answer c % correct 87 a= 10 b= 0 c= 87 d= 3 r = .35 69. Which of the following believes humans have a natural motivation to reach their highest potential? a. Maslow b. Skinner c. Adler d. Jung Answer a % correct 48 a= 48 b= 3 c= 41 d= 7 r = .45 70. According to Rogers, all people have a need for: a. superiority. b. sex and aggression. c. positive regard. d. anxiety reduction. Answer c % correct 90 a= 7 b= 0 c= 90 d= 3

r = .39

71. _______ name the theory that emphasizes the concept that humans are positively motivated and progress toward higher levels of functioning. a. Humanistic b. Psychoanalytic c. Social learning d. Trait Answer a % correct 91 a= 91 b= 0 c= 9 d= 0 r = .28 72. The most famous humanistic psychologist was _______. a. Rogers b. Skinner c. Maslow d. Adler Answer a % correct 50 a= 50 b= 14 c= 27 d= 9 r = .38 73. The push toward fulfillment of our inborn capacities and potentialities is what Rogers calls the _______. a. primary process b. compensatory process c. actualizing tendency d. need for achievement Answer c % correct 52 a= 28 b= 3 c= 52 d= 17 r = .44 74. According to Rogers, people brought up with conditional positive regard _______. a. tend to be vain and narcissistic b. tend to act as if they were orally fixated c. feel valued regardless of their attitudes and behaviors d. live lives directed toward what others want and value Answer c % correct 82 a= 3 b= 3 c= 82 d= 13 r = .26 75. Which of the following, according to Rogers, is MOST likely to become a fully functioning person? a. someone with a strongly developed superego b. someone with an extroverted personality c. someone brought up with conditional positive regard d. someone brought up with unconditional positive regard Answer d % correct 59 a= 7 b= 3 c= 31 d= 59 r = .63 76. Unconditional positive regard is most important to _______. a. Freud b. Jung c. Maslow d. Rogers Answer d % correct 64 a= 0 b= 14 c= 23 d= 64 r = .27

Assessment of Personality 77. Harry goes to a psychologist because he is continually depressed. When he gets to the psychologist’s office, he realizes that while he wants to end his depression it will take him far too long to tell the doctor his life story. The psychologist senses Harry’s reluctance and decides to administer an objective test to reveal Harry’s attitudes and feelings. The doctor administers which of the following tests? a. MMPI-2 b. TAT c. 16PF d. Rorschach Answer a % correct 56 a= 56 b= 17 c= 11 d= 17 r = .35 78. Psychodynamic theorists believe that objective tests are of little use because _________________. a. they are difficult to score b. people are not usually aware of the unconscious determinants of their behavior c. they are usually neither valid nor reliable d. it is difficult to agree on the meaning of test results Answer b % correct 78 a= 0 b= 78 c= 5 d= 16 r = .21 79. When later questions are developed “on the spot” based on a respondent’s previous answers, the researcher is using which method? a. behavioral assessment b. unstructured interview c. structured interview d. projective technique Answer b % correct 60 a= 20 b= 60 c= 0 d= 20 r = .26 80. Why was the MMPI originally developed? a. to identify people with psychological disorders b. to identify malingerers from people with true conversion disorders c. to identify applicants with the most potential for managerial positions d. to select applicants for the OSS who could make the best agents and spies Answer a % correct 72 a= 72 b= 8 c= 18 d= 3 r = .28 81. When a test actually measures what it is supposed to measure, the test has _______. a. reliability b. discriminative power c. statistical power d. validity Answer d % correct 86 a= 14 b= 0 c= 0 d= 86 r = .36 82. Consistency of measurement is indicative of the _______ of a test. a. validity b. difficulty c. reliability d. power Answer c % correct 83 a= 17 b= 0 c= 83 d= 0 r = .34

83. There is a relationship between reliability and validity. Which of the following is true? a. A test cannot be valid unless it is reliable. b. A test cannot be reliable unless it is valid. c. A test can be valid but not reliable. d. Reliability and validity are not related. Answer a % correct 30 a= 30 b= 50 c= 20 d= 0 r = .44 84. Which of the following is an objective test that describes personality and can be used to help diagnose emotional problems? a. MMPI-2 b. CPI c. Rorschach d. TAT Answer a % correct 86 a= 86 b= 3 c= 7 d= 3 r = .31 85. Which of the following tests has a respondent construct a story about a picture? a. MMPI-2 b. CPI c. Rorschach d. TAT Answer d % correct 83 a= 3 b= 0 c= 14 d= 83 r = .56 86. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic types of tools used by psychologists to measure personality? a. personal interview b. objective tests c. projective tests d. aptitude tests Answer d % correct 86 a= 0 b= 5 c= 9 d= 86 r = .21 87. The success of an interview depends largely on _______. a. the care with which the questions are prepared b. luck c. the skill of the interviewer d. whether the subject likes being interviewed Answer c % correct 45 a= 28 b= 0 c= 45 d= 28 r = .28 88. To assess personality, behaviorists prefer _______. a. observation b. interviews c. objective tests d. projective tests Answer a % correct 73 a= 73 b= 14 c= 9 d= 5

r = .43

89. The most widely used objective personality test is the _______. a. MMPI-2 b. EPQ c. 16PF d. TAT Answer a % correct 82 a= 82 b= 5 c= 5 d= 9 r = .42

90. Explain why Psychodynamic theorists believe that objective tests are of little use because _______. a. they are difficult to score b. people are not usually aware of the unconscious determinants of their behavior c. they are usually neither valid nor reliable d. it is difficult to agree on the meaning of test results Answer b % correct 50 a= 9 b= 50 c= 23 d= 18 r = .21 91. Which personality tests rely on the interpretation of inkblots to understand personality? a. MMPI-2 b. TAT c. 16PF d. Rorschach Answer d % correct 86 a= 0 b= 9 c= 5 d= 86 r = .53

Quiz 14.1: Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It?

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q14.1.1 Psychologists mostly agree that __________ (made of up of a person’s typical ways of thinking, feeling, and behavior) does exist. a) personality b) intelligence c) the psyche d) the soul ANS: a Topic=Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Sometimes we might attribute too much explanatory power to this entity, but it is there nonetheless. LO 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality.

EOM Q14.1.2 Studies of sociability show higher correlations between biological parents and __________ than between adoptive parents and their adopted children. a) their adopted-away children b) other children they adopted c) their own parents and grandparents d) their foster children ANS: a Topic=Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The biological parents had essentially no environmental contact with their children after birth. LO 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality.

EOM Q14.1.3 In hopes of pinpointing which genes are related to personality, researchers are using __________. a) molecular genetic studies b) chromosomal novelty seeking c) adoption studies d) idiographic studies ANS: a Topic=Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Most of these studies work by examining the linkage between specific genes and known genetic markers on each chromosome. LO 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality.

EOM Q14.1.4 The Minnesota Twins study found which surprising result? a) Shared environment plays little or no role in adult personality. b) Shared environment is essential to developing similar personality traits in adult life. c) Being raised separately meant identical twins developed different personality traits as adults. d) Fraternal twins reared apart are far more similar in terms of adult personality traits than those reared together. ANS: a Topic=Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Identical twins reared apart are about as similar as identical twins reared together. LO 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality.

EOM Q14.1.5 Why is it incorrect to think of specific genes existing for personality traits or attitudes such as religiosity, political preference, or divorce-proneness? a) Genes code for proteins rather than specific behaviors or attitudes; at best, genetic influences on traits are indirect. b) Our understanding of the human genetic code is mostly a matter of guesswork; scientists are far from determining genetic contributions to behavioral factors. c) Environmental factors have been shown to have a much greater impact on behavior than do genetic factors; studying genes is primarily a nod toward appeasing biologists. d) It is not incorrect to think this way; several genes have been identified that directly lead to clear behavioral and attitudinal outcomes. ANS: a Topic=Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 14.1 Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: On what do genes actually exert a direct influence? LO 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality.

Quiz 14.2: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q14.2.1 Freud’s view of the mind has been compared to which natural phenomenon? a) iceberg b) volcano c) ocean d) desert ANS: a Topic=Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Various aspects of consciousness are more or less accessible, according to Freud. LO 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory.

EOM Q14.2.2 Freud believed that the ego uses unconscious maneuvers called __________ to minimize anxiety. a) defense mechanisms b) id-protective devices c) Oedipal defenses d) psychic agencies ANS: a Topic=Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Repression, sublimation, denial, and intellectualization are examples. LO 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q14.2.3 Which Freudian term refers to psychologically returning to a younger age when things seemed simple and safe? a) regression b) repression c) sublimation d) rationalization ANS: a Topic=Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Older children who have long since stopped sucking their thumbs sometimes suddenly resume thumb sucking under stress. LO 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory.

EOM Q14.2.4 Carl Jung subscribed to the notion of a __________, which he thought was a shared storehouse of ancestral memories. a) collective unconscious b) power of myth c) inferiority complex d) superiority complex ANS: a Topic=Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Jung thought about a lot of spooky things. LO 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories.

EOM Q14.2.5 Alfred Adler diverged from the teachings of Freud and maintained that the main motive of human personality was __________. a) striving for superiority b) cataloging archetypes from the collective unconscious c) falsifying earlier psychological theory d) unconscious sexual drives ANS: a Topic=Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Adler, as you will recall, was a neo-Freudian. LO 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories.

Quiz 14.3: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q14.3.1 Because of their belief that thinking influences behavior, social learning theorists are also called social __________ theorists. a) cognitive b) reasoning c) rationality d) thought ANS: a Topic=Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: These theorists emphasized thinking as a cause of personality. LO 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality.

EOM Q14.3.2 Radical behaviorists believe that every person’s actions are the result of __________. a) preexisting causal influences b) conscious decisions c) observational learning d) social learning ANS: a Topic=Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Think about the central view of human nature that most staunch behaviorists would hold. LO 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q14.3.3 Learning how to behave by watching and imitating role models is the basis of the theory of __________ learning. a) observational b) social c) reciprocal d) unconscious ANS: a Topic=Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Keep your eyes open and your mind busy. LO 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality.

EOM Q14.3.4 One criticism of social learning theory is that stressing the importance of observational learning as an influence on personality implies a causal environmental role that __________. a) behavior-genetic studies have shown are weak or nonexistent b) projective testing reveals is much more important than social learning theory admits c) Freud’s theory of the unconscious motivations of the id proves impossible d) would be better attributed to the unconscious processing in our large cerebral cortex ANS: a Topic=Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 14.3b Describe key criticisms of behavioral and social learning approaches. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: If we learn largely by modeling the behaviors of our parents and other relatives, we should become very much like them. LO 14.3b Describe key criticisms of behavioral and social learning approaches.

EOM Q14.3.5 B. F. Skinner and other radical behaviorists dismissed the idea that thoughts play any causal role in our behavior. But the evolution of a highly developed __________ in human beings makes this idea improbable. a) cerebral cortex b) sense of purpose c) conscience d) opposable thumb ANS: a Topic=Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 14.3b Describe key criticisms of behavioral and social learning approaches. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This is specialized for problem solving, planning, reasoning, and other high-level cognitive processes. LO 14.3b Describe key criticisms of behavioral and social learning approaches.

Quiz 14.4: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q14.4.1 According to humanistic psychologists, if we have developed our innate potential to the fullest possible extent, we have achieved __________. a) self-actualization b) conditions of worth c) incongruence d) congruence ANS: a Topic=Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Humanistic theorists view human nature as inherently constructive, so they see this as a worthy goal. LO 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models.

EOM Q14.4.2 According to Carl Rogers’s model of personality, which of the following refers to the expectations we place on ourselves for appropriate or inappropriate behavior? a) conditions of worth b) super-ego c) self-consciousness d) self-actualization ANS: a Topic=Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: They typically arise during childhood. LO 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q14.4.3 According to Abraham Maslow, full self-actualization is a very rare feat achieved by only about 2 percent of all people. He described these people as prone to __________, transcendent moments of intense excitement and tranquility marked by a profound feeling of connection to the world. a) peak experiences b) samsara c) hallucinations d) group happenings ANS: a Topic=Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Maslow thought a small group of people might ascend to heights of awareness. LO 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models.

EOM Q14.4.4 According to Carl Rogers, the three major components of personality are __________. a) organism, self, and conditions of worth b) id, ego, and superego c) internal, external, and median loci of control d) common, structured, and projective systems ANS: a Topic=Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Many personality theorists like to assemble groups of concepts. LO 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models.

EOM Q14.4.5 Which criticism of humanistic theories of personality is also a criticism of Freud's psychoanalytic view of personality? a) The theories are difficult to falsify. b) The theories fail to describe human experience. c) The theories' concepts can be explained by social-cognitive approaches. d) The theories have not received popular attention outside of psychology. ANS: a Topic=Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 14.4b Describe key criticisms of humanistic approaches. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Many large-scale explanatory systems suffer from this criticism. LO 14.4b Describe key criticisms of humanistic approaches.

Quiz 14.5: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q14.5.1 A statistical technique that analyzes the correlations among responses to personality questions in order to derive underlying dimensions that produce those correlations is called __________. a) factor analysis b) process analysis c) dimensional identification d) path analysis ANS: a Topic=Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This technique plays a central role in the trait approach to understanding personality. LO 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five.

EOM Q14.5.2 When researchers ask people to describe other people that they have seen but not met, their responses are usually based on the Big Five personality traits. This suggests that we all harbor __________. a) implicit personality theories b) stereotypes about others c) in-group/out-group perceptions d) ultimate attribution errors ANS: a Topic=Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Most people rely on a core set of beliefs about personality and its manifestations. LO 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q14.5.3 Which of the Big Five personality dimensions describes people who are sociable and easy to get along with? a) agreeableness b) neuroticism c) extraversion d) conscientiousness ANS: a Topic=Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Sometimes scientific terms are used just as they are in daily life. LO 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five.

EOM Q14.5.4 Walter Mischel found that measures of personality were not helpful in predicting behavior, but other researchers have concluded that measures of personality are predictive of __________. a) aggregated but not isolated behaviors b) isolated but not aggregated behaviors c) honest but not dishonest behavior d) dishonest but not honest behavior ANS: a Topic=Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 14.5b Identify key criticisms of trait models. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: If we used measures of personality to predict a friend’s behavior across an average of many situations we would probably do rather well. LO 14.5b Identify key criticisms of trait models.

EOM Q14.5.5 According to Hans Eysenck, extraverts have __________ reticular activating systems. a) underactive b) overactive c) passive d) better ANS: a Topic=Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 14.5b Identify key criticisms of trait models. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Extraverts are habitually underaroused and bored; that is why they crave external stimulation. LO 14.5b Identify key criticisms of trait models.

Quiz 14.6: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q14.6.1 Which of the following refers to a test in which respondents answer personality questions by choosing from a small number of fixed options? a) structured personality tests b) projective tests c) personality evaluations d) limited response tests ANS: a Topic=Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI-2 and their methods of construction. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: These are typically easy to administer and score, and they allow researchers to collect data from many participants simultaneously. LO 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI-2 and their methods of construction.

EOM Q14.6.2 The rational/theoretical model of test construction requires developers to start with a clear idea of a trait and then design items that assess the trait according to that idea. This approach differs from the __________ in which researchers begin with two or more criterion groups and examine which items best distinguish them from each other. a) empirical method b) controlled experimental method c) face validity method d) projective method ANS: a Topic=Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI-2 and their methods of construction. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: For example, the items on the MMPI depression scale are those that best differentiate persons with clinical depression from those with no diagnosed mental disorder. LO 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI-2 and their methods of construction.

EOM Q14.6.3 Among the most controversial of psychological instruments, __________ have examinees attempt to interpret ambiguous stimuli, assuming that people’s responses will reveal hidden aspects of their personalities. a) projective tests b) structured personality tests c) IQ tests d) personality inventories ANS: a Topic=Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 14.6b Describe projective tests, particularly the Rorschach, and their strengths and weaknesses. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: If you have ever looked for shapes in clouds in the sky, you have a sense of what it is like to take one of these tests. LO 14.6b Describe projective tests, particularly the Rorschach, and their strengths and weaknesses.

EOM Q14.6.4 Rorschach-like inkblot tests were supposed to indicate certain personality types based on people’s interpretation of abstract, symmetrical blots of ink. According to the Rorschach score, noticing an unusual detail indicated __________. a) obsessive-compulsive tendencies b) self-centeredness c) rebelliousness and anger d) impulse control and inhibition ANS: a Topic=Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 14.6b Describe projective tests, particularly the Rorschach, and their strengths and weaknesses. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: People who focus on tiny details in the inkblots presumably have many of these tendencies. LO 14.6b Describe projective tests, particularly the Rorschach, and their strengths and weaknesses. EOM Q14.6.5 "You have a great deal of unused potential that you have not yet turned to your advantage." This kind of phrase is an example of __________, the tendency people have to accept very general descriptions that could apply to anyone as being specifically about themselves. a) the P. T. Barnum effect b) the personality hoax effect c) reasoning from the general to the specific d) the availability heuristic ANS: a Topic=Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 14.6c Identify common pitfalls in personality assessment. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This probably accounts largely for the popularity of horoscopes, palmistry, and crystal ball readings. LO 14.6c Identify common pitfalls in personality assessment.

Chapter 14 Quiz: Personality Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Chapter Quiz: Personality

Multiple Choice Single Select EOC Q14.1 According to Sigmund Freud, the human psyche is divided into three agencies. Which agency is entirely unconscious and is the reservoir of our most primitive impulses? a) id b) ego c) superego d) subego ANS: a Topic=Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: It contains a variety of drives, particularly the sexual drive, or libido, and aggressive drive. LO 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory.

EOC Q14.2 Most social learning theorists promote the concept of __________ or the tendency for personality, thoughts, behavior, and environmental factors (such as other people) to influence each other. a) reciprocal determinism b) observational learning c) reciprocal causation d) reciprocity in learning ANS: a Topic=Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Personality shapes the experiences we seek out, and those experiences in turn shape the expression of our personality. LO 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality.

EOC Q14.3 The MMPI-2 contains three major validity scales to detect __________, which are tendencies to distort one's responses to items. a) response sets b) deceptive responses c) distractors d) low face validity ANS: a Topic=Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI-2 and their methods of construction. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: These include impression management and malingering. LO 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI-2 and their methods of construction.

EOC Q14.4 According to Hans Eysenck, extraversion versus introversion is produced by differences in the arousal threshold of the __________. a) reticular activating system b) prefrontal cortex c) dorsolateral prefrontal association area d) Broca’s area ANS: a Topic=Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 14.5b Identify key criticisms of trait models. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This set of structures controls alertness and is responsible for keeping us awake. LO 14.5b Identify key criticisms of trait models.

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EOC Q14.5 Which term refers to a group of traits that repeatedly surface in factor analyses of personality measures? a) the Big Five b) the Six Variables c) the Big Three d) the Dirty Dozen ANS: a Topic=Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This model consists of traits that have emerged repeatedly in factor analyses of personality measures. LO 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five.

EOC Q14.6 Which term describes the effort to understand personality by identifying general laws that govern the behavior of individuals? a) nomothetic approach b) idiographic approach c) correlation approach d) environmental approach ANS: a Topic=Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This approach typically allows for generalization across individuals, but limited insight into the unique attributes within one person. LO 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality.

EOC Q14.7 According to Carl Rogers, conditions of worth are expectations we place on ourselves for appropriate or inappropriate behavior. When how we behave is inconsistent with our genuine potentialities, __________ exists between self and organism. a) incongruence b) self-actualization c) self-degradation d) an inferiority complex ANS: a Topic=Humanistic Models of Personality: The Third Force Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This means that our personalities are inconsistent with our innate dispositions. LO 14.4a Explain the concept of self-actualization and its role in humanistic models. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q14.8 Which of the following is a key way in which neo-Freudians differ from Freudians? a) more optimistic for personality growth throughout the life span b) more emphasis on sexuality as a driving force in personality c) less emphasis on social drives, such as the need for approval d) more pessimistic about the possibility of personality change after childhood ANS: a Topic=Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Neo-Freudians broke away from many of Freud's original ideas. LO 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories.

EOC Q14.9 Which of the following is the correct order of Freud's stages of psychosexual development? a) oral - anal - phallic - latency - genital b) latency - anal - oral - phallic - genital c) oral - anal - latency - phallic - genital d) anal - latency - oral - genital - phallic ANS: a Topic=Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Freud thought that people progressed through these five stages during childhood and into adolescence. LO 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory.

EOC Q14.10 Although different types of radical behaviorists disagree over elements of their theories, the primary factor that sets them apart from other types of psychologists who study personality and behavior is the idea that __________. a) people do not freely choose their own behaviors b) people choose their behavior based on both conscious and unconscious motivations c) people choose their behavior on the basis of rational, conscious choice d) people choose their behavior based on their understanding of moral values ANS: a Topic=Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: These behaviors are both overt (observable) and covert (unobservable), such as thoughts and feelings. LO 14.3a Identify the core assumptions of behavioral and social learning theories of personality.

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EOC Q14.11 Comparing identical twins reared together versus identical twins reared apart allows researchers to investigate the contributions of both __________ and __________ to the development of personality. a) genetics; the environment b) parenting styles; attachment styles c) sibling bonds; sibling rivalries d) genetics; inheritance ANS: a Topic=Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Studying twins allows researchers to identify the relative contributions of two factors that influence the vast majority of human behavior, including the development of personality. LO 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality.

EOC Q14.12 In the 18th and 19th centuries, a popular method for determining personality was to examine a person's facial features for certain characteristics. This practice was called __________. a) physiognomy b) physiology c) psychoanalysis d) phrenology ANS: a Topic=Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI-2 and their methods of construction. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The term lowbrow derives from the old belief that most nonintellectual people have protruding foreheads and a low brow line. LO 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI2 and their methods of construction.

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EOC Q14.13 Doug is enamored of the humanistic approach to understanding personality. He identifies the five most "evolved" people he personally knows—folks who are smart, witty, spiritually-centered, creative, and adventuresome—and interviews each in depth. At the conclusion of his investigations he finds that they are all quite self-actualized. What is the central problem with Doug's approach? a) He may have fallen prey to the confirmation bias; Doug interviewed people he thought would be selfactualized, and discovered they seemed to be self-actualized. b) He may have fallen prey to the simulation heuristic; he imagined what these people would be like, and interacted with them accordingly. c) He may have fallen prey to the blacktop illusion; Doug was unable to see past the "humanistic horizon" proposed by Maslow. d) He may have fallen prey to an elusive correlation; he underestimated the magnitude of the relationship between personality and behavior. ANS: a Topic=Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 14.4b Describe key criticisms of humanistic approaches. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: There seems to be a cart-before-the-horse problem at work here. LO 14.4b Describe key criticisms of humanistic approaches.

EOC Q14.14 Which model of personality theory deals primarily with the structure of personality rather than its causes? a) trait model b) humanistic model c) behavioral model d) cognitive model ANS: a Topic=Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Researchers who adopt this perspective examine the question of what makes up our personality, rather than the question of what causes it. LO 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five.

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EOC Q14.15 Although observational learning is a crucial form of learning (that extends our understanding past the confines of classical and operant conditioning), social learning theorists may have placed too much emphasis on this process as an influence on personality development. Which of the following lines of evidence suggests that observational learning may not be that powerful? a) Research from behavior-genetic studies shows that the effects of the shared environment on adult personality are weak or non-existent. b) Empirical studies conducted by humanistic theorists demonstrate that self-actualization comes from within, rather than from without. c) Evidence from Freudian theory shows that id impulses tend to counteract learning in a social context. d) "The environment" is not one of the Big Five, so it therefore cannot be a contributor to personality development. ANS: a Topic=Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 14.3b Describe key criticisms of behavioral and social learning approaches. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: If we learn by watching in our environments, those environments should be strong predictors of personality development. LO 14.3b Describe key criticisms of behavioral and social learning approaches.

EOC Q14.16 Which approach to personality focuses on identifying the unique configuration of characteristics and life experiences within an individual? a) idiographic approach b) idiopathic approach c) idiosyncratic approach d) individualistic approach ANS: a Topic=Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This approach reveals the richly detailed tapestry of one person’s life, but allows for limited generalizability to other people. LO 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality.

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EOC Q14.17 Which of the following scenarios would be indicative of the defense mechanism known as “projection”? a) A married man with powerful unconscious sexual impulses toward females complains that other women are always “after him.” b) A married woman who is sexually attracted to a coworker experiences hatred and revulsion toward him. c) A college basketball player who initially fears his tyrannical coach comes to admire him and adopts his dictatorial qualities. d) A woman whose husband cheats on her reassures herself that “according to evolutionary psychologists, men are naturally sexually promiscuous, so there is nothing to worry about.” ANS: a Topic=Psychoanalytic Theory: The Controversial Legacy of Sigmund Freud and His Followers Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Recall the many defense mechanisms and how each operates. LO 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory.

EOC Q14.18 Two common pitfalls in personality assessment are __________ and __________. a) the P. T. Barnum Effect; illusory correlation b) the hindsight bias; the foresight effect c) the representativeness heuristic; the availability heuristic d) lexical determinism; lexical confirmation ANS: a Topic=Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 14.6c Identify common pitfalls in personality assessment. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: These errors can bedevil the assessment process. LO 14.6c Identify common pitfalls in personality assessment.

EOC Q14.19 The empirical method of test construction unfortunately leads tests such as the MMPI-2 to have low face validity. This means that __________. a) respondents cannot tell what the items are measuring b) questions assess what they seem to assess c) test results are not statistically significant d) the accuracy of these tests has been challenged ANS: a Topic=Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI-2 and their methods of construction. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: In a face-valid test, we can take the items at “face value.” LO 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI-2 and their methods of construction.

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EOC Q14.20 Which dimension of the Big Five describes people who are careful and responsible in their actions? a) conscientiousness b) agreeableness c) extraversion d) neuroticism ANS: a Topic=Trait Models of Personality: Consistencies in Our Behavior Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The Big Five dimensions usually capture what their names imply. LO 14.5a Describe trait models of personality, including the Big Five. EOC Q14.21 Dr. Sardionicus is administering a personality measure to Sofia. “Tell me what you see in this picture,” he asks. “Describe it in as much detail as you can, telling me what is there and what it means to you.” Sofia was looking at a collection of smudges, drips, and blotches of colored ink on a page. Dr. Sardonicus seems to be using __________. a) a projective test of personality b) a self-report measure of personality c) the MMPI-2 d) factor analysis of personality traits ANS: a Topic=Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 14.6b Describe projective tests, particularly the Rorschach, and their strengths and weaknesses. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: What do you see when you look at the clouds? LO 14.6b Describe projective tests, particularly the Rorschach, and their strengths and weaknesses.

EOC Q14.22 An image of a cross (a horizontal line bisected by a vertical line) can be found in cultures, nations, religions, and other groups around the world. Carl Jung would take this as evidence that the cross is __________. a) an archetype b) a "familiarizer" c) an object relation d) a psychodynamic mandala ANS: a Topic=Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Jung offered some ideas about why certain concepts and images seemed to resonate with vastly different groups of people. LO 14.2b Describe key criticisms of psychoanalytic theory and the central features of neo-Freudian theories.

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EOC Q14.23 According to Sigmund Freud, during which psychosexual stage of development does the Oedipus complex occur? a) phallic b) genital c) latency d) anal ANS: a Topic=Behavioral and Social Learning Theories of Personality Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: First recall the stages of psychosexual development, then recall the hallmarks of each one. LO 14.2a Describe the core assumptions of psychoanalytic theory.

EOC Q14.24 Psychologist William Sheldon believed he could infer people’s personalities based on __________, but wellcontrolled studies later found only weak or nonexistent correlations. a) their body types b) their facial configuration c) the bumps on their heads d) their race and gender ANS: a Topic=Personality Assessment: Measuring and Mismeasuring the Psyche Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI-2 and their methods of construction. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Highly muscular people (mesomorphs), he thought, tend to be assertive and bold, whereas lean and skinny people (ectomorphs) tend to be introverted and intellectual. LO 14.6a Describe structured personality tests such as the MMPI-2 and their methods of construction.

EOC Q14.25 The relatively enduring predispositions that influence our behavior and define our personality are known as __________. a) traits b) qualities c) characteristics d) idiosyncrasies ANS: a Topic=Personality: What Is It and How Can We Study It? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: These predispositions account in part for consistencies in our behavior across both time and situations. LO 14.1a Describe how twin and adoption studies shed light on genetic and environmental influences on personality. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders Total Assessment Guide Topic rb 1 Quick Quiz

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice

1, 3, 5–6, 8

2, 9

4, 7, 10

Quick Quiz 2

Multiple Choice

1, 3, 5–6, 8

2, 9

4, 7, 10

Learning Objective 15.1a

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

1, 5–8 1

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

10, 14–20 3–4 2

9, 12–13, 21

Learning Objective 15.1c

Multiple Choice

26–28, 30–31

Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system.

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

22, 24–25, 29, 32– 38 5, 8–9

7 3 1

Learning Objective 15.2a

Multiple Choice

39–40, 44, 46, 52– 53, 62–64, 67–68, 73–74 11

47, 56, 65, 69–70

41–43, 45, 48–51, 54–55, 57–61, 66, 71–72 10, 12

Identify criteria for defining mental disorders.

Learning Objective 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures.

Describe the many ways people experience anxiety.

Learning Objective 15.3a Identify the characteristics of different mood disorders.

Learning Objective 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms.

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

2–4 1

75, 93–94, 96 15

77, 85–86, 89, 91 13

76, 78, 80, 83–84, 90, 95, 97 6

79, 81–82, 87–88 14

Multiple Choice 100–101 98 99 Fill-in-the-Blank 16 Identify common myths and Essay 4 misconceptions about suicide. Critical Thinking Multiple Choice 102, 104–10 103 107–108 Learning Objective 15.4a Fill-in-the-Blank 17–18 Identify the characteristics of Essay borderline and psychopathic Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. Critical Thinking personality disorders.

Learning Objective 15.3c

Topic Multiple Choice Learning Objective TOTAL 15.4b

Fill-in-the-Blank ASSESSMENT Essay GUIDECritical Thinking

Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder.

Learning Objective 15.5a

Multiple Choice

Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia.

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice

Learning Objective 15.5b Explain how psychosocial, neural, biochemical, and genetic influences create the vulnerability to schizophrenia.

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Learning Objective 15.6a

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood.

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

109–110, 114–115, 118

111, 116–117, 119–121

112–113, 122 19

5 123–125, 128–129, 133, 135, 137 21 5

127 23

126, 130–132, 134, 136 20, 22

138, 140–141, 143, 145

139, 142, 146

144

147, 149, 154–156 24

150, 153

148, 151–152 25

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 15 Quick Quiz 1 1. Any pattern of behavior that causes people significant distress, is uncommon in society, and/or harms their ability to function in daily life, may indicate the presence of __________. A) a mental disorder B) humors C) stress syndrome D) adaptive behavior 2. Although their intent was noble, there was a major problem with the asylums that existed to help the mentally ill in the fifteenth century. What was that problem? A) a lack of “customers” caused by the massive drop in mental illness B) They used barbaric treatments that were little better than those of the demonic era C) too many physicians trying to implement their own views on the best ways to provide treatment D) there was no religious guidance to help the patients find a spiritual center 3. Which of the following statements is true about the DSM-5? A) It describes symptoms and includes information regarding the prevalence of specific disorders. B) It contains 12 specific “classifications” of mental illnesses. C) It is used to diagnose medical conditions that may have an impact on mental health. D) It is used to diagnose all kinds of medical conditions. 4. Darcy is sitting at her desk in her office one day when, without warning, her heart begins racing rapidly, she starts sweating profusely, and she is gripped with a terrifying fear that she is about to go crazy. She thinks she is having a heart attack. Nothing she is doing seems to have caused such an episode. Her symptoms most resemble __________. A) a phobic disorder B) a panic attack C) post-traumatic stress D) a compulsion 5. Major changes in sleep patterns, weight level, and a loss of interest in pleasurable activities, characterize __________. A) agoraphobia B) major depressive disorder C) schizophrenia D) social anxiety 6. Which of the following statements is true regarding suicide? A) More men than women attempt suicide. B) More women than men attempt suicide. C) Depression is a better predictor of suicide than are feelings of hopelessness. D) There is no relationship between age and attempting suicide. 7. Ned seeks therapy after having recurrent episodes of feeling “detached from himself” for several months, but he has not lost his self-awareness or memory. He notes that he feels like a robot, disconnected from his movements and actions. He is most likely suffering from __________. A) dissociative fugue B) conversion disorder C) dissociative identity disorder D) depersonalization/derealization disorder

8. Believing that the government or other people are out to get you is one way in which sufferers of schizophrenia experience their __________. A) compulsions B) delusions C) hallucinations D) obsessions 9. The diathesis-stress model suggests that schizophrenia develops from __________. A) genetic influences entirely B) environmental influences entirely C) exposure to stress D) a combination of a genetic predisposition to schizophrenia and exposure to significant stressors in their life 10. Dr. Brown has been invited to speak at a prestigious psychological conference on the topic of autism. He will talk on the current scientific knowledge regarding this disorder. What is a key point you would expect him to make based on the authors’ discussion of the disorder in the chapter? A) The apparent surge in diagnoses of autism is linked to important changes in diagnostic practices. B) There is an autism epidemic, and psychologists have no real insights into the dramatic increase. C) The dramatic increase in diagnoses of autism is directly related to the mumps, measles, and rubella vaccine. D) The dramatic increase in autism diagnoses is a result of overdiagnosis rather than a real increase and epidemic.

Chapter 15 Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1. A

Explanation: Mental disorders are difficult to quantify, but these are several criteria that help identify behaviors and symptoms that may indicate the presence of such illnesses. (Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 15.1a)

2. B

Explanation: Treatments such as bloodletting and frightening patients “out of their disease” were often practiced. (Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 15.1b)

3. A

Explanation: The DSM-5 provides symptoms and discusses the frequency, or prevalence, with which specific illnesses occur. (Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 15.1c)

4. B

Explanation: A panic attack is a sudden onset of extreme panic with physical symptoms. (Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 15.2a)

5. B

Explanation: These symptoms are most indicative of a diagnosis of depression. (Mood Disorders and Suicide, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 15.3a)

6. B

Explanation: While women attempt suicide more often than men, men complete the act of killing themselves more often than women. (Mood Disorders and Suicide, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 15.3c)

7. D

Explanation: Depersonalization/derealization disorder involves feeling detached from oneself. (Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 15.4b)

8. B

Explanation: This is called a delusion of persecution, or a delusion of paranoia. (The Enigma of Schizophrenia, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 15.5a)

9. D

Explanation: The diathesis-stress model suggests that there is a genetic proclivity to develop schizophrenia, but that life events must occur to elicit this illness. (The Enigma of Schizophrenia, Conceptual, APA LO 1.2, TEXT LO 15.5b)

10. A

Explanation: As the text authors point out, the extraordinary explosion of autism diagnoses suggests something other than a true epidemic. It is very likely that changes to diagnostic practices explain some of this increase in diagnoses. (Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 15.6a)

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 15 Quick Quiz 2 1. Any behavior that does not allow a person to function within or adapt to the stresses and everyday demands of life is considered abnormal because it creates __________. A) deviance B) distress C) disapproval D) impairment 2. A key idea in the discussion on the universality versus diversity in psychiatric diagnoses was that A) all disorders are found throughout all cultures of the world. B) many psychiatric disorders are similar across cultures. C) most psychiatric disorders are unique to specific cultures and relatively unknown in others. D) psychiatric disorders found in the United States and European countries are often unknown in many African and Asian cultures. 3. One criticism of the DSM noted by your author is that it adheres to a __________ model, which means that a person is seen as either having a mental disorder, or not having a mental disorder. There is little or no allowance for “degrees” of a disorder. A) dimensional B) categorical C) diathesis D) sociological 4. During the day, Barb suffers from frequent, unwanted thoughts that she has left her front door unlocked, and recurrent images that all her belongings have been taken. These thoughts and images are what psychologists refer to as a(n) __________. A) compulsion B) delusion C) hallucination D) obsession 5. For which of the following psychological disorders is there the strongest evidence of a genetic link? A) antisocial personality disorder B) bipolar disorder C) obsessive-compulsive disorder D) schizophrenia 6. According to the data, the single best predictor of suicide is __________. A) loss of a loved one B) depression C) a previous attempt D) unemployment 7. After being passed up for a promotion and then getting into a heated argument with his son, a man disappears. He shows up two weeks later in another town with no memory of who he is or how he got there. He appears to be suffering from __________. A) schizophrenia B) a somatic symptom disorder C) a dissociative disorder D) factitious disorder 8. Fixed, inaccurate beliefs held by a person who has no evidence to support such beliefs are known as ___________. A) delusions B) hallucinations C) obsessions D) compulsions

9. Which of the following statements might someone with a biological perspective make about schizophrenia? A) It is a result of an excess of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the corpus callosum. B) Its symptoms are shaped by the processes of reinforcement and extinction. C) It is the result of fatty plaques that build up in the amygdala, and this condition begins at birth. D) It is caused by genetics, chemical influences, and brain structural defects. 10. Tommy is a seven-year-old boy with autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Which of the following would be inconsistent with this diagnosis? A) He has difficulty with language skills. B) He enjoys playing with his older brother. C) He isn’t interested in playing with anything except his Tickle-Me-Elmo toy. D) His symptoms first showed up when he was 8 months old.

Chapter 15 Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1. D

Explanation: Impairment in our day-to-day functions is a key to diagnosing a mental illness. (Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 15.1a)

2. B

Explanation: This discussion examines whether specific illnesses are unique to different populations. The presence of similar disorders across cultures is an important facet in this discussion. (Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today, Conceptual, APA LO 2.1, TEXT LO 15.1b)

3. B

Explanation: Some have argued that a dimensional approach, which would eliminate the “either/or” thinking of the current model, would be a better paradigm. (Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 15.1c)

4. D

Explanation: An obsession is a persistent idea, thought, or impulse that is unwanted and provokes distressing anxiety. (Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 15.2a)

5. B

Explanation: Bipolar disorder is almost certainly contributed to by genetic factors, to an extent greater than the other disorders listed. (Mood Disorders and Suicide, Factual, APA LO 2.2, TEXT LO 15.3a)

6. C

Explanation: Research has found that a past suicide attempt is the best predictor of future suicidal behavior. (Mood Disorders and Suicide, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 15.3c)

7. C

Explanation: Dissociative disorders are characterized by a break in conscious awareness, memory, sense of identity, or some combination. (Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 15.4b)

8. A

Explanation: This is the definition of a delusion, which can take on many different themes. (The Enigma of Schizophrenia, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 15.5a)

9. D

Explanation: Someone with a biological perspective focuses on physiological causes. (The Enigma of Schizophrenia, Conceptual, APA LO 1.2, TEXT LO 15.5b)

10. B

Explanation: Children with autism usually have deficits when it comes to social bonding, so playing with his brother would be an unexpected behavior. (Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 15.6a)

Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders Test Bank Multiple Choice 1. What psychiatrist has claimed that mental illness is “a myth” and that the labels used to identify the various forms of mental illness are nothing more than identifying conditions that society dislikes? A) Sigmund Freud B) Carl Rogers C) B. F. Skinner D) Thomas Szasz Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1a Identify criteria for defining mental disorders. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 2. If an individual never talks to another person, he or she might be considered abnormal by which of the following criteria? A) dysfunctional B) statistical rarity Correct. Never talking to people is a rare behavior and behavior that is rare is considered abnormal. C) subjective distress Incorrect. Although never talking to anyone is rare and considered abnormal, it may not cause discomfort or emotional distress. D) malnutritious Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.1a Identify criteria for defining mental disorders. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today

3. You are a psychologist who is evaluating the behavior of a new client. The client tells you that he does not like to wear clothing and that he walks around nude most of the time happy to be free of the constricting nature of clothes. In addition, he tells you that he lives in a society in which clothing is required and nudity is seen as abnormal. In the past, he was arrested for his behavior, and it has cost him many jobs over the years. Which of the following is NOT a criterion by which you evaluate your client’s behavior as abnormal? A) statistical rarity Incorrect. Walking around nude in a society that requires people to wear clothing is considered rare. B) impairment C) subjective distress Correct. The client in this example may not be experiencing emotional distress as a result of his desire to walk around nude. D) societal disapproval Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.1a Identify criteria for defining mental disorders. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 4. Maria is a retired factory worker who lives with anxiety. Due to the fear of having anxiety attacks, she does not leave her house. This makes her feel trapped in her home, which creates an enormous sense of discomfort for Maria. The symptoms have gotten worse with time, so Maria has not left her house for the last two years. Which criterion would be most appropriate in deciding whether Maria’s case represents an example of abnormality? A) statistical rarity B) subjective distress Correct. Maria is experiencing distress or subjective discomfort due to her inability to leave her home. C) societal disapproval Incorrect. There is nothing in the question that suggests that Maria is receiving an unusual amount of socially constructed disapproval for refusing to leave her home. D) cultural relativity Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.1a Identify criteria for defining mental disorders. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 5. Which of the following is one criterion of abnormal behavior identified in your textbook? A) behavior that is statistically rare B) behavior that is consistent with the norms of society C) behavior that does not create distress D) behavior that is adaptive Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1a Identify criteria for defining mental disorders. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today

6. One sign of abnormality is when a person engages in behavior that creates a great deal of emotional discomfort or __________. A) subjective distress B) social deviance C) statistical rarity D) inability to function normally Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1a Identify criteria for defining mental disorders. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today % correct 52 a = 52 b = 19 c = 3 d = 26 r = .58 7. Any behavior that does not allow a person to function within or adapt to the stresses and everyday demands of life is considered abnormal because it creates __________. A) deviance B) distress C) disapproval D) impairment Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1a Identify criteria for defining mental disorders. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today % correct 52 a = 3 b = 42 c = 3 d = 52 r = .35 8. Any pattern of behavior that causes people significant distress, is uncommon in society, and/or harms their ability to function in daily life, may indicate the presence of __________. A) a mental disorder B) humors C) stress syndrome D) adaptive behavior Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1a Identify criteria for defining mental disorders. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today

9. It is reasonable to assume that in the Middle Ages, signs of mental illness were believed to be caused by __________. A) an imbalance of body fluids Incorrect. Hippocrates, a Greek physician, viewed the imbalance of body fluids as the cause of mental illness. B) demons Correct. People in the Middle Ages perceived signs of mental illness as caused by demons. C) improper diet D) social forces Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 10. For those people in the Middle Ages who believed abnormal behavior resulted from spirit possession, the treatment of choice was __________. A) herbal cures B) “magic” potions C) exorcism D) psychopharmacology Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 11. Marvin is reading a textbook on the history of mental illnesses, and he is relieved to find that as times shifted from the Middle Ages into the Renaissance, an enlightenment took place. Which of the following statements is Marvin most likely to read in this section of his book? A) “Kinder methods of treating mental illness, including exorcism, were introduced as the era of the Renaissance began.” B) “When the Renaissance began, the primary reference that guided the way in which mental illness was viewed was called the Malleus Malleficarum.” C) “As the Middle Ages ended, so too did reliance on the medical model.” D) “As the Renaissance emerged, mental illness came to be viewed through the medical model.” Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today

12. Although their intent was noble, there was a major problem with the asylums that existed to help the mentally ill in the fifteenth century. What was that problem? A) There was a lack of “customers” caused by the massive drop in mental illness. Incorrect. In fact, those who were mentally ill had done their best to hide their symptoms for years. When asylums emerged, they felt a freedom to finally reveal their condition and seek help. B) They used barbaric treatments that were little better than those of the demonic era. Correct. Treatments such as bloodletting and frightening patients “out of their disease” were often practiced. C) Too many physicians were trying to implement their own views on the best ways to provide treatment. D) There was no religious guidance to help the patients find a spiritual center. Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 13. In the Renaissance, the medical model brought some unusual treatments for those with mental disorders. These included bloodletting and tossing patients into a pit of snakes. Amazingly, some patients actually showed improvement! It is possible that these treatments worked, but it is also possible that this improvement was a result of the placebo effect. This interpretation of these historical events demonstrates which of the six principles mentioned in your chapter? A) replicability B) extraordinary claims Incorrect. It certainly is extraordinary to think that a pit of snakes could lead to psychological improvement, but this is not the best answer to this question. C) correlation vs. causation D) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. In this case, an alternate explanation for the improvement shown is key to the principle of ruling out rival hypotheses. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 14. Which of the following pairs of individuals are given credit for promoting humane treatment of the mentally ill? A) Thomas Szasz and Marsha Linehan B) Martin Seligman and David Rosenhan C) Phillippe Pinel and Dorothea Dix D) Sigmund Freud and Josef Breuer Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today

15. Which psychiatrist was responsible for inspiring humane reform of mental asylums in France? A) Philippe Pinel Correct. Pinel is credited with starting the modern humane movement in psychiatric treatment. B) David Rosenhan C) Thomas Szasz Incorrect. Szasz is a more recent figure in mental health circles, and he suggested that mental health is a social creation that may, in fact, not truly exist. D) Josef Breuer Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 16. Which medication, imported from France in the 1950s, offered modestly effective relief from the symptoms of schizophrenia for patients who had lost contact with reality? A) parnate Incorrect. This medication was developed far more recently. B) pamelor C) imipramine D) chlorpromazine Correct. This medication, commonly called Thorazine, changed the entire approach to treating those with schizophrenia. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 17. What do psychologists call disorders that are specific to one or more societies? A) restricted syndromes B) naturalistic syndromes C) culture-bound syndromes D) sociocultural disorders Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today

18. Disorders such as taijin kyofushu, koro, and amok are considered __________. A) restricted syndromes B) naturalistic syndromes C) environmental anomalies D) culture-bound syndromes Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 19. What is the name of the culture-bound syndrome that involves intense sadness and brooding followed by uncontrolled behavior and unprovoked attacks on other people and animals? A) taijin kyofushu B) amok C) susto D) koro Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 20. Which of the following culture-bound disorders is most commonly seen in Latin America? A) ataque de nervios B) koro C) amok D) taijin kyofushu Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today

21. A key idea in the discussion on the universality versus diversity in psychiatric diagnoses was that __________. A) all disorders are found throughout all cultures of the world B) many psychiatric disorders are similar across cultures Correct. This discussion examines whether specific illnesses are unique to different populations. The presence of similar disorders across cultures is an important facet in this discussion. C) most psychiatric disorders are unique to specific cultures and relatively unknown in others Incorrect. While some disorders are seen across cultures, there are “culture-bound” syndromes that do seem to be unique to different groups. D) psychiatric disorders found in the United States and European countries are often unknown in many African and Asian cultures Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnosis across history and cultures. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 22. The primary purpose of the DSM-5 is to __________. A) help psychologists assess only normal behavior B) keep the number of diagnostic categories of mental disorders to a minimum C) help psychological professionals diagnose psychological disorders D) describe the causes of common physiological disorders Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today % correct 84 a = 3 b = 6 c =84 d = 7 r = .38 % correct 94 a = 0 b = 3 c = 94 d = 3 r = .36 23. Dr. Nwoambi is a psychologist who is currently evaluating a new client. Dr. Nwoambi would most likely refer to the __________ to assist her in diagnosing her client’s psychological disorder. A) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders Correct. The DSM helps psychological professionals diagnose psychological disorders. B) Physician’s Desk Reference Incorrect. The Physician’s Desk Reference is used by medical professionals to diagnose physiological problems. C) Textbook of Psychological Disorders D) Manual of Psychological and Behavioral Disorders Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today

24. The prevalence of a disorder refers to __________. A) its accuracy or correctness as a diagnosis of a real mental illness B) the agreement among professionals about a diagnosis for a specific patient or client C) the percentage of persons within a population who exhibit the symptoms of a particular disorder D) the popularity of a diagnosis among different types of mental health professionals Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1a Identify criteria for defining mental disorders. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 25. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the DSM-5? A) It describes symptoms and includes information regarding the prevalence of specific disorders. Correct. The DSM-5 provides symptoms and discusses the frequency, or prevalence, with which specific illnesses occur. B) It contains 12 specific “classifications” of mental illnesses. C) It is used to diagnose medical conditions that may have an impact on mental health. Incorrect. The DSM-5 is used to diagnose mental illnesses, not medical conditions. D) It is used to diagnose all kinds of medical conditions. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 26. What do the textbook authors mean when they suggest that the DSM-5 encourages us to “think organic”? A) It means that it is necessary to rule out medical causes of a patient's symptoms before making a psychiatric diagnosis. Correct. Ignoring a physical root of psychiatric symptoms can lead to months or years of unnecessary psychiatric treatment. B) It means that the research has found conclusive evidence that herbal supplements are superior to chemical psychotropic medications in the treatment of mental disorders. C) It means that the APA (American Psychological Association) has agreed to stop printing the DSM in paper form in future editions and will go to a strictly electronic format, to be more “eco-friendly.” Incorrect. This is not an initiative that has been adopted by the APA. D) It means that research has found that virtually every mental illness can be traced to malfunctions of a specific organ in the body, and thus a return to the purely medical model is the best chance for those with these illnesses to recover. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today

27. The diagnostic criteria in the DSM-5 are based on a __________ approach. A) biological Incorrect. The biological approach is very salient in the field of psychopathology, but it is only a part of the larger biopsychosocial approach. B) biopsychosocial Correct. This approach sees mental illness as a complex combination of biological, social, and psychological factors. C) psychological D) social and cultural Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today % correct 69 a = 5 b = 69 c = 21 d = 5 r = .60 28. One criticism of the DSM-5 is that many illnesses seem to occur at the same time; that is, a specific set of symptoms could qualify an individual for more than one diagnosis. This phenomenon, called __________, raises the question of whether the DSM is truly identifying independent conditions as opposed to slightly different variations of the same problem. A) coincidence B) dual diagnosis Incorrect. The term “dual diagnosis” is used to indicate that a person is suffering from a substance-related disorder (abuse or dependence) along with another mental illness. C) prevalence D) comorbidity Correct. This tendency is referred to as comorbidity. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 29. One criticism of the DSM noted by your authors is that it adheres to a __________ model, which means that a person is seen as either having a mental disorder, or not having a mental disorder. There is little or no allowance for “degrees” of a disorder. A) dimensional B) categorical C) diathesis D) sociological Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today

30. Many, if not all, of the diagnoses included in DSM-5 can be thought of as a matter of degrees rather than being looked at as "all or nothing" situations. This point supports the argument that the DSM should employ a __________ approach to diagnosis. A) dimensional Correct. Dimensional models view mental illness as a question of "how much" rather than "either/or." B) categorical Incorrect. Categorical models view mental illness as a question of "either/or" rather than "how much." C) diathetical D) sociocultural Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 31. The DSM-5 is a valuable resource, but it is not without its limitations. Critics of this manual have suggested which of the following as a problem with the DSM? A) Its reliability is far too high to be considered a useful instrument. Incorrect. High reliability is a valuable asset to a diagnostic tool, so this criticism would not make any sense. B) Its validity is far too high to be considered a useful instrument. C) It is overly reliant on the “big five” system of personality classification for the determination of personality disorders. D) It is vulnerable to political influences, and thus the disorders may not reflect true psychopathology but rather the “favorite” illnesses of a particular time and place. Correct. As times can and do change, different illnesses become more or less favored in societies. Some argue that this unduly influences what is or is not included in the DSM. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today % correct 46 a = 6 b = 9 c = 39 d = 46 r = .32

32. What classification effort was launched in 2009 as a substitute for, or at least a supplement to, the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)? A) Research Domain Criteria (RDoC) Correct. This scientific endeavor was launched by the U.S.National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH). B) The International Classification of Disease (ICD) Incorrect. The ICD has been in existence for many years, though it has not gained popularity in the United States. C) The Diagnostic Comorbidity and Incidence Tracking System (DCITS) D) The Psychiatric Classification of Disease Model (PCODM) Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 33. The idea that a person may be determined to be sane or insane is an issue that is most relevant to __________. A) all mental health professionals B) the legal system C) medicine and psychiatry D) psychiatrists, psychologists, and trial judges Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 34. The __________ rule is a test of legal insanity that came from an 1843 British trial. A) Irresistible Impulse B) Durham C) M’Naghten D) ALI Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today

35. As a result of a legal proceeding that took place in England in 1843, a test was developed that held two criteria for a person to be judged legally insane. Which of the following was one of those criteria? A) The accused person was acting in a manner consistent with previous behavior, thus suggesting a chronic case of mental instability. B) The accused person was acting in a “fit of rage or passion.” C) The accused person was diagnosed with a psychotic disorder. D) The accused person did not know that what they were doing was wrong. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today % correct 67 a = 14 b = 6 c = 13 d = 67 r = .42 36. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding the intersection of the mental health and legal industries? A) The insanity defense is only raised in about 1 percent of all criminal trials, and is only successful about one-fourth of the time. B) “Insanity” is a psychological/psychiatric term. C) Most people acquitted of a crime on the basis of an insanity plea quickly go free. D) Most people who attempt the insanity defense are faking a mental illness. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 37. When an individual is institutionalized against his will because he poses a danger to himself or others, and he has committed no crime, this is called __________ (or involuntary) commitment. A) criminal B) civil C) statutory D) regulatory Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today

38. Which of the following individuals can formally recommend that a person be involuntarily committed to a psychiatric hospital because that person poses a clear and present threat to him- or herself or others? A) a psychologist Incorrect. As your text points out, a psychologist is not one of the professionals who can make this recommendation. B) a psychiatric nurse C) a psychiatrist Correct. Only a psychiatrist or another physician can make such a recommendation. D) a social worker Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 39. Which of the following is a disorder that takes the form of a bodily ailment that has no physical cause? A) anxiety B) a somatic symptom disorder C) dissociative D) psychophysiological Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 40. The most frequently diagnosed psychological disorder is __________. A) alcohol abuse B) depression C) schizophrenia D) specific phobia Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear

41. Dikeshia is giving a presentation in her abnormal psychology class on the prevalence of psychological disorders. If you were a student in that class, what general category of disorders would you expect her to mention as one of the most prevalent psychological disorder families? A) anxiety disorders Correct. Anxiety disorders are diagnosed more than any other family of diagnoses, including mood or drug-related disorders. B) dissociative disorders C) personality disorders D) psychotic disorders Incorrect. Psychotic disorders are diagnosed far less frequently than the anxiety disorders. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 42. Shelby is concerned that she is spending too much of her day worrying about things that are out of her control. She often experiences disturbances in sleep and often feels tense, even in situations where there is nothing that is directly threatening her safety. If you were a clinical psychologist, you would be trying to determine if Shelby meets the criteria for __________. A) agoraphobia B) generalized anxiety disorder Correct. Shelby’s non-specific anxiety that has no identifiable trigger is indicative of generalized anxiety disorder. C) major depressive disorder D) social phobia Incorrect. Shelby does not demonstrate the fear of public embarrassment, scrutiny, and humiliation that is key to a diagnosis of social phobia. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 43. Leo worries all of the time. He worries about his money, his children, and his dog. His muscles are always tense and sore, he has trouble sleeping, and he is constantly physically tense. Leo’s symptoms sound most like __________. A) panic disorder Incorrect. If Leo had panic disorder, he would suffer from intense panic attacks rather than the more generalized worrying that he experiences. B) conversion disorder C) generalized anxiety disorder Correct. Leo’s worrying all the time about many different things is symptomatic of generalized anxiety disorder. D) a dissociative disorder Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

44. The symptoms of __________ are often mistaken for those of a heart attack. A) generalized anxiety disorder B) obsessive-compulsive disorder C) panic attacks D) posttraumatic stress disorder Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 45. Darcy is sitting at her desk in her office one day when, without warning, her heart begins racing rapidly, she starts sweating profusely, and she is gripped with a terrifying fear that she is about to go crazy. She thinks she is having a heart attack. Nothing she is doing seems to have caused such an episode. Her symptoms most resemble __________. A) a phobic disorder B) a panic attack Correct. A panic attack is a sudden onset of extreme panic with physical symptoms. C) post-traumatic stress Incorrect. Post-traumatic stress is a persisting anxiety in the wake of a terrifying event, not a sudden onset of extreme panic with physical symptoms. D) a compulsion Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 46. While each panic attack is different, the symptoms of a panic attack often peak within __________ minutes of their onset. A) 3 B) 10 C) 30 D) 45 Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear

47. What is the main difference between generalized anxiety disorder and phobic disorder? A) Phobic disorder is linked to specific triggers, while generalized anxiety disorder is not linked to a specific trigger. Correct. With a phobia, the sufferer knows exactly what he or she is afraid of, while with generalized anxiety disorder, the trigger of the tension and worry is not clear. B) Generalized anxiety disorder is linked to a specific trigger, while phobic disorder is not linked to a specific trigger. C) Generalized anxiety disorder is more common in women and phobic disorder is more common in men. Incorrect. This statement regarding the gender differences between phobias and generalized anxiety disorder is not accurate and is not presented in the textbook. D) Generalized anxiety disorder is more common in men and phobic disorder is more common in women. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear % correct 94 a = 94 b = 3 c = 0 d = 3 r = .46 48. Davis has such an intense, irrational fear of clowns that he cannot take his daughters to see the circus when it is in town. Davis would be most correctly diagnosed as suffering from __________. A) obsessive-compulsive disorder B) panic disorder Incorrect. Panic disorder is marked by sudden and usually unexpected attacks of overwhelming dread or anxiety. C) a phobia Correct. A phobia is defined as an intense fear of an object or situation that is out of proportion to the actual threat. D) posttraumatic stress disorder Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 49. Manny has such an intense fear of flying insects that he hardly ever goes outside his house during the summer months. He is probably suffering from a __________. A) somatic symptom disorder B) conversion reaction Incorrect. A person having a conversion reaction suffers specific symptoms related to the somatic nervous system, such as blindness, paralysis, deafness, or numbness of certain body parts, none of which have real physical causes. C) personality disorder D) specific phobia Correct. Manny is experiencing an irrational, persistent fear of a particular thing. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

50. In her autobiography, It Ain’t About Cookin’, Paula Deen discusses her battle with agoraphobia. With that information, even if you have not read the book you know that Mrs. Deen _________. A) experienced unexpected panic attacks Incorrect. Agoraphobia is not associated with panic attacks. B) engaged in repetitive behaviors to make anxiety-provoking thoughts disappear C) feared being in a place where escape was difficult or embarrassing Correct. This is a symptom of agoraphobia that is experienced by anyone with this diagnosis, not just a celebrity. D) had sleep difficulties and other intense fear responses after experiencing a severely stressful event Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 51. John has such an intense fear of flying that he has turned down lucrative job offers that involved travelling to other cities, and has been unable to join his family for vacations that required air travel. He is probably suffering from __________. A) social anxiety disorder B) agoraphobia Incorrect. Agoraphobia is defined as the fear of being in a place or situation where escape is difficult or where help would be unavailable. C) a specific phobia Correct. A specific phobia is diagnosed when there is a very clear trigger of a person’s fear reaction and it is not better diagnosed as a social phobia or agoraphobia. D) a generalized phobia Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear

52. People who have __________ are afraid of being evaluated in some negative way by others, so they tend to avoid situations that can be embarrassing. A) agoraphobia B) social anxiety disorder C) a specific phobia D) an interactive phobia Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 53. A strong, intense fear of being in public or performing behaviors in public is characteristic of __________. A) agoraphobia B) obsessive-compulsive disorder C) panic disorder D) social anxiety disorder Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 54. Victims of sexual assault may experience strong stress reactions, intense anxiety, and flashbacks to their attacks from environmental cues that remind them of being attacked and helpless. If these become frequent, intense, and debilitating, the person may be diagnosed as suffering from __________. A) generalized anxiety disorder Incorrect. These symptoms are not consistent with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder. B) panic disorder C) posttraumatic stress disorder Correct. These are the symptoms of PTSD, which follows some sort of frightening, traumatic, or sometimes life-threatening experience. D) social anxiety disorder Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear

55. Jerry was involved in a car accident involving a U.S. Postal Service vehicle. Knowing that the government has deep pockets, he has been pretending to suffer from post-traumatic stress disorder to get the government to give him a lucrative financial settlement. Jerry's behavior—faking symptoms for a benefit—is called ________. A) malingering Correct. Malingering can be a big problem in the treatment of mental health issues, as it makes it difficult to know who does and who does not really need treatment. B) factitious disorder by proxy C) dissociative amnesia Incorrect. There is nothing in this scenario that indicates the presence of dissociative symptoms. D) social anxiety disorder Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 56. The text authors note that posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) may be particularly difficult to diagnose because some patients intentionally fake their own symptoms to obtain government benefits. Because this possibility has to be ruled out as part of the diagnostic process, clinicians have to remember the importance of __________. A) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. It is important to make sure that a diagnosis is being made on the basis of real symptoms and not something that the client is intentionally making up. B) extraordinary claims C) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. Although it may seem that someone faking symptoms is an easier explanation than real mental illness indications, this practice of feigning an illness can be a complicated issue in and of itself. D) correlation versus causation Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear

57. During the day, Barb suffers from frequent, unwanted thoughts that she has left her front door unlocked and recurrent images that all her belongings have been taken. These thoughts and images are what psychologists refer to as a __________. A) compulsion Incorrect. A compulsion is a repetitive behavior or mental act that occurs to reduce or prevent the anxiety caused by an obsession. B) delusion C) hallucination D) obsession Correct. An obsession is a persistent idea, thought, or impulse that is unwanted and provokes distressing anxiety. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear % correct 77 a = 7 b = 15 c = 0 d = 77 r = .25 % correct 63 a = 11 b = 21 c = 5 d = 63 r = .29 58. Sierra is constantly worried that everyone whom she comes in contact with is full of germs, so she is constantly rushing off to wash her hands. Sierra suffers from which psychological disorder? A) Clinical depression B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder Correct. Sierra’s unwanted thoughts that bring her psychological distress indicate obsessions, a key symptom in obsessive-compulsive disorder. C) Social anxiety disorder D) Schizophrenia Incorrect. Sierra lacks the other symptoms of a psychotic disorder like schizophrenia. The best answer to this question is obsessive-compulsive disorder. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear

59. Mr. Carpenter is constantly afraid that he is going to oversleep and be late for work. As a result, he spends nearly an hour total each night making certain that his alarm clock is correctly set and saying “It’s set, it’s set, it’s set” each of the times he checks it. This repetitive action is what clinical psychologists refer to as a __________. A) compulsion Correct. A compulsion is a repetitive behavior or mental act that occurs to reduce or prevent the anxiety caused by an obsession. B) delusion C) hallucination D) obsession Incorrect. An obsession is a persistent idea, thought, or impulse that is unwanted and provokes distressing anxiety. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear % correct 89 a = 89 b = 0 c = 0 d = 11 r = .78 60. Each day, while Sid is sitting at his desk at work, he continually thinks about germs. Each time this occurs, he washes his hands. Sid probably suffers from __________. A) obsessive-compulsive disorder Correct. Sid suffers from obsessive-compulsive disorder, as he is obsessed with germs and compulsively washes his hands to relieve his anxiety about germs. B) panic disorder C) bipolar disorder D) generalized anxiety disorder Incorrect. Sid’s anxiety is not a general one—it is specifically about germs. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear

61. Kayla is absolutely convinced that her mouth is too small for her face and tells her mother that her lips are too "thin" to allow her to be seen in public. She begs for Botox injections for her fourteenth birthday, but her parents refuse. No amount of reassurance can convince Kayla that her mouth and lips are just fine, and she experiences intense anxiety over her appearance. Kayla may be suffering from __________ disorder. A) generalized anxiety B) obsessive-compulsive Incorrect. While there is an obsessive nature to Kayla's problem, her symptoms are more indicative of body dysmorphic disorder. C) Tourette's D) body dysmorphic Correct. People with body dysmorphic disorder become obsessed with some minor physical defect or one that is totally imagined. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 62. The relationship between body dysmorphic disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder can be clearly seen when one realizes that __________ of those with BDD also suffer from OCD. A) one-quarter B) one-third Correct. Around one in three people with body dysmorphic disorder also have obsessive-compulsive disorder. C) one-half Incorrect. This estimate is too high. The best answer is one-third. D) two-thirds Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 63. __________ disorder is a condition marked by motor tics and involuntary vocalizing (including grunting). A) Rhett’s B) Tourette’s C) Asperger’s D) Pica’s Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear

64. There is some research that suggests that the development of obsessive-compulsive disorder and Tourette’s syndrome share the same biological root. This is due to the fact that there appears to be an increased incidence in these mental illnesses after a child experiences an infection caused by __________ bacteria. A) staphylococcal B) polynucleocal C) streptococcal D) mononucleocal Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 65. While some have noted that the virus that causes “strep” may be at the root of the development of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), others have suggested that children with strep may be very uncomfortable, which worsens preexisting OCD symptoms. This different explanation for the relationship between strep and OCD is an important reminder of __________. A) falsifiability B) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. Just because there appears to be a relationship does not mean that we should stop considering alternate explanations for that relationship. C) replicability D) extraordinary claims Incorrect. The relationship between physical causes and mental health symptoms is not so extraordinary, and has been demonstrated in many cases. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear

66. Jaclyn has been suffering from hoarding disorder for many years. Her home has become a virtual storage facility for various junk, almost none of which has any value whatsoever. There is a terrible odor in her home and there is almost certainly very dangerous mold growing under her piles of garbage. Her home has become so overrun with “stuff” that there is only one tiny footpath that allows her to get from one room to another. This path, called a “__________,” is starting to disappear as she has to step on her own possessions to move around her own home. A) horselane Incorrect. This is not the correct name for the path that a person with hoarding disorder keeps in their home. B) pigeontrack C) goat path Correct. A goat path is a strong indication that what started as a process of collecting things has become a much more serious situation. D) mousehole Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 67. Although hoarding disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) are closely related “cousins,” they are not the same condition; in fact, less than __________ of those with hoarding disorder meet the diagnostic criteria for OCD. A) one-third B) one-quarter C) two-thirds D) one-half Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 68. Research into the neurological underpinnings of hoarding disorder have found that different species engage in hoarding behaviors, and that these actions may be associated with similar brain abnormalities as those seen in humans who hoard. Which of the following is NOT one of those species? A) monkeys B) rats C) apes D) pigs Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear

69. Learning theorists argue that anxiety disorders are conditioned through the process of __________. A) negative punishment B) negative reinforcement Correct. The removal of the anxiety that is experienced by many of the actions associated with anxiety symptoms demonstrates negative reinforcement because it sustains those pathological behaviors. C) positive punishment D) positive reinforcement Incorrect. There is nothing being “presented” to the individual suffering from the symptoms, so an answer of positive reinforcement would not be accurate. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 70. The learning perspective views anxiety as __________. A) a danger signal that repressed conflicts are threatening to surface Incorrect. The psychodynamic model focuses on the unconscious. B) linked to an imbalance in several neurotransmitters in the nervous system C) the result of illogical, irrational thought processes D) a learned reaction Correct. Learning theorists view anxiety as a learned behavioral reaction. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 71. Brian is the bassist and vocalist for a band with his two brothers, cousin, and a college friend. Recently, he has begun to experience more and more intense anxiety as he sings in front of crowds. As a result, he has begun to ask his bandmates to sing the songs for him. Brian’s anxiety lessens when the focus of the crowd is not on him, demonstrating that Brian’s avoidance of singing is being __________. A) negatively punished B) negatively reinforced Correct. The removal of the anxiety that Brian experienced demonstrates negative reinforcement because it sustains his pathological behaviors. C) positively punished D) positively reinforced Incorrect. There is nothing being “presented” to Brian, so an answer of positive reinforcement would not be accurate. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear % correct 71 a = 8 b = 71 c = 5 d = 14 r = .35

72. Which of the following is an example of the catastrophizing that sometimes accompanies anxiety disorders? A) “I sure hope that this storm isn’t strong enough for there to be a tornado.” Incorrect. While the storm in question may or may not be strong enough to warrant such concerns, this is not unrealistic enough to be an example of catastrophizing. B) “I’ve never had to work so hard in my life just to make a C in a class.” C) “If she doesn’t want to go to the dance with me, I’ll just ask someone else.” D) “If I make a mistake during our routine, no one else in the band will ever speak with me again.” Correct. Making one mistake during a routine is a small event. To amplify its importance in this way demonstrates catastrophizing. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 73. Some researchers examining the cause of anxiety disorders have found that those with these conditions tend to evaluate ambiguous situations in a negative light. This research has focused on presenting __________ to those suffering from an anxiety disorder—such as “bury” and “berry” or “sword” and “soared”—to see how that individual interprets the word. Those with high levels of anxiety interpret these pairs in the more threatening manner. A) morphemes B) homophones C) antonyms D) syntactic dyads Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 74. Research has shown that persons who suffer from obsessive-compulsive disorder have increased activity in portions of their __________ lobes than persons without the disorder. A) frontal B) occipital C) parietal D) temporal Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear

75. Major changes in sleep patterns, weight, and a loss of interest in pleasurable activities characterize __________. A) agoraphobia B) major depressive disorder C) schizophrenia D) social anxiety Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.3a Identify the characteristics of different mood disorders. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide % correct 95 a = 0 b = 95 c = 0 d = 0 r = .50 % correct 94 a = 6 b = 94 c = 0 d = 0 r = .46 76. According to the authors, which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Gender differences in depression are found throughout all cultures. B) Gender differences in depression are not universal. C) Men are more likely than women to be diagnosed with depression. D) Men in the United States are more likely than women to be diagnosed with depression. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide 77. Research into demographic differences in the rates of major depressive disorder, or clinical depression as it is often called, suggests that __________. A) adults are less likely than children to be diagnosed with the disorder in the United States B) men are more likely than women to be diagnosed with the disorder in the United States C) men are less likely than women to be diagnosed with the disorder in the United States D) there are no age, gender, or racial differences in the prevalence of the disorder in the United States Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide

78. Pessimism and other symptoms of depression can set the stage for negative life events, but at the same time negative life events can also lead to pessimism and other symptoms of depression. The uncertainty of the direction by which these relationships exist indicates the importance of remembering the principle of __________. A) extraordinary claims B) replicability Incorrect. This question does not address the issue of repeating research in order to validate findings. C) correlation versus causation Correct. Just because two things are related does not mean that one causes the other. It is difficult to know the direction of cause in many situations. D) Occam’s Razor Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide 79. Which of the following losses might serve as a starting point for one’s experience of major depressive disorder? A) a fellow student from your high school class moves away B) getting fired from one’s job and having difficulty getting a new job Correct. The severity of this life event and the potential threat to one’s well-being is what makes it the most likely answer as a stressor that could lead to major depressive disorder. C) losing $1.25 in a vending machine and not getting it refunded Incorrect. While this would be an example of what your authors refer to as a hassle, most people would not develop a severe disorder such as major depression over the loss of a relatively small amount of money. D) the loss of a grandparent who had been sick for many years Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide

80. Psychologist James Coyne has proposed that depression symptoms may be sustained by __________ problems; that is, people who are depressed seek excessive reassurance from others, and this causes them to dislike and reject the depressed individual. As a result, the depression can linger or worsen. A) sociological Incorrect. There is certainly a mild sociological element to the way in which people interact with each other, but this is not the best answer to the question. B) neurological C) cognitive D) interpersonal Correct. As a result of this model, interpersonal therapy might help the sufferer work on their social skills, which in turn will reduce rejection experiences. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide 81. Kevan used to study diligently for exams in all of his high school classes and begin working on writing projects immediately after they were assigned. However, no matter what he did, he could never score higher than C or C+. What prediction would the behavioral model make about Kevan’s behavior today as a college student? A) Kevan’s behavior cannot be adequately predicted from his past experiences. B) Kevan may begin to give up working so hard because of the lack of a payoff for his efforts. Correct. This model suggests that the loss of rewards leads to a loss of motivation to engage in productive behaviors. C) Kevan will eventually drop out of college because of his poor performance. Incorrect. While this may, in fact, be a long-term consequence of Kevan’s class grades, the behavioral model first suggests that he will stop making any productive efforts in class. D) Kevan will continue to study diligently and work hard in his classes. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide

82. One suggestion for overcoming depression is given by the behavioral model. What is it? A) Engage in pleasurable activities, even when you do not want to, to create reinforcers for your behavior. Correct. The idea here is that starting behaviors that lead to rewards will inspire a greater desire to engage in such productive behaviors, and will eventually lead to an amelioration of depressive symptoms. B) Don’t get too close to people because they might die or move away and leave you all alone. C) Look at how your actions are creating a negative impression on others and change your behavior to create a more positive impression. D) Stop thinking negative, irrational thoughts all of the time. Incorrect. First, this would be a thought consistent with the cognitive model. Second, it is far too simplistic as a suggestion for how to overcome depression and ignores many aspects of the illness itself. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide % correct 74 a = 74 b = 5 c = 16 d = 5 r = .72 83. According to the cognitive model of depression, one’s negative beliefs develop as the result of __________. A) the loss of positive reinforcement Incorrect. The loss of positive reinforcement is consistent with the behavioral model, not the cognitive model. B) experiences of loss, failure, and rejection Correct. These are the facets of depression that are suggested by the cognitive model. C) excessive levels of certain neurotransmitters in the brain D) deficient levels of certain neurotransmitters in the brain Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide 84. According to Aaron Beck, depression is often caused by __________. A) biological or genetic influences B) a lack of positive reinforcement for one’s behavior Incorrect. This is consistent with the behavioral model, and Beck is known as a developer of the cognitive model. C) negative beliefs and expectations Correct. Beck focused on what is called the negative cognitive triad, which was a set of negative beliefs and expectations that contributed to the symptoms of depression. D) poor interpersonal skills Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

85. According to Aaron Beck’s cognitive model of depression, people with this condition focus on the negative cognitive triad, which sustains the depression. This triad includes all but WHICH of the following? A) Negative views of one’s past B) Negative views of one’s self C) Negative views of one’s future D) Negative views of one’s world Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide 86. A counterintuitive research finding involving depression is that __________. A) mildly depressed people have a more accurate view of circumstances than do nondepressed people B) mildly depressed people assume they have more control over the outcome of events than do nondepressed people C) nondepressed people are less attentive to reality than are depressed people D) nondepressed people have a more accurate view of circumstances than do depressed people Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide % correct 65 a = 65 b = 2 c = 26 d = 7 r = .31 87. Lily is concerned that her roommate Sachie is feeling overwhelmed by being a first-year student at an American university. Sachie often explains her academic difficulties and failures as being due to __________ factors. A) external, specific, and unstable B) internal, global, and stable Correct. Research has found that people suffering from depression often make internal, global, and stable assessments of things going on in the world around them. These assessments tend to sustain the depressive symptoms. C) internal, global, and unstable Incorrect. Sachie is making stable assessments, not unstable assessments. D) internal, specific, and unstable Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide

88. Mr. Evans feels that no matter what he does, he will be unable to convince his boss that he deserves a promotion. He also feels that it doesn’t matter who his boss is, he still would not receive a promotion. These feelings represent what Overmier and Seligman called __________. A) depressive realism B) illusory control C) learned helplessness Correct. Overmier and Seligman’s research into learned helplessness has been the cornerstone of the cognitive behavioral model of depression. D) overgeneralization Incorrect. Overgeneralization is a term that would be associated with Aaron Beck, not Overmier and Seligman. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide 89. Overmier and Seligman described the phenomenon of learned __________ as the tendency to feel powerless in the face of events that we can’t control. They have also argued that it provides an explanation for many cases of major depressive disorder. A) helplessness B) impotence C) ineptitude D) incredulity Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide 90. In class, a psychology professor states that learned helplessness causes people to make attributions that are internally focused, global in nature, and stable. A student who demonstrates critical thinking would raise his or her hand and remind the professor that __________. A) correlation does not equal causation Correct. This student is remembering that the helplessness could cause, or be caused by, this set of attributions. B) extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence Incorrect. This question focuses on the direction of cause, not extraordinary claims. C) the research needs to still be replicated D) such a claim is unfalsifiable Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide

91. The results of studies investigating the role of biological factors suggest that depression is caused by __________. A) variations in the serotonin transporter gene B) increases in polypeptide Y in the brain C) decreases in the levels of gastric ghrelin D) unusual elevations in both dopamine and glutamate levels Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide 92. Kayla has experienced a decrease in the need for sleep for the past three nights, is extremely talkative and creative, and has been very irresponsible with money during this time. Kayla is in the midst of a(n) __________. A) dissociated amnesiac episode B) major depressive episode Incorrect. Kayla’s symptoms are the opposite of major depression; rather, they suggest that she is experiencing a manic episode. C) manic episode Correct. These are all symptoms of mania, which could indicate the presence of bipolar disorder. D) obsessive episode Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.3a Identify the characteristics of different mood disorders. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide 93. What mood disorder is characterized by alterations between periods of extremely high levels and extremely low levels of activity? A) Bipolar disorder B) Major depressive disorder C) A manic episode D) Seasonal affective disorder Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.3a Identify the characteristics of different mood disorders. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide % correct 87 a = 87 b = 6 c = 7 d = 0 r = .31

94. Which of the following psychological disorders has some of the strongest evidence for a genetic link? A) antisocial personality disorder B) bipolar disorder C) obsessive-compulsive disorder D) schizophrenia Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 15.3a Identify the characteristics of different mood disorders. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide 95. One suggested cause of bipolar disorder is an increase in brain structures related to emotions, including the amygdala. Additionally, some research has suggested that unusually high levels of norepinephrine activity are also responsible for the symptoms of this illness. On the contrary, it is possible that the illness causes these changes in brain areas and neurotransmitters. This uncertain direction of effect demonstrates which of the six principles mentioned in your chapter? A) extraordinary claims B) correlation vs. causation Correct. It is a reasonable assertion that the disorder could cause these neurological changes, which demonstrates the problem of correlation versus causation. C) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. Neither of these conclusions is “simpler” than the other; rather, they merely demonstrate that the direction of cause between two variables can sometimes go in either direction. D) replicability Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide 96. Evidence of a biological influence in bipolar disorder comes from brain imaging studies, which have found that activity is increased in the __________ and decreased in the __________. A) amygdala and emotion-related structures; occipital cortex B) amygdala and emotion-related structures; prefrontal cortex C) amygdala and emotion-related structures; temporal lobes D) hippocampus and thalamus; temporal lobes Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.3a Identify the characteristics of different mood disorders. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide

97. Unlike many other psychological disorders, manic episodes may be triggered by __________. A) failures and rejection B) negative life events C) positive life events D) stressful life events Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide 98. A concern for researchers interested in the topic of suicide prevention is that the number of suicides is __________. A) much greater for adults than adolescents B) hopelessly out of date Incorrect. In fact, suicide rates are monitored on a continuous basis as prevention efforts continue. C) overestimated D) underestimated Correct. While current research suggests that the suicide rate in the United States is approximately 12 or 13 out of every 100,000 people, one concern is that this estimate is significantly lower than the true suicide rate. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 15.3c Identify common myths and misconceptions about suicide. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide 99. Jessie is giving a class presentation on suicide. Which of the following is a point you are likely to hear her make? A) As depression lifts, the risk of suicide may increase rather than decrease. B) One must be careful when talking with a depressed person about suicide because you might make her more likely to take her own life. C) People who talk about committing suicide are just looking for attention. D) There is seldom any warning given by those who commit suicide. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.3c Identify common myths and misconceptions about suicide. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide

100. According to the data, the single best predictor of suicide is __________. A) loss of a loved one B) a previous attempt C) depression D) unemployment Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.3c Identify common myths and misconceptions about suicide. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide % correct 80 a = 1 b = 80 c = 19 d = 0 r = .52 101. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding suicide? A) More men than women attempt suicide. B) More women than men attempt suicide. C) Depression is a better predictor of suicide than are feelings of hopelessness. D) There is no relationship between age and attempting suicide. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.3c Identify common myths and misconceptions about suicide. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide 102. What category of psychological disorders is characterized by inflexible and maladaptive behavioral patterns? A) anxiety disorders B) dissociative disorders C) personality disorders D) schizophrenia Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.4a Identify the characteristics of borderline and psychopathic personality disorders. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self 103. Which personality disorder gets its name from the outdated concept that the individual with the diagnosis exists somewhere between the psychotic and the “neurotic” planes of functioning? A) borderline personality disorder Correct. As your text presents, this is a rather outdated way of thinking about this disorder, but the name has endured. B) schizoid personality disorder C) histrionic personality disorder Incorrect. Histrionic personality disorder is marked by dramatic, attention-seeking behaviors. D) dependent personality disorder Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.4a Identify the characteristics of borderline and psychopathic personality disorders. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

104. A person who has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder is most likely to exhibit __________. A) a charming, self-centered, and manipulative interpersonal style B) impulsivity and unpredictability in his or her interactions with others C) intense discomfort in most social situations and odd thinking and behavior patterns D) a strong need to be the center of attention in all social situations Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.4a Identify the characteristics of borderline and psychopathic personality disorders. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self % correct 84 a = 13 b = 84 c = 0 d = 3 r = .43 % correct 61 a = 29 b = 61 c = 10 d = 0 r = .49 105. Otto Kernberg suggested that __________ develops as a result of intense anger and frustration that comes from living with a cold, unempathetic mother. Despite the influence that this model has had, it has not been supported by adequate research. A) generalized anxiety disorder B) dissociative identity disorder C) schizophrenia D) borderline personality disorder Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.4a Identify the characteristics of borderline and psychopathic personality disorders. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self 106. According to psychologist __________’s sociobiological model, individuals with borderline personality disorder inherit a tendency to overreact to stress and experience lifelong difficulties with regulating their emotions. Support for this model comes from twin studies that suggest borderline personality traits are substantially heritable. A) Otto Kernberg B) Marsha Linehan C) Thomas Joiner D) Edward Selby Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.4a Identify the characteristics of borderline and psychopathic personality disorders. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self

107. John has made a career of stealing older people’s retirement money by taking advantage of their trust and selling them phony retirement investments. John explains that he has done nothing wrong—if these people were not so greedy, they would not be so eager to invest in his phony schemes. In his mind, his victims got exactly what they deserved. John’s behavior and attitude are typical of someone with __________ personality disorder. A) schizoid Incorrect. People with schizoid personality disorder are loners who are unable to form relationships with people; John is able to form relationships with people, even though they are dishonest relationships. B) schizotypal C) histrionic D) antisocial Correct. Someone with antisocial personality disorder has no real conscience and feels no guilt about deceiving or cheating people. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.4a Identify the characteristics of borderline and psychopathic personality disorders. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self % correct 32 a = 35 b = 26 c = 6 d = 32 r = .49 108. Serial killer Ted Bundy is a prototypical example of a __________. A) borderline personality Incorrect. The behaviors demonstrated by these individuals are examples of a psychopathic personality, not a borderline personality. B) histrionic personality C) psychopathic personality Correct. A psychopathic personality, which is also called antisocial personality disorder, best describes these individuals. D) schizotypal personality Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.4a Identify the characteristics of borderline and psychopathic personality disorders. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self 109. What general category of psychological disorders is characterized by a disruption in one’s consciousness, memory, identity, or perception? A) anxiety disorders B) dissociative disorders C) personality disorders D) schizophrenia Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self

110. Which of the types of psychological disorders is marked by disruptions in one’s sense of consciousness and/or memory? A) anxiety disorders B) dissociative disorders C) personality disorders D) schizophrenia Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self % correct 84 a = 5 b = 84 c = 5 d = 0 r = .87 111. The case of Nadean Cool, who was purported to have more than a hundred different personalities, is an example of the critical thinking concept of __________. A) correlation versus causation B) falsifiability C) extraordinary claims Correct. To have that many identities is certainly extraordinary. The question then becomes, does the evidence back up the claim? D) replicability Incorrect. It would not be appropriate to consider the idea of replicability when looking at an individual case of extreme psychopathology. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self 112. Ned seeks therapy after having recurrent episodes of feeling “detached from himself” for several months, but he has not lost his self-awareness or memory. He notes that he feels like a robot, disconnected from his movements and actions. He is most likely suffering from __________. A) dissociative fugue Incorrect. A person experiencing dissociative fugue experiences a loss of memory. B) conversion disorder C) dissociative identity disorder D) depersonalization/derealization disorder Correct. Depersonalization/derealization disorder involves feeling detached from oneself. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self

113. After being passed up for a promotion and then getting into a heated argument with his son, a man disappears. He shows up two weeks later in another town with no memory of who he is or how he got there. He appears to be suffering from __________. A) schizophrenia B) a somatic symptom disorder Incorrect. Somatic symptom disorders take the form of bodily ailments that have no physical cause. C) a dissociative disorder Correct. Dissociative disorders are characterized by a break in conscious awareness, memory, sense of identity, or some combination. D) factitious disorder Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self 114. A dissociative disorder characterized by a partial or complete loss of memory for personal information that is usually associated with a stressful or emotionally traumatic experience is known as __________. A) dissociative identity disorder B) depersonalization disorder C) dissociative amnesia D) dissociative fugue Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self 115. The presence of at least two distinct personalities is characteristic of __________. A) antisocial personality disorder B) dissociative amnesia C) dissociative identity disorder D) schizophrenia Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self

116. Research into the memories of those claiming to suffer from dissociative identity disorder (DID) has found that information presented to one “alter” is usually available to the other. This finding has shed doubt on the concept of amnesia across alternate personalities in cases of DID. This situation demonstrates which of the six principles mentioned in your chapter? A) falsifiability Correct. This line of research has provided significant counterevidence for the claim that DID involves amnesia between different personalities. This demonstrates the concept of falsifiability. B) correlation vs. causation C) extraordinary claims Incorrect. There are no truly extraordinary claims demonstrated in this question. D) Occam’s Razor Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self 117. In some cases of dissociative identity disorder, patients have claimed to have amazing numbers of alternate personalities. The evidence for the veracity of these claims, however, has been less then compelling. These cases demonstrate which of the six principles mentioned in your chapter? A) extraordinary claims Correct. The contention that one person could have over a hundred different personalities, or even more, is an extraordinary claim. B) falsifiability Incorrect. There is plenty of research that casts doubt on the true presence or prevalence of dissociative identity disorder, but this is not the best answer to this question. C) ruling out rival hypotheses D) Occam’s Razor Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self 118. One of the most controversial diagnoses in all of psychology is __________. A) antisocial personality disorder B) attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) C) autism spectrum disorder D) dissociative identity disorder Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self

119. The preponderance of the available data suggests that dissociative identity disorder is __________. A) based on one’s expectancies and beliefs rather than a true disorder in many instances Correct. As the debate about dissociative identity disorder has continued, one explanation for the presence of this illness is that people’s expectations and beliefs sustain the periods of symptoms. B) an attempt to malinger symptoms to avoid imprisonment for one’s crimes. Incorrect. While some people certainly pretend to have the symptoms of dissociative identity disorder for purposes of evading responsibility for their own actions, this is not suggested by a preponderance of research. C) unconscious and unresolved motivational conflicts from adolescence D) the result of early childhood sexual abuse experiences Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self % correct 30 a = 30 b = 9 c = 27 d = 34 r = .24 120. According to the __________ model, cases of dissociative identity disorder arise from a history of severe abuse—physical, sexual, or both—during early childhood. A) posttraumatic Correct. This model suggests that a child “compartmentalizes” a part of their consciousness, and this in turn can lead to the appearance of multiple alternate identities. B) psychoreactive C) repressed memory D) iatrogenic Incorrect. An iatrogenic model suggests that the appearance of alternate identities might be an unanticipated and unintended consequence of psychotherapy. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self

121. Some researchers examining dissociative identity disorder have found a relationship between dissociation and the tendency to fantasize in everyday life. They have suggested that this may be related to the production of false memories. This is an example of the importance of __________. A) Occam’s Razor B) replicability C) falsifiability Incorrect. This research is looking for alternate explanations for certain symptoms more than the falsification of their existence. D) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. Such explanations are seeking out different reasons why dissociative identity disorder appears in different individuals. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self 122. Kat is giving a report on dissociative identity disorder (DID) in her psychopathology seminar. A main conclusion that you would expect to hear from her talk is that __________. A) most claims of sexual abuse as a precursor to DID have been proven with corroborating evidence B) DID is most often created by questionable therapeutic practices rather than being a true disorder Correct. There is research that suggests that some psychotherapeutic practices can lead to the symptoms of dissociative identity disorder. C) the diagnosis of DID has dropped nearly a hundredfold since 1979 Incorrect. On the contrary, the diagnosis of dissociative identity disorder has increased rapidly in recent years. D) most clinical psychologists agree that DID is a valid psychological disorder Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self 123. Perhaps the most severe psychological disorder is __________. A) autism B) depression Incorrect. While certainly a very serious illness, depression is not presented by your textbook as the most severe psychological disorder. C) dissociative identity disorder D) schizophrenia Correct. Your textbook presents schizophrenia as being one of the most severe psychological disorders that can be diagnosed. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

124. Schizophrenia is a disorder that results from disturbances in __________ that spill into other areas of the person’s life. A) affect Incorrect. Schizophrenia does involve affective symptoms, but the foundation of the illness is a thought disorder. B) identity C) personality D) thought Correct. At its very heart, schizophrenia is a thought disorder. It does, however, involve symptoms in many other areas of psychological functioning. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia % correct 58 a = 0 b = 23 c = 19 d = 58 r = .16 125. According to the authors, schizophrenia is most often confused with which other psychological disorder? A) autism B) dissociative identity disorder C) bipolar disorder D) dementia Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia 126. A patient in a psychiatric hospital exhibits disordered thinking, bizarre behavior, and hallucinations. This person is probably suffering from __________. A) schizophrenia Correct. Disordered thinking, bizarre behavior, and hallucinations are all symptoms of schizophrenia. B) bipolar disorder Incorrect. Bipolar disorder is characterized by mood swings between depression and mania and does not involve hallucinations. C) a dissociative disorder D) passive-aggressive personality Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia

127. Many people incorrectly assume that schizophrenia is a synonym for another commonly discussed mental illness. Why does this mistake occur? A) Because the popular media has portrayed schizophrenic individuals as universally suffering from substance-related problems, people think that schizophrenia refers to an alcohol or drug addiction. B) Because schizophrenia literally means “split mind,” people mistake it for “split personality” (or dissociative identity disorder). Correct. This is the likely origin of the common misconception that schizophrenia is split personality. C) Because schizophrenia is an illness that we know virtually nothing about, people mistake it as a form of cancer. Incorrect. First, there is quite a bit of information that has been discovered about schizophrenia. Second, nobody mistakes this illness for cancer! D) Because the illness has a similar sound to “mania,” people think that it is the same as bipolar disorder. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia 128. Fixed, inaccurate beliefs held by a person who has no evidence to support such beliefs are known as __________. A) delusions B) hallucinations C) obsessions D) compulsions Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia 129. Believing that the government or other people are out to get you is one way in which sufferers of schizophrenia experience their __________. A) compulsions B) delusions C) hallucinations D) obsessions Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia

130. The belief that one is Abraham Lincoln is an example of what symptom of schizophrenia? A) delusion Correct. A delusion is a deeply held belief that is maintained despite the lack of evidence to support it. B) hallucination Incorrect. A hallucination is a sensory/perceptual experience that occurs despite the absence of a specific stimulus. C) obsession D) disorganized thinking Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia 131. Shreen is diagnosed with schizophrenia. She believes that she is a powerful person who can save the world. Shreen is experiencing __________. A) delusions of persecution B) delusions of grandeur Correct. Delusions of grandeur are false beliefs in which people are convinced that they are powerful enough to save the world. C) delusions of reference Incorrect. Delusions of reference are false beliefs in which people are convinced that other people, television characters, and even books are talking to them. D) delusions of influence Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia 132. Feeling insects crawling on your skin when none are really there, or hearing voices when no one is around or no one is talking to you, would be examples of what symptom of schizophrenia? A) compulsions B) delusions Incorrect. A delusion is a deeply held belief that is maintained despite the lack of evidence to support it. C) hallucinations Correct. A hallucination is a sensory/perceptual experience that occurs despite the absence of a specific stimulus. D) obsessions Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia % correct 95 a = 0 b = 0 c = 95 d = 0 r = .50

133. The most frequent type of hallucinations involves __________. A) hearing voices or sounds that are not real B) seeing objects or persons that are not real C) experiencing taste in the absence of the appropriate food D) feeling objects on one’s body that are not really present Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia 134. Nick is admitted to a mental institution because he hears voices talking to him that no one else can hear, and he sees demons attacking him, though no one else can see anything near him. Nick’s symptoms are known as __________. A) delusions Incorrect. Delusions are false beliefs, not false sensory perceptions such as those that Nick is experiencing. B) obsessions C) hallucinations Correct. When one experiences false perceptions, such as seeing demons or hearing voices, one is having hallucinations. D) compulsions Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia 135. One symptom of schizophrenia is called a word __________, in which a person’s verbalizations are so jumbled that they are virtually impossible to understand. A) frenzy B) neologism C) clang D) salad Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia

136. When Dr. Scharf speaks to his client Charise, she only repeats what he said to her. For example, “Good morning, Charise, how are you today?” is met with a response of, “Good morning, Charise, how are you today?” This parroting of things that are said to a person is known as __________, and it is a symptom sometimes seen in those suffering from schizophrenia. A) echolalia Correct. Echolalia is the rote repetition of verbalizations rather than a cogent responding to them. B) echopraxia Incorrect. Echopraxia is the mirroring of physical actions, not verbalizations. C) clanging D) neologisms Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia 137. Experiencing extremes in motor behavior, or repeating phrases that have been verbalized to you, are considered __________ symptoms of schizophrenia. A) catatonic B) disorganized C) affective D) cognitive Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia 138. Research finds that one home- or family-based contributor to schizophrenia may be the presence of higher levels of __________ in the home. After leaving the hospital, patients with this condition experience twice the relapse rate when relatives display high levels of this particular attribute. A) crisis avoidance B) expressed emotion C) double-bind communication D) psychosexual fixation Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 15.5b Explain how psychosocial, neural, biochemical, and genetic influences create the vulnerability to schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia

139. Hypofrontality, or an underactivity of the frontal lobes of the brain, appears in people with schizophrenia when they are engaged in demanding mental tasks. It is difficult to know if this condition is a contributor to or a consequence of this disorder. Which critical thinking concept does this remind us to bear in mind when looking at research data? A) replicability B) extraordinary claims Incorrect. The fact that there may be neurological contributors or consequences of a mental disorder is not an extraordinary claim. On the contrary, it is quite logical. C) correlation versus causation Correct. Do these brain differences cause schizophrenia, or are they caused by the condition? Alternately, does some third variable cause both situations? D) falsifiability Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.5b Explain how psychosocial, neural, biochemical, and genetic influences create the vulnerability to schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia 140. The research data suggest that schizophrenia results from __________. A) biological/genetic causes B) difficulties in learning C) poor mother-child relationships D) troubles in filtering information from one’s social world Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 15.5b Explain how psychosocial, neural, biochemical, and genetic influences create the vulnerability to schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia % correct 89 a = 89 b = 0 c = 0 d = 11 r = .66 141. One biological explanation for the symptoms of schizophrenia is the appearance of enlarged __________, which are fluid-filled structures that cushion and protect the brain. A) atria B) meninges C) vesicles D) ventricles Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.5b Explain how psychosocial, neural, biochemical, and genetic influences create the vulnerability to schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia % correct 65 a = 1 b = 9 c = 22 d = 65 r = .42

142. Which of the following statements might someone with a biological perspective make about schizophrenia? A) It is a result of an excess of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the corpus callosum. B) Its symptoms are shaped by the processes of reinforcement and extinction. Incorrect. The behavioral perspective, not the biological perspective, focuses on learning processes, such as reinforcement and extinction. C) It is the result of fatty plaques that build up in the amygdala, and this condition begins at birth. D) It is caused by genetics, chemical influences, and brain structural defects. Correct. Someone with a biological perspective focuses on physiological causes. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.5b Explain how psychosocial, neural, biochemical, and genetic influences create the vulnerability to schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia 143. Research indicates that some people’s schizophrenia may result from abnormalities in the brain’s receptor sites for what neurotransmitter? A) acetylcholine B) dopamine C) GABA D) epinephrine Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 15.5b Explain how psychosocial, neural, biochemical, and genetic influences create the vulnerability to schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia 144. Janelle is a 23-year old woman who is living happily in the United States. She has a relative who recently developed the symptoms of schizophrenia. Janelle has the highest chance of developing the illness if that relative is __________. A) Jameson, her 23-year old fraternal twin B) Jamie, her 52-year old biological mother Incorrect. The concordance rate for schizophrenia is much lower between a parent and child than it is between identical twins. C) Janette, her 23-year old identical twin Correct. The concordance rate for schizophrenia is highest between monozygotic (identical) twins. D) Jerivicious, her 75-year old grandmother Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.5b Explain how psychosocial, neural, biochemical, and genetic influences create the vulnerability to schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia

145. According to family, twin, and adoption studies, a person is at greatest risk for developing schizophrenia if he or she has a(n) __________. A) identical twin diagnosed with the disorder B) nonidentical twin diagnosed with the disorder C) adoptive parent diagnosed with the disorder D) biological parent diagnosed with the disorder Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 15.5b Explain how psychosocial, neural, biochemical, and genetic influences create the vulnerability to schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia 146. The diathesis-stress model suggests that schizophrenia develops from __________. A) genetic influences entirely Incorrect. A genetic proclivity toward schizophrenia is a major part of the diathesis-stress model, but it also involves stressful life events that elicit the illness. B) environmental influences entirely C) exposure to stress D) a combination of a genetic predisposition to schizophrenia and exposure to significant stressors in their life Correct. The diathesis-stress model suggests that there is a genetic proclivity to develop schizophrenia, but that life events must occur to elicit this illness. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.5b Explain how psychosocial, neural, biochemical, and genetic influences create the vulnerability to schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia 147. What is the nature of the relationship between autism and Asperger’s disorder? A) Asperger’s disorder is a less severe form of autism. B) Autism is diagnosed between birth and 5 years of age, and then the diagnosis changes to Asperger’s disorder. C) Asperger’s disorder is the diagnostic label for girls, while autism is the diagnostic label for boys. Other than that, however, they are the same condition. D) Autism is diagnosed when there is a chromosomal precursor to the symptoms, while Asperger’s disorder is diagnosed when there is no chromosomal abnormality. The two illnesses have identical symptoms, however. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Topic: Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies

148. Tommy is a seven-year old boy with autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Which of the following would be inconsistent with this diagnosis? A) He has difficulty with language skills. B) He enjoys playing with his older brother. Correct. Children with autism usually have deficits when it comes to social bonding, so playing with his brother would be an unexpected behavior. C) He isn’t interested in playing with anything except his Tickle-Me-Elmo toy. Incorrect. This might be a very predictable symptom for Tommy, if he suffers from autism. D) He suffers from intellectual disability. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Topic: Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies 149. Although the relationship between some vaccines and the development of autism has received virtually no support in the scientific community, many continue to believe that a relationship exists. What is the ingredient in these vaccines that is thought to be the culprit behind autistic disorder? A) doxycycline B) thalidomide C) thimerosol D) ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Topic: Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies 150. Despite some very frightening claims that research had found a relationship between the MMR vaccination and the development of autistic disorder, studies in the United States, Europe, and Japan failed to produce those same results. This problem with __________ has cast enormous doubt on the original claims that a relationship between these two events truly exists. A) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. This question does not bring alternate hypotheses into play, but simply shows that the original claims have not been repeated in repeated research investigations. B) Occam’s Razor C) replicability Correct. The lack of consistency in the research has cast a problem with the replicability of the original claims. D) falsifiability Answer: c Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood Topic: Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies % correct 87 a = 3 b = 3 c = 87 d = 7 r = .53

151. Dr. Brown has been invited to speak at a prestigious psychological conference on the topic of autism. He will talk on the current scientific knowledge regarding this disorder. What is a key point you would expect him to make based on the authors’ discussion of the disorder in the chapter? A) The apparent surge in diagnoses of autism is linked to important changes in diagnostic practices. Correct. As your authors point out, the extraordinary explosion of autism diagnoses suggests something other than a true epidemic. It is very likely that changes in diagnostic practices explain some of the increase in diagnoses. B) There is an autism epidemic and psychologists have no real insights into the dramatic increase. Incorrect. In fact, it is very unlikely that autism has spiked so dramatically in recent years. It is much more likely that diagnostic practices have changed to allow for better identification of the illness. C) The dramatic increase in diagnoses of autism is directly related to the mumps, measles, and rubella vaccine. D) The dramatic increase in autism diagnoses is a result of overdiagnosis rather than a real increase and epidemic. Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Topic: Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies % correct 52 a = 52 b = 9 c = 7 d = 32 r = .24 152. Jenny’s son received his mumps, measles, and rubella vaccine approximately six months ago. Shortly after his second birthday, she noticed that he is showing many of the classic signs of autism. Her belief that the vaccine caused his autism is __________. A) an example of confirmation bias Incorrect. Her belief would originally be inspired by what’s called the illusory correlation. Her belief would then be maintained by the confirmation bias. B) an example of hindsight bias C) an example of illusory correlation Correct. An illusory correlation occurs when one perceives a relationship or association that does not truly exist. D) supported by several scientific studies Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Topic: Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies % correct 58 a = 10 b = 29 c = 58 d = 3 r = .15

153. In recent years, the diagnostic frequency of autistic disorder has exploded in an epidemic-like fashion. One explanation for this increase is that the diagnostic practices have simply changed in ways that allow for more frequent diagnoses. This demonstrates which of the six principles mentioned in your chapter? A) correlation vs. causation B) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. While this question certainly provides rival hypotheses, it is looking for the simplest explanation that makes Occam’s Razor the best answer. C) Occam’s Razor Correct. It is less likely that there was a sudden explosion in cases of autism, and more likely (and a simple explanation) that diagnostic changes are what explain the increase seen. D) replicability Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Topic: Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies 154. Which of the following symptoms of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder is most likely to diminish as children mature and reach adolescence? A) impulsivity B) problems with peers C) high levels of physical activity D) academic difficulties Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Topic: Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies 155. Which of the following combinations of neurotransmitters seem to be at play in those who suffer from attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? A) glutamate, epinephrine, and acetylcholine B) serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine C) gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), epinephrine, and dopamine D) glutamate, GABA, and serotonin Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Topic: Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies

156. Diagnosing children with mental disorders is a very delicate topic, and it must be handled with extreme care. Recently, a trend has emerged where difficulty has been seen in distinguishing the symptoms of ADHD from the symptoms of __________. A) major depressive disorder B) autism C) Asperger’s disorder D) bipolar disorder Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Topic: Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies Fill-in-the-Blank 1. When a mental disorder, such as schizophrenia, is uncommon in a population, it would satisfy the criterion of __________. Answer: statistical rarity Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1a Identify criteria for defining mental disorders. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 2. Psychiatrist Thomas Szasz would argue that the entire concept of mental illness is a(n) __________. Answer: myth Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 3. The conceptualization of psychological troubles as resulting from physical disorders is known as the __________ model. Answer: medical Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 4. In the 1960s and the 1970s, the advent of psychotropic medications allowed for many psychiatric patients to be released from hospitals in a public policy known as __________. Unfortunately, this led to a massive spike in the number of mentally ill homeless individuals. Answer: deinstitutionalization Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

5. A culture-bound syndrome that is seen in West Africa is __________, the symptoms of which include difficulties in concentrating, remembering, and thinking. Answer: Brain Fog Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 6. An approach to understanding how mental disorders occur as the result of a combination of genetic factors, psychological difficulties, and the culture in which one lives, is known as the __________ approach. Answer: biopsychosocial Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide 7. Before discussing the chapter on Psychological Disorders, Dr. Plummer warned his class against seeing the symptoms in their own everyday behavior and thus believing that they suffered from the disorder. He was warning them against __________ syndrome. Answer: medical students’ Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 8. The __________ defense implies that a person who committed a crime fails to understand that what he or she did was wrong. Answer: insanity Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 9. __________ is the single most frequently diagnosed psychological disorder. Answer: Specific phobia Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today

10. Marvel is often anxious and tense, though there is no specific reason for these feelings. As a result, she is often irritable with her family, friends, and coworkers without meaning to be. Her family doctor suggests that she meet with a psychiatrist to discuss her generalized __________. Answer: anxiety disorder Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 11. __________ involves an intense fear of being embarrassed or humiliated in public. Answer: Social anxiety disorder Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 12. Marc is often consumed by the thought that he is unclean despite the fact that he has bathed. He also becomes extremely anxious when other people want to shake hands with him or touch him, because all he can think about is the germs that may get passed from them to him. Marc’s continual fears are what psychologists label as a(n) __________ disorder. Answer: obsessive-compulsive Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear 13. According to cognitive theorists such as Aaron Beck, some people’s depression is the result of negative __________ about the self or one’s abilities. Answer: schemas Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide 14. Scott feels that no matter what he does, he will always be unable to master his French vocabulary terms. He points to the fact that he has received a 5/10, 6/10, and 5/10 despite increasing the amount of time he studied each week. As a result, he has stopped going to class and studying. Scott is demonstrating a phenomenon known as __________. Answer: learned helplessness Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide

15. Felix has a strong feeling of grandiosity, experiences racing thoughts throughout the day, and is much more active and agitated than normal. Felix appears to be experiencing __________. Answer: a manic episode Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.3a Identify the characteristics of different mood disorders. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide 16. Public health officials and researchers assert that the number of suicides reported each year is a(n) __________. Answer: underestimate Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.2 TEXT LO: 15.3c Identify common myths and misconceptions about suicide. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide 17. Suppose that Owen has recently attempted to take his own life, but did not complete the suicide. You would most probably predict that he will be __________ to make a future suicide attempt. Answer: more likely Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.4a Identify the characteristics of borderline and psychopathic personality disorders. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self 18. A __________ personality is a condition marked by superficial charm, dishonesty, manipulativeness, self-centeredness, and risk-taking. Answer: psychopathic Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.4a Identify the characteristics of borderline and psychopathic personality disorders. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self 19. Nicholas’s therapist suggests that his inability to recall any specifics from the dozens of times he was sexually abused by his great-uncle results from a second personality that is protecting him. After being hypnotized, a personality called “Biff” emerges that Nicholas is unaware of. This finding is most consistent with the __________ explanation of dissociative identity disorder. Answer: sociocognitive Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self

20. Tavaris feels that the legal system and his ex-wife are unfairly out to get him and are making him pay more child support than he should. One persistent belief he has is that the local district attorney, the sheriff’s department, and his ex-wife have conspired to send the Gnarls Barkley song “Crazy” into his head. Tavaris clearly is suffering from __________. Answer: delusions (or delusions of persecution) Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia 21. The hallucinations that those with schizophrenia experience are most likely to be __________ in nature. Answer: auditory Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia 22. Riddick constantly speaks in a manner that is hard to follow because he quickly skips from topic to topic, sometimes even within a single sentence. This is most clearly the schizophrenic symptom of __________. Answer: disorganized speech Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia 23. Early theories of schizophrenia mistakenly laid the blame for the condition on mothers, with so-called __________ mothers being the prime culprits. Answer: schizophrenogenic Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: The Enigma of Schizophrenia 24. According to your authors, one possible explanation for the apparent exponential growth in the diagnosis of __________ is the change in diagnostic practices for the disorder in recent years. Answer: autism (or autistic disorder or autism spectrum disorder) Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Topic: Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies

25. Otis has difficulties in his classroom. He can’t sit in his seat for more than a few minutes, he constantly talks without raising his hand, and he fidgets constantly even though his teacher asks him to sit still repeatedly. Otis might be diagnosed with __________. Answer: attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder or ADHD (Instructor can decide if the acronym is acceptable or if the full diagnostic label must be used for full credit.) Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Topic: Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies Essay 1. Identify and discuss important considerations in distinguishing between normal and psychologically disordered behavior. Answer: Answers will vary but the discussion should address at least four of the following points for full credit. Psychologically disordered behavior will occur relatively infrequently. Psychologically disordered behavior will often cause the person to experience psychological and/or physical distress or discomfort. Psychologically disordered behavior will lead to problems in interpersonal relationships, school/academics, work, or ability to successfully deal with daily living. Psychologically disordered behavior will meet with societal disapproval. Psychologically disordered behavior often has accompanying physiological problems (i.e., neurotransmitter or receptor site deficiencies). Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.1a Identify criteria for defining mental disorders. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 2. Contrast the demonic and moral treatment approaches of mental illness. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following points for full credit. The demonic model assumed that the primary cause of mental illness was the presence of evil spirits with the body. The demonic model assumed that the absence of something was indicative of an undesired evil spirit (absence of sinking implied one was a witch). The demonic model treated mental illness by attempting to remove the evil spirits within the body. The moral treatment approach addressed the treatment of those with mental illness more than identifying the cause or causes of mental illness. Rather than treating those with mental illness as a subhuman form, the humane thing to do was to treat them with kindness, dignity, and respect. Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today

3. What are some important criticisms of the DSM-5 as a diagnostic tool for psychological disorders? Be sure to elaborate on your answers. Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following points, along with appropriate supportive discussion, for full credit. Some disorders are nothing more than labels for a problem rather than an informative diagnosis that adds to our knowledge about the person. Some people are diagnosed as suffering from multiple disorders at the same time (comorbidity), which may instead suggest that the disorders are variations of a single condition rather than true, independent diagnoses. The DSM is a based on a categorical approach—one either has the disorder (meets the diagnostic criteria for a disorder) or does not. This means that one is either normal or abnormal (differences in kind), rather than differing in one’s degree of healthy functioning (differences in degree). The DSM has a tendency to “medicalize” normality, inasmuch as it takes mild psychological disturbances and regards them as pathologically, often severely so. Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today 4. Identify and discuss two important myths as well as the reality of suicide and important risk factors that predict suicide attempts. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. Students should identify and discuss any two of the myths and the real facts that are listed in Table 15.4. Students need to identify that a previous attempt is the best predictor of an attempted suicide. Students should mention that while depression is a risk factor, it is less predictive than feelings of hopelessness. Students should also mention that a person’s intense agitation is an important predictor. Students should list at least one more risk factor mentioned in the chapter. Optional (may include either as credit or extra credit) Mention that while more women attempt suicide than men, more men successfully complete suicide attempts. Mention that suicide is the third leading cause of death for children, adolescents, and young adults. Mention that data on attempts and suicides may be underreported by relatives for various reasons (e.g., religious beliefs about persons who commit suicide not being allowed into heaven). Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.3c Identify common myths and misconceptions about suicide. Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide

5. Differentiate between the psychological disorders of dissociative identity disorder (DID) and schizophrenia. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain at least three of the following points, including the first one for sure, to earn full credit. DID is one of the dissociative disorders characterized by disruptions in a unified sense of the self (through disruptions in consciousness, memory, identity, or perception) where there are multiple personalities within a single individual. Schizophrenia, by contrast, deals with disruptions in thought processes/information processes that, in turn, affect expression of language, emotions, perceptual abilities, and relationships with others. DID is a highly controversial disorder with many critics doubting its existence as a valid diagnosis. By contrast, schizophrenia has long been recognized as a disorder (going back to Bleuler’s coining of the term in 1911). DID is proposed to arise as a response to experiences of childhood sexual abuse (in response to environmental factors when it cannot be explained via the sociocognitive model), while schizophrenia is often linked to biological and/or genetic causes. However, many psychologists take the approach that schizophrenia is caused by having a predisposition to schizophrenia along with an exposure to significant stress or multiple stressors in one’s life making the disorder more likely to emerge (diathesis stress model). DID largely appeared with the use of suggestive therapeutic tools that seem to create the disorder (and fit with the sociocognitive explanation) while schizophrenia is only managed through the use of antipsychotic medications and hospitalization as necessary for the symptoms. DID is often marked by switching between one’s normal personality and the various “alters” that exist. Schizophrenia is often marked by the presence of delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, catatonia or other disorganized behavior. Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder; TEXT LO: 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Topic: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self; The Enigma of Schizophrenia

Critical Thinking 1. Do you think that there is truly room for the concept of “insanity” when a person has been found to have committed a crime? What are the various legal/psychological/ethical considerations that must be given attention in this issue? Answer: Answers will vary but a full credit answer should contain the following points. The concept of insanity is a psychological issue, not a legal one. This point is highlighted by the textbook. It does not suggest that a person has not committed the crime of which they are accused; rather, it suggests that the person should not be held responsible because they were not adequately in control of themselves at the time of the crime. There are legal “tests” of insanity, the first of which was the M’Naghten rule. This was the result of an 1843 British Trial. It holds that a person is insane if they do not know what they are doing or if they do not know what they are doing is wrong at the time of a crime. There are serious problems with the M’Naghten rule in today’s criminal justice system, but it was the foundation for all legal tests of insanity to come along since. Many argue that the insanity plea is simply a way to avoid responsibility for one’s inappropriate, illegal, or criminal actions. While this is a reasonable concern, it should not cloud the fact that some people are truly not in their right mind when they commit a crime and require treatment instead of, or along with, punishment. A student demonstrating true critical consideration of this question might comment on whether he/she would be more likely to be tolerant of the concept of an insanity plea if they were the victim, if they knew the victim or were related to the victim, or if they did not know the victim of a crime. The student might also comment on their acceptance of the insanity plea relative to the severity of the crime. Would they be equally as accepting of this concept in the case of a shoplifting charge versus murder or rape? Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Topic: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today

2. Differentiate how learning theorists and cognitive theorists differ in their explanations for the causes of anxiety disorders and major depressive disorder. Answer: Answers will vary but a full credit answer should contain the following points. Learning theorists believe that anxiety disorders result from our direct (operant conditioning approaches) and indirect experiences (classical conditioning, observational/social learning) with the world around us. For example, we learn via negative reinforcement that our anxiety can be reduced by leaving stressful situations or places, people, or objects that we fear. Learning theorists explain depression through discussing the loss of positive reinforcement. Without being able to attain desired rewards for our actions, we come to feel that we are incapable of producing desired outcomes in other situations. Cognitive theorists believe that anxiety disorders result from our thought patterns about events. For example, people overgeneralize or catastrophize the likelihood of a highly improbable event and create needless worries for themselves. Cognitive theorists explain depression through individuals’ negative view of themselves, their experiences, and their future. They view themselves as incapable now and in the future, and engage in cognitive distortions that create problems for themselves, rather than see their experiences, abilities, and futures realistically. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety; TEXT LO: 15.3b Describe major depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual to produce depression symptoms. Topic: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear, Mood Disorders and Suicide

CHAPTER 15: PSYCHOLOGICAL DISORDERS ______________________________________________________________________________ Abnormality 1. Modern attempts to classify psychological disorders date back to ____________. a. Sigmund Freud b. Aristotle c. Emil Kraepelin d. the humanistic movement Answer c % correct 39 a= 25 b= 31 c= 39 d= 5 r = .38 2. Which perspective was first used to explain abnormal behavior? a. mystical b. mythical c. medical d. psychoanalytic Answer a % correct 52 a= 52 b= 33 c= 5 d= 10 r = .37 3. With which perspective on mental disorder is John Watson associated? a. behavioral b. biomedical c. psychodynamic d. sociological Answer a % correct 76 a= 76 b= 3 c= 4 d= 17 r = .28 4. During the Middle Ages, bizarre behavior was commonly explained as due to _______ factors. a. behavioral b. biomedical c. sociological d. supernatural Answer d % correct 95 a= 2 b= 0 c= 2 d= 95 r = .21 5. During the Middle Ages, abnormal behavior was frequently attributed to: a. unconscious processes. b. unbalanced bodily processes. c. social upheaval. d. demon possession. Answer d % correct 83 a= 6 b= 4 c= 7 d= 83 r = .22 6. The cognitive model of explaining the causes of abnormal behavior is similar to the ________ approach. a. humanistic b. mystical c. systems d. learning/behavioral Answer d % correct 67 a= 22 b= 6 c= 4 d= 67 r = .29

7. In the movie The Exorcist, a Catholic priest performed religious rituals to cast out a demon that made a young girl act abnormally. This illustrates which perspective on the causes of abnormal behavior? a. mystical b. mythical c. medical d. psychoanalytic Answer a % correct 58 a= 58 b= 29 c= 1 d= 12 r = .46 8. The learning approach to psychological disorders suggests that: a. abnormal behavior is learned just like normal behaviors. b. what is learned cannot be unlearned. c. abnormal behavior is a product of hereditary predisposition. d. successful treatment of abnormal behavior is based on identifying its original cause. Answer a % correct 76 a= 76 b= 1 c= 4 d= 18 r = .49 9. The _______ approach to explaining psychological disorders stresses that events during childhood can lead to unresolved conflicts that manifest themselves as abnormal behavior. a. mythical b. medical c. learning d. psychoanalytic Answer d % correct 90 a= 0 b= 1 c= 9 d= 90 r = .22 10. Thinking in a self-defeating, illogical, and unrealistic manner causes abnormal behavior, according to the _______ model. a. humanistic b. systems c. psychoanalytic d. cognitive Answer d % correct 58 a= 14 b= 4 c= 25 d= 58 r = .39 11. According to the cognitive model of psychological disorders, maladaptive behavior is produced by: a. learning. b. a malfunction in sensory input. c. physical problems. d. irrational beliefs or attitudes. Answer d % correct 58 a= 28 b= 13 c= 2 d= 58 r = .23 12. The _______ approach to psychological disorders explains mental illness in much the same way that we today explain physical illnesses. a. mystical b. medical c. learning d. systems Answer b % correct 87 a= 2 b= 87 c= 8 d= 2 r = .43 13. Although most psychologists take into account all of the definitions of abnormal behavior, many give SPECIAL attention to which of the following considerations? a. maladjustment and personal distress dimensions b. the issue of control c. statistical definition d. cultural definition Answer a % correct 64 a= 64 b= 8 c= 7 d= 21 r = .20 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

14. The _____ model asserts that cases of phobia are very likely to occur when fear of being punished is shifted from some threatening object to some logically unrelated object. a. humanistic-existential b. biological c. cognitive d. psychoanalytic Answer d % correct 64 a= 6 b= 1 c= 29 d= 64 r = .24 15. The _______ approach to psychological disorders stresses that events occurring in childhood can lead to unresolved conflicts. a. learning b. developmental c. psychoanalytic d. medical Answer c % correct 54 a= 4 b= 43 c= 54 d= 0 r = .42 16. The psychoanalytic approach to psychological disorders stresses the importance of: a. stimulus-response patterns. b. present settings. c. unresolved conflicts resulting from early childhood. d. psychopathological systems. Answer c % correct 82 a= 7 b= 8 c= 82 d= 3 r = .47 17. The psychoanalytic approach to psychological disorders was developed by: a. Szasz b. Maslow c. Skinner d. Freud Answer d % correct 92 a= 1 b= 4 c= 3 d= 92 r = .32 18. The _______ approach to psychological disorders was developed by Sigmund Freud. a. psychoanalytic b. learning c. cognitive d. systems Answer a % correct 93 a= 93 b= 1 c= 5 d= 1 r = .24 19. The learning approach to psychological disorders suggests that: a. we learn abnormal behaviors just as we learn other behaviors. b. what is learned cannot be unlearned. c. we must find the cause of a disorder before it can be treated. d. none of the above Answer a % correct 52 a= 52 b= 0 c= 21 d= 27 r = .27 20. The _______ approach to psychological disorders suggests that we learn abnormal behaviors just as we learn other behaviors. a. cognitive b. rational c. motivation d. learning Answer d % correct 44 a= 49 b= 6 c= 1 d= 44 r = .28

21. The behavioral model suggests that abnormal behavior is the result of _______. a. learning b. biology c. unconscious conflicts d. biochemical imbalances Answer a % correct 61 a= 61 b= 2 c= 31 d= 6 r = .42 22. The cognitive model suggests that abnormal behavior results from _______. a. unconscious conflicts b. biochemical imbalances c. faulty reinforcement d. conscious mental processes Answer d % correct 41 a= 32 b= 6 c= 19 d= 41 r = .31 23. The biological model holds that abnormal behavior is related to ______. a. hereditary factors b. learning c. unconscious conflicts d. cognitive processes Answer a % correct 82 a= 82 b= 4 c= 9 d= 5 r = .30 24. Edith’s strange behavior has led her daughter, Anne, to consider institutionalizing her. Edith’s mother and grandmother were both institutionalized in their lifetimes and Anne has already sought psychiatric help. Edith’s strange behavior BEST fits the _______ model of abnormality. a. psychoanalytic b. biological c. intrapersonal d. behavioral Answer b % correct 95 a= 2 b= 95 c= 0 d= 3 r = .21 25. It seems to Joanna that every time her son Daniel eats foods containing chemical dyes or additives, he gets into trouble or acts irrationally. When Joanna mentions this to her pediatrician, the doctor tells Joanna that Daniel’s behavior fits the _______ model of abnormality. a. psychoanalytic b. biological c. intrapersonal d. behavioral Answer b % correct 89 a= 1 b= 89 c= 1 d= 9 r = .24 26. Dave’s wife suggests that he talk to a doctor because of his inability to cope with criticism. The doctor suggests that Dave’s problem represents an unresolved internal conflict that has its roots in Dave’s childhood. This view is typical of the _______ model of abnormality. a. biological b. cognitive c. behavioral d. psychoanalytic Answer d % correct 69 a= 4 b= 10 c= 17 d= 69 r = .32

27. Dave’s wife suggests that he talk to a doctor because of his crippling fear of heights. The doctor suggests that Dave’s phobia is a learned disorder that can be unlearned with proper treatment. This view is typical of the _______ model of abnormality. a. biological b. cognitive c. behavioral d. psychoanalytic Answer c % correct 57 a= 0 b= 28 c= 57 d= 15 r = .22 28. Dave’s mother suggests that he talk to a doctor because of his crippling feelings of inferiority. The doctor suggests that Dave’s problem stems from internal processes such as unrealistic expectancies and negative thinking. This view is typical of the _______ model of abnormality. a. biological b. cognitive c. behavioral d. psychoanalytic Answer b % correct 79 a= 3 b= 79 c= 7 d= 11 r = .23

Dissociative Disorders 29. The police found a man wandering through the downtown area. The man was disheveled and seemed to be in a daze. When the police asked the man for his name, he seemed bewildered. A search of missing persons reports revealed he had been reported missing three months ago in a town more than 700 miles away. The man is most likely suffering from a. dissociative identity disorder. b. schizophrenia. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. dissociative fugue. Answer d % correct 66 a= 25 b= 7 c= 1 d= 66 r = .41 30. Disorders in which part of a person’s personality is separated from the rest and the person cannot reassemble the pieces are known as __________ disorders. a. schizophrenic b. dissociative c. affective d. somatoform Answer b % correct 88 a= 7 b= 88 c= 0 d= 5 r = .48 31. Which of the following is NOT an anxiety disorder? a. conversion disorder b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. posttraumatic stress disorder d. a phobia Answer a % correct 88 a= 88 b= 3 c= 4 d= 3 r = .38

32. Found in a dazed condition at the local shopping center, “John Doe” could not remember who he was or where he came from. After an investigation, authorities found that he lived over two thousand miles away. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. organic amnesia b. psychogenic fugue c. dissociative identity disorder d. disorganized schizophrenia Answer b % correct 71 a= 25 b= 71 c= 1 d= 3 r = .51 33. Which of the following is a dissociative disorder? a. phobia b. fugue c. hypochondriasis d. conversion Answer b % correct 73 a= 1 b= 73 c= 17 d= 9

r = .51

34. The famous story of Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde is an example of which disorder? a. depression b. dissociative c. phobic d. sexual dysfunction Answer b % correct 91 a= 2 b= 91 c= 5 d= 2 r = .23 35. Dissociative identity disorder is an example of which disorder? a. schizophrenia b. dissociative c. personality d. depression Answer b % correct 69 a= 17 b= 69 c= 14 d= 0 r = .59 36. A person who loses her memory and wanders away from home may be experiencing: a. fugue. b. generalized anxiety. c. depression. d. dissociative identity disorder. Answer a % correct 92 a= 92 b= 4 c= 1 d= 3 r = .30 37. The condition in which someone forgets his/her identity and takes on a new identity in a new location is classified as a: a. psychogenic amnesia. b. a fugue state. c. catatonic schizophrenia. d. paranoid schizophrenia. Answer b % correct 75 a= 20 b= 75 c= 4 d= 1 r = .29 38. Which of the following is classified as a dissociative disorder? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. dissociative identity disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. bipolar disorder Answer b % correct 77 a= 14 b= 77 c= 3 d= 5 r = .37

39. The _____ disorder involves physically fleeing from one's usual home or niche. a. amnesia b. conversion c. obsessive-compulsive d. fugue Answer d % correct 82 a= 6 b= 6 c= 6 d= 82 r = .36 40. The multiple-personality disorder is: a. a form of psychosis. b. quite rare. c. a phenomenon unique to England. d. not a formal diagnostic label. Answer b % correct 50 a= 44 b= 50 c= 1 d= 5

r = .48

41. Sue was picked up by a state trooper walking along a highway. She had no idea who she was or where she came from. She may be having a: a. manic disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. psychogenic fugue. d. schizophrenia. Answer c % correct 96 a= 0 b= 4 c= 96 d= 0 r = .34 42. Disorders in which part of a person’s personality is separated from the rest and the person can’t reassemble the pieces are known as _______ disorders. a. affective b. somatoform c. dissociative d. schizophrenic Answer c % correct 78 a= 4 b= 3 c= 78 d= 15 r = .23 43. After being passed up for a promotion and then getting into a heated argument with his son, a man disappears. He shows up two weeks later in another town with no memory of who he is or how he got there. He is suffering from a(n) _______. a. affective disorder b. somatoform disorder c. dissociative disorder d. schizophrenic disorder Answer c % correct 76 a= 5 b= 13 c= 76 d= 6 r = .32 44. After going to a doctor complaining about memory loss, Jeff is told that under hypnosis, several distinct personalities emerged from his mind. Each personality is unique, with a name and separate memories. Jeff has a(n) ________ disorder. a. affective b. somatoform c. dissociative d. schizophrenic Answer c % correct 75 a= 4 b= 4 c= 75 d= 17 r = .45

Mood Disorders 45. Last month Pam was giddy, impulsive, and talkative; this month she is sad, silent, and almost motionless. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case? a. severe depression b. anxiety disorder c. somatoform disorder d. bipolar disorder Answer d % correct 85 a= 11 b= 2 c= 1 d= 85 r = .34 46. A person who suffers from bipolar disorder alternates between a. depression and mania. b. depression and schizophrenia. c. mania and schizophrenia. d. anxiety and mania. Answer a % correct 94 a= 94 b= 3 c= 2 d= 1 r = .42 47. While Sid is sitting at his desk at work an image of harming his young son pops into his mind. Each time this occurs, he touches all four corners of his desk in a particular order. Sid probably suffers from a. generalized anxiety disorder. b. agoraphobia. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. panic disorder. Answer c % correct 85 a= 7 b= 7 c= 85 d= 1 r = .44 48. Which of the following people is most likely to commit suicide? a. an elderly white male b. an adolescent white male c. an elderly African-American male d. an adolescent African-American male Answer a % correct 71 a= 71 b= 20 c= 5 d= 5 r = .31 49. Disorders characterized by disturbances in a person's prolonged emotional state are known as __________ disorders. a. mood b. dissociative c. somatoform d. conversion Answer a % correct 88 a= 88 b= 7 c= 5 d= 0 r = .33 50. An episode of intense sadness that may last for several months is called __________. a. bipolar disorder b. hypomania c. major depressive disorder d. dysthymia Answer c % correct 93 a= 3 b= 0 c= 93 d= 3 r = .27

51. An affective disorder that includes both depression and mania is known as __________ disorder. a. bipolar b. dual process c. histrionic d. obsessive-compulsive Answer a % correct 98 a= 98 b= 1 c= 0 d= 1 r = .34 52. If a person’s comments and behaviors suggest that he or she might be thinking about suicide, asking direct questions about suicide: a. will only put ideas in the person's head. b. should only be done by professionals. c. should be followed by a call to a suicide prevention centers if the answers raise more concern about suicide. d. will usually prevent suicide. Answer c % correct 80 a= 2 b= 5 c= 80 d= 13 r = .32 53. Abnormally high energy level, distractibility, increased sex drive, and positive self-image are MOST associated with which of the following disorders? a. schizophrenia b. mania c. depression d. bipolar Answer b % correct 89 a= 2 b= 89 c= 1 d= 8 r = .28 54. Learned helplessness is a possible explanation for which disorder? a. dissociative b. dissociative identity disorder c. depression d. anxiety Answer c % correct 62 a= 23 b= 5 c= 62 d= 10 r = .25 55. John’s behavior appears normal, then he becomes depressed and hyperactivity follows. He would likely be diagnosed as having which disorder? a. mania b. schizophrenia c. bipolar d. depressive Answer c % correct 80 a= 7 b= 8 c= 80 d= 5 r = .33 56. High energy level, distractibility, increased sex drive, and positive self-image are MOST associated with which of the following disorders? a. schizophrenia b. mania c. depression d. bipolar Answer b % correct 83 a= 2 b= 83 c= 0 d= 15 r = .29 57. Which of the following is a mood disorder? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. dissociative identity disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. bipolar disorder Answer d % correct 76 a= 7 b= 8 c= 10 d= 76

r = .44

58. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of depression? a. hallucinations b. loss of appetite c. inability to sleep properly d. self-blame Answer a % correct 96 a= 96 b= 2 c= 2 d= 1 r = .21 59. The term _____ refers to the tendency of some persons to reliably become depressed during the winter months. a. seasonal affective disorder b. cold weather blues c. Christmas depression syndrome d. short-day affective disorder Answer a % correct 94 a= 94 b= 0 c= 1 d= 5 r = .20 60. The most common psychological disorder is: a. phobia. b. schizophrenia. c. depression. d. mania. Answer c % correct 70 a= 24 b= 5 c= 70 d= 0

r = .23

61. Depression is: a. always accompanied by a manic state. b. equally common among men and women. c. a type of psychosis. d. the most common psychological disorder. Answer d % correct 89 a= 0 b= 6 c= 5 d= 89

r = .21

62. An affective disorder that includes both depression and mania is known as ________ disorder. a. histrionic b. bipolar c. dual process d. obsessive-compulsive Answer b % correct 95 a= 2 b= 95 c= 2 d= 1 r = .28 63. Psychoanalytic theorists believe that depression stems from _______. a. genetic predisposition b. a poor self-image c. anger turned inward d. reaction-formation Answer c % correct 49 a= 4 b= 34 c= 49 d= 13 r = .38 64. Biological theorists note that there is strong evidence that _______ play an important role in depression. a. secondary motives b. environmental cues c. primary drives d. genetic factors Answer d % correct 76 a= 1 b= 22 c= 1 d= 76 r = .21

Anxiety Disorders 65. Your aunt prefers to stay in her home and avoid public places and social situations. She would be diagnosed with a. agoraphobia. b. ailurophobia. c. cynophobia. d. specific phobia. Answer a % correct 63 a= 63 b= 5 c= 3 d= 26 r = .33 66. A person who is constantly “on edge” and always apprehensive most likely suffers from a. phobic disorder. b. panic disorder. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. generalized anxiety disorder. Answer d % correct 75 a= 1 b= 15 c= 9 d= 75 r = .35 67. June often experiences episodes during which her heart rate accelerates by more than 50 beats per minute despite encountering no emergency. June suffers from a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. acrophobia. d. panic disorder. Answer d % correct 88 a= 0 b= 11 c= 1 d= 88 r = .23 68. Someone with “stage fright” might have a(n) a. particular phobia. b. environmental phobia. c. specific phobia. d. social phobia. Answer d % correct 76 a= 3 b= 1 c= 19 d= 76

r = .20

69. A severe anxiety reaction that takes place immediately, or very soon, after an extremely stressful event is known as __________. a. posttraumatic stress disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. panic disorder d. acute stress disorder Answer d % correct 74 a= 9 b= 13c= 4 d= 74 r = .20 70. Phobias, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and post-traumatic stress disorder are all types of __________ disorders. a. psychosomatic b. somatoform c. anxiety d. dissociative Answer c % correct 86 a= 9 b= 2 c= 86 d= 3 r = .37

71. Harry has an intense, irrational fear of being in public places. He is probably suffering from __________. a. conversion reaction b. learned helplessness c. paranoia d. agoraphobia Answer d % correct 82 a= 8 b= 7 c= 2 d= 82 r = .33

72. Martha vacuums the carpet in her living room 15 times a day. It is very likely that she is suffering from which of the following disorders? a. obsessive-compulsive b. conversion c. PTSD d. somatoform Answer a % correct 95 a= 95 b= 2 c= 1 d= 1 r = .32 73. Which of the following statements about post-traumatic stress disorder is NOT true? a. There are recurrent dreams and nightmares. b. It is confined to Vietnam War veterans. c. Common feelings are pain, guilt, and fear. d. Concentration is impaired. Answer b % correct 96 a= 0 b= 96 c= 2 d= 2 r = .29 74. Allen is in a constant state of dread. He has trouble sleeping, feels tense, and cannot concentrate. Allen will likely be diagnosed as which anxiety disorder? a. phobia b. generalized anxiety c. panic d. obsessive-compulsive Answer b % correct 89 a= 2 b= 89 c= 8 d= 1 r = .33 75. A recurring irrational thought that cannot be controlled or banished from one's mind is called a/an _______. a. phobia b. obsession c. hypnagogic image d. compulsion Answer b % correct 92 a= 1 b= 92 c= 6 d= 2 r = .32 76. Sudden, paralyzing episodes of fear describe which type of anxiety disorder? a. phobia b. generalized anxiety c. panic d. obsessive-compulsive Answer c % correct 79 a= 16 b= 4 c= 79 d= 1 r = .41 77. Anxiety disorders run in families and are twice as common in _______ as in _______. a. males; females b. females; males c. adolescents; young adults d. male adolescents; female adolescents Answer b % correct 87 a= 6 b= 87 c= 5 d= 2 r = .46 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

78. Destruction of one’s home or community is MOST likely to result in which of the following? a. PTSD b. a phobia c. a panic disorder d. an obsession Answer a % correct 76 a= 76 b= 0 c= 18 d= 6 r = .30 79. Re-experiencing a traumatic event long after the event is associated with _______ disorder. a. generalized anxiety b. panic c. phobic d. PTSD Answer d % correct 88 a= 3 b= 4 c= 6 d= 88 r = .30 80. Which of the following is TRUE of phobics? a. They are below average in intelligence. b. Men are more likely to suffer from phobias than women. c. Phobics usually do not recognize the irrationality of their fear. d. Women are more likely to suffer from phobias than men. Answer d % correct 70 a= 0 b= 3 c= 27 d= 70 r = .27 81. An irrational fear of an object or event is called a/an: a. phobia. b. compulsion. c. panic. d. obsession. Answer a % correct 96 a= 96 b= 2 c= 1 d= 0 r = .24 82. An overwhelming desire to set fires is called a/an: a. obsession. b. phobia. c. compulsion. d. somatoform. Answer a % correct 35 a= 35 b= 1 c= 63 d= 1

r = .28

83. In an obsessive-compulsive reaction, the _______ is the thought and the _______ is the action carrying out the thought. a. compulsion; obsession b. obsession; compulsion c. compulsion; panic d. obsession, anxiety Answer b % correct 98 a= 0 b= 98 c= 1 d= 1 r = .38 84. Ritualistic behavior is associated with which of the following disorders? a. anxiety b. obsessive-compulsive c. somatoform d. conversion Answer b % correct 73 a= 6 b= 73 c= 14 d= 7 r = .45

85. Thoughts that repeatedly intrude into consciousness against one's will are called: a. compulsions. b. loose associations. c. neologisms. d. obsessions. Answer d % correct 84 a= 12 b= 2 c= 2 d= 84 r = .37 86. Acts that “must be done” are called: a. compulsions. b. obsessions. c. motor impulses. d. preservative impulses. Answer a % correct 83 a= 83 b= 11 c= 5 d= 1

r = .24

87. Obsessions and compulsions: a. appear to be based on very different psychodynamics. b. always occur together. c. often occur together. d. rarely occur together. Answer c % correct 71 a= 13 b= 9 c= 71 d= 7

r = .22

88. An obsession is: a. a recurring irrational thought which you cannot put out of your mind. b. a behavior which you cannot control. c. an inability to control your emotions. d. a and b Answer a % correct 69 a= 69 b= 2 c= 1 d= 28 r = .49 89. A(n) ______ is an irrational behavior which you cannot control. a. compulsion b. obsession c. regression d. depression Answer a % correct 88 a= 88 b= 11 c= 0 d= 1 r = .27 90. A compulsion is: a. a recurring irrational thought which you cannot put out of your mind. b. a behavior that you cannot control. c. an inability to express your emotions. d. all of the above Answer b % correct 77 a= 7 b= 77 c= 0 d= 16 r = .36 91. Involuntary ideas that keep recurring despite the person's efforts to stop them are called _______. a. compulsions b. obsessions c. impulses d. panic attacks Answer b % correct 68 a= 21 b= 68 c= 8 d= 3 r = .35

92. A repetitive, ritualistic behavior that a person feels driven to perform is called a(n) ________. a. compulsion b. obsession c. impulse d. delusion Answer a % correct 83 a= 83 b= 11 c= 3 d= 2 r = .25 93. An intense, paralyzing fear of a specific object, person, situation, or thing in the absence of any real danger is a _______. a. panic disorder b. phobic disorder c. conversion reaction d. compulsive disorder Answer b % correct 87 a= 13 b= 87 c= 0 d= 0 r = .28 94. Arlene has an intense, irrational fear of flying in airplanes. She is probably suffering from a _______. a. somatoform disorder b. neurotic depression c. phobic disorder d. conversion reaction Answer c % correct 95 a= 3 b= 0 c= 95 d= 2 r = .31 95. Harry has an intense, irrational fear of being in public places. He is probably suffering from ________. a. agoraphobia b. paranoia c. learned helplessness d. conversion reaction Answer a % correct 91 a= 91 b= 8 c= 1 d= 0 r = .32 96. Fears of snakes, thunderstorms, darkness, and water are classified as ________ phobias. a. simple b. primary c. social d. innate Answer a % correct 90 a= 90 b= 8 c= 0 d= 1 r = .22 97. Most psychoanalytic theorists believe that anxiety disorders are the result of _______. a. unconscious conflict b. learned helplessness c. lack of reinforcement d. primary drives Answer a % correct 55 a= 55 b= 20 c= 18 d= 7 r = .35 98. A young boy is attacked by a large dog. He is now terribly afraid of all large dogs. His phobia of dogs is BEST explained by ________ theory. a. behavior b. psychoanalytic c. psychobiological d. humanistic Answer a % correct 49 a= 49 b= 41 c= 1 d= 9 r = .34

99. Feeling fearful but not knowing why is characteristic of ______. a. phobias b. anxiety disorders c. dissociative neurosis d. amnesia Answer b % correct 59 a= 22 b= 59 c= 18 d= 1 r = .22 100. The clearest examples of anxiety disorders are _______. a. compulsions b. phobias c. panic attacks d. obsessions Answer c % correct 65 a= 6 b= 26 c= 65 d= 2 r = .20 101. Darcy is sitting at her desk in her office one day when she is, without warning, overcome by feelings of intense fear, losing control of herself. Her terror is so great that all she can do is sit at her desk shaking and crying. Nothing she was doing at the time would seem to have caused such an episode. Her symptoms most resemble _______. a. phobic disorder b. posttraumatic stress c. panic attack d. affective disorder Answer c % correct 75 a= 3 b= 13 c= 75 d= 9 r = .44

Personality Disorders 102. People who act impulsively, don't tolerate frustration, want their desires satisfied immediately, fail to develop emotional attachments, and show no remorse would be diagnosed with what personality disorder? a. narcissistic b. antisocial c. histrionic d. schizotypal Answer b % correct 48 a= 31 b= 48 c= 11 d= 9 r = .33 103. A personality disorder characterized by marked instability in self-image, mood, and interpersonal relationships is __________ personality disorder. a. histrionic b. antisocial c. narcissistic d. borderline Answer d % correct 46 a= 12 b= 36 c= 4 d= 46 r = .41 104 Which of the following best describes the antisocial personality? a. low intelligence b. lack of remorse or guilt c. depression d. paranoid schizophrenic tendencies Answer b % correct 64 a= 0 b= 64 c= 16 d= 20 r = .57

105. Which of the following statements about antisocial personality is TRUE? a. It is a relatively rare disorder. b. People with antisocial personalities seek professional help because their distress level is high. c. It is more common in women than in men. d. It is a relatively common disorder. Answer d % correct 52 a= 34 b= 5 c= 9 d= 52 r = .20 106. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the antisocial personality disorder? a. incapable of forming close relationships b. no guilt or remorse c. manipulative and insincere d. low intelligence Answer d % correct 93 a= 1 b= 4 c= 2 d= 93 r = .28 107. What individual is most likely to come into conflict with the law because of his/her disregard for social rules and unwillingness to restrain his/her impulses? a. paranoid schizophrenic b. dissociative identity disorder c. antisocial personality d. bipolar disorder Answer c % correct 80 a= 11 b= 6 c= 80 d= 3 r = .40 108. Which characteristic best describes an antisocial personality? a. low intelligence b. lack of remorse or guilt c. depression d. a and b Answer b % correct 79 a= 0 b= 79 c= 8 d= 13 r = .42

Schizophrenia 109. A patient in a mental hospital exhibits disordered thinking, perceptual abnormalities, unusual emotions, and suspiciousness. This person is probably suffering from a. schizophrenia. b. bipolar disorder. c. passive-aggressive personality. d. a dissociative disorder. Answer a % correct 86 a= 86 b= 2 c= 3 d= 9 r = .35 110. The belief that you are a special agent for the Intergalactic Supernova is an example of a a. loose association. b. neologism. c. delusion. d. negative symptom. Answer c % correct 94 a= 3 b= 1 c= 94 d= 2 r = .19

111. During an interview, a patient says he has frequently seen a hand come out of the bathroom sink to grab a bar of soap. The psychologist who is conducting the interview most likely writes that the patient presents evidence of a. delusions. b. loose associations. c. negative symptoms. d. hallucinations. Answer d % correct 98 a= 2 b= 0 c= 0 d= 98 r = .14 112. What are the two major categories of the symptoms of schizophrenia? a. acute and chronic b. negative and positive c. affect and ambivalence d. primary and secondary Answer b % correct 69 a= 21 b= 69 c= 2 d= 8 r = .46 113. __________ schizophrenia is characterized by giggling, grimacing, and frantic gesturing. a. Paranoid b. Catatonic c. Undifferentiated d. Disorganized Answer d % correct 75 a= 7 b= 7 c= 11 d= 75 r = .39 114. False sensory perceptions that often take the form of hearing voices are called __________. a. hallucinations b. obsessions c. delusions d. compulsions Answer a % correct 83 a= 83 b= 1 c= 15 d= 1 r = .28 115. The term SCHIZOPHRENIA was first used by __________ and means __________. a. Sigmund Freud; “split personality” b. Eugen Bleuler; “split-mind” c. Anton Mesmer; hypnotized d. B. F. Skinner; reinforced Answer b % correct 73 a= 25 b= 73 c= 1 d= 0 r = .39 116. Jane maintains a rigid posture, rarely communicates, and is unresponsive to stimulation. Jane would likely be diagnosed as which type of schizophrenia? a. disorganized b. catatonic c. paranoid d. undifferentiated Answer b % correct 73 a= 2 b= 73 c= 11 d= 15 r = .31 117. The most common psychotic disorder is: a. manic-depressive. b. bipolar. c. schizophrenia. d. dissociative identity disorder. Answer c % correct 68 a= 24 b= 8 c= 68 d= 1

r = .41

118. Nancy smells smoke when there is no fire. This is an example of: a. a delusion. b. a hallucination. c. paranoia. d. olfactory inhibition. Answer b % correct 52 a= 31 b= 52 c= 15 d= 2 r = .42 119. Which of the following is considered the most severe psychological disorder? a. antisocial personality b. schizophrenia c. depression d. bipolar Answer b % correct 74 a= 14 b= 74 c= 11 d= 1 r = .22 120. Tom’s speech makes no sense. He acts childlike and giggles for no apparent reason. Tom would likely be diagnosed as which type of schizophrenia? a. disorganized b. catatonic c. paranoid d. undifferentiated Answer a % correct 71 a= 71 b= 20 c= 2 d= 7 r = .49 121. Excessive amounts of dopamine in the brain have been proposed as a cause of: a. schizophrenia. b. manic-depression. c. antisocial personality. d. paraphilia. Answer a % correct 87 a= 87 b= 9 c= 1 d= 2 r = .32 122. Of the following, which would provide the strongest evidence for a genetic component to schizophrenia? a. a higher concordance rate for fraternal twins than for other siblings b. a higher concordance rate for fraternal twins than for identical twins c. a high concordance rate among identical twins raised apart d. a high concordance rate among the general population Answer c % correct 78 a= 11 b= 4 c= 78 d= 6 r = .44 123. All of the following are sub types of schizophrenia except: a. catatonic. b. disorganized. c. dissociative identity disorder. d. paranoid. Answer c % correct 72 a= 8 b= 11 c= 72 d= 9 r = .57 124. Annette talks to her pet elephant, which no one else can see. Annette is having a: a. hallucination. b. delusion. c. clang association. d. neologism. Answer a % correct 87 a= 87 b= 11 c= 2 d= 0 r = .27

125. A schizophrenic characterized by alternating periods of mute immobility and excited motor activity is referred to as a(n): a. disorganized schizophrenic. b. undifferentiated schizophrenic. c. paranoid schizophrenic. d. catatonic schizophrenic. Answer d % correct 90 a= 2 b= 2 c= 6 d= 90 r = .27 126. A severely disturbed patient seems to speak in tongues, has a well-developed system of delusions of persecution, and is often aggressive and argumentative toward hospital staff. What's the likely diagnosis? a. paranoid schizophrenia b. catatonic schizophrenia c. disorganized schizophrenia d. undifferentiated schizophrenia Answer a % correct 50 a= 50 b= 18 c= 20 d= 12 r = .21 127. The substance known as _______ has been implicated in the development of schizophrenic symptoms. a. melatonin b. norepinephrine c. serotonin d. dopamine Answer d % correct 75 a= 2 b= 16 c= 7 d= 75 r = .35 128. Delusions and hallucinations are associated with: a. somatoform disorders. b. mania. c. conversion hysteria. d. schizophrenia. Answer d % correct 94 a= 5 b= 1 c= 0 d= 94

r = .26

129. Which of the following theories can be used to explain the cause of schizophrenia? a. biological b. learning c. cognitive d. all of the above Answer d % correct 59 a= 35 b= 2 c= 4 d= 59 r = .22 130. False sensory perceptions that most often take the form of hearing voices are called _______. a. delusions b. obsessions c. hallucinations d. compulsions Answer c % correct 84 a= 15 b= 1 c= 84 d= 0 r = .32 131. False beliefs about reality with no factual basis are known as ______. a. delusions b. obsessions c. hallucinations d. compulsions Answer a % correct 92 a= 92 b= 1 c= 6 d= 1 r = .37

132. Nick was admitted to a mental institution because he heard voices talking to him that no one else could hear, and he saw demons attacking him, though no one else could see anything near him. Nick’s symptoms are known as ________. a. delusions b. obsessions c. hallucinations d. compulsions Answer c % correct 89 a= 9 b= 1 c= 89 d= 1 r = .27 133. Nick was admitted to a mental institution because he claimed he was the king of an alien race that would soon return to earth to dominate mankind. He claimed to be in constant communication with these aliens and helping to plan for their return. His symptoms are known as ________. a. delusions b. obsessions c. hallucinations d. compulsions Answer a % correct 88 a= 88 b= 0 c= 12 d= 0 r = .36

DSM Series 134. The DSM-5 identifies dissociative identity disorder as a. panic disorder. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. dissociative fugue. d. schizophrenia. Answer b % correct 82 a= 1 b= 82 c= 5 d= 13 r = .25 135. The DSM I was first introduced in _________. a. 1942 b. 1952 c. 1962 d. 1972 Answer b % correct 77 a= 11 b= 77 c= 11 d= 0

r = .21

136. The DSM–IV-TR contains __________ axes. a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 Answer c % correct 85 a= 0 b= 10 c= 85 d= 5

r = .35

137. Axis 4 of the DSM–IV-TR attempts to rate the individual’s level of __________. a. GAF (Global Assessment of Functions) b. stress c. “normality” d. life functioning (social) Answer b % correct 73 a= 10 b= 73 c= 5 d= 11 r = .37

138. DSM-IV-TR classifies people along five axes and _____ disorders. a. interprets b. speculates on causes of c. describes symptoms of d. prescribes treatment for Answer c % correct 75 a= 14 b= 6 c= 75 d= 5 r = .39 139. Which of the following statements about DSM–IV-TR is NOT true? a. It was developed by the American Psychiatric Association. b. It does not require extensive training to use it. c. The system is difficult to grasp. d. It says little about causes of disorders. Answer b % correct 52 a= 2 b= 52 c= 29 d= 18 r = .26 140. The latest version of the classification system used by psychologists is: a. DSM II. b. DSM III. c. DSM-IV-TR. d. DSM IV. Answer c % correct 92 a= 0 b= 1 c= 92 d= 6 r = .20 141. DSM-IV-TR is most helpful because: a. it includes treatments for each disorder. b. it allows the practitioner to determine the cause of the disorder. c. it allows disorders to be classified on five separate dimensions. d. a disorder can be determined with questionnaire data Answer c % correct 64 a= 8 b= 13 c= 64 d= 15 r = .21 142. DSM-IV-TR was designed to provide a complete list of _______. a. treatment models b. health providers c. mental disorder d. innate predispositions Answer c % correct 92 a= 3 b= 1 c= 92 d= 4 r = .20 143. DSM-IV-TR defines mental disorders according to ______. a. significant behavior patterns b. family histories c. various theoretical approaches d. causes of disruptive behavior patterns Answer a % correct 75 a= 75 b= 0 c= 15 d= 10 r = .31

Quiz 15.1: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q15.1.1 Although there are different ideas about mental disorders across cultures, there is evidence that certain mental disorders are universal. For example, the Inuit word kunlangeta describes someone who lies, cheats, steals, is unfaithful, and doesn’t obey elders, which almost perfectly fits the Western concept of someone with a) psychopathic personality. b) schizophrenia. c) bipolar disorder. d) ADHD. ANS: a Topic=Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: People with this type of personality are guiltless, dishonest, manipulative, callous, and selfcentered. LO 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures.

EOM Q15.1.2 What government policy resulted in the release of hospitalized psychiatric patients into the community, which was a blessing for some and but left others homeless and without adequate follow-up care? a) Deinstitutionalization b) Community health centers c) Halfway houses d) Medical model ANS: a Topic= Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The number of hospitalized psychiatric patients plummeted through the beginning of the 21st century. LO 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures.

EOM Q15.1.3 Which term means the percentage of people within a population who have a specific mental disorder? a) Prevalence b) Subpopulation count c) Comorbidity d) Density rate ANS: a Topic= Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: In the case of major depression, the lifetime prevalence is at least 10 percent among women and at least 5 percent among men (some estimates are even higher). LO 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system.

EOM Q15.1.4 One criticism of the DSM-5 is that it relies on a ________ model, meaning mental disorders are seen as either present or absent, without consideration of degree. a) categorical b) dimensional c) demonic d) medical ANS: a Topic=Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Pregnancy fits this kind of model because a woman is either pregnant or she’s not. LO 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system.

EOM Q15.1.5 The Research Domain Criteria (RDoC) may ultimately provide an alternative to the DSM that is more rooted in dysfunctions in ______. a) brain circuitry b) environmental interactions c) personality traits d) developmental processes ANS: a Topic=Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: RDoC attempts to understand mental illnesses as brain disorders, ranging from genes and neuroscience to the nature of social interactions, with a particular focus on brain circuits. LO 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system.

100

Quiz 15.2: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q15.2.1 Which term refers to a condition marked by repeated and severe obsessions, compulsions, or both, for at least one hour per day? a) OCD b) PTSD c) Panic disorder d) Generalized Anxiety Disorder ANS: a Topic=Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Unlike ordinary worriers, people with this type of disorder typically are disturbed by their thoughts and usually see them as irrational or nonsensical. LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety.

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EOM Q15.2.2 Many people with __________ describe themselves as “worry warts” and spend an average of up to 60 percent of each day worrying. a) generalized anxiety disorder b) pervasive anxiety disorder c) neurotic angst disorder d) continuous worry disorder ANS: a Topic=Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: People with this disorder often worry too much about the small things in life, like an upcoming meeting at work or social event. LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. EOM Q15.2.3 When someone experiences repeated panic attacks and is concerned about them happening again or changes his or her life to try to avoid them, that person is said to have a(n) a) panic disorder. b) somatic symptom disorder. c) anxiety sensitivity disorder. d) social anxiety disorder ANS: a Topic=Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Panic attacks typically peak within 10 minutes and can include sweating, dizziness, lightheadedness, a racing or pounding heart, shortness of breath, feelings of unreality, and fears of going crazy or dying. LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety.

EOM Q15.2.4 An intense fear of certain objects, places, or situations that is greatly out of proportion to any actual threat they may pose falls into the diagnostic category of a) specific phobias. b) agoraphobias. c) generalized phobias. d) phobic anxiety disorder. ANS: a Topic=Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Many of these fears, especially of animals, are widespread in childhood but disappear with age. LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety.

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EOM Q15.2.5 People with high levels of ________ respond to physical sensations that others would barely notice and interpret them as signs of illness, which can bring on a full-blown panic attack. a) anxiety sensitivity b) norepinephrine c) genes that transport serotonin and glutamate d) coprolalia ANS: a Topic=Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This is a fear of anxiety-related sensations. LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety.

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Quiz 15.3: Mood Disorders and Suicide Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Mood Disorders and Suicide

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q15.3.1 Women are about ________ as likely to experience depression compared to men. a) twice b) half c) four times d) three times ANS: a Topic= Mood Disorders and Suicide Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.3a Identify the characteristics of different mood disorders. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This gender difference may be associated with women’s tendency to ruminate more than men. LO 15.3a Identify the characteristics of different mood disorders.

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EOM Q15.3.2 Which term refers to a condition marked by at least one manic episode? a) Bipolar disorder b) Mania disorder c) Mood elevation disorder d) Obsessive-compulsive disorder ANS: a Topic= Mood Disorders and Suicide Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 15.3a Identify the characteristics of different mood disorders. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: More than half the time, a major depressive episode precedes or follows a manic episode. LO 15.3a Identify the characteristics of different mood disorders.

EOM Q15.3.3 Depression appears to be linked to low levels of norepinephrine and diminished neurogenesis, which leads to reduced a) hippocampal volume. b) cognitive dissonance. c) manic episodes. d) serotonin suppression. ANS: a Topic=Mood Disorders and Suicide Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Depression also appears linked to low levels of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine and diminished neurogenesis. LO 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual.

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EOM Q15.3.4 The tendency to feel that there is nothing we can do to improve our situation because events are beyond our control, which Overmier and Seligman found produced symptoms similar to human depression in their studies with dogs, is called a) learned helplessness. b) pessimism. c) external locus of control. d) cognitive depletion. ANS: a Topic=Mood Disorders and Suicide Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Seligman noted striking parallels between the effects of this tendency and depressive symptoms: passivity, appetite and weight loss, and difficulty learning that one can change circumstances for the better. LO 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual.

EOM Q15.3.5 What is the single best predictor of suicide? a) Previous suicide attempt b) Family history of suicide c) Unstable mood d) Depression ANS: a Topic=Mood Disorders and Suicide Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 15.3c Identify common myths and misconceptions about suicide. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: For each completed suicide, there are an estimated 8 to 25 attempts. LO 15.3c Identify common myths and misconceptions about suicide.

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Quiz 15.4: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q15.4.1 Which term refers to a condition marked by extreme instability in mood, identity, interpersonal relationships, and impulse control? a) Borderline personality disorder b) Chronic dyspredictability syndrome c) Schizophrenia d) Psychopathic personality ANS: a Topic=Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.4a Identify the characteristics of borderline and psychopathic personality disorders. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Sufferers are often unsure of who they are, and their interests and life goals frequently shift dramatically from year to year. LO 15.4a Identify the characteristics of borderline and psychopathic personality disorders.

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EOM Q15.4.2 One possible explanation for psychopathic personality is underarousal. According to ________, an inverted Ushaped relationship exists between arousal, on the one hand, and mood-performance other, suggesting that psychopaths may be experiencing stimulus hunger. a) the Yerkes-Dodson model b) the dopamine hypothesis c) fear processing hypothesis d) the cognitive model ANS: a Topic=Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 15.4a Identify the characteristics of borderline and psychopathic personality disorders. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The underarousal hypothesis may help to explain why those with psychopathic personality tend to be risk takers. LO 15.4a Identify the characteristics of borderline and psychopathic personality disorders.

EOM Q15.4.3 Which term describes a condition in which a person forgets significant events in his or her life and runs away from stressful circumstances? a) Dissociative fugue b) Depersonalization disorder c) Avoidance disorder d) Dissociative identity disorder ANS: a Topic=Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: In some cases, people move to another city or another country, assuming a new identity. LO 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder.

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EOM Q15.4.4 Careful studies have not found any convincing cases of _______ that could not be explained by other variables, such as disease, brain injury, normal forgetting, or an unwillingness to think about disturbing events. a) dissociative amnesia b) PTSD c) dissociative identity disorder d) depersonalization ANS: a Topic=Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: People can’t recall important personal information—most often following a stressful experience—that isn’t as a result of ordinary forgetting. LO 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder.

EOM Q15.4.5 A disorder in which the person feels the world around him or her is strange or illusory is called a) Depersonalization/derealization. b) Depersonalization. c) Dissociation. d) Hallucination. ANS: a Topic=Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This often accompanies both depersonalization and panic attacks. LO 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder.

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Quiz 15.5: The Enigma of Schizophrenia Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: The Enigma of Schizophrenia

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q15.5.1 Disorganized speech, one of the important indicators of schizophrenia, includes speech that is so jumbled and mixed up that, at its most severe, is impossible to understand and is called __________ by psychologists. a) word salad b) vocal disorganization c) dysphonia d) creative anachronism ANS: a Topic=The Enigma of Schizophrenia, module=The Enigma of Schizophrenia Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The usual associations that we forge between two words, such as mother–child, are considerably weakened or highly unusual for individuals with schizophrenia (for example, mother–rug). LO 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia.

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EOM Q15.5.2 People with schizophrenia are prone to ________, sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli. a) hallucinations b) delusions c) anhedonia d) psychosis ANS: a Topic=The Enigma of Schizophrenia Skill=Apply What You Know, CH=15 Objective=LO 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Most of these in schizophrenia are auditory, usually consisting of voices. LO 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia.

EOM Q15.5.3 People with catatonic symptoms of schizophrenia may permit their limbs to be moved into any position and maintain this posture for lengthy periods of time. This condition is called a) waxy flexibility. b) catatonic flexibility. c) wax-like tractability. d) schizophrenogenic motion. ANS: a Topic=The Enigma of Schizophrenia Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Catatonic symptoms involve motor (movement) problems, including holding the body in bizarre or rigid postures. LO 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia.

EOM Q15.5.4 Current data does not seem to support the ________ hypothesis; however, abnormalities in the receptors for this neurotransmitter may actually be responsible for the symptoms of schizophrenia. a) dopamine b) amphetamine c) serotonin d) melatonin ANS: a Topic=The Enigma of Schizophrenia Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.5b Explain how psychosocial, neural, biochemical, and genetic influences create the vulnerability to schizophrenia. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Most antischizophrenic drugs block dopamine receptor sites. LO 15.5b Explain how psychosocial, neural, biochemical, and genetic influences create the vulnerability to schizophrenia.

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EOM Q15.5.5 Research suggests that in people with schizophrenia, fluid-filled structures called ________, which cushion and nourish the brain, are enlarged. a) ventricles b) sulci c) temporal lobes d) dopamine vesicles ANS: a Topic=The Enigma of Schizophrenia Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 15.5b Explain how psychosocial, neural, biochemical, and genetic influences create the vulnerability to schizophrenia. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: These brain areas frequently expand when others shrink, suggesting that schizophrenia is a disorder of brain deterioration. LO 15.5b Explain how psychosocial, neural, biochemical, and genetic influences create the vulnerability to schizophrenia.

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Quiz 15.6: Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q15.6.1 Evidence suggests that the advent of ________ accounts for most, if not all, of the reported autism epidemic. a) more liberal diagnostic criteria b) increasing numbers of childhood vaccinations c) thimerosol d) mercury ANS: a Topic=Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.12 Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: In addition, the Americans with Disabilities Act and Individuals with Disabilities Education Act, both passed in the 1990s, indirectly encouraged school districts to classify more children as having autism and other developmental disabilities because these children could now receive more extensive educational accommodations. LO 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood.

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EOM Q15.6.2 Which of the following is the term for a childhood condition marked by excessive inattention, impulsivity, and activity? a) ADHD b) Asperger’s c) Autism d) Early-onset bipolar disorder ANS: a Topic=Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: By 3 years of age, they’re constantly walking or climbing and are restless and prone to emotional outbursts. LO 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood.

EOM Q15.6.3 What new category was added to the DSM-5 to address concerns about overdiagnosis of bipolar disorder in children who show persistent irritability and have frequent behavior outbursts? a) Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder b) Biopsychosocial spectrum disorder c) Dimensional mood disorders d) Generalized disruptive behavioral disorder ANS: a Topic=Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Nevertheless, the validity of this condition remains controversial, and some experts have expressed concerns that it may result in labeling children with repeated temper tantrums as pathological. LO 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood.

EOM Q15.6.4 In response to the controversy regarding autism and vaccination, the Danish government stopped administering vaccines containing thimerosol with the result that a) the prevalence of autism continued to skyrocket in Denmark. b) diagnoses of autism in Denmark dropped to pre-1990 levels. c) cases of autism spectrum disorder in Denmark declined slightly. d) Danish parents had to go to Finland to obtain vaccines for their children. ANS: a Topic=Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The results of several large American, European, and Japanese studies show that even as the rate of MMR vaccinations remained constant or declined, the rate of autism diagnoses continued to soar. LO 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOM Q15.6.5 What percentage of children with ADHD continue to display symptoms of the disorder as adolescents and adults? a) 30 to 80% b) 5 to 10% c) 15 to 25% d) 90 to 100% ANS: a Topic=Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The male-to-female ratio of ADHD ranges from 3.4 to 1 across studies. LO 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood.

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Chapter 15 Quiz: Psychological Disorders Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Chapter Quiz: Psychological Disorders

Multiple Choice Single Select EOC Q15.1 The first signs of ADHD may be evident as early as infancy, but the condition is not usually diagnosed until a) elementary school. b) age 2. c) age 4. d) early adolescence. ANS: a Topic=Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies, Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Teachers complain that such children won’t remain in their seats, follow directions, or pay attention and that they display temper tantrums with little provocation. LO 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood.

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EOC Q15.2 Which American mental health reformer advocated for moral treatment of those with mental illness, treating them with dignity, kindness, and respect? a) Dorothea Dix b) Phillippe Pinel c) Andrea Wakefield d) Eugen Bleuler ANS: a Topic=Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: She was a Massachusetts schoolteacher whose lobbying efforts resulted in the establishment of more humane psychiatric facilities in the 1800s. LO 15.1b Describe conceptions of diagnoses across history and cultures.

EOC Q15.3 When people with mental illness are placed in a psychiatric facility based on their potential danger to themselves or others, or their inability to care for themselves, this procedure is known as a) involuntary commitment. b) involuntary containment. c) an involuntary asylum order. d) a refuge and protection order. ANS: a Topic=Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Most U.S. states specify that individuals with mental illness can be committed against their will only if they (1) pose a clear and present threat to themselves or others or (2) are so psychologically impaired that they can’t care for themselves. LO 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system.

EOC Q15.4 Which of the following types of people is most likely to develop a generalized anxiety disorder? a) Caucasian woman b) Asian man c) Hispanic woman d) African American man ANS: a Topic=Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Asians, Hispanics, and African Americans are at relatively low risk for GAD. LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q15.5 Psychiatric diagnoses are often shaped by cultural and historical biases. The diagnosis of “drapetomania” was applied to a) slaves who repeatedly tried to escape from their masters. b) those with hallucinations involving drapery coming to life. c) people afflicted with the belief that their primary or secondary sexual characteristics are disappearing. d) people experiencing episodes of intense sadness followed by unprovoked attacks on others. ANS: a Topic=Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.1a Identify criteria for defining mental disorders. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: In a journal article, a physician even prescribed whipping and toe amputation as “treatments” for this condition. LO 15.1a Identify criteria for defining mental disorders.

EOC Q15.6 What disorder is virtually nonexistent in Japan and India but is diagnosed with considerable frequency in countries where it has received more publicity, leading many to conclude that the condition is actually created by therapists rather than discovered by them? a) Dissociative identity disorder b) Somatic symptom disorder c) Bipolar disorder d) Dissociative amnesia ANS: a Topic=Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The dissociative disorders provide a powerful, although troubling, example of how social and cultural forces can shape psychological disorders. LO 15.4b Explain the controversies surrounding dissociative disorders, especially dissociative identity disorder.

EOC Q15.7 Which of the following is as common among men as among women? a) Bipolar disorder b) ADHD c) Major depression d) Attempted suicide ANS: a Topic=Mood Disorders and Suicide Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 15.3a Identify the characteristics of different mood disorders. Difficulty=Moderate, module=Psychological Disorders: When Adaptation Breaks Down Consider This: More than half the time, a major depressive episode precedes or follows a manic episode. LO 15.3a Identify the characteristics of different mood disorders.

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EOC Q15.8 According to Paul Meehl, around ________ of the population has a genetic predisposition to schizophrenia, although most people with a schizotypal personality disorder do not develop into full-blow schizophrenia. a) 10 percent b) 20 percent c) 30 percent d) 40 percent ANS: a Topic=The Enigma of Schizophrenia Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.5b Explain how psychosocial, neural, biochemical, and genetic influences create the vulnerability to schizophrenia. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The lifetime risk of developing schizophrenia is largely a function of how closely an individual is genetically related to a person with schizophrenia. LO 15.5b Explain how psychosocial, neural, biochemical, and genetic influences create the vulnerability to schizophrenia.

EOC Q15.9 Which of the following describes a major depressive episode? a) A 34-year-old man has been “feeling down” for several months. He lies awake at night ruminating about whether his job is secure. He picks at his food and has lost 10 pounds. b) An 18-year-old woman is beginning the year at a college that is far from her home. For the first days, she cries for 15 minutes in her dorm room before calling her mother. Then she makes some friends and only calls home once a week. c) A 52-year-old man has just returned from a base-jumping trip to South America. He eagerly tells everyone he knows how great an experience it was but later feels so bleak that he can hardly get out of bed for several days. d) A 30-year-old woman has just returned from the hospital with her newborn son. She feels sad and worries that she won’t be able to take care of the baby. Her husband offers to get up with the baby in the night, and after getting some rest, she feels happier and more competent. ANS: a Topic=Mood Disorders and Suicide Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: But in as many as a fourth or more of cases, depression is persistent and can be present for as long as decades with no relief. LO 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual.

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EOC Q15.10 Which term means an intense fear of some object or situation that either poses no threat or significantly less threat than the person feels it does? a) Phobia b) Anxiety disorder c) PTSD d) OCD ANS: a Topic=Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: For a fear to be diagnosed as a phobia, it must restrict our life, create considerable distress, or do both. LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety.

EOC Q15.11 Which of the following is a misconception of the insanity defense in a criminal trial? a) A large proportion of criminals escape criminal responsibility by using the insanity defense. b) Insanity is a purely legal term that refers only to whether the person was responsible for the crime, not to the nature of his or her psychiatric disorder. c) The determination of insanity rests on a determination of the person’s mental state at the time of the crime. d) The average insanity acquittee spends close to 3 years in a psychiatric hospital, often longer than the length of a criminal sentence for the same crime. ANS: a Topic=Conceptions of Mental Illness: Yesterday and Today Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Although most people believe that a sizable proportion, perhaps 15–20 percent, of criminals are acquitted (found innocent) on the basis of the insanity verdict, the actual percentage is less than 1 percent. LO 15.1c Identify common misconceptions about psychiatric diagnoses and the strengths and limitations of the current diagnostic system.

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EOC Q15.12 Which of the following is related to obsessive-compulsive disorder and creates a preoccupation with imperfections of the person’s appearance? a) Body dysmorphic disorder b) ADHD c) Generalized body preoccupation d) Body obsessive-compulsive disorder ANS: a Topic=Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Some individuals with this disorder undergo repeated cosmetic surgeries to correct their perceived body imperfections, yet they receive little comfort from these procedures because their underlying obsession about their appearance remains untreated. LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety.

EOC Q15.13 A psychological problem reflecting serious distortions in reality, such as those found in schizophrenia, is called a) a psychotic symptom. b) word salad. c) mental toxicity. d) dissociation. ANS: a Topic=The Enigma of Schizophrenia Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The authors of your book have also treated patients who reported delusions of grandeur (greatness), including one who believed that she’d discovered the cure for cancer even though she had no medical training. LO 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia.

EOC Q15.14 The validity of ________ as a diagnosis is controversial; some experts fear that children who have repeated temper tantrums will be diagnosed with this condition. a) early-onset bipolar disorder b) Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder c) autism spectrum disorder d) Asperger’s Disorder ANS: a Topic=Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Children are particularly likely to receive a diagnosis of this disorder when they show rapid mood changes, reckless behavior, irritability, and aggression. LO 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q15.15 Agoraphobia is defined as a) fear of being in a place or situation in which escape is difficult or embarrassing or in which help is unavailable in the event of a panic attack. b) intense fear of negative evaluation in social situations, such as while eating, giving a speech, conversing with others, and performing in public. c) fear of dark places, d) overwhelming fear of clowns ANS: a Topic=Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Most people with panic disorder develop this disorder and become apprehensive in a host of settings outside the home, such as stores, movie theaters, lines of people, public transportation, crowds, bridges, and wide-open spaces. LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety.

EOC Q15.16 Symptoms attributed to ________ may actually be caused by traumatic brain injuries, diabetes, thyroid problems, vitamin deficiencies, anxiety, or depression, making accurate diagnosis tricky. a) ADHD b) bipolar disorder c) Autism spectrum disorder d) schizophrenia ANS: a Topic=Childhood Disorders: Recent Controversies Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Teachers complain that such children won’t remain in their seats, follow directions, or pay attention and that they display temper tantrums with little provocation. LO 15.6a Describe the symptoms and debate surrounding disorders diagnosed in childhood.

EOC Q15.17 Inner voices that tell a schizophrenic person what to do and may be associated with a heightened risk of violence toward others are called a) command hallucinations. b) instruction delusions. c) auditory anomalies. d) olfactory hallucinations. ANS: a Topic=The Enigma of Schizophrenia Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: “Go over to that man and tell him to shut up!” LO 15.5a Recognize the characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q15.18 Which of the following is the abbreviation for a marked emotional disturbance after experiencing or witnessing an extremely stressful or aversive event? a) PTSD b) ADHD c) OCD d) BDD ANS: a Topic=Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: It also includes situations in which people learn about an event from a friend or relative who experienced threatened or actual death or in which people are exposed repeatedly to distressing details of a traumatic event, such as the sexual abuse of an elderly person. LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety.

EOC Q15.19 The behavioral model of depression implies that to break the grip of depression, a depressed person should a) push himself or herself to engage in pleasant activities. b) take some time to rest and recuperate without the stress of interacting with others. c) isolate himself or herself from others who may dislike or reject depressed people. d) spend a great deal of time thinking about what caused the depression and what he or she could have done differently in the past. ANS: a Topic=Mood Disorders and Suicide Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Sometimes merely getting out of bed can be the first step toward conquering depression. LO 15.3b Describe major explanations for depression and how life events can interact with characteristics of the individual.

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EOC Q15.20 Estimates suggest that the rate of suicide among people with _______ is about 15 times higher than that of the general population. a) bipolar disorder b) psychopathic personalities c) autism spectrum disorders d) chronic, disfiguring illnesses ANS: a Topic=Mood Disorders and Suicide Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.3c Identify common myths and misconceptions about suicide. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: As a severe depression lifts, the risk of suicide may actually increase, in part because individuals possess more energy to attempt the act. LO 15.3c Identify common myths and misconceptions about suicide.

EOC Q15.21 Which of the following is the term for the 3 percent of the population who spend about 60 percent of each day worrying, usually about small things in life? a) Generalized anxiety disorder b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder c) Dysthymic disorder d) Chronic rumination disorder ANS: a Topic=Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Often they worry too much about the small things in life, like an upcoming meeting at work or social event. LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety.

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EOC Q15.22 In contrast to Otto Kernberg’s assessment that borderline personality disorder is caused by childhood problems in response to cold, unempathetic mothers, a) twin studies suggest that borderline personality traits are substantially heritable. b) studies with animals indicate that borderline personality disorder is a form of bipolar disorder. c) people with borderline personality disorder were usually “spoiled children” with warm and indulgent parents. d) it is actually autism spectrum disorder that is caused by this kind of uncaring mother. ANS: a Topic=Personality and Dissociative Disorders: The Disrupted and Divided Self Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 15.4a Identify the characteristics of borderline and psychopathic personality disorders. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Difficulties in controlling emotions may be responsible for the rejection many individuals with borderline personality disorder encounter, as well as their excessive concerns about being validated, loved, and accepted. LO 15.4a Identify the characteristics of borderline and psychopathic personality disorders.

EOC Q15.23 Which of the following is the term for repetitive behavior performed to reduce or prevent distress or to relieve feelings of shame or guilt? a) Compulsion b) Obsession c) Superstition d) Meditative practice ANS: a Topic=Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: In most cases, patients feel driven to perform the action that accompanies an obsession, to prevent some dreaded event, or to “make things right.” LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety.

125

EOC Q15.24 Which of the following is a myth or misconception about suicide? a) Suicide is almost always completed with no warning. b) Talking about suicide makes people with depression more likely to seek help. c) As a severe depression lifts, the risk of suicide may actually increase, in part because individuals possess more energy to attempt the act. d) Although attention seeking motivates some suicidal behaviors, most suicidal acts stem from severe depression and hopelessness. ANS: a Topic=Mood Disorders and Suicide Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 15.3c Identify common myths and misconceptions about suicide. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Many or most individuals who commit suicide communicate their intent to others, which gives us an opportunity to seek help for a suicidal person. LO 15.3c Identify common myths and misconceptions about suicide.

EOC Q15.25 A somatic symptom disorder is defined as a) a condition marked by excessive anxiety about physical symptoms with a medical or purely psychological origin. b) an individual’s belief that he or she has a serious physical disease. c) continual feelings of worry, anxiety, physical tension, and irritability across many areas of life functioning. d) brief, intense episode of extreme fear characterized by sweating, dizziness, lightheadedness, racing heartbeat, and feelings of impending death or going crazy. ANS: a Topic=Anxiety-Related Disorders: The Many Faces of Worry and Fear Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: These anxieties can become so intense and “over the top” that they interfere with daily living. LO 15.2a Describe the many ways people experience anxiety.

126

Chapter 16: Psychological and Biological Treatments Total Assessment Guide

Topic Quick Quiz 1

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice

1, 3, 7

5–6, 10

2, 4, 8–9

Quick Quiz 2

Multiple Choice

1–2, 8, 10

3–7, 9

Learning Objective 16.1a Describe who seeks treatment, who benefits from psychotherapy, and who practices psychotherapy. Learning Objective 16.1b Distinguish between professionals and paraprofessionals, and describe what it take to be an effective therapist. Learning Objective 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Learning Objective 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Learning Objective 16.3a List the advantages of group methods.

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

1–3

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

5–6, 8 1

7, 9

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

11, 21, 23, 25–26 4

10, 18–20, 22, 24, 30 2-3 1

12–17, 27–29

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

33, 36, 39, 41 5

31–32, 34, 37, 40, 42

35, 38 6–7

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

44 9

43 8, 10 2

46–48, 51 45, 49 Learning Objective 16.3b Describe the research 2 evidence concerning the effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous. Multiple Choice 54–55 53 Learning Objective 16.3c Fill-in-the-Blank 11 Identify different Essay 3 approaches to treating Critical Thinking Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. the dysfunctional family 1 system.

50, 52

Topic Learning Objective 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Learning Objective 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Learning Objective 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective. Learning Objective 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Learning Objective 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Learning Objective 16.6b Outline key considerations in drug treatment. Learning Objective 16.6c Identify misconceptions about biomedical treatments.

Multiple Choice

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking Multiple Choice

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

57–60, 65, 69–71, 73, 76–77, 80–81, 84 13

64, 66–67, 72, 74– 75, 78, 83, 86

61–63, 68, 79, 82, 85

14–16

88–89, 93–94, 96– 97, 99–103 17, 19

87, 90–92, 95, 104

105–107, 109–112, 114, 118–122

115–116

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

123–124, 126 20

Multiple Choice

127–132, 134–135, 138, 140–143, 145 22

Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

108, 113, 117

125 21 2-3 144

133, 136–137, 139

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

146–147 23

Multiple Choice Fill-in-the-Blank Essay Critical Thinking

148–151, 153–154 24–25

152

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 16 Quick Quiz 1 1. Psychotherapy is an intervention designed to help people to deal with and manage ___________. A) legal problems B) financial problems C) interpersonal problems only D) behavioral, emotional, and interpersonal problems 2. Your friend Maria asks you why seeing a mental health professional rather than a paraprofessional may be a better choice. You explain that __________. A) professional helpers appreciate the complex ethical, professional, and personal issues B) professional helpers understand how to operate ineffectively within the mental health system C) professional helpers are less confident, less defensive, and better able to appreciate clients’ world view D) professional helpers provide services in crisis intervention centers and other social service agencies 3. In what brand of psychotherapy would a clinical psychologist attempt to uncover the underlying unconscious conflicts and impulses that are the cause of one’s psychological difficulties? A) behavioral B) cognitive-behavioral C) humanistic D) psychoanalytic/psychodynamic 4. Lionel has been in therapy for four weeks now. At the first meeting with his therapist, the therapist waited for Lionel to begin discussing why he was there and what he hoped to gain from the session. The therapist also reminds Lionel that he is responsible for solving his own problems. Lionel’s therapist is making use of ________ therapy. A) Perls’ Gestalt B) Jung’s analytic C) Rogers’s person-centered D) Beck’s cognitive 5. Psychologists find group therapy to be an effective approach to treatment because __________. A) it is more effective at producing lasting changes than the individual treatments B) it allows participants to practice new skills in a safe environment C) they interact less with each individual patient D) they can make more money 6. In family therapy, a therapist seeks to understand A) how a person’s psychological disorder creates stress for those who love him or her. B) how family members can help someone with a psychological disorder live a productive life. C) the family context out of which problems presumably arise. D) why some families seem to experience more problems than others. 7. Systematic desensitization is specifically designed to help a person to deal with his or her ___________. A) depression B) dissociative identity disorder C) phobia D) psychopathic personality 8. Cedric is being asked to anticipate an upcoming tennis match against a highly ranked opponent. He is to imagine falling behind by one set, in a best of two of three sets match, and what he would say to himself in such a scenario. This example illustrates what Meichenbaum would call __________. A) systematic desensitization B) person-centered therapy C) rational emotive behavior therapy D) stress inoculation training Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

9. Suppose a friend asks you for advice about entering psychotherapy for his or her anxiety disorder. Which of the following recommendations should you make? A) Avoid psychotherapy because 5% to 10% of patients get worse with this form of treatment. B) Behavioral or cognitive-behavioral therapies are most effective for this category of disorders. C) Humanistic therapies are most effective for this category of disorders. D) Psychodynamic therapies are most effective for this category of disorders. 10. Statisticians will often describe how extreme performances, both good and bad, tend to be followed by more average levels of performance. This __________ might be one explanation for why many psychotherapy patients improve regardless of the type of therapy received. A) placebo effect B) regression to the mean C) retrospective rewriting D) self-serving bias

Chapter 16 Quick Quiz 1 Answer Key 1. D

Explanation: Psychotherapy helps people with behavioral, emotional, and interpersonal problems. (Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 16.1a)

2. A

Explanation: Professional helpers have the training and experience to appreciate the complex ethical, professional, and personal issues. (Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 16.1b)

3. D

Explanation: Psychoanalytic/psychodynamic therapies uncover the underlying unconscious conflicts and impulses that are the cause of one’s psychological difficulties. (Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding, Factual, APA LO 1.2, TEXT LO 16.2a)

4. C

Explanation: Person-centered therapists do not tell clients how to solve their problems, and clients can use the therapy hour any way they choose. (Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 16.2b)

5. B

Explanation: Group therapy is a safe environment for clients to work with one another on each other’s problems. (Group Therapies: The More the Merrier, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 16.3a)

6. C

Explanation: In family therapy, the therapist seeks to understand the dynamics of the family and how family member interactions lead to personal problems and difficulties. (Group Therapies: The More the Merrier, Conceptual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 16.3c)

7. C

Explanation: Systematic desensitization is specifically designed to treat phobias (Behavioral and CognitiveBehavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts, Factual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 16.4a)

8. D

Explanation: Cedric has prepared for, and is able to cope with, future life events, which is the purpose of stress inoculation training. (Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 16.4b)

9. B

Explanation: Behavioral or cognitive-behavioral therapies are most effective for the anxiety disorders. (Is Psychotherapy Effective?, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 16.5a)

10. B

Explanation: Extreme scores tend to become less extreme on retesting. (Is Psychotherapy Effective?, Conceptual, APA LO 1.1, TEXT LO 16.5b)

Name _____________________________________________

Chapter 16 Quick Quiz 2 1. A __________ provides counseling, support in spiritual context, wellness programs, as well as group, family, and couples therapy. A) psychiatrist B) mental health counselor C) pastoral counselor D) psychiatric nurse 2. Which of the following professionals is trained as a medical doctor and may be found working in either private practice or in a hospital setting, among other employment environments? A) clinical psychologist B) clinical social worker C) mental health counselor D) psychiatrist 3. George begins to project his anxieties and unresolved feelings about his mother onto his therapist. This is what Sigmund Freud would have called A) free association. B) resistance. C) transference. D) working through. 4. Kennedy meets with a therapist who is trying to merge her “good girl” with her “spoiled brat” so that she’ll become a complete “good brat.” This would be an example of __________. A) Ellis’s rational emotive behavior therapy B) Freud’s psychoanalysis C) Perls’s Gestalt therapy D) Rogers’s person-centered therapy 5. John slipped up last night at the party and had a glass of wine. He called his relapse prevention therapist immediately, who told him it was okay, and that he needed to refocus on his sobriety and what led him to take that drink in the first place. John needed this validation and support to avoid __________. A) the abstinence violation effect B) the difference violation effect C) the resistance violation effect D) the continence violation effect 6. Karen is a family therapist who has just arrived at her client family’s home to have dinner with them and spend the evening. Her visit is not social, but rather will be an opportunity for her to see how the family interacts with one another. Karen is using which family therapy model? A) stratified family therapy B) structural family therapy C) logical family intervention D) strategic family intervention 7. Trina attempts to overcome her fear of clowns by learning how to shift from a feeling of tension to one of calm and relaxation. Next, she is asked to imagine different situations, each more anxiety-provoking than the previous. She only proceeds to the next situation if she can maintain her feeling of relaxation. Trina’s therapist is using __________ to remove her fear. A) exposure therapy B) modeling C) person-centered therapy D) systematic desensitization 8. __________ practitioners teach clients that negative thoughts such as “I’m worthless” are merely thoughts, not facts, while encouraging them to accept and tolerate the full range of their feelings, and act in keeping with their goals and values. A) Avoidance and commitment therapy B) Acceptance and commitment therapy C) Dissonance and commitment therapy D) Dialectical and behavioral therapy

9. Rico suffers from bipolar disorder. His psychiatrist will most likely prescribe __________. A) Lithium B) Prozac C) Ritalin D) Thorazine 10. A major criticism of the use of medication for treating a child’s ADHD is that __________. A) parents and teachers are often allowed little input in whether a child must begin pharmacotherapy for his or her ADHD B) there is a potential for abuse of these medications as well as problematic side effects C) pharmacotherapy leads to an increased risk for suicide in patients diagnosed with ADHD D) there is no scientific evidence that pharmacotherapy is useful is reducing the symptoms for children with ADHD

Chapter 16 Quick Quiz 2 Answer Key 1. C

Explanation: A pastoral counselor provides support in spiritual context in addition to counseling and wellness programs. (Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners, Factual, APA 1.3, TEXT LO 16.1b)

2. D

Explanation: Psychiatrists are medical doctors who are licensed to prescribe medication. (Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 16.1b)

3. C

Explanation: George is expressing feelings toward his therapist that remind him of someone else in his life; transference involves projecting feelings onto the therapist. (Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 16.2a)

4. C

Explanation: Gestalt therapy aims to integrate different and sometimes opposing aspects of personality into a unified sense of self. (Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 16.2b)

5. A

Explanation: Negative feelings about a slip can lead to continued drinking. This is called the abstinence violation effect. (Group Therapies: The More the Merrier, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 16.3b)

6. B

Explanation: In structural family therapy, therapists involve themselves into the family unit in order to provide treatment. (Group Therapies: The More the Merrier, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 16.3c)

7. D

Explanation: An anxiety hierarchy is being used to remove Trina’s fear of clowns. The anxiety hierarchy is a “ladder” of situations that climbs from least to most anxiety provoking. (Behavioral and CognitiveBehavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 16.4a)

8. B

Explanation: Acceptance and commitment therapy practitioners teach clients that negative thoughts such as “I’m worthless” are merely thoughts, not “facts,” while encouraging them to accept and tolerate the full range of their feelings, and act in keeping with their goals and values. (Behavioral and CognitiveBehavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 16.4b)

9. A

Explanation: Lithium is a mood stabilizing medication for bipolar disorder. (Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery, Applied, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 16.6a)

10. B

Explanation: The major criticism is that the medications may lead to aversive and unanticipated sideeffects. (Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery, Factual, APA LO 1.3, TEXT LO 16.6b)

Chapter 16: Psychological and Biological Treatments Test Bank Multiple-Choice 1. Psychotherapy is an intervention designed to help people to deal with and manage __________. A) legal problems B) financial problems C) interpersonal problems only D) behavioral, emotional, and interpersonal problems Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.1a Describe who seeks treatment, who benefits from psychotherapy, and who practices psychotherapy. Topic: Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners 2. Females benefit __________ males when receiving psychotherapy for their emotional or mental difficulties. A) equally as much as B) less than C) more than D) substantially more than Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.1a Describe who seeks treatment, who benefits from psychotherapy, and who practices psychotherapy. Topic: Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners 3. Compared to Caucasian Americans, which members of the following racial and ethnic minority groups are less likely to seek mental health services? A) Asian Americans and African Americans B) Asian Americans and Hispanic Americans C) African Americans and Hispanic Americans D) African Americans, Asian Americans, and Hispanic Americans Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.1a Describe who seeks treatment, who benefits from psychotherapy, and who practices psychotherapy. Topic: Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners

4. Which of the following persons is most likely to seek help for his or her mental health difficulty? A) Byron, a recently naturalized U.S. citizen from South Africa B) Julia, who entered the United States illegally from Venezuela Incorrect. Asian and Hispanic Americans are less likely to seek mental health services. C) Marie, a 45-year-old Caucasian female Correct. Caucasian Americans tend to utilize mental health services. D) Ralph, a 65-year-old postal worker Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.1a Describe who seeks treatment, who benefits from psychotherapy, and who practices psychotherapy. Topic: Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners 5. A __________ provides counseling, support in spiritual context, wellness programs, as well as group, family, and couples therapy. A) psychiatrist B) mental health counselor C) pastoral counselor D) psychiatric nurse Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.1b Distinguish between professionals and paraprofessionals, and describe what it takes to be an effective therapist. Topic: Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners 6. Which of the following professionals is trained as a medical doctor and may be found working in either private practice or in a hospital setting, among other employment environments? A) clinical psychologist B) clinical social worker C) mental health counselor D) psychiatrist Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO 16.1b Distinguish between professionals and paraprofessionals, and describe what it takes to be an effective therapist. Topic: Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners

7. Bryan is going to school after he graduates from college because he wants to be a clinical psychologist someday. Which of the following degrees would he be the least likely to pursue? A) Ph.D. B) M.D. Correct. A clinical psychologist is not a medical doctor, so this will not be the degree Bryan will be likely to pursue. C) Psy.D. D) M.A. Incorrect. Bryan will probably get a doctorate, but on the way to it, he’ll need to earn a Master’s degree. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 LO 16.1b Distinguish between professionals and paraprofessionals, and describe what it takes to be an effective therapist. Topic: Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners 8. An individual who provides mental health services but has no professional training to do so would be described as a(n) __________. A) academician B) life coach C) practitioner D) paraprofessional Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 LO 16.1b Distinguish between professionals and paraprofessionals, and describe what it takes to be an effective therapist. Topic: Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners 9. Your friend Maria asks you why seeing a mental health professional rather than a paraprofessional may be a better choice. You explain that __________. A) professional helpers appreciate the complex ethical, professional, and personal issues Correct. Professional helpers have the training and experience to appreciate the above issues. B) professional helpers understand how to operate ineffectively within the mental health system C) professional helpers are less confident, less defensive, and better able to appreciate clients’ world view Incorrect. Professional helpers are more confident, less defensive, and better able to appreciate clients’ world view. D) professional helpers provide services in crisis intervention centers and other social service agencies Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 LO 16.1b Distinguish between professionals and paraprofessionals, and describe what it takes to be an effective therapist. Topic: Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners

10. What category of therapy is most concerned with improving a client’s awareness of the underlying causes of his or her difficulties? A) behavioral B) biological C) cognitive Incorrect. Cognitive therapies attempt to replace irrational cognitions with more rational ones. D) insight Correct. Insight therapies have the goal of expanding awareness or insight. Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 11. In what brand of psychotherapy would a clinical psychologist attempt to uncover the underlying unconscious conflicts and impulses that are the cause of one’s psychological difficulties? A) behavioral B) cognitive-behavioral C) humanistic D) psychoanalytic/psychodynamic Answer: D Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding % correct 87 a = 10 b = 3 c = 0 d = 87 r = .43 % correct 87 a = 3 b = 7 c = 3 d = 87 r = .52 12. Bart is asked by his psychotherapist to close his eyes. After a few minutes of relaxing, the therapist asks Bart to discuss whatever comes to mind and to continue without censoring any of the ideas or thoughts he experiences. Bart is experiencing the therapeutic technique of __________. A) active confrontation B) transference Incorrect. While Bart may express feelings toward his therapist that remind him of someone else in his life, transference involves projecting feelings onto the therapist. It is not a therapeutic technique. C) free association Correct. Bart is able to discuss anything that comes to his mind without censorship. D) systematic desensitization Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding % correct 90 a = 5 b = 0 c = 90 d = 5 r = .78

13. Carlita has just come from her first therapy session. To better understand Carlita’s generalized anxiety, the therapist asked her to talk about her childhood experiences and interactions with her parents and has asked her to keep a dream journal for the next several weeks. With which orientation is this approach most consistent? A) behavioral B) eclectic C) humanistic Incorrect. Humanistic therapies share an emphasis on the development of human potential, and while homework may be assigned, humanistic therapies do not focus solely on childhood experiences. D) psychoanalytic/psychodynamic Correct. Psychoanalytic/psychodynamic therapies uncover the underlying unconscious conflicts and impulses that are the cause of one’s psychological difficulties. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding % correct 87 a = 6 b = 0 c = 6 d = 87 r = .32 14. Julio tells his therapist that he dreamt of a large blue monster that was about to eat him. His therapist interpreted this dream as representing Julio’s abusive father. According to dream analysis, the manifest content is __________. A) Julio B) Julio’s father Incorrect. Julio’s father is the latent content. C) the therapist D) the large blue monster Correct. The large blue monster represents the manifest content. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding

15. Teu goes in to see a psychoanalyst, and during one of their sessions he shares a dream with the therapist. “I dreamt that I am a kangaroo and that I’m hopping up the side of the hill, but each time I get to a certain point, the hill turns to glass, and I slide back down to the bottom.” The analyst tells Teu that this dream is a reference to his recent career struggles where he feels that his attempts to climb the ladder at his company are continually being thwarted by events outside of his control. However, there is no way to know whether this interpretation is correct or not. Which concept of critical thinking is this most problematic for? A) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. The issue does not address using the simplest explanation for a given situation, and so Occam’s Razor is not an appropriate answer. B) replicability C) falsifiability Correct. There is no way to demonstrate that this interpretation is incorrect, and as such this is a problem of falsifiability. D) extraordinary claims Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 16. Kelly has been in therapy with Dr. Williams for 2 months when she suddenly starts skipping appointments. Even when in session, she tends to blankly stare at the therapist. This is best explained by __________. A) free association B) resistance Correct. Kelly’s tardiness, skipping of appointments, and her blank stares are characteristic of resistance. C) transference Incorrect. There is nothing mentioned about Kelly projecting feelings onto her therapist. D) working through Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding % correct 97 a = 0 b = 97 c = 2 d = 1 r = .21

17. George begins to project his anxieties and unresolved feelings about his mother onto his therapist. This is what Sigmund Freud would have called __________. A) free association B) resistance C) transference Correct. George is expressing feelings toward his therapist that remind him of someone else in his life; transference involves projecting feelings onto the therapist. D) working through Incorrect. While George may be processing his problems with the help of his therapist, George is transferring feelings toward his therapist that remind him of someone else in his life. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 18. Sigmund Freud suggested that in therapy a person may transfer important intense, unrealistic feelings and expectations from their past onto the therapist, so that their relationship mirrors other relationships in the client’s life. Another possibility, however, is that stable personality traits in the client may cause him or her to simply react in similar ways to different people. This is an important reminder of the critical thinking concept of __________. A) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. This is an alternate explanation for what Freud termed transference. B) replicability C) falsifiability D) extraordinary claims Incorrect. While Freud’s concept of transference is unusual, it is not so extraordinary. Further, there is some research to support the idea that transference may, in fact, occur in some situations. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 19. The Freudian idea of working through was most important __________ insight had been achieved. A) after B) long before C) immediately before D) exactly when Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding

20. One reasonable criticism of Freud’s psychodynamic theory is that several of his concepts, including therapeutic interpretations, are difficult to disprove. From a critical thinking concept, this presents the challenge of __________. A) replicability B) falsifiability Correct. If the concept cannot be falsified, there is no way to demonstrate that Freud was incorrect. C) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. This question does not examine the idea that a simple explanation is usually the accurate one. D) correlation vs. causation Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 21. According to this neo-Freudian, the goal of psychotherapy was individuation. A) Jung Correct. Jung believed that the goal of psychotherapy was individuation. B) Freud C) Sullivan Incorrect. Sullivan believed that psychotherapy is a collaborative undertaking between client and therapist. D) Beck Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 22. The neo-Freudians would have been LEAST likely to emphasize the importance of __________ needs in a therapeutic setting. A) dependence B) sexual Correct. The neo-Freudians acknowledge the impact of other needs such as love, dependence, power, and status. C) power D) status Incorrect. The neo-Freudians acknowledge the impact of status as well as other needs such as love, dependence, and power. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding

23. The contemporary approach of interpersonal therapy (IPT) was most influenced by the work of __________. A) Jung B) Freud C) Sullivan D) Beck Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 24. Harry Stack Sullivan believed that the analyst’s proper role is that of __________. A) conversational witness B) observational witness Incorrect. The analyst discovers and communicates to clients their unrealistic attitudes and behaviors as a participant observer. C) participant surveyor D) participant observer Correct. Through ongoing observations, the analyst discovers and communicates to clients their unrealistic attitudes and behaviors. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 25. Interpersonal therapy (IPT) is a short-term intervention designed to strengthen people’s social skills and assist them in coping with interpersonal problems and conflicts. It typically lasts for __________ sessions. A) 10–12 B) 12–16 C) 14–16 D) 16–20 Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding

26. Interpersonal therapy (IPT) has shown demonstrated success in substance abuse, eating disorders, and __________. A) anxiety B) bipolar disorder C) depression D) schizophrenia Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 27. Carmelo is giving a report to his graduate seminar on research on the effectiveness of psychodynamic therapies. Which point would you be most likely to hear him make if you were in that seminar? A) Active confrontation of irrational thinking and the display of empathy are two important psychodynamic therapeutic techniques. B) Claims of repressed traumatic memories are a growing problem and there is strong research to support the validity of such claims. C) Practicing new, adaptive behaviors is more important than gaining insight into one’s unconscious conflicts. Correct. Clients need to engage in working through by practicing new, adaptive behaviors. D) Unconscious motives clearly impact our daily behavior in many different and important ways. Incorrect. It is difficult, if not impossible, to know the effect of unconscious motives on our daily lives. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 28. Dr. Martinez, a psychodynamic therapist, was quite pleased when her patient improved, and she felt the patient was making excellent progress. In fact, the patient himself stated how great he was feeling, although he still had difficulty realizing what the “main conflict” was. The lack of ability for the patient to have insight despite feeling great is an example of which of the six principles of scientific thinking? A) Occam’s Razor B) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. Searching out alternate explanations for research/clinical findings demonstrates the principle of ruling out rival hypotheses. The patient’s response may be due to a placebo effect. C) correlation vs. correlation Incorrect. There is no indication of a correlation/causation error in this particular question. D) extraordinary claims Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding

29. Dr. Johnson tells her students not to think of a white rabbit during the lecture. Within a few seconds, many students report that they have already thought of a white rabbit. This casts doubt on __________. A) all claims made by the psychoanalytic or psychodynamic therapies Incorrect. Dr. Johnson had primed her students and placed an intrusive thought into their awareness. This does not fully discount psychoanalytic or psychodynamic therapies. B) the existence of repressed memories from traumatic events Correct. Dr. Johnson had primed her students and placed an intrusive thought into their awareness. Many memories and thoughts are subject to distortion. C) the importance of insight as a therapeutic goal D) the usefulness of active listening as a therapeutic technique Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 30. Dr. Moretti recently published a paper on his therapy work with 10 patients whom he said benefitted greatly from psychoanalysis. The patients all suffered from moderate depression and were in treatment for 6 months. Dr. Moretti’s research has come under intense scrutiny as other clinicians and researchers have not been able to consistently find the same results in their patients. This lack of research consistency is a problem for which of the six principles of scientific thinking? A) falsifiability B) replicability Correct. Research findings that are consistent from study to study are considered replicable. In this case, the lack of consistency in the research is a problem of replicability. C) Occam’s Razor D) ruling out rival hypotheses Incorrect. There are no alternate hypotheses suggested in this question. The lack of one consistent finding is an issue of replicability. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 31. Humanistic psychotherapists would be most likely to work with their clients to focus their attention to the __________ rather than to the __________. A) future; past B) present; future C) present; past Correct. Humanistic therapists focus on the present rather than the past. D) past; present Incorrect. Psychoanalytic therapists focus on the past rather than the present. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding

32. Humanistic psychotherapists stress the importance of __________. A) assuming responsibility for decisions B) the past over the present C) the processes of learning as they apply to maladaptive behaviors D) neutral self-fulfillment in guiding one’s behavior and thoughts Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 33. In person-centered therapy, this nonjudgmental acceptance of all feelings the patient expresses is known as unconditional __________ regard. A) reactive B) negative C) positive D) neutral Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 34. Carl Rogers asserts that an effective psychotherapist will __________. A) actively confront and challenge his or her client’s erroneous beliefs Incorrect. Rogers’ uses a non-confrontational therapy model. B) interpret important transference and resistance behaviors for his or her client C) provide unconditional positive regard and display empathy toward his or her client Correct. Unconditional positive regard and empathy are two of the three main features of Rogers’ therapy model. D) seek to identify how negative reinforcement is promoting maladaptive behaviors, feelings, and/or thoughts for an individual Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding % correct 79 a = 3 b = 3 c = 79 d = 13 r = .43

35. Lionel has been in therapy for four weeks now. At the first meeting with his therapist, the therapist waited for Lionel to begin discussing why he was there and what he hoped to gain from the session. The therapist also reminds Lionel that he is responsible for choosing the direction of the therapy. Lionel’s therapist is making use of __________ therapy. A) Perls’s Gestalt B) Jung’s analytic C) Rogers’s person-centered Correct. These therapists do not tell clients how to solve their problems, and clients can use the therapy hour any way they choose. D) Beck’s cognitive Incorrect. There is no discussion of irrational thinking in this example. Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 36. __________ nondirective, person-centered therapy centers on the patient’s goals and ways of solving problems. A) Rogers’s B) Freud’s C) Perls’s D) Ellis’s Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 37. The ultimate goal of humanistic psychotherapy is for a person to __________. A) change their maladaptive behaviors and reactions to challenging situations Incorrect. This defines cognitive-behavioral therapy. B) change their maladaptive thoughts about themselves and their life circumstances C) think more realistically, become tolerant of others, and engage in more adaptive behaviors Correct. Humanistic therapists focus on the present rather than the past in order for the person to reach their fullest potential. D) uncover the hidden motivations that impact their conscious thoughts and behaviors Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding

38. Kennedy meets with a therapist who is trying to merge her “good girl” with her “spoiled brat” so that she’ll become a complete “good brat.” This would be an example of __________. A) Ellis’s rational emotive behavior therapy B) Freud’s psychoanalysis C) Perls’s Gestalt therapy Correct. Gestalt therapy aims to integrate different and sometimes opposing aspects of personality into a unified sense of self. D) Rogers’s person-centered therapy Incorrect. Rogers’s uses a non-confrontational therapy model. Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding % correct 47 a = 16 b = 11 c = 47 d = 21 r = .56 39. His Gestalt therapy involves the two-chair technique as well as integrating different and sometimes opposing aspects of personality into a unified sense of self. A) Carl Rogers B) Fritz Perls C) Aaron Beck D) Albert Ellis Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 40. The core concepts of humanistic therapy, such as meaning and self-actualization, are __________. A) well correlated in the literature B) difficult to measure and falsify C) more effective than no treatment D) less effective than psychoanalysis Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding

41. Research suggests that the causal direction of the relationship between therapeutic alliance and improvement may often be the reverse of what __________ proposed. A) Greenberg B) Freud C) Perls D) Rogers Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 42. In humanistic therapies, some clients may first improve and then develop a stronger emotional bond with the therapist as a result of the therapy, while others may first develop a bond with the therapist and then improve. This demonstrates which of the six principles of scientific thinking? A) correlation vs. causation Correct. Don’t ever forget that “correlation does not imply causation.” In short, this means that just because two events are related does not mean that one causes the other. B) falsifiability C) replicability D) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. There is nothing in this question that addresses the concept of Occam’s Razor. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 43. Psychologists find group therapy to be an effective approach to treatment because __________. A) it is more effective at producing lasting changes than individual treatments B) it allows participants to practice new skills in a safe environment C) they interact less with each individual patient D) they can make more money Answer: B Diff: 1 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.3a List the advantages of group methods. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier % correct 83 a = 14 b = 83 c = 0 d = 0 r = .33

44. The most recent trend in group therapy has been for groups to __________. A) form at workplaces B) be smaller in size C) form at church D) form over the Internet Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.3a List the advantages of group methods. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier 45. A concern with the many 12-step approaches that are based on the Alcoholics Anonymous model in dealing with various problems with living is that __________. A) they promote feelings of helplessness to control and change one’s behavior B) physical diseases are never cured but rather go into remission Incorrect. Alcoholism has both physical and psychological origins. C) no research evidence exists for the effectiveness of these approaches Correct. It is difficult, if not impossible, to prove these programs work. D) relapse is unavoidable Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.3b Describe the research evidence concerning the effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier % correct 53 a = 5 b = 26 c = 53 d = 11 r = .17 46. According to the authors, the claims of Alcoholics Anonymous’ success __________. A) is not supported by the available data B) is supported by the available data C) can be applied to other problems of impulse control D) have largely gone unrecognized by the scientific community Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.3b Describe the research evidence concerning the effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier 47. Alcoholics Anonymous is the largest organization for treating alcoholics and was founded in __________. A) 1932 B) 1935 C) 1938 D) 1945 Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.3b Describe the research evidence concerning the effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

48. As many as __________ percent of participants drop out within 3 months of joining Alcoholics Anonymous. A) 48 B) 58 C) 68 D) 78 Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.3b Describe the research evidence concerning the effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier 49. There is very little research examining the effectiveness of 12-step programs that are patterned after the Alcoholics Anonymous model, and thus what research does exist is difficult to verify. For which critical thinking concept is this a big problem? A) falsifiability B) extraordinary claims Incorrect. The fact is that 12-step programs may, in fact work, but there is a need for empirical data that has been replicated in order to support that statement. C) replicability Correct. The inability to repeat the research to seek out similar findings is an issue of replicability. D) Occam’s Razor Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.3b Describe the research evidence concerning the effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier 50. John slipped up last night at the party and had a glass of wine. He called his relapse prevention therapist immediately who told him it was okay, and that he needed to refocus on his sobriety and what led him to take that drink in the first place. John needed this validation and support to avoid __________. A) the abstinence violation effect Correct. Negative feelings about a slip can lead to continued drinking. B) the difference violation effect C) the resistance violation effect Incorrect. The abstinence violation effect states that negative feelings about a slip can lead to continued drinking. D) the continence violation effect Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.3b Describe the research evidence concerning the effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier

51. The __________ model of treatment for alcoholism assumes that people who are on the road to recovery will occasionally “slip.” This treatment attempts to teach people not to feel ashamed, guilty, or discouraged when these slips occur. A) assertion training B) dialectical behavior C) controlled drinking D) relapse prevention Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.3b Describe the research evidence concerning the effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier 52. Markus has been attending Alcoholics Anonymous meetings for 4 months and has managed to avoid drinking for that entire time. Last night, however, he had three beers after a particularly difficult day at work. The relapse prevention model of treatment would view last night's drinking in which way? A) Markus should probably consider entering a detox program. B) Markus is in need of an immediate "intervention." C) Markus needs to go back to step one of the twelve-step model. Incorrect. The RP model views a slip as a lapse, not a relapse. D) Markus had a slip. Correct. The RP model views a slip as a lapse, not a relapse. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.3b Describe the research evidence concerning the effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier 53. In family therapy, a therapist seeks to understand __________. A) how a person’s psychological disorder creates stress for those who love him or her Incorrect. The whole family is in therapy and the goal is not to make any one person a scapegoat. B) how family members can help someone with a psychological disorder live a productive life C) the family context out of which problems presumably arise Correct. The therapist seeks to understand the dynamics of the family. D) why some families seem to experience more problems than others Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.3c Identify different approaches to treating the dysfunctional family system. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier

54. Someone who is conducting strategic family therapy would be most likely to attempt to understand __________. A) family communication patterns B) an individual’s thoughts and feelings about their family C) parental impacts on children’s adaptive or maladaptive functioning D) why family history makes some people more or less vulnerable to psychological problems Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.3c Identify different approaches to treating the dysfunctional family system. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier 55. This family therapy approach is designed to remove barriers to effective communication. A) stratified family therapy B) structural family therapy C) logical family interventions D) strategic family interventions Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.3c Identify different approaches to treating the dysfunctional family system. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier % correct 32 a = 10 b = 58 c = 0 d = 32 r = .47 56. Karen is a family therapist who has just arrived at her client family’s home to have dinner with them and spend the evening. Her visit is not social, but rather will be an opportunity for her to see how the family interacts with one another. Karen is using which family therapy model? A) stratified family therapy B) structural family therapy Correct. In this therapy, therapists involve themselves in the family unit in order to provide treatment. C) logical family interventions D) strategic family interventions Incorrect. This family therapy approach does not involve therapists immersing themselves into the family unit. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.3c Identify different approaches to treating the dysfunctional family system. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier

57. A behavioral therapist is most likely to focus on __________. A) the past and broad traits B) the past and specific behaviors C) the present and broad traits D) the present and specific behaviors Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 58. Systematic desensitization was developed by __________. A) Wolpe B) Beck C) Freud D) Ellis Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 59. Systematic desensitization was developed in __________ and gradually exposes clients to __________ situations through the use of imagined scenes. A) 1948; anxiety-producing B) 1948; depression-provoking C) 1958; anxiety-producing D) 1958; depression-provoking Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

60. Systematic desensitization is specifically designed to help a person to deal with his or her __________. A) depression Incorrect. Systematic desensitization focuses on phobias. B) dissociative identity disorder C) phobia Correct. Systematic desensitization focuses on phobias. D) psychopathic personality Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts % correct 77 a = 13 b = 10 c = 77 d = 0 r = .69 61. After learning how to relax, Herman begins his systematic desensitization treatment for his claustrophobia by __________. A) constructing an anxiety hierarchy Correct. This is the next step of systematic desensitization. B) being exposed to tight spaces with no means of escape Incorrect. This is an example of flooding. C) deconstructing an anxiety hierarchy D) trying to recall how he developed this fear as a child Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 62. Trina attempts to overcome her fear of clowns by learning how to shift from a feeling of tension to one of calm and relaxation. Next, she is asked to imagine different situations, each more anxiety-provoking than the previous. She only proceeds to the next situation if she can maintain her feeling of relaxation. Trina’s therapist is using __________ to remove her fear. A) exposure therapy Incorrect. Trina is not exposed to any real phobia only imagined fears. B) modeling C) person-centered therapy D) systematic desensitization Correct. An anxiety hierarchy is being used. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

63. Dawn is afraid of flying. Her therapist has begun a 10-week treatment involving talking about the fears of flying, rating her fear, talking about different types of planes, looking at pictures of planes, watching planes at the airport, using imagery, and eventually going on a trip. This therapy technique is known as __________. A) systematic desensitization Correct. An anxiety hierarchy is being used. B) systematic sensitization C) transmatic desensitization D) automatic desensitization Incorrect. This technique is not automatic. Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts % correct 94 a = 94 b = 6 c = 0 d = 0 r = .22 64. Dismantling allows researchers to examine the effectiveness of isolated components of a broader treatment such as systematic desensitization and compare these effects with that of the full treatment package. Dismantling represents which of the six principles of scientific thinking? A) falsifiability Incorrect. We are not looking to disprove the effectiveness but rather break down each of the steps to test individual effectiveness. B) extraordinary claims C) correlation vs. correlation D) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. Searching out alternate explanations for research/clinical findings demonstrates the principle of ruling out rival hypotheses. This is an essential part of any scientific examination. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 65. According to your book, systematic desensitization may fare no better than a placebo procedure designed to arouse an equivalent degree of __________ expectations. A) positive B) negative C) neutral D) melancholic Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

66. Flooding therapies are based on the idea that fears are maintained by __________. A) indifference B) obsessions Incorrect. Flooding suggests that phobias are maintained by avoiding the trigger of the fear. C) repression D) avoidance Correct. The idea behind flooding is that breaking through avoidance can rapidly undo a phobia. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 67. Because the negative reinforcement of avoidance behavior often maintains many phobias and other anxiety-related disorders, exposure therapy often involves __________. A) social skills training B) modeling Incorrect. Response prevention prevents clients from performing their typical avoidance behaviors. C) response prevention Correct. This technique prevents clients from performing their typical avoidance behaviors. D) relaxation training Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 68. Dr. Navid has been riding the elevator with his client Jill for over an hour in the hopes that this in vivo __________ will dissipate Jill’s anxiety. A) wishing B) imagery Incorrect. The client and therapist are actually riding in the elevator together. C) flooding Correct. The goal of flooding is to extinguish one’s fear in the absence of negative consequences. D) riding Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

69. Therapists have successfully used flooding with numerous anxiety disorders, including __________. A) specific phobia, agoraphobia, posttraumatic stress disorder, and bipolar disorder B) social phobia, acrophobia, posttraumatic stress disorder, and obsessive compulsive disorder C) specific phobia, agoraphobia, posttraumatic stress disorder, and schizoaffective disorder D) social phobia, agoraphobia, posttraumatic stress disorder, and obsessive compulsive disorder Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 70. A crucial component of flooding is __________, in which therapists prevent clients from performing their typical avoidance behaviors. A) response intention B) response prevention C) reactive prevention D) ritualistic intention Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 71. __________ allows psychotherapists to place persons in situations to confront and eliminate their fears that would either be infeasible or difficult to do in real life. A) Exposure therapy B) Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing C) Implosive therapy D) Virtual reality exposure therapy Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

72. According to the authors, behavioral therapists have been diligent in making only those claims that fit with the data about the effectiveness of their therapeutic techniques. A critical thinker would recognize this as what is required by the critical thinking principle of __________. A) extraordinary claims Correct. The more a claim contradicts what we already know, the more evidence we need before we accept it. B) falsifiability Incorrect. While claims must be capable of being disproved, the more a claim contradicts what we already know, the more evidence we need before we accept it. This is best explained by extraordinary claims. C) parsimony D) replication Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 73. Roger Callahan, who developed __________, claimed that his procedure can cure phobias in as little as five minutes. A) Thought Exposure Therapy (TET) B) Thought Field Therapy (TFT) C) Thought Reaction Therapy (TRT) D) Thought Sensitization Therapy (TST) Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 74. There is no research evidence for the assertion that Callahan’s therapy technique cures anxiety by manipulating energy fields, or for the implausible claim of virtually instantaneous cures for the vast majority of phobia sufferers. Because the energy blocks aren’t measurable, Callahan’s claims cannot be proved or disproved. This is an example of which of the six principles of scientific thinking? A) replicability Incorrect. There is nothing mentioned about replication. B) falsifiability Correct. There is no way to prove or disprove whether Callahan’s claims are true, or if energy blocks exist. C) Occam’s Razor D) ruling our rival hypotheses Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

75. Roger Callahan's Thought Field Therapy makes the incredible statement that it can cure phobias, deeply entrenched maladaptive fears, in as little as five minutes. Further, he claims that this works in both humans as well as some animals. It would take an amazing amount of supportive data to verify these assertions, reminding us of which concept related to critical thinking? A) replicability Incorrect. There is nothing mentioned about replication. B) extraordinary claims Correct. Remember that when a product claims extraordinary, almost unbelievable, outcomes, those claims should be backed by extraordinary evidence. C) Occam’s Razor D) ruling our rival hypotheses Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 76. Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) has been marketed widely as a breakthrough treatment for __________. A) schizophrenia B) bipolar disorders C) anxiety disorders Correct. Anxiety disorders is the correct answer. D) depression Incorrect. EMDR has been marketed for anxiety disorders. Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 77. As of 2016, more than __________ therapists have been trained in eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR). A) 50,000 B) 100,000 C) 150,000 D) 200,000 Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

78. You are attending a conference on eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) and are listening to claims of how effective this technique is. The presenter states that the clients’ lateral eye movements, made while they imagine a past traumatic event, enhance their processing of painful memories. However, you believe that it may not be the eye movements, but rather the exposure the technique provides. This is an example of which of the six principles of scientific thinking? A) replicability B) falsifiability Incorrect. There are two hypotheses presented here. We are not looking to disprove the claim that EMDR works. C) Occam’s Razor Correct. There are two hypotheses presented, and the simpler one is often the correct one. D) ruling our rival hypotheses Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 79. Ralph has been disruptive and misbehaving in fifth grade for the last 3 months. His therapist understands that this behavior stems from repeated teasing that Ralph has been subjected to. Ralph’s therapist demonstrates how Ralph can cope with the teasing, and then he guides him through the steps of the situation until Ralph can cope unassisted. This is known as __________. A) therapist rehearsing B) therapist modeling Incorrect. While the therapist does model the behavior, it is the participant who models the therapist in order to cope on his own. C) participant rehearsing D) participant modeling Correct. The therapist models the behavior and then teaches Ralph how to cope on his own. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

80. In __________, therapists teach clients to avoid extreme reactions to others’ unreasonable demands, such as submissiveness and aggressiveness. A) participant modeling B) behavioral rehearsal C) therapist modeling D) assertion training Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 81. In __________, the client engages in role-playing with a therapist to learn and practice new skills. A) participant modeling B) behavioral rehearsal C) therapist modeling D) assertion training Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 82. Tim suffers from Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). His teachers and parents reward him with stars for desirable behaviors. The more stars he receives, the greater the reward he can get. This is known as ___________. A) a broken economy B) a token economy Correct. A token economy involves tokens for good behavior that can be used for a tangible reward. C) a reward economy Incorrect. A token economy involves tokens for good behavior that can be used for a tangible reward. D) a nonaversive economy Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

83. The idea of rewarding people with stars or stickers that can be later used for a tangible reward is based on __________. A) operant conditioning principles Correct. Providing tokens for good behavior that can be used for a tangible reward is an operant procedure. B) classical conditioning principles Incorrect. This is an operant procedure. C) avoidant conditioning principles D) indifferent conditioning principles Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts % correct 84 a = 84 b = 13 c = 0 d = 3 r = .58 84. Token economies have shown success with patients diagnosed with __________ who require longterm hospitalization. A) anxiety disorders B) depression C) schizophrenia D) bipolar disorder Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 85. Miranda is in treatment for problematic alcohol use patterns, and her doctor has prescribed Antabuse, which will make her vomit after drinking alcohol. Why might this not be an effective treatment for Miranda? A) Miranda quit drinking months ago. B) Miranda has to want to stop drinking. Incorrect. Whether she wants to drink or not, she can simply stop taking the Antabuse. C) Miranda has other problems beyond alcoholism. D) Miranda will simply not take the Antabuse. Correct. She may stop the Antabuse rather than stop drinking. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

86. As these therapies may involve unpleasant techniques, the decision to implement __________ should be made only after carefully weighing the costs and benefits relative to alternative approaches. A) token therapies B) aversion therapies Correct. As an example, many people with alcoholism stop taking Antabuse instead of discontinuing their alcohol consumption. C) assertion therapies Incorrect. Assertion therapies teach one to avoid submissiveness and aggressiveness, while still being assertive. D) modeling therapies Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 87. Cognitive-behavioral therapists would argue that anxiety and mood disorders are largely the result of __________. A) conditional positive regard B) maladaptive cognitions Correct. Irrational thoughts are at the heart of cognitive behavioral therapy. C) maladaptive behaviors Incorrect. Irrational thoughts are what cause the maladaptive behaviors. D) unresolved childhood issues Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 88. __________ rational emotive behavior therapy emphasizes changing how we think, but it also focuses on changing how we behave. A) Aaron Beck’s B) Carl Rogers’s C) Albert Ellis’s D) Joseph Wolpe’s Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

89. According to Albert Ellis, many psychological problems result from __________. A) catastrophic thinking about oneself or one’s life conditions B) conditions of worth that are imposed on us by others C) an unintegrated set of gestalts D) unconscious motivational conflicts Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts % correct 45 a = 45 b = 13 c = 13 d = 29 r = .33 90. According to Albert Ellis, our vulnerability to psychological disturbance is a product of the __________ of our irrational beliefs. A) purpose and meaning Incorrect. The frequency and strength of our beliefs is behind our irrational beliefs. B) length and strength C) frequency and strength Correct. The frequency and strength of our beliefs is behind our irrational beliefs. D) frequency and weakness Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 91. A key component of Ellis’s rational emotive behavior therapy is the psychotherapist’s __________. A) active disputing and challenging of the client’s assumptions Correct. REBT therapists forcefully encourage clients to rethink their assumptions. B) concern with helping a client to reach a point of self-actualization C) helping a client search for meaning in difficult and stressful life events Incorrect. REBT therapists forcefully encourage clients to rethink their assumptions. D) use of social skills training to improve patient functioning Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts % correct 45 a = 45 b = 26 c = 26 d = 3 r = .23

92. Which of the six principles of critical thinking noted throughout your textbook is most congruent with the general purpose of Ellis’s rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT)? A) correlation vs. causation Incorrect. Nothing in Ellis’s approach is specifically related to this concept. B) Occam’s Razor C) extraordinary claims D) falsifiability Correct. Part of the goal of REBT is to have clients try to falsify their own irrational beliefs. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 93. __________ cognitive therapy played an instrumental role in creating the field of cognitive-behavioral therapy. A) Aaron Beck’s B) Carl Rogers’s C) Albert Ellis’s D) Joseph Wolpe’s Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 94. Which of the following is NOT one of the components of Ellis’s rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT)? A) empathetic response B) activating event C) beliefs D) consequences Answer: A Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

95. Aaron Beck and Albert Ellis were especially concerned with helping a patient __________. A) discontinue maladaptive negative reinforcement that led to avoidance of certain people or situations Incorrect. This does not fully fit the main purpose of the therapies. B) gain better insight into the underlying cause of one’s psychological difficulties C) identify and modify distorted thoughts about him- or herself, others, and/or the world Correct. This is the main component of both therapies. D) understand his or her past shortcomings in the context of the present Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts % correct 32 a = 32 b = 26 c = 42 d = 0 r = .33 96. __________ therapy places somewhat greater weight on behavioral procedures than __________ therapy does. A) Cognitive; psychoanalytic B) Cognitive; rational emotive behavior C) Rational emotive behavior; cognitive D) Rational emotive behavior; humanistic Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 97. Researchers have found his approach helpful for people with depression and perhaps even bipolar disorder, schizophrenia, and certain personality disorders. A) Joseph Wolpe B) Albert Ellis C) Carl Rogers D) Aaron Beck Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

98. Cedric is being asked to anticipate an upcoming tennis match against a highly ranked opponent. He is to imagine falling behind by one set, in a best of two of three sets match, and what he would say to himself in such a scenario. This example illustrates what Meichenbaum would call __________. A) systematic desensitization B) person-centered therapy C) rational emotive behavior therapy Incorrect. Cedric does not have irrational thoughts, but needs to prepare himself for a future life event. D) stress inoculation training Correct. Cedric has prepared for, and is able to cope with, future life events. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 99. __________ practitioners teach clients that negative thoughts such as “I’m worthless” are merely thoughts, not facts, while encouraging them to accept and tolerate the full range of their feelings, and act in keeping with their goals and values. A) Avoidance and commitment therapy B) Acceptance and commitment therapy C) Dissonance and commitment therapy D) Dialectical and behavioral therapy Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 100. Marsha Linehan’s __________ therapy addresses the apparent contradiction between opposing tendencies of changing problematic behavior and accepting it. A) avoidance and commitment B) acceptance and commitment C) dialectical cognitive D) dialectical behavior Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

101. Marsha Linehan’s therapy model is used frequently in the treatment of clients with __________ disorder. A) borderline personality B) antisocial personality C) bipolar D) schizoaffective Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 102. The most frequently endorsed label for the type of therapy one practices as a psychologist, psychiatrist, or social worker is __________. A) cognitive-behavioral B) eclectic C) person-centered D) psychodynamic Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 103. Behavioral __________ is an aspect of several different kinds of therapy that gets clients, such as those who are depressed, to participate in reinforcing activities. A) activation B) stimulation C) appropriation D) hierarching Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

104. The use of eclectic forms of therapy makes it difficult for a critical thinker to __________. A) establish correlation B) evaluate and eliminate rival hypotheses Correct. When many forms of therapy are blended together, it is difficult to tell which one is working the best. C) identify falsifiable theories about why a treatment works D) replicate individual therapeutic outcomes with other patients Incorrect. It would be quite difficult to replicate therapeutic outcomes with other patients, as patients tend to be quite unique in their presentation of symptoms. Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 105. This is a statistical method that helps researchers to interpret large bodies of psychological literature. A) meta-analysis B) beta-analysis C) correlation D) standard deviation Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? 106. Research on the effectiveness of the different methods of psychotherapy suggests that __________. A) behavioral and cognitive therapies are always better treatment options than any other form of psychotherapy Incorrect. Psychodynamic must be included as well. B) behavioral, psychodynamic, and person-centered approaches are more helpful for patients than receiving no treatment Correct. This is the best answer. C) person-centered therapy is always a better treatment option than any other form of psychotherapy D) psychodynamic therapy is always a better treatment option than any other form of psychotherapy Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective?

107. These therapies consistently outperform most other therapies for anxiety disorders, including phobias, panic disorder, and obsessive-compulsive disorder. A) behavioral and cognitive-behavioral therapies B) behavioral and psychodynamic therapies C) person-centered therapy and cognitive-behavioral therapies D) psychodynamic and cognitive-behavioral therapies Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? 108. Suppose a friend asks you for advice about entering psychotherapy for his or her anxiety disorder. Which of the following recommendations should you make? A) Avoid psychotherapy because 5% to 10% of patients get worse with this form of treatment. Incorrect. While this is a true statement, it is not a recommendation for treatment. B) Behavioral or cognitive-behavioral therapies are most effective for this category of disorders. Correct. These therapies have been shown to be effective for anxiety disorders. C) Humanistic therapies are most effective for this category of disorders. D) Psychodynamic therapies are most effective for this category of disorders. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? % correct 79 a = 0 b = 79 c = 9 d = 10 r = .38 % correct 68 a = 0 b = 68 c = 11 d = 16 r = .29 109. Research suggests that there is __________ between one’s race and the outcome of therapy. A) little or no relationship B) a curvilinear relationship C) a positive relationship D) a negative relationship Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? % correct 95 a = 95 b = 0 c = 1 d = 2 r = .16

110. Which of the following is a common factor across the many forms of effective treatments, according to the writing of Jerome Frank? A) critical thinking B) challenging irrational thought patterns C) instilling hope D) therapist directives for change Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? 111. Regardless of theoretical orientation, all of the forms of therapy discussed in the text provide a client or patient with ___________. A) a clear theoretical rationale for the treatment one receives B) direct exposure to troubling events from one’s past C) a push to completely change everything about oneself D) a resolve to uncover the causes from the past of one’s current troubles Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? 112. Most psychologists agree that __________ are important to the outcomes of psychotherapy. A) common factors only B) specific factors only C) both common and specific factors D) neither common nor specific factors Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective?

113. Holly has recently entered therapy for a major depressive disorder at an important “down” period in her life. Her therapist suggests that she and Holly will work together to identify and change Holly’s irrational thinking. After six weeks, Holly feels less depressed. Suppose, however, that the change resulted not from the therapy but rather from the normal “ups and downs” that people experience. This suggests that clinicians need to consider the impact of __________ on therapeutic outcomes. A) the placebo effect Incorrect. Holly’s improvement may have nothing to do with treatment and can be best explained by remitting on its own. B) retrospective rewriting of the past C) self-serving biases D) spontaneous remission Correct. Holly’s improvement may have nothing to do with treatment. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? 114. In the first formal review of psychotherapy outcomes, Hans Eysenck reported the findings of two uncontrolled studies of mildly disturbed clients who received no formal therapy. The rate of spontaneous remission in these studies was a staggering __________ percent. A) 62 B) 72 C) 82 D) 92 Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? 115. One reason that nearly any type of credible treatment may produce strong beneficial effects is that people hope it will and want it to work. This idea is referred to as __________. A) the placebo effect Correct. By instilling hope and the conviction that we can get better, we oftentimes do. B) regression to the mean C) the self-serving bias D) spontaneous remission Incorrect. Improvement has nothing to do with treatment. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective?

116. Statisticians will often describe how extreme performances, both good and bad, tend to be followed by more average levels of performance. This __________ might be one explanation for why many psychotherapy patients improve regardless of the type of therapy received. A) placebo effect Incorrect. This involves instilling hope and the conviction that we can get better. B) regression to the mean Correct. Extreme scores tend to become less extreme on retesting. C) retrospective rewriting D) self-serving bias Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? 117. Julie went to therapy for 3 years straight, and despite that others around her, including her husband, noticed no difference in Julie’s outlook on life, she was convinced she had made significant progress. This may be best explained by __________. A) the placebo effect Incorrect. This involves instilling hope and the conviction that we can get better. B) regression to the mean C) retrospective rewriting of the past D) the self-serving bias Correct. It is much too difficult for Julie to admit she did not make any progress after spending all of her time and effort in therapy. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? 118. People who have gone through therapy often recall their pretherapy adjustment as much worse than it actually was. This often leads them to __________ how much improvement resulted from their psychotherapy experience. A) accurately estimate B) overestimate C) subjectively estimate D) underestimate Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective?

119. Empirically supported treatments refer to _________. A) treatments for which only anecdotal evidence of effectiveness are available. B) treatments that are effective for all psychological disorders, and this effectiveness has been established through rigorous scientific testing C) treatments that are effective for specific disorders that are supported by high-quality scientific evidence D) a method for differentiating between effective and ineffective forms of psychotherapy treatments Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? 120. Proponents of empirically supported treatments believe that __________. A) clinicians should make treatment decisions without regard to scientific evidence B) only cognitive-behavioral techniques should be used to treat psychological problems C) too little research has been done to appropriately inform clinicians about the best treatments for specific disorders D) science should inform a clinician’s decision making about the most appropriate therapeutic practices Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? 121. Critics of empirically supported treatments are concerned that __________. A) cognitive-behavioral therapy will be used at the expense of more effective treatments because it is cheaper B) insufficient data exists for appropriately distinguishing between superior and inferior forms of psychotherapeutic treatments C) psychiatrists and psychologists will eventually be forced to only treat mental health problems via psychopharmacotherapy D) the scientific method is not the best approach to take for establishing what best treatment practices are for the various psychological disorders Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective?

122. Cognitive-behavioral therapies have been found to be especially helpful in the treatment of __________ disorders. A) dissociative disorders B) obesity C) personality disorders D) impulse control disorders Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? 123. Americans spend millions of dollars a year on self-help books, and at least __________ percent of therapists recommend them to their clients. A) 50 B) 65 C) 80 D) 95 Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? 124. A major concern with using self-help books rather than seeking out professional guidance and assistance is that __________. A) self-help authors are just writing them to make money rather than help people B) the claims made in most self-help books have never been scientifically tested C) few clinicians would ever recommend such materials to their clients D) self-help books tend to challenge conventional wisdom and are more effective than seeing a psychiatrist or clinical psychologist Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective?

125. An important criticism of self-help materials is that they frequently make far-fetched promises. This is similar to __________. A) replicability Incorrect. The claims in self-help books are usually not grounded in scientific evidence and do not lend themselves to scientific examination. B) extraordinary claims Correct. The claims in self-help books are often quick fixes to minor problems and are not grounded in scientific evidence. C) ruling out rival hypotheses D) Occam’s Razor Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? 126. Self-help materials sometimes backfire when users fail to see the kinds of changes touted by the programs. This often leads the users of self-help materials to __________. A) be less likely to seek professional help for their problems B) be more likely to seek professional help for their problems C) demand more rigorous evidence of self-help program effectiveness in the future D) warn their friends about the downside of anecdotal evidence Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? 127. Antidepressant prescriptions have __________ from 1988–1994 through 2005–2008. A) doubled B) tripled C) quadrupled D) quintupled Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery

128. Many people are surprised to learn that about __________ percent of inpatients with major depression still receive electroconvulsive therapy. A) 4 B) 5 C) 8 D) 10 Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery 129. By the 1950s, as many as __________ patients received psychosurgery. A) 40,000 B) 50,000 C) 60,000 D) 75,000 Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery 130. Which form of biological therapy would a psychiatrist be most likely to suggest for a client? A) electroconvulsive therapy Incorrect. This treatment is reserved for non-responders to medication. B) psychopharmacotherapy Correct. This is the least invasive treatment. C) psychosurgery D) vagus nerve stimulation therapy Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery % correct 7 a = 3 b = 7 c = 74 d = 16 r = .60 131. In 1954, this drug ushered in the pharmacological revolution in the treatment of serious psychological disorders. A) Paxil B) Prozac C) Thorazine D) Clozaril Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery % correct 66 a = 2 b = 21 c = 66 d = 8 r = .33 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

132. A frequently prescribed drug therapy for managing one’s depression is __________. A) Adderall B) Lithium C) Prozac D) Thorazine Answer: C Diff: 1 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery 133. Rico suffers from bipolar disorder. His psychiatrist will most likely prescribe __________. A) Lithium Correct. Lithium is a mood stabilizing medication for bipolar disorder. B) Prozac C) Ritalin D) Thorazine Incorrect. Thorazine is a major tranquilizer for schizophrenia. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery 134. Ativan, Valium, and Xanax are __________. A) antipsychotics B) antidepressants C) benzodiazepines D) stimulants Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery % correct 28 a = 16 b = 50 c = 28 d = 6 r = .23 135. Which of the following is considered a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)? A) Sertraline B) Clozapine C) Lorazepam D) Atomoxetine Answer: A Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery

136. Your patient is presenting with the classic signs and symptoms of schizophrenia. Which of the following is an atypical antipsychotic that you will prescribe? A) Lexapro B) Seroquel Correct. This is an atypical antipsychotic. C) Haldol Incorrect. This is a conventional antipsychotic. D) Atenolol Answer: B Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery 137. Kevin is taking a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor for his depression. He has most likely been prescribed with which of the following medications? A) Paxil B) Pamelor Incorrect. This is a tricyclic antidepressant. C) Parnate Correct. This is an MAO inhibitor. D) Focalin Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery 138. A frequently prescribed medication for managing one’s attention problems is __________. A) Lithium B) Prozac C) Ritalin D) Thorazine Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery

139. Trina has bipolar disorder; she is most likely to be prescribed a(n) __________. A) anticonvulsant medication Correct. Some anticonvulsants have been used effectively in the treatment of bipolar disorder. B) psychostimulant Incorrect. A psychostimulant would not be an appropriate medication for the treatment of bipolar disorder. C) antidepressant D) antianxiety medication Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery 140. Antianxiety, antidepressant, or antipsychotic medications are most frequently prescribed by A) clinical psychologists. B) clinical social workers. C) pastoral counselors. D) psychiatrists. Answer: D Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery % correct 52 a = 39 b = 6 c = 3 d = 52 r = .25 141. Only __________ states have passed laws for prescriptive authority for psychologists. A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 10 Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery 142. Which of the following U.S. states has granted psychologists the privilege of prescribing medications after receiving appropriate training? A) New Mexico Correct. New Mexico and Louisiana are the two states that have taken this step. B) Montana C) Iowa D) New York Incorrect. New Mexico and Louisiana are the two states that have taken this step. Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

143. Which of the following U.S. states has granted psychologists the privilege of prescribing medications after receiving appropriate training? A) South Dakota B) Tennessee Incorrect. New Mexico and Louisiana are the two states that have taken this step. C) Louisiana Correct. New Mexico and Louisiana are the two states that have taken this step. D) Oregon Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery 144. What is one reason that many critics argue that psychologists should not be given the right to directly prescribe medications to their psychotherapy clients? A) Psychiatrists already have that privilege and therefore to give these privileges to psychologists would be redundant. Incorrect. It is a question of medical training. B) Psychologists’ training does not provide the knowledge for appropriately understanding the drug’s potential effects. Correct. Psychologists do not have enough physiologic knowledge of the body to prescribe. C) Psychopharmacotherapy has not proven to be as effective as the various psychotherapies. D) Drug companies will provide free samples that will get into the hands of drug addicts if we allow psychologists to prescribe directly. Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery 145. The symptoms of __________ include involuntary movements of the facial muscles and mouth along with twitching of the neck, arms, and legs. A) agranulocytosis B) lithium toxicity C) aplastic anemia D) tardive dyskinesia Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery

146. Following the “black box” warnings, antidepressant prescriptions for adolescents dropped by nearly __________ percent within two years, a trend that reversed itself several years later. A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6b Outline key considerations in drug treatment . Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery 147. A major criticism of the use of medication for treating a child’s ADHD is that __________. A) parents and teachers are often allowed little input in whether a child must begin psychopharmacotherapy for his or her ADHD B) there is a potential for abuse of these medications as well as problematic side effects C) psychopharmacotherapy leads to an increased risk for suicide in patients diagnosed with ADHD D) there is no scientific evidence that psychopharmacotherapy is useful is reducing the symptoms for children with ADHD Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.6b Outline key considerations in drug treatment . Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery 148. Electroconvulsive therapy is often __________. A) the first step in a longer biomedical treatment management of mood and schizophrenic disorders B) used to control people’s behavior rather than serving as any form of useful treatment for psychological disorders C) used as a last resort for persons who suffer from severe depression, bipolar disorder, severe catatonia, or schizophrenia D) used to treat people who are phobic, suffer from anxiety disorders, or experience sleep disorders Answer: C Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.6c Identify misconceptions about biomedical treatments. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery 149. A typical course of electroconvulsive therapy is __________ treatments, given __________ times a week. A) 4 to 8; 2 B) 6 to 8; 3 C) 6 to 10; 3 D) 8 to 10; 3 Answer: C Diff: 3 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6c Identify misconceptions about biomedical treatments. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

150. One of the side effects of electroconvulsive therapy is __________. A) short-term memory loss or confusion B) long-term memory loss C) temporary blindness D) grand mal seizures Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6c Identify misconceptions about biomedical treatments. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery 151. Researchers report improvement rates as high as __________ percent following electroconvulsive therapy for severe depression. A) 50 to 60 B) 60 to 70 C) 70 to 80 D) 80 to 90 Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6c Identify misconceptions about biomedical treatments. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery 152. We must be cautious about accepting patients’ statements about the effectiveness of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) because they may be motivated to justify their experience or because they believed the treatment would work before starting. This reminds the critical thinker of the importance of __________. A) extraordinary claims Incorrect. There is scientific evidence to support ECT. B) falsifiable research questions C) Occam’s Razor D) ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. Searching out alternate explanations for research/clinical findings demonstrates the principle of ruling out rival hypotheses. This is an essential part of any scientific examination. Answer: D Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.6c Identify misconceptions about biomedical treatments. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery

153. Which treatment is an absolute last resort for those who do not respond to traditional psychological treatment? A) electroconvulsive therapy B) psychosurgery C) vagus nerve stimulation D) psychotherapy Answer: B Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6c Identify misconceptions about biomedical treatments. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery 154. An important consideration before undergoing psychosurgery is that __________. A) the costs may be greater than the actual benefits received B) it was hailed as an important medical innovation back in the 1930s and 1940s C) it is now illegal to perform this treatment in the United States D) it is the least controversial of the biological forms of treatment Answer: A Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.6c Identify misconceptions about biomedical treatments. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery Fill-in-the-Blank 1. __________ are persons who lack formal professional training but provide mental health services. Answer: Paraprofessionals Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.1b Distinguish between professionals and paraprofessionals, and describe what it takes to be an effective therapist. Topic: Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners 2. The goal of __________ therapies is increased awareness about the underlying cause or causes of one’s psychological disorder. Answer: insight Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 3. Unlike Freud, the neo-Freudians focused more on the __________ aspects of a patient’s functioning. Answer: conscious Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

4. __________ therapy is a treatment that strengthens social skills and targets interpersonal problems, conflicts, and life transitions. Answer: Interpersonal Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 5. The most nondirective form of psychotherapy is __________. Answer: person-centered therapy Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 6. Keegan has entered into rehabilitation for both an alcohol abuse problem as well as an addiction to cocaine. His therapist recognizes that Keegan may not wish to change some of his long-standing behaviors that have precipitated his problems. Therefore, she spends the first two sessions working with Keegan to identify the reasons for changing and not changing his life. This form of person-centered therapy is known as __________. Answer: motivational interviewing Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 7. Maureen is a vocalist who seems to have two conflicting parts to her personality. There is the “performer” side that thrives on the attention she receives and the “frightened” side that experiences great distress before and during a performance because she might mess up. A __________ therapist would focus on merging these two incompletes into a new complete personality. Answer: Gestalt Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding 8. __________ therapy is often a preferred approach to psychotherapy over individual therapy because it is more efficient and less costly. Answer: Group Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1TEXT LO: 16.3a List the advantages of group methods. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier

9. Probably the most famous form of self-help group therapy is __________, which was first formed in 1935. Answer: Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.3a List the advantages of group methods.; 16.3b Describe the research evidence concerning the effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier 10. The __________ perspective disagrees with the AA model of total abstinence from alcohol. Answer: controlled drinking Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 16.3a List the advantages of group methods. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier 11. The key to understanding dysfunctional family dynamics is to study the unhealthy __________ patterns that occur within this group. Answer: communication Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.3c Identify different approaches to treating the dysfunctional family system. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier 12. Systematic desensitization works on the principle of __________, which states that client's cannot experience two conflicting responses at the same time. Answer: reciprocal inhibition Diff: 3 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 13. The behavioral technique of __________ exposes the patient to the most intense anxiety-provoking stimuli for a prolonged period of time. Answer: flooding Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

14. Wallace is forced to confront his fear of germs by cleaning the private bathroom in his psychotherapist’s office. Wallace’s doctor is using __________ therapy to extinguish his fear. Answer: exposure Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 15. By watching other group members engaged in her feared situation, going up to a stranger and engaging in conversation, LuEllen was able to see how she, too, could be successful in this situation. This is one example of the observational learning technique of participant__________. Answer: modeling Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 16. Ronnie, a mentally challenged 45-year-old male, lives in a group home. He receives play money for cleaning his bedroom and other chores that he can later “spend” on group activities around the city, new clothes, or candy. Ronnie’s behavior is being directed by a(n) __________ economy. Answer: token Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 17. One could think of the cognitive-behavioral therapies as a method for falsifying __________ beliefs. Answer: irrational Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 18. A main focus of cognitive therapy is to identify, challenge, and change one’s __________. Answer: negative self-statements (or negative core beliefs is also correct) Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

19. The highest percentage of clinical psychologists and psychiatrists would label their therapeutic orientation as __________. Answer: eclectic (or integrative therapy) Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Topic: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts 20. Sometimes people recover from a serious illness such as depression without receiving or seeking out any help from a psychologist or clergy member. This is known as __________. Answer: spontaneous remission Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? 21. An ineffective therapy may appear to be helpful, even when it really is not, because the client believes that it will be effective. This is what psychologists refer to as the __________. Answer: placebo effect Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? 22. __________ is the name given to the use of medications to treat or control psychological problems. Answer: Psychopharmacotherapy (Drug therapy is also correct.) Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery 23. A brain stimulation technique that has been found to produce fewer negative side effects than electroconvulsive therapy is __________ magnetic stimulation, or TMS for short. Answer: transcranial Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6b Outline key considerations in drug treatment . Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery 24. The most radical and controversial of all of the biomedical treatments for psychological disorders is __________. Answer: psychosurgery Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6c Identify misconceptions about biomedical treatments. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

25. Psychosurgery was quite popular until the mid__________, when reports of “dehumanized zombies” eroded the support for such treatments. Answer: 1950s Diff: 2 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1 TEXT LO: 16.6c Identify misconceptions about biomedical treatments. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery Essay 1. Compare and contrast the following forms of psychotherapy: psychoanalysis, humanistic, and behavioral. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following points, along with supportive discussion, for full credit. Areas of agreement All three agree that past behavior has an impact on one’s present behavior. All are approaches that are superior to doing nothing at all or waiting for the passage of time to reduce the severity of one’s psychological symptoms. Areas of difference How the past impacts the present and the influence of those effects differ among the approaches. (For example, the past influence of others has positive effects according to Freud but negative effects according to Rogers.) Behavioral approach focuses the most on using the scientific method to establish effective procedures. The necessity of insight and determining the underlying cause of one’s present difficulties. Focus on the past (psychoanalysis) versus focus on the present (humanistic and behavioral). Focus on the conscious mind and/or behavior (all others except Freud, Jung) versus focus on the unconscious mind and/or behavior (Freud, Jung). Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies.; 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies.; 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Topic: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding; Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

2. Identify and discuss the similarities and differences between the Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) and controlled drinking approaches to treating alcoholism. Answer: Answers will vary but need to contain the following points to earn full credit. Both approaches involve others the individual can meet with who are working to help the individual. The mentor in AA is available when the individual finds him- or herself tempted to use alcohol, for example. The mentor in the controlled drinking approach focuses on helping to reinforce the patient’s progress and deal with relapse when the person begins drinking. Both encourage the individual to avoid situations and people that would tempt them to drink. The approaches have very different goals. The AA approach focuses on total abstinence and providing a support system to reinforce sobriety via social support of individuals who understand the various temptations. The controlled drinking approach argues that controlled drinking can be learned and that teaching the individual how to deal with a lapse/relapse is as important, if not more important, than focusing on controlling the drinking. The approaches differ in how acceptable the use of controlled drinking is. AA assumes that a single drink will reveal that an individual cannot control his or her drinking behavior. The controlled drinking approach believes that drinking behavior is learned like all other forms of behavior. Both approaches focus on the importance of control. In AA, this control is internalized via external entities (higher power, social support, etc.) while in the controlled drinking approach, people focus on their own internal ability to engage in moderate, controlled drinking behavior that is under their own control. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.3a List the advantages of group methods.; 16.3b Describe the research evidence concerning the effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier 3. Identify and discuss the various approaches therapists use when working with dysfunctional families. Answer: Answers will vary but need to contain the following points to earn full credit. Strategic family therapy is designed to remove the barriers to effective communication. Families often scapegoat one family member as the identified patient with the problem. For these therapists, the real source of difficulties lies in the dysfunctional ways in which family members communicate, solve problems, and related to one another. Therapists invite family members to carry out planned tasks known as directives. Directives shift how family members solve problems and interact. In structural family therapy, therapists deeply involve themselves in family activities to change how family members arrange and organize interactions. By observing what is occurring within the family, the therapist can then advocate for changes in how the family arranges and organizes its interactions. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.3c Identify different approaches to treating the dysfunctional family system. Topic: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier

4. Pretend you are a psychiatrist, and you have two patients—John presents with schizophrenia, and Bill with depression. Please outline what medications you would prescribe and discuss the possible side effects. You may want to give consideration to the treatment that produces low side effects, although you can prescribe from any of the drug classes. Answer: Answers will vary but should include specific medication names as well as all of the following for full credit. John suffers from schizophrenia, and he may be prescribed any one of the following medications from either the conventional or atypical antipsychotic class: Thorazine, Haldol, Clozaril, Risperdal, Zyprexa, Geodon, Seroquel. John may experience tardive dyskinesia, which involves symptoms of involuntary movements of the facial muscles and mouth and twitching of the neck, arms, and legs. The newer medications may not cause serious side effects but they, too, have other side effect issues. Bill suffers from depression, so he may benefit from any of the antidepressants from the monoamine oxidase inhibitor class or the tricyclic class. However, the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are the first-line choice of treatment and are more commonly known to have fewer side effects. Any selection of antidepressants from any class would be considered an acceptable answer. Bill may experience nausea, drowsiness, weakness, fatigue, and impaired sexual performance when taking an antidepressant. Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO: 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Topic: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery Critical Thinking 1. Why is the choice of a therapist who uses effective methods an important one as a person enters into psychotherapy? Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following points in the discussion to earn full credit. Many people have been dealing with the problem for several months or years prior to seeking out professional help. An effective therapist provides a patient with hope, empathy, advice, support, and opportunities for new learning experiences. An effective therapist works with the patient to find the best treatment and to provide appropriate feedback about his or her progress. An ineffective therapist dictates and seeks to control a patient’s behavior through the therapist’s preferred method of treatment. An effective therapist is open, honest, and focused on improvement with a patient, while an ineffective therapist is secret, guarded, and lacking focus on the bigger issue of improving the patient’s functioning. Diff: 2 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.3 TEXT LO 16.1b Distinguish between professionals and paraprofessionals, and describe what it takes to be an effective therapist. Topic: Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners

2. Discuss how focusing on the importance of critical thinking would be helpful as one perused the bookshelves for a helpful, self-guided treatment. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain at least three of the following for full credit. Extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence. A person needs to focus on the strength of the data for distinguishing between possible treatments, and also needs to remember that anecdotal, personal testimonies are not strong evidence. Replicability. Other independent sources should have verified the efficacy of one’s claims. Secret knowledge is not usually useful knowledge because it is not connected with other important areas of human behavior. There needs to be reference citation information given to find the sources of the claims made in the book. The author has the credentials and expertise to write on the topic. It is based on scientific/empirical evidence rather than on biased opinion. Recognizes the complexity of human behavior. There is not just a “one-size-fits-all” approach or the focus on a single, magic bullet solution to the problem. Serious problems require professional help, not self-help. More serious psychological disorders are not going to be treated by a self-guided process. Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective? 3. Discuss how the critical thinker would use what he or she knows to help distinguish between effective and ineffective therapies so that he or she is not fooled into using an ineffective therapy. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain all of the following, including relevant supportive examples, for full credit. The critical thinker will focus on two principles of critical thinking: Extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence. The critical thinker would demand evidence of the effectiveness of any treatment and would be quick, hopefully, to spot situations in which anecdotal evidence and case study observations were being used as substitutes for more rigorous research designs. Ruling out rival hypotheses. This is an important concern given that issues of spontaneous remission, the placebo effect, and regression to the mean would all represent instances in which an important change is actually due to something other than the actual effectiveness of the psychotherapy. In addition, the critical thinker should consider replicability. Effective therapies must be backed by high-quality scientific evidence derived from controlled studies. Last, the critical thinker would also be careful to avoid the role of hope and rewriting the past. The critical thinker would attempt to create a situation in which his or her own biases and hopes would not impact his or her judgment of a proposed therapy. By insisting on actual evidence, rather than on one’s thoughts and feelings that can change more than one realizes, the critical thinker could avoid some of the errors that allow people to be fooled by the apparent effectiveness of ineffective therapies. Diff: 2 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1 TEXT LO: 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective.; 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Topic: Is Psychotherapy Effective?

16: PSYCHOLOGICAL AND BIOLOGICAL TREATMENTS ______________________________________________________________________________ Psychotherapy 1. Which of the following is TRUE of clinical psychologists who engage in private practice? a. They must go through a licensing procedure in most states. b. They have an M.D. degree only. c. They can prescribe drugs for their clients. d. They are always trained in psychoanalysis. Answer a % correct 80 a= 80 b= 7 c= 5 d= 8 r = .43 2. What type of mental health professional must possess a doctorate in medicine? a. psychiatric social workers b. psychiatrists c. clinical psychologists d. psychiatric nurses Answer b % correct 78 a= 0 b= 78 c= 20 d= 2 r = .22 3. What type of mental health professional is most likely to specialize in work with students? a. psychiatrists b. clinical psychologists c. psychiatric social workers d. counseling psychologists Answer d % correct 93 a= 1 b= 1 c= 5 d= 93 r = .24 4. Most therapists today _______. a. adhere to the psychoanalytic approach b. adhere to the behavioral approach c. adhere to the humanistic approach d. do not adhere strictly to one approach Answer d % correct 90 a= 4 b= 3 c= 3 d= 90

r = .20

Biomedical Therapies 5. The medical model views abnormal behavior as resulting from: a. drug interactions. b. exposure to teratogens. c. poor nutritional habits. d. underlying organic causes. Answer d % correct 74 a= 15 b= 10 c= 1 d= 74 r = .37 6. What was a major reason for the decrease in the number of psychosurgeries performed? a. the government stopped paying for the procedure b. laws prohibited the procedure c. patient rights activists protested the surgery d. drug treatments were developed Answer d % correct 86 a= 1 b= 7 c= 7 d= 86 r = .27 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

7. How do most antipsychotic drugs seem to work? a. reduce the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine b. cause more excitatory neurons to fire c. prevent serotonin and norepinephrine from being broken down d. block the activity of dopamine Answer d % correct 50 a= 33 b= 2 c= 15 d= 50 r = .34 8. Prefrontal lobotomy is one form of __________. a. shock treatment b. EST c. drug therapy d. psychosurgery Answer d % correct 93 a= 2 b= 3 c= 1 d= 93

r = .33

9. Virtually all antipsychotic drugs work by __________. a. increasing the amount of serotonin in the brain b. blocking dopamine receptors in the brain c. increasing the amount of acetylcholine in the brain d. inhibiting the function of the hypothalamus Answer b % correct 59 a= 25 b= 59 c= 4 d= 10

r = .38

10. Lithium is a naturally occurring __________. a. drug b. enzyme c. salt d. plant Answer c % correct 61 a=28 b= 9 c= 61 d= 1

r = .37

11. Which of the following has been fairly effective in treating bipolar disorders? a. cingulotomy b. valium c. lithium carbonate d. ECT Answer c % correct 69 a= 3 b= 10 c= 69 d= 18 r = .37 12. Which of the following is NOT used in biomedical therapy? a. electric shock b. language c. drugs d. surgery Answer b % correct 95 a= 1 b= 95 c= 1 d= 3 r = .34 13. An ancient treatment for emotional disturbance was: a. psychoanalysis. b. trephining. c. lobotomy. d. ECT. Answer b % correct 86 a= 2 b= 86 c= 9 d= 2 r = .45

14. An archaic practice of chipping holes in a patient's skull to allow demons to escape is called: a. prefrontal lobotomy. b. cingulotomy. c. trephining. d. exorcism. Answer c % correct 89 a= 4 b= 2 c= 89 d= 5 r = .21 15. In the Middle Ages, it was believed that people with emotional problems: a. were possessed by demons. b. had low intelligence. c. were contaminated by exotic germs. d. were "chosen" by God. Answer a % correct 96 a= 96 b= 2 c= 1 d= 2 r = .37 16. Which of the following is NOT a primary technique associated with modern biomedical therapy? a. drugs b. surgery c. trephining d. ECT Answer c % correct 82 a= 3 b= 8 c= 82 d= 8 r = .40 17. Physicians who are trained to treat psychological disorders are called: a. clinicians. b. counselors. c. psychiatrists. d. psychiatric psychologists. Answer c % correct 82 a= 9 b= 2 c= 82 d= 7 r = .30 18. Which of the following is NOT a biomedical therapy? a. ECT b. psychosurgery c. tertiary prevention d. chemotherapy Answer c % correct 90 a= 4 b= 3 c= 90 d= 4 r = .30 19. The medically based therapy/therapies most commonly used today is/are: a. electro-convulsive therapy. b. psychoactive drugs. c. psychosurgery. d. trephination. Answer b % correct 91 a= 5 b= 91 c= 4 d= 0 r = .34 20. The _______ approach to treatment is NOT an example of biological therapy for mental disorders. a. electroshock b. implosion c. psychosurgery d. chemotherapy Answer b % correct 59 a= 6 b= 59 c= 4 d= 31 r = .26

21. Electroshock treatment often is accompanied by: a. a total mental breakdown during the first week following application. b. tardive dyskinesia. c. temporary visual hallucinations. d. a memory loss of unpredictable length. Answer d % correct 88 a= 5 b= 4 c= 3 d= 88 r = .29 22. Electroshock treatment is mainly effective in treating _______. a. depression b. schizophrenia c. anxiety disorders d. all of the above Answer a % correct 76 a= 76 b= 4 c= 5 d= 15 r = .30 23. The procedure known as _______ is one type of psychosurgery. a. gastroplasty b. transaxial tomography c. audiography d. prefrontal lobotomy Answer d % correct 94 a= 2 b= 5 c= 0 d= 94 r = .24 24. Dr. Lee believes that all psychological disorders can be treated in much the same way as can physical disorders. He was most likely trained under the _______ model. a. psychoanalytic b. rational emotive c. Freudian d. medical Answer d % correct 76 a= 7 b= 10 c= 7 d= 76 r = .42 25. Biotherapy techniques include _______. a. psychoanalysis b. ECT c. psychosurgery d. b and c Answer d % correct 95 a= 0 b= 2 c= 3 d= 95

r = .20

26. A procedure which severs the connections from parts of the brain that control emotions is: a. limbic curettage. b. trephining. c. ECT. d. prefrontal lobotomy. Answer d % correct 71 a= 15 b= 6 c= 8 d= 71 r = .22 27. A technique known as prefrontal lobotomy: a. earned a Nobel prize for Ugo Cerletti. b. caused many patients to cease displaying emotional reactions. c. is widely used today for a wide range of disorders. d. was often used in conjunction with electroconvulsive therapy. Answer b % correct 58 a= 32 b= 58 c= 1 d= 8 r = .28

28. Valium, Librium and Miltown are popular _______ drugs. a. antianxiety b. antidepressant c. antiphobic d. antipsychotic Answer a % correct 70 a= 70 b= 17 c= 1 d= 12 r = .40 29. The initial treatment of choice for schizophrenia is probably _______. a. psychotherapy b. chemotherapy c. prefrontal lobotomy d. electroconvulsive therapy Answer b % correct 28 a= 62 b= 28 c= 3 d= 7 r = .48 30. Schizophrenia has been most effectively controlled with _______. a. chemotherapy b. family therapy c. T-groups d. electroconvulsive therapy Answer a % correct 66 a= 66 b= 3 c= 14 d= 18 r = .48 31. Electroconvulsive therapy is used to alleviate _______. a. anxiety b. schizophrenia c. somatoform disorders d. severe depression Answer d % correct 66 a= 9 b= 13 c= 11 d= 66 r = .54 32. Electroconvulsive therapy _______. a. is used more frequently today than in years past. b. is only effective if administered daily over a six-month period c. is capable of damaging the brain d. produces only negative results Answer c % correct 87 a= 10 b= 3 c= 87 d= 0 r = .35 33. The effects of psychosurgery _______. a. are all negative b. are difficult to predict c. do not include undesirable side effects d. are useless in controlling pain Answer b % correct 99 a= 0 b= 969 c= 1 d= 0

r = .10

34. Prefrontal lobotomy is a technique used in _______. a. shock treatments b. psychosurgery c. drug therapy d. EST Answer b % correct 98 a= 1 b= 98 c= 0 d= 1 r = .23

35. Which treatment is LEAST likely to be used today? a. drug therapy b. prefrontal lobotomy c. ECT d. behavior therapy Answer b % correct 92 a= 2 b= 92 c= 6 d= 0

r = .20

36. Which treatment is MOST likely to be used today? a. drug therapy b. prefrontal lobotomy c. ECT d. in vitro therapy Answer a % correct 91 a= 91 b= 1 c= 4 d= 5

r = .28

37. Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of _______. a. barbiturate use b. psychosurgery c. ECT d. antipsychotic drugs Answer d % correct 86 a= 3 b= 7 c= 4 d= 86

r = .45

Insight Therapies 38. What technique is used when patients are asked to relate thoughts, feelings, or images without modifying them? a. hypnosis b. primary analysis c. dream analysis d. free association Answer d % correct 79 a= 1 b= 12 c= 9 d= 79 r = .44 39. What is the primary goal of client-centered therapy? a. to eliminate the client's undesirable behaviors b. to help clients develop insight into their behaviors c. to provide a caring and accepting environment d. to develop realistic modes of thinking Answer c % correct 29 a= 18 b= 46 c= 29 d= 7

r = .22

40. A therapist is interested in interpreting dreams and in having clients relate their thoughts without modifying them. This therapist is most likely to be a: a. client-centered therapist. b. psychoanalyst. c. cognitive therapist. d. behavior therapist. Answer b % correct 86 a= 4 b= 86 c= 9 d= 1 r = .35

41. What is the process by which a patient projects feelings about other individuals onto the psychoanalyst? a. resistance b. reactance c. countertransference d. transference Answer d % correct 85 a= 2 b= 7 c= 7 d= 85 r = .36 42. Client-centered therapy was founded by __________. a. Rogers b. Wolpe c. Adler d. Jung Answer a % correct 62 a= 62 b= 19 c= 17 d= 2

r = .46

43. The major goal of insight therapies is to give people __________. a. basic training in observational learning and practice b. feedback from their biologically controlled responses c. help in understanding perceptual processes d. clearer understanding of their feelings, motivations, and actions Answer d % correct 92 a= 1 b= 3 c= 4 d= 92 r = .32 44. Psychoanalysis was a therapy technique designed by __________. a. Fritz Perls b. Sigmund Freud c. Carl Rogers d. Alfred Adler Answer b % correct 91 a= 2 b= 91 c= 2 d= 3 r = .32 45. Gestalt therapy is an outgrowth of the work of __________. a. Wolpe b. Rogers c. Perls d. Lazarus Answer c % correct 46 a= 24 b= 25 c= 46 d= 4 r = .37 46. The term “free association” is associated with which of the following therapeutic endeavors? a. applied behavior analysis b. analytical analysis c. specific therapies d. psychoanalysis Answer d % correct 80 a= 9 b= 4 c= 5 d= 80 r = .40 47. The term “unconditional positive regard” is associated with _______. a. Fritz Perls b. Sigmund Freud c. Carl Rogers d. B. F. Skinner Answer c % correct 83 a= 12 b= 3 c= 83 d= 2 r = .54

48. Genuineness, empathy, unconditional positive regard, and self-growth are all associated with ________ therapy. a. gestalt b. humanistic c. cognitive d. behavioral Answer b % correct 89 a= 7 b= 89 c= 1 d= 3 r = .39 49. Which of the following is a leading figure in Gestalt therapy? a. Fritz Perls b. Max Wertheimer c. Rollo May d. Albert Ellis Answer a % correct 80 a= 80 b= 11 c= 2 d= 7 r = .48 50. Freud believed that many psychological problems were the result of: a. feelings and emotions repressed during childhood. b. genetic factors. c. organic disturbances. d. the identity crises. Answer a % correct 95 a= 95 b= 5 c= 0 d= 0 r = .20 51. Person-centered therapy has its roots in: a. humanistic psychology. b. the medical model. c. psychoanalysis. d. the cognitive model. Answer a % correct 74 a= 74 b= 2 c= 19 d= 4

r = .27

52. Insight therapies include all but which one of the following? a. psychoanalysis b. humanistic therapy c. behavior modification d. Gestalt therapies Answer c % correct 54 a= 10 b= 8 c= 54 d= 28 r = .29 53. Psychoanalytic theory was developed by: a. Freud. b. Perls. c. Erikson. d. Rogers. Answer a % correct 96 a= 96 b= 2 c= 1 d= 0

r = .24

54. Of the following, which type of therapist would be more interested in a client’s past rather than the current situation? a. psychoanalytic b. rational-emotive c. behavioral d. Gestalt Answer a % correct 77 a= 77 b= 3 c= 15 d= 5 r = .33

55. Which of the following approaches is based on the premise that people naturally strive to reach their potential and lead a fulfilling life? a. psychoanalytic b. behavioral c. humanistic d. biomedical Answer c % correct 86 a= 3 b= 11 c= 86 d= 0 r = .23 56. In Gestalt therapy, the focus is on: a. changing overt behavior. b. becoming more aware of the self. c. resolving repressed conflicts. d. fulfilling personal potential. Answer b % correct 53 a= 25 b= 53 c= 16 d= 6

r = .28

57. Rational Emotive Therapy classifies as a/an _______ approach. a. humanistic b. behavioral c. cognitive d. psychoanalytic Answer c % correct 35 a= 17 b= 35 c= 35 d= 13 r = .33 58. The overall goal of psychoanalysis is to: a. make the unconscious conscious. b. promote fulfillment of the person’s potential. c. remove symptoms as quickly as possible. d. correct faulty thinking and perception. Answer a % correct 71 a= 71 b= 4 c= 1 d= 24

r = .38

59. In the psychoanalytic technique of _______, the patient is encouraged to say whatever thoughts come to mind, regardless of their order or appropriateness. a. abreaction b. cathexis c. free-association d. transference Answer c % correct 95 a= 1 b= 1 c= 95 d= 3 r = .28 60. When using _______, the psychoanalyst points out connections and associations the client may not have known to exist in her personality. a. abreaction b. empathy c. unconditional positive regard d. interpretation Answer d % correct 85 a= 3 b= 6 c= 6 d= 85 r = .27 61. A student finds himself hating a professor because the latter reminds him of his abusive father. In psychoanalytic terms, the student is exhibiting _______. a. abreaction b. transference c. resistance d. cathexis Answer b % correct 96 a= 0 b= 96 c= 1 d= 3 r = .22 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

62. Psychoanalysis is considered LEAST useful in treating _______. a. anxiety disorders b. phobia c. depression d. schizophrenia Answer d % correct 76 a= 3 b= 13 c= 8 d= 76 r = .23 63. An essential element of client-centered therapy is _______. a. a nonthreatening atmosphere b. free-association c. detailed exploration of the client's childhood d. properly timed and worded interpretations Answer a % correct 61 a= 61 b= 34 c= 1 d= 4 r = .26 64. For client-centered therapy to be effective, the client must perceive the therapist as showing _______. a. unconditional positive regard b. empathy c. genuineness d. all of the above Answer a % correct 94 a= 2 b= 2 c= 2 d= 94 r = .29 65. The time frame of which Gestalt therapy focuses is _______. a. the present b. the past c. the future d. all of the above Answer a % correct 58 a= 58 b= 12 c= 5 d= 25 r = .39 66. Sigmund Freud believed that many psychological problems resulted from: a. feelings and emotions repressed during childhood. b. organic disturbances, such as brain tumors. c. poor social interactions. d. failure to “find oneself” during adolescence. Answer a % correct 96 a= 96 b= 0 c= 1 d= 3 r = .23 67. The belief that anxiety results from feelings and emotions repressed during childhood was proposed by _______. a. Perls b. Moniz c. Pinel d. Freud Answer d % correct 88 a= 5 b= 5 c= 3 d= 88 r = .32 68. Which method was NOT used by Freud to identify repressed feelings? a. role playing b. dream interpretation c. asking a client to talk about whatever comes to mind d. free association Answer a % correct 79 a= 79 b= 8 c= 8 d= 5 r = .31

69. Maureen is in therapy because she is very frightened of her father and feels tongue-tied around him. After a few months she begins to feel frightened of her therapist also. According to Freud, this is an example of _______. a. latency b. interpretation c. transference d. sublimination Answer c % correct 90 a= 6 b= 1 c= 90 d= 3 r = .52 70. A humanistic psychologist would most likely agree that: a. anxiety occurs when we try so hard to live up to others' expectations that we lose touch with our own desires and feelings. b. anxiety results from feelings and emotions repressed during childhood. c. anxiety results from unconscious desires. d. anxiety results from irrational thoughts. Answer a % correct 78 a= 78 b= 10 c= 6 d= 6 r = .38 71. Albert Ellis is best known as a _______ therapist. a. Gestalt b. rational-emotive c. family d. group Answer b % correct 55 a= 24 b= 55 c= 3 d= 18

r = .33

72. The originator of rational-emotive therapy is _______. a. Bandura b. Perls c. Rogers d. Ellis Answer d % correct 51 a= 10 b= 24 c= 15 d= 51

r = .39

Cognitive/Behavioral Therapies 73. On the door of the refrigerator is a sheet of paper with check marks on it. Every time Alice cleans her room properly and makes the bed she receives a check mark. When she accumulates 100 check marks, she can get the new video game she wants. What type of behavioral program are Alice's parents using? a. modeling b. systematic desensitization c. token economy d. negative reinforcement Answer c % correct 95 a= 2 b= 1 c= 95 d= 2 r = .33 74. Which method of treating phobias involves progressive relaxation and exposure to the feared object (either actual or imagined)? a. extinction b. systematic desensitization c. punishment d. token economy Answer b % correct 98 a= 2 b= 98 c= 0 d= 0 r = .26

75. During a case conference, a therapist says his recommendation is to use a technique based on classical conditioning that associates the client's drinking with an unpleasant stimuli. You recognize that the recommended treatment is: a. modeling. b. extinction. c. aversion therapy. d. systematic desensitization. Answer c % correct 87 a= 2 b= 5 c= 87 d= 5 r = .37 76. What do behavior therapists see as the cause of maladaptive behaviors? a. learning b. distortions in thinking c. unconscious conflicts d. discrepancy between the real self and ideal self Answer a % correct 55 a= 55 b= 22 c= 7 d= 16 r = .45 77. Psychotherapies that emphasize changing clients' perceptions of their life situation as a way of modifying their behavior are called __________. a. behavior therapy b. client-centered therapy c. cognitive therapy d. Gestalt therapy Answer c % correct 35 a= 40 b= 8 c= 35 d= 16 r = .29 78. Arranging anxiety-provoking situations in a hierarchy would be characteristic of __________. a. behavioral contracting b. operant conditioning c. aversive conditioning d. systematic desensitization Answer d % correct 74 a= 7 b= 12 c= 6 d= 74 r = .39 79. Beck’s cognitive therapy is particularly effective in the treatment of __________. a. somatoform disorders b. anxiety disorders c. depression d. schizophrenia Answer c % correct 41 a= 16 b= 38 c= 41 d= 4 r = .34 80. Making someone who is afraid of snakes handle dozens of snakes in an effort to get him to overcome his fear is called __________. a. systematic desensitization b. aversive conditioning c. flooding d. paradoxical intent Answer c % correct 86 a= 9 b= 4 c= 86 d= 0 r = .37 81. In which of the following therapies might a therapist use real physical pain to change behavior? a. operant conditioning b. aversive conditioning c. psychoanalysis d. desensitization Answer b % correct 76 a=9 b= 76 c= 4 d= 10 r = .37 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

82. Paula’s mother painted Paula’s nails with an unpleasant-tasting salve to stop her nail biting. This illustrates ________. a. aversive conditioning b. systematic desensitization c. biofeedback d. modeling Answer a % correct 95 a= 95 b= 5 c= 0 d= 1 r = .25 83. Operant conditioning can be used in classrooms, hospitals, prisons, and industry by giving individuals exchangeable rewards for performing appropriate actions. This illustrates which of the following? a. classical conditioning b. bartering c. a token economy d. bribery Answer c % correct 85 a= 12 b= 2 c= 85 d= 0 r = .41 84. Systematic desensitization is especially useful as a treatment for ________. a. panic disorders b. schizophrenia c. depression d. phobias Answer d % correct 85 a= 8 b= 5 c= 2 d= 85 r = .32 85. Which of the following therapists has used modeling to treat phobias? a. Ellis b. Bandura c. Perls d. Rogers Answer b % correct 39 a= 39 b= 39 c= 11 d= 11 r = .27 86. Aversive conditioning belongs in the category of: a. Gestalt therapy. b. psychoanalysis. c. classical conditioning therapies. d. operant conditioning therapies. Answer c % correct 45 a= 10 b= 15 c= 45 d= 29 87. The focus of behavior therapies is on: a. conflict resolution. b. external observable behavior. c. restructuring the whole personality. d. finding the causes of undesirable behavior. Answer b % correct 36 a= 4 b= 36 c= 6 d= 55

r = .35

r = .50

88. In _______, an unpleasant event is paired with a particular response in order to make that response less likely to occur. a. aversive conditioning b. token economies c. reward training d. biofeedback Answer a % correct 91 a= 91 b= 4 c= 2 d= 4 r = .25

89. Systematic and contact desensitization evolved from: a. classical conditioning principles. b. modeling therapies. c. biofeedback techniques. d. operant conditioning principles. Answer a % correct 24 a= 24 b= 26 c= 24 d= 26

r = .25

90. Systematic desensitization is especially useful as a treatment for: a. panic disorders. b. schizophrenia. c. depression. d. phobias. Answer d % correct 83 a= 11 b= 2 c= 4 d= 83 r = .43 91. What approach to therapy utilizes the principles of classical and operant conditioning? a. behavior modification b. cognitive c. humanistic d. psychoanalytic Answer a % correct 73 a= 73 b= 19 c= 3 d= 5 r = .45 92. Which therapeutic approach is most concerned about changing the problem behavior? a. behavior modification b. cognitive c. humanistic d. psychoanalytic Answer a % correct 67 a= 67 b= 9 c= 9 d= 14 r = .23 93. The first step in behavior therapy is to: a. listen carefully to the client’s description of his problem. b. develop a detailed treatment plan. c. explain the logic of the behavioral approach to the client. d. search for effective reinforcers to be used in modifying the client's bad habit. Answer a % correct 80 a= 80 b= 12 c= 1 d= 7 r = .33 94. The “token economy” is most closely associated with the _______ approach to treatment. a. operant-conditioning b. cognitive c. humanistic-existential d. rational-emotive Answer a % correct 56 a= 56 b= 6 c= 16 d= 20 r = .35 95. Within a token-economy system, the solution to the problem of having to continually reinforce the patient for each correct response is to: a. introduce a partial reinforcement schedule. b. implement an extinction procedure. c. shift from a program of operant conditioning to a program of classical conditioning. d. use punishment, instead of positive reinforcement, to control the behavior on a long-term basis. Answer a % correct 46 a= 46 b= 27 c= 9 d= 17 r = .21

96. Which therapy does NOT assume that many psychological problems are the result of internal thoughts and feelings? a. humanistic b. Gestalt c. psychoanalytic d. behavioral Answer d % correct 45 a= 15 b= 33 c= 8 d= 45 r = .44 97. _______ therapy assumes that problem behaviors are learned and, as such, can be unlearned. a. behavior b. group c. Gestalt d. person-centered Answer a % correct 70 a= 70 b= 6 c= 20 d= 4 r = .23 98. In _______ therapy the person must learn an association between the target behavior and an unpleasant event. Thus, the person receives unpleasant consequences for the undesired behavior. a. Gestalt b. group c. aversive conditioning d. rational-emotive Answer c % correct 75 a= 9 b= 0 c= 75 d= 16 r = .40 99. Aversive conditioning: a. is a type of behavior therapy. b. is no longer used by therapists. c. is designed so that the person receives unpleasant consequences for undesired behavior. d. both a and c Answer d % correct 88 a= 4 b= 2 c= 4 d= 88 r = .20 100. A technique which assumes it is impossible to be relaxed and anxious at the same time is _______. a. systematic desensitization b. overgeneralization c. conditioning d. free association Answer a % correct 82 a= 82 b= 4 c= 3 d= 11 r = .35 101. _______ has used modeling techniques to reduce a wide range of phobic behaviors. a. Ellis b. Perls c. Bandura d. Rogers Answer c % correct 55 a= 19 b= 13 c= 55 d= 13 r = .37 102. Albert Bandura has used _______ techniques to reduce a wide range of phobic behaviors. a. token economy b. rationalization c. modeling d. group therapy Answer c % correct 56 a= 11 b= 23 c= 56 d= 10 r = .39

103. Which technique uses reinforcement to change behavior? a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. aversive conditioning d. desensitization Answer a % correct 62 a= 62 b= 30 c= 5 d= 8 r = .34 104. After Jeff is expelled from school for missing too many classes, he seeks help from a therapist. The therapist develops a contract that specifies that if Jeff attends all his classes, he will be allowed certain privileges at home; but if he cuts classes he will be subject to certain penalties. Jeff’s therapist is probably a _______ therapist. a. behavior b. psychoanalytic c. client-centered d. rational-emotive Answer a % correct 74 a= 74 b= 2 c= 4 d= 20 r = .30 105. Jerry is 22 years old and still gets too many cavities from eating too many sweets. Jerry’s dentist trains him to think of the pain of having his teeth drilled each time he reaches for a piece of candy. The dentist is using _______ to cure Jerry’s excess eating of sweets. a. negative transference b. desensitization c. behavioral contracting d. aversive conditioning Answer d % correct 77 a= 18 b= 3 c= 2 d= 77 r = .30 106. Every time Jeanie opens her cigarette case or uses her lighter, she gets a painful electric shock. Jeanie’s friends and family have been asked not to give her any cigarettes or light any for her, so she must use her own lighter if she wants to smoke. Eventually, Jeanie loses her desire to smoke, thanks to _______. a. negative transference b. desensitization c. behavioral contracting d. aversive conditioning Answer d % correct 82 a= 11 b= 4 c= 3 d= 82 r = .36 107. The method that gradually reduces a client’s fears is called _______. a. operant conditioning b. free association c. desensitization d. reciprocal inhibition Answer c % correct 84 a= 11 b= 2 c= 84 d= 3 r = .42 108. Julian seeks professional help for his fear of spiders. In stages, his therapist shows him pictures, movies, and models of spiders, then a real dead spider, a small live spider in a jar, several live spiders in a jar, and finally a live spider loose in the room. At each stage, he made sure that Julian was fully relaxed. This technique is known as _______. a. free association b. desensitization c. aversive conditioning d. transactional therapy Answer b % correct 76 a= 2 b= 76 c= 9 d= 13 r = .24

109. Martha and Stan are newlyweds. They see a therapist because Martha is afraid of sexual intercourse. The therapist asks Martha exactly which acts make her anxious, constructs a hierarchy of those threatening acts, teaches her to relax, and asks her to imagine each threatening scene in the hierarchy and use the relaxation technique to reduce her anxiety as she imagines each scene from the bottom to the top of her hierarchy. The therapist is using _______. a. desensitization b. behavioral contracting c. free association d. positive regard Answer a % correct 70 a= 70 b= 14 c= 3 d= 13 r = .40 110. Cognitive models of therapy tend to focus on: a. corrective emotional experiences. b. changing thinking processes. c. removing symptoms. d. fulfilling one's potential. Answer b % correct 90 a= 2 b= 90 c= 6 d= 2

r = .22

111. Cognitive behavior therapy is particularly effective in the treatment of _______. a. anxiety disorders b. schizophrenia c. somatoform disorders d. depression Answer d % correct 89 a= 3 b= 1 c= 7 d= 89 r = .26

Group Therapies 112. Sally’s therapist wants her to bring her parents and siblings to counseling sessions with her. Sally is going through a. social skills training. b. family therapy. c. assertiveness training. d. client-centered therapy. Answer b % correct 93 a= 0 b= 93 c= 0 d= 7 r = .26 113. A type of psychotherapy in which people meet regularly to interact and help one another achieve insight into their feelings and behavior is __________ therapy. a. virtual b. group c. Gestalt d. response Answer b % correct 98 a= 0 b= 98 c= 1 d= 1 r = 30. 114. When problems exist between parents and children, their problems are usually BEST handled by __________. a. psychoanalysis b. family therapy c. operant conditioning d. individual therapy Answer b % correct 96 a= 0 b= 96 c= 2 d= 2 r = .34 Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

115. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of group therapy? a. It is relatively economical. b. Clients learn that others have problems similar to their own. c. Clients practice and receive feedback on their interpersonal skills. d. The therapist does not need as much training as an individual therapist. Answer d % correct 91 a= 2 b= 0 c= 6 d= 91 r = .35 116. Which of the following is a component of community psychology? a. emphasis on prevention b. free association c. the search for authenticity d. systematic desensitization Answer a % correct 62 a= 62 b= 19 c= 5 d= 14 r = .51 117. The therapeutic approach that most stresses prevention is the _______ approach. a. behavioral b. cognitive c. community psychology d. humanistic Answer c % correct 35 a= 23 b= 19 c= 35 d= 23 r = .50 118. An important advantage of group therapy is that: a. group members serve as therapists. b. clients learn that others have problems similar to their own. c. much more serious problems can be discussed than in individual therapy. d. only one participant has to speak each session. Answer b % correct 90 a= 8 b= 90 c= 0 d= 2 r = .27 119. An important aim of community psychology is: a. maintenance of the family and local environment. b. prevention of psychological problems. c. establishment of planned communities. d. inoculation of all people with available vaccines. Answer b % correct 93 a= 7 b= 93 c= 0 d= 0

r = .20

120. When problems exist between parents and children, their problems might best be handled by _______. a. Gestalt therapy b. psychoanalysis c. desensitization d. family therapy Answer d % correct 94 a= 2 b= 1 c= 3 d= 94 r = .29

Quiz 16.1: Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q16.1.1 Psychotherapy is defined by the authors in your textbook chapter as __________. a) a psychological intervention designed to help people resolve emotional, behavioral, and interpersonal problems and improve the quality of their lives b) an undefined technique applied to unspecified problems with unpredictable outcomes c) medical intervention and treatment of carefully defined mental disorders through the application of pharmaceuticals d) paying someone a lot of money to listen to you talk out loud about your problems ANS: a Topic=Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 16.1a Describe who seeks treatment, who benefits from psychotherapy, and who practices psychotherapy. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Psychotherapy is not one single thing so much as it is a collection of approaches with a common goal. LO 16.1a Describe who seeks treatment, who benefits from psychotherapy, and who practices psychotherapy.

EOM Q16.1.2 Although both groups benefit equally from psychotherapy, __________ are more likely than __________ to seek treatment. a) women; men b) Asian Americans; Caucasian Americans c) African Americans; Caucasian Americans d) men; women ANS: a Topic=Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.1a Describe who seeks treatment, who benefits from psychotherapy, and who practices psychotherapy. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Seeking help is often a first step toward feeling better. LO 16.1a Describe who seeks treatment, who benefits from psychotherapy, and who practices psychotherapy.

EOM Q16.1.3 Which of the following types of clients would be predicted to do better in psychotherapy? a) those who experience some anxiety b) those with psychopathic or narcissistic personalities c) those from culturally diverse backgrounds d) those with specific, diagnosable psychoses such as schizophrenia ANS: a Topic=Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 16.1a Describe who seeks treatment, who benefits from psychotherapy, and who practices psychotherapy. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: A little distress can be motivating. LO 16.1a Describe who seeks treatment, who benefits from psychotherapy, and who practices psychotherapy.

EOM Q16.1.4 Which of the following would match the qualifications and likely work settings for a clinical social worker? a) training varies widely; B.S.W., M.S.W., D.S.W., or L.C.S.W. degree; private practice following supervised experience; help with social and health problems b) Ph.D./Psy.D., M.A., or M.S. degree; work in private practice or hospitals, schools, community agencies, medical or academic settings c) Ph.D., Psy.D., Ed.D., Ed.S., M.A., M.S., or M.Ed. degree; focus on in-school interventions, assessment, and prevention programs; work with teachers, students, and parents d) training varies widely; A.A., B.S.N., M.S.N., D.N.P., or Ph.D. degree; work in hospitals, community health centers, primary care facilities, or outpatient mental health clinics; manage medications; with advanced degrees can diagnose and treat patients ANS: a Topic=Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.1b Describe what it takes to be an effective therapist. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Start by considering the kinds of advanced degrees different mental health specialists might obtain. LO 16.1b Describe what it takes to be an effective therapist.

EOM Q16.1.5 Which of the following is a sign of a good therapist, rather than a warning sign of a therapist to be avoided? a) The therapist uses scientifically based approaches and discusses the pros and cons of other approaches. b) The therapist has a "one size fits all" approach to clients’ problems. c) The therapist offers generalized advice and sketches out what might be a possible treatment plan. d) The therapist talks a lot about her or his personal life or asks clients for personal favors. ANS: a Topic=Psychotherapy: Clients and Practitioners Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.1b Describe what it takes to be an effective therapist. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Broad perspectives and openness to approaches are a good idea in this arena. LO 16.1b Describe what it takes to be an effective therapist.

Quiz 16.2: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q16.2.1 Which type of treatment aims to strengthen social skills and targets interpersonal problems, conflicts, and life transitions? a) interpersonal therapy b) psychodynamic therapy c) humanistic therapy d) Gestalt therapy ANS: a Topic=Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Think about the main goals of each type of therapy listed here. LO 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies.

EOM Q16.2.2 Extensive research shows that knowing the origins of our problems is not sufficient to relieve psychological distress. To improve, people need to practice new and more adaptive behaviors in everyday life, a process known as __________. a) working through b) insight intervention c) steps in the right direction d) moving forward ANS: a Topic=Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: What elements need to be in place in order for positive change to occur? LO 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies.

EOM Q16.2.3 A therapeutic technique in which clients express themselves without any censorship from themselves or the counselor is called __________. a) free association b) reflection c) two-chair d) behavioral assessment ANS: a Topic=Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Therapists instruct clients to say whatever thoughts come to mind, no matter how meaningless or nonsensical they might seem. LO 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. EOM Q16.2.4 Which of Carl Rogers’s requirements for person-centered therapy did he believe allowed clients to reclaim aspects of their “true selves”? a) unconditional positive regard b) nondirection c) authenticity d) empathy ANS: a Topic=Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This is a nonjudgmental acceptance of all feelings the client expresses. LO 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies.

EOM Q16.2.5 Which of the following describes a therapy that aims to integrate different or even contradictory aspects of the client’s personality into a unified sense of self? a) Gestalt therapy b) psychoanalysis c) person-centered therapy d) therapeutic relationship therapy ANS: a Topic=Insight Therapies: Acquiring Understanding Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The term in question implies a certain kind of “wholeness” or completeness. LO 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies.

Quiz16.3: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Group Therapies: The More the Merrier

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q16.3.1 Which program is the largest (and oldest) 12-step program, which views addiction as a physical disease, and recommends members place their trust in a higher power and acknowledge their own powerlessness? a) Alcoholics Anonymous b) Narcotics Anonymous c) Twelve-Step therapy d) Project MATCH ANS: a Topic=Group Therapies: The More the Merrier Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.3a List the advantages of group methods. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Think about “largest” and “oldest,” then consider the programs listed here. LO 16.3a List the advantages of group methods.

EOM Q16.3.2 Compared to individual therapies, group therapies are generally __________, __________, and __________. a) more efficient; time-saving; less costly b) more intense; paid by the hour; based on an insight approach c) less efficient; take longer; more costly d) run by humanists; based on a family-systems approach; produce longer-lasting change ANS: a Topic=Group Therapies: The More the Merrier Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.3a List the advantages of group methods. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: There are many reasons why group therapy might be an attractive option. LO 16.3a List the advantages of group methods. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

EOM Q16.3.3 Which type of treatment for alcoholism assumes that most participants will experience a slip or backslide in the control of their drinking, and teaches them not to feel ashamed, guilty, or discouraged at those times? a) relapse prevention treatment b) controlled drinking treatment c) Alcoholics Anonymous d) Abstinence Anonymous treatment ANS: a Topic=Group Therapies: The More the Merrier Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 16.3b Describe the research evidence concerning the effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Therapists in this approach teach people to rebound after a lapse and avoid situations in which they are tempted to drink. LO 16.3b Describe the research evidence concerning the effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous.

EOM Q16.3.4 Because family therapists see most psychological problems as rooted in __________, their focus is on interactions among family members. a) a dysfunctional family system b) a shared genetic heritage c) certain genetic disadvantages d) reactions of family members to the member who is the source of discord ANS: a Topic=Group Therapies: The More the Merrier Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 16.3c Identify different approaches to treating the dysfunctional family system. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Think about the "unit" of analysis in these situations. LO 16.3c Identify different approaches to treating the dysfunctional family system.

EOM Q16.3.5 Structural family therapy involves __________. a) therapists who actively immerse themselves in the activities of the families they are treating b) removing dysfunctional barriers to communication within a family c) assigning paradoxical requests to elicit desired behavior d) focusing closely on one family member who has been identified as “the problem” ANS: a Topic=Group Therapies: The More the Merrier Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.3c Identify different approaches to treating the dysfunctional family system. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: This particular variety of family therapy takes a distinctive approach to treatment. LO 16.3c Identify different approaches to treating the dysfunctional family system.

Quiz 16.4: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q16.4.1 A system in which therapists or institutional staff members provided tokens to clients to reward desired behavior is an example of __________. a) operant conditioning b) aversion therapy c) acquisition therapy d) rational-emotive behavior therapy ANS: a Topic=Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The tokens can then be exchanged for something of value to the client. LO 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches.

EOM Q16.4.2 Systematic desensitization is based on the principle of __________, which says that people cannot experience two conflicting responses at the same time. a) reciprocal inhibition b) counterconditioning c) anxiety hierarchy d) sensitivity exposure ANS: a Topic=Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: If a client is relaxed, he or she cannot be anxious at the same time. LO 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches.

EOM Q16.4.3 A treatment based on classical conditioning that pairs undesirable behaviors with stimuli that are unpleasant is called __________. Unfortunately, this treatment model has received only mixed support from research studies. a) aversion therapy b) assertiveness training c) participant modeling therapy d) token economy therapy ANS: a Topic=Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: Using Antabuse for the treatment of alcohol is an example of this approach. LO 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches.

EOM Q16.4.4 Which cognitive-behavioral therapy focuses on changing both how we think and how we act, encouraging clients to actively dispute their irrational beliefs and adopt more effective responses? a) REBT b) ACT c) DBT d) CBT ANS: a Topic=Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Think about what the letters in the acronyms stand for. LO 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies.

EOM Q16.4.5 Third-wave therapies differ from first-wave therapies (which are behaviorally based) and second-wave therapies (which are cognitively based), because third-wave therapies focus primarily on fostering __________ among clients. a) acceptance and mindfulness b) personal responsibility c) realism and ownership d) critical thinking and skepticism ANS: a Topic=Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Approaches: Changing Maladaptive Actions and Thoughts Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: There are many therapies of this type, but they share features in common. LO 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies.

Quiz 16.5: Is Psychotherapy Effective? Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Is Psychotherapy Effective?

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q16.5.1 The Dodo bird hypothesis is often discussed in regard to evaluating the effectiveness of psychotherapy. Those who support the Dodo bird view would conclude that __________. a) all therapies are about equally effective, and any therapy is better than none at all b) therapies differ considerably in their ability to bring genuine relief to clients c) therapeutic gains are an illusion, like the existence of a Dodo bird d) psychodynamic approaches are more effective than cognitive-behavioral approaches ANS: a Topic=Is Psychotherapy Effective? Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: If correct, this would be a very advantageous outcome for the general public. LO 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective.

EOM Q16.5.2 To confirm the consensus that psychotherapy is effective in alleviating human suffering, a statistical method called __________ allowed researchers to seek patterns across large numbers of studies and draw conclusions that hold up across independent laboratories. a) meta-analysis b) metapraxis c) meta-thesis d) meta-statistics ANS: a Topic=Is Psychotherapy Effective? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This method means “analysis of analysis,” and is a statistical method that helps researchers interpret large bodies of psychological literature. LO 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective.

EOM Q16.5.3 An intervention for a specific disorder that is substantiated by high-quality scientific evidence would be considered a(n) __________. a) empirically supported treatment b) operant-verified procedure c) primary intervention d) recursive therapy ANS: a Topic=Is Psychotherapy Effective? Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: There are many therapeutic techniques available. Not all of them have received the same degree of scientific scrutiny. LO 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective.

EOM Q16.5.4 Some therapists have successfully promoted interventions that are not supported by scientific research and are based on questionable premises. Which of the following reasons for this effect refers to the fact that in many cases, people just get better on their own? a) spontaneous remission b) placebo effect c) regression to the mean d) self-determining bias ANS: a Topic=Is Psychotherapy Effective? Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Sometimes you just feel better—and that is all there is to it. LO 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective.

EOM Q16.5.5 Although the textbook authors advocate the use of empirically supported therapies (EST), they point out that if a therapy is not on the EST list __________. a) that therapy may not have been investigated yet b) that therapy cannot be researched scientifically c) that therapy has been proven to be ineffective d) that therapy has been proven to be harmful ANS: a Topic=Is Psychotherapy Effective? Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: When it is not raining it does not necessarily mean the sun is shining; it just means it is not raining. LO 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective.

Quiz 16.6: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Quiz: Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery

Multiple Choice Single Select EOM Q16.6.1 The use of medications to treat psychological problems is called __________. a) psychopharmacotherapy b) psychopharmacology c) pharmacotherapy d) psychotherapeutic pharmacology ANS: a Topic=Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Many practitioners adopt a medically-based approach to treating psychological disorders. LO 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment.

100

EOM Q16.6.2 Drugs commonly used to treat mental disorders fall into the classes of __________, antianxiety, __________, and antidepressant drugs. a) antipsychotics; mood stabilizers b) leptokurtics; platykurtics c) anticonvulsant; antitrophic d) MAOIs; SSRIs ANS: a Topic=Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: There are many individual drugs and even more specific brand names, but what are the main classes of drugs used in this context? LO 16.6a Recognize different types of drugs and cautions associated with drug treatment.

EOM Q16.6.3 Although many patients benefit from psychopharmacotherapy, it is important to remember that virtually all medications __________. a) have side effects that must be weighed against potential benefits b) must be increased over time as the patient’s body adapts to the dosage c) eventually cease to be effective d) cause some form of physical or psychological dependence ANS: a Topic=Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.6b Outline key considerations in drug treatment. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Altering brain and body chemistry can be a fine balancing act. LO 16.6b Outline key considerations in drug treatment.

EOM Q16.6.4 Currently, both ECT and TMS tend to be used primarily in the treatment of __________. a) depression b) anxiety c) eating disorders d) panic disorder ANS: a Topic=Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 16.6c Identify misconceptions about biomedical treatments. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Think about what these acronyms stand for and what each technique is based on. LO 16.6c Identify misconceptions about biomedical treatments.

101

EOM Q16.6.5 A last resort when confronted with intractable psychological disorders may be to perform __________; an early, much-flawed example of this approach was the prefrontal lobotomy. a) psychosurgery b) keseyotomies c) freemanotomies d) ablative reconstruction ANS: a Topic=Biomedical Treatments: Medications, Electrical Stimulation, and Surgery Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.6c Identify misconceptions about biomedical treatments. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: When used today, these techniques only distantly resemble earlier approaches from a halfcentury ago. LO 16.6c Identify misconceptions about biomedical treatments.

102

Chapter 16 Quiz: Psychological and Biological Treatments Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page Chapter Quiz: Psychological and Biological Treatments

Multiple Choice Single Select EOC Q16.1 Which kind of mental health professional is likely to be found providing counseling and support in a spiritual context, as well as wellness programs, and group, family, and couples therapy? a) pastoral counselor b) counseling psychologist c) clinical social worker d) mental health counselor ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 16.1a Describe who seeks treatment, who benefits from psychotherapy, and who practices psychotherapy. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The training for this type of job can vary. LO 16.1a Describe who seeks treatment, who benefits from psychotherapy, and who practices psychotherapy.

103

EOC Q16.2 Which of the following is a technique in which the therapist enacts a problematic situation and then guides the client though the necessary steps to cope with it on her or his own? a) participant modeling b) client modeling c) therapeutic modeling d) situational modeling ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Who is doing the modeling, and who is doing the observing? LO 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches.

EOC Q16.3 Psychodynamic therapists work from the assumption that a client’s difficulties in the present stem from the repression of traumatic memories from childhood. Research has shown that __________. a) disturbing events are actually more memorable and less subject to being forgotten than are everyday occurrences b) the memories of certain events are too disturbing and must be repressed for the average person to maintain daily functioning c) most people, but not everyone, do repress memories of traumatic events from childhood d) bringing repressed memories out into the open can cause the client to become retraumatized ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Apply It Objective=LO 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This would be an important criticism of the psychodynamic approach. LO 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies.

EOC Q16.4 There is a philosophical divide called the __________ between psychologists who see therapy as a more of an art than a science, and those who believe all therapy should be based on well-replicated scientific findings. a) scientist-practitioner gap b) intuitive-intellectual gap c) intuition-empiricism divide d) heart-mind divide ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This difference of opinion can have large effects on therapeutic practices. LO 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Copyright © 2018, 2014, 2011 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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EOC Q16.5 One of the reasons that bogus therapies sometimes appear effective is that occasionally clients think they have improved more than they actually have, because they misremember their previous situation as worse than it actually was. This is called __________. a) retrospective rewriting of the past b) regression to the mean c) self-serving bias d) the placebo effect ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Past, present, or future, sometimes humans are lousy at keeping track of which is which. LO 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective.

EOC Q16.6 Some of the biomedical treatments that may be used in the treatment of severe, resistant depression include ECT, TMS, and __________. a) DBS b) ACT c) LDS d) GBH ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 16.6c Identify misconceptions about biomedical treatments. Difficulty=Difficult Consider This: The last on this list is a relatively recent technique. LO 16.6c Identify misconceptions about biomedical treatments.

EOC Q16.7 Which of the following terms describes a situation in which a person with alcoholism feels so bad about a lapse that she or he falls off the wagon completely and goes back to drinking at high levels? a) abstinence violation effect b) controlled drinking c) acknowledging powerlessness over alcohol d) adaptive social networking ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.3b Describe the research evidence concerning the effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The term used to describe this situation is exactly what it sounds like. LO 16.3b Describe the research evidence concerning the effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous.

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EOC Q16.8 There are indications that __________, a type of antidepressant, may increase the risk of suicidal thoughts in patients under the age of 18; thankfully, there is no clear evidence that completed suicides increase. a) SSRIs b) benzodiazepines c) mineral salts d) beta blockers ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Apply It Objective=LO 16.6b Outline key considerations in drug treatment. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Review the types of antidepressants you read about. LO 16.6b Outline key considerations in drug treatment.

EOC Q16.9 Martin and Lewis are having trouble in their relationship. They seem to squabble about money. Martin likes to spend and Lewis does not and their communication patterns on this issue are not very good. In most other ways their relationship is quite solid, and they definitely love and respect one another. What therapeutic approach might be good for them? a) family therapy b) behavioral therapy for Martin c) behavioral therapy for Lewis d) Gestalt therapy ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 16.3c Identify different approaches to treating the dysfunctional family system. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: The dynamic between the two needs some fine-tuning. LO 16.3c Identify different approaches to treating the dysfunctional family system.

EOC Q16.10 Which type of therapy is nondirective and focuses on the clients’ goals and ways to solve their problems? a) person-centered therapy b) cognitive-behavioral therapy c) psychoanalysis d) psychodynamic therapy ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This humanistic approach subscribes to these values. LO 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies.

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EOC Q16.11 What type of therapy exposes clients to images of the stimuli they most fear for prolonged periods of time, up to an hour or more? a) flooding therapy b) immersion therapy c) desensitization therapy d) psychodynamic therapy ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This theory is based on the idea that fears are maintained by avoidance. LO 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches.

EOC Q16.12 Which of the following is one of the three core assumptions behind cognitive-behavioral therapies? a) Cognitions are the key players in both healthy and unhealthy psychological functioning. b) The therapist must be an authentic, genuine person and reveal her or his own reactions to what the client communicates. c) The therapist must express unconditional positive regard for the feelings the client expresses. d) The therapist must relate to clients with empathic understanding. ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Analyze I Objective=LO 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This is one of the platforms upon which CBT is built. LO 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies.

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EOC Q16.13 Corrado wants help to quit smoking. What kind of therapy should he pursue? a) Cognitive-behavioral therapy, to learn techniques to modify his behavior and extinguish his undesirable habits. b) Psychodynamic therapy, to explore his oral fixation and address the unconscious sexual significance cigarettes have in his life. c) Humanist therapy, so he can feel good about the choices he has already made in his life and accept the fact that he is a smoker—a good smoker. d) Existential therapy, so he can realize that smoking is symbolic of the end we all must face, and that cancer represents the pain of survival. ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: The right therapeutic approach can probably get Corrado to quit smoking in a very short amount of time. LO 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies.

EOC Q16.14 Contrary to the view promoted by Alcoholics Anonymous, the behavioral view of alcoholism is that rather than being a physical illness, alcoholism is a __________. a) learned behavior that is subject to modification and control without total abstinence b) learned behavior that is too entrenched to ever be completely conquered c) an opportunity to develop an adaptive social network with others who like to drink heavily d) conditioned behavior that can be reconditioned to sobriety through a token system of rewards ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.3b Describe the research evidence concerning the effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: This view is contrary to a "disease model" of addiction. LO 16.3b Describe the research evidence concerning the effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous.

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EOC Q16.15 Which type of therapies are treatments inspired by classical psychoanalysis and Freud’s techniques but are less costly and do not take as much time to complete? a) psychodynamic therapies b) humanistic therapies c) systematic desensitization therapies d) cognitive-behavioral therapies ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Psychoanalysis, in its original Freudian conception, is not practiced much anymore. LO 16.2a Describe the core beliefs and criticisms of psychodynamic therapies.

EOC Q16.16 Which of the following observations is evidence against the claim that all forms of therapy are equally effective? a) Some percentage of clients are worse-off after therapy, and may be worse off because of psychotherapy. b) Therapies all cost about the same for a normal course of treatment. c) Outcome studies report nonsignificant differences between the major forms of psychotherapy. d) Therapy is an art, not a science, and therefore cannot be measured. ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Imagine what would be true if all therapies were equally effective. LO 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective.

EOC Q16.17 Listening with empathy and instilling hope in a client are examples of __________ in therapy, whereas challenging irrational beliefs or providing social skills training are example of __________. a) nonspecific factors; specific factors b) specific factors; nonspecific factors c) therapeutic alliances; therapeutic anomalies d) therapeutic anomalies; therapeutic alliances ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Both of these contribute to evaluating the effectiveness of psychotherapy. LO 16.5b Explain how ineffective therapies can sometimes appear to be effective.

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EOC Q16.18 In the type of modeling therapy known as __________, the client and therapist engage in role-playing in order to learn and practice new skills. a) behavioral rehearsal b) movement reprocessing c) assertiveness field therapy d) response prevention ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: How do you get to Carnegie Hall? Practice, practice, practice. LO 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. EOC Q16.19 There are many types of humanistic therapies, but they share an emphasis on insight, self-actualization, and the belief that human nature is basically __________. a) positive b) negative c) an empty vessel d) biologically predetermined ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Think about the kinds of ideas promoted by humanists. LO 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies.

EOC Q16.20 Although more research needs to be conducted, the available current research evidence suggests that socioeconomic status and race __________. a) have little or no bearing on the outcome of therapy b) are important indicators of whether therapy will be successful c) each have a slightly different impact on the success of therapy d) have quite different impacts on the outcome of therapy ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Recall some of the main issues involved in determining the effectiveness of psychotherapy. LO 16.5a Evaluate the claim that all psychotherapies are equally effective.

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EOC Q16.21 What approach to understand the mechanics of a therapeutic approach enables researchers to examine the different components of a broader treatment as separate elements, which helps to rule out rival hypotheses about effective treatment mechanisms? a) dismantling b) disassembling c) dissection d) desensitization ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: This approach shows that no single aspect of systematic desensitization, for example, is essential: we can eliminate each without affecting treatment outcome. LO 16.4a Describe the characteristics of behavior therapy and identify different behavioral approaches.

EOC Q16.22 “If I do not get into a good college, I will never be able to get a good job!” wailed Mick to his therapist. “That can really be upsetting; most people would be upset by that experience, and that is a natural feeling to have,” replied his therapist. “Can you tell me more about how that makes you feel?” “If I do not get into a good college, my parents will hate me and my girlfriend will dump me!” continued Mick. “It sure would be disappointing to miss a significant goal in your life, but people who truly love you will continue to love you for who you are,” Mick's therapist said, soothingly. “This is just my opinion, but I think it is important to remember that you are a person of worth, and that you can aspire to and achieve many things in your life.” What general approach to therapy does Mick’s therapist seem to be practicing? a) humanist b) primal c) cognitive-behavioral d) psychoanalytic ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments, Skill=Apply What You Know Objective=LO 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies. Difficulty=Easy Consider This: Mick’s therapist seems to have Mick’s well-being at heart, and appears to be doing quite a bit to communicate positive regard to Mick. LO 16.2b Describe and evaluate the effectiveness of humanistic therapies.

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EOC Q16.23 What does it take to be an effective therapist? a) showing empathic behaviors (such as warmth and kindness), refraining from contradicting clients, and establishing important topics of discussion in therapeutic sessions b) providing detailed information to a client about the history and mechanisms of a single therapeutic approach, and applying that one approach to a variety of concerns c) remaining emotionally distant from a client (for objectivity), determining the optimum number of sessions from the start of therapy, and maintaining a respectful formality d) years of training, regardless of the therapeutic approach, is the single best predictor of effectiveness ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Analyze It Objective=LO 16.1b Describe what it takes to be an effective therapist. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Recall what successful therapists do. LO 16.1b Describe what it takes to be an effective therapist.

EOC Q16.24 Which of the following is an example of a “third-wave” approach to cognitive-behavioral therapy? a) acceptance and commitment therapy (ACT) b) rational-emotive behavior therapy (REBT) c) cognitive restructuring and mastery (CRAM) d) eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Remember the Facts Objective=LO 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: Recall what these different therapeutic approaches endorse. LO 16.4b Describe the features of cognitive-behavioral therapies (CBT) and third-wave therapies.

EOC Q16.25 What type of family therapy uses paradoxical requests to motivate uncooperative clients into better patterns of communication, effective problem solving, and enhanced relating to one another? a) strategic family intervention b) structural family therapy c) paradoxical group intervention d) dysfunctional family therapy ANS: a Topic=Psychological and Biological Treatments Skill=Understand the Concepts Objective=LO 16.3c Identify different approaches to treating the dysfunctional family system. Difficulty=Moderate Consider This: These outcomes imply that more than one person is involved in the therapeutic process. LO 16.3c Identify different approaches to treating the dysfunctional family system.

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