Psychology Methods and Design, 8th Edition C James Goodwin

Test Bank for Research In Psychology Methods and Design, 8th Edition C James Goodwin

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Test Bank—Chapter 1

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Multiple Choice 1) What do the preface to Wundt’s Principles of Physiological Psychology and the original constitution of the American Psychological Association have in common? a) they both defined psychology as the study of behavior b) they both recognized that psychology was a subdivision of philosophy c) they both emphasized the scientific nature of the new psychology d) they both defined psychology as the study of the mind 2) A research methods course differs from a course in developmental psychology by emphasizing a) process over content b) content over process c) basic rather than applied research d) applied rather than basic research 3) A research methods course is to a social psychology course as ______ is to ______. a) content; process b) process; content c) scientific; nonscientific d) philosophy; sociology 4) Which of the following is not listed in the text as a reason for taking a research methods course? a) it helps the student become a critical consumer of information b) it is essential for admission to most graduate schools c) it is the most important course in the psychology curriculum for achieving self-understanding d) it provides a foundation for achieving a better understanding of other psychology courses 5) Why is it important for professional psychologists to be familiar with research methods? a) they might need to perform an evaluation to determine the effectiveness of an agency’s program b) they might need to critically evaluate the scientific evidence for the effectiveness of some new clinical treatment for depression c) both alternatives a. and b. are true d) none of the above—professional psychologists only need to apply the results of research; they need not be familiar with how the research was done 6) When students assume that their textbook must be correct, they are relying on _________ as a way of knowing. a) the a priori method b) experience c) creativity d) authority 7) Which of the following is true about relying on authority as a way of searching for the truth? a) the authority could be wrong b) it is a problem for nonscientists but not for scientists c) it is almost certain that the authority’s knowledge is based on subjective experience only d) authority should seldom if ever be believed–people should discover things for themselves 8) Relying on authority as a basis for fixing belief is illustrated by which of the following statements? a) Because all events have causes, there must be some First Cause, namely God b) Why do I know it? I just know it, that’s all c) My country, right or wrong d) It just stands to reason that animals with a cortex must have some level of consciousness

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9) Ted argues that the mind equals the brain. His argument is based on the assertion that the mind ceases to function when the brain ceases to function. This illustrates which of Peirce’s ways of fixing belief? a) the a priori method b) the method of direct experience c) the scientific method d) the method of authority 10) As a way of fixing belief, Peirce’s a priori method relies heavily on a) belief perseverance b) drawing conclusions from making systematic observations of nature c) relying on the expertise of others d) convincing others through logical arguments 11) Peirce was critical about the a priori method as a way of fixing belief because a) it was especially prone to a confirmation bias b) the use of logic is not really needed for arriving at truth c) it really meant nothing more than relying on authority d) carefully reasoned arguments can produce opposite conclusions 12) The problem with relying on a belief that “experience is the best teacher” is that a) our experiences might be limited and influenced by bias b) our experiences seldom provide any information about what life is like c) relying on experience makes us overlook the most important source of knowledge—authorities d) none of the above—personal experience is the only reliable way to truth 13) If our experiences include some unforgettable events, we might overestimate how often those kinds of events occur. This is called a) belief perseverance b) a confirmation bias c) the availability heuristic d) the a priori heuristic 14) Our experiences can be a valuable guide to the truth, but drawing firm conclusions from experience can be affected by our tendencies to ignore events that don’t support our beliefs. That is, we sometimes a) use the availability heuristic b) have a confirmation bias c) decide on the truth on the basis of logic rather than direct experience d) rely too much on introspection 15) According to Thomas Kuhn, it is generally a good thing for scientists to hang on to their pet theories tenaciously. Why? a) they seem more human that way b) by seeking out controversies with other scientists, they keep their aging minds sharp c) by vigorously advocating their theory, it won’t be abandoned without a thorough test d) none of the above—because they are objective, dispassionate, and ruled only by data, “tenacity” is not a term that characterizes scientists 16) Relying on Peirce’s a priori method as a way of fixing belief is illustrated by which of the following statements? a) Because all events have causes, there must be some First Cause greater than all the rest b) My country, right or wrong c) Nothing will ever convince me that men have been on the moon d) Of course it’s right—it was in the book

Test Bank—Chapter 1

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17) Students sometimes change their answers on multiple-choice questions. Many students believe that the most common outcome is that they change from the correct answer to a wrong answer, despite research that shows that students more often change from an incorrect answer to a correct one. What accounts for the strength of this erroneous belief? a) scientific thinking via logical deduction b) social cognition biases that distort their beliefs of their experiences c) a priori thinking—they reason that it would have been better to go with the first hunch or instinct d) none of the above—students in fact believe that they are successful when they change answers 18) As psychologists use the term, determinism means that a) free choice does not exist b) all the events of our lives have been “determined” ahead of time c) every event has a cause that can be known and discovered with certainty d) events can be predicted with greater than chance probability 19) Research psychologists believe all of the following except a) the causes of behavior can be discovered by using scientific methods b) if statistical determinism is true, then free choices cannot be made c) it may not be possible to predict behavior with certainty d) making effective choices requires that events be predictable 20) A major characteristic of psychological science is its objectivity, which means that a) science is free from human biases b) psychologists assume that people are essentially machines c) observations can be verified by more than a single observer d) results of research are always reported in terms of numbers (statistics) 21) An objective observation is one a) that can only be made by a mechanical recording device b) completely free from any personal bias on the part of the observer c) that can be verified by a second observer d) that cannot be questioned 22) The major shortcoming with introspection as a method was that a) it relied too heavily on the a priori method b) it was used to answer philosophical rather than empirical questions c) it relied too heavily on direct observations of behavior d) observations could not be verified—they were too subjective 23) The method of introspection was gradually replaced by behavioral methods because a) the latter were more objective b) the latter yielded more in depth descriptions of one’s personal experience c) introspection required considerable training but no training is required to use behavioral methods d) behavioral methods allowed a closer examination of mental processes 24) To be data driven is to a) insist on empirical support for assertions b) use scientific methods even when they are inappropriate c) collect more data than is really necessary in order to answer an empirical question d) insist that the only valid question is an empirical question 25) Scientific thinking by psychologists is characterized by all of the following except a) they realize that conclusions are tentative and could change depending on future research b) they are most interested in finding answers to the “big” questions (e.g., mind-body) c) they expect claims to be supported by data collected in a systematic fashion d) they assume that behavior has causes that can be discovered using scientific methods

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26) With which of the following attributes of scientific thinking is most likely to confuse and frustrate the general public? a) the desire for objectivity b) the emphasis of supporting claims with data c) the recognition that conclusions are tentative d) the reliance on empirical questions 27) Questions that can be answered through systematic observation and data collection are called a) introspective questions b) authoritative questions c) empirical questions d) non-empirical questions 28) Which of the following is most clearly phrased as an empirical question? a) Are newborns essentially good or bad? b) Do Catholics believe in the reality of Hell? c) Are the mind and body two separate entities? d) Is there life after death?

29) Empirical questions a) are answerable with objective data b) cannot be answered via scientific methods c) are best answered through Peirce’s a priori method d) can only be answered relying on accounts of personal experiences 30) Which of the following is not an empirical question? a) Can prayer reduce blood pressure? b) Are prayers regularly answered by God? c) Do college seniors pray for different things than college freshmen? d) none of these are empirical questions — prayer is too private 31) Phrenology originated in the legitimate scientific attempt to a) find a good measure of personality b) prove that humans were descended from apes c) study localization of brain function d) none of the above—like other pseudosciences, phrenology had no connection with legitimate science 32) Phrenology eventually failed as science because a) it was shown that localization of brain function does not occur b) its measures failed the test of objectivity c) it avoided disproof by having an explanation for every possible outcome d) it abandoned its use of the anecdotal method 33) Which of the following is true about graphology? a) it relies on anecdotes as supporting evidence b) it reduces complexity to simplicity c) it uses multiple measurements and calculations to appear scientific d) all of the above 34) All of the following generally characterize pseudoscience except a) they try to confuse the naive by associating with concepts from legitimate science b) they rely exclusively on anecdotal evidence for support c) they cannot be adequately falsified d) they take simple concepts and make them seem overly complex

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35) Which of the following is true about pseudoscience? a) pseudosciences seldom last very long because they are so easily falsified b) to create apparent legitimacy, they take simple phenomena and add unnecessary complexity c) pseudoscientific theories are flexible enough to account for any outcome and are therefore untestable as theories d) all science eventually becomes pseudoscience 36) In general, pseudoscientific theories a) take fairly simple behavioral phenomena and overly complicate them b) recognize the weakness of relying on anecdotal evidence c) avoid disproof by describing their studies in vague terms d) reject the idea that their theories should be tested by collecting empirical data 37) People often will believe that learning graphology will allow them to assess one’s personality. One reason is motivational—having spent $30, they convince themselves of the value of the experience and work harder to bring about the desired outcome. This phenomenon is called a) confirmation bias b) belief perseverance c) availability heuristic d) effort justification 38) A way to scientifically test (and potentially falsify) graphology’s claims is to a) collect writing samples whose topics are not about the individual (e.g., copy a piece of text) b) compare graphology’s results with those of valid and reliable personality tests c) avoid anecdotal evidence d) all of the above 39) Researchers studying children and attempting to develop a classification system for children’s play are illustrating which of psychology’s goals? a) description b) prediction c) explanation d) control 40) Regular and predictable relationships between variables are called a) explanations b) theories c) predictions d) laws 41) Which of the following is not an important factor when determining that X is causing Y to occur? a) X and Y co-vary b) X and Y should occur simultaneously c) alternative explanations for Y can be ruled out d) variation in X produces predictable variation in Y 42) Psychologists would conclude that frustration was a cause of aggression if it could be shown that a) when frustration occurred, aggression also occurred with some regularity b) other explanations for the aggression could be ruled out under the circumstances c) the frustration preceded the aggression d) all of the above

Test Bank—Chapter 1

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43) When psychologists use the various principles that have been established through research to help people, they are meeting the goal of a) description b) prediction c) explanation d) application 44) Which of the following is an example of describing behavior? a) students with test anxiety should perform better on oral than written tests b) test anxiety results from an early history of school failure c) test anxiety can be reduced through relaxation training d) test anxious subjects left the exam sooner than non-anxious subjects 45) Which of the following is an example of predicting behavior? a) students with test anxiety should perform better on oral than written tests b) test anxiety results from an early history of school failure c) test anxiety can be reduced through relaxation training d) test anxious subjects left the exam sooner than non-anxious subjects 46) “Ergonomic” psychologists develop airplane dials that are fool proof. That is, pilots cannot inadvertently turn them the wrong way. This demonstrates the use of which of psychology’s goals? a) description b) explanation c) prediction d) application 47) The statement “Many students likely fear taking the research methods course” is an example of ________ behavior; the statement “The fear of taking the research methods course is caused by unfounded gossip” is an example of _________ behavior. a) describing; explaining b) describing; predicting c) explaining; predicting d) predicting; explaining 48) In an effort to ‘give psychology away,’ _________ is a form of research that is done to both better understand a phenomenon and to apply it to promote better psychological well-being. a) introspection b) translational research c) determinism d) the a priori method 49) Eleanor Gibson’s creation of the visual cliff was motivated by her interest in a) the ability to perceive details at great distance b) the perception of depth c) experimental extinction of a conditioned response d) discovering an alternative to introspection 50) B. F. Skinner first uncovered evidence of extinction in his laboratory when a) he repeated Pavlov’s famous experiments (i.e., followed authority) b) he reasoned that an absence of reinforcement would eliminate a behavior c) his apparatus malfunctioned d) he forgot to feed his animals

Test Bank—Chapter 1

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Answers—Multiple Choice 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) C 5) C 6) D 7) A 8) C 9) A 10) D 11) D 12) A 13) C 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) D 23) A 24) A 25) B

26) C 27) C 28) B 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) C 33) D 34) D 35) C 36) C 37) D 38) D 39) A 40) D 41) B 42) D 43) D 44) D 45) A 46) D 47) A 48) B 49) B 50) C

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Test Bank—Chapter 1

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51) Fill-in the Blanks 1) Peirce called the use of logical arguments to fix a belief the _________ method.

2) To assume that all events have causes is to make the assumption of _______.

3) To say that experience is the best teacher is to rely on __________ as a way of knowing.

4) The goal of prediction in psychology results from the discovery of regular and predictable relationships between events, otherwise known as __________.

5) “Is vision necessary for maze learning?” is an example of a(n) __________ question.

6) Introspection fell into disfavor in psychology because introspective descriptions lacked ____________.

7) Psychology’s goal of ________ is accomplished when knowledge about memory is used to help someone improve the ability to recall information.

8) To say that someone is _________ is to say that they only feel confident of an assertion when it is based on empirical data.

9) Fixing belief by relying on ________ occurs when students fail to question their professors.

10) After a tragic and much publicized plane crash, Ed came to believe that air travel was not as safe as traveling by car; Ed was a victim of the _____________ heuristic.

Test Bank—Chapter 1

Answers—Fill-in the Blanks 1. a priori 2. determinism 3. empiricism 4. laws 5. empirical 6. objectivity 7. application 8. data driven 9. authority 10. availability

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Test Bank—Chapter 1

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Short Essay Questions 1) Explain why the research methods course is considered to be an essential foundation for all the remaining courses in the psychology curriculum.

2) Describe how our experience-blased knowledge of the world can be distorted by the availability heuristic.

3) Describe how our experience-based knowledge of the world can be distorted by a confirmation bias.

4) What was Peirce’s a priori method and how did he criticize it as a way of knowing?

5) What was Peirce’s method of authority and how did he criticize it as a way of knowing?

6) In psychology’s history, introspective accounts of mental experiences were eventually replaced by reports of overt behavior. What does this have to do with the concept of objectivity?

7) In what manner does graphology try to associate itself with true science?

8) Using phrenology as an example, explain what is meant by the assertion that “pseudoscience sidesteps disproof?”

9) Explain how psychologists use the term “cause.” For example, under what conditions would psychologists make the statement “frustration causes aggression?”

10) Chapter 1 ends with descriptions of the research of two well-known psychologists, Gibson and Skinner. Although their research is quite different, what attributes do they share?

Test Bank—Chapter 1

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Comprehensive Essay Questions 1) Chapter 1 focuses on scientific thinking as a way of knowing. Yet we often rely on other methods for “fixing belief,” as Peirce put it. Using the belief held by Nazis in the 1930s that Jews were an inferior race, show how such a belief could be formed and maintained through the nonscientific ways of knowing.

2) Psychological scientists make the assumptions of determinism and discoverability. What do they mean by these terms and why do they consider them an essential part of their belief system?

3) Explain what distinguishes empirical from non-empirical questions and give two example of each.

4) Describe the essential features of pseudoscience, using phrenology (or graphology) as an example.

5) Describe the four main goals of psychological science and use an example of each goal to illustrate your points.

Test Bank—Chapter 2

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Multiple Choice 1) People are using their own personal system of ethics when they make statements like this: a) I enjoy watching baseball on TV b) I think I’ll cut the grass tomorrow instead of today c) I don’t think it is a good idea to physically punish children d) I don’t think it is a good idea to take a research methods course until after you’ve taken a statistics course 2) All of the following are the kinds of statements that derive from one’s system of ethics except a) I don’t think it is appropriate to allow children to watch more than three hours of TV per day b) People should not be allowed to have pets; it’s slavery c) I don’t think it is appropriate to separate mind from body; the mind is just a looser term for the brain d) If you spare the rod, you will produce an emotionally healthy child 3) The purpose of Watson and Rayner’s Little Albert study was to a) determine if emotional responses could be conditioned b) evaluate the effectiveness of a therapy for treating children’s fears c) determine the stimuli that produced the basic emotions d) see if humans learned in the same way as animals 4) How did Watson and Rayner justify doing the Little Albert study? a) they knew they would be removing the fear at the end of the study; thus Albert would leave the experiment without the fear b) they had the parents’ informed consent and the approval of the IRB c) they thought he was strong and healthy and would not be harmed by the procedure d) none of the above – they gave no thought to the ethical dimensions of their study 5) What was Myrtle McGraw’s purpose in doing the “pin-pricking” study with infants? a) she wanted to study physiological maturation in the infants b) she wished to determine if the infants would habituate to the pin pricks and not notice them c) she was studying fear conditioning, but using better controls than Watson d) she was examining which parts of the body were most sensitive to skin punctures 6) Dennis (1941) studied a pair of female twins. What was true about his study? a) he obtained parental consent before testing them b) he was interested in whether environmental deprivation would affect development c) he was able to show that twins have about the same IQ, even if raised in different environments d) it was the first developmental psychology study to use assent in addition to consent 7) Based on the Doctors Trials of Nazi doctor’s experimentation on humans, the __________ was developed and stressed the importance of voluntary consent of human participants of research. a) APA code of ethics b) Belmont report c) critical incidents method d) Nuremberg code of ethics 8) When formulating the original APA code of ethics, the Hobbs committee used an empirical procedure called the __________ method. a) informed consent b) critical incidents c) ethics case study d) archival 9) What was the “critical incidents” technique?

Test Bank—Chapter 2

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a) a survey procedure used to elicit examples of unethical conduct by psychologists b) a 10-point scale measuring the severity of an ethical infraction c) a procedure for identifying studies that were ethically questionable but “critical” for advancing psychological science d) a procedure whereby psychologists were sent a set of 50 experiments and asked to criticize them on ethical grounds 10) The __________ was a result of a United States congressional commission, and it contains three basic principles for research with human participants: Respect for persons, Beneficence, and Justice. a) Nuremberg code of ethics b) Belmont report c) IUCUC d) IRB 11) The most recent APA code (2002) includes 5 general principles and 89 standards. Which of the following is true? a) the standards are “aspirational goals” guiding the general behavior of psychologists b) the principles are “enforceable rules of conduct” for psychologists c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above 12) The most recent APA code (2002) includes 5 general principles and 89 standards. One of the general principles obligates researchers to continually weigh the profit and the cost of the research they complete. Which general principle is this? a) beneficence and nonmaleficence b) integrity c) justice d) fidelity and responsibility 13) In the original Milgram obedience experiment, the research participants played the role of a) experimenter b) learner c) teacher d) either learner or teacher, depending on a coin toss 14) The most recent APA code (2002) includes 5 general principles and 89 standards. The general principles are “aspirational goals.” Which of the following is an example of an aspirational goal? a) concern for the rights and dignity of others b) ethnic quotas for admission to graduate school in psychology c) blind review of research articles (reviewer doesn’t know name of article’s author) d) the obligation for psychologists to provide some of their services free of charge 15) Milgram’s participants thought they were in a study about _______ when in fact they were in a study about _________. a) obedience; punishment and learning b) punishment and learning; obedience c) obedience; helping behavior d) helping behavior; obedience 16) When planning any study, the research psychologist faces the conflicting demands of producing meaningful research and a) respecting the rights of human participants b) wasting time by doing an experiment that doesn’t come out as predicted c) getting something published d) being sure to avoid any deception of participants

Test Bank—Chapter 2

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17) If a study is planned by a research psychologist but actually carried out by a graduate student, who holds primary responsibility for the “dignity and welfare” of the participants? a) the graduate student b) the research psychologist c) the Institutional Review Board (i.e., neither the student nor the psychologist) d) the participants themselves (buyer beware) 18) If participants find themselves performing tasks like those encountered in ordinary daily living, then they are considered to be a) experiencing no risk b) at risk c) at minimal risk d) none of the above 19) If there is minimal or no risk to participants, the IRB will a) not have to consider the case b) typically complete a formal review (just to be sure) c) typically complete an expedited review d) always approve the research 20) Concerning the assignment of risk, where would you place the participants in Milgram’s experiment? a) at minimal risk b) at risk c) experiencing no risk d) none of the above 21) At a university or college, the Institutional Review Board is a university or college committee that a) evaluates proposals and awards grant money to researchers b) evaluates the methodological soundness of research proposals c) evaluates the ethical soundness of research proposals d) accomplishes all three of the tasks outlined in alternatives a., b., and c.

22) A study that involves naturalistic observation of public behavior would likely receive the following designation from an IRB a) exempt from review b) expedited review c) full review d) none of the above 23) IRB’s have been criticized by some researchers in psychology. Which of the following is an oftenheard and serious criticism? a) there is no appeal process to protect researchers from overzealous IRB’s b) IRB procedures slow down the research process c) because psychologists have always had a keen sensitivity to ethical issues, IRB’s are not really needed d) IRB’s should be made up of research scientists only—nonscientists just don’t get it 24) Which of the following is true about an IRB? a) its membership includes nonscientists b) it always judges the methodological soundness of studies c) its approval is not needed for research completed outside a laboratory d) its decisions can be appealed to the APA ethics board 25) Which of the following is not part of the APA’s ethics code for humans? a) those who are at least at minimal risk must give their informed consent

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b) people may or may not decide to participate, but once they start a study, they are obliged to finish it c) participants must be thoroughly debriefed at the end of a study d) participants must be assured of confidentiality 26) According to the APA’s ethics code for humans, those who volunteer for a study a) can quit at any time, without penalty b) must be debriefed at the end of the study, if they request it c) must sign an informed consent form that fully explains all aspects of the study ahead of time, including its complete hypothesis d) must complete the study, once they begin 27) Researchers believe that some degree of deception in research is sometimes warranted because a) without it, participants might not behave naturally b) without it, participants would be less likely to volunteer c) most participants really cannot understand the complexity of research in psychology d) participants expect to be deceived 28) In terms of the current ethics code, Milgram’s obedience research is most questionable with respect to which issue? a) confidentiality b) debriefing c) following up on participants to insure their well being d) allowing participants to quit any time in the procedure 29) Consent forms typically include a) a brief survey eliciting participant opinions about psychological research b) the precise research hypothesis being tested c) an assurance of confidentiality d) a statement indicating that participants must complete the study once they start it 30) Research participants can expect to find several pieces of information in an informed consent form.

Which of the following is not likely to be found? a) a statement of the possible risks for participating b) a mechanism for contacting the researcher after the participation is over c) a statement of the study’s true purpose and hypothesis d) an assurance of confidentiality 31) The Society for Research in Child Development publishes a set of ethical guidelines that supplement the APA code. One such guideline applies when studying school age children in a school setting. In this research, which of the following is true? a) no student in a class can be tested unless all students in the class agree to be tested b) in addition to parents, the students’ teachers should also give their consent c) at least one representative parent must be recruited to observe the research trials d) because some children might be reluctant to participate, it is OK to provide them with incentives large enough to get them to volunteer 32) In research with school children, what is meant by the principle of assent? a) this is when the parents give consent b) this is when the teachers allow their classroom to be used in the study c) this is when the children agree to participate d) this is when the children are given concrete rewards for participating 33) In a study testing prisoners, special care must be taken to insure that a) families of the prisoners give consent b) deception is never used

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c) prisoners don’t feel coerced into participating d) provide incentives large enough to gain the trust of the prisoners 34) Which of the following is true of the Willowbrook hepatitis study? a) there was a complete absence of informed consent b) the researchers made no attempt to justify the study c) it violated the principle that mentally disabled children should only be studied in research concerning mental disability d) patient confidentiality was violated 35) How did researchers justify the Willowbrook hepatitis study? a) they believed the ultimate goal of eliminating hepatitis at the institution justified the deliberate exposure to hepatitis b) they believed that hepatitis was so rampant that the participants would be likely to contract it anyway c) both of the above justifications were used d) the researchers made no attempt to justify the study 36) What did the Willowbrook and Tuskegee studies have in common? a) took advantage of mentally ill participants b) questionable informed consent procedures c) first uses of effective debriefing d) first medical studies to use proper control procedures 37) Which of the following is true of the Tuskegee syphilis study? a) there was a complete absence of informed consent b) the researchers were really studying poverty, not syphilis c) it violated the principle that mentally disabled participants should only be studiedin research concerning mental disability d) confidentiality was violated when patients were described in a news story 38) What distinguishes the following two historical examples of ethically “challenged” incidents: the Willowbrook case and the MK-ULTRA case? a) Willowbrook broke confidentiality; MK-ULTRA was a failure to debrief b) the Willowbrook researchers hoped to improve health; the MK-ULTRA researchers were not concerned with medical benefit to society c) Willowbrook failed on the issue of assent, but was adequate on the issue of consent; the opposite was true of MK-ULTRA d) Willowbrook involved human participants, while MK-ULTRA used animals 39) In debriefing after helping behavior studies, experimenters often emphasize that some situations are often so powerful that nobody could be expected to help. This portion of the postexperimental session is emphasizing what Holmes referred to as a) debriefing b) dehoaxing c) desensitizing d) both alternatives b. and c.

40) Dehoaxing is to desensitizing as _______ is to ________. a) explanation; stress reduction b) explanation; consent c) stress reduction; explanation d) stress reduction; consent 41) During debriefing, the experiment must be prepared to reassure the participant if the procedures have created some stress. This part of debriefing is called

Test Bank—Chapter 2

a) b) c) d)

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informed consent insuring confidentiality dehoaxing desensitizing

42) If a researcher is concerned about _______, then the researcher may ask participants to not disclose any information to others until the study is completed. a) deception b) participant crosstalk c) confidentiality d) desensitizing 43) According to APA guidelines, when is it considered appropriate to deceive participants about the true purpose of the study? a) never b) only when debriefing is excluded (therefore participants won’t need to discover that they have been deceived) c) only when the subjects are nonhuman d) only when the research hypothesis could not be tested in any other way 44) Research using the Internet is increasing. Which of the following guideline is least likely to be a problem for participants? a) informed consent b) confidentiality and privacy c) debriefing d) the option to quit any time 45) Which of the following problems is unique to electronic research? a) it is impossible to accomplish debriefing b) deception might occur c) participants might think they cannot quit the experiment without penalty d) there is no way to insure that a participant is age 18 or older 46) Which of the following is true about the use of animals in psychological research? a) animals used to be subjects in the majority of psychological research; they are now used in less than 1% of the studies b) animals are no longer used in psychological research c) animals are used in about half of the studies done by research psychologists d) animals are used in about 8% of psychological research 47) Most research psychologists believe that a) “sentient” animals have the same basic rights as humans b) animals can be subjected to procedures not to be used with people c) ethical guidelines are essential for research with humans, but not so for research with animals d) animal research has no relevance for understanding human behavior 48) Why did Gibson and Walk (1960) study animals in the visual cliff studies? a) the animals could be raised in visual isolation b) animals can be fully mobile without a matter of hours c) studying animals enabled them to control for perceptual experience d) all of the above 49) In their visual cliff research, Gibson and Walk (1960) studied both children and goats. Why goats? a) goat and human visual systems are identical b) goats could be placed on the visual cliff while blindfolded; you cannot do that to children c) unlike children, goats can be raised is perceptual isolation

Test Bank—Chapter 2

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d) goats can move through the environment at about the same time as humans 50) In the early years of the 19th century, antivivisectionists criticized a) Watson’s research on determining which senses contributed to maze learning b) Watson and Rayner’s Little Albert study c) Small’s pioneering maze learning studies d) any medical research involving either humans or animals 51) Moderate animal rights activists who grant the necessity of using animals for medical research often criticize the use of animals in psychological research on what grounds? a) it is needlessly repetitive b) animal research has no relevance for human behavior c) both a. and b. d) none of the above 52) Animal rights activists argue that instead of using laboratory animals, psychologists should use alternatives. They recommend all of the following except a) using nonintrusive observational procedures and study animals in their natural environments b) substituting nonsentient for sentient animals (bugs instead of rats) c) using computer simulations instead of live animals d) using non-primate mammals (e.g., dogs) instead of primates 53) In his address on “The Value of Behavioral Research with Animals,” Neal Miller argued that a) all animal research is justified b) animal research contributes to the psychological well being of humans c) animal research should only be done if it can be shown that the research directly benefits animals as well as humans d) the benefits of animal research have been significantly overstated 54) In his address on “The Value of Behavioral Research with Animals,” Neal Miller argued that a) animal rights activists have overstated the harm done to animals by researchers b) animal research doesn’t do much for animals, but it can benefit humans c) animal research doesn’t do much for humans, but it can benefit animals d) animal research never harms the animals 55) Researchers in the interdisciplinary field of __________ study human-animal interactions. a) anthrozoology b) anthropology c) biological psychology d) comparative psychology 56) What does the APA ethics code for animal research have in common with the code for human research? a) both have a need for informed consent b) both have a need to balance scientific merit and potential harm to subjects c) both have a need to test as few subjects as possible d) both require IRB approval 57) All of the following are included in the APA ethics code for research with animals except a) periodic checks of the facility by a veterinarian b) an animal subjects committee analogous to an IRB c) a prohibition against the use of animals for mere educational use d) painless death if euthanasia is necessary 58) According to the APA code of ethics for animal research, a) appetitive procedures are preferred over aversive procedures

Test Bank—Chapter 2

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b) using animals for mere educational use is prohibited c) in research involving pain, only nonsentient animals may be used d) the research supervisor must also be a veterinarian 59) The “scientific purpose” of an animal research study can fit into one of three categories. Which of the following is not one of those categories? a) increase our knowledge of the basic processes underlying the evolution of a behavior b) yield results that benefit humans and/or the species being studied c) increase the basic understanding of the species being studied d) improve the safety and efficiency of commercial products that will be used by humans 60) The Institutional Review Board (IRB) is to research with humans as the __________ is to research with animals. a) Animal Welfare Act (AWA) b) Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC) c) Society for Research in Child Development (SRCD) d) National Research Act 61) Diederick Stapel was found to have committed scientific fraud in the fabricating of data for many of his studies. What does his case illustrate about data falsification? a) if fraudulent results are believable and understandable, the fraud may go undetected b) most scientific fraud can be detected because the results will not be replicated when other scientists study the phenomenon c) scientific fraud is often uncovered during the peer review process for journal publication d) scientific fraud generally happens when researchers become mentally unbalanced 62) The traditional view about data falsification is that it will be detected eventually by the scientific community because a) faked results won’t replicate and will therefore be discarded b) a faked result will raise suspicions during the peer review process c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above 63) In the case in which a researcher fabricated data about a treatment for hyperactive children, the fraud was detected because a) the results never replicated b) it caught the attention of peers during the peer review process; the results were never published c) a colleague suspected that the data were not genuine d) the researcher was overwhelmed with guilt 64) Which of the following is true about falsified data? a) it might go undetected if it is consistent with results from other laboratories b) almost all research involves replication, so falsified data is easy to spot c) creating all the data for a study is obviously fraudulent, but making up one or two data points is normal practice d) fraudulent data is easily spotted because it produces results that don’t make sense 65) What does the APA ethics code have to say about the status of data collected by a research psychologist? a) before results based on these data can be published, the data must be statistically analyzed by a person not involved in the data collection b) researchers are expected to make the data set available to other scientists who ask to examine it c) all research participants should have the opportunity to examine all the data, in order to determine if they want their to stay in the data set or be removed d) researchers have copyright ownership over their data and can deny its availability to others

Test Bank—Chapter 2

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

Answers—Multiple Choice 1) C 2) C 3) A 4) C 5) A 6) B 7) D 8) B 9) A 10) B 11) D 12) A 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) C 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) A 24) A 25) B 26) A 27) A 28) D 29) C 30) C 31) B 32) C 33) C

34) C 35) C 36) B 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) A 41) D 42) B 43) D 44) D 45) D 46) D 47) B 48) D 49) C 50) A 51) C 52) D 53) B 54) A 55) A 56) B 57) C 58) A 59) D 60) A 61) C 62) B 63) C 64) A 65) B

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Fill-in the Blanks 1) ____________ is the term used to describe that portion of debriefing that is aimed at telling participants the true purpose of the study.

2) ____________ is the term used to describe that portion of debriefing that is aimed at reducing any stress felt by participants as a result of their participation.

3) At the conclusion of an experimental session, participants should be completely informed about the study’s purpose; this postexperimental session is called _________.

4) The formulation of the APA code of ethics included collecting data about possible ethical violations; the procedure used was called the _________ method.

5) ________ is sometimes used in research when behavior could be biased if participants knew the study’s true purpose ahead of time.

6) When using elementary school children as participants, it is important to gain their _______ as well as their parents’ informed consent.

7) Before the start of a study, participants should been given enough information to decide whether they would like to participate; that is, they should give their _____________.

8) ___________ can occur even if a person, when writing a paper, merely paraphrases the words of another person.

Test Bank—Chapter 2

Answers—Fill-in the Blanks 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 6) 7) 8)

dehoaxing desensitizing debriefing critical incidents deception assent informed consent plagiarism

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Test Bank—Chapter 2

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Short Essay Questions 1) What was the critical incidents procedure and how was it used in the opening stages of the search for an ethics code?

2) Give examples to illustrate the distinction between the “general principles” of the APA ethics code and a particular “standard” of the code.

3) What is debriefing and, in a study involving deception, what are its two components?

4) Describe the various levels of risk that participants might encounter and give an example of a study that would illustrate each level.

5) Describe the purpose of an IRB, its typical composition, and one reason why IRBs are sometimes criticized by research psychologists.

6) What was MK-ULTRA and what were its ethical shortcomings?

7) What are the ethical concerns that are especially relevant when using prisoners as research participants?

8) As a brand new instructor in psychology, you would like to expose your students to the methods used in animal conditioning laboratories. Within the APA code, what are your options?

9) Summarize the three main points made by Neal Miller in his article justifying animal research.

10) Explain the various means by which fraud in science is detected and describe how the academic reward system can create pressures conducive to scientific fraud.

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Comprehensive Essay Questions 1) On ethical grounds, (a) criticize and then (b) defend the Milgram study. In order for the Milgram study to gain IRB approval today, as in Burger’s study, how would the procedure have to change?

2) Consider the issue of informed consent and deception. Explain why researchers use deception (use a specific study as an example) and show how researchers conceptualize informed consent in order to make room for deception.

3) Describe the essential features of a typical informed consent form for a research project with adults.

4) Suppose you would like to investigate the effects of crowding on the problem solving behavior of 8year-old children (i.e., solving problems by themselves in either a large or a small (closet-sized) room.

What ethical problems would you encounter and how would you solve those problems?

5) Argue both sides of this assertion: It is OK for animals to be used in some forms of medical research, but there is no reason to use animals in psychological research.

Test Bank—Chapter 3

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

Multiple Choice 1) Participants are asked to memorize three different lists of words. The lists are presented at three different presentation speeds. How would you classify this study? a) applied research b) field research c) basic research d) both a. and b.

2) Basic research is concerned with ______ while applied research tries to ________. a) experimental realism; accomplish mundane realism b) establishing essential principles; solve practical problems c) the laboratory only; use field studies only d) mundane realism; accomplish experimental realism 3) Which of the following research studies is most obviously an example of basic research? a) the effect of delaying reward on maze learning in rats b) the effectiveness of hypnosis for improving courtroom eyewitness memory c) worker productivity in well-lit vs. poorly-lit environments d) whether hands-free cell phones are less disruptive to driving than hand-held phones 4) Applied research a) always has mundane realism but seldom has experimental realism b) always has experimental realism but seldom has mundane realism c) can be either laboratory or field research d) is always field research, while basic research is laboratory research 5) The studies by Cherry and by Broadbent, using dichotic listening, are examples of a) basic research on attention b) applied research on the factors that enhance the focusing of attention c) research high in mundane realism but low in experimental realism d) basic research on car driving 6) Broadbent’s (1958) study on selective attention is to Strayer and Johnston’s (2001) study on cell phone use while driving as _______ is to _________. a) field research; laboratory research b) mundane realism; experimental realism c) applied research; basic research d) basic research; applied research 7) Compared to field research, what is the advantage of laboratory research? a) informed consent is easier b) it allows experimental realism to occur c) there is a greater degree of mundane realism d) only lab research yields data that can be analyzed adequately (statistically) 8) Compared to field research, which of the following is true about laboratory research? a) it allows for a greater degree of control over variables b) it may be lower in mundane realism c) both informed consent and debriefing are easier to manage d) all of the above

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9) Compared to laboratory research, which of the following is true about field research? a) it allows for a greater degree of control over variables b) it may be higher in mundane realism c) both informed consent and debriefing are easier to manage d) it will be higher in experimental realism 10) If a study is high on experimental realism, then a) participants will take the procedures seriously b) the participant’s task will resemble a normal daily activity c) it is certain that deception has been used d) it is almost certainly a field study rather than a laboratory study 11) Which of the following is true of the studies done by Bushman and Anderson (2009) who evaluated exposure to violence and helping behavior? a) it combined both laboratory and field research in a series of experiments b) it was a series of experiments high in mundane realism but low in experimental realism c) it combined both basic and applied research in a single experiment d) it was a series of experiments high in experimental realism but low in mundane realism 12) In the laboratory research study by Bushman and Anderson (2009), participants played either violent or nonviolent video games, then filled out a questionnaire. Which of the following describes what they found? a) participants who played violent video games completed the questionnaires faster than participants who played non-violent video games b) participants who played violent video games reported less violence in the video games than participants who played non-violent video games c) participants who played violent video games d) participants who played violent video games were slower to help an individual in an adjacent room compared to participants who played non-violent video games e) participants who played violent video games did not help an individual in an adjacent room compared to participants who played non-violent video games 13) After completing their laboratory experiment on exposure to violent video games, why did Bushman and Anderson (2009) complete a field experiment on the exposure to violence and helping behavior? a) they wanted to improve experimental realism b) they wanted to see if the results of their first experiment would generalize to everyday situations c) they wanted to rule out alternative interpretations of their laboratory experiment d) they wanted to increase sample size 14) In Bushman and Anderson’s (2009) field experiment, who was the experimental confederate? a) a young man who was heard fighting with another person b) a young woman with and apparent ankle injury and crutches at a movie theater c) a young woman with and apparent ankle injury and crutches in the laboratory d) the experimenter who administered the questionnaires 15) Qualitative research is to quantitative research as _______ is to _______. a) analytic narrative; inferential analysis b) applied research; basic research c) field research; laboratory research d) basic field research; applied field research

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16) The study in the text that examined male and female patterns of control over the TV remote is a good example of a study that combines a) basic and applied research b) field and lab research c) qualitative and quantitative research d) all of the above 17) Empirical questions must a) be answerable with data b) include terms that can be operationally defined c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above 18) A researcher is measuring aggression. Which of the following is most clearly inadequate as an operational definition of the term? a) choosing a button which makes it difficult for another subject to complete a task b) honking one’s horn at an intersection for a period of more than two seconds c) attempting to harm someone d) delivering electric shocks to a competitor 19) What is the advantage of using operational definitions? a) they force researchers in different laboratories to all use the exact same definition b) they facilitate replication c) it’s easy to agree on a universal definition for a concept like aggression d) there are no advantages to using operational definitions; no two persons can ever agree on the best definition 20) Operational definitions a) are seldom needed because of modern advances in behavioral technology b) are needed to force researchers in different laboratories to all use the exact same definition of a construct c) force researchers to be clear about defining the terms of their studies d) differ from one study to another, which means that using operational definitions hinders the replication process 21) Which of the following is the best example of converging operations? a) several studies use different operational definitions of aggression yet produce the same basic results b) several studies of anxiety, each with a different operational definition of anxiety, each yields different results c) researchers from different laboratories agree ahead of time to use the same operational definitions for intelligence d) researchers from different laboratories collaborate on the same research program 22) Two researchers with two completely different operational definitions for aggression nonetheless produce the same result — frustration leads to aggression. This outcome is referred to as a) exact replication b) operationism c) converging operations d) serendipity 23) What do the following discoveries have in common: Skinner’s extinction curve and Hubel and Wiesel’s feature detectors? a) both examples of research ideas resulting from everyday observations b) both examples of research deduced logically from theory c) both examples of a serendipitous finding

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d) both examples of failures to replicate 24) Which of the following would be an example of a research project began as the result of a serendipitous event? a) A suspects B of fraud, so A replicates B’s work b) A notices that complete strangers who take the same subway to work every day begin to greet one another at the station; A wonders why c) A comes across an interesting study and does a partial replication and an extension of it d) A has an equipment failure and notices some unusual behavior that leads to a series of studies 25) Which of the following is an example of research began as the result of reflecting on a real news event? a) Festinger’s cognitive dissonance research b) Darley and Latané’s helping behavior research c) Broadbent’s dichotic listening research d) Bushman and Anderson’s violence and helping behavior research 26) Which of the following examples illustrates research that resulted from reflecting on an everyday observation? a) Skinner’s research on extinction b) Festinger’s application of dissonance theory to the decision making c) Darley and Latané’s helping behavior research d) Pfungst’s study of Clever Hans 27) Theories a) are not highly regarded until proven true b) lead to hypotheses through the process of induction c) provide the basis for making predictions that can be tested empirically d) are ideal if they can explain all possible outcomes 28) All of the following are true of theories except a) they organize existing data b) an attribute of a good theory is that it is high on “productivity” c) provide the basis for making predictions that can be tested empirically d) they are tentative until the facts prove them true 29) A prediction is made from a theory and the results are just as predicted. What can be concluded about the theory? a) it has been proven true b) it has been inductively supported c) it has been turned into a fact d) it has been disproven 30) If a number of studies all seem consistent with a theory, then the theory is said to have been supported through a) induction b) deduction c) serendipity d) parsimony 31) According to the original cognitive dissonance theory, dissonance occurs when people a) experience electrical shock that is painful b) simultaneously experience contradictory thoughts c) are rewarded by others for feeling sad d) must learn difficult tasks and they sometimes fail

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Test Bank—Chapter 3

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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32) Anxiety is not observed directly but is inferred from certain behaviors. That is, anxiety is an example of a) a construct b) a law c) a theory d) an operational definition 33) In the original cognitive dissonance theory, it was said that dissonance develops as a result of experiencing contradictory thoughts. This “dissonance” is an example of a) a behavior b) a hypothesis c) an operational definition d) a construct 34) Hypotheses are a) reasonable predictions about what should occur under specific circumstances b) guesses about the causes of events c) generated from theory through the process of induction d) considered to be “proven true” when supported by more than one experiment 35) Hypotheses are derived from theories through the process of a) induction b) deduction c) falsification d) parsimony 36) To reason inductively is to a) reason from the specific event to the general principle b) reason from the general principle to the specific event c) prove the hypothesis true d) to disprove the hypothesis 37) To reason deductively is to a) reason from the specific event to the general principle b) reason from the general principle to the specific event c) prove the hypothesis true d) to disprove the hypothesis 38) When is a theory discarded? a) when a study does not come out as predicted, thereby producing falsification b) whenever a better theory is proposed c) when empirical results consistently fail to support it d) when the theory’s originator dies 39) On the basis of cognitive dissonance theory, it was predicted that after making a hard choice, people will convince themselves that they have made a wise choice. Suppose you do a study and discover that exact outcome. What is the proper conclusion? a) cognitive dissonance theory has been proven b) cognitive dissonance theory has been disproven c) cognitive dissonance theory has not been supported d) cognitive dissonance theory has been supported 40) Which of the following is true about cognitive dissonance theory? a) it failed the criterion of productivity b) it generated a lot of research, but it was discarded because better theories came along c) it was not stated precisely enough to be tested—thus, it failed the test of falsifiability

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d) through the work of Aronson, it evolved into a theory emphasizing threats to the self 41) Which of the following distinguishes a good theory from a bad one? a) the good theory has been proven true b) the good theory can explain all possible research outcomes c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above 42) The predictions from dissonance theory did not always come out as predicted. What happened to the theory? a) it was discarded b) it was concluded that it must be true; most of the research proved it c) it evolved to incorporate the idea that dissonance occurred most strongly when the self was threatened d) it was logically disproven but hung on over the years because nothing better came along 43) Theories that can explain all outcomes after the fact a) do not allow for predictions to be made b) have been falsified c) are said to be highly parsimonious d) illustrate the results of converging operations 44) According to Karl Popper, science proceeds by a) creating theories and trying to falsify them b) searching for the ideal (i.e., cannot be falsified) theory c) accumulating data in the absence of formal theories d) achieving the proof of a theory after sufficient inductive support has accumulated 45) Some dogs can open gates with their noses. To explain this phenomenon by attributing logic and problem solving abilities to the dog is to a) give a parsimonious explanation b) falsify a simpler explanation c) be guilty of a confirmation bias d) give an explanation that is not very parsimonious 46) A theory that has the minimum of constructs and assumptions, yet adequately summarizes and organizes information, is said to be a(n) ________ theory. a) parsimonious b) operationalized c) falsified d) simplistic 47) Which of the following is true about the case of Clever Hans? a) it was shown to be a case of scientific fraud b) Pfungst demonstrated that the most parsimonious explanation was that the horse had a higher level of intelligence than other horses c) Pfungst ruled out intelligence by showing that if the questioner didn’t know the answer, thehorse didn’t know the answer d) he only answered correctly when his trainer (von Osten) knew the answer

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Test Bank—Chapter 3

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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48) Which of the following is the least accurate description of most research in psychology? a) the outcome of one study is usually a question that leads to the next study b) research is more likely to be the product of a research team than of an individual investigator working alone c) the majority of research ideas come from a logical deduction from an established theory d) researchers don’t complete projects in topic A, then move to B; they develop programs of research on topic A 49) Upon completion of a study, a research team may discuss predictions about the outcomes from a future revision of the study. This is best known as a form of a) creative thinking in science b) serendipitous thinking c) falsification d) “what’s next?” thinking 50) In their first experiment on study strategies on memory performance, Roediger and Karpicke (2006) found that a practice test led to better memory one week later than rereading the material one time.

Roediger and Karpicke then used ________ in their second experiment to test the role of rereading multiple times as a study strategy compared to practice testing. a) creative thinking in science b) “what’s next?” thinking c) falsification d) serendipitous thinking 51) Roediger and Karpicke (2006) conducted two experiments on the effects of different study strategies on remembering scientific texts. Their second experiment is considered a ________, because it used similar procedures as the first experiment, but altered other features of the first experiment. a) questionable research practice b) direct replication c) parsimonious theory d) conceptual replication 52) A researcher uses some of the same procedures in her method as in a previous study, but she adds a new variable to be tested. What has she done? a) engaged in data falsification b) did a direct replication of the previous study c) did a conceptual replication of previous study d) created serendipity in her study 53) Study #1 compares 2- and 4-month old children on a perceptual task. Study #2 uses the same task and compares four groups of children, aged 2, 4, 6, and 8 months. Which of the following is true? a) study #2 is an direct replication b) study #2 should not have tested the 2- and 4-month olds (already been done) c) study #2 is a conceptual replication d) study #1 should have tested 6- and 8-month olds 54) Which of the following were found to be Questionable Research Practices (QRP’s) by John, Loewenstein, and Prelec (2012)? a) Failing to report all dependent measures b) Selectively reporting studies that “worked” c) Claiming to have predicted an unexpected finding d) All of the above

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Test Bank—Chapter 3

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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55) According to Pasteur, “chance favors the prepared mind.” Thus, creative breakthroughs in physics are most likely to be made by a) random accident (thus they could be made by anyone) b) physicists c) chemists d) any scientist other than a physicist 56) The creation of the maze apparatus a) a. required the presence of scientists (Small and Kline) with “prepared” minds (i.e., they knew about rat behavior) b) was not creative because it merely copied the human version c) is an example of following authority (i.e., lab director Sanford imposed his will) d) resulted from a desire to produce a laboratory situation unrelated to the rat’s everyday experience (that way, learning could be studied in its purest form)

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Test Bank—Chapter 3

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

57) Answers—Multiple Choice 1) C 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) B 6) C 7) A 8) D 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) C 18) C 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) C 23) C 24) D 25) B 26) C 27) C 28) D

29) B 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) B 36) A 37) B 38) C 39) D 40) D 41) D 42) C 43) A 44) A 45) D 46) A 47) C 48) C 49) D 50) B 51) D 52) C 53) C 54) D 55) B 56) A

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Test Bank—Chapter 3

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Fill-in the Blanks 1) ________ research contributes to our essential knowledge of psychological processes such as learning, memory, perception, and emotion.

2) An __________ is someone who is working for the experimenter and is “in on” the experiment, but to the participant, appears to be another participant (or perhaps just a bystander).

3) A study that duplicates a situation encountered in everyday living is said to have a high level of ________ realism; such a study may or may not have ________ realism.

4) To say that hunger can be defined as the result of 24 hours without food is to use a(n) _____________ definition of the term.

5) A theory can be the starting point for developing a research hypothesis through the logical process of _______.

6) A researcher, before starting a study, proposes that as the number of bystanders increases, the chances that any one of them will help an injured victim decreases. This statement is a good example of a(n) ___________.

7) John Watson completed a series of studies in which he attempted to determine which senses were necessary for maze learning to occur. His procedure of eliminating senses one by one is an example of what Popper would call a(n) _________ strategy.

8) Some thought that Clever Hans was highly intelligent, but a more _________ explanation was that he was responding to simple visual cues from the questioner.

9) Sometimes discoveries are made accidentally, as when a procedural error occurs. Such a discovery is said to be the result of __________.

10) If variables are poorly defined and procedures aren’t clearly spelled out by a particular investigator, it will be difficult for another researcher to ___________ the study.

11) _________ can be thought of as the process of seeing a meaningful connection between two ideas that appear to be unrelated to each other.

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Test Bank—Chapter 3

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

Answers—Fill-in the Blanks 1) basic 2) experimental confederate 3) mundane; experimental 4) operational 5) deduction 6) hypothesis 7) falsification 8) parsimonious 9) serendipity 10) replicate 11) creative thinking

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Short Essay Questions 1) Distinguish between the major goals of basic and applied research.

2) Distinguish between mundane realism and experimental realism and explain why most researchers believe the latter to be more important than the former.

3) Define manipulation check and pilot study and describe how Bushman and Anderson used each to ensure that their laboratory experiment was methodologically sound.

4) What is the difference between quantitative and qualitative research. Give an example of a typical method used in the latter approach.

5) What is serendipity? Use an example to show how the phenomenon relates to the question of developing research ideas.

6) Describe the roles played by inductive and deductive thinking in the relationship between theory and the results of research.

7) Use Festinger’s dissonance theory to explain what is meant by a construct.

8) Using maze learning as an example, describe how scientists can be creative.

9) Many research studies are examples of what is known as conceptual replication. Explain and use an example to illustrate.

10) Describe strategies for reading journal articles.

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Test Bank—Chapter 3

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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Comprehensive Essay Questions 1) Describe the purposes of basic and applied research and use the selective attention examples to show why some researchers argue that applied research often relies on a foundation provided by basic research.

2) Use the Bushman and Anderson (2009) experiments (testing the relationship between exposure to violence and helping behavior) as an illustration of the relative advantages and disadvantages of research done in the field and in the laboratory.

3) Describe the main features of a theory, show how research derives from theory and how research outcomes influence theory development, and explain why researchers don’t use the word “prove” when discussing theory. Use cognitive dissonance theory as the example.

4) Describe the Clever Hans case and show why it is a good example of falsification thinking and of choosing parsimonious explanations.

5) Describe how Roediger and Karpicke (2006) used “what’s next?” thinking in their study of using testing as a study strategy. In your essay, be sure to describe the procedures they used and the results they found.

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Test Bank—Chapter 4

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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Multiple Choice 1) Most research in psychology uses ________ sampling. a) convenience b) simple random c) stratified d) cluster 2) The purpose of random sampling is to obtain a sample that is a) large enough to be valid b) representative of the population c) smaller than the population d) significantly different from the population 3) In order to generalize from the results obtained with a sample to the population as a whole, a) all members of the population must be tested eventually b) each member of the population must have exactly the same probability of being selected, especially if stratified sampling is being used c) the sample must be representative of the population d) the exact values (on the trait being measured) for the population must be known 4) The basic definition of ____________ is that all members of the population have exactly the same chance of being selected as participants. a) cluster sampling b) nonprobability sampling c) convenience sampling d) simple random sampling 5) If it is not feasible to have a complete listing of the members of the population, which probability sampling method can be used? a) stratified b) convenience c) cluster d) simple random 6) When should a stratified sample be used? a) when probability sampling is not necessary b) when identifiable subgroups of the population are of interest c) when the population is too large for all of it to be tested d) when a list of all population members is not available 7) To study math achievement in West Virginia’s third graders, a researcher randomly selects 5% of the state’s school districts and gives all the students in each district a math test. What sampling procedure is being used here? a) quota b) stratified c) cluster d)none of the above (all the children in the selected districts are tested - therefore the entire population is being tested, not just a sample) 8) A researcher who selects a probability sample that is 40% male and 60% female is most likely to be using __________ sampling. a) cluster b) stratified c) convenience d) purposive

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Test Bank—Chapter 4

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9) All of the following are examples of probability sampling except a) simple random b) quota c) cluster d) stratified 10) Which of the following is an example of a construct? a) entering arm #3 of a radial maze b) using fingers when adding c) social effectiveness d) naming letters 11) Which of the following is not an example of a construct? a) perceived social support b) letter identification c) habituation d) social effectiveness 12) Which of the following sequences of “time (in seconds) spent looking” suggests that habituation is occurring? a) 14, 10, 8, 12 b) 6, 6, 6, 6 c) 10, 6, 10, 6 d) 10, 8, 6, 4 13) Which of the following sequences of “time (in seconds) spent looking” suggests that habituation occurs initially, but is followed by the perception of “something new?” a) 12, 10, 7, 11 b) 6, 6, 6, 6 c) 10, 6, 10, 6 d) 10, 8, 6, 4 14) In a sequence of trials, an infant looks at a stimulus for 10 seconds, then 8, then 6, then 4. On the next trial, the infant looks for 12 seconds. What has occurred on this last trial? a) the infant has noticed a change in the stimulus b) habituation has occurred c) the infant has lost interest in the stimulus d) the infant is afraid of the stimulus 15) A gradual decline in responding in the face of a repeated stimulus is known as a) inhibition b) habituation c) extinction d) reaction time 16) In the mental rotation studies, Shepard and Metzler (1971) predicted that a) participants would make more errors with a 30o rotation than with a 60o rotation b) participants would make more errors with a 60o rotation than with a 30o rotation c) participants would take more time with a 30o rotation than with a 60o rotation d) participants would take more time with a 60o rotation than with a 30o rotation

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17) Suppose a child in Kim and Spelke’s (1992) habituation experiment showed a gradual decrease in looking time when shown ten examples of balls rolling down a plane while accelerating. The child then sees (trial 11) a ball rolling down a plane while decelerating. If the child has grasped the concept of gravity, what will happen to the behavior? a) they will look longer on trial 10 than on trial 11 b) they will look longer on trial 11 than on trial 10 c) they will look for the same amount of time on both trials 10 and 11 d) not enough information to decide 18) Suppose a child in Kim and Spelke’s (1992) habituation experiment showed a gradual decrease in looking time when shown ten examples of balls rolling down a plane while accelerating. The child then sees (trial 11) a ball rolling up a plane while decelerating. If the child understands the concept of gravity, what will happen to the behavior? a) they will no longer look at the display b) they will look much longer on trial 11 than on trial 10 c) they will look for the same amount of time on both trials 10 and 11 d) not enough information to decide 19) If simple reaction time takes an average of 0.17 seconds and discrimination reaction time takes an average of 0.26 seconds, then according to Donders’ method, how long does the mental event of discrimination take? a) 0.43 seconds b) 0.26 seconds c) 0.09 seconds d) 0.20 seconds 20) Using Donders method, if the mental event called discrimination takes 0.07 seconds and discrimination reaction time takes 0.23 seconds, what is the person’s basic reaction time? a) 0.07 seconds b) 0.30 seconds c) 0.16 seconds d) 0.93 seconds 21) In the early reaction time research, reaction times for seemingly complex events were occasionally equal to the reaction times for simpler events. How could this have happened? a) the simple additive model was inadequate b) the equipment must have malfunctioned c) the complex event was really much simpler d) the experimenters did not have sufficient training 22) A test with a minimum amount of measurement error is said to be a) reliable b) valid c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above 23) On a reaction time test, which of the following factors could contribute to measurement error? a) subject attentiveness b) equipment irregularities c) increased boredom if the task lasts too long d) all of the above

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24) If an IQ test is reliable and a child scores 115, what is known? a) the child will only be an average student in school b) the student will perform at a level in school that is about 15% higher than others c) the IQ test is a good measure of intellect d) the person has a higher IQ than someone who scores 95 25) Which of the following is true about measures of behavior? a) they are more likely to be valid than reliable b) they all include some degree of measurement error c) measurement error can be eliminated completely by careful researchers d) if a measure has content validity, it is almost certain to be reliable 26) Magazine surveys about your mental health a) have been shown to be highly reliable b) have criterion validity but not construct validity c) have construct validity but not criterion validity d) have face validity but not construct validity 27) A test might not appear to be a good test of intelligence and yet it might do a very good job of predicting how well someone does in school. That is, this test a) has both face validity and predictive validity b) has criterion validity but not face validity c) is reliable but not valid d) has criterion validity but lacks reliability 28) If an personality test is able to produce results similar to results produced by other valid measures of personality, then we can say the test has good a) predictive validity b) concurrent validity c) face validity d) reliability 29) For each of the following, a construct is paired with a measure. Which measure has the least content validity? a) creativity — crossword puzzle completion b) delay of gratification — choosing to wait for a larger reward c) verbal intelligence — vocabulary d) short-term memory — recall of nonsense syllables 30) On the “Connectedness to Nature” scale, convergent validity was established when it was found that a correlation existed between scores on the scale and a) SAT scores b) scores on a test of social desirability c) scores on the NEP (“New Ecological Paradigm”) test d) scores on a shyness test 31) Which of the following is true about construct validity? a) it is never established in a single study b) it is concerned with the question of whether the construct being measured is a meaningful construct c) it is concerned with the question of whether a tool developed to measure a construct is the best one available d) all of the above

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32) On the “Connectedness to Nature” scale, divergent validity was established when it was found that no correlation existed between scores on the scale and a) SAT scores b) scores on a test of social desirability c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above – the outcomes in alternatives a. and b. supported convergent validity 33) A study examines scores on an employment test and job performance six months later. This study is most likely attempting to establish a) criterion validity b) face validity c) reliability d) construct validity 34) When phrenologists assessed the trait of “destructiveness” by measuring skull contour, their measurements were a) reliable and valid b) reliable but not valid c) valid but not reliable d) neither reliable nor valid 35) The results of an inkblot test might be quite different when given to the same person on two different occasions. If this is the case, then based on this fact alone, the inkblot test is a) not reliable but probably valid b) not reliable c) not valid d) neither reliable nor valid 36) A test is said to be reliable if ___________, and valid if it _____________. a) its results are repeatable; measures what it is supposed to measure b) has a sufficiently high amount of measurement error; measures what it is supposed to i) measure c) its results are repeatable; is low in measurement error d) measures what it is supposed to measure; is low in measurement error 37) Classification is the major purpose of a(n) ________ scale of measurement. a) nominal b) ordinal c) interval d) ratio 38) Guéguen and Ciccotti (2008) tested whether having a dog present would lead women to provide their phone numbers to inquiring men. In this study, a nominal scale of measurement was used for which variable? a) gender b) whether or not a dog was present c) whether or not phone numbers were provided d) a nominal scale of measurement was not used in this study 39) When considering a student’s overall standing in a class (first, second, third, etc.), which measurement scale is being used? a) nominal b) ordinal c) interval d) ratio

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40) When using a(n) ______ measurement scale, the most that can be said is that one score is greater than another. a) nominal b) ordinal c) interval d) ratio 41) All of the following are examples of ratio scale measures except a) reaction time b) number of errors in maze running c) Grade Point Average (GPA) d) number of words recalled on a memory test 42) Consider the experiment on multiple choice answer changing. What measurement scale was used in reporting the results of this study? a) nominal b) ordinal c) interval d) ratio 43) The main difference between an interval and a ratio scale is that an interval scale a) is used only for placing participants into categories b) does not have a true zero point c) does not preserve a rank order in the assignment of numbers d) has equal intervals between numbers 44) Which of the following is true about interval and ratio scales? a) in a ratio scale, a score of zero means the absence of the phenomenon being measured b) in an interval scale, it is not possible to achieve a score of zero c) equal intervals exist in interval scales, but such is not the case in ratio scales d) equal intervals exist in ratio scales, but such is not the case in interval scales 45) In Sheldon’s (1940) research, 7-point ______ scales were used to measure body type and temperament. a) nominal b) ordinal c) interval d) ratio 46) In the study by Korn, Davis, and Davis (1991), it was determined that department chairs rated B. F. Skinner higher on their “all time” list than historians did. The study featured a(n) _______ scale of measurement. a) nominal b) ordinal c) interval d) ratio 47) Psychologists generally assume that most personality and IQ tests use a(n) _____ scale. a) nominal b) ordinal c) interval d) ratio

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48) Descriptive statistics a) enable the researcher to determine the significance of results b) summarize the data of an experiment c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above 49) Descriptive statistic is to inferential statistic as _________ is to ________. a) mean; standard deviation b) central tendency; variability c) sample; population d) median; range 50) All of the following are measures of central tendency except a) range b) median c) mean d) mode 51) When is the median a better measure of central tendency than the mean? a) when several of the scores are the same score b) when there are a few scores that are much higher or lower than the others c) when the scores are normally distributed d) none of the above; the mean is always preferred 52) Five children are tested for IQ and their scores are: 110, 160, 100, 100, 110. What is the best way to describe the central tendency of these scores? a) the mode b) the median c) the mean d) the range 53) Five children are tested for IQ. For which sets of scores will the median and the mode both be the same? a) 110, 150, 100, 110, 115 b) 90, 100, 120, 110, 90 c) 100, 180, 90, 110, 80 d) 90, 90, 100, 120, 100 54) What is the relationship between a frequency distribution (FD) and a normal distribution (ND)? a) FD uses the median as the primary measure of central tendency; ND uses the mean b) FD is a hypothetical distribution; ND is based on actual data c) FD is a distribution of actual scores, while ND is a hypothetical distribution d) FD is always bell shaped, while ND may or may not be bell shaped 55) A graph in which each vertical bar corresponds to the frequency of some score is called a a) normal curve b) Gee Whiz graph c) histogram d) line graph 56) In a normal distribution, what (approximate) percentage of scores likely fall within one standard deviation of the mean? a) 50% b) 68% c) 75% d) 95%

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57) Knowing the standard deviation of a set of scores, it is possible to calculate a) range b) variance c) the mean d) the frequency distribution 58) If a researcher wishes to establish groups of individuals based on low and high scores on some measure, they may use the ___________ to find the 25th and 75th percentiles of the set of scores to create their groups. a) variance b) standard deviation c) range d) interquartile range 59) When summarizing data, why is it important to report both the mean and the standard deviation? a) two sets of data could have the same mean but different amounts of variability b) this way both descriptive and inferential statistics are covered c) this way the null hypothesis can be evaluated d) this enables the researcher to avoid Type I and Type II errors 60) Normally, which of the following outcomes is most desired by the researcher? a) reject Ho; Ho is true b) reject Ho; Ho is false c) fail to reject Ho; Ho is true d) fail to reject Ho; Ho is false 61) A Type I error occurs when the researcher a) rejects Ho, but Ho is true b) rejects Ho, but Ho is false c) fails to reject Ho, but Ho is true d) fails to reject Ho, but Ho is false 62) In a study examining gender differences in verbal fluency in children, the null hypothesis is that a) girls and boys perform equally b) girls will most likely outperform boys c) boys will most likely outperform girls d) could be either alternative b. or c., depending on the researcher’s prediction 63) A Type II error occurs when the researcher a) rejects Ho, but Ho is true b) rejects Ho, but Ho is false c) fails to reject Ho, but Ho is true d) fails to reject Ho, but Ho is false 64) In a maze learning study, a researcher compares the performance of laboratory-bred rats and wild rats, hoping to find that the wild rats are better. Which of the following is true? a) the null hypothesis is that wild rats will learn faster than lab rats b) a Type II error would be to find a difference in the study when no true difference exists c) a Type I error would be to find no difference in the study when a true difference exists d) if wild rats really are better, but the researcher fails to reject the null hypothesis, then a Type II error has occurred

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65) In a maze learning study, a researcher compares the performance of laboratory-bred rats and wild rats, hoping to find that the wild rats are better. Which of the following would be a Type II error? a) the null hypothesis is rejected when it is in fact true b) the wild rats outperform the lab rats in the study c) no difference is found in the study, but wild rats are in truth better maze learners d) lab rats learn faster in the study, but in truth there is no difference 66) In a “Gee whiz” graph, a) the differences are so obvious that an inferential analysis is not needed b) the hoped-for differences fail to materialize c) apparent differences are exaggerated by failing to label the Y-axis appropriately d) there are too many lines, making it impossible to interpret 67) Which of the following is true about Type I errors? a) the probability of one occurring is equal to the alpha level b) they cannot occur if the statistical test is powerful enough c) they occur when a true effect exists, but we fail to discover it in our study d) if one occurs, there is no chance that your study will be published 68) Which of the following is true about Type II errors? a) the probability of one occurring is equal to the alpha level b) they cannot occur if the statistical test is powerful enough c) they occur when a true effect exists, but we fail to discover it in our study d) they occur when we reject the null hypothesis, when we really should not do so 69) Researchers are happy whenever a) systematic variance is large b) error variance is small c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above 70) A set of data has a mean of 12 and a 95% confidence interval of 10-14. What does this mean? a) the standard deviation will be 14-10, or 4 b) you can be 95% sure that 12 is the population mean c) in order for the mean to be significantly different fro some other mean, the scores producing the other mean cannot be between 10 and 14 d) you can be quite sure that the population mean falls somewhere between 10 and 14 71) What is accomplished by a meta-analysis? a) this analysis determines the probability of making both type I and type II errors b) this is the statistical technique used to measure power c) this is the term used to describe the complete statistical analysis of data—both the descriptive and the inferential analyses d) this is a statistical procedure that combines effect sizes of several studies 72) The power of a statistical analysis refers to a) the chances of rejecting the false null hypothesis b) the chances of rejecting a true null hypothesis c) the chances of rejecting any null hypothesis d) whether the analysis involves descriptive or inferential statistics (inferential are more powerful)

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73) Null hypothesis significance testing answers the question ________, while an effect size analysis answers the question ________. a) how much of an effect did one factor have on another?; is the difference significant? b) is the difference significant?; how much of an effect did one factor have on another? c) can we reject Ho; is the sample large enough? d) have we made a Type I error?; have we made a Type II error?

74) The tendency for studies with statistically significant results to be published more so than studies with nonsignificant results is called ________. a) a publication bias b) an effect size c) a meta-analysis d) power 75) Suppose there are 100 studies that failed to demonstrate an effect of gender on false memories, but 8 studies that showed a gender difference. One may conclude from reading the published studies there is a gender difference, but one may be incorrect due to a) incomplete confidence intervals. b) error variance. c) systematic variance. d) a phenomenon called a file drawer effect.

76) Researchers often report effect sizes to demonstrate a) the relationship between systematic variance and error variance. b) confidence intervals. c) the size or magnitude of the effect. d) statistical power.

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Test Bank—Chapter 4

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Answers—Multiple Choice 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) C 6) B 7) C 8) B 9) B 10) C 11) B 12) D 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) D 17) B 18) C 19) C 20) C 21) A 22) A 23) D 24) D 25) B 26) D 27) A 28) B 29) B 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) A 34) B 35) B 36) A 37) A 38) C 39) B

40) B 41) C 42) A 43) B 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) C 48) B 49) C 50) A 51) B 52) B 53) A 54) C 55) C 56) B 57) B 58) D 59) A 60) B 61) A 62) A 63) D 64) D 65) C 66) C 67) A 68) C 69) C 70) D 71) D 72) A 73) B 74) A 75) D 76) C

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Fill-in the Blanks 1) A sampling procedure that randomly selects a group of people all having some feature in common is called _______.

2) If a test is _______, then it will be low in measurement error.

3) If a test has _________, then its scores can be used to estimate what behaviors will occur in the future.

4) If researchers had found that participants who scored low on the Connectedness to Nature scale also scored high on the NEP (New Ecological Paradigm), serious questions would have been raised about the ___________ of the Connectedness to Nature test.

5) In a(n) _______ scale of measurement, it is appropriate to say that someone with a score of 40 has done only half as well as someone with a score of 80.

6) There are an equal number of scores that are both higher and lower than the _______.

7) The most frequently occurring score in a set of scores is called the ______.

8) A graph summarizing the number of times that a score occurs in a data set is called a(n) ________.

9) The probability of making a Type I error can be determined; it is equal to the __________.

10) You finish your study, find a significant difference between two groups of scores, but it is later determined that no true difference exists. You have made a(n) ______ error.

11) You finish your study, find no differences whatsoever between two groups of scores, but it is later determined that a true difference actually exists. You have made a(n) ______ error.

12) When doing an inferential analysis, the researcher hopes to find a large amount of ________ variance and a small amount of _________ variance.

13) In a __________, the effect sizes of several studies on the same topic are combined statistically.

14) A _________ illustrates an estimated range of scores within which a population mean is likely to reside.

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Test Bank—Chapter 4

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Answers—Fill-in the Blanks 1) cluster sampling 2) reliable 3) criterion validity 4) construct validity 5) ratio 6) median 7) mode 8) histogram 9) alpha level 10) Type I 11) Type II 12) systematic; error 13) meta-analysis 14) confidence interval

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Short Essay Questions 1) Define habituation and explain how it can be used to examine an infant’s understanding of gravity.

2) Define reliability and explain why it is important for behavioral measures to be reliable.

3) Explain why accurate bicycle riding, as a measure of IQ, would be reliable but not valid. How would you demonstrate its lack of validity?

4) Give an example of each of the four types of measurement scales.

5) Distinguish between a mean and a median and explain when it is better to use the latter rather than the former.

6) What information is conveyed in a confidence interval?

7) What is the essential difference between descriptive statistics and inferential statistics?

8) Distinguish between a Type I error and a Type II error.

9) What questions are answered by (a) null hypothesis significance testing, and (b) effect size analysis?

10) Compare and contrast effect size and confidence intervals as tools researchers may use to describe their results in more depth.

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Comprehensive Essay Questions 1) Distinguish between probability and nonprobability sampling techniques. Describe 3 types of probability sampling techniques and 3 types of nonprobability sampling techniques.

2) Consider the use of reaction time as a measure of behavior. Describe its original use and the manner in which it is used today (for the latter, use the mental rotation studies as an example).

3) Distinguish between the reliability and validity of a behavioral measure, explain how each is determined, and explain why a measure could be reliable but not valid.

4) Explain the essential differences between the four scales of measurement. Provide an example of each scale of measurement to illustrate each. Why is it important to be aware of these differences?

5) Describe the basic logic of hypothesis testing. Work these terms into the description: null hypothesis, alternative hypothesis, alpha level, Type I error, Type II error.

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Multiple Choice 1) In his famous 1938 text, the so-called “Columbia bible,” R. S. Woodworth a) argued that experimental and correlational studies were not fundamentally different b) distinguished between independent and dependent variables in experiments c) dismissed correlational research as not scientific d) showed a preference for correlational over experimental research 2) Woodworth’s so-called “Columbia bible” was the first experimental psychology text to argue for a clear distinction between a) experimental and control groups b) manipulated and subject variables c) experimental and correlational research strategies d) nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales of measurement 3) Woodworth’s 1938 text, Experimental Psychology, a) showed a preference for experimental over correlational research b) distinguished between independent and dependent variables c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above 4) For any experiment investigating the effect of X on Y, a) X is the independent variable b) Y is the dependent variable c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above 5) A researcher tests four different groups of participants. Each group is given a different dosage of caffeine, and reaction time is measured for each subject. Which of the following is true? a) dosage level is the dependent variable b) reaction time is an independent variable c) the independent variable has four levels d) the independent variable is a subject variable 6) Rats learning a maze are tested after varying degrees of food deprivation. Some run the maze after 4 hours without food, others after 8 hours, and others after 12 hours deprivation. In this study, a) food deprivation is the manipulated independent variable b) the rats are a subject variable c) the independent variable is a task variable d) food deprivation is the dependent variable 7) To see if the time of day has an effect on helping behavior, experimenters ask passersby for directions in New York’s Central Park, either at 8:00 am or 8:00 pm. Which of the following is true? a) this is an example of field research that lacks an independent variable b) this is a study with two independent variables (the times) c) this is an example of a field experiment d) the independent variable is an instructional variable 8) With ___________ participants complete different tasks, whereas with ___________ participants are told how to do certain tasks. a) instructional variables; task variables b) task variables; instructional variables c) task variables; situational variables d) situational variables; task variables

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9) In an experiment on creative problem solving in groups, some groups of participants are told to produce the best solutions, while other groups are told to produce ideas without regard to their merit (i.e., to brainstorm). The independent variable in this study is a) the different levels of creativity b) a task variable c) an instructional variable d) how quickly the solutions will be produced for the two groups 10) In a study assessing the effects of crowding on problem solving, participants solve anagrams in large or small rooms. In this case, the independent variable is a) a situational variable b) a task variable c) an instructional variable d) a subject variable 11) A researcher is interested in whether memory is better for concrete rather than abstract nouns and designs a study to answer the question. In this study, the independent variable is a) a situational variable b) a task variable c) an instructional variable d) a subject variable 12) What do all experiments have in common? a) there are at least two different ways in which participants are treated b) at least one independent variable will be an instructional variable c) there must be at least two dependent measures d) there must be a control group 13) Experimental group is to control group as ________ is to _______. a) independent variable; dependent variable b) dependent variable; independent variable c) untreated; treated d) treated; untreated 14) For which of these empirical questions would a control group most clearly be needed? a) If institutionalized elderly are given responsibility for meal planning, will it improve their psychological health? b) Do laboratory-bred rats learn mazes faster than wild rats? c) If participants are trying to solve problems, will they perform better in the morning or the evening? d) Will an attractive female defendant be treated more leniently by a jury than an attractive male defendant?

15) In a study of the effects of X on Y, variable Z is confounded with X. Which of the following is true? a) X could be causing Y b) Z could be causing Y c) both alternatives a. and b. are equally possible d) none of the above 16) When a confound exists, a) some uncontrolled factor covaries with the independent variable b) it cannot be determined whether the confounding variable or the independent (1) variable is causing the results to occur c) there will be at least two different ways of interpreting the results d) all of the above

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17) A researcher wants to know if children prefer cereal that has colors in it. Preschoolers compare plaincolored Wheatios with multicolored Rice Chrunchios. The children preferred the latter. What can be concluded? a) children prefer colored cereal b) whether the cereal is composed of wheat or rice is the independent variable c) cereal type is confounded with cereal color d) cereal color is the dependent variable 18) When a confound exists, a) it means that the researcher failed to include a control group in the study b) it is the confounding factor, not the independent variable, which causes the behavior to occur c) there will be at least two different ways of interpreting the results d) it simply means that the dependent variable hasn’t been defined precisely enough 19) Some subjects try to solve a difficult maze while sitting in a 2x3 ft room. Others try to solve the same maze while sitting in a 10x12 ft room. The purpose of the study is to examine the effect of crowding on maze performance The larger room has natural light because of its two windows. The 2x3 ft room has no windows, so natural light is simulated with a special type of fluorescent light. Which of the following is true? a) the independent variable is the type of maze being used b) whether or not windows are present is an uncontrolled extraneous variable c) assuming random assignment is used, this study clearly has internal validity d) the main variable is a subject variable 20) In the study described in the previous item, what is the dependent variable? a) a measure of room size b) the type of maze being used c) maze performance d) the degree of natural light 21) Another term for “uncontrolled extraneous variable” is a) confounding variable b) independent variable c) dependent variable d) subject variable 22) In any experiment, the dependent variable is a) some behavior being measured b) the factor that is being controlled c) the factor being manipulated by the experimenter d) usually selected randomly 23) In study in which some participants are made anxious and others are not, and anxious subjects then do more poorly on a difficult problem, anxiety is a) a subject variable b) the dependent variable c) an extraneous variable being controlled d) a manipulated independent variable 24) After taking the Taylor Manifest Anxiety Scale, those scoring in the top 25% are assigned to group A and those scoring in the bottom 25% are assigned to group B. Participants in both groups are then given a series of problems to solve in a small (8x8) windowless room. Which of the following is true about anxiety in this study? a) it is a task variable b) it is an instructional variable c) it is a subject variable

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d) it is a dependent variable 25) After taking a personality test that differentiates introverts from extraverts, two groups are formed.

Tested individually, introverted participants are given a series of problems to solve in a small (36 square feet) room, while extroverts are given the same problems in a larger room (81 square feet). Which of the following is true? a) the independent variable is shyness b) introversion/extraversion is a manipulated independent variable c) room size is the dependent variable d) personality (introvert/extravert) is confounded with room size 26) People are given a personality test and then separated into those who tend to be introverted and those who tend to be extroverted. In this study the independent variable is a _______ variable. a) subject b) manipulated c) task d) controlled 27) A researcher finds that in a study of direction finding, men are less likely to acknowledge being lost than women. In this study, the independent variable is a) whether or not participants get lost b) a willingness to admit being lost c) a subject variable d) a manipulated variable 28) When a subject variable is used as an independent variable and differences occur between groups on the dependent measure, what can be concluded? a) the independent variable caused the differences to occur, assuming there are no confounds b) the two groups performed differently c) in this case, the subject variable must be a dependent variable, not an independent variable d) because a subject variable is being used, nothing at all can be concluded 29) In a study about self-esteem, self-esteem is a) a subject variable b) a manipulated variable c) the dependent variable d) could be any of the above 30) Self-esteem would be considered a manipulated independent variable if a) two groups in a study were composed of those with high self-esteem and low self-esteem b) a procedure was designed so that some people succeeded and others failed in a task c) only moderate self-esteem participants were picked for the study d) none of the above — as a personality variable, self-esteem is by definition a subject variable 31) The Ji, Peng, and Nisbett (2000) study tested subjects on a “field dependence test” called the rod and frame test (RFT). As independent variables, this study used a) a task variable (RFT) and a situational variable (culture) b) a manipulated (RFT) and a nonmanipulated variable (sex) c) a manipulated (sex) and a subject variable (culture) d) two subject variables (sex and culture) 32) Conclusions about cause and effect can be drawn in studies involving a) instructional variables b) task variables c) situational variables d) all of the above

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Test Bank—Chapter 5

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

33) Conclusions about cause and effect cannot be drawn in studies involving a) manipulated variables b) task variables c) situational variables d) subject 34) In the Bobo doll study by Bandura, Ross, and Ross, a) children saw different degrees of aggression; there was no control group used b) both a manipulated and a subject variable were included c) the size of the Bobo doll was kept the same for both adult models and child participants d) the dependent variable was sex 35) In the Bobo study by Bandura, Ross, and Ross (1963), the manipulated independent variable was a) the type of modeling experience given to children b) whether the children exposed to the models were male or female c) the frustration experienced by the children when told the attractive toys were being reserved for others d) whether the Bobo doll was adult-sized or child-sized 36) In a study comparing two sets of rankings, a researcher erroneously uses a statistical analysis designed for use with interval or ratio data. This study will have questionable a) internal validity b) construct validity c) statistical conclusion validity d) reliability 37) Decisions made about how to define the dependent variable most clearly affect the ________ validity of a study. a) internal b) construct c) external d) statistical conclusion 38) Studies of aggression have sometimes been criticized for developing questionable operational definitions of aggression (e.g., horn honking). This is primarily a criticism of _________ validity. a) internal b) construct c) external d) statistical conclusion 39) Those who argue that psychologists know a great deal about college sophomores but very little about other groups are criticizing the ______ validity of psychological research. a) internal b) construct c) external d) statistical conclusion 40) When B. F. Skinner was ranked as the top psychologist by psychology department heads, some might argue that the ranking occurred because the study was done shortly after Skinner died.

This is a criticism of ________ validity. a) internal b) construct c) external d) statistical conclusion

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Test Bank—Chapter 5

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

5-6

41) The internal validity of a study is high when a) the results generalize to other situations b) the results apply to other groups of people c) potential confounds are properly controlled d) external validity is also high (they go together) 42) Research that attempts to study psychological phenomena in settings that reflect daily living (e.g., a memory study about forgetting where we put our keys) is said to have _________ validity. a) construct b) ecological c) internal d) no statistical conclusion 43) External validity concerns the extent that research findings a) result from methodologically sound procedures b) result from studies that carefully define the variables c) generalize beyond the specific group tested in the study d) reflect properly completed statistical analyses 44) Compared with research in which people learn lists of words and recall them, studies on such topics as eyewitness memory and the recall of high school Spanish have greater a) ecological validity b) construct validity c) internal validity d) statistical validity 45) Social psychologists might be concerned that conformity experiments using participants from individualist cultures might not be relevant for understanding behavior in collectivist cultures. This concern is about _______ validity. a) internal b) external c) construct d) statistical conclusion 46) Which of the following is true about subject (participant) pools? a) because of the new APA ethics code, they are no longer used b) students must be given a reasonable alternative to research participation c) to insure participation in research, and therefore a continuation of progress, the APA encourages schools to demand full participation from psychology students d) an hour of participation is considered to be the equivalent of a 10-page paper 47) Concerning subject (participant) pools, the APA recommends all of the following except a) alternative activities must equal research participation in terms of time and effort b) students should be aware of the requirement before signing up for the course c) students should be encouraged to participate, and be told about alternatives if they ask about them d) there must be a clear and simple method for students to complain about any perceived mistreatment 48) In order to determine if some experience brought about a change in an individual from one time to another, researchers often use designs that include a) pretests and posttests b) control groups c) statistics d) regression

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Test Bank—Chapter 5

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

5-7

49) Between the administration of a pretest and a posttest, an event may occur that can affect the results of the study independent of the treatment program being evaluated. This threat to internal validity is called a) history b) regression c) testing d) maturation 50) Worker productivity is assessed before and after a program for flextime is instituted. Just after the pretest, workers receive an unexpected bonus check based on unusually high product sales.

Productivity is higher on the posttest than on the pretest, but the researcher suspects ______ as a threat to internal validity. a) history b) regression c) instrumentation d) selection 51) A “freshman year” program finds that first year students are more relaxed at the end of their first semester than they were at the beginning. The Dean is excited, but the researcher suspects the change may be due to a) history b) regression c) maturation d) selection 52) During the course of an experimental that lasts over a period of time, normal developmental changes may occur that can affect the results of the study independent of the treatment program being evaluated. This threat to internal validity is called a) history b) regression c) testing d) maturation 53) For an experimental group in a program to reduce anxiety, the mean pretest score is 80 (max = 100). The posttest score is 70. This change was the result of a) regression b) program effectiveness c) maturation d) any of the above are possible 54) In study described in the previous item, confidence in program effectiveness would be highest if a control group, which also started with a pretest score of 80, had a posttest score of a) 80 b) 70 c) 90 d) 75 55) Because of the _______ phenomenon, any extreme score on a pretest is almost certain to be followed by a less extreme score on the posttest. a) regression to the mean b) history c) maturation d) testing

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Test Bank—Chapter 5

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

5-8

56) After averaging 20 points per game for her college basketball team over the first 15 games, Amanda scores 37 points one night. Because of _______, she will almost certainly score _______ points in the next game. a) a fatigue effect; fewer b) a history effect; more c) regression to the mean; more d) regression to the mean; fewer 57) After taking a special computerized introductory sociology course, students do twice as well on the posttest as they did on the pretest. The researcher suspects the pretest alerted students to what was to come, however. This threat to internal validity is called a) instrumentation b) testing c) regression to the mean d) selection 58) Sometimes, pretest and posttest measures are records taken by observers who improve their skills with practice. In this case, pretest-posttest changes could be due to program effectiveness or to the threat to internal validity called a) instrumentation b) testing c) attrition d) maturation 59) The presence of a control group enables researchers to evaluate threats to internal validity.

However, one threat that is most likely to still influence results to an unknown degree, even when a control group is used, is a) history b) maturation c) instrumentation d) testing 60) Most researchers would agree that a) every experiment that lasts more than an hour should include a pretest and a posttest b) external validity is more important than internal validity c) internal validity is more important than external validity d) research results have no significant value unless they have ecological validity 61) Which of the following is true about external validity? a) researchers consider it less important, in the long run, than internal validity b) it can only accumulate over time, with lots of research c) both alternatives a. and b. are true d) none of the above 62) Sometimes performance differences could be attributed to an independent variable or to some basic difference in the composition of the two groups involved. When this occurs, there is said to be a threat due to a) regression b) maturation c) attrition d) selection 63) The major threat to internal validity that occurs in studies that last for a significant period of time (e.g., five years) is a) regression b) maturation

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Test Bank—Chapter 5

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

5-9

c) attrition d) selection 64) Brady’s “ulcers in executive monkeys” study was flawed by which of the following threats to internal validity? a) selection b) maturation c) attrition d) testing 65) What was the main methodological flaw in Brady’s “ulcers in executive monkeys” study? a) because the animals were in restraining chairs for so long, a maturation effect occurred b) the executive monkeys were more ulcer-prone than the control group monkeys c) because the study was completed in another historical era, there is no external validity d) because most of the monkeys died, attrition was a problem 66) In a study comparing productivity in two factories, one in an urban setting and one in a rural setting, a city wide strike may affect life for subjects in the first group but not those in the second.

This is an example of a) selection interacting with history b) attrition c) a simple selection effect d) selection interacting with instrumentation 67) The simplest way to evaluate threats to internal validity due to history, maturation, and regression is to a) include a control group b) include a pretest as well as a postest c) use only subject variables d) use a subject pool 68) In a study of the effectiveness of a program to reduce test anxiety, pretest scores (N=40) average 80 (max = 100) and posttest scores average 65. Which of the following pretest-posttest scores in a control group would make you most confident about program effectiveness? a) pre 80 → post 65 b) pre 70 → post 70 c) pre 70 → post 55 d) pre 80 → post 72

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Test Bank—Chapter 5

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

Answers—Multiple Choice

1) B 2) C 3) C 4) C 5) C 6) A 7) C 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) D 17) C 18) C 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) D 26) A 27) C 28) B 29) D 30) B 31) D 32) D 33) D 34) B

35) A 36) C 37) B 38) B 39) C 40) C 41) C 42) B 43) C 44) A 45) B 46) B 47) C 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) C 52) D 53) D 54) A 55) A 56) D 57) B 58) A 59) D 60) C 61) C 62) D 63) C 64) A 65) B 66) A 67) A 68) B

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Test Bank—Chapter 5

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

5-2

Fill-in the Blanks 1) In a study evaluating the effects of X on Y, X is the ________, while Y is the ________.

2) You can be sure that a _______ variable is being used if the research hypothesizes sex differences in some task.

3) Uncontrolled extraneous variables are referred to as ________.

4) ________ validity is concerned with the extent to which results generalize beyond the particular experiment being conducted.

5) If a study is free from confounding factors, it is said to have ________ validity.

6) ___________ validity occurs when a proper statistical analysis has been completed.

7) A threat to internal validity that results from some unexpected event is referred to as __________.

8) A _________ effect will be suspected when extremely high pretest scores show a slight decline on posttest.

9) If a study lasts for an appreciable period of time, participants might learn new things or grow wiser in some way, thereby producing a threat to internal validity known as ________.

10) __________ effects occur when two groups of participants are nonequivalent.

11) Some studies last long enough for a significant number of people to drop out; this problem is called _________.

12) If the tool being used to evaluate performance changes in some way between pretest and posttest, then _______ can be a threat to the study’s internal validity.

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Test Bank—Chapter 5

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

Answers—Fill-in the Blanks 1) independent variable; dependent variable 2) subject 3) confounds 4) External 5) internal 6) Statistical conclusion 7) history 8) regression 9) maturation 10) Subject selection 11) attrition 12) instrumentation

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Test Bank—Chapter 5

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

5-4

Short Essay Questions 1) In general, describe the three essential features of any experimental study in which a causal conclusion can be drawn.

2) It is sometimes argued that using control groups is unethical because it can deprive participants of useful treatments. How do most research psychologists respond?

3) Explain why the presence of an uncontrolled extraneous variable (i.e., a confound) makes it impossible to interpret the results of a study.

4) How can a researcher be sure that a study has statistical conclusion validity?

5) What is the difference between the internal validity of a study and its external validity?

6) Explain what is meant by a subject selection confound and give an example of how this problem can interact with other threats to internal validity.

7) Distinguish between external validity in general and ecological validity in particular.

8) Explain why selection effects can cause problems for researchers and explain how selection can interact with other threats to internal validity.

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Test Bank—Chapter 5

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

5-5

Comprehensive Essay Questions 1) Describe and explain the difference in the kinds of conclusions that can be drawn from studies using manipulated independent variables and studies using subject variables.

2) What is meant by a “control” group and what is its purpose? Describe how Damisch, Stoberock, and Mussweiler (2010) used a control group in their study of lucky golf balls; explain their method, results and conclusions.

3) Suppose you decide to implement a participant pool policy at your school. What important guidelines should your policy include in order to meet the requirements set by the APA? 4) For a study with a pretest and a posttest, describe five threats to internal validity and explain how a control group enables the researcher to evaluate those threats.

5) Describe both the ethical and methodological problems with Brady’s “ulcers in executive monkeys” study.

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Test Bank—Chapter 6

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

6-1

Multiple Choice 1) A between-subjects design a) is also known as a repeated-measures design b) must deal with the problem of equivalent groups c) includes a minimum of two independent variables d) must include a subject variable 2) A within-subjects design a) is also known as a repeated-measures design b) must deal with the problem of equivalent groups c) includes a minimum of two independent variables d) must include a subject variable 3) A between-subjects design a) requires fewer subjects than a comparable within-subjects design b) must deal with the problem of sequence effects c) includes at least two different groups of participants d) tests the same group of participants at each level of the independent variable 4) A within-subjects design a) requires more subjects than a comparable between-subjects design b) must deal with the problem of order effects c) tests different groups of participants at each level of the independent variable d) includes at least three different groups of subjects 5) In between-subject designs, a) each subject participates in at least two levels of the independent variable b) relatively small numbers of participants usually need to be recruited c) blocked random assignment can be used as a way for forming equivalent groups d) block randomization can be used as a method of counterbalancing 6) All of the following characterize between-subjects designs except a) concern over order effects b) requires larger N than comparable within-subjects designs c) concern over how to create equivalent groups d) random assignment frequently used 7) All of the following characterize within-subjects designs except a) concern over order effects b) requires smaller N than comparable between-subjects designs c) researcher will use either random assignment or matching d) some form of counterbalancing will be used 8) In a study by Sigall and Ostrove (1975), participants recommended jail sentences for “Barbara Helm.” The study is a good example of a) the use of complete counterbalancing b) the advantages of matching over random assignment as a means of creating equivalent groups c) a type of study requiring a between-subjects design d) a type of study requiring a within-subjects design

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Test Bank—Chapter 6

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

6-2

9) Creating equivalent groups is a design problem for a) between-subjects designs b) within-subjects designs c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above 10) In _______, each subject volunteering for the study has an equal chance of being placed into group A or group B. a) random assignment b) counterbalancing c) matching d) using a Latin square 11) What is accomplished by random assignment? a) possible order effects are controlled b) possible confounds are spread evenly through the different groups c) an equal number of subjects per group is assured d) a representative sample is selected from the population 12) When subjects partake in each condition before any condition is repeated ________ has been used. a) reverse counterbalancing b) matching c) block randomization d) blocked random assignment 13) Random assignment is to random selection as _______ is to ________. a) between-subjects; within-subjects b) placing participants in groups; acquiring participants for the study c) complete counterbalancing; partial counterbalancing d) recruiting subjects; debriefing subjects 14) What do random assignment and matching have in common? a) they are both designed to reduce the number of participants needed for a study b) they both provide effective counterbalancing c) they are both designed to create equivalent groups of participants d) they are both commonly found in within-subjects designs 15) When using a matching procedure a) participants are tested upon completion of the study as a manipulation check. b) participants are tested upon completion of the study for an assessment of individual differences. c) participants with different scores are paired then a member of each pair is randomly assigned to each level of the independent variable. d) participants with similar scores are paired then a member of each pair is randomly assigned to each level of the independent variable.

16) As a technique for creating equivalent groups, when is matching preferred over random assignment? a) when a large number of subjects are available and can be used b) when some extraneous variable is known to correlate with the dependent variable c) whenever a within-subjects design is preferred over a between-subjects design d) whenever a potential confound exists, but you aren’t aware of its presence

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Test Bank—Chapter 6

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

6-3

17) Which of the following is not an important factor in determining whether to use matching as a technique for creating equivalent groups? a) sample size b) whether an extraneous variable is known to correlate with the dependent variable c) whether it is possible to measure participants on the potential matching variable d) whether counterbalancing is required 18) When using matching to create equivalent groups, a matching variable is a) any factor that is believed to correlate with the dependent measure being used b) another name for the independent variable c) always a subject variable d) never actually measured 19) When is it most likely that a between-subjects design is being used? a) when a Latin square is mentioned in the design b) when the independent variable is a manipulated variable c) when a subject variable is being used d) whenever there are more than 40 subjects being tested 20) When deciding to use matching, which of the following is unimportant as a factor contributing to the decision? a) sample size b) whether an extraneous variable is known to correlate with the dependent variable c) whether it is possible to measure participants on the potential matching variable d) all of the above are important 21) Blocked random assignment is sometimes used in order to a) match participants on some potentially confounding factor b) insure an equal number of participants per condition c) insure that a random sample is selected d) accomplish complete counterbalancing 22) In a between-subjects design, the differences between conditions could be due to all of the following except a) some confounding factor b) random error c) a carry-over effect d) the effect of the independent variable 23) In a within-subjects design, the differences between experimental conditions could be due to all of the following except a) some confounding factor b) random error c) individual differences d) the effect of the independent variable 24) For which of the following empirical questions would a within-subjects design be preferred? a) Who learns mazes more quickly, male or female rats? b) Do participants give harsher jail sentences to unattractive defendants? c) Is the Ponzo illusion stronger for those raised in a Western, industrialized cultures? d) Is the Ponzo illusion stronger with the parallel lines horizontal or vertical?

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Test Bank—Chapter 6

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

6-4

25) In within-subjects designs, a) each subject enters the study naive with respect to the procedures to be used b) large numbers of participants usually need to be recruited c) blocked random assignment can be used as a way for forming equivalent groups d) block randomization can be used as a method of counterbalancing 26) Avoiding an order effect is a design problem for a) between-subjects designs b) within-subjects designs c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above 27) Five golfers each hit 50 brand A golf balls, and then 50 brand B golf balls. On average, the brand B balls go significantly farther. Which of the following is true? a) a warm-up effect b) a wind change c) brand B is better d) any of the above are possible explanations 28) Five golfers each hit 50 brand A golf balls, while at the same time and on the same driving range five other golfers hit 50 brand B golf balls. On average, the brand B balls go significantly farther. The difference is most likely due to a) a warm-up effect b) a change in wind direction c) individual differences d) evaluation apprehension 29) The performance of participants in a within-subjects design sometimes deteriorates because of fatigue or boredom. This problem is known as a) a progressive effect b) a carry-over effect c) a placebo effect d) a matching effect 30) A progressive effect a) is more easily controlled by counterbalancing than a carry-over effect b) is more likely to occur in a between-subjects design than a within-subjects design c) usually results in a confound, making counterbalancing a problem d) tends to produce effects that are nonlinear from trial to trial 31) Over a series of trials, participants experiencing one order of conditions might have an advantage over participants experiencing another order. These effects are called a) carry-over effects b) transfer effects c) experimenter bias effects d) progressive effects 32) The general procedure used to control for order effects is called a) randomization b) double blind c) counterbalancing d) automation

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Test Bank—Chapter 6

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

6-5

33) If subjects are tested once in each condition, a) a Latin square can be used to accomplish counterbalancing b) the study is by definition a between-subjects design c) reverse counterbalancing is the best technique to use to control order effects d) complete counterbalancing cannot be used 34) If participants only experience each of the study’s conditions one time, then all of the following counterbalancing techniques can be used except a) Latin square b) complete counterbalancing c) random sample of all possible sequences d) reverse counterbalancing 35) In a taste test comparing popcorn brands A, B, and C, participants only try each brand once, and an equal number of subjects experience each of the six possible sequences. Which type of counterbalancing is being used? a) Latin square b) complete counterbalancing c) block randomization d) reverse counterbalancing 36) In a taste test comparing popcorn brands A, B, C and D, the experimenter decides to use complete counterbalancing. Assuming that one subject will be tested in each of the sequences used, how many people will be needed to complete the study? a) 24 b) 48 c) 12 d) 4 37) In a taste test comparing popcorn brands A, B, C, and D, the experimenter decides to use a Latin square for counterbalancing. Assuming that ten participants will be tested in each of the sequences used, how many people will be needed to complete the study? a) 40 b) 10 c) 80 d) 4 38) Hagemann, Strauss, and Leißing (2008) studied the effects of the color of clothing (red versus blue) in referees’ judgments of tae kwan do ability. Referees viewed two sets of 11 videos in random order, and each set was counterbalanced. In effect, Hagemann accomplished a) complete counterbalancing b) block randomization c) both a and b d) none of the above 39) In a taste test, subjects try Coke, then Pepsi, then RC Cola, then RC Cola, then Pepsi, and finally, Coke. What method of counterbalancing is being used here? a) block randomization b) reverse counterbalancing c) complete counterbalancing d) asymmetrical transfer

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Test Bank—Chapter 6

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

6-6

40) In a study with three conditions in which participants are tested in each condition more than once, block randomization could produce each of the following sequences except a) ACCBAB b) ABCCBA c) CABBCA d) BACCBA 41) In a study with three conditions in which participants are tested in each condition more than once, reverse counterbalancing would produce which of the following sequences? a) ACCBAB b) ABCCBA c) CABBCA d) ABCABC 42) When used as a counterbalancing procedure, block randomization insures a) an equal number of participants per condition b) that each condition is tested before any condition is retested c) that each possible sequence of conditions is used d) equivalent groups 43) In a balanced Latin square, a) each possible sequence of conditions is used b) each condition appears equally often in each sequential position c) participants are tested more than once per condition d) block randomization must be used 44) In a memory study, each subject learns six lists of words. A researcher decides to use a Latin square to determine the order in which lists will be shown. Which of the following is true? a) if ten subjects are to be assigned to each row of the Latin square, then 600 subjects will be needed to complete the study b) participants will see each list more than once c) six different orders of list presentation will be used d) the Latin square will have 36 (6x6) rows 45) Longitudinal design is to cross-sectional design as ______ is to _______. a) within-subjects; between-subjects b) between-subjects; within-subjects c) cohort effect; carry-over effect d) subject variable; manipulated variable 46) Compared to a longitudinal study, a cross-sectional study a) takes longer to complete b) has to deal with potential cohort effects c) has attrition as its major difficulty d) has to be concerned about counterbalancing properly 47) Which of the following is true about cohort effects? a) they are less important if the ages compared are 50, 60, and 70 (as opposed to 5, 6, and 7) b) they are a version of the general problem of controlling order effects c) they are more of a problem for longitudinal than for cross-sectional studies d) they create a potential nonequivalent groups problem

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Test Bank—Chapter 6

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

6-7

48) Compared to a cross-sectional study, a longitudinal study a) takes less time to complete b) has to deal with potential cohort effects c) has attrition as its major difficulty d) has to be concerned about counterbalancing properly 49) Which of the following is true of Terman’s study of gifted children? a) it illustrated the problem of cohort effects in cross-sectional studies b) unlike many longitudinal studies, attrition was very low c) it combined longitudinal and cross-sectional methods into a single design d) it showed that intellectually gifted children have serious problems with social skills 50) Terman’s studies of gifted children have been criticized because a) the high level of attrition made interpretation impossible or highly speculative at best b) he used a cross-sectional strategy when he should have used a longitudinal strategy c) significant cohort effects existed d) his sample could have been more representative 51) Terman’s studies of gifted children a) showed clear evidence of a detrimental cohort effect b) was flawed by problems with attrition c) used a longitudinal design d) used a cross-sectional design 52) In a cross-sectional comparison of intelligence in people aged 20, 40, and 60, differences might be due to aging but they might also be due to the different rearing conditions experienced by participants. This latter interpretation illustrates a(n) _______ effect. a) cohort b) placebo c) attrition d) order 53) Experimenter bias a) have been uncovered in studies involving human subjects but not in those using animals b) can be reduced by using a double blind procedure c) can be eliminated by recruiting only “good” subjects d) are not a problem for experienced experimenters 54) Experimenter bias can be reduced by using a) trained experimenters instead of machines b) a placebo control group c) a double-blind procedure d) a between-subjects rather than a within-subjects design 55) In a _____________ procedure, both participants and the experimenters do not know which condition is being tested, whereas in a _____________ procedure only the participants are unaware of which condition is being tested. a) placebo control; manipulation check b) manipulation check; placebo control c) single-blind; double-blind d) double-blind; single-blind

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Test Bank—Chapter 6

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

6-8

56) Automating the procedures as much as possible and using a double-blind procedure will help to reduce a) subject bias only b) experimenter bias only c) both subject bias and experimenter bias d) neither subject bias nor experimenter bias 57) How might experimenter bias be communicated to subjects in animal research? a) experimenters are more likely to cheat (animals can’t report fraud) b) animals in different groups might be handled differently by experimenters c) the subjects will experience different degrees of evaluation apprehension d) none of the above — experimenter bias only occurs in research with human subjects 58) Sometimes a subject’s behavior is affected by the mere knowledge that he or she is participating in an experiment. Historically, this has been termed a) the Hawthorne effect b) the good subject effect c) the evaluation apprehension effect d) the bad subject effect 59) Demand characteristics refer to a) aspects of the experimental procedure that give away the study’s hypotheses b) demands placed on experimenters by non-cooperative participants c) pressures placed on participants by experimenters who want a study to come out a certain way d) features of the study that raise evaluation apprehension in subjects 60) Demand characteristics are more likely to be found in a) between-subjects designs rather than within-subjects designs b) within-subjects designs rather than between-subjects designs c) studies with animal subjects than studies with human subjects d) cross-sectional rather than longitudinal studies 61) Because they experience ____________, participants try to behave in a way that makes the experimenter think well of them. a) evaluation apprehension b) demand characteristics c) the Hawthorne effect d) deception in a study 62) In the research example that used Starbucks coffee, participants did not know whether they were drinking regular or caffeine. They were later tested for memory by experimenters who did not know which group the participants were in. Which of the following is true about this study? a) it failed to control for experimenter expectations b) it illustrates the good subject effect c) the participants were senior citizens, so it showed an especially high level of evaluation apprehension d) the design was an example of a double blind procedure

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Test Bank—Chapter 6

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

6-9

63) Demand characteristics, and therefore subject bias, can be reduced by using a) only good subjects b) only those participants incapable of figuring out the hypothesis c) deception d) within-subjects rather than between-subjects designs 64) In a study on eating behavior, Robinson et al. (2014) controlled for _____ that subjects might figure out that the number of cookies eaten was the dependent measure. a) obesity levels b) evaluation apprehension c) demand characteristic d) experimenter bias 65) In a study in which the procedures were assumed to create anxiety, some participants were interrupted in the middle of the procedure and their blood pressure was checked. This is an example of a) a Hawthorne effect b) a manipulation check c) a check on experimenter bias d) a placebo control 66) All of the following could be used to control for subject bias, except a) using some degree of deception b) conducting an unobtrusive field study c) doing a manipulation check d) informing participants of the hypothesis instead of deceiving them 67) Which of the following is true about the experiments at the Western Electric plant at Hawthorne, Illinois? a) for a field study, it was remarkably free from confounding b) the workers in the relay assembly test room were so excited about being treated as c) “special” that they were highly productive even under poor working conditions d) worker productivity increased regardless of whether working conditions were made e) better or poorer f) inappropriate statistical procedures created a false impression of the results

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Test Bank—Chapter 6

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

Answers—Multiple Choice 1) B 2) A 3) C 4) B 5) C 6) A 7) C 8) C 9) A 10) A 11) B 12) D 13) B 14) C 15) D 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) C 20) D 21) B 22) C 23) C 24) D 25) D 26) B 27) D 28) C 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) C 33) A 34) D

35) B 36) A 37) A 38) C 39) B 40) A 41) B 42) B 43) B 44) C 45) A 46) B 47) D 48) C 49) B 50) D 51) C 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) D 56) C 57) B 58) A 59) A 60) B 61) A 62) D 63) C 64) C 65) B 66) D 67) D

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Test Bank—Chapter 6

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

6-2

Fill-in the Blanks 1) The creation of equivalent groups is the major design problem for __________ designs.

2) The avoidance of order effects is the major design problem for __________ designs.

3) The two most common techniques for creating equivalent groups are _________ and ___________.

4) In order to insure that equal numbers of participants are randomly assigned to each condition of a study, _______ is sometimes used.

5) All possible orders of conditions are used in ___________ counterbalancing.

6) The sequence ABCDDCBA is indicative of __________ counterbalancing.

7) Attrition can be a problem for developmental psychologists who do ___________ research.

8) Cohort effects can make it difficult for developmental psychologists to interpret the results of ___________ studies.

9) Experimenter bias can be reduced by using a(n) _________ procedure in which neither the experimenter nor the subject knows which condition is being tested.

10) Any aspect of a research procedure that gives away the true hypothesis is called a(n) ___________.

11) The term ________ effect has traditionally been used to describe what happens when participants do not behave normally, simply because they know they are part of an experiment.

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Test Bank—Chapter 6

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

12) Answers—Fill-in the Blanks 1) between-subjects 2) within-subjects 3) random assignment; matching 4) block randomization 5) complete 6) reverse 7) longitudinal 8) cross-sectional 9) double blind 10) demand characteristic 11) Hawthorne

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Test Bank—Chapter 6

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

6-4

Short Essay Questions 1) Use the Sigall and Ostrove (Barbara Helm) study as a way of showing how some studies require the use of a between-subjects rather than a within-subjects design.

2) What is the essential control problem to be solved in a between-subjects design and what are two ways of solving the problem?

3) What is the essential control problem to be solved in a within-subjects design and what is the general procedure for solving this problem?

4) Why does counterbalancing solve progressive order effects better than carry-over effects?

5) Describe two procedures for accomplishing counterbalancing for studies in which each participant encounters each level of the independent variable just one time.

6) Describe two procedures for accomplishing counterbalancing for studies in which each participant encounters each level of the independent variable more than one time.

7) Distinguish between longitudinal and cross-sectional studies in developmental research and describe the control problems associated with each.

8) Describe Ryan et al.’s (2002) study on caffeine and cognition in older adults and explain what it has to do with experimenter bias. Explain how they controlled for experimenter bias in their study.

9) Describe the origins of the term Hawthorne effect, and explain what the term means today.

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Test Bank—Chapter 6

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

6-5

Comprehensive Essay Questions 1) Compare between-subjects and within-subjects designs and explain the control problems unique to each type of design.

2) Distinguish between random assignment and matching as techniques for creating equivalent groups. When is each more likely to be used?

3) Describe four different varieties of counterbalancing, and explain the circumstances in which counterbalancing might not work.

4) Distinguish subject bias and experimenter bias, show how they could interact, and explain how they can be controlled.

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Test Bank—Chapter 7

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

7-1

Multiple Choice 1) If a between-subjects design uses random assignment, the design will be called a(n) a) nonequivalent groups design b) repeated-measures design c) independent groups design d) matched groups design 2) If a between-subjects design uses the subject variable of gender and has just one independent variable, which of the following is true? a) the design is a multilevel design b) the design is a repeated-measures design c) the design is a nonequivalent groups design d) the design will be analyzed with a t test for related samples 3) What does every single-factor, two level design have in common with single-factor, multilevel designs? a) one independent variable b) random assignment c) t test for analysis d) continuous dependent variable 4) In the study Mueller and Oppenheimer (2014), some participants took hand-written class notes whereas others took notes on a laptop. The researchers wanted to know the type of note-taking influenced memory for material. What was the design? a) single-factor, independent groups design b) single-factor, matched groups design c) multilevel, independent groups design d) multilevel, matched groups design 5) Mueller and Oppenheimer’s (2014) laptop note-taking study included _____. a) a matching variable (IQ scores) b) a subject variable c) random assignment d) repeated measures 6) Random assignment is least likely to be an element in which of the following designs a) an independent groups design b) a matched groups design c) a repeated-measures design with a Latin square d) a nonequivalent groups design 7) A study by evaluating the effectiveness of computer-assisted instruction in reading compared two groups, one using the computers, the other not using them. The researchers first tested the students for “reading readiness” and insured that the average readiness scores of students in the two group was the same. The design used here was a two-level ___________ design. a) independent groups design b) matched groups design c) nonequivalent groups design d) repeated measures design

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Test Bank—Chapter 7

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

7-2

8) Kroeger and colleagues (2007) examined the effects of a social skills training program in children with autism. Which of the following was true about the study? a) it was a multilevel, independent groups design b) two equivalent groups of children were created through a matching procedure c) they used complete rather than partial counterbalancing d) it was a single-factor, repeated-measures design 9) Kroeger and colleagues (2007) examined the effects of a social skills training program in children with autism. The study included all of the following except a) use of a double-blind procedure b) matching for autism functioning c) matching for social skills training d) interobserver reliability calculations 10) McDonald and Flanagan (2004) evaluated the effects of traumatic brain injury, using a single-factor ___________ design. a) independent groups design b) matched groups design c) nonequivalent groups design d) repeated-measures design 11) McDonald and Flanagan (2004) evaluated the effects of traumatic brain injury. Which of the following is true about their study? a) causal conclusions could be drawn b) random assignment was used, rather than matching c) the study used a multilevel, independent groups design d) the study used a subject variable with two levels 12) Boothby et al.’s (2014) study of the shared experience of eating chocolate used a ________ design. a) multilevel, independent groups design b) single-factor, matched groups design c) single-factor, nonequivalent groups design d) single-factor, repeated-measures design 13) In Boothby et al.’s (2014) study of the shared experience of eating chocolate, a) counterbalancing was needed b) random assignment was used, rather than matching c) a subject variable, “level of perceptual skill,” was used d) a multilevel, repeated-measures design was used 14) Which of the following studies used a single-factor, repeated-measures design? a) Kroeger et al.’s study, which evaluated the effects of a social skills program for autism b) the study by Kasser and Sheldon, which compared groups writing two kinds of essays c) Lee and Aronson’s study comparing the effects of having a room move forward or backward d) the study by McDonald and Flanagan, which examined the effects of traumatic brain injury 15) Which of the following studies used a single-factor, independent groups design? a) Kroeger et al.’s study, which evaluated the effects of a social skills program for autism b) the study by Mueller and Oppenheimer, which compared groups taking two types of class notes c) Boothby et al.’s study comparing the effects of the shared experiences of eating chocolate or viewing art d) the study by McDonald and Flanagan, which examined the effects of traumatic brain injury on understanding social exchanges

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Test Bank—Chapter 7

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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16) Which of the following studies used a single-factor, matched groups design? a) Kroeger et al.’s study, which evaluated the effects of a social skills program for autism b) the study by Mueller and Oppenheimer, which compared groups taking two types of class notes c) Boothby et al.’s study comparing the effects of the shared experiences of eating chocolate or viewing art d) the study by McDonald and Flanagan, which examined the effects of traumatic brain injury on understanding social exchanges 17) Which of the following studies used a single-factor, nonequivalent groups design? a) Kroeger et al.’s study, which evaluated the effects of a social skills program for autism b) the study by Mueller and Oppenheimer, which compared groups taking two types of class notes c) Boothby et al.’s study comparing the effects of the shared experiences of eating chocolate or viewing art d) the study by McDonald and Flanagan, which examined the effects of traumatic brain injury on understanding social exchanges 18) In Stroop’s most famous experiment, a comparison was made between naming color patches and naming colors when they were printed with color-mismatched names. What was true about his design? a) he used a reverse counterbalancing procedure b) participants were assigned to the two conditions via random assignment c) participants were matched to groups on the basis of their reading skills d) it was a multilevel, repeated-measures design 19) In Stroop’s most famous experiment, a comparison was made between naming color patches and naming colors when they were printed with color-mismatched names. Describe the design. a) single-factor, two levels, repeated measures b) single-factor, two levels, independent groups c) single-factor, multilevel, repeated measures d) multiple-factor, two levels, independent groups 20) A t test for dependent samples is used to compare experimental conditions in which of the following designs? a) single-factor, independent groups design b) single-factor, matched groups design c) single-factor, nonequivalent groups design d) both alternatives a. and c.

21) A t test for independent samples is used to compare experimental conditions in which of the following designs? a) single-factor, independent groups design b) single-factor, matched groups design c) single-factor, nonequivalent groups design d) both alternatives a. and c.

22) A t test for dependent samples is used to compare experimental conditions in which of the following designs? a) single-factor, matched groups design b) single-factor, independent groups design c) single-factor, repeated-measures design d) both alternatives a. and c.

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Test Bank—Chapter 7

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

7-4

23) A t test for independent samples is to a t test for dependent samples as ______ is to ______. a) an independent groups design; a nonequivalent groups design b) a repeated-measures design; a matched groups design c) nonequivalent groups design; a repeated-measures design d) a matched groups design; a repeated-measures design 24) Unlike two-level designs, multilevel designs can a) use counterbalancing b) test more than one independent variable c) uncover nonlinear effects d) reject the null hypothesis 25) What was the reason for using more than two conditions in Bransford and Johnson (1972) ‘laundry’ study of the effects of context on memory? a) they hoped to discover nonlinear effects b) they hoped to rule out different interpretations about the effects of context c) they hoped to find differences between their five distinct independent variables d) they hoped to show that context was not important for memory 26) Plötner et al. (2015) examined the effects of the presence of other children in children’s helping their teacher. They used a multilevel _____ design. a) independent groups b) repeated measures c) matched groups d) nonequivalent groups 27) In Steele, Ball, and Runk’s (1999) study of the “Mozart effect,” the researchers used a multilevel, _______ design. a) independent groups b) repeated measures c) matched groups d) nonequivalent groups 28) In Steele, Ball, and Runk’s (1999) study of the so-called Mozart effect, which of the following was true? a) they used a multilevel, matched-groups design b) they used a complete counterbalancing procedure c) they found that listening to Mozart made it easier to recall digits d) there was no Mozart effect, but a significant practice effect occurred 29) In a study on the effects of caffeine on reaction time, one group of participants ingests two cups of coffee before being tested. A second group takes four cups, and a third group takes eight cups.

Before the study, participants are asked about the average number of cups they drink per day and that information is used when assigning participants to groups. What is the design? a) multilevel, matched groups b) independent groups, single factor c) repeated measures, multilevel d) multilevel, nonequivalent groups 30) A researcher examines three groups of participants, extreme Type A, extreme Type B, and those in the middle. Each group is given a time estimation task (i.e., indicate when a minute has passed).

What is the design? a) multilevel, independent groups b) multilevel, repeated measures c) multilevel, matched groups d) multilevel, nonequivalent groups

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Test Bank—Chapter 7

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

7-5

31) For the Plötner et al. (2015) multilevel, independent groups study of children’s helping behavior, the results were presented a) in a bar graph b) in a line graph c) either in a line or a bar graph d) none of the above—only a table could be used in this case 32) In a single-factor study testing gender differences, with gender on the X-axis, which type of graph should be used? a) a line graph b) a bar graph c) either a line or a bar graph d) none of the above—tables must be used 33) Which of the following is true about how to construct a graph of an experiment’s results? a) if the independent variable is a between-subjects variable, a bar graph should be used b) if the independent variable is a within-subjects variable, a line graph should be used c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above 34) Which of the independent variables would lead you to use a bar rather than a line graph? a) political affiliation b) dosage level of a drug c) age d) delay time in giving reinforcement 35) How should a multilevel, independent groups design be analyzed if there are three groups (A, B, C) in the study? a) use 3 t tests (A & B, A & C, B & C) b) find the two groups farthest apart and compare them with a t test c) complete a 3-factor ANOVA d) complete a one-way ANOVA 36) When analyzing a multilevel design, multiple t tests a) are OK, providing you complete no more than five of them b) increase the probability of making a Type II error c) increase the probability of making a Type I error d) should be completed first, then an ANOVA to verify the results 37) For the designs in this chapter, post hoc testing occurs when a) a one-way ANOVA yields a significant effect b) a one-way ANOVA has failed to yield a significant effect c) multiple t tests have been completed, and at least one has rejected the null hypothesis d) multiple t tests have been completed, but none have rejected the null hypothesis 38) In research that evaluates some new form of psychotherapy, the usual comparison is between a) the new therapy and no therapy b) the new therapy and a placebo therapy c) the new therapy and an already existing therapy d) those who have never been in therapy before, and those who have lots of therapy experience

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Test Bank—Chapter 7

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

7-6

39) The use of control groups has been criticized on ethical grounds because a) those in control groups seldom have the opportunity to give informed consent b) control group participants aren’t debriefed c) control group participants could be missing an effective therapy d) those in control groups, because they are still waiting for therapy, are more likely to have their privacy violated 40) A well-known example of a study that produced a nonlinear effect was the memory study by Ebbinghaus that produced his forgetting curve. Which of the following is true about his study? a) the independent variable was the amount of time between studying and recalling b) it was a single-factor, two level, repeated-measures design c) it was a multilevel, matched groups design d) the independent variable was a “savings” score 41) Which of the following is true about the Yerkes-Dodson arousal-performance study? a) Yerkes and Dodson examined athletes’ motor performance b) with more arousal, there was a decline in performance c) it’s an example of a study which should be illustrated with a line graph d) it’s an example of a study which should be illustrated with a bar graph 42) Of the studies described in the chapter, which most clearly illustrates the ability of a multilevel design to produce a nonlinear effect? a) the Bransford and Johnson study on the effects of context on memory b) the Mozart effect study c) the study with shared experiences d) the Yerkes Dodson arousal-performance study 43) If counterbalancing is used in a single-factor study, you can be sure that a) repeated measures are involved b) some type of confound exists c) it is a multilevel design, not a two-level design d) matching is also involved 44) If matching is used in a single-factor study, you can be sure that a) repeated measures are involved b) some type of confound exists c) it is a multilevel design, not a two-level design d) the independent variable is tested between subjects 45) If race/ethnicity is the independent variable in a single-factor design, it is likely that a) it is a multilevel design b) repeated measures are involved c) the results will be portrayed in a line graph d) a t test for independent samples will be used 46) If a t test for dependent samples has been completed in a single factor study, you can be sure that a) the independent variable has more than two levels b) the independent variable is a subject variable c) the independent variable only has two levels d) a Type I error is more likely than a Type II error

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Test Bank—Chapter 7

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

7-7

47) If a one-way ANOVA has been completed in a study with one independent variable, you can be sure that a) multiple t tests have already been completed first b) the design involves repeated measures c) post hoc testing will occur if the ANOVA is significant d) the independent variable has at least five levels 48) In research evaluating the effectiveness of a drug, participants in a placebo control group a) are given the drug, but they don’t think it is the drug b) are not given the drug, but think they are being given the drug c) both alternatives a. and b. are examples of placebo controls d) none of the above 49) Which of the following empirical questions is most likely to be answered with a study using a placebo control? a) Is psychoanalysis effective for agoraphobia? b) Can memory be improved with training? c) Are men less likely to ask directions than women? d) Will alcohol slow down reaction time?

50) Which of the following empirical questions is most likely to be answered with a study using a wait-list control group? a) Is psychoanalysis effective for agoraphobia? b) Can memory be improved with training? c) Are men less likely to ask directions than women? d) Will alcohol slow down reaction time?

51) Which of the following studies would be most likely to use a wait-list control group? a) a study evaluating the how waiting for the doctor produces frustration b) a study testing the effects of different dosage levels of a new drug c) a study evaluating the effectiveness of a new therapy for depression d) a study comparing environments that differ in terms of how crowded they are 52) In the research example that evaluated the effects of subliminal self-help tapes on weight loss, which of the following was true? a) the study used both a placebo control and a waiting list control b) the study was a good example of the failure to use a proper control group c) the tapes worked—participants using them lost weight, while those in the placebo group actually gained some weight d) participants in the yoked control group listened to non-subliminal tapes 53) In a yoked control group, a) the exact sequence of events for each member of the group is planned ahead of time b) what happens to subjects depends on what happens to members of the experimental group c) participants in the experimental and control groups are always interacting with each other in some fashion d) subjects in the control group try to outperform those in the experimental group 54) In the study on the effectiveness of EMDR, how were participants in the yoked control group treated? a) they moved their eyes randomly, instead of following the therapist’s lead b) they were not given any form of therapy c) the length of their “therapy” sessions matched those in the experimental group d) they were matched in terms of how severe their problem was

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Test Bank—Chapter 7

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

Answers—Multiple Choice 1) C 2) C 3) A 4) A 5) C 6) D 7) B 8) B 9) C 10) C 11) D 12) D 13) A 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) D 22) D 23) C 24) C 25) B 26) A 27) B 28) D

29) A 30) D 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) A 35) D 36) C 37) A 38) C 39) C 40) A 41) C 42) D 43) A 44) D 45) A 46) C 47) C 48) B 49) D 50) A 51) C 52) A 53) B 54) C

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Test Bank—Chapter 7

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

7-2

Fill-in the Blanks 1) A single-factor experiment that assigns participants to groups via random assignment is called a(n) _____________ design.

2) In a single-factor experiment with more than two levels of the independent variable, the proper inferential statistical analysis is ________.

3) A single-factor experiment in which all participants experience each of the levels of the independent variable is called a(n) _____________ design.

4) In a study on social skills training in children with autism, Kroeger et al. (2007) made sure that at the start of the study the groups were equal in terms a level of cognitive functioning. They used a(n) __________ design.

5) The behavior of a subject in a treatment group determines what happens to a subject in a(n) ________ control group.

6) In studies evaluating the influence of a drug, those in the experimental group are often compared with those in a(n) _______ control group.

7) Multilevel designs enable the researcher to discover ______ effects.

8) A graph comparing women and men on reaction time would be a bar graph because gender is a(n) _________ variable.

9) Studies with two levels of a repeated-measures independent variable would have the data analyzed by using a(n) _______________.

10) If the results are portrayed in the form of a line graph, then the independent variable on the X-axis is most likely to be a __________ variable.

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Test Bank—Chapter 7

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

Answers—Fill-in the Blanks 1) independent groups 2) one-way ANOVA 3) repeated-measures 4) matched groups 5) yoked 6) placebo 7) nonlinear 8) discrete 9) t test for related samples 10) within-subjects (or repeated measures)

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Test Bank—Chapter 7

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

7-4

Short Essay Questions 1) In what ways are independent groups designs and matched groups designs (a) similar, and (b) distinct?

2) What are the defining features of the three main designs that involve between-subjects factors?

3) Create some data for a study of the effects of caffeine on reaction time that would lead to this conclusion: Caffeine increases reaction time, but a placebo effect also exists. Explain the data.

4) Describe the logic of the yoked control group, using the EMDR study as an example.

5) In the research example that examined the effects of social skills training in children with autism, what was the matching variable and why was it chosen?

6) When portraying the results of a study graphically, what are the guidelines that help determine whether to use a bar graph or a line graph?

7) What are the proper statistical analyses for the four varieties of designs that feature a single independent variable with two levels?

8) In the Plötner et al. (2015) study of children’s helping behavior, what purpose was served by using three conditions: Alone, Bystander, Bystander unavailable?

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Test Bank—Chapter 7

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

7-5

Comprehensive Essay Questions 1) Compared with designs that have just two levels, multilevel designs provide two advantages. Use the famous Ebbinghaus study to illustrate one of those advantages and the Bransford and Johnson (1972) study of the effects of context on memory to illustrate the second.

2) From an ethical standpoint, describe the arguments for and against the use of control groups in, for example, a study that evaluated the effects of giving nursing home patients some additional control over their lives (e.g., giving them a plant to care for).

3) Use the study that evaluated the effectiveness of subliminal tapes to illustrate the use of two different kinds of control groups in the same study.

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Test Bank—Chapter 8

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

Multiple Choice 1) All factorial designs a) have at least two independent variables b) have the potential for producing at least three main effects c) have the potential for producing at least two interaction effects d) have at least one manipulated independent variable and one nonmanipulated independent variable 2) A 2x3 factorial design has six a) independent variables b) different conditions c) levels of the independent variable d) subjects per condition 3) A 2x4 factorial design has a) eight different conditions b) an independent variable with four levels c) two different independent variables d) all of the above 4) A 2x2x4 factorial design a) has three dependent variables b) includes eight different conditions c) includes an independent variable with three levels d) has sixteen different conditions 5) A 3x3x3 factorial design has three a) levels b) conditions c) independent variables d) dependent variables 6) A 3x3x3 factorial design has a) three independent variables, each with three levels b) 27 different conditions c) the potential for three different main effects d) all of the above 7) In a factorial study, what is a main effect? a) it refers to any statistically significant finding in the study b) it refers to any statistically significant difference between the levels of a single i) independent variable c) it occurs when the effect of one variable depends on the level of the other variable d) it is any result that is significant at the .01 rather than the .05 level 8) All of the following are true about factorial designs except a) they have at least two independent variables b) the independent variables can be either between-subjects or within-subjects c) they are best analyzed with a 1-factor ANOVA d) if both main effects and interactions occur, interactions should be interpreted first

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Test Bank—Chapter 8

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

8-2

9) In a factorial study, a main effect a) refers to any F ratio in the ANOVA that is significant b) occurs when differences are found for the different levels of an independent variable c) occurs when the effect of one independent variable depends on the level of another i) independent variable d) is determined by calculating row means (as opposed to column means) 10) In a 2 (gender) x 2 (type of therapy) factorial design, men were helped by therapy A, but women were helped by therapy B. This describes a) a main effect for gender b) a main effect for therapy type c) an interaction between gender and therapy type d) none of the above 11) In the study by Grant et al. (1998), subjects studied text materials either in a noisy or a quiet environment and also recalled the material either in a noisy or a quiet environment. What was true about this study? a) there were two different conditions (noisy; quiet) b) it was a 2x2 matched groups factorial design c) they found an interaction and two significant main effects d) no significant main effects were found in this study, but there was an interaction 12) In a 2x2 design, the following results occur:

a) b) c) d) e)

20

40

40

20

Which of the following is true? there is one main effect and an interaction there is an interaction but no main effects there are two main effects but no interaction there are two main effects and an interaction

13) In a 2x2 design, the following results occur:

a) b) c) d) e)

20

40

40

80

Which of the following is true? there is one main effect and an interaction there is an interaction but no main effects there are two main effects but no interaction there are two main effects and an interaction

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Test Bank—Chapter 8

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

8-3

14) In a 2x2 design, the following results occur:

a) b) c) d) e)

20

20

30

30

Which of the following is true? there is one main effect and no interaction there is an interaction but no main effects there are two main effects but no interaction there are two main effects and an interaction

15) In a 2x2 design, the following results occur:

a) b) c) d) e)

20

30

30

40

Which of the following is true? there is one main effect and no interaction there is an interaction but no main effects there are two main effects but no interaction there are two main effects and an interaction

16) In a 2x2 design, the following results occur:

a) b) c) d) e)

20

30

30

20

Which of the following is true? there is one main effect and no interaction there is an interaction but no main effects there are two main effects but no interaction there are two main effects and an interaction

17) In a single experiment, amount of reward and type of reward are varied. Subjects are randomly assigned to one of three “amount of reward” groups. Each subject is tested once with one type of reward and once again with a second type of reward. What type of design is this? a) 2x2 single factor, multilevel b) 2x3 mixed factorial c) 2x3 independent groups factorial d) 3x3 repeated-measures factorial

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Test Bank—Chapter 8

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

8-4

18) In the above study, suppose that 10 subjects are tested in condition represented by the upper left hand cell of the factorial matrix. How many subjects need to be recruited to complete the study? a) 30 b) 60 c) 20 d) 10 19) A mixed factorial design has a) at least one between-subjects factor and at least one within-subjects factor b) at least one manipulated factor and at least one subject variable c) both males and females serving as subjects d) both two-level and multilevel factors operating 20) In a study of cognitive mapping, all subjects point as accurately as they can to six different geographical targets. Half the subjects are aided by being told where true North is. The remaining subjects are not given the North orientation. Which of the following is true about this design? a) it’s a mixed factorial design b) there are 8 different conditions c) if 24 subjects are needed in the first condition, then 96 subject are needed altogether d) it’s a 2x2 P x E factorial design 21) Suppose you have a 2x2 design in which one of the variables is a between-subjects factor and one of the variables is a within-subjects factor. Further suppose that there will be 30 subjects in the upper left-hand cell of the 2x2 array. How many subjects are needed to complete the study? a) 60 b) 30 c) 120 d) cannot be determined with the available information 22) Which of the following is true about a P x E factorial design? a) it is a single-factor design b) both variables are manipulated variables c) it includes both a subject variable and a manipulated variable d) both variables must be between-subjects variables 23) In a stylus maze study, some subjects are shocked for errors and others are not shocked. Also, some are told they’ll earn $10 if they learn the maze in 5 trials and others are told they’ll earn $100.

The results are that whether or not shock was present had no effect on behavior, but those who could earn $100 learned faster than those earning just $10. This result is most clearly an example of a) a main effect of shock b) a main effect of incentive (money) c) an interaction between shock and incentive d) all of the above The next four questions refer to the following experiment: A researcher studied the influence of crowding (low, medium, and high crowding) on reading comprehension between two types of third graders. Half the children randomly assigned to each crowding condition were classified as “good” and half “poor” on an assessment of verbal fluency. In the study, each child read a 750-word passage and was tested on it later.

24) This is a _______ design. a) 2x2 b) 3x3 c) 1x4 d) 2x3

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Test Bank—Chapter 8

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

8-5

25) This study includes a) a repeated-measures factor b) a subject variable c) counterbalancing d) three independent variables 26) Which of the following is true? a) there are 4 different conditions b) this is a multilevel, independent groups design c) this is a P x E factorial design d) there is a design flaw — a failure to counterbalance 27) Twenty poor comprehenders are tested in the low crowding condition. To keep the same N in all the cells, how many children will participate in the experiment? a) 40 b) 80 c) 120 d) 20 28) Which of the chapter’s research examples used a mixed design? a) the study on noisy vs. quiet environments b) the closing time study c) the study about beliefs about work as exercise in hotel workers d) the study about stereotype threat 29) In a 3x3 factorial design, how many different F ratios will be calculated in the ANOVA? a) 2 b) 4 c) 9 d) 3

The next four questions refer to the following experiment: A researcher investigated the effect of a child’s attractiveness and gender on judgments of personality and intelligence. Male teachers were shown photos of children to obtain their “first impressions” of children. Each teacher was shown four photos (the order was randomized for each teacher): an attractive boy, an unattractive boy, an attractive girl, and an unattractive girl. The teachers rated the apparent friendliness of the child and also estimated the child’s intelligence.

30) How would you describe the design of this study? a) it’s a 2x2 mixed factorial b) it’s a 2x4 between-subjects factorial c) it’s a 2x2 repeated-measures factorial d) it’s a 2x4 PxE factorial 31) Which of the following is true about the study? a) there are two different dependent variables b) there are four independent variables c) although it is a repeated-measures study, there is a failure to control for possible i) sequence effects d) one of the two independent variables is a subject variable

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Test Bank—Chapter 8

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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32) This study includes the gender of the children in the photos as a) a manipulated variable b) a subject variable c) a dependent variable d) se an uncontrolled extraneous variable 33) With 30 teachers tested per cell of this design, how many teachers participated in the experiment? a) 30 b) 120 c) 60 d) 90 34) Which of the chapter’s research examples used a P x E mixed design? a) the study on the best environment for studying b) the study on simulated driving with cell phones c) the study on the closing time effect d) the study on stereotype threat 35) One of the chapter’s research examples concerned the so-called closing time effect. The researchers found that the gender of the rater made a difference and the time of the ratings also made a difference. That is, the study produced a) an interaction between the gender factor and the time factor b) a main effect for the gender factor c) a main effect for the time factor d) two main effects 36) In a memory study using a 2x2 factorial, one of the factors is the presentation rate of the words, the two levels being 2 and 4 seconds per item. The researcher finds that recall is 98% accurate at 2 seconds per item and 99% accurate at 4 seconds per item (not a statistically significant difference).

The most reasonable conclusion is that a) a ceiling effect has occurred b) an interaction has occurred c) presentation rate has no significant effect on memory d) there is a main effect for presentation rate 37) A ceiling effect is said to occur when a) there is one main effect, but not two b) performance is very high for one group, but just average for a second group c) performance is so close to perfect for both groups that any true difference between them is obscured d) everyone participating is the experiment performs better than they ever have before 38) For which of the following within-subjects factors will counterbalancing not be involved? a) participants try to point accurately to six different geographic locations b) in a release from PI study, a comparison is made between trials 1 and trial 4 c) word lists are presented at either 2 or 4 seconds per item d) participants compare Coke and Pepsi for perceived sweetness 39) In a 2x3 mixed factorial design, with 10 people needed to fill the upper left hand cell of the matrix, how many people will be needed to complete the experiment? a) 60 b) 20 c) 30 d) could be 20 or 30 (need more information)

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Test Bank—Chapter 8

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

8-7

The next four questions refer to the following experiment: A researcher simultaneously investigated learning style and teaching style. Students were identified as either visual/concrete learners or verbal/abstract learners, on the basis of a learning style survey. For each type of student, half were taught a statistics lesson using a computer program that included a lot of graphics, while the other half used a computer program with fewer graphics and more verbal material.

After working through the program, all students were given a test on statistics.

40) How would you describe the design of this study? a) it’s a 2x2 P x E mixed factorial b) it’s a 4x4 mixed factorial c) it’s a 2x2 nonequivalent groups factorial d) it’s a 2x2 P x E factorial 41) Which of the following is true about the study? a) there are two different dependent variables b) there are four independent variables c) random assignment is not required, but counterbalancing is d) counterbalancing is not required, but random assignment is 42) This study includes learning style as a) a manipulated variable b) a subject variable c) a dependent variable d) an uncontrolled extraneous variable 43) With 25 students tested per cell of this design, how many students will be needed in all? a) 100 b) 50 c) 25 d) not enough information to tell (could be 25 or 50) 44) If a study is a P x E factorial design, it could also be a a) single-factor multilevel design b) nonequivalent groups factorial design c) independent groups factorial design d) a mixed factorial design 45) ATI designs look for a) interactions between subject aptitudes and various types of treatment b) Any Type of Interaction c) interactions between two different subject variables d) causal relationships between aptitude and treatment 46) An ATI design would be considered an example of which of the following? a) P x E design b) mixed design c) nonequivalent groups design d) matched groups design 47) A researcher discovers that extroverts solve problems better than introverts when in a large room, but that introverts do better than extroverts in a small room. Which of the following is true? a) this outcome describes a main effect for room size b) this outcome describes a main effect for personality type c) this outcome describes a person by environment (P x E) interaction d) in this study, there were two main effects (room size and personality type) but no interaction

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Test Bank—Chapter 8

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

8-8

48) A study by Shute compared students who scored high or low on a measure of their tendency to be “exploratory.” Half of each group then learned about electricity through a “rule-application” strategy, while the other half learned through a “rule-induction” strategy. Which of the following was true? a) this is a 2x2 mixed design b) she was predicted a main effect for strategy type c) the study includes a subject variable and a manipulated variable d) this is an independent groups design 49) Jenkins and Dallenbach did a famous study on the phenomenon of retroactive interference in the 1920s, in which they found that getting a good sleep before an exam might not be a bad idea. Which of the following was true about their study? a) they tested two large groups: one slept between study and recall, and the other stayed awake b) they found a main effect for retention interval but not for whether or not the participants slept c) the design was a 2x4 repeated measures factorial design d) the subject variables was whether or not the participants were able to sleep; the manipulated variable was retention interval 50) For one of Fisher’s agricultural studies, in which one of the IVs was the presence or absence of fertilizer and the other IV was strain of wheat (type A or B), which of the following outcomes illustrates an interaction? a) the fertilizer had virtually no effect, regardless of type of wheat b) type A wheat outperformed type B wheat regardless of whether fertilizer was used c) both alternatives a. and b. are varieties of interaction d) neither alternative a. nor b. describes an interaction 51) Fisher thought that factorial designs were especially useful in agriculture, because the best crop yields might result from combinations of various factors. That is, Fisher saw that the advantage of factorials lies in their ability to uncover a) statistically significant differences b) nonlinear effects c) main effects d) interactive effects 52) How can a mixed factorial design also be a PxE factorial? a) when the “E” factor is a repeated measure b) when the “P” factor is a manipulated variable c) when the “P” factor is a subject variable d) when the “E” factor is a between-subjects variable

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Test Bank—Chapter 8

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

Answers—Multiple Choice 1) A 2) B 3) D 4) D 5) C 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) B 17) B 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) A 22) C 23) B 24) D 25) B 26) C

27) C 28) C 29) D 30) C 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) B 35) D 36) A 37) C 38) B 39) D 40) D 41) D 42) B 43) A 44) D 45) A 46) A 47) C 48) C 49) C 50) D 51) D 52) A

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Test Bank—Chapter 8

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

8-2

Fill-in the Blanks 1) Any experimental design that includes more than one independent variable is called a(n) ________ design.

2) Examining row and/or column means enables the researcher to determine if any _________ exist in a factorial study.

3) In a factorial study, when the effect of one variable depends on the level of a second variable, then a(n) ________ is said to exist.

4) A factorial design using both a manipulated and a subject variable is referred to as a(n) ______ design.

5) A factorial design using both a between-subjects factor and a within-subjects factor is known as a(n) _______ design.

6) Following a statistically significant interaction in a 2x2 factorial, the next step, statistically, is to do an analysis of __________.

7) A PxE design, common in educational research, that uses some type of student aptitude as the subject variable, is known as a(n) ______ design.

8) An experimenter fails to find a difference between two groups of subjects on a problem solving task because both groups solve virtually all the problems; the study has produced a(n) _________ effect.

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Test Bank—Chapter 8

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

Answers—Fill-in the Blanks 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 6) 7) 8)

factorial main effects interaction PxE mixed simple effects ATI ceiling

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Test Bank—Chapter 8

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

8-4

Short Essay Questions 1) Describe the defining features of a factorial design and explain its unique advantage over designs that have a single independent variable.

2) For a 2x2 factorial, how do the participant needs vary for designs that are (a) independent groups, (b) repeated measures, and (c) mixed?

3) Use research example on closing times to illustrate the concept of a main effect.

4) Use the research example on studying in noisy versus quiet environments to illustrate the concept of an interaction in a factorial design.

5) In a study that produces both a main effect and an interaction, why is it important to interpret the interaction first?

6) What is the basic difference between a mixed factorial design and a PxE factorial design?

7) Sometimes, in a study with both a main effect (or two) and an interaction, the interaction is the only important finding. Explain, using the caffeine study to illustrate.

8) What is a ceiling effect and how can one’s presence cloud the interpretation of a research outcome in a factorial design?

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Test Bank—Chapter 8

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

8-5

Comprehensive Essay Questions 1) Distinguish between a mixed factorial design and a P x E factorial design and explain why the latter reflects the spirit of Lewin’s beliefs about how to best understand behavior.

2) Using just two participants, Jenkins and Dallenbach studied retroactive inference in a famous study.

What were there two independent variables, how would you describe their design, and what happened in the study?

3) Suppose you had to train someone to be an ethical and competent experimenter. What would you emphasize?

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Test Bank—Chapter 9

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

9-1

Multiple Choice 1) Which of the following is true about the history of survey research? a) surveys were not used until after World War I b) the first survey research was Kinsey’s pioneering sex surveys c) Darwin and his cousin, Francis Galton, created the first surveys d) the method of the “questionary” was vigorously promoted by William James 2) Hall developed the “questionary” in order to a) discover the “contents of children’s minds” b) disprove Galton’s ideas about the inheritance of intelligence c) study facial expressions of emotion in different cultures d) prove that growing up in a city was vastly superior to a country life 3) What was wrong with the survey done by Literary Digest in 1936? a) their sample did not accurately reflect the proportions of Republicans and Democrats b) they only had 10% of their surveys returned c) they used simple random sampling instead of the more sophisticated cluster sampling d) they used cluster sampling, when stratified sampling was required 4) When magazines report the results of reader surveys, what is the major weakness? a) self selection b) low number of returns c) use of nonprobability rather than probability sampling techniques d) they fail to survey the entire population 5) When survey items are all worded favorably , the result can be a response bias called a) the Hawthorne effect b) a social desirability bias c) response acquiescence d) nonresponse bias 6) When should DK (“don’t know”) alternatives be used? a) when collecting demographic information b) never—they will be overused by respondents c) whenever you are surveying people with moderate to low IQs d) when there is good reason to believe that some respondents will genuinely not know an answer 7) Demographic information includes a) how knowledgeable a person is about some topic b) information about the income level of the respondent c) someone’s opinion about democracy (or related issues) d) all of the above 8) What was the lesson derived from the example of the marketing campaigns for the Whopper and the Big Mac? a) some surveys have self selection problems b) be careful of writing survey items that have double-barreled questions c) beware of leading questions d) some items use words that are linguistically ambiguous 9) Recommendations about survey wording include all of the following except a) negatively phrased questions are useful because they force respondent’s to pay attention b) always opt for simplicity over complexity when wording survey items c) avoid the use of jargon that might not be understood by respondents (e.g., “summative”) d) when asking for opinion, use “do you support or oppose…” rather than “do you oppose…”

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Test Bank—Chapter 9

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

10) The Kinsey Report of sexual behavior is a classic example of a) case study research b) archival research c) survey research using a face-to-face interview format d) electronic surveying 11) What is the major strength of the interview format for conducting survey research? a) it has fewer logistical problems than other methods b) more in-depth information can be acquired than with other methods c) unlike other methods, interviewer bias is seldom a problem d) it is cheaper than other methods 12) Compared to experimental methods found previous chapters, survey research a) does not have a problem with reactivity b) is more likely to use convenience sampling c) has a greater need for the sample to be representative d) will tend to have a smaller sample size 13) Compared to written surveys, the interview format a) reduces the problem of question ambiguity b) is a lot cheaper c) is immune from interviewer bias problems d) has more of a problem with return rate 14) All of the following characterize interview surveys except a) cost can be a problem b) the interviewer can clarify ambiguous questions c) getting a representative sample is easier than with the other methods d) they might be limited to a small geographical area 15) Which of the following is a problem for written surveys? a) question ambiguity b) survey return rate c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above 16) When using a written survey, a) return rates will be higher if the survey uses more closed questions than open questions b) a return rate of 5% is adequate if the survey is well planned c) return rates will be higher if the survey uses more open questions than closed questions d) experimenter bias is never a problem 17) All of the following are closed questions except a) Is this a closed question? b) Is this an open question? c) How is a closed question different from an open question? d) Is this a poor multiple choice question?

18) The best return rate will be for written surveys that are a) surveying attitudes about sex rather than about politics b) clearly unrelated to a sales pitch c) filled with more open questions than closed questions d) printed on colored paper than on white paper

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Test Bank—Chapter 9

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

9-3

19) Which of the following is true about return rates for mailed surveys? a) anything less than 100% creates problems for interpretation b) researchers are happy with return rates between 70% and 85% c) as long as the total number of replies is large (>100), the rate is return is irrelevant d) if less than 80%, representativeness is a serious problem 20) A major problem with phone surveying is a) sampling; too many people have unlisted numbers b) cost; face-to-face interviews are much cheaper c) logistics; it is difficult to collect a lot of data per unit of time d) selling disguised as surveying (sugging) 21) Phone surveys a) usually need to be brief and to include few if any open questions b) usually have very high response rates c) avoid problems with experimenter bias d) are limited to cluster samples only 22) All of the following are problems with online surveying except a) cost b) debriefing c) self selection bias d) some sampling bias (middle and upper incomes) 23) On surveys, participants can try to present a positive image of themselves, a problem referred to as a) experimenter bias b) social desirability bias c) question ambiguity d) good subject bias 24) Zezima (2010) reported that while nearly 100% of people reported that they wash their hands after using public restrooms, however actual observations of public hand washing behavior demonstrated much lower percentages. This illustrates a) invasion of privacy b) question ambiguity c) biased sampling d) a social desirability bias 25) Nonresponse bias occurs when a) the population from which the sample is taken is too small b) response rate is lower than anticipated c) those returning a survey differ in some important way from the initial sample d) those responding to a survey fail to answer a significant number of questions on the survey 26) In the box describing the case of the female journalist who was fired on the basis of a survey, which of the following occurred? a) the survey was not actually completed; the data were manufactured b) even though an elaborate (and appropriate) statistical analysis was done, the survey itself was hopelessly biased c) there was an inappropriate statistical analysis d) it a well-designed and fair survey, but used a biased sample

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Test Bank—Chapter 9

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

9-4

27) Which of the following was true about the survey by Hartwig and Dunlosky (2012) on student study strategies? a) it contained all open-ended questions b) it was an interview format c) it had a small sample size d) it contained all closed questions 28) What were the results of the Hartwig and Dunlosky (2012) survey of student study strategies? a) students who tested themselves also had higher GPAs b) use of flashcards was strongly related to GPA c) cramming led to better test performance than study that was distributed over time d) the most often reported study strategy was rereading the material 29) In a negative correlation, a) high scores on one variable are accompanied by high scores on the second variable b) low scores on one variable are accompanied by low scores on the second variable c) high scores on one variable are accompanied by low scores on the second variable d) both alternatives a. and b.

30) In a positive correlation, a) high scores on one variable are accompanied by high scores on the second variable b) low scores on one variable are accompanied by low scores on the second variable c) high scores on one variable are accompanied by low scores on the second variable d) both alternatives a. and b.

31) Which of the following would be most likely to produce a negative correlation? a) the relationship between college grades and parents’ IQ b) the relationship between college grades and total TV watching time c) the relationship between college grades and high school grades d) the relationship between college grades and time spent in library 32) How much information is in a correlation coefficient? a) the strength of a relationship b) the direction of a relationship c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above 33) Which of the following correlations shows the strongest relationship? a) -.72 b) +1.21 c) +.70 d) -.09 34) Which of the following correlations shows the weakest relationship? a) +.23 b) +.07 c) -.09 d) -.99 35) In order for a Pearson’s r to reflect a meaningful relationship, which of the following must be true? a) the relationship must be linear b) the relationship must be nonlinear c) the relationship must be inverse d) the relationship must be a positive one

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Test Bank—Chapter 9

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

9-5

36) In order for a Pearson’s r to reflect a meaningful relationship, which of the following must be true? a) the relationship must be nonlinear b) the variables must be measured on at least an ordinal scale c) the range of scores must be restricted on at least one of the variables d) the variables must be measured on either an interval or a ratio scale 37) In order for Pearson’s r to be calculated, a) both variables must be measured on a ratio scale b) the relationship must be a linear one c) at least one of the variables must have a restricted range d) the variables must be measured on at least an ordinal scale 38) A regression line for a correlation of -1.00 would a) be parallel to the X-axis b) be parallel to the Y-axis c) higher for low values on the X-axis than for high values on the X-axis d) higher for high values on the X-axis than for low values on the X-axis 39) A regression line for a correlation of +1.00 would a) be parallel to the X-axis b) be parallel to the Y-axis c) higher for low values on the X-axis than for high values on the X-axis d) higher for high values on the X-axis than for low values on the X-axis 40) Picture a regression line as a diagonal line running from the lower left to the top right on a scatterplot.

For which of the following correlations would the points be closest to this regression line? a) -.90 b) -.30 c) +.40 d) +.70 41) If a researcher is trying to predict college grades, knowing high school grades, then a) the predictor variable will be college grades b) the criterion variable will be high school grades c) the prediction will be poorer if only the top 20% of high school students are used than if they are all used d) multiple regression rather than bivariate regression must be used 42) The coefficient of determination a) will never be a negative number b) solves the directionality problem c) enables conclusions about cause and effect in correlational studies d) is always closer to 1.00 than the value for Pearson’s r 43) Which of the following is true about a correlation of +.70 between variables A and B? a) about half of the variability in A can be accounted for by variability in B b) the scores for A and B will be about the same 70% of the time c) there would be a greater ability to predict than for a correlation of -.70 d) A causes B about 70% of the time; B causes A about 30% of the time 44) In a study examining the relationship between A and B, the coefficient of determination a) indicates how much variability in A can be accounted for by B b) is found by squaring the value of Pearson’s r c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above

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Test Bank—Chapter 9

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

9-6

45) A researcher discovers a correlation of +.87 between study time and GPA. What can be concluded? a) if you study a lot, your GPA will go up b) if you have a high GPA, you will be forced to study more to keep up c) students who study a lot tend to have higher GPAs than those who don’t study much d) the underlying cause of the correlation is native intelligence 46) If there is a strong correlation between variables A and B, what is the most likely explanation? a) A is causing B b) B is causing B c) A and B are caused by C d) could be any of the above — the correlation by itself does not allow one to decide 47) Suppose you investigate the relationship between college grades and time spent on Facebook and discover that the correlation is -.71. What does this tell you? a) longer times spent on Facebook are related to higher grades b) longer times spent on Facebook are related to lower grades c) to improve your grades, get off of Facebook d) time spent on Facebook really doesn’t have anything to do with grades 48) A researcher discovers a strong correlation between the number of hours spent watching TV and the level of aggression shown at school. What can be concluded? a) watching a lot of TV causes children to become aggressive b) naturally aggressive children are led to watch a lot of TV c) knowing TV-watching patterns enables a prediction of aggressiveness d) because of the distraction of TV, those who watch a lot of it are not very aggressive 49) Research using regression analyses is useful for a) establishing causal relationships b) making predictions c) manipulating independent variables d) factorial-type designs 50) A regression equation is used for a) making predictions about a second variable, given the value of the first variable b) solving the directionality problem c) solving the third variable problem d) calculating the size of the correlation 51) Ed took a Civil Service Test and was subsequently hired by the Post Office, where he performed well.

The Civil Service Test was used because a) it had been shown to be an effective predictor variable b) it had been useful as a criterion variable c) scores on the test correlated perfectly with IQ d) scores on it regressed to the mean

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Test Bank—Chapter 9

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

9-7

52) To predict college success from a combination of high school grades, weighted letters of recommendation, and SAT scores, an admissions department would probably use what procedure? a) bivariate analysis b) partial correlation c) factor analysis d) multiple regression 53) Multiple regression involves a) one bivariate procedure and two multivariate procedures b) one criterion variable and two or more predictor variables c) one predictor variable and two or more criterion variables d) performing a bivariate regression procedure several times 54) A researcher believes that anxiety disorders in children can be predicted by a combination of several variables: shyness in preschool, mother dominance, and father absence. This study will use which procedure? a) multiple regression b) partial correlation c) factor analysis d) bivariate correlations 55) If there is a strong relationship between variable A and variable B, it could be that A is causing B to occur, but it could also be that B is causing A to occur. This is known as the a) directionality problem b) third variable problem c) nonlinearity problem d) range restriction problem 56) A study using a cross-lagged panel correlation helps to solve the _______ problem. a) third variable b) restriction of range c) directionality d) multiple regression 57) A study using a ________ helps to solve the directionality problem. a) cross-lagged panel correlation b) partial correlation c) multiple regression d) factor analysis 58) A study using a partial correlation helps to solve the _______ problem. a) third variable b) restriction of range c) directionality d) multiple regression 59) A study using a ________ helps to solve the third variable problem. a) cross-lagged panel correlation b) partial correlation c) multiple regression d) factor analysis

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Test Bank—Chapter 9

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

9-8

60) Eron and his colleagues (1972) were able to show that TV viewing preferences were related to aggressiveness ten years later. What procedure did they use? a) cross-lagged panel correlation b) partial correlation c) multiple regression d) factor analysis 61) By using a __________ procedure, Eron and his colleagues (1972) were able to rule out several potential third variables that might have affected the relationship they found between preference for TV violence and aggressiveness. a) cross-lagged panel correlation b) partial correlation c) multiple regression d) factor analysis 62) Suppose there is a high positive correlation between reading speed and reading comprehension. You suspect that IQ is a potential third variable. You complete a partial correlation procedure and, with IQ controlled statistically, the high correlation between speed and comprehension remains. What do you conclude? a) IQ is an important third variable affecting the correlation b) IQ can be ruled out as a third variable underlying the correlation c) IQ must be the cause of the correlation d) not enough information to decide 63) Suppose there is a high positive correlation between reading speed and reading comprehension. You suspect that IQ is a potential third variable. You complete a partial correlation procedure and, with IQ controlled statistically, the high correlation between speed and comprehension virtually disappears.

What do you conclude? a) IQ is an important third variable affecting the correlation b) IQ can be ruled out as a third variable underlying the correlation c) IQ must be the cause of the correlation d) not enough information to decide 64) A ______ variable is one that helps explain why a correlation between two variables exists. a) predictor b) criterion c) mediating d) moderating 65) A ______ variable is one that helps explain under what conditions a correlation between two variables exists. a) predictor b) criterion c) mediating d) moderating 66) In the textbook example, impulse control helps explain why a correlation between alcohol use and engaging in risky sex. In this case, impulse control is a ______ variable. a) predictor b) criterion c) mediating d) moderating

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Test Bank—Chapter 9

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

9-9

67) In the textbook example, the type of living conditions helps explain under what conditions a correlation between alcohol use and engaging in risky sex. In this case, living condtion is a ______ variable. a) predictor b) criterion c) mediating d) moderating

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Test Bank—Chapter 9

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

Answers—Multiple Choice 1) A 2) C 3) A 4) A 5) C 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) D 12) C 13) A 14) C 15) C 16) A 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) D 25) C 26) C 27) D 28) A 29) C 30) D 31) B 32) C 33) A 34) B

35) A 36) D 37) B 38) C 39) D 40) D 41) C 42) A 43) A 44) C 45) C 46) D 47) B 48) C 49) B 50) A 51) A 52) D 53) B 54) A 55) A 56) C 57) A 58) A 59) B 60) A 61) B 62) B 63) A 64) C 65) D 66) C 67) D

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Test Bank—Chapter 9

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

9-2

Fill-in the Blanks 1) Phone surveys should occupy a relatively brief amount of the respondent’s time; this reduces the tendency for phone survey researchers to use ________ questions.

2) On a survey, subjects sometimes respond the way they think they should respond, rather than in terms of how they truly feel; that is, they show a(n) _______ bias.

3) On a survey about interracial dating, a researcher is worried that the people choosing to return the survey might be different in some important way from the initial group that was sampled; that is, there could be a problem with __________.

4) In depth questioning and follow-up questions can be most easily accomplished when using a(n) _________ survey format.

5) The points will cluster near the diagonal of a(n) ____ for a strong correlation.

6) In a(n) _________, changes in one variable are accompanied by inverse changes in a second variable.

7) In a(n) ________, there is a criterion variable and several predictor variables.

8) In a bivariate correlation, A could be the cause of B, but B could be causing A. The difficulty in deciding between these alternatives is known as the _________ problem.

9) Because correlational studies cannot control extraneous variables, these factors can provide alternative explanations for the obtained correlation; these factors are sometimes called ________ variables.

10) To address the directionality problem, correlations are calculated between measures that are taken at separate points in time in a(n) ________ correlational study.

11) The effects of third variables can be evaluated by using a statistical procedure that involves calculating ________ correlations.

12) A variable that explains why a correlation may exist is called a ________ variable.

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Test Bank—Chapter 9

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

Answers—Fill-in the Blanks 1) open-ended 2) social desirability 3) nonresponse bias 4) interview 5) scatterplot 6) negative correlation 7) multiple regression 8) directionality 9) third 10) cross-lagged panel 11) partial 12) multiple regression

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Test Bank—Chapter 9

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

9-4

Short Essay Questions 1) What are the advantages and disadvantages of collecting survey data through face-to-face interviews?

2) Describe the “hamburger ads” controversy, as a way of highlighting the possibility of bias in the wording a surveys.

3) Distinguish between open and closed questions and give an example of each.

4) What is meant by nonresponse bias and how can it affect the interpretation of survey data?

5) What is a DK alternative and when should it be used?

6) Consider correlations of +.65 and -.65. How do they differ? In what way are they alike?

7) Explain the directionality problem and how it is addressed by a cross-lagged panel procedure.

8) Describe the third variable problem and explain how it is addressed by a partial correlation procedure.

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Test Bank—Chapter 9

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

9-5

Comprehensive Essay Questions 1) Describe the three major varieties of survey research and list the strengths and weaknesses of each.

2) Write a brief essay entitled, “constructing a first-rate survey.” In your essay, be sure to describe different types of survey items and discuss avoiding various problems with the wording of survey items.

3) Distinguish between a linear and multiple regression analyses and describe how Stoeber et al. (2011) used both techniques to understand the variables related to academic engagement and burnout.

4) Explain why causal conclusions can be drawn from experimental but not from correlational studies.

Be sure to work “directionality” and “third variable” into your answer.

5) Use Eron’s et al.’s (1972) study on TV violence and aggression to show how both the directionality problem and the third variable problem can be solved.

6) Describe how researchers may combine correlational and experimental methods to investigate some phenomenon. Use the research example on loneliness and anthropomorphism (Epley et al., 2008) to illustrate your points.

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Test Bank—Chapter 10

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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Multiple Choice 1) What does all observational research have in common? a) it is descriptive in nature b) there is no attempt to provide any structure to the situation being observed c) the researcher joins the group being observed d) the researcher remains completely hidden from those being observed 2) Attempting to study the everyday behaviors of people, while remaining separate from them, is the goal of a) naturalistic observation b) participant observation c) case studies d) archival research 3) Naturalistic observation is to participant observation as ______ is to _____. a) highly structured; unstructured b) habituation; unobtrusive observation c) objective; subjective d) lower probability of reactivity; higher probability of reactivity 4) How is the problem of subject reactivity handled in naturalistic observations of animal behavior? a) researchers remain completely hidden from the animals b) researchers assume that animals become accustomed to their presence c) researchers rely only on unobtrusive measures d) researchers rely on video recording in zoos 5) Which of the following is true about participant observation? a) the participant observers can influence the behavior of the group b) unlike naturalistic observation, experimenter bias is unlikely to play a role c) researchers usually become emotionally involved and fail to record behavior objectively d) the method won’t produce data that can be analyzed statistically 6) Festinger’s famous study of a failed prophecy in a religious cult used which method? a) participant observation b) unstructured naturalistic observation c) archival study d) naturalistic observation within an experimenter-structured environment 7) ________ occurs when the behavior of subjects is affected by their knowledge that they are being observed. a) naturalistic observation b) experimenter bias c) reactivity d) unobtrusive observation 8) What is illustrated by Goodall’s observations of chimps killing each other? a) her observations were hopelessly biased by what she expected to see b) observational research can serve the purpose of falsification c) in naturalistic observation with animals, subject reactivity cannot be avoided d) it’s a good thing she didn’t try participant observation

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9) Which of the following is true of observational research? a) if done carefully, cause and effect conclusions can be drawn b) subject reactivity is seldom a problem c) results can support a theory, but cannot serve to raise questions about a theory d) the descriptive information can provide hypotheses for more controlled studies 10) Observer bias can be reduced by using a) predefined behavior checklists b) participant instead of naturalistic observation c) naturalistic instead of participant observation d) animal instead of human subjects 11) In an study of chimpanzees by Boesch-Achermann and Boesch (1993), parents were observed teaching their offspring how to use tools. What does this finding illustrate about observational research? a) it can call into question previously held beliefs (i.e., that such teaching does not occur) b) that it can be used to identify the causes of behavior c) that when studying animals, subject reactivity is a serious problem d) that animals can learn from humans 12) All of the following are designed to reduce observer bias except a) interobserver reliability b) event sampling c) behavior checklists d) unobtrusive measures 13) Reactivity can be reduced by a) using unobtrusive measures b) using time sampling procedures c) using event sampling procedures d) using naturalistic rather than participant observation procedures 14) Researchers have measured the contents of people’s trash and the bumper stickers that people put on their cars. These are two examples of a) event sampling b) unobtrusive measures c) reactivity d) double blind measures 15) Interobserver reliability is calculated for the purpose of a) increasing the amount of data available b) reducing observer bias c) eliminating subject reactivity d) substituting for event and time sampling 16) Crowley et al.’s (2001) observational study took place in a science museum. Unlike most observational studies, this one was able to accomplish a) informed consent b) Interobserver reliability c) operational definitions d) reactivity

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17) Crowley et al.’s (2001) observational study took place in a science museum. They found that a) parents explained science more to older children than younger children b) parents explained science more to male children than female children c) Dads explained science more to boy children and Moms explained science more to girl children d) parents tended to rely on museum staff to explain science to their children 18) Which of the following characterized Crowley et al.’s (2001) observational study in a science museum? a) they used participant observation rather than naturalistic observation (because the parents were involved b) unlike most naturalistic observation studies, they were able to obtain informed consent c) because they used videotape, they did not need to determine interobserver reliability d) they explained their results (parents explaining science more to boys than girls) by simply pointing out that the boys asked more questions than the girls did 19) In a study on “identitiy maintenance strategies” in newer versus older homeless individuals, a) the procedure could be described as naturalistic observation with minimal structure imposed by researchers b) researchers used a longitudinal design c) covert participant observation was used d) a large sample size was used 20) According to the APA ethics code, a) there are no restrictions on observational research b) naturalistic observation is OK, but participant observation has been deemed unethical c) informed consent is not needed for unobtrusive observations in public environments d) in naturalistic observation, debriefing is only considered important in animal studies 21) Regarding the ethics of participant observation, a) deception may be used if it is likely that consent would not be obtained b) informed consent must be obtained from participants who are observed c) debriefing is a required d) deception may not be used 22) Researchers using ________ will use both inductive and deductive reasoning to analyze patterns of responses from qualitative data, often without predefined categories of variables. a) factor analysis b) meta-analysis c) content analysis d) thematic analysis 23) Suppose a language researcher wishes to evaluate the type of words people use in their Twitter feeds two days before and two days after the 2016 United States presidential election. She may tap into the large amount of data, called ________ , provided by Twitter and produce word counts to observe language behavior. a) translational data b) big data c) obtrusive measures d) reactivity 24) Ulrich’s (1984) “room with a view” study includes all of the following EXCEPT a) archival data b) an independent variable c) limits on the type of patients studied d) random room assignment

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25) In Ulrich’s (1984) “room with a view” study, what was the independent variable? a) whether recovering patients saw trees or a brick wall when looking out their windows b) whether recovering patients had a room with a window or not c) whether or not patients requested pain medication d) from nursing records, whether or not nurses liked the patients 26) Which of the following is a problem with archival research? a) it is not possible to include an independent variable b) there is no way to control any extraneous factors c) the researcher is limited by the manner is which data were originally collected d) there is a very limited amount of archival data available to researchers 27) Archival research has to deal with all of the following problems EXCEPT a) experimenter bias b) nonrepresentative information c) subject reactivity d) missing data 28) In addition to multiple regression techniques, researcher may use ________ to test for clusters of variables to better understand the variables that contribute to a phenomenon. a) factor analysis b) meta-analysis c) content analysis d) thematic analysis 29) A researcher administers several tests, correlates each test with every other test, and looks for tests that cluster together. The researcher is probably performing the preliminary steps of what procedure? a) factor analysis b) meta-analysis c) content analysis d) thematic analysis 30) Meta-analysis is a statistical tool that evaluates ________ across multiple studies. a) replication reports b) effect sizes c) behavior checklists d) event sampling 31) Alonso et al. (2014) illustrates the first Registered Replication Report produced by the Association for Psychological Science. They used ________ to evaluate the consistency of the verbal overshadowing effect and found the effect, but at a smaller magnitude than what was originally reported. a) factor analysis b) meta-analysis c) content analysis d) thematic analysis

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Answers—Multiple Choice 1) A 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) A 6) A 7) C 8) B 9) D 10) A 11) A 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) B 16) A 17) B 18) B 19) C 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) B 24) D 25) A 26) C 27) C 28) A 29) A 30) B 31) B

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Fill-in the Blanks 1) In observational research, the observer’s presence may cause ________ in those being observed.

2) In _____________, the investigator becomes a part of the group being observed.

3) To reduce bias in observational research, more than one observer is sometimes used, and ___________ is calculated.

4) With ________, a specific set of events for observation is selected and other behaviors are ignored.

5) Studying the contents of trash or smudges on glass cases in museums are both examples of __________ measures.

6) In _________ research, the investigator relies on the gathering together of information already collected for another purpose.

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Answers—Fill-in the Blanks 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 6)

reactivity participant observation interobserver reliability event sampling unobtrusive archival

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Short Essay Questions 1) Distinguish between naturalistic and participant observation. What problems are unique to each and what problems do they share?

2) Describe what is meant by reactivity in observational research and explain how researchers try to counter the problem?

3) What methodological and ethical problems faced Festinger in his participant observation study of a religious cult?

4) Describe how observer bias can affect the validity of observational research. What measures can be taken to reduce bias?

5) Describe privacy issues that are important consider when conducting observational research.

6) Define meta-analysis and describe how meta-analysis can be used as a tool to evaluate the replicability of research results. In your answer, be sure to discuss issues of effect size and the file drawer effect.

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Comprehensive Essay Questions 1) Describe the varieties of observational research. What are the benefits and what are the problems to be overcome in observational research?

2) Describe what is meant by thematic analysis of qualitative data. List and describe the six phases of thematic analysis.

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Test Bank—Chapter 11

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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Multiple Choice 1) Applied research a) examines the basic laws of human behavior b) is just as likely to occur in the laboratory as in the field c) focuses on a specific real world problem d) has no connection with theory 2) Basic research is to applied research as ______ is to _______. a) field; laboratory b) experimental; correlational c) knowledge; problem solving d) between-subjects; within-subjects 3) What is the relationship between applied research and theory testing? a) the results of applied research bear directly on the evaluation of a theory (e.g., equity theory) b) because applied research is focused on solving immediate problems, its results have no effect on theory evaluation c) applied research is more appropriate for theory testing than is basic research d) the primary purpose of applied research is to test theory 4) Applied research a) aims to solve specific real world problems b) furthers our knowledge of basic psychological phenomena c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above 5) The study by Trudel et al. (2015) on color-coded nutrition labels shows that a) applied research can be completed in the laboratory just as well as in the field b) the results of applied research can provide empirical support for basic psychological phenomena (e.g., effect of reinstating context on memory) c) applied research can solve a problem while at the same time providing no information about basic psychological phenomena d) basic research phenomena sometimes fail when tried in the field in an applied research study 6) Which of the following was true about Trudel et al.’s (2015) study on color-coded nutrition labels? a) the effects of color-coded nutrition labels was first tested in the laboratory b) it showed that applied research results are not always consistent with basic research results c) it showed that applied research has to be correlational rather than experimental d) it showed that applied research can disprove the results of basic research 7) Applied research a) was important to American psychologists from the beginning of psychology in the U.S. b) became important to American psychologists after World War II c) has never been as important to American psychologists as basic research d) has only recently become popular among American psychologists 8) When psychology first emerged as an independent discipline at the end of the nineteenth century, American psychologists a) were interested in basic but not applied research b) felt it necessary to show that their new science was useful to society c) were initially interested in applied research, but quickly abandoned it for basic research d) were philosophers and generally uninterested in any scientific research

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Test Bank—Chapter 11

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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9) Which of the following is true about the Hollingworth’s Coca-Cola study? a) their research outcome was damaging enough to cause the company to remove caffeine from the drink b) they used just a few subjects, and each subject was tested repeatedly, but they failed to use counterbalancing procedures c) they used placebo controls and a double blind procedure d) they were not allowed to publish their results unless they were favorable to Coca-Cola 10) Consider the methodological principles you have learned about so far. The Hollingworth’s Coca-Cola study incorporating several of these principles. Which of the following did they not use in their study? a) a factorial design b) a double blind c) a placebo control condition d) counterbalancing 11) Early psychologists often tried to adapt laboratory methods to solve applied problems. For instance, Stanford psychologist Walter Miles tried to help the football team by adapting which method? a) maze learning b) mental testing c) reaction time d) trend analysis 12) Applied research done in a field setting a) is never able to accomplish random assignment b) will find it impossible to accomplish informed consent c) will be stronger in external than in internal validity d) cannot manipulate independent variables 13) Experiment is to quasi-experiment as _____ is to _____. a) internal validity; external validity b) equivalent groups; nonequivalent groups c) positive correlation; negative correlation d) control group; no control group 14) Quasi-experimental designs can include all of the following except a) random assignment b) independent variables c) subject variables d) nonequivalent groups 15) A nonequivalent control group design usually (but not necessarily) includes a) pretests b) random assignment c) causal conclusions d) a single group given pretest, then treatment, then posttest 16) In a nonequivalent control group study, a) the experiment group gets a pretest, then the experimental treatment, then a posttest b) subjects have to be assigned to the control group by means of a matching procedure c) to interpret the results, the pretest scores have to be identical for the two groups d) random assignment can be used if sample size is large enough

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Test Bank—Chapter 11

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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17) In a nonequivalent control group study, a) before the study begins, the two groups are different from each other in some systematic way b) one group is treated while the second group is not treated c) the major comparison between the groups is in terms of the amount of change from pretest to posttest d) all of the above 18) Random assignment is used in a) a nonequivalent control group design b) an interrupted time series design c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above 19) In a study comparing two nonequivalent groups, a selection by history confound occurs when a) some event intervenes between pretest and posttest and affects just one of the groups b) some event intervenes between pretest and posttest and affects both selected groups equally c) selection influences one of the groups and history influences the other d) some historical event causes a failure of the random assignment procedure 20) What makes a nonequivalent control group design a quasi-experimental design? a) it uses a pretest b) random assignment is not possible c) descriptive statistics can be used, but inferential analyses cannot be done d) only a single group is tested The following four questions relate to this hypothetical study: Teachers in a local school district are given a test of computer literacy (0-100, with 100 being perfect).

Then during the school year they have monthly in-service programs designed to improve their computer literacy. Their computer knowledge is assessed again at the end of the year. Their average pretest score is 40 and their average posttest score is 80. Teachers in a comparable school district aren’t given the training, but they do get the pretest and posttest.

21) This study uses a _________ design. a) mixed factorial design b) nonequivalent control group c) interrupted time series d) time series with a control group 22) What pretest-posttest combination for the second group would make you believe that the treatment program was effective? a) 50 - 50 b) 30 - 70 c) 40 - 80 d) 80 - 80 23) What pretest-posttest combination for the second group would make you suspect that regression produced at least some of the change in the first group? a) 50 - 50 b) 30 - 70 c) 40 - 80 d) 80 - 80

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Test Bank—Chapter 11

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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24) When evaluating the in-service programs, you determine that the second group scored 40 on both the pretest and posttest. You also discover that teachers in the first group were given home computers one month after the program began. How would you interpret the results? a) the change in the first group demonstrates a regression to the mean b) the in-service training might have had some effect, but there is a serious selection by history confound here c) the in-service training program is the only factor that could have produced the effect d) the second group obviously didn’t try, so any comparison is meaningless

25) Using the system developed by Campbell and Stanley, which design is this? i. O1 T O2 ii. O1 O2 b) P x E factorial design c) an archival experiment d) nonequivalent control group design e) interrupted time series design 26) Using the system developed by Campbell and Stanley, which design is this? a. O1 O2 O3 O4 T O5 O6 O7 O8 b) P x E factorial design c) a multiple case study d) nonequivalent control group design e) interrupted time series design 27) Which of the following is true about D’Haese et al.’s (2015) study on ‘Play Streets’? a) it used a nonequivalent control group design with a pretest b) it was an example of an interrupted time series design c) it was a formative evaluation d) unlike similar studies, there was no pretest given 28) Using the system developed by Campbell and Stanley, which of the following designs combines the elements of a nonequivalent control group design and an interrupted time series design? a) O1 O2 O3 O4 T O5 O6 O7 O8 b) O1 T O2 c) O1 O2 O3 O4 T O5 O6 O7 O8 O1 O2 O3 O4 O 5 O6 O7 O8 d) O1 O2 O3 O4 T O5 O6 O7 O8 O 1 O 2 O 3 T O4 O 5 O 6 O 7 O 8 29) Each of the following studies illustrates a nonequivalent control group design EXCEPT a) the study on the effects of flextime on two manufacturing plants, one in Cleveland and one in Pittsburgh b) the study evaluating a training program for coaches c) the study examining the influence of the California earthquake on nightmares d) the study examining the effects of introducing an incentive plan on productivity in an iron foundry 30) If a researcher decides to insure through matching that two nonequivalent groups start with the same pretest score, results could very likely be affected by a) history b) testing c) regression d) maturation

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Test Bank—Chapter 11

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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31) Initial evaluations of the Head Start program seemed to question program effectiveness. An alternative explanation of the failure to find improvement is that a) forced matching might have created an unfavorable regression to the mean b) a selection by history confound probably occurred c) fade-out effects occurred d) none of the above — there is general agreement that the program in fact does not work 32) In Wood and Bootzin’s (1990) study of nightmares following earthquakes, what design was used? a) interrupted time series b) time series with a control group c) formative evaluation d) nonequivalent control group design 33) In Wood and Bootzin’s (1990) study of nightmares following earthquakes, students living in the area of the earthquake and who experienced it were in the experimental group. The nonequivalent control group consisted of a) comparable students who heard of the earthquake but lived at a university far away from it b) students living in the quake area who slept through it c) parents of the students d) comparable students who lived at a distant university and had not heard about the earthquake 34) Interrupted time series designs a) enable researchers to draw causal conclusions b) are well suited for analyzing trends c) aren’t able to include control groups d) require a minimum of 10 pretest scores and 10 posttest scores 35) To see if a flextime program improved worker absenteeism, records were examined for six months prior to and six months following the program’s institution. What design is this? a) time series with control group b) nonequivalent control group c) multiple pretest-posttest d) interrupted time series 36) In the above item, if worker absenteeism improved after flextime was installed and was generally lower after than before the program, what could be concluded? a) the program worked b) some uncontrolled historical event might have brought about the change c) a regression to the mean could have occurred d) all of the above are possibilities 37) Wagner et al. (1988) examined worker productivity as the result of the institution of a worker incentive plan. They used a(n) ________ design. a) interrupted time series with a control group b) nonequivalent control group c) needs analysis d) interrupted time series 38) Wagner et al. (1988) used an interrupted times series design to examine changes in worker productivity after the institution of a worker incentive plan. In addition to measuring productivity, they also examined other information in order to rule out alternative explanations of their results. They were able to rule out _______ because _______. a) history; no significant event occurred around the time of the program’s start b) instrumentation; the manner of measuring productivity didn’t change c) selection; of an absence of significant worker turnover d) all of the above

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Test Bank—Chapter 11

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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39) What is the defining feature of an interrupted time series with switching replications? a) a program is implemented in two different situations at two separate times b) a control group is added to the treatment group c) the effects of a program on one dependent variable is compared with the effects on a second dependent variable d) a program is implemented then taken away (“switched”) 40) The time series study on California’s “three strikes and you’re out” program to reduce crime used which of the following variations on the basic time series design? a) the researchers added an “interruption” to the sequence of events b) the researchers added a switching replication, comparing California with another state that implemented the program 6 months after California c) the researchers added a control group, comparing California with Texas d) the researchers added a second dependent variable, comparing felonies with misdemeanors 41) Campbell's “reforms as experiments” article includes a description of an evaluation of a state police crackdown on speeding in Connecticut. In conducting this study, Campbell used a) an interrupted time series design, with comparisons made to similar states b) a simple one-group interrupted time series design c) a nonequivalent control group design, with comparisons made to similar states d) a pretest posttest design (no control group) 42) Campbell’s “reforms as experiments” article includes a description of an evaluation of a state police crackdown on speeding in Connecticut. There were 324 fatalities in the year before the crackdown and 284 in the year after. According to Campbell, the program was partially the cause of the drop, but ______ also occurred. a) selection b) maturation c) instrumentation d) regression to the mean 43) According to Campbell, why is regression to the mean such a likely explanation when evaluating the effects of social programs (e.g., speeding crackdowns)? a) programs to fix some problem are usually begun after an especially bad year b) program evaluation is always correlational rather than experimental c) it is usually easy to rule out all other confounds d) regression is the one confound that cannot be evaluated by comparison with a control group 44) There were a record 324 automobile fatalities in Connecticut in 1955, which prompted a statewide crackdown on speeding. The next year there were 284 fatalities. What did Campbell conclude from his evaluation of the state’s program? a) regression to the mean occurred and it accounted for the reduction from 324 to 284 b) because the program was so highly publicized, it accounted for the drop from 324 to 284 c) the drop from 324 to 284 was partly due to regression, but the program was also successful to a degree d) the results could be attributed partly to regression and partly to instrumentation (they defined “traffic fatality” different in 1956) 45) Census data is most likely to be used during which phase of program evaluation? a) needs analysis b) summative evaluation c) formative evaluation d) cost-effectiveness analysis

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Test Bank—Chapter 11

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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46) As part of a program to inform clients about how to manage credit card expenses, they are counseled, and at the end of an opening session, given an expense log to fill out over the next six months. Examining these logs after a month would constitute part of a a) cost analysis b) needs analysis c) formative evaluation d) summative evaluation 47) Formative evaluation is to summative evaluation as ________ is to ________ . a) before; after b) before; during c) during; before d) during; after 48) Surveys of existing programs, census data, and surveys of residents all contribute to which phase of program evaluation? a) cost analysis b) needs analysis c) formative evaluation d) summative evaluation 49) What is the advantage of doing a formative evaluation? a) it enables the agency to decide whether or not to implement the program b) it allows program changes to be made before it is too late c) it allows the researcher to complete an experimental study instead of a quasi-experimental study d) it allows for a final “formed” evaluation of the success or failure of the program 50) The purpose of a _________ is to examine what is actually occurring in a program to see if it is running as designed. a) program audit b) summative evaluation c) survey of existing programs d) cost analysis 51) A summative evaluation is designed to answer the question: a) Is this program currently working the way it is supposed to work? b) Did this program produce the effects it was supposed to produce? c) Should you develop this program? d) Which of these two very effective programs should we continue?

52) A formative evaluation is designed to answer the question: a) Is this program currently working the way it is supposed to work? b) Did this program produce the effects it was supposed to produce? c) Should you develop this program? d) Which of these two very effective programs should we continue?

53) A needs analysis is designed to answer the question: a) Is this program currently working the way it is supposed to work? b) Did this program produce the effects it was supposed to produce? c) Should we develop this program? d) Which of these two very effective programs should we continue?

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Test Bank—Chapter 11

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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54) A cost-effectiveness analysis is designed to answer the question: a) Is this program working the way it is supposed to work? b) Did this program produce the effects it was supposed to produce? c) Should you develop this program? d) Which of these two very effective programs should we continue?

55) Which type of program evaluation is needed when trying to choose between two programs, both of which seem to be equally effective? a) needs analysis b) cost-effectiveness analysis c) formative analysis d) summative analysis 56) Nonequivalent control group designs and interrupted time series designs are most likely to be a part of a a) cost analysis b) needs analysis c) formative evaluation d) summative evaluation 57) Summative evaluations sometimes fail to detect genuine program effects. These Type _____ errors often happen because _______. a) II; the measuring tools aren’t very good b) II; the program usually doesn’t work c) I; the measuring tools aren’t very good d) I; the program really doesn’t work 58) It is sometimes said that program evaluation research is susceptible to Type II errors. What does this mean? a) significant effects are found, which later turn out to be phony effects b) small program effects might truly exist, but the measuring tools aren’t sensitive enough to detect them c) program evaluators often use only descriptive statistics and ignore inferential ones d) program evaluators often fail to take costs into account in their analyses 59) Cost-effectiveness analysis occurs at the end of a program, but assessing cost is also an important part of a) program audit b) needs analysis c) summative evaluation d) none of the above 60) The needs analysis done at the Du Pont Company included all of the following except a) a survey of existing company programs for enhancing health b) an analysis of employee health records c) census data on the proportion of people who were overweight d) worker surveys (on their knowledge of healthy behavior) 61) Program audits are most likely to be associated with which type of program evaluation? a) needs analysis b) cost analysis c) summative evaluations d) formative evaluations

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Test Bank—Chapter 11

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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62) Informed consent can be a problem in program evaluation research. Why? a) there tends to be a high rate of attrition in this research b) powerless clients might believe that a failure to give consent would have adverse consequences for them c) most subjects in these studies are under the age of 18 d) subjects often cannot be reached before the study begins 63) In program evaluation research, what is meant by the problem of “leakage?” a) people in one group discover how people in another group are being treated b) people in one group switch to another group c) it’s another name for attrition d) stakeholders give away the purpose of the study in order to sabotage it 64) Collectively, persons with a direct interest in a program are known as a) a focus group b) stakeholders c) key informants d) a community forum

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Test Bank—Chapter 11

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

Answers—Multiple Choice 1) C 2) C 3) A 4) C 5) B 6) A 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) C 12) C 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) D 18) D 19) A 20) B 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) A 28) C 29) D 30) C 31) A 32) D 33) A

34) B 35) D 36) D 37) D 38) D 39) A 40) D 41) A 42) D 43) A 44) C 45) A 46) C 47) D 48) B 49) B 50) A 51) D 52) A 53) C 54) D 55) B 56) D 57) A 58) B 59) B 60) C 61) D 62) B 63) A 64) B

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Test Bank—Chapter 11

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

11-1

Fill-in the Blanks 1) A(n) __________ design occurs whenever a lack of control makes it impossible to draw causal conclusions.

2) In a(n) ___________ design, both groups get pretests and posttests, but just one group gets the experimental treatment.

3) Wood and Bootzin (1990) used a(n) __________ design to evaluate the effects of experiencing an earthquake on the quality and quantity of nightmares.

4) Trends can be evaluated by using a(n) ___________ design.

5) Stolzenberg and D’Alessio (1997) used a(n) __________ design to evaluate the effects of a change in a felony sentencing law in California.

6) A _________ is a systematic examination of qualitative information in terms of predefined categories.

7) __________ often includes a survey of people who will be affected by the program in question.

8) A _________ is an person with special knowledge about the feasibility of a program.

9) In a(n) _____________, a researcher examines a program-in-progress to see if it is running as planned.

10) The overall evaluation of program effectiveness involves conducting a(n) __________.

11) Deciding between two equally effective programs can be accomplished by completing a(n) ____________.

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Test Bank—Chapter 11

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

Answers—Fill-in the Blanks 1) quasi-experimental 2) nonequivalent control group 3) nonequivalent control group 4) interrupted time series 5) interrupted time series 6) content analysis 7) needs analysis 8) key informant 9) formative evaluation 10) summative evaluation 11) cost effectiveness analysis

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Test Bank—Chapter 11

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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Short Essay Questions 1) Explain why early American psychologists were so interested in applied psychology and give a “football” example of applied work from psychology’s early years.

2) Briefly describe four design problems in applied research.

3) Use the color-coded nutrition labels study to show (a) the general purpose of applied research, and (b) how applied research can also shed light on basic phenomena.

4) Describe the defining feature a quasi-experimental design.

5) What is a nonequivalent control group design and how does it differ from a simple nonequivalent groups design?

6) Use the ‘Play Streets’ study to show how an interrupted time series design incorporated a pretestposttest design into their study.

7) Describe the essential purpose of a needs analysis and list and define the elements that might be included in a typical analysis.

8) Distinguish between a summative and a formative analysis and explain why program administrators worry more about the former.

9) What is involved in a typical cost-effectiveness analysis and how does this type of analysis affect program assessment?

10) Explain why a consistent failure to reject the null hypothesis can be a useful finding in program evaluation research.

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Test Bank—Chapter 11

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

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Comprehensive Essay Questions 1) Consider Harry and Leta Hollingworth’s Coca-Cola study. What important methodological features did they incorporate into their studies, and what were their conclusions about the effects of caffeine?

2) Describe the basic procedures used in a nonequivalent control group design and create three sets of hypothetical data showing (a) treatment effectiveness, (b) treatment apparently effective, but could be due to a selection by history confound, and (c) treatment apparently effective, but could be due to regression to the mean.

3) Describe the basic logic of an interrupted time series design and describe three design improvements that can be made that extend the design beyond one that only includes one group?

4) Describe the essential elements of the four main varieties of program evaluation research.

5) Describe the ethical issues that are especially relevant for program evaluation research.

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Test Bank—Chapter 12

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Multiple Choice 1) Small N research designs a) are a recent development, originating with Skinner’s work b) began in the 1930s when Fisher developed ANOVA c) characterized most of the early research in psychology d) have never been popular with the majority of research psychologists 2) In the early years of experimental psychology (approximately 1880-1920), each of the following was true except a) experimenters often participated as subjects in their own studies b) studies were more likely to have small N than large N c) subjects were often referred to as ‘observers’ d) replication was a problem because means were based on just two or three subjects 3) In the early years of experimental psychology, studies often used three or four participants. How were the data handled? a) the data were summarized as descriptive statistics (e.g., means), but inferential statistics were not used b) the data for each participant were presented in the results c) only the most unambiguous data were presented d) the results took the form of verbal descriptions; numbers were not used 4) In the Dresslar study on facial vision, Dresslar and two colleagues served as subjects. How were the results handled? a) the data for the three subjects were summarized with descriptive statistics b) the data for each subject were presented separately c) the data for subject #3 were the clearest; only these data were shown d) the results took the form of verbal descriptions; numbers were not used 5) In early small N research like the Dresslar study on facial vision, additional subjects a) were tested until someone provided unambiguous support for the hypothesis b) served the purpose of replication c) had their data averaged to produce group means d) were not needed; these studies never used more than a single person 6) Which of the following was true about Thorndike’s research on cats in puzzle boxes? a) his explanations were criticized for not being parsimonious b) more than one cat was tested, with the additional cats serving a replication purpose c) his results were a direct contradiction of Skinner’s ideas about conditioning d) it shows how all the early researchers had to be highly talented as apparatus builders 7) In early small N research like the Dresslar study on facial vision, additional subjects served the purpose of a) replication b) a control group c) helping to stabilize the calculated means d) investigating individual differences 8) Thorndike’s puzzle box studies a) demonstrate the failure of large N designs in some situations b) demonstrate that early experimentalists could not succeed unless they were talented creators of apparatus c) illustrate the effective application of parsimonious explanations d) provide strong evidence that cats had reasoning powers

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Test Bank—Chapter 12

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9) Research on visual discrimination learning in children has shown that a) small N designs provide misleading data b) averaging the data can produce a result that does not reflect individual performance c) the gradual trial and error learning that typically occurs is well-reflected in graphs showing grouped data d) a gradual increase in habit strength is the best explanation for the observed behavior 10) All of the following have been used as arguments for the use of small N except a) averaging the data from a large N study can produce results that do not reflect individual performance b) some populations are too small to be examined using large N methods c) it is impossible to avoid confounding with large N studies d) some studies (e.g., language learning in apes) require intense study of just a few subjects over a long period of time 11) Early research on visual discrimination learning, in which data from many subjects were averaged, supported which theory of discrimination learning? a) discrimination learning occurs when children hit upon the correct hypothesis b) discrimination learning occurs in a non-continuous fashion c) discrimination learning results from a gradual accumulation of habit strength d) discrimination learning is essentially insight learning 12) What does it mean to say that a study fails the “individual-subject validity” test? a) it means that sample size is too small b) it means that the individuals in the study do not behave as predicted by the hypothesis c) it means that the overall conclusion is not reflected in the behavior of individual participants d) it means that leakage occurred – too many of the individual participants in the study knew the true hypothesis ahead of time 13) B. F. Skinner would agree with all of the following except a) control environmental conditions and orderly behavior will follow b) general principles can only be derived from the intensive study of many individual cases c) it is better (i.e., more efficient) to study 100 rats for an hour each than one rat for 100 hours d) psychology should be more of an inductive than a deductive science 14) According to Skinner’s experimental analysis of behavior, a) the goal is to identify the stimuli that cause each of our behaviors to occur b) it is important to study both how often a behavior occurs and how quickly it occurs c) the consequences of behavior determine the future probability of the behavior occurring again d) behaviors that lead to rewards do not have to be learned — they are innate 15) For Skinner, the dependent variable of choice was a) how often a behavior occurs b) how quickly a behavior occurs c) the strength of a behavior d) whether the behavior was correct or in error 16) In the Ferster and Skinner book on schedules of reinforcement, a) the data were presented in the form of cumulative records b) each of the graphs in the book portrays the behavior of a single animal c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above 17) The device used to record behaviors in Skinner’s operant conditioning experiments is called a(n) a) operant chamber b) schedule of reinforcement

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c) cumulative recorder d) reinforcement contingency 18) What was Skinner’s attitude about applied psychology? a) he was a strong advocate of applying operant principles b) he believed that operant research should be exclusively basic laboratory research until all the laws of operant conditioning were well established c) he was almost exclusively an applied psychologist — basic laws of conditioning did not interest him d) he supported it, but preferred to leave applications to non-operant psychologists 19) Using the distinction made by historian Laurence Smith, it is fair to characterize Skinner as representing which scientist type? a) the contemplative ideal b) the technological ideal c) an even blend of the contemplative ideal and the technological ideal d) none of the above 20) All single-subject designs include a) a time during which a baseline level of behavior is measured b) a control group c) a withdrawal stage d) at least two baselines (one at the start, one at the end) 21) Every single-subject design includes each of the following elements except a) a time during which a baseline level of behavior is measured b) precise operational definitions of target behaviors c) a withdrawal stage d) a stage during which a treatment program is introduced 22) Which of the following is true about the A-B design, a) A refers to the treatment being tested b) B is when the treatment is withdrawn c) it allows for causal conclusions to be drawn d) it lacks a period when the treatment is withdrawn 23) In an A-B design, a) A refers to the baseline period b) B is when the treatment is being given c) both alternatives a. and b. d) none of the above 24) For which of the following designs is it most likely that changes could be attributed to the confound of maturation rather than to the experimental treatment? a) multiple baseline b) alternating treatments c) A-B-A d) A-B 25) In an A-B-A design, a) the first A is a baseline period b) a treatment is put in place, then withdrawn, then put in place again c) the two A’s refer to two different baselines in a multiple baseline study d) B = baseline 26) In a typical A-B-A design,

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Test Bank—Chapter 12

a) b) c) d)

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a baseline is measured before anything else happens treatment is put in place (A), then withdrawn (B), then reintroduced (A) B refers to the “Baseline” phase of the study treatment effects can be evaluated twice

27) Which design is better, an A-B-A design or an A-B-A-B design? a) A-B-A; it is more parsimonious b) A-B-A; it has the ethical advantage of leaving subjects exactly where they started c) A-B-A-B; it compares two different treatments d) A-B-A-B; the treatment is evaluated twice 28) Compared to an A-B-A design, the A-B-A-B design a) evaluates the treatment twice b) withdraws the treatment twice c) leaves subjects exactly where they were when the study began d) raises more ethical problems 29) A study by Flood et al. (2002) was designed to help ADHD school children stay on task. They used a(n) ______ design. a) A-B-A-B b) A-B-A c) multiple baseline d) alternating treatments 30) A study by Flood et al. was designed to help ADHD school children stay on task. Which of the following was true of their study? a) they used a multiple baseline design b) there were enough children in this study so that average scores could be calculated c) schoolmates of the ADHD children were a critical part of the treatment program d) the study was controversial because it relied more on punishment than reinforcement 31) Multiple baseline designs are preferred over withdrawal designs when a) more than one subject is being tested b) one treatment is being compared directly with another c) the behavior being altered is self-destructive d) the behavior to be changed must be changed gradually 32) All multiple baseline designs a) evaluate the same behavior in more than one individual b) examine the same behavior in an individual, but in two or more settings c) introduce treatment(s) at different times d) include a withdrawal element 33) Multiple baseline studies examine all of the following except a) two or more different treatment programs b) two or more different individuals c) two or more different settings d) two or more different behaviors 34) A study by Wagaman et al. (1993) used a multiple baseline design to evaluate a program to help people reduce stuttering. The study is an example of baselines being established for a) two or more behaviors within the same individual b) the same behavior in two or more individuals c) the same behavior in the same individual, in two or more settings d) two different treatments within the same person

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Test Bank—Chapter 12

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35) A study by Kay and colleagues (2006) used a multiple baseline design to help an individual reduce drooling behavior. Their study included a) a combination of training and reinforcement b) multiple baselines in three different settings c) calculation of interobserver agreement d) all of the above 36) Which of the following research examples used a multiple baseline across settings design? a) the study with ADHD children b) the study helping “George” to stop drooling c) the study that helped children learn to control stuttering d) the study that improved linebacker play 37) One of the multiple baseline designs in the chapter was illustrated by a study on improving linebacker performance. Which type of multiple baseline was used? a) two or more different treatment programs b) two or more different individuals c) two or more different settings d) two or more different behaviors 38) Social validity is said to occur when a) a procedure shown to be effective is recognized as such by the community and widely used b) results shown to be effective in the lab also work in the social environment c) a study with one type of person is also shown to be effective with other types of people in the social environment d) a study has been replicated with a second cultural group 39) What is the best design to use when trying to develop a consistent exercise program? a) alternating treatments b) multiple baseline c) withdrawal d) changing criterion 40) A changing criterion design is built on the operant conditioning principle of a) shaping b) withdrawal c) extinction d) punishment 41) The study by DeLuca and Holborn (1992) showed how the physical condition of obese boys could be improved. The study used a __________ design and included __________. a) multiple baseline; a withdrawal of treatment b) A-B-A; period of noncontingent reinforcement c) changing criterion; a withdrawal of treatment d) alternating treatments; multiple baseline 42) Health-related behaviors, such as those involving diet and exercise, are best developed through the use of which design? a) changing criterion b) alternating treatment c) A-B-A d) multiple baseline 43) A study by Foxx and Rubinoff (1979) showed how small N designs can be useful in reducing the amount of caffeine people ingest daily. They used which design? a) A-B-C-B

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b) A-B-A-B c) alternating treatment d) changing criterion 44) A researcher wishes to determine if bed-making behaviors can be increased more easily through either method A or method B. The best single-subject design to use would be a) alternating treatments b) multiple baseline c) A-B-A-B d) A-B-A 45) Single-subject designs have been criticized for all of the following reasons except a) results do not generalize beyond the treatment environment b) too much reliance on visual inspection and not enough statistical analysis c) replication does not seem to be important to small N advocates d) the designs do not test interactions effectively 46) Which of the following has not been a common criticism of small N designs? a) results do not generalize beyond the treatment environment b) behaviors aren’t defined very carefully c) inadequate statistical analyses d) unable to identify interactions easily 47) In response to the criticism that single-subject results do not have external validity, advocates argue that a) multiple replications have established the effectiveness of certain treatments b) external validity is unimportant c) single-subject research is designed to establish basic principles; it is not meant to be applied research d) external validity is irrelevant 48) Small N designs have been criticized for a) being unable to test for interactions b) being unconcerned with applications c) using too many different dependent variables d) overuse of statistical analysis 49) Luria’s mnemonist (“S.”) was studied through the use of which procedure? a) interview survey method b) single-subject withdrawal procedures c) case study procedures d) archival research 50) Case studies investigate a) individual lives of those who exemplify some particular attribute (e.g., exceptional memory) b) the circumstances involved with some rare and unusual event (e.g., a nuclear accident) c) empirical questions that require the use of data that has already been collected for some other purpose d) both alternatives a. and b.

51) Freud’s research was primarily of the _______ variety. a) case study b) observational c) archival d) interview survey

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52) Luria’s case study of S., the mnemonist, a) is an example of archival research b) demonstrates the limited value of case studies (who else is like this?) c) demonstrates that case studies of unusual people can shed light on normal phenomena (e.g., the value of a limited short-term memory) d) illustrates the problem of experimenter bias in case study research (S.’s memorywould not have been so exceptional if Luria had not paid so much attention to him) 53) The case study of former boxer “AB” illustrates the importance of case studies to a) use inferential statistics to make claims about groups of individuals. b) describe groups of individuals similar to a single case. c) rely on anecdotal evidence. d) guide individualized treatment and/or rehabilitation for the patient.

54) Which of the following is true about case study research? a) it might be the only way to study some rare individual b) experimenter bias can affect what the researcher records about the case c) the data from the subjects of case studies can be limited by memory failures d) all of the above are true 55) Which of the following is true about case study research? a) the personality theorist Gordon Allport believed that case studies were only useful if they supplemented more valid methods b) they are of limited value because they normally concern extremely unusual persons c) the data from the subjects of case studies can be limited by memory failures d) an advantage is the lack of experimenter bias

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Test Bank—Chapter 12

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

Answers—Multiple Choice 1) C 2) D 3) B 4) B 5) B 6) B 7) A 8) C 9) B 10) C 11) C 12) C 13) C 14) C 15) A 16) C 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) A 21) C 22) D 23) C 24) D 25) A 26) A 27) D 28) A

29) A 30) C 31) C 32) C 33) A 34) B 35) D 36) B 37) D 38) A 39) D 40) A 41) C 42) A 43) D 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) A 49) C 50) D 51) A 52) C 53) D 54) D 55) C

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Test Bank—Chapter 12

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Fill-in the Blanks 1) The extent to which a general research outcome applies to any one individual in a study is referred to as _________.

2) In operant conditioning research, according to Skinner, the only important dependent measure is _________.

3) In operant conditioning research, rate of response is measured by means of a(n) ________.

4) For any single-subject design, the initial step is to establish a(n) _______.

5) An A-B-A and an A-B-A-B are both examples of ________ designs.

6) A researcher wishes to examine the effects of a treatment on a single individual, first in one setting, then in a second, then in a third; this calls for a(n) _________ design.

7) More than one type of treatment program can be examined in a(n) __________ design.

8) The operant procedure of gradually shaping a behavior by reinforcing successive approximations to the final desired behavior is exemplified by the _________ design.

9) A comparison between reinforcement that is directly contingent upon behavior and noncontingent reinforcement can be made with a(n) _______ design.

10) The method used by Luria to study exceptional memory was the __________ method.

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Test Bank—Chapter 12

Goodwin & Goodwin, Research in Psychology, 8e

Answers—Fill-in the Blanks 1) individual-subject validity 2) rate of response 3) cumulative recorder 4) baseline 5) withdrawal 6) multiple baseline 7) alternating treatments 8) changing criterion 9) A-B-C-B 10) case study

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Short Essay Questions 1) Use the visual discrimination learning example to show that grouping data can produce problems with individual-subject validity.

2) Single-subject designs have several elements in common. Describe them.

3) Describe the basic logic behind the use of a withdrawal design, and explain why an A-B-A-B design is preferred over an A-B-A design.

4) Describe the three basic varieties of the multiple baseline design.

5) Describe the operant phenomenon of shaping and show how it forms the basis for one of the singlesubject designs.

6) Describe what is meant by social validity.

7) Compare and contrast changing criterion designs and alternating treatments designs.

8) Describe the criticisms of single-subject research designs. How do advocates of the approach respond?

9) Describe two different varieties of case study and give an example of each.

10) Describe how McMicken et al. (2011) used the case study method to evaluate boxer “AB.”

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Comprehensive Essay Questions 1) Small N designs represent a significant departure from the kind of experiments encountered in the text’s first 10 chapters. What are the arguments used by advocates of small N designs to defend their choice of research, and it what ways are small N designs criticized by advocates of large N designs?

2) Pretend you are B. F. Skinner for a moment and you are asked to defend your system of psychology to someone with minimal knowledge of psychology. What would you say?

3) What are the ideal circumstances for using the following designs: A-B-A-B, multiple baseline, changing criterion, alternating treatments?

4) Explain when case studies are likely to be used and describe their benefits and limitations. Using either the case of Luria’s mnemonic S or McMicken et al.’s case of boxer AB, explain why it is sometimes said that case studies of rare individuals shed little light on normal behavior.

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