Supervision in the Hospitality Industry, 7th Edition Test Bank by Ace Test Banks

Supervision in the Hospitality Industry, 7th Edition By Walker & Miller

Chapter 1: The Supervisor as Manager True/False Questions 1. A supervisor is responsible for the input of the people supervised and for the quality and quantity of products and services. 2. Responsibility refers to the obligation that a person has to carry out certain duties and activities. 3. Exempt employees are covered by the federal and state wage and hour laws. 4. Work climate is the level of morale in the workplace. 5. The four main functions of management are: planning, organizing, controlling, and interpersonal skills. 6. Scientific management is the standardization of work procedures, tools, and conditions of guests. 7. Human relations theory is a theory that states that satisfying the needs of employers is key to productivity. 8. Participative management is a system that includes employees in making decisions that concern them. 9. A manager needs three sets of skills: technical, human, and conceptual. 10. Opportunity thinkers focus on why the situation is impossible and retreat. Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Scientific management is associated with: a. the Hawthorne experiments. b. Frederick Taylor. c. participative management. d. the human relations theorists. e. Alexander Graham Bell. 2. A flex style of management means: a. bending the rules to get employees to work better. b. being able to do all the different tasks you supervise. c. successfully maintaining the management point of view without slipping back to the workers’ point of view. d. adjusting decisions and actions to the needs of the situation. e. b and d 3. Human relations theory emphasizes: a. the importance of workers as individuals. b. a fair day’s work. c. management by group decision. d. incentive pay. e. autocratic management. 4. Human skills needed by a manager include: a. the ability to advise workers on personal matters. b. the ability to organize the work and schedule personnel appropriately. c. sensitivity to workers’ personal needs. d. keeping labor costs down.

5. Participative management: a. allows workers to take part in decisions affecting them. b. requires the supervisor to participate in the work alongside the workers. c. allows workers to participate in company profits. d. All of the above. e. a and c 6. Management theory: a. is practically useless on the supervisory level. b. must be adapted to the situation and the people involved. c. cannot be taught but must be learned on the job. d. represents proven procedures that will work for anyone on any level. e. b and d 7. A supervisor has an obligation to customers to: a. see that their needs and desires are met. b. train workers in guest relations. c. represent the enterprise well. d. All of the above. e. train the boss. 8. An organization chart shows: a. the names of managers and their position in the organization. b. job descriptions and titles. c. payroll classifications and salaries. d. lines of authority and responsibility. e. All of the above. 9. A supervisor must work overtime without pay if he/she: a. supervises fewer than 10 people. b. supervises two or more people, spends 50 percent or more of his/her time managing, and earns $455/week or more. c. supervises two or more people and earns at least minimum wage. d. is considered a nonexempt employee. e. is an exempt employee with a company of more than 50 employees and who works more than 30 hours a week for minimum wages. 10. An approach to management that blends standardization, concern with people, and participative techniques is called: a. democratic management. b. humanistic management. c. flex style management. d. boomerang management. 11. A poor work climate can cause: a. low labor turnover and better quality control. b. low productivity and fewer customers. c. a fun and easy-going attitude. d. hostility among workers. e. an increase in employee satisfaction.

12. Why is it not uncommon for some hourly workers--such as bartenders and serving personnel--to take home more pay than their supervisors? a. Supervisors are considered nonexempt employees and therefore do not earn overtime pay. b. Supervisors are exempt employees and are not covered by wage and hour laws. c. Bartenders and serving personnel are paid more than their supervisors. d. Hourly employees are exempt, meaning that wage and hour laws do not cover them. 13. The work of Frank Gilbreth is associated with: a. humanistic management. b. human relations theory. c. scientific management. d. total quality management. e. work simplification. 14. Total quality management (TQM) is a: a. system in which workers participate in decisions that concern them. b. participative process that empowers all levels of employees to work in groups to establish guest service expectations. c. blend of several different systems. d. theory in which a scientific approach was applied to human performance on the job to increase productivity. 15. Who states that there are two different patterns of thinking, opportunity, and obstacle? a. Gilbreth b. Mayo c. Taylor d. Manz e. Schrock 16. Boomerang management occurs when a: a. supervisor takes control under a stressful situation. b. supervisor reverts from a management point of view to a worker’s point of view. c. supervisor rewards their employees for a job well done. d. supervisor puts an employee on a probationary period. e. a and b

17. According to Manz an opportunity thinker: a. concentrates on constrictive ways to deal with circumstances. b. focuses on why a situation is impossible to handle. c. seeks out opportunities that will create a positive work environment. d. None of the above. e. a and b 18. Authority in hospitality management can be defined as: a. the obligation of duties and activities a person has to carry out. b. a dictatorship. c. having the right to make the necessary decisions and take necessary actions to get the job done. d. a and c e. All of the above.

19. Working supervisors: a. are in close contact with the people they supervise. b. focus on work. c. are at the highest level of authority and responsibility. d. a and b e. All of the above 20. The supervisor’s role is to: a. be responsible for the quantity and quality of the products and services. b. meet employee needs. c. be responsible for the output of the people supervised. d. All of the above. 21. A supervisor who leads and manages hourly paid employees is known as the: a. working supervisor. b. top-line manager. c. first-line supervisor. d. second-line supervisor. e. a and c 22. As a hospitality supervisor, you have obligations to all of the following except: a. guests. b. owners. c. employees you supervise. d. your family and friends. e. b and d 23. As a supervisor, your number one concern is: a. your employees. b. other managers. c. the guests. d. the owners. e. None of the above. 24. Which of the following represents the four main functions of management? a. Planning, Evaluating , Organizing, Controlling b. Planning, Organizing, Leading, Controlling c. Planning, Organizing, Evaluating, Leading d. Planning, Evaluating, Leading, Controlling e. None of the above. 25. Standardization of work procedures, tools, and conditions of work is known as: a. democratic management. b. flex style management. c. boomerang management. d. scientific management. e. humanistic management.

26. Which of the following is not one of the three managerial skills essential to success? a. Physical skills b. Technical skills c. Personal skills d. Conceptual skills e. a and c 27. Which of the following is true of managerial skills? a. Management at any level is a science, not an art. b. They are an art that can be learned, although no one can really teach you. c. You do not have to be born with certain talents of personality traits. d. Studies of outstanding top executives accurately identify common sets of traits that add up to successful leadership. e. b and c 28. Which of the following is true of today’s hospitality employees? a. They tend to have a higher expectation level, and a lower frustration tolerance. b. They expect more out of a job than just a paycheck. c. Most are not tied by need to jobs they don’t like. d. All of the above. e. a and b 29. At least ___ of both foodservice and hotel employees are women? a. 60% b. 40% c. 20% d. 75% e. 33% 30. The group of Americans born between 1995 and 2012 are known as: a. Generation X b. Generation Y c. Generation Z d. Baby Boomers e. New Age Baby Boomers

Answer Key to True/False 1. F 2. T 3. F 4. T 5. F

6. F 7. F 8. T 9. T 10. F

Answer Key to Multiple-Choice 1. b 2. d 3. a 4. c 5. a 6. b 7. d 8. d 9. b 10. b 11. b 12. b 13. e 14. b 15. d

16. b 17. a 18. d 19. d 20. d 21. c 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. d 26. e 27. e 28. d 29. a 30. c

Chapter 2: The Supervisor as Leader True/False Questions 1. In the hospitality setting, training simply means teaching people how to do their jobs. 2. A small mistake or oversight made by a poorly trained employee can have enormous impact. 3. Cross training can keep workers interested and motivated, but it cannot reduce turnover. 4. One benefit to training is that it doesn’t cost the company money to perform. 5. The diversity of employees can be a training problem. 6. It is illogical for the supervisor to personally train employees. 7. Learning is the acquisition of knowledge, skills or attitudes. 8. Training material needs to be well organized and presented all at once, instead of in small chunks. 9. Employees learn best when learning is relevant and practical. 10. A good job-training program should be organized as a series of written training plans, instead of one large written plan. Multiple-Choice Questions 1. The supervisor’s authority comes from: a. the power to hire and fire, reward and punish. b. consistent disciplinary action. c. the acceptance of authority by workers. d. All of the above. e. a and c 2. The old-style boss refers to: a. uses a variation of the command – obey method combined with carrot – and – stick techniques of reward and punishment. b. Motivation by example. c. Assumed people like work. d. Like theory Y leadership. 3. When an employee has much commitment but little competence to do a job, the best leadership style, according to situational leadership theories, is: a. directing. b. coaching. c. supporting. d. delegating. e. empowering. 4. Leadership style refers to: a. charisma. b. the manner of interaction the supervisor uses with employees in directing and controlling the work. c. managerial skills - conceptual, human, and technical. d. motivation through participation.

5. A fear-and-punishment leadership style: a. works well with people who expect it. b. breeds resentment, low morale, and personnel problems. c. causes adversary relationships to develop. d. All of the above. e. a and b 6. Which of the following is not an Equal Opportunity Law? a. Unequal Pay Act of 1963. b. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 –as amended. c. Americans with Disabilities Act (1990). d. Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993. 7. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 makes it unlawful to discriminate with respect to (which is more correct)? a. promote someone who is qualified for the position. b. recruiting, hiring, firing, promotions, or other employment related activities. c. firing and bona fide occupational qualification. d. promotion, demotion, transferring.

8. The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 allows employees to do all of the following except: a. adoption or birth of a child. b. serious health condition of a child. c. health condition of a spouse or parent. d. employee’s own serious health condition. 9. Which of the following questions can you ask at an interview? a. How many children do you have? b. which country are you from? c. Can you transport yourself to work? d. What religion are you?

10. Which of the following statements is true concerning the development of leaders? a. Management training programs focus on long-term skill sets instead of long-term development processes. b. Managers’ numbers are the primary benchmark for evaluating their successes and failures. c. Teaching of administrative functions is a neglected aspect of leadership. d. In all cultures, it is not possible to find leaders at entry level. e. a and b 11. A Formal Leader is one who is: a. in charge by having the support of their employees. b. a manager that wanders around. c. “in charge.” d. a boss that is “one of the gang.” e. a and c

12. Over ________% of the hospitality industry employees are women. a. 75 b. 90 c. 60 d. 50 13. A transformational leader: a. motivates through rewards. b. dictates to their employees what, when, and how things will be done. c. acts as a coach and leads by example. d. None of the above. e. a and c 14. A transactional leader: a. motivates through appealing to the workers self- interest (rewards). b. leads by example. c. aims to fulfill the inner personal needs of the employees. d. b and c e. All of the above. 15. According to the theory of Situational Leadership the types of behaviors are: a. carrot and stick. b. directed and supportive. c. authority and leadership. d. Theory X and Theory Y. e. empowering and authoritarian. 16. The hotel and restaurant industry depends on large numbers of people to fill_________, __________ jobs that have little interest and no perceived future. a. upper level, high wage b. entry level, high wage c. upper level, low wage d. entry level, low wage 17. Poor supervision can cost companies dearly - Which of the following will not cost the company. a. Discrimination lawsuits. b. Employee engagement. c. d.

negative community image. litigation time and money.

18. Being a leader means: a. being someone that people follow voluntarily. b. guiding the actions of your employees to reach certain goals. c. influencing the actions of your employees to reach certain goals. d. All of the above. e. a and b 19. According to McGregor, the autocratic style is typical of which theory? a. Theory X b. Theory Y c. Theory Z 3

d. None of the above. e. a and b 20. Which of the following is not one of the four styles of leading? a. directing b. delegating c. discipline d. coaching 21.Which of the following is a characteristic and trait of effective leaders? a. drive b. desire to influence others c. honesty and moral character d. self-confidence e. All of the above. 22. Which of the following is not one of the four primary sources of power for effective leaders? a. Legitimate power b. Positive power c. Coercive power d. Expert power e. Reward power 23. What is an informal leader? a. Someone with the authority granted by virtue of a person’s position within an organization b. Someone in charge based on the organization chart c. Someone with authority that employees grant a supervisor to make the necessary decisions and carry them out d. Someone with authority granted by virtue of a person’s position within an organization. e. None of the above. 24. What does MBWA stand for? a. Management by way of association b. Management by walking around c. Maintaining bureaucracy within association d. Managing by way of advertising e. None of the above. 25. Which of the following is true of democratic leadership style? a. Also known as participative leadership style b. The supervisor is likely to make decisions without input from staff c. Supervisors manage by the book d. The supervisor does as little leading as possible e. a and c

26. The carrot-and-stick motivation refers to a. money and power b. money and fear c. reward and punishment

and

d. right and wrong e. b and c 27. This type of leadership was developed by Kenneth Blanchard and Paul Hershey a. Situational leadership b. Transactional leadership c. Transformational leadership d. Effective leadership e. Informal leadership 28. An experienced and proficient person who acts as a leader, role model, and teacher to those less experienced and less skilled is known as a: a. leader b. supervisor c. coach d. mentor e. None of the above. 29. Which of the following is not a good question to ask to help decide if a decision is ethical? a. How will I benefit from this decision? b. Can I live with my decision? c. Is the decision fair? d. Is the decision legal? e. Have I been honest with those affected? 30. The study of standards of conduct and moral judgment is known as: a. morals b. empowerment c. ethics d. judgment e. righteousness

Answer Key to True/False 1. T 2. T 3. F

4. F 5. T

6. F 7. T 8. F

9. T 10. T

Answer Key to Multiple-Choice 1. d 2. a 3. a 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. b 8. c 9. c 10. b 11 c 12. d 13. c 14. a 15. b

16. d 17. c 18. d 19. a 20. c 21. e 22. b 23. c 24. b 25. a 26. e 27. a 28. d 29. a 30. c

Chapter 3 Planning, Organizing, and Goal Setting True/False Questions 1. The planning process is closely related to the decision-making process. 2. Organizing is limited to top management; the supervisor simply administers the organization he/she has been given. 3. Risk is the degree of certainty about the future. 4. A contingency plan is a standing plan for reducing risk. 5. A single-use plan is a standing plan used for one repeating task. 6. Most workers in routine jobs welcome changes that affect them because change gives them relief from boredom. 7. The final questions in the planning process concern feasibility, risk versus benefit, economy, and goal setting. 8. During certain parts of the day in the hospitality industry, the job controls the supervisor and you cannot plan this time. 9. The hospitality supervisor’s day is so unpredictable that there is no point in planning ahead at all. 10. In the hospitality industry, adjusting your plans as you carry them out is part of the planning process. Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Long-range planning to set corporate goals and develop strategies for achieving them is called: a. forecasting. b. contingency planning. c. strategic planning. d. management by exception. e. planning by goals. 2. A budget is a: a. standing plan. b. single-use plan. c. strategic plan. d. contingency plan. 3. A term regarding the search (amongst competitors and others) for the best method of doing something and implementing the method to improve performance and meet or exceed goals is called: a. forecasting b. conjecture c. competencies d. benchmarking e. performance indicators 4. Which of the following are not qualities of a good plan?: a. A good plan is not flexible. b. A good plan is comprehensive. c. A good plan is specific. d. A good plan includes a necessary degree of risk. e. a and d

5. Unity of command refers to the: a. principle that each person should have only one boss. b. general manager’s ultimate responsibility. c. number of employees one person supervises. d. supervisor’s retained responsibility for tasks delegated. e. fact that we all have two bosses. 6. You can reduce the degree of risk when: a. the future is more or less certain. b. you collect all available data. c. you collect relevant data and apply it to your forecast. d. you have less than 1% relevant data collected. e. a and d 7. Organizing is: a. making out an organization chart. b. planning each day’s work in advance. c. planning for the long-range future. d. setting everything up to run efficiently. e. All of the above 8. An established routine or set of procedures used in a recurring situation is known as a: a. standing plan b. contingency plan c. single-use plan d. budget e. None of the above. 9. The planning process includes all for the following except: a. Define the goal, purpose, or problem b. Collect future data relevant to forecasting the future c. Develop alternative courses of action d. Decide on the best course of action Carry out the plan 10. Which of the following is false regarding a standing plan?: a. You can develop standing plans for training new employees, recruiting, hiring, and evaluating performance. b. You can develop standing plans for special occasions such as customer birthdays, anniversaries, and weddings. c. Rigidity is not a potential drawback of a standing plan. d. Every hospitality operation must have standing plans of some sort. e. b and d 11. If a situation occurs every day, and staff is trained in the procedures, the supervisor’s need to manage is reduced to seeing that the workers meet the standards set and dealing with unexpected events that the plan does not cover. The term that best describes this type of management is: a. management by exception b. management by delegation c. management exemption d. humanistic management e. management by delegation 21

12. The process of examining the responsibilities and difficulties of each job in order to determine which jobs are worth more than others is called: a. job analysis b. contingency planning c. strategic planning d. job evaluation 13. A bar graph diagram showing the activity and the timing of each activity is known as: a. VENN b. MBO c. GNATT d. PERT e. None of the above. 14. Strategic planning: a. does not provide a workable solution and does not meet the stated objectives. b. is long-range planning to set organizational goals, objectives, and policies to determine strategies, tactics, and programs for achieving them. c. cannot be adapted to a change in the situation. d. is a one-time plan developed for a single occasion or purpose. e. a and c 15. A diagram of a sequence of activities to complete a project which shows the time for each activity and plans for activities that can be done ahead of time or simultaneously is a: a. VENN b. MBO c. GNATT d. PERT e. MERT 16. In forecasting, if conditions tomorrow will be the same as yesterday you should assume: a. sales will be the same. b. sales will be dependent on your location. c. sales will vary everyday. d. a and b e. b and c 17. The future is always more or less uncertain. You reduce the degree of risk when you collect relevant data and apply it to your forecast-if you have less than 1% of relevant data, conditions are_________ and the degree of risk is_________. a. normal, uncertain b. uncertain, 99% c. normal, 99% d. uncertain, normal e. normal, uncertain

18. Setting everything up to run efficiently is known as: a. planning b. organizing c. leading d. communicating e. controlling 19. Which of the following is false regarding forecasting? a. It controls staffing, purchasing, and production decisions b. It is defined as predicting what will happen in the future on the basis of data from the past c. It is used to help predict business volume in the hospitality industry d. It is the first step in the spanning process e. None of the above. 20. Mark is the manager of a popular local bistro. The staff in this bistro is trained extensively before they are allowed to work on their own. While at work Mark only watches to be sure everyone on the staff is carrying out their responsibilities. Occasionally, when an unexpected event occurs, Mark takes action. Make is managing by: a. exception b. exemplification c. exemption d. excavation 21. Which of the following is not one of the steps involved in making a good plan? a. Define the goal, purpose, or problem, and set strategies of how to meet the goals. b. Develop alternative courses of action. c. Collect and evaluate data relevant to forecasting the future. d. Determine and evaluate any variables involved. e. None of the above. 22. An alternative plan for use in case the original plan does not work out is known as a(n): a. alternative plan b. contingency plan c. standing plan d. single-use plan e. day-by-day plan 23. A budget is an plan for the income and a. alternative/expenditure b. operational/allocation c. operational/expenditure d. alternative/allocation e. accounting/evaluation

of money for a given period.

24. Which of the following are scheduling techniques used by the hospitality industry to help accomplish goals? a. Gantt chart b. Process Evaluation and Review Technique c. PERT chart d. a and b e. a and c 25. Which of the following is not a key ingredient in the management by goals program? a. critical analysis b. goal specificity c. who will do what d. time limits e. b and c 26. The number of employees that a supervisor or manager supervises daily is known as: a. unity of command b. span of control c. range of authority d. number of employees e. None of the above. 27. A single-use plan: a. is a plan developed for a single use of purpose. b. may have effects that last for years, or even forever. c. could produce consequences that are immediate and disastrous. d. a and c e. All of the above. 28. Which of the following is true about planning and decision making?: a. Planning is a special form of decision making. b. The steps in making a good plan resemble those in making a good decision. c. Planning is making decisions about future courses of actions. d. a and c e. All of the above. 29. Which is true about levels of planning? a. Top management planners in a large organization make long-range strategic plans. b. Top management should be looking at a one and two-year horizon and deciding where the organization should be heading over that time span. c. Top management implements the organization’s long-term goals on a smaller level and within shorter time frames. d. a and b e. All of the above. 24

30. The first essential for dealing with resistance to change is a climate of a. anxiety/insecurity b. expression/understanding c. open communication/trust d. planning/reassurance e. None of the above.

and

Answer Key to True/False 1. T 2. T 3. F 4. T 5. F

6. F 7. T 8. T 9. F 10. T

Answer Key to Multiple-Choice 1. c 2. b 3. d 4. a 5. a 6. c 7. d 8. a 9. b 10. c 11. a 12. d 13. c 14. b 15. d

16. a 17. b 18. b 19. b 20. a 21. d 22. d 23. c 24. e 25. a 26. b 27. e 28. e 29. a 30. c

Chapter 4 Communicating Effectively True/False Questions 1. The lines of responsibility and authority within a business are also the channels of communication. 2. Job loading means adding more challenging work. 3. To delegate successfully, you need advance planning, a positive attitude, the ability to take risks, communication, and commitment. 4. You do not delegate responsibility; this belongs only to the supervisor. 5. Listening is the second half of the communication process – the most neglected half and sometimes the most important. 6. There are few universal rules about what tasks you should delegate. 7. There are only two aspects of delegation. 8. You should adapt delegation to the situation. 9. The Theory X manager relies heavily on delegation. 10. Reverse delegation is when employees try to dump their assignment back on to management. Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is false regarding the communication process?: a. Communication is an interaction between sender and receiver. b. In successful communication, the receiver directs a clear message and the sender gets the message accurately. c. There are six elements of successful communication. d. b and c e. a and c 2. Oral instructions are most suitable for: a. detailed tasks. b. simple, familiar tasks. c. instructions to hostile workers. d. All of the above. 3. Written instructions are appropriate for: a. matters requiring immediate action. b. explaining how to do something. c. tasks involving many important details. d. All of the above. e. a and c 4. Which of the following messages is most likely to be received correctly?: a. A spoken message that emphasizes something important to the receiver b. A command accompanied by threat of action if it is not carried out c. A memo marked urgent d. A notice on a bulletin board containing complete instructions 5. Nonverbal communication refers to: a. written communications. b. permanent forms of communication such as recipes, procedures, manuals, rules, and regulations. c. pictures, signs, body language, eye contact, and written communication. d. All of the above. e. a and c

6. A comfortable distance for communicating instructions is: a. within two to three feet. b. four to seven feet. c. seven to 12 feet. d. more than 12 feet. 7. When rewarding employees: a. allow employees to suggest rewards. b. don’t let employees know what the reward is ahead of time. c. make the goal in reach of the high achievers. d. allow only the employees who are getting the award to select the award. e. a and b 8. Body language is all of the following except: a. expression of attitudes through body movement. b. expression of feelings through body positions. c. expression of gestures. d. expression of goodwill sent by email. e. expression of attitudes and feelings. 9. All but which of the following responses will probably cause an employee to stop talking to the boss? a. preaching b. giving advice c. At the appropriate times, say “okay” and “yes” d. looking at one’s watch e. b and c 10. Most people can talk at the rate of minute. a. 50, 100 b. 100-125, 200-250 c. 200, 400 d. 100-125, 500

words a minute and think at the rate of

11. The most neglected communication skill is: a. listening. b. sending messages. c. expressing symbols. d. translating symbols. e. talking. 12. Symbols can obscure the meaning of a message by: a. vagueness. b. language barriers. c. body language/ facial expressions not matching the speaker’s words. d. All of the above. e. b and c

words

13. A good listener actually listens ______ % of the time. a. 65 b. 75 c. 85 d. 95 e. 80 14. Which of the following are examples of symbols?: a. pictures b. graffiti c. body language d. a and b e. All of the above. 15. Which of the following is a bad listening practice?: a. going off on tangents b. reacting emotionally c. cutting off the flow of the message d. probing, interrogating and analyzing peoples motives e. All of the above. 16. Which of the following is not one of the five principles of good listening?: a. Giving the person your undivided attention b. Hearing the person out c. Maintaining your role d. Establishing a sense of emotional communication e. Looking for the real message 17. Which of the following best describes organizational communication?” a. the sending and receiving of messages between individuals b. messages sent out by media such as newspapers, books, radio, etc. c. conversation with the purpose of obtaining information d. sending a message from the top of an organization down e. sending a message from bottom to top of an organization 18. Active listening is defined as: a. encouraging the speaker to continue talking. b. giving neutral responses to let the speaker know that you understand their meanings and feelings. c. giving emotional reactions. d. a and b e. All of the above. 19. The second step in giving instructions is: a. establishing a climate of acceptance. b. delivering the instructions. c. verifying the instructions have been understood. d. planning what you are going to say. e. following up.

20. As human beings we communicate all day, every day. We spend over ______ % of our waking hours sending or receiving messages. a. 50 b. 60 c. 70 d. 80 21. Communication that moves freely back and forth from one person to another, or up and down a ladder is known as: a. open communication b. non-verbal communication c. two-way communication d. interpersonal communication e. a and c 22. On the receiving end, accurate reception depends in part on the or sometimes even the hearing ability of the receiver. a. communication/interpersonal b. listening/reading c. verbal/nonverbal d. verbal/communication e. None of the above.

skills,

23. Which of the following is false regarding Emotional Intelligence?” a. It was popularized by the work of Daniel Goleman. b. It is defined as “the ability to manage ourselves and our relationships effectively.” c. It is often measure as EI quotient (EQ). d. It is an important influence on leadership effectiveness. e. None of the above. 24. Which of the following is not a critical component of Emotional Intelligence?: a. active listening b. self-awareness c. motivation d. self-regulation e. empathy 25. What are the six universal emotions?: a. anger, fear, sadness, happiness, worry, and surprise b. anger, fear, anxiety, happiness, disgust, and surprise c. anger, fear, sadness, happiness, disgust, and surprise d. anger, fear, sadness, happiness, nervousness, and surprise e. None of the above. 26. The distance within which a person feels uncomfortable allowing others to come closer unless they are invited to approach is known as: a. communication zones b. personal space c. public distance d. social distance e. a and b 36

27. Which of the following is a convenient way for supervisors and employees to share information and to communicate with one or several people?: a. E-mail b. Texting c. Instant Messaging d. Voice-mail e. All of the above. 28. The world’s largest social utility that connects more than 400 million people with friends and others who work, study, and live around them is known as: a. Twitter b. Intranet c. Youtube d. Facebook e. Myspace 29. Which of the following is true in regards to interviewing?: a. It is defined as conversation with a purpose. b. It is used by supervisors to screen job applicants and to get needed information from employees and their own supervisors. c. It is the most common form of interpersonal communication in the workplace. d. All of the above. e. a and d 30. Which of the following is true in regards to mass communication?: a. Hospitality organizations often use mass communication to advertise for customers as well as job applicants. b. It is defined as messages sent out to few people through newspapers, magazines, books, radio, television, and other media. c. It is decreasing on a large scale. d. a and b e. All of the above.

Answer Key to True/False 1. T 2. F 3. T 4. F 5. T

6. T 7. F 8. T 9. F 10. T

Answer Key to Multiple-Choice 1. b 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. d 6. b 7. a 8. d 9. c 10. d 11. a 12. d 13. d 14. d 15. e

16. d 17. d 18. d 19. a 20. c 21. e 22. b 23. e 24. a 25. c 26. b 27. e 28. d 29. a 30. a

Chapter 5 Equal Opportunity Laws and Diversity True/False Questions 1. The ADA applies to all people 18 years or older. 2. It is estimated that 43 million Americans have a disability. 3. The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 allows employees to take an unpaid leave of absence from work for up to 12 weeks a year. 4. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) was established in 1989. 5. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits employment discrimination bases on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. 6. When managing a diverse group, do not treat each employee the same. 7. Only one in eight Americans has African, Asian, Hispanic, or Native American ancestry. 8. Culture bound means you believe that your culture and value system are the best, the one and only. 9. Reasonable accommodation, which is legally required, refers to any change or adjustment to a job or the work environment that will enable someone with a disability to perform essential job functions. 10. One of the slowest growing segments of the U.S. population is that of minority groups. Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is the first step in creating a diversity and inclusion program?: a. Develop a mission statement that includes diversity and inclusion. b. Develop objectivesand strategies to show how the goals will be met. c. Develop measurements to monitor progress toward the goals. d. Develop goals for diversity and inclusion for each key operating area. e. Monitor progress toward goal accomplishment. 2. Culture is defined as: a. our values. b. our lifestyle. c. being responsible for our misunderstanding. d. All of the above. e. a and b 3. Equal Opportunity and Diversity Offices provide all of the following services except: a. making complaints. b. education and training about EEO and diversity. c. advocacy for diversity. d. conflict mediation and resolution. e. reviewing compliance with state and federal regulations. 4. The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 allows employees to take an unpaid leave of absence from work for up to: a. six weeks every two years. b. three week per year. c. 12 weeks per year. d. six weeks per year. e. 12 weeks every two years.

5. In general, EEO laws make it unlawful to discriminate against applicants with respect to: a. recruiting, hiring, firing, demotions, and compensation. b. recruiting, hiring, firing, commotions, and compensation. c. recruiting, hiring, firing, promotions, and compensation. d. all of the above. e. a and c 6. Discrimination in the workplace can be thought of as: a. making unemployment decisions based on factors like a person’s ability to do the job. b. making employment decisions based on a person’s ability to do the job. c. making employment decisions based on other people’s abilities to do the job. d. making employment decisions based on factors that have nothing to do with a person’s ability to do the job. 7. The Civil Right Act of 1964, Title VII as amended, makes it unlawful to discriminate against applicants on the basis of: a. gender, skills, age, and color. b. promoting employees who are not qualified, religion, race and color. c. religion, disabilities, skills, and color. d. race, color, religion, gender, and national origin. e. race, skills, color, religion, gender, and national origin. f. 8. The Age Discrimination Act of 1967 as amended, makes it unlawful to: a. discriminate against a person who is 18. b. discriminate in terms of compensation, terms, or conditions of employment because of a person’s age (over 60). c. discriminate in terms of compensation, terms, or conditions of employment for people over 40. d. discriminate against women and minorities. e. c and d 9. The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 makes it unlawful to: a. discriminate against a woman on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions. b. to fire a woman for being temporarily unable to work on the basis of being pregnant or for childbirth or related medical conditions. c. refuse to hire a woman because she is pregnant and already has a child. d. All of the above. e. a and c 10. The Americans with Disability Act (ADA) makes it unlawful to: a. discriminate in employment matters against recovering alcohol and drug abusers. b. discriminate in employment matters against a person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities. c. discriminate in employment matters against people infected with the HIV virus. d. All of the above. e. a and c

11. It is unlawful to: a. ask the applicant if they are disabled. b. ask the applicant about the disability itself. c. phrase job-related questions in terms of a disability. d. All of the above. e. b and c 12. When interviewing applicants job requirements or qualifications must be: a. relevant to the job. b. Discriminatory. c. predictive of past experience. d. relevant when regarding education and work experience. e. a and d 13. Pre-employment tests must be: a. valid. b. yield varying results. c. given to marginal applicants to see if they can hack the job. d. given to all applicants (if given at all) and give consistent results. e. a and d 14. Almost one in four Americans has African, Asian, Hispanic, or Native American ancestry. It is estimated that by 2050, the number will be: a. one in three. b. the same. c. one in two. d. significantly less 15. Diversity refers to all of the following except: a. symbols b. culture c. race d. religion e. age 16. According to the NRA, what fraction of supervisors in the foodservice industry are women? a. 7/8 b. 3/4 c. 1/2 d. 2/3 e. 1/4 17. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 makes it unlawful to discriminate against the estimated ______ million Americans who have a disability. a. 60 b. 25 c. 5 d. 43 e. 75

18. Poor supervision can cost companies dearly in the following ways: a. discrimination law suites b. high turnover rates c. litigation time and money d. a and b e. All of the above. 19. Which of the following was established in 1978 as a central authority, responsible for leading and coordinating the efforts of federal departments and agencies to enforce all laws relating to equal employment opportunity? a. The Diversity Opportunity Office b. Immigration Reform and Control Commission c. The Equal Opportunity Commission d. The Civil Rights Office e. The Americans with Disabilities Association 20. When managing diversity issues positively, you should: a. treat all of your employees equitably but not uniformly. b. have consistency by applying the same set of goals and values to each situation. c. foster a climate of mutual respect. d. All of the above. e. a and c 21. Inclusion in the workplace means: a. failure to include everyone, regardless of gender, marital status, race, national origin, religion, age, disability, sexual orientation, weight, or looks. b. to include everyone, regardless of gender, marital status, race, national origin, religion, age, disability, sexual orientation, weight, or physical appearance. c. to allow all employees to participate in owners meetings. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. 22. The starting point for EEO laws was most likely the passing of: a. Equal Pay Act of_____ b. Pregnancy Discrimination Act of______ c. Age Discrimination Act of_____ d. Civil Rights Act of_____ e. None of the above 23. Reasonable accommodation refers to: a. any change or adjustment made in order to improve the work environment. b. any change or adjustment to a job or the work environment that will enable someone with a disability to perform essential job functions. c. any change or adjustment to a job or the work environment made on behalf of any employee. d. All of the above. e. a and d

24. The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 allows employees to take an unpaid leave of absence from work for up to 12 weeks per year for all of the following reasons except: a. birth or adoption of a child. b. serious health condition of a friend or family member. c. serious health condition of a child, spouse, or parent. d. employee’s own serious health condition. e. All of the above. 25. Which of these interview questions is appropriate to ask during the hiring process?: a. Do you own a car? b. What is your native language? c. Of what country are you a citizen? d. Have you ever been convicted of a crime? If yes, give details. e. How many children do you have? 26. When facing charges of discrimination, ________ bear(s) the burden of proving that all questions on application forms or in oral interviews are not used in making hiring and placement decisions in a discriminatory manner prohibited by law. a. the applicant b. the employees c. the employer d. the attorney e. All of the above. 27. Which of the following does not help you to develop cross-cultural interaction skills?: a. Expressing yourself in new ways b. Increasing personal awareness c. Learning about other cultures d. Recognizing and practicing cross-cultural interaction skills e. Maintaining awareness, knowledge, and skills 28. Which of the following are examples of cultural difference?: a. People from Latin America, Africa, The Middle East, and South America prefer to communicate at much closer distances than do people from Canada or the U.S. b. Eye contact and facial expressions are two nonverbal communication techniques that vary among cultures. c. Even though it is a common perception that Asian people are soft spoken, it is not uncommon for Asian people to speak loudly. d. All of the above. e. a and b

29. Which of the following steps comes first for establishing a diversity and inclusion program?: a. Develop measurements to monitor progress toward the goals b. Develop a mission statement that includes diversity and inclusion c. Develop goals for diversity and inclusion for each key operating area d. Monitor progress toward goal accomplishment e. Develop objectives and strategies to show how the goals will be met 30. At the W Hotel on Union Square in New York, they provide opportunity, for more formal communication by employee survey index. What percent of the supervisor’s and manager’s bonus is based upon the survey results?: a. 25% b. 100% c. 33.3% d. 0% e. 50%

Answer Key to True/False 1. F 2. T 3. T 4. F 5. T

6. F 7. F 8. T 9. T 10. F

Answer Key to Multiple-Choice 1. a 2. e 3. a 4. c 5. c 6. d 7. d 8. c 9. d 10. d 11. d 12. e 13. e 14. c 15. a

16. d 17. d 18. e 19. c 20. d 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. b 25. d 26. c 27. a 28. e 29. b 30. c

Chapter 6 Recruiting, Selection, and Orientation True/False Questions 1. In the hospitality industry there is a pattern of daily peaks and valleys, with the peaks falling around mealtimes and the valleys falling between. 2. If the job is above the first level in terms of pay, interesting work, and decent hours, then the first place to look for someone to fill it is inside your own organization. 3. To define a job’s qualifications, you need to list the knowledge, skills and abilities, work experience, and education and training required. 4. Scheduling is a key factor. Your work schedules form a year-to-year forecast of the people you need at each hour of the day. 5. External recruiting is looking for people where the job seekers are in such places as colleges and in the company. 6. Selection tests include cognitive ability tests, which measure the ability of an individual to learn or acquire new skills. 7. Internal recruiting offers results in promoting from outside the company. 8. The best interview questions begin with how, what, and why. 9. Can-do factors are an applicants or employee’s willingness, desire, and attitude toward performing a job. 10. Fear of negligent hiring and retention litigation is a hiring manager’s worst nightmare and most compelling reason to conduct in-depth criminal records searches of job applicants. Multiple-Choice Questions 1. The labor market refers to: a. the classified ad section of a newspaper. b. employed people in a given area. c. the jobs available and the people looking for work. d. government and private employment agencies. e. jobs in a hotel or restaurant. 2. One disadvantage of patterned interviews is that they: a. are not very thorough. b. are not consistent. c. encourage bias by managers. d. discourage customized discussion. 3. The top recruiting method is: a. in-house referral b. newspaper c. job fairs d. online e. offline 4. Direct recruiting refers to: a. hiring the first person that applies for a job. b. going to where job seekers are. c. hiring from within the company. d. hiring temporary employees.

5. The application form can tell you all of the following except: a. the applicant’s name, address, phone number, and previous employers. b. the applicant’s marital and family status. c. whether the applicant can read, write, and follow instructions. d. whether the applicant is neat and conscientious or messy and careless. 6. Which type of employment agency refers job applicants at no cost to the employer? a. private employment agency b. temporary agency c. job service center d. leasing company 7. Which of the following questions is appropriate to ask a job applicant?: a. Are you over 50 years of age? b. Are you a native-born U.S. citizen? c. Do you own a home? d. Where are you currently employed? e. Do you own a car? 8. The average U.S. unemployment rate fluctuates around ______and the National Restaurant Association estimates that the number of jobs in the industry will grow by ______ over the next decade. a. 9%; 15% b. 6.1%; 15% c. 10%; 10% d. 15%; 4.8% 9. Which of the following is designed to measure an applicants’ propensity toward unwanted behaviors such as stealing, using drugs and lying?: a. aptitude tests b. substance abuse tests c. cognitive tests d. honesty/integrity tests e. scientific method test 10. Which of the following is true regarding temporary agencies?: a. They are usually free of charge. b. They charge a fee, usually 10% of the employees first year salary. c. They charge by the hour. d. They charge a fee, usually 25% of the employees first year salary. e. b and c 11. It is very easy, in that first four minutes, to be influenced by one or two characteristics and extend them into an overall impression of a person. This is known as: a. the halo effect b. an overgeneralization c. a projection d. a and b e. All of the above.

12. Which of the following examines an applicant’s willingness, desire, and attitude toward performing the job?: a. can-do factors b. job specifications c. will-do factors d. contingency factors 13. A list containing the knowledge, skills, abilities, work experience, education, and training that defines the qualifications needed for a position is called a: a. demographics form b. forecast specification c. employment requisition form d. job specification e. job improvement form 14. Private employment agencies: a. normally charge a fee. b. Usually charge fees based on a percentage. c. charge by the hour. d. are generally free of charge. 15. A highly structured interview that involves a two way exchange of information is called a(n): a. evaluation interview b. architectural interview c. patterned interview d. b and c e. All of the above. 16. Which of the following measures intelligence? a. aptitude tests b. integrity tests c. personality tests d. cognitive ability tests e. All of the above. 17. The over-65 group is growing and will increase to ______ of the population in 2030. a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% e. 35% 18. Which of the following tests would be most likely used by a hospitality enterprise for a nonmanagement job?: a. medical examinations and skills tests b. aptitude tests and medical examinations c. psychological tests and skills tests d. aptitude tests and skills tests

19. Which of the following is not a method of external recruiting?: a. employee referral program b. advertising c. employment agencies d. direct recruiting e. the company website 20. An applicants or employee’s job knowledge, skills, and abilities are known as: a. will-do factors b. projection factors c. can-do factors d. forecast variables 21. If the job you need to fill is anything above the lowest level in terms of pay, interesting work, and decent hours, where is the first place you should look? a. Newspaper/magazine b. Internet c. Inside your own operation d. Other similar companies e. None of the above. 22. Demographics include all of the following except: a. ethnic groups b. income levels c. education levels d. educational institution e. a and d 23. All of the following are true regarding scheduling except: a. Scheduling is an important task, which, when done well, helps ensure a smooth-running operation. b. Scheduling is a process of determining how many people are needed when, and assigning days and hours of work accordingly. c. Schedules should be flexible. d. Employees should be allowed to decide which days they want to work. e. c and d 24. Which of the following is not a type of recruiting method used?: a. Direct recruiting b. Indirect recruiting c. Internal recruiting d. External recruiting e. c and d

25. Which of the following is not used as an online selection test?: a. Cognitive ability test b. Personality test c. Honesty/integrity test d. Substance abuse test e. Informational skills test 26. A program under which employees suggests to others that they apply for a job in their company. If a person referred gets a job, the employee often receives recompense is known as: a. Employee referral program b. Internal recruiting c. Promoting from within d. External recruiting e. None of the above. 27. Which of the following is false regarding advertising?: a. There are two types of ads: classified and display. b. Classified ads attract more attention and can give more information than display ads. c. Blind ads pull in fewer responses than open ads. d. Display ads using the company’s logo attract more attention. e. b and c 28. Which of the following is false regarding temporary agencies?: a. It is a type of employment agency. b. They charge businesses by the hour for use of their employees. c. They are decreasing in size and importance as of recent. d. They do business with hotels, restaurants and caterers. e. b and c 29. A job service center is: a. an office of the U.S. employment service b. another source of employees, at no cost c. a federal and state system of employment offices d. a and c e. All of the above. 30. Telling an applicant the entire story about a job, including the drawbacks is known as: a. Truth in hiring b. Job specification c. Negligent hiring d. Doing the right thing e. Overgeneralization

Answer Key to True/False 1. T 2. T 3. T 4. F 5. F

6. F 7. F 8. T 9. F 10. T

Answer Key to Multiple-Choice 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. C

16. D 17. B 18. A 19. A 20. C 21. C 22. D 23. D 24. B 25. E 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. E 30. A

Chapter 7 Performance Effectiveness True/False Questions 1. Performance management may be defined as the whole process impacting how well an employee performs. 2. Written performance reviews are insurance against discrimination charges. 3. In performance reviews, superiors should be careful to rate their employee’s performance rather that the people themselves. 4. A performance review from should state measurable or observable performance standards by which workers are to be rated. 5. The typical job description spells out in general terms the content of the job, the duties, and perhaps the kind of experience or skill desired. 6. One of the biggest problems of a performance review system is guarding against the subjectivity of the evaluator. 7. The final step in developing a performance standard system is to evaluate employee performance on the job. 8. The way supervisors handle their appraisal interviews can determine whether the performance review is beneficial or harmful to the company. 9. An optimistic level is your estimate of what constitutes a component job and the way that good steady employees are doing it now. 10. The typical job description clearly defines the job and the duties, the methods of performing the duties, and the competencies required. Multiple-Choice Questions 1. A periodic review and assessment of employee performance during a given period is called: a. a performance review. b. a performance appraisal. c. a performance evaluation. d. All of the above. e. a and c 2. The final step in developing a performance standard system is to: a. evaluate worker performance on the job. b. train the worker. c. develop standard procedures. d. write performance standards. 3. Among the problems of most performance review systems are: a. the difficulty of being fair and objective. b. the need to set improvement goals. c. the necessity of sharing the evaluation with the worker. d. All of the above. e. the difficulty of being fain and subjective. 4. The first step in setting up a performance system is: a. analyzing the job. b. defining the purpose. c. defining levels of performance. d. writing performance standards. e. writing the standard.

5. The halo effect refers to: a. letting your expectations of a person color your judgment of a person’s work. b. comparing one person with another. c. rating everybody average. d. letting one thing about a person color your judgment of that person’s performance as a whole. e. Aall of the above. 6. In an appraisal interview the supervisor should: a. do all the talking. b. start with the negative things and get them over with. c. encourage the worker to discuss problems about the work. d. All of the above. 7. The best approach to an appraisal interview is: a. an authoritarian approach. b. a problem-solving approach. c. a persuasive approach. d. let the worker control the interview. e. a subjective approach. 8. For a performance standard system to work it should: a. be put to work as swiftly as possible. b. be constantly supervised. c. include a built-in reward system. d. be developed by a consultant. 9. Which of the following is an identifiable activity that constitutes a skill or activity necessary to complete a segment of a job?: a. job classification b. unit of work c. task d. job specification e. job description 10. In the survey of U.S. businesses mentioned in the text, ______ % of respondents reported using appraisals to determine an employee’s raise. a. 75 b. 86 c. 50 d. 25 11. Which level is best to write your performance standards for?: a. realistic level b. pessimistic level c. minimum level d. optimistic level e. any level

12. A job description is used to: a. decide on disciplinary action. b. assign work. c. spell out qualifications. d. a and b e. All of the above. 13. A quality evaluation form should: a. have measurable or observable standards. b. include subjective evaluations. c. define each performance dimension. d. a and c e. All of the above. 14. A performance evaluation is: a. a formative evaluation. b. a periodic review and assessment of each employee’s performance during a given period. c. an ongoing form of evaluation that uses observation, interviews, and surveys to monitor training. d. All of the above. 15. The order of steps in the performance review process are: a. Preparing for the evaluation, making the evaluation, sharing it with the worker, providing a follow-up. b. Making the evaluation, sharing it with the worker, preparing for the follow-up. c. Preparing for the evaluation, making the evaluation, observing the worker, dismissing the worker (if necessary). d. Coaching the worker, evaluating the worker, sharing it with the worker, retraining. e. Sharing the evaluation, follow-up, training and reevaluating. 16. A supervisor tells the worker the results of the evaluation and tries to persuade the employee to improve. The _____________ approach is a presentation based on logic alone rather like a lecture. a. performance b. tell and sell c. sell and see d. authoritarian 17. A good way to start off an interview is: a. making sure they understand the evaluation process b. explaining the purpose of the interview c. a bit of small talk d. asking the employee to rate them self e. getting a cup of coffee 18. An evaluation form typically lists or includes all but which of the following?: a. performance dimensions b. steps in the performance process c. goals for improvement d. employee information

19. The type of appraisal that helps put employees at ease because they know what will be discussed during their appraisal is known as: a. rating scale appraisal. b. self-appraisal. c. performance appraisal. d. performance review. e. peer appraisal. 20. Your estimate of what constitutes a competent job and the way that good steady workers are doing it now is held at what level of performance?: a. positive level b. minimum level c. realistic level d. optimistic level 21. A private face-to-face session between you and an employee is known as a(n):: a. evaluation interview b. performance rating c. appraisal review d. a and c e. All of the above. 22. All of the following are true of the tell-and-sell approach except?: a. It is a mild version of the authoritarian approach. b. It is a presentation based on logic alone. c. It seems to be a natural approach for someone who has developed sensitivity in handling people. d. a and b e. All of the above. 23. Which of the following is not one of the three essentials for setting up a successful performance standard system?: a. Employee participation b. The employee should be in charge at all times c. Active supervisory leadership and assistance throughout d. Built-in reward system e. b and d 24. What questions should you ask when writing performance standards? a. What is to be done? b. How is it to be done? c. To what extent is it to be done? d. a and b e. All of the above.

25. Which of the following is false regarding written performance standards?: a. Standards must not place a time limit set for achievement. b. The statement must be clear, complete, and accurate. c. The standard of performance must be measurable or observable. d. The standard must be attainable. e. The standard must conform to company policies, goals, and applicable legal and moral constraints. 26. Which of the following is not a key to a successful performance standard system?: a. Workers’ cooperation b. Recognizing your workers potential c. Not putting the system to work slowly d. An award or incentive system e. Reviewing your system periodically 27. A raise given to an employee based on how well the employee has done his or her job is known as a(n): a. award or incentive b. merit raise c. performance appraisal d. promotion e. a and b 28. Which of the following is true regarding the authoritarian approach?: a. It will often antagonize employees b. It will often produce the improvements that you want c. It will not work with dependent types of people d. a and c e. All of the above. 29. Which of the following are true regarding proper interviewing technique?: a. Be a good listener b. Do not interrupt c. Maintain eye contact d. Hear our potential candidates e. All of the above. 30. A good interview comes from: a. practicing interviewing for other purposes (hiring, problem solving). b. preparing yourself. c. not being afraid to reprimand the way you see fit. d. a and b e. All of the above.

Answer Key to True/False 1. T 2. F 3. T 4. T 5. T

6. F 7. T 8. F 9. T 10. F

Answer Key to Multiple-Choice 1. C 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. A 11. A 12. D 13. D 14. B 15. A

16. B 17. C 18. B 19. B 20. C 21. B 22. E 23. B 24. E 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. A 29. E 30. D

Chapter 8 Motivation True/False Questions 1. Approximately half of the foodservice workforce is comprised of employees from 18-to 40something years old. 2. The fastest growing ethnic groups in the United States are Hispanics, African Americans, and people of Asian origin. 3. The term motivation refers to what make people tick. 4. Motivation through fear often works. 5. Frederick Taylor put forth the carrot and stick method of motivation. 6. At the top of hierarchy of needs are physiological needs. 7. According to theory Y, work is a natural as play or rest. 8. McGregor put forth Theory X and Theory Y. 9. According to the Motivation/Hygiene theory, removing the causes of dissatisfaction does not create satisfaction. 10. At the bottom of hierarchy of needs is self-fulfillment. Multiple-Choice Questions 1. The theory that the best way to make workers productive is to make them happy is associated with: a. Frederick Taylor. b. Douglas McGregor. c. Human relations theorists. d. Abraham Maslow. e. Douglas McArthur. 2. The theory that the best motivator is opportunity for achievement and growth in the job itself is identified with: a. Frederick Taylor b. Frederick Herzberg. c. Abraham Maslow. d. Tom Peters. e. LBJ. 3. The theory that work is as satisfying as play or rest when it is filling a need is part of: a. Theory X. b. Theory Y. c. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. d. Behavior modification. e. McGregor’s theory. 4. In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, the need to belong is included in: a. Safety needs. b. Social needs. c. Need for self-esteem. d. Need for the esteem of others. e. a and b.

5. The carrot-and-stick approach to motivation combines: a. reward and punishment. b. positive and negative incentives. c. coercion and expectation. d. all of the above. e. a and c only. 6. Job enrichment involves reorganizing a job to include: a. more work. b. more money. c. more power over the people who do the work. d. more opportunity for responsibility and recognition. e. more work for the same money but less responsibility. 7. Those born between the late 1960s and 1980 are referred to as: a. Generation Y. b. Generation Z. c. Baby boomers. d. Generation X. e. Generation M. 8. Behavior modification is associated with: a. positive reinforcement. b. fear and punishment motivation. c. human relations theory. d. money as a motivator. e. carrot-and-stick approach. 9. In dealing with security needs, you can increase motivation by: a. trying to solve personal problems. b. telling them exactly what you expect and providing structure. c. nurturing workers. d. all of the above. e. a and b only. 10. The way to motivate people is to: a. get to know them and find out what each individual responds to. b. make them happy. c. follow the five rules of motivation. d. all of the above. e. a and c only. 11. Which of the following motivational theories was Fredrick Taylor an advocate of? a. Theory X b. Theory Y c. Economic Man Theory d. Human Relations Theory e. Human Ecology Theory

12. According to Maslow, a person’s most basic needs are: a. psychological b. self-fulfillment c. esteem of others d. safety e. a and d 13. Herzberg referred to environmental factors, such as company policy and supervision as: a. dissatisfiers b. social factors c. personal factors d. hygiene factors e. satisfiers. 14. What percent of both foodservice and hotel employees are women? a. 60% b. 25% c. 75% d. 48% 15. Which theory of motivation states that money is the only thing people work for? a. Theory X b. Incentives theory c. Reality theory d. Economic person theory e. Theory Z 16. Which of the following is the why of behavior? a. Self esteem b. Rewards c. Social needs d. Motivation 17. The Motivation Through Fear Theory: a. combines fear with incentives. b. uses coercion, threats, and punishment. c. states the money is the only reason why people work. d. states that if people are treated equal they will get the job done. e. Uses praise and punishment. 18. Self-actualization is: a. the desire to fulfill other people’s needs. b. associated with the Carrot-and-Stick Theory. c. the desire to fulfill one’s own potential. d. people’s belief about the nature of life. e. c and d

19. The difference between job enrichment and job loading is: a. job enrichment shifts the way things are done and job loading builds in job motivators. b. job loading shifts the way things are done and job enrichment builds in job motivators. c. the term are interchangeable. d. none of the above. e. All of the above. 20. What needs are at the bottom of Maslow’s pyramid? a. Social needs b. Survival needs c. Esteem needs d. Physiological needs e. Personal needs 21. Which of the following is not one of the three forms of communication workers expect from their boss? a. Feedback on their performance b. Information c. Nonverbal communication d. Listen when they tell you something e. a and b 22. Which of the following is true regarding motivation? a. Poorly motivated people do what is necessary to get by without hassle b. Highly motivated usually work hard and do superior work c. Unmotivated people don’t do any work at all d. a and b e. All of the above 23. Which of the following is an example of a motivator? a. Recognition b. Responsibility c. Achievement d. Advancement e. All of the above 24. Which of the following are some of the best approaches to motivation? a. Don’t be a decisive boss b. Work objectively with everyone c. Empower the workers d. b and c e. All of the above

25. Which level of Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs does survival fall under? a. Physiological b. Safety c. Social d. Self-fulfillment e. Ego 26. The Hawthorne experiments, relating to the Human Relations Theory were conducted by a. Nathaniel Hawthorne b. Elton Mayo c. Douglas McGregor d. Frederick Herzberg e. Frederick Taylor 27. The major challenge facing leaders and human resource professionals over the next 20 years will be leading ? a. Human energy b. Motivational methods c. Positive work teams d. Behavior modification e. Employee development 28. If you give 75% to your effort to your job, your employees are likely to give to a. 0 to 10% b. 50 to 75% c. 25 to 50% d. 0 to 100% e. None of the above

percent?

29. Managing people at work by setting a good example, and by giving 100 percent of your time, effort, and enthusiasm to your own job is known as: a. Management by example b. Social man theory c. Motivation d. Leading energy e. Morale 30. The group of Americans born in the 1980’s and 1990’s a. Tweens b. Generation X c. Generation Y d. Baby boomers e. None of the above

Answer Key to True/False 1. T 2. F 3. T 4. F 5. F

6. F 7. T 8. T 9. T 10. F

Answer Key to Multiple-Choice 1. C 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. A 13. A 14. A 15. D

16. D 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. D 21. C 22. D 23. E 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. A 30. C

Chapter 9 Teamwork, Teambuilding, and Coaching True/False Questions 1. A group is defined as individuals who share a common goal and the responsibility of achieving it. 2. Team norms are set behaviors that do not change. 3. A formally appointed team has an appointed leader. 4. A typical per-shift meeting should last anywhere between 20-25 minutes. 5. Delegation is when one gives a portion of their responsibility and authority to a subordinate. 6. The first step in building a team is to clarify goals. 7. Forming is when group members agree on their shared goals, norms, and closer relations develop. 8. Formal groups are work groups established by the company. 9. The last step in the TQM process is to track results. 10. Empowerment means ensuring that employee have the skills, knowledge, and authority to make decisions that would otherwise be made by management. Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Group synergy is: a. Helping employees discourage one another b. Encouraging employees to form groups c. Employees helping and encouraging each other to excel d. All of the above e. a and c 2. In the Zagat survey mentioned in the text, what percent of complaints were service related? a. 50% b. 89% c. 25% d. 99% e. 72% 3. A number of people working together, or considered together because of similarities is called a: a. team b. formal team c. group d. formal group e. batch 4. A typical pre-shift meeting should last anywhere between: a. 5-10 minutes b. 2-3 minutes c. 15-20 minutes d. 10-15 minutes 5. One thing great managers/leaders share is continuous moving, helping, spreading energy, confidence, direction, and coaching. This is called: a. purposed motion b. delegation c. empowerment d. norms projection e. perpetual motion

6. What type of empowerment allows employees to make decisions within limits? a. Semi-structured b. Flexible c. Structured d. Informal e. Constructed 7. One of the ways to influence an informal team is to: a. Give positive feedback b. Give negative feedback c. Maximize positive and negative feedback d. Generally give feedback somewhere in the middle. e. Give more positive than negative feedback. 8. Formal groups are: a. Work groups established outside the company b. Workgroups established by social interaction c. Workgroups that are temporary d. Workgroups that include committees, group meetings, work teams and task forces. 9. Groups that are more social by nature are: a. Formal groups b. Informal groups c. Dysfunctional groups d. b and d e. all of the above 10. There are four steps to take at turning a group into a team. According to the text what is the first step? a. Get the teams input into establishing team goals. b. Stress communication. c. Allow some team decision making. d. Have collaboration among team members. 11. The first step in coaching is to: a. Observe employees doing their jobs b. State your appreciation when employees do something right. c. Explain the results or effects of the employees’ actions. d. Set goals e. Decide who you are going to coach. 12. Characteristics of successful teams include all of the following except: a. The team understands and is committed to the vision, mission and goals b. The team is mature c. The team works to continually improve how it operates d. There is a synergy where the output of the member is greater than the team e. a and c

13. TQM is: a. A continuous improvement process b. When the word customer is preferred over guest c. A concept who’s goal is to ensure continuous quality improvement of product more than service d. All of the above e. a and c 14. Which of the following is not one of the three ways to influence an informal team mentioned in the text? a. Feedback b. Identify the norms c. Identify key players d. Communicate 15. As known and is taught today in management and education circles, the notion of a self-fulfilling prophecy was conceptualized by: a. Robert Merton b. Jim Sullivan c. Frederick Taylor. d. Douglas McGregor e. Douglas McArthur. 16. A process involving observation of employee performance and conversation focusing on job performance between the manager and the employee is called: a. Total quality management b. Management by exception c. Coaching d. Counseling 17. The word TEAM stands for: a. Together everyone attains more b. Together everyone aims for more c. Together everyone achieves much d. Together everyone achieves more e. Togeather everyone accepts more 18. Which of the following is the last step in the TQM process? a. Track results b. Analyze and resolve identifies deficiencies c. Evaluate and support the process d. Modify the process to incorporate corrections 19. A process used to help employees who are performing poorly because of personal problems is called: a. Coaching b. Counseling c. Participative leadership d. Empowerment e. Reprimanding

20. This is the notion that once an expectation is set, even if it is not accurate, we tend to act in ways that are consistent with that expectation: a. Self- fulfilling prophecy b. Self- actualization c. Peak experiences d. Self-projection 21. A(n) ________ will evolve on its own. It has a rotation of leadership. The group leader does not have formal power over the group. a. formally appointed team b. informally appointed team c. team d. group e. a and d 22. Negative team norms: a. Are behaviors that are against the interest of the team b. Can develop by abusing team norms c. Are not accepted by the overall group d. Allows teams to strive for the same goal e. a, b, and c 23. Pre-shift meetings should be all of the following except: a. A chance for the manager to talk about himself b. An opportunity for managers to motivate employees c. Interactive, allowing for questions to be answered d. Straightforward and to the point e. Between 10 and 15 minutes in length 24. If groups are to develop successfully, they will engage in all of the following activities except: a. Forming b. Exploring c. Storming d. Norming e. Performing 25. Which of the following criteria defines team effectiveness? a. The productive output of the team meets or exceeds the standards of quantity and quality b. Team members realize satisfaction of their personal needs c. Team members remain committed to working together d. a and c e. All of the above

26. Which of the following statements are true? a. There are two types of empowerment: structural and inflexible b. Structured empowerment allows employees to make decisions within specified limits c. Flexible empowerment gives employees more scope in making decisions to give outstanding guest service d. b and c e. All of the above 27. _______ is a process involving observation of employee performance and conversation focusing on job performance between the manager and employee. a. Counseling b. Self-fulfilling prophecy c. Coaching d. Motivating e. Supporting 28. Which of the following are reasons why supervisors often avoid coaching employees: a. Lack of time b. Fear of confronting an employee with a concern about his or her job performance c. Lack of energy d. a and b e. a and c 29. Which of the following steps should a supervisor or manager use when they catch an employee doing the right thing: a. Describe the specific action you are praising b. Explain the results or effects of the actions c. State your appreciation d. a and c e. All of the above 30. Which of the following statements about coaching is false: a. Coaching a team can be fun and stimulate productive teamwork b. What every good leader needs is continuous feedback about their performance as well as their employees c. Coaching is easy; most people figure it out in no time d. Working together, the coach and the employee can resolve problems successfully e. None of the above

Answer Key to True/False 1. F 2. F 3. T 4. F 5. T

6. T 7. F 8. T 9. F 10. T

Answer Key to Multiple-Choice 1. C 2. E 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. D 13. A 14. B 15. A

16. C 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. A 21. B 22. E 23. A 24. B 25. E 26. D 27. C 28. D 29. E 30. C

Chapter 10 Employee Training and Development True/False Questions 1. The advantages of training can readily be expressed in dollar amounts. 2. Training people for jobs always takes care of their training needs. 3. A good training program is unaffordable luxury for most hospitality operations. 4. Summative evaluation measures the results of the training after the program are completed. 5. New employees should be given a pretest before training began. 6. A job should always be taught in the order in which it is performed. 7. A performance standard system provides a ready-made structure for a training program. 8. Where training is inadequate, poor sanitation is probable. 9. The way you talk to employees in class room training has a little effect on how receptive they are to your leadership. 10. Fear is a powerful motivator in helping an employee to learn new skills. Multiple-Choice Questions 1. The coffee shop manager who tried to persuade Shirley to come in at 6:00 A.M. and train her replacement was practicing another common method of training—having the person who is leaving a job train the person who will take it over. This method is known as: a. trailing b. JIT training. c. retraining. d. orientation. e. training. 2. Good training will benefit associates in the following ways except: a. Training can eliminate the five reasons why people do poor work. b. Trained employees always have to ask how to do things. c. Training can reduce employee tension. d. Training can reduce accidents and injuries. e. a and c 3. In a training program, the training objective: a. includes a time limit for the learning. b. has a higher performance standard. c. expresses the goal of the trainer rather than the goal of the learner. d. all of the above. e. determines who will do the training. 4. A teaching method that does NOT promote employee involvement is: a. lecture. b. discussion. c. role play. d. brainstorming. e. a and d.

106

5. JIT skills training consists of: a. putting the new worker on the job beside a skilled and experienced worker. b. a multiple step training program based on performance standards. c. a five-step program consisting of reading, seeing, experiencing, doing, and forming habits. d. preparation, show and tell, performance, follow through. e. all of the above. 6. A good way to increase motivation to learn is to: a. emphasize the negative consequences of not learning. b. set up a learning schedule the trainee must meet. c. have a system of rewards, and praise achievement. d. all of the above. 7. The steps in Job Instruction Training are as follows: a. demonstrate the task, prepare the associate, have the associate do the task, follow through. b. prepare the associate, have the associate do the task, demonstrate the task, follow through. c. demonstrate the task, have the associate do the task, demonstrate the task, follow through. d. prepare the associate, demonstrate the task, have the associate do the task, follow through.

8. A study by Towers Perrin found that of 1,100 North American workers in the survey, ______% had negative feelings about their job and ______% had intensely negative feelings. a. 50, 33 b. 33, 40 c. 40, 50 d. 40, 33 9. In a study by the Hay Group over half a million employees in 300 companies were asked about important retention factors. The tenth factor (out of ten) was: a. Career growth, learning and development b. Fair pay and benefits c. Meaningful work d. Being part of a team e. Having a great supervisor. 10. Human resource directors estimate the cost of employee turnover at about ______for an hourly paid employee and ______ for a management position. a. $4,000, $8,000 b. $2,000, $4,000 c. $4,000, $12,000 d. $8,000, $12,000 11. A summative evaluation looks at which of the following? a. Reaction, Knowledge, Productivity, Behavior, Attention b. Knowledge, Independence, Behavior, Attitude, Attention c. Reaction, Knowledge, Productivity, Behavior, Attitude d. Reaction, Knowledge, Motivation, Behavior, Attitude

107

12. The magic apron method is: a. when people train themselves. b. when the person that is leaving train. c. when the manager trains. d. the best method of training. e. a and d. 13. In a study by the Hay Group over half a million employees in 300 companies were asked about important retention factors. The number one factor was: a. Career growth, learning and development b. Fair pay c. Benefits d. Being part of a team e. Working conditions 14. Job instruction training consists of all but which of the following: a. Preparing the worker for training b. A demonstration of what the worker is to do c. Having the worker perform the task d. Continuous evaluation of the worker 15. One of the benefits of training are: a. Giving the supervisor more time to manage b. Giving the workers positive discipline c. Giving the business a number of warm bodies to do the work d. Developing a buddy system e. All of the above 16. The survey mentioned in the text asked a nationally representative group of 3,400 employees what they considered to be “very important” in deciding to take their current job. The top reason was: a. Open communication b. Few choices regarding other opportunities c. They knew someone in the company d. Great pay 17. Which of the following should be written before developing a unit training plan? a. performance standards b. training objectives c. standard procedures d. all of the above 18. Which of the following is the most important step after the formal training process is complete? a. job instruction training b. summative evaluation c. formative evaluation d. b and c e. none of the above

108

19. A unit training program should consist of: a. Training Objectives and Training Sessions b. Training Checkpoints and Training Methods c. Training Pretests and Performance Standards d. a and b e. a and c 20. A job should always be taught: a. with easiest tasks first, hard tasks last b. with hard tasks first, easiest tasks last c. in the order the tasks will be performed d. in the order that is most comfortable for the trainer 21. Which of the following is the biggest problem in training employees? a. Urgent need b. Diversity of workers c. Training time d. Turnover e. Short-term associate 22. Employees learn best when: a. They are actively involved in the learning process b. The training is relevant and practical c. They have a good trainer d. a and b e. All of the above 23. Which of the following are characteristics of a good trainer? a. Knowledgeable b. Organized c. Displays sense of humor d. a and c e. all of the above 24. All of the following instances are necessary for further training except? a. Changes are made that affect the job b. Employees don’t get along with each other c. Employees performance drops below par d. A worker has never mastered a particular technique e. None of the above 25. Human resource directors estimate the cost of employee turnover at employee? a. $2,000 b. $4,000 c. $8,000 d. $12,000 e. None of the above

109

for

hourly

paid

26. In meetings, management talks for half the time about goals, vision, and mission. Employees talk the other half of the time, by raising questions and concerns. a. Retraining b. Job instruction training c. 50/50 d. Orientation e. Group presentation 27. Which of the following is not one of the five reasons why people do poor work? a. Not knowing what to do b. Not knowing how well you’re doing c. Not caring about your work d. Not getting any help from the leader e. Not getting along with the leader 28. Which of the following is true regarding training? a. When good training is lacking, there is likely to be an atmosphere of tension, crisis and conflict b. A small mistake or oversight made by a poorly trained employee can’t have enormous impact c. Having a person who is leaving a job train the person who will take it over is known as trailing d. a and b e. All of the above 29. Teaching people how to do their jobs is known as: a. Training b. Retraining c. Job instruction d. Orientation e. a and c 30. The logical person to train employees is: a. Human resources b. Supervisor c. Other employees d. Big brother/sister e. None of the above

110

Answer Key to True/False 1. T 2. F 3. F 4. T 5. T

6. T 7. F 8. T 9. F 10. F

Answer Key to Multiple-Choice 1. A 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. C 11. C 12. A 13. A 14. D 15. A

16. A 17. B 18. D 19. D 20. D 21. A 22. E 23. E 24. B 25. B 26. C 27. C 28. E 29. E 30. B

111

Chapter 11 Conflict Management, Resolution, and Prevention True/ False Questions 1. Conflict according to Webster’s Dictionary is defined as a feeling of great displeasure, hostility, indignation, or exasperation, wrath, trouble, or affliction. 2. Desires can be thought of as wants. 3. Conflict management is the application of strategies to settle opposing ideas, goals, and/or objectives in a positive manner. 4. Anger , according to Webster’s Dictionary, is defined as discord, a state of disharmony, open or prolonged fighting , strife or friction. 5. Compromise results most often when concerns for others is of high importance. 6. Feelings and emotions are a main cause of conflict. 7. Accommodation is the result of low concern for your own interests or the interest of your group. 8. Diversity is defined as a difference, variety, or unlikeness. 9. Violence in the workplace has become less problematic in recent years. 10. Needs are those things that we feel are vital to our well-being.

Multiple-Choice Questions 1. The first step in conflict management is: a. determining the strategy b. analyzing c. reassessing the situation d. negotiation e. confrontation 2. Which of the following results most often when concerns for others are of high importance? a. compromise b. collaboration c. competition d. accommodation e. a and b 3. A voluntary and confidential process in which a neutral third-party facilitator trained in mediation techniques negotiates a mutually acceptable settlement. This is a: a. mediation b. peer review c. third party investigation d. arbitration e. independent inquiry 4. What would be the last step in the ADR process? a. peer review b. mediation c. arbitration d. fact finding

117

5. According to the text, the “root” of conflict is: a. interdependency b. opposing values c. opposing beliefs d. lack of proper handling e. intercultural misunderstanding 6. Discord, a state of disharmony, open or prolonged fighting, strife or friction. This is: a. anger b. conflict c. resentment d. raucous 7. How people interpret things (situations, events, people, etc.) are: a. feelings b. values c. perceptions d. desires e. beliefs 8. Which of the following is the result of low concern for your own interests or the interest of your group, which produces a lose/win outcome? a. compromise b. collaboration c. competition d. accommodation 9. The last step in the process of mediation is: a. formalizing agreements b. framing issues c. developing options d. negotiation e. conclusion 10. A neutral third-party, from inside or outside the organization, confidently investigates complaints and proposes resolutions. This is (a): a. fact-finding b. third party investigation c. mediation d. peer review 11. Deeply held beliefs are: a. needs b. feelings c. desires d. values e. wants

118

12. Which of the following restricts employers from making employment decisions based on arrest records, since doing so may unfairly discriminate against minority groups? a. Employment Discriminatory Act b. Americans with Disabilities Act c. Occupational Safety Standard d. Title V11 of the Civil rights Act 13. When both parties avoid conflict and neither party takes action to resolve it, this produces a lose/lose outcome known as: a. avoidance b. collaboration c. competition d. accommodation e. compliance 14. The first step in the mediation process is: a. formalizing agreements b. framing issues c. developing options d. gathering information 15. Employees have the opportunity to meet with managers to discuss issues. This is (a): a. open door policy b. employees’ right to know policy c. mediation d. arbitration e. all of the above 16. A panel of employees, or employees and managers, work together to resolve the employee complaints in (a): a. mediation b. third party investigation c. peer review d. arbitration 17. A neutral third-party person or team from outside the organization examines the facts of the complaint and presents them in a report. This is called (a): a. arbitration b. fact finding c. third party investigation d. peer review e. independent brainstorm 18. The application of strategies to settle opposing ideas, goals, and/or objectives in a positive manner is called: a. conflict management b. fact-finding c. alternative dispute resolution d. behavior modification

119

19. All too often the search for a resolution during a conflict is a hasty one. When we rush, we rush others into an agreement. This is called: a. insurrection b. brainstorming c. behavior modification d. groupthink e. Satisficing 20. Which of the following results when there is a high concern for one’s own interest or one’s own group? a. accommodation b. avoidance c. compromise d. competition 21. The things that we feel are vital to our well-being are known as: a. Desires b. Needs c. Feelings d. Wants e. Values 22. and are the main cause of conflict. a. Morals/values b. Needs/desires c. Anger/ frustration d. Feelings/emotions e. Perceptions/personalities 23. Which of the following is not a common cause of conflict in the workplace? a. Lack of communication b. Overworked employees c. Poor management/leadership d. Inability to perform job functions e. Stress 24. Which of the following is not one of the steps of conflict management? a. Determine the type of strategy that will be used to resolve the conflict b. Start pre-negotiations c. Begin negotiation stage d. Implement the negotiations made e. Analyze the negotiations

120

25. Which of the following is not one of the guiding principles for handling conflict? a. Preserve dignity and respect b. Find common ground by forcing change c. Honor diversity, without including your own perspective d. All of the above e. b and c 26. What does ADR stand for? a. Average Daily Rate b. Alternate Dispute Resolution c. Alternative Dispute Resolution d. Advanced Detail Report e. Average Daily Revenue 27. Which of the following is true regarding the stages of “crisis reactions,” following a violent incident? a. The “reconciliation” stage occurs when the employee tries to make sense out of the event, understand its impact, and reach closure of the event. b. The “impact” stage is the third stage in the process. c. The second stage involves a variety of intense emotion d. a and c e. All of the above 28. Which of the following is false regarding conflict prevention? a. As a manager, you should pay close attention to your employees b. You can prevent conflict by listening actively c. Try not to display a sense of humor d. Conflict is bound to arise in any atmosphere that requires interdependency between people a work e. c and d 29. Which of the following is false regarding conflict? a. Not all conflict is bad b. Conflict arises when one individual has an opposing viewpoint on a subject c. Most conflicts are fueled because one’s interests or values are challenged d. Conflicts are bound to arise when needs are ignored e. None of the above 30. To is to give variety to something; to engage in varied operations; to distribute over a wide range of types or classes. a. Diversity b. Variegate c. Diversify d. Distribute e. None of the above

121

Answer Key to True/False 1. F 2. T 3. T 4. F 5. F

6. F 7. T 8. T 9. F 10. T

Answer Key to Multiple-Choice 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. D 12. D 13. A 14. D 15. A

16. C 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. D 21. B 22. D 23. D 24. E 25. E 26. C 27. A 28. C 29. B 30. C

122

Chapter 12 Discipline True/False Questions 1. A supervisor is relaxed about enforcing rules is likely to have fewer discipline problems than one who enforces rules promptly and consistently. 2. Negative discipline is a system based on human relations theories. 3. Most employees really want to obey the rules and do their jobs well. 4. Maintaining and administering discipline is the responsibility of the supervisor. 5. Two very different approaches to discipline are negative discipline and progressive discipline. 6. The only way to keep people from breaking the rules is to punish the rule breakers. 7. A uniform discipline system is that one prescribes the same penalty for every offense. 8. It is a mistake to threaten disciplinary action and not carry out the threat. 9. Because of the possibility of a discrimination suit it is important to keep complete records of all disciplinary actions. 10. Leave with pay is the final step in a system of positive discipline. Multiple-Choice Questions 1. According to the text, many people who use positive discipline report that about ______ % of the time, employees decide to come back and follow the rules. a. 50 b. 99 c. 75 d. 25 e. 60 2. Which of the following models of discipline consists of the following: warning, immediate response, consistency, and is kept impersonal? a. Hot stove b. Theory X c. Theory Y d. Progressive 3. A common consequence of punishing a rule breaker is: a. to deter others from breaking rules. b. to make the person punished feel angry, defensive, and hostile. c. to turn the rule breaker into a chronic troublemaker. d. all of the above. e. a and c 4. All but which one of the following offenses are causes for termination: a. insubordination. b. excessive absenteeism and/or lateness. c. a bad attitude. d. consistently substandard work. e. c and d.

133

5. It is illegal to: a. discipline a member of a minority group or other person protected by equal employment opportunity laws. b. discipline one person more severely than you do others. c. terminate a person due to insubordination. d. give preferential treatment. e. a and b. 6. It is a mistake to: a. start out by enforcing all rules strictly. b. enforce rules that employees think are unfair. c. take disciplinary action when you are angry. d. take immediate action when a worker has broken a rule. e. a and c. 7. Which of the following models of discipline consists of the following: oral warning, written warning, punishment, and termination? a. Progressive b. Fear and punishment c. Hot stove d. a and b e. all of the above 8. A positive discipline system: a. costs more than negative discipline because you must pay for both the decision making leave and the replacement worker. b. keeps many discipline problems from arising. c. is easy to convert to. d. invariably turns problem workers into cooperative, law-abiding employees. e. all of the above. 9. The traditional stages of disciplinary action in a progressive system are: a. oral reminder, written reminder, decision making leave, termination. b. oral warning, written warning, layoff with pay, termination. c. reprimand, day layoff, week layoff, discharge. d. coaching and correction, reminder, reprimand, unpaid layoff, demotion, discharge. 10. Which of the following ways of dealing with a marginal worker is least desirable? a. coaching to improve performance. b. trying out the worker in a different job. c. dehiring. d. firing. 11. Discipline is defined as a: a. condition or state of orderly conduct and compliance with rules. b. the use of fear and punishment to correct unacceptable behaviors. c. action to ensure orderly conduct and compliance to the rules. d. a and c e. a and b.

134

12. The order of steps in the discipline process is: a. Establish and communicate ground rules, evaluate employee performance and conduct, reinforce employees for appropriate performance and conduct, work with them to improve when necessary. b. Evaluate employee performance and conduct, establish and communicate ground rules, reinforce employees for appropriate performance and conduct, work with them to improve when necessary. c. Evaluate employee performance and conduct, work with them to improve when necessary, establish and communicate ground rules, reinforce employees for appropriate performance and conduct. d. Establish and communicate ground rules, evaluate employee performance and conduct, reinforce employees for appropriate performance and conduct, terminate when necessary. 13. Negative discipline is: a. maintaining discipline through fear and punishment, with progressively severe penalties for rule violations. b. a demotivator. c. never successful at turning chronic rule breakers into cooperative employees. d. all of the above e. a and c only. 14. Up to ______ % of the time, people do not know that they are doing something that they are not supposed to be doing. a. 50 b. 90 c. 75 d. 45 15. By and large people are good, they will work willingly, they want to learn, they welcome responsibility, and they are capable of self-direction and self-discipline. This is which view of people? a. Theory X b. Altruistic c. Traditional d. Theory Y e. Theory Z 16. Due process refers to: a. Employees rights to self defense in a disciplinary process b. Employers rights to self defense in a disciplinary process c. Employees rights to move up the ladder after a given time period. d. The processing of paperwork following disciplinary action 17. Which of the following models of discipline consists of the following: oral reminder, written reminder, and termination? a. Negative b. Hot stove c. Progressive d. Positive e. My way or the highway.

135

18. A dehire is: a. making an employee want to leave suggestively b. a form of just cause termination c. deciding not to hire an employee during the probationary period d. none of the above 19. Negative discipline is usually used by: a. Theory Y style management b. Theory X style management c. Humanistic management d. a and b e. all of the above 20. Which of the following is not one of the problems of shifting from the negative approach to the positive? a. Accepting the idea of paying an employee to stay home and think things over. b. Shaking the loose habits of thinking in terms of punishment. c. High turnover. d. a and b 21. A system of specific penalties for each violation of each company rule, to be applied uniformly throughout a company is known as: a. Uniform discipline system b. Employee assistance program c. Negative discipline d. Positive discipline e. None of the above 22. Which of the following is not a mistake to avoid when disciplining employees? a. Waiting too long to take action b. Touching someone when you are disciplining c. Being inconsistent d. Criticizing the behavior instead of the person e. B and c 23. Employee termination based on the commission of an offense that affected detrimentally the specific work done or an operation as a whole is known as: a. Dehiring b. Just-cause termination c. Firing d. Decision-making leave with pay e. Due process 24. EAP stands for: a. Equal action plan b. Emotional assistance program c. Employee assistance program d. Employee action plan e. None of the above 136

25. Which of the following is not a good reaction to an employee who is crying during an interview? a. Let the employee cry it out b. Apologize for your actions c. Show concern by offering a tissue d. Stay calm and businesslike e. Offer something to drink 26. Which of the following is an inappropriate reason for terminating an employee? a. Race, color, gender, or national origin b. Because she is pregnant c. In retaliation for filing discriminatory charges d. a and b e. All of the above 27. The first essential of successful discipline should include: a. Company policies, regulations and directives that apply to your department b. Work rules relating to hours, tardiness, sick days, conduct on the job, etc. c. Legal requirements and restrictions d. a and c e. All of the above 28. A clear and effective disciplinary policy offers many benefits, including: a. Clear guidelines for employee behavior b. Good morale for other employees c. Protection against lawsuits d. a and b e. All of the above 29. Which of the following is not part of the third essential guidelines model for administering discipline? a. Give warning b. Immediate response c. Consistency d. Personal e. b and d 30. In order to maintain good discipline with a minimum of hassles, threats, and disciplinary actions, leaders should: a. Follow the rules themselves b. Create and maintain a positive work environment c. Establish good person-to-person relations d. Act consistent and fair e. All of the above

137

Answer Key to True/False 1. F 2. F 3. T 4. T 5. T

6. F 7. F 8. T 9. T 10. F

Answer Key to Multiple-Choice 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. D

16. A 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. C 21. A 22. D 23. B 24. C 25. B 26. E 27. E 28. E 29. D 30. E

138

Chapter 13 Decision Making and Control True/False Questions 1. The easiest to organize the fact finding is to go through the who-what-when-where-how-why routine. 2. Acting on a hunch of gut feeling to make a decision is the logical approach. 3. A supervisor’s decision should be a choice among alternative courses of action directed toward a specific purpose. 4. Feedback is the most used control. 5. The kind decision making requires a clear grasp of what is going on plus quick thinking and quick action is decisiveness. 6. Productivity is defined as “the output of employee’s services and products in a given time period.” 7. Finding a solution that satisfies both of you is a lose-lose outcome. 8. You find a solution that satisfies you but not the other person is a lose-win outcome . 9. Feedback control is control that is conducted during the activity. 10. The first step in problem solving is to describe the problem. Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Situations such as a ball game, tennis match, arm wrestling, election, or war are all based on the: a. win-lose concept. b. win-win concept. c. lose-win concept. d. lose-lose concept. 2. Going through the who–what– when–where–how–why routine is called: a. brainstorming. b. controlling. c. feeding forward. d. fact finding. 3. The first step in making a decision is to: a. gather the facts. b. define the problem. c. develop alternative solutions. d. determine the risk. e. evaluate the risk. 4. Objectives for making a decision should spell out: a. the results you are aiming for. b. limiting factors (budget, policy, etc.). c. any specific requirements. d. all of the above. e. a and c. 5. You give up something in exchange for the worker’s giving up something. What approach is this? a. Win-lose concept b. Win-win concept c. Lose-win concept d. Lose-lose concept

138

6. Brainstorming is: a. group decision making. b. weighing the pros and cons. c. generating all possible solutions without considering pros and cons. d. determining all possible consequences of a course of action. 7. Group decision making: a. always produces a better solution than individual problem solving. b. usually produces more commitment to the solution because everyone takes part in it. c. is quicker because of better communication. d. all of the above. e. a and c 8. In participative problem solving: a. the supervisor leaves the decision to the group. b. everyone takes, part in the final decision, but the supervisor sets the limits. c. there may be varying degrees of worker participation both in exploring the problem and in solving it. d. the supervisor always makes the final decision. e. b and c. 9. You say to the worker, “You’ve gotta shape up or else; if you don’t shape up, you’re fired.” You are taking what stance? a. Lose-win b. Win-win c. Win-lose d. Lose-lose 10. It is important to resolve people problems because: a. it will make everybody happier and more productive. b. workers’ feelings and emotions affect the work they do and the way they treat the customers. c. your workers will be grateful and will like you for it. d. you will need fewer people to do the same work. e. a and c. 11. You don’t take a stand, you let the worker get away with things, and you back away from any decision. a. Lose-win b. Win-lose c. Wine-win d. Lose-lose 12. The second step in the process of making good decisions is: a. defining the problem. b. setting objectives. c. analyzing the problem. d. developing solutions.

139

13. Group decision making works best when: a. the group is rewarded for making good decisions. b. group participants get involved in winning arguments. c. there is a dominator in the group. d. a consensus is not required. e. A and b. 14. When dealing with problems involving one person a participative approach that involves the worker from the beginning to the end of the problem solving, that is said to solve the problem 75% of the time is called: a. win-win problem solving. b. win-lose problem solving. c. lose-win problem solving. d. lose-lose problem solving. 15. Group decision making is not a panacea. It works best when: a. a fair decision is not required. b. the group is not punished or rewarded for good decisions. c. members are accustomed to working together as a team and have differing expertise and points of view but common goals. d. b and c. e. None of the above. 16. A managerial decision should be a: a. a conscious choice among alternatives. b. a conscious and unconscious choice among alternatives. c. group decision making process. d. none of the above. e. All of the above. 17. When making decisions________ is very important. a. location b. differences c. timing d. a and c e. all of the above 18. Group decision making works best when: a. members have separate, clearly defined goals. b. members are accustomed to working together. c. members have differing expertise. d. b and c. e. all of the above. 19. The last step in using a pattern for solving problems is: a. decide on the best solution. b. following up. c. implementing the decision. d. developing alternate solutions. e. a and c.

140

20. People who have used win-win problem solving say that it solves the problem ______ % of the time. a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 85 21. A process by which leaders measure, evaluate, and compare results to goals and standards previously agreed upon, and take corrective action when necessary to stay on course is known as: a. Productivity b. Controlling c. Maintaining d. Win-win problem solving e. None of the above 22. Which of the following areas require control a. Labor b. Budgets c. Purchasing d. A and B e. All of the above 23. Which of the following is not a question you should ask before making any decision of consequence? a. Will each course of action be objective to the people it will affect? b. Which course of action provides the most benefit with the least risk? c. Which course of action will give the best results with the least expenditure of time, money and effort? d. Is each course of action feasible? e. None of the above 24. Using a logical process to identify causes and solutions to problems or to make decisions is known as: a. Brainstorming b. Decisiveness c. Problem solving d. Controlling e. Fact finding 25. Which of the following is not a problem regarding group decision making? a. Groups are often dominated by two of three people b. It takes longer for a group to decide something than it does for one person to make the decision c. Group participants often get involved in winning arguments or showing off rather than in making the best decision d. Consensus leads to the best decision e. a and d

141

26. The acceptable quantity of work that an employee is expected to do is known as: a. Productivity b. Productivity standards c. Performance standards d. Consensus e. Average work load 27. Which of the following is not a visible control throughout the workplace? a. Door locks b. Time clocks c. Calculator d. Keys to the cash register e. Bartender’s measuring device 28. Which of the following is not a guideline to help build decision-making skills? a. Be alert to signs of problems b. Keep an open mind when investigating a problem c. Look at each situation from its own unique perspective d. Make sure you are a part of the problem itself e. Accept your responsibility fully: face decisions promptly 29. Which of the following is true regarding rational versus emotional decision making? a. All decision makers use too little emotion in making a decision b. As managers it is important to weigh out the consequences of our actions before we act purely on emotion c. In the hospitality field, leaders need to learn how to approach decision making using no emotion d. A and b e. All of the above 30. Giving something up in exchange for the worker’s giving up something, and each of you has less than before is known as: a. Lose-lose compromise b. Lose-win compromise c. Win-win compromise d. Win-lose compromise e. None of the above

142

Answer Key to Multiple-Choice 1. A 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. C

16. A 17. C 18. D 19. B 20. C 21. B 22. E 23. A 24. C 25. E 26. B 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. A

Answer Key to True/False 1. T 2. F 3. T 4. T 5. T 6. T 7. F 8. F 9. F 10. T

143

Chapter 14 Delegating True/False Questions 1. Delegation can be defined as a tool for motivating and training your team to realize their full potential. 2. Delegation essentials include responsibility, authority, and accountability. 3. The chain of command is the structural framework of an organization from top to bottom. 4. Channels of communication means crossed channels of responsibility giving an order to someone on another channel of work that is not accountable. 5. Proper training of a subordinate is giving the skills to become more committed to their work and do well with imagination and creativity. 6. Supervisors who are confident in their own jobs may be afraid to delegate because employees may turn out to do the work better than they did themselves. 7. Reverse delegation employees try dumping their assignment back to their supervisor. It may occur due to a lack of confidence because the associate doesn’t really know enough about doing the job. 8. Job loading is common mistake of increasing the worked load without adding any new responsibility, interest or challenge. 9. Should a supervisor over supervise for the first timer? 10. You can avoid mistakes if you plan carefully, manage your people to produce a smooth running operation with everyone knowing what to do and what is expected of them. Multiple-Choice Questions 1. It makes sense to: a. Delegate time consuming and routine detail that other people can and will take care of. b. Plan growth for people of high potential by adding less responsibilities over a period of time. c. Delegate tasks and responsibilities that motivate and develop your associates. d. a and c. e. All of the above. 2. Which of the following is not one of the three aspects of delegation? a. Responsibility b. Designation c. Authority d. Accountability e. None of the above 3. The lines along which responsibility and authority are delegated from top to bottom in an organization is known as: a. Chain of command b. Accountability c. Channels of communication d. Reverse delegation e. None of the above

4. Which of the following is not one of the four basic reasons supervisors fail to delegate as much as they should? a. Fear of superiors b. Misjudgments of time c. Desire for personal credit d. No faith in subordinates e. They are too busy 5. Which of the following is one of the benefits of delegation? a. The supervisor can fall back into a coaching and supportive role b. Delegation will sharpen your leadership skills, both conceptual and human c. The supervisor is no longer responsible for the results d. a and b e. All of the above 6. You create barriers that prevent you from delegating when you: a. Accept the loss of power b. Feel a strong need to work at tasks with which you are familiar c. Prefer to do the work yourself or think no one else can do it as well d. b and c e. All of the above 7. Delegation is: a. A managerial tool by which responsibility of the work is divided among people, level by level, throughout the organization. b. The anatomy of an organization, the lines of responsibility, authority, and accountability, the channels of communication and chain of command. c. Authority, responsibility and empowerment. d. None of the above. 8. Which of the following is not a condition for success in delegation? a. Advance planning b. Trust c. A positive attitude towards your people d. Ability to let go and take risks e. Reliability 9. Delegation is all of the following except? a. Contract b. An agreement between two parties that is fully understood and accepted by both c. Giving a portion of one’s responsibility and authority to a subordinate d. a skill which we have all heard of and understand e. a and d

10. Adding more work without adding interest, challenge, or reward is known as: a. Reverse delegation b. Chain of command c. Job loading d. Responsibility e. None of the above 11. All of the following are true regarding accountability except? a. Accountability moves in the same direction as responsibility b. All employees are accountable to whoever delegated responsibility to them c. The chief executive officer is accountable to the owners, or board of directors d. Accountability goes automatically with the responsibility delegated e. a and d 12.

means that when you send information or requests or instructions to people on levels above or below you, you go one level up or down your own channel? a. Channel surfing b. Going through channels c. Chain of command d. Going through levels e. Hierarchy

13. If you are a line cook in a restaurant, who would you ask for authority to spend the company’s money? a. The CEO b. The restaurant manager c. Your immediate supervisor d. The executive chef e. None of the above 14. You should always remember as a supervisor, you have …. a. Authority b. Accountability c. Responsibility d. All of the above e. a and c 15. Which of the following benefits would surprise a theory X manager? a. People who are given responsibility generally work better a. People who are given responsibility get things done faster b. People who are given responsibility work better alone c. a and b d. b and c

16. The Theory X manager: a. Is a strong advocate of delegation b. Does not believe in delegation c. Believes that people are by nature lazy and avoid responsibility d. a and c e. b and c 17. The and delegation. a. Habits/self-interest b. Ability/willingness c. Knowledge/acceptance d. Eagerness/ability e. None of the above

of the employees are of critical importance to the success of

18. On-the-job training is all about: a. Coaching b. Leadership c. Learning from mistakes d. Growing e. All of the above 19. There are three aspects of delegation – which of the following is the correct one: a. Delegate, follow up, evaluate. b. Responsibility, authority, accountability. c. Responsibility, delegation, motivation. d. Authority, delegation, responsibility. 20. Once you have identified the task and the person you want to have perform it, the next step is: a. Develop the task in detail b. Delegate responsibility c. Delegate the authority necessary to carry it out d. Plan the task e. None of the above 21. All of the following include tasks you would not delegate, except: a. Hiring b. Cleaning back-of-house c. Making key reports d. Keeping track of labor e. Keeping track of material costs

22. Which of the following is true in regards to delegation? a. Delegation not only benefits the leader, but also the people to whom one delegates b. Studies indicate that most people want less responsibility c. Studies indicate that people want the opportunity to grow and develop d. a and c e. All of the above 23. Which of the following are ways people can benefit from delegation: a. They become more productive and valuable to the organization and team b. By learning new things, they improve their self-esteem c. They become resources for people who need help and function as backups when needed d. a and b e. All of the above 24. Which of the following is not a reason managers have trouble delegating? a. Many managers want to do everything themselves b. Many managers believe that the work will not be done right c. Many managers do not want to take responsibility for the mistakes of others d. Some managers believe that their constant presence and personal control of every last detail are indispensible to the success of the operation e. a and b 25. _________ is common among people who lack self-confidence; they doubt their own capabilities to carry out new tasks. a. Delegating b. Job loading c. Fear of failure d. Reverse delegation e. None of the above 26. Which of the following is not a reason some associates won’t accept additional responsibilities? a. They fear the consequences of the mistakes they may make b. They want to be developed and pushed up the corporate ladder c. They may be afraid of rejection by other associates d. Some view them as meaningless extra work that they have to do e. None of the above 27. An agreement between two parties that is fully understood and accepted by both is: a. Delegation b. Contract c. Open communication d. Responsibility e. a and b

28. In a typical organization, who would a food and beverage director delegate tasks to? a. Executive chef b. Executive steward c. Beverage manager d. a and c e. All of the above 29. Which of the following would you classify an employee who is able but unwilling to perform delegated tasks? a. Great candidate b. Needs training c. Needs motivation d. Poor candidate e. None of the above 30. Presenting a new assignment in a way that will stimulate interest and involvement includes which of the following? a. Ask for ideas b. Make it a challenge c. Mention its present and future benefits d. a and c e. All of the above

Answer Key to True/False 1. T 2. T 3. T 4. F 5. T

6. F 7. T 8. T 9. F 10. T

Answer Key to Multiple-Choice 1. D 2. C 3. A 4. E 5. D 6. D 7. B 8. E 9. D 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. D

16. E 17. B 18. E 19. B 20. A 21. B 22. D 23. E 24. A 25. C 26. B 27. E 28. E 29. C 30. E