General Chemistry, 10th Edition By David Spiceland , Mark W. Nelson, Wayne M. Thomas
Chapter 1 - Chemistry and Measurement 1. What is a scientific theory? A) It is a collection of experimental data. B) It is an assertion of scientific fact. C) It is a guess or conjecture about natural phenomena. D) It is a fundamental relationship of nature. E) It is an explanation of natural phenomena that has undergone significant testing. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.2 OBJ: Understand how the scientific method is an approach to performing science. TOP: general concepts | scientific method MSC: general chemistry 2. An untested explanation of a series of experimental observations is called _____. A) a hypothesis B) a theory C) a law D) an experiment E) the scientific method ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.2 OBJ: Understand how the scientific method is an approach to performing science. TOP: general concepts | scientific method 3. Which of the following statements concerning experiment and explanation is/are true? 1. 2. 3.
A law is always given in the form of a mathematical expression. Once a hypothesis passes one or two tests it is considered a theory. Observation is a key component of the scientific method.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.2 OBJ: Understand how the scientific method is an approach to performing science. TOP: general concepts | scientific method 4. A saline solution similar to that used for intravenous drips is made by dissolving 0.45 g sodium chloride in 50.00 g water. Which of the following statements concerning the saline solution and the law of conservation of mass is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
The mass of the saline solution is greater than the mass of water. The mass of the saline solution is equal to the combined mass of sodium chloride and water. The mass of the saline solution is greater than the mass of the sodium chloride.
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply the law of the conservation of mass. TOP: general concepts | matter
REF: 1.3
5. A 19.0-g sample of lithium is completely burned in air to form lithium oxide. The mass of lithium oxide must be A) less than 19.0 g. B) greater than 19.0 g. C) equal to 19.0 g. D) all of the above. E) none of the above. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.3 OBJ: Apply the law of the conservation of mass. (Example 1.1) TOP: general concepts | matter 6. A sample of silicon is burned in oxygen to form silicon dioxide. What mass of oxygen is consumed if 57.76 g silicon dioxide is formed from 27.00 g silicon? A) 30.76 g B) 84.76 g C) 1559.59 g D) 0.47 g E) none of the above. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply the law of the conservation of mass. TOP: general concepts | matter
REF: 1.3
7. In a certain chemical reaction, 7.29 g of compound A is added to 5.70 g of compound B. Once the reaction is complete, 3.60 g of compound A and 1.17 g of compound B remain. What mass of products was produced? A) 17.76 g B) 4.53 g C) 8.22 g D) 3.69 g E) 4.77 g ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.3 OBJ: Apply the law of the conservation of mass. (Example 1.1) TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: Law of Conservation of Mass MSC: general chemistry
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8. A 5.77 g sample of calcium carbonate completely decomposes into calcium oxide (lime) and carbon dioxide gas when heated. If 3.23 g calcium oxide is produced, what mass of carbon dioxide must have been formed? A) 2.54 g B) 9.00 g C) 18.65 g D) 0.56 g E) 1.92 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply the law of the conservation of mass. TOP: general concepts | matter
REF: 1.3
9. A sample of rubidium carbonate, weighing 7.00 g, requires 2.20 g of hydrogen chloride gas to completely decompose to water, rubidium chloride, and carbon dioxide gas. The total mass of water and rubidium chloride formed is 7.90 g and no hydrogen chloride or rubidium carbonate remains. According to the law of conservation of mass, what mass of carbon dioxide must have been formed? A) B) C) D) E)
1.30 g 0.90 g 8.65 g 17.10 g 3.07 g
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Apply the law of the conservation of mass. TOP: general concepts | matter
REF: 1.3
10. Sodium oxide reacts with water to produce sodium hydroxide. Suppose 18.6 g of sodium oxide is combined with 33.7 g of water. When the reaction is complete, all the sodium oxide has been consumed. According to the law of conservation of mass, which is a true statement? A) The mass of sodium hydroxide produced must equal 52.3 g. B) The mass of unreacted water must equal 15.1 g. C) The mass of sodium hydroxide produced must equal 18.6 g. D) The mass of water consumed must equal 18.6 g. E) The mass of sodium hydroxide produced plus the mass of unreacted water must equal 52.3 g. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 1.3 OBJ: Apply the law of the conservation of mass. (Example 1.1) TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: Law of Conservation of Mass MSC: general chemistry 11. After a certain chemical reaction has completed, it is found that 33.7 g of product was produced. According to the law of conservation of mass, which statement must be true? A) The total mass consumed of all reactants was 33.7 g. B) The mass consumed of each reactant was 33.7 g. C) The mass of reactants consumed depends on the number of reactants present. Test Bank
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D) Before the reaction started, there was 33.7 g total of all reactants. E) Before the reaction started, there was 33.7 g of each reactant. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 1.3 OBJ: Apply the law of the conservation of mass. (Example 1.1) TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: Law of Conservation of Mass MSC: general chemistry 12. The state of matter for an object that has both definite volume and definite shape is the A) gaseous state. B) solid state. C) mixed state. D) elemental state. E) liquid state. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.4 OBJ: Compare and contrast the three common states of matter: solid, liquid, and gas. TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: states of matter MSC: general chemistry 13. The state of matter for an object that has a definite volume but not a definite shape is the A) elemental state. B) gaseous state. C) mixed state. D) liquid state. E) solid state. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.4 OBJ: Compare and contrast the three common states of matter: solid, liquid, and gas. TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: states of matter MSC: general chemistry 14. Two types of pure substances are A) compounds and heterogeneous solutions. B) compounds and elements. C) elements and homogeneous solutions. D) compounds and homogeneous solutions. E) elements and heterogeneous solutions. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.4 OBJ: Describe the classifications of matter: elements, compounds, and mixtures (heterogeneous and homogeneous). TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: states of matter MSC: general chemistry 15. A sample that cannot be separated into two or more substances by physical means is A) a heterogeneous mixture. B) a compound. C) either a compound or an element. D) an element. E) a homogeneous mixture. Test Bank
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ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.4 OBJ: Describe the classifications of matter: elements, compounds, and mixtures (heterogeneous and homogeneous). TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: states of matter MSC: general chemistry 16. A solution is a A) pure element. B) pure mixture. C) heterogeneous mixture. D) homogeneous mixture. E) pure compound. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.4 OBJ: Describe the classifications of matter: elements, compounds, and mixtures (heterogeneous and homogeneous). TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: states of matter MSC: general chemistry 17. Which of the following is a mixture? A) a homogeneous solution of sugar dissolved in water B) bromine (a liquid with the formula Br2) C) sucrose (table sugar: the formula is C12H22O11) D) graphite (an allotrope of carbon) E) calcium oxide (CaO or lime) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.4 OBJ: Describe the classifications of matter: elements, compounds, and mixtures (heterogeneous and homogeneous). TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: states of matter 18. A clear colorless liquid in an open beaker was heated to boiling. The liquid began to boil at 110°C, and as vapors escaped, the temperature of boiling gradually increased to 115°C, at which point the heating was stopped. On the basis of this information, we can say that the material in the beaker was a A) pure compound. B) homogeneous solution. C) pure substance. D) pure element. E) heterogeneous solution. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.4 OBJ: Describe the classifications of matter: elements, compounds, and mixtures (heterogeneous and homogeneous). TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: states of matter MSC: general chemistry 19. Heating a certain pure solid completely decomposes it into a solid and a gas, each of which is also a pure substance. Which of the following is/are reasonable conclusions regarding these observations? 1. 2.
The solid is a compound and the gas is an element. At least one of the products is an element.
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3.
The original solid is not an element.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.4 OBJ: Describe the classifications of matter: elements, compounds, and mixtures (heterogeneous and homogeneous). TOP: general concepts | matter 20. All of the following are examples of mixtures except A) supermarket salt. B) distilled water. C) soft water. D) hard water. E) drugstore hydrogen peroxide. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.4 OBJ: Describe the classifications of matter: elements, compounds, and mixtures (heterogeneous and homogeneous). TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: states of matter MSC: general chemistry 21. All of the following are homogeneous mixtures except A) sodium chloride and potassium chloride. B) hydrogen gas and chlorine gas. C) sodium chloride and potassium chloride solution. D) mercury-zinc solution. E) hydrochloric acid solution. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.4 OBJ: Describe the classifications of matter: elements, compounds, and mixtures (heterogeneous and homogeneous). TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: states of matter MSC: general chemistry 22. Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture? A) gasoline B) vegetable oil and water C) sugar dissolved in water D) A and C E) A, B, and C ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.4 OBJ: Describe the classifications of matter: elements, compounds, and mixtures (heterogeneous and homogeneous). TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: states of matter MSC: general chemistry 23. Which of the following statements is not correct? A) The combustion of methane (a component of natural gas) is a chemical change. Test Bank
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B) The melting of ice is a physical change. C) The dissolution of sugar in water is a chemical change. D) The decomposition of sugar into carbon and water when mixed with sulfuric acid is a chemical change. E) The evaporation of gasoline is a physical change. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.4 OBJ: Understand the difference between chemical changes (chemical reactions) and physical changes. TOP: general concepts | matter 24. All the following are examples of chemical changes except A) aging. B) photosynthesis. C) fermentation. D) perspiration. E) respiration. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.4 OBJ: Understand the difference between chemical changes (chemical reactions) and physical changes. TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: physical and chemical change MSC: general chemistry 25. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change? A) alcohol evaporating B) water boiling C) skin burning in the sun D) iodine vaporizing E) ice melting ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.4 OBJ: Understand the difference between chemical changes (chemical reactions) and physical changes. TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: physical and chemical change MSC: general chemistry 26. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change? A) silver tarnishing B) iodine sublimating C) alcohol boiling D) sucrose dissolving E) sodium chloride melting ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.4 OBJ: Understand the difference between chemical changes (chemical reactions) and physical changes. TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: physical and chemical change MSC: general chemistry 27. The boiling of water is a A) physical change because the water merely disappears. B) chemical change because heat is needed for the process to occur. C) physical change because the gaseous water is chemically the same as the liquid. D) chemical and physical change. Test Bank
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E) chemical change because a gas (steam) is given off. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.4 OBJ: Understand the difference between chemical changes (chemical reactions) and physical changes. TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: physical and chemical change MSC: general chemistry 28. Which of the following is a chemical property of tin? A) It is easily malleable. B) It melts at 232°C. C) It conducts electricity. D) Its density is 7.31 g/cm3. E) It dissolves in certain acids. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.4 OBJ: Distinguish between chemical properties, and physical properties. TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: physical and chemical properties MSC: general chemistry 29. All the following are characteristic properties of phosphorus. Which one is a chemical property? A) When exposed to air, white phosphorus will burn spontaneously, but red phosphorus will not. B) Red phosphorus and white phosphorus are solid allotropic forms. C) The white form is soluble in liquid carbon disulfide but is insoluble in water. D) The red form of phosphorus is insoluble in both water and carbon disulfide. E) The red form melts at about 600°C, and the white form melts at 44°C. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.4 OBJ: Distinguish between chemical properties, and physical properties. TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: physical and chemical properties MSC: general chemistry 30. The term that is related to the reproducibility (repeatability) of a measurement is A) accuracy. B) qualitative. C) quantitative. D) precision. E) property. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Define and use the terms precision and accuracy when describing measured quantities. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: accuracy and precision MSC: general chemistry 31. The property of a series of repeated measurements that is most directly related to precision is A) the number of place holders in each measurement. B) the reproducibility of each measurement. C) the exactness of each measurement. Test Bank
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D) the accuracy of each measurement. E) the number of significant figures in each measurement. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Define and use the terms precision and accuracy when describing measured quantities. TOP: general concepts | measurement 32. The figure below represents the bull’s eye target for an archer. The black dots represent where the archer’s arrows hit:
How can this archer be described? A) precise but not accurate B) accurate and precise C) neither accurate nor precise D) accurate but not precise E) cannot be described from the data presented ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Define and use the terms precision and accuracy when describing measured quantities. TOP: general concepts | measurement 33. Which of the following statements concerning accuracy and precision is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
It is possible for a series of measurements to be both precise and inaccurate. Accuracy is a measure of how close multiple measurements are to each other. The more significant figures in a measurement the more accurate the measurement.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 2 D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.5 OBJ: Define and use the terms precision and accuracy when describing measured quantities. TOP: general concepts | measurement NOT: NEW 34. Two students determined the volume of a glass container three separate times (see table below). The true volume of the container is 24.20 mL. Which statement correctly describes the students’ results?
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Student A 24.3 mL 24.4 mL 24.5 mL
Student B 24.89 mL 24.87 mL 24.88 mL
A) Student A’s results are the most accurate. Student B’s results are the most precise. B) Student A’s results are the most accurate and precise. C) Student B’s results are the most accurate and precise. D) Student A’s results are the most precise. Student B’s results are the most accurate. E) The precision and accuracy of the two data sets are identical. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Define and use the terms precision and accuracy when describing measured quantities. TOP: general concepts | measurement 35. The number of significant figures in 1.9124 10–1 dm is A) 5. B) 6. C) 3. D) 7. E) 4. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Learn the rules for determining significant figures in reported measurements. TOP: general concepts | measurement 36. How many significant figures are there in the value 0.0863 m? A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 5 E) 6 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Learn the rules for determining significant figures in reported measurements. TOP: general concepts | measurement 37. How many significant figures are there in the measured value 69.380? A) 2 B) 3 C) 6 D) 5 E) 4 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Learn the rules for determining significant figures in reported measurements. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures MSC: general chemistry 38. The number of significant figures in 0.070700 10–4 is Test Bank
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A) 6. B) 4. C) 3. D) 7. E) 5. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Learn the rules for determining significant figures in reported measurements. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures | scientific notation MSC: general chemistry 39. How many significant figures are there in the number 8.400? A) 1 B) 5 C) 3 D) 4 E) 2 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Learn the rules for determining significant figures in reported measurements. TOP: general concepts | measurement 40. How many significant figures are there in the number 0.04560700? A) 4 B) 9 C) 8 D) 5 E) 7 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Learn the rules for determining significant figures in reported measurements. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures MSC: general chemistry
41. The correct value of the expression
is
A) B) C) D) E) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 1.5 OBJ: Know how to represent numbers using scientific notation. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures | scientific notation MSC: general chemistry
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42. Express the result of the following calculation in scientific notation: 301 cm 439 cm A) B) C) D) E) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Know how to represent numbers using scientific notation. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures | scientific notation MSC: general chemistry 43. Express the result of the following calculation in scientific notation: 0.0263 cm2 ÷ 88.2 cm A) B) C) D) E) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Know how to represent numbers using scientific notation. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures | scientific notation MSC: general chemistry 44. Express the number 0.000460 in scientific notation. A) B) C) D) E) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Know how to represent numbers using scientific notation. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures | scientific notation MSC: general chemistry 45. What is the best answer to the following expression? (55.78 cm + 0.829 cm + 4.6666 cm – 52.4 cm) A) 9 cm B) 8.8756 cm C) 8.876 cm D) 8.88 cm E) 8.9 cm ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Apply the rules of significant figures to reporting calculated values. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures Test Bank
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MSC: general chemistry 46. How many significant figures should be reported for the difference between 235.6708 mL and 235.57 mL? A) 7 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 5 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Apply the rules of significant figures to reporting calculated values. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures MSC: general chemistry 47. The mass of a sample is measured by difference: first the mass of a beaker is measured (73.0 g), and a small amount of the sample is added to the beaker. The mass of the sample plus beaker is then measured to be 77.169 g. The number of significant figures that should be reported for the mass of the sample is A) 2. B) 1. C) 5. D) 4. E) 3. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Apply the rules of significant figures to reporting calculated values. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures MSC: general chemistry 48. What is the best answer to the following expression involving a sum of measurements? (85.430 cm + 0.400 cm + 31.3 cm) A) 117 cm B) 117.1300 cm C) 117.13 cm D) 117.130 cm E) 117.1 cm ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Use significant figures in calculations. (Example 1.2) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures MSC: general chemistry 49. What is the correct answer to the following expression? 5.45 10–10 + 5.74 10–12 A) 5.5074 10–10 B) 5.507 10–10 C) 6 10–10 Test Bank
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D) 5.5 10–10 E) 5.51 10–10 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.5 OBJ: Use significant figures in calculations. (Example 1.2) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures | scientific notation MSC: general chemistry
50. What is the best answer to report for
?
A) 2.252 g/mL B) 2.2518 g/mL C) 2.3 g/mL D) 2.25 g/mL E) 2.25183 g/mL ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.5 OBJ: Use significant figures in calculations. (Example 1.2) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures MSC: general chemistry 51. The best answer to report for 171.95 – 82.1609 is _____. A) 90 B) 89.7891 C) 89.789 D) 89.8 E) 89.79 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Use significant figures in calculations. (Example 1.2) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures MSC: general chemistry 52. Three different samples were weighed using a different type of balance for each sample. The three were found to have masses of 0.5183761 kg, 9.342 mg, and 5076.6 g. The total mass of the samples should be reported as A) 5595.0 g. B) 5595 g. C) 5594.985 g. D) 5594.985442 g. E) 5594.9854 g. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Use significant figures in calculations. (Example 1.2) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures MSC: general chemistry 53. The measurements of three different masses on three different balances are 1.21 kg, 536 mg, and 23.14 g. The total mass should be reported as A) 1233.68 g. Test Bank
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B) 1234 g. C) 1233.7 g. D) 1.23 103 g. E) 1233.676 g. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.5 OBJ: Use significant figures in calculations. (Example 1.2) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures MSC: general chemistry 54. Four samples were weighed using three different balances. (All are as accurate as the precision indicates.) The masses are 0.94 kg, 58.2 g, 1.55 g, and 250 mg. The total mass should be reported as A) 1.000 kg. B) 1.0000 kg. C) 1.00 kg. D) 1.00000 kg. E) 1.0 kg. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.5 OBJ: Use significant figures in calculations. (Example 1.2) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures MSC: general chemistry 55. The answer that should be reported for the total mass of solution when 98.66 mg of benzene is added to 8.98 g of toluene is A) 9.07866 g. B) 9.08 g. C) 9.0787 g. D) 9.079 g. E) 9.1 g. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.5 OBJ: Use significant figures in calculations. (Example 1.2) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures MSC: general chemistry 56. The radius of a circle is measured to be 2.65 cm. How should the circle's area be reported? (A = r2) A) 22.1 cm2 B) 22.062 cm2 C) 22.06182 cm2 D) 22.0618 cm2 E) 22.06 cm2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.5 OBJ: Use significant figures in calculations. (Example 1.2) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: significant figures MSC: general chemistry 57. Which of the following statements concerning the SI system is/are correct? Test Bank
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1. 2. 3.
Prefixes are used to indicate a power of ten multiplier for a given SI base unit of measurement. Degrees Celsius (C) is the SI base unit for temperature. The kilogram (kg) is the SI base unit for mass.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.6 OBJ: Become familiar with the SI (metric) system of units including the SI prefixes. TOP: general concepts | measurement 58. Which of the following statements concerning the common temperature scales is/are true? 1. 2. 3.
Fahrenheit is an absolute temperature scale. The normal boiling point of water (100C) is equal to 273 K. The difference between the boiling point and freezing point of a substance is the same for the Celsius and the kelvin scales.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.6 OBJ: Become familiar with the SI (metric) system of units including the SI prefixes. TOP: general concepts | measurement 59. A student is working on converting a number that has a unit with the SI prefix milli- to a unit that has the prefix mega-. Using your knowledge about the relative sizes that milli- and mega- represent, how should the student convert the number? A) The student should multiply the number by 109. B) The student should multiply the number by 106. C) The student should divide the number by 106. D) The student should use the number as is. E) The student should divide the number by 109. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.6 OBJ: Become familiar with the SI (metric) system of units including the SI prefixes. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | prefixes MSC: general chemistry 60. In the area of nano-chemistry, particles defined as nanoparticles range in size from 1-2500 nm. 1 nm is equivalent to 1 10–9 m. If the size of the particles that make up a particular material is 6.47 10–8 cm, what is this size in nanometers? Test Bank
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A) 64,700 nm B) 6.47 nm C) 0.647 nm D) 6470 nm E) 647 nm ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.6 OBJ: Become familiar with the SI (metric) system of units including the SI prefixes. TOP: general concepts | measurement 61. The distance between atoms is sometimes given in picometers, where 1 pm is equivalent to 1 10–12 m. If the distance between the layers of atoms in a particular compound is given as 344 pm, what is the distance in cm? A) 3.44 10–6 cm B) 3.44 10–14 cm C) 3.44 10–12 cm D) 3.44 10–8 cm E) 3.44 10–10 cm ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.6 OBJ: Become familiar with the SI (metric) system of units including the SI prefixes. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | prefixes MSC: general chemistry 62. Order the four metric units from smallest to largest. 1) joule
2) centijoule
3) nanojoule
4) millijoule
A) 1) < 2) < 4) < 3) B) 3) < 4) < 2) < 1) C) 4) < 3) < 2) < 1) D) 2) < 3) < 1) < 4) E) 1) < 2) < 3) < 4) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.6 OBJ: Become familiar with the SI (metric) system of units including the SI prefixes. TOP: general concepts | measurement 63. Which is the largest mass? A) 10 dg B) 10 cg C) 10 pg D) 10 ng E) 10 mg ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.6 OBJ: Become familiar with the SI (metric) system of units including the SI prefixes. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | prefixes MSC: general chemistry 64. One-thousandth of a microgram is Test Bank
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A) 10–12 g. B) 10–8 g. C) 10–6 g. D) 10–9 g. E) 10–10 g. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.6 OBJ: Become familiar with the SI (metric) system of units including the SI prefixes. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | prefixes MSC: general chemistry 65. How many 150-mg aspirin tablets can be made from 15.0 kg of aspirin? A) 10,000,000 B) 1,000,000 C) 1000 D) 10,000 E) 100,000 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.6 OBJ: Become familiar with the SI (metric) system of units including the SI prefixes. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | prefixes MSC: general chemistry 66. Which of the following sets of units is not in the order of increasing size? A) cPa < dPa < kPa B) L < dL < L C) ns < ms < s D) pm < mm < nm E) g < mg < cg ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.6 OBJ: Become familiar with the SI (metric) system of units including the SI prefixes. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | prefixes MSC: general chemistry 67. The mass of 59 kg equals A) 590 g. B) 5900 g. C) 5.9 104 g. D) 0.059 g. E) 0.59 g. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.6 OBJ: Become familiar with the SI (metric) system of units including the SI prefixes. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | prefixes MSC: general chemistry 68. 6.6 seconds contain this many picoseconds. A) 6.6 109 B) 6.6 1012 Test Bank
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C) 6.6 10–9 D) 6.6 10–12 E) 6.6 1015 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.6 OBJ: Become familiar with the SI (metric) system of units including the SI prefixes. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | prefixes MSC: general chemistry 69. 8.86 seconds contain this many nanoseconds. A) 8.86 109 B) 8.86 1010 C) 8.86 1012 D) 8.86 108 E) 8.86 107 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.6 OBJ: Become familiar with the SI (metric) system of units including the SI prefixes. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | prefixes MSC: general chemistry 70. The boiling point of chlorine is 172 K. This temperature corresponds to A) –82°C. B) 101°C. C) 172°C. D) –172°C. E) –101°C. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.6 OBJ: Convert from one temperature scale to another. (Example 1.3) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | temperature MSC: general chemistry 71. The melting point of nitrogen is 63 K. What is this temperature in degrees Celsius? A) 63°C B) –336°C C) –63°C D) –210.°C E) 483°C ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.6 OBJ: Convert from one temperature scale to another. (Example 1.3) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | temperature MSC: general chemistry 72. The melting point of a solid is 39°F. This corresponds to A) 295 K. B) 312 K. C) 286 K. D) 277 K. Test Bank
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E) 312 K. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.6 OBJ: Convert from one temperature scale to another. (Example 1.3) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | temperature MSC: general chemistry 73. A particular liquid boils at –287°F. What is its boiling point on the Kelvin scale? A) 131 K B) 114 K C) 96 K D) 146 K E) 214 K ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.6 OBJ: Convert from one temperature scale to another. (Example 1.3) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | temperature MSC: general chemistry 74. The melting point and the normal boiling point of water can be used to calibrate thermometers. What are these respective temperatures in kelvins? A) 273 and 373 B) 32 and 212 C) 100 and 273 D) 0 and 100 E) 0 and 373 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.6 OBJ: Convert from one temperature scale to another. (Example 1.3) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | temperature MSC: general chemistry 75. The melting point of a certain solid is –25°C. This corresponds to A) 13°F. B) –32°F. C) –13°F. D) –103°F. E) 18°F. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.6 OBJ: Convert from one temperature scale to another. (Example 1.3) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | temperature MSC: general chemistry 76. The melting point of a particular solid is 2923 K. This corresponds to A) 4802°F. B) 3196°C. C) 2589°C. D) 4738°F. E) 1504°F. Test Bank
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.6 OBJ: Convert from one temperature scale to another. (Example 1.3) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | temperature MSC: general chemistry 77. The Rankine (oRa) temperature scale is often used in engineering. Like the Kelvin scale, the Rankine scale is an absolute temperature scale; but the size of a Rankine degree is the same as the size of a Fahrenheit degree. Thus, 0 K = 0oRa and 0oF = 459.67oRa. What is the temperature 12.9oC expressed on the Rankine scale? A) 514.9oRa B) 286.1oRa C) 12.9oRa D) 23.2oRa E) 296.4oRa ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 1.6 OBJ: Convert from one temperature scale to another. (Example 1.3) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | temperature MSC: general chemistry 78. The Rankine (oRa) temperature scale is often used in engineering. Like the Kelvin scale, the Rankine scale is an absolute temperature scale; but the size of a Rankine degree is the same as the size of a Fahrenheit degree. Thus, 0 K = 0oRa and 0oF = 459.67oRa. What is the temperature 225.3oRa expressed on the Fahrenheit scale? A) 685.0oF B) 865.2oF C) 498.5oF D) 225.3oF E) –234.4oF ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 1.6 OBJ: Convert from one temperature scale to another. (Example 1.3) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | temperature MSC: general chemistry 79. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding derived SI units? A) The SI unit of volume is derived from the SI unit of length. B) One milliliter is equivalent to one cubic centimeter. C) A derived SI unit may also contain a non-SI unit. D) Density is a derived SI unit. E) The SI unit of energy (joule) is equivalent to kgm2s-2. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define and provide examples of derived units. TOP: general concepts | measurement
REF: 1.7
80. What is the volume of a cube that has an edge length of 0.019 m? A) 6.9 10–3 m3 B) 6.9 10–3 km3 Test Bank
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C) 6.9 10–3 cm3 D) 6.9 10–3 mm3 E) 6.9 cm3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.7 OBJ: Define and provide examples of derived units. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | volume MSC: general chemistry 81. The specific heat is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of a substance one degree Celsius. A 75.0-g sample of an unknown substance absorbed 2.93 kJ of energy as it changed from a temperature of 23.2°C to 95.4°C. What is the specific heat of the unknown substance? A) 541 kJ/(g °C) B) 0.541 J/(g °C) C) 5.41 kJ/(g °C) D) 54.1 kJ/(g °C) E) 0.541 kJ/(g °C) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.7 OBJ: Define and provide examples of derived units. TOP: general concepts | measurement MSC: general chemistry 82. A particular sheet of paper measures the paper in cm2? (2.54 cm = 1 in exactly) A) 1.1 102 cm2 B) 4.4 101 cm2 C) 2.8 102 cm2 D) 1.7 101 cm2 E) 6.8 cm2
inches. What is the surface area of one side of
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 1.7 OBJ: Define and provide examples of derived units. TOP: general concepts | measurement MSC: general chemistry 83. A piece of metal (mass = 17.676 g) is placed in 11.00 mL of chloroform (d = 1.498 g/mL) in a 25-mL graduated cylinder. The chloroform level increases to 15.46 mL. The best value for density of this metal from these data is A) 1.14 g/mL. B) 2.65 g/mL. C) 3.963 g/mL. D) 5.94 g/mL. E) 3.96 g/mL. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.7 OBJ: Calculate the density of a substance. (Example 1.4) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | density MSC: general chemistry 84. An irregularly shaped metal was weighed by the following difference: Test Bank
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Watch glass + metal = 56.7813 g Watch glass = 35.4725 g The volume of the metal was determined by placing the metal in a graduated cylinder that had water in it and measuring the volume difference. Graduated cylinder + water + metal = 14.15 mL Graduated cylinder + water = 11.25 mL The density should be reported as A) 7.348 g/mL. B) 7.35 g/mL. C) 7.4 g/mL. D) 7.3 g/mL. E) 7.3479 g/mL. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.7 OBJ: Calculate the density of a substance. (Example 1.4) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | density MSC: general chemistry 85. In addition to mass, which property of matter must be known to calculate its volume? A) specific heat B) temperature C) molecular weight D) density E) pressure ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.7 OBJ: Use density to relate mass and volume. (Example 1.5) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | density MSC: general chemistry 86. A 0.412-kg sample of methylene chloride has a density of 1.326 g/cm3. Calculate its volume. A) 3220 cm3 B) 0.000311 cm3 C) 412 cm3 D) 311 cm3 E) 546 cm3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.7 OBJ: Use density to relate mass and volume. (Example 1.5) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | density MSC: general chemistry 87. Calculate the mass of gold that occupies the same volume as 62.9 g of cobalt. The density of cobalt is 8.90 g/cm3 and the density of gold is 19.30 g/cm3. A) 2.73 g B) 136 g C) 1.08 104 g D) 0.0345 g Test Bank
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E) 0.366 g ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 1.7 OBJ: Use density to relate mass and volume. (Example 1.5) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | density MSC: general chemistry 88. Four cubes of equal mass are made of lead (density = 11.3 g/cm3), silver (10.5 g/cm3), iron (7.90 g/cm3), and aluminum (2.70 g/cm3). Which cube has the longest edge? A) lead B) iron C) silver D) all four cubes have the same length edge E) aluminum ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.7 OBJ: Use density to relate mass and volume. (Example 1.5) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | density MSC: general chemistry 89. What volume of a pure liquid (density 0.710 g/mL) has a mass of 0.290 kg? A) 4.08 102 mL B) 2.45 10–3 mL C) 2.06 10–1 mL D) 2.45 mL E) 4.08 10–1 mL ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.7 OBJ: Use density to relate mass and volume. (Example 1.5) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | density MSC: general chemistry 90. A thin sheet of platinum metal that is 2.68 cm by 6.16 cm has a mass of 48.8 g and a thickness of 1.40 mm. What is the density of platinum? A) 21.1 g/cm3 B) 2.11 g/cm3 C) 1.13 103 g/cm3 D) 0.0474 g/cm3 E) 0.474 g/cm3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.7 OBJ: Use density to relate mass and volume. (Example 1.5) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | density MSC: general chemistry 91. What length of a cylindrical piece of tungsten wire having a radius of 2.35 mm has a mass of 92.3 g? The density of tungsten is 19.25 g/cm3. A) 2.76 10–3 m B) 3.08 102 m C) 2.76 10–1 m Test Bank
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D) 3.62 10–2 m E) 3.62 10–4 m ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 1.7 OBJ: Use density to relate mass and volume. (Example 1.5) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | density MSC: general chemistry 92. What is the mass of NH3 in a 80.0-cm3 sample that has a density of 0.92 g/cm3 and consists of 20% (by mass) NH3? A) 15 g B) 20 g C) 45 g D) 74 g E) 25 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 1.7 OBJ: Use density to relate mass and volume. (Example 1.5) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | density MSC: general chemistry 93. What is the mass of H2SO4 in a 47.5-cm3 sample of sulfuric acid that has a density of 1.33 g/cm3 and consists of 45.6% H2SO4? A) 139 g B) 63.2 g C) 16.3 g D) 1.28 g E) 28.8 g ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 1.7 OBJ: Use density to relate mass and volume. (Example 1.5) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: SI unit | density MSC: general chemistry 94. A 4.06 cm3 sample of solid sodium metal has a density of 0.968 g/cm3. What volume does this sample of sodium occupy in its liquid state? The density of liquid sodium is 0.927 g/cm3. A) 4.24 cm3 B) 3.89 cm3 C) 4.52 cm3 D) 3.64 cm3 E) 0.257 cm3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Use density to relate mass and volume. TOP: general concepts | measurement
difficult
REF: 1.8
95. How many feet (ft) are contained in 0.399 km, given that 1 mi = 1.609 km and 5280 ft = 1 mi (exact). Test Bank
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A) 1310 ft B) 1.21 10 −4 ft C) 4.692 10 −5 ft D) 3390 ft E) 7.64 10 −4 ft ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Use density to relate mass and volume. TOP: general concepts | measurement
difficult
REF: 1.8
96. Convert 34.59 cm3 to cubic inches (in3) given that 1 inch = 2.54 cm (exact). A) 2.111 in3 B) 13.62 in3 C) 87.86 in3 D) 566.8 in3 E) 0.4738 in3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Convert from any unit to another unit. TOP: general concepts | measurement
difficult
REF: 1.8
97. Which response has the correct number of significant figures and units for the following mathematical operation?
A) 2.201 10–5 J/cal B) 2 10–5 kcal C) 2.201 10–5 kcal D) 2.20 10–5 kcal E) 2.2 10–5 kcal ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.8 OBJ: Apply dimensional analysis to solving numerical problems. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 98. The average speed of oxygen molecules at 690°C is 1.60 105 cm/s. Which of the following calculations would convert this speed to units of miles per hour? A) B) C)
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D) E) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.8 OBJ: Apply dimensional analysis to solving numerical problems. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 99. The distance from Austin, Texas, to Lincoln, Nebraska, is 822 miles by car. Which of the following series of calculations will yield this distance in units of kilometers? (1 in = 2.54 cm (exact), 1 mi = 5280 ft (exact), 1 ft = 12 in (exact)) A) B) C) D) E) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.8 OBJ: Apply dimensional analysis to solving numerical problems. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 100. A car averages 27.5 miles per gallon of gasoline. How many liters of gasoline will be needed for a trip of 489 km? Some conversion factors that may be helpful are the following: 1 qt = 0.946 L 1 mile = 1.609 km 4 qt = 1 gal (exact) 1 ft = 12 in (exact) A) 4.18 101 L B) 5.72 103 L C) 2.21 103 L D) 1.08 102 L E) 3.16 104 L ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.8 OBJ: Apply dimensional analysis to solving numerical problems. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 101. Which of the following sequence of conversions will yield the correct number of scruples in 14.3 lb? Some equivalents that may be helpful are given below: Test Bank
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1.00 scruple = 20.0 grains 1.00 g = 15.4 grains 1.00 grain = 0.0648 g 1.00 lb = 453.6 g 1.00 kg = 2.205 lb A) B) C) D) E) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.8 OBJ: Apply dimensional analysis to solving numerical problems. TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 102. 6.7 kilogram(s) contains this many grams: A) 6.7 102 B) 0.67 C) 6.7 10–3 D) 67 E) 6.7 103 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.8 OBJ: Convert from one metric unit to another metric unit. (Example 1.6) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 103. Convert 6424.2 g to mg. A) 64.242 mg B) 642.42 mg C) 6.4242 106 mg D) 6.4242 103 mg E) 6.4242 mg ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.8 OBJ: Convert from one metric unit to another metric unit. (Example 1.6) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 104. The enthalpy of combustion of benzoic acid is –26.4 kJ/g. What is the enthalpy of combustion expressed in joules per kilogram? A) –2.64 103 J/kg Test Bank
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B) –2.64 104 J/kg C) –2.64 101 J/kg D) –2.64 107 J/kg E) –2.64 1010 J/kg ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.8 OBJ: Convert from one metric unit to another metric unit. (Example 1.6) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 105. The enthalpy of combustion of n-octane, C8H18, is –4.79 107 J/kg. What is the enthalpy of combustion expressed in kJ/g? A) –4.79 1010 kJ/g B) –4.79 107 kJ/g C) –4.79 103 kJ/g D) –4.79 101 kJ/g E) –4.79 104 kJ/g ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.8 OBJ: Convert from one metric unit to another metric unit. (Example 1.6) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 106. How many milligrams of ammonium nitrate are equivalent to 3.77 10–5 kg of ammonium nitrate? A) 3.77 1010 B) 3.77 104 C) 3.77 107 D) 3.77 10–7 E) 3.77 101 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.8 OBJ: Convert from one metric unit to another metric unit. (Example 1.6) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 107. The density of a particular solid is 5.81 g/cm3 at 25°C. What is its density in kilograms per cubic meter (kg/m3)? A) 5.81 1010 B) 5.81 101 C) 5.81 10–2 D) 5.81 103 E) 5.81 107 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.8 OBJ: Convert from one metric unit to another metric unit. (Example 1.6) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry
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108. Express the volume 166.7 cm3 in liters. A) 1.667 L B) 0.01667 L C) 0.1667 L D) 16.67 L E) 166.7 L ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.8 OBJ: Convert from one metric volume to another metric volume. (Example 1.7) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 109. How many cubic micrometers equal one cubic meter? A) 104 B) 10–18 C) 106 D) 1018 E) 10–6 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.8 OBJ: Convert from one metric volume to another metric volume. (Example 1.7) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 110. A certain substance makes up 2.2 10–4 percent by mass of a normal healthy human being. How many grams of that substance would be found in the body of a person weighing 160 lb? (1.0 kg = 2.2 lb) A) 1.6 g B) 0.16 g C) 350 g D) 160 g E) 0.8 g ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.8 OBJ: Convert from any unit to another unit. (Example 1.8) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 111. How many liters are in 14.7 fluid ounces of a soft drink? (1 fl oz = 28.35 mL) A) 5.19 10–4 L B) 5.19 102 L C) 4.17 105 L D) 4.17 102 L E) 0.417 L ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.8 OBJ: Convert from any unit to another unit. (Example 1.8) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry
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112. How many joules are there in 9.55 kcal? (1 calorie = 4.184 J) A) 4.00 10–2 J B) 4.00 104 J C) 40 J D) 2.28 103 J E) 2.28 J ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.8 OBJ: Convert from any unit to another unit. (Example 1.8) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 113. A hogshead is an old English unit of volume equal to 238.48 L. What is the volume of a cube with an edge length of 49.7 m expressed in units of hogshead? (1000 L = 1 m3) A) 5.15 105 hogshead B) 5.15 102 hogshead C) 5.15 10–1 hogshead D) 2.93 1010 hogshead E) 2.93 104 hogshead ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 1.8 OBJ: Convert from any unit to another unit. (Example 1.8) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 114. A barn is an atomic unit of area equal to 10–28 m2. What is the surface area of the Earth expressed in units of barn? Assume the Earth is a sphere with a radius of 6380 km. (The surface area of a sphere is 4r2.) A) 5.12 1042 barn B) 5.12 10–20 barn C) 5.12 1036 barn D) 5.12 10–14 barn E) 5.12 1030 barn ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 1.8 OBJ: Convert from any unit to another unit. (Example 1.8) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 115. A lightminute is a unit of length equal to the distance that light travels in 1 minute. What is 1 lightminute expressed in units of meters? The speed of light is 3.00 108 m/s. A) 5.00 106 m B) 1.80 1010 m C) 3.00 108 m D) 2.00 10–7 m E) 5.56 10–11 m ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Convert from any unit to another unit. (Example 1.8) Test Bank
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TOP: general concepts | measurement MSC: general chemistry
KEY: factor label method
116. The SI unit for the diffusion coefficient is m2/s, but older texts sometimes report diffusion coefficients in units of in2/min. What is the value of a diffusion coefficient of 25.5 in2/min expressed in SI units? (2.54 cm = 1 in exactly) A) 1.08 10–2 m2/s B) 3.89 105 m2/s C) 16.7 m2/s D) 6.59 102 m2/s E) 2.74 10–4 m2/s ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.8 OBJ: Convert from any unit to another unit. (Example 1.8) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 117. How many rundlets are there in 237 in3? Some conversion factors that may be useful are given below: 1.00 barrel = 42.0 gal 1.00 gal = 231 in3 1.00 gal = 3.78 L 1.00 rundlet = 6.81 104 mL 1.00 L = 1000.0 mL 1.00 barrel = 4.00 firkins A) 0.569 B) 14,100,000 C) 26,400 D) 986,000 E) 0.0569 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.8 OBJ: Convert from any unit to another unit. (Example 1.8) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 118. A barleycorn is an English unit of length equal to 1/3 of an inch. What is the height of the Sears Tower (527 m) expressed in barleycorn? (2.54 cm = 1 in) A) 4.02 105 barleycorn B) 6.92 103 barleycorn C) 6.22 104 barleycorn D) 4.46 104 barleycorn E) 6.92 10–1 barleycorn ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.8 OBJ: Convert from any unit to another unit. (Example 1.8) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry
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119. A sample of milk is found to have arsenic at a concentration of 3.57 g/L. What is the concentration in ounces per gallon? 1 qt = 946.4 mL 1 gal = 4 qt 16 oz = 1 lb 1 lb = 0.4536 kg A) 2.68 103 oz/gal B) 4.77 10–7 oz/gal C) 2.46 oz/gal D) 3.84 10–4 oz/gal E) 3.32 10–8 oz/gal ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1.8 OBJ: Convert from any unit to another unit. (Example 1.8) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry 120. The daily dietary energy requirement for an adult is 2.00 103 kcal (1 cal = 4.184 J). This is equivalent to A) 8.37 103 J. B) 8.37 103 kJ. C) 478 kJ. D) 2.00 103 kJ. E) 47.8 104 kJ. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 1.8 OBJ: Convert from any unit to another unit. (Example 1.8) TOP: general concepts | measurement KEY: factor label method MSC: general chemistry
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Chapter 2 - Atoms, Molecules, and Ions 1. Which of the following is/are postulates of Dalton’s atomic theory? 1. 2. 3.
Atoms combine in fixed ratios of whole numbers. Atoms of each element have different properties. Elements occur as solids, liquids, or gases.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: List the postulates of atomic theory. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter
REF: 2.1
2. Which of the following statements best describes the particulate representation depicted by the picture?
A) The figure is a representation of a gas made up of a single element. B) The figure is a representation of a liquid mixture of two elements. C) The figure is a representation of a molecular solid. D) The figure is a representation of a liquid mixture of two compounds. E) The figure is a representation of a gas of a compound. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.1 OBJ: Define element, compound, and chemical reaction in the context of these postulates. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter 3. Which of the following is not a correct name–symbol combination? A) cobalt, Co B) vanadium, V C) neon, Ne D) scandium, Sc E) titanium, Mg Test Bank
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Recognize the atomic symbols of the elements. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter
REF: 2.1
4. The symbol for tin is A) T. B) Tn. C) Si. D) Ti. E) Sn. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Recognize the atomic symbols of the elements. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter atomic symbol MSC: general chemistry
REF: 2.1 KEY:
5. What is the symbol for the element phosphorus? A) Po B) P C) Pt D) K E) Pr ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Recognize the atomic symbols of the elements. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter atomic symbol MSC: general chemistry
REF: 2.1 KEY:
6. Which one of the following lists gives the correct symbols for the elements phosphorus, potassium, silver, chlorine, and sulfur? A) P, Po, Ag, Cl, S B) K, Ag, Po, Cl, S C) P, K, Ag, Cl, S D) Ph, K, Ag, S, Cl E) Ph, Po, Ag, Cl, S ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Recognize the atomic symbols of the elements. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter atomic symbol MSC: general chemistry
REF: 2.1 KEY:
7. Which of the following lists gives the atomic symbols for potassium, magnesium, beryllium, and sodium? A) Po, Mn, Br, Na B) P, Mn, Be, Se Test Bank
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C) K, Mg, Be, Na D) Pt, Mg, Be, Sc E) K, Mn, Br, Na ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Recognize the atomic symbols of the elements. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter atomic symbol MSC: general chemistry
REF: 2.1 KEY:
8. The names of the elements whose symbols are Si, P, Mn, and S are, respectively, A) silicon, phosphorus, manganese, and sulfur. B) silicon, potassium, magnesium, and sulfur. C) silver, phosphorus, magnesium, and sodium. D) silver, potassium, manganese, and sodium. E) silicon, potassium, manganese, and sulfur. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Recognize the atomic symbols of the elements. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter atomic symbol MSC: general chemistry
REF: 2.1 KEY:
9. Which of the following is the atomic symbol for the element cobalt? A) CO B) Co C) C D) co E) All of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Recognize the atomic symbols of the elements. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter atomic symbol MSC: general chemistry
REF: 2.1 KEY:
10. A series of silicon–hydrogen compounds with the general formula SinH2n+2 can be represented by the known compounds SiH4, Si2H6, and Si3H8. This best illustrates the law of A) multiple proportions. B) conservation of charge. C) definite composition. D) conservation of mass. E) conservation of atoms. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.1 OBJ: Explain the significance of the law of multiple proportions. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter KEY: Dalton's atomic theory MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
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11. According to the law of multiple proportions: A) the total mass is the same after a chemical change as before the change. B) it is not possible for the same two elements to form more than one compound. C) the ratio of the masses of the elements in a compound is always the same. D) if the same two elements form two different compounds, they do so in the same ratio. E) none of these ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.1 OBJ: Explain the significance of the law of multiple proportions. TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: compound MSC: general chemistry 12. Which of the following pairs of compounds can be used to illustrate the law of multiple proportions? A) H2O and HCl B) NO and NO2 C) NH4 and NH4Cl D) ZnO2 and ZnCl2 E) CH4 and CO2 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.1 OBJ: Explain the significance of the law of multiple proportions. TOP: general concepts | matter KEY: compound MSC: general chemistry 13. Cathode rays are A) anions. B) protons. C) cations. D) positrons. E) electrons. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.2 OBJ: Describe Thomson's experiment in which he discovered the electron. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter KEY: structure of the atom | discovery of electron MSC: general chemistry 14. A subatomic particle is A) a piece of an atom. B) only found in the nucleus of an atom. C) always positively charged. D) larger than the nucleus of an atom. E) always negatively charged. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.1 and 2.2 OBJ: Describe Rutherford's nuclear model and the makeup of the nucleus. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
4
15. Experiments were carried out in which a beam of cathode rays was first bent by a magnetic field and then bent back by an electrostatic field until the beam hit the screen exactly where it had been hitting before the fields were applied. This experiment permitted the direct measurement of A) the ratio of mass to charge of an electron. B) the charge on the nucleus of an atom. C) the charge on the electron. D) the mass of the atom. E) the mass of the electron. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.2 OBJ: Describe Thomson's experiment in which he discovered the electron. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter KEY: structure of the atom | discovery of electron MSC: general chemistry 16. Who discovered the electron? A) Bohr B) de Broglie C) Rutherford D) Heisenberg E) Thomson ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.2 OBJ: Describe Thomson's experiment in which he discovered the electron. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter KEY: structure of the atom | discovery of electron MSC: general chemistry 17. Which of the following conclusions regarding Rutherford’s gold foil experiment is not consistent with the observations? A) The nucleus occupies only a small portion of the space of an atom. B) Most alpha particles travel straight through the gold foil. C) The nucleus occupies a large amount of the atom space. D) The nucleus, like the alpha particles used to bombard the gold foil, is positively charged. E) Wide angle deflections result from a collision of an alpha particle and a gold atom nucleus. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.2 OBJ: Describe Rutherford's experiment that led to the nuclear model of the atom. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter 18. Who discovered the nucleus of an atom? A) Thomson B) de Broglie C) Rutherford D) Bohr E) Heisenberg Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.2 OBJ: Describe Rutherford's experiment that led to the nuclear model of the atom. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter KEY: structure of the atom | nuclear model of atom MSC: general chemistry 19. If the Thomson model of the atom had been correct, Rutherford would have observed A) alpha particles bouncing off the foil. B) alpha particles going through the foil with little or no deflection. C) alpha particles greatly deflected by the metal foil. D) positive particles formed in the foil. E) None of the above observations is consistent with the Thomson model of the atom. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.2 OBJ: Describe Rutherford's experiment that led to the nuclear model of the atom. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter KEY: structure of the atom | nuclear model of atom MSC: general chemistry 20. The nucleus of a 208Pb nuclide contains A) 208 neutrons and 290 electrons. B) 82 protons and 208 neutrons. C) 208 protons and 126 electrons. D) 208 protons, 82 neutrons, and 208 electrons. E) 82 protons and 126 neutrons. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define atomic number, mass number, and nuclide. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter atomic symbol MSC: general chemistry
REF: 2.3 KEY:
21. If two different nuclides have the same atomic number, it must mean that A) they have the same atomic mass. B) they have the same mass number. C) they have the same number of protons. D) they have the same number of electrons. E) they have the same number of neutrons. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define atomic number, mass number, and nuclide. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter nuclear structure MSC: general chemistry
REF: 2.3 KEY:
22. If two different nuclides have the same mass number, it must mean that A) the combined number of protons and neutrons are the same. B) both have the same number of neutrons. C) both have the same number of electrons. D) both have the same number of protons. Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
6
E) they are isotopes. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define atomic number, mass number, and nuclide. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter nuclear structure MSC: general chemistry
REF: 2.3 KEY:
23. The number of protons in a given nucleus determines the A) mass number. B) atomic number. C) number of electrons. D) number of protons. E) number of isotopes. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define atomic number, mass number, and nuclide. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter nuclear structure MSC: general chemistry 24. Which nuclide has the same number of protons as A)
REF: 2.3 KEY:
?
B) C) D) E) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Write the nuclide symbol for a given nuclide. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter nuclear structure MSC: general chemistry 25. How many electrons does the ion
REF: 2.3 KEY:
have?
A) 18 B) 36 C) 16 D) 34 E) 19 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Write the nuclide symbol for a given nuclide. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 2.3
7
26. How many protons are there in the chromium-52 nuclide? A) 29 B) 76 C) 23 D) 24 E) 28 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Write the nuclide symbol for a given nuclide. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter atomic symbol MSC: general chemistry
REF: 2.3 KEY:
27. How many neutrons are there in the cobalt-59 nuclide? A) 27 B) 2 C) 86 D) 59 E) 32 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Write the nuclide symbol for a given nuclide. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter atomic symbol MSC: general chemistry 28. An atom that has the same number of neutrons as A) . B) . C) . D) . E) .
REF: 2.3 KEY:
is
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Write the nuclide symbol for a given nuclide. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter atomic symbol MSC: general chemistry
REF: 2.3 KEY:
29. Which combination of protons, neutrons, and electrons correctly represents a 56Fe nuclide? A) 26 protons, 30 neutrons, 56 electrons B) 26 protons, 30 neutrons, 30 electrons C) 26 protons, 30 neutrons, 26 electrons D) 56 protons, 26 neutrons, 56 electrons E) 56 protons, 26 neutrons, 26 electrons ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Write the nuclide symbol for a given nuclide. Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 2.3 8
TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter atomic symbol MSC: general chemistry
KEY:
30. The species that has the same number of neutrons as A)
is
.
B)
.
C)
.
D)
.
E)
.
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Write the nuclide symbol for a given nuclide. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter atomic symbol MSC: general chemistry
REF: 2.3 KEY:
31. Which of the following nuclides contains more protons than neutrons? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Write the nuclide symbol for a given nuclide. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter 32. How many neutrons are there in 6 molecules of
REF: 2.3
?
A) 204 B) 102 C) 6 D) 396 E) 192 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Write the nuclide symbol for a given nuclide. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 2.3
9
33. Suppose atom 1 has the same number of protons as atom 2, and atom 2 has the same number of neutrons as atom 3. Atom 1 does not have the same number of neutrons as atom 3. Which of the following statements is true? A) Atom 3 must have the same number of protons as atom 2. B) Atoms 1 and 2 must be isotopes. C) Atoms 1 and 3 must be isotopes. D) Atom 2 must have the same number of neutrons as atom 1. E) Atom 3 must have the same number of protons as atom 1. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Define and provide examples of isotopes of an element. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter nuclear structure MSC: general chemistry
REF: 2.3 KEY:
34. Which of the following statements is true concerning the two nuclides A) They have the same number of neutrons. B) They are isotopes. C) They have the same relative atomic mass. D) They have the same mass number. E) They have different chemical properties. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define and provide examples of isotopes of an element. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter MSC: general chemistry 35. Which of the following atomic symbols represents an isotope of A) B) C) D) E) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define and provide examples of isotopes of an element. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter MSC: general chemistry
and
?
REF: 2.3 KEY: isotope
?
REF: 2.3 KEY: isotope
36. Which of the following represents a pair of isotopes? Atomic Number A) I II B) I II Test Bank
17 18 7 8
Mass Number 36 36 15 15 General Chemistry, 10th edition
10
C) I II D) I II E) I II
17 17 17 18 7 8
35 37 37 38 16 17
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define and provide examples of isotopes of an element. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter MSC: general chemistry
REF: 2.3 KEY: isotope
37. There are three isotopes of carbon differing with respect to A) electron configuration. B) nuclear charge. C) number of neutrons. D) number of protons. E) atomic number. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define and provide examples of isotopes of an element. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter MSC: general chemistry
REF: 2.3 KEY: isotope
38. Which of the following about the isotopes of a particular element is not true? A) Each unique isotope has a different atomic mass. B) Each unique isotope has a different atomic number. C) Each unique isotope has a different number of neutrons. D) Each unique isotope has the same number of protons. E) In neutral atoms of each unique isotope, the number of electrons equals the number of protons. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Define and provide examples of isotopes of an element. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter
REF: 2.3
39. The neutral atoms of all the isotopes of the same element have A) different numbers of protons. B) the same number of neutrons. C) the same number of electrons. D) the same mass. E) the same mass number. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define and provide examples of isotopes of an element. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 2.3 KEY: isotope
11
40. What is the symbol of the nuclide having 15 protons and 16 neutrons? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Write the nuclide symbol of an element. (Example 2.1) TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter atomic symbol MSC: general chemistry
REF: 2.3 KEY:
41. Which of the following has 62 neutrons, 46 protons, and 46 electrons? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Write the nuclide symbol of an element. (Example 2.1) TOP: general concepts | atomic theory of matter
REF: 2.3
42. Which of the following elements has the largest atomic mass? A) rhenium B) manganese C) thallium D) argon E) fluorine ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.4 OBJ: Define atomic mass unit and atomic weight. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter KEY: atomic weight | atomic mass unit MSC: general chemistry 43. The mass spectrum of an element with two naturally occurring isotopes is shown below. What is the best estimate of the element’s atomic mass?
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
12
A) 10 amu B) 11 amu C) 10.8 amu D) 10.2 amu E) 10.5 amu ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.4 OBJ: Describe how a mass spectrometer can be used to determine the fractional abundance of the isotopes of an element. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter 44. The mass spectrum of an element with two naturally occurring isotopes is shown below. Its average atomic mass would be best estimated as
A) less than 26 amu but greater than 25 amu. B) less than 25 amu but greater than 24 amu. C) equal to 24 amu. D) equal to 25 amu. E) greater than 26 amu. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.4 OBJ: Describe how a mass spectrometer can be used to determine the fractional abundance of the isotopes of an element. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter 45. Lithium has two naturally occurring isotopes, 6Li and 7Li . The average atomic mass of lithium is 6.941. Which of the following statements concerning the relative abundance of each isotope is correct? Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
13
A) The abundance of 7Li is greater than 6Li. B) The abundance of 7Li is less than 6Li. C) The abundance of 6Li is equal to the abundance of 7Li. D) Not enough data is provided to determine the correct answer. E) Based on the atomic mass, only 7Li occurs naturally. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.4 OBJ: Describe how a mass spectrometer can be used to determine the fractional abundance of the isotopes of an element. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter 46. A certain element is listed as having an atomic mass of 63.5 amu. It is probably true that this element contains A) a mixture of isotopes. B) a mixture of neutrons. C) a mixture of isomers. D) a mixture of allotropes. E) a mixture of ions. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.4 OBJ: Determine the atomic mass of an element from the isotopic masses and fractional abundances. (Example 2.2) TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter KEY: atomic weight MSC: general chemistry 47. The average atomic mass of Eu is 151.96 amu. There are only two naturally occurring isotopes of europium, 151Eu with a mass of 151.0 amu and 153Eu with a mass of 153.0 amu. The natural abundance of the 131Eu isotope must be approximately A) 60%. B) 20%. C) 50%. D) 80%. E) 40%. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.4 OBJ: Determine the atomic mass of an element from the isotopic masses and fractional abundances. (Example 2.2) TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter KEY: atomic weight MSC: general chemistry 48. Naturally occurring element X exists in three isotopic forms: X-28 (27.977 amu, 92.21% abundance), X-29 (28.976 amu, 4.70% abundance), and X-30 (29.974 amu, 3.09% abundance). Calculate the atomic weight of X. A) 29.09 amu B) 28.09 amu Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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C) 35.29 amu D) 86.93 amu E) 25.80 amu ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.4 OBJ: Determine the atomic mass of an element from the isotopic masses and fractional abundances. (Example 2.2) TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter KEY: atomic weight MSC: general chemistry 49. Neon has three naturally occuring isotopes. The abundance of 20Ne is 90.48% and 22Ne is 9.25%. What is the percent abundance of 21Ne? A) 9.25% B) 0.27% C) 49.9% D) 33.2% E) 81.2% ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.4 OBJ: Determine the atomic mass of an element from the isotopic masses and fractional abundances. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter 50. An element, X, has the following isotopic composition: X-200, 90%; X-199, 8.0%; and X202, 2.0%. Its average atomic mass is closest to A) 200 amu. B) 203 amu. C) 199 amu. D) 202 amu. E) 201 amu. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.4 OBJ: Determine the atomic mass of an element from the isotopic masses and fractional abundances. (Example 2.2) TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter KEY: atomic weight MSC: general chemistry 51. Which of the following concerning atomic mass is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
The atomic mass listed on a modern periodic table for each element is the mass of the most abundant isotope. The atomic mass listed on a modern periodic table is a relative atomic mass, based on the definition that 12C equals 12 amu. Relative atomic masses can only be determined with a mass spectrometer.
A) 1 only B) 2 only Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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C) 1 and 2 D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.4 OBJ: Determine the atomic mass of an element from the isotopic masses and fractional abundances. TOP: early atomic theory | atomic theory of matter 52. A periodic law based on atomic masses would necessitate Te and I changing places in the periodic table. This was not done in the early periodic table because A) a periodic law based on atomic masses is not valid. B) it was thought that the atomic masses might be in error. C) iodine behaves chemically like chlorine and bromine. D) the tellurium samples could contain a heavy impurity. E) iodine contains one naturally occurring isotope, whereas tellurium consists of several isotopes. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Identify periods and groups on the periodic table. TOP: early atomic theory | periodic table KEY: group
REF: 2.5 MSC: general chemistry
53. The elements in a row of the periodic table are known as A) metals. B) a period. C) metalloids. D) a family. E) a group. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Identify periods and groups on the periodic table. TOP: early atomic theory | periodic table KEY: period
REF: 2.5 MSC: general chemistry
54. Which of the following statements about different elements is incorrect? A) Potassium is an alkali metal. B) Fluorine is a halogen. C) Aluminum is a transition element. D) Barium is an alkaline earth metal. E) Helium is a noble gas. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.5 OBJ: Find the main-group and transition elements on the periodic table. TOP: early atomic theory | periodic table MSC: general chemistry 55. Which of the following statements is not true about the element calcium? A) It is a metal. B) It is an alkaline earth metal. C) It is in period 4. D) It has chemical and physical properties most similar to silver. Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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E) It is in group IIA (group 2). ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.5 OBJ: Find the main-group and transition elements on the periodic table. TOP: early atomic theory | periodic table 56. The elements in groups 1A-8A or 1-2 and 15-18 are known as the A) main group. B) alkaline earth metals. C) metalloids or semimetals. D) halogens. E) transition metals. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.5 OBJ: Locate the alkali metal and halogen groups on the periodic table. TOP: early atomic theory | periodic table 57. Choose the group containing the most reactive nonmetals. A) Group 5A B) Group 3A C) Group 7A D) Group 8A E) Group 1A ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.5 OBJ: Locate the alkali metal and halogen groups on the periodic table. TOP: early atomic theory | periodic table KEY: nonmetal MSC: general chemistry 58. Which element belongs to the transition metals? A) palladium B) sodium C) calcium D) iodine E) helium ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.5 OBJ: Locate the alkali metal and halogen groups on the periodic table. TOP: early atomic theory | periodic table 59. Which of the following statements about different elements is/are true? 1. 2. 3.
As is a metalloid and Se is a nonmetal. Cu is a transition element and Ge is a metalloid. Both F and I are halogens.
A) 1 only B) 2 only Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
17
C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.5 OBJ: Recognize the portions of the periodic table that contain the metals, nonmetals, and metalloids (semimetals). TOP: early atomic theory | periodic table MSC: general chemistry 60. Which of the following is a metalloid? A) oxygen B) hydrogen C) silicon D) carbon E) copper ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.5 OBJ: Recognize the portions of the periodic table that contain the metals, nonmetals, and metalloids (semimetals). TOP: early atomic theory | periodic table KEY: metalloid MSC: general chemistry 61. All of the following elements are best classified as metalloids except A) Si. B) Te. C) As. D) B. E) Ga. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.5 OBJ: Recognize the portions of the periodic table that contain the metals, nonmetals, and metalloids (semimetals). TOP: early atomic theory | periodic table KEY: metalloid MSC: general chemistry 62. Which formula is best described as a (condensed) structural formula? A) C2B10H12 B) C6H11Cl C) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl D) C12H22O11 E) C2H6O ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.6 OBJ: Determine whether a chemical formula is also a molecular formula. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance 63. Which of the following is/are information that is unique to a space-filling molecular model? 1. 2.
The model shows the relative sizes of each element. The model shows the charge distribution.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
18
3.
The model shows the types of bonds (single or multiple) connecting the atoms.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.6 OBJ: Determine whether a chemical formula is also a molecular formula. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance 64. In a particular mass of KAu(CN)2, there are 8.87 1020 atoms of gold. What is the total number of atoms in this sample? A) 1.77 1021 B) 2.66 1021 C) 5.32 1021 D) 4.44 1021 E) 3.55 1021 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.6 OBJ: Determine whether a chemical formula is also a molecular formula. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: chemical formula MSC: general chemistry 65. A sample of TNT, C7H5N3O6 , has 7.68 1021 nitrogen atoms. How many hydrogen atoms are there in this sample of TNT? A) 1.54 1022 B) 10.24 1021 C) 1.28 1022 D) 7.68 1021 E) 1.79 1022 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.6 OBJ: Determine whether a chemical formula is also a molecular formula. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: chemical formula MSC: general chemistry 66. A 1.4-g sample of washing soda, Na2CO3 • 10H2O, has 2.9 10 carbon atoms. How many oxygen atoms are present in 1.4 g of washing soda? A) 2.9 10 22 B) 2.9 10 21 C) 4.1 10 21 D) 3.8 10 22 E) 8.8 10 21 21
ANS: D Test Bank
PTS:
1
DIF:
easy
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 2.6 19
OBJ: Determine whether a chemical formula is also a molecular formula. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: chemical formula MSC: general chemistry 67. A sample of the mineral troegerite, (UO2)3(AsO4)2 • 12H2O, has 1.33 1021 U atoms. How many arsenic atoms are present in this sample of troegerite? A) 2.00 1022 B) 1.60 1022 C) 2.66 1021 D) 6.65 1022 E) 8.87 1020 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.6 OBJ: Determine whether a chemical formula is also a molecular formula. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: chemical formula MSC: general chemistry 68. An ion is formed A) by either adding electrons to or subtracting electrons from the atom. B) by either adding protons to or subtracting protons from the atom. C) by either adding neutrons to or subtracting neutrons from the atom. D) All of the above are true. E) Two of the above are true. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.6 OBJ: Define ion, cation, and anion. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: chemical formula | ionic substance MSC: general chemistry 69. The species Au+, Mg2+, and V3+ are all A) anions. B) isotopes. C) isoelectronic. D) allotropes. E) cations. ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Define ion, cation, and anion.
DIF: easy REF: 2.6 TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance
70. The species that is formed when a molecule gains or loses an electron is called A) an ion. B) a metalloid. C) an isotope. D) an atom. E) a metal. ANS: A Test Bank
PTS:
1
DIF:
easy
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 2.6 20
OBJ: Define ion, cation, and anion.
TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance
71. Which of the following statements is true about one formula unit of SrBr2? A) It is composed of one Sr atom and one Br2 molecule. B) It is composed of one Sr atom and two Br atoms. C) It is composed of one Sr2+ ion and one Br22– ion. D) It is composed of one SrBr2 molecule. E) It is composed of one Sr2+ ion and two Br– ions. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Classify compounds as ionic or molecular. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance
REF: 2.6
72. Aluminum(III) sulfite is an ionic compound formed from Al3+ and SO32-. What is the correct way to represent the formula? A) AlSO3+ B) Al(SO3)2C) Al3+SO32D) Al2(SO3)3 E) Al7(SO3)10.5 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Write an ionic formula, given the ions.. TOP: chemical formulas
easy
REF: 2.6
73. Chemical reactions between nonmetals and nonmetals primarily involve A) sharing of electrons. B) interactions between protons. C) transfer of electrons. D) interactions among protons, electrons, and neutrons. E) interactions between protons and electrons. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Classify compounds as ionic or molecular. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: chemical formula | molecular substance
REF: 2.6
MSC: general chemistry
74. Which of the following is an ionic compound? A) HOClO B) NH3 C) CH3OH D) N2O3 E) NH4CN ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Classify compounds as ionic or molecular. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 2.6
21
KEY: chemical formula | ionic substance MSC: general chemistry 75. The formula of water, H2O, suggests A) there is twice as much mass of hydrogen as oxygen in each molecule. B) there are two oxygen atoms and one hydrogen atom per water molecule. C) there is twice as much mass of oxygen as of hydrogen in each molecule. D) there are two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom per water molecule. E) none of these ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define and provide examples for the term formula unit. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance MSC: general chemistry
REF: 2.6 KEY: chemical formula
76. How many oxygen atoms are there in a formula unit of UO2(C2H3O2)2 • NH4C2H3O2 • 4H2O? A) 4 B) 12 C) 21 D) 8 E) 10 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.6 OBJ: Define and provide examples for the term formula unit. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: chemical formula | ionic substance MSC: general chemistry 77. What is the ratio of oxygen atoms to hydrogen atoms in the compound Fe4(PO4)3(OH)3 • 12H2O? A) 15:3 B) 27:15 C) 27:27 D) 18:27 E) 25:17 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.6 OBJ: Define and provide examples for the term formula unit. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: chemical formula | ionic substance MSC: general chemistry 78. What is the ratio of oxygen atoms to hydrogen atoms in the mineral carnotite, K2(UO2)3(VO4)2 • 3H2O? A) 8:6 B) 8:3 C) 17:3 D) 9:6 E) 17:6 ANS: E Test Bank
PTS:
1
DIF:
easy
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 2.6 22
OBJ: Define and provide examples for the term formula unit. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: chemical formula | ionic substance MSC: general chemistry 79. Which statement is incorrect concerning the formation of ionic compounds? A) Halogens tend to form anions with a charge of –1. B) Alkali metals tend to form cations with a charge of +1. C) Metals tend to form cations, while nonmetals tend to form anions. D) Transition metals tend to form cations with a charge of +3. E) Noble gases tend not to form ionic compounds. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.6 OBJ: Specify the charge on all substances, ionic and molecular. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: chemical formula | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 80. The empirical formula of a salt consisting of Sr2+ and NO2– ions is A) Sr2+NO2–. B) SrNO2. C) Sr2NO2. D) Sr2(NO2)3. E) Sr(NO2)2. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Write an ionic formula, given the ions. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance
moderate
REF: 2.6
81. Which of the following molecules is a hydrocarbon? A) H2O B) CH3CH2CH3 C) C6H12O6 D) CH3CH2OH E) CH3OCH3 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.7 OBJ: Explain what makes a molecule a hydrocarbon. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: organic compound MSC: general chemistry 82. Which of the following molecules contains the ether functional group? A) CH3CH2NH2 B) CH3CH2OCH2CH3 C) CH3CH2OH D) CH3CH2COOH E) H2O ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.7 OBJ: Recognize some functional groups of organic molecules. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance Test Bank
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KEY: organic compound
MSC: general chemistry
83. Which of the following molecules contains the carboxylic acid functional group? A) CH3CH2CH2OH B) CH3CH2COCH2CH3 C) CH3NHCH3 D) CH3OCH2CH3 E) CH3CH2CH2COOH ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.7 OBJ: Recognize some functional groups of organic molecules. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: organic compound MSC: general chemistry 84. Which of the following molecules contains the alcohol functional group? A) C6H6 B) CH3OH C) CH4 D) CH3OCH3 E) C2H2 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.7 OBJ: Recognize some functional groups of organic molecules. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: organic compound MSC: general chemistry 85. How many electrons does a barium ion have? A) 56 B) 8 C) 54 D) 38 E) 2 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Learn the rules for predicting the charges of monatomic ions in ionic compounds. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: chemical formula | ionic substance MSC: general chemistry 86. Which of the following statements is false? A) A crystal of calcium fluoride has equal numbers of calcium ions and fluoride ions. B) A sodium atom is most likely to ionize to form a cation of charge +1. C) A sulfide ion has a total of 18 e–. D) A potassium ion has a total of 18 e–. E) The charge on a neutral chlorine atom is zero. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.8 OBJ: Learn the rules for predicting the charges of monatomic ions in ionic compounds. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: chemical formula | ionic substance MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
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87. As an ion, sodium has ______ electrons? A) 24 B) 14 C) 11 D) 28 E) 10 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Learn the rules for predicting the charges of monatomic ions in ionic compounds. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: chemical formula | ionic substance MSC: general chemistry 88. How many electrons does a chloride ion have? A) 17 B) 22 C) 15 D) 18 E) 2 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Learn the rules for predicting the charges of monatomic ions in ionic compounds. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: chemical formula | ionic substance MSC: general chemistry 89. Which metals form cations with varying positive charges? A) many transition metals B) Zn and Al C) Group 1 metals D) Group 1 and Group 2 metals E) Group 2 metals ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Learn the rules for predicting the charges of monatomic ions in ionic compounds. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: chemical formula | ionic substance MSC: general chemistry 90. Which of the following represents a known ion? A) S2+ B) Sc4+ C) Sn2+ D) P4– E) Na– ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.8 OBJ: Learn the rules for predicting the charges of monatomic ions in ionic compounds. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: chemical formula | ionic substance MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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91. The formula for the sulfide ion is A) SO42–. B) SO32–. C) S2O32–. D) S2–. E) HSO4–. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply the rules for naming monatomic ions. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound
REF: 2.8
MSC: general chemistry
92. The correct name for Sn2+ is A) monotin ion. B) tin(II) ion. C) tin ion. D) tin(I) ion. E) tin. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply the rules for naming monatomic ions. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance
REF: 2.8
93. The formula of the perchlorate ion is A) Cl2O3–. B) ClO2–. C) CN–. D) ClO4–. E) ClO–. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Learn the names and charges of common polyatomic ions. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 94. The name of the SO42– ion is A) persulfate. B) thiosulfite. C) sulfite. D) sulfate. E) sulfide. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Learn the names and charges of common polyatomic ions. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 95. The formulas of the nitrite, phosphate, and nitrate ions are represented, respectively, as Test Bank
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A) N3–, PO33–, NO3–. B) NO–, P5–, NO3–. C) NO2–, P3–, NO3–. D) NO3–, PO2–, N3–. E) NO2–, PO43–, NO3–. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Learn the names and charges of common polyatomic ions. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 96. The formulas of the hydroxide ion, the nitrate ion, and the phosphate ion are represented, respectively, as A) OH–, NO2–, PO33–. B) OH–, NO2–, PO43–. C) H–, NO2–, P3–. D) H–, NO3–, P3–. E) OH–, NO3–, PO43–. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Learn the names and charges of common polyatomic ions. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 97. All the following ions have the same charge except A) sulfate. B) dichromate. C) chlorate. D) sulfide. E) sulfite. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Learn the names and charges of common polyatomic ions. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 98. All the following ions have the same charge except A) oxide. B) monohydrogen phosphate. C) peroxide. D) permanganate. E) oxalate. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Learn the names and charges of common polyatomic ions. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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99. The formulas of the carbonate ion, the ammonium ion, and the chlorate ion are represented, respectively, as A) CO32–, NH2–, ClO3–. B) CO32–, NH4+, ClO3–. C) CO2–, NH4+, ClO–. D) P3–, NH3+, ClO2–. E) CO32–, NH3+, ClO2–. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Learn the names and charges of common polyatomic ions. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 100. The systematic name for BaH2 is A) barium(II) hydrate. B) barium hydride. C) barium dihydrate. D) barium dihydrogen. E) barium dihydride. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.8 OBJ: Name an ionic compound from its formula. (Example 2.4) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 101. What is the name of the compound whose formula is Al2(SO4)3? A) aluminum sulfate B) dialuminum tri(sulfur tetraoxygen) C) aluminum sulfide D) aluminum persulfate E) aluminum sulfite ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Name an ionic compound from its formula. (Example 2.4) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 102. The correct name for FeO is A) iron(I) oxide. B) iron oxide. C) iron monoxide. D) iron(II) oxide. E) iron(III) oxide. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Name an ionic compound from its formula. (Example 2.4) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
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103. What is the formula for the chloride of praseodymium(III)? A) Pr2(ClO2)3 B) Pr(ClO4)2 C) Pr3Cl D) PrCl3 E) Pr(ClO3)3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.8 OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. (Example 2.5) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 104. What is the correct formula for bismuth(III) sulfite? A) BiSO3 B) Bi2SO3 C) Bi3(SO3)2 D) Bi2(SO3)3 E) Bi(SO3)2 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. TOP: chemical formulas
REF: 2.8
105. What is the correct name for Sc2O3? A) manganese(III) oxide B) manganese oxide C) dimanganese trioxide D) manganese trioxide E) dimanganese(II) oxide ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. TOP: chemical formulas
REF: 2.8
106. What is the formula for calcium nitride? A) CaNO2 B) Ca(NO3)2 C) Ca(NO2)2 D) Ca3N2 E) Ca2N3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.8 OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. (Example 2.5) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 107. The formula of magnesium sulfide is Test Bank
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A) MgS. B) MgSO2. C) MgSO4. D) MgSO3. E) Mg(SO4)2. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. (Example 2.5) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 108. What is the formula of magnesium nitrite? A) Mg(NO2)2 B) Mg3N2 C) Mg2(NO2)2 D) Mg2N3 E) Mg(NO2)3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. (Example 2.5) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 109. The formula for aluminum bromide is A) AlB. B) AlBr. C) Al2Br3. D) AlBr2. E) AlBr3. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. (Example 2.5) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 110. The chemical formula for iron(III) sulfide is A) Fe3(SO4)2. B) Fe2S3. C) Fe3(SO3)2. D) Fe2(SO3)3. E) Fe2(SO4)3. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. (Example 2.5) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 111. The formula for aluminum sulfate is A) Al2(SO3)3. Test Bank
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B) Al2S3. C) Al2(SO4)3. D) Al3S2. E) Al3(SO4)2. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. (Example 2.5) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 112. The formula for copper(II) phosphate is A) Co3(PO4)2. B) CuPO4. C) Co2(PO4)3. D) Cu2(PO4)3. E) Cu3(PO4)2. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. (Example 2.5) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 113. Choose the name–formula pair that does not match. A) calcium fluoride, CaF2 B) iron(III) oxide, Fe2O3 C) aluminum oxide, Al2O3 D) potassium permanganate, K2MnO4 E) sodium sulfite, Na2SO3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. (Example 2.5) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 114. Choose the name–formula pair that does not match. A) calcium hydride, CaH2 B) ammonium hydrogen carbonate, NH4CO3 C) sodium chlorite, NaClO2 D) calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2 E) nitric acid, HNO3 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. (Example 2.5) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 115. The formula for aluminum fluoride is A) AlF3. B) AlF. Test Bank
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C) Al2F. D) AlF4. E) AlF2. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. (Example 2.5) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 116. The formula for potassium carbonate is A) P2C. B) K2CO3. C) Po2CO3. D) P2CO3. E) K2C. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. (Example 2.5) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 117. The formula for magnesium nitride is A) Mg2N3. B) Mg3N2. C) MgNO2. D) Mg(NO2)2. E) MgN. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. (Example 2.5) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 118. What is the subscript of potassium in the formula for potassium sulfate? A) 2 B) 5 C) 3 D) 4 E) 1 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. (Example 2.5) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 119. What is the formula for sodium peroxide? A) Na3O2 B) NaO C) Na2O Test Bank
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D) NaO2 E) Na2O2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. (Example 2.5) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 120. What is the formula for the chlorate of gadolinium(III)? A) Gd(ClO4)2 B) GdCl2 C) Gd2(ClO3)3 D) GdCl3 E) Gd(ClO3)3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.8 OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. (Example 2.5) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 121. What is the formula for the nitride of samarium(III)? A) SmN B) Sm2N3 C) Sm(NO3)2 D) Sm(NO3)3 E) Sm(NO2)3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.8 OBJ: Write the formula of an ionic compound from its name. (Example 2.5) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry 122. The correct name for LiCl is A) monolithium chloride. B) lithium chloride. C) lithium(I) chloride. D) monolithium monochloride. E) lithium monochloride. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Name a binary compound from its formula. (Example 2.6) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | ionic compound MSC: general chemistry
123. The chemical name for the model
is
A) dinitrogen tetroxide. B) nitrogen tetroxide. Test Bank
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C) nitrogen oxide. D) nitric oxide. E) nitrogen trioxide ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Name a binary molecular compound from its molecular model. (Example 2.8) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | binary molecular compound MSC: general chemistry 124. The chemical name for the binary, non-ionic molecule with the formula PBr5 is A) phosphorus pentabromide. B) monophosphorus bromide. C) phosphide pentabromide. D) phosphorus pentabromine. E) monophosphorus pentabromine. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Name a binary molecular compound from its molecular model. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance 125. The formula for chloric acid is A) HClO2. B) HClO. C) HCl. D) HClO4. E) HClO3. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Learn the approach for naming binary acids and oxoacids. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | acid MSC: general chemistry 126. Which name–formula pair is incorrect? A) HI, hydroiodic acid B) H2SO3, sulfurous acid C) H2SO4, sulfuric acid D) HClO4, perchloric acid E) HNO3, carbonic acid ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Learn the approach for naming binary acids and oxoacids. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance 127. Which name–formula pair is incorrect? A) hypochlorous acid, HClO2 B) titanium(IV) carbide, TiC Test Bank
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C) strontium nitride, Sr3N2 D) magnesium sulfate heptahydrate, MgSO4·7H2O E) dinitrogen tetroxide, N2O4 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 2.8 OBJ: Learn the approach for naming binary acids and oxoacids. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound MSC: general chemistry 128. The oxoanion that comes from nitrous acid is A) N2O3–. B) NO2–. C) HNO3–. D) NO–. E) NO3–. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.8 OBJ: Write the name and formula of an anion from the acid. (Example 2.9) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical substance KEY: nomenclature of simple compound | acid MSC: general chemistry 129. For the following balanced chemical equation, which substance represents the catalyst? 2CO(g) + 2NO(g)
2CO2(g) + N2(g)
A) NO(g) B) CO(g) C) CO2(g) D) N2(g) E) Rh(s) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.9 OBJ: Identify the reactants and products in a chemical equation. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: writing equation MSC: general chemistry 130. What is the balanced chemical equation that represents the following reaction?
A) 6H + 2N → 2NH3 B) 6H + 2N → 2HN3 C) 2N + 2H3 → 2H3N D) 6H + 2N → 2N3H E) 3H2 + N2 → 2NH3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.9 OBJ: Identify the reactants and products in a chemical equation. Test Bank
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TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation MSC: general chemistry
KEY: writing equation
131. In the following chemical equation, what is the reactant? CuSO4·5H2O(s) → CuO(s) + SO3(g) + 5H2O(l) A) CuSO4·5H2O(s) B) H2O(l) C) CuO(s) D) SO3(g) E) CuSO4(s) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.9 OBJ: Identify the reactants and products in a chemical equation. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: writing equation MSC: general chemistry 132. Which is a correct balanced chemical equation corresponding to the following description of a chemical reaction? Hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium metal to produce aqueous magnesium chloride and hydrogen gas. A) 2HCl(aq) + Mg(s) → MgCl2(aq) + 2H(g) B) 2HCl(aq) + Mg(s) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g) C) 2HCl(aq) + Mg(s) → MgCl(aq) + H2(g) D) 2HCl(aq) + Mg(aq) → MgCl2(s) + H2(g) E) HCl(aq) + Mg(s) → MgCl(aq) + H(g) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.9 OBJ: Write chemical equations using appropriate phase labels,symbols of reactions conditions, and the presence of a catalyst. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: balancing chemical equation MSC: general chemistry 133. Sulfuric acid reacts with aqueous sodium hydroxide to produce aqueous sodium sulfate and liquid water. Which is the correct balanced chemical equation for this reaction description? A) H2SO4(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na2S(aq) + 2H2O(l) + 2O2(g) B) H2S(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na2S(aq) + 2H2O(l) C) H2SO4(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaSO4(aq) + H2O(g) D) H2SO4(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + 2H2O(l) E) H2SO4(aq) + (NaOH)2(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + 2H2O(l) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.9 OBJ: Write chemical equations using appropriate phase labels,symbols of reactions conditions, and the presence of a catalyst. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical reaction 134. How many of the following statements are true concerning chemical equations? I. Coefficients can be fractions. II. Subscripts can be fractions. Test Bank
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III. Coefficients represent the relative masses of the reactants and/or products. IV. Changing the subscripts to balance an equation can be done only once. V. Atoms are conserved when balancing chemical equations. A) 3 B) 4 C) 2 D) 5 E) 1 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.10 OBJ: Master techniques for balancing chemical equations. (Example 2.12) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: balancing chemical equation MSC: general chemistry 135. When the following equation is balanced with lowest whole-number coefficients, what is the coefficient for NO(g)? ___NH3(g) + ___O2(g) → ___NO(g) + ___H2O(g) A) 3 B) 2 C) 5 D) 4 E) 1 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.10 OBJ: Master techniques for balancing chemical equations. (Example 2.12) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: balancing chemical equation MSC: general chemistry 136. The complete combustion of propane, C3H8, yields carbon dioxide and water:
The smallest whole-number coefficient of oxygen in the balanced equation is A) 6. B) 3. C) 7. D) 4. E) 5. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.10 OBJ: Master techniques for balancing chemical equations. (Example 2.12) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: balancing chemical equation MSC: general chemistry 137. The complete combustion of butane, C4H10, yields carbon dioxide and water:
The smallest whole-number coefficient of oxygen in the balanced equation is A) 12. Test Bank
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B) 14. C) 10. D) 11. E) 13. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.10 OBJ: Master techniques for balancing chemical equations. (Example 2.12) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: balancing chemical equation MSC: general chemistry 138. The products of the combustion of acetaldehyde with oxygen are shown in the following equation: __ CH3CHO + __ O2 → __ CO2 + __ H2O When properly balanced, the equation indicates that ____ molecules of O2 are required to burn 2 molecules of CH3CHO. A) 2 B) 6 C) 4 D) 3 E) 5 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.10 OBJ: Master techniques for balancing chemical equations. (Example 2.12) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: balancing chemical equation MSC: general chemistry 139. Energy from the following reaction provided the lift for the moon lander: __ (CH3)2N2H2 + __ N2O4 → __ N2 + __ H2O + __ CO2 When the equation is balanced, the smallest whole-number coefficient of nitrogen is A) 5. B) 4. C) 1. D) 3. E) 2. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 2.10 OBJ: Master techniques for balancing chemical equations. (Example 2.12) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: balancing chemical equation MSC: general chemistry 140. Treatment of sodium borohydride with sulfuric acid is a convenient method for the preparation of diborane: __ NaBH4 + __ H2SO4 → __ B2H6 + __ H2 + __Na2SO4 When the equation is balanced, the lowest whole number coefficient for hydrogen is A) 5. B) 2. Test Bank
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C) 4. D) 1. E) 3. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 2.10 OBJ: Master techniques for balancing chemical equations. (Example 2.12) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: balancing chemical equation MSC: general chemistry 141. All the following may change during a chemical reaction except A) the total volume of the system. B) the density of the system. C) the temperature of the system. D) the total number of atoms in the system. E) the total number of molecules in the system. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.10 OBJ: Master techniques for balancing chemical equations. (Example 2.12) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: balancing chemical equation MSC: general chemistry 142. The complete combustion of phenylhydrazine, C6H5NHNH2, with the oxidizer dinitrogen tetraoxide is shown in the following equation: __ C6H5NHNH2 + __ N2O4 → __ CO2 + __ H2O + __ N2 When this equation is balanced, the sum of all the coefficients (using smallest whole numbers) is A) 30. B) 20. C) 25. D) 10. E) 15. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 2.10 OBJ: Master techniques for balancing chemical equations. (Example 2.12) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: balancing chemical equation MSC: general chemistry 143. The complete combustion of pentane yields carbon dioxide and water. When the equation __ C5H12(l) + __ O2(g) → __ CO2(g) + __ H2O(l) is balanced, the ratio of the coefficient of CO2 to the coefficient of O2 is A) 8:5. B) 8:6. C) 6:5. D) 5:6. E) 5:8. ANS: E Test Bank
PTS:
1
DIF:
moderate
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 2.10 39
OBJ: Master techniques for balancing chemical equations. (Example 2.12) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: balancing chemical equation MSC: general chemistry 144. A reaction occurs between sodium carbonate and hydrochloric acid, producing sodium chloride, carbon dioxide, and water. Which is the correct set of coefficients, respectively, for the balanced reaction? A) 3 6 6 3 4 B) 8 6 5 10 5 C) 5 10 10 5 5 D) 1 2 2 1 1 E) none of these ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 2.10 OBJ: Master techniques for balancing chemical equations. (Example 2.12) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: balancing chemical equation MSC: general chemistry 145. When the equation __ (CH3)2NNH2 + __ N2O4 → __ N2 + __ H2O + __ CO2 is balanced, the sum of all the coefficients (simplest whole number) is A) 13. B) 12. C) 9. D) 10. E) 11. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 2.10 OBJ: Master techniques for balancing chemical equations. (Example 2.12) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: balancing chemical equation MSC: general chemistry 146. When the equation __ C5H6N2OS(s) + __ O2(g) → __ CO2(g) + __ H2O(l) + __ N2(g) + __ SO2(g) is balanced, the sum of all the coefficients (simplest whole number) is A) 19. B) 20. C) 24. D) 18. E) 21. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 2.10 OBJ: Master techniques for balancing chemical equations. (Example 2.12) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: balancing chemical equation MSC: general chemistry 147. Ammonia can be made by reaction of water with magnesium nitride: Test Bank
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__ Mg3N2(s) + __ H2O(l) → __ Mg(OH)2(s) + __ NH3(g) When the equation is properly balanced, the sum of the coefficients is A) 6. B) 14. C) 12. D) 9. E) 8. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 2.10 OBJ: Master techniques for balancing chemical equations. (Example 2.12) TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: balancing chemical equation MSC: general chemistry 148. Which one of the following equations is properly balanced? A) Sn + 4HNO3 → SnO2 + 4NO2 + 2H2O B) 2Na2SO4 + 3Bi(NO3)3 → Bi2(SO4)3 + 9NaNO3 C) CH3CHO + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O D) NH4NO3 → 2H2O + N2 E) Na2CO3 + 2H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O + CO2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.10 OBJ: Determine if a chemical reaction is balanced. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: balancing chemical equation MSC: general chemistry 149. Which of the following chemical equations is not balanced? A) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O B) C12H22O11 → 12C + 11H2O C) 2NH4SCN + Ba(OH)2 • 8H2O → 2NH3 + 10H2O + Ba(SCN)2 D) (NH4)2Cr2O7 → N2O + Cr2O3 + 4H2O E) 2Mg + CO2 → 2MgO + C ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 2.10 OBJ: Determine if a chemical reaction is balanced. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation KEY: balancing chemical equation MSC: general chemistry 150. Which of the following equations is not balanced? A) 2Sb2OS2 + 10O2 → 2Sb2O5 + 4SO3 B) (NH4)2Cr2O7 → N2 + 4H2O + Cr2O3 C) C12H22O11 + 12O2 → 12CO2 + 11H2O D) 2NaCl + Pb(NO3)2 → PbCl2 + 2NaNO3 E) Fe3O4 + 3CO → 3Fe + 3CO2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Determine if a chemical reaction is balanced. TOP: early atomic theory | chemical equation Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 2.10
41
KEY: balancing chemical equation
Test Bank
MSC: general chemistry
General Chemistry, 10th edition
42
Chapter 3 - Calculations with Chemical Formulas and Equations 1. The molecular formula of a particular solid is C8H6O8. Its molecular mass is A) 352 amu. B) 118 amu. C) 364 amu. D) 230 amu. E) 226 amu. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.1 OBJ: Calculate the formula mass from a formula. (Example 3.1) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: molecular mass MSC: general chemistry 2. The hydrocarbon heptane has the structural formula CH3(CH2)5CH3. What is the molecular mass of this hydrocarbon? A) 100.2 amu. B) 0.009980 amu. C) 86.17 amu. D) 0.01160 amu. E) 110.2 amu. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate the formula mass from a formula. TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance
REF: 3.1
3. A single molecule of polystryene has the repeating unit -[CH2CH(C6H5)]n-, where n is the number of repeating units. What is the value of n if the molecular mass of a single polymer chain is 1.5782 10 6 amu? A) 1.515 10 4 units. B) 1.644 10 8 units. C) 3.031 10 4 units. D) 2.047 10 4 units. E) 1.217 10 8 units. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Calculate the formula mass from a formula. TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance
REF: 3.1
4. The formula mass of aluminum oxalate, Al2(C2O4)3, is A) 140 amu. B) 318 amu. C) 283 amu. D) 213 amu. E) 185 amu. ANS: B Test Bank
PTS:
1
DIF:
easy
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 3.1 1
OBJ: Calculate the formula mass from a formula. (Example 3.1) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: formula mass MSC: general chemistry 5. The formula mass of zinc acetate trihydrate, Zn(CH3COO)2 • 3H2O, is A) 321 amu. B) 184 amu. C) 268 amu. D) 238 amu. E) 114 amu. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.1 OBJ: Calculate the formula mass from a formula. (Example 3.1) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: formula mass MSC: general chemistry 6. The fully hydrated form of sodium sulfate is the decahydrate, Na2SO4 • 10H2O. When heated the hydrated salt loses water. How many water molecules are found per formula unit in a partially dehydrated sample of sodium sulfate with a formula mass of 160.1 amu (i.e. find n for Na2SO4 • nH2O)? A) 1 waters. B) 5 waters. C) 3 waters. D) 4 waters. E) 7 waters. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Calculate the formula mass from a formula. TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance
REF: 3.1
7. What is the molecular mass of cycloheptane, C7H14? A) 13.02 amu B) 1191.19 amu C) 85.08 amu D) 98.19 amu E) 26.12 amu ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.1 OBJ: Calculate the formula mass from a formula. (Example 3.1) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: molecular mass MSC: general chemistry 8. What is the formula mass of strontium phosphate, Sr3(PO4)2? A) 357.83 amu B) 421.83 amu C) 182.59 amu D) 715.66 amu E) 452.80 amu ANS: E Test Bank
PTS:
1
DIF:
easy
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 3.1 2
OBJ: Calculate the formula mass from a formula. (Example 3.1) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: formula mass MSC: general chemistry 9. What is the molecular mass of the hydrocarbon styrene (shown in the figure)?
A) B) C) D) E)
104.1 amu. 91.1 amu. 103.1 amu. 13.0 amu. 78.1 amu.
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.1 OBJ: Calculate the formula mass from molecular models. (Example 3.2) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: molecular mass MSC: general chemistry 10. What is the molar mass of ammonium sulfite, (NH4)2SO3? A) 98 g/mol B) 116 g/mol C) 55 g/mol D) 180 g/mol E) 84 g/mol ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.2 OBJ: Understand how the molar mass is related to the formula weight of a substance. TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: formula mass MSC: general chemistry 11. What is the molar mass of zinc sulfate heptahydrate, ZnSO4 • 7H2O? A) 180. g/mol B) 288 g/mol C) 384 g/mol D) 162 g/mol E) 582 g/mol ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.2 OBJ: Understand how the molar mass is related to the formula weight of a substance. TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: formula mass MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
3
12. Plastic wrap can be made from poly(vinylidene chloride). A single poly(vinylidene chloride) strand has the general formula -(CH2CHCl)n-, where n ranges from 10,000 to 100,000. What is the molar mass of a single poly(vinylidene chloride) molecule containing 6.928 10 4 repeating units? A) 4.330 10 6 g/mol B) 2.706 10 6 g/mol C) 2.310 10 −7 g/mol D) 6.308 10 6 g/mol E) 1.585 10 −7 g/mol ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.2 OBJ: Understand how the molar mass is related to the formula weight of a substance. TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance 13. The dicarboxylic acid potassium hydrogen pthalate (shown in the figure) is used to standardize solutions of strong base. What is the molar mass of this compound?
A) 204.2 g/mol B) 192.2 g/mol C) 248.9 g/mol D) 71.08 g/mol E) 172.2 g/mol ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.2 OBJ: Understand how the molar mass is related to the formula weight of a substance. TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance 14. What is the molar mass of the solid C8H12N2O4? A) 172 g/mol B) 136 g/mol C) 200 g/mol D) 106 g/mol E) 188 g/mol ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.2 OBJ: Understand how the molar mass is related to the formula weight of a substance. TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: molecular mass MSC: general chemistry 15. A 1.067 g sample of an element contains 5.062 1021 atoms. What is the element symbol? A) I Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
4
B) Ag C) La D) Pd E) Rh ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Understand how the molar mass is related to the formula weight of a substance. TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas 16. Monodisperse polyacrylonitrile contains molecules with the general formula -(CH2CHCN)n, where n is typically greater than 10,000. Given that a sample of monodisperse polyacrilonitrile weighs 197.4 g and contains 1.046 10 20 molecules of -(CH2CHCN)n-, calculate n. A) 2.141 10 4 B) 6.026 10 7 C) 6.018 10 39 D) 6.022 10 23 E) 1.136 10 6 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 3.2 OBJ: Understand how the molar mass is related to the formula weight of a substance. TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance 17. Monodisperse polyacrylonitrile contains molecules with the general formula -(CH2CHCN)n, where n is typically greater than 10,000. Given that a sample of monodisperse polyacrylonitrile weighs 252.6 g and contains 4.443 10 19 molecules of -(CH2CHCN)n-, what is the molar mass of the polymer? A) 6.452 10 4 g/mol B) 1.816 10 8 g/mol C) 1.997 10 39 g/mol D) 6.022 10 23 g/mol E) 3.423 10 6 g/mol ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 3.2 OBJ: Understand how the molar mass is related to the formula weight of a substance. TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance 18. An atom of an element weighs 3.00 10–23 g. What is the atomic mass of this element in atomic mass units? A) 17.4 amu B) 16.5 amu C) 15.9 amu D) 18.1 amu E) 15.3 amu ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the mass of atoms and molecules. (Example 3.3) Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
5
TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 19. What is the mass in grams of one propene, C3H6, molecule? A) 6.99 10–23 g B) 2.53 1025 g C) 44.0 g D) 42.0 g E) 1.99 10–23 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the mass of atoms and molecules. (Example 3.3) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 20. What is the mass of oxygen in grams found in one molecule of the compound C7H8O4? A) 1.06 10 −22 g B) 3.86 10 21 g C) 1.34 10 −23 g D) 1.40 10 −22 g E) 156 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the mass of atoms and molecules. (Example 3.3) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance 21. Which of the following compounds contains the largest number of atoms? A) 4.0 mol of K2S B) 3.0 mol of NH3 C) 2.0 mol of H2SO4 D) 5.0 mol of HCl E) 1.0 mol of CH3COCl ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.2 OBJ: Perform calculations using the mole. TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 22. How many atoms of carbon are there in 0.51 mol of procaine, C13H20N2O2, a “pain killer” used by dentists? A) 6.6 1023 B) 4.3 1024 C) 4.0 1024 D) 6.1 1023 E) 4.6 1024 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Perform calculations using the mole. TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 3.2
6
KEY: mole | mole calculations
MSC: general chemistry
23. A sample of ammonium phosphite, (NH4)3PO3, contains 0.909 mol of hydrogen atoms. The number of moles of oxygen atoms in the sample is A) 0.227 mol. B) 0.0909 mol. C) 0.300 mol. D) 0.227 mol. E) 3.00 mol. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Perform calculations using the mole. TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance
REF: 3.2
24. A sample of gallium(III) sulfite, Ga2(SO3)3, contains 1.95 mol of sulfite ions. The number of moles of gallium(III) ions in the sample is A) 1.30 mol. B) 2.92 mol. C) 1.95 mol. D) 5.84 mol. E) 3.90 mol. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Perform calculations using the mole. TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance
REF: 3.2
25. Sorbose, C6H12O6, is used in making vitamin C. A sorbose sample containing 96.0 g of carbon atoms also contains ____ g of hydrogen atoms. A) 32.2 B) 16.1 C) 1.15 103 D) 96.0 E) 7.99 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Perform calculations using the mole. TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 26. Consider the following three samples. A. A sample containing 180 g glucose (C6H12O6) B. A sample containing 90 g glucose and 90 g fructose (C6H12O6) C. A sample containing 180 g fructose Which statement is correct? A) All three samples have the same number of hydrogen atoms. B) Both samples A and C have the same number of hydrogen atoms, but more than in sample B. C) Sample B has more hydrogen atoms than sample A or sample C. Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
7
D) Sample C has more hydrogen atoms than sample A or sample B E) Sample A has more hydrogen atoms than sample B or sample C. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 3.2 OBJ: Perform calculations using the mole. TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 27. Styrene's empirical formula is CH. What mass of styrene contains 7.89 1021 atoms of hydrogen? The molar mass of styrene is 104 g/mol. A) 0.105 g B) 0.170 g C) 1.36 g D) 0.157 g E) 0.0131 g ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Convert from moles of substance to grams of substance. (Example 3.4) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 28. What is the mass of oxygen atoms in 0.305 mol Fe(CO)5? A) 17.0 g B) 59.7 g C) 24.4 g D) 4.88 g E) 18.3 g ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Convert from moles of substance to grams of substance. (Example 3.4) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 29. What is the mass in grams of 0.699 mol of glucose, C6H12O6? A) 0.00388 g B) 67.1 g C) 126 g D) 21.0 g E) 258 g ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.2 OBJ: Convert from moles of substance to grams of substance. (Example 3.4) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 30. Which one of the following samples has the greatest mass? A) 0.39 mol of camphor, C10H16O B) 4.1 mol of ammonia, NH3 C) 9.2 mol of krypton, Kr D) 4.6 mol of iodine vapor, I2 E) 1.8 mol of formaldehyde, CH2O Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
8
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Convert from moles of substance to grams of substance. (Example 3.4) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 31. Which of the following contains the greatest mass of oxygen atoms? A) 0.6 mol CoSO4 • 7H2O B) 2.3 mol KHSO4 C) 1.2 mol K2Cr2O7 D) 2.3 mol H2O2 E) 2.3 mol Na2S2O3 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.2 OBJ: Convert from moles of substance to grams of substance. (Example 3.4) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 32. Calculate the number of moles of bromine present in 14.5 mL of Br2(l), whose density is 3.12 g/mL. A) 3.53 mol B) 0.181 mol C) 0.566 mol D) 0.091 mol E) 0.283 mol ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Convert from grams of substance to moles of substance. (Example 3.5) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 33. How many moles of hexachlorobenzene, C6Cl6, are in 4.45 g of C6Cl6? A) 0.0208 mol B) 1.27 103 mol C) 0.0618 mol D) 0.0156 mol E) 0.0322 mol ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.2 OBJ: Convert from grams of substance to moles of substance. (Example 3.5) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 34. How many moles of iron atoms are contained in 4.39 g of iron? A) 245 mol B) 0.0579 mol C) 0.0786 mol D) 0.122 mol E) 0.169 mol ANS: C Test Bank
PTS:
1
DIF:
easy
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 3.2 9
OBJ: Convert from grams of substance to moles of substance. (Example 3.5) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 35. How many moles of pentane, C5H12, are contained in a 11-g sample? A) 0.18 mol B) 0.15 mol C) 0.26 mol D) 1.4 mol E) 1.1 mol ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.2 OBJ: Convert from grams of substance to moles of substance. (Example 3.5) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 36. Sodium cyclamate, C6H11NHSO3Na, was used at one time as an artificial sweetener. C6H11NHSO3Na has a molecular mass of 201.2 g/mol. How many moles of sodium cyclamate are contained in a 67.6-g sample? A) 0.211 mol B) 0.193 mol C) 0.336 mol D) 0.307 mol E) 13,600 mol ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.2 OBJ: Convert from grams of substance to moles of substance. (Example 3.5) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 37. How many moles of silver are contained in 7.00 kg of silver? A) 64.9 mol B) 64.9 101 mol C) 64.9 10–3 mol D) 64.9 103 mol E) 64.9 10–1 mol ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.2 OBJ: Convert from grams of substance to moles of substance. (Example 3.5) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 38. A 0.0103-mol sample of urea, NH2CONH2, contains A) 6.02 1023 molecules. B) 2.48 1022 molecules. C) 4.96 1022 atoms. D) 2.48 1023 atoms. E) 1.03 1024 atoms. ANS: C Test Bank
PTS:
1
DIF:
easy
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 3.2 10
OBJ: Calculate the number of molecules in a given mass of substance. (Example 3.6) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 39. How many molecules are there in 90.0 g of butylene glycol, HO(CH2)4OH? A) 1 B) (6.02 1023)/90.0 C) 90.0 D) 90.0 (6.02 1023) E) 6.02 1023 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the number of molecules in a given mass of substance. (Example 3.6) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 40. How many molecules are there in 192 g of citric acid, C6H8O7? A) (6.02 1023) / 192 B) 192 C) 6.02 1023 D) 96.0 E) 192 (6.02 1023) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the number of molecules in a given mass of substance. (Example 3.6) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 41. In 0.358 mol of trimellitic acid, C6H3(COOH)3, there are A) 2.16 1022 molecules. B) 8.62 1024 molecules. C) 6.47 1023 oxygen atoms. D) 1.94 1024 carbon atoms. E) 3.59 1023 hydrogen atoms. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the number of molecules in a given mass of substance. (Example 3.6) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 42. How many molecules are there in 2.80 kg of hydrazine, N2H4? A) 8.75 1023 B) 5.27 1025 C) 1.88 1022 D) 2.80 1026 E) 4.65 1021 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the number of molecules in a given mass of substance. (Example 3.6) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
11
KEY: mole | mole calculations
MSC: general chemistry
43. How many molecules are there in 2.43 mg of mannose, C6H12O6, which is a sweet-tasting sugar that has a bitter aftertaste? A) 4.46 1021 B) 2.48 1021 C) 7.31 1018 D) 4.04 1024 E) 8.13 1018 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the number of molecules in a given mass of substance. (Example 3.6) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 44. How many atoms are present in 463 g of KPF6 (MM = 184.1 g/mol)? A) 2.23 1025 B) 1.51 1021 C) 2.51 1021 D) 1.13 1026 E) 1.21 1025 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the number of molecules in a given mass of substance. (Example 3.6) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 45. Styrene's empirical formula is CH. When it is heated to 200°C, it is converted into a polymer, polystyrene, which has excellent insulating properties. What mass of styrene contains 9.75 1021 molecules of styrene? The molar mass of styrene is 104 g/mol. A) 0.0162 g B) 1.68 g C) 3.24 g D) 0.210 g E) 0.130 g ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the number of molecules in a given mass of substance. (Example 3.6) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 46. In 0.500 mol of dimethylhydrazine, (CH3)2N2H2, there are A) 3.01 1024 molecules. B) 1.51 1023 atoms. C) 3.01 1022 molecules. D) 3.61 1024 atoms. E) 1.81 1024 atoms. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the number of molecules in a given mass of substance. (Example 3.6) Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
12
TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 47. Which is a reasonable mass corresponding to 1020 molecules of a substance? A) 100 g B) 100 µg C) 100 ng D) 100 mg E) 100 kg ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the number of molecules in a given mass of substance. (Example 3.6) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 48. How many aluminum atoms are there in 52 g of Al2S3? A) 4.2 1023 B) 1.6 1021 C) 2.1 1023 D) 1.1 1021 E) 6.3 1023 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the number of molecules in a given mass of substance. (Example 3.6) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 49. Which one of the following contains 2.41 1024 atoms? A) 52.0 g C2H2 B) 96.0 g O2 C) 32.0 g CH4 D) 168 g N2 E) 16.0 g He ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the number of molecules in a given mass of substance. (Example 3.6) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 50. A sample of 496 g of white phosphorus, P4, contains the same number of atoms as A) 192 g of ozone (O3). B) 56.0 g of nitrogen (N2). C) 92.0 g of sodium. D) 120 g of formaldehyde (CH2O). E) 128 g of oxygen (O2). ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the number of molecules in a given mass of substance. (Example 3.6) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
13
51. The total number of oxygen atoms in 1.76 g of CaCO3 (MM = 100.0 g/mol) is A) 2.05 1023. B) 4.24 1022. C) 3.18 1022. D) 1.75 1023. E) 5.30 1022. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the number of molecules in a given mass of substance. (Example 3.6) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 52. A sample of 336 g of ozone, O3, contains the same number of atoms as A) 336 g of oxygen (O2). B) 28.2 g of hydrogen (H2). C) 266 g of fluorine (F2). D) 189 g of aluminum (Al). E) 411 g of nickel (Ni). ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the number of molecules in a given mass of substance. (Example 3.6) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 53. Which of the following samples contains the smallest number of molecules? A) 8.00 g of TNT, C7H5N3O6 B) 8.00 g of benzene, C6H6 C) 8.00 g of glucose, C6H12O6 D) 8.00 g of naphthalene, C10H8 E) 8.00 g of formaldehyde, CH2O ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the number of molecules in a given mass of substance. (Example 3.6) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 54. Which of the following samples contains the largest number of atoms? A) 1 g N2 B) 1 g Li C) 1 g Cl2 D) 1 g P4 E) 1 g Mg ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the number of molecules in a given mass of substance. (Example 3.6) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 55. Which of the following samples contains the largest number of molecules? Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) 10. g Pb B) 10. g Cl2 C) 10. g Kr D) 10. g O2 E) 10. g S8 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.2 OBJ: Calculate the number of molecules in a given mass of substance. (Example 3.6) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 56. In 1928, 1.0 g of rhenium, Re, was isolated from 660 kg of the ore molybenite. The percent by mass of this element in the molybenite was A) 0.66 %. B) 0.15 %. C) 3.5 10–4 %. D) 6.6 10–3 %. E) 1.5 10–4 %. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.3 OBJ: Calculate the percentage composition of the elements in a compound. (Example 3.7) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: mass percentage MSC: general chemistry 57. An ore sample is found to contain 24.1 g of mercury and 50.7 g waste rock (gangue). What is the percent by mass of mercury in the ore? A) 32.2 % B) 47.4 % C) 0.322 % D) 0.474 % E) 4.74 % ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.3 OBJ: Calculate the percentage composition of the elements in a compound. (Example 3.7) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas 58. An ore sample with a mass of 68.0 g is found to contain 15.5% by mass nickel. What mass of nickel is contained in the ore? A) 10.5 g B) 81.7 g C) 1.55 g D) 84.5 g E) 546 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.3 OBJ: Calculate the percentage composition of the elements in a compound. (Example 3.7) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas 59. What is the percent by mass oxygen in (NH4)2SO3? Test Bank
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A) 41.3 % B) 20.7 % C) 54.0 % D) 42.0 % E) 1.00 % ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.3 OBJ: Calculate the percentage composition of the elements in a compound. (Example 3.7) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas 60. What is the percentage by mass of hydrogen in the insecticide Lindane, C6H6Cl6? A) 20.0 % B) 1.20 % C) 47.2 % D) 8.80 % E) 2.08 % ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.3 OBJ: Calculate the percentage composition of the elements in a compound. (Example 3.7) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas 61. The mineral leadhillite, which is essentially Pb4(SO4)(CO3)2(OH)2 (FW = 1079 g/mol), contains ____% hydrogen by mass. A) 76.81 B) 0.1868 C) 2.226 D) 17.79 E) 2.972 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.3 OBJ: Calculate the percentage composition of the elements in a compound. (Example 3.7) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: mass percentage MSC: general chemistry 62. Which of the following compounds has the highest percentage of hydrogen atoms by mass? A) CH3COOH B) C2H5OH C) CH3OH D) H2CO3 E) H2C2O4 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.3 OBJ: Calculate the percentage composition of the elements in a compound. (Example 3.7) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: mass percentage MSC: general chemistry 63. Which of the following compounds has the highest percentage of nitrogen by mass? A) (NH4)2SO3 B) NaNO3 Test Bank
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C) N2Cl4 D) NH4NO2 E) HNO3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.3 OBJ: Calculate the percentage composition of the elements in a compound. (Example 3.7) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: mass percentage MSC: general chemistry 64. Which of the following compounds has the same percentage of carbon and hydrogen by mass as cyclohexane, C6H12? A) C6H14, hexane B) C5H10, pentene C) C6H10, cyclohexene D) C6H6, benzene E) C6H12O6, glucose ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.3 OBJ: Calculate the percentage composition of the elements in a compound. (Example 3.7) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: mass percentage MSC: general chemistry 65. What is the mass percentage of carbon in the compound C6H6O2? A) 5.5 % B) 70.9 % C) 65.5 % D) 29.1 % E) 14.3 % ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.3 OBJ: Calculate the percentage composition of the elements in a compound. (Example 3.7) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: mass percentage MSC: general chemistry 66. What is the percentage by mass of hydrogen in ammonium phosphate, (NH4)3PO4? A) 8.11 % B) 4.06 % C) 52.0 % D) 40.0 % E) 3.00 % ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.3 OBJ: Calculate the percentage composition of the elements in a compound. (Example 3.7) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas 67. A crystal of the mineral troegerite, (UO2)3(AsO4)2 • 12H2O (FM = 1304 amu), contains ____% arsenic by mass. A) 15.4 B) 39.8 C) 61.0 Test Bank
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D) 26.4 E) 11.5 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.3 OBJ: Calculate the percentage composition of the elements in a compound. (Example 3.7) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: mass percentage MSC: general chemistry 68. How many grams of hydrogen atoms are present in 18.4 g of water? A) 37.1 g B) 1.02 g C) 2.06 g D) 1.96 g E) 12.3 g ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.3 OBJ: Calculate the mass of an element in a given mass of compound. (Example 3.8) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 69. How many grams of potassium are present in 21.6 g of K2Cr2O7? A) 5.74 g B) 1.105 g C) 2.87 g D) 78.2 g E) 10.8 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.3 OBJ: Calculate the mass of an element in a given mass of compound. (Example 3.8) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: mass percentage MSC: general chemistry 70. NaHCO3 is the active ingredient in baking soda. How many grams of oxygen are present in 0.67 g of NaHCO3? A) 0.024 g B) 0.128 g C) 7.98 103 g D) 0.043 g E) 0.38 g ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.3 OBJ: Calculate the mass of an element in a given mass of compound. (Example 3.8) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: mass percentage MSC: general chemistry 71. Which of the following contains the greatest mass of bromine atoms? A) 11.0 g of KBr B) 23.0 g of Br2 C) 0.076 mol of KBr D) 0.092 mol of Br2 E) 32.0 g of NaBrO3 Test Bank
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ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.3 OBJ: Calculate the mass of an element in a given mass of compound. (Example 3.8) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: mass percentage MSC: general chemistry 72. The amount of calcium in a 15.0-g sample was determined by converting the calcium to calcium oxalate, CaC2O4. The CaC2O4 weighed 12.6 g. What is the percent of calcium in the original sample? A) 10.8 % B) 26.3 % C) 14.8 % D) 33.7 % E) 84.0 % ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 3.3 OBJ: Calculate the mass of an element in a given mass of compound. (Example 3.8) TOP: stoichiometry | mass and moles of substance KEY: mole | mole calculations MSC: general chemistry 73. A compound containing only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen is subjected to elemental analysis. Upon complete combustion, a 0.1804-g sample of the compound produced 0.3051 g of CO2 and 0.1249 g of H2O. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) C3H6O3 B) C3H3O C) C4H8O3 D) C2H2O E) CH2O3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.4 OBJ: Calculate the percentage of C, H, and O from combustion data. (Example 3.9) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: elemental analysis MSC: general chemistry 74. A 3.075 g sample of a compound containing only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen is burned in an excess of dioxygen, producing 6.990 g CO2 and 2.862 g H2O. What mass of oxygen is contained in the original sample? A) 0.8472 g B) 1.167 g C) 3.915 g D) 4.129 g E) 0.2134 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.4 OBJ: Calculate the percentage of C, H, and O from combustion data. (Example 3.9) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas 75. A 4.043 g sample of a compound containing only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen is burned in an excess of dioxygen, producing 9.191 g CO2 and 3.762 g H2O. What percent by mass of oxygen is contained in the original sample? Test Bank
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A) 27.54 % B) 37.96 % C) 12.73 % D) 13.43 % E) 6.939 % ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.4 OBJ: Calculate the percentage of C, H, and O from combustion data. TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas 76. A 2.841 g sample of a hydrocarbon is burned in an excess of dioxygen, producing 7.794 g CO2 and water. What mass of hydrogen is contained in the original sample? A) 0.7140 g B) 4.953 g C) 10.64 g D) 2.826 g E) 1.421 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.4 OBJ: Calculate the percentage of C, H, and O from combustion data. (Example 3.9) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas 77. A 2.445 g sample of a hydrocarbon is burned in an excess of dioxygen, producing 6.708 g CO2 and 5.492 g H2O. What is the empirical formula of the hydrocarbon? A) CH4 B) CH2 C) C2H3 D) CH3 E) CH ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Determine the empirical formula of a binary compound. TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas
REF: 3.5
78. A 0.4647-g sample of a compound known to contain only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen was burned in dioxygen to yield 0.01962 mol of CO2 and 0.01961 mol of H2O. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) CHO B) C3H3O2 C) C2H2O D) C3H6O2 E) C6H3O2 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.4 OBJ: Calculate the percentage of C, H, and O from combustion data. (Example 3.9) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas Test Bank
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79. A sample containing only carbon, hydrogen, phosphorus, and oxygen is subjected to elemental analysis. After complete combustion, a 0.4946-g sample of the compound yields 0.7092 g of CO2, 0.4355 g of H2O, and 0.3812 g of P4O10. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) CH3PO B) C2H3PO C) C2H6P2O4 D) C3H9PO E) CH2P4O13 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 3.4 OBJ: Calculate the percentage of C, H, and O from combustion data. (Example 3.9) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: elemental analysis MSC: general chemistry 80. A sample containing only carbon, hydrogen, and silicon is subjected to elemental analysis. After complete combustion, a 0.1099-g sample of the compound yields 0.2193 g of CO2, 0.1346 g of H2O, and 0.07485 g of SiO2. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) CH3Si B) C2H4Si C) C4H12Si D) C6H12Si2 E) CH2Si ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 3.4 OBJ: Calculate the percentage of C, H, and O from combustion data. (Example 3.9) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: elemental analysis MSC: general chemistry 81. Of the following, the only empirical formula is A) C4H10. B) C4H6. C) C5H14. D) H2O2. E) O2. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define empirical formula. TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas MSC: general chemistry
REF: 3.5 KEY: empirical formula
82. Which of the following is the empirical formula for the molecule below?
A) CHO B) CH3COOH C) C2H4O2 D) CH2O Test Bank
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E) none of the above. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define empirical formula. TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas MSC: general chemistry
REF: 3.5 KEY: empirical formula
83. Analysis of a compound showed that it contained 76.0 % fluorine atoms and 24.0 % carbon atoms by mass. What is its empirical formula? A) CF2 B) C2F3 C) CF3 D) C2F5 E) CF ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the empirical formula of a binary compound from the masses of its elements. (Example 3.10) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: empirical formula MSC: general chemistry 84. A sample of an oxide of antimony (Sb) contained 39.5 g of antimony combined with 13.0 g of oxygen. What is the simplest formula for the oxide? A) SbO2 B) SbO C) Sb2O3 D) Sb2O E) Sb2O5 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the empirical formula of a binary compound from the masses of its elements. (Example 3.10) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: empirical formula MSC: general chemistry 85. Chlorine was passed over 1.30 g of heated titanium, and 4.20 g of a chloride-containing compound of Ti was obtained. What is the empirical formula of the chloride-containing compound? A) TiCl2 B) TiCl4 C) TiCl D) TiCl3 E) Ti2Cl3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the empirical formula of a binary compound from the masses of its elements. (Example 3.10) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: empirical formula MSC: general chemistry
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86. A 2.39-g sample of an oxide of chromium contains 1.48 g of chromium. Calculate the simplest formula for the compound. A) CrO5 B) Cr2O C) CrO2 D) CrO E) Cr2O3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the empirical formula of a binary compound from the masses of its elements. (Example 3.10) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: empirical formula MSC: general chemistry 87. A compound is composed of only C and H. It contains 92.26 % C. What is its empirical formula? A) C2H5 B) C2H3 C) C3H4 D) CH E) CH2 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the empirical formula from the percentage composition. (Example 3.11) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: empirical formula MSC: general chemistry 88. A compound composed of only C and F contains 17.39 % C by mass. What is its empirical formula? A) CF3 B) CF C) C2F D) CF4 E) CF2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the empirical formula from the percentage composition. (Example 3.11) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: empirical formula MSC: general chemistry 89. A hydrocarbon, subjected to elemental analysis, was found to contain 85.63 % carbon and 14.37 % hydrogen by mass. What is the empirical formula of the hydrocarbon? A) CH4 B) C2H4 C) C6H D) C10H E) CH2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the empirical formula from the percentage composition. (Example 3.11) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: empirical formula Test Bank
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MSC: general chemistry 90. A particular compound contains, by mass, 41.4 % carbon, 3.47 % hydrogen, and 55.1 % oxygen. A 0.050-mol sample of this compound weighs 5.80 g. The molecular formula of this compound is A) C3H3O3. B) C3H3O. C) CHO. D) C4H4O4. E) C5H5O5. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the empirical formula from the percentage composition. (Example 3.11) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: molecular formula MSC: general chemistry 91. What is the empirical formula of an oxide of nitrogen that contains 25.93 % nitrogen by mass? A) NO2 B) N2O C) N2O3 D) NO E) N2O5 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the empirical formula from the percentage composition. (Example 3.11) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: empirical formula MSC: general chemistry 92. The analysis of an organic compound showed that it contained 1.386 mol of C, 0.0660 mol of H, 0.924 mol of O, and 0.462 mol of N. How many nitrogen atoms are there in the empirical formula for this compound? A) 9 B) 7 C) 2 D) 4 E) 3 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the empirical formula from the percentage composition. (Example 3.11) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: empirical formula MSC: general chemistry 93. A sample containing 0.700 mol of a compound is composed of 4.21 1023 atoms of sodium, 24.79 g of chlorine atoms, and 33.57 g of oxygen atoms. The formula of the compound is A) NaClO3. B) NaClO5. C) NaClO. D) NaClO4. E) NaClO2. Test Bank
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the empirical formula from the percentage composition. (Example 3.11) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: empirical formula MSC: general chemistry 94. The analysis of an organic compound showed that it contained 0.0700 mol of C, 0.175 mol of H, and 0.0350 mol of N. Its molecular mass is 86 amu. How many atoms of carbon are there in the empirical formula for the compound, and how many are in the molecular formula? A) empirical = 2, molecular = 3 B) empirical = 2, molecular = 6 C) empirical = 2, molecular = 4 D) empirical = 5, molecular = 10 E) empirical = 3, molecular = 3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the empirical formula from the percentage composition. (Example 3.11) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: molecular formula MSC: general chemistry 95. A given hydrocarbon is burned in the presence of oxygen gas and is converted completely to water and carbon dioxide. The mole ratio of H2O to CO2 is 1.33:1.00. The hydrocarbon could be A) C2H2. B) C2H6. C) CH4. D) C3H4. E) C3H8. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the empirical formula from the percentage composition. (Example 3.11) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: empirical formula MSC: general chemistry 96. A given hydrocarbon is burned in the presence of oxygen gas and is converted completely to carbon dioxide and water. Equal numbers of moles of CO2 and H2O are produced. The hydrocarbon could be A) C3H4. B) C5H10. C) C2H3. D) CH3. E) C3H5. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the empirical formula from the percentage composition. (Example 3.11) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: empirical formula MSC: general chemistry 97. An organic compound that has the empirical formula CHO has a molecular mass of 145 amu. Its molecular formula is Test Bank
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A) C9H9O9. B) C4H4O4. C) C3H3O3. D) C5H5O5. E) C12H12O12. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.5 OBJ: Understand the relationship between the molecular mass of a substance and its empirical formula mass. TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: molecular formula MSC: general chemistry 98. A certain compound has a molar mass of 210 g/mol. Which is a possible empirical formula for this compound? A) CH2O B) CHO C) C2H2O2 D) C2HO E) C2H2O ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.5 OBJ: Understand the relationship between the molecular mass of a substance and its empirical formula mass. TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: empirical formula MSC: general chemistry 99. The empirical formula for a group of compounds is CHCl. Lindane, a powerful insecticide, is a member of this group. The molar mass of lindane is 290.8. How many atoms of carbon does a molecule of lindane contain? A) 3 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) 8 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.5 OBJ: Understand the relationship between the molecular mass of a substance and its empirical formula mass. TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: molecular formula MSC: general chemistry 100. The empirical formula of styrene is CH; its molar mass is 104.1 g/mol. What is the molecular formula of styrene? A) C6H6 B) C2H4 C) C8H8 D) C10H12 E) none of these ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.5 OBJ: Understand the relationship between the molecular mass of a substance and its Test Bank
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empirical formula mass. TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: molecular formula MSC: general chemistry 101. The empirical formula of styrene is CH. An experimental determination of the molar mass of styrene by a student yields the value of 104 g/mol. What is the molecular formula of styrene? A) C5H10 B) CH C) C8H8 D) C3H8 E) C6H9 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.5 OBJ: Understand the relationship between the molecular mass of a substance and its empirical formula mass. TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: molecular formula MSC: general chemistry 102. An organic compound has a molecular mass of 279.2 amu and contains 85.96% carbon by mass. How many carbon atoms are in each molecule of this compound? A) 16 B) 21 C) 25 D) 29 E) 20 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the molecular formula from the percentage composition and molecular mass. (Example 3.12) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: molecular formula MSC: general chemistry 103. An unknown organic compound contains 41.4 % carbon, 3.47 % hydrogen, and 55.1 % oxygen by mass. A 0.040-mol sample of this compound weighs 3.48 g. What is the molecular formula of the organic compound? A) C3H3O B) C2H2O2 C) C3H3O3 D) C7H7O7 E) CHO ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the molecular formula from the percentage composition and molecular mass. (Example 3.12) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: molecular formula MSC: general chemistry 104. A compound is composed of only C and I. It contains 5.935 % C by mass and has a molar mass of 809.44 g/mol. What is its molecular formula? Test Bank
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A) CI B) C4I6 C) C3I4 D) C2I2 E) C2I3 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the molecular formula from the percentage composition and molecular mass. (Example 3.12) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: molecular formula MSC: general chemistry 105. An organic compound has a molar mass of 171.1 g/mol and contains 11.10 % hydrogen atoms by mass. How many hydrogen atoms are in each molecule of this compound? A) 19 B) 6 C) 21 D) 28 E) 11 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the molecular formula from the percentage composition and molecular mass. (Example 3.12) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: molecular formula MSC: general chemistry 106. A compound has a molar mass of 171.6 g/mol and contains 55.94 % oxygen atoms by mass. How many oxygen atoms are in each molecule of this compound? A) 6 B) 4 C) 10 D) 2 E) 8 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the molecular formula from the percentage composition and molecular mass. (Example 3.12) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: molecular formula MSC: general chemistry 107. A compound contains 43.84 % carbon atoms, 3.65 % hydrogen atoms, and 8.68 % fluorine atoms by mass. Each molecule of this compound contains one fluorine atom. What is the total number of carbon, hydrogen, and fluorine atoms in one molecule of this compound? A) 17 B) 12 C) 9 D) 7 E) 14 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the molecular formula from the percentage composition and molecular Test Bank
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mass. (Example 3.12) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: molecular formula MSC: general chemistry 108. A molecular compound contains 92.3 % carbon and 7.7 % hydrogen by mass. If 0.432 mol of the compound weighs 22.46 g, what is its molecular formula? A) C8H8 B) C6H10 C) C4H8 D) C4H4 E) CH ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the molecular formula from the percentage composition and molecular mass. (Example 3.12) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: molecular formula MSC: general chemistry 109. Analysis of a compound containing only C and Br revealed that it contains 33.33 % C atoms by number and has a molar mass of 515.46 g/mol. What is the molecular formula of this compound? A) CBr2 B) C2Br6 C) C2Br4 D) CBr3 E) C3Br6 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the molecular formula from the percentage composition and molecular mass. (Example 3.12) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: molecular formula MSC: general chemistry 110. Complete combustion of a 0.30-mol sample of a hydrocarbon, CxHy, gives 1.20 mol of CO2 and 1.50 mol of H2O. The molecular formula of the original hydrocarbon is A) C3H8. B) C4H10. C) C8H20. D) C3H5. E) C5H7. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 3.5 OBJ: Determine the molecular formula from the percentage composition and molecular mass. (Example 3.12) TOP: stoichiometry | determining chemical formulas KEY: molecular formula MSC: general chemistry 111. A chemical reaction has the equation: 2A + B → C. Which of the following figures best illustrates a stoichiometric ratio of A and B?
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I.
II.
III.
IV.
A) I only B) III only C) II only D) Both I and IV E) IV only ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.6 OBJ: Relate the coefficients in a balanced chemical equation to the number of molecules or moles (molar interpretation). TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: molar interpretation MSC: general chemistry 112. The balanced chemical equation for the combustion of methane is: CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(g) Which of the following statements concerning this chemical equation is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
One gram of methane gas reacts with two grams of dioxygen gas, producing one gram of carbon dioxide gas and two grams of gaseous water. One mole of methane gas reacts with two moles of dioxygen gas, producing one mole of carbon dioxide gas and two moles of gaseous water. One molecule of methane gas reacts with two molecules of dioxygen gas, producing one molecule of carbon dioxide gas and two molecules of gaseous water.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 2 and 3 D) 1 and 3 E) 1,2 and 3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.6 OBJ: Relate the coefficients in a balanced chemical equation to the number of molecules or moles (molar interpretation). TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: molar interpretation MSC: general chemistry NOT: REVISED 113. Balance the following expression: __ CH3CH2COOH + __ O2 → __ CO2 + __ H2O How many moles of O2 are required for the complete combustion of 8 mol of propanoic acid? A) 5 mol B) 30 mol Test Bank
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C) 28 mol D) 37 mol E) 2 mol ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.6 OBJ: Relate the coefficients in a balanced chemical equation to the number of molecules or moles (molar interpretation). TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: molar interpretation MSC: general chemistry 114. The products of the combustion of acetone with oxygen are shown in the following equation: __ CH3COCH3 + __ O2 → __ CO2 + __ H2O When properly balanced, the equation indicates that ____ mol of CO2 are produced for each mole of CH3COCH3. A) 3 B) 5 C) 4.5 D) 8 E) 1 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.6 OBJ: Relate the coefficients in a balanced chemical equation to the number of molecules or moles (molar interpretation). TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: molar interpretation MSC: general chemistry 115. Ammonia, NH3, and oxygen can be reacted together in the presence of a catalyst to form only nitrogen monoxide and water. The number of moles of oxygen consumed for every 5.00 moles of NO produced is . A) 6.25 B) 25.0 C) 18.8 D) 3.13 E) 12.5 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 3.6 OBJ: Relate the coefficients in a balanced chemical equation to the number of molecules or moles (molar interpretation). TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: molar interpretation MSC: general chemistry 116. 2KHCO3(s) → K2CO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(l) How many moles of potassium carbonate will be produced if 454 g of potassium hydrogen carbonate are heated? A) 2.27 mol B) 3.29 mol C) 11.4 mol D) 227 mol Test Bank
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E) 4.54 mol ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.7 OBJ: Relate the quantities of reactant to the quantity of product. (Example 3.13) TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: amounts of substances MSC: general chemistry 117. Calculate the number of moles of O2 required to react with phosphorus to produce 4.76 g of P4O6. (Molar mass P4O6 = 219.9 g/mol) A) 0.0216 mol B) 0.149 mol C) 0.0649 mol D) 0.0433 mol E) 0.130 mol ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.7 OBJ: Relate the quantities of reactant to the quantity of product. (Example 3.13) TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: amounts of substances MSC: general chemistry 118. Elemental sulfur can be converted to sulfur dioxide by combustion in air. Sulfur dioxide will react with water to form sulfurous acid (see balanced equation below). SO2(g) + H2O(l) → H2SO3(l) What mass of sulfur dioxide is needed to prepare 36.86 g of H2SO3(l)? A) B) C) D) E)
28.77 g 47.23 g 0.5754 g 0.4491 g 36.86 g
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.7 OBJ: Relate the quantities of reactant to the quantity of product. (Example 3.13) TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation 119. One step in the isolation of pure rhodium metal (Rh) is the precipitation of rhodium(III) hydroxide from a solution containing rhodium(III) sulfate according to the following balanced chemical equation: Rh2(SO4)3(aq) + 6NaOH(aq) → 2Rh(OH)3(s) + 3Na2SO4(aq) If 2.40 g of rhodium(III) sulfate reacts with excess sodium hydroxide, what mass of rhodium(III) hydroxide may be produced? A) 1.50 g B) 4.80 g C) 2.40 g D) 0.374 g E) 2.99 g ANS: A Test Bank
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DIF:
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REF: 3.7 32
OBJ: Relate the quantities of reactant to the quantity of product. (Example 3.13) TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: amounts of substances MSC: general chemistry 120. Pure copper may be produced by the reaction of copper(I) sulfide with oxygen gas as follows: Cu2S(s) + O2(g) → 2Cu(s) + SO2(g) What mass of copper(I) sulfide is required in order to prepare 0.610 kg of copper metal? A) 0.610 kg B) 0.305 kg C) 0.459 kg D) 1.53 kg E) 0.764 kg ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.7 OBJ: Relate the quantities of reactant to the quantity of product. (Example 3.13) TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: amounts of substances MSC: general chemistry 121. One step in the isolation of pure rhodium metal (Rh) is the precipitation of rhodium(III) hydroxide from a solution containing rhodium(III) sulfate according to the following balanced chemical equation: Rh2(SO4)3(aq) + 6NaOH(aq) → 2Rh(OH)3(s) + 3Na2SO4(aq) What mass of sodium hydroxide is required to precipitate 74.0 g of rhodium(III) hydroxide from a solution containing excess rhodium(III) sulfate? A) 6.41 g B) 57.7 g C) 19.2 g D) 222 g E) 74.0 g ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.7 OBJ: Relate the quantities of reactant to the quantity of product. (Example 3.13) TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: amounts of substances MSC: general chemistry 122. Pure copper may be produced by the reaction of copper(I) sulfide with oxygen gas as follows: Cu2S(s) + O2(g) → 2Cu(s) + SO2(g) If 0.680 kg of copper(I) sulfide reacts with excess oxygen, what mass of copper metal may be produced? A) 0.680 kg B) 0.136 kg C) 0.271 kg D) 0.543 kg E) 1.36 kg ANS: D Test Bank
PTS:
1
DIF:
easy
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 3.7 33
OBJ: Relate the quantities of two reactants or two products. (Example 3.14) TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: amounts of substances MSC: general chemistry 123. One step in the isolation of pure rhodium metal (Rh) is the precipitation of rhodium(III) hydroxide from a solution containing rhodium(III) sulfate according to the following balanced chemical equation: Rh2(SO4)3(aq) + 6NaOH(aq) → 2Rh(OH)3(s) + 3Na2SO4(aq) If 0.620 g of rhodium(III) hydroxide is produced, what mass of sodium sulfate is also produced? A) 0.572 g B) 0.930 g C) 0.858 g D) 0.620 g E) 0.381 g ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.7 OBJ: Relate the quantities of two reactants or two products. (Example 3.14) TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: amounts of substances MSC: general chemistry 124. The balanced equation for the combustion of ethanol is 2C2H5OH(g) + 7O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(g) How many grams of dioxygen are required to burn 5.9 g of C2H5OH? A) 14 g B) 21 g C) 4.1 g D) 38 g E) 55 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.7 OBJ: Relate the quantities of two reactants or two products. (Example 3.14) TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation 125. 2Al(s) + 6HCl(aq) → 2AlCl3(aq) + 3H2(g) According to the equation above, how many grams of aluminum are needed to completely react with 3.83 mol of hydrochloric acid? A) 310 g B) 46.6 g C) 34.4 g D) 3.83 g E) 103.3 g ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.7 OBJ: Relate the quantities of two reactants or two products. (Example 3.14) TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: amounts of substances MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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126. A chemical reaction has the equation: 2A + B → C. In which case is B the limiting reactant?
A) II B) I C) III D) IV E) none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.8 OBJ: Understand how a limiting reactant or limiting reagent determines the moles of product formed during a chemical reaction and how much excess reactant remains. TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: limiting reactant MSC: general chemistry 127. Consider an initial mixture of CH4 and O2 represented in the container below:
Given the reaction CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O, which of the following represents a stoichiometric picture of the container after the reaction has gone to completion? A)
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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B)
C)
D)
E) none of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.8 OBJ: Understand how a limiting reactant or limiting reagent determines the moles of product formed during a chemical reaction and how much excess reactant remains. TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: limiting reactant MSC: general chemistry 128. Which of the following statements concerning the limiting reactant is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
The mass of the limiting reactant is the always the lowest mass of all reactant masses. The theoretical yield depends on the amount of limiting reactant. The moles of limiting reactant is always the lowest moles of all reactants.
A) 2 only B) 3 only C) 1 and 3 D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.8 OBJ: Understand how a limiting reactant or limiting reagent determines the moles of product formed during a chemical reaction and how much excess reactant remains. TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation 129. The limiting reactant is the reactant Test Bank
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A) that has the lowest coefficient in the balanced equation. B) that has the lowest molar mass. C) that is left over after the reaction has gone to completion. D) for which there is the lowest mass in grams. E) none of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 3.8 OBJ: Understand how a limiting reactant or limiting reagent determines the moles of product formed during a chemical reaction and how much excess reactant remains. TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: limiting reactant MSC: general chemistry 130. The commercial production of phosphoric acid, H3PO4, can be represented by the equation 1500 g 300 g 307 g Ca3(PO4)2 + 3SiO2 + 5C +
1180 g 5O2 +
300 g 3H2O
310 g/mol
32.0 g/mol
18.0 g/mol
60.1 g/mol 12.0 g/mol
→ 3CaSiO3 + 5CO2 + 2H3PO4
The molar mass for each reactant is shown below the reactant, and the mass of each reactant for this problem is given above. Which substance is the limiting reactant? A) H2O B) C C) O2 D) Ca3(PO4)2 E) SiO2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.8 OBJ: Calculate with a limiting reactant involving masses. (Example 3.16) TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: limiting reactant MSC: general chemistry 131. SO2 reacts with H2S as follows: 2H2S + SO2 → 3S + 2H2O When 7.50 g of H2S reacts with 12.75 g of SO2, which statement applies? A) 6.38 g of sulfur is formed. B) SO2 is the limiting reagent. C) 0.0216 mol of H2S remains. D) 10.6 g of sulfur is formed. E) 1.13 g of H2S remains. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.8 OBJ: Calculate with a limiting reactant involving masses. (Example 3.16) TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: limiting reactant MSC: general chemistry 132. A 15-g sample of lithium is reacted with 15 g of fluorine to form lithium fluoride: 2Li + F2 → 2LiF. After the reaction is complete, what will be present? A) 0.789 mol of lithium fluoride only B) 2.16 mol of lithium fluoride only C) 2.16 mol of lithium fluoride and 0.395 mol of fluorine Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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D) 0.789 mol of lithium fluoride and 1.37 mol of lithium E) none of these ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 3.8 OBJ: Calculate with a limiting reactant involving masses. (Example 3.16) TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: limiting reactant MSC: general chemistry 133. When 20.0 g C2H6 and 60.0 g O2 react to form CO2 and H2O, how many grams of water are formed? A) 14.5 g B) 58.0 g C) 18.0 g D) 20.0 g E) none of these ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.8 OBJ: Calculate with a limiting reactant involving masses. (Example 3.16) TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: limiting reactant MSC: general chemistry 134. If 48.8 g of O2 is mixed with 48.8 g of H2 and the mixture is ignited, what is the maximum mass of water that may be produced? A) 439 g B) 54.9 g C) 48.8 g D) 98 g E) 86.8 g ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.8 OBJ: Define and calculate the theoretical yield of chemical reactions. TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: limiting reactant MSC: general chemistry 135. One step in the isolation of pure rhodium metal (Rh) is the precipitation of rhodium(III) hydroxide from a solution containing rhodium(III) sulfate according to the following balanced chemical equation: Rh2(SO4)3(aq) + 6NaOH(aq) → 2Rh(OH)3(s) + 3Na2SO4(aq) What is the theoretical yield of rhodium(III) hydroxide from the reaction of 0.590 g of rhodium(III) sulfate with 0.266 g of sodium hydroxide? A) 0.341 g B) 0.266 g C) 0.184 g D) 0.856 g E) 0.368 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3.8 OBJ: Define and calculate the theoretical yield of chemical reactions. TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation KEY: limiting reactant MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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136. A 5.95-g sample of AgNO3 is reacted with BaCl2 according to the equation 2AgNO3(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → 2AgCl(s) + Ba(NO3)2(aq) to give 3.36 g of AgCl. What is the percent yield of AgCl? A) 44.6 % B) 33.5 % C) 66.9 % D) 56.5 % E) 100 % ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Determine the percentage yield of a chemical reaction. TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation
REF: 3.8 MSC: general chemistry
137. The reaction of 11.9 g of CHCl3 with excess chlorine produced 10.2 g of CCl4, carbon tetrachloride: 2CHCl3 + 2Cl2 → 2CCl4 + 2HCl What is the percent yield? A) 85.7 % B) 100 % C) 66.5 % D) 33.3 % E) 44.3 % ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Determine the percentage yield of a chemical reaction. TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation
REF: 3.8 MSC: general chemistry
138. Consider the following reaction: 2A + B → 3C + D 3.0 mol A and 2.0 mol B react to form 4.0 mol C. What is the percent yield of this reaction? A) 75 % B) 67 % C) 89 % D) 50 % E) 100 % ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Determine the percentage yield of a chemical reaction. TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation MSC: general chemistry
REF: 3.8 KEY: limiting reactant
139. Pure copper may be produced by the reaction of copper(I) sulfide with oxygen gas as follows: Cu2S(s) + O2(g) → 2Cu(s) + SO2(g) If the reaction of 0.630 kg of copper(I) sulfide with excess oxygen produces 0.190 kg of copper metal, what is the percent yield? Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) 75.5 % B) 39.9 % C) 30.2 % D) 151 % E) 37.8 % ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Determine the percentage yield of a chemical reaction. TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation MSC: general chemistry
REF: 3.8 KEY: limiting reactant
140. One step in the isolation of pure rhodium metal (Rh) is the precipitation of rhodium(III) hydroxide from a solution containing rhodium(III) sulfate according to the following balanced chemical equation: Rh2(SO4)3(aq) + 6NaOH(aq) → 2Rh(OH)3(s) + 3Na2SO4(aq) If the reaction of 0.650 g of rhodium(III) sulfate with excess sodium hydroxide produces 0.320 g of rhodium(III) hydroxide, what is the percent yield? A) 316 % B) 158 % C) 39.5 % D) 49.2 % E) 79.0 % ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Determine the percentage yield of a chemical reaction. TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation MSC: general chemistry
REF: 3.8 KEY: limiting reactant
141. Sulfur trioxide, SO3, is made from the oxidation of SO2, and the reaction is represented by the equation: 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3 A 21-g sample of SO2 gives 18 g of SO3. The percent yield of SO3 is A) 11 % B) 69 % C) 17 % D) 26 % E) 100 % ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Determine the percentage yield of a chemical reaction. TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation
.
REF: 3.8 MSC: general chemistry
142. Nitric oxide, NO, is made from the oxidation of NH3, and the reaction is represented by the equation 4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO + 6H2O An 9.1-g sample of NH3 gives 12.0 g of NO. The percent yield of NO is A) 94 % B) 46 % Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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C) 17 % D) 75 % E) 28 % ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Determine the percentage yield of a chemical reaction. TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation
REF: 3.8 MSC: general chemistry
143. Consider the fermentation reaction of glucose: C6H12O6 → 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 A 1.00-mol sample of C6H12O6 was placed in a vat with 100 g of yeast. If 67.8 g of C2H5OH was obtained, what was the percent yield of C2H5OH? A) 73.6 % B) 36.8 % C) 67.8 % D) 100 % E) none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Determine the percentage yield of a chemical reaction. TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation MSC: general chemistry
REF: 3.8 KEY: limiting reactant
144. One commercial system removes SO2 emissions from smoke at 95.0°C by the following set of balanced reactions: SO2(g) + Cl2 → SO2Cl2(g) SO2Cl2 + 2H2O → H2SO4 + 2HCl H2SO4 + Ca(OH)2 → CaSO4(s) + 2H2O Assuming the process is 95.0 % efficient, how many grams of CaSO4 may be produced from 100. g of SO2? (molar masses: SO2, 64.1 g/mol; CaSO4, 136 g/mol) A) 87.2 g B) 202 g C) 44.8 g D) 47.1 g E) 212 g ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Determine the percentage yield of a chemical reaction. TOP: stoichiometry | stoichiometry calculation MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 3.8 KEY: limiting reactant
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Chapter 4 - Chemical Reactions 1. Which of the following concerning electrolytes and nonelectrolytes is/are true? 1. 2. 3.
Some molecular substances are electrolytes. All electrolytes are ionic substances. Strong electrolytes partially ionize in solution.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 2 and 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.1 OBJ: Explain how an electrolyte makes a solution electrically conductive. TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution 2. Which of the following correctly describes one or more of the differences between a strong and weak electrolyte? A) A strong electrolyte partially ionizes in solution and a weak electrolyte completely ionizes in solution. B) Strong electrolytes are all classified as soluble ionic substances and weak electrolytes are all classified as soluble molecular substances. C) Strong electrolytes produce more ions per mole of substance in solution than weak electrolytes. D) Weak electrolytes inhibit the flow of electricity. E) Strong electrolytes are weak conductors of electricity. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Give examples of substances that are electrolytes. TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution
REF: 4.1
3. Which of the following is a nonelectrolyte in aqueous solution? A) NH4F B) NH4Cl C) NaHS D) CH4 E) Na2S ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.1 OBJ: Define nonelectrolyte and provide an example of a molecular substance that is a nonelectrolyte. TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution KEY: electrolyte | nonelectrolyte MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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4. Which of the following solutions would be expected to be the best conductor of an electric current at room temperature? A) 0.10 M Na2SO4 B) 1.0 M CH3COOH C) 0.10 M NaCl D) 0.10 M CO(NH2)2 E) 0.10 M CH3COOH ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.1 OBJ: Compare the properties of solutions that contain strong electrolytes and weak electrolytes. TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution KEY: electrolyte MSC: general chemistry 5. Which of the following solutes, dissolved in 1000 g of water, would provide the greatest number of particles? A) 0.030 mol of urea, CO(NH2)2 B) 0.030 mol of ammonium nitrate, NH4NO3 C) 0.030 mol of barium chloride, BaCl2 D) 0.030 mol of acetic acid, CH3COOH E) 0.030 mol of calcium sulfate, CaSO4 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.1 OBJ: Compare the properties of solutions that contain strong electrolytes and weak electrolytes. TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution KEY: electrolyte MSC: general chemistry 6. Which of the following aqueous solutions would be expected to be the best conductor of an electric current at room temperature? A) 0.10 M CH3COOH B) 0.10 M HCl C) 0.10 M Na2SO4 D) 0.10 M NaCl E) 0.10 M H3PO4 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.1 OBJ: Compare the properties of solutions that contain strong electrolytes and weak electrolytes. TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution KEY: electrolyte MSC: general chemistry 7. Which of the following ions is most likely to form an insoluble sulfate? A) Ca2+ B) Cl– C) K+ D) Li+ E) S2– ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Learn the solubility rules for ionic compounds. TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 4.1 KEY: solubility 2
MSC: general chemistry 8. Which of the following compounds is soluble in water? A) Ga2O3 B) Na3P C) ZnS D) Hg2Cl2 E) CdS ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Use the solubility rules. (Example 4.1) TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution
REF: 4.1
9. Which of the following compounds is insoluble in water? A) FeCO3 B) Li2CO3 C) (NH4)2CO3 D) K2CO3 E) Na2CO3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Use the solubility rules. (Example 4.1) TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.1 KEY: solubility rules
10. Which of the following compounds is insoluble in water? A) Hg2SO4 B) FeSO4 C) Li2SO4 D) (NH4)2SO4 E) Cr2(SO4)3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Use the solubility rules. (Example 4.1) TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.1 KEY: solubility rules
11. Which of the following compounds is soluble in water? A) PbCl2 B) PbBr2 C) CaSO4 D) Ca(NO3)2 E) HgBr2 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Use the solubility rules. (Example 4.1) TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 4.1
3
12. Which of the following compounds is insoluble in water? A) NH4I B) RbI C) CuCl2 D) AgI E) LiI ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Use the solubility rules. (Example 4.1) TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.1 KEY: solubility rules
13. Which of the following concerning electrolytes and the solubility rules is/are true? 1. 2. 3.
The solubility rules apply only to ionic substances. All soluble ionic compounds are considered strong electrolytes. The solubility rules apply to aqueous and non-aqueous solutions.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Use the solubility rules. TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution
REF: 4.1
14. A student is given a sample in lab that contains one of the ions listed below. After adding a few drops of AgNO3 solution to a portion of the unknown sample, the student observed a grayish precipitate. After adding a few drops of Mg(NO3)2 solution to another portion of the unknown sample, the student got a black precipitate. Based on these observations, what is the only possible ion in this student’s sample? A) Cl– B) F– C) C2H3O2– D) S2– E) SO42– ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Use the solubility rules. (Example 4.1) TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.1 KEY: solubility rules
15. Which anion will form a precipitate with Rb+? A) Cl– B) SO42– Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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C) C2H3O2– D) S2– E) none of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Use the solubility rules. (Example 4.1) TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution
REF: 4.1
16. Which anion will form a precipitate with Ca2+? A) Cl– B) SO42– C) C2H3O2– D) Br– E) none of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Use the solubility rules. (Example 4.1) TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution
REF: 4.1
17. Identify the spectator ions in the following reaction. Ca2+(aq) + 2NO3–(aq) + 2Na+(aq) + CO32–(aq) → CaCO3(s) + 2Na+(aq) + NO3–(aq) A) NO3– and CO32– B) Ca2+ and Na+ C) Ca2+ and CO32– D) Ca2+ and NO3– E) Na+ and NO3– ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.2 OBJ: From the complete ionic equation, write the net ionic equation. TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution KEY: ionic equation | net ionic equation MSC: general chemistry 18. Which of the following concerning molecular and ionic equations is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Molecular equations cannot be written for reactions involving ionic substances. Charge must be balanced in a properly balanced net ionic reaction. In a balanced complete ionic reaction only the strong electrolytes are shown as the individual aqueous ions.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 2 and 3 ANS: E Test Bank
PTS:
1
DIF:
easy
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 4.2 5
OBJ: From the complete ionic equation, write the net ionic equation. TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution 19. Which of the following would not be depicted as the individual ions on the reactant side of a complete ionic reaction? A) RbOH B) HBr C) Cu(NO3)2 D) CuCO3 E) Ti(NO3)3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.2 OBJ: From the complete ionic equation, write the net ionic equation. TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution 20. Which of the following would not be depicted as the individual ions on the reactant side of a complete ionic reaction? A) LiOH B) HCl C) ZnBr2 D) CH3COOH E) FeI3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.2 OBJ: From the complete ionic equation, write the net ionic equation. TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution 21. Identify the spectator ion(s) in the following reaction. Cu(OH)2(s) + 2H+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) → Cu2+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) + 2H2O(l) A) Cu2+ and Cl– B) Cu2+ C) Cu(OH)2 D) Cl– E) H+ and Cl– ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.2 OBJ: From the complete ionic equation, write the net ionic equation. TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution KEY: ionic equation | net ionic equation MSC: general chemistry 22. Identify the spectator ion(s) in the following reaction. Zn(OH)2(s) + 2K+(aq) + 2OH–(aq) → 2K+(aq) + Zn(OH)4–(aq) A) K+ and Zn(OH)42– B) K+ C) Zn(OH)2 Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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D) Zn(OH)42– E) K+ and OH– ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.2 OBJ: From the complete ionic equation, write the net ionic equation. TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution KEY: ionic equation | net ionic equation MSC: general chemistry 23. What precipitate forms when aqueous solutions of calcium bromide and potassium phosphate are mixed? A) (KBr)2(s) B) Ca3(PO4)2(s) C) CaPO4–(s) D) KBr(s) E) CaPO4(s) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Write net ionic equations. (Example 4.2) TOP: chemical reactions | ions in aqueous solution
REF: 4.2
24. Which equation best represents the net ionic equation for the reaction that occurs when aqueous solutions of potassium phosphate and iron(II) nitrate are mixed? A) 3Fe2+(aq) + 2PO43–(aq) → Fe3(PO4)2(s) B) 2K+(aq) + Fe(NO3)2(aq) → 2KNO3(aq) + Fe2+(aq) C) 3Fe2+(aq) + 2PO43–(aq) → Fe3(PO4)2(aq) D) 2K3PO4(aq) + 3Fe2+(aq) → Fe3(PO4)2(s) + (K+)6(aq) E) 2K3PO4(aq) + 3Fe(NO3)2(aq) → Fe3(PO4)2(s) + 6KNO3(aq) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Write net ionic equations. (Example 4.2) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions
REF: 4.2
25. Which net ionic equation best represents the reaction that occurs when an aqueous solution of lithium nitrate is mixed with an aqueous solution of ammonium bromide? A) Li+(aq) + Br–(aq) → LiBr(s) B) NH4+(aq) + NO3–(aq) → NH4NO3(aq) C) NH4Br(aq) + LiNO3(aq) → LiBr(s) + NH4NO3(aq) D) No net reaction occurs. E) Li+(aq) + NH4Br(aq) → LiBr(s) + NH4+(aq) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.2 OBJ: Write net ionic equations. (Example 4.2) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: precipitation reaction MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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26. A precipitate is expected when an aqueous solution of potassium iodide is added to an aqueous solution of A) calcium nitrate. B) barium hydroxide. C) lead perchlorate. D) iron(II) chloride. E) sodium sulfate. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.3 OBJ: Recognize precipitation (exchange) reactions. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: precipitation reaction MSC: general chemistry 27. Which of the following concerning precipitation reactions is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
A precipitation reaction is a type of chemical reaction that forms a gaseous product (such as CO2). A precipitation reaction is possible when two or more aqueous solutions of strong or weak electrolytes are mixed. Only ionic compounds will react to form precipitates in a precipitation reactions.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Recognize precipitation (exchange) reactions. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions
REF: 4.3
28. Which of the following combinations will produce a precipitate? 1. 2. 3.
AgNO3(aq) and HCl(aq) HCl(aq) and Na2CO3(aq) NaOH(aq) and K3PO4(aq)
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Recognize precipitation (exchange) reactions. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions
REF: 4.3
29. Which of the following are classified as precipitation reactions? Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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1. 2. 3.
AgNO3(aq) + HCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + HNO3(aq) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s) Zn(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → 2Ag(s) + Zn2+(aq)
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Recognize precipitation (exchange) reactions. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions
REF: 4.3
30. A precipitate will form when a freshly prepared aqueous carbonic acid solution is added to an aqueous solution of A) potassium carbonate. B) ammonium chloride. C) nitrous acid. D) calcium hydroxide. E) sodium chloride. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.3 OBJ: Recognize precipitation (exchange) reactions. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: precipitation reaction MSC: general chemistry 31. When a solution of lithium chloride and a solution of ammonium sulfate are mixed, A) a new salt is formed. B) no reaction occurs. C) a precipitate forms. D) an acid and a base are formed. E) a gas is evolved. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 4.3 OBJ: Recognize precipitation (exchange) reactions. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: precipitation reaction MSC: general chemistry 32. When solutions of barium chloride and lithium sulfate are mixed, the spectator ions in the resulting reaction are A) only SO42–. B) both Li+ and Cl–. C) only Cl–. D) only Li+. E) only Ba2+. ANS: B Test Bank
PTS:
1
DIF:
easy
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 4.3 9
OBJ: Write molecular, complete ionic, and net ionic equations for precipitation reactions. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: precipitation reaction MSC: general chemistry 33. Aqueous solutions of sodium sulfide and copper(II) chloride are mixed together. Which statement is correct? A) CuS will precipitate from solution. B) NaCl will precipitate from solution. C) No precipitate will form. D) Both NaCl and CuS will precipitate from solution. E) No reaction will occur. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.3 OBJ: Decide whether a precipitation reaction will occur. (Example 4.3) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: precipitation reaction MSC: general chemistry 34. Which net ionic equation best represents the reaction that occurs when an aqueous solution of barium chloride is mixed with an aqueous solution of lithium sulfate? A) 2H+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) → 2HCl(g) B) Ba2+(aq) + SO42–(aq) → BaSO4(s) C) Ba2+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) + 2Li+(aq) + SO42–(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2LiCl(aq) D) BaCl2(aq) + Li2SO4(aq)→ BaSO4(s)+ 2LiCl(aq) E) No net reaction occurs. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.3 OBJ: Decide whether a precipitation reaction will occur. (Example 4.3) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: precipitation reaction MSC: general chemistry 35. What products result from mixing aqueous solutions of Ni(NO3)2(aq) and NaNO3(aq)? A) Ni(OH)2(s), Na+(aq), and NO3−(aq) B) Ni(OH)2(s) and NaNO3(s) C) Ni2(OH)2(aq) and NaNO3(aq) D) Ni(OH)2(aq) and NaNO3(s) E) Ni(OH)2(s), N2(g), and H2O(l) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Determine the product of a precipitation reaction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions
REF: 4.3
36. What products result from mixing aqueous solutions of Cu(C2H3O2)2(aq) and Rb3PO4(aq)? A) Cu2PO4(s) and Rb3(C2H3O2)2(aq) B) Cu3(PO4)2(s) and RbC2H3O2(s) C) CuP(s), CO2(g), H2O(l), RbOH(aq), and PH3(g). D) CuPO4(s) and Rb3(C2H3O2)2(aq) Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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E) Cu3(PO4)2(s), Rb+(aq), and C2H3O2−(aq) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Determine the product of a precipitation reaction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions
REF: 4.3
37. Which of the following is not an Arrhenius base? A) NH3 B) KOH C) Ba(OH)2 D) Ca(OH)2 E) all are Arrhenius bases ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.4 OBJ: Define Arrhenius acid and Arrhenius base. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | base definition MSC: general chemistry 38. Which of the following may be classified as an acid-base reaction? 1. 2. 3.
AgNO3(aq) + HCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + HNO3(aq) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s) Zn(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → 2Ag(s) + Zn2+(aq)
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 E) none ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define Arrhenius acid and Arrhenius base. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions
REF: 4.4
39. Which of the following combinations will result in an acid-base reaction? 1. 2. 3.
AgNO3(aq) and HCl(aq) HCl(aq) and Na2CO3(aq) NaOH(aq) and K3PO4(aq)
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 E) none ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define Arrhenius acid and Arrhenius base. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 4.4
11
40. Which of the following concerning acid-base reactions is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Only strong acids and strong bases will undergo an acid-base reaction. All acid-base reactions produce water and an ionic compound (salt) as a product. All reactions that form a gas are also acid-base reactions.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 E) none ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define Arrhenius acid and Arrhenius base. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions
REF: 4.4
41. Which of the following reactions best describes the dissolution of solid KOH(s) in water? A) KOH(s) + H2O(l) → KO–(aq) + H3O+(aq) B) KOH(s) → KO–(aq) + H+(aq) C) KOH(s) → K+(aq) + OH–(aq) D) KOH(s) → KO+(aq) + H–(aq) E) KOH(s) → KOH(aq) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write the chemical equation of a Arrhenius base in aqueous solution. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | strong base MSC: general chemistry 42. Which of the following chemical equations best represents the dissolution of a soluble group 2A metal hydroxide in water? A) M(OH)2(s) → M+(aq) + (OH)2–(aq) B) M(OH)2(s) → M2+(aq) + 2OH–(aq) C) M(OH)2(s) + H2O(l) → MO(aq) + OH–(aq) + H3O+(aq) D) M(OH)2(s) → M(OH)2(aq) E) M(OH)2(s) → MO(aq) + H2O(l) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write the chemical equation of a Arrhenius base in aqueous solution. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions 43. Which of the following reactions best describes the acid–base properties of ammonia (NH3) in aqueous solution? A) NH3(aq) + 3H2O(l) → N3–(aq) + 3H3O+(aq) B) NH3(aq) → N3–(aq) + 3H+(aq) C) NH3(aq) + H2O(l) NH4+(aq) + OH–(aq) Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
12
D) NH3(aq) + H2O(l) → NH4+(aq) + OH–(aq) E) NH3(aq) + 3H2O(l) N3–(aq) + 3H3O+(aq) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write the chemical equation of a Brønsted-Lowry base in aqueous solution. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | weak base MSC: general chemistry 44. Which of the following reactions best describes the dissolution of gaseous hydrogen chloride (HCl) in water? A) HCl(g) + 2H2O(l) → H3O+(aq) + ClO–(aq) + H2(g) B) 2HCl(g) → H2(g) + Cl2(g) C) HCl(g) + H2O(l) → H3O+(aq) + Cl–(aq) D) HCl(g) + 5H2O(l) → H3O+(aq) + ClO4–(aq) + 4H2(g) E) HCl(g) + H2O(l) → H3O+(aq) + ClO–(aq) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write the chemical equation of an acid in aqueous solution using a hydronium ion. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | strong acid MSC: general chemistry 45. Which of the following reactions best describes the acid–base properties of acetic acid (HC2H3O2) in aqueous solution? A) HC2H3O2(aq) + H2O(l) → H3O+(aq) + C2H3O2–(aq) B) HC2H3O2(aq) + H2O(l) → C2H5O2+(aq) + OH–(aq) C) HC2H3O2(aq) + H2O(l) C2H5O2+(aq) + OH–(aq) D) HC2H3O2(aq) + H2O(l) H3O+(aq) + C2H3O2–(aq) E) HC2H3O2(aq) + 4H2O(l) 4H3O+(aq) + C2O24–(aq) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write the chemical equation of an acid in aqueous solution using a hydronium ion. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | weak acid MSC: general chemistry 46. Which of the following is not a strong acid in aqueous solution? A) HBr B) HClO4 C) HF D) HI E) HCl ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.4 OBJ: Learn the common strong acids and strong bases. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | strong acid MSC: general chemistry 47. Which of the following is a weak base in aqueous solution? Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) HOCH2CH2OH B) Ba(OH)2 C) CH3COOH D) NH3 E) HI ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Learn the common strong acids and strong bases. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions
REF: 4.4
48. Which of the following is a strong base in aqueous solution? A) HOCH2CH2OH B) Ba(OH)2 C) H3PO4 D) NH3 E) HI ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Learn the common strong acids and strong bases. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions
REF: 4.4
49. Which of the following is a strong acid in aqueous solution? A) HOCH2CH2OH B) Ba(OH)2 C) CH3COOH D) NH3 E) HClO4 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Learn the common strong acids and strong bases. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions
REF: 4.4
50. All the following are strong acids in aqueous solution except A) HCl. B) HF. C) HI. D) HBr. E) H2SO4. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.4 OBJ: Learn the common strong acids and strong bases. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | strong acid MSC: general chemistry 51. Which of the following is a strong acid in aqueous solution? A) H3PO3 Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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B) H3PO4 C) H2CO3 D) H2SO3 E) H2SO4 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.4 OBJ: Learn the common strong acids and strong bases. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | strong acid MSC: general chemistry 52. Which of the following is not a strong base in aqueous solution? A) Sr(OH)2 B) Ca(OH)2 C) KOH D) LiOH E) NH3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.4 OBJ: Learn the common strong acids and strong bases. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | strong base MSC: general chemistry 53. Which of the following is a strong base in aqueous solution? A) LiCl B) CH3OH C) LiOH D) NH3 E) HClO4 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.4 OBJ: Learn the common strong acids and strong bases. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | strong base MSC: general chemistry 54. Which of the following is a strong electrolyte in aqueous solution? A) tartaric acid B) ascorbic acid C) hypochlorous acid D) citric acid E) hydroiodic acid ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Distinguish between a strong acid and a weak acid and the solutions they form. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | strong acid MSC: general chemistry 55. All of the following are weak electrolytes in aqueous solution except A) acetic acid. B) tartaric acid. Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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C) nitric acid. D) citric acid. E) nitrous acid. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Distinguish between a strong acid and a weak acid and the solutions they form. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | strong acid MSC: general chemistry 56. Which of the following is a weak electrolyte in aqueous solution? A) HClO4 B) H2SO4 C) H3PO4 D) HNO3 E) HI ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Distinguish between a strong acid and a weak acid and the solutions they form. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | weak acid MSC: general chemistry 57. Which of the following is a weak electrolyte in aqueous solution? A) Mg(OH)2 B) NH3 C) LiOH D) RbOH E) Sr(OH)2 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.4 OBJ: Distinguish between a strong base and a weak base and the solutions they form. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | weak base MSC: general chemistry 58. Which of the following is a weak acid in aqueous solution? A) HCl B) H2SO4 C) H2S D) HNO3 E) HI ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.4 OBJ: Classify acids and bases as strong or weak. (Example 4.4) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | weak acid MSC: general chemistry 59. Which of the following is a weak base in aqueous solution? A) HOCl B) LiOH C) NH3 Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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D) HBr E) Ba(OH)2 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.4 OBJ: Classify acids and bases as strong or weak. (Example 4.4) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | weak base MSC: general chemistry 60. Which of the following is a weak base in aqueous solution? A) H2CO3 B) Ba(OH)2 C) B(OH)3 D) LiOH E) N2H4 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.4 OBJ: Classify acids and bases as strong or weak. (Example 4.4) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | weak base MSC: general chemistry 61. Which of the following is a weak acid in aqueous solution? A) HClO4 B) HCl C) H2SO4 D) HNO3 E) H2SO3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.4 OBJ: Classify acids and bases as strong or weak. (Example 4.4) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | weak acid MSC: general chemistry 62. Which of the following is a strong acid in aqueous solution? A) HClO B) H3PO4 C) HBr D) HNO2 E) H3PO3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.4 OBJ: Classify acids and bases as strong or weak. (Example 4.4) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | strong acid MSC: general chemistry 63. Which of the following is best described as an acid–base reaction? A) HNO3(aq) + NH3(aq) → NH4+(aq) + NO3–(aq) B) P4(s) + 3OH–(aq) + 3H3O(l) → PH3(g) + 3H2PO2–(aq) C) Cu(s) + H2S(g) → CuS(s) + H2(g) D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l) Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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E) 2KClO3(aq) → 2KCl(s) + 3O2(g) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Recognize neutralization reactions. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | neutralization reaction
REF: 4.4
MSC: general chemistry
64. What is the net ionic equation for the acid–base reaction that occurs when acetic acid and sodium hydroxide solutions are mixed? A) HC2H3O2(aq) + OH–(aq) → C2H3O2–(aq) + H2O(l) B) H+(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l) C) H3O+(aq) + OH–(aq) → 2H2O(l) D) C2H3O2–(aq) + H+(aq) + Na+(aq) + OH–(aq) → Na+(aq) + C2H3O2–(aq) + H2O(l) E) HC2H3O2(aq) + NaOH–(aq) → NaC2H3O2–(aq) + H2O(l) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write an equation for a neutralization reaction. (Example 4.5) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | neutralization reaction MSC: general chemistry 65. What is the net ionic equation for the reaction of acetic acid, CH3COOH, with NH3? A) CH3COOH(aq) + NH3(aq) → NH4+(aq) + CH3COO–(aq) B) H+(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l) C) CH3COOH(aq) + NH3(aq) → NH4CH3COO(aq) D) CH3COO–(aq) + H+(aq) + NH3(aq) → NH4CH3COO(aq) E) H+(aq) + NH3(aq) → NH4+(aq) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write an equation for a neutralization reaction. (Example 4.5) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | neutralization reaction MSC: general chemistry 66. What is the net ionic equation for the reaction of NH3 with HClO4? A) NH3(aq) + H+(aq) → NH4+(aq) B) NH3(aq) + HClO4(aq) → NH4ClO4(aq) C) NH3(aq) + ClO4–(aq) → NH2–(aq) + HClO4(aq) D) H–(aq) + H+(aq) → H2(g) E) H+(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write an equation for a neutralization reaction. (Example 4.5) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | neutralization reaction MSC: general chemistry 67. What is the net ionic equation for the acid–base reaction between chlorous acid and sodium hydroxide? A) H+(aq) + ClO2–(aq) + Na+(aq) + OH-(aq) → NaClO2(aq) + H2O(l) B) HClO2(aq) + OH–(aq) → ClO2–(aq) + H2O(l) Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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C) HClO2(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaClO2(aq) + H2O(l) D) H+(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l) E) H+(aq) + ClO2–(aq) + Na+(aq) + OH–(aq) → Na+(aq) + ClO2–(aq) + H2O(l) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write an equation for a neutralization reaction. (Example 4.5) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | neutralization reaction MSC: general chemistry 68. What is the net ionic equation for the acid–base reaction that occurs when an excess of a potassium hydroxide solution is added to a solution of H2SeO3? A) H2SeO3(aq) + 2OH–(aq) → 2H2O(l) + SeO32–(aq) B) H+(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l) C) 2H+(aq) + 2OH–(aq) → 2H2O(l) D) 2H+(aq) + SeO32–(aq) + 2K+(aq) + 2OH–(aq) → 2K+(aq) + SeO32–(aq) + 2H2O(l) E) H2SeO3(aq) + 2KOH(aq) → K2SeO3(aq) + 2H2O(l) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write an equation for a neutralization reaction. (Example 4.5) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | neutralization reaction MSC: general chemistry 69. Which of the following salts may be obtained by the reaction of a weak acid with a strong base? A) LiClO4 B) NaCl C) K2SO3 D) MgCl2 E) NH4F ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write an equation for a neutralization reaction. (Example 4.5) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | neutralization reaction MSC: general chemistry 70. What is the net ionic equation for the complete neutralization of the triprotic acid citric acid, H3C6H5O6, by a strong base? A) H3C6H5O6(aq) + 3OH–(aq) → 3H2O(l) + C6H5O63–(aq) B) H3C6H5O6(aq) + 3NaOH(aq) → 3H2O(l) + Na3C6H5O6(aq) C) H+(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l) D) H3C6H5O6(aq) + NaOH(aq) → H2O(l) + NaH2C6H5O6(aq) E) 3H+(aq) + 3OH–(aq) → 3H2O(l) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write an equation for a neutralization reaction. (Example 4.5) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | neutralization reaction MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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71. Which of the following salts cannot be obtained by the neutralization of a strong acid and a strong base? A) NaCl B) LiNO3 C) NH4Br D) Ba(ClO4)2 E) Na2SO4 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write an equation for a neutralization reaction. (Example 4.5) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | neutralization reaction MSC: general chemistry 72. What is the net ionic equation for the complete neutralization of phosphoric acid with potassium hydroxide? A) H3PO4(aq) + 3OH–(aq) → 3H2O(l) + PO43–(aq) B) H3P(aq) + 3KOH(aq) → 3H2O(l) + K3P(aq) C) H+(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l) D) H3PO4(aq) + 3KOH(aq) → 3H2O(l) + K3PO4(aq) E) 3H+(aq) + 3KOH(aq) → 3H2O(l) + 3K+(aq) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write an equation for a neutralization reaction. (Example 4.5) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | neutralization reaction MSC: general chemistry 73. What is the net ionic equation for the neutralization of hydrofluoric acid with sodium hydroxide? A) H+(aq) + NaOH(aq) → H2O(l) + Na+(aq) B) HF(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l) + F–(aq) C) HF(aq) + NaOH(aq) → H2O(l) + NaF(aq) D) H+(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l) E) HF(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2F+(aq) + O2–(aq) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write an equation for a neutralization reaction. (Example 4.5) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | neutralization reaction MSC: general chemistry 74. What is the net ionic equation for the reaction of hydrobromic acid with sodium hydroxide? A) H+(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l) B) H+(aq) + Br–(aq) + Na+(aq) + OH–(aq) → NaBr(aq) + H2O(l) C) H+(aq) + Br–(aq) + Na+(aq) + OH–(aq) → HBr(aq) + NaOH(aq) D) HBr(aq) + Na+(aq) + OH–(aq) → NaBr(aq) + H2O(l) E) HBr(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaBr(aq) + H2O(l) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write an equation for a neutralization reaction. (Example 4.5) Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | neutralization reaction
MSC: general chemistry
75. The net ionic equation for the reaction between aqueous ammonia and hydrobromic acid is A) HBr(aq) + NH3(aq) → NH4Br(aq). B) H+(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l). C) HBr(aq) + OH–(aq) → Br–(aq) + H2O(l). D) H+(aq) + NH3(aq) → NH4+(aq). E) H+(aq) + Br–(aq) + NH3(aq) → NH4+(aq) + Br–(aq). ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write an equation for a neutralization reaction. (Example 4.5) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | neutralization reaction MSC: general chemistry 76. Which of the following best represents the molecular equation for the reaction of aqueous ammonia with sulfuric acid? A) 2NH3(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → (NH4)2SO4(aq) B) NH3(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → NH4SO4(aq) C) NH4OH(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → NH4SO4(aq) + H2O(l) D) 2NH4+(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → (NH4)2SO4(aq) + 2H+(aq) E) 2NH4+(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → (NH4)2SO4(aq) + H2(g) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write an equation for a neutralization reaction. (Example 4.5) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | neutralization reaction MSC: general chemistry 77. The net ionic equation for the reaction of nitrous acid with lithium hydroxide is A) H+(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l). B) HNO2(aq) + OH–(aq) → NO2–(aq) + H2O(l). C) HNO3(aq) + LiOH(aq) → LiNO3(aq) + H2O(l). D) HNO3(aq) + LiOH(aq) → Li+(aq) + NO3–(aq) + H2O(l). E) H+(aq) + NO2–(aq) + Li+(aq) + OH–(aq) → Li+(aq) + NO2–(aq) + H2O(l). ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write an equation for a neutralization reaction. (Example 4.5) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | neutralization reaction MSC: general chemistry 78. What is the net ionic equation for the reaction that occurs between nitrous acid and strontium hydroxide? A) HNO2(aq) + OH–(aq) → NO2–(aq) + H2O(l) B) 2HNO2(aq) + Sr(OH)2 → Sr(NO2)2(aq) + H2O(l) C) 2H+(aq) + 2NO2–(aq) + Sr2+(aq) + 2OH–(aq) → Sr(NO2)2(aq) + H2O(l) D) 2H+(aq) + 2NO2–(aq) + Sr2+(aq) + 2OH–(aq) → Sr2+(aq) + 2NO2–(aq) + 2H2O(l) E) H+(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l) Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write an equation for a neutralization reaction. (Example 4.5) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | neutralization reaction MSC: general chemistry 79. In the reaction of acetic acid with aqueous sodium hydroxide, what is the spectator ion? A) OH–(aq) B) There is no spectator ion. C) C2H3O2–(aq) D) Na+(aq) E) H+(aq) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write an equation for a neutralization reaction. (Example 4.5) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction | neutralization reaction MSC: general chemistry 80. The balanced net ionic equation for the reaction of magnesium sulfite with nitric acid is A) MgSO3(s) + 2H+(aq) → Mg2+(aq) + SO2(g) + H2O(l). B) Mg2+(aq) + CO32–(aq) + 2H+(aq) + 2NO3–(aq) → Mg(NO3)2(aq) + SO2(g) + H2O(l). C) MgSO3(s) + 2HNO2(aq) → Mg2+(aq) + 2NO2–(aq) + SO2(g) + H2O(l). D) Mg(HSO3)2(s) + 2HNO3(aq) → Mg2+(aq) + 2NO3–(aq) + SO2(g) + 2H2O(l). E) MgSO3(s) + 2HNO3(aq) → Mg2+(aq) + 2NO3–(aq) + SO2(g) + H2O(l). ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.4 OBJ: Write an equation for a reaction with gas formation. (Example 4.6) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: acid-base reaction MSC: general chemistry 81. Which of the following concerning oxidation-reduction reactions is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Oxidation-reduction reactions always form gaseous products. At least one substance is oxidized and one substance is reduced in an oxidation-reduction reaction. The species that is oxidized loses one or more electrons in an oxidationreduction reaction.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 2 and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Define an oxidation-reduction reaction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 4.5
22
82. Which of the following is an oxidation–reduction reaction? A) PbCO3(s) + 2HNO3(aq) → Pb(NO3)2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l) B) Na2O(s) + H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) C) SO3(g) + H2O(l) → H2SO4(aq) D) CO2(g) + H2O(l) → H2CO3(aq) E) C2H4(g) + H2(g) → C2H6(g) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.5 OBJ: Define an oxidation-reduction reaction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 83. All the following are oxidation–reduction reactions except A) H2(g) + F2(g) → 2HF(g). B) Ca(s) + H2(g) → CaH2(s). C) 2K(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2KOH(aq) + H2(g). D) 6Li(s) + N2(g) → 2Li3N(s). E) Mg3N2(s) + 6H2O(l) → 3Mg(OH)2(s) + 2NH3(g). ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.5 OBJ: Define an oxidation-reduction reaction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 84. Which of the following chemical reactions is an oxidation–reduction reaction? A) Zn(s) + S(s) → ZnS(s) B) H2SO4(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + 2H2O(l) C) NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) D) AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq) E) CO2(aq) + H2O(aq) → H2CO3(aq) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.5 OBJ: Define an oxidation-reduction reaction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 85. Which one of the following is necessary in order for a metal to be oxidized? A) addition of electrons B) removal of electrons C) addition of oxygen D) removal of oxygen E) addition of hydrogen ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.5 OBJ: Define an oxidation-reduction reaction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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86. Which of the following reactions is an oxidation–reduction reaction? A) CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g) B) NH4NO3(aq) → N2O(g) + 2H2O(l) C) AgNO3(aq) + KI(aq) → AgI(s) + KNO3(aq) D) CaO(s) + SO3(g) → CaSO4(s) E) H2SO4(aq) + 2NaOH(s) → Na2SO4(aq) + 2H2O(l) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.5 OBJ: Define an oxidation-reduction reaction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 87. Which of the following chemical reactions is an oxidation–reduction reaction? A) Mg(s) + CO2(g) → MgO(s) + CO(g) B) H2SO4(aq) + Ba(OH)2(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2H2O(l) C) Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2HCl(aq) → PbCl2(s) + 2HNO3(aq) D) CO2(aq) + H2O(l) → H2CO3(aq) E) NH3(g) + HCl(g) → NH4Cl(s) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.5 OBJ: Define an oxidation-reduction reaction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 88. Which of the following is best described as an oxidation–reduction reaction? A) SO2(g) + H2O(l) → H2SO3(aq) B) 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g) C) 3O2(g) → 2O3(g) D) 2NO2(g) → N2O4(g) E) SO2(g) + O2(g) → SO3(g) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 4.5 OBJ: Define an oxidation-reduction reaction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 89. Which of the following reactions involves neither oxidation nor reduction? A) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) B) NH4NO2(s) → N2(g) + 2H2O(l) C) Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Cu2+(aq) + 2Ag(s) D) 2CrO42–(aq) + 2H+(aq) → Cr2O72–(aq) + H2O(l) E) C2H4(g) + H2(g) → C2H6(g) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.5 OBJ: Define an oxidation-reduction reaction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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90. Which of the following conversions is not an oxidation–reduction reaction? A) conversion of Mn2O3 to MnO2 B) conversion of K to KCl C) conversion of NaBr to Br2 D) conversion of CaCO3 to CaO E) conversion of VO2+ to VO2+ ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.5 OBJ: Define an oxidation-reduction reaction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 91. All the following species can be reduced except A) ClO2. B) F–. C) NO3–. D) H+. E) Fe3+. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.5 OBJ: Learn the oxidation-number rules. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 92. Which of the following species cannot function as an oxidizing agent? A) S B) Br– C) H+ D) MnO4– E) Mn2+ ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.5 OBJ: Learn the oxidation-number rules. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 93. What is the oxidation number of each O in BaFeO4? A) +6 B) +2 C) -2 D) +3 E) 0 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Learn the oxidation-number rules. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions
REF: 4.5
94. Which of the following species cannot function as an oxidizing agent? Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) Co3+ B) O2 C) Cr2O72– D) MnO4– E) O2– ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Assign oxidation numbers. (Example 4.7) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | oxidation number
REF: 4.5
MSC: general chemistry
95. What is the oxidation number of each H in NH4(H2PO4)? A) -3 B) -2 C) +1 D) +5 E) 0 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Assign oxidation numbers. (Example 4.7) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions
REF: 4.5
96. The oxidation number of nitrogen given for all the following species is correct except A) N2H4 (–2). B) N2O (+1). C) NH2OH (–1). D) HNO2 (+3). E) HN3 (–1). ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Assign oxidation numbers. (Example 4.7) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | oxidation number
REF: 4.5
MSC: general chemistry
97. In which one of the following is the oxidation number of nitrogen given incorrectly? A) N2H4 (–2) B) NaN3 (–1) C) HNO2 (+3) D) N2O3 (+3) E) H2N2O2 (+1) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Assign oxidation numbers. (Example 4.7) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | oxidation number
REF: 4.5
MSC: general chemistry
98. What is the average oxidation number of C in C6H12O6? A) –2 Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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B) 0 C) +1 D) +2 E) –1 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Assign oxidation numbers. (Example 4.7) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | oxidation number
REF: 4.5
MSC: general chemistry
99. The oxidation number of carbon in the formate ion, HCOO–, is A) 0. B) –2. C) +2. D) –1. E) +1. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Assign oxidation numbers. (Example 4.7) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | oxidation number
REF: 4.5
MSC: general chemistry
100. The oxidation numbers of nitrogen in N2O and N2F4 are, respectively, A) –2 and +2. B) –2 and –3. C) +1 and +2. D) +1 and –1. E) +1 and –3. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Assign oxidation numbers. (Example 4.7) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | oxidation number
101. The sum of all the oxidation numbers in cysteine,
REF: 4.5
MSC: general chemistry
, is
A) –1. B) +4. C) 0. D) –2. E) +2. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Assign oxidation numbers. (Example 4.7) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 4.5
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KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | oxidation number
MSC: general chemistry
102. The oxidation number of barium in BaO is A) +1. B) +4. C) –1/2. D) +2. E) –2. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Assign oxidation numbers. (Example 4.7) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | oxidation number
REF: 4.5
MSC: general chemistry
103. The oxidation number of chromium in sodium chromite, NaCrO2, is A) –1. B) –2. C) +2. D) +1. E) +3. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Assign oxidation numbers. (Example 4.7) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | oxidation number
REF: 4.5
MSC: general chemistry
104. In which of the following molecules or ions does the underlined element have an oxidation number of –3? A) NO2 B) PH4+ C) CrO2Cl2 D) HNO2 E) Zn(OH)42– ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Assign oxidation numbers. (Example 4.7) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | oxidation number
REF: 4.5
MSC: general chemistry
105. Which of the following is a correct set of oxidation numbers for the atoms in calcium dihydrogen phosphate, Ca(H2PO4)2? A) Ca = +2, H = +1, P = +5, O = –2 B) Ca = +2, H = 0, P = +7, O = –8 C) Ca = +2, H = –1, P = +4, O = –2 D) Ca2+ = +2, H2PO4– = –1 E) Ca = +2, H = +1, P = +3, O = –2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Assign oxidation numbers. (Example 4.7) Test Bank
moderate
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 4.5
28
TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | assigning oxidation number MSC: general chemistry 106. Assign oxidation numbers to each atom in nitrous acid. A) H = +1, N = +5, O = –1 B) H = +1, N = +5, O = –2 C) H = +1, N = +3, O = –1 D) H = +1, N = +3, O = 0 E) H = +1, N = +3, O = –2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.5 OBJ: Assign oxidation numbers. (Example 4.7) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | assigning oxidation number MSC: general chemistry 107. In basic solution the chromate ion, CrO42–, can be converted to the chromite, CrO2–, ion. The number of electrons gained or lost by the chromium atom is A) 0. B) 3 electrons lost. C) 2 electrons lost. D) 3 electrons gained. E) 2 electrons gained. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.5 OBJ: Assign oxidation numbers. (Example 4.7) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | assigning oxidation number MSC: general chemistry 108. What is the reduction half-reaction for the reaction of zinc with hydrochloric acid? Zn(s) + 2H+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) + H2(g) A) Zn(s) → Zn2+(aq) + 2e– B) 2H+(aq) + 2e– → H2(g) C) 2H+(aq) + 2e–(aq) → H2(g) + 2Cl–(aq) D) 2H+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) → H2(g) + 2e– + 2Cl–(aq) E) Zn(s) → Zn2+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) + 2e– ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.5 OBJ: Write the half-reactions of an oxidation-reduction reaction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 109. What is the reduction half-reaction for the reaction between iron(II) sulfate and potassium permanganate in a sulfuric acid solution? 5Fe2+(aq) + MnO4–(aq) + 8H+(aq) → 5Fe3+(aq) + Mn2+(aq) + 4H2O(l) Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) MnO4–(aq) + 3e– → Mn2+(aq) + 4H2O(l) B) MnO4–(aq) + 8H+(aq) + 5e– → Mn2+(aq) + 4H2O(l) C) 5Fe2+(aq) → 5Fe3+(aq) + 5e– D) Fe2+(aq) + 2e– → Fe(s) E) MnO4–(aq) + 5e– → Mn2+(aq) + SO42–(aq) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 4.5 OBJ: Write the half-reactions of an oxidation-reduction reaction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 110. What is the balanced oxidation half-reaction for the following reaction? Cu2+(aq) + Fe(s) → Cu(s) + Fe2+(aq) A) Cu(s) + 2e– → Cu(s) B) Cu2+(aq) + 2e– → Cu(s) C) Fe2+(aq) + 2e– → Fe(s) D) Cu(s) → Cu2+(aq) + 2e– E) Fe(s) → Fe2+(aq) + 2e– ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.5 OBJ: Write the half-reactions of an oxidation-reduction reaction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 111. Consider the reaction of sulfur dioxide and water, which is represented by the following equation: 2SO2(g) + 2H2O(g) → 2H2S(g) + 3O2(g) How many moles of electrons are transferred according to the equation that is written? A) 2 B) 6 C) 4 D) 12 E) 8 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.5 OBJ: Write the half-reactions of an oxidation-reduction reaction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 112. In the following reaction, which species is oxidized? 3Na2S(s) + 8H+(aq) + 2NO3–(aq) → 6Na+(aq) + 3S(s) + 2NO(g) + 4H2O(l) A) NO3– B) Na2S C) Na+ D) NO Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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E) H+ ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.5 OBJ: Determine the species undergoing oxidation and reduction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 113. For the reaction that occurs in a lead storage battery, Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2H+(aq) + 2HSO4–(aq) → 2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l) the oxidizing agent is A) HSO4–. B) PbSO4. C) Pb. D) PbO2. E) H+. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.5 OBJ: Determine the species undergoing oxidation and reduction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 114. In the balanced equation 3Na+(aq) + 3OH–(aq) + P4(s) + 3H2O(l) → 3Na+(aq) + 3H2PO2–(aq) + PH3(g) what is the reducing agent? A) OH– B) Na+ C) H2O D) P4 E) PH3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.5 OBJ: Determine the species undergoing oxidation and reduction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 115. In the following oxidation–reduction reaction, 8H+(aq) + 6Cl–(aq) + Sn(s) + 4NO3–(aq) → SnCl62–(aq) + 4NO2(g) + 4H2O(l) what is the oxidizing agent? A) Sn B) NO3– C) H+ D) Cl– E) SnCl62– ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.5 OBJ: Determine the species undergoing oxidation and reduction. Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 116. Besides its ability to function as an acid, hydrosulfuric acid, H2S, is able to act as a reducing agent. Which one of the following equations illustrates this property of H2S? A) H2S(aq) + 2OH–(aq) → S2–(aq) + 2H2O(l) B) H2S(aq) + 2Na(s) → H2(g) + 2Na+(aq) + S2–(aq) C) H2S(aq) + 2AgI(s) → Ag2S(s) + 2H+(aq) + 2I–(aq) D) H2S(aq) + Cu2+(aq) → CuS(s) + 2H+(aq) E) 3H2S(aq) + 2H+(aq) + 2NO3–(aq) → 3S(s) + 2NO(g) + 4H2O(l) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.5 OBJ: Determine the species undergoing oxidation and reduction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 117. In the following reaction, 2H2O2(l) → 2H2O(l) + O2(g) hydrogen peroxide functions as A) an acid. B) a reducing agent. C) an oxidizing agent. D) both an oxidizing agent and a reducing agent. E) neither an oxidizing agent nor a reducing agent. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 4.5 OBJ: Determine the species undergoing oxidation and reduction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction MSC: general chemistry 118. Which of the following species would be expected to function as a reducing agent? A) Ba2+ B) Zn2+ C) ClO4– D) Cs+ E) V2+ ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.5 OBJ: Determine the species undergoing oxidation and reduction. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | oxidation number MSC: general chemistry 119. All of the following reactions are described as decomposition reactions except A) CuSO4 • 5H2O(s) CuSO4(s) + 5H2O(g). B) 2PbO2(s) 2PbO(s) + O2(g). C) Fe(CO)5(l) Fe(s) + 5CO(g).
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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D) H2SO3(aq) SO2(g) + H2O(l). E) NO2(g) + H2O(l) NO(g) + 2HNO3(aq). ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.5 OBJ: Recognize combination reactions, decomposition reactions, displacement reactions, and combustion reactions. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | common oxidation-reduction reactions MSC: general chemistry 120. All of the following reactions can be described as displacement reactions except A) Zn(s) + FeCl2(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + Fe(s). B) C6H6(l) + Cl2(g) → C6H5Cl(l) + HCl(g). C) 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g). D) Cu(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag(s). E) CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s) → Cu(s) + FeSO4(aq). ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.5 OBJ: Recognize combination reactions, decomposition reactions, displacement reactions, and combustion reactions. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | common oxidation-reduction reactions MSC: general chemistry 121. All of the following reactions are called combination reactions except A) BaO(s) + SO2(g) → BaSO3(s). B) C6H10(l) + Br2(l) → C6H10Br2(l). C) Br2(l) + H2O(l) → HOBr(aq) + HBr(aq). D) CaCl2(s) + 6H2O(l) → CaCl2 • 6H2O(s). E) 3H2(g) + N2(g) → 2NH3(g). ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.5 OBJ: Recognize combination reactions, decomposition reactions, displacement reactions, and combustion reactions. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | common oxidation-reduction reactions MSC: general chemistry 122. All of the following reactions are described as decomposition reactions except A) PCl5(l) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g). B) 2CH3OH(l) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 4H2O(g). C) NH4HS(s) → NH3(g) + H2S(g). D) (NH4)2Cr2O7(s) → N2(g) + 4H2O(g) + Cr2O3(s). E) 2CO2(g) → 2CO(g) + O2(g). ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.5 OBJ: Recognize combination reactions, decomposition reactions, displacement reactions, Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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and combustion reactions. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | common oxidation-reduction reactions MSC: general chemistry 123. All of the following reactions can be described as displacement reactions except A) CuSO4(aq) + Ni(s) → NiSO4(aq) + Cu(s). B) 3CuCl2(aq) + 2Al(s) → 3Cu(s) + 2AlCl3(aq). C) Fe(s) + 2HCl(aq) → FeCl2(g) + H2(g). D) CH4(g) + Br2(g) → CH3Br(g) + HBr(g). E) Mg(s) + Hg(NO3)2(aq) → Mg(NO3)2(aq) + Hg(l). ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.5 OBJ: Recognize combination reactions, decomposition reactions, displacement reactions, and combustion reactions. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | common oxidation-reduction reactions MSC: general chemistry 124. All of the following reactions are described as decomposition reactions except A) PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g). B) 2H2O(g) → 2H2(g) + O2(g). C) BaCl2 • 2H2O(s) → BaCl2(s) + 2H2O(g). D) CH4(g) + Cl2(g) → CH3Cl(g) + HCl(g). E) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g). ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.5 OBJ: Recognize combination reactions, decomposition reactions, displacement reactions, and combustion reactions. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | common oxidation-reduction reactions MSC: general chemistry 125. A 5.0-g sample of a white, powdery solid is heated in the presence of air. The solid remaining after heating now has a mass of 3.2 g. The reaction that took place must have been a(an) A) acid–base reaction. B) decomposition reaction. C) combination reaction. D) precipitation reaction. E) displacement reaction. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.5 OBJ: Recognize combination reactions, decomposition reactions, displacement reactions, and combustion reactions. TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: oxidation-reduction reaction | common oxidation-reduction reactions MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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126. What is the balanced oxidation half-reaction provided below? Zn(s) + 2H+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + H2(g) A) Zn2+(aq) + 2e− → Zn(s) B) Zn2+(aq) + e− → Zn(s) C) Zn(s) → Zn2+(aq) + 2e− D) 2H+(aq) + 2e− → H2(g) E) 2H+(aq) → H2(g) + 2e− ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.6 OBJ: Balance simple oxidation-reduction reactions by the half-reaction method. (Example 4.8) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions 127. All of the following half-reactions are balanced except A) NO3–(aq) + 4H+(aq) + 3e– → NO(g) + 2H2O(l). B) H3PO3(aq) + H2O(l) → H3PO4(aq) + 2H+(aq) + 2e–. C) 2Ta(s) + 5H2O(l) → Ta2O5(s) + 10H+(aq) + 10e–. D) 2H2O(l) + 2e– → H2(g) + 2OH–(aq). E) H2O2(aq) → 2OH–(aq) + 2e–. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.6 OBJ: Balance simple oxidation-reduction reactions by the half-reaction method. (Example 4.8) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: balancing oxidation-reduction equations | half-reaction method MSC: general chemistry 128. What is the balanced reduction half-reaction for the reaction 3Mg(s) + N2(g) → Mg3N2(s) A) Mg2+ + 2e− → Mg B) Mg → Mg2+ + 2e− C) Mg2+ → Mg + 2e− D) N2 + 6e− → 2N3− E) N2 → 2N3−+ 6e− ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.6 OBJ: Balance simple oxidation-reduction reactions by the half-reaction method. (Example 4.8) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions 129. The following reaction occurs in basic solution: _ H2O(aq) + _ MnO4–(aq) + _ ClO–(aq) → _ MnO2(s) + _ ClO4–(aq) + _ OH–(aq)
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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When the equation is properly balanced, what is the sum of the lowest whole-number coefficients? A) 20 B) 9 C) 10 D) 6 E) 12 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 4.6 OBJ: Balance simple oxidation-reduction reactions by the half-reaction method. (Example 4.8) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: balancing oxidation-reduction equations | half-reaction method MSC: general chemistry 130. When the following equation is balanced, what is the lowest whole-number coefficient for SO2? ____ HBrO3(aq) + ____ SO2(g) + ____ H2O(l) → ____ Br2(aq) + ____ H2SO4(aq) A) 7 B) 10 C) 8 D) 4 E) 5 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 4.6 OBJ: Balance simple oxidation-reduction reactions by the half-reaction method. (Example 4.8) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: balancing oxidation-reduction equations | half-reaction method MSC: general chemistry 131. The following reaction occurs in basic solution. What is the sum of the lowest wholenumber coefficients in the balanced equation? ____ MnO4–(aq) + ____ NH3(aq) → ____ NO3–(aq) + ____ MnO2(s) A) 9 B) 18 C) 12 D) 29 E) 23 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 4.6 OBJ: Balance simple oxidation-reduction reactions by the half-reaction method. (Example 4.8) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: balancing oxidation-reduction equations | half-reaction method MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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132. In basic solution, H2O2 oxidizes Cr3+ to CrO42– and is reduced to OH–. What is the lowest whole-number coefficient for OH– in the balanced net ionic equation? A) 6 B) 10 C) 4 D) 16 E) 8 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 4.6 OBJ: Balance simple oxidation-reduction reactions by the half-reaction method. (Example 4.8) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: balancing oxidation-reduction equations | half-reaction method MSC: general chemistry 133. The following change occurs in acidic solution: ____ S2–(aq) + ____ Cr2O72–(aq) → ____ S(s) + ____ Cr3+(aq) In the balanced equation, for every mole of Cr2O72– that reacts, _____ mol of H+ are consumed. A) 7 B) 10 C) 5 D) 14 E) 8 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 4.6 OBJ: Balance simple oxidation-reduction reactions by the half-reaction method. (Example 4.8) TOP: chemical reactions | types of chemical reactions KEY: balancing oxidation-reduction equations | half-reaction method MSC: general chemistry 134. Which of the following do you need to know to be able to calculate the molarity of a salt solution? I. the mass of salt added II. the molar mass of the salt III. the volume of water added IV. the total volume of the solution A) II and III only B) I, II, and IV only C) I, II, and III only D) I and III only E) You need all of the information. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define molarity or molar concentration of a solution. TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 4.7 KEY: concentration 37
135. Each of the following containers illustrates a solution in which the black spheres represent solute.
Which is the most concentrated solution? A) A B) All have the same concentration. C) B D) C E) D ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define molarity or molar concentration of a solution. TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.7 KEY: concentration
136. A student must prepare 5.00 L of 0.100 M Na2CO3 (106 g/mol). Which is the best procedure for preparing this solution? A) Measure 53.0 g Na2CO3 and add 5.00 kg of H2O. B) Measure 10.6 g Na2CO3 and add 5.00 kg of H2O. C) Measure 53.0 g Na2CO3 and add H2O until the final homogeneous solution has a volume of 5.00 L. D) Measure 10.6 g Na2CO3 and add H2O until the final homogeneous solution has a volume of 5.00 L. E) Measure 53.0 g Na2CO3 and add 5.00 L of H2O. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Define molarity or molar concentration of a solution. TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.7 KEY: concentration
137. What mass of Na2CO3 is present in 0.650 L of a 0.505 M Na2CO3 solution? A) 34.8 g B) 68.9 g C) 53.5 g D) 136 g E) 82.3 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.7 OBJ: Calculate the molarity from mass and volume. (Example 4.9) Test Bank
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TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions MSC: general chemistry
KEY: concentration
138. What is the molarity of an NaI solution that contains 7.3 g of NaI in 28.0 mL of solution? A) 1.7 M B) 0.049 M C) 0.0038 M D) 0.00019 M E) 0.26 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.7 OBJ: Calculate the molarity from mass and volume. (Example 4.9) TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions KEY: concentration MSC: general chemistry 139. In order to prepare a standard 1.00 M solution of oxalic acid from H2C2O4 · 2H2O (126.07 g/mol), 7.564 g of oxalic acid dihydrate should be dissolved in A) enough water to make 60.0 g of solution. B) 52.436 g of water. C) 60.0 g of water. D) enough water to make 60.0 mL of solution. E) 60.0 cm3 of water. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.7 OBJ: Calculate the molarity from mass and volume. (Example 4.9) TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions KEY: concentration MSC: general chemistry 140. A 29.0-g sample of NaOH is dissolved in water, and the solution is diluted to give a final volume of 1.60 L. The molarity of the final solution is A) 18.1 M. B) 0.453 M. C) 0.725 M. D) 0.0552 M. E) 0.862 M. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.7 OBJ: Calculate the molarity from mass and volume. (Example 4.9) TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions KEY: concentration MSC: general chemistry 141. What is the molarity of hydrochloric acid in a solution containing 88.5 g of HCl in 215 mL of solution? A) 0.412 M B) 0.00243 M C) 2.43 M D) 412 M E) 11.3 M Test Bank
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.7 OBJ: Calculate the molarity from mass and volume. (Example 4.9) TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions KEY: concentration MSC: general chemistry 142. What mass of oxalic acid dihydrate, H2C2O4 · 2H2O, is required to prepare 250.0 mL of a 1.32 M solution of oxalic acid? A) 126 g B) 41.6 g C) 119 g D) 166 g E) 29.7 g ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Use molarity as a conversion factor. (Example 4.10) TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.7 KEY: concentration
143. How many grams of lithium nitrate, LiNO3 (68.9 g/mol), are required to prepare 342.6 mL of a 0.783 M LiNO3 solution? A) 0.00389 g B) 18.5 g C) 0.0541 g D) 30.1 g E) 0.00635 g ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Use molarity as a conversion factor. (Example 4.10) TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.7 KEY: concentration
144. How many moles of sulfate ions are there in a 0.545-L solution of 0.489 M Al2(SO4)3? A) 0.267 mol B) 0.800 mol C) 3.34 mol D) 0.0888 mol E) 2.69 mol ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Use molarity as a conversion factor. (Example 4.10) TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.7 KEY: concentration
145. What volume of 0.745 M Na2CO3 (106 g/mol) solution contains 50.3 g of Na2CO3? A) 0.354 L B) 7.16 103 L C) 0.637 L D) 3.97 103 L Test Bank
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E) 1.57 L ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Use molarity as a conversion factor. (Example 4.10) TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.7 KEY: concentration
146. Which of the following solutions contains the largest number of moles of dissolved particles? A) 25. mL of 5.0 M sodium chloride B) 25. mL of 2.0 M sulfuric acid C) 200. mL of 0.10 M sodium hydroxide D) 50. mL of 1.0 M hydrochloric acid E) 100. mL of 0.5 M nitric acid ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Use molarity as a conversion factor. (Example 4.10) TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.7 KEY: concentration
147. Which substance would produce 2 mol of particles per mole of solute when dissolved in water? A) NH4CH3COO B) CH2O C) CO2 D) SO2 E) Al(NO3)3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Use molarity as a conversion factor. (Example 4.10) TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.7 KEY: concentration
148. How many moles of KOH are present in 25.4 mL of 0.965 M KOH? A) 2.63 10 −2 mol B) 26.3 mol C) 2.45 10 −2 mol D) 24.5 mol E) 0.965 mol ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Use molarity as a conversion factor. (Example 4.10) TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.7 KEY: concentration
149. What mass of H3PO4 (98.0 g/mol) is present in 36.2 L of a 0.0827 M solution of H3PO4? A) 0.0305 g B) 0.00341 g Test Bank
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C) 2.93 102 g D) 4.29 104 g E) 4.47 g ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Use molarity as a conversion factor. (Example 4.10) TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.7 KEY: concentration
150. Calculate the molarity of a solution that contains 32.5 g of NaOH (40.0 g/mol) in 469 mL of solution. A) 0.381 M B) 2.77 103 M C) 0.577 M D) 3.81 105 M E) 1.73 M ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Use molarity as a conversion factor. (Example 4.10) TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.7 KEY: concentration
151. What volume of 0.76 M sodium bromide, NaBr, contains 8.8 10–4 mol of bromide ions? A) 0.58 mL B) 0.67 L C) 1.2 mL D) 0.86 L E) 0.67 mL ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Use molarity as a conversion factor. (Example 4.10) TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.7 KEY: concentration
152. To dilute 1.00 L of a 0.600 M to 0.100 M, the final volume must be A) 60 L. B) 0.7 L. C) 1/6 the original volume. D) More information is needed to answer this question. E) 6 times the original volume. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.8 OBJ: Describe what happens to the concentration of a solution when it is diluted. TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions KEY: diluting solutions MSC: general chemistry 153. What is the final concentration of HCl in a solution prepared by addition of 930.0 mL of 8.77 M HCl to 468.0 mL of 3.22 M HCl? Assume volumes are additive. A) 6.00 M Test Bank
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B) 0.00858 M C) 12.0 M D) 6.91 M E) 5.08 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Perform calculations associated with dilution. TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.8 KEY: diluting solutions
154. In order to dilute 35.5 mL of 0.533 M HCl to 0.100 M, the volume of water that must be added is A) 28.8 mL. B) 6.66 mL. C) 1.89 102 mL. D) 1.50 10–3 mL. E) 1.54 102 mL. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Perform calculations associated with dilution. TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.8 KEY: diluting solutions
155. What volume of 2.52 M HCl is required to prepare 176.5 mL of 0.449 M HCl? A) 9.91 102 mL B) 1.56 102 mL C) 31.4 mL D) 0.0318 mL E) 2.00 102 mL ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Diluting a solution. (Example 4.11) TOP: chemical reactions | working with solutions MSC: general chemistry
REF: 4.8 KEY: diluting solutions
156. A dilute solution is prepared by transferring 45.00 mL of a 0.5616 M stock solution to a 400.0 mL volumetric flask and diluting to mark. What is the molarity of this dilute solution? A) 0.06318 M B) 0.1264 M C) 0.04992 M D) 0.01580 M E) 0.2808 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Diluting a solution. (Example 4.11) TOP: chemical equilibrium | working with solutions Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 4.8
43
157. In order to determine the amount of chloride ion in a solution by using gravimetric analysis, which of the following should you add to the solution? A) NaNO3(aq) B) Al(NO3)3(aq) C) NaCl(aq) D) AgNO3(aq) E) Mg(NO3)2(aq) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 4.9 OBJ: Determine the amount of a species by gravimetric analysis. (Example 4.12) TOP: chemical reactions | quantitative analysis KEY: gravimetric analysis MSC: general chemistry 158. The concentration of sulfate in a sample of wastewater is to be determined by using gravimetric analysis. To a 100.0-mL sample of the wastewater is added an excess of calcium nitrate, forming the insoluble calcium sulfate (136.1 g/mol) according to the balanced equation given below. The solid calcium sulfate is dried, and its mass is measured to be 0.7272 g. What was the concentration of sulfate in the original wastewater sample? SO42–(aq) + Ca(NO3)2(aq) → CaSO4(s) + 2NO3–(aq) A) 0.05343 M B) 0.9897 M C) 18.72 M D) 1.872 M E) 9.897 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.9 OBJ: Determine the amount of a species by gravimetric analysis. (Example 4.12) TOP: chemical reactions | quantitative analysis KEY: gravimetric analysis MSC: general chemistry 159. The concentration of Pb2+ in a sample of wastewater is to be determined by using gravimetric analysis. To a 100.0-mL sample of the wastewater is added an excess of sodium carbonate, forming the insoluble lead (II) carbonate (267.2092 g/mol) according to the balanced equation given below. The solid lead (II) carbonate is dried, and its mass is measured to be 0.4078 g. What was the concentration of Pb2+ in the original wastewater sample? Pb2+(aq) + Na2CO3(aq) → PbCO3(s) + 2Na+(aq) A) 0.01526 M B) 0.001526 M C) 1.090 M D) 0.004078 M E) 65.52 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.9 OBJ: Determine the amount of a species by gravimetric analysis. (Example 4.12) TOP: chemical reactions | quantitative analysis Test Bank
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KEY: gravimetric analysis
MSC: general chemistry
160. What minimum mass of copper (II) nitrate must be added to 30.0 mL of a 0.0387 M phosphate solution in order to completely precipitate all of the phosphate as solid copper (II) phosphate? 2PO43–(aq) + 3Cu(NO3)2(aq) → Cu3(PO4)2(s) + 6NO3–(aq) A) 0.218 g B) 0.653 g C) 0.145 g D) 0.0726 g E) 0.327 g ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 4.9 OBJ: Determine the amount of a species by gravimetric analysis. (Example 4.12) TOP: chemical reactions | quantitative analysis KEY: gravimetric analysis MSC: general chemistry 161. The reaction of HCl with NaOH is represented by the equation HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) What volume of 0.631 M HCl is required to titrate 15.8 mL of 0.321 M NaOH? A) 3.20 mL B) 1.58 mL C) 8.04 mL D) 15.8 mL E) 31.1 mL ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.10 OBJ: Calculate the volume of reactant solution needed to perform a reaction. (Example 4.13) TOP: chemical reactions | quantitative analysis KEY: volumetric analysis MSC: general chemistry 162. The reaction of H2SO4 with NaOH is represented by the equation H2SO4(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + 2H2O(l) What volume of 0.587 M H2SO4 is required to neutralize 12.7 mL of 0.302 M NaOH? A) 3.27 mL B) 1.70 mL C) 6.53 mL D) 12.7 mL E) 24.7 mL ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.10 OBJ: Calculate the volume of reactant solution needed to perform a reaction. (Example 4.13) TOP: chemical reactions | quantitative analysis Test Bank
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163. In a volumetric analysis experiment, a solution of sodium oxalate (Na2C2O4) in acidic solution is titrated with a solution of potassium permanganate (KMnO4) according to the following balanced chemical equation: 2KMnO4(aq) + 8H2SO4(aq) + 5Na2C2O4(aq) → 2MnSO4(aq) + 8H2O(l) + 10CO2(g) + 5Na2SO4(aq) + K2SO4(aq) What volume of 0.0388 M KMnO4 is required to titrate 0.134 g of Na2C2O4 dissolved in 20.0 mL of solution? A) 1.38 mL B) 3.45 mL C) 10.3 mL D) 25.8 mL E) 20.0 mL ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.10 OBJ: Calculate the volume of reactant solution needed to perform a reaction. (Example 4.13) TOP: chemical reactions | quantitative analysis KEY: volumetric analysis MSC: general chemistry 164. In a volumetric analysis experiment, an acidic aqueous solution of methanol (CH3OH) is titrated with a solution of potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7) according to the following balanced chemical equation: 2K2Cr2O7(aq) + 8H2SO4(aq) + 3CH3OH(aq) → 2Cr2(SO4)3(aq) + 11H2O(l) + 3HCOOH(aq) + 2K2SO4(aq) What volume of 0.00389 M K2Cr2O7 is required to titrate 1.77 g of CH3OH dissolved in 20.0 mL of solution? A) 21.3 mL B) 683 mL C) 9.47 mL D) 20.0 mL E) 303 mL ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.10 OBJ: Calculate the volume of reactant solution needed to perform a reaction. (Example 4.13) TOP: chemical reactions | quantitative analysis KEY: volumetric analysis MSC: general chemistry 165. A 50.00-mL sample of a weak acid is titrated with 0.0955 M NaOH. At the endpoint, it is found that 32.56 mL of titrant was used. What was the concentration of the weak acid? A) 0.0622 M B) 3.11 M C) 0.0955 M D) 5.87 10–5 M E) 0.147 M Test Bank
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.10 OBJ: Calculate the quantity of substance in a titrated solution. (Example 4.14) TOP: chemical reactions | quantitative analysis KEY: volumetric analysis MSC: general chemistry 166. A 40.00-mL sample of a weak base is titrated with 0.0935 M HCl. At the endpoint, it is found that 32.87 mL of titrant was used. What was the concentration of the weak base? A) 0.114 M B) 7.11 10–5 M C) 3.07 M D) 0.0935 M E) 0.0768 M ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.10 OBJ: Calculate the quantity of substance in a titrated solution. (Example 4.14) TOP: chemical reactions | quantitative analysis KEY: volumetric analysis MSC: general chemistry 167. In a volumetric analysis experiment, a solution of sodium oxalate (Na2C2O4) in acidic solution is titrated with a solution of potassium permanganate (KMnO4) according to the following balanced chemical equation: 2KMnO4(aq) + 8H2SO4(aq) + 5Na2C2O4(aq) → 2MnSO4(aq) + 8H2O(l) + 10CO2(g) + 5Na2SO4(aq) + K2SO4(aq) It required 25.0 mL of 0.0448 M KMnO4 to reach the endpoint. What mass of Na2C2O4 was present initially? A) 2.40 g B) 0.0600 g C) 15.0 g D) 0.150 g E) 0.375 g ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.10 OBJ: Calculate the quantity of substance in a titrated solution. (Example 4.14) TOP: chemical reactions | quantitative analysis KEY: volumetric analysis MSC: general chemistry 168. In a volumetric analysis experiment, an acidic aqueous solution of methanol (CH3OH) is titrated with a solution of potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7) according to the following balanced chemical equation: 2K2Cr2O7(aq) + 8H2SO4(aq) + 3CH3OH(aq) → 2Cr2(SO4)3(aq) + 11H2O(l) + 3HCOOH(aq) + 2K2SO4(aq) It required 43.91 mL of 0.0435 M K2Cr2O7 to reach the endpoint. What mass of CH3OH was present initially? A) 0.0918 g B) 2.09 g C) 0.929 g Test Bank
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D) 0.0612 g E) 0.0408 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4.10 OBJ: Calculate the quantity of substance in a titrated solution. (Example 4.14) TOP: chemical reactions | quantitative analysis KEY: volumetric analysis MSC: general chemistry 169. An impure sample of benzoic acid (C6H5COOH, 122.12 g/mol) is titrated with 0.8067 M NaOH. A 5.109-g sample requires 36.97 mL of titrant to reach the endpoint. What is the percent by mass of benzoic acid in the sample? C6H5COOH(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaC6H5COO(aq) + H2O(l) A) 0.02442 % B) 2.982 % C) 100.0 % D) 24.42 % E) 71.29 % ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 4.10 OBJ: Calculate the quantity of substance in a titrated solution. (Example 4.14) TOP: chemical reactions | quantitative analysis KEY: volumetric analysis MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
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Chapter 5 - The Gaseous State 1. Which of the following concerning a barometer or manometer is/are true? 1. 2. 3.
Pressure is directly proportional to the height of the liquid used in the device. Pressure is directly proportional to the density of the liquid used in the device. Pressure is independent of the acceleration of gravity.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Convert units of pressure. (Example 5.1)
easy
REF: 5.1 TOP: phases | gas
2. It is possible to make a barometer using a liquid other than mercury. What would be the height (in meters) of a column of water at a pressure of 0.390 atm, given that 0.390 atm is equal to a 0.296 m column of mercury and the densities of mercury and water are 13.5 g/cm3 and 1.00 g/cm3, respectively. A) 4.00 m B) 0.250 m C) 0.0220 m D) 0.296 m E) 3.37 m ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Convert units of pressure. (Example 5.1)
easy
REF: 5.1 TOP: phases | gas
3. A particular gas exerts a pressure of 621 mmHg. What is this pressure in units of bar? A) 4.66 105 bar B) 4.78 105 bar C) 629 bar D) 0.806 bar E) 0.828 bar ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Convert units of pressure. (Example 5.1) KEY: gas pressure MSC: general chemistry
easy
REF: 5.1 TOP: phases | gas
4. A particular gas exerts a pressure of 785 mmHg. What is this pressure in units of atmospheres? A) 5.89 105 atm B) 6.05 105 atm C) 775 atm D) 1.05 atm E) 1.03 atm
Test Bank
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Convert units of pressure. (Example 5.1) KEY: gas pressure MSC: general chemistry
easy
REF: 5.1 TOP: phases | gas
5. A particular gas exerts a pressure of 2.79 bar. What is this pressure in units of pascals? A) 2.75 105 Pa B) 2.79 10–5 Pa C) 2.79 105 Pa D) 2.83 105 Pa E) 2.75 10–5 Pa ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Convert units of pressure. (Example 5.1) KEY: gas pressure MSC: general chemistry
easy
REF: 5.1 TOP: phases | gas
6. A particular gas exerts a pressure of 3.43 bar. What is this pressure in units of atmospheres? A) 3.48 atm B) 2.57 103 atm C) 2.64 103 atm D) 3.39 atm E) 3.43 atm ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Convert units of pressure. (Example 5.1) KEY: gas pressure MSC: general chemistry
easy
REF: 5.1 TOP: phases | gas
7. A particular gas exerts a pressure of 4.79 atm. What is this pressure in units of mmHg? A) 4.73 mmHg B) 3.64 103 mmHg C) 4.85 mmHg D) 6.30 10–3 mmHg E) 3.69 103 mmHg ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Convert units of pressure. (Example 5.1) KEY: gas pressure MSC: general chemistry
easy
REF: 5.1 TOP: phases | gas
8. A particular gas exerts a pressure of 2.27 atm. What is this pressure in units of bar? A) 1.73 103 bar B) 2.27 105 bar C) 2.30 bar D) 2.24 bar E) 2.99 10–3 bar ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Convert units of pressure. (Example 5.1) KEY: gas pressure MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
easy
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 5.1 TOP: phases | gas
2
9. A particular gas exerts a pressure of 2.62 104 Pa. What is this pressure in units of bar? A) 2.62 109 bar B) 0.262 bar C) 34.5 bar D) 2.59 104 bar E) 2.65 104 bar ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Convert units of pressure. (Example 5.1) KEY: gas pressure MSC: general chemistry
easy
REF: 5.1 TOP: phases | gas
10. A particular gas exerts a pressure of 7.54 104 Pa. What is this pressure in units of atmospheres? A) 0.744 atm B) 7.44 109 atm C) 0.764 atm D) 0.754 atm E) 7.64 109 atm ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Convert units of pressure. (Example 5.1) KEY: gas pressure MSC: general chemistry
easy
REF: 5.1 TOP: phases | gas
11. The pressure of a certain gas is measured to be 360.6 mmHg. What is this pressure expressed in units of pascals? A) 4.683 10–6 Pa B) 2.136 105 Pa C) 2.080 10–5 Pa D) 3.654 107 Pa E) 4.808 104 Pa ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Convert units of pressure. (Example 5.1) KEY: gas pressure MSC: general chemistry
easy
REF: 5.1 TOP: phases | gas
12. The pressure of a certain gas is measured to be 5.159 103 Pa. What is this pressure expressed in units of mmHg? A) 6.699 10–5 mmHg B) 3.921 106 mmHg C) 2.584 10–2 mmHg D) 38.70 mmHg E) 1.493 104 mmHg ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Convert units of pressure. (Example 5.1) KEY: gas pressure MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
easy
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 5.1 TOP: phases | gas
3
13. A flexible vessel contains 47 L of gas where the pressure is 1.3 atm. What will the volume be when the pressure is 0.85 atm, the temperature remaining constant? A) 0.014 L B) 31 L C) 47 L D) 0.046 L E) 72 L ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Use Boyle's law. (Example 5.2) KEY: empirical gas laws | Boyle's law
DIF: easy REF: 5.2 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
14. A flexible vessel contains 32.00 L of gas at a pressure of 1.59 atm. Under conditions of constant temperature and moles of gas, what is the volume of the gas when the pressure of the vessel is decreased by a factor of three? A) 96.1 L B) 10.7 L C) 0.0104 L D) 32 L E) 4.80 L ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Use Boyle's law. (Example 5.2)
DIF: easy TOP: phases | gas
REF: 5.2
15. A flexible vessel is filled to a certain pressure with 12.00 L of gas. Under conditions of constant temperature and moles of gas, how does the volume of the gas change when the pressure of the gas is decreased by a factor of three? A) The volume increases by a factor of three. B) The volume increases by a factor of two. C) The volume increases by a factor of four. D) The volume decreases by a factor of two. E) The volume decreases by a factor of four. ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Use Boyle's law. (Example 5.2)
DIF: moderate TOP: phases | gas
REF: 5.2
16. A flexible vessel contains 53 L of gas where the pressure is 1.6 atm. What will the volume be when the pressure is 0.61 atm, the temperature remaining constant? A) 0.007 L B) 20 L C) 53 L D) 0.042 L E) 139 L ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Use Boyle's law. (Example 5.2) KEY: empirical gas laws | Boyle's law
Test Bank
DIF: easy REF: 5.2 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
General Chemistry, 10th edition
4
17. A 2.00-L glass soda bottle filled only with air is tightly capped at 24°C and 744.0 mmHg. If the bottle is placed in water at 75°C, what is the pressure in the bottle? A) 238 mmHg B) 872 mmHg C) 2330 mmHg D) 635 mmHg E) 383 mmHg ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: Use Boyle's law. (Example 5.2) KEY: empirical gas laws | Boyle's law
DIF: easy REF: 5.2 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
18. A sample of methane, CH4, occupies a volume of 170.0 mL at 25°C and exerts a pressure of 965.0 mmHg. If the volume of the gas is allowed to expand to 720.0 mL at 298 K, what will be the pressure of the gas? A) 4090 mmHg B) 2720 mmHg C) 227.8 mmHg D) 0.008823 mmHg E) 550.0 mmHg ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Use Boyle's law. (Example 5.2) KEY: empirical gas laws | Boyle's law
DIF: easy REF: 5.2 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
19. When the valve between the 2.00-L bulb, in which the gas pressure is 3.00 atm, and the 3.00-L bulb, in which the gas pressure is 2.50 atm, is opened, what will be the final pressure in the two bulbs? Assume the temperature remains constant.
A) 2.70 atm B) 5.50 atm C) 2.83 atm D) 2.80 atm E) 2.67 atm ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Use Boyle's law. (Example 5.2) KEY: empirical gas laws | Boyle's law
Test Bank
DIF: moderate REF: 5.2 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
General Chemistry, 10th edition
5
20. Absolute zero is the point at which A) a straight-line graph of V versus T (C) intersects the origin. B) a straight-line graph of 1/V versus P at constant T intersects the origin. C) gaseous helium liquefies. D) a straight-line graph of V versus 1/P at constant T intersects the origin. E) a straight-line graph of V versus T (K) intersects the origin. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.2 OBJ: Express Charles's law in words and as an equation. TOP: phases | gas KEY: empirical gas laws | Charles's law MSC: general chemistry 21. The following volume-temperature plots were made at different values of constant pressure while the number of moles of gas in each experiment remained the same. Which plot represents measurements at the highest pressure?
A) B B) C C) A D) They are all at the same pressure. E) D ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.2 OBJ: Express Charles's law in words and as an equation. TOP: phases | gas KEY: empirical gas laws | Charles's law MSC: general chemistry 22. Which of the following is a correct statement of Charles’s law,
?
A) The volume of a gas varies proportionally with the pressure. B) The volume of a gas sample varies directly with the absolute temperature. C) All gas samples of the same volume at STP contain the same number of atoms. D) The pressure of a gas sample varies inversely with the volume. E) All gas samples of the same volume at STP contain the same number of molecules. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.2 OBJ: Express Charles's law in words and as an equation. TOP: phases | gas KEY: empirical gas laws | Charles's law MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
6
23. The volume of a sample of gas measured at 55.0°C and 1.00 atm pressure is 8.00 L. What must the final temperature be in order for the gas to have a final volume of 9.00 L at 1.00 atm pressure? A) 96.0°C B) 61.9°C C) –211.1°C D) 48.9°C E) 18.6°C ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Use Charles's law. (Example 5.3) KEY: empirical gas laws | Charles's law
DIF: moderate REF: 5.2 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
24. A flexible container is charged with 51.00 L of gas at 368 . Under conditions of constant pressure and moles of gas, what is the volume of the gas when the temperature is tripled? A) 153 L B) 17.0 L C) 0.0588 L D) 51 L E) 0.850 L ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Use Charles's law. (Example 5.3)
DIF: easy TOP: phases | gas
REF: 5.2
25. A flexible container is charged with a certain volume of gas at 318.3 . Under conditions of constant pressure and moles of gas, how does the volume of the gas change when the temperature is decreased by a factor of four? A) The volume decreases by a factor of four. B) The volume decreases by a factor of two. C) The volume remains the same. D) The volume increases by a factor of three. E) The volume increases by a factor of two. ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Use Charles's law. (Example 5.3)
DIF: moderate TOP: phases | gas
REF: 5.2
26. A gas occupies a volume of 2.75 L at 350 mmHg and 200°C. Which mathematical expression gives the correct volume at 550 mmHg and 450°C? A) B) C)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
7
D) E) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Use the combined gas law. (Example 5.4) KEY: empirical gas laws | combined gas law
moderate
REF: 5.2 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
27. A gas occupying a volume of 1.50 L exerts a pressure of 700 mmHg at 200°C. Which mathematical expression gives the correct pressure at 6.00 L and 400°C? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Use the combined gas law. (Example 5.4) KEY: empirical gas laws | combined gas law
moderate
REF: 5.2 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
28. A rigid container is charged with a gas to a pressure of 760 mmHg at 20.0°C and tightly sealed. If the temperature of the gas increases by 40.0°C what is the new pressure? A) 1520 mmHg B) 669 mmHg C) 656 mmHg D) 864 mmHg E) 1140 mmHg ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Use the combined gas law. (Example 5.4)
easy
REF: 5.2 TOP: phases | gas
29. The pressure of 4.2 L of nitrogen gas in a flexible container is decreased to one-half its original pressure, and its absolute temperature is increased to double the original temperature. The volume is now A) 2.1 L. B) 4.2 L. C) 8 L. D) 17 L. E) 1.1 L.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
8
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Use the combined gas law. (Example 5.4) KEY: empirical gas laws | combined gas law
easy
REF: 5.2 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
30. Which of the following concerning the ideal gas law is/are true? 1. 2. 3.
Pressure is directly proportional to volume when temperature and moles of gas are held constant. Pressure is directly proportional to moles of gas when temperature and volume are held constant. Volume is inversely proportional to temperature when the pressure and moles of gas are held constant.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 only E) 2 and 3 only ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Use the combined gas law. (Example 5.4)
easy
REF: 5.2 TOP: phases | gas
31. A given mass of gas occupies a volume of 4.00 L at 60°C and 550 mmHg. Which of the following mathematical expressions will yield its temperature at 3.00 L and 775 mmHg? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Use the combined gas law. (Example 5.4) KEY: empirical gas laws | combined gas law
moderate
REF: 5.2 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
32. A fixed amount of gas in a rigid container is heated from 300 to 900 K. Which of the following responses best describes what will happen to the pressure of the gas? A) The pressure will increase by a factor of 3. B) The pressure will increase by a factor less than 3. C) The pressure will increase by a factor greater than 3. D) The pressure will decrease by a factor of 3. E) The pressure will remain the same.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
9
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Use the combined gas law. (Example 5.4) KEY: empirical gas laws | combined gas law
easy
REF: 5.2 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
33. A 22.4-L sample of nitrogen at 3.65 atm and 22°C is simultaneously expanded to 57.4 L and heated to 38°C. What is the new pressure of the gas? A) 2.46 atm B) 1.50 atm C) 204 atm D) 334 atm E) 1.35 atm ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Use the combined gas law. (Example 5.4) KEY: empirical gas laws | combined gas law
easy
REF: 5.2 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
34. A fixed amount of gas in a rigid container is heated from 100°C to 700°C. Which of the following responses best describes what will happen to the pressure of the gas? A) The pressure will increase by a factor greater than 7. B) The pressure will increase by a factor of 7. C) The pressure will increase by a factor less than 7. D) The pressure will decrease by a factor of 7. E) The pressure will remain the same. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Use the combined gas law. (Example 5.4) KEY: empirical gas laws | combined gas law
easy
REF: 5.2 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
35. Equal volumes of propane, C3H8, and carbon monoxide, CO, at the same temperature and pressure have the same A) chemical properties. B) number of atoms. C) average molecular speed. D) density. E) number of molecules. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State Avogadro's law. TOP: phases | gas KEY: empirical gas laws | Avogadro's law
REF: 5.2 MSC: general chemistry
36. A 1.00-L bulb contains a sample of O2 at 25°C and 1.00 atm pressure. A second 1.00-L bulb contains a sample of CH4 at 25°C and 1.00 atm pressure. What is the ratio of the number of molecules of methane to the number of molecules of oxygen in each of the containers? A) 2:5 B) C) 5:2 D) E) 1:1
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
10
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State Avogadro's law. TOP: phases | gas KEY: empirical gas laws | Avogadro's law
REF: 5.2 MSC: general chemistry
37. Which of the following statements, concerning equal volumes of the gases dinitrogen monoxide, N2O, and propane, C3H8, at the same temperature and pressure, is not correct? A) The moles of N2O and C3H8 are equal. B) They have the same density. C) They have the same number of molecules. D) They have the same number of atoms. E) They have the same absolute temperature. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State Avogadro's law. TOP: phases | gas KEY: empirical gas laws | Avogadro's law
REF: 5.2 MSC: general chemistry
38. What volume of methane gas, CH4, has the same number of atoms as 6.00 L of krypton gas at the same temperature and pressure? A) 36.0 L B) 1.00 L C) 6.00 L D) 1.20 L E) 30.0 L ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: State Avogadro's law.
DIF: moderate TOP: phases | gas
REF: 5.2
39. What volume of gaseous water, H2O, has the same moles of gas as 10.0 L of xenon gas at the same temperature and pressure? A) 40.0 L B) 2.50 L C) 10.0 L D) 3.33 L E) 30.0 L ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: State Avogadro's law.
DIF: easy TOP: phases | gas
REF: 5.2
40. A gas occupies a volume of 2.00 L at 860 mmHg and 30.0°C. Which of the following mathematical expressions will yield its volume at STP? A) B) C)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
11
D) E) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Define standard temperature and pressure (STP). KEY: empirical gas laws | combined gas law
REF: 5.2 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
41. Which conditions of P, T, and n, respectively, are most ideal? A) low P, low T, low n B) high P, low T, high n C) low P, high T, high n D) low P, high T, low n E) high P, high T, high n ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.3 OBJ: State what makes a gas an ideal gas. TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law MSC: general chemistry 42. The behavior of PH3(g) is most likely to approach ideal behavior at A) 1.0 atm and 100°C. B) 0.10 atm and –100°C. C) 10 atm and 100°C. D) 0.10 atm and 100°C. E) 1.0 atm and 0°C. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.3 OBJ: State what makes a gas an ideal gas. TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law MSC: general chemistry 43. For an ideal gas, which of the following statements is true? A) V is inversely proportional to n at constant P and T. B) P is inversely proportional to T at constant n and V. C) P is inversely proportional to n at constant V and T. D) P is inversely proportional to V at constant n and T. E) V is inversely proportional to T at constant n and P. ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Learn the ideal gas law equation. MSC: general chemistry
DIF: easy TOP: phases | gas
REF: 5.3 KEY: ideal gas law
44. The volume of 1 mol of nitrogen A) is lower than that of 1mol ammonia at high pressures. B) is decreased by decreasing the pressure of the gas. C) has the value of 22.4 L at 0°C and 1.00 atm. D) is decreased by increasing its kinetic energy. E) is increased by decreasing the temperature.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
12
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Learn the ideal gas law equation. MSC: general chemistry
DIF: easy TOP: phases | gas
REF: 5.3 KEY: ideal gas law
45. Which of the following graphs does not correctly describe the ideal gas law? A)
B) They all correctly represent the ideal gas law. C)
D)
E)
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.3 OBJ: Derive the empirical gas laws from the ideal gas law. (Example 5.5) TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
13
46. What is the pressure of a 59.6-L gas sample containing 3.01 mol of gas at 44.9°C? (R = 0.0821 L • atm/(K • mol), 1 atm = 760 torr) A) 1.41 102 mmHg B) 1.73 10–3 mmHg C) 1.32 mmHg D) 1.00 103 mmHg E) 5.77 102 mmHg ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Use the ideal gas law. (Example 5.6) KEY: ideal gas law | calculations with the ideal gas law
REF: 5.3 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
47. How many moles of gas are in a gas sample occupying 0.738 L at 135 mmHg and 30°C? A) 190 mol B) 4.01 mol C) 40.5 mol D) 0.00527 mol E) 0.000433 mol ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Use the ideal gas law. (Example 5.6) KEY: ideal gas law | calculations with the ideal gas law
REF: 5.3 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
48. How many moles of gas are in a gas sample occupying 1.48 L at 591 mmHg and 302 K? A) 35.3 mol B) 0.0464 mol C) 21.5 mol D) 0.00381 mol E) 2.90 mol ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Use the ideal gas law. (Example 5.6) KEY: ideal gas law | calculations with the ideal gas law
REF: 5.3 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
49. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding a 320-g sample of gaseous sulfur dioxide at 0°C and 760 mmHg pressure? A) The density of the gas is 2.86 g/L. B) There are 5 6.02 1023 atoms of oxygen present. C) There are 5 mol of gas present. D) The molar mass of the gas is 64 g/mol. E) The volume of the gas is 112.1 L. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Use the ideal gas law. (Example 5.6) KEY: ideal gas law | calculations with the ideal gas law
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 5.3 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
14
50. The following gases are stored in identical flexible containers at 25C and 1.00 atm pressure. Order the gases from highest to lowest density. 1. 2. 3.
200 g propane, C3H8 100 g carbon dioxide, CO2 50 g nitrous oxide, N2O
A) 1 2 3 B) 3 > 2 > 1 C) 1 > 2 > 3 D) 2 > 1> 3 E) 1 > 2 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Use the ideal gas law. (Example 5.6)
easy
REF: 5.3 TOP: phases | gas
51. Which of the following samples has the fewest moles of gas? A) 1.00 L of CH4 at 10°C and 1.00 atm B) 1.00 L of Ar at –10.0°C and 1.00 atm C) 1.00 L of NH3 at STP D) 1.00 L of H2 at 0.0°C and 1.56 atm E) 1.00 L of HCl at 30°C and 1.00 atm ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Use the ideal gas law. (Example 5.6) KEY: ideal gas law | calculations with the ideal gas law
REF: 5.3 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
52. A 3.80-L cylinder contains 6.83 g of methane, CH4, at a pressure of 3320 mmHg. What is the temperature of the gas? A) 475 C B) 202 C C) 748 C D) 3240 C E) –62.4 C ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Use the ideal gas law. (Example 5.6)
easy
REF: 5.3 TOP: phases | gas
53. The number of molecules in 1.0 L of air at 0°C and 1.0 atm pressure is A) between 1020 and 1021. B) between 1023 and 6 1023. C) between 1022 and 1023. D) less than 1020. E) between 1021 and 1022. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Use the ideal gas law. (Example 5.6) KEY: ideal gas law | calculations with the ideal gas law
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 5.3 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
15
54. A mixture consisting of 0.120 mol N2, 0.018 mol O2, 0.112 mol CH4, and an unknown amount of CO2 occupies a volume of 9.04 L at 25°C and 1.17 atm pressure. How many moles of CO2 are there in this sample? A) 0.750 mol B) 0.182 mol C) 2.06 mol D) 4.90 mol E) 0.432 mol ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Use the ideal gas law. (Example 5.6) KEY: ideal gas law | calculations with the ideal gas law
REF: 5.3 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
55. Which of the following gases has the greatest density at 2.5 atm and 25°C? A) C3H8 B) SO2 C) N2O D) O2 E) NF3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.3 OBJ: Calculate gas density. (Example 5.7) TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law | gas density MSC: general chemistry 56. The density of ethane, C2H6 (30.1 g/mol), at 32°C and 1.31 atm pressure is A) 1.57 g/L. B) 19.2 g/L. C) 1.34 g/L. D) 0.635 g/L. E) 0.162 g/L. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.3 OBJ: Calculate gas density. (Example 5.7) TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law | gas density MSC: general chemistry 57. The density of O2 gas at 4°C and 1.57 atm is A) 153 g/L. B) 35.2 g/L. C) 2.21 g/L. D) 68.8 g/mL. E) 0.453 g/L. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.3 OBJ: Calculate gas density. (Example 5.7) TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law | gas density MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
16
58. A 1.00-L sample of a gas at STP has a mass of 1.16 g. The molar mass of the gas is A) 5.18 g/mol. B) 26.0 g/mol. C) 22.4 g/mol. D) 44.8 g/mol. E) 193 g/mol. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.3 OBJ: Determine the molecular mass of a vapor. (Example 5.8) TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law | calculations with the ideal gas law MSC: general chemistry 59. The density of a gas is 1.96 g/L at STP. What is its molar mass? A) 65.2 g/mol B) 58.9 g/mol C) 11.4 g/mol D) 22.4 g/mol E) 43.9 g/mol ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.3 OBJ: Determine the molecular mass of a vapor. (Example 5.8) TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law | gas density MSC: general chemistry 60. A 1.50-L sample of a gas at STP has a mass of 4.75 g. What is one possible formula of the gas? A) N2F4 B) NF3 C) NCl3 D) NHF2 E) NO2 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.3 OBJ: Determine the molecular mass of a vapor. (Example 5.8) TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law | calculations with the ideal gas law MSC: general chemistry 61. At 540.5 mmHg and 40.2oC, a 8.18-L sample of a hydrocarbon gas has a mass of 9.98 g. What is the formula of the gas? A) C2H2 B) C3H8 C) C3H6 D) C2H4 E) C2H6 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.3 OBJ: Determine the molecular mass of a vapor. (Example 5.8) TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law | calculations with the ideal gas law MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
17
62. It is found that at 27°C and 1.14 atm pressure, 2.22 L of gas has a mass of 3.49 g. Its molar mass is A) 46.2 g/mol. B) 34.0 g/mol. C) 29.4 g/mol. D) 30.6 g/mol. E) 39.8 g/mol. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.3 OBJ: Determine the molecular mass of a vapor. (Example 5.8) TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law | calculations with the ideal gas law MSC: general chemistry 63. At 28°C and 452 mmHg, an unknown pure gas has a density of 0.674 g/L. Which of the following gases could be the unknown gas? A) F2 B) C3H6 C) N2O D) Ne E) N2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.3 OBJ: Determine the molecular mass of a vapor. (Example 5.8) TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law | gas density MSC: general chemistry 64. An unknown gaseous hydrocarbon consists of 85.63% carbon by mass. A 0.335-g sample of the gas occupies a volume of 0.107 L at STP. What is the identity of the gas? A) C5H10 B) C6H12 C) C7H14 D) CH2 E) C4H8 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 5.3 OBJ: Determine the molecular mass of a vapor. (Example 5.8) TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law | calculations with the ideal gas law MSC: general chemistry 65. An excess of sodium hydroxide is treated with 2.4 L of dry hydrogen iodide gas measured at STP. What is the mass of sodium iodide is formed? A) 1.20 g B) 32.1 g C) 16.1 g D) 19 g E) 360 g ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.4 OBJ: Solving stoichiometry problems involving gas volumes. (Example 5.9) TOP: phases | gas
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
18
66. The balanced chemical equation for the conversion of nitrogen to ammonia is: 2N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) Which of the following statements concerning this chemical equation is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
In a 22.4 L container at standard temperature, 2 atm of nitrogen gas will react with 3 atm of hydrogen gas to produce 2 atm of ammonia gas. At standard pressure and temperature, 22.4 L of nitrogen gas will react with 22.4 L of hydrogen gas to produce 22.4 L of ammonia gas. At standard pressure and temperature, 44.8 L of nitrogen gas will react with 67.2 L of hydrogen gas produce 22.4 L of ammonia gas .
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.4 OBJ: Solving stoichiometry problems involving gas volumes. (Example 5.9) TOP: phases | gas 67. A 22.4 L high pressure reaction vessel is charged with 0.3910 mol of iron powder and 1.20 atm of oxygen gas at standard temperature. On heating, the iron and oxygen react according to the balanced reaction below. 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s) After the reaction vessel is cooled, and assuming the reaction goes to completion, what pressure of oxygen remains? A) 0.903 atm B) 1.196 atm C) 0.675 atm D) 0.293 atm E) 0.196 atm ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.4 OBJ: Solving stoichiometry problems involving gas volumes. (Example 5.9) TOP: phases | gas 68. A high temperature reaction vessel is charged with 0.5860 mol of iron powder and 35.1 L of oxygen gas at standard temperature at pressure. On heating, the iron and oxygen react according to the balanced reaction below. 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s) After the reaction vessel is cooled, and assuming the reaction goes to completion, what volume of oxygen remains?
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
19
A) 25.3 L B) 35.1 L C) 17.6 L D) 9.84 L E) 0.293 L ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.4 OBJ: Solving stoichiometry problems involving gas volumes. (Example 5.9) TOP: phases | gas 69. What is the total volume of gases produced at 819 K and 1.00 atm pressure when 320 g of ammonium nitrite undergoes the following decomposition reaction? NH4NO2(s) → N2(g) + 2H2O(g) A) 3 22.4 L B) 22.4 L C) 15 22.4 L D) 5 22.4 L E) 45 22.4 L ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.4 OBJ: Solving stoichiometry problems involving gas volumes. (Example 5.9) TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law | stoichiometry and gas volumes MSC: general chemistry 70. In which of the following reactions will the pressure increase upon completion of the reaction at constant temperature? A) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) B) 2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g) C) C2H6O(l) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l) D) 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) E) Cl2(g) + 3F2(g) → 2ClF3(g) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.4 OBJ: Solving stoichiometry problems involving gas volumes. (Example 5.9) TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law | stoichiometry and gas volumes MSC: general chemistry 71. What volume of ammonia gas, measured at 660.3 mmHg and 58.2oC, is required to produce 6.46 g of ammonium sulfate according to the following balanced chemical equation? 2NH3(g) + H2SO4(aq) → (NH4)2SO4(s) A) 0.000781 L B) 0.00312 L C) 0.765 L D) 11.9 L E) 3.06 L
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
20
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.4 OBJ: Solving stoichiometry problems involving gas volumes. (Example 5.9) TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law | stoichiometry and gas volumes MSC: general chemistry 72. If 379.8 mL of nitrogen gas, measured at 628.4 mmHg and 29.7oC, reacts with excess iodine according to the following reaction, what mass of nitrogen triiodide is produced? N2(g) + 3I2(s) → 2NI3(s) A) 0.354 g B) 4.99 g C) 2.49 g D) 9.98 g E) 102 g ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.4 OBJ: Solving stoichiometry problems involving gas volumes. (Example 5.9) TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law | stoichiometry and gas volumes MSC: general chemistry 73. The following equation represents the partial combustion of methane, CH4. 2CH4(g) + 3O2(g) → 2CO(g) + 4H2O(g) At constant temperature and pressure, what is the maximum volume of carbon monoxide that can be obtained from 3.39 102 L of methane and 1.70 102 L of oxygen? A) 5.09 102 L B) 3.39 102 L C) 1.19 103 L D) 1.13 102 L E) 6.78 102 L ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 5.4 OBJ: Solving stoichiometry problems involving gas volumes. (Example 5.9) TOP: phases | gas 74. Calcium nitrate will react with ammonium chloride at slightly elevated temperatures, as represented in the equation below. Ca(NO3)2(s) + 2NH4Cl(s) → 2N2O(g) + CaCl2(s) + 4H2O(g) What is the maximum volume of N2O at STP that could be produced using a 3.40-mol sample of each reactant? A) 9.28 102 L B) 152 L C) 1.31 10–2 L D) 76.2 L E) 22.4 L
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
21
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 5.4 OBJ: Solving stoichiometry problems involving gas volumes. (Example 5.9) TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law | stoichiometry and gas volumes MSC: general chemistry 75. The following equation represents the oxidation of ammonia, NH3. 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) At the same temperature and pressure, what is the maximum volume of nitrogen monoxide that can be obtained from 4.55 102 L of ammonia and 4.55 102 L of oxygen? A) 1.02 103 L B) 2.02 102 L C) 3.64 102 L D) 9.10 102 L E) 4.55 102 L ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 5.4 OBJ: Solving stoichiometry problems involving gas volumes. (Example 5.9) TOP: phases | gas KEY: ideal gas law | stoichiometry and gas volumes MSC: general chemistry 76. A vessel with a volume of 32.5 L contains 2.80 g of nitrogen gas, 0.403 g of hydrogen gas, and 79.9 g of argon gas. At 25°C, what is the pressure in the vessel? A) 63 atm B) 256.2 atm C) 1.73 atm D) 0.145 atm E) 0.87 atm ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Learn the equation for Dalton's law of partial pressures. KEY: gas mixtures | Dalton's law of partial pressures
REF: 5.5 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
77. What is the volume occupied by a mixture of 0.522 mol of N2 and 0.522 mol of O2 gases at 0.83 atm and 42.7°C? A) 9.79 102 L B) 32.6 L C) 2.20 L D) 4.41 L E) 16.3 L ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Learn the equation for Dalton's law of partial pressures. KEY: gas mixtures | Dalton's law of partial pressures
REF: 5.5 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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Test Bank
78. In a mixture of argon and hydrogen, occupying a volume of 1.66 L at 910.0 mmHg and 54.9oC, it is found that the total mass of the sample is 1.13 g. What is the partial pressure of argon? A) 455 mmHg B) 319 mmHg C) 866 mmHg D) 591 mmHg E) 43.7 mmHg ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 5.5 OBJ: Calculate the partial pressure and mole fractions of a gas in a mixture. (Example 5.10) TOP: phases | gas KEY: gas mixtures MSC: general chemistry 79. The partial pressures of CH4, N2, and O2 in a sample of gas were found to be 155 mmHg, 476 mmHg, and 669 mmHg, respectively. What is the mole fraction of nitrogen? A) 20.9 B) 0.880 C) 0.515 D) 0.410 E) 0.366 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.5 OBJ: Calculate the partial pressure and mole fractions of a gas in a mixture. (Example 5.10) TOP: phases | gas KEY: gas mixtures | Dalton's law of partial pressures MSC: general chemistry 80. A 24.1-g mixture of nitrogen and carbon dioxide is found to occupy a volume of 15.1 L when measured at 870.2 mmHg and 31.2oC. What is the mole fraction of nitrogen in this mixture? A) 0.539 B) 0.500 C) 0.461 D) 0.426 E) 0.574 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 5.5 OBJ: Calculate the partial pressure and mole fractions of a gas in a mixture. (Example 5.10) TOP: phases | gas KEY: gas mixtures MSC: general chemistry 81. A 19.3-g mixture of oxygen and argon is found to occupy a volume of 16.2 L when measured at 675.9 mmHg and 43.4oC. What is the partial pressure of oxygen in this mixture? A) 401 mmHg B) 338 mmHg C) 274 mmHg D) 437 mmHg E) 239 mmHg ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 5.5 OBJ: Calculate the partial pressure and mole fractions of a gas in a mixture. (Example 5.10) TOP: phases | gas KEY: gas mixtures MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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82. In a mixture of helium and chlorine, occupying a volume of 14.6 L at 871.7 mmHg and 28.6oC, it is found that the partial pressure of chlorine is 355 mmHg. What is the total mass of the sample? A) 50.6 g B) 1.10 g C) 21.1 g D) 1.60 g E) 19.5 g ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 5.5 OBJ: Calculate the partial pressure and mole fractions of a gas in a mixture. (Example 5.10) TOP: phases | gas KEY: gas mixtures MSC: general chemistry 83. What is the partial pressure of nitrogen in a container that contains 3.96 mol of oxygen, 7.49 mol of nitrogen, and 1.19 mol of carbon dioxide when the total pressure is 563 mmHg? A) 53.0 mmHg B) 819 mmHg C) 176 mmHg D) 334 mmHg E) 563 mmHg ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.5 OBJ: Calculate the partial pressure and mole fractions of a gas in a mixture. (Example 5.10) TOP: phases | gas KEY: gas mixtures | Dalton's law of partial pressures MSC: general chemistry 84. A sample of oxygen is collected over water at a total pressure of 690.7 mmHg at 19°C. The vapor pressure of water at 19°C is 16.5 mmHg. The partial pressure of the O2 is A) 0.9305 atm. B) 0.9349 atm. C) 0.9088 atm. D) 1.070 atm. E) 0.8871 atm. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.5 OBJ: Calculate the amount of gas collected over water. (Example 5.11) TOP: phases | gas KEY: gas mixtures | collecting gases over water MSC: general chemistry 85. A sample of hydrogen was collected by water displacement at 23.0°C and an atmospheric pressure of 735 mmHg. Its volume is 568 mL. After water vapor is removed, what volume would the hydrogen occupy at the same conditions of pressure and temperature? (The vapor pressure of water at 23.0°C is 21 mmHg.) A) 509 mL B) 539 mL C) 552 mL D) 568 mL E) 585 mL
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.5 OBJ: Calculate the amount of gas collected over water. (Example 5.11) TOP: phases | gas KEY: gas mixtures | collecting gases over water MSC: general chemistry 86. A small amount wet of hydrogen gas (H2) can be prepared by the reaction of zinc with excess hydrochloric acid and trapping the gas produced in an inverted tube initially filled with water. If the total pressure of the gas in the collection tube is 729.7 mmHg at 25C, what is the partial pressure of the hydrogen? The vapor pressure of water is 23.8 mmHg. A) 705.9 mmHg B) 753.5 mmHg C) 729.7 mmHg D) 31.51 mmHg E) 47.60 mmHg ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.5 OBJ: Calculate the amount of gas collected over water. (Example 5.11) TOP: phases | gas 87. Which statement is inconsistent with the kinetic theory of an ideal gas? A) Most of the volume occupied by a gas is empty space. B) The forces of repulsion between gas molecules are very weak or negligible. C) Gas molecules move in a straight line between collisions. D) The average kinetic energy of a gas is proportional to the absolute temperature. E) The collisions between gas molecules are inelastic. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.6 OBJ: List the five postulates of the kinetic theory. TOP: phases | gas KEY: kinetic theory of an ideal gas | postulates of kinetic theory MSC: general chemistry 88. Which of the following is included as a postulate in the kinetic molecular theory of an ideal gas? A) Collisions between molecules are all elastic. B) All molecules move randomly in zigzag directions. C) The distance between gas molecules is small compared with the size of the molecule. D) All the molecules have the same velocity. E) In an average collision between molecules, both molecules have the same kinetic energy. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.6 OBJ: List the five postulates of the kinetic theory. TOP: phases | gas KEY: kinetic theory of an ideal gas | postulates of kinetic theory MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
25
89. Which of the following is not a postulates of the kinetic molecular theory of gases? A) The gas molecules are in constant motion. B) At a constant temperature, each molecule has the same kinetic energy. C) The collisions between molecules are elastic. D) The volumes of the molecules are negligible compared with the volume of the container. E) The gas molecules are in rapid motion. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.6 OBJ: List the five postulates of the kinetic theory. TOP: phases | gas KEY: kinetic theory of an ideal gas | postulates of kinetic theory MSC: general chemistry 90. Which of the following statements is least likely to be true of a sample of nitrogen gas at STP? A) Collisions between the gaseous molecules are elastic. B) The intermolecular forces between nitrogen molecules are not negligible. C) Molecules of gaseous nitrogen are in constant random motion. D) The average kinetic energy of the gaseous nitrogen is proportional to the absolute temperature of the gas. E) The pressure exerted by gaseous nitrogen is due to collisions of the molecules with the walls of the container. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.6 OBJ: List the five postulates of the kinetic theory. TOP: phases | gas KEY: kinetic-molecular theory MSC: general chemistry 91. If a sample of nitrogen gas in a sealed container of fixed volume is heated from 25°C to 150°C, the value of which of the following quantities will remain constant? A) the average speed of the molecules B) the density of the nitrogen C) the average intensity of a molecular collision with the walls of the container D) the average kinetic energy of the molecules E) the pressure of the gas ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.6 OBJ: Provide a qualitative description of the gas laws based on the kinetic theory. TOP: phases | gas KEY: kinetic-molecular theory MSC: general chemistry 92. A sealed 22.4 L flask contains pure O2 at STP. A second sealed 22.4 L flask contains CH4 at STP. Which of the following statements concerning the molecules in the flasks is/are true? 1. 2. 3.
The average kinetic energy of the O2 molecules is greater than the average kinetic energy of CH4 molecules. The average velocity of the CH4 molecules is greater than the average velocity of the O2 molecules. The volume occupied by the gas molecules in both flasks is small relative to the total volume of the flasks.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
26
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.6 OBJ: Provide a qualitative description of the gas laws based on the kinetic theory. TOP: phases | gas 93. Which of the following statements concerning a sample of oxygen gas at 1.00 atm pressure is incorrect? A) The molecules are in constant rapid random motion. B) The pressure exerted by gaseous oxygen is due to the impact of the molecules with the walls of the container. C) The average kinetic energy of the gaseous oxygen is inversely proportional to the absolute temperature of the gas. D) The volume occupied by the oxygen molecules is negligible compared with the size of the container. E) Collisions between the gaseous molecules are elastic. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.7 OBJ: Describe how the root-mean-square (rms) molecular speed of gas molecules varies with temperature. TOP: phases | gas KEY: kinetic-molecular theory MSC: general chemistry 94. According to the postulates of the kinetic theory of gases, the root-mean-square (rms) speed of the molecules of a given gas is proportional to the A) reciprocal of the absolute temperature. B) Celsius temperature squared. C) absolute temperature. D) square root of the absolute temperature. E) absolute temperature squared. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.7 OBJ: Describe how the root-mean-square (rms) molecular speed of gas molecules varies with temperature. TOP: phases | gas KEY: molecular speed MSC: general chemistry 95. At STP, as the molar mass of the molecules that make up a pure gas increases, the A) root mean square speed of the molecules increases. B) root mean square speed of the molecules decreases. C) root mean square speed of the molecules remains constant. D) root mean square speed increases to a maximum, then decreases. E) none of the above.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
27
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.7 OBJ: Describe how the root-mean-square (rms) molecular speed of gas molecules varies with temperature. TOP: phases | gas 96. What is the ratio of the average speed of SO2 molecules to that of oxygen molecules at 298 K? A) : B) : C) 2:1 D) 1:2 E) 1:1 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.7 OBJ: Describe how the root-mean-square (rms) molecular speed of gas molecules varies with temperature. TOP: phases | gas KEY: kinetic-molecular theory MSC: general chemistry 97. Molecular speed distributions for a gas at two different temperatures are shown below. Which of the following graphs correctly describes the distributions at the two temperatures, where T2 > T1? NOTE: The small vertical lines indicate average speed. A)
B)
C)
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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D)
E) none of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.7 OBJ: Describe the molecular-speed distribution of gas molecules at different temperatures. TOP: phases | gas KEY: molecular speed MSC: general chemistry 98. Calculate the root-mean-square velocity for the O2 molecules in a sample of O2 gas at 24.3°C. (R = 8.3145 J/Kmol) A) 15.22 m/s B) 137.6 m/s C) 277.9 m/s D) 481.4 m/s E) 9.167 1026 m/s ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.7 OBJ: Calculate the rms speed of gas molecules. (Example 5.12) TOP: phases | gas KEY: molecular speed MSC: general chemistry 99. What is the ratio of the average speed of CH4 molecules to that of SO2 molecules at 298 K? A) 1:1 B) 1:2 C) 1.4:1 D) 1:1.4 E) 2:1 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.7 OBJ: Calculate the rms speed of gas molecules. (Example 5.12) TOP: phases | gas KEY: kinetic-molecular theory MSC: general chemistry 100. Which of the following relates the rate of effusion of a gas to the square root of its molar mass? A) Boyle’s law B) Graham’s law C) Charles’s law D) Dalton’s law E) Avogadro’s hypothesis ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: Define effusion and diffusion. KEY: molecular speed | effusion
Test Bank
DIF: easy REF: 5.7 TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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101. What is the ratio of the average rate of effusion of NOF(g) to that of HBr(g) at 400 K? A) 81:49 B) 7:9 C) 49:81 D) 9:7 E) The average rate of effusion is the same for the two gases. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.7 OBJ: Calculate the ratio of effusion rates of gases. (Example 5.13) TOP: phases | gas KEY: molecular speed | effusion MSC: general chemistry 102. Which of the following gases will have the slowest rate of effusion at constant temperature? A) H2 B) F2 C) Ne D) SO3 E) CF4 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.7 OBJ: Calculate the ratio of effusion rates of gases. (Example 5.13) TOP: phases | gas KEY: molecular speed | effusion MSC: general chemistry 103. The molar mass of an unknown gas was measured by an effusion experiment. It was found that it took 63 s for the gas to effuse, whereas nitrogen gas required 48 s. The molar mass of the gas is A) 24 g/mol. B) 37 g/mol. C) 16 g/mol. D) 32 g/mol. E) 48 g/mol. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.7 OBJ: Calculate the ratio of effusion rates of gases. (Example 5.13) TOP: phases | gas KEY: molecular speed | effusion MSC: general chemistry 104. If 250 mL of methane, CH4, effuses through a small hole in 28 s, the time required for the same volume of helium to pass through the hole under the same conditions will be A) 56 s. B) 7 s. C) 1.8 s. D) 14 s. E) 112 s. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.7 OBJ: Calculate the ratio of effusion rates of gases. (Example 5.13) TOP: phases | gas KEY: molecular speed | effusion MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
30
105. Under what set of conditions does HCl(g) deviate the most from ideal behavior? A) standard temperature and pressure B) high temperature and low pressure C) low temperature and high pressure D) low temperature and low pressure E) high temperature and high pressure ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5.8 OBJ: Explain how and why a real gas is different from an ideal gas. TOP: phases | gas KEY: real gases MSC: general chemistry 106. Real gases deviate from ideal behavior for two reasons: (1) real gas molecules have intermolecular forces, and (2) real gas molecules have A) pressures within the chemical bonds. B) nonzero molecular volumes. C) ionization energies. D) molecular vibrations. E) a distribution of molecular speeds. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.8 OBJ: Explain how and why a real gas is different from an ideal gas. TOP: phases | gas KEY: real gases MSC: general chemistry 107. At 320 K and 16 atm pressure, the molar volume of ammonia, NH3, is about 10% less than the molar volume of an ideal gas. The best explanation for actual volume being this much smaller than ideal volume is that A) the intermolecular forces of attraction become significant at this temperature and this pressure. B) the critical temperature and pressure of NH3 (405 K and 112 atm) are too close to the actual temperature and pressure of the NH3 above. C) at this high temperature, a significant amount of NH3 decomposes to N2 and H2. D) ammonia is a real gas and not an ideal gas. E) the volume occupied by the NH3 molecules themselves is significant at this high concentration. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.8 OBJ: Explain how and why a real gas is different from an ideal gas. TOP: phases | gas KEY: real gases MSC: general chemistry 108. Which of the following statements concerning gas molecules is incorrect? A) Attraction is greater between fast-moving molecules than between slow-moving molecules. B) Real molecules have a weak attraction for each other. C) Real molecules have the greatest attraction for each other at low temperatures. D) Real molecules have the greatest attraction for each other at high pressures. E) Real molecules occupy a finite space. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 5.8 OBJ: Explain how and why a real gas is different from an ideal gas. TOP: phases | gas KEY: real gases MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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109. Using the van der Waals equation, determine the pressure of 459.0 g of SO2(g) in a 4.40-L vessel at 625 K. For SO2(g), a = 6.865 L2 • atm/mol2 and b = 0.05679 L/mol. (R = 0.0821 L • atm/(K • mol)) A) 110 atm B) 8.06 atm C) 73.9 atm D) 83.6 atm E) 8.36 atm ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Use the van der Waals equation. (Example 5.14) KEY: real gases MSC: general chemistry
REF: 5.8 TOP: phases | gas
110. In the van der Waals equation,
the effect of intermolecular forces is accounted for by A) T. B) V. C) b. D) a. E) P. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Use the van der Waals equation. (Example 5.14) KEY: real gases MSC: general chemistry
REF: 5.8 TOP: phases | gas
111. From a consideration of the van der Waals constants for water and sulfur dioxide, H2O SO2
a (atmL2/mol2) 5.54 6.87
b (L/mol) 0.0305 0.0568
we can conclude that A) H2O molecules are smaller and less attracted to each other than SO2 molecules. B) H2O molecules are larger and less attracted to each other than SO2 molecules. C) H2O molecules are larger and more attracted to each other than SO2 molecules. D) H2O molecules are equivalent to SO2 molecules in size and attraction to each other. E) H2O molecules are smaller and more attracted to each other than SO2 molecules. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Use the van der Waals equation. (Example 5.14) KEY: real gases MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 5.8 TOP: phases | gas
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Chapter 6 - Thermochemistry 1. The energy associated with the separation of two electrical charges is called _____. A) heat B) internal energy C) temperature D) kinetic energy E) potential energy ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.1 OBJ: Define energy, kinetic energy, potential energy, and internal energy. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction 2. The energy associated with the motion of a speeding bullet is called _____. A) heat B) internal energy C) temperature D) kinetic energy E) potential energy ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.1 OBJ: Define energy, kinetic energy, potential energy, and internal energy. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction 3. The air whipped up by a tornado possesses what type(s) of energy? A) potential energy only B) internal energy only C) kinetic energy only D) kinetic energy, potential energy, and internal energy E) kinetic energy and potential energy only ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.1 OBJ: Define energy, kinetic energy, potential energy, and internal energy. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction 4. The internal energy of a substance is defined as A) the potential energy of all particles which make up the substance. B) the kinetic energy of all particles which make up the substance. C) the sum of the potential and kinetic energy of all particles which make up the substance. D) the thermal energy of all particles which make up the substance. E) the chemical energy of all particles which make up the substance. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.1 OBJ: Define energy, kinetic energy, potential energy, and internal energy. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
1
5. What is the kinetic energy of a 2000-lb car traveling at 48 miles per hour? (1 lb = 0.4536 kg, 1 mi = 1.609 km) A) 2.1 10–7 J B) 1.0 106 J C) 3.5 1019 J D) 2.1 105 J E) 3.1 10–8 J ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.1 OBJ: Calculate the kinetic energy of a moving object. (Example 6.1) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: energy | kinetic energy MSC: general chemistry 6. Calculate U of a gas for a process in which the gas absorbs 9 J of heat and does 25 J of work by expanding. A) 16 J B) 34 J C) –34 J D) 0, because U is a state function E) –16 J ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.2 OBJ: State the law of conservation of energy. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: energy | law of conservation of energy MSC: general chemistry 7. Which of the following is an endothermic process? A) work is done by the system on the surroundings B) heat energy flows from the system to the surroundings C) work is done on the system by the surroundings D) heat energy is evolved by the system E) none of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.3 OBJ: Distinguish between an exothermic process and an endothermic process. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction 8. Which of the following does not result in a change in the internal energy of the system? A) work is done on the system B) work is done on the surroundings C) heat flows into the system D) heat flows to the surroundings E) none of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.2 OBJ: Define work and heat. | Define the change in internal energy of a system. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
2
9. Which of the following statements about heat is false? A) If heat flows into a system, the extra energy of the system appears in the form of internal energy. B) A hot object possesses more heat than a cold object. C) If the system and surroundings are in thermal equilibrium, there is no heat flow between them. D) A process in which heat flows out of a system is said to be exothermic. E) Heat is a form of energy flow. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.2 OBJ: Define heat and heat of reaction. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: heat MSC: general chemistry 10. If q = –91 kJ for a certain process, that process A) requires a catalyst. B) is exothermic. C) occurs rapidly. D) is endothermic. E) cannot occur. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.3 OBJ: Distinguish between an exothermic process and an endothermic process. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: heat | heat of reaction MSC: general chemistry 11. If q = 28 kJ and w = 85 kJ for a certain process, that process A) requires a catalyst. B) is endothermic. C) occurs slowly. D) is exothermic. E) cannot occur. ANS: REF: OBJ: TOP:
B PTS: 1 DIF: easy to moderate 6.3 Distinguish between an exothermic process and an endothermic process. thermochemistry | heats of reaction
12. What is the change in internal energy of the system (U) if 10 kJ of heat energy is absorbed by the system and 70 kJ of work is done by the system for a certain process? A) –60 kJ B) 80 kJ C) 10 kJ D) 60 kJ E) –80 kJ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.2 OBJ: Express the first law of thermodynamics mathematically. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
3
13. At constant pressure, the sign of q for the process CO2(s) → CO2(g) is expected to be A) positive, and the process is exothermic. B) negative, and the process is exothermic. C) impossible to predict. D) positive, and the process is endothermic. E) negative, and the process is endothermic. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.3 OBJ: Distinguish between an exothermic process and an endothermic process. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: heat | heat of reaction MSC: general chemistry 14. At constant pressure, the sign of q for the process H2O(l) → H2O(s) is expected to be A) positive, and the process is exothermic. B) negative, and the process is endothermic. C) impossible to predict. D) negative, and the process is exothermic. E) positive, and the process is endothermic. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.2 OBJ: Distinguish between an exothermic process and an endothermic process. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: heat | heat of reaction MSC: general chemistry 15. Which of the following statements is not true for an exothermic reaction? A) The products have a higher heat content than the reactants. B) The temperature of the reaction system increases. C) The temperature of the surroundings increases. D) Heat passes from the reaction system to the surroundings. E) The enthalpy change for the reaction is negative. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.2 OBJ: Distinguish between an exothermic process and an endothermic process. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: enthalpy | enthalpy change MSC: general chemistry 16. H2 and F2 react according to the following equation, forming HF. H2(g) + F2(g) → 2HF(g); H° = –271 kJ If H2(g) and F2(g) were mixed in a thermally insulated vessel, the reaction that occurred would be A) endothermic, and the temperature of the reaction system would fall. B) We could not tell unless the original and final temperatures were given. C) exothermic, and the temperature of the reaction system would fall. D) exothermic, and the temperature of the reaction system would rise. E) endothermic, and the temperature of the reaction system would rise. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.3 OBJ: Distinguish between an exothermic process and an endothermic process. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: enthalpy | enthalpy of reaction MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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17. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) Internal energy is a state function. B) The value of q is positive when heat flows into a system from the surroundings. C) The value of q is positive in an endothermic process. D) Heat flows from a system into the surroundings in an endothermic process. E) Enthalpy is a state function. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.2 OBJ: Distinguish between an exothermic process and an endothermic process. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: heat MSC: general chemistry 18. Which of the following statements about enthalpy is false? A) Enthalpy is a state function. B) At constant pressure, the enthalpy change is equal to the heat absorbed or released. C) Enthalpy is an extensive property. D) The change in enthalpy of a process cannot be negative. E) The SI unit of enthalpy is J. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define enthalpy and enthalpy of reaction. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: enthalpy
REF: 6.3 MSC: general chemistry
19. The phrase “the heat absorbed or released by a system undergoing a physical or chemical change at constant pressure” is A) the change in enthalpy of the system. B) the change in internal energy of the system. C) the definition of a state function. D) the temperature change of the system. E) a statement of Hess’s law. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.3 OBJ: Explain how the terms enthalpy of reaction and heat of reaction are related. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: enthalpy | enthalpy change MSC: general chemistry 20. Which of the following statements is true concerning the decomposition of liquid water to form hydrogen gas and oxygen gas? 2H2O(l) → 2H2(g) + O2(g) A) H is greater than U because the pressure is constant. B) H is less than U because of the pressure–volume work done by the gaseous products. C) H is less than U because the atmosphere does pressure–volume work on the gaseous products. D) H equals U because both are state functions. E) H is greater than U because of the pressure–volume work done by the gaseous products.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
5
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.3 OBJ: Explain how enthalpy and internal energy are related. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: enthalpy | enthalpy and internal energy MSC: general chemistry 21. Under conditions of constant pressure, for which of the following reactions is the magnitude of pressure-volume work going to be greatest? A) BaO(s) + SO3(g) → BaSO4(s) B) 2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g) C) 2H2O2(l) → 2H2O(l) + O2(g) D) 2KClO3(s) → 2KCl(s) + 3O2(g) E) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.3 OBJ: Describe pressure-volume work verbally and mathematically. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction 22. Under conditions of constant pressure, for which of the following reactions is the magnitude of pressure-volume work going to be smallest? A) BaO(s) + SO3(g) → BaSO4(s) B) 2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g) C) 2H2O2(l) → 2H2O(l) + O2(g) D) 2KClO3(s) → 2KCl(s) + 3O2(g) E) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.3 OBJ: Describe pressure-volume work verbally and mathematically. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction 23. Which of the following sentences accurately describes the thermochemical equation given below? 2Ag(s) + F2(g) → 2AgF(s); H = –409.2 kJ A) If 2 mol of silver metal react with 1 mol of fluorine gas at constant volume, 2 mol of solid sodium fluoride is produced and 409.2 kJ of heat is consumed. B) If 2 atoms of silver metal react with 1 molecule of fluorine gas at constant pressure, 2 formula units of solid sodium fluoride are produced and 409.2 kJ of heat is released. C) If 2 atoms of silver metal react with 1 molecule of fluorine gas at constant pressure, 2 formula units of solid sodium fluoride are produced and 409.2 kJ of heat is consumed. D) If 2 mol of silver metal react with 1 mol of fluorine gas at constant pressure, 2 mol of solid sodium fluoride is produced and 409.2 kJ of heat is consumed. E) If 2 mol of silver metal react with 1 mol of fluorine gas at constant pressure, 2 mol of solid sodium fluoride is produced and 409.2 kJ of heat is released.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
6
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.4 OBJ: Write a thermochemical equation given pertinent information. (Example 6.2) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation MSC: general chemistry 24. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning the thermochemical equation below? 2SO3(g) → 2SO2(g) + O2(g); H° = 198 kJ A) The enthalpy of the reactants exceeds that of the products. B) The reaction is endothermic. C) For the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g), H° = –198 kJ. D) The external pressure is 1 atm. E) For every mole of SO3(g) consumed, 99 kJ of heat at constant pressure is consumed as well. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.4 OBJ: Write a thermochemical equation given pertinent information. (Example 6.2) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation MSC: general chemistry 25. In a certain experiment, 0.1000 mol of hydrogen gas reacted with 0.1000 mol of solid iodine at a constant 1 atm pressure, producing 0.2000 mol of solid hydrogen iodide and absorbing 5.272 kJ of heat in the process. Which of the following thermochemical equations correctly describes this experiment? A) H2(g) + I2(s) → 2HI(s); H° = –52.72 kJ B) H2(g) + I2(s) → 2HI(s); H° = 5.272 kJ C) H2(g) + I2(s) → 2HI(s); H° = –5.272 kJ D) H2(g) + I2(s) → 2HI(s); H° = 10.54 kJ E) H2(g) + I2(s) → 2HI(s); H° = 52.72 kJ ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 6.4 OBJ: Write a thermochemical equation given pertinent information. (Example 6.2) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation MSC: general chemistry 26. Given: 4AlCl3(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Al2O3(s) + 6Cl2(g); H = –529.0 kJ determine H for the following thermochemical equation. Cl2(g) + Al2O3(s) → AlCl3(s) + O2(g) A) +264.5 kJ B) +529.0 kJ C) +88.2 kJ D) +176.3 kJ E) –176.3 kJ
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
7
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.4 OBJ: Manipulate a thermochemical equation using these rules. (Example 6.3) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation MSC: general chemistry 27. Given the thermochemical equation 2Al(s) + O2(g) → Al2O3(s); H = –1676 kJ find H for the following reaction. 2Al2O3(s) → 4Al(s) + 3O2(g) A) 838 kJ B) 1676 kJ C) –1676 kJ D) 3352 kJ E) –838 kJ ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.4 OBJ: Manipulate a thermochemical equation using these rules. (Example 6.3) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | enthalpy of reaction MSC: general chemistry 28. Given: what is H for the following thermochemical equation?
A) 986.9 kJ B) -986.9 kJ C) –139 MJ D) –2320 kJ E) –38.7 kJ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.4 OBJ: Manipulate a thermochemical equation using these rules. (Example 6.3) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction 29. Which of the following statements is false concerning the reaction of hydrogen gas and oxygen gas given below? H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(l); H = –285.8 kJ A) Per mole of O2, the change in enthalpy is –571.6 kJ. B) The value –571.6 kJ pertains to 1 mol of liquid water. C) If the equation is reversed, H becomes +285.8 kJ. D) If the equation is multiplied by 2, H becomes –571.6 kJ. E) For the reaction H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(g), H is not equal to –285.8 kJ.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
8
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.4 OBJ: Manipulate a thermochemical equation using these rules. (Example 6.3) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation MSC: general chemistry 30. What is the change in enthalpy when 4.00 mol of sulfur trioxide decomposes to sulfur dioxide and oxygen gas? 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g); H° = 198 kJ A) 396 kJ B) –198 kJ C) –396 kJ D) 198 kJ E) 792 kJ ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 31. What is the change in enthalpy at 25°C and 1 atm for the production of 9.00 mol SnO(s)? Sn(s) + SnO2(s) → 2SnO(s); H° = 16.2 kJ A) –72.9 kJ B) –16.2 kJ C) 16.2 kJ D) 1.80 kJ E) 72.9 kJ ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 32. What is the change in enthalpy at 25°C and 1 atm for the reaction of 5.00 mol of elemental iron with excess oxygen gas? 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s); H° = –1651 kJ A) −1651 kJ B) 2752 kJ C) 2064 kJ D) –2064 kJ E) −412.8 kJ
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
9
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction 33. What is the quantity of heat evolved at constant pressure when 60.3 g H2O(l) is formed from the combustion of H2(g) and O2(g)? H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(l); H° = –285.8 kJ A) 1.17 10–2 kJ B) 285.8 kJ C) 1.72 104 kJ D) 85.4 kJ E) 9.57 102 kJ ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 34. What quantity, in moles, of hydrogen is consumed when 676.8 kJ of energy is evolved from the combustion of a mixture of H2(g) and O2(g)? H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(l); H° = –285.8 kJ A) 2.368 mol B) 1.184 mol C) 0.4223 mol D) 3.368 mol E) 1.368 mol ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction 35. What mass of hydrogen is consumed when 587.9 kJ of energy is evolved from the combustion of a mixture of H2(g) and O2(g)? H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(l); H° = –285.8 kJ A) 4.147 g B) 2.073 g C) 0.2412 g D) 6.162 g E) 2.131 g
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
10
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction 36. According to the following thermochemical equation, if 951.1 g of NO2 is produced, how much heat is released at constant pressure? 2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g); H° = –114.4 kJ A) 114.4 kJ B) 1.183 103 kJ C) 2.365 103 kJ D) 5.534 kJ E) 1.088 105 kJ ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 37. Consider the following thermochemical equation: N2(g) + 2O2(g) → 2NO2(g); H° = 66.2 kJ From this equation, we may conclude that 66.2 kJ is the quantity of heat that is A) gained from the surroundings when 1 mol of NO2 is formed at constant pressure. B) lost to the surroundings when 1 mol of NO2 is formed at constant pressure. C) gained from the surroundings when 2 mol of NO2 is formed at constant pressure. D) lost to the surroundings when 2 mol of NO2 is formed at constant pressure. E) lost to the surroundings when 1 mol of O2 is consumed at constant pressure. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 38. How much heat is liberated at constant pressure if 0.834 g of calcium carbonate reacts with 48.9 mL of 0.668 M hydrochloric acid? CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g); H° = –15.2 kJ A) –0.127 kJ B) –0.375 kJ C) –12.7 kJ D) –0.248 kJ E) –10.2 kJ
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
11
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 39. When 34.1 g of lead reacts with 6.81 L of oxygen gas, measured at 1.00 atm and 25.0°C, 36.1 kJ of heat is released at constant pressure. What is H° for this reaction? (R = 0.0821 L • atm/(K • mol)) 2Pb(s) + O2(g) → 2PbO(s) A) –4.39 102 kJ B) –5.94 101 kJ C) –3.61 101 kJ D) –2.19 102 kJ E) –1.30 102 kJ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 40. How much heat is evolved upon the complete oxidation of 9.118 g of aluminum at 25°C and 1 atm pressure? ( for Al2O3 is –1676 kJ/mol.) 4Al(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Al2O3(s) A) 1.528 104 kJ B) 566.4 kJ C) 1133 kJ D) 283.2 kJ E) 141.6 kJ ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
12
41. The reaction of iron with hydrochloric acid is represented by the following thermochemical equation. Fe(s) + 2HCl(aq) → FeCl2(aq) + H2(g); H° = –87.9 kJ How much heat is liberated at constant pressure if 0.358 g of iron reacts with 34.1 mL of 0.588 M HCl? A) 4.09 kJ B) 31.5 kJ C) 0.563 kJ D) 0.881 kJ E) 87.9 kJ ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 42. At constant pressure and 25C, what is H for the following reaction 2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + H2O(l) if the complete consumption of 11.3 g of C2H6 liberates –586.3 kJ of heat energy? A) –3120 kJ B) –1560 kJ C) –441 kJ D) –222 kJ E) –786 kJ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) 43. The reaction of iron with hydrochloric acid is represented by the following thermochemical equation. Fe(s) + 2HCl(aq) → FeCl2(aq) + H2(g); H° = –87.9 kJ If, in a particular experiment, 7.36 kJ of heat was released at constant pressure, what volume of H2(g), measured at STP, was produced? (R = 0.0821 L • atm/(K • mol)) A) 2.92 102 L B) 2.05 L C) 22.4 L D) 2.68 102 L E) 1.88 L
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
13
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 44. The reaction of iron with hydrochloric acid is represented by the following thermochemical equation. Fe(s) + 2HCl(aq) → FeCl2(aq) + H2(g); H° = –87.9 kJ In which of the following experiments would the temperature rise the most? A) 2.2 g of Fe added to 1.0 L of 0.03 M HCl B) 1.1 g of Fe added to 1.0 L of 0.02 M HCl C) 4.5 g of Fe added to 1.0 L of 0.03 M HCl D) 1.1 g of Fe added to 1.0 L of 0.04 M HCl E) 0.56 g of Fe added to 1.0 L of 0.02 M HCl ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 45. How much heat is released at constant pressure if 16.9 mL of 0.694 M silver nitrate is mixed with 79.7 mL of 0.372 M potassium chloride? AgNO3(aq) + KCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + KNO3(aq); H° = –65.5 kJ A) –0.768 kJ B) –24.4 kJ C) –1.94 kJ D) –45.5 kJ E) –2.71 kJ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 46. How much heat is liberated at constant pressure when 58.5 g of calcium oxide reacts with 83.9 L of carbon dioxide gas, measured at 1.00 atm pressure and 25.0°C? (R = 0.0821 L • atm/(K • mol)) CaO(s) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s); H° = –178.3 kJ
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
14
A) –6.11 102 kJ B) –1.04 104 kJ C) –7.97 102 kJ D) –1.86 102 kJ E) –1.50 104 kJ ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 47. When 32.4 mL of liquid benzene (C6H6, d = 0.879 g/mL) reacts with 81.6 L of oxygen gas, measured at 1.00 atm pressure and 25°C, 1.19 103 kJ of heat is released at constant pressure. What is H° for the following reaction? (R = 0.0821 L • atm/(K • mol)) 2C6H6(l) + 15O2(g) → 12CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) A) –2.35 101 kJ B) –3.22 102 kJ C) –5.36 103 kJ D) –3.27 103 kJ E) –6.53 103 kJ ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 48. When 49.4 mL of 0.721 M lead(II) nitrate reacts with 99.6 mL of 0.807 M sodium chloride, 0.830 kJ of heat is released at constant pressure. What is H° for this reaction? Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2NaCl(aq) → PbCl2(s) + 2NaNO3(aq) A) –23.3 kJ B) –10.3 kJ C) –4.23 kJ D) –7.15 kJ E) –20.6 kJ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
15
49. A 9.020-g sample of an unknown metal M is burned in the presence of excess oxygen, producing the oxide M2O3(s) and liberating 191.5 kJ of heat at constant pressure. What is the identity of the metal? 4M(s) + 3O2(g) → 2M2O3(s) Substance Yb2O3(s) Tb2O3(s) Sm2O3(s) Sc2O3(s) Y2O3(s)
H°f (kJ/mol) –1814.6 –1865.2 –1823.0 –1908.8 –1905.3
A) Sm B) Sc C) Yb D) Y E) Tb ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 50. A 5.09-g sample of solid silver reacted in excess chlorine gas to give a 6.76-g sample of pure solid AgCl. The heat given off in this reaction was 6.00 kJ at constant pressure. Given this information, what is the enthalpy of formation of AgCl(s)? A) –127 kJ/mol B) –63.6 kJ/mol C) 127 kJ/mol D) –6.00 kJ/mol E) 6.00 kJ/mol ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 51. A 2.19-g sample of solid calcium reacted in excess fluorine gas to give a 4.27-g sample of pure solid CaF2. The heat given off in this reaction was 67.0 kJ at constant pressure. Given this information, what is the enthalpy of formation of CaF2(s)? A) 67.0 kJ/mol B) –67.0 kJ/mol C) –1.23 103 kJ/mol D) –613 kJ/mol E) 1.23 103 kJ/mol Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
16
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 6.5 OBJ: Calculate the heat absorbed or evolved from a reaction given its enthalpy of reaction and the mass of a reactant or product. (Example 6.4) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 52. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a sample of a substance by 1°C is the sample’s A) work. B) calorimetry. C) heat capacity. D) specific heat. E) enthalpy. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.6 OBJ: Define heat capacity and specific heat. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | heat capacity MSC: general chemistry 53. The units for heat capacity are A) J/g. B) (J · g). C) J/°C. D) (J · °C). E) J/(g · °C). ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.6 OBJ: Define heat capacity and specific heat. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | heat capacity MSC: general chemistry 54. The units for specific heat are A) J/(g · °C). B) (J · °C). C) J/g. D) J/°C. E) (J · g). ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.6 OBJ: Define heat capacity and specific heat. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | heat capacity MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
17
55. The specific heat capacity of copper is 0.384 J/gC. What is the molar specific heat capacity of this substance? The molar mass of copper is 63.54 g/mol. A) 24.4 J/molC B) 0.00604 J/molC C) 165 J/molC D) 0.384 J/molC E) 2.60 J/molC ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Calculate molar specific heat capacity. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction
easy
REF: 6.6
56. The heat required to raise the temperature of 52.00 g of chromium by 1°C is called its A) heat of vaporization. B) specific heat. C) heat of fusion. D) entropy. E) molar heat capacity. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.6 OBJ: Define heat capacity and specific heat. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | heat capacity MSC: general chemistry 57. The molar heat capacity of gaseous heptane at 25.0°C is 165.2 J/(mol · °C). What is its specific heat? A) 0.6065 J/(g · °C) B) 1.649 J/(g · °C) C) 6.041 10–5 J/(g · °C) D) 165.2 J/(g · °C) E) 1.655 104 J/(g · °C) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.6 OBJ: Define heat capacity and specific heat. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | heat capacity MSC: general chemistry 58. A 100 g sample of each of the following metals is heated from 35C to 45C. Which metal absorbs the lowest amount of heat energy? Metal copper magnesium mercury silver lead
Test Bank
Specific Heat 0.385 J/(g · °C) 1.02 J/(g · °C) 0.138 J/(g · °C) 0.237 J/(g · °C) 0.129 J/(g · °C)
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) lead B) magnesium C) silver D) mercury E) copper ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.6 OBJ: Relate the heat absorbed or evolved to the specific heat, mass, and temperature change. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction 59. Two metals of equal mass with different heat capacities are subjected to the same amount of heat. Which undergoes the smaller change in temperature? A) The metal with the higher heat capacity undergoes the smaller change in temperature. B) Both undergo the same change in temperature. C) You need to know the initial temperatures of the metals. D) You need to know which metals you have. E) The metal with the lower heat capacity undergoes the smaller change in temperature. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.6 OBJ: Relate the heat absorbed or evolved to the specific heat, mass, and temperature change. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | specific heat MSC: general chemistry 60. It is relatively easy to change the temperature of a substance that A) is very massive. B) is an insulator. C) has a high specific heat capacity. D) has a low specific heat capacity. E) is brittle. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.6 OBJ: Relate the heat absorbed or evolved to the specific heat, mass, and temperature change. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | specific heat MSC: general chemistry 61. How much heat is gained by copper when 51.8 g of copper is warmed from 15.5°C to 76.4°C? The specific heat of copper is 0.385 J/(g · °C). A) 3.09 102 J B) 29.41 J C) 23.45 J D) 1.21 103 J E) 1.52 103 J
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
19
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.6 OBJ: Calculate using this relation between heat and specific heat. (Example 6. 5) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | measuring heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 62. Which of the following processes will result in the lowest final temperature of the metal– water mixture at equilibrium? A) the addition of 100 g of silver (s = 0.237 J/(g · °C)) at 95°C to 100 mL of water at 25°C in an insulated container B) the addition of 100 g of cobalt (s = 0.418 J/(g · °C)) at 95°C to 100 mL of water at 25°C in an insulated container C) the addition of 100 g of chromium (s = 0.447 J/(g · °C)) at 95°C to 100 mL of water at 25°C in an insulated container D) the addition of 100 g of copper (s = 0.385 J/(g · °C)) at 95°C to 100 mL of water at 25°C in an insulated container E) the addition of 100 g of gold (s = 0.129 J/(g · °C)) at 95°C to 100 mL of water at 25°C in an insulated container ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.6 OBJ: Calculate using this relation between heat and specific heat. (Example 6. 5) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | measuring heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 63. Which of the following processes will result in the lowest final temperature of the metal– water mixture at equilibrium? The specific heat of cobalt is 0.421 J/(g · °C). A) the addition of 100 g of cobalt at 95°C to 80 mL of water at 25°C in an insulated container B) the addition of 100 g of cobalt at 95°C to 100 mL of water at 25°C in an insulated container C) the addition of 100 g of cobalt at 95°C to 40 mL of water at 25°C in an insulated container D) the addition of 100 g of cobalt at 95°C to 20 mL of water at 25°C in an insulated container E) the addition of 100 g of cobalt at 95°C to 60 mL of water at 25°C in an insulated container ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.6 OBJ: Calculate using this relation between heat and specific heat. (Example 6. 5) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | measuring heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
20
64. A 170.0-g sample of metal at 79.00°C is added to 170.0 g of H2O(l) at 14.00°C in an insulated container. The temperature rises to 16.19°C. Neglecting the heat capacity of the container, what is the specific heat of the metal? The specific heat of H2O(l) is 4.18 J/(g · °C). A) 4.18 J/(g · °C) B) 120 J/(g · °C) C) 0.146 J/(g · °C) D) –0.146 J/(g · °C) E) 28.6 J/(g · °C) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 6.6 OBJ: Calculate using this relation between heat and specific heat. (Example 6. 5) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | specific heat MSC: general chemistry 65. Exactly 105.2 J will raise the temperature of 10.0 g of a metal from 25.0°C to 60.0°C. What is the specific heat capacity of the metal? A) 0.301 J/(g · °C) B) 3.33 J/(g · °C) C) 29.3 J/(g · °C) D) 25.2 J/(g · °C) E) none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.6 OBJ: Calculate using this relation between heat and specific heat. (Example 6. 5) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | specific heat MSC: general chemistry 66. A 85.9-g piece of cobalt (s = 0.421 J/(g · °C)), initially at 263.1°C, is added to 116.2 g of a liquid, initially at 24.7°C, in an insulated container. The final temperature of the metal– liquid mixture at equilibrium is 50.8°C. What is the identity of the liquid? Neglect the heat capacity of the container. A) hexane (s = 2.27 J/(g · °C)) B) methanol (s = 2.53 J/(g · °C)) C) acetone (s = 2.15 J/(g · °C)) D) ethanol (s = 2.43 J/(g · °C)) E) water (s = 4.18 J/(g · °C)) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.6 OBJ: Calculate using this relation between heat and specific heat. (Example 6. 5) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | specific heat MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
21
67. A 42.9-g sample of cobalt (s = 0.421 J/(g · °C)), initially at 157.2°C, is placed in an insulated vessel containing 120.9 g of water (s = 4.18 J/(g · °C)), initially at 19.2°C. Once equilibrium is reached, what is the final temperature of the metal–water mixture? Neglect the heat capacity of the vessel. A) 24.0°C B) 55.3°C C) 14.1°C D) 88.2°C E) 31.8°C ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 6.6 OBJ: Calculate using this relation between heat and specific heat. (Example 6. 5) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | specific heat MSC: general chemistry 68. How much heat must be applied to a 18.3-g sample of iron (s = 0.449 J/(g · °C)) in order to raise its temperature from 23.8°C to 356.6°C? A) 2.93 103 J B) 2.73 103 J C) 1.96 102 J D) 6.09 103 J E) 1.49 102 J ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.6 OBJ: Calculate using this relation between heat and specific heat. (Example 6. 5) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | specific heat MSC: general chemistry 69. A 94.7-g sample of silver (s = 0.237 J/(g · °C)), initially at 348.25°C, is added to an insulated vessel containing 143.6 g of water (s = 4.18 J/(g · °C)), initially at 13.97°C. At equilibrium, the final temperature of the metal–water mixture is 22.63°C. How much heat was absorbed by the water? The heat capacity of the vessel is 0.244 kJ/°C. A) 5.20 kJ B) 3.09 kJ C) 7.31 kJ D) 9.12 kJ E) 129 kJ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 6.6 OBJ: Calculate using this relation between heat and specific heat. (Example 6. 5) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | specific heat MSC: general chemistry 70. A 500-cm3 sample of 1.0 M NaOH(aq) is added to 500 cm3 of 1.0 M HCl(aq) in a Styrofoam cup, and the solution is quickly stirred. The rise in temperature (T1) is measured. The experiment is repeated using 100 cm3 of each solution, and the rise in temperature (T2) is measured. What conclusion can you draw about T1 and T2? HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → H2O(l) + NaCl(aq); H° = –55.8 kJ
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
22
A) T2 is greater than T1. B) T2 is equal to T1. C) T1 is five times as large as T2. D) T1 is less than T2. E) T2 is five times as large as T1. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 6.6 OBJ: Calculate using this relation between heat and specific heat. (Example 6. 5) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: thermochemical equation | stoichiometry and heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 71. In a bomb calorimeter, reactions are carried out A) at 1 atm pressure and 0°C. B) at a constant pressure. C) at a constant volume. D) at a constant pressure and 25°C. E) at 1 atm pressure and 25°C. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.6 OBJ: Define calorimeter. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | measuring heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 72. A bomb calorimeter has a heat capacity of 2.47 kJ/K. When a 0.105-g sample of a certain hydrocarbon was burned in this calorimeter, the temperature increased by 2.14 K. Calculate the energy of combustion for 1 g of the hydrocarbon. A) –5.29 J/g B) −5.03 10 5 J/g C) –0.120 J/g D) −2.35 10 3 J/g E) –0.560 J/g ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.6 OBJ: Calculate the enthalpy of reaction from calorimetric data (its temperature change and heat capacity). TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | measuring heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 73. When 7.13 g of methane (CH4) is burned in a bomb calorimeter (heat capacity = 2.677 103 J/°C), the temperature rises from 24.00 to 27.08°C. How much heat is absorbed by the calorimeter? CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l); H° = –1283.8 kJ A) 562 kJ B) 3.66 103 kJ C) 8.24 kJ D) 571 kJ E) 1.28 103 kJ Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 6.6 OBJ: Calculate the enthalpy of reaction from calorimetric data (its temperature change and heat capacity). TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | heat capacity MSC: general chemistry 74. When 0.0600 mol of HCl(aq) is reacted with 0.0600 mol of NaOH(aq) in 50.0 mL of water, the temperature of the solution increases by 15.1°C. What is the enthalpy of reaction for the following thermochemical equation? HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) Assume that the heat capacity of the solution and calorimeter is 221.3 J/°C. A) –0.201 kJ B) 55.8 kJ C) –3.35 kJ D) –55.8 kJ E) 3.35 kJ ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.6 OBJ: Calculate the enthalpy of reaction from calorimetric data (its temperature change and heat capacity). TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | measuring heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 75. When 50.0 mL of 1.20 M of HCl(aq) is combined with 50.0 mL of 1.30 M of NaOH(aq) in a coffee-cup calorimeter, the temperature of the solution increases by 8.01°C. What is the change in enthalpy for this balanced reaction? HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) Assume that the solution density is 1.00 g/mL and the specific heat capacity of the solution is 4.18 J/gC. A) –55.8 kJ B) 55.8 kJ C) 51.5 kJ D) –51.5 kJ E) –26.8 kJ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.6 OBJ: Calculate the enthalpy of reaction from calorimetric data (its temperature change and heat capacity). TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction 76. Combustion of 7.21 g of liquid benzene (C6H6) causes a temperature rise of 50.3°C in a constant-pressure calorimeter that has a heat capacity of 5.99 kJ/°C. What is H for the following reaction? C6H6(l) +
Test Bank
O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) –302 kJ/mol B) 41.8 kJ/mol C) –41.8 kJ/mol D) –3.27 103 kJ/mol E) 302 kJ/mol ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.6 OBJ: Calculate the enthalpy of reaction from calorimetric data (its temperature change and heat capacity). TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: calorimetry | measuring heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry 77. Given: Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2H2SO4(l) → 2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l); H° = –509.2 kJ SO3(g) + H2O(l) → H2SO4(l); H° = –130. kJ determine H° for the following thermochemical equation. Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2SO3(g) → 2PbSO4(s) A) 3.77 103 kJ B) –521 kJ C) –3.77 103 kJ D) –639 kJ E) –769 kJ ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.7 OBJ: Apply Hess's law to obtain the enthalpy change for one reaction from the enthalpy changes of a number of other reactions. (Example 6.7) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: Hess's law MSC: general chemistry 78. Given: Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g); H° = –26.8 kJ FeO(s) + CO(g) → Fe(s) + CO2(g); H° = –16.5 kJ determine H° for the following thermochemical equation. Fe2O3(s) + CO(g) → 2FeO(s) + CO2(g) A) 6.2 kJ B) 10.3 kJ C) 22.7 kJ D) –10.3 kJ E) –43.3 kJ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.7 OBJ: Apply Hess's law to obtain the enthalpy change for one reaction from the enthalpy changes of a number of other reactions. (Example 6.7) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: Hess's law MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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79. The overall chemical equation resulting from the sum of the following three steps is 2C(s) + 2H2O(g) → 2CO(g) + 2H2(g) CO(g) + H2O(g) → CO2(g) + H2(g) CO(g) + 3H2(g) → CH4(g) + H2O(g) A) 2C(s) + 2H2O(g) → CO2(g) + CH4(g) B) 2C(s) + 3H2O(g) → CO(g) + CO2(g) + 3H2(g) C) 2C(s) + H2O(g) + H2(g)→ CO(g) + CH4(g) D) 2CO(g) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g) + CO2(g) E) 2C(s) + CH4(g) + 3H2O(g) → CO(g) + 5H2(g) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply Hess's law to obtain the overall reaction. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction
REF: 6.7
80. Using the following data, calculate the standard enthalpy of reaction for the coal gasification process 2C(s) + 2H2O(g) → CH4(g) + CO2(g). C(s) + H2O(g) → CO(g) + H2(g); H° = +131.3 kJ CO(g) + H2O(g) → CO2(g) + H2(g); H° = –41.2 kJ CO(g) + 3H2(g) → CH4(g) + H2O(g); H° = –206.1 kJ A) –116.0 kJ B) 378.6 kJ C) +15.3 kJ D) –157.2 kJ E) –378.6 kJ ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.7 OBJ: Apply Hess's law to obtain the enthalpy change for one reaction from the enthalpy changes of a number of other reactions. (Example 6.7) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: Hess's law MSC: general chemistry 81. Given the following data, calculate the standard enthalpy of reaction for the conversion of buckminsterfullerene (C60) into diamond: C(graphite) → C(diamond); H° = +1.897 kJ 60C(graphite) → C60(fullerene); H° = +2193 kJ A) -35 kJ B) 35 kJ C) −2191 kJ D) 2191 kJ E) 38 kJ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.7 OBJ: Apply Hess's law to obtain the enthalpy change for one reaction from the enthalpy changes of a number of other reactions. (Example 6.7) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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82. Using two or more of the following, N2(g) + O2(g) → N2O3(s); H° = 83.7 kJ N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g); H° = 180.4 kJ N2(g) + O2(g) → NO2(g); H° = 33.2 kJ N2(g) + H2(g) → NH3(g); H° = −45.9 kJ determine H° for the following reaction. NO(g) + NO2(g) → N2O3(g) A) –39.7 kJ B) 24.3 kJ C) –207.1 kJ D) 39.7 kJ E) 207.1 kJ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.7 OBJ: Apply Hess's law to obtain the enthalpy change for one reaction from the enthalpy changes of a number of other reactions. (Example 6.7) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction 83. Consider the following changes at constant temperature and pressure: H2O(s) → H2O(l); H1 H2O(l) → H2O(g); H2 H2O(g) → H2O(s); H3 Using Hess’s law, the sum H1 + H2 + H3 is A) equal to zero. B) sometimes greater than zero and sometimes less than zero. C) less than zero. D) cannot be determined without numerical values for H. E) greater than zero. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.7 OBJ: Apply Hess's law to obtain the enthalpy change for one reaction from the enthalpy changes of a number of other reactions. (Example 6.7) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: Hess's law MSC: general chemistry 84. Given the following thermochemical data at 25°C and 1 atm pressure, O2(g) + 2B(s) → B2O3(s); H° = –1264 kJ O3(g) + 2B(s) → B2O3(s); H° = –1406 kJ determine H° for the following reaction at 25°C and 1 atm pressure. 3O2(g) → 2O3(g)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) –980 kJ/mol B) +284 kJ/mol C) +980 kJ/mol D) –2670 kJ/mol E) –284 kJ/mol ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.7 OBJ: Apply Hess's law to obtain the enthalpy change for one reaction from the enthalpy changes of a number of other reactions. (Example 6.7) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: Hess's law MSC: general chemistry 85. What is the standard enthalpy of formation of liquid methylamine (CH3NH2)? C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g); H° = –393.5 kJ 2H2O(l) → 2H2(g) + O2(g); H° = 571.6 kJ N2(g) + O2(g) → NO2(g); H° = 33.10 kJ 4CH3NH2(l) + 13O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 4NO2(g) + 10H2O(l); H° = –4110.4 kJ A) +3899.2 kJ/mol B) –3899.2 kJ/mol C) –47.3 kJ/mol D) +47.3 kJ/mol E) +3178.4 kJ ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 6.7 OBJ: Apply Hess's law to obtain the enthalpy change for one reaction from the enthalpy changes of a number of other reactions. (Example 6.7) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: Hess's law MSC: general chemistry 86. Given that O(g) + e– → O–(g); H = –142 kJ O(g) + 2e– → O2–(g); H = 702 kJ the enthalpy change for the reaction represented by the equation O–(g) + e– → O2–(g) is A) 0 kJ. B) –560 kJ. C) –844 kJ. D) 844 kJ. E) 560 kJ. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.7 OBJ: Apply Hess's law to obtain the enthalpy change for one reaction from the enthalpy changes of a number of other reactions. (Example 6.7) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: Hess's law MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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87. Which of the following has a standard enthalpy of formation value of zero at 25°C? A) Cl(g) B) Cl2(l) C) Cl2(g) D) Cl(s) E) Cl2(s) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.8 OBJ: Define standard state and reference form. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 88. Which of the following has a standard enthalpy of formation value of zero at 25°C? A) O2(g) B) O3(g) C) O2(l) D) O(g) E) O2(s) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.8 OBJ: Define standard state and reference form. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 89. All of the following have a standard enthalpy of formation value of zero at 25°C except A) C(s). B) Ne(g). C) Fe(s). D) F2(g). E) CO(g). ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.8 OBJ: Define standard state and reference form. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 90. Which substance has a standard enthalpy of formation equal to zero at 25°C? A) C2H6(g) B) Br2(g) C) Br2(l) D) Br2(s) E) C2H6(l) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.8 OBJ: Define standard state and reference form. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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91. Which of the following species does not have a standard enthalpy of formation equal to zero at 25°C? A) Cl2(l) B) N2(g) C) Fe(s) D) H+(aq) E) S8(s) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.8 OBJ: Define standard state and reference form. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 92. Which of the following has a standard enthalpy of formation value of zero at 25°C? A) C6H12O6(s) B) S8(s) C) FeSO4(s) D) H2O(l) E) FeSO4(aq) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.8 OBJ: Define standard state and reference form. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 93. Which of the following reactions corresponds to the thermochemical equation for the standard enthalpy of formation of solid lead (II) nitrate? A) Pb2+(aq) + 2NO3–(aq) → Pb(NO3)2(s) B) Pb(OH)2(s) + 2HNO3(aq) → Pb(NO3)2(s) + 2H2O(l) C) Pb(s) + N2(g) + 3O2(g) → Pb(NO3)2(s) D) Pb(s) + 2HNO3(aq) → Pb(NO3)2(s) + H2(g) E) Pb(s) + 2N(g) + 6O(g) → Pb(NO3)2(s) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.8 OBJ: Define standard enthalpy of formation. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 94. The standard enthalpy change for which of the following processes corresponds to the standard enthalpy of formation of solid cesium fluoride? A) Cs(s) + F2(s) → CsF(s) B) Cs(g) + F2(g) → CsF(g) C) Cs(g) + F(g) → CsF(s) D) Cs(s) + F2(g) → CsF(s) E) Cs(s) + F2(s) → CsF(g)
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.8 OBJ: Define standard enthalpy of formation. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 95. The enthalpy change at 1 atm of which reaction corresponds to the standard enthalpy of formation of solid potassium bromate, KBrO3? A) K(s) + Br(g) + 3O(g) → KBrO3(s) B) K(g) + Br(g) + 3O(g) → KBrO3(s) C) K(g) + Br2(g) + O2(g) → KBrO3(s) D) K(s) + Br2(l) + O2(g) → KBrO3(s) E) K(s) + Br2(g) + O2(g) → KBrO3(s) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.8 OBJ: Define standard enthalpy of formation. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 96. For which of the following equations is the enthalpy change at 1 atm pressure equal to the standard enthalpy of formation of liquid formic acid, HCOOH? A) C(g) + 2H(g) + 2O(g) → HCOOH(l) B) C(s) + 2H(g) + 2O(g) → HCOOH(l) C) C(s) + H2(g) + O2(g) → HCOOH(l) D) CO(g) + H2O(l) → HCOOH(l) E) CO2(g) + H2(g) → HCOOH(l) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.8 OBJ: Define standard enthalpy of formation. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 97. The balanced equation representing the standard enthalpy of formation reaction for NH3(g) is A) N(g) + H2(g) → NH3(g). B) N2(g) + 3H(g) → NH3(g). C) N(g) + 3H(g) → NH3(g). D) N2(g) + H2(g) → NH3(g). E) N2(g) + H2(g) → NH3(g). ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Define standard enthalpy of formation. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction
Test Bank
easy
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 6.8
31
98. The enthalpy change at 1 atm of which reaction corresponds to the standard enthalpy of formation of solid magnesium nitrate, Mg(NO3)2? A) Mg2+(g) + 2NO3–(g) → Mg(NO3)2(s) B) Mg(s) + N2(g) + 3O2(g) → Mg(NO3)2(s) C) Mg(g) + 2N(g) + 6O(g) → Mg(NO3)2(s) D) Mg(s) + N2(g) + 2O3(g) → Mg(NO3)2(s) E) Mg2+(aq) + 2NO3–(aq) → Mg(NO3)2(s) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.8 OBJ: Define standard enthalpy of formation. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 99. Which of the following reactions corresponds to the thermochemical equation for the standard enthalpy of formation of N,N-diethyl-m-toluamide, C12H17NO(l), the active ingredient in some insect repellents? A) 12C(l) + 17H(l) + N(l) + O(l) → C12H17NO(l) B) 12C(g) + 17H(g) + N(g) + O(g) → C12H17NO(g) C) 12C(s) + 17H(g) + N(g) + O(g) → C12H17NO(l) D) 12C(s) + H2(g) + N2(g) + O2(g) → C12H17NO(l) E) 12C(g) + 17H(g) + N(g) + O(g) → C12H17NO(l) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.8 OBJ: Define standard enthalpy of formation. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 100. What is H° for the following phase change? KCl(s) → KCl(l) Substance KCl(s) KCl(l)
H°f (kJ/mol) –436.68 –421.79
A) 858.47 kJ B) 14.89 kJ C) –858.47 kJ D) –14.89 kJ E) 0 kJ ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.8 OBJ: Calculate the heat of a phase transition using standard enthalpies of formation for the different phases. (Example 6.8) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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101. A 34.5-L sample of a gaseous hydrocarbon, measured at 1.00 atm pressure and 25.0°C, is burned in excess oxygen, liberating 2.20 103 kJ of heat at constant pressure. What is the identity of the hydrocarbon? (R = 0.0821 L · atm/(K · mol)) Substance CO2(g) H2O(l)
H°f (kJ/mol) –393.5 –285.8
A) propylene (C3H6, H°f = 20.41 kJ/mol) B) ethylene (C2H4, H°f = 52.47 kJ/mol) C) acetylene (C2H2, H°f = 226.73 kJ/mol) D) ethane (C2H6, H°f = –84.68 kJ/mol) E) propane (C3H8, H°f = –104.7 kJ/mol) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 6.8 OBJ: Calculate the heat (enthalpy) of reaction from the standard enthalpies of formation of the substances in the reaction. (Example 6.9) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 102. What is H° of the following reaction? CO2(g) + 2CH4(g) → C3H8(g) + O2(g) Substance CO2(g) CH4(g) C3H8(g)
H°f (kJ/mol) –393.5 –74.9 –104.7
A) –348.4 kJ B) –573.1 kJ C) 438.6 kJ D) 348.4 kJ E) –648.0 kJ ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.8 OBJ: Calculate the heat (enthalpy) of reaction from the standard enthalpies of formation of the substances in the reaction. (Example 6.9) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 103. From the following information, determine H°f of malonic acid, CH2(COOH)2(s). CH2(COOH)2(s) + 2O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 2H2O(l); H° = –861.0 kJ Substance CO2(g) H2O(l)
Test Bank
H°f (kJ/mol) –393.5 –285.8
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A) 2613 kJ B) 891.1 kJ C) −1540.3 kJ D) −2613.1 kJ E) −891.1 kJ ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.8 OBJ: Calculate the heat (enthalpy) of reaction from the standard enthalpies of formation of the substances in the reaction. (Example 6.9) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 104. At 25°C, when 1.00 g of sulfur is burned at constant pressure in excess oxygen to give SO2(g), 9.28 kJ of heat is liberated. What is the enthalpy of formation of SO2(g)? A) 9.28 kJ/mol B) –594 kJ/mol C) 298 kJ/mol D) –9.28 kJ/mol E) –298 kJ/mol ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 6.8 OBJ: Calculate the heat (enthalpy) of reaction from the standard enthalpies of formation of the substances in the reaction. (Example 6.9) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 105. What is the standard enthalpy of formation of liquid butyraldehyde, CH3CH2CH2CHO(l)? CH3CH2CH2CHO(l) + O2(g) → 4H2O(l) + 4CO2(g); H° = –2471.8 kJ Substance CO2(g) H2O(l)
H°f (kJ/mol) –393.5 –285.8
A) –245.4 kJ/mol B) +245.4 kJ/mol C) –1792.5 kJ/mol D) –3151.1 kJ/mol E) +3151.1 kJ/mol ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.8 OBJ: Calculate the heat (enthalpy) of reaction from the standard enthalpies of formation of the substances in the reaction. (Example 6.9) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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106. What is H° for the following reaction? 2C2H2(g) + 5O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) Substance C2H2(g) CO2(g) H2O(l)
H°f (kJ/mol) +226.7 –393.5 –285.8
A) +1692.2 kJ B) –452.6 kJ C) –1692.2 kJ D) +2599.0 kJ E) –2599.0 kJ ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.8 OBJ: Calculate the heat (enthalpy) of reaction from the standard enthalpies of formation of the substances in the reaction. (Example 6.9) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 107. What is the standard enthalpy change for the combustion of gaseous propylene, C3H6? C3H6(g) + O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 3H2O(l) Substance C3H6(g) CO2(g) H2O(l)
H°f (kJ/mol) +20.4 –393.5 –285.8
A) +2017.5 kJ B) –2058.3 kJ C) –658.9 kJ D) –2017.5 kJ E) +2058.3 kJ ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.8 OBJ: Calculate the heat (enthalpy) of reaction from the standard enthalpies of formation of the substances in the reaction. (Example 6.9) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 108. What is the standard enthalpy of formation of liquid n-butanol, CH3CH2CH2CH2OH? CH3CH2CH2CH2OH(l) + 6O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 5H2O(l); H° = –2675 kJ Substance CO2(g) H2O(l)
Test Bank
H°f (kJ/mol) –393.5 –285.8
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A) –328 kJ B) +3355 kJ C) –1996 kJ D) +328 kJ E) –3355 kJ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.8 OBJ: Calculate the heat (enthalpy) of reaction from the standard enthalpies of formation of the substances in the reaction. (Example 6.9) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 109. At 25°C, the standard enthalpy of combustion of gaseous propane (C3H8) is –2219.0 kJ per mole of propane, and the standard enthalpy of combustion of gaseous propylene (C3H6) is – 2058.3 kJ per mole of propylene. What is the standard enthalpy change for the following reaction at 25°C? C3H6(g) + H2(g) → C3H8(g) Substance CO2(g) H2O(l)
H°f (kJ/mol) –393.5 –285.8
A) +104.7 kJ B) –20.4 kJ C) –125.1 kJ D) +160.7 kJ E) –160.7 kJ ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.8 OBJ: Calculate the heat (enthalpy) of reaction from the standard enthalpies of formation of the substances in the reaction. (Example 6.9) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 110. What is the standard enthalpy change for the combustion of liquid cyclopentane, C5H10? 2C5H10(l) + 15O2(g) → 10CO2(g) + 10H2O(l) Substance C5H10(l) CO2(g) H2O(l)
H°f (kJ/mol) –105.6 –393.5 –285.8
A) +573.7 kJ B) –573.7 kJ C) +784.9 kJ D) –784.9 kJ E) –6581.8 kJ
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
36
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.8 OBJ: Calculate the heat (enthalpy) of reaction from the standard enthalpies of formation of the substances in the reaction. (Example 6.9) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 111. What is the standard enthalpy change for the following reaction? 3CH4(g) + 4O3(g) → 3CO2(g) + 6H2O(g) Substance CH4(g) O3(g) CO2(g) H2O(g)
H°f (kJ/mol) –74.87 +142.7 –393.5 –241.8
A) –2285.1 kJ B) –2977.5 kJ C) +2977.5 kJ D) +2285.1 kJ E) –3426.5 kJ ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.8 OBJ: Calculate the heat (enthalpy) of reaction from the standard enthalpies of formation of the substances in the reaction. (Example 6.9) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 112. What is the standard enthalpy change for the following reaction? N2H4(l) + 2NO2(g) → 2N2O(g) + 2H2O(l) Substance N2H4(l) NO2(g) N2O(g) H2O(l)
H°f (kJ/mol) +50.6 +33.1 +82.1 –285.8
A) –290.6 kJ B) –524.2 kJ C) –119.7 kJ D) +290.6 kJ E) +119.7 kJ ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.8 OBJ: Calculate the heat (enthalpy) of reaction from the standard enthalpies of formation of the substances in the reaction. (Example 6.9) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
37
113. What is the standard enthalpy of formation of liquid diethylamine, (CH3CH2)2NH? N2O5(g) + 8CH4(g) → 2(CH3CH2)2NH(l) + 5H2O(l); H° = –1103 kJ Substance N2O5(g) CH4(g) H2O(l)
H°f (kJ/mol) +11.3 –74.9 –285.8
A) –131 kJ/mol B) –421 kJ/mol C) +131 kJ/mol D) –1452 kJ/mol E) +421 kJ/mol ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.8 OBJ: Calculate the heat (enthalpy) of reaction from the standard enthalpies of formation of the substances in the reaction. (Example 6.9) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 114. The standard enthalpies of formation of various iodine species are as follows: Substance I(g) I2(g) HI(g)
H°f (kJ/mol) +107 +21 +26
What additional information is needed to calculate the standard enthalpy change of the following reaction? H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g) A) none, because the answer is 2 times 26 kJ/mol B) the enthalpy of formation of I−(g) and H+(g) C) the enthalpy of formation of solid iodine D) none, because the enthalpy of formation of I2(g) and HI(g) are given and the enthalpy of elemental hydrogen is zero E) the enthalpy of formation of gaseous hydrogen ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.8 OBJ: Calculate the heat (enthalpy) of reaction from the standard enthalpies of formation of the substances in the reaction. (Example 6.9) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 115. What is the standard enthalpy of formation of MgCO3(s)? MgO(s) + CO2(g) → MgCO3(s); H° = –100.7 kJ Substance MgO(s) CO2(g)
Test Bank
H°f (kJ/mol) –601.6 –393.5
General Chemistry, 10th edition
38
A) 107.4 kJ B) –308.8 kJ C) –894.4 kJ D) –1095.8 kJ E) 894.4 kJ ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.8 OBJ: Calculate the heat (enthalpy) of reaction from the standard enthalpies of formation of the substances in the reaction. (Example 6.9) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 116. From the following information, determine the enthalpy of formation of C2H4(g). C2H4(g) → C(s) + H2(g); H = –26.2 kJ A) –26.2 kJ/mol B) 26.2 kJ/mol C) 104.8 kJ/mol D) –52.4 kJ/mol E) 52.4 kJ/mol ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.8 OBJ: Calculate the heat (enthalpy) of reaction from the standard enthalpies of formation of the substances in the reaction. (Example 6.9) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 117. Calculate the change in enthalpy when 52.0 g of solid chromium at 25°C and 1 atm pressure is oxidized. (H°f for Cr2O3(s) is –1135 kJ/mol.) 4Cr(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Cr2O3(s) A) –1135 kJ B) –284 kJ C) –568 kJ D) +1135 kJ E) +568 kJ ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 6.8 OBJ: Calculate the heat (enthalpy) of reaction from the standard enthalpies of formation of the substances in the reaction. (Example 6.9) TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction KEY: standard enthalpies of formation MSC: general chemistry 118. Which of the following is/are correct about fossil fuels? 1. 2. 3.
Anthracite coal is pure, amorphous carbon. Purified natural gas is a mixture of primarily methane and small amounts of ethane, propane, and butane. Gasoline obtained from petroleum primarily contains the hydrocarbon octane (C8H18).
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
39
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3 E) none ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: List the three major fossil fuels.
DIF: easy REF: 6.9 TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction
119. Which of the following is not a fuel–oxidizer mixture used in rockets? A) kerosene–oxygen B) hydrogen–oxygen C) octane–oxygen D) aluminum–ammonium perchlorate E) hydrazine–dinitrogen tetroxide ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 6.9 OBJ: Describe some fuel-oxidizer systems used in rockets. TOP: thermochemistry | heats of reaction MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
40
Chapter 7 - Quantum Theory of the Atom 1. What is the wavelength of a photon having a frequency of 64.6 THz? (1 THz = 1015 Hz, c = 3.00 m/s, h = 6.63 10–34 J s) A) 0.215 nm B) 4.28 10–23 nm C) 1.28 10–14 nm D) 4.64 nm E) 4.64 1015 nm ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.1 OBJ: Relate the wavelength, frequency, and speed of light. (Examples 7.1 and 7.2) TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: electromagnetic radiation MSC: general chemistry 2. Which of the following is/are true about electromagnetic radiation? 1. 2. 3.
Wavelength is inversely proportional to frequency. Frequency has units of s-1 or Hz. Waves of different wavelengths travel at different speeds in a vacuum.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.1 OBJ: Relate the wavelength, frequency, and speed of light. (Examples 7.1 and 7.2) TOP: atomic theory | light 3. What is the wavelength of a photon having a frequency of 4.50 10 ( , ) A) 667 nm B) 1.50 10 −3 nm C) 4.42 10 −31 nm D) 0.0895 nm E) 2.98 10 −10 nm
14
Hz?
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.1 OBJ: Relate the wavelength, frequency, and speed of light. (Examples 7.1 and 7.2) TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: electromagnetic radiation MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
1
4. What is the frequency of a photon having a wavelength of 954.9 nm? ( ) –4 A) 3.14 10 Hz B) 1.44 1027 Hz C) 3.14 1014 Hz D) 2.08 10–37 Hz E) 2.08 10–19 Hz
,
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.1 OBJ: Relate the wavelength, frequency, and speed of light. (Examples 7.1 and 7.2) TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: electromagnetic radiation MSC: general chemistry 5. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) As the energy of a photon increases, its frequency decreases. B) As the wavelength of a photon increases, its energy decreases. C) The product of wavelength and frequency of electromagnetic radiation is a constant. D) As the wavelength of a photon increases, its frequency decreases. E) As the frequency of a photon increases, its wavelength decreases. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.1 OBJ: Relate the wavelength, frequency, and speed of light. (Examples 7.1 and 7.2) TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: electromagnetic radiation MSC: general chemistry 6. Which type of electromagnetic radiation has the shortest wavelength? A) red light B) x rays C) microwaves D) gamma rays E) blue light ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.1 OBJ: Describe the different regions of the electromagnetic spectrum. TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: electromagnetic radiation MSC: general chemistry 7. Which type of electromagnetic radiation has the highest frequency? A) microwaves B) visible C) radio waves D) infrared E) ultraviolet ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.1 OBJ: Describe the different regions of the electromagnetic spectrum. TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: electromagnetic radiation MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
2
8. Rank the following regions of the electromagnetic spectrum in order of decreasing frequency. X rays, Microwaves, Infrared, Ultraviolet A) infrared, microwaves, ultraviolet, x rays B) x rays, microwaves, infrared, ultraviolet C) microwaves, infrared, ultraviolet, x rays D) microwaves, ultraviolet, infrared, x rays E) x rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.1 OBJ: Describe the different regions of the electromagnetic spectrum. TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: electromagnetic radiation MSC: general chemistry 9. A photon of red light has a ____ frequency and a ____ wavelength than a photon of blue light. A) lower, longer B) higher, shorter C) lower, shorter D) higher, longer E) lower, lower ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 7.1 OBJ: Describe the different regions of the electromagnetic spectrum. TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: electromagnetic radiation MSC: general chemistry 10. Based on the photoelectric effect, Einstein proposed the idea that A) the energy of a single particle or photon of light is inversely proportional to its frequency. B) the wavelength of light is inversely proportional to its frequency. C) particles can show characteristics of waves under certain experimental conditions. D) the energy of an object is proportional to its mass. E) light has particle-like properties. ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Describe the photoelectric effect.
DIF: easy REF: 7.2 TOP: atomic theory | light
11. When a particular metal is illuminated with photons, one electron is observed for each absorbed photon. What effect would decreasing the wavelength and number of photons have on the electrons leaving the surface? A) There would be more electrons leaving the surface. B) They would have higher kinetic energy. C) The electron velocity would be lower. D) The kinetic energy of the electrons would be lower. E) Two photons might be required to eject the electrons. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 7.2 OBJ: Describe the photoelectric effect. TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: quantum effects and photons | photoelectric effect MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
3
12. A laser emits photons having an energy of 3.74 10–19 J. What color would be expected for the light emitted by this laser? (c = 3.00 m/s, h = 6.63 10–34 J s) A) yellow to orange B) orange to red C) green D) violet E) blue ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 7.2 OBJ: Calculate the energy of a photon from its frequency or wavelength. (Example 7.3) TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: electromagnetic radiation MSC: general chemistry 13. A light emitting diode (L.E.D.) emits photons with an energy of 3.221 10 −19 J. What is the energy per mole of photons emitted? A) 1.939 10 5 J/mol B) 5.348 10 −46 J/mol C) 1.939 10 8 J/mol D) 3.221 10 −19 J/mol E) 5.348 10 −40 J/mol ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 7.2 OBJ: Calculate the energy of a mole of photons from its energy per photon. TOP: atomic theory | light 14. Which type of electromagnetic radiation has the highest energy? A) radio waves B) x rays C) red light D) blue light E) gamma rays ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.2 OBJ: Calculate the energy of a photon from its frequency or wavelength. (Example 7.3) TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: quantum effects and photons | Planck's quantization of energy MSC: general chemistry 15. What is the energy of a photon of electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 877.4 nm? ( ) A) 2.27 10 −19 J B) 5.82 10 −40 J C) 2.27 10 −28 J D) 3.42 10 14 J E) 1.94 10 −39 J
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
4
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.2 OBJ: Calculate the energy of a photon from its frequency or wavelength. (Example 7.3) TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: quantum effects and photons | Planck's quantization of energy MSC: general chemistry 16. What is the energy of a photon of electromagnetic radiation with a frequency of 3.84 10 14 Hz? ( ) A) 1.15 10 23 J B) 7.64 10 −11 J C) 5.18 10 −40 J D) 7.81 10 −7 J E) 2.55 10 −19 J ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.2 OBJ: Calculate the energy of a photon from its frequency or wavelength. (Example 7.3) TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: quantum effects and photons | Planck's quantization of energy MSC: general chemistry 17. What is the wavelength of a photon that has an energy of 2.36 10 −16 J? ( ) A) 2.36 10 −7 nm B) 3.56 10 17 nm C) 0.843 nm D) 7.08 10 1 nm E) 4.69 10 −32 nm ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.2 OBJ: Calculate the energy of a photon from its frequency or wavelength. (Example 7.3) TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: quantum effects and photons | Planck's quantization of energy MSC: general chemistry 18. What is the frequency of a photon having an energy of ( ) A) B) C) D) E) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.2 OBJ: Calculate the energy of a photon from its frequency or wavelength. (Example 7.3) TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: quantum effects and photons | Planck's quantization of energy MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
5
19. What is the wavelength of photons that have molar energy of 479 kJ/mol? ( ) A) B) C) D) E) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 7.2 OBJ: Calculate the energy of a photon from its frequency or wavelength. (Example 7.3) TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: quantum effects and photons | Planck's quantization of energy MSC: general chemistry 20. What is the frequency of photons that have molar energy of 525 kJ/mol? ( ) A) B) C) D) E) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 7.2 OBJ: Calculate the energy of a photon from its frequency or wavelength. (Example 7.3) TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: quantum effects and photons | Planck's quantization of energy MSC: general chemistry 21. What is the energy per mole of photons with a wavelength of 976.9 nm? ( ) A) B) C) D) E) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 7.2 OBJ: Calculate the energy of a photon from its frequency or wavelength. (Example 7.3) TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: quantum effects and photons | Planck's quantization of energy MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
6
22. What is the energy per mole of photons having a frequency of ( ) A) B) C) D) E) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 7.2 OBJ: Calculate the energy of a photon from its frequency or wavelength. (Example 7.3) TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: quantum effects and photons | Planck's quantization of energy MSC: general chemistry 23. Which of the following scientists first postulated that the sharp lines in the emission spectra of elements were caused by electrons going from high-energy levels to low-energy levels? A) Rutherford B) Pauli C) Hund D) de Broglie E) Bohr ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.3 OBJ: State the postulates of Bohr's theory of the hydrogen atom. TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: Bohr theory | Bohr's postulates MSC: general chemistry 24. Which of the following is/are correct postulates of Bohr’s theory of the hydrogen atom ? 1. 2. 3.
The energy of an electron in an atom is quantized (i.e. only specific energy values are possible). The principal quantum number (n), specifies each unique energy level. An electron transition from a lower energy level to a higher energy level results in an emission of a photon of light.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.3 OBJ: State the postulates of Bohr's theory of the hydrogen atom. TOP: atomic theory | light
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
7
25. Whose postulates account for the line spectrum of an atom? A) Thomson B) de Broglie C) Heisenberg D) Rutherford E) Bohr ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.3 OBJ: State the postulates of Bohr's theory of the hydrogen atom. TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: Bohr theory | Bohr's postulates MSC: general chemistry 26. Who postulated that energy is radiated only when an electron falls from a higher-energy level to a lower-energy level? A) Bohr B) Heisenberg C) Rutherford D) Einstein E) Millikan ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.3 OBJ: State the postulates of Bohr's theory of the hydrogen atom. TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: Bohr theory | Bohr's postulates MSC: general chemistry 27. In Bohr's atomic theory, when an electron moves from one energy level to another energy level more distant from the nucleus, A) energy is absorbed. B) light is emitted. C) energy is emitted. D) no change in energy occurs. E) none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.3 OBJ: State the postulates of Bohr's theory of the hydrogen atom. TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: Bohr theory | Bohr's postulates MSC: general chemistry 28. When an electron in an atom makes a transition from n = 6 to n = 4, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. II. III. IV. V.
Energy is emitted. Energy is absorbed. The electron loses energy. The electron gains energy. The electron cannot make this transition.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
8
A) I and III B) I and IV C) II and IV D) II and III E) III ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.3 OBJ: Relate the energy of a photon to the associated energy levels of an atom. TOP: atomic theory | light 29. From the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, we can conclude that the energy required to excite an electron from n = 5 to n = 6 is ____ the energy required to excite an electron from n = 4 to 5. A) less than B) greater than C) equal to D) either equal to or less than E) either equal to or greater than ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 7.3 OBJ: Relate the energy of a photon to the associated energy levels of an atom. TOP: atomic theory | light 30. What is the wavelength of light emitted when the electron in a hydrogen atom undergoes a transition from level ( ) A) B) C) D) E) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 7.3 OBJ: Determine the wavelength or frequency of a hydrogen atom transition. (Example 7.4) TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: Bohr theory | atomic line spectra MSC: general chemistry 31. What is the frequency of light emitted when the electron in a hydrogen atom undergoes a transition from level ( ) A) B) C) D) E) Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
9
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 7.3 OBJ: Determine the wavelength or frequency of a hydrogen atom transition. (Example 7.4) TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: Bohr theory | atomic line spectra MSC: general chemistry 32. The electron in a hydrogen atom, originally in level , undergoes a transition to a lower level by emitting a photon of wavelength 1006 nm. What is the final level of the electron? ( A) 3 B) 4 C) 7 D) 8 E) 1 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 7.3 OBJ: Determine the wavelength or frequency of a hydrogen atom transition. (Example 7.4) TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: Bohr theory | atomic line spectra MSC: general chemistry 33. Consider the following energy-level diagram for a particular electron in an atom.
Based on this diagram, which of the following statements is incorrect? A) The wavelength of a photon emitted by the electron jumping from level 2 to level 1 is given by
.
B) If the electron is in level 1, it may jump to level 2 by absorbing a photon with energy of E. C) If the electron is in level 1, it may jump to level 2 by absorbing any photon having energy of at least E. D) We would observe an electron jumping from level 2 to level 1 as a single line in a line spectrum. E) If the electron is in level 2, it may jump to level 1 by emitting a photon with energy of |E|. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 7.3 OBJ: Describe the difference between emission and absorption of light by an atom. TOP: atomic theory | light KEY: Bohr theory | Bohr's postulates MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
10
34. The contribution for which de Broglie is best remembered in modern science is A) his statement that no electron can have identical values for all four quantum numbers. B) his proposal that particles of matter should be associated with wavelike behavior. C) his statement that an electron can exist in an atom only in discrete energy levels. D) his statement that elements show periodic repetition of properties. E) his statement that electrons occupy all the orbitals of a given sublevel singly before pairing begins. ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: State the de Broglie relation. KEY: de Broglie relation
DIF: easy REF: 7.4 TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics MSC: general chemistry
35. Which of the following statements concerning quantum mechanics is/are true? 1. 2. 3.
The behavior of submicroscopic particles can sometimes be described as waves. Quantum mechanics limits us to making statistical statements about the location of an electron in an atom. The uncertainty principle is important only for particles of very small mass, such as the electron.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Define Quantum mechanics.
DIF: easy REF: 7.4 TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics
36. What is the wavelength of a 149-g baseball traveling at 97.2 mph? ( ) A) B) C) D) E) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 7.4 OBJ: Calculate the wavelength of a moving particle. (Example 7.5) TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: de Broglie relation MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
11
37. What is the wavelength of an electron traveling at 7.59% of the speed of light? ( ) A) B) C) D) E) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 7.4 OBJ: Calculate the wavelength of a moving particle. (Example 7.5) TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: de Broglie relation MSC: general chemistry 38. If the location of a particular electron can be measured only to a precision of 0.011 nm, what is the minimum uncertainty in the electron's velocity? ( ) A) B) C) D) E) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: State Heisenberg's uncertainty principle. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: wave functions | Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
REF: 7.4
MSC: general chemistry
39. If the x-component of the velocity of an electron can be measured only to a precision of , what is the minimum uncertainty of the position of the electron in the xdirection? ( ) A) B) C) D) E) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: State Heisenberg's uncertainty principle. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: wave functions | Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 7.4
MSC: general chemistry
12
40. Which of the following statements is a valid conclusion from the Heisenberg uncertainty principle? A) The square of the wave function is proportional to the probability of finding a particle in space. B) Particles can exhibit wavelike behavior. C) The orbits proposed by Bohr’s model of the atom are correct. D) An electron in a 2p orbital is always closer to the nucleus than an electron in a 3p orbital. E) The act of measuring a particle's position changes its momentum, and vice versa. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: State Heisenberg's uncertainty principle. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: wave functions | Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
REF: 7.4
MSC: general chemistry
41. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning the wave function? A) The wave function of a particle is a solution to the Schrödinger equation. B) For an electron in an atom, the square of the wave function decreases rapidly as the distance from the nucleus increases. C) The square of the wave function is proportional to the probability of finding the particle in a region of space. D) The value of the wave function gives the location of the particle. E) The wave function for an electron in an atom is called an atomic orbital. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 7.4 OBJ: Relate the wave function for an electron to the probability of finding it at a location in space. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: wave functions MSC: general chemistry 42. The square of the wave function, 2, of an electron in an atom A) is inversely proportional to the distance between the electron and the nucleus. B) specifies the momentum of the electron. C) describes the energy of the electron. D) is proportional to the velocity of the electron. E) gives the probability of finding the electron in a region of space. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.4 OBJ: Relate the wave function for an electron to the probability of finding it at a location in space. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: wave functions MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
13
43. A radial probability plot for an electron in an atom, like that shown below,
A) specifies the probable speed of the electron at a given radius from the nucleus. B) specifies the probable momentum of the electron at a given radius from the nucleus. C) describes the probable energy of the electron at a given radius from the nucleus. D) gives the probability of finding one electron near another at a given radius from the nucleus. E) gives the probability of finding the electron at a given radius from the nucleus. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.4 OBJ: Relate the wave function for an electron to the probability of finding it at a location in space. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics 44. The number of orbitals having a given value of l is equal to A) 2n + 1. B) 2l + 1. C) n + ml. D) 2ml + 1. E) l + ml. ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: Define atomic orbital. KEY: quantum numbers
DIF: easy REF: 7.5 TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics MSC: general chemistry
45. Which quantum number distinguishes the different shapes of the orbitals? A) n B) ml C) l D) ms E) any of these ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.5 OBJ: Define each of the quantum numbers for an atomic orbital. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: quantum numbers | angular momentum quantum number MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
14
46. The angular momentum quantum number is best associated with the A) shape of the orbital. B) number of orbitals in a subshell. C) energy of the orbital. D) orientation in space of an orbital. E) none of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.5 OBJ: Define each of the quantum numbers for an atomic orbital. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: quantum numbers | angular momentum quantum number MSC: general chemistry 47. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers (n, l, ml, ms) refers to a 3d orbital? A) 2 1 0 + B) 5 4 3 + C) 4 2 1 – D) 4 3 1 – E) 3 2 1 – ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.5 OBJ: Define each of the quantum numbers for an atomic orbital. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: quantum numbers MSC: general chemistry 48. What is the value of the angular momentum quantum number for an electron in a 5d orbital? A) 0 B) 4 C) 1 D) 2 E) 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.5 OBJ: Define each of the quantum numbers for an atomic orbital. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: quantum numbers | angular momentum quantum number MSC: general chemistry 49. A possible value of the magnetic quantum number ml for a 5p electron is A) 1. B) –4. C) –5. D) 6. E) 3. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.5 OBJ: Define each of the quantum numbers for an atomic orbital. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: quantum numbers | magnetic quantum number MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
15
50. All the following statements about the quantum numbers are true except A) ml has 2l + 1 possible values. B) n may take integral values from 1 to . C) ml may take integral values of +l to –l, including zero. D) l may take integral values from 1 to n – 1. E) ms may take only the values of and . ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.5 OBJ: State the rules for the allowed values for each quantum number. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: quantum numbers MSC: general chemistry 51. How many values are there for the magnetic quantum number when the value of the angular momentum quantum number is 4? A) 14 B) 9 C) 1 D) 4 E) 15 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.5 OBJ: State the rules for the allowed values for each quantum number. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: quantum numbers | magnetic quantum number MSC: general chemistry 52. An orbital with the quantum numbers A) 3f B) 3d C) 3p D) 3g E) 3s
may be found in which subshell?
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.5 OBJ: State the rules for the allowed values for each quantum number. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: quantum numbers MSC: general chemistry 53. What is the value of the principal quantum number for an electron in a 1s orbital? A) –1 B) C) 1 D) E) 0 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.5 OBJ: State the rules for the allowed values for each quantum number. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: quantum numbers | principle quantum number MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
16
54. What is the value of the spin quantum number for an electron in a 3p orbital? A) 3 B) 1 C) either or D) E) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.5 OBJ: State the rules for the allowed values for each quantum number. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: quantum numbers | spin quantum number MSC: general chemistry 55. Which of the following subshells does not exist? A) 6g B) 3f C) 3p D) 2s E) 4d ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 7.5 OBJ: State the rules for the allowed values for each quantum number. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: quantum numbers MSC: general chemistry 56. The number of orbitals in a p subshell is A) 3. B) 1. C) 7. D) 2. E) 5. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 7.5 OBJ: State the rules for the allowed values for each quantum number. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics KEY: quantum numbers | magnetic quantum number MSC: general chemistry 57. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers (n, l, ml, ms) is not permissible? A) 3 3 –3 + 1 2 B) 2 1 –1 + 1 2
C) 1 0 0 +
1 2
D) 3 2 –2 – 1
2
1
E) 4 0 0 – 2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply the rules for quantum numbers. (Example 7.6) TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 7.5 KEY: quantum numbers 17
58. Which of the following combinations of quantum numbers is permissible? A) n = 1, l = 2, ml = 0, ms = B) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 1, ms = C) n = 3, l = 3, ml = 1, ms = D) n = 2, l = 1, ml = –1, ms = 0 E) n = 4, l = 3, ml = 4, ms = ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply the rules for quantum numbers. (Example 7.6) TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics MSC: general chemistry 59. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) The set of quantum numbers n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0, ms = ml = 0. B) The set of quantum numbers n = 2, l = 2, ml = 1, ms = = l. C) The set of quantum numbers n = 3, l = 2, ml = 1, ms = D) The set of quantum numbers n = 3, l = 2, ml = 3, ms =
REF: 7.5 KEY: quantum numbers
is not permitted because is not permitted because n is permitted. is not permitted because
ml exceeds l. E) The set of quantum numbers n = 4, l = 3, ml = –1, ms = 0 is not permitted because ms = 0. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Apply the rules for quantum numbers. (Example 7.6) TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics MSC: general chemistry
REF: 7.5 KEY: quantum numbers
60. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) The n = 3 shell has three p orbitals. B) Every p subshell has three orbital. C) The n = 4 shell has seven f orbitals. D) An s orbital has a spherical shape. E) The n = 2 shell has five d orbitals. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply the rules for quantum numbers. (Example 7.6) TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics MSC: general chemistry
REF: 7.5 KEY: quantum numbers
61. How many p orbitals are in the n = 4 shell? A) 1 B) 8 C) 7 D) 5 E) 3 Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
18
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply the rules for quantum numbers. (Example 7.6) TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics MSC: general chemistry 62. How many orbitals have the set of quantum numbers A) 5 B) 9 C) 7 D) 1 E) 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply the rules for quantum numbers. (Example 7.6) TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics MSC: general chemistry
REF: 7.5 KEY: quantum numbers
?
REF: 7.5 KEY: quantum numbers
63. Which orbital or orbitals is/are specified by the set of quantum numbers n= 4 and l= 3? A) 4f B) 3d C) 1s D) 2p E) 4s ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply the rules for quantum numbers. (Example 7.6) TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics
REF: 7.5
64. What is the total number of orbitals found in the n = 4 shell? A) 16 B) 4 C) 20 D) 24 E) 15 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Apply the rules for quantum numbers. (Example 7.6) TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 7.5
19
65. Which of the following is a representation of a 3dxz orbital? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the shapes of s, p, and d orbitals. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics 66. Which of the following is a representation of a
REF: 7.5
orbital?
A)
B)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
20
C)
D)
E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the shapes of s, p, and d orbitals. TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics
REF: 7.5
67. Which hydrogen atom orbital has an energy essentially identical to a 3d orbital? A) 5d B) 4p C) 1s D) 2s E) 3p ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Apply the rules for quantum numbers. (Example 7.6) TOP: atomic theory | quantum mechanics
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 7.5
21
Chapter 8 - Electron Configurations and Periodicity 1. The Pauli exclusion principle states that A) the wavelength of a photon of light times its frequency is equal to the speed of light. B) no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers. C) both the position of an electron and its momentum cannot be known simultaneously very accurately. D) the wavelength and mass of a subatomic particle are related by . E) an electron can have either particle character or wave character. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State the Pauli exclusion principle. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration | Pauli exclusion principle
REF: 8.1
MSC: general chemistry
2. What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy one p orbital? A) 14 B) 2 C) 10 D) 1 E) 6 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State the Pauli exclusion principle. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration | Pauli exclusion principle
REF: 8.1
MSC: general chemistry
3. What is the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the n = 2 shell? A) 8 B) 4 C) 16 D) 22 E) 24 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State the Pauli exclusion principle. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms
REF: 8.1
4. Which of the following orbital occupancy designations is incorrect? A) 3d7 B) 2p6 C) 4f6 D) 1s2 E) 4f15
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
1
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply the Pauli exclusion principle. (Example 8.1) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms
REF: 8.1
5. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in an f subshell is A) 2. B) 10. C) 6. D) 1. E) 14. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply the Pauli exclusion principle. (Example 8.1) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration | Pauli exclusion principle
REF: 8.1
MSC: general chemistry
6. What is the maximum number of electrons in an atom that have the set of quantum numbers n= 1 and l= 0? A) 6 B) 14 C) 10 D) 18 E) 2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply the Pauli exclusion principle. (Example 8.1) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms
REF: 8.1
7. Which of the following orbital diagrams violates the Pauli exclusion principle? 1s
2s
2p
A) B) C) D) E) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply the Pauli exclusion principle. (Example 8.1) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration | Pauli exclusion principle
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 8.1
MSC: general chemistry
2
8. Which principle or rule is violated by the following orbital diagram of an atom in its ground state? 1s
2s
2p
A) Pauli exclusion principle B) Aufbau principle C) No rules or principles are violated by this orbital diagram. D) Heisenberg uncertainty principle E) Hund's rule ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply the Pauli exclusion principle. (Example 8.1) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration | Pauli exclusion principle
REF: 8.1
MSC: general chemistry
9. Which of the following electron configurations is impossible, according to the Pauli exclusion principle? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply the Pauli exclusion principle. (Example 8.1) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration | Pauli exclusion principle
REF: 8.1
MSC: general chemistry
10. Which of the following statements is true concerning the electron configuration [Kr]5p2? A) This configuration cannot be the ground-state electron configuration for a Sr atom because it violates the Pauli exclusion principle. B) This configuration cannot be the ground-state electron configuration for a Sr atom because it violates Hund's rule. C) This configuration is the ground-state electron configuration for a Sr atom. D) This configuration cannot be the ground-state electron configuration for a Sr atom because it violates the Heisenberg uncertainty principle. E) This configuration cannot be the ground-state electron configuration for a Sr atom because it violates the Aufbau principle. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Define building-up principle. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration | aufbau principle
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 8.2
MSC: general chemistry
3
11. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) Stern and Gerlach discovered electron spin by passing silver atoms through a magnetic field. B) Hund’s rule states that electrons are placed in the orbitals of a subshell in such a way as to give a maximum number of unpaired electrons. C) The Pauli exclusion principle states that each electron in an atom must have its own unique set of quantum numbers. D) Valence electrons consist of those electrons not contained within a noble-gas core or a pseudo-noble-gas core. E) The building-up principle states that electrons are added to atoms in order of increasing principal quantum number. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define building-up principle. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration | aufbau principle
REF: 8.2
MSC: general chemistry
12. Which principle or rule is violated by the following orbital diagram of an atom in its ground state? 1s
2s
2p
A) Pauli exclusion principle B) Hund's rule C) Heisenberg uncertainty principle D) No rules or principles are violated by this orbital diagram. E) Building-up principle ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define building-up principle. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration | aufbau principle
REF: 8.2
MSC: general chemistry
13. Which of the following electron configurations represents an excited state of the indicated atom? A) Ne: 1s2 2s2 2p6 B) N: 1s2 2s2 2p3 C) P: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2 4s1 D) Na: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2 3s1 E) He: 1s2 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Define building-up principle. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration | aufbau principle
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 8.2
MSC: general chemistry
4
14. Which of the following have one or more filled d subshells in their ground state electron configuration? A) Ga B) Cl C) Si D) He E) Ar ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.2 OBJ: Define noble-gas core, pseudo-noble-gas core, and valence electron. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms 15. Two elements that have the same ground-state valence shell configuration of ns2np2 are A) K and Mg. B) O and Se. C) Al and Ga. D) Ge and Pb. E) Mg and Ca. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.2 OBJ: Define noble-gas core, pseudo-noble-gas core, and valence electron. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration and the periodic table MSC: general chemistry 16. Which element is found in the s-block of the periodic table? A) H B) Rn C) Mo D) Pr E) none of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.2 OBJ: Define noble-gas core, pseudo-noble-gas core, and valence electron. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms 17. According to the building-up principle or aufbau principle, which subshell is typically filled next after the 3d subshell? A) 4p B) 5f C) 6p D) 5d E) 1s ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define building-up principle.. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 8.2
5
18. Which of the following electron configurations corresponds to the ground state of an atom of a transition element? A) 1s22s22p5 B) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p2 C) 1s22s22p63s23p63d64s2 D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s2 E) 1s22s22p63s23p4 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.2 OBJ: Define main-group element and (d-block and f-block) transition element. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration and the periodic table MSC: general chemistry 19. The ground-state valence-shell configuration of a particular atom is element to which this atom belongs is a A) noble gas. B) inner transition element. C) p-block main-group element. D) transition element. E) s-block main-group element.
. The
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.2 OBJ: Define main-group element and (d-block and f-block) transition element. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration and the periodic table MSC: general chemistry 20. The ground-state valence-shell configuration of a particular atom is element to which this atom belongs is a A) noble gas. B) s-block main-group element. C) p-block main-group element. D) transition element. E) inner transition element.
. The
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.2 OBJ: Define main-group element and (d-block and f-block) transition element. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration and the periodic table MSC: general chemistry 21. The ground-state valence-shell configuration of a particular atom is 5s24d5. This valenceshell electron configuration identifies the atom as A) a transition element. B) an inner transition element. C) an s-block main-group element. D) a p-block main-group element. E) a noble gas.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
6
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.2 OBJ: Define main-group element and (d-block and f-block) transition element. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms 22. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) A p-block main-group element belonging to period n has a completely filled (n – 1)d subshell. B) All noble gases have completely filled shells. C) All s-block main-group elements have only one or two valence electrons. D) Carbon and silicon have the same number of valence electrons. E) All elements in the n = 4 period have a partially or completely filled n = 4 shell. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.2 OBJ: Define main-group element and (d-block and f-block) transition element. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration and the periodic table MSC: general chemistry 23. Which of the following statements is true concerning the electron configuration [Ne]3s13p1? A) It may represent a ground-state electron configuration of a Al+ cation. B) It may represent an excited-state electron configuration of a Mg atom. C) It may represent an excited-state electron configuration of a Ne– anion. D) It may represent a ground-state electron configuration of a Mg+ cation. E) It may represent a ground-state electron configuration of a Na+ cation. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 8.3 OBJ: Determine the configuration of an atom using the building-up principle. (Example 8.2) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration and the periodic table | writing electron configurations using the periodic table MSC: general chemistry 24. Which of the following may represent an excited-state electron configuration for a cobalt atom? A) [Ar]3d54s1 B) [Ar]3d64s2 C) [Ar]3d84s1 D) [Ar]3d64s1 E) [Ar]3d74s2 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 8.3 OBJ: Determine the configuration of an atom using the building-up principle. (Example 8.2) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration and the periodic table | writing electron configurations using the periodic table MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
7
25. All of the following ground-state electron configurations are correct except A) . B) . C) . D) . E) . ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.3 OBJ: Determine the configuration of an atom using the building-up principle. (Example 8.2) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration and the periodic table MSC: general chemistry 26. What is the total number of electrons in p orbitals in a ground-state vanadium atom? A) 6 B) 18 C) 12 D) 24 E) 30 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.3 OBJ: Determine the configuration of an atom using the building-up principle. (Example 8.2) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms 27. Which ground-state electron configuration is incorrect? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.3 OBJ: Determine the configuration of an atom using the building-up principle. (Example 8.2) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration | aufbau principle MSC: general chemistry 28. How many valence electrons does an arsenic atom have? A) 5 B) 8 C) 7 D) 2 E) 33 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.3 OBJ: Determine the configuration of an atom using the building-up principle. (Example 8.2) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration and the periodic table MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
8
29. Which of the following sets of four quantum numbers (n, l, ml, ms) correctly describes one of the valence electrons in a ground-state radium atom? A) 7 1 0 B) 6 1 1 C) 7 2 0 D) 7 2 0 E) 7 0 0 + ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.3 OBJ: Determine the configuration of an atom using the building-up principle. (Example 8.2) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration and the periodic table MSC: general chemistry 30. What is the ground-state electron configuration of tantalum (Ta)? A) 1s22s22p63s23p64s24p64d104f145s25p3 B) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d105s25p3 C) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d104f145s25p65d36s2 D) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d105s25p65d3 E) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d104f3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.3 OBJ: Determine the configuration of an atom using the building-up principle. (Example 8.2) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration and the periodic table MSC: general chemistry 31. What is the ground-state electron configuration of terbium (Tb)? A) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d105s25p65d96s2 B) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d104f145s25p3 C) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d105s25p65d106s1 D) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d94f105s25p66s2 E) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d104f95s25p66s2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.3 OBJ: Determine the configuration of an atom using the building-up principle. (Example 8.2) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration and the periodic table MSC: general chemistry 32. What is the ground-state electron configuration of sulfur (S)? A) B) C) D) E)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
9
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.3 OBJ: Determine the configuration of an atom using the building-up principle. (Example 8.2) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration and the periodic table MSC: general chemistry 33. What noble gas core would be used when writing the ground state electron configuration for tungsten (W)? A) [Xe] B) [Rn] C) [Kr] D) [Ar] E) [Ne] ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.3 OBJ: Determine the configuration of an atom using the building-up principle. (Example 8.2) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms 34. If the electron could have a third spin state (that is, , – , and 0), what would be the groundstate electron configuration of carbon? A) 1s22s4 B) 1s22s32p1 C) 1s32s3 D) 1s22s22p2 E) 1s32s22p1 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 8.3 OBJ: Determine the configuration of an atom using the building-up principle. (Example 8.2) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration MSC: general chemistry 35. The elements that are filling the 5f subshell are called A) alkali metals. B) transition elements. C) lanthanides. D) actinides. E) main-group elements. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.3 OBJ: Determine the configuration of an atom using the period and group numbers. (Example 8.3) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration and the periodic table | writing electron configurations using the periodic table MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
10
36. The quantum numbers of an atom's highest-energy valence electrons are n = 5 and l = 1. The element to which this atom belongs could be a A) inner transition metal. B) alkali metal. C) s-block main-group element. D) transition metal. E) p-block main-group element. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.3 OBJ: Determine the configuration of an atom using the period and group numbers. (Example 8.3) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration and the periodic table MSC: general chemistry 37. The angular momentum quantum number of the two highest-energy valence electrons in an atom of germanium is A) 4. B) 0. C) 1. D) 2. E) 3. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 8.3 OBJ: Determine the configuration of an atom using the period and group numbers. (Example 8.3) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration and the periodic table MSC: general chemistry 38. Which of the following sets of four quantum numbers (n, l, ml, ms) correctly describes an electron occupying a d orbital of an element in the third row of the transition metals? A) 4 2 2 + B) 5 2 1 – C) 5 3 –1 D) 4 1 0 – E) 5 0 0 – ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.3 OBJ: Determine the configuration of an atom using the period and group numbers. (Example 8.3) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration and the periodic table | writing electron configurations using the periodic table MSC: general chemistry 39. An element that has the same ground state valence-shell electron configuration as indium is A) boron. B) silicon. C) krypton. D) lithium. E) barium. Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
11
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.3 OBJ: Determine the configuration of an atom using the period and group numbers. (Example 8.3) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms 40. What is the valence-shell electron configuration for the fourth-period element in Group VA? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.3 OBJ: Determine the configuration of an atom using the period and group numbers. (Example 8.3) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration and the periodic table | writing electron configurations using the periodic table MSC: general chemistry 41. The statement that "the lowest-energy configuration for an atom is the one having the maximum number of unpaired electrons allowed by the Pauli principle in a particular set of degenerate orbitals" is known as A) the aufbau principle. B) Hund's rule. C) the Pauli exclusion principle. D) Heisenberg uncertainty principle. E) the quantum model. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State Hund’s rule. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration | Hund's rule
REF: 8.4
MSC: general chemistry
42. Which principle or rule is violated by the following orbital diagram of an atom in its ground state? 1s
2s
2p
A) Heisenberg uncertainty principle B) No rules or principles are violated by this orbital diagram. C) aufbau principle D) Hund's rule E) Pauli exclusion principle ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State Hund’s rule. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration | Hund's rule
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 8.4
MSC: general chemistry
12
43. The element whose atoms in the ground state have two half-filled orbitals is A) Na. B) Be. C) Tl. D) Po. E) Sb. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply Hund’s rule. (Example 8.4) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration | Hund's rule
REF: 8.4
MSC: general chemistry
44. How many unpaired electrons are found in the ground state electron configuration of selenium (Se)? A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 0 E) 1 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply Hund’s rule. (Example 8.4) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms
REF: 8.4
45. Fe has ____ that is(are) unpaired in its d orbitals. A) 2 electrons B) 3 electrons C) 1 electron D) 4 electrons E) none of these ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Apply Hund’s rule. (Example 8.4) TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration | Hund's rule
REF: 8.4
MSC: general chemistry
46. An atom of which of the following elements is not diamagnetic in the ground state? A) Ca B) Rn C) All are diamagnetic. D) Cd E) Pt ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.4 OBJ: Define paramagnetic substance and diamagnetic substance. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration | magnetic properties of atoms MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
13
47. Which of the following orbital diagrams represent(s) a paramagnetic atom? 1s
2s
3s
1. 2. 3. A) 3 only B) 2 and 3 C) 1 only D) 1 and 2 E) 2 only ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.4 OBJ: Define paramagnetic substance and diamagnetic substance. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms 48. Which of the following orbital diagrams represents a diamagnetic atom? 1s
2s
2p
A) B) C) D) E) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.4 OBJ: Define paramagnetic substance and diamagnetic substance. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms 49. The ground-state electron configuration of a is A) paramagnetic with four unpaired electrons. B) diamagnetic. C) paramagnetic with one unpaired electron. D) paramagnetic with five unpaired electrons. E) paramagnetic with three unpaired electrons.
. Therefore,
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.4 OBJ: Define paramagnetic substance and diamagnetic substance. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration | magnetic properties of atoms MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
14
50. Which of the following orbital diagrams represents a paramagnetic atom? 1s
2s
2p
A) B) C) D) E) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.4 OBJ: Define paramagnetic substance and diamagnetic substance. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms KEY: electron configuration | magnetic properties of atoms MSC: general chemistry 51. Which of the following atoms is paramagnetic in its ground state? A) tin (Sn) B) barium (ba) C) cadmium (Cd) D) ytterbium (Yb) E) argon (Ar) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.4 OBJ: Define paramagnetic substance and diamagnetic substance. TOP: atomic theory | electronic structure of atoms 52. Who was the first chemist to recognize patterns in chemical properties of the elements? A) Bohr B) Dobereiner C) Meyer D) Mendeleev E) Newlands ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.5 OBJ: Describe how Mendeleev predicted the properties of undiscovered elements. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: Mendeleev's predictions MSC: general chemistry 53. Which of the following statements concerning the periodic table is incorrect? A) The elements in a given group or family have similar chemical properties. B) The chemical characteristics of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers. C) All the elements are arranged in order of increasing atomic weight. D) Mendeleev left spaces in his periodic table for undiscovered elements. E) Mendeleev received most of the credit for the early development of the periodic table.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
15
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.5 OBJ: Describe how Mendeleev predicted the properties of undiscovered elements. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: Mendeleev's predictions MSC: general chemistry 54. Which of the following species would be expected to have chemical properties most similar to those of the nitrogen atom? A) nitride ion B) nitrite ion C) phosphate ion D) phosphide ion E) phosphorus atom ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State the periodic law. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodicity in main group elements | group VA elements
REF: 8.6
MSC: general chemistry
55. Which of the following elements would be expected to have chemical and physical properties most similar to those of the bromine (Br)? A) chlorine (Cl) B) neon (Ne) C) gallium (Ga) D) calcium (Ca) E) lead (Pb) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State the periodic law. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements
REF: 8.5
56. When arranged in order of increasing atomic number, the elements exhibit periodicity for all the following properties except A) electron affinity. B) color. C) ionization energy. D) electron configuration. E) atomic radius. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.6 OBJ: State the periodic law. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties MSC: general chemistry 57. In general, atomic radii A) decrease from left to right in a period and increase down a group. B) increase from left to right in a period and decrease down a group. C) do not change across a period or a group. D) decrease from left to right and decrease down a group. E) increase from left to right in a period and increase down a group. Test Bank
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.6 OBJ: State the general periodic trends in size of atomic radii. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | atomic radius MSC: general chemistry 58. Which of the following statements is true? A) The krypton 1s orbital is smaller than the helium 1s orbital because krypton's nuclear charge draws the electrons closer. B) The krypton 1s orbital is smaller than the helium 1s orbital because krypton's p and d orbitals crowd the s orbitals. C) The krypton 1s orbital and the helium 1s orbital are the same size because both s orbitals can have only two electrons. D) The krypton 1s orbital is larger than the helium 1s orbital because krypton contains more electrons. E) The krypton 1s orbital is larger than the helium 1s orbital because krypton's ionization energy is lower so it's easier to remove electrons. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Define effective nuclear charge. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements MSC: general chemistry
REF: 8.6 KEY: atomic radii
59. A section of the periodic table with all identification features removed is shown below. V
W Y
X Z
Which element has the smallest atomic radius? A) W B) Y C) X D) Z E) V ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative atomic sizes from periodic trends. (Example 8.5) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | atomic radius MSC: general chemistry 60. An atom of which of the following elements has the smallest atomic radius? A) Sb B) I C) Te D) Rb E) Sn ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative atomic sizes from periodic trends. (Example 8.5) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | atomic radius MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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61. An atom of which of the following elements has the largest atomic radius? A) Cl B) P C) Na D) S E) Si ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative atomic sizes from periodic trends. (Example 8.5) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | atomic radius MSC: general chemistry 62. An atom of which of the following elements has the smallest atomic radius? A) At B) F C) I D) Br E) Cl ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative atomic sizes from periodic trends. (Example 8.5) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | atomic radius MSC: general chemistry 63. An atom of which of the following elements has the largest atomic radius? A) As B) Sb C) P D) Bi E) N ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative atomic sizes from periodic trends. (Example 8.5) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | atomic radius MSC: general chemistry 64. An atom of which of the following elements has the smallest atomic radius? A) Cl B) Rb C) Ca D) Si E) As ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative atomic sizes from periodic trends. (Example 8.5) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | atomic radius MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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65. An atom of which of the following elements has the largest atomic radius? A) Ge B) K C) Cl D) Ca E) As ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative atomic sizes from periodic trends. (Example 8.5) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | atomic radius MSC: general chemistry 66. In which of the series of elements listed below would the elements have most nearly the same atomic radius? A) Na, K, Rb, Cs B) F, Cl, Br, I C) Na, Mg, Al, Si D) Sc, Ti, V, Cr E) B, Si, As, Te ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative atomic sizes from periodic trends. (Example 8.5) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | atomic radius MSC: general chemistry 67. Rank the following atoms in order of the largest to smallest atomic radius: Al, P, Cl, K. A) K > Al > P > Cl B) Al > K > P > Cl C) P > Al > K > Cl D) Al > P > Cl > K E) K > P > Al > Cl ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative atomic sizes from periodic trends. (Example 8.5) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements 68. Below are data on the first four ionization energies for a fictitious element X. First ionization energy = 500 kJ/mol Second ionization energy = 2000 kJ/mol Third ionization energy = 3500 kJ/mol Fourth ionization energy = 25000 kJ/mol
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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From the data, which of the following statements is incorrect? A) The third ionization energy is greater than the second ionization energy because X2+ has a bigger charge than X+. B) X could belong to Group IIIA. C) X could belong to Group IIIB. D) X could belong to group VA. E) The fourth ionization energy is much greater than the third ionization energy because X3+ consists of a noble-gas core or a pseudo-noble-gas core. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: State the general periodic trends in ionization energy. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | ionization energy
REF: 8.6
MSC: general chemistry
69. Which of the following properties, in general, increases from left to right across a period in the periodic table? A) ionic charge B) atomic radius C) density D) ionization energy E) metallic character ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State the general periodic trends in ionization energy. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | ionization energy
REF: 8.6
MSC: general chemistry
70. The statement that the first ionization energy for an oxygen atom is lower than the first ionization energy for a nitrogen atom is A) inconsistent with the general trend relating changes in ionization energy across a period from left to right and due to the fact that oxygen has one doubly occupied 2p orbital and nitrogen does not. B) consistent with the general trend relating changes in ionization energy across a period from left to right because it is harder to take an electron from an oxygen atom than from a nitrogen atom. C) consistent with the general trend relating changes in ionization energy across a period from left to right because it is easier to take an electron from an oxygen atom than from a nitrogen atom. D) incorrect. E) inconsistent with the general trend relating changes in ionization energy across a period from left to right and due to the fact that the oxygen atom has two doubly occupied 2p orbitals and nitrogen has only one. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: State the general periodic trends in ionization energy. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | ionization energy
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 8.6
MSC: general chemistry
20
71. The change in energy for which of the following processes corresponds to the first ionization energy of calcium? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define first ionization energy. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | ionization energy
REF: 8.6
MSC: general chemistry
72. The change in energy for which of the following processes represents the first ionization energy of bromine? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define first ionization energy. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | ionization energy
REF: 8.6
MSC: general chemistry
73. The change in energy for which of the following processes corresponds to the second ionization energy of barium? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Define first ionization energy. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | ionization energy
REF: 8.6
MSC: general chemistry
74. An atom of which of the following elements has the highest fourth ionization energy? A) Al B) Se C) Si D) Ga E) As
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative ionization energies from periodic trends. (Example 8.6) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | ionization energy MSC: general chemistry 75. An atom of which of the following elements has the smallest ionization energy? A) I B) Sb C) Sn D) Rb E) Te ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative ionization energies from periodic trends. (Example 8.6) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | ionization energy MSC: general chemistry 76. An atom of which of the following elements has the largest ionization energy? A) Te B) Sn C) Sb D) I E) Rb ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative ionization energies from periodic trends. (Example 8.6) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | ionization energy MSC: general chemistry 77. An atom of which of the following elements has the smallest first ionization energy? A) Sn B) Pb C) Ge D) C E) Si ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative ionization energies from periodic trends. (Example 8.6) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | ionization energy MSC: general chemistry 78. An atom of which of the following elements has the largest first ionization energy? A) N B) Sb C) As D) P E) Bi
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative ionization energies from periodic trends. (Example 8.6) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | ionization energy MSC: general chemistry 79. An atom of which of the following elements has the smallest first ionization energy? A) Rb B) Si C) F D) As E) Ca ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative ionization energies from periodic trends. (Example 8.6) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | ionization energy MSC: general chemistry 80. An atom of which of the following elements has the largest first ionization energy? A) Ca B) Rb C) Ge D) Cl E) P ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative ionization energies from periodic trends. (Example 8.6) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | ionization energy MSC: general chemistry 81. An atom of which of the following elements has the largest second ionization energy? A) Na B) Cl C) S D) Si E) Mg ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative ionization energies from periodic trends. (Example 8.6) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | ionization energy MSC: general chemistry 82. Which of the following ground-state electron configurations corresponds to an atom having the largest ionization energy? A) [Ar]3d104s24p3 B) [Ne]3s23p3 C) [Ne]3s23p2 D) [Kr]4d105s25p3 E) [Xe]4f145d106s26p3
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ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative ionization energies from periodic trends. (Example 8.6) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | ionization energy MSC: general chemistry 83. Rank the following ions in order of increasing first ionization energy: O2–, Mg2+, F–, Na+. A) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2– B) Mg2+ < O2– < Na+ < F– C) O2– < F– < Mg2+ < Na+ D) O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+ E) O2– < Mg2+ < F– < Na+ ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 8.6 OBJ: Determine relative ionization energies from periodic trends. (Example 8.6) TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | ionization energy MSC: general chemistry 84. The electron affinity value expected for the process A) a small negative number. B) a large positive number. C) a small positive number. D) a large negative number. E) zero. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define electron affinity. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | electron affinity
would be
REF: 8.6
MSC: general chemistry
85. The change in energy for which of the following processes corresponds to the electron affinity of iodine? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define electron affinity. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | electron affinity
REF: 8.6
MSC: general chemistry
86. Which of the following statements is true about the ionization energy of Mg+? A) It will be equal to and opposite in sign to the electron affinity of Mg+. B) It will be equal to and opposite in sign to the electron affinity of Mg. C) It will be equal to and opposite in sign to the electron affinity of Mg2+. D) It will be equal to the ionization energy of Li. E) none of the above
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Define electron affinity. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | electron affinity
REF: 8.6
MSC: general chemistry
87. An atom of which of the following elements has the most negative electron affinity? A) Rb B) As C) Cl D) Br E) Se ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.6 OBJ: State the broad general trend in electron affinity across any period. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | electron affinity MSC: general chemistry 88. According to the general trend in electron affinities, which group (or family) of elements tend to form the most stable anions in the gas phase? A) noble gases B) halogens C) transition metals D) alkaline earth metals E) alkali metals ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.6 OBJ: State the broad general trend in electron affinity across any period. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements 89. Which of the following forms the most stable anion in the gas phase? A) Br (electron affinity = -325 kJ/mol) B) I (electron affinity = -295 kJ/mol) C) Te (electron affinity = -190 kJ/mol) D) C (electron affinity = -122 kJ/mol) E) As (electron affinity = -77 kJ/mol) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.6 OBJ: State the broad general trend in electron affinity across any period. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements 90. Which of the following ground-state electron configurations corresponds to an atom that has the most negative value of the electron affinity? A) 1s22s22p63s1 B) 1s22s22p63s23p5 C) 1s22s22p63s23p2 D) 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s2 E) 1s22s22p6
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.6 OBJ: State the broad general trend in electron affinity across any period. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodic properties | electron affinity MSC: general chemistry 91. Which of the following statements is true concerning a concentrated solution of lithium oxide in water? A) The resulting solution is strongly basic. B) The resulting solution is weakly acidic. C) The resulting solution is neither acidic nor basic. D) The resulting solution is weakly basic. E) The resulting solution is strongly acidic. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define basic oxide, acidic oxide, and amphoteric oxide. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodicity in main group elements | group IA elements
REF: 8.7
MSC: general chemistry
92. Which of the following are incorrectly paired? A) Group IIA, alkaline earth metals B) Group IA, alkali metals C) Group VIIIA, noble gases D) Group IVA, halogens E) Group VIA, chalcogens ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.7 OBJ: State the main group corresponding to an alkali metal, an alkaline earth metal, and a chalcogen. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodicity in main group elements MSC: general chemistry 93. Sodium and potassium have similar chemical and physical properties. This is best explained by the fact that both elements A) have the same ground-state valence-electron configuration. B) have low relative atomic masses. C) are in Period 1 of the periodic table. D) have relatively low first ionization energies. E) are active metals. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.7 OBJ: Describe the change in metallic/nonmetallic character (or reactivities) in going through any main group of elements. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodicity in main group elements | group IA elements MSC: general chemistry 94. Which element forms the most acidic oxide? A) B B) Tl C) Al D) In E) Ga Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.7 OBJ: Describe the change in metallic/nonmetallic character (or reactivities) in going through any main group of elements. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodicity in main group elements | group IIIA elements MSC: general chemistry 95. A few atoms of the new element 113 were created in 2004 by a team of Russian and American scientists. It has been given the temporary name "ununtrium" and the temporary symbol "Uut." Based on ununtrium's position on the periodic table, what type of oxide(s) should it form? A) Ununtrium should form a basic oxide with the formula Uut2O3. B) Ununtrium should form an amphoteric oxide with the formula UutO. C) Ununtrium should form an acidic oxide with the formula Uut2O3. D) Ununtrium should form two acidic oxides having the formulas Uut2O and Uut2O3. E) Ununtrium should form two basic oxides having the formulas Uut2O and Uut2O3. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 8.7 OBJ: Describe the change in metallic/nonmetallic character (or reactivities) in going through any main group of elements. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodicity in main group elements | group IIIA elements MSC: general chemistry 96. The element antimony is in the same group as phosphorus. Which of the following is the formula of antimonous acid? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.7 OBJ: Describe the change in metallic/nonmetallic character (or reactivities) in going through any main group of elements. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodicity in main group elements | group VA elements MSC: general chemistry 97. The element selenium is in the same group as sulfur. Which of the following is the formula of selenous acid? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.7 OBJ: Describe the change in metallic/nonmetallic character (or reactivities) in going through any main group of elements. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodicity in main group elements | group VIA elements MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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98. An unknown element, X, reacts with oxygen to form two oxides with the general formula X2O3 and X2O5. The pure element is strongly paramagnetic, and the oxides are amphoteric. Which of the following elements could be represented by X? A) Sc B) Na C) Bi D) S E) Sb ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 8.7 OBJ: Describe the change in metallic/nonmetallic character (or reactivities) in going through any main group of elements. TOP: atomic theory | periodicity of the elements KEY: periodicity in main group elements | group VA elements MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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Chapter 9 - Ionic and Covalent Bonding 1. In which pair do both compounds exhibit predominantly ionic bonding? A) RbCl and CaO B) PCl5 and HF C) KI and O3 D) Na2SO3 and BH3 E) NaF and H2O ANS: A PTS: OBJ: Define ionic bond. MSC: general chemistry
1
DIF: easy REF: 9.1 TOP: bonding | ionic bonding
2. The following representation of an atom is called
A) a Lewis dot structure. B) an ion. C) a structural formula. D) an electrostatic potential map. E) an ionic bond. ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Lewis electron-dot symbol.
DIF: easy REF: 9.1 TOP: bonding | ionic bonding
3. Which of the following concerning Coulomb’s law is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
The energy of an ionic bond is proportional to the size of the ion charges. The energy of an ionic bond is inversely proportional to the distance between the charges. The size of an ion is not important in determining the energy of an ionic bond.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Lewis electron-dot symbol.
DIF: easy REF: 9.1 TOP: bonding | ionic bonding
4. When the cations Na+, K+, Rb+, Cs+ are combined with chloride ion in the gas phase to form ion pairs, which pair formation releases the greatest amount of energy? A) KCl B) All release the same amount of energy. C) RbCl D) NaCl E) CsCl Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 9.1 OBJ: Describe the energetics of ionic bonding. TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: properties of ionic substance MSC: general chemistry 5. Which one of the following has an enthalpy change that is equal to the lattice energy of ? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Define lattice energy. KEY: Born-Haber cycle
DIF: easy REF: 9.1 TOP: bonding | ionic bonding MSC: general chemistry
6. Which of the following statements concerning lattice energy is false? A) MgO has a larger lattice energy than NaF. B) The lattice energy for a solid with 2+ and 2– ions should be two times that for a solid with 1+ and 1– ions. C) MgO has a larger lattice energy than LiF. D) Lattice energy is often defined as the change in energy that occurs when an ionic solid is separated into isolated ions in the gas phase. E) All of these are true. ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: Define lattice energy. KEY: Born-Haber cycle
DIF: moderate REF: 9.1 TOP: bonding | ionic bonding MSC: general chemistry
7. Which of the following is a correct description of lattice energy? A) The energy change that occurs when electrons are removed from a lattice. B) The energy change that occurs when a gas condenses to a liquid. C) The energy change that occurs when a liquid freezes. D) The energy change that occurs when an ionic solid is separated into its ions in the gas phase. E) The lattice energy of a substance is identical to the ionic bond energy determined from coulombs law. ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define lattice energy.
Test Bank
DIF: moderate REF: 9.1 TOP: bonding | ionic bonding
General Chemistry, 10th edition
2
8. In the Born–Haber cycle for first ionization energy of Na? A) B) C) D) E)
, which of the following processes corresponds to the
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.1 OBJ: Describe the Born-Haber cycle to obtain a lattice energy from thermodynamic data. TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: Born-Haber cycle MSC: general chemistry 9. In the Born–Haber cycle for enthalpy of formation of A)
, which of the following processes corresponds to the ?
B) C) D) E) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.1 OBJ: Describe the Born-Haber cycle to obtain a lattice energy from thermodynamic data. TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: Born-Haber cycle MSC: general chemistry 10. In the Born–Haber cycle for electron affinity of F? A) B) C) D) E)
, which of the following processes corresponds to the
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.1 OBJ: Describe the Born-Haber cycle to obtain a lattice energy from thermodynamic data. TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: Born-Haber cycle MSC: general chemistry 11. Which of the following processes is not exothermic? A) B) C) D) E)
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.1 OBJ: Describe the Born-Haber cycle to obtain a lattice energy from thermodynamic data. TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: Born-Haber cycle MSC: general chemistry 12. Calculate the lattice energy for LiF(s) given the following: sublimation energy for Li(s) Hf for F(g) first ionization energy of Li(g) electron affinity of F(g) enthalpy of formation of LiF(s)
+166 kJ/mol +77 kJ/mol +520. kJ/mol –328 kJ/mol –617 kJ/mol
A) 1052 kJ/mol B) 285 kJ/mol C) –650. kJ/mol D) 800. kJ/mol E) none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 9.1 OBJ: Describe the Born-Haber cycle to obtain a lattice energy from thermodynamic data. TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: Born-Haber cycle MSC: general chemistry 13. Which of the following compounds has the most ionic bonding (has the highest percentage of ionic character)? A) CaF2 B) LiI C) OF2 D) CsF E) LiF ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.1 OBJ: Describe some general properties of ionic substances. TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: properties of ionic substance MSC: general chemistry 14. Which of the following compounds would be expected to have the lowest melting point? A) AlF3 B) RbF C) NaF D) MgF2 E) CaF2 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.1 OBJ: Describe some general properties of ionic substances. TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: properties of ionic substance MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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15. Which of the following compounds would be expected to have the highest melting point? A) CsF B) LiCl C) LiF D) NaBr E) CsI ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.1 OBJ: Describe some general properties of ionic substances. TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: properties of ionic substance MSC: general chemistry 16. Which of the following compounds would be expected to have the highest melting point? A) NCl3 B) OCl2 C) MgCl2 D) LiCl E) CCl4 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.1 OBJ: Describe some general properties of ionic substances. TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: properties of ionic substance MSC: general chemistry 17. Atoms of an element X have the ground-state electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p4. What type of ion is X most likely to form? A) X6+ B) X3– C) X4+ D) X– E) X2– ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.2 OBJ: State the three categories of monatomic ions of the main-group elements. TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: electron configurations of ions | ions of the main-group elements MSC: general chemistry 18. Which of the following is the Lewis dot structure for the rubidium ion? A)
B)
C)
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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D)
E)
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.2 OBJ: Write the electron configuration and Lewis symbol for a main-group ion. (Example 9.2) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: Lewis electron-dot symbol MSC: general chemistry 19. Which of the following is the Lewis dot structure for the bromide ion? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.2 OBJ: Write the electron configuration and Lewis symbol for a main-group ion. (Example 9.2) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: Lewis electron-dot symbol MSC: general chemistry 20. Which of the following is the Lewis dot structure for one formula unit of magnesium sulfide? A)
B)
C)
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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D)
E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.2 OBJ: Write the electron configuration and Lewis symbol for a main-group ion. (Example 9.2) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: Lewis electron-dot symbol MSC: general chemistry 21. All of the following species have ground-state noble-gas electron configurations except A) Ge4+ B) K+ C) Kr D) I– E) P3– ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.2 OBJ: Write the electron configuration and Lewis symbol for a main-group ion. (Example 9.2) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: electron configurations of ions | ions of the main-group elements MSC: general chemistry 22. Which of the following concerning the formation of ions is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Elements with large electron affinities tend to form monoatomic anions. No ionic compounds are found with positive ions having charges greater than the element group number. Group 1A and 2A metals always have a positive charge equal to their group number in their ionic compounds.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe some general properties of ionic substances. TOP: bonding | ionic bonding
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 9.2
7
23. Which of the following concerning the formation of ions is/are correct? 1. 2.
3.
Compounds of +4 ions are rare because of the large amount of energy required to form a +4 ion. Some main group metals may have more than one possible positive charge because of the different energies required to remove s versus p valence electrons. The nonmetals closest to the noble gases (Group 6A and 7A) tend to form monatomic anions with noble gas configurations.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe some general properties of ionic substances. TOP: bonding | ionic bonding
REF: 9.2
24. All of the following have ground-state noble-gas electron configurations except A) Ar B) N3– C) P3+ D) Mg2+ E) Cl– ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.2 OBJ: Write the electron configuration and Lewis symbol for a main-group ion. (Example 9.2) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: electron configurations of ions | ions of the main-group elements MSC: general chemistry 25. The formation of which monatomic ion of sulfur is the most energetically favorable? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.2 OBJ: Write the electron configuration and Lewis symbol for a main-group ion. (Example 9.2) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: electron configurations of ions | ions of the main-group elements MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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26. What is the ground-state electron configuration of the A) B) C) D) E)
ion?
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.2 OBJ: Write the electron configuration and Lewis symbol for a main-group ion. (Example 9.2) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: electron configurations of ions | ions of the main-group elements MSC: general chemistry 27. What is the ground-state electron configuration of the sulfide ion? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.2 OBJ: Write the electron configuration and Lewis symbol for a main-group ion. (Example 9.2) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: electron configurations of ions | ions of the main-group elements MSC: general chemistry 28. What is the electron configuration for A) B) C) D) E)
?
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.2 OBJ: Write electron configurations of transition-metal ions. (Example 9.3) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: electron configurations of ions | transition-metal ions MSC: general chemistry 29. The Cr2+ ion would be expected to have ____ unpaired electrons. A) 4 B) 2 C) 3 D) 0 E) 1
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.2 OBJ: Write electron configurations of transition-metal ions. (Example 9.3) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: electron configurations of ions | transition-metal ions MSC: general chemistry 30. What is the electron configuration of A) B) C) D) E)
?
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.2 OBJ: Write electron configurations of transition-metal ions. (Example 9.3) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: electron configurations of ions | transition-metal ions MSC: general chemistry 31. What is the ground-state electron configuration of A) B) C) D) E)
?
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.2 OBJ: Write electron configurations of transition-metal ions. (Example 9.3) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: electron configurations of ions | transition-metal ions MSC: general chemistry 32. What is the ground-state electron configuration of A) B) C) D) E)
?
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.2 OBJ: Write electron configurations of transition-metal ions. (Example 9.3) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: electron configurations of ions | transition-metal ions MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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33. What is the ground-state electron configuration of the copper(I) ion, A) B) C) D) E)
?
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.2 OBJ: Write electron configurations of transition-metal ions. (Example 9.3) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: electron configurations of ions | transition-metal ions MSC: general chemistry 34. What is the ground-state electron configuration of A) B) C) D) E)
?
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.2 OBJ: Write electron configurations of transition-metal ions. (Example 9.3) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: electron configurations of ions | transition-metal ions MSC: general chemistry 35. All of the following ions have the ground-state electron configuration of a noble gas except which one? A) Ca2+ B) Cl– C) Ga3+ D) Al3+ E) H– ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define isoelectronic ions. MSC: general chemistry
DIF: easy REF: 9.3 TOP: bonding | ionic bonding
36. Which set of ions are isoelectronic in their ground-state electron configurations? A) N, O, F, Ne B) Na+, K+, Rb+, Cs+ C) F–, Cl–, Br–, I– D) Mg2+, Ca2+, Sr2+, Ba2+ E) N3–, O2–, Mg2+, Al3+ ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Define isoelectronic ions. KEY: electron configurations of ions
Test Bank
DIF: easy REF: 9.3 TOP: bonding | ionic bonding MSC: general chemistry
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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37. Which of the following species is isoelectronic with Kr? A) B) C) D) E) Ar ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.3 OBJ: Define isoelectronic ions. TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: ionic radii MSC: general chemistry 38. All of the following species are isoelectronic except A) Ar. B) Ca2+. C) Mg2+. D) Cl–. E) S2–. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.3 OBJ: Define isoelectronic ions. TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: ionic radii MSC: general chemistry 39. Which pair of species is isoelectronic? A) Na+ and K+ B) K+ and Cl– C) Be2+ and Na+ D) Ne and Ar E) Li+ and Ne ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.3 OBJ: Define isoelectronic ions. TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: ionic radii MSC: general chemistry 40. Which two species are isoelectronic? A) Na+ and K+ B) Al3+ and Ne C) P– and Ca+ D) Cl– and F– E) Ca2+ and Mg2+ ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: Define isoelectronic ions. MSC: general chemistry
DIF: easy REF: 9.3 TOP: bonding | ionic bonding
41. All of the following species are isoelectronic except A) S2– B) K+ C) Na+ D) Ar E) Cl– Test Bank
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ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define isoelectronic ions. MSC: general chemistry
DIF: easy REF: 9.3 TOP: bonding | ionic bonding
42. All of the following species are isoelectronic except A) O– B) Ne C) N3– D) Mg2+ E) F– ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Define isoelectronic ions. MSC: general chemistry 43. The following species, A) electrons. B) nucleons. C) neutrons. D) protons. E) isotopes.
,
DIF: easy REF: 9.3 TOP: bonding | ionic bonding
, and
, all have the same number of
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.3 OBJ: Define isoelectronic ions. TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: ionic radii MSC: general chemistry 44. Rank the following ions in order of decreasing atomic radii: Mo4+, Mo5+, Mo6+. A) Mo4+ > Mo5+ > Mo6+ B) Mo6+ > Mo5+ > Mo4+ C) Mo5+ > Mo4+ > Mo6+ D) Mo6+ > Mo4+ > Mo5+ E) Mo4+ > Mo6+ > Mo5+ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.3 OBJ: Use periodic trends to obtain relative ionic radii. (Example 9.4) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding 45. Rank the following ions in order of decreasing atomic radii: Te2−, Te4+, Te6+. A) Te2− > Te4+ > Te6+ B) Te6+ > Te4+ > Te2− C) Te4+ > Te2− > Te6+ D) Te2− > Te6+ > Te4+ E) Te4+ > Te6+ > Te2− ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.3 OBJ: Use periodic trends to obtain relative ionic radii. (Example 9.4) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding
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46. Which of the following species would you expect to have the largest radius? A) B) F C) D) E) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.3 OBJ: Use periodic trends to obtain relative ionic radii. (Example 9.4) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: ionic radii MSC: general chemistry 47. In which of the following lists do the ions not appear in order of increasing ionic radius? A) S2– < Cl– < K+ B) Na+ < F– < O2– C) Cl– < Br– < I– D) Li+ < Na+ < K+ E) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.3 OBJ: Use periodic trends to obtain relative ionic radii. (Example 9.4) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: ionic radii MSC: general chemistry 48. Rank the following ions in order of decreasing ionic radius: S2–, O2–, F–, Na+, Mg2+. A) S2–, O2–, F–, Na+, Mg2+ B) O2–, F–, Na+, Mg2+, S2– C) O2–, S2–, F–, Na+, Mg2+ D) Mg2+, Na+, F–, O2–, S2– E) Mg2+, S2–, Na+, F–, O2– ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.3 OBJ: Use periodic trends to obtain relative ionic radii. (Example 9.4) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: ionic radii MSC: general chemistry 49. Rank the following species in order of decreasing radii: K+, Cl-, Se2-, Br-. A) Br- > Se2- > Cl- > K+ B) Se2- > Br- > Cl- > K+ C) K+> Cl- > Se2- > BrD) Br- > Cl- > Se2- > K+ E) Cl- > Se2- > K+ > BrANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.3 OBJ: Use periodic trends to obtain relative ionic radii. (Example 9.4) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding
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50. For which of the following pairs of species is the difference in radius the greatest? A) C and F B) K+ and Br– C) Li+ and I– D) Na and Mg E) O2– and F– ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.3 OBJ: Use periodic trends to obtain relative ionic radii. (Example 9.4) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: ionic radii MSC: general chemistry 51. Which of the following is the best explanation for a covalent bond? A) electrons simultaneously attracted by more than one nucleus B) an interaction between outer electrons C) the overlapping of unoccupied orbitals of two or more atoms D) the overlapping of two electron-filled orbitals having different energies E) a positive ion attracting negative ions ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.4 OBJ: Describe the formation of a covalent bond between two atoms. TOP: bonding | covalent bonding MSC: general chemistry 52. The formulas of many binary covalent compounds can be predicted on the basis A) that a bond is formed by the overlapping of two filled orbitals. B) that the number of bonds an atom can have is equal to the number of empty valence orbitals it has. C) that a bond is formed by the overlapping of atomic orbitals. D) that the number of bonds an atom can have is equal to the number of half-filled valence orbitals it can have. E) that bonding electrons are simultaneously attracted by more than one nucleus. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.4 OBJ: Describe the formation of a covalent bond between two atoms. TOP: bonding | covalent bonding MSC: general chemistry 53. During the formation of a chemical bond between two hydrogen atoms, which of the following statements is always true? A) Energy is released during the formation of the bond. B) A polar covalent bond is formed. C) Electrons always are between the nuclei of the atoms. D) One of the hydrogen atoms is ionized. E) Resonance stabilizes the bond. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.4 OBJ: Describe the formation of a covalent bond between two atoms. TOP: bonding | covalent bonding MSC: general chemistry
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54. A bond in which both electrons of the bond are donated by one atom is called ____. A) a coordinate covalent bond B) a polar covalent bond C) an ionic bond D) a double bond E) a triple bond ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Define coordinate covalent bond.
DIF:
moderate
REF: 9.4
55. A bond in which an electron pair is unequally shared by two atoms is A) polar covalent. B) coordinate covalent. C) ionic. D) nonpolar covalent. E) metallic. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.5 OBJ: Define polar covalent bond. TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: electronegativity | polar covalent bond MSC: general chemistry 56. The measure of the attraction that an atom has for the electrons in a chemical bond is called A) electronegativity. B) lattice energy. C) resonance energy. D) ionization energy. E) electron affinity. ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Define electronegativity. KEY: electronegativity
DIF: easy REF: 9.5 TOP: bonding | covalent bonding MSC: general chemistry
57. Which of the following atoms is the most electronegative? A) B B) N C) Al D) Cs E) Na ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.5 OBJ: State the general periodic trends in the electronegativity. TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: electronegativity MSC: general chemistry 58. An atom of which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity? A) K B) As C) Ba D) Si E) Br Test Bank
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.5 OBJ: State the general periodic trends in the electronegativity. TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: electronegativity MSC: general chemistry 59. Which of the following concerning electronegativity is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Differences in element electronegativities may be used to predict the type of bonding, ionic or covalent, in a substance. The larger the differences in electronegativity between two bonded atoms the more polar the bond. The electrons in a polar bond tend to spend more time around the least electronegative element.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.5 OBJ: Use electronegativity to obtain relative bond polarity. (Example 9.5) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding 60. Which pair of elements would form a covalent bond that is the least polar? A) S and Li B) Al and N C) O and H D) O and F E) S and Cs ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.5 OBJ: Use electronegativity to obtain relative bond polarity. (Example 9.5) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: electronegativity | polar covalent bond MSC: general chemistry 61. Rank the following covalent bonds in order of decreasing polarity: C-H, N-H, O-H, F-H. A) F-H, O-H, N-H, C-H B) O-H, F-H, N-H, C-H C) N-H, F-H, O-H, C-H D) C-H, N-H, O-H, F-H E) C-H, F-H, O-H, N-H ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.5 OBJ: Use electronegativity to obtain relative bond polarity. (Example 9.5) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding
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62. Which of the following bonds would be the least polar yet still be considered polar covalent? A) Mg-O B) C-O C) Si-O D) O-O E) N-O ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.5 OBJ: Use electronegativity to obtain relative bond polarity. (Example 9.5) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: electronegativity | polar covalent bond MSC: general chemistry 63. In which of the following species is there the greatest unequal sharing of the bonding electrons? A) SO3 B) SO32– C) H2S D) H2O E) NH4+ ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.5 OBJ: Use electronegativity to obtain relative bond polarity. (Example 9.5) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: electronegativity | polar covalent bond MSC: general chemistry 64. The Lewis formula for phosphine, PH3, has A) four lone pairs. B) four bonding pairs. C) two bonding pairs and two lone pairs. D) three bonding pairs and one lone pair. E) one bonding pair and three lone pairs. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas with single bonds only. (Example 9.6) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry 65. Which of the following concerning Lewis electron-dot formulae is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
A Lewis electron-dot formula (Lewis structure) is identical to a structural formula. The skeleton of a molecule need not be known to draw the correct Lewis electron-dot structure. Lewis electron-dot formulae show the location of bonding and nonbonding electrons in three dimensional space.
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A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 E) none of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Lewis electron-dot structures.
DIF: easy REF: 9.6 TOP: bonding | covalent bonding
66. What is the total number of valence electrons in N2O4? A) 34 B) 11 C) 16 D) 17 E) 46 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas with single bonds only. (Example 9.6) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding 67. In the Lewis formula for difluorodiazine, N2F2, the total number of lone electron pairs around the two nitrogen atoms is A) 4. B) 0. C) 3. D) 1. E) 2. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas having including multiple bonds. (Example 9.7) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry 68. Which of the following Lewis formulas is incorrect? A) B) C) D)
E)
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ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas having including multiple bonds. (Example 9.7) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry 69. Which of the following is a correct Lewis electron-dot formula for H2SO4? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas having including multiple bonds. (Example 9.7) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding 70. Which of the following is a correct Lewis electron-dot formula for CO? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas having including multiple bonds. (Example 9.7) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding Test Bank
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71. Which one of the following has a Lewis formula most similar to that of NO–? A) O2 B) O22– C) O2– D) NO+ E) NO ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas having including multiple bonds. (Example 9.7) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry 72. The Lewis structure for each of the following except ____contains at least one double bond. A) O2 B) CS2 C) C2H4 D) NO+ E) N2H2 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas having including multiple bonds. (Example 9.7) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: multiple bonding MSC: general chemistry 73. The Lewis structure for each of the following species except ____ contains a triple bond. A) N3– B) N2 C) HCCH D) NO+ E) O22+ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas having including multiple bonds. (Example 9.7) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: multiple bonds MSC: general chemistry 74. How many valence electrons are present in the Lewis formula for the hypochlorite ion, ? A) 20 B) 12 C) 18 D) 14 E) 16 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas for ionic species. (Example 9.8) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry
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75. What is the total number of valence electrons in the A) 20 B) 12 C) 16 D) 22 E) 18
?
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas for ionic species. (Example 9.8) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry 76. What is the total number of valence electrons in the nitrosyl ion, A) 11 B) 13 C) 10 D) 12 E) 14
?
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas for ionic species. (Example 9.8) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry 77. How many valence electrons are there in the tetraethylammonium ion, A) 56 B) 32 C) 16 D) 57 E) 48
?
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas for ionic species. (Example 9.8) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry 78. What is the total number of valence electrons in the monohydrogen phosphate ion, ? A) 30 B) 28 C) 32 D) 34 E) 36 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas for ionic species. (Example 9.8) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry
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79. How many valence electrons does a nitrate ion have? A) 30 B) 28 C) 24 D) 32 E) 22 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas for ionic species. (Example 9.8) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry 80. How many valence electrons are there in the acetate ion, A) 23 B) 24 C) 36 D) 38 E) 22
?
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas for ionic species. (Example 9.8) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry 81. The total number of valence electrons in a peroxide ion, A) 2. B) 12. C) 14. D) 13. E) 15.
, is
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas for ionic species. (Example 9.8) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry 82. The number of valence electrons in the perfluoropropionate ion, A) 60. B) 62. C) 66. D) 80. E) 58.
, is
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas for ionic species. (Example 9.8) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry
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83. The total number of valence electrons in the tetrathionate ion, S4O62–, is A) 58. B) 60. C) 56. D) 54. E) 62. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas for ionic species. (Example 9.8) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry 84. The number of valence electrons in the nitrite ion is A) 22. B) 16. C) 23. D) 18. E) 24. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas for ionic species. (Example 9.8) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry 85. The total number of valence electrons in the phosphate ion is A) 32. B) 30. C) 24. D) 28. E) 26. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas for ionic species. (Example 9.8) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry 86. What is the total number of valence electrons in the sulfite ion? A) 30 B) 26 C) 24 D) 8 E) 32 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas for ionic species. (Example 9.8) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry
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87. In the Lewis formula for hydrazinium ion, N2H5+, the total number of lone electron pairs around the two nitrogen atoms is A) 0. B) 4. C) 3. D) 1. E) 2. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.6 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas for ionic species. (Example 9.8) TOP: bonding | ionic bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry 88. In the Lewis formula for the hydroxide ion, OH-, the number of lone pairs of electrons around the oxygen atom is A) 3. B) 1. C) 2. D) 0. E) 4. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Write Lewis formulas for ionic species. (Example 9.8) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding
REF: 9.6
89. The concept of resonance describes molecular structures A) that have several different geometric arrangements. B) that have delocalized bonding. C) that are formed from hybridized orbitals. D) that have different molecular formulas. E) that have electrons resonating. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.7 OBJ: Define resonance description. TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: resonance MSC: general chemistry 90. All the following statements about resonance are true except A) A single Lewis formula does not provide an adequate representation of the bonding. B) Resonance describes a more stable situation than does any one contributing resonance formula. C) Resonance describes the oscillation and vibration of electrons. D) The contributing resonance formulas differ only in the arrangement of the electrons. E) Resonance describes the bonding as intermediate between the contributing resonance formulas. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.7 OBJ: Define resonance description. TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: resonance MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
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91. In which of the following species is resonance most likely to take place? A)
B)
C)
D) E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Write resonance formulas. (Example 9.9) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: resonance
REF: 9.7 MSC: general chemistry
92. For the resonance hybrid of the nitrite ion,
what is the average number of bonds between the nitrogen atom and an oxygen atom? A) 3/2 B) 1 C) 4/3 D) 2 E) 5/3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Write resonance formulas. (Example 9.9) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: resonance
REF: 9.7 MSC: general chemistry
93. Which one of the following species is best described by writing three equivalent Lewis formulas? A) SO3 B) SF4 C) SO42– D) SO32– E) SOF4
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 9.7 OBJ: Write resonance formulas. (Example 9.9) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: resonance | delocalization MSC: general chemistry 94. For each of the following species except ____, the electronic structure may be adequately described by two resonance formulas. A) O3 B) SO32– C) NO2– D) C6H6 E) SO2 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.7 OBJ: Write resonance formulas. (Example 9.9) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: resonance | delocalization MSC: general chemistry 95. Which of the following are two appropriate resonance formulas for the acetate ion, CH3CO2–? A)
B)
C)
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D)
E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.7 OBJ: Write resonance formulas. (Example 9.9) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: resonance | delocalization MSC: general chemistry 96. The electronic structure of which of the following species cannot be adequately described by a single Lewis formula? A) CS2 B) POF3 C) HNNH D) NO3– E) H2NNH2 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.7 OBJ: Write resonance formulas. (Example 9.9) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: resonance | delocalization MSC: general chemistry 97. Which of the following species represents an exception to the octet rule? A) SiO2 B) HBr C) SF4 D) PCl3 E) CO2 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.8 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas (exceptions to the octet rule). (Example 9.10) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: exceptions to the octet rule MSC: general chemistry
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98. The Lewis structure of a molecule has a high probability of violating the octet rule if 1. 2. 3.
the molecule has an odd number of valence electrons. the central atom is surrounded by more than four atoms or eight valence electrons. the central atom is from Group 2A or 3A.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.8 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas (exceptions to the octet rule). (Example 9.10) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding 99. In which of the following molecules is the octet rule violated? A) SF6 B) OF2 C) ClF D) PF3 E) SiF4 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.8 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas (exceptions to the octet rule). (Example 9.10) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding 100. The octet rule is violated by at least one atom in all the following compounds except A) SF6. B) PF6-. C) BrF5. D) ICl2-. E) SiF4. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.8 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas (exceptions to the octet rule). (Example 9.10) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding 101. The Lewis formula of which species does not represent an exception to the octet rule? A) SiF5B) SCl6 C) SF4 D) BF3 E) CF3ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.8 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas (exceptions to the octet rule). (Example 9.10) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding Test Bank
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102. Which species has the largest number of lone pairs of electrons around the central atom? A) XeF2 B) XeF6 C) XeOF4 D) XeF4 E) SiF62– ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.8 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas (exceptions to the octet rule). (Example 9.10) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: exceptions to the octet rule MSC: general chemistry 103. In the Lewis formula for ClF3, how many lone pairs are around the central atom? A) 0 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2 E) 1 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.8 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas (exceptions to the octet rule). (Example 9.10) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: exceptions to the octet rule MSC: general chemistry 104. Which of the following molecules has an incorrect Lewis formula? A)
B)
C) D)
E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.8 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas (exceptions to the octet rule). (Example 9.10) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: exceptions to the octet rule MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
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105. In the Lewis dot formula for ICl2–, the number of lone pairs of electrons around the central iodine atom is A) 2. B) 4. C) 1. D) 3. E) 0. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.8 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas (exceptions to the octet rule). (Example 9.10) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: exceptions to the octet rule MSC: general chemistry 106. Which of the following has an incomplete octet in its Lewis structure? A) SO2 B) F2 C) NO2 D) ICl E) CO2 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.8 OBJ: Write Lewis formulas (exceptions to the octet rule). (Example 9.10) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding 107. Which of the following Lewis structures best describes BF3? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.8 OBJ: Note exceptions to the octet rule in Groups IIA and Group IIIA elements. TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: exceptions to the octet rule MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
31
108. Which of the following species represents an exception to the octet rule? A) BF3 B) BF4– C) CH3OH D) CCl4 E) PH3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.8 OBJ: Note exceptions to the octet rule in Groups IIA and Group IIIA elements. TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: exceptions to the octet rule MSC: general chemistry 109. From a consideration of the Lewis structure of the thiocyanate ion, SCN–, in which carbon has a double bond with both the sulfur and nitrogen atoms, the formal charges on the sulfur, carbon, and nitrogen atoms are, respectively, A) –1, +1, –1. B) –2, 0, +1. C) –1, 0, 0. D) –2, +1, 0. E) 0, 0, –1. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.9 OBJ: State the rules for obtaining formal charge. TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: formal charge MSC: general chemistry 110. Which of the following is/are true concerning formal charge? 1. 2. 3.
The formal charge of each individual atom in a molecule or ion is an actual atomic charge that can be experimentally determined. The formal charge of each individual atom is always the same for each possible resonance form. The sum of the formal charges of each atom in a molecule or ion equal the overall charge of the molecule or ion.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) none ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State the rules for obtaining formal charge. TOP: bonding | covalent bonding
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 9.9
32
111. In the Lewis formula that minimizes formal charge, what is the formal charge on the sulfur atom in sulfur trioxide, SO3? A) +2 B) +4 C) +6 D) –2 E) 0 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.9 OBJ: State the rules for obtaining formal charge. TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: formal charge MSC: general chemistry 112. Which of the following statements is true concerning the Lewis formula that minimizes formal charge for H2SO4? A) The formal charge of S is +2, the formal charge of each O is 0, and the formal charge H is 0. B) The formal charge of S is +2, the formal charge of O is either 0 or –2, and the formal charge of H is +1. C) The formal charge of S is +2, the formal charge of O is either 0 or –2, and the formal charge of H is 0. D) The formal charge of S is +2, the formal charge of O is 0, and the formal charge of H is +1. E) The formal charge of S is 0, the formal charge of O is 0, and the formal charge of H is 0. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.9 OBJ: State the rules for obtaining formal charge. TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: formal charge MSC: general chemistry 113. In which of the following species is the octet rule violated by the central atom when the central atom has a formal charge of zero? A) SOCl2 B) CCl4 C) H2S D) PF3 E) N2F4 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.9 OBJ: State the rules for obtaining formal charge. TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: formal charge MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
33
114. What is the correct Lewis dot formula for sulfuric acid, H2SO4, that minimizes formal charge? A)
B)
C) D)
E)
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.9 OBJ: Use formal charges to determine the best Lewis formula. (Example 9.11) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: formal charge MSC: general chemistry 115. What is the formal charge on the chlorine atom in the chlorate ion, ClO3–, in the Lewis dot formula that minimizes formal charge? A) –2 B) +1 C) 0 D) –1 E) +2 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.9 OBJ: Use formal charges to determine the best Lewis formula. (Example 9.11) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: formal charge MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
34
116. In the Lewis dot formula that minimizes formal charge, how many bonds are there in the tetrathionate ion, S4O62– ? A) 7 B) 9 C) 15 D) 11 E) 13 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 9.9 OBJ: Use formal charges to determine the best Lewis formula. (Example 9.11) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: formal charge MSC: general chemistry 117. In the Lewis dot formula for the bromate ion (BrO3–) that minimizes formal charge, the central atom is surrounded by A) two bonding pairs and two lone pairs of electrons. B) four bonding pairs and one lone pair of electrons. C) three bonding pairs and no lone pairs of electrons. D) five bonding pairs and one lone pair of electrons. E) three bonding pairs and one lone pair of electrons. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.9 OBJ: Use formal charges to determine the best Lewis formula. (Example 9.11) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: formal charge MSC: general chemistry 118. Which Lewis dot formula for pyrophosphate, P2O74–, minimizes formal charge? A)
B)
C)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
35
D)
E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.9 OBJ: Use formal charges to determine the best Lewis formula. (Example 9.11) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: formal charge MSC: general chemistry 119. As the number of bonds between two carbon atoms increases, which of the following decrease(s)? A) only the bond length B) only the bond energy C) only the number of electrons between the carbon atoms D) all of these E) none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.10 OBJ: Explain how bond order and bond length are related. (Example 9.12) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: bond length MSC: general chemistry 120. Which of the following statements is true? A) The triple bond in N2 has a smaller bond order and a smaller bond length than the single bond in F2. B) The triple bond in N2 has a larger bond order and a smaller bond length than the single bond in F2. C) The triple bond in N2 has a smaller bond order and a larger bond length than the single bond in F2. D) The triple bond in N2 has a larger bond order and a larger bond length than the single bond in F2. E) The triple bond in N2 and the single bond in F2 have the same bond order and the same bond length. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.10 OBJ: Explain how bond order and bond length are related. (Example 9.12) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: bond order MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
36
121. Which of the following species has the shortest bond distance? A) F2 B) Cl2 C) Br2 D) I2 E) H2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.10 OBJ: Explain how bond order and bond length are related. (Example 9.12) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: bond length MSC: general chemistry 122. Which of the following diatomic species do you expect to have the longest bond length? A) O2+ B) O22– C) O2 D) O2− E) they are all identical ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.10 OBJ: Explain how bond order and bond length are related. (Example 9.12) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: bond length MSC: general chemistry 123. Which of the following diatomic molecules has the greatest bond energy? A) H2 B) HCl C) Cl2 D) CO E) HF ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.11 OBJ: Define bond energy. TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: bond energy MSC: general chemistry 124. Consider the reaction 2HCl(g) → H2(g) + Cl2(g); H = 185 kJ Which of the following statements is false? A) The reaction is endothermic. B) HCl(g) has a negative enthalpy of formation. C) The products have more enthalpy than the reactants. D) The HCl bond is longer than either the H2 bond or the Cl2 bond. E) The bond order of each of the products is one. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.11 OBJ: Define bond energy. TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: bond energy MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
37
125. Using bond-energy data, what is H for the following reaction? CH4(g) + 2Cl2(g) → CCl4(g) + 2H2(g) Bond C-H H-H Cl-Cl C-Cl
Bond Energy (kJ/mol) 413 432 242 328
A) –40 kJ B) –150 kJ C) 40 kJ D) 1415 kJ E) 150 kJ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.11 OBJ: Estimate delta H from bond energies. (Example 9.13) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: bond energy MSC: general chemistry 126. Using bond-energy data, what is H for the following reaction? CH3OH(g) + H2S(g) → CH3SH(g) + H2O(g) Bond C-H C-O O-H C-S S-H
Bond Energy (kJ/mol) 413 358 463 259 339
A) –25 kJ B) −124 kJ C) 25 kJ D) –2763 kJ E) 2738 kJ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 9.11 OBJ: Estimate delta H from bond energies. (Example 9.13) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: bond energy MSC: general chemistry 127. Based on the following data, what is the Br-Br bond energy? H2(g) + Br2(g) → HBr(g); H = –36.44 kJ Bond H-H H-Br
Test Bank
Bond Energy (kJ/mol) 435 362
General Chemistry, 10th edition
38
A) 399 kJ/mol B) 216 kJ/mol C) –216 kJ/mol D) –289 kJ/mol E) 289 kJ/mol ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.11 OBJ: Estimate delta H from bond energies. (Example 9.13) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: bond energy MSC: general chemistry 128. Based on the following data, what is the bond energy of the C=C bond in 1,1difluoroethylene, CF2CH2? CH4(g) → C(g) + 4H(g); H = 1656 kJ CF4(g) → C(g) + 4F(g); H = 1756 kJ CF2CH2(g) → 2C(g) + 2H(g) + 2F(g); H = 2317 kJ A) 611 kJ/mol B) 845 kJ/mol C) 820 kJ/mol D) 1706 kJ/mol E) 1910 kJ/mol ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 9.11 OBJ: Estimate delta H from bond energies. (Example 9.13) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: bond energy MSC: general chemistry 129. Which of the following covalent molecules does not have the proper Lewis dot formula? A)
B)
C)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
39
D)
E) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 9.9 OBJ: Use formal charges to determine the best Lewis formula. (Example 9.11) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding KEY: Lewis dot formula MSC: general chemistry 130. Use the bond energies provided to complete the following statement. ________ when all of the bonds in acetic acid (CH3COOH) are broken. Bond C-H C-O O-H C=O C-C C=C
Bond Energy (kJ/mol) 413 358 463 745 348 614
A) 3153 kJ/mol of energy is consumed B) 3153 kJ/mol of energy is released C) 2805 kJ/mol of energy is released D) 2805 kJ/mol of energy is consumed E) 2766 kJ/mol of energy is consumed ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Estimate delta H from bond energies. (Example 9.13) TOP: bonding | covalent bonding
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 9.11
40
Chapter 10 - Molecular Geometry and Chemical Bonding Theory 1. Which molecule or ion does not have a trigonal pyramidal molecular geometry? A) PO33– B) SO32– C) NI3 D) BF3 E) XeO3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | tetrahedral arrangement MSC: general chemistry 2. What is the electron geometry (or electron arrangement) around an atom in a molecule or ion which is surrounded by zero lone pairs of electrons and four single bonds. A) tetrahedral B) trigonal pyramidal C) trigonal planar D) bent E) linear ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Electron Geometry-4 electron pairs TOP: bonding | molecular geometry
easy
REF: 10.1
3. What is the molecular geometry around an atom in a molecule or ion which is surrounded by zero lone pairs of electrons and four single bonds. A) tetrahedral B) linear C) bent D) trigonal pyramidal E) trigonal planar ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Molecular Geometry-4 electron pairs TOP: bonding | molecular geometry
easy
REF: 10.1
4. What is the molecular geometry around an atom in a molecule or ion which is surrounded by one lone pair of electrons and four single bonds. A) see-saw or distorted tetrahedron B) trigonal bipyramidal C) linear D) T-shaped E) trigonal planar Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
1
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Molecular Geometry-5 electron pairs TOP: bonding | molecular geometry
easy
REF: 10.1
5. What is the electron geometry (or electron arrangement) around an atom in a molecule or ion which is surrounded by one lone pair of electrons and four single bonds. A) trigonal bipyramidal B) see-saw or distorted tetrahedron C) T-shaped D) linear E) trigonal planar ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Electron Geometry-5 electron pairs TOP: bonding | molecular geometry
easy
REF: 10.1
6. What is the electron geometry (or electron arrangement) around an atom in a molecule or ion which is surrounded by one lone pair of electrons and five single bonds. A) octahedral B) square pyramidal C) square planar D) bent E) linear ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Electron Geometry-6 electron pairs TOP: bonding | molecular geometry
easy
REF: 10.1
7. What is the molecular geometry around an atom in a molecule or ion which is surrounded by four single bonds and no lone pairs of electrons. A) tetrahedral B) trigonal bipyramidal C) octahedral D) linear E) trigonal planar ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Molecular Geometry-2-6 bonding pair TOP: bonding | molecular geometry
Test Bank
easy
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 10.1
2
8. What is the molecular geometry around an atom in a molecule or ion which is surrounded by zero lone pairs of electrons and six single bonds. A) octahedral B) square planar C) square pyramidal D) bent E) linear ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Molecular Geometry-6 electron pairs TOP: bonding | molecular geometry
easy
REF: 10.1
9. Which molecule or ion has a trigonal planar molecular geometry? A) PCl3 B) HCN C) CO32– D) HCCH E) AsF3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | trigonal planar arrangement MSC: general chemistry 10. Which molecule or ion has a trigonal pyramidal molecular geometry? A) H2CO B) H2CCO C) CH3+ D) CH3– E) C2H4 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | trigonal planar arrangement MSC: general chemistry 11. Which molecule or ion is not planar? A) H2CO B) NO2– C) C2F4 D) H2CCO E) PO43– ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
3
12. Which molecule or ion is not planar? A) XeF4 B) NO3– C) BCl3 D) F2CCF2 E) CF4 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model MSC: general chemistry 13. Which molecule or ion has a trigonal pyramidal molecular geometry? A) BF3 B) C2H4 C) SO3 D) SO32– E) CO32– ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | tetrahedral arrangement MSC: general chemistry 14. Which molecule or ion has the same molecular geometry for its central atom as the carbonate ion? A) H2CO B) AsCl3 C) PF3 D) CH3– E) BrO3– ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | trigonal planar arrangement MSC: general chemistry 15. Which molecule or ion is nonlinear? A) CO2 B) NF2– C) OCN– D) NO2+ E) HCCH ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
4
16. Which molecule or ion is nonlinear? A) N2O B) O3 C) OCN– D) NO2+ E) CS2 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model MSC: general chemistry 17. Which molecule or ion is nonlinear? A) NO2+ B) SO2 C) NNO D) CS2 E) SCN– ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model MSC: general chemistry
18. The approximate CCO angle in acetone, A) 180°. B) 90°. C) 109°. D) 60°. E) 120°.
, is
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: bond angle MSC: general chemistry 19. The approximate H—C—H bond angle in CH3+ is A) 60°. B) 90°. C) 120°. D) 109°. E) 180°. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: bond angle MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
5
20. The approximate H—C—C bond angle in ethane, C2H6, is A) 60°. B) 180°. C) 120°. D) 109°. E) 90°. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: bond angle MSC: general chemistry 21. The molecule AX3, in which A is the central atom, is polar and obeys the octet rule; therefore, A) A has two lone pairs. B) A has one lone pair. C) A has no lone pairs. D) A has four bonding pairs. E) A has three lone pairs. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | tetrahedral arrangement MSC: general chemistry 22. What is the predicted H—N—H bond angle in the ammonium ion? A) 109.5° B) 90° C) 180° D) 120° E) 45° ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: bond angle MSC: general chemistry 23. What is the O—N—O bond angle in the nitrite ion? A) 90° B) 180° and 90° C) 180° D) 120° E) 109° ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: bond angle MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
6
24. What is the bond angle in a linear molecule or ion? A) 120° B) 109° C) 90° D) 72° E) 180° ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: bond angle MSC: general chemistry 25. For which of the following molecules or ions do the electron pairs on the central nitrogen atom have a tetrahedral arrangement? A) FNO B) NF2– C) N2F2 D) NO2– E) NO– ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | tetrahedral arrangement MSC: general chemistry 26. The molecular geometry of the nitrite ion, NO2– , is best described as A) pyramidal. B) trigonal pyramidal. C) bent. D) tetrahedral. E) trigonal planar. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | trigonal planar arrangement MSC: general chemistry 27. Which molecule does not have a planar molecular geometry? A) SO3 B) HCCH C) N2H4 D) HNNH E) C2F4 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
7
28. Which molecule or ion does not have a planar molecular geometry? A) NO3– B) BF3 C) F2CO D) C2H4 E) SO32– ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model MSC: general chemistry 29. The molecular geometry of the CH3+ ion is best described as A) trigonal planar. B) pyramidal. C) linear. D) bent. E) tetrahedral. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | trigonal planar arrangement MSC: general chemistry 30. Which of the following concerning electron pair space requirements and bond angles is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Lone pairs of electrons require more space than bonding pairs. Multiple bonds require the same amount of space as single bonds. The HOH bond angle in H2O and the HNH bond angle in NH3 are identical because the electron arrangements (tetrahedral) are identical.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Space Requirements-VESPR
DIF: easy REF: 10.1 TOP: bonding | molecular geometry
31. The molecular geometry of the ammonium ion, NH4+, is most similar to the molecular geometry of A) NH3. B) CH4. C) N2H4. D) NH2–. E) CH3+.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
8
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | tetrahedral arrangement MSC: general chemistry 32. The molecular geometry of the CH3– ion is A) tetrahedral. B) square planar. C) square pyramidal. D) trigonal planar. E) trigonal pyramidal. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | tetrahedral arrangement MSC: general chemistry 33. What is the molecular geometry of the thiosulfate ion, S2O32–? A) tetrahedral B) trigonal bipyramidal C) pyramidal D) bent E) square planar ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | tetrahedral arrangement MSC: general chemistry 34. Which molecule or ion does not have a trigonal pyramidal molecular geometry? A) AsF3 B) NF3 C) PF3 D) BF3 E) IO3– ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | tetrahedral arrangement MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
9
35. Which molecule or ion is not planar? A) CO32– B) Cl2CCCl2 C) HNNH D) H3O+ E) F2CO ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model MSC: general chemistry 36. In phosgene, COCl2, the electron groups are located about the central carbon atom in a ______________ arrangement. A) square planar B) trigonal bipyramidal C) pyramidal D) trigonal planar E) tetrahedral ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | trigonal planar arrangement MSC: general chemistry 37. In the hydronium ion, H3O+, the electron groups are arranged about the central oxygen atom in a A) tetrahedron. B) square plane. C) pyramid. D) trigonal plane. E) bent structure. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | tetrahedral arrangement MSC: general chemistry 38. What is the C—C—H bond angle in H2CCO? A) 109° B) 180° C) 120° D) 144° E) 90° ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: bond angle MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
10
39. Which molecule or ion has the same molecular geometry as SeO32–? A) SeO3 B) CO32– C) NO3– D) SO32– E) SO3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | trigonal planar arrangement MSC: general chemistry 40. Which molecule or ion has the same molecular geometry for its central atom(s) as BF3? A) CF4 B) CH3– C) BF4– D) C2F4 E) C2F6 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | trigonal planar arrangement MSC: general chemistry 41. What is the molecular geometry around carbon atom C1?
A) tetrahedral B) trigonal planar C) linear D) trigonal pyramidal E) bent ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry in a molecule. TOP: bonding | molecular geometry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 10.1
11
42. What is the molecular geometry around the nitrogen atom?
A) trigonal pyramidal B) bent C) tetrahedral D) see-saw or distorted tetrahedral E) trigonal planar ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry in a molecule. TOP: bonding | molecular geometry
REF: 10.1
43. What is the molecular geometry of the bromate ion, BrO3–? A) square planar B) trigonal planar C) square pyramidal D) tetrahedral E) trigonal pyramidal ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | tetrahedral arrangement MSC: general chemistry 44. Which of the following statements correctly describes the reaction of BF3 with NH3 to form F3B–NH3? A) Both nitrogen and boron change from trigonal planar to tetrahedral geometry during the reaction. B) Boron changes from trigonal planar to tetrahedral geometry during the reaction. C) There are no changes in the formal charge on any atom during the reaction. D) Nitrogen changes from trigonal planar to tetrahedral geometry during the reaction. E) There is no change in geometry around the nitrogen or boron atoms. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
12
45. Which of the following characteristics does not apply to PF3? A) has three bonds B) contains polar bonds C) polar molecule D) one lone pair of electrons on phosphorus E) trigonal planar ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.1) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | tetrahedral arrangement MSC: general chemistry 46. What is the H—C—C bond angle in ethylene, H2CCH2? A) slightly less than 120° B) 90° C) 109° D) 120° E) 180° ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Note that a lone pair tends to require more space than a corresponding bonding pair and that a multiple bond requires more space than a single bond. TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: bond angle MSC: general chemistry 47. What is the H—O—H bond angle in water? A) 90° B) slightly less than 109° C) 180° D) 120° E) 109° ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Note that a lone pair tends to require more space than a corresponding bonding pair and that a multiple bond requires more space than a single bond. TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: bond angle MSC: general chemistry 48. In the ICI4– ion, how many electron groups surround the central iodine atom? A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (five or six electron pairs). (Example 10.2) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | octahedral arrangement MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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49. In the I3– ion, how many electron groups surround the central atom? A) 5 B) 3 C) 6 D) 4 E) 2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (five or six electron pairs). (Example 10.2) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | trigonal bipyramidal arrangement MSC: general chemistry 50. In the ICl4– ion, the electron pairs are arranged around the central iodine atom in the shape of A) a tetrahedron. B) an octahedron. C) a square plane. D) a trigonal bipyramid. E) a trigonal pyramid. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (five or six electron pairs). (Example 10.2) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | octahedral arrangement MSC: general chemistry 51. In ClF3, the electron pairs are arranged about the chlorine atom in A) a square plane. B) a tetrahedron. C) an octahedron. D) a trigonal pyramid. E) a trigonal bipyramid. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (five or six electron pairs). (Example 10.2) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | trigonal bipyramidal arrangement MSC: general chemistry 52. What is the molecular geometry of the ICl4– ion? A) octahedral B) pentagonal C) tetrahedral D) rectangular E) square planar
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (five or six electron pairs). (Example 10.2) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model | octahedral arrangement MSC: general chemistry 53. Which molecule or ion does not have a tetrahedral molecular geometry? A) ClF4– B) SiF4 C) NF4+ D) CF4 E) BF4– ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (five or six electron pairs). (Example 10.2) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model MSC: general chemistry 54. Which molecule or ion does not have a tetrahedral molecular geometry? A) BF4– B) NF4+ C) GeF4 D) XeF4 E) BeF42– ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (five or six electron pairs). (Example 10.2) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model MSC: general chemistry 55. Which molecule or ion does not have a tetrahedral molecular geometry? A) ICl4– B) CCl4 C) GeCl4 D) BrO4– E) SiCl4 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.1 OBJ: Predict the molecular geometry (five or six electron pairs). (Example 10.2) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: the valence-shell electron-pair repulsion model MSC: general chemistry 56. For which molecule or ion does the nitrogen atom have the positive end of the dipole moment? A) NH4+ B) CN− C) NO D) HCN E) N2
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.2 OBJ: Explain the relationship between dipole moment and molecular geometry. (Example 10.3) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: dipole moment MSC: general chemistry 57. Which of the following molecules is nonpolar? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.2 OBJ: Explain the relationship between dipole moment and molecular geometry. (Example 10.3) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: dipole moment MSC: general chemistry 58. Which molecule is polar? A) C2H4 B) CS2 C) C6H6 D) SO2 E) CF4 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.2 OBJ: Explain the relationship between dipole moment and molecular geometry. (Example 10.3) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: dipole moment MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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59. Which of the following concerning molecular geometry and dipole moments is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Only molecules with polar bonds may have a permanent dipole moment. All molecules with polar bonds have a permanent dipole moment. All square planar molecules are nonpolar.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.2 OBJ: Explain the relationship between dipole moment and molecular geometry. (Example 10.3) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry 60. Which of the following molecules has a permanent dipole moment? A) SF6 B) CCl4 C) NF3 D) SiCl4 E) BF3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.2 OBJ: Explain the relationship between dipole moment and molecular geometry. (Example 10.3) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: dipole moment MSC: general chemistry 61. Which of the following molecules does not have a permanent dipole moment? A) sulfur tetrafluoride, SF4 B) iodine trichloride, ICl3 C) nitrogen trifluoride, NF3 D) phosphorus pentafluoride, PF5 E) sulfur dioxide, SO2 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.2 OBJ: Explain the relationship between dipole moment and molecular geometry. (Example 10.3) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry 62. Which of the following molecules has a dipole moment? A) PF5 B) FOOF C) HCCH D) F2CCF2 E) SF6 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.2 OBJ: Explain the relationship between dipole moment and molecular geometry. (Example 10.3) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: dipole moment MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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63. Which of the following molecules has a dipole moment? A) SO2 B) CS2 C) ClCCCCCl D) CCl4 E) HCCH ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.2 OBJ: Explain the relationship between dipole moment and molecular geometry. (Example 10.3) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: dipole moment MSC: general chemistry 64. Which of the following compounds is nonpolar? A) H2S B) XeF2 C) SO2 D) N2O E) HCl ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.2 OBJ: Explain the relationship between dipole moment and molecular geometry. (Example 10.3) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: dipole moment MSC: general chemistry 65. Which of the following molecules is polar? A) SF6 B) CCl4 C) BF3 D) NO2 E) CO2 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.2 OBJ: Explain the relationship between dipole moment and molecular geometry. (Example 10.3) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: dipole moment MSC: general chemistry 66. Which of the following statements best describes N2O? A) The molecular geometry is bent and the molecule is nonpolar. B) The molecular geometry is linear and the molecule is nonpolar. C) The molecular geometry is linear and the molecule is polar. D) The molecular geometry is trigonal planar and the molecule is nonpolar. E) The molecular geometry is bent and the molecule is polar. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.2 OBJ: Explain the relationship between dipole moment and molecular geometry. (Example 10.3) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: dipole moment MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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67. Which of the following molecules is nonpolar? A) SF4 B) PF5 C) ClF3 D) PF3 E) CH2F2 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.2 OBJ: Explain the relationship between dipole moment and molecular geometry. (Example 10.3) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: dipole moment MSC: general chemistry 68. Which one of the following statements provides the best evidence that all the carbon compounds listed below have tetrahedral molecular geometries instead of square planar molecular geometries? A) Only one CH4 compound is known and it is nonpolar. B) Only one CH3F compound is known and it is polar. C) Only one CH2F2 compound is known and it is polar. D) Only one CF4 compound is known and it is nonpolar. E) Only one CHF3 compound is known and it is polar. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 10.2 OBJ: Explain the relationship between dipole moment and molecular geometry. (Example 10.3) TOP: bonding | molecular geometry KEY: dipole moment MSC: general chemistry 69. When an atom in a molecule or ion is described as sp3d2 hybridized, its molecular geometry is A) octahedral. B) trigonal bipyramidal. C) linear. D) tetrahedral. E) trigonal planar. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.3 OBJ: Apply valence bond theory (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.4) TOP: bonding | bonding theories 70. How many sigma and pi bonds are in the molecule pictured below?
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) thirteen sigma bonds and one pi bond B) eleven sigma bonds and two pi bonds C) thirteen sigma bonds and two pi bonds D) eleven sigma bonds and five pi bonds E) five sigma bonds and eleven pi bonds ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.3 OBJ: Apply valence bond theory (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.4) TOP: bonding | bonding theories 71. What hybrid orbitals of sulfur are involved in the bonding in sulfur trioxide? A) sp2 B) sp2d C) sp3 D) sp3d2 E) sp ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.3 OBJ: Apply valence bond theory (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.4) TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: hybridization MSC: general chemistry 72. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the water molecule? A) There are two lone pairs and two bonding pairs on the central atom. B) The molecule is polar. C) The hybridization of oxygen is sp3. D) The hybridization of hydrogen is sp. E) The molecular geometry is bent. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.3 OBJ: Apply valence bond theory (two, three, or four electron pairs). (Example 10.4) TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: hybridization MSC: general chemistry 73. What is the hybridization of Se in SeF6? A) sp3d B) sp3d2 C) sp2 D) sp E) sp3 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.3 OBJ: Apply valence bond theory (five or six electron pairs). (Example 10.5) TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: hybridization MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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74. What is the hybridization of Br in BrF3? A) sp3 B) sp C) sp3d2 D) sp2 E) sp3d ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.3 OBJ: Apply valence bond theory (five or six electron pairs). (Example 10.5) TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: hybridization MSC: general chemistry 75. What is the hybridization of I in IF4–? A) sp2 B) sp C) sp3d D) sp3d2 E) sp3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.3 OBJ: Apply valence bond theory (five or six electron pairs). (Example 10.5) TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: hybridization MSC: general chemistry 76. According to valence-bond theory, what is the hybridization scheme of the sulfur atom in SF4? A)
B)
C)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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D)
E)
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.3 OBJ: Apply valence bond theory (five or six electron pairs). (Example 10.5) TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: hybridization MSC: general chemistry 77. A bond is the result of the A) overlap of two s orbitals. B) overlap of two p orbitals along their axes. C) sideways overlap of two parallel p orbitals. D) overlap of an s orbital and a p orbital. E) sideways overlap of two s orbitals. ANS: C PTS: OBJ: Define pi bond. KEY: multiple bonding
1
DIF: easy REF: 10.4 TOP: bonding | bonding theories MSC: general chemistry
78. Which of the following statements is true? A) A bond is twice as strong as a single bond. B) A bond results from the sideways overlap of hybridized orbitals. C) A double bond consists of a bond and a bond. D) A bond has cylindrical symmetry about the bonding axis. E) A bond is twice as strong as a bond. ANS: C PTS: OBJ: Define pi bond. KEY: multiple bonding
1
DIF: moderate REF: 10.4 TOP: bonding | bonding theories MSC: general chemistry
79. Which of the labeled carbons (C1-C4) is/are sp3-hybridized?
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) carbon two and four B) carbon three C) carbon one D) carbon two E) carbon one and three ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.4 OBJ: Apply valence bond theory (multiple bonding). (Example 10.6) TOP: bonding | bonding theories 80. What is the hybridization of the nitrogen atom in the nitrite ion? A) sp3d B) sp3 C) s D) sp E) sp2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.4 OBJ: Apply valence bond theory (multiple bonding). (Example 10.6) TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: multiple bonding MSC: general chemistry 81. According to valence-bond theory, the bonding in ketene, H2CCO, is best described as A) five bonds. B) three bonds and two bonds. C) four bonds and two bonds. D) four bonds and one bond. E) five bonds. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.4 OBJ: Apply valence bond theory (multiple bonding). (Example 10.6) TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: multiple bonding MSC: general chemistry 82. Which of the following concerning and bonds is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Sigma bonds may only be formed from unhybridized orbitals. Pi bonds are formed from unhybridized p orbitals. A pi bond has an electron distribution above and below the bond axis.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 2 and 3
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.4 OBJ: Apply valence bond theory (multiple bonding). (Example 10.6) TOP: bonding | bonding theories NOT: REVISED 83. Which of the following concerning and bonds is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
A sigma bond may be formed from the sideways overlap of two parallel p orbitals. No more than two pi bonds are possible between adjacent carbon atoms. The considerable energy required to rotate pi bonded atoms is the primary reason for geometrical isomerism in some pi bonded molecules.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 2 and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.4 OBJ: Apply valence bond theory (multiple bonding). (Example 10.6) TOP: bonding | bonding theories 84. Which molecule or ion does not contain two bonds? A) HCCH B) H2CCCH2 C) NO– D) CS2 E) SCN– ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.4 OBJ: Apply valence bond theory (multiple bonding). (Example 10.6) TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: multiple bonding MSC: general chemistry 85. If four orbitals on one atom overlap four orbitals on a second atom, how many molecular orbitals will form? A) 4 B) 16 C) 1 D) 8 E) none of these ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define molecular orbital theory. KEY: molecular orbital theory
Test Bank
DIF: moderate REF: 10.5 TOP: bonding | bonding theories MSC: general chemistry
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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86. Which of the following statements is/are true? 1. 2. 3.
Electrons are never found in an antibonding molecular orbital. Antibonding molecular orbitals have electron density mainly outside the space between the two nuclei. All antibonding molecular orbitals are higher in energy than the atomic orbitals of which they are composed.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 2 and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.5 OBJ: Define bonding orbitals and antibonding orbitals. TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: molecular orbital theory MSC: general chemistry 87. The nitrosyl ion, NO+, has ten bonding electrons and four antibonding electrons. Therefore, it has a bond order of A) 1. B) 5/2. C) 7. D) 2. E) 3. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.5 OBJ: Define bond order. TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: molecular orbital theory | bond order MSC: general chemistry 88. Which of the following species has(have) a bond order of 2? 1. NO– 2. O2 3. O2– A) 1 only B) 3 only C) 2 only D) 1 and 3 E) 1 and 2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.5 OBJ: Define bond order. TOP: bonding | bonding characteristics KEY: molecular orbital theory | bond order MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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89. Which of the following species has a bond order of 2.5? A) N2 B) NO+ C) CO D) O2+ E) NO– ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.5 OBJ: Define bond order. TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: molecular orbital theory | bond order MSC: general chemistry 90. Which molecule or ion has a bond order of 2.5? A) O2 B) O2+ C) NO– D) O22– E) O2– ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.5 OBJ: Define bond order. TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: molecular orbital theory | bond order MSC: general chemistry 91. Which of the following species has(have) a bond order of 1? 1. HF 2. O22− 3. O22+ A) 1 only B) 3 only C) 1 and 2 D) 2 and 3 E) 2 only ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.5 OBJ: Define bond order. TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: molecular orbital theory | bond order MSC: general chemistry 92. Given the molecular orbital diagram for dilithium (Li2) below, what would be the bond order of Li2+?
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) B) C) 1 D) 0 E) 2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.5 OBJ: Describe the electron configurations of H2, He2, Li2, and Be2. TOP: bonding | bonding theories 93. Which of the following statements is not correct? A) Hybrid orbitals are made by the combination of atomic orbitals on a given atom. B) In both valence bond theory and molecular orbital theory bonding result from the overlap of occupied atomic orbitals. C) Valence bond theory does not account for the experimentally observed paramagnetism of molecules like O2. D) Pi bonds may be formed from s or p orbital overlap. E) In molecular orbital theory a molecular orbital may encompass more than two atoms. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.6 OBJ: Describe molecular orbital configurations (homonuclear diatomic molecules). (Example 10.7) TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: molecular orbital theory MSC: general chemistry 94. Given the molecular orbital diagram for dinitrogen (N2) excluding the K shells below, which of the following molecules or ions is expected to be diamagnetic?
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) C22– B) O2 C) B2 D) O2– E) O2+ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.6 OBJ: Describe molecular orbital configurations (homonuclear diatomic molecules). (Example 10.7) TOP: bonding | bonding theories NOT: REVISED 95. Which molecule or ion has the highest bond order? A) F2– B) O2 C) O22– D) N2 E) F2 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.6 OBJ: Describe molecular orbital configurations (homonuclear diatomic molecules). (Example 10.7) TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: diatomic molecule MSC: general chemistry 96. Given the molecular orbital diagram for dinitrogen (N2) excluding the K shells below and assuming all species have a similar ordering of their MO’s, which of the following would be expected to be diamagnetic?
A) O2 B) F2− C) O2− D) B2 E) Li2+ ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.6 OBJ: Describe molecular orbital configurations (homonuclear diatomic molecules). (Example 10.7) TOP: bonding | bonding theories NOT: REVISED
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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97. Consider the following series of molecular ions and molecules: F2+, F22+, F2, and F2–. Which will have the shortest bond length between the fluorine atoms? Assume the homonuclear molecular orbital diagram provided below for nitrogen (excluding the K shells) still applies to these species.
A) F2+ B) The bond lengths are all equivalent. C) F22+ D) F2 E) F2– ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.6 OBJ: Describe molecular orbital configurations (homonuclear diatomic molecules). (Example 10.7) TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: diatomic molecule MSC: general chemistry 98. The configuration (2s)2(2s*)2(2py)1(2px)1 is the molecular orbital description for the ground state of A) C2. B) B2. C) Be2. D) Li2+. E) B22–. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 10.6 OBJ: Describe molecular orbital configurations (homonuclear diatomic molecules). (Example 10.7) TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: diatomic molecule MSC: general chemistry 99. Which molecule or ion has the shortest bond distance? A) NO+ B) CO+ C) NO D) NO– E) CO–
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.6 OBJ: Describe molecular orbital configurations (heteronuclear diatomic molecules). (Example 10.8) TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: diatomic molecule MSC: general chemistry 100. In the molecular orbital description of CO, A) six molecular orbitals contain electrons. B) there are two unpaired electrons. C) the bond order is 3. D) the highest-energy electrons occupy antibonding orbitals. E) All of the above are false. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.6 OBJ: Describe molecular orbital configurations (heteronuclear diatomic molecules). (Example 10.8) TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: diatomic molecule MSC: general chemistry 101. Which of the following electron distributions among the molecular orbitals best describes the NO molecule? 2s A) 2 B) 2 C) 2 D) 2 E) 2
2s*
2py=2px
2pz
2py*=2px*
2pz*
2 2 2 2 2
4 4 4 4 4
1 2 2 2 2
3 4 1 2 4
0 1 0 0 2
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 10.6 OBJ: Describe molecular orbital configurations (heteronuclear diatomic molecules). (Example 10.8) TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: diatomic molecule MSC: general chemistry 102. Which of the following statements about the molecule O2 is false? A) Its bond order is 2. B) The total number of electrons is 12. C) It is paramagnetic. D) It has two pi bonds. E) It has one sigma bond. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.6 OBJ: Describe molecular orbital configurations (heteronuclear diatomic molecules). (Example 10.8) TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: diatomic molecule MSC: general chemistry 103. Which molecule or ion is paramagnetic? A) NO2+ B) OCN– C) NO2– D) NO E) SO3 Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.6 OBJ: Describe molecular orbital configurations (heteronuclear diatomic molecules). (Example 10.8) TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: diatomic molecule MSC: general chemistry 104. Which of the following statements concerning ozone is incorrect? A) It is generated by passing an electrical discharge through oxygen. B) It has a partial double-bond character. C) It is a nonpolar molecule. D) It is an important absorber of ultraviolet radiation in the stratosphere. E) It has a bond angle similar to that predicted for sp2 hybridization. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 10.7 OBJ: Describe the delocalized bonding in molecules such as O3. TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: molecular orbital and delocalized bonding MSC: general chemistry 105. Which of these statements about benzene is true? A) Benzene is an example of a molecule that displays ionic bonding. B) Benzene contains only bonds between C atoms. C) All carbon atoms in benzene are sp3 hybridized. D) The bond order of each C—C bond in benzene is 1.5. E) All of these statements are false. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.7 OBJ: Describe the delocalized bonding in molecules such as O3. TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: molecular orbital and delocalized bonding MSC: general chemistry 106. The following statements concern molecules that require resonance. Which is true? A) The benzene molecule is best described by the MO theory. B) The sigma bonding is clearly delocalized. C) Both the sigma bonding and the pi bonding are delocalized. D) The benzene molecule is best described by the localized electron model. E) The pi bonding is clearly delocalized. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 10.7 OBJ: Describe the delocalized bonding in molecules such as O3. TOP: bonding | bonding theories KEY: molecular orbital and delocalized bonding MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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Chapter 11 - States of Matter: Liquids and Solids 1. Which of the following statements concerning liquids is incorrect? A) The volume of a liquid changes very little with pressure. B) Liquids are relatively incompressible. C) Liquid molecules move slowly compared to solids. D) Non-volatile liquids have low vapor pressures at room temperature. E) The molecules of a liquid are in constant random motion. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.1 OBJ: Compare a gas, a liquid, and a solid using a kinetic-molecular theory description. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: properties of liquids MSC: general chemistry 2. Which of the following statements concerning solids, liquids and gases is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
The close contact of the particles in a solid prevents all possible motion, including vibrational motion. Liquids and gases are both considered fluids. The postulate from kinetic-molecular theory that the particles in a gas are in constant random motion is equally applicable to liquids, except the particles are more tightly packed in a gas.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 2 and 3 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.1 OBJ: Compare a gas, a liquid, and a solid using a kinetic-molecular theory description. TOP: phases | liquid 3. What is the name for the following phase change? I2(s) → I2(g) A) sublimation B) freezing C) vaporization D) condensation E) melting ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.2 OBJ: Define melting, freezing, vaporization, sublimation, and condensation. TOP: phases | phase transitions MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
1
4. Which of the following processes is endothermic? A) melting of ice B) condensation of water C) deposition of carbon dioxide D) freezing of water E) condensation of ammonia ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.2 OBJ: Define melting, freezing, vaporization, sublimation, and condensation. TOP: phases | phase transitions 5. The process represented by the equation C10H8(s) → C10H8(g) is A) melting. B) liquefaction. C) sublimation. D) condensation. E) fusion. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.2 OBJ: Define melting, freezing, vaporization, sublimation, and condensation. TOP: phases | phase transitions MSC: general chemistry 6. When a solid undergoes a phase change to a gas, the process is called A) fusion. B) condensation. C) melting. D) vaporization. E) sublimation. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.2 OBJ: Define melting, freezing, vaporization, sublimation, and condensation. TOP: phases | phase transitions MSC: general chemistry 7. A bottle is filled with a small amount of a volatile liquid and sealed. Sometime later it is observed that no liquid is evident in the sealed bottle. Which of the following statements would explain this observation? A) More time is needed to establish equilibrium. B) Liquid and vapor are at equilibrium in the bottle. C) Too little liquid was added to achieve a liquid vapor equilibrium in the closed system. D) The vapor state is favored when equilibrium is established. E) The liquid has undergone sublimation. ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define vapor pressure. KEY: vapor pressure
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DIF: moderate REF: 11.2 TOP: phases | phase transitions MSC: general chemistry
General Chemistry, 10th edition
2
8. Enough of a volatile liquid is placed in a closed container to achieve a liquid-vapor equilibrium at a fixed temperature. Which of the following statements regarding this system is/are correct once equilibrium is established? 1. 2. 3.
Liquid molecules are no longer evaporating. The number of vapor molecules remains essentially constant. The partial pressure exerted by the vapor molecules is called the vapor pressure of the liquid.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 2 and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Define vapor pressure.
DIF: moderate REF: 11.2 TOP: phases | phase transitions
9. Enough of a volatile liquid is placed in a closed container to achieve a liquid-vapor equilibrium. Which of the following statements regarding this system is/are correct once equilibrium is established? 1. 2. 3.
The rate of condensation is equal to the rate of evaporation. The fraction of molecules with enough energy to escape the liquid surface depends on the liquid surface area. The vapor pressure is independent of the temperature.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Define vapor pressure.
DIF: moderate REF: 11.2 TOP: phases | phase transitions
10. If more ice is added to an ice-water mixture at equilibrium, A) the temperature will increase somewhat. B) the vapor pressure of the water will decrease. C) the temperature will decrease somewhat. D) the vapor pressure of the water will rise. E) the vapor pressure of the water will remain constant. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.2 OBJ: Describe the process of reaching a dynamic equilibrium that involves the vaporization of a liquid and condensation of its vapor. TOP: phases | phase transitions KEY: vapor pressure MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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11. Which of the following involves a change in temperature during the phase transition? A) condensation of water B) fusion of ethanol C) vaporization of water D) all of the above E) none of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.2 OBJ: Describe the process of reaching a dynamic equilibrium that involves the vaporization of a liquid and condensation of its vapor. TOP: phases | phase transitions 12. The boiling point of a liquid is A) always the temperature at which the vapor pressure equals 760 mmHg (1 atm). B) always the temperature at which the liquid phase of a substance is in equilibrium with the vapor phase. C) always the temperature at which the vapor pressure equals the pressure exerted on the liquid. D) always equal to the vapor pressure of the liquid at a given temperature. E) independent of the pressure exerted on the liquid. ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define boiling point.
DIF: easy REF: 11.2 TOP: phases | phase transitions
13. Which one of the following liquids would you expect to have the highest vapor pressure at room temperature? (all boiling points are normal boiling points) A) n-pentane, b.p. = 36.1°C B) methanol, b.p. = 65.0°C C) carbon tetrachloride, b.p. = 76.7°C D) acetic acid, b.p. = 118°C E) mercury, b.p. = 357°C ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Define boiling point.
DIF: moderate REF: 11.2 TOP: phases | phase transitions
14. In which of the following processes will energy be evolved as heat? A) crystallization B) melting C) sublimation D) vaporization E) none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.2 OBJ: Define heat (enthalpy) of fusion and heat (enthalpy) of vaporization. TOP: phases | phase transitions KEY: phase transition enthalpy change MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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15. Which of the following phase changes are endothermic? A) vaporization B) freezing C) liquifaction D) crystallization E) condensation ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.2 OBJ: Define heat (enthalpy) of fusion and heat (enthalpy) of vaporization. TOP: phases | phase transitions 16. The enthalpy of fusion of sodium is 2.60 kJ/mol. How many grams of sodium can be melted by adding 81.7 kJ of energy to the metal at its melting point? A) 7.22 10 2 g B) 9.24 g C) 3.55 g D) 31.4 g E) 1.50 10 3 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.2 OBJ: Calculate the heat required for a phase change of a given mass of substance. (Example 11.1) TOP: phases | phase transitions 17. Assume 12,500 J of energy is added to 2.0 moles (36 grams) of H2O as an ice sample at 0°C. The molar heat of fusion is 6.02 kJ/mol. The specific heat of liquid water is 4.18 J/g °C. The molar heat of vaporization is 40.6 kJ/mol. The resulting sample contains which of the following? A) water and water vapor B) ice and water C) only water D) only water vapor E) only ice ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.2 OBJ: Calculate the heat required for a phase change of a given mass of substance. (Example 11.1) TOP: phases | phase transitions KEY: phase transition enthalpy change MSC: general chemistry 18. How much heat is released at constant pressure if a 14.0-L tank containing 56.0 atm of hydrogen sulfide gas condenses at its boiling point of -60.0oC? The enthalpy of vaporization of hydrogen sulfide is 18.7 kJ/mol at -60.0oC. (R = 0.0821 L • atm/(K • mol)) A) 1.17 102 J B) 2.98 106 J C) 4.17 102 J D) 1.87 104 J E) 8.38 105 J
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.2 OBJ: Calculate the heat required for a phase change of a given mass of substance. (Example 11.1) TOP: phases | phase transitions KEY: phase transition enthalpy change MSC: general chemistry 19. What is the value of q when 8.21 g of water vaporizes at 373 K? The enthalpy of condensation of water at 373 K is –40.7 kJ/mol. A) –334 kJ B) –18.5 kJ C) 18.5 kJ D) 334 kJ E) 0.202 kJ ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.2 OBJ: Calculate the heat required for a phase change of a given mass of substance. (Example 11.1) TOP: phases | phase transitions KEY: phase transition enthalpy change MSC: general chemistry 20. The vapor pressure of a liquid increases with increasing temperature. Which of the following statements best explains this relationship? A) All the molecules have greater kinetic energies. B) The number of gaseous molecules above the liquid remains constant, but these molecules have greater average kinetic energy. C) The faster-moving molecules in the liquid exert a greater pressure. D) The intermolecular forces between the molecules decrease at higher temperatures. E) The average kinetic energy of molecules is greater; thus more molecules can enter the gaseous state. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.2 OBJ: Describe the general dependence of the vapor pressure (in P) on the temperature (T). TOP: phases | phase transitions KEY: vapor pressure MSC: general chemistry 21. The vapor pressure of a given liquid will increase if A) the liquid is moved to a container in which its surface is very much larger. B) the volume of the liquid is increased. C) the temperature is increased. D) the volume of the vapor phase is increased. E) a more volatile liquid is added to the given liquid. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.2 OBJ: Describe the general dependence of the vapor pressure (in P) on the temperature (T). TOP: phases | phase transitions KEY: vapor pressure MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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22. A particular compound has an enthalpy of vaporization of 28300 J/mol. At 281 K it has a vapor pressure of 101 mmHg. What is its vapor pressure at 301 K? (R = 8.31 J/(K· mol)) A) 98.8 mmHg B) 123 mmHg C) 45.2 mmHg D) 226 mmHg E) 103 mmHg ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.2 OBJ: Calculate the vapor pressure at a given temperature. (Example 11.2) TOP: phases | phase transitions KEY: Clausius-Clapeyron equation MSC: general chemistry 23. A liquid has an enthalpy of vaporization of 30.8 kJ/mol. At 275 K it has a vapor pressure of 117 mmHg. What is the normal boiling point of this liquid? (R = 8.31 J/(K· mol)) A) 293 K B) 319 K C) 275 K D) 259 K E) 241 K ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.2 OBJ: Calculate the vapor pressure at a given temperature. (Example 11.2) TOP: phases | phase transitions KEY: Clausius-Clapeyron equation MSC: general chemistry 24. In a certain mountain range, water boils at 94°C. What is the atmospheric pressure under these conditions? The enthalpy of vaporization of water at 100°C is 40.7 kJ/mol. (R = 8.31 J/(K · mol)) A) 1760 mmHg B) 324 mmHg C) 613 mmHg D) 942 mmHg E) 329 mmHg ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.2 OBJ: Calculate the vapor pressure at a given temperature. (Example 11.2) TOP: phases | phase transitions KEY: Clausius-Clapeyron equation MSC: general chemistry 25. For a particular liquid, raising its temperature from 319 K to 337 K causes its vapor pressure to double. What is the enthalpy of vaporization of this liquid? (R = 8.31 J/(K · mol)) A) 34.4 kJ/mol B) 320 kJ/mol C) 2.01 kJ/mol D) 228 kJ/mol E) 104 kJ/mol
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 11.2 OBJ: Calculate the heat of vaporization from vapor pressure. (Example 11.3) TOP: phases | phase transitions KEY: Clausius-Clapeyron equation MSC: general chemistry 26. Knowing that Hvap for water is 40.7 kJ/mol, calculate Pvap of water at 37°C. A) 52.7 torr B) 25.4 torr C) 18.7 torr D) 12.4 torr E) 6.90 torr ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 11.2 OBJ: Calculate the heat of vaporization from vapor pressure. (Example 11.3) TOP: phases | phase transitions KEY: Clausius-Clapeyron equation MSC: general chemistry 27. What is the enthalpy of vaporization of a compound that has a vapor pressure of 131 mmHg at 211 K and 2.23 mmHg at 177 K? (R = 8.31 J/(K· mol)) A) 996 kJ/mol B) 1.15 kJ/mol C) 3.31 kJ/mol D) 37.2 kJ/mol E) 368 kJ/mol ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.2 OBJ: Calculate the heat of vaporization from vapor pressure. (Example 11.3) TOP: phases | phase transitions KEY: Clausius-Clapeyron equation MSC: general chemistry 28. In the accompanying phase diagram, a liquid can be present at combinations of temperature and pressure corresponding to points
A) A, C, G, and D. B) A, C, D, and F. C) A, B, C, and G. D) A and C only. E) G, C, D, and E. Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: Define phase diagram. KEY: phase diagram
DIF: moderate REF: 11.3 TOP: phases | phase transitions MSC: general chemistry
29. Which of the following statements concerning the accompanying phase diagram is false?
A) The solid is more dense than the liquid. B) Point C is the critical point of the substance. C) Point A is the triple point of the substance. D) The normal boiling point is above the triple point. E) The curve AD divides the solid region from the gas region. ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Define phase diagram.
DIF: moderate REF: 11.3 TOP: phases | phase transitions
30. Given the accompanying phase diagram, under what conditions will liquid be found in equilibrium with either solid or gas?
A) Anywhere along curve AB. B) Anywhere along curve AC. C) Anywhere along curve AD. D) Anywhere along curve AB and AC. E) Anywhere along curve AB and AD.
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define phase diagram.
DIF: moderate REF: 11.3 TOP: phases | phase transitions
31. Choose the correct statement about the diagram below.
A) The diagram shows the triple point above 1 atm pressure. B) The diagram is qualitatively correct for water. C) The diagram shows that the melting point of the solid increases with increasing pressure. D) The diagram could represent the phase diagram of CO2. E) None of the above statements is correct. ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define phase diagram. KEY: phase diagram
DIF: moderate REF: 11.3 TOP: phases | phase transitions MSC: general chemistry
32. From a consideration of the phase diagram below, a change from point M to point N corresponds to
A) sublimation. B) liquefaction. C) evaporation. D) condensation. E) freezing. ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Define phase diagram. KEY: phase diagram
Test Bank
DIF: easy REF: 11.3 TOP: phases | phase transitions MSC: general chemistry
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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33. The triple point of iodine is at 90 torr and 115°C. This means that liquid I2 A) cannot have a vapor pressure less than 90 torr. B) is more dense than I2(s). C) cannot exist at 1 atmosphere pressure. D) cannot exist above 115°C. E) can exist at pressure of 10 torr. ANS: A PTS: OBJ: Define triple point. KEY: phase diagram
1
DIF: easy REF: 11.3 TOP: phases | phase transitions MSC: general chemistry
34. The critical point of CCl4 is 283°C and 45 atm pressure. Liquid CCl4 has a vapor pressure of 10.0 atm at 178°C. Which of the following statements must be true? A) Vapor and liquid can only be in equilibrium at one temperature—the normal boiling point. B) Liquid CCl4 can exist at temperatures greater than 283°C if the pressure is greater than 45 atm. C) Liquid and solid can only be in equilibrium at one temperature—the freezing point. D) The triple point of CCl4 must be less than 178°C. E) The normal boiling point of CCl4 must be greater than 178°C. ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define triple point. KEY: phase diagram | triple point
DIF: moderate REF: 11.3 TOP: phases | phase transitions MSC: general chemistry
35. Below is a phase diagram for a substance.
What is the name for point X on the diagram? A) boiling point B) normal boiling point C) triple point D) melting point E) critical point ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define triple point. KEY: phase diagram | triple point
Test Bank
DIF: easy REF: 11.3 TOP: phases | phase transitions MSC: general chemistry
General Chemistry, 10th edition
11
36. Below is a phase diagram for a substance.
Which line represents the melting-point curve of the substance? A) R-X B) S-X C) X-Z D) S-Z E) M-N ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.3 OBJ: Describe the melting-point curve and the vapor-pressure curves (for the liquid and the solid) in a phase diagram. TOP: phases | phase transitions KEY: phase diagram | melting-point curve MSC: general chemistry 37. Below is a phase diagram for a substance.
Which line represents the vapor-pressure curve of the substance? A) S-Z B) X-Z C) S-X D) M-N E) R-X ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.3 OBJ: Describe the melting-point curve and the vapor-pressure curves (for the liquid and the solid) in a phase diagram. TOP: phases | phase transitions KEY: phase diagram | vapor pressure curve MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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38. If the liquid of a pure substance has a lower density than the solid, what is the effect on the pressure-temperature phase diagram? A) The vapor-pressure curve arches upward. B) The normal melting point is above room temperature. C) The melting-point curve has a negative slope. D) The vapor-pressure curve arches downward. E) The melting-point curve has a positive slope. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.3 OBJ: Describe the melting-point curve and the vapor-pressure curves (for the liquid and the solid) in a phase diagram. TOP: phases | phase transitions KEY: phase diagram | melting-point curve MSC: general chemistry 39. Below is a phase diagram for a substance.
What is the name for point Z on the diagram? A) normal boiling point. B) critical point. C) melting point. D) boiling point. E) triple point. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.3 OBJ: Define critical temperature and critical pressure. TOP: phases | phase transitions KEY: phase diagram MSC: general chemistry 40. Which explanation best describes surface tension? A) Molecules at the surface of a liquid experience a net force towards the liquid's interior. B) Molecules at the edges of a liquid adhere to the surface of the liquid's container. C) Molecules of a liquid tend to form a concave meniscus. D) Molecules of a liquid tend to resist flow. E) Molecules of a liquid have a very low vapor pressure. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.4 OBJ: Define surface tension. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: properties of liquids | surface tension MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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41. If the diameter of a spherical water droplet is 100.0 m, how much energy is required to increase the diameter of the water droplet by 3.0 m? The surface tension of water is 1.0 10-3 J/m2. A) 3.1 10–11 J B) 1.9 10–12 J C) 2.8 10–14 J D) 7.7 10–12 J E) 3.3 10–11 J ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.4 OBJ: Define surface tension. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: properties of liquids | surface tension MSC: general chemistry 42. Which is the best reason for why water in a glass capillary has a concave meniscus, while mercury in a glass capillary has a convex meniscus? A) Mercury has a greater dispersion force than water. B) The water is attracted more strongly to the glass than the mercury is attracted to the glass. C) The mercury is attracted more strongly to the glass than the water is attracted to the glass. D) Water is a molecular compound while mercury is a metallic element. E) Water has a greater dispersion force than mercury. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the phenomenon of capillary rise. KEY: properties of liquids | surface tension
REF: 11.4 TOP: phases | liquid MSC: general chemistry
43. Which of the following forces is/are responsible for capillary action, a property of liquids? 1. 2. 3.
attractive forces between the liquid and the capillary material surface tension of the liquid viscosity of the liquid
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.4 OBJ: Describe the phenomenon of capillary rise. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: properties of liquids MSC: general chemistry 44. Which of the following concerning surface tension and viscosity is/are correct? 1. 2.
A molecule at the surface of a liquid experiences a net attractive force toward the interior of the liquid. The surface tension of a liquid is unaffected by substances dissolved in the liquid.
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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3.
The viscosity of a liquid is determined in part by the strength of intermolecular forces.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1 and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the phenomenon of capillary rise.
REF: 11.4 TOP: phases | liquid
45. The measure of the resistance to flow of a liquid is A) London forces. B) van der Waals forces. C) viscosity. D) vapor pressure. E) surface tension. ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define viscosity. KEY: properties of liquids | viscosity
DIF: easy REF: 11.4 TOP: phases | liquid MSC: general chemistry
46. In which of the following substances are intermolecular forces of attraction absent? A) HF(l) B) CCl4(l) C) NaCl(l) D) H2O(l) E) N2(l) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Define London (dispersion) forces. TOP: phases | liquid 47. Which one of the following decreases as the strength of the attractive intermolecular forces increases? A) The normal boiling temperature. B) The vapor pressure of a liquid. C) The extent of deviations from the ideal gas law. D) The heat of vaporization. E) The sublimation temperature of a solid. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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48. Which of the following compounds has the highest normal boiling point? A) CH3CH2CH2CH3 B) CH3Cl C) CH3CH2OH D) CH3OCH3 E) CH3CH2CH3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces | hydrogen bonding MSC: general chemistry 49. Which of the following compounds has the highest vapor pressure at 25°C? A) CH3CH2OH B) CH3CH2CH2CH3 C) CH3OCH3 D) CH3CH2CH3 E) CH3CH2CH2Cl ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces MSC: general chemistry 50. Which of the following pure substances has the lowest normal boiling point? A) H2S B) NH3 C) H2O D) H2Te E) H2Se ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces | hydrogen bonding MSC: general chemistry 51. Methane (CH4) is able to be liquefied at low temperatures due to which intermolecular force? A) ionic bonding B) covalent bonding C) hydrogen bonding D) dipole–dipole E) London dispersion ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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52. Which compound has the lowest standard enthalpy of vaporization at 25°C? A) C6H14 B) C8H16 C) C5H12 D) C8H18 E) C7H16 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces | London forces MSC: general chemistry 53. Which of the following indicates the existence of strong intermolecular forces of attraction in a liquid? A) a very low critical temperature B) a very low boiling point C) a very low vapor pressure D) a very low viscosity E) a very low enthalpy of vaporization ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces MSC: general chemistry 54. Which of the following compounds has the lowest normal boiling point? A) CH3CH2CH2NH2 B) CH3CH2CH2F C) CH3CH2CH2OH D) CH3CH2COOH E) CH3CH(OH)CH3 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces | hydrogen bonding MSC: general chemistry 55. Which of the following compounds is expected to have the lowest vapor pressure? A) CH3OCH3 B) CH3CH2F C) CH3CH2OH D) CH3CH2CH2CH3 E) CH3CH2CH3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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56. Which of the following pure substances has the highest normal boiling point? A) HI B) HCl C) HF D) H2S E) HBr ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces | hydrogen bonding MSC: general chemistry 57. Why does hydrogen fluoride have an unusually high normal boiling point compared to the other hydrogen halides? A) The H-F bond in hydrogen fluoride is very strong. B) Hydrogen fluoride has very strong London dispersion forces. C) Hydrogen fluoride is capable of forming hydrogen bonds. D) Hydrogen fluoride is ionic. E) Hydrogen fluoride is covalent. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces | hydrogen bonding MSC: general chemistry 58. Which of the following pure substances has the lowest vapor pressure at 25°C? A) SbH3 B) NH3 C) PH3 D) AsH3 E) H2O ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces | hydrogen bonding MSC: general chemistry 59. Which of the following pure substances has the highest vapor pressure at room temperature? A) Si3H8 B) Si2H6 C) Si2Cl6 D) Si4H10 E) SiH4 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces | London forces MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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60. Which of the following pure substances has the highest standard enthalpy of vaporization at 25°C? A) H2O B) NH3 C) PH3 D) AsH3 E) SbH3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces | hydrogen bonding MSC: general chemistry 61. At 25°C, the vapor pressure of diethyl ether, (CH3CH2)2O, is higher than the vapor pressure of its isomer n-butanol, CH3CH2CH2CH2OH, because A) diethyl ether has a higher density than n-butanol. B) diethyl ether has weaker intermolecular forces than n-butanol. C) diethyl ether has a lower critical temperature than n-butanol. D) diethyl ether has a higher surface tension than n-butanol. E) diethyl ether has weaker intramolecular forces than n-butanol. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces MSC: general chemistry 62. Which of the following pure substances has an unusually high normal boiling point? A) CH3OCH3 B) CH3SH C) HCl D) CH3NH2 E) CH3Cl ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces | hydrogen bonding MSC: general chemistry 63. Rank the following molecules in order of increasing normal boiling point: CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2OH, CH3CH2OCH3. A) lowest CH3CH2CH2OH, CH3CH2OCH3, CH3CH2OH highest. B) lowest CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2OCH3, CH3CH2CH2OH highest. C) lowest CH3CH2CH2OH, CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2OCH3 highest. D) lowest CH3CH2OCH3, CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2OH highest. E) lowest CH3CH2OCH3, CH3CH2CH2OH, CH3CH2OH highest. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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64. Rank the following in order of increasing normal boiling point: N2, O2, Br2, Xe. A) N2 < O2 < Xe < Br2 B) O2 < N2 < Xe < Br2 C) Br2 < Xe < N2 < O2 D) N2 < O2 < Br2 < Xe E) Xe < Br2 < N2 < O2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid 65. Which of the following concerning intermolecular forces is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Intermolecular forces depend in part on the shape of a molecule. London forces contribute to the net forces of attraction found in all molecular solids and liquids. Hydrogen bonding is a special category of dipole-dipole attractions.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid 66. In an experiment, 40.0 mmol of helium gas is collected over water. The total volume of gas collected is 0.224 L. Under similar conditions, the gas is collected over two other liquids, A and B. The total volume of gas collected over A and B are 0.222 L and 0.227 L, respectively. Which of the following statements is false? A) Liquid B boils at a higher temperature than water B) Liquid A boils at a higher temperature than water C) The vapor pressure of B is higher than that of A D) The vapor pressure of B is higher than that of water E) Liquid A boils at a temperature higher than B ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 11.5 OBJ: Relate the properties of liquids to the intermolecular forces involved. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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67. When two water molecule form a hydrogen bond, which atoms are involved in the interaction? A) Two hydrogens from one molecule and one hydrogen from the other molecule B) An oxygen from one molecule and an oxygen from the other molecule C) Two hydrogens from one molecule and one oxygen from the other molecule D) A hydrogen from one molecule and a hydrogen from the other molecule E) A hydrogen from one molecule and an oxygen from the other molecule ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Define hydrogen bonding. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces | hydrogen bonding MSC: general chemistry 68. What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds in which a water molecule could participate? A) 2 B) 4 C) 3 D) 6 E) 5 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.5 OBJ: Define hydrogen bonding. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces | hydrogen bonding MSC: general chemistry 69. Which pure substance exhibits hydrogen bonding? A) HNF2 B) B2H6 C) HBr D) H2S E) CaH2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Define hydrogen bonding. TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces | hydrogen bonding MSC: general chemistry 70. Which of the following substances has the weakest intermolecular forces? A) I2 B) C8H18 C) SiH4 D) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH E) SbCl3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Identify the intermolecular forces in a substance. (Example 11.5) TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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71. Which of the following best describes carbon dioxide (CO2) at room temperature and pressure? A) ionic solid B) nonpolar molecular gas C) metallic solid D) polar molecular gas E) covalent network solid ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Identify the intermolecular forces in a substance. (Example 11.5) TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry 72. Which of the following pure substances may exhibit hydrogen bonding? A) CH3Cl B) CH3OCH3 C) H2CO D) N(CH3)3 E) H2NNH2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Identify the intermolecular forces in a substance. (Example 11.5) TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces | hydrogen bonding MSC: general chemistry 73. The strongest intermolecular forces present in a sample of pure I2 are A) London forces. B) dipole–dipole forces. C) metallic bonds. D) covalent network bonds. E) covalent bonds. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Identify the intermolecular forces in a substance. (Example 11.5) TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces | London forces MSC: general chemistry 74. The strongest intermolecular forces between molecules of PH3 are A) hydrogen bonds. B) covalent bonds. C) ionic bonds. D) London forces. E) dipole–dipole attractions. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Identify the intermolecular forces in a substance. (Example 11.5) TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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75. The molecules in a sample of solid SO2 are attracted to each other by a combination of A) H-bonding and ionic bonding. B) covalent bonding and dipole-dipole interactions. C) London forces and H-bonding. D) London forces and dipole-dipole interactions. E) none of these ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.5 OBJ: Identify the intermolecular forces in a substance. (Example 11.5) TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces MSC: general chemistry 76. Which of the following best describes silane (SiH4) at room temperature and pressure? A) ionic solid B) covalent network solid C) nonpolar molecular gas D) polar molecular gas E) metallic solid ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.5 OBJ: Identify the intermolecular forces in a substance. (Example 11.5) TOP: phases | gas MSC: general chemistry 77. Which of the following is the strongest intermolecular force present in dry ice, CO2(s)? A) covalent bonding B) hydrogen bonding C) ionic bonding D) London forces E) metallic bonding ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.5 OBJ: Identify the intermolecular forces in a substance. (Example 11.5) TOP: phases | liquid KEY: intermolecular forces MSC: general chemistry 78. A solid has a very high melting point, is hard, and in the molten state is a non-conductor. The solid is most likely A) a covalent network solid. B) a metallic solid. C) an amorphous solid. D) a molecular solid. E) an ionic solid. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.6 OBJ: Define molecular solid, metallic solid, ionic solid, and covalent network solid. TOP: phases | solid
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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79. Van der Waals forces must be broken to melt this type of solid. A) A covalent network solid. B) A metallic solid. C) A molecular solid. D) An ionic solid. E) none of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.6 OBJ: Define molecular solid, metallic solid, ionic solid, and covalent network solid. TOP: phases | solid 80. Which substance can be described as cations bonded together by mobile electrons? A) S8(s) B) Ag(s) C) HCl(l) D) KCl(s) E) Kr(l) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.6 OBJ: Define molecular solid, metallic solid, ionic solid, and covalent network solid. TOP: phases | solid KEY: classification of solids MSC: general chemistry 81. Which of the following best describes calcium hydride (CaH2) at room temperature and pressure? A) nonpolar molecular gas B) metallic solid C) ionic solid D) polar molecular gas E) covalent network solid ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.6 OBJ: Identify types of solids. (Example 11.7) TOP: phases | solid KEY: classification of solids MSC: general chemistry 82. Which of the following is not a covalent network solid? A) diamond B) silicon carbide C) quartz D) iron E) graphite ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.6 OBJ: Identify types of solids. (Example 11.7) TOP: phases | solid KEY: classification of solids MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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83. Which of the following is a molecular solid? A) NaCl B) CH4 C) SiO2 D) C(graphite) E) C(diamond) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.6 OBJ: Identify types of solids. (Example 11.7) TOP: phases | solid KEY: classification of solids MSC: general chemistry 84. Which of the following is an ionic solid? A) SiO2(s) B) Ne(s) C) Na(s) D) CsF(s) E) CO2(s) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.6 OBJ: Identify types of solids. (Example 11.7) TOP: phases | solid KEY: classification of solids MSC: general chemistry 85. Which bonding interaction best describes the strongest intermolecular forces in AlH3? A) dipole–dipole forces B) metallic bonding C) ionic bonding D) London dispersion forces E) primarily hydrogen bonding ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Identify types of solids. (Example 11.7) MSC: general chemistry
moderate
REF: 11.6 TOP: phases | solid
86. Which of the following is a molecular solid? A) carborundum, SiC B) quartz C) glass D) hydrogen chloride E) potassium ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.6 OBJ: Identify types of solids. (Example 11.7) TOP: phases | solid KEY: classification of solids MSC: general chemistry 87. Which of the following pure substances has the highest normal melting point? A) KF B) KI C) NaF D) NaCl E) NaI Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.6 OBJ: Relate the melting point of a solid to its structure. TOP: phases | solid KEY: properties of solids | melting point MSC: general chemistry 88. Which of the following pure substances has the lowest melting point? A) LiF B) RbF C) CsF D) KF E) NaF ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.6 OBJ: Relate the melting point of a solid to its structure. TOP: phases | solid KEY: properties of solids | melting point MSC: general chemistry 89. Which of the following pure substances has the lowest melting point? A) Cs2O B) CsCl C) CsBr D) CsI E) CsF ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.6 OBJ: Relate the melting point of a solid to its structure. TOP: phases | solid KEY: properties of solids | melting point MSC: general chemistry 90. Which of the following pure substances has the highest melting point? A) CCl4 B) AlCl3 C) NCl3 D) LiCl E) MgCl2 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.6 OBJ: Relate the melting point of a solid to its structure. TOP: phases | solid KEY: properties of solids | melting point MSC: general chemistry 91. Which of the following pure substances has the highest melting point? A) KBr B) NaCl C) NaF D) CsI E) LiF ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.6 OBJ: Relate the melting point of a solid to its structure. TOP: phases | solid KEY: properties of solids | melting point MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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92. A low melting solid readily dissolves in water to give a nonconducting solution. The solid is most likely a A) molecular solid. B) ionic solid. C) covalent network solid. D) weak base. E) metallic solid. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Relate the melting point of a solid to its structure.
REF: 11.6 TOP: phases | solid
93. Which of the following pure substances is a solid at room temperature and pressure? A) NH3 B) PH3 C) SiH4 D) CH4 E) AlH3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.6 OBJ: Determine relative melting points based on types of solids. (Example 11.8) TOP: phases | solid KEY: properties of solids | melting point MSC: general chemistry 94. Which of the following pure substances has the highest normal melting point? A) NO2 B) SiO2 C) CO2 D) P4O10 E) N2O5 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.6 OBJ: Determine relative melting points based on types of solids. (Example 11.8) TOP: phases | solid KEY: properties of solids | melting point MSC: general chemistry 95. Which of the following pure substances has the highest normal melting point? A) P4O10 B) P4O6 C) CO2 D) CaO E) Na2O ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.6 OBJ: Determine relative melting points based on types of solids. (Example 11.8) TOP: phases | solid KEY: properties of solids | melting point MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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96. Which of the following pure substances has the highest normal boiling point? A) H2O B) CF4 C) CsF D) CaF2 E) KF ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.6 OBJ: Determine relative melting points based on types of solids. (Example 11.8) TOP: phases | solid KEY: properties of solids MSC: general chemistry 97. A certain solid substance that is very hard, has a high melting point, and is nonconducting unless melted is most likely to be: A) CO2 B) I2 C) H2O D) NaCl E) Cu ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.6 OBJ: Relate the hardness and electrical conductivity of a solid to its structure. TOP: phases | solid KEY: properties of solids MSC: general chemistry 98. A solid crystal of NaCl is A) soft, low melting, a poor electrical conductor. B) soft, low melting, a good electrical conductor. C) hard, high melting, a good electrical conductor. D) hard, high melting, a poor electrical conductor. E) soft, high melting, a poor electrical conductor. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.6 OBJ: Relate the hardness and electrical conductivity of a solid to its structure. TOP: phases | solid KEY: properties of solids MSC: general chemistry 99. Which of the following concerning the 2-D lattice provided below is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
One possible unit cell contains a single and a single •. More than one unit cell which reproduces this lattice is possible. One possible unit cell contains four ’s and four •’s.
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Define crystal lattice and unit cell of a crystal lattice.
REF: 11.7 TOP: phases | solid
100. For a given pure metal which of the following cubic unit cells would result in the highest metal density? A) It depends on the identity of the metal. B) The density would be identical for all these cells if the edge length of each cell were the same. C) A face-centered cubic cell. D) A simple cubic cell. E) A body-centered cubic cell. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.7 OBJ: Define simple cubic unit cell, body-centered cubic unit cell, and face-centered cubic unit cell. TOP: phases | solid KEY: crystalline solids | cubic unit cell MSC: general chemistry 101. In any cubic lattice an atom lying at the corner of a unit cell is shared equally by how many unit cells? A) 1 B) 16 C) 2 D) 4 E) 8 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.7 OBJ: Define simple cubic unit cell, body-centered cubic unit cell, and face-centered cubic unit cell. TOP: phases | solid KEY: crystalline solids | cubic unit cell MSC: general chemistry 102. The space-filling representation of a crystalline polonium provided below is an example of a _____ unit cell, which contains the equivalent of _____ atom(s) within a single unit cell.
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) simple cubic, 1 atom B) body centered cubic, 2 atoms C) face centered cubic, 4 atoms D) simple cubic, 8 atoms E) body centered cubic, 3 atoms ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.7 OBJ: Define simple cubic unit cell, body-centered cubic unit cell, and face-centered cubic unit cell. TOP: phases | solid 103. The unit cell in a certain lattice consists of a cube formed by an anion at each corner, an anion in the center, and a cation at the center of each face. The unit cell contains a net: A) 2 anions and 3 cations. B) 2 anions and 2 cations. C) 5 anions and 3 cations. D) 3 anions and 4 cations. E) 5 anions and 6 cations. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.7 OBJ: Determine the number of atoms in a unit cell. (Example 11.9) TOP: phases | solid KEY: crystalline solids | cubic unit cell MSC: general chemistry 104. How many atoms are there in a cubic close-packed unit cell of aluminum? A) 4 B) 6 C) 1 D) 8 E) 2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.8 OBJ: Determine the number of atoms in a unit cell. (Example 11.9) TOP: phases | solid KEY: structures of crystalline solids | metallic solid MSC: general chemistry 105. How many atoms are there in a body-centered cubic unit cell of vanadium? A) 4 B) 8 C) 6 D) 2 E) 1 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.7 OBJ: Determine the number of atoms in a unit cell. (Example 11.9) TOP: phases | solid KEY: structures of crystalline solids | metallic solid MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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106. A metal crystallizes in a face-centered cubic lattice. The radius of the atom is 196 pm and the density of the element is 1.55 g/cm3. How many atoms are there per unit cell? A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 1 E) 2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.7 OBJ: Determine the number of atoms in a unit cell. (Example 11.9) TOP: phases | solid KEY: structures of crystalline solids | metallic solid MSC: general chemistry 107. Which one of the following statements about solid Cu (face-centered cubic unit cell) is incorrect? A) It will conduct electricity. B) The length of a face diagonal is four times the Cu radius. C) The number of atoms surrounding each Cu atom is 12. D) The solid has a cubic closest-packed structure. E) There are two atoms per unit cell. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.8 OBJ: Note the common structures (face-centered cubic and body-centered cubic) of metallic solids. TOP: phases | solid KEY: structures of crystalline solids | metallic solid MSC: general chemistry 108. Lithium chloride crystallizes in a face-centered cubic structure. The unit cell length is 5.14 10-8 cm. The chloride ions are touching each other along the face diagonal of the unit cell. The lithium ions fit into the holes between the chloride ions. How many chloride ions are there in this unit cell? A) 4 B) 3 C) 1 D) 8 E) 2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.8 OBJ: Describe the three types of cubic structures of ionic solids. TOP: phases | solid KEY: structures of crystalline solids | ionic solid MSC: general chemistry 109. Assuming the following metals all have the same unit cell structure, which of the following would be expected to have the highest density: Sc, Ti, Mn, or Co? A) Mn B) Ti C) Co D) Sc E) cannot be determined from the information given.
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.9 OBJ: Calculate atomic mass from unit-cell dimension and density. (Example 11.10) TOP: phases | solid KEY: calculations with unit cell dimensions MSC: general chemistry 110. The metal palladium crystallizes in a face-centered cubic lattice with an edge length of 388.8 pm. What is the density of palladium? A) 0.752 g/cm3 B) 3.01 g/cm3 C) 1.50 g/cm3 D) 6.01 g/cm3 E) 12.0 g/cm3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 11.9 OBJ: Calculate atomic mass from unit-cell dimension and density. (Example 11.10) TOP: phases | solid KEY: calculations with unit cell dimensions MSC: general chemistry 111. The metal gold, with an atomic radius of 144.2 pm, crystallizes in a face-centered cubic lattice. What is the density of gold? A) 9.65 g/cm3 B) 1.21 g/cm3 C) 4.82 g/cm3 D) 2.41 g/cm3 E) 19.3 g/cm3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 11.9 OBJ: Calculate atomic mass from unit-cell dimension and density. (Example 11.10) TOP: phases | solid KEY: calculations with unit cell dimensions MSC: general chemistry 112. A metal crystallizes in a face-centered cubic lattice. The radius of the atom is 198 pm and the density of the element is 6.57 g/cm3. What is the identity of the metal? A) Cu B) Ca C) Sr D) Ni E) Yb ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 11.9 OBJ: Calculate atomic mass from unit-cell dimension and density. (Example 11.10) TOP: phases | solid KEY: structures of crystalline solids MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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113. Calcium crystallizes in a face-centered cubic lattice. The density of the element is 1.55 g/cm3. What is the volume of a single unit cell? A) 1.72 10 −22 cm3 B) 4.13 10 −22 cm3 C) 1.07 10 −25 cm3 D) 4.29 10 −23 cm3 E) 1.03 10 −22 cm3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 11.9 OBJ: Calculate atomic mass from unit-cell dimension and density. (Example 11.10) TOP: phases | solid 114. Ytterbium crystallizes in a face-centered cubic lattice. The radius of ytterbium is 198 pm. What is the edge length of the unit cell? A) 560 pm B) 396 pm C) 792 pm D) 420 pm E) 198 pm ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Calculate unit-cell dimension given radius and unit cell.
REF: 11.9 TOP: phases | solid
115. Lithium chloride crystallizes in a face-centered cubic structure. The unit cell length is 5.14 10-8 cm. The chloride ions are touching each other along the face diagonal of the unit cell. The lithium ions fit into the holes between the chloride ions. What is the mass of LiCl in a unit cell? A) 5.63 10-22 g B) 1.41 10-22 g C) 4.22 10-22 g D) 7.04 10-23 g E) 2.82 10-22 g ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 11.9 OBJ: Calculate atomic mass from unit-cell dimension and density. (Example 11.10) TOP: phases | solid KEY: calculations with unit cell dimensions MSC: general chemistry 116. Lithium chloride crystallizes in a face-centered cubic structure. The unit cell length is 5.14 10-8 cm. The chloride ions are touching each other along the face diagonal of the unit cell. The lithium ions fit into the holes between the chloride ions. What is the density of the lithium chloride? A) 0.520 g/cm3 B) 2.82 g/cm3 C) 2.08 g/cm3 D) 3.11 g/cm3 E) 3.78 g/cm3 Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 11.9 OBJ: Calculate atomic mass from unit-cell dimension and density. (Example 11.10) TOP: phases | solid KEY: calculations with unit cell dimensions MSC: general chemistry 117. The metal iron crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice. If the density of iron is 7.87 g/cm3, what is the unit cell edge length? A) 287 pm B) 77.6 pm C) 75.0 pm D) 61.6 pm E) 228 pm ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.9 OBJ: Calculate unit-cell dimension from unit-cell type and density. (Example 11.11) TOP: phases | solid KEY: calculations with unit cell dimensions MSC: general chemistry 118. The metal barium crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice. If the radius of barium is 222 pm, what is the unit cell edge length? A) 513 pm B) 444 pm C) 296 pm D) 222 pm E) 96.1 pm ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 11.9 OBJ: Calculate unit-cell dimension from unit-cell type and density. (Example 11.11) TOP: phases | solid 119. The metal cesium crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice. If the density of cesium is 1.88 g/cm3, what is the unit cell volume? A) 1.77 106 pm3 B) 2.35 104 pm3 C) 2.35 108 pm3 D) 1.17 108 pm3 E) 4.70 104 pm3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 11.9 OBJ: Calculate unit-cell dimension from unit-cell type and density. (Example 11.11) TOP: phases | solid KEY: calculations with unit cell dimensions MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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120. Sodium crystallizes in the body-centered cubic system. If the edge of the unit cell is 430 pm, what is the radius of a sodium atom in picometers? A) 186 pm B) 744 pm C) 992 pm D) 859 pm E) 80.5 pm ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 11.9 OBJ: Calculate unit-cell dimension from unit-cell type and edge-length. (Example 11.11) TOP: phases | solid 121. Copper crystallizes with a face-centered cubic unit cell. If the edge length of the unit cell is 362 pm, what is the radius of a copper atom in picometers? A) 128 pm B) 512 pm C) 1020 pm D) 296 pm E) 45.3 pm ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 11.9 OBJ: Calculate unit-cell dimension from unit-cell type and edge-length. (Example 11.11) TOP: phases | solid 122. What is the simplest formula of the compound represented by the unit cell provided below?
A) AB3 B) AB2 C) AB D) A2B4 E) A2B6 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 11.9 OBJ: Determine the number of atoms in a unit cell. (Example 11.9) TOP: phases | solid
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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123. A metal crystallizes in a face-centered cubic lattice. The radius of the atom is 125 pm and the density of the element is 8.91 g/cm3. What is the volume of the unit cell? A) 8.18 106 pm3 B) 1.12 109 pm3 C) 4.42 107 pm3 D) 1.95 106 pm3 E) 3.27 107 pm3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 11.9 OBJ: Calculate unit-cell dimension from unit-cell type and density. (Example 11.11) TOP: phases | solid KEY: calculations with unit cell dimensions MSC: general chemistry 124. A metal crystallizes in a face-centered cubic lattice. The radius of the atom is 214 pm and the density of the element is 2.63 g/cm3. What is the molar volume of the metal? A) 98.9 cm3/mol B) 24.7 cm3/mol C) 86.6 cm3/mol D) 33.4 cm3/mol E) 0.380 cm3/mol ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 11.9 OBJ: Calculate unit-cell dimension from unit-cell type and density. (Example 11.11) TOP: phases | solid KEY: calculations with unit cell dimensions MSC: general chemistry 125. The metal cesium crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice. If the density of cesium is 1.88 g/cm3, what is the atomic volume of cesium? A) 1.60 104 pm3 B) 7.99 103 pm3 C) 3.99 107 pm3 D) 6.01 105 pm3 E) 7.98 107 pm3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 11.9 OBJ: Calculate unit-cell dimension from unit-cell type and density. (Example 11.11) TOP: phases | solid KEY: calculations with unit cell dimensions MSC: general chemistry 126. The metal barium crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice. If the density of barium is 3.51 g/cm3, what is the atomic radius of barium? A) 15.1 pm B) 174 pm C) 42.5 pm D) 19.0 pm E) 219 pm
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 11.9 OBJ: Calculate unit-cell dimension from unit-cell type and density. (Example 11.11) TOP: phases | solid KEY: calculations with unit cell dimensions MSC: general chemistry 127. Lithium chloride crystallizes in a face-centered cubic structure. The unit cell length is 5.14 10-8 cm. The chloride ions are touching each other along the face diagonal of the unit cell. The lithium ions fit into the holes between the chloride ions. What is the radius of the chloride ion? A) 2.52 10-8 cm B) 1.82 10-8 cm C) 2.56 10-8 cm D) 1.45 10-8 cm E) 2.82 10-8 cm ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 11.9 OBJ: Calculate unit-cell dimension from unit-cell type and density. (Example 11.11) TOP: phases | solid KEY: calculations with unit cell dimensions MSC: general chemistry 128. Which of the following statements concerning the determination of crystal structure by xray diffraction is incorrect? A) X-rays are reflected from the repeating planes of an ordered crystal lattice. B) A diffraction pattern reveals the locations of the electrons in a crystal. C) Analysis of a diffraction pattern reveals the structure of a crystal. D) X-rays undergo constructive and destructive interference upon reflection in a crystal lattice. E) A diffraction pattern from a crystal depends on the incident angle of the x-rays. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11.10 OBJ: Note that diffraction of x rays from a crystal gives information about the positions of atoms in the crystal. TOP: phases | solid KEY: x-ray diffraction MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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Chapter 12 - Solutions 1. Which of the following concerning solutions is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
The solvent in a mixture of gases is generally considered to be the substance in greater amount. The solid dissolved in a solution is known as the solute. Solid solutions are called alloys.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: E PTS: OBJ: Types of Solutions
1
DIF: easy REF: 12.1 TOP: solutions | solution formation
2. Which of the following concerning solutions is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
For a solution to form, the solvent and solute must be miscible. A solution may be homogeneous or heterogeneous. A colloid is a type of solution.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A PTS: OBJ: Types of Solutions
1
DIF: easy REF: 12.1 TOP: solutions | solution formation
3. Suppose a small amount of a solid is added to water and, after a short time, all the solid has dissolved. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true? A) The solution is supersaturated with solute. B) The solution is saturated with solute. C) The solution is unsaturated with solute. D) The solution is either unsaturated or supersaturated with solute. E) The solution is either saturated or supersaturated with solute. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.2 OBJ: List the conditions that must be present to have a saturated solution, to have an unsaturated solution, and to have a supersaturated solution. TOP: solutions | solution formation KEY: solubility | saturated solution MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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4. Which of the following concerning solubility and the solution process is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
In a saturated solution of a substance, a solution of the substance is in equilibrium with the pure substance. Dissolution of a solute stops once saturation of a solvent is achieved. Solubility depends in part on the strength of solute-solute and solute-solvent Van der Waals forces.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.2 OBJ: List the conditions that must be present to have a saturated solution, to have an unsaturated solution, and to have a supersaturated solution. TOP: solutions | solution formation 5. Which of the following concerning solubility and the solution process is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Both hydration energies and lattice energies depend on the magnitude of the ion charges and the size of the ions. An initially nonhomogeneous mixture of two miscible liquids, given enough time, will eventually form a solution as a result of random molecular motions. The dissolution of ionic compounds in water depends only on the hydration energy of the ions.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.2 OBJ: List the conditions that must be present to have a saturated solution, to have an unsaturated solution, and to have a supersaturated solution. TOP: solutions | solution formation 6. Which of the following sets of conditions favors maximum solubility of solute in solvent? A) The intermolecular forces between solute and solvent molecules are much weaker than the intermolecular forces between solute molecules, but much stronger than the intermolecular forces between solvent molecules. B) The intermolecular forces between solute and solvent molecules are much stronger than the intermolecular forces between solute molecules or the intermolecular forces between solvent molecules. C) The intermolecular forces between solute and solvent molecules are much stronger than the intermolecular forces between solvent molecules, but much weaker than the intermolecular forces between solute molecules.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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D) The intermolecular forces between solute and solvent molecules are much stronger than the intermolecular forces between solute molecules, but much weaker than the intermolecular forces between solvent molecules. E) The intermolecular forces between solute and solvent molecules are much weaker than the intermolecular forces between solute molecules or the intermolecular forces between solvent molecules. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.2 OBJ: Describe the factors that make one substance soluble in another. TOP: solutions | solution formation KEY: solubility MSC: general chemistry 7. In general, which of the following type(s) of solid(s) would exhibit the greatest solubility in a nonpolar solvent? A) network covalent B) nonpolar molecular C) ionic D) metallic E) polar molecular ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.2 OBJ: Describe the factors that make one substance soluble in another. TOP: solutions | solution formation 8. Which of the following gases is least soluble in water? A) CO2 B) SO3 C) NH3 D) N2 E) HCl ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.2 OBJ: Determine when a molecular solution will form when substances are mixed. TOP: solutions | solution formation KEY: solubility | molecular solution MSC: general chemistry 9. Which of the following pure liquids is the best solvent for sodium fluoride? A) CCl4(l) B) C2Cl6(l) C) HCl(l) D) BCl3(l) E) PCl5(l) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.2 OBJ: Determine when a molecular solution will form when substances are mixed. TOP: solutions | solution formation KEY: solubility | ionic solution MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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10. Which of the following pure liquids is the best solvent for carbon disulfide? A) C6H6(l) B) NH3(l) C) CH3OH(l) D) H2O(l) E) HBr(l) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.2 OBJ: Determine when a molecular solution will form when substances are mixed. TOP: solutions | solution formation KEY: solubility | molecular solution MSC: general chemistry 11. Which of the following compounds is least soluble in water? A) CH3CH2CH2NH2 B) CH3CH2CH2F C) CH3CH(OH)CH3 D) CH3CH2COOH E) CH3CH2NHCH3 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.2 OBJ: Determine when a molecular solution will form when substances are mixed. TOP: solutions | solution formation KEY: solubility | molecular solution MSC: general chemistry 12. The solubility of 1-hexanol in water is 0.60 g per 100 g of water at 25°C. What is the maximum amount of 1-hexanol that will dissolve in 5.3 g of water at 25°C? A) 0.032 g B) 0.11 g C) 0.60 g D) 3.2 g E) 0.0011 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.2 OBJ: Determine when a molecular solution will form when substances are mixed. TOP: solutions | solution formation KEY: solubility | molecular solution MSC: general chemistry 13. Which of the following sets of conditions favors maximum solubility of an ionic solute in water? A) The enthalpy of hydration of the cation should be equal to the enthalpy of hydration of the anion, regardless of the magnitude of the lattice energy. B) The magnitude of the lattice energy should be small, and the enthalpy of hydration of the ions should be large. C) The magnitude of the lattice energy should be small, and the enthalpy of hydration of the ions should be small. D) The magnitude of the lattice energy should be large, and the enthalpy of hydration of the ions should be small. E) The magnitude of the lattice energy should be large, and the enthalpy of hydration of the ions should be large.
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
4
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.2 OBJ: Learn what conditions must be met in order to create an ionic solution. TOP: solutions | solution formation KEY: solubility | ionic solution MSC: general chemistry 14. Which of the following favor(s) the solubility of an ionic solid in a liquid solvent? A) a small magnitude of the lattice energy of the solute B) a large magnitude of the solvation energy of the ions C) a large polarity of the solvent D) all of the above E) none of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.2 OBJ: Learn what conditions must be met in order to create an ionic solution. TOP: solutions | solution formation KEY: solubility | ionic solution MSC: general chemistry 15. Which of the following statements best describes what happens when a small amount of solid rubidium bromide is dissolved in water? A) The heat from the warm water melts the solid, making it a liquid. B) Nothing happens, because rubidium bromide is insoluble in water. C) The solid RbBr breaks apart into separate Rb and Br atoms by interacting with the water molecules. D) The water molecules surround each ion in the solid RbBr, separating the Rb ions from the Br ions. E) The solid undergoes a chemical change by reacting with the water. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.2 OBJ: Learn what conditions must be met in order to create an ionic solution. TOP: solutions | solution formation KEY: solubility | ionic solution MSC: general chemistry 16. Which of the following correctly states the relationship between the solubility of a substance in water and temperature? A) The solubility of a substance in water increases as the temperature rises, especially for gases. B) The solubility of a substance in water decreases as the temperature lowers, especially for gases. C) The relationship between the solubility of a substance in water and temperature cannot be accurately predicted, especially for ionic solids. D) The solubility of a substance in water decreases as the temperature rises, especially for ionic solids. E) Two of these are correct. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.3 OBJ: State the general trends of the solubility of gases and solids with temperature. TOP: solutions | solution formation KEY: effect of temperature and pressure on solubility | temperature change MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
5
17. Which of the following concerning the effects of temperature and pressure on solubility is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
All gases become more soluble in a liquid at a fixed pressure when the temperature of the liquid is increased. The dissolution of an ionic compound in water may be exothermic or endothermic, depending on the initial temperature of the solution. The solubility of a liquid in water generally is significantly effected by pressure changes of the system.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) none ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.3 OBJ: State the general trends of the solubility of gases and solids with temperature. TOP: solutions | solution formation 18. Consider the following gas-aqueous liquid equilibrium for a closed system at a constant temperature. O2(g)
O2(aq)
What is the effect on the equilibrium composition of the liquid when the partial pressure of O2 gas above the liquid is increased? A) The amount of O2 dissolved in the liquid increases. B) The amount of O2 dissolved in the liquid decreases. C) The amount of O2 dissolved in the liquid does not change. D) Not enough information is provided to answer the question. E) Either A or B. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.3 OBJ: State the general trends of the solubility of gases and solids with temperature. TOP: solutions | solution formation 19. Consider the following gas-liquid equilibrium for an aqueous system at a constant partial pressure of N2. N2(g)
N2(aq)
What is the effect on the equilibrium composition of the liquid when the temperature of the liquid is increased?
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
6
A) The amount of N2 dissolved in the liquid increases. B) The amount of N2 dissolved in the liquid decreases. C) The amount of N2 dissolved in the liquid does not change. D) Not enough information is provided to answer the question. E) Either A or B could occur. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.3 OBJ: State the general trends of the solubility of gases and solids with temperature. TOP: solutions | solution formation 20. Which of the following affect(s) the solubility of gases in solvents? 1. the nature of the gas 2. the nature of the solvent 3. the temperature of the solvent A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.3 OBJ: State the general trends of the solubility of gases and solids with temperature. TOP: solutions | solution formation KEY: effect of temperature and pressure on solubility | temperature change MSC: general chemistry 21. How does the solubility of a gas in a solvent depend on pressure and temperature? A) Increasing the partial pressure of the gas while increasing the temperature increases the solubility of the gas. B) Decreasing the partial pressure of the gas while decreasing the temperature increases the solubility of the gas. C) Increasing the partial pressure of the gas while decreasing the temperature increases the solubility of the gas. D) Decreasing the partial pressure of the gas while increasing the temperature increases the solubility of the gas. E) Gas solubility is unaffected by pressure or temperature. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.3 OBJ: Explain how the solubility of a gas changes with temperature. TOP: solutions | solution formation KEY: effect of temperature and pressure on solubility MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
7
22. Which of the following is a correct statement of Henry's law? A) The concentration of a gas in solution is directly proportional to the mole fraction of solvent. B) The concentration of a gas in solution is inversely proportional to temperature. C) The concentration of a gas in solution is independent of pressure. D) The concentration of a gas in a solution is inversely proportional to pressure. E) none of these ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.3 OBJ: Apply Henry’s law. (Example 12.1) TOP: solutions | solution formation KEY: effect of temperature and pressure on solubility | Henry's law MSC: general chemistry 23. The solubility of a gas in a liquid can always be increased by A) decreasing the pressure of the gas above the solvent. B) increasing the pressure of the gas above the solvent. C) increasing the temperature of the solvent. D) decreasing the polarity of the solvent. E) decreasing the temperature of the gas above the solvent. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.3 OBJ: Apply Henry’s law. (Example 12.1) TOP: solutions | solution formation KEY: effect of temperature and pressure on solubility | pressure change MSC: general chemistry 24. At a particular temperature the solubility of O2 in water is 0.590 g/L at an oxygen pressure of around 14.7 atm. What is the Henry's law constant for O2 (in units of L · atm/mol)? A) 4.01 10-2 B) 7.97 102 C) 2.71 10-1 D) 1.25 10-3 E) None of the above are within 5% of the correct answer. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.3 OBJ: Apply Henry’s law. (Example 12.1) TOP: solutions | solution formation KEY: effect of temperature and pressure on solubility | Henry's law MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
8
25. According to the National Institute of Standards webbook, the Henry’s Law constant for N2 gas is 0.00060 mol/kgbar at 25C What is the Henry's law constant in units of mol/kgatm? (1 bar = 0.9869 atm; 1 atm = 760 mmHg) A) 6.1 10 −4 mol/kgatm B) 8.0 10 −7 mol/kgatm C) 4.6 10 −1 mol/kgatm D) 1.6 10 3 mol/kgatm E) 1.3 10 6 mol/kgatm ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Apply Henry’s law. (Example 12.1) TOP: solutions | solution formation
easy
REF: 12.3
26. Henry’s Law constant is 0.00060 mol/kgbar and 0.0013 mol/kgbar for N2 and O2 respectively at 25C. What pressure of O2 is required to achieve the same solubility as 0.616 bar of N2? A) 0.28 bar B) 1.3 bar C) 4.8 10 −7 bar D) 1.3 10 −6 bar E) 3.5 bar ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Apply Henry’s law. (Example 12.1) TOP: solutions | solution formation
easy
REF: 12.3
27. If the solubility of O2 at 0.360 bar and 25C is 15.0 g/100 g H2O, what is the solubility of O2 at a pressure of 1.72 bar and 25C? A) 71.7 g/100 g H2O B) 24.2 g/100 g H2O C) 0.319 g/100 g H2O D) 0.0140 g/100 g H2O E) 3.14 g/100 g H2O ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Apply Henry’s law. (Example 12.1) TOP: solutions | solution formation
moderate
REF: 12.3
28. Which of the following is not a colligative property? A) boiling-point elevation B) osmotic pressure C) gas solubility D) freezing-point lowering E) vapor-pressure lowering
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
9
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define colligative property.
DIF: easy REF: 12.4 TOP: solutions | colligative properties
29. As the number of solute particles in a given volume of solution increases, A) the boiling point will increase and the vapor pressure will increase. B) the freezing point will decrease and the vapor pressure will decrease. C) the freezing point will increase and the vapor pressure will increase. D) the boiling point will decrease and the vapor pressure will decrease. E) the osmotic pressure will decrease and the lattice energy will increase. ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: Define colligative property. MSC: general chemistry
DIF: moderate REF: 12.4 TOP: solutions | colligative properties
30. The molarity of a solution is defined as the A) moles of solute per liter of solvent. B) grams of solute per kilogram of solvent. C) grams of solute per liter of solution. D) moles of solute per liter of solution. E) moles of solute per kilogram of solvent. ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define molarity. KEY: expressing concentration
DIF: easy REF: 12.4 TOP: solutions | colligative properties MSC: general chemistry
31. The molarity of a solution is defined as the A) moles of solute per liter of solvent. B) moles of solute per kilogram of solution. C) moles of solute per mole of solution. D) moles of solute per kilogram of solvent. E) moles of solute per liter of solution. ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Define molarity. KEY: expressing concentration
DIF: easy REF: 12.4 TOP: solutions | colligative properties MSC: general chemistry
32. The molality of a solution is defined as A) moles of solute per liter of solution. B) the gram molecular weight of solute per kilogram of solvent. C) moles of solute per kilogram of solvent. D) grams of solute per liter of solution. E) moles of solute per kilogram of solution. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.4 OBJ: Define molality. TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | molality MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
10
33. Which of the following concerning the topic of concentration is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
A concentrated solution of hydrochloric acid has a molarity of 12 M. This means that 12 moles of HCl are dissolved in 1.0 L of water. The molality of a solution is unaffected by changes in temperature, even though the total volume of the solution may change significantly. When calculating a mass percent, the “mass of solution” is equal to the sum of the masses of all solution components.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define all concentration units.
DIF: easy REF: 12.4 TOP: solutions | colligative properties
34. Which of the following concerning the topic of concentration is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
A 5.0 molal HCl solution consists of 5.5 moles HCl dissolved in 1.0 kg of solution. The mass percent and mole percent of a particular component in a solution are identical. The mole fraction of a component in a solution may never be greater than 1.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) none of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define all concentration units.
DIF: easy REF: 12.4 TOP: solutions | colligative properties
35. What mass of an aqueous 22.9% sodium chloride solution contains 99.5 g of water? A) 129 g B) 29.6 g C) 0.500 g D) 22.8 g E) 99.5 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate mass percentage of solute. (Example 12.2) TOP: solutions | colligative properties
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 12.4
11
36. What is the mass of H2SO4 in a 49.5-cm3 sample of concentrated sulfuric acid that has a density of 1.84 g/cm3 and consists of 98.3% H2SO4? A) 48.7 g B) 89.5 g C) 3.65 g D) 1.81 g E) 26.4 g ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate mass percentage of solute. (Example 12.2) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | mass percentage of solute
REF: 12.4
MSC: general chemistry
37. A concentrated sulfuric acid solution is 65.0% H2SO4 by mass and has a density of 1.55 g/mL at 20°C. What is the mass of 3.00 L of the concentrated sulfuric acid solution? A) 1.95 kg B) 3.00 kg C) 7.15 kg D) 1.26 kg E) 4.65 kg ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate mass percentage of solute. (Example 12.2) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | mass percentage of solute
REF: 12.4
MSC: general chemistry
38. A concentrated potassium hydroxide solution is 45.0% KOH by mass and has a density of 1.44 g/mL at 25°C. What is the mass of KOH per L of solution? A) 648 g KOH/L soln B) 0.00144 g KOH/L soln C) 313 g KOH/L soln D) 0.320 g KOH/L soln E) 3.13 g KOH/L soln ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate mass percentage of solute. (Example 12.2) TOP: solutions | colligative properties
REF: 12.4
39. A concentrated phosphoric acid solution is 85.5% H3PO4 by mass and has a density of 1.69 g/mL at 25°C. What is the molarity of H3PO4? A) 14.7 M B) 0.166 M C) 5.16 M D) 19.4 M E) 0.0516 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate mass percentage of solute. (Example 12.2) TOP: solutions | colligative properties Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 12.4
12
40. A concentrated perchloric acid solution has a density of 1.67 g/mL at 25°C and is 11.7 M. What is the percent by mass of HClO4 in the solution? A) 70.4% HClO4 by mass B) 0.702% HClO4 by mass C) 1.42% HClO4 by mass D) 0.699% HClO4 by mass E) 60.2% HClO4 by mass ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate mass percentage of solute. (Example 12.2) TOP: solutions | colligative properties
REF: 12.4
41. What is the mass percent of an aqueous sodium hydroxide solution in which the mole fraction of NaOH is 0.231? The density of the solution is 1.4339 g/mL. A) 40.0% B) 6.21% C) 68.9% D) 33.1% E) 6.44% ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate mass percentage of solute. (Example 12.2) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | conversion of concentration units MSC: general chemistry 42. What is the mass percent of an aqueous sodium hydroxide solution in which the molarity of NaOH is 4.37 M? The density of the solution is 1.1655 g/mL. A) 0.267% B) 15.0% C) 5.09% D) 1.53% E) 68.9% ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate mass percentage of solute. (Example 12.2) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | conversion of concentration units MSC: general chemistry 43. What is the mass percent of an aqueous sodium hydroxide solution in which the molality of NaOH is 25.0 m? The density of the solution is 1.5290 g/mL. A) 0.0612% B) 68.9% C) 1.76% D) 50.0% E) 0.654%
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
13
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate mass percentage of solute. (Example 12.2) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | conversion of concentration units MSC: general chemistry 44. The mass of a 12.0% (by mass) solution is 8.82 g. The density of the solution is 1.120 g/mL. What is the mass of the water in this solution? A) 7.76 g B) 10 g C) 1.19 g D) 0.00774 g E) 8.69 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate mass percentage of solute. (Example 12.2) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | mass percentage of solute
REF: 12.4
MSC: general chemistry
45. The volume of a 14.4% (by mass) solution is 67.0 mL. The density of the solution is 1.072 g/mL. What is the mass of the solution? A) 71.8 g B) 62.5 g C) 1030 g D) 103 g E) 10.3 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate mass percentage of solute. (Example 12.2) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | mass percentage of solute
REF: 12.4
MSC: general chemistry
46. The volume of a 15.8% (by mass) solution is 146.4 mL. The density of the solution is 1.084 g/mL. What is the mass of solute in this solution? A) 159 g B) 25.1 g C) 1004 g D) 21.3 g E) 134 g ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate mass percentage of solute. (Example 12.2) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | mass percentage of solute
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 12.4
MSC: general chemistry
14
47. What is the molarity of a 20.0% by mass hydrochloric acid solution? The density of the solution is 1.0980 g/mL. A) 6.86 M B) 0.200 M C) 5.68 M D) 6.02 M E) 0.0220 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate mass percentage of solute. (Example 12.2) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | conversion of concentration units MSC: general chemistry 48. What mass of a 26.0% by mass glucose, C6H12O6, solution contains 42.0 g of glucose? A) 46.8 g B) 162 g C) 10.9 g D) 60.7 g E) 42.0 g ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate mass percentage of solute. (Example 12.2) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | mass percentage of solute
REF: 12.4
MSC: general chemistry
49. What is the percent Na2CO3 by mass in a 1.54 molal aqueous solution? A) 0.132% B) 14.0% C) 99.4% D) 16.3% E) 15.4% ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate mass percentage of solute. (Example 12.2) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | conversion of concentration units MSC: general chemistry 50. What mass of a solution labeled 6.3% sucrose (C12H22O11, 342 g/mol) by mass contains 15.0 g of sucrose? A) 3.4 g B) 39 g C) 240 g D) 0.28 g E) 95 g ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate mass percentage of solute. (Example 12.2) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | mass percentage of solute Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 12.4
MSC: general chemistry 15
51. A 12.0% sucrose solution by mass has a density of 1.05 g/cm3. What mass of sucrose is present in a 30.0-mL sample of this solution? A) 3.78 g B) 3.43 g C) 0.126 g D) 263 g E) 3.60 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate mass percentage of solute. (Example 12.2) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | mass percentage of solute
REF: 12.4
MSC: general chemistry
52. How many moles of urea (60. g/mol) must be dissolved in 77.6 g of water to give a 3.5 m solution? A) 2.1 102 mol B) 3.5 mol C) 0.0035 mol D) 0.27 mol E) 7.7 102 mol ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate the molality of solute. (Example 12.3) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | molality MSC: general chemistry 53. If 12.7 g of naphthalene, C10H8, is dissolved in 104.6 g of chloroform, CHCl3, what is the molality of the solution? A) 0.0992 m B) 14.5 m C) 0.949 m D) 0.108 m E) 0.113 m ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate the molality of solute. (Example 12.3) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | molality MSC: general chemistry 54. What is the molality of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.244 mol of chloroform, CHCl3, in 456 g of toluene, C6H5CH3? A) 0.0642 m B) 0.0469 m C) 0.535 m D) 0.0492 m E) 1.113 m ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate the molality of solute. (Example 12.3) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | molality MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
16
55. What is the molality of a solution prepared by dissolving 2.57 g of urea, NH2CONH2, in 57.6 g of water? A) 0.0427 m B) 0.0446 m C) 0.0132 m D) 0.743 m E) 0.000711 m ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate the molality of solute. (Example 12.3) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | molality MSC: general chemistry 56. A 3.140 molal solution of NaCl is prepared. How many grams of NaCl are present in a sample containing 2.191 kg of water? A) 243.9 g B) 402.1 g C) 117.7 g D) 688.0 g E) none of these ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate the molality of solute. (Example 12.3) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | molality MSC: general chemistry 57. What is the molality of a solution that contains 77.7 g of 1,4-dichlorobenzene (C6H4Cl2) in 445 mL of carbon tetrachloride (CCl4)? The density of CCl4 is 1.60 g/mL. A) 0.183 m B) 0.743 m C) 0.175 m D) 0.109 m E) 1.90 m ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate the molality of solute. (Example 12.3) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | molality MSC: general chemistry 58. What is the molality of ethanol, C2H5OH, in an aqueous solution that is 51.0% ethanol by mass? A) 1.04 m B) 0.0226 m C) 22.6 m D) 0.719 m E) 53.4 m ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate the molality of solute. (Example 12.3) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | conversion of concentration units MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
17
59. A concentrated potassium hydroxide solution is 45.0% KOH by mass and has a density of 1.44 g/mL at 25°C. The remainder of material is solvent. What is the molality of KOH in the solution? A) 14.6 m B) 8.02 m C) 5.53 m D) 686 m E) 1.02 m ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate mass percentage of solute. (Example 12.2) TOP: solutions | colligative properties
REF: 12.4
60. What is the molality of a 20.0% by mass hydrochloric acid solution? The density of the solution is 1.0980 g/mL. A) 0.0220 m B) 6.86 m C) 0.200 m D) 5.68 m E) 6.02 m ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate the molality of solute. (Example 12.3) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | conversion of concentration units MSC: general chemistry 61. What is the molality of a solution that contains 8.16 g of glucose, C6H12O6, in 252.5 g of water? A) 0.180 m B) 0.0453 m C) 0.00322 m D) 0.0114 m E) 0.0323 m ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate the molality of solute. (Example 12.3) TOP: phases | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration MSC: general chemistry 62. For a solution containing only one solute dissolved in a solvent, we can calculate the mole fraction of the solvent directly, given only A) the molar mass of the solute. B) the density of the solution. C) the molar mass of the solvent. D) the mole fraction of the solute. E) the molarity of the solution.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
18
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.4 OBJ: Define mole fraction. TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | mole fraction MSC: general chemistry 63. What is the mole fraction of urea, CH4N2O, in an aqueous solution that is 36% urea by mass? A) 0.14 B) 0.86 C) 0.36 D) 0.55 E) 0.65 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate the mole fraction of components. (Example 12.4) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | mole fraction MSC: general chemistry 64. What is the mole fraction of urea, CO(NH2)2, in a solution prepared by dissolving 6.8 g of urea in 33.5 g of methanol, CH3OH? A) 0.83 B) 0.17 C) 0.098 D) 0.90 E) 0.28 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate the mole fraction of components. (Example 12.4) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | mole fraction MSC: general chemistry 65. What is the mole fraction of toluene in a solution of 3.4 mol of benzene and 5.2 mol of toluene? A) 0.64 B) 0.54 C) 0.60 D) 0.24 E) 0.40 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate the mole fraction of components. (Example 12.4) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | mole fraction MSC: general chemistry 66. What is the mole fraction of water in a solution that contains 6.8 mol of ethanol (C2H5OH) and 1.2 mol of water? A) 0.15 B) 0.07 C) 0.57 D) 0.18 E) 0.85 Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
19
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate the mole fraction of components. (Example 12.4) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | mole fraction MSC: general chemistry 67. What is the mole fraction of water in a water–ethanol solution that is 46.0% water by mass? (Ethanol is C2H5OH.) A) 0.28 B) 0.31 C) 0.25 D) 0.69 E) 0.54 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate the mole fraction of components. (Example 12.4) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | conversion of concentration units MSC: general chemistry 68. What is the mole fraction of urea in a solution that contains 2.1 mol of urea and 4.4 mol of water? A) 0.77 B) 0.32 C) 0.42 D) 0.52 E) 0.68 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.4 OBJ: Calculate the mole fraction of components. (Example 12.4) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: expressing concentration | mole fraction MSC: general chemistry 69. Which way of expressing concentration is used to relate the vapor pressure of a solution to the amount of nonvolatile solute dissolved in the solution? A) mole fraction B) molarity C) osmotic pressure D) mass percent E) molality ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.5 OBJ: State Raoult’s law. TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: vapor pressure of a solution | Raoult's law MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
20
70. When 1 mol of a nonvolatile nonelectrolyte is dissolved in 3 mol of a solvent, the vapor pressure of the solution compared with that of the pure solvent is A) 1/4. B) 4/5. C) 1/2. D) 1/5. E) 3/4. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate vapor-pressure lowering. (Example 12.9) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: vapor pressure of a solution | Raoult's law
REF: 12.5
MSC: general chemistry
71. What is the vapor pressure at 20°C of an ideal solution prepared by the addition of 8.87 g of the nonvolatile solute urea, CO(NH2)2, to 57.6 g of methanol, CH3OH? The vapor pressure of pure methanol at 20°C is 89.0 mmHg. A) 6.75 mmHg B) 69.1 mmHg C) 77.1 mmHg D) 82.2 mmHg E) 19.9 mmHg ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate vapor-pressure lowering. (Example 12.9) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: vapor pressure of a solution | vapor pressure lowering
REF: 12.5
MSC: general chemistry
72. What is the vapor pressure at 75°C of an aqueous solution prepared by the addition of 64.3 g of the nonvolatile solute urea, CO(NH2)2, to 174 g of water? The vapor pressure of pure water at 75°C is 290. mmHg. A) 133 mmHg B) 28.9 mmHg C) 167 mmHg D) 261 mmHg E) 212 mmHg ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate vapor-pressure lowering. (Example 12.9) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: vapor pressure of a solution | vapor pressure lowering
REF: 12.5
MSC: general chemistry
73. Benzene, C6H6, and toluene, C6H5CH3, form ideal solutions. At 35°C the vapor pressure of benzene is 160. torr and that of toluene is 50.0 torr. In an experiment, 67.6 g of benzene and 86.7 g of toluene are placed in a closed container at 35°C. At equilibrium, what is the partial vapor pressure of toluene? A) 108 torr B) 83.3 torr C) 24.0 torr D) 76.7 torr E) 26.0 torr Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
21
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Calculate vapor-pressure lowering. (Example 12.9) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: vapor pressure of a solution | Raoult's law
REF: 12.5
MSC: general chemistry
74. Benzene, C6H6, and toluene, C6H5CH3, form ideal solutions. At 35°C the vapor pressure of benzene is 160. torr and that of toluene is 50.0 torr. In an experiment, 3.6 mol of benzene and 5.5 mol of toluene are placed in a closed container at 35°C and allowed to come to equilibrium. What is the mole fraction of toluene in the vapor phase? A) 0.52 B) 0.68 C) 0.32 D) 0.14 E) 0.60 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Calculate vapor-pressure lowering. (Example 12.9) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: vapor pressure of a solution | Raoult's law
REF: 12.5
MSC: general chemistry
75. A liquid–liquid solution is called an ideal solution if I. it obeys PV = nRT. II. it obeys Raoult's law. III. solute–solute, solvent–solvent, and solute–solvent interactions are very similar. IV. solute–solute, solvent–solvent, and solute–solvent interactions are quite different. A) I, III, IV B) I, II, III C) II, III only D) I, II, IV E) II, IV only ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.5 OBJ: Describe an ideal solution. TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: vapor pressure of a solution | Raoult's law MSC: general chemistry 76. A solution of two liquids, A and B, shows negative deviation from Raoult's law. This means that A) the two liquids have a positive heat of solution. B) molecules of A interact more strongly with B than A molecules interact with A or B molecules interact with B. C) molecules of A interact strongly with other A-type molecules. D) molecules of A interact weakly, if at all, with B molecules. E) molecules of A hinder the strong interaction between B molecules. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.5 OBJ: Describe an ideal solution. TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: vapor pressure of a solution | Raoult's law MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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77. A solution of CF3H in H2CO is most likely to A) be ideal. B) not be ideal, but the deviations cannot be predicted. C) show negative deviations from Raoult's law. D) obey Raoult's law. E) show positive deviations from Raoult's law. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.5 OBJ: Describe an ideal solution. TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: vapor pressure of a solution | Raoult's law MSC: general chemistry 78. The fact that the boiling point of a pure solvent is lower than the boiling point of a solution of the same solvent is a direct consequence of the A) freezing-point depression of the solution. B) vapor pressure of the solution being higher than the vapor pressure of the pure solvent. C) osmotic pressure of the solvent being lower than the osmotic pressure of the solution. D) vapor pressure of the solution being lower than the vapor pressure of the pure solvent. E) osmotic pressure of the solvent being higher than the osmotic pressure of the solution. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 12.6 OBJ: Define boiling–point elevation and freezing-point depression. TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: boiling point elevation MSC: general chemistry 79. A solute added to a solvent raises the boiling point of the solution because A) the temperature to cause boiling must be great enough to boil not only the solvent but also the solute. B) the solute particles raise the solvent's vapor pressure, thus requiring a higher temperature to cause boiling. C) the solute increases the volume of the solution, and an increase in volume requires an increase in the temperature to reach the boiling point (derived from PV = nRT). D) the solute particles lower the solvent's vapor pressure, thus requiring a higher temperature to cause boiling. E) two of these explanations are correct. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.6 OBJ: Define boiling–point elevation and freezing-point depression. TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: boiling point elevation MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
23
80. What is the freezing point of a 0.24 m solution of glucose, C6H12O6, in water? (Kf for water is 1.858°C/m.) A) 0.22°C B) 0.45°C C) –0.45°C D) –0.22°C E) –0.89°C ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.6 OBJ: Calculate boiling-point elevation and freezing-point depression. (Example 12.10) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: freezing point depression MSC: general chemistry 81. What is the boiling-point change for a solution containing 0.432 mol of naphthalene (a nonvolatile, nonionizing compound) in 250. g of liquid benzene? (Kb = 2.53°C/m for benzene) A) 4.37 °C B) 5.86 °C C) 0.273 °C D) 1.46 °C E) 1.093 °C ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.6 OBJ: Calculate boiling-point elevation and freezing-point depression. (Example 12.10) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: boiling point elevation MSC: general chemistry 82. Substance A has a greater molar mass than substance B. If 50 g of substance A are dissolved in 250 g of water in one beaker, and 50 g of substance B are dissolved in 250 g of water in another beaker, then A) the vapor pressure of solution A will be lower than the vapor pressure of solution B. B) the solution of A will freeze at a lower temperature than the solution of B. C) the two solutions will have the same vapor pressure. D) the boiling point of solution A will be lower than the boiling point of solution B. E) the solution of A will have a higher osmotic pressure than the solution of B. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.6 OBJ: Calculate boiling-point elevation and freezing-point depression. (Example 12.10) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: boiling point elevation MSC: general chemistry 83. A solution consisting of 0.228 mol of methylbenzene, C6H5CH3, in 255 g of nitrobenzene, C6H5NO2, freezes at –0.3°C. Pure nitrobenzene freezes at 6.0°C. What is the freezing-point depression constant of nitrobenzene? A) 1.1°C/m B) 27°C/m C) 14.0°C/m D) 3.5°C/m E) 7.0°C/m Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.6 OBJ: Calculate boiling-point elevation and freezing-point depression. (Example 12.10) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: freezing point depression MSC: general chemistry 84. What is the mass percent of ethylene glycol (HOCH2CH2OH) in a solution of ethylene glycol in water that has a freezing point of –19.2°C? (Kf for water is 1.858°C/m.) A) 99.8% B) 39.1% C) 64.1% D) 60.1% E) 10.3% ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 12.6 OBJ: Calculate boiling-point elevation and freezing-point depression. (Example 12.10) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: freezing point depression MSC: general chemistry 85. Which of the following methods cannot be used to determine the molar mass of a nonelectrolyte? A) measurement of the freezing-point depression of a solution of the compound B) measurement of the boiling-point elevation of a solution of the compound C) measurement of the pressure, temperature, volume, and mass of the compound in the gaseous state D) measurement of the x-ray diffraction of a pure crystal of the compound E) measurement of the osmotic pressure of a solution of the compound ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.6 OBJ: Calculate the molecular mass of a solute from molality. (Example 12.11) TOP: solutions | colligative properties MSC: general chemistry 86. Trimellitic acid is an organic acid that has a composition of 51.44% C, 2.88% H, and 45.68% O by mass. A 5.02-g sample of trimellitic acid dissolved in 20 g of acetone, CH3COCH3, has a boiling point of 58.24°C. What is the molecular formula of trimellitic acid? (Kb for acetone is 1.71°C/m, and pure acetone has a boiling point of 56.20°C.) A) CH2O B) C9H6O6 C) C3HO2 D) C18HO16 E) C6H2O4 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 12.6 OBJ: Calculate the molecular mass from freezing-point depression. (Example 12.12) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: boiling point elevation MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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87. When a 28.4-g sample of an unknown compound is dissolved in 500. g of benzene, the freezing point of the resulting solution is 3.77°C. The freezing point of pure benzene is 5.48°C, and Kf for benzene is 5.12°C/m. Calculate the molar mass of the unknown compound. A) 145 g/mol B) 170. g/mol C) 85.0 g/mol D) 340 g/mol E) 16.6 g/mol ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.6 OBJ: Calculate the molecular mass from freezing-point depression. (Example 12.12) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: freezing point depression MSC: general chemistry 88. Thyroxine, an important hormone that controls the rate of metabolism in the body, can be isolated from the thyroid gland. If 0.453 g of thyroxine is dissolved in 10.0 g of benzene, the freezing point of the solution could be measured as 5.144°C. Pure benzene freezes at 5.444°C and has a value for the molal freezing-point-depression constant of Kf of 5.12°C/m. What is the approximate molar mass of thyroxine? A) 773 g/mol B) 7.73 g/mol C) 7.73 105 g/mol D) 42.6 g/mol E) 11.3 g/mol ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.6 OBJ: Calculate the molecular mass from freezing-point depression. (Example 12.12) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: freezing point depression MSC: general chemistry 89. If a 18.0-g sample of a nonelectrolyte is dissolved in 112.0 g of water, the resulting solution will freeze at –0.94°C. What is the molar mass of the nonelectrolyte? (Kf for water is 1.858°C/m.) A) 77 g/mol B) 0.32 g/mol C) 550 g/mol D) 280 g/mol E) 320 g/mol ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.6 OBJ: Calculate the molecular mass from freezing-point depression. (Example 12.12) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: freezing point depression MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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90. What is the molar mass of an aromatic hydrocarbon if 0.85 g of the compound depresses the freezing point of 128 g of benzene by 0.37°C? (Kf for benzene is 5.12°C/m.) A) 35 g/mol B) 150 g/mol C) 93 g/mol 92 D) 2100 g/mol E) 140 g/mol ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.6 OBJ: Calculate the molecular mass from freezing-point depression. (Example 12.12) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: freezing point depression MSC: general chemistry 91. Which of the following will cause the calculated molar mass of a compound determined by the freezing-point-depression method to be greater than the true molar mass? A) When the solute was added, some was spilled on the lab bench. B) Water gets into the solvent after the freezing point of the pure solvent is determined. C) Some of the solute molecules break apart. D) The mass of solvent is smaller than that determined from the weighing. E) all of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.6 OBJ: Calculate the molecular mass from freezing-point depression. (Example 12.12) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: freezing point depression MSC: general chemistry 92. A compound containing carbon and nitrogen has a composition of 46.16% carbon and 53.84% nitrogen by mass. A solution prepared by dissolving 1.542 g of this compound in 30.00 g of carbon tetrachloride, CCl4, produces a solution that boils at 81.69°C. What is the molecular formula of the compound? (Kb for CCl4 is 5.03°C/m, and pure CCl4 has a freezing point of 76.72°C.) A) C2N2 B) CN2 C) C3N3 D) CN E) C2N4 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 12.6 OBJ: Calculate the molecular mass from freezing-point depression. (Example 12.12) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: freezing point depression MSC: general chemistry 93. A compound containing sulfur, nitrogen, and hydrogen has a composition of 86.6% sulfur, 12.6% nitrogen, and 0.91% hydrogen by mass. A solution prepared by dissolving 2.072 g of this compound in 35.00 g of bromoform, CHBr3, produces a solution that freezes at 3.97°C. What is the molecular formula of the compound? (Kf for bromoform is 14.4°C/m, and pure bromoform has a freezing point of 7.8°C.)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) SNH B) S3N2H2 C) S6N2H2 D) S3NH E) S2N2H2 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 12.6 OBJ: Calculate the molecular mass from freezing-point depression. (Example 12.12) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: freezing point depression MSC: general chemistry 94. A cucumber is placed in a concentrated salt solution. What is most likely to happen? A) Water will flow from the solution to the cucumber. B) No change will occur. C) Salt will flow into the cucumber. D) Salt will precipitate out. E) Water will flow from the cucumber to the solution. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.7 OBJ: Describe a system where osmosis will take place. TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: osmotic pressure MSC: general chemistry 95. A red blood cell placed in pure water will swell because A) the osmotic pressure is greater in the water than in the cell. B) the osmotic pressure is the same in the cell and the water. C) the osmotic pressure is greater in the cell than in the water. D) water moves from a higher osmotic pressure to a lower osmotic pressure. E) the vapor pressure of the water in the cell is greater than the vapor pressure of pure water. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.7 OBJ: Describe a system where osmosis will take place. TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: hypotonic solution MSC: general chemistry 96. What is reverse osmosis? A) the application, to a dilute solution, of a pressure that is greater than the osmotic pressure, such that solvent flows from the concentrated solution to the dilute solution B) the application, to a dilute solution, of a pressure that is greater than the osmotic pressure, such that solute flows from the concentrated solution to the dilute solution C) the application, to a concentrated solution, of a pressure that is greater than the osmotic pressure, such that solute flows from the concentrated solution to the dilute solution
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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D) the application, to a concentrated solution, of a pressure that is greater than the osmotic pressure, such that solvent flows from the concentrated solution to the dilute solution E) the application, to a concentrated solution, of a pressure that is greater than the osmotic pressure, such that solvent flows from the dilute solution to the concentrated solution ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.7 OBJ: Describe a system where osmosis will take place. TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: osmotic pressure MSC: general chemistry 97. A solution of water and a nonvolatile, nonionizing compound is placed in a tube with a semipermeable membrane on one side. The tube is placed in a beaker of pure water. What initial net effect will occur? A) Nothing will move through the membrane either way. B) Water will flow from the beaker to the tube. C) Water will flow from the tube to the beaker. D) Equilibrium will be immediately established. E) The compound will pass through the membrane into the solution. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.7 OBJ: Describe a system where osmosis will take place. TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: osmotic pressure MSC: general chemistry 98. Determine the osmotic pressure of a solution that contains 0.014 g of a hydrocarbon solute (molar mass = 340 g/mol) dissolved in benzene to make a 350-mL solution. The temperature is 20.0°C. A) 0.9 torr B) 2.0 torr C) 0.14 torr D) 0.7 torr E) 2.1 torr ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.7 OBJ: Calculate osmotic pressure. (Example 12.13) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: osmotic pressure MSC: general chemistry 99. A 2.4-g sample of a small protein having a molecular weight of 62,000 g/mol is dissolved in 59.6 mL of water at 29°C. What is the osmotic pressure of the solution? (R = 0.0821 L · atm/(K · mol)) A) 12 mmHg B) 760 mmHg C) 1.2 mmHg D) 47,000 mmHg E) 0.016 mmHg Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.7 OBJ: Calculate osmotic pressure. (Example 12.13) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: osmotic pressure | colligative properties MSC: general chemistry 100. Osmotic pressure is A) inversely proportional to mass fraction. B) directly proportional to lattice energy. C) inversely proportional to molality. D) inversely proportional to mole fraction. E) directly proportional to molarity. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.7 OBJ: Calculate osmotic pressure. (Example 12.13) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: osmotic pressure | colligative properties MSC: general chemistry 101. Calculate the molecular weight of a small protein if a 0.24-g sample dissolved in 108 mL of water has an osmotic pressure of 9.5 mmHg at 22°C. (R = 0.0821 L · atm/(K · mol)) A) 3.2 102 g/mol B) 4.3 103 g/mol C) 5.7 g/mol D) 1.8 102 g/mol E) 5.7 10–3 g/mol ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.7 OBJ: Calculate osmotic pressure. (Example 12.13) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: osmotic pressure | colligative properties MSC: general chemistry 102. To determine the molar mass of a small protein in the range of 20,000–40,000 g/mol, it would be best to measure A) the freezing point of the solvent and of the solution and the weight of the solute and solvent. B) the boiling point of the solvent and of the solution and the weight of the solute and solvent. C) the vapor pressure of the solvent and of the solution and the weight of the solute and solvent. D) the osmotic pressure of the solution and the weight of the solute and solvent. E) the density of the protein and to make x-ray measurements. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 12.7 OBJ: Calculate osmotic pressure. (Example 12.13) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: osmotic pressure | colligative properties MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
30
103. For a dilute solution of (NH4)3PO4, the van’t Hoff factor (i) would be approximately A) 4. B) 2. C) 3. D) 1. E) 5. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.8 OBJ: Determine the colligative properties of ionic solutions. (Example 12.14) TOP: solutions | colligative properties NOT: REVISED 104. For a dilute solution of FeCl3, the van’t Hoff factor (i) would be approximately A) 4. B) 2. C) 3. D) 1. E) 5. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.8 OBJ: Determine the colligative properties of ionic solutions. (Example 12.14) TOP: solutions | colligative properties NOT: REVISED 105. Based on the formulas of the following solutes, which compound would have the smallest van’t Hoff factor (i)? A) Ca(NO3)2(aq) B) K2SO4(aq) C) Th(SO4)2(aq) D) Al2(SO4)3(aq) E) MgSO4(aq) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.8 OBJ: Determine the colligative properties of ionic solutions. (Example 12.14) TOP: solutions | colligative properties MSC: general chemistry 106. Which of the following solutes in aqueous solution would be expected to exhibit the smallest freezing-point lowering (assuming ideal behavior)? A) 0.1 m NaCl B) 0.2 m CH3COOH C) 0.05 m Al2(SO4)3 D) 0.1 m MgCl2 E) 0.25 m NH3 ANS: REF: OBJ: TOP:
A PTS: 1 DIF: easy-moderate 12.8 Determine the colligative properties of ionic solutions. (Example 12.14) solutions | colligative properties
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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107. Which of the following solutions would have the highest osmotic pressure? A) 0.15 M MgBr2 B) 0.15 M NaCl C) 0.20 M C12H22O11 D) 0.20 M C6H12O6 E) 0.20 M CH3OH ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.8 OBJ: Determine the colligative properties of ionic solutions. (Example 12.14) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: osmotic pressure | colligative properties MSC: general chemistry 108. What is the freezing point of an aqueous 1.66 m CaCl2 solution? (Kf for water is 1.858°C/m.) A) 9.3°C B) 3.1°C C) –9.3°C D) 0.0°C E) –3.1°C ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.8 OBJ: Determine the colligative properties of ionic solutions. (Example 12.14) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: freezing point depression MSC: general chemistry 109. Which of the following amounts of solute, dissolved in 1.0 kg of water, creates a solution with the lowest freezing temperature? (assuming ideal behavior) A) 0.0015 mol of sulfuric acid, H2SO4 B) 0.0015 mol of H2SO3 C) 0.0030 mol of ethanol, C2H5OH D) 0.0030 mol of methanol, CH3OH E) 0.0015 mol of sucrose, C12H22O11 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.8 OBJ: Determine the colligative properties of ionic solutions. (Example 12.14) TOP: solutions | colligative properties 110. Which of the following solutes, dissolved in 1.0 kg of water, creates a solution that boils at the highest temperature? A) 0.010 mol H3PO4 B) 0.010 mol HClO4 C) 0.010 mol H2SO4 D) 0.010 mol HCl E) 0.010 mol HF ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.8 OBJ: Determine the colligative properties of ionic solutions. (Example 12.14) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: freezing point depression MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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111. Which of the following solutes, dissolved in 1000 g of water, would provide a solution with the lowest freezing point? A) 0.030 mol of barium chloride, BaCl2 B) 0.030 mol of urea, CO(NH2)2 C) 0.030 mol of calcium sulfate, CaSO4 D) 0.030 mol of acetic acid, CH3COOH E) 0.030 mol of ammonium nitrate, NH4NO3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.8 OBJ: Determine the colligative properties of ionic solutions. (Example 12.14) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: freezing point depression MSC: general chemistry 112. Which of the following solutions has the lowest osmotic pressure? A) 0.10 M Al(NO3)3 B) 0.20 M C6H12O6 C) 0.15 M Ba(NO3)2 D) 0.10 M CaCl2 E) 0.15 M Na2S ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.8 OBJ: Determine the colligative properties of ionic solutions. (Example 12.14) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: osmotic pressure MSC: general chemistry 113. At 37°C, what is the osmotic pressure of a 0.59% NaCl by weight aqueous solution? Assume the density of the solution is 1.0 g/mL. (R = 0.0821 L · atm/(K · mol)) A) 0.26 atm B) 2.6 atm C) 3.0 102 atm D) 5.1 atm E) 0.61 atm ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.8 OBJ: Determine the colligative properties of ionic solutions. (Example 12.14) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: osmotic pressure MSC: general chemistry 114. For which of the following aqueous solutions would one expect to have the largest van’t Hoff factor (i)? A) 0.400 m K2SO4 B) 0.400 m NaCl C) 0.400 m C6H12O6 (glucose) D) 0.040 m K2SO4 E) 0.040 m NaCl ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.8 OBJ: Determine the colligative properties of ionic solutions. (Example 12.14) TOP: solutions | colligative properties MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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115. The molal boiling-point constant for water is 0.51°C/molal. The boiling point of a 1.00 m solution of Ca(NO3)2 should be increased by A) exactly 1.53°C. B) exactly 1.02°C. C) somewhat less than 1.02°C. D) exactly 0.51°C. E) somewhat less than 1.53°C. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 12.8 OBJ: Determine the colligative properties of ionic solutions. (Example 12.14) TOP: solutions | colligative properties KEY: boiling point elevation MSC: general chemistry 116. What type of colloid is formed when a liquid is dispersed in a gas? A) foam B) emulsion C) aerosol D) sol E) gel ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define colloid. KEY: colloid | types of colloid
DIF: easy REF: 12.9 TOP: solutions | colloid formation MSC: general chemistry
117. What type of colloid is formed when a gas is dispersed in a solid? A) foam B) aerosol C) sol D) emulsion E) gel ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Define colloid. KEY: colloid | types of colloid
DIF: easy REF: 12.9 TOP: solutions | colloid formation MSC: general chemistry
118. What type of colloid is formed when a liquid is dispersed in a solid? A) emulsion B) gel C) sol D) foam E) aerosol ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: Define colloid. KEY: colloid | types of colloid
Test Bank
DIF: easy REF: 12.9 TOP: solutions | colloid formation MSC: general chemistry
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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119. What type of colloid is formed when a solid is dispersed in a liquid? A) emulsion B) gel C) aerosol D) sol E) foam ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define colloid. KEY: colloid | types of colloid
DIF: easy REF: 12.9 TOP: solutions | colloid formation MSC: general chemistry
120. When a liquid is dispersed in another liquid, the resulting colloid is called a(n) A) emulsion. B) sol. C) foam. D) aerosol. E) gel. ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Define colloid. KEY: colloid | types of colloid
DIF: easy REF: 12.9 TOP: solutions | colloid formation MSC: general chemistry
121. A suspension of silver particles in water is most likely to form what type of colloid? A) aerosol B) micelle C) hydrophobic colloid D) association colloid E) hydrophilic colloid ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.9 OBJ: Give examples of hydrophilic colloids and hydrophobic colloids. TOP: solutions | colloid formation KEY: colloid | hydrophobic colloid MSC: general chemistry 122. Which of the following statements describes the process of coagulation? A) The dispersed phase of an association colloid aggregates and forms a hydrophilic colloid. B) The continuous phase of a colloid aggregates and separates from the dispersed phase. C) The dispersed phase of an association colloid aggregates and forms a hydrophobic colloid. D) The dispersed phase of a colloid aggregates and separates from the continuous phase. E) The dispersed phase of an association colloid aggregates and forms a micelle. ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Describe coagulation. KEY: colloid | coagulation
Test Bank
DIF: easy REF: 12.9 TOP: solutions | colloid formation MSC: general chemistry
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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123. A suspension of sodium dodecanoate, CH3(CH2)10COONa, in water is most likely to form what type of colloid? A) hydrophilic colloid B) association colloid C) emulsion D) aerosol E) hydrophobic colloid ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.9 OBJ: Explain how micelles can form an association colloid. TOP: solutions | colloid formation KEY: colloid | association colloid MSC: general chemistry 124. Synthetic detergent dispersed in water is an example of a(n) A) micelle. B) hydrophilic colloid. C) coagulant. D) hydrophobic colloid. E) association colloid. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 12.9 OBJ: Explain how micelles can form an association colloid. TOP: solutions | colloid formation KEY: colloid | association colloid MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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Chapter 13 - Rates of Reaction 1. Nitric oxide reacts with hydrogen at a measurable rate at 1000 K according to the following equation: 2NO + 2H2 → N2 + 2H2O The experimental rate law is Rate = k[NO]2[H2]. If time is measured in minutes and concentration is measured in moles per liter, what are the units for the rate of production of water? A) L2/(mol2 · min). B) mol2/(L2 · min). C) mol/(L · min). D) mol3/(L3 · min). E) mol/(L2 · min). ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define reaction rate. MSC: general chemistry
DIF: easy REF: 13.1 TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate
2. Which of the following conclusions concerning the concentration-time plot provided below is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
The concentration of substance D is decreasing over time. The instantaneous reaction rate at point A is less than the instantaneous reaction rate at point B. Substance D is a product of the reaction.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Define reaction rate.
Test Bank
DIF: easy REF: 13.1 TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate
General Chemistry, 10th edition
1
3. Which of the following is/are expected to affect the rate of a chemical reaction? 1. 2. 3.
Increasing the reaction temperature. Decreasing the reactant concentrations. Doubling the volume of the reaction container.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define reaction rate.
DIF: easy REF: 13.1 TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate
4. The oxidation of ammonia produces nitrogen and water via the following reaction: 4NH3(g) + 3O2(g) → 2N2(g) + 6H2O(l) Suppose the rate of formation of H2O(l) is 3.0 mol/(L · s). Which of the following statements is true? A) The rate of consumption of NH3 is 2.0 mol/(L · s). B) The rate of consumption of O2 is 2.0 mol/(L · s). C) The rate of formation of N2 is 1.3 mol/(L · s). D) The rate of formation of N2 is 2.0 mol/(L · s). E) The rate of consumption of NH3 is 0.50 mol/(L · s). ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.1 OBJ: Explain how the different ways of expressing reaction rates are related. (Example 13.1) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration MSC: general chemistry 5. For the reaction IO3–(aq) + 5I–(aq) + 6H+(aq) → 3I2(aq) + 3H2O(l) the rate of disappearance of I–(aq) at a particular time and concentration is 2.6 10– 3 mol/(L · s). What is the rate of appearance of I2(aq)? A) 4.3 10–3 mol/(L · s) B) 7.8 10–3 mol/(L · s) C) –1.6 10–3 mol/(L · s) D) 1.6 10–3 mol/(L · s) E) 6.4 10–3 mol/(L · s) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.1 OBJ: Explain how the different ways of expressing reaction rates are related. (Example 13.1) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration MSC: general chemistry
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6. For the reaction 6CH2O(aq) + 4NH3(aq) → (CH2)6N4(aq) + 6H2O(l) the rate of the reaction may be expressed as
. What is an equivalent expression
for the rate of the reaction? A) B) C) D) E)
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.1 OBJ: Explain how the different ways of expressing reaction rates are related. (Example 13.1) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: change of concentration with time MSC: general chemistry 7. For the hypothetical reaction A + 2B → 2C + D, the initial rate of disappearance of A is 2.0 10–2 mol/(L · s). What is the initial rate of disappearance of B? A) 8.0 10–2 mol/(L · s) B) 4.0 10–2 mol/(L · s) C) 1.4 10–1 mol/(L · s) D) 4.0 10–4 mol/(L · s) E) 1.4 10–2 mol/(L · s) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.1 OBJ: Explain how the different ways of expressing reaction rates are related. (Example 13.1) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: change of concentration with time MSC: general chemistry 8. For the reaction 2N2O5(g) → 4NO2(g) + O2(g) which of the following expressions is equal to the rate of the reaction? A) B) C)
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D) E)
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.1 OBJ: Explain how the different ways of expressing reaction rates are related. (Example 13.1) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration MSC: general chemistry 9. For the reaction of the ammonium ion with nitrous acid, the net reaction is NH4+(aq) + HNO2(aq) → N2(g) + 2H2O(l) + H+(aq) If the initial concentration of nitrous acid is 1.00 M and, after 28.8 s has elapsed, the concentration of nitrous acid has fallen to 0.82 M, what is the average rate of the reaction over this time interval? A) 0.0063 M/s B) 0.028 M/s C) –0.0063 M/s D) –0.028 M/s E) 0.063 M/s ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.1 OBJ: Calculate average reaction rate. (Example 13.2) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: experimental determination of rate MSC: general chemistry 10. In the reaction 2H2O2(aq) → 2H2O(l) + O2(g), the initial concentration of H2O2 is 0.542 M and, 21.2 seconds later, the concentration of H2O2 is 0.310 M. What is the average rate of reaction over this time interval? A) –0.0109 M/s B) 0.0109 M/s C) 0.0146 M/s D) 0.00547 M/s E) –0.00547 M/s ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.1 OBJ: Calculate average reaction rate. (Example 13.2) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: change of concentration with time MSC: general chemistry 11. Which of the following experimental methods cannot be used to measure the rate of a reaction? A) measurement of the absorbance of a colored reactant with time B) measurement of the change in the partial pressure of a gas-phase product over time C) measurement of the equilibrium concentration of an acidic product via titration with a strong base D) measurement of the absorbance of a colored product with time E) measurement of the change in the partial pressure of a gas-phase reactant over time Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.2 OBJ: Describe how reaction rates may be experimentally determined. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: experimental determination of rate MSC: general chemistry 12. Which of the following statements concerning the experimental determination of reaction rates is incorrect? A) To determine reaction rates one of the reactants must be colored. B) Monitoring changes in reactant or product physical properties is a convenient way to determine reaction rates. C) Analysis of samples withdrawn from the reaction solution at varying times is useful for slow reactions. D) Instrumental methods, such as visible spectroscopy, may be used to continuously measure changes in reactants or products. E) Any method of analysis that can determine product or reactant concentrations during the course of the reaction can potentially be used to determine reaction rates. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.2 OBJ: Describe how reaction rates may be experimentally determined. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate 13. Which of the following statements is true concerning the reaction given below? 2H2S(g) + O2(g) → 2S(s) + 2H2O(g) A) The rate law is Rate = k[H2S]2[O2]. B) The reaction is second-order in H2S(g) and first-order in O2(g). C) The reaction is first-order in H2S(g) and second-order in O2(g). D) The rate law is Rate = k[H2S][O2]. E) The rate law may be determined only by experiment. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Define and provide examples of a rate law, rate constant, and reaction order. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration | determining the rate law MSC: general chemistry 14. Consider the reaction aA + bB
dD + eE
C = catalyst
The rate law is Rate = k[A]q[B]r[C]s Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) The exponents q and r are always equal to the coefficients a and b, respectively. B) The overall reaction order is q + r + s. C) The exponent s must be determined experimentally. D) The symbol k represents the rate constant. E) The exponents q, r, and s are often integers. Test Bank
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Define and provide examples of a rate law, rate constant, and reaction order. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration | determining the rate law MSC: general chemistry 15. For a second-order reaction, what are the possible units of the rate constant? A) L–1 · s–1 B) mol · L–1 · s–1 C) s D) L.mol–1s–1 E) mol · L–1 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Define and provide examples of a rate law, rate constant, and reaction order. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate MSC: general chemistry 16. For which of the following hypothetical rate laws would the units of the rate constant have the general form M−time−? A) rate = k[A]3 B) rate = k[A]4 C) rate = k[A]2 D) rate = k[A] E) rate = k ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Define and provide examples of a rate law, rate constant, and reaction order. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate 17. If the rate law for a reaction is Rate = k[ClO3–][I–][H+]2 what are the units of k when the unit of time is seconds and the unit of concentration is moles per liter? A) (L · s)/mol B) mol2/(L2 · s) C) mol/(L · s) D) L2/(mol2 · s) E) L3/(mol3 · s) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.3 OBJ: Define and provide examples of a rate law, rate constant, and reaction order. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate MSC: general chemistry
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18. The hypochlorite ion oxidizes the iodide ion in aqueous solution as represented by the following equation: OCl–(aq) + I–(aq) → OI–(aq) + Cl–(aq) The rate law for this reaction is Rate = k
. If time is measured in seconds and
concentration is measured in moles per liter, what are the units for k? A) mol2/(L2 · s) B) L/(mol · s) C) 1/s D) L2/(mol2 · s) E) mol/(L · s) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Define and provide examples of a rate law, rate constant, and reaction order. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate MSC: general chemistry 19. For a certain first-order reaction with the general form aA → products, the rate is 0.32 M·s− when the concentration of the reactant is 0.29 M. What is the rate constant for this reaction? A) 0.26 s− B) 1.1 s− C) 0.32 s− D) 3.1 s− E) 3.8 s− ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Define and provide examples of a rate law, rate constant, and reaction order. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate 20. Which of the following statements is always true? A) Exothermic reactions have lower activation energies than endothermic reactions. B) The rate of a catalyzed reaction is independent of the concentration of the catalyst. C) The rate for a reaction depends on the concentrations of all the reactants. D) The rate constant is independent of the concentrations of the reacting species. E) The rate law can be determined from the stoichiometric equation. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Define and provide examples of a rate law, rate constant, and reaction order. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration MSC: general chemistry 21. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) The rates of most chemical reactions change with time. B) The rate constant for a reaction can be changed by changing the temperature. C) The rate constant is dependent on the reactant concentrations. D) In a series of stepwise reactions, the rate-determining step is the slowest one. E) The rate of a catalyzed reaction is dependent on the concentration of the catalyst.
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ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Define and provide examples of a rate law, rate constant, and reaction order. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate MSC: general chemistry 22. A rate constant for a particular reaction is 0.0070 M-1s−. What is the overall order of this reaction? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 0 E) 1 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Define and provide examples of a rate law, rate constant, and reaction order. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate 23. Ozone reacts with nitrogen dioxide to produce oxygen and dinitrogen pentoxide according to the following chemical equation: O3(g) + 2NO2(g) → O2(g) + N2O5(g) The rate law for this reaction is Rate = k[O3][NO2]. If concentration is measured in moles per liter and time is measured in seconds, what are the units of k? A) L · mol–1 · s B) L2 · mol–2 · s–1 C) L · mol–1 · s–1 D) mol · L–1 · s–1 E) mol2 · L–2 · s–1 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Define and provide examples of a rate law, rate constant, and reaction order. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration MSC: general chemistry 24. The balanced chemical equation and rate law for the reaction between NO(g) and H2(g) at a particular temperature are 2NO(g) + 2H2(g) → N2(g) + 2H2O(g) Rate = k[NO]2[H2] What is the reaction order with respect to hydrogen? A) 4 B) 0 C) 2 D) 3 E) 1 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the order of reaction from the rate law. (Example 13.3) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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25. The reaction 2H2(g) + 2NO(g) → 2H2O(g) + N2(g) is first-order in H2 and second-order in NO at a particular temperature. What is the rate law? A) Rate = k[H2]2[NO]2 B) Rate = k[H2][NO]2 C) Rate = k[H2][NO] D) Rate = k[H2O]2[N2] E) Rate = k[H2]2[NO] ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the order of reaction from the rate law. (Example 13.3) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration | reaction order MSC: general chemistry 26. The hypochlorite ion oxidizes the iodide ion in aqueous solution as represented by the following equation: OCl–(aq) + I–(aq) → OI–(aq) + Cl–(aq) The rate law for this reaction is Rate = k
. The overall reaction order and the
order with respect to OH– are A) 2 and –1. B) 0 and –1. C) 0 and 1. D) 2 and 1. E) 1 and –1. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the order of reaction from the rate law. (Example 13.3) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration | reaction order MSC: general chemistry 27. The rate law for the chemical reaction 5Br–(aq) + BrO3–(aq) + 6H+(aq) → 3Br2(aq) + 3H2O(l) has been determined experimentally to be Rate = k[Br–][BrO3–][H+]2. What is the overall order of the reaction? A) 3 B) 5 C) 4 D) 2 E) 1 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the order of reaction from the rate law. (Example 13.3) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration | reaction order MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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28. If a reaction is first-order with respect to a particular reactant, when the concentration of that reactant is increased by a factor of 2, the reaction rate will _____. A) increase by a factor of 2. B) remain constant. 1 C) decrease by a factor of . 2 1 D) decrease by a factor of . 8 E) increase by a factor of 4. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the rate law from initial rates. (Example 13.4) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate 29. The following data were obtained for the hypothetical reaction 2A + B → products. [A]0 (M) [B]0 (M) 0.2 0.1 0.2 0.2 0.6 0.1
Initial Rate (M/s) 5 20 45
What is the overall order of this reaction? A) 3 B) 1/2 C) 0 D) 4 E) 1 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the rate law from initial rates. (Example 13.4) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration | determining the rate law MSC: general chemistry 30. For the reaction between nitrogen monoxide and chlorine to produce nitrosyl chloride, 2NO(g) + Cl2(g) → 2NOCl(g), it is found that tripling the initial concentration of both reactants increases the initial rate by a factor of 27. If only the initial concentration of chlorine is tripled, the initial rate increases by a factor of 3. What is the order of the reaction with respect to Cl2? A) 1/2 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 0 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the rate law from initial rates. (Example 13.4) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration | determining the rate law MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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31. For the reaction (CH3)3CCl(aq) + OH–(aq) → (CH3)3COH(aq) + Cl–(aq) it is found experimentally that doubling the initial concentration of (CH3)3CCl causes the initial reaction rate to double, but doubling the initial concentration of OH– has no effect on the rate. What is the rate law? A) Rate = k[(CH3)3CCl]2[OH–] B) Rate = k[(CH3)3CCl][OH–] C) Rate = k D) Rate = k[(CH3)3COH][Cl–] E) Rate = k[(CH3)3CCl] ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the rate law from initial rates. (Example 13.4) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration | determining the rate law MSC: general chemistry 32. If a reaction is zero-order in a reactant, when the concentration of the reactant is decreased by a factor of 2, the reaction rate will A) quadruple. B) decrease by a factor of 1/2. C) remain constant. D) decrease by a factor of 1/4. E) double. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the rate law from initial rates. (Example 13.4) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration | reaction order MSC: general chemistry 33. The following data were obtained in a kinetics study of the hypothetical reaction A + B + C → products. [A]0 (M) 0.4 0.2 0.6 0.2 0.2
[B]0 (M) 0.4 0.4 0.1 0.1 0.2
[C]0 (M) 0.2 0.4 0.2 0.2 0.4
Initial Rate (10–3 M/s) 160 80 15 5 20
Using the initial-rate method, what is the order of the reaction with respect to A? A) first-order B) zero-order C) third-order D) second-order E) impossible to tell from the data given
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the rate law from initial rates. (Example 13.4) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration | determining the rate law MSC: general chemistry 34. Nitrosyl chloride is produced from the reaction of nitrogen monoxide and chlorine: 2NO(g) + Cl2(g) → 2NOCl(g) The following initial rates at a given temperature were obtained for the concentrations listed below. Experiment 1 2 3
Initial Rate (mol·L–1·h–1) 2.21 19.89 6.63
[NO]0 (mol·L–1) 0.25 0.75 0.25
[Cl2]0 (mol·L–1) 0.25 0.25 0.75
From the data, what is the experimental rate law? A) Rate = k[Cl2] B) Rate = k[NO] C) Rate = k[NO][Cl2]2 D) Rate = k[NO]2[Cl2] E) Rate = k[NO][Cl2]1/2 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the rate law from initial rates. (Example 13.4) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration | determining the rate law MSC: general chemistry 35. For the reaction A + B + C → products, the following initial-rate data were obtained. [A]0 (mol/L) 0.40 0.20 0.60 0.20 0.20
[B]0 (mol/L) 0.40 0.40 0.10 0.10 0.20
[C]0 (mol/L) 0.20 0.40 0.20 0.20 0.40
Initial Rate (mol/(L · s)) 0.0160 0.0080 0.0015 0.0005 0.0020
What are the reaction orders with respect to A, B, and C, respectively? A) 0, 1, 1 B) 1, 2, 1 C) 1, 1, 1 D) 1, 2, 0 E) 0, 2, 1 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the rate law from initial rates. (Example 13.4) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration | determining the rate law MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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36. The acid-catalyzed reaction of acetone, CH3COCH3, with iodine can be represented by the following net reaction: CH3COCH3 + I2
CH2ICOCH3 + H+ + I–
It is found experimentally that the rate law for this reaction is Rate = k[CH3COCH3][H+]. Suppose that in trial 1, the initial rate of the reaction is measured with the initial concentrations of acetone, iodine, and hydrogen ion all equal to 0.10 M. Then, in trial 2, the initial rate of the reaction is measured with the initial concentrations all equal to 0.20 M. The initial rate of trial 2 will be larger than the initial rate of trial 1 by a factor of A) 4. B) 16. C) 8. D) 2. E) 64. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the rate law from initial rates. (Example 13.4) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration MSC: general chemistry 37. The rate law for the hydrolysis of thioacetamide (CH3CSNH2), CH3CSNH2(aq) + H2O(l) → H2S(g) + CH3CONH2(aq) is Rate = k[H+][CH3CSNH2]. If, during the course of the reaction, some solid sodium hydroxide is added to the reaction mixture, then A) the reaction rate decreases, but k remains the same. B) the reaction rate remains the same, but k decreases. C) the reaction rate increases, but k remains the same. D) there is no change in the reaction rate or the rate constant. E) the reaction rate remains the same, but k increases. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the rate law from initial rates. (Example 13.4) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration MSC: general chemistry 38. The rate law for the reaction between chlorine and nitric oxide, 2NO(g) + Cl2(g) → 2NOCl(g) is Rate = k[NO]2[Cl2]. Which of the following changes will not alter the initial rate of the reaction? A) increasing the concentration of NOCl B) decreasing the volume of the reaction system C) running the reaction in a solvent rather than in the gas phase D) increasing the volume of the reaction system E) increasing the concentration of chlorine gas
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the rate law from initial rates. (Example 13.4) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration MSC: general chemistry 39. In aqueous solution, iodine reacts with acetone as represented by the following equation: I2(aq) + CH3COCH3(aq) → CH3COCH2I(aq) + H+(aq) + I–(aq) The experimental rate law is Rate = k[H+][CH3COCH3]. According to the information above, an increase in the hydrogen ion concentration has what effect on the reaction? A) It decreases the rate of the reaction. B) It increases the rate of the reaction. C) It decreases the value of the equilibrium constant. D) It increases the value of the equilibrium constant. E) It does not affect the rate of the reaction. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the rate law from initial rates. (Example 13.4) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration MSC: general chemistry 40. The reaction between selenous acid and the iodide ion in acid solution is H2SeO3(aq) + 6I–(aq) + 4H+(aq) → Se(s) + 2I3–(aq) + 3H2O(l) The data in the following table were measured at 0°C. Experiment 1 2 3 4 5 6
[H2SeO3]0 (M) 1.00 10–4 2.00 10–4 3.00 10–4 3.00 10–4 3.00 10–4 2.00 10–4
[H+]0 (M) 2.00 10–2 2.00 10–2 4.00 10–2 8.00 10–2 8.00 10–2 2.00 10–2
[I–]0 (M) 3.00 10–2 3.00 10–2 3.00 10–2 3.00 10–2 6.00 10–2 6.00 10–2
Initial Rate [mol/(L · s)] 5.30 10–7 1.06 10–6 6.36 10–6 2.54 10–5 2.04 10–4 8.48 10–6
The overall order of this reaction is A) 4. B) 6. C) 2. D) 8. E) 3. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the rate law from initial rates. (Example 13.4) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration | determining the rate law MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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41. The reaction between selenous acid and the iodide ion in acid solution is H2SeO3(aq) + 6I–(aq) + 4H+(aq) → Se(s) + 2I3–(aq) + 3H2O(l) The data in the following table were measured at 0°C. Experiment 1 2 3 4 5 6
[H2SeO3]0 (M) 1.00 10–4 2.00 10–4 3.00 10–4 3.00 10–4 3.00 10–4 2.00 10–4
[H+]0 (M) 2.00 10–2 2.00 10–2 4.00 10–2 8.00 10–2 8.00 10–2 2.00 10–2
[I–]0 (M) 3.00 10–2 3.00 10–2 3.00 10–2 3.00 10–2 6.00 10–2 6.00 10–2
Initial Rate [mol/(L · s)] 5.30 10–7 1.06 10–6 6.36 10–6 2.54 10–5 2.04 10–4 8.48 10–6
What is the rate constant for this reaction? A) 1.5 104 L5/(mol5 · s) B) 1.5 1010 L5/(mol5 · s) C) 4.9 105 L5/(mol5 · s) D) 294 L5/(mol5 · s) E) 8.8 L5/(mol5 · s) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the rate law from initial rates. (Example 13.4) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration | determining the rate law MSC: general chemistry 42. Two substances A and B react with each other in such a way that one-half of A remains after 25 min and one-fourth of A remains after 50 min. Doubling the concentration of B while keeping the concentration of A fixed doubles the rate of the reaction. This reaction is A) first-order in both A and B. B) zero-order in both A and B. C) second-order in A and first-order in B. D) first-order in A and second-order in B. E) second-order in both A and B. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the rate law from initial rates. (Example 13.4) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration | determining the rate law MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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43. The reaction between selenous acid and the iodide ion in acid solution is H2SeO3(aq) + 6I–(aq) + 4H+(aq) → Se(s) + 2I3–(aq) + 3H2O(l) The data in the following table were measured at 0°C. Experiment 1 2 3 4 5 6
[H2SeO3]0 (M) 1.00 10–4 2.00 10–4 3.00 10–4 3.00 10–4 3.00 10–4 2.00 10–4
[H+]0 (M) 2.00 10–2 2.00 10–2 4.00 10–2 8.00 10–2 8.00 10–2 2.00 10–2
[I–]0 (M) 3.00 10–2 3.00 10–2 3.00 10–2 3.00 10–2 6.00 10–2 6.00 10–2
Initial Rate [mol/(L · s)] 5.30 10–7 1.06 10–6 6.36 10–6 2.54 10–5 2.04 10–4 8.48 10–6
Tripling the initial concentration of H2SeO3 while holding the initial concentrations of H+ and I– constant increases the rate of the reaction by a factor of A) 8. B) 4. C) 3. D) 2. E) 1. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the rate law from initial rates. (Example 13.4) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration | determining the rate law MSC: general chemistry 44. The reaction between selenous acid and the iodide ion in acid solution is H2SeO3(aq) + 6I–(aq) + 4H+(aq) → Se(s) + 2I3–(aq) + 3H2O(l) The data in the following table were measured at 0°C. Experiment 1 2 3 4 5 6
[H2SeO3]0 (M) 1.00 10–4 2.00 10–4 3.00 10–4 3.00 10–4 3.00 10–4 2.00 10–4
[H+]0 (M) 2.00 10–2 2.00 10–2 4.00 10–2 8.00 10–2 8.00 10–2 2.00 10–2
[I–]0 (M) 3.00 10–2 3.00 10–2 3.00 10–2 3.00 10–2 6.00 10–2 6.00 10–2
Initial Rate [mol/(L · s)] 5.30 10–7 1.06 10–6 6.36 10–6 2.54 10–5 2.04 10–4 8.48 10–6
Tripling the initial concentration of H+ while holding the initial concentrations of H2SeO3 and I– constant increases the initial rate of the reaction by a factor of A) 9. B) 16. C) 32. D) 2. E) 4.
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
16
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the rate law from initial rates. (Example 13.4) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration | determining the rate law MSC: general chemistry 45. The reaction between selenous acid and the iodide ion in acid solution is H2SeO3(aq) + 6I–(aq) + 4H+(aq) → Se(s) + 2I3–(aq) + 3H2O(l) The data in the following table were measured at 0°C. Experiment [H2SeO3]0 (M) 1 1.00 10–4 2 2.00 10–4 3 3.00 10–4 4 3.00 10–4 5 3.00 10–4 6 2.00 10–4
[H+]0 (M) 2.00 10–2 2.00 10–2 4.00 10–2 8.00 10–2 8.00 10–2 2.00 10–2
[I–]0 (M) 3.00 10–2 3.00 10–2 3.00 10–2 3.00 10–2 6.00 10–2 6.00 10–2
Initial Rate [mol/(L · s)] 5.30 10–7 1.06 10–6 6.36 10–6 2.54 10–5 2.04 10–4 8.48 10–6
Tripling the initial concentration of I– while holding the initial concentrations of H2SeO3 and H+ constant increases the initial rate of the reaction by a factor of A) 27. B) 9. C) 3. D) 8. E) 6. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 13.3 OBJ: Determine the rate law from initial rates. (Example 13.4) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: dependence of rate on concentration | determining the rate law MSC: general chemistry 46. Which of the following corresponds to the correct integrated expression for a second-order reaction? A) B) C) D) E)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
17
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.4 OBJ: Learn the integrated rate laws for first-order, second-order, and zero-order reactions. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | second-order reaction MSC: general chemistry 47. Which of the following is not a correct representation of the integrated rate expression for a first-order reaction? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.4 OBJ: Learn the integrated rate laws for first-order, second-order, and zero-order reactions. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate 48. At a given temperature, a first-order reaction has a rate constant of 3.5 10–3 s–1. How long will it take for the reaction to be 24% complete? A) 410 s B) 1200 s C) 910 s D) 34 s E) 78 s ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.4 OBJ: Use an integrated rate law. (Example 13.5) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | first-order reaction MSC: general chemistry 49. A chemical reaction that is first-order in X is observed to have a rate constant of 2.20 10–2 s–1. If the initial concentration of X is 1.0 M, what is the concentration of X after 186 s? A) 0.20 M B) 0.017 M C) 64 M D) 0.59 M E) 0.98 M ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.4 OBJ: Use an integrated rate law. (Example 13.5) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | first-order reaction MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
18
50. The nuclide 96Nb decays by a first-order process with a rate constant of 2.96 10–2 h–1. How long will it take for 82.0% of the initial amount of 96Nb to be consumed? A) 33.8 h B) 57.9 h C) 27.7 h D) 6.70 h E) 6.08 h ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.4 OBJ: Use an integrated rate law. (Example 13.5) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | first-order reaction MSC: general chemistry 51. The radioactive nuclide 63Ni decays by a first-order process via the emission of a beta particle. The 63Ni nuclide has a half-life of 100. years. How long will it take for 71% of 63Ni to decay? A) 49.4 years B) 21.5 years C) 0.858 years D) 179 years E) 77.6 years ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.4 OBJ: Use an integrated rate law. (Example 13.5) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | first-order reaction MSC: general chemistry 52. The gas-phase decomposition of N2O5 is a first-order process with a rate constant of 1.50 10–3 s–1 at 55°C. The decomposition reaction is N2O5(g) → 2NO2(g) + O2(g) If 2.0 g of N2O5 is placed in vessel 1 and 1.0 g of N2O5 in vessel 2 and the vessels are at the same temperature (55°C) and the same pressure, how much time is required for half of the N2O5 to decompose in each vessel? A) Vessel 1 requires the same amount of time as vessel 2. B) Vessel 1 requires twice as much time as vessel 2. C) Vessel 1 requires three times as much time as vessel 2. D) Vessel 1 requires four times as much time as vessel 2. E) Vessel 2 requires twice as much time as vessel 1. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.4 OBJ: Use an integrated rate law. (Example 13.5) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | first-order reaction MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
19
53. A reaction that is second-order in one reactant has a rate constant of 2.2 10–2 L/(mol · s). If the initial concentration of the reactant is 0.360 mol/L, how long will it take for the concentration to become 0.180 mol/L? A) 320 s B) 63 s C) 1300 s D) 32 s E) 130 s ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Use an integrated rate law. (Example 13.5) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | second-order reaction
REF: 13.4
MSC: general chemistry
54. The nuclide 188W decays by a first-order process with a rate constant of 1.0 10–2 d–1. How long will it take for 91% of the initial amount of 188W to be consumed? A) 4.1 d B) 220 d C) 9.4 d D) 240 d E) 110 d ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.4 OBJ: Use an integrated rate law. (Example 13.5) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | first-order reaction MSC: general chemistry 55. For the hypothetical first-order reaction A → products, k = 0.0839 s–1. If the initial concentration of A is 0.640 M, how long would it take for A to be 66.4% consumed? A) 8.26 s B) 13.0 s C) 11.9 s D) 18.6 s E) 4.88 s ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.4 OBJ: Use an integrated rate law. (Example 13.5) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | first-order reaction MSC: general chemistry 56. For the hypothetical second-order reaction A → products, k = 0.319 M–1 s–1. If the initial concentration of A is 0.834 M, how long would it take for A to be 94.8% consumed? A) 0.206 s B) 3.76 s C) 9.27 s D) 68.5 s E) 0.167 s
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
20
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Use an integrated rate law. (Example 13.5) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | second-order reaction
REF: 13.4
MSC: general chemistry
57. Dinitrogen tetroxide decomposes to form nitrogen dioxide in a second-order reaction: N2O4(g) → 2NO2(g) At 400.0 K, the rate constant for this reaction has been measured to be 2.9 108 L/(mol · s). Suppose 0.222 mol of N2O4(g) is placed in a sealed 41.7-L container at 400.0 K and allowed to react. What is the total pressure inside the vessel after 32.9 ns has elapsed? (R = 0.0821 (L · atm)/(K · mol)) A) 0.183 atm B) 0.175 atm C) 0.166 atm D) 0.524 atm E) 0.350 atm ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Use an integrated rate law. (Example 13.5) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | second-order reaction
REF: 13.4
MSC: general chemistry
58. At 500oC, cyclopropane (C3H6) reacts to form its isomer, propene (C3H6). The reaction is first-order, and the rate constant is 6.7 10–4 s–1. If the initial concentration of cyclopropane is 0.500 M and the initial concentration of propene is 0, determine the time required for the concentration of propene to reach 0.100 M. A) 3.4 103 s B) 3.3 102 s C) 1.2 104 s D) 7.5 102 s E) 2.4 103 s ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 13.4 OBJ: Use an integrated rate law. (Example 13.5) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | first-order reaction MSC: general chemistry 59. A second-order reaction starts with an initial concentration of 0.100 mol/L of the reactant. If the rate constant is 3.6 10–2 L/(mol · s), what is the time required to decrease the initial concentration to 0.050 mol/L? A) 280 s B) 420 s C) 19.3 s D) 1.39 s E) 830 s
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
21
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Use an integrated rate law. (Example 13.5) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | second-order reaction
REF: 13.4
MSC: general chemistry
60. The half-life of a reaction is A) twice as long for a second-order reaction as it is for a first-order reaction. B) one-half of the time the reaction will take to go to completion. C) how long the reaction can run before stopping. D) the time it takes for the amount of product formed to equal half the initial amount of reactant. E) the time it takes for the reactant concentration to decrease to one-half of its initial value. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.4 OBJ: Define half-life of a reaction. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | half-life of a reaction MSC: general chemistry 61. The reaction A → products is first-order in A. If the concentration of A is cut in half, the half-life of the reaction will A) decrease by a factor of 1/2. B) double. C) decrease by a factor of 1/4. D) remain constant. E) quadruple. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.4 OBJ: Define half-life of a reaction. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | half-life of a reaction MSC: general chemistry 62. The reaction 3NO → N2O + NO2 is found to obey the rate law Rate = k[NO]2. If the first half-life of the reaction is found to be 2.0 s, what is the length of the fourth half-life? A) 4.0 s B) 8.0 s C) 2.0 s D) 16.0 s E) 12.0 s ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 13.4 OBJ: Define half-life of a reaction. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | half-life of a reaction MSC: general chemistry 63. For which order reaction is the half-life of the reaction proportional to 1/k (k is the rate constant)? A) second-order reaction only B) first-order reaction only C) zero-order reaction only D) all of the above E) none of the above
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
22
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.4 OBJ: Learn the half-life equations for first-order, second-order, and zero-order reactions. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | half-life of a reaction MSC: general chemistry 64. Which of the following corresponds to the correct equation for the half-life of a first-order reaction? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.4 OBJ: Learn the half-life equations for first-order, second-order, and zero-order reactions. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | half-life of a reaction MSC: general chemistry 65. A first-order chemical reaction is observed to have a rate constant of 25 min–1. What is the corresponding half-life for the reaction? A) 1.7 s B) 1.7 min C) 36 min D) 2.4 s E) 35.8 s ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.4 OBJ: Relate the half-life of a reaction to the rate constant. (Example 13.6) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | half-life MSC: general chemistry 66. In a first-order reaction, the half-life is 137 minutes. What is the rate constant? A) 1.22 10–4 s–1 B) 5790 s–1 C) 0.304 s–1 D) 5.06 10–3 s–1 E) 8.43 10–5 s–1 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.4 OBJ: Relate the half-life of a reaction to the rate constant. (Example 13.6) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | half-life MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
23
67. The OH· radical disproportionates according to the elementary chemical reaction This reaction is second-order in OH·. The rate constant for the reaction is 2.0 10–12 cm3/molecules at room temperature. If the initial OH· concentration is 1.7 1013 molecules/cm3, what is the first half-life for the reaction? A) 3.4 101 s B) 2.9 10–2 s C) 1.5 10–2 s D) 3.5 1011 s E) 5.9 10–14 s ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.4 OBJ: Relate the half-life of a reaction to the rate constant. (Example 13.6) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | half-life of a reaction MSC: general chemistry 68. For a certain reaction of the general form aA → products, a plot of the experimental data as [A] versus time is linear. What is the reaction order with respect to reactant A? A) zero B) first C) second D) fourth E) third ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Plot kinetic data to determine the order of a reaction. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate
REF: 13.4
69. For a certain reaction of the general form aA → products, the experimental data plotted as 1/[A] versus time is linear. The slope of this plot must equal A) –1. B) the rate constant. C) one over the rate constant. D) the negative of the rate constant. E) 1. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Plot kinetic data to determine the order of a reaction. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 13.4
24
70. For the hypothetical reaction A → products, the concentration of A was monitored over time. From the following graph, what is the rate constant for the decomposition of A?
A) –0.02735 s–1 B) 2.3026 s–1 C) –2.3026 s–1 D) 0.02735 s–1 E) 0.01188 s–1 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Plot kinetic data to determine the order of a reaction. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | graphing of kinetic data
REF: 13.4
MSC: general chemistry
71. For the hypothetical reaction aA → products, the experimental data showed the following behavior (below). What is the reaction order with respect to reactant A?
A) first-order B) second-order C) zero-order D) third-order E) fourth-order ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Plot kinetic data to determine the order of a reaction. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 13.4
25
72. For the hypothetical reaction A → products, the concentration of A was monitored with time. From the following graph, what is the rate constant for the decomposition of A?
A) –0.07238 M–1 s–1 B) –10.00 M–1 s–1 C) 0.07238 M–1 s–1 D) 10.00 M–1 s–1 E) 0.007238 M–1 s–1 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Plot kinetic data to determine the order of a reaction. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: integrated rate laws | graphing of kinetic data
REF: 13.4
MSC: general chemistry
73. For the hypothetical reaction aA → products, the concentration of A was monitored with time. Given the following graph of the experimental data, what is the rate constant for the loss of reactant A?
A) 2.42 −min− B) 400.00 −min− C) -2.42 −min− D) -400 −min− E) 24.2 −min− ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Plot kinetic data to determine the order of a reaction. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 13.4
26
74. Which of the following statements best describes the condition(s) needed for a successful formation for a product according to the collision model? A) The relative orientation of the particles has an effect only if the kinetic energy of the particles is below some minimum value. B) The collision must involve a sufficient amount of energy, provided from the motion of the particles, to overcome the activation energy. C) The relative orientation of the particles must allow for formation of the new bonds in the product. D) The energy of the incoming particles must be above a certain minimum value, and the relative orientation of the particles must allow for formation of new bonds in the product. E) The relative orientation of the particles has little or no effect on the formation of the product. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.5 OBJ: State the postulates of collision theory. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: collision theory MSC: general chemistry 75. Which of the following changes will affect the rate constant of a reaction? 1. 2. 3.
Increasing or decreasing the reaction temperature. Adding a catalyst. Increasing or decreasing the reactant concentrations.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: State the postulates of collision theory. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate
easy
REF: 13.5
76. Which of the following changes will affect the activation energy of a reaction? 1. 2. 3.
Increasing or decreasing the reaction temperature. Adding a catalyst. Increasing or decreasing the reactant concentrations.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 2 and 3 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: Explain activation energy (Ea).
Test Bank
DIF: easy REF: 13.5 TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate
General Chemistry, 10th edition
27
77. What would happen if the kinetic energy of the reactants were not enough to provide the needed activation energy? A) The rate of the reaction would tend to increase. B) The reactants would continue to exist in their present form. C) The activated complex would be converted into products. D) The products would be produced at a lower energy state. E) The products would form at an unstable energy state. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.5 OBJ: Explain activation energy (Ea). TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: collision theory | activation energy MSC: general chemistry 78. The main reason for the increase in reaction rate with temperature is that A) the fraction of high-energy molecules increases exponentially with temperature. B) the activation energy increases rapidly with temperature. C) a 10°C temperature rise results in the rate doubling. D) there is a dramatic increase in the number of collisions. E) heat acts as a catalyst. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.5 OBJ: Describe how temperature, activation energy, and molecular orientation influence reaction rates. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: collision theory MSC: general chemistry 79. When the concentrations of the reactants are increased, the rate of the reaction increases. This is best explained by A) an increase in the fraction of molecules that have enough energy to react. B) an increase in the rate constant. C) an increase in the average potential energy of the molecules. D) an increase in the frequency of the molecular collisions. E) an increase in the kinetic energy of the molecules. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.5 OBJ: Describe how temperature, activation energy, and molecular orientation influence reaction rates. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: collision theory MSC: general chemistry 80. The rates of most chemical reactions are sensitive to a change in the temperature of the reaction system. The increase in rate as the temperature increases is best explained by A) an increase in the collision frequency. B) an increase in the number of high-energy molecules. C) a decrease in the collision frequency. D) an increase in the activation energy. E) a decrease in the activation energy. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.5 OBJ: Describe how temperature, activation energy, and molecular orientation influence reaction rates. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: collision theory | activation energy MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
28
81. The potential-energy diagram below describes the hypothetical reaction A + B → C + D. Assuming the y-axis label refers to the enthalpy(H) per mol, which of the following statements concerning this reaction coordinate is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
The forward reaction is exothermic. The forward reaction rate is proportional to the change in enthalpy (H) of the forward reaction. Ea(forward) − Ea(reverse) is equal to the change in enthalpy (H) of the forward reaction.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.5 OBJ: Describe and interpret potential-energy curves for endothermic and exothermic reactions. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate 82. Which of the following is not a postulate of collision theory? A) Reactant molecules must collide to react. B) Reactant molecules must collide with a certain minimum energy in order to form products. C) Reactant molecules must collide with the correct orientation in order to form products. D) The rate constant is directly proportional to the energy of activation. E) The maximum in the potential energy curve, the activation energy, is determined by the structure of the activated complex or transition state. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.5 OBJ: Describe and interpret potential-energy curves for endothermic and exothermic reactions. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
29
83. For the formation of 1 mol of nitrosyl chloride at a given temperature, H = –44 kJ. NO(g) + ½ Cl2(g) → NOCl(g) The activation energy for this reaction is 59 kJ/mol. What is the activation energy for the reverse reaction? A) 59 kJ/mol B) 15 kJ/mol C) 103 kJ/mol D) –44 kJ/mol E) –103 kJ/mol ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.5 OBJ: Describe and interpret potential-energy curves for endothermic and exothermic reactions. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: collision theory | activation energy MSC: general chemistry 84. For the following reaction producing 1 mol of oxygen gas at a particular temperature, H = –200 kJ. NO(g) + O3(g) → NO2(g) + O2(g) The activation energy is 11 kJ/mol. What is the activation energy for the reverse reaction? A) 11 kJ/mol B) 200 kJ/mol C) 222 kJ/mol D) 188 kJ/mol E) 211 kJ/mol ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.5 OBJ: Describe and interpret potential-energy curves for endothermic and exothermic reactions. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: collision theory | activation energy MSC: general chemistry 85. For the first-order reaction ½ N2O4(g) → NO2(g); H = 28.6 kJ the activation energy is 53.7 kJ/mol. What is the activation energy for the reverse reaction? A) 15.2 kJ/mol B) 82.3 kJ/mol C) –53.7 kJ/mol D) 25.1 kJ/mol E) 53.7 kJ/mol ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.5 OBJ: Describe and interpret potential-energy curves for endothermic and exothermic reactions. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: collision theory MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
30
86. The rate constant for a first-order reaction is 1.6 10–2 s–1 at 668 K and 5.1 10–2 s–1 at 916 K. What is the activation energy? (R = 8.31 J/(mol · K)) A) 11 kJ/mol B) 14 kJ/mol C) 23 kJ/mol D) 2900 kJ/mol E) 24 kJ/mol ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.6 OBJ: Use the Arrhenius equation. (Example 13.7) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: Arrhenius equation MSC: general chemistry 87. The rate constants for the first-order decomposition of a compound are 6.19 10–4 s–1 at 43°C and 2.71 10–3 s–1 at 65°C. What is the value of the activation energy for this reaction? (R = 8.31 J/(mol · K)) A) 0.677 kJ/mol B) 25.9 kJ/mol C) 0.558 kJ/mol D) 59.6 kJ/mol E) 1.56 kJ/mol ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.6 OBJ: Use the Arrhenius equation. (Example 13.7) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: Arrhenius equation MSC: general chemistry 88. For the first-order reaction ½ N2O4(g) → NO2(g); H = 28.6 kJ the rate constant is k = 9.29 104 s–1 at –20°C, and the activation energy is 53.7 kJ/mol. What is the rate constant at 21°C? A) 1.08 105 s–1 B) 9.29 104 s–1 C) 1.74 105 s–1 D) 3.27 106 s–1 E) 4.94 104 s–1 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.6 OBJ: Use the Arrhenius equation. (Example 13.7) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: Arrhenius equation MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
31
89. The Arrhenius equation, expresses the dependence of the rate constant on the reaction temperature. The slope of a plot of ln(k) versus 1/T is equal to A) B) C) D) E) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Use the Arrhenius equation. (Example 13.7) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate
REF: 13.6
90. The rate constant for a reaction at 40.0°C is exactly 2 times that at 20.0°C. Calculate the Arrhenius energy of activation for the reaction. A) 2.00 kJ/mol B) 3.18 kJ/mol C) 26.4 kJ/mol D) 5.8 kJ/mol E) none of these ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.6 OBJ: Use the Arrhenius equation. (Example 13.7) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction rate KEY: Arrhenius equation MSC: general chemistry 91. Which of the following statements is not a requirement for a valid reaction mechanism? A) Each elementary reaction must be bimolecular. B) There must not be net production of any intermediates. C) The elementary reactions of a mechanism must add up to the net chemical reaction. D) A mechanism must have only one rate-determining step. E) The rate law predicted by a mechanism must agree with the experimental rate law. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.7 OBJ: Define elementary reaction, reaction mechanism, and reaction intermediate. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: elementary reaction MSC: general chemistry 92. The decomposition of ozone may occur through the two-step mechanism shown below: step 1 step 2
Test Bank
O3 → O2 + O O3 + O → 2O2
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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The oxygen atom is considered to be a(n) A) activated complex. B) catalyst. C) reaction intermediate. D) product. E) reactant. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.7 OBJ: Define elementary reaction, reaction mechanism, and reaction intermediate. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: elementary reaction MSC: general chemistry 93. A proposed mechanism for the decomposition of N2O5 is as follows: N2O5
slow step
NO2 + NO3
NO2 + NO3
NO2 + O2 + NO
NO + N2O5
3NO2
fast step fast step
What is the overall chemical equation predicted by this mechanism? A) N2O5 + NO2 + NO3 → 4NO2 + O2 B) N2O5 + NO → 3NO2 C) 2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2 D) N2O5 → NO2 + NO3 E) N2O5 → NO2 + O2 + NO ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.7 OBJ: Write the overall chemical equation from a mechanism. (Example 13.8) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism MSC: general chemistry 94. A possible mechanism for the gas phase reaction of NO and H2 is as follows: Step 1 Step 2 Step 3
2NO
N2O2
N2O2 + H2
N2O + H2O
N2O + H2
N2 + H2O
Which of the following statements concerning this mechanism is not directly supported by the information provided? A) Step 1 is the rate determining step. B) N2O2 is an intermediate. C) There is no catalyst in this reaction. D) The rate expression for step 1 is rate = k[NO]2. E) All steps are bimolecular reactions. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.7 OBJ: Write the overall chemical equation from a mechanism. (Example 13.8) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
33
95. Determine the molecularity of the following elementary reaction: O3 → O2 + O. A) quadmolecular B) bimolecular C) unimolecular D) termolecular E) cannot be determined ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.7 OBJ: Give examples of unimolecular, bimolecular, and termolecular reactions. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: elementary reaction | molecularity MSC: general chemistry 96. For the elementary reaction A + B → C + D, what is the predicted rate law? A) Rate = k[A]2 B) Rate = k[A][B] C) Rate = k D) Rate = k[B]2 E) Rate = k[A]/[C] ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.7 OBJ: Write the rate equation for an elementary reaction. (Example 13.10) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: elementary reaction | rate equation for an elementary reaction MSC: general chemistry 97. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) The slow step in a mechanism generally involves a three-body collision. B) After the addition of a catalyst, the collision rate between molecules is still the same. C) Most collisions between reactant molecules do not lead to a product. D) Chemical reactions involve collisions between the participating molecules. E) A three-body collision is less likely than a two-body collision. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Explain the rate-determining step of a mechanism. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: the rate law and the mechanism | rate determining step
REF: 13.8
MSC: general chemistry
98. A proposed mechanism for the decomposition of N2O5 is as follows: N2O5
slow step
NO2 + NO3
NO2 + NO3
NO2 + O2 + NO
NO + N2O5
3NO2
Test Bank
fast step fast step
General Chemistry, 10th edition
34
What is the rate law predicted by this mechanism? A) Rate = k1k2[N2O5][NO2][NO3] B) Rate = k2[NO2][NO3] C) Rate = k3[NO][N2O5] D) Rate = k1k2k3[N2O5]2 E) Rate = k1[N2O5] ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.8 OBJ: Determine the rate law from a mechanism with an initial slow step. (Example 13.11) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: the rate law and the mechanism MSC: general chemistry 99. The complete mechanism for a reaction is considered to occur in two steps, one of which is slow and the other fast: A + 2B → C + D A+C→E+F
slow fast
What is the rate law predicted by this mechanism? A) Rate = k[A]2[B] B) Rate = k[A]2[B][C] C) Rate = k[A][C] D) Rate = k[A][B][C] E) Rate = k[A][B]2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.8 OBJ: Determine the rate law from a mechanism with an initial slow step. (Example 13.11) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: the rate law and the mechanism | rate determining step MSC: general chemistry 100. The complete mechanism for a reaction is considered to occur in two steps, one of which is slow and the other fast: A+B→C+D A+C→E+F
slow fast
What is the net chemical equation predicted by this mechanism? A) 2A + B → D + E + F B) A + C → E + F C) A + B → D + E + F D) A + B → C + D E) A + B + C → D + E + F ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.8 OBJ: Determine the rate law from a mechanism with an initial slow step. (Example 13.11) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: the rate law and the mechanism MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
35
101. Below is a proposed mechanism for the decomposition of H2O2. H2O2 + I– → H2O + IO– H2O2 + IO– → H2O + O2 + I–
slow fast
Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) IO– is a catalyst. B) I– is a catalyst. C) The net reaction is 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2. D) The reaction is first-order with respect to [I–]. E) The reaction is first-order with respect to [H2O2]. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.8 OBJ: Determine the rate law from a mechanism with an initial slow step. (Example 13.11) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: the rate law and the mechanism | rate determining step MSC: general chemistry 102. The acid-catalyzed reaction of acetone, CH3COCH3, with iodine can be represented by the equation CH3COCH3 + I2
CH2ICOCH3 + H+ + I–
It is found experimentally that the reaction is first-order with respect to both acetone and the hydrogen ion. The rate of the reaction is independent of the iodine concentration. Which of the following conclusions could be drawn from the experimental results? 1. 2. 3.
The uncatalyzed reaction would have a different pathway. Iodine is involved in the rate-determining step. The reaction takes place stepwise.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.8 OBJ: Determine the rate law from a mechanism with an initial slow step. (Example 13.11) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: the rate law and the mechanism | rate determining step MSC: general chemistry 103. The following mechanism has been suggested for the reaction between nitrogen monoxide and oxygen: NO(g) + NO(g) → N2O2(g) (slow) N2O2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g) (fast)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
36
According to this mechanism, the experimental rate law is A) second-order in NO and first-order in O2. B) second-order in NO and zero-order in O2. C) first-order in NO and first-order in O2. D) first-order in NO and second-order in O2. E) first-order in NO and zero-order in O2. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.8 OBJ: Determine the rate law from a mechanism with an initial slow step. (Example 13.11) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: the rate law and the mechanism MSC: general chemistry 104. A mechanism that explains the rate law, Rate = k[(CH3)3CO2C(CH3)3], for the gas-phase thermal decomposition of di-tert-butyl peroxide is given below.
For this proposed mechanism, the rate-determining step(s) must be A) step 1. B) step 3. C) step 2. D) step 1 + step 2 + step 3. E) 2 times step 2. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.8 OBJ: Determine the rate law from a mechanism with an initial slow step. (Example 13.11) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: the rate law and the mechanism | rate determining step MSC: general chemistry 105. The reaction CHCl3(g) + Cl2(g) following mechanism. Cl2
2Cl
CHCl3 + Cl CCl3 + Cl
CCl4(g) + HCl(g) has been proposed to occur by the
fast equilibrium HCl + CCl3 CCl4
slow step fast
What is the rate law predicted by this mechanism? A) Rate = kexp[CHCl3][Cl2] B) Rate = k2[CHCl3][Cl] C) Rate = k1[Cl2] D) Rate = k3[CCl3][Cl] E) Rate = k2(k1/k-1)1/2[CHCl3][Cl2]1/2 Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
37
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.8 OBJ: Determine the rate law from a mechanism with an initial fast, equilibrium step. (Example 13.12) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: the rate law and the mechanism MSC: general chemistry 106. Given the following fast equilibrium (below) proposed for the gas phase reaction between NO and O2, what is the expression for the equilibrium concentration of the intermediate NO3? NO + O2
NO3
A) B) C) D) E) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.8 OBJ: Determine the rate law from a mechanism with an initial fast, equilibrium step. (Example 13.12) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism 107. One mechanism for the depletion of ozone in the stratosphere is proposed as follows: Cl + O3 → ClO + O2 ClO + O → Cl + O2 Identify any catalysts and intermediates in the reaction. A) Cl is a catalyst, there are no intermediates B) O is an intermediate, ClO is a catalyst C) O2 is a catalyst, O is an intermediate D) ClO is a catalyst, there are no intermediates E) Cl is a catalyst, ClO is an intermediate ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.8 OBJ: Determine the rate law from a mechanism with an initial fast, equilibrium step. (Example 13.12) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism 108. A suggested mechanism for the decomposition of ozone is as follows: O3
O2 + O
O + O3
Test Bank
2O2
fast equilibrium slow step
General Chemistry, 10th edition
38
What is the rate law predicted by this mechanism? A) Rate = B) Rate = k2[O] [O3] C) Rate = D) Rate = E) Rate = ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.8 OBJ: Determine the rate law from a mechanism with an initial fast, equilibrium step. (Example 13.12) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: the rate law and the mechanism MSC: general chemistry 109. The rate law for a reaction is found to be Rate = k[A]2[B]. Which of the following mechanisms gives this rate law? I. A + B E (fast) E + B → C + D (slow) II. A + B E (fast) E + A → C + D (slow) III. A + A → E (slow). E + B → C + D (fast) A) II only B) III only C) I only D) two of these E) none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 13.8 OBJ: Determine the rate law from a mechanism with an initial fast, equilibrium step. (Example 13.12) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: the rate law and the mechanism MSC: general chemistry 110. A suggested mechanism for the decomposition of ozone is O3
O2 + O
O + O3
Test Bank
2O2
fast equilibrium slow step
General Chemistry, 10th edition
39
When the concentration of ozone is doubled and the concentration of oxygen is doubled, the instantaneous rate A) increases by a factor of 8. B) remains the same. C) increases by a factor of 4. D) decreases. E) increases by a factor of 2. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 13.8 OBJ: Determine the rate law from a mechanism with an initial fast, equilibrium step. (Example 13.12) TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: the rate law and the mechanism MSC: general chemistry 111. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning a catalyst? A) A catalyst decreases the activation energy of a reaction. B) A catalyst may appear in the rate law for a reaction. C) A catalyst alters the equilibrium distribution of reactants and products. D) There is no net consumption of a catalyst in a reaction. E) A catalyst provides an alternative reaction mechanism. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe how a catalyst influences the rate of a reaction. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism MSC: general chemistry
REF: 13.9 KEY: catalysis
112. The catalyzed pathway in a reaction mechanism has a __________ activation energy and thus causes a __________ reaction rate. A) higher, lower B) higher, higher C) higher, steady D) lower, higher E) lower, steady ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe how a catalyst influences the rate of a reaction. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism MSC: general chemistry
REF: 13.9 KEY: catalysis
113. In a chemical reaction at constant temperature, the addition of a catalyst A) provides an alternative reaction pathway with a different activation energy. B) increases the concentration of the products at equilibrium. C) affects the equilibrium constant. D) increases the fraction of molecules with more than a given kinetic energy. E) decreases the energy released in the chemical reaction. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.9 OBJ: Indicate how a catalyst changes the potential–energy curve of a reaction. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: catalysis MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
40
114. Which of the following reactions is not an example of homogeneous catalysis? A) 2O3(g) 3O2(g) B) S2O82–(aq) + 2I–(aq) 2SO42–(aq) + I2(aq) C) 2H2O2(aq) 2H2O(l) + O2(g) D) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) E) CH3CO2CH3(aq) + H2O(l) CH3CO2H(aq) + CH3OH(aq) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.9 OBJ: Define homogeneous catalysis and heterogeneous catalysis. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: catalysis | homogeneous catalysis MSC: general chemistry 115. Which of the following reactions is not an example of heterogeneous catalysis? A) CO(g) + 3H2(g) CH4(g) + H2O(g) B) C2H4(g) + H2(g) C2H6(g) C) 2CO(g) + 2NO(g) 2CO2(g) + N2(g) D) 2O3(g) 3O2(g) E) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 13.9 OBJ: Define homogeneous catalysis and heterogeneous catalysis. TOP: rates of reaction | reaction mechanism KEY: catalysis | heterogeneous catalysis MSC: general chemistry 116. How many mechanistic steps are depicted by in this potential energy diagram for the decomposition of cyclobutane to ethylene?
A) two steps B) one step C) three steps D) four steps E) five steps ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Understand a potential energy diagram. Test Bank
easy
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 13.9 41
Chapter 14 - Chemical Equilibrium 1. Which of the following statements is true in a reaction system at equilibrium? A) The equilibrium constant is zero. B) The number of collisions per unit time between reactants is equal to the number of collisions per unit time between products. C) Reactants are reacting to form products at the same rate as products are reacting to form reactants. D) Reactants and products are present in equimolar amounts. E) The product of the concentrations of the products divided by the product of the concentrations of the reactants is always a constant. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.1 OBJ: Define dynamic equilibrium and chemical equilibrium. TOP: chemical equilibrium MSC: general chemistry 2. When gaseous carbon monoxide and hydrogen are combined in a sealed vessel and heated they will eventually form an equilbrium mixture of reactants and products according to the balanced chemical equilibrium below. CO(g) + 3H2(g)
CH4(g) + H2O(g)
In one such reaction 3 moles of one reactant were combined with 1 mole of the other reactant in a fixed volume vessel and heated to 1200 K. Analysis of the reaction mixture at various times gave the results below. Which component of the reaction mixture is represented by curve B?
A) carbon monoxide B) either methane or water C) hydrogen D) either hydrogen or carbon monoxide E) not enough information to decide ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define dynamic equilibrium and chemical equilibrium. TOP: chemical equilibrium Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 14.1
1
3. Which of the following represents a dynamic equilibrium? A) a stoppered flask half full of water B) a coin spinning in mid-air C) two people of equal mass balanced on the ends of a seesaw D) an open pan of boiling water E) an object traveling at a constant speed ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.1 OBJ: Define dynamic equilibrium and chemical equilibrium. TOP: chemical equilibrium MSC: general chemistry 4. Which of the following is/are true concerning a chemical reaction at equilibrium? 1. 2. 3.
The system will be a mixture of reactant and products. The rate of the forward and reverse reactions are equal. The amount of each reactant and product is constant.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define dynamic equilibrium and chemical equilibrium. TOP: chemical equilibrium
REF: 14.1
5. A 15.00-L vessel at 700 K initially contains HI(g) at a pressure of 4.00 atm; at equilibrium, it is found that the partial pressure of H2(g) is 0.387 atm. What is the partial pressure of HI(g) at equilibrium? 2HI(g)
H2(g) + I2(g)
A) 4.00 atm B) 3.61 atm C) 3.23 atm D) 4.39 atm E) 0.387 atm ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.1 OBJ: Apply stoichiometry to an equilibrium mixture. (Example 14.1) TOP: chemical equilibrium MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
2
6. Sulfur dioxide combines with O2 in the presence of a catalyst as represented by the equation 2SO2(g) + O2(g)
2SO3(g)
Suppose 0.10 mol of SO2 and 0.10 mol of O2 are added to a 1-L vessel. At equilibrium, which of the following conditions must be true? A) [O2] = 2[SO3] B) [SO2] = [O2] C) [SO2] > [O2] D) [SO2] < [O2] E) [SO2] = [O2] = [SO3] ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.1 OBJ: Apply stoichiometry to an equilibrium mixture. (Example 14.1) TOP: chemical equilibrium MSC: general chemistry 7. The Ostwald process converts ammonia (NH3) to nitric oxide (NO) by reaction with oxygen in the presence of a catalyst at high temperatures. In a test of the process a reaction vessel is initially charged with 3.90 mol NH3(g) and 4.90 mol O2(g), sealed, and heated at a fixed high temperature. When equilibrium is established the reaction mixture is analyzed and found to contain 2.90 mol NO(g). What is the quantity of NH3(g) in the equilibrium reaction mixture? 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)
4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
A) 1.00 mol NH3(g) B) 6.80 mol NH3(g) C) 3.90 mol NH3(g) D) 1.28 mol NH3(g) E) 2.00 mol NH3(g) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.1 OBJ: Apply stoichiometry to an equilibrium mixture. (Example 14.1) TOP: chemical equilibrium 8. The following reaction is investigated (assume an ideal gas mixture): 2N2O(g) + N2H4(g)
3N2(g) + 2H2O(g)
Initially there are 0.100 mol of N2O and 0.25 mol of N2H4, in a 10.0-L container. If there are 0.062 mol of N2O at equilibrium, how many moles of N2 are present at equilibrium? A) 3.8 10–2 B) 1.1 10–1 C) 5.7 10–2 D) 1.9 10–2 E) none of these ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.1 OBJ: Apply stoichiometry to an equilibrium mixture. (Example 14.1) TOP: chemical equilibrium MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
3
9. Apply the law of mass action to obtain the equilibrium-constant expression for the following reaction: 2X(g) + Y(g) 3W(g) + V(g) 2 3 A) [X] [Y][W] [V] B)
C) D)
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State the law of mass action. TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: definition of equilibrium constant Kc
REF: 14.2
MSC: general chemistry
10. Which of the following can we predict from an equilibrium constant for a reaction? 1. The extent of a reaction 2. Whether the reaction is fast or slow 3. Whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic A) 1 only B) 3 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1 and 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.2 OBJ: Define equilibrium-constant expression and equilibrium constant. TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: definition of equilibrium constant Kc MSC: general chemistry 11. What is the expression for Kc for the following equilibrium? CaCO3(s)
CaO(s) + CO2(g)
A) B) C)
D)
E)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
4
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Write equilibrium-constant expressions. (Example 14.2) TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: definition of equilibrium constant Kc
REF: 14.3
MSC: general chemistry
12. The reaction of a mixture of SO2 and O2 at a given temperature is represented by the equation 2SO2(g) + O2(g)
2SO3(g)
When equilibrium is established, which of the following ratios is constant regardless of the initial concentrations of SO2 and O2? A) B) C) D) E)
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Write equilibrium-constant expressions. (Example 14.2) TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: definition of equilibrium constant Kc
REF: 14.2
MSC: general chemistry
13. What is the balanced equation for the following equilibrium expression?
A) 6SO2(g) + 3O2(g) 6SO3(g) B) 6SO3(g) 6SO2(g) + 3O2(g) C) 6SO3(aq) 6SO2(aq) + 3O2(aq) D) 6SO2(aq) + 3O2(aq) 6SO3(aq) E) SO2(g) + O2(g) SO3(g) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Write equilibrium-constant expressions. (Example 14.2) TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 14.2
5
14. What balanced equation is the following equilibrium expression derived from?
1 2 A) 1 H (g) + I2(g) HI(g) 3 2 3 3 1 1 B) 2 HI(g) H (g) + I2(g) 3 3 2 3 1 2 C) 1 H (aq) + I2(aq) HI(aq) 3 2 3 3 1 1 D) 2 HI(aq) H (aq) + I2(aq) 3 3 2 3 E) 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Write equilibrium-constant expressions. (Example 14.2) TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant
REF: 14.2
15. Which of the following correctly describes the equilibrium constant for the gas-phase reaction between H2 and O2 to form gaseous H2O? A) Kc = B)
Kc =
C) Kc = [H2O] D) Kc = E) Kc = ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Write equilibrium-constant expressions. (Example 14.2) TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: definition of equilibrium constant Kc
REF: 14.2
MSC: general chemistry
16. Which expression correctly describes the equilibrium constant Kc for the following reaction? 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)
4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
A)
B)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
6
C)
D)
E)
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Write equilibrium-constant expressions. (Example 14.2) TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: definition of equilibrium constant Kc
REF: 14.2
MSC: general chemistry
17. Nitrogen trifluoride decomposes to form nitrogen and fluorine gases according to the following equation: 2NF3(g)
N2(g) + 3F2(g)
When 2.12 mol of NF3 is placed in a 5.00-L container and allowed to come to equilibrium at 800 K, the mixture is found to contain 0.0362 mol of N2. What is the value of Kp at this temperature? (R = 0.0821 Latmmol-1K-1) A) 1.07 10–5 B) 1.91 10–3 C) 1.78 10–3 D) 1.11 10–5 E) 4.43 10–7 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.2 OBJ: Obtain an equilibrium constant from reaction composition. (Example 14.3) TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: the equilibrium constant Kp MSC: general chemistry 18. For the reaction Br2(g) + Cl2(g) 2BrCl(g), at equilibrium, it is found that the concentrations of Br2, Cl2, and BrCl are 0.398 M, 0.351 M, and 2.05 10–3 M, respectively. What is the value of Kc? A) 3.01 10–5 B) 1.20 10–4 C) 1.47 10–2 D) 6.81 101 E) 3.32 104 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.2 OBJ: Obtain an equilibrium constant from reaction composition. (Example 14.3) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: calculating equilibrium concentrations MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
7
19. A sample of ammonia gas was allowed to come to equilibrium at 400 K. 2NH3(g)
N2(g) + 3H2(g)
At equilibrium, it was found that the concentration of H2 was 0.0591 M, the concentration of N2 was 0.0197 M, and the concentration of NH3 was 0.441 M. What is Kc for this equilibrium? A) 3.97 10–3 B) 1.58 10–5 C) 2.10 10–5 D) 2.24 10–1 E) 2.65 10–3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.2 OBJ: Obtain an equilibrium constant from reaction composition. (Example 14.3) TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: definition of equilibrium constant Kc MSC: general chemistry 20. A 4.50-mol sample of HI is placed in a 1.00-L vessel at 460°C, and the reaction system is allowed to come to equilibrium. The HI partially decomposes, forming 0.343 mol H2 and 0.343 mol I2 at equilibrium. What is the equilibrium constant Kc for the following reaction at 460°C? ½ H2(g) + ½ I2(g)
HI(g)
A) 1.23 102 B) 8.10 10–3 C) 3.09 10–2 D) 11.1 E) 5.69 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.2 OBJ: Obtain an equilibrium constant from reaction composition. (Example 14.3) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: calculating equilibrium concentrations MSC: general chemistry 21. At 400 K, an equilibrium mixture of H2, I2, and HI consists of 0.065 mol H2, 0.079 mol I2, and 0.13 mol HI in a 4.50-L flask. What is the value of Kp for the following equilibrium? (R = 0.0821 L · atm/(K · mol)) 2HI(g)
H2(g) + I2(g)
A) 0.29 B) 8.2 C) 0.039 D) 26 E) 3.4 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.2 OBJ: Obtain an equilibrium constant from reaction composition. (Example 14.3) TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: the equilibrium constant Kp MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
8
22. A sample of ammonia gas was allowed to come to equilibrium at 400 K. 2NH3(g)
N2(g) + 3H2(g)
At equilibrium, it was found that the concentration of H2 was 0.0367 M, the concentration of N2 was 0.0122 M, and the concentration of NH3 was 0.170 M. What was the initial concentration of ammonia? A) 0.122 M B) 0.146 M C) 0.218 M D) 0.182 M E) 0.194 M ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.2 OBJ: Obtain an equilibrium constant from reaction composition. (Example 14.3) TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: definition of equilibrium constant Kc MSC: general chemistry 23. A sample of ammonia gas was allowed to come to equilibrium at 400 K. 2NH3(g)
N2(g) + 3H2(g)
At equilibrium, it was found that the concentration of H2 was 0.0283 M, the concentration of N2 was 0.00944 M, and the concentration of NH3 was 0.101 M. What is Kp for this equilibrium? (R = 0.0821 L · atm/(K · mol)) A) 4.28 B) 2.85 C) 1.70 10–2 D) 1.95 10–8 E) 2.26 10–2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.2 OBJ: Obtain an equilibrium constant from reaction composition. (Example 14.3) TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: the equilibrium constant Kp MSC: general chemistry 24. For which of the following reactions are the numerical values of Kp and Kc the same? 1. 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2. N2(g) + O2(g) 3. H2(g) + I2(g)
2SO3(g) 2NO(g) 2HI(g)
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 2 D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.2 OBJ: Describe the equilibrium constant Kp; indicate how Kp and Kc are related. TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
9
25. For the reaction 2NO(g) + O2(g) Kc and Kp? A) Kc = Kp B) K = K (RT)–1 c p C) Kc = Kp = 1.0 D) K = K (RT)¾ c p E) K = K (RT)1 c p
2NO2(g) at 750°C, what is the relationship between
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.2 OBJ: Describe the equilibrium constant Kp; indicate how Kp and Kc are related. TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant MSC: general chemistry 26. For which of the following equilibria does Kc = Kp? A) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) B) CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g) C) CO(g) + 3H2(g) CH4(g) + H2O(g) D) CaO(s) + CO2(g) CaCO3(s) E) HBr(g) ½H2(g) + ½Br2(l) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.2 OBJ: Describe the equilibrium constant Kp; indicate how Kp and Kc are related. TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: the equilibrium constant Kp MSC: general chemistry 27. If Kc = 0.145 for A2 + 2B 4AB
2AB, what is the value of Kc for the reaction
2A2 + 4B?
A) 0.145 B) 0.290 C) 47.6 D) –0.145 E) 3.45 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.2 OBJ: Obtain Kc for a reaction that can be written as a sum of other reactions of known Kc values. TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: equilibrium constant for the sum of reactions MSC: general chemistry 28. Consider the following equilibrium: ½N2O4(g)
NO2(g); Kc = 3.3 at 100°C
For which of the following equilibria is Kc less than 3.3 at 100°C? A) ¼N2O4(g) ½NO2(g) B) N2O4(g) 2NO2(g) C) 4N2O4(g) 8NO2(g) D) 3N2O4(g) 6NO2(g) E) 2N2O4(g) 4NO2(g) Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
10
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.2 OBJ: Obtain Kc for a reaction that can be written as a sum of other reactions of known Kc values. TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: equilibrium constant for the sum of reactions MSC: general chemistry 29. Carbon tetrachloride may react with oxygen to produce chlorine and carbonyl chloride. 2CCl4(g) + O2(g)
2COCl2(g) + 2Cl2(g);
Kc = 9.9 1051
What is Kc for the following equilibrium? COCl2(g) + Cl2(g)
CCl4(g) + ½O2(g)
A) 9.9 10–51 B) 5.0 10–53 C) 1.0 10–26 D) 1.0 10–52 E) –9.9 1051 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.2 OBJ: Obtain Kc for a reaction that can be written as a sum of other reactions of known Kc values. TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: equilibrium constant for the sum of reactions MSC: general chemistry 30. At 298 K, the value of Kc for the reaction H2(g) + Br2(g) is Kc for HBr(g) ½H2(g) + ½Br2(g)?
2HBr(g) is 2.0 1019. What
A) 4.0 10–38 B) 5.0 10–20 C) 1.0 1019 D) –2.0 1019 E) 2.2 10–10 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.2 OBJ: Obtain Kc for a reaction that can be written as a sum of other reactions of known Kc values. TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: equilibrium constant for the sum of reactions MSC: general chemistry 31. Given the equilibrium constants for the following reactions: 4Cu(s) + O2(g) 2CuO(s)
2Cu2O(s); K1 Cu2O(s) + ½ O2(g); K2
What is K for the system 2Cu(s) + O2(g)
Test Bank
2CuO(s)
General Chemistry, 10th edition
11
equivalent to? A) (K2)2/(K1) B) K1 K2 C) (K1)(K2)½ D) (K2)½/(K1) E) (K1)½/(K2) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.2 OBJ: Obtain Kc for a reaction that can be written as a sum of other reactions of known Kc values. TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: equilibrium constant for the sum of reactions MSC: general chemistry 32. Given the equilibrium constants for the equilibria, 2NH4+(aq) + 2H2O(l)
2NH3(aq) + 2H3O+(aq); Kc = 3.24 10 −19 CH3COO−(aq) + H3O+(aq); Kc = 1.75 10 −5
CH3COOH(aq) + H2O(l)
determine Kc for the following equilibrium. CH3COO−(aq) + NH4+(aq)
CH3COOH(aq) + NH3(aq) A) 3.08 104 B) 3.25 10-5 C) 9.96 10-15 D) 1.00 1014 E) 1.75 10-5
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.2 OBJ: Obtain Kc for a reaction that can be written as a sum of other reactions of known Kc values. TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant 33. Determine Kc for reaction 3, given that reactions 1-3 may be rearranged and summed to give reaction 4. NH4+(aq) + OH−(aq); Kc = 1.76 x10-5
1.
NH3(aq) + H2O(l)
2.
CH3COOH(aq) + H2O(l)
3.
4H2O(l)
4.
CH3COOH(aq) + NH3(aq)
CH3COO−(aq) + H3O+(aq); Kc = 1.75 x10-5
2OH−(aq) + 2H3O+(aq); Kc = ? CH3COO−(aq) + NH4+(aq); Kc = 3.08 x104
A) 9.36 10 −20 B) 1.10 10 10 C) 9.01 10 −11 D) 1.00 10 −28 E) 1.01 10 14
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
12
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.2 OBJ: Obtain Kc for a reaction that can be written as a sum of other reactions of known Kc values. TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant 34. What is the Kp equilibrium-constant expression for the following equilibrium? Ti(s) + 2Cl2(g)
TiCl4(l)
A) B) C)
D) E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.3 OBJ: Write Kc for a reaction with pure solids or liquids. (Example 14.4) TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: heterogeneous and homogeneous equilibria MSC: general chemistry 35. What is the Kc equilibrium-constant expression for the following equilibrium? S8(s) + 24F2(g)
8SF6(g)
A) B) C) D) E)
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.3 OBJ: Write Kc for a reaction with pure solids or liquids. (Example 14.4) TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: heterogeneous and homogeneous equilibria MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
13
36. What is the Kp equilibrium-constant expression for the following equilibrium? S8(s) + 24F2(g)
8SF6(g)
A) B) C) D) E)
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.3 OBJ: Write Kc for a reaction with pure solids or liquids. (Example 14.4) TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: heterogeneous and homogeneous equilibria MSC: general chemistry 37. What is the Kc equilibrium-constant expression for the following equilibrium? FeO(s) + H2(g)
Fe(s) + H2O(g)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.3 OBJ: Write Kc for a reaction with pure solids or liquids. (Example 14.4) TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant KEY: heterogeneous and homogeneous equilibria MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
14
38. What is the Kc expression for the following equilibrium? TlCl(s)
Tl+(aq) + Cl−(aq)
A) B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.3 OBJ: Write Kc for a reaction with pure solids or liquids. (Example 14.4) TOP: chemical equilibrium | equilibrium constant 39. Consider the following equilibrium: O2(g) + 2F2(g)
2OF2(g); Kp = 2.3 10–15
Which of the following statements is true? A) If the reaction mixture initially contains only OF2(g), then at equilibrium, the reaction mixture will consist of essentially only O2(g) and F2(g). B) For this equilibrium, Kc = Kp. C) If the reaction mixture initially contains only OF2(g), then the total pressure at equilibrium will be less than the total initial pressure. D) If the reaction mixture initially contains only O2(g) and F2(g), then at equilibrium, the reaction mixture will consist of essentially only OF2(g). E) If the reaction mixture initially contains only O2(g) and F2(g), then the total pressure at equilibrium will be greater than the total initial pressure. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.4 OBJ: Give a qualitative interpretation of the equilibrium constant based on its value. TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: qualitatively interpreting the equilibrium constant MSC: general chemistry 40. For which of the following values of the equilibrium constant does the reaction mixture contain mostly reactants? A) 10 B) 10 C) 10− D) 10–1 E) 10
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
15
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.4 OBJ: Give a qualitative interpretation of the equilibrium constant based on its value. TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant 41. For which of the following reactions will the reactant experience the largest degree of decomposition upon reaching equilibrium at 500 K? A) 2NO2F(g) 2NO2(g) + F2(g); Kp = 6.6 10–22 B) 2SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2(g); Kp = 1.3 10–5 C) 2NOF(g) 2NO(g) + F2(g); Kp = 1.2 10–26 D) 2NOCl(g) 2NO(g) + Cl2(g); Kp = 1.7 10–2 E) 2NO2(g) 2NO(g) + O2(g); Kp = 5.9 10–5 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.4 OBJ: Give a qualitative interpretation of the equilibrium constant based on its value. TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: qualitatively interpreting the equilibrium constant MSC: general chemistry 42. Which of the following is true for a system whose equilibrium constant is much greater than one? A) The reaction mixture contains mostly products at equilibrium. B) The reaction mixture contains mostly reactants at equilibrium. C) The rate of reaction is very fast. D) The moles of reactants and products are relatively similar at equilibrium. E) Both A and C. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.4 OBJ: Give a qualitative interpretation of the equilibrium constant based on its value. TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant 43. Which of the following can we determine by using an equilibrium constant for a gaseous reaction system? 1. the effect of changing the volume of the reaction system 2. the extent of a reaction at equilibrium 3. the direction of a reaction upon adding both reactants and products A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2 and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.4 OBJ: Give a qualitative interpretation of the equilibrium constant based on its value. TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: qualitatively interpreting the equilibrium constant MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
16
44. Which of the following is always true for a reaction where Kc is 1.03 10 −7 at 25C? A) The reaction mixture contains mostly reactants at equilibrium. B) The reaction mixture contains mostly products at equilibrium. C) The rate of reaction is very slow. D) There are approximately equal moles of reactants and products at equilibrium. E) Both A and C. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.4 OBJ: Give a qualitative interpretation of the equilibrium constant based on its value. TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant 45. Which of the following is/are true concerning equilibrium constants? 1. 2. 3.
When an equilibrium constant is very large, the equilibrium mixture contains more reactants than products. When an equilibrium constant is very small, the equilibrium mixture contains more products than reactants. When an equilibrium constant is neither large nor small, the equilibrium mixture contains approximately equal amounts of reactants and products.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.4 OBJ: Give a qualitative interpretation of the equilibrium constant based on its value. TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant 46. Consider the following reaction: 2HF(g)
H2(g) + F2(g) (Kc = 1.00 10–2)
Given that 1.00 mol of HF(g), 0.371 mol of H2(g), and 0.750 mol of F2(g) are mixed in a 5.00-L flask, determine the reaction quotient, Q. A) Q = 0.0696 B) Q = 0.278 C) Q = 0.0557 D) Q = 2.12 E) none of these ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.5 OBJ: Define reaction quotient, Q. TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: predicting the direction of reaction MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
17
47. Consider the following equilibrium: C2H6(g) + C5H12(g)
CH4(g) + C6H14(g); Kp = 9.57 at 500 K
Suppose 57.5 g each of CH4, C2H6, C5H12, and C6H14 are placed in a 10.0-L reaction vessel at 500 K. What is the value of Qp? A) 1.00 B) 0.104 C) 1.57 D) 0.637 E) 9.57 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.5 OBJ: Define reaction quotient, Q. TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: predicting the direction of reaction MSC: general chemistry 48. Consider the following equilibrium: C2H6(g) + C5H12(g)
CH4(g) + C6H14(g); Kp = 9.57 at 500 K
Suppose 47.2 g each of CH4, C2H6, C5H12, and C6H14 are placed in a 25.0-L reaction vessel at 500 K. Which of the following statements is correct? A) Because Qc < Kc, more products will be formed. B) Because Qc = 1, the system is at equilibrium. C) Because Qc = 1, more products will be formed. D) Because Qc = 1, more reactants will be formed. E) Because Qc > Kc, more reactants will be formed. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.5 OBJ: Describe the direction of reaction after comparing Q with Kc. TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: predicting the direction of reaction MSC: general chemistry 49. For the reaction 2H2S(g) 2H2(g) + S2(g), Kc = 9.1 102 at 750 K. What will happen when 0.10 mol of H2S, 1.0 mol of H2, and 1.5 mol of S2 are added to a 1.0-L container and the system is brought to 750 K? A) More S2 will be formed than H2. B) More H2 will be formed than S2. C) Nothing; the system is at equilibrium. D) The amount of H2 formed will be half the amount of S2 formed. E) More H2S will be formed. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.5 OBJ: Describe the direction of reaction after comparing Q with Kc. TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: predicting the direction of reaction MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
18
50. For the reaction TlCl(s) Tl+(aq) + Cl−(aq), Kc = 1.8 10 −4 at 25C. Which of the following concerning a 125 mL solution containing 1.342 10 −2 M Tl+, 4.472 10 −3 M Cl− and a large excess of TlCl(s) is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
The mixture is at equilibrium. Additional TlCl(s) must dissolve to attain equilibrium. The reaction quotient (Q) is less than one.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 E) 1 and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.5 OBJ: Describe the direction of reaction after comparing Q with Kc. TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant 51. What is the reaction quotient (Q) for the equilibrium CuSCN(s)
Cu+(aq) + SCN−(aq)
when 0.3317 L of 2.000 10 −7 M Cu+ is combined with 0.1018 L of 4.000 10 −7 M SCN− in the presence of an excess of CuSCN(s)? A) 1.437 10 −14 B) 8.000 10 −14 C) 2.701 10 −15 D) 6.232 10 −15 E) 1.503 10 −14 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.5 OBJ: Describe the direction of reaction after comparing Q with Kc. TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant 52. The reaction quotient for a system is 3.4 10 . If the equilibrium constant for the system is 1.5 10 −4 , what will happen as the reaction mixture approaches equilibrium? 3
A) The equilibrium constant will increase until it equals the reaction quotient. B) There will be a net gain in both product(s) and reactant(s). C) There will be a net gain in product(s). D) There will be a net gain in reactant(s). E) The equilibrium constant will decrease until it equals the reaction quotient. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.5 OBJ: Describe the direction of reaction after comparing Q with Kc. TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
19
53. CS2(g) + 3Cl2(g) CCl4(g) + S2Cl2(g) At a given temperature, the reaction above is at equilibrium when [CS2] = 0.050 M, [Cl2] = 0.25 M, [CCl4] = 0.15 M, and [S2Cl2] = 0.35 M. What will be the direction of the reaction when the reactants and products have the following concentrations: CS2 = 0.15 M, Cl2 = 0.21 M, CCl4 = 0.29 M, and S2Cl2 = 0.34 M? A) to the left B) to the right C) no change D) cannot predict unless we know the temperature E) cannot predict unless we know whether the reaction is endothermic or exothermic ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.5 OBJ: Describe the direction of reaction after comparing Q with Kc. TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: predicting the direction of reaction MSC: general chemistry 54. For the reaction 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g), Kc = 0.290 at 400 K. If the initial concentrations of HI, H2, and I2 are all 1.50 10–3 M at 400 K, which one of the following statements is correct? A) The concentrations of HI and I2 will increase as the system is approaching equilibrium. B) The concentrations of H2 and I2 will increase as the system is approaching equilibrium. C) The system is at equilibrium. D) The concentrations of H2 and HI will decrease as the system is approaching equilibrium. E) The concentration of HI will increase as the system is approaching equilibrium. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.5 OBJ: Use the reaction quotient. (Example 14.5) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: predicting the direction of reaction MSC: general chemistry 55. Hydrogen iodide undergoes decomposition according to the equation 2HI(g)
H2(g) + I2(g)
The equilibrium constant Kc at 425°C for this system is 0.018. If 1.0 mol each of H2, I2, and HI were placed together in a 1-L container at 425°C, then A) because of reaction, the total number of molecules would increase. B) the concentration of HI would decrease. C) because of reaction, the total number of molecules would decrease. D) the value of K would increase to 1.0. E) the concentration of H2 would decrease. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.5 OBJ: Use the reaction quotient. (Example 14.5) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: predicting the direction of reaction MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
20
56. For the equilibrium PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), Kc = 4.0 at 228°C. If pure PCl5 is placed in a 1.00-L container and allowed to come to equilibrium, and the equilibrium concentration of PCl5(g) is 0.26 M, what is the equilibrium concentration of PCl3? A) 0.13 M B) 0.37 M C) 0.26 M D) 1.0 M E) 0.017 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.6 OBJ: Obtain one equilibrium concentration given the others. (Example 14.6) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: calculating equilibrium concentrations MSC: general chemistry 57. For the equilibrium N2O4(g) 2NO2(g), at 298 K, Kp = 0.15. For this reaction system, it is found that the partial pressure of N2O4 is 3.2 10–2 atm at equilibrium. What is the partial pressure of NO2 at equilibrium? (R = 0.0821 L · atm/(K · mol)) A) 4.6 atm B) 21 atm C) 0.0022 atm D) 0.0048 atm E) 0.069 atm ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.6 OBJ: Obtain one equilibrium concentration given the others. (Example 14.6) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: calculating equilibrium concentrations MSC: general chemistry 58. For the equilibrium PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), Kc = 2.0 101 at 240°C. If pure PCl5 is placed in a 1.00-L container and allowed to come to equilibrium, and the equilibrium concentration of PCl3(g) is 0.47 M, what is the equilibrium concentration of PCl5(g)? A) 0.94 M B) 0.24 M C) 0.024 M D) 0.011 M E) 6.5 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.6 OBJ: Obtain one equilibrium concentration given the others. (Example 14.6) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: calculating equilibrium concentrations MSC: general chemistry 59. The equilibrium constant for the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) is 62.5 at 800 K. What is the equilibrium concentration of I2 if at equilibrium [HI] = 0.18 M and [H2] = 0.11 M? A) 4.7 10–3 M B) 0.25 M C) 5.2 10–2 M D) 0.18 M E) 2.6 10–2 M Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
21
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.6 OBJ: Obtain one equilibrium concentration given the others. (Example 14.6) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: calculating equilibrium concentrations MSC: general chemistry 60. Consider the following equilibrium: 4NH3(g) + 3O2(g)
2N2(g) + 6H2O(g)
Suppose 0.30 mol of NH3 and 0.40 mol of oxygen are added to a 5.0-L container. If x mol of water is present at equilibrium, how many moles of ammonia will remain at equilibrium? A) 0.30 – x B) 0.30 – x C) 0.30 – x D) 0.40 – x E) x ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 14.6 OBJ: Obtain one equilibrium concentration given the others. (Example 14.6) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: calculating equilibrium concentrations MSC: general chemistry 61. Consider the following equilibrium. 4NH3(g) + 3O2(g)
2N2(g) + 6H2O(g)
Suppose 0.30 mol of NH3 and 0.40 mol of oxygen are added to a 5.0-L container. If x mol of water is present at equilibrium, what is the equilibrium concentration of oxygen? A) 0.40 – 0.50x B) 0.30 – 0.50x C) 0.08 – 0.10x D) 0.06 – 0.13x E) 0.40 – x ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 14.6 OBJ: Obtain one equilibrium concentration given the others. (Example 14.6) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: calculating equilibrium concentrations MSC: general chemistry 62. Consider the following equilibrium: 2NO(g) + 3F2(g)
2NOF3(g)
Suppose 0.20 mol of NO and 0.30 mol of F2 are added to a 5.0-L container. If x mol of NOF3 is present at equilibrium, how many moles of fluorine are present at equilibrium? A) 0.30 – x B) 0.30 – 2x C) 0.06 – 0.20x D) 0.30 – x E) 0.20 – x
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
22
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 14.6 OBJ: Obtain one equilibrium concentration given the others. (Example 14.6) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: calculating equilibrium concentrations MSC: general chemistry 63. Consider the following equilibrium: 2NO(g) + 3F2(g)
2NOF3(g)
Suppose 0.20 mol of NO and 0.30 mol of F2 are added to a 5.0-L container. If x mol of NOF3 is present at equilibrium, what is the equilibrium concentration of NO? A) 0.20x B) 0.05 – 0.50x C) 0.20 – 2x D) 0.04 – 0.20x E) 0.20 – x ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 14.6 OBJ: Obtain one equilibrium concentration given the others. (Example 14.6) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: calculating equilibrium concentrations MSC: general chemistry 64. In an experiment, 0.42 mol H2 and 0.42 mol I2 are mixed in a 1.00-L container, and the reaction forms HI. If Kc = 49. for this reaction, what is the equilibrium concentration of HI? I2(g) + H2(g)
2HI(g)
A) 0.81 M B) 0.74 M C) 0.65 M D) 0.105 M E) 0.056 M ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.6 OBJ: Solve an equilibrium problem (involving a linear equation in x). (Example 14.7) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: calculating equilibrium concentrations MSC: general chemistry 65. Hydrogen iodide undergoes decomposition according to the equation 2HI(g)
H2(g) + I2(g)
The equilibrium constant Kp at 500 K for this equilibrium is 0.060. Suppose 0.520 mol of HI is placed in a 1.00-L container at 500 K. What is the equilibrium concentration of H2(g)? (R = 0.0821 L · atm/(K · mol)) A) 0.14 M B) 0.085 M C) 4.2 M D) 0.025 M E) 0.10 M
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
23
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.6 OBJ: Solve an equilibrium problem (involving a linear equation in x). (Example 14.7) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: calculating equilibrium concentrations MSC: general chemistry 66. At 700 K, Kp for the following equilibrium is 5.6 10-3. 2HgO(s)
2Hg(l) + O2(g)
Suppose 51.2 g of mercury(II) oxide is placed in a sealed 3.00-L vessel at 700 K. What is the partial pressure of oxygen gas at equilibrium? (R = 0.0821 L · atm/(K · mol)) A) 0.075 atm B) 0.0056 atm C) 4.5 atm D) 19 atm E) 2.3 atm ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.6 OBJ: Solve an equilibrium problem (involving a linear equation in x). (Example 14.7) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: calculating equilibrium concentrations MSC: general chemistry 67. At 800 K, Kc for the following equilibrium is 4.2 10-3. 2HgO(s)
2Hg(l) + O2(g)
Suppose 10.9 g of mercury (II) oxide is placed in a sealed 3.50-L vessel at 800 K. What is the partial pressure of oxygen gas at equilibrium? (R = 0.0821 L · atm/(K · mol)) A) 0.83 atm B) 0.41 atm C) 0.28 atm D) 0.0042 atm E) 16 atm ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.6 OBJ: Solve an equilibrium problem (involving a linear equation in x). (Example 14.7) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: calculating equilibrium concentrations MSC: general chemistry 68. At 550 K, Kp = 7.7 102 for the following equilibrium. SO2(g) + NO2(g)
SO3(g) + NO(g)
If 0.496 mol each of SO3 and NO are placed in a 5.00-L container at 550 K, what is the concentration of SO3 at equilibrium? (R = 0.0821 L · atm/(K · mol)) A) 4.3 M B) 0.096 M C) 0.099 M D) 17 M E) 0.025 M
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
24
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.6 OBJ: Solve an equilibrium problem (involving a linear equation in x). (Example 14.7) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: calculating equilibrium concentrations MSC: general chemistry 69. Exactly 1.0 mol N2O4 is placed in an empty 1.0-L container and allowed to reach equilibrium described by the equation N2O4(g) 2NO2(g). If at equilibrium the N2O4 is 28.0% dissociated, what is the value of the equilibrium constant, Kc, for the reaction under these conditions? A) 0.44 B) 2.3 C) 0.31 D) 0.78 E) 0.11 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 14.6 OBJ: Solve an equilibrium problem (involving a linear equation in x). (Example 14.7) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: calculating equilibrium concentrations MSC: general chemistry 70. Consider the following equilibrium: CO2(g) + H2(g)
CO(g) + H2O(g); Kc = 1.6 at 1260 K
Suppose 0.038 mol CO2 and 0.022 mol H2 are placed in a 1.50-L vessel at 1260 K. What is the equilibrium partial pressure of CO(g)? (R = 0.0821 L · atm/(K · mol)) A) 9.9 atm B) 1.1 atm C) 4.1 atm D) 2.6 atm E) 1.5 atm ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 14.6 OBJ: Solve an equilibrium problem (involving a quadratic equation in x). (Example 14.8) TOP: chemical equilibrium | using the equilibrium constant KEY: calculating equilibrium concentrations MSC: general chemistry 71. Which of the following, when added to an equilibrium mixture represented by the equlibrium below, will not alter the composition of the original equilibrium mixture? Mg(OH)2(s)
Mg2+(aq) + 2OH−(aq)
A) Addition of Mg(NO3)2(s) to the equilibrium mixture. B) Addition of Fe(NO3)3(aq) from the equilibrium mixture. C) Addition of Mg(OH)2(s) to the equilibrium mixture. D) Addition of HCl(aq) to the equilibrium mixture. E) Addition of NaOH(s) to the equilibrium mixture. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.7 OBJ: State what happens to an equilibrium when a reactant or product is added or removed. TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
25
72. Consider the following equilibrium: PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
PCl5(g); H = -92 kJ
The concentration of PCl3 at equilibrium may be increased by A) decreasing the temperature. B) adding Cl2 to the system. C) adding PCl5 to the system. D) increasing the pressure. E) adding a catalyst. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.7 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when a concentration is altered. (Example 14.9) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle 73. When cobalt chloride is added to pure water, the Co2+ ions hydrate. The hydrated form then reacts with the Cl– ions to set up the equilibrium shown here: Co(H2O)62+ + 4Cl– (pink)
CoCl42– + 6H2O (blue)
Which statement accurately describes the change that the system will undergo if water is added? A) The color will become more blue. B) The equilibrium will shift to the right. C) More water will be produced. D) More chloride ions will be produced. E) There will be less of the hydrated cobalt ion at the new equilibrium position. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.7 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when a concentration is altered. (Example 14.9) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: removing products or adding reactants MSC: general chemistry 74. Carbon monoxide is toxic because it can successfully compete with oxygen for hemoglobin (Hb) sites according to the following equilibrium: Hb(O2)4(aq) + 4CO(g)
Hb(CO)4(aq) + 4O2(g)
From Le Châtelier’s principle, CO poisoning is reversed by A) increasing the O2 pressure. B) decreasing the amount of Hb. C) increasing the CO2 pressure. D) increasing the CO pressure. E) increasing the amount of Hb. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.7 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when a concentration is altered. (Example 14.9) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: removing products or adding reactants MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
26
75. What effect will spraying liquid water into the equilibrium given below have if NH3 is far more soluble in water than is N2 or H2? N2(g) + 3H2(g)
2NH3(g)
A) More NH3(g) will form. B) More H2(g) will form. C) Less NH3(g) will form. D) This will not affect the system. E) More N2(g) will form. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.7 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when a concentration is altered. (Example 14.9) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: removing products or adding reactants MSC: general chemistry 76. When cobalt chloride is added to pure water, the Co2+ ions hydrate. The hydrated form then reacts with the Cl– ions to set up the equilibrium shown here: Co(H2O)62+ + 4Cl– (pink)
CoCl42– + 6H2O (blue)
Which statement describes the change that the system will undergo if potassium chloride is added? A) It should become more pink. B) Nothing will change. C) The silver ion will react with the CoCl42–. D) Water will be produced. E) It should become more blue. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 14.7 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when a concentration is altered. (Example 14.9) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: removing products or adding reactants MSC: general chemistry 77. Consider the reaction represented by the equation N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g). What happens to the equilibrium position when an inert gas is added to this system (as represented above) at equilibrium? A) If the container is rigid, the equilibrium position shifts. If the container is fitted with a movable piston, nothing happens to the equilibrium position. B) If the container is rigid, nothing happens to the equilibrium position. If the container is fitted with a movable piston, the equilibrium position shifts. C) Nothing happens to the equilibrium position no matter what the container is like. D) The equilibrium position shifts no matter what the container is like. E) The value of the equilibrium constant must be known to answer this question. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.8 OBJ: Describe the effect of a pressure change on chemical equilibrium. TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: pressure change MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
27
78. Which of the following equilibria would not be affected by pressure changes at constant temperature? A) CO2(g) + H2(g) CO(g) + H2O(g) B) CO(g) + O2(g) CO2(g) C) 2Hg(l) + O2(g) 2HgO(s) D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(l) E) CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.8 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when the pressure is altered. (Example 14.10) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: pressure change MSC: general chemistry 79. Which of the following equilibria would be affected by volume changes at constant temperature? A) HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) H2O(l) + NaCl(aq) B) C2H4(g) + H2(g) C2H6(g) C) 2HCl(g) H2(g) + Cl2(g) D) SO3(g) + NO(g) NO2(g) + SO2(g) E) 2HF(g) H2(g) + F2(g) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.8 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when the pressure is altered. (Example 14.10) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: pressure change MSC: general chemistry 80. In which of the following reactions does a decrease in the volume of the reaction vessel at constant temperature favor formation of the products? A) 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(g) B) NO2(g) + CO(g) NO(g) + CO2(g) C) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) D) 2O3(g) 3O2(g) E) MgCO3(s) MgO(s) + CO2(g) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.8 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when the pressure is altered. (Example 14.10) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: pressure change MSC: general chemistry 81. Which of the following equilibria would be affected by volume changes at constant temperature? 1. 2NO(g) + 3F2(g) 2F3NO(g) 2. PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) PCl5(g) 3. O3(g) + NO(g) NO2(g) + O2(g)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
28
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.8 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when the pressure is altered. (Example 14.10) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: pressure change MSC: general chemistry 82. For which of the following systems at equilibrium and at constant temperature will decreasing the volume cause the equilibrium to shift to the right? A) NH4Cl(s) NH3(g) + HCl(g) B) 2NO2(g) 2NO(g) + O2(g) C) H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g) D) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) E) 2H2O(g) 2H2(g) + O2(g) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.8 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when the pressure is altered. (Example 14.10) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: pressure change MSC: general chemistry 83. For which of the following systems at equilibrium and at constant temperature will increasing the volume have no effect on the equilibrium? A) C(s) + CO2(g) 2CO(g) B) SO2Cl2(g) SO2(g) + Cl2(g) C) COCl2(g) CO(g) + Cl2(g) D) I2(g) 2I(g) E) CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.8 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when the pressure is altered. (Example 14.10) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: pressure change MSC: general chemistry 84. In which of the following reactions does an instantaneous increase in the volume of the reaction vessel favor formation of the products? A) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) B) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) C) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) D) MgO(s) + CO2(g) MgCO3(s) E) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
29
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.8 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when the pressure is altered. (Example 14.10) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: pressure change MSC: general chemistry 85. Consider the following equilibrium: NH4Cl(s)
NH3(g) + HCl(g)
Suppose a vessel containing NH4Cl(s), NH3(g) and HCl(g) is at equilibrium. If the volume of the vessel is instantaneously doubled while keeping the temperature constant, when a new equilibrium is reached, which of the following statements is incorrect? A) The value of Kp remains unchanged. B) The number of moles of NH4Cl decreases. C) The total pressure is halved. D) The partial pressures of NH3 and HCl in the vessel remain unchanged. E) The amount of NH3 and HCl doubles. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.8 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when the pressure is altered. (Example 14.10) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: pressure change MSC: general chemistry 86. For a specific reaction, which of the following statements can be made about the equilibrium constant? A) It can be changed by the addition of a catalyst. B) It increases when the concentration of one of the products is increased. C) It increases when the concentration of one of the reactants is increased. D) It always remains the same. E) It changes with changes in the temperature. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.8 OBJ: Describe the effect of a temperature change on chemical equilibrium. TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: temperature change MSC: general chemistry 87. Ammonia is prepared industrially by the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g)
2NH3(g)
For the reaction, H° = –92.2 kJ and K (at 25°C) = 4.0 108. When the temperature of the reaction is increased to 500°C, which of the following statements is true? A) At equilibrium, more NH3 is present at 500°C than at 25°C. B) The reaction of N2 with H2 to form ammonia is endothermic. C) K for the reaction will be larger at 500°C than at 25°C. D) Product formation (at equilibrium) is less favored as the temperature is raised. E) None of the above statements is true. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.8 OBJ: Describe the effect of a temperature change on chemical equilibrium. TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: temperature change MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
30
88. When the pressure of an equilibrium mixture of SO2, O2, and SO3 is halved at constant temperature, what is the effect on Kp? 2SO2(g) + O2(g)
2SO3(g)
A) Kp is doubled. B) Kp is halved. C) Kp is unchanged. D) Kp is tripled. E) Kp is decreased by a third. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.8 OBJ: Describe the effect of a temperature change on chemical equilibrium. TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle 89. Consider the following equilibrium at 25°C: 2ICl(g)
I2(g) + Cl2(g); H = 27 kJ; Kp = 6.2 10–6
Which of the following would be true if the temperature were increased to 100°C? 1. The value of Kp would increase. 2. The concentration of ICl(g) would increase. 3. The partial pressure of I2 would increase. A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1 and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.8 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when the temperature is altered. (Example 14.11) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: temperature change MSC: general chemistry 90. The following equilibrium is established in a sealed, rigid container. How could the partial pressure of SO2 at equilibrium be increased? SO2Cl2(g)
SO2(g) + Cl2(g); H = +67 kJ
A) by adding an inert gas such as helium B) by increasing the temperature C) by removing SO2Cl2 as it is formed D) by adding Cl2 to the system E) by decreasing the volume of the reaction vessel ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.8 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when the temperature is altered. (Example 14.11) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: temperature change MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
31
91. One method for the decomposition of carbon dioxide proceeds as follows: 2CO2(g)
2CO(g) + O2(g); H = 559 kJ
Which of the following changes will cause an increase in the equilibrium concentration of CO? A) adding more O2 to the system B) adding a catalyst C) removing CO2 from the system D) increasing the pressure of the system at constant temperature E) increasing the temperature of the system ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.8 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when the temperature is altered. (Example 14.11) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: temperature change MSC: general chemistry 92. Consider the following equilibrium: 2NH3(g)
N2(g) + 3H2(g); H = 92 kJ
What change should be made in order to increase the value of Kp for this reaction? A) Increase the pressure. B) Decrease the temperature. C) Increase the temperature. D) Decrease the pressure. E) Nothing; Kp cannot be changed. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.8 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when the temperature is altered. (Example 14.11) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: temperature change MSC: general chemistry 93. For the following reaction system at equilibrium, which one of the changes below would cause the equilibrium to shift to the right? Br2(g) + 2NO(g)
2NOBr(g); H° = –30 kJ
A) Remove some NO. B) Remove some Br2. C) Add some NOBr. D) Increase the volume of the reaction vessel. E) Decrease the temperature. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.8 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when the temperature is altered. (Example 14.11) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: temperature change MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
32
94. Solid HgO, liquid Hg, and gaseous O2 are placed in a glass bulb and allowed to reach equilibrium. 2HgO(s)
2Hg(l) + O2(g); H = 181.6 kJ
The amount of Hg(l) in the bulb could be increased A) by removing some HgO(s). B) by adding an inert gas. C) by adding some HgO(s). D) by increasing the pressure. E) by increasing the temperature. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.8 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when the temperature is altered. (Example 14.11) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: temperature change MSC: general chemistry 95. Consider the following equilibrium: CO2(g) + C(graphite)
2CO(g); H = 172.5 kJ
The equilibrium constant for this reaction will A) increase if the temperature is decreased. B) decrease with increasing temperature. C) increase at some pressures and decrease at other pressures. D) increase with increasing temperature. E) not change if the temperature is increased. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.8 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when the temperature is altered. (Example 14.11) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: temperature change MSC: general chemistry 96. Consider the following equilibrium: N2O4(g)
2NO2(g)
Suppose two different experiments were conducted on this equilibrium, at two different temperatures. Trial 1 2
Temperature 25°C 55°C
Initial Moles of N2O4 1.00 1.00
Equilibrium Moles of N2O4 0.815 0.500
What conclusion may be drawn from the above data? A) Kc > Kp at all temperatures. B) The reaction is exothermic. C) The forward reaction proceeds faster than the reverse reaction. D) Kp = 1 at 55°C. E) The equilibrium constant increases with increasing temperature.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
33
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.8 OBJ: Apply Le Châtelier’s principle when the temperature is altered. (Example 14.11) TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: temperature change MSC: general chemistry 97. The following equilibrium is exothermic. How could the yield of diiodine pentoxide be increased? I2(g) + 5CO2(g)
5CO(g) + I2O5(g)
A) by decreasing the pressure B) by increasing the pressure C) by decreasing the volume of the reaction vessel D) by decreasing the temperature E) by increasing the temperature ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.8 OBJ: Describe how the optimum conditions for a reaction are chosen. TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle MSC: general chemistry 98. Consider the reaction S2Cl2(l) + CCl4(l)
CS2(g) + 3Cl2(g); H° = 84.3 kJ
If the above reactants and products are contained in a closed vessel and the reaction system is at equilibrium, the number of moles of CS2 can be increased by A) increasing the size of the reaction vessel. B) adding some Cl2 to the system. C) adding some S2Cl2 to the system. D) decreasing the temperature of the reaction system. E) adding some CCl4 to the system. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.8 OBJ: Describe how the optimum conditions for a reaction are chosen. TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle MSC: general chemistry 99. Consider the following system at equilibrium: N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g); H = −92.94 kJ Which of the following changes will shift the equilibrium to the right? I. II. III. IV. V. VI. VII. VIII.
Test Bank
increasing the temperature decreasing the temperature increasing the volume decreasing the volume removing some NH3 adding some NH3 removing some N2 adding some N2
General Chemistry, 10th edition
34
A) II, III, V, VIII B) I, III, V, VII C) I, VI, VIII D) I, IV, VI, VII E) II, IV, V, VIII ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.8 OBJ: Describe how the optimum conditions for a reaction are chosen. TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle MSC: general chemistry 100. For the endothermic reaction 2CO2(g) + N2(g) 2NO(g) + 2CO(g), the conditions that favor maximum conversion of the reactants to products are A) high temperature and low pressure. B) high temperature, pressure being unimportant. C) low temperature and low pressure. D) low temperature and high pressure. E) high temperature and high pressure. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 14.8 OBJ: Describe how the optimum conditions for a reaction are chosen. TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle MSC: general chemistry 101. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning the addition of a catalyst to an equilibrium reaction system? A) The catalyst speeds up the attainment of equilibrium. B) If the reactants are capable of forming many different products, a catalyst may selectively speed up one reaction over another. C) The catalyst increases the rate of both the forward and the reverse reaction. D) The catalyst increases the yield of the products. E) The catalyst is not consumed in either the forward or the reverse reaction. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 14.9 OBJ: Compare the effect of a catalyst on rate of reaction with its effect on equilibrium. TOP: chemical equilibrium | Le Chatelier's principle KEY: effects of a catalyst MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
35
Chapter 15 - Acids and Bases 1. Which of the following reactions is not readily explained by the Arrhenius concept of acids and bases? A) HCl(g) + NH3(g) → NH4Cl(s) B) HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) C) HClO4(aq) + H2O(l) → H3O+(aq) + ClO4−(aq) D) HC2H3O2(aq) + H2O(l) H3O+(aq) + C2H3O2−(aq) E) H3O+(aq) + OH−(aq) → 2H2O(l) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.1 OBJ: Define acid and base according to the Arrhenius concept. TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts NOT: REVISED 2. Which of the following statements is/are consistent with the Arrhenius concept of acids and bases? 1. 2. 3.
An Arrhenius acid will increase the concentration of hydronium ion in an aqueous or nonaqueous solvent. All Arrhenius acids are strong electrolytes in water. All strong acid-strong base reactions have the same heat of reaction (H) per mole of water formed.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 1, 2 and 3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.1 OBJ: Define acid and base according to the Arrhenius concept. TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts 3. Which of the following statements does not describe a characteristic of an Arrhenius acid? A) An Arrhenius acid reacts with an Arrhenius base to produce a salt. B) An Arrhenius acid turns red litmus blue. C) An Arrhenius acid is an electrolyte. D) An Arrhenius acid reacts with CaCO3 to produce CO2. E) An Arrhenius acid tastes sour. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.1 OBJ: Define acid and base according to the Arrhenius concept. TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts KEY: Arrhenius concept of acids and bases MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
1
4. Which of the following species is not capable of acting as an Arrhenius acid in aqueous solution? A) Br– B) HF C) H2SO3 D) H3O+ E) HNO3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.1 OBJ: Define acid and base according to the Arrhenius concept. TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts 5. Which of the following species is not capable of acting as an Arrhenius acid in aqueous solution? A) CHCl3 B) HNO3 C) H2SO4 D) H3O+ E) HClO4 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.1 OBJ: Define acid and base according to the Arrhenius concept. TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts 6. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the neutralization of sulfurous acid by a strong base? 2OH–(aq) + H2SO3(aq) SO32–(aq) + 2H2O(l) →
A) H2SO3 is both an Arrhenius acid and a Brønsted–Lowry acid. B) H2SO3 is a Brønsted–Lowry acid, but not an Arrhenius acid. C) H2SO3 is neither an Arrhenius acid nor a Brønsted–Lowry acid. D) H2SO3 is an Arrhenius acid, but not a Brønsted–Lowry acid. E) H2SO3 is a Lewis base. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.2 OBJ: Define acid and base according to the Brønsted–Lowry concept. TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts KEY: Brønsted-Lowry concept of acids and bases MSC: general chemistry 7. Which of the following statements is/are consistent with the Brønsted-Lowry concept of acids and bases? 1. 2. 3.
A conjugate acid-base pair may differ by only one proton. A base is defined as a hydroxide ion donor. Brønsted-Lowry acid-base reactions are restricted to aqueous solutions.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
2
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.2 OBJ: Define acid and base according to the Brønsted–Lowry concept. TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts 8. Which are the Brønsted–Lowry bases in the following equilibrium? CH3COO–(aq) + H2O(l)
CH3COOH(aq) + OH–(aq)
A) CH3COO– and OH– B) H2O and OH– C) H2O, CH3COOH, and OH– D) CH3COO– and CH3COOH E) H2O and CH3COOH ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Identify acid and base species. (Example 15.1) TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts KEY: Brønsted-Lowry concept of acids and bases
REF: 15.2
MSC: general chemistry
9. Which of the following pairs of species is not a conjugate acid–base pair? A) HOCl, OCl– B) HNO2, NO2+ C) O2–, OH– D) HSO4–, SO42– E) H2CO3, HCO3– ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Identify acid and base species. (Example 15.1) TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts KEY: Brønsted-Lowry concept of acids and bases
REF: 15.2
MSC: general chemistry
10. What is a conjugate acid–base pair for the following equilibrium? H2O(l) + HPO42–(aq)
H2PO4–(aq) + OH–(aq)
A) H2O is an acid and HPO42– is its conjugate base. B) HPO42– is an acid and OH– is its conjugate base. C) H2O is an acid and OH– is its conjugate base. D) HPO42– is an acid and H2PO4– is its conjugate base. E) HPO42– is an acid and H2O is its conjugate base. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Identify acid and base species. (Example 15.1) TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts KEY: Brønsted-Lowry concept of acids and bases Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 15.2
MSC: general chemistry 3
11. What is the conjugate base of H2PO4–(aq)? A) PO43– B) H3O+ C) HPO4− D) H3P E) H3PO4 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Identify acid and base species. (Example 15.1) TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts
REF: 15.2
12. What is a conjugate acid–base pair for the following equilibrium? H2O(l) + NH4+(aq)
NH3(aq) + H3O+(aq)
A) H2O is an acid and NH3 is its conjugate base. B) H2O is an acid and H3O+ is its conjugate base. C) NH4+ is an acid and NH3 is its conjugate base. D) H2O is a base and NH3 is its conjugate acid. E) H2O is a base and NH4+ is its conjugate acid. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Identify acid and base species. (Example 15.1) TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts KEY: Brønsted-Lowry concept of acids and bases
REF: 15.2
MSC: general chemistry
13. Which of the following species is amphiprotic in aqueous solution? A) CH3NH2 B) H3O+ C) NH4+ D) F− E) H2O ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Define amphiprotic species.
DIF: moderate REF: 15.2 TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts
14. Which of the following species cannot act as a Lewis base? A) H2S B) S2– C) Al3+ D) SH– E) H2O ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.3 OBJ: Identify Lewis acid and Lewis base species. (Example 15.2) TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts KEY: Lewis concept of acids and bases MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
4
15. Which of the following species cannot act as a Lewis base? A) H2O2 B) OH– C) O2– D) H2O E) Be2+ ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.3 OBJ: Identify Lewis acid and Lewis base species. (Example 15.2) TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts KEY: Lewis concept of acids and bases MSC: general chemistry 16. Which of the following species cannot act as a Lewis base? A) NH3 B) NH4+ C) N3– D) NH2– E) NH2– ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.3 OBJ: Identify Lewis acid and Lewis base species. (Example 15.2) TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts KEY: Lewis concept of acids and bases MSC: general chemistry 17. Which of the following species cannot act as a Lewis acid? A) H+ B) H– C) K+ D) Mg2+ E) Al3+ ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.3 OBJ: Identify Lewis acid and Lewis base species. (Example 15.2) TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts KEY: Lewis concept of acids and bases MSC: general chemistry 18. In the reaction CuO(s) + SO2(g) → CuSO3(s), A) O2– acts as a Lewis base and SO2 acts as a Lewis acid. B) O2– acts as a Lewis base and Cu2+ acts as a Lewis acid. C) CuO is the Lewis acid and CuSO3 is its conjugate base. D) SO2 is the Lewis acid and CuSO3 is its conjugate base. E) Cu2+ acts as a Lewis acid and SO32– acts as a Lewis base. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.3 OBJ: Identify Lewis acid and Lewis base species. (Example 15.2) TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts KEY: Lewis concept of acids and bases MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
5
19. Consider the following reaction: AgBr(s) + 2CN–(aq) → Ag(CN)2–(aq) + Br–(aq) The species that are acting as a Lewis acid and Lewis base, respectively, are A) Br– and CN–. B) Ag+ and CN–. C) AgBr and Ag(CN)2–. D) Ag(CN)2– and Ag+. E) Ag+ and Br–. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.3 OBJ: Identify Lewis acid and Lewis base species. (Example 15.2) TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts KEY: Lewis concept of acids and bases MSC: general chemistry 20. Which of the following is not an example of an acid–base reaction? A) Al(OH)3(s) + 3H+(aq) Al3+(aq) + 3H2O(l) B) C2H6(g) C2H4(g) + H2(g) C) MgO(s) + CO2(g) MgCO3(s) D) Al(OH)3(s) + OH–(aq) Al(OH)4–(aq) E) CN–(aq) + H2O(l) HCN(aq) + OH–(aq) →
→
→
→
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.3 OBJ: Identify Lewis acid and Lewis base species. (Example 15.2) TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts KEY: Lewis concept of acids and bases MSC: general chemistry 21. Which of the following is/are an appropriate classification of the reaction given below? KOH(aq) + CO2(g) → KHCO3(aq) 1. 2. 3.
The above reaction may be classified as an Arrhenius acid-base reaction. The above reaction may be classified as a Brønsted-Lowry acid-base reaction. The above reaction may be classified as a Lewis acid-base reaction.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) none ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.3 OBJ: Identify Lewis acid and Lewis base species. (Example 15.2) TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
6
22. Which of the following species cannot act as a Lewis acid? A) BeCl2 B) H+ C) Ag+ D) BF3 E) NH4+ ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.3 OBJ: Identify Lewis acid and Lewis base species. (Example 15.2) TOP: acids and bases | acid-base concepts KEY: Lewis concept of acids and bases MSC: general chemistry 23. Which acid has the strongest conjugate base in aqueous solution? A) HF B) HNO3 C) HClO4 D) HI E) H2SO4 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.4 OBJ: Understand the relationship between the strength of an acid and that of its conjugate base. TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength 24. Which of the following concerning the relative strength of acids and bases is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
As the acidity of the acid decreases, the basicity of the conjugate base increases. The hydronium ion is the strongest acid that can be found in aqueous solution. All acids classified as strong acids in aqueous solution have the same acidity in a more acidic solvent like acetic acid.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.4 OBJ: Understand the relationship between the strength of an acid and that of its conjugate base. TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength 25. Which of the following acids has the weakest conjugate base in aqueous solution? A) CH3COOH B) HOCl C) HF D) HNO2 E) HClO4
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
7
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.4 OBJ: Understand the relationship between the strength of an acid and that of its conjugate base. TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength 26. Which of the following acids has the strongest conjugate base? A) HClO B) HClO4 C) HClO2 D) HClO3 E) HCl ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.5 OBJ: Understand the relationship between the strength of an acid and that of its conjugate base. TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength KEY: relative strengths of acids and bases MSC: general chemistry 27. The acid strength decreases in the series HBr > HSO4– > CH3COOH > HCN > HCO3–. Which of the following is the strongest base? A) SO42– B) CO32– C) CH3COO– D) Br– E) CN– ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.4 OBJ: Understand the relationship between the strength of an acid and that of its conjugate base. TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength KEY: relative strengths of acids and bases MSC: general chemistry 28. What is the leveling effect? A) All bases are 100% ionized in water. B) All acids are 100% ionized in solvents other than water. C) All strong acids are 100% ionized in water. D) An acid with a higher concentration in water has a lower pH than an acid with a lower concentration in water. E) A base with a higher concentration in water has a lower pH than a base with a lower concentration in water. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.4 OBJ: Understand the relationship between the strength of an acid and that of its conjugate base. TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength KEY: relative strengths of acids and bases MSC: general chemistry 29. Which of the following reactions is not product-favored? A) NaOH(aq) → Na+(aq) + OH–(aq) B) NH3(aq) + H2O(l) → NH4+(aq) + OH–(aq) C) HClO4(aq) + H2O(l) → H3O+(aq) + ClO4–(aq) D) HCl(aq) + H2O(l) → H3O+(aq) + Cl–(aq) E) H2SO4(aq) + H2O(l) → H3O+(aq) + HSO4–(aq)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
8
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.4 OBJ: Decide whether reactants or products are favored in an acid–base reaction. (Example 15.3) TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength KEY: relative strengths of acids and bases MSC: general chemistry 30. Given equal concentrations of the following acids, which exhibits the greatest amount of ionization in water? A) nitrous acid B) chlorous acid C) ascorbic acid D) hydrobromic acid E) citric acid ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.4 OBJ: Decide whether reactants or products are favored in an acid–base reaction. (Example 15.3) TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength 31. Which of the following statements is true concerning an aqueous solution of the weak base NH3? A) OH– is a stronger base than NH3. B) OH– is a stronger acid than NH4+. C) NH4+ is a stronger acid than H3O+. D) NH3 is a weaker base than H2O. E) H2O is a stronger acid than H3O+. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.4 OBJ: Decide whether reactants or products are favored in an acid–base reaction. (Example 15.3) TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength KEY: relative strengths of acids and bases MSC: general chemistry 32. Which of the following statements is true concerning an aqueous solution of the strong acid HBr? A) Br– is a stronger acid than H2O. B) Br– is a stronger base than OH–. C) H3O+ is a stronger acid than HBr. D) H2O is a stronger acid than HBr. E) H2O is a stronger base than Br–. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.4 OBJ: Decide whether reactants or products are favored in an acid–base reaction. (Example 15.3) TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength KEY: relative strengths of acids and bases MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
9
33. Rank the following in order of decreasing acid strength in aqueous solution: HCl, HOCl, HOBr, HOI. A) HCl > HClO > HBrO > HIO B) HIO > HBrO > HClO > HCl C) HCl > HIO > HBrO > HClO D) HClO > HCl > HBrO > HIO E) HClO > HBrO > HCl > HIO ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.5 OBJ: Understand the periodic trends in the strengths of the binary acids HX. TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength 34. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) One reason why HCl is a stronger acid than HF is that the H–Cl bond is weaker than the H–F bond. B) F– is a stronger base than Cl–. C) One reason why HCl is a stronger acid than HF is that Cl is more electronegative than F. D) The acids HBr and HI both appear equally strong in water. E) One reason why HCl is a stronger acid than HF is that Cl has a larger atomic radius than F. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.5 OBJ: Understand the periodic trends in the strengths of the binary acids HX. TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength KEY: molecular structure and acid strength MSC: general chemistry 35. Which solution has the highest pH? A) 0.10 M HBr(aq) B) 0.10 M HI(aq) C) 0.10 M HF(aq) D) 0.10 M HCl(aq) E) 0.10 M HClO4(aq) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.6 OBJ: Understand the periodic trends in the strengths of the binary acids HX. TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength KEY: molecular structure and acid strength MSC: general chemistry 36. Which of the following is the strongest acid in aqueous solution? A) H3AsO4 B) H3PO4 C) H3PO3 D) H3SbO4 E) H3AsO3
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
10
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.5 OBJ: Understand the rules for determining the relative strengths of oxoacids. TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength KEY: molecular structure and acid strength MSC: general chemistry 37. Rank the following in order of decreasing acid strength: H2O, H2S, H2Se, H2Te A) H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O B) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te C) H2Se > H2Te > H2S > H2O D) H2S > H2Te > H2Se > H2O E) H2Se > H2S > H2Te > H2O ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.5 OBJ: Understand the rules for determining the relative strengths of oxoacids. TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength 38. Which of the following is the strongest acid? A) HClO2 B) HCl C) HClO4 D) HClO E) HClO3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.5 OBJ: Understand the rules for determining the relative strengths of oxoacids. TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength KEY: molecular structure and acid strength MSC: general chemistry 39. Which of the following solutes, dissolved in 1.0 kg of water, would be expected to provide the fewest particles and to freeze at the highest temperature? A) 0.10 mol HClO B) 0.10 mol HClO3 C) 0.10 mol HClO2 D) 0.10 mol HClO4 E) 0.10 mol HCl ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 15.5 OBJ: Understand the rules for determining the relative strengths of oxoacids. TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength KEY: molecular structure and acid strength MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
11
40. Rank H3PO4, H2PO4–, and HPO42– in order of increasing acid strength. A) HPO42– < H2PO4– < H3PO4 B) H2PO4– < HPO42– < H3PO4 C) H2PO4– < H3PO4 < HPO42– D) HPO42– < H3PO4 < H2PO4– E) H3PO4 < H2PO4– < HPO42– ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.5 OBJ: Understand the relative acid strengths of a polyprotic acid and its anions. TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength KEY: molecular structure and acid strength MSC: general chemistry 41. The ionization constant of water at a temperature above 25°C is 1.7 10–14. What is the pH of pure water at this temperature? 2H2O(l)
H3O+(aq) + OH–(aq)
A) 7.88 B) 5.68 C) 6.88 D) 13.85 E) 7.00 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Define self-ionization (or autoionization). TOP: acids and bases | self-ionization of water and pH KEY: self-ionization of water MSC: general chemistry 42. The autoionization of water, as represented by the equation below, is known to be endothermic. Which of the following correctly states what occurs as the temperature of water is raised? H2O(l) + H2O(l)
H3O+(aq) + OH–(aq)
A) The pH of the water decreases, and the water becomes more acidic. B) The pH of the water decreases, and the water remains neutral. C) The pH of the water increases, and the water remains neutral. D) The pH of the water does not change, and the water remains neutral. E) The pH of the water increases, and the water becomes more acidic. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 15.6 OBJ: Define self-ionization (or autoionization). TOP: acids and bases | self-ionization of water and pH KEY: self-ionization of water MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
12
43. The equilibrium constant for the autonionization of water (shown below) increases with increasing temperature, from 1.01 x10-14 at 25C to 5.31 x10-14 at 50C. H2O(l) + H2O(l)
H3O+(aq) + OH–(aq)
Which of the following statements is consistent with this behaviour? A) The autoionization of water is an endothermic reaction. B) The autoionization of water is an exothermic reaction. C) The hydronium ion concentration at equilibrium increases with increasing temperature. D) The hydronium ion concentration at equilibrium decreases with increasing temperature. E) Both A and C. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Define self-ionization (or autoionization). TOP: acids and bases | self-ionization of water and pH
REF: 15.6
44. What is the equilibrium concentration of amide ion (NH2–) in liquid ammonia at 25°C? ("am" = dissolved in ammonia) 2NH3(l)
NH4+(am) + NH2–(am); Kc = 1.8 10–24 at 25°C
A) 2.6 10–12 M B) 3.6 10–24 M C) 1.3 10–12 M D) 1.8 10–24 M E) 9.0 10–25 M ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Define the ion-product constant for water. TOP: acids and bases | self-ionization of water and pH
REF: 15.6 MSC: general chemistry
45. What is the hydronium-ion concentration in a solution formed by combining 750 mL of 0.10 M NaOH with 250 mL of 0.30 M HCl? NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) A) 0.075 M B) 1.7 10–13 M C) 1.0 10–7 M D) 0.30 M E) 0.10 M ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 15.6 OBJ: Define the ion-product constant for water. TOP: acids and bases | self-ionization of water and pH KEY: self-ionization of water MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
13
46. At 20°C, the ion-product constant of water, Kw, is 6.88 10 −15 . What is the pH of pure water at 20°C? A) 7.000 B) 6.501 C) 7.181 D) 7.081 E) none of these ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Define the ion-product constant for water. TOP: acids and bases | self-ionization of water and pH
REF: 15.8
47. The concentration of H3O+ in a solution is 7 10–4 M at 25°C. What is its hydroxide-ion concentration? A) 7 10–4 M B) 1 10–10 M C) 2 10–10 M D) 3 10–10 M E) 1 10–11 M ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.7 OBJ: Calculate the concentrations of H3O+ and OH– in solutions of a strong acid or base. (Example 15.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base MSC: general chemistry 48. At 25C a solution has a hydroxide-ion concentration of 4.94 10–5 M. What is its hydronium-ion concentration? A) 4.94 10–19 M B) 1.00 10–7 M C) 1.00 10–14 M D) 4.94 10–5 M E) 2.02 10–10 M ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.7 OBJ: Calculate the concentrations of H3O+ and OH– in solutions of a strong acid or base. (Example 15.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base MSC: general chemistry 49. What is the hydronium-ion concentration of a 0.0087 M LiOH solution? A) 1.1 10–12 M B) 8.7 10–3 M C) 1.0 10–14 M D) 1.0 10–7 M E) 8.7 10–17 M
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
14
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.7 OBJ: Calculate the concentrations of H3O+ and OH– in solutions of a strong acid or base. (Example 15.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base MSC: general chemistry 50. What is the hydronium-ion concentration of a 0.0038 M Ba(OH)2 solution? A) 7.6 10–3 M B) 3.8 10–3 M C) 1.3 10–12 M D) 2.6 10–12 M E) 1.0 10–7 M ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.7 OBJ: Calculate the concentrations of H3O+ and OH– in solutions of a strong acid or base. (Example 15.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base MSC: general chemistry 51. Which of the following expressions is not equivalent to pH? A) –log [H+(aq)] B) C) 14.0 – pOH D) E) –log Kw ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.8 OBJ: Define pH. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 52. A solution in which the pH is 1.5 would be described as A) neutral. B) very acidic. C) slightly basic. D) slightly acidic. E) very basic. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.8 OBJ: Define pH. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 53. A solution has a hydroxide-ion concentration of 0.0030 M. What is the pOH of the solution? A) 11.48 B) 2.52 C) 7.00 D) 8.19 E) 5.81
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
15
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 54. What is the pH of a 0.051 M HClO4 solution? A) 15.29 B) 2.98 C) 12.71 D) 1.29 E) 11.02 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 55. What is the pOH of a 0.044 M HI solution? A) 3.12 B) 12.64 C) 10.88 D) 15.36 E) 1.36 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 56. What is the pH of the final solution when 25 mL of 0.025 M HCl has been added to 35 mL of 0.040 M HCl at 25°C? A) 3.22 B) 1.78 C) 1.47 D) 2.69 E) 3.39 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 57. What is the pH of a 0.0042 M hydrochloric acid solution? A) 5.47 B) 11.62 C) 7.00 D) 8.53 E) 2.38
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
16
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 58. The hydronium-ion concentration of a solution is 2.5 10–6 M. What is the pH of the solution? A) 6.81 B) 3.77 C) 2.00 D) 5.60 E) 10.60 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 59. At 25°C, what is the pH of a 10.0 M HBr solution? A) 1.000 B) 0.000 C) 10.000 D) –1.000 E) 14.000 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 60. Which aqueous solution has the lowest pH? A) 0.30 M HCl B) 0.30 M NaOH C) 0.30 M NH3 D) 0.30 M Ba(OH)2 E) 0.30 M H2SO4 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base 61. What pH should a solution have if its pH is about the same as that of vinegar? A) about 8 B) about 11 C) about 1 D) about 6 E) about 3
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
17
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base MSC: general chemistry 62. A solution has a pH value of 3.76. What is the pOH for this solution? A) 7.00 B) 3.72 C) 3.76 D) 1.74 E) 10.24 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 63. Which solution has the highest pH? A) 0.1 M Ba(OH)2 B) 0.1 M CH3COOH C) 0.1 M HCl D) 0.1 M NH3 E) 0.1 M NaOH ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 64. The pOH of a solution is 5.22. What is the pH of the solution? A) 5.22 B) 8.78 C) 6.03 D) 7.00 E) 2.68 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 65. What is the pH of a 0.0035 M Ba(OH)2 solution? A) 9.04 B) 11.54 C) 2.46 D) 11.85 E) 2.15 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
18
66. What is the pOH of a 0.0055 M Ba(OH)2 solution? A) 9.49 B) 11.74 C) 12.04 D) 1.96 E) 2.26 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 67. A solution has a hydronium-ion concentration of 0.0082 M. What is its pOH? A) 2.09 B) 16.09 C) 9.20 D) 4.80 E) 11.91 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 68. A solution has a hydroxide-ion concentration of 0.043 M. What is its pH? A) 15.37 B) 12.63 C) 17.15 D) 7.00 E) 1.37 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 69. What is the pOH of a 0.065 M HNO3 solution? A) 12.81 B) 11.27 C) 15.19 D) 1.19 E) 2.73 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
19
70. What is the pH of a 0.0086 M LiOH solution? A) 9.24 B) 11.93 C) 2.07 D) 4.76 E) 16.07 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 71. What is the pOH of a 0.0092 M CsOH solution? A) 2.04 B) 16.04 C) 9.31 D) 4.69 E) 11.96 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 72. What is the pH of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.739 g of NaOH(s) in 4.50 L of water? A) 1.733 B) 12.267 C) 7.000 D) 11.613 E) 2.387 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 73. What is the pOH of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.287 g of KOH(s) in 7.00 L of water? A) 10.864 B) 3.136 C) 2.291 D) 11.709 E) 7.000 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
20
74. What is the pH of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.365 L of HCl(g), measured at STP, in enough water such that the total volume of the solution is 6.00 L? (R = 0.0821 L · atm/(K · mol)) A) 2.566 B) 11.434 C) 1.788 D) 7.000 E) 12.212 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 75. What is the pOH of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.465 L of HCl(g), measured at STP, in enough water such that the total volume of the solution is 4.50 L? (R = 0.0821 L · atm/(K · mol)) A) 12.317 B) 7.000 C) 1.683 D) 11.664 E) 2.336 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the pH from the hydronium-ion concentration. (Example 15.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 76. Which of the following solutions has the highest hydroxide-ion concentration? A) 0.1 M HCl B) a solution with pH = 5 C) 0.1 M H2SO4 D) pure water E) a solution with pOH = 12 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the hydronium-ion concentration from the pH. (Example 15.6) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base 77. A solution has a pH of 10.20 at 25°C. What is the hydroxide-ion concentration at 25°C? A) 3.8 M B) 2.2 10–2 M C) 1.6 10–4 M D) 6.3 10–11 M E) 1.0 10–7 M
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
21
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the hydronium-ion concentration from the pH. (Example 15.6) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 78. A solution has a pOH of 5.36. What is its hydroxide-ion concentration? A) 1.8 10–4 M B) 5.4 M C) 2.3 10–9 M D) 4.4 10–6 M E) 4.7 10–3 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the hydronium-ion concentration from the pH. (Example 15.6) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 79. The pOH of a solution is 5.06. What is its hydronium-ion concentration? A) 1.1 105 M B) 1.1 10–9 M C) 8.7 10–6 M D) 5.06 M E) 6.3 10–3 M ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the hydronium-ion concentration from the pH. (Example 15.6) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 80. The pH of a solution of a strong base is 10.27 at 25°C. What is its hydronium-ion concentration? A) 2.9 10–3 M B) 1.9 10–4 M C) 1.4 10–4 M D) 5.4 10–11 M E) 1.4 10–2 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the hydronium-ion concentration from the pH. (Example 15.6) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
22
81. What is the hydroxide-ion concentration in a solution formed by combining 200. mL of 0.15 M HCl with 300. mL of 0.090 M NaOH at 25°C? HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) A) 1.7 10–13 M B) 0.090 M C) 1.7 10–12 M D) 0.054 M E) 1.0 10–7 M ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Calculate the hydronium-ion concentration from the pH. (Example 15.6) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry 82. Which solution would cause blue litmus to turn red? A) a solution of pH 10 B) a solution of 0.01 M NH3 C) a solution of pOH 4 D) a solution of 0.005 M CH3COOH E) a solution of 0.10 M NaOH ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 15.8 OBJ: Describe the determination of pH by a pH meter and by acid–base indicators. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
23
Chapter 16 - Acid-Base Equilibria 1. For which of the following equilibria does Kc correspond to an acid-ionization constant, Ka? A) NH3(aq) + H3O+(aq) NH4+(aq) + H2O(l) B) NH4+(aq) + OH–(aq) NH3(aq) + H2O(l) – C) F (aq) + H2O(l) HF(aq) + OH–(aq) D) HF(aq) + OH–(aq) H2O(l) + F–(aq) E) NH4+(aq) + H2O(l) NH3(aq) + H3O+(aq) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.1 OBJ: Write the chemical equation for a weak acid undergoing acid ionization in aqueous solution. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry 2. Which of the following is/are true concerning the acid-ionization of a monoprotic weak acid? 1. 2. 3.
The products of an acid-ionization include the hydronium ion (hydrogen ion) or hydroxide ion. The percent ionization of a weak acid is greatest for the most dilute solution. A weak acid ionization constant is only valid in an aqueous solvent.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.1 OBJ: Write the chemical equation for a weak acid undergoing acid ionization in aqueous solution. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base 3. For which of the following equilibria does Kc correspond to the acid-ionization constant, Ka, of HCO3–? A) HCO3–(aq) + OH–(aq) CO32–(aq) + H2O(l) B) H2CO3(aq) + H2O(l) HCO3–(aq) + H3O+(aq) C) HCO3–(aq) + H2O(l) H2CO3(aq) + OH–(aq) D) HCO3–(aq) + H3O+(aq) H2CO3(aq) + H2O(l) – E) HCO3 (aq) + H2O(l) CO32–(aq) + H3O+(aq) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.1 OBJ: Write the chemical equation for a weak acid undergoing acid ionization in aqueous solution. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
1
4. For which of the following equilibria does Kc correspond to the acid-ionization constant, Ka, of HC2O4–? A) HC2O4–(aq) + H2O(l) H2C2O4(aq) + OH–(aq) B) H2C2O4(aq) + H2O(l) H3O+(aq) + HC2O4–(aq) C) HC2O4–(aq) + H2O(l) H3O+(aq) + C2O42–(aq) D) HC2O4–(aq) + OH–(aq) C2O42–(aq) + H2O(l) E) HC2O4–(aq) + H3O+(aq) H2C2O4(aq) + H2O(l) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.1 OBJ: Write the chemical equation for a weak acid undergoing acid ionization in aqueous solution. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry 5. For which of the following equilibria does Kc correspond to the acid-dissociation constant, Ka, of H2PO4–? A) H2PO4–(aq) + H3O+(aq) H3PO4(aq) + H2O(l) – B) H2PO4 (aq) + H2O(l) H3PO4(aq) + OH–(aq) C) H2PO4–(aq) + H2O(l) H3O+(aq) + HPO42–(aq) D) H3PO4(aq) + H2O(l) H3O+(aq) + H2PO4–(aq) E) HPO42–(aq) + H2O(l) H2PO4–(aq) + OH–(aq) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.1 OBJ: Write the chemical equation for a weak acid undergoing acid ionization in aqueous solution. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry 6. What is the equilibrium expression for the equilibrium A–(aq) + H3O+(aq) H2O(l)?
HA(aq) +
A) B) C) D) E) Kb ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.1 OBJ: Define acid-ionization constant and degree of ionization. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
2
7. For the equilibrium that exists in an aqueous solution of nitrous acid (HNO2, a weak acid), the equilibrium-constant expression is A) K=
.
K=
.
B)
C) K=
.
D) K = [H+][NO2–]. E) none of these ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.1 OBJ: Define acid-ionization constant and degree of ionization. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry 8. Consider the Ka values for the following acids: Cyanic acid, HOCN, 3.5 10–4 Formic acid, HCHO2, 1.7 10–4 Lactic acid, HC3H5O3, 1.3 10–4 Propionic acid, HC3H5O2, 1.3 10–5 Benzoic acid, HC7H5O2, 6.3 10–5 Which has the strongest conjugate base? A) propionic acid B) benzoic acid C) lactic acid D) formic acid E) cyanic ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.1 OBJ: Define acid-ionization constant and degree of ionization. TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength 9. Consider the Ka values for the following acids: Cyanic acid, HOCN, 3.5 10–4 Formic acid, HCHO2, 1.7 10–4 Lactic acid, HC3H5O3, 1.3 10–4 Propionic acid, HC3H5O2, 1.3 10–5 Benzoic acid, HC7H5O2, 6.3 10–5 Given initially equimolar soutions of each weak acid, which solution will have the highest hydronium ion concentration once equilibrium is established?
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) cyanic acid B) benzoic acid C) lactic acid D) formic acid E) propionic acid ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.1 OBJ: Define acid-ionization constant and degree of ionization. TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength 10. Rank acetic acid (HC2H3O2), hydrocyanic acid (HOCN), and hydrofluoric acid (HF) in order of increasing strength. Acid HC2H3O2 HOCN HF
Ka 1.8 10–5 3.5 10–4 6.8 10–4
A) HC2H3O2 < HOCN < HF B) HOCN < HC2H3O2 < HF C) HOCN < HF < HC2H3O2 D) HF < HOCN < HC2H3O2 E) HF < HC2H3O2 < HOCN ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.1 OBJ: Define acid-ionization constant and degree of ionization. TOP: acids and bases | acid and base strength KEY: relative strengths of acids and bases MSC: general chemistry 11. What is the percent ionization of a 1.8 M HC2H3O2 solution (Ka = 1.8 10–5 ) at 25°C? A) 0.57 % B) 0.32 % C) 2.2 % D) 0.18 % E) 0.24 % ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.1 OBJ: Define acid-ionization constant and degree of ionization. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | experimental determination of Ka MSC: general chemistry 12. A 0.20 M solution of a weak monoprotic acid is 0.18 % ionized. What is the acid-ionization constant, Ka, for this acid? A) 1.3 10–6 B) 1.8 10–6 C) 0.9 10–4 D) 1.6 10–5 E) 6.5 10–7
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
4
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.1 OBJ: Define acid-ionization constant and degree of ionization. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | experimental determination of Ka MSC: general chemistry 13. What is the pH of an initially 0.580 M solution of a weak monoprotic acid that is 0.24 % ionized when equilibrium is established? (assume Ca/Ka 102) A) 2.85 B) 7.00 C) 0.85 D) 9.12 E) 11.15 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.1 OBJ: Define acid-ionization constant and degree of ionization. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base 14. At a temperature of 25C an initally 0.048 M solution of a weak monoprotic acid is 2.7 % ionized once equilibrium is established. What is the acid-ionization constant, Ka, for this acid? (assume Ca/Ka 102) A) 3.5 10 −5 B) 1.7 10 −6 C) 2.3 10 −1 D) 1.5 10 2 E) 1.7 10 −7 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.1 OBJ: Define acid-ionization constant and degree of ionization. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base 15. Equal moles of the indicated acids are dissolved in the amounts of water shown in the beakers below. In which solution will the percent ionization of the acid be the lowest?
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) All have equal percent ionization of acid. B) III C) IV D) II E) I ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.1 OBJ: Define acid-ionization constant and degree of ionization. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | experimental determination of Ka MSC: general chemistry 16. A 0.010 M aqueous solution of a weak acid HA has a pH of 5.0. What is the degree of ionization of HA in the solution? A) 1 % B) 0.01 % C) 10 % D) 0.1 % E) 0.001 % ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.1 OBJ: Define acid-ionization constant and degree of ionization. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | experimental determination of Ka MSC: general chemistry 17. A 7.5 10-3 M solution of acetic acid, HC2H3O2, is 4.9% ionized at 25°C. In a 7.5 10-4 M solution, the percentage of ionization would be A) 100%. B) <4.9%. C) >4.9%. D) the same. E) zero. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.1 OBJ: Define acid-ionization constant and degree of ionization. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | experimental determination of Ka MSC: general chemistry 18. A 0.10 M aqueous solution of a weak acid HA has a pH of 5.00. What is the value of Ka for HA? A) 1.0 10–8 B) 1.0 10–6 C) 1.0 10–7 D) 1.0 10–5 E) 1.0 10–9
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
6
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Determine Ka from the solution pH. (Example 16.1) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | calculations with Ka
REF: 16.1
MSC: general chemistry
19. An initially 2.2 M aqueous solution of a weak monoprotic acid has a total ion concentration of 1.31 10 −2 M when equilibrium is established. What is the acid-ionization constant, Ka, of the weak acid? (assume Ca/Ka 102) A) 2.0 10 −5 B) 1.7 10 −4 C) 1.3 10 −1 D) 4.1 10 −2 E) 9.9 10 −8 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Determine Ka from the solution pH. (Example 16.1) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base
REF: 16.1
20. A 0.10 M solution of a weak monoprotic acid has a hydronium-ion concentration of 4.2 10–4 M. What is the acid-ionization constant, Ka, for this acid? A) 2.0 10–2 B) 2.9 10–3 C) 4.2 10–4 D) 1.8 10–6 E) 5.0 10–5 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Determine Ka from the solution pH. (Example 16.1) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | calculations with Ka
REF: 16.1
MSC: general chemistry
21. A 0.10 M solution of a weak monoprotic acid has a pH of 3.40 at 25°C. What is the acidionization constant, Ka, for this acid? A) 1.6 10–6 B) 4.0 10–4 C) 3.4 10–5 D) 1.2 10–3 E) 1.8 10–7 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Determine Ka from the solution pH. (Example 16.1) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | calculations with Ka
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 16.1
MSC: general chemistry
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22. What is Ka for a weak monoprotic acid if a 0.020 M solution of the acid has a pH of 3.23 at 25°C? A) 5.9 10–2 B) 1.7 10–5 C) 7.8 10–2 D) 1.2 10–6 E) 3.5 10–4 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Determine Ka from the solution pH. (Example 16.1) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | calculations with Ka
REF: 16.1
MSC: general chemistry
23. The equilibrium hydronium ion concentration of an initially 0.150 M solution of a monoprotic weak acid is 1.4 10 −3 M. The acid dissociation constant is 1.31 10 −5 at 25°C. What is the pH of this solution? A) 2.85 B) 7.00 C) 11.15 D) 5.71 E) 0.82 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.1 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak acid solution using Ka (approximation method). (Example 16.2) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base 24. What is the equilibrium percent ionization of an initially 0.40 M solution of the monoprotic −5 acid propanoic acid, HC3H5O2, at 25°C (Ka = 1.34 10 )? A) 0.58% B) 1.2% C) 0.0013% D) 0.13% E) 1.4% ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.1 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak acid solution using Ka (approximation method). (Example 16.2) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base 25. What is the hydronium-ion concentration of a 0.30 M solution of HCN (Ka = 4.9 10–10) at 25°C? A) 1.7 10–4 M B) 3.4 10–6 M C) 2.2 10–6 M D) 1.2 10–5 M E) 4.0 10–5 M Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.1 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak acid solution using Ka (approximation method). (Example 16.2) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | calculations with Ka MSC: general chemistry 26. What is the equilibrium pH of an initially 0.26 M solution of the monoprotic acid hydrazoic acid at 25°C (Ka = 2.2 10 −5 )? A) 2.62 B) 7.00 C) 2.32 D) 11.68 E) 4.68 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.1 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak acid solution using Ka (approximation method). (Example 16.2) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base 27. What is the equilibrium hydronium ion concentration of an initially 4.2 M solution of hypochlorous acid, HOCl, at 25°C (Ka = 3.0 10 −8 )? A) 3.5 10 −4 M B) 2.3 10 −7 M C) 2.5 10 −4 M D) 5.0 10 −4 M E) 8.5 10 −5 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.1 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak acid solution using Ka (approximation method). (Example 16.2) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base 28. What is the equilibrium pH of an initially 5.1 M solution of hypoiodous acid, HOI, at 25°C (Ka = 2.3 10 −11 )? A) 4.97 B) 7.00 C) 5.12 D) 4.81 E) 8.33 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.1 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak acid solution using Ka (approximation method). (Example 16.2) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
9
29. It is safe to make the simplifying assumption that x can be neglected in the denominator of the equilibrium equation when A) . B) . C) D)
. .
E)
.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.1 OBJ: State the assumption that allows for using approximations when solving problems. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry 30. What is the equilibrium concentration of chloroacetic acid, HC2H2O2Cl, in a solution prepared by dissolving 0.0221 mol of HC2H2O2Cl in 1.20 L of water? For chloroacetic acid, Ka = 1.4 10–3. A) 4.43 10–3 M B) 1.84 10–2 M C) 5.08 10–3 M D) 1.40 10–2 M E) 9.21 10–3 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.1 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak acid solution using Ka (quadratic formula). (Example 16.3) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | calculations with Ka MSC: general chemistry 31. What is the pH of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.0265 mol of chloroacetic acid, (HC2H2O2Cl) in 1.30 L of water? For chloroacetic acid, Ka = 1.4 10–3. A) 1.69 B) 2.33 C) 11.67 D) 12.31 E) 2.27 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.1 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak acid solution using Ka (quadratic formula). (Example 16.3) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | calculations with Ka MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
10
32. What is the percent ionization of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.0111 mol of chloroacetic acid, (HC2H2O2Cl) in 1.80 L of water? For chloroacetic acid, Ka = 1.4 10–3. A) 0.62 % B) 100 % C) 38 % D) 62 % E) 0.23 % ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.1 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak acid solution using Ka (quadratic formula). (Example 16.3) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | calculations with Ka MSC: general chemistry 33. A 8.80-g sample of homogentisic acid, a weak organic acid having Ka = 4.0 10–5, is dissolved in 25.00 mL of water and its pH is measured to be 2.039. What is the molar mass of homogentisic acid? A) 168 g/mol B) 964 g/mol C) 2.09 g/mol D) 4.20 g/mol E) 352 g/mol ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 16.1 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak acid solution using Ka (quadratic formula). (Example 16.3) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry 34. Which of the following represents the usual relationship of acid-ionization constants for a triprotic acid? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.2 OBJ: State the general trend in the ionization constants of a polyprotic acids. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | polyprotic acids MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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35. Phosphoric acid, H3PO4, will undergo three successive ionization reactions to varying extents in water. What is the balanced equilibrium identified as Ka3? A) H2PO4–(aq) + H2O(l) B) HPO42–(aq) + H2O(l) C) H2PO4–(aq) + H3O+(aq) D) H3PO4(aq) + H2O(l) E) PO43–(aq) + H2O(l)
H3O+(aq) + HPO42–(aq) PO43–(aq) + H3O+(aq) H3PO4(aq) + H2O(l) H3O+(aq) + H2PO4–(aq) HPO42–(aq) + OH–(aq)
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.2 OBJ: State the general trend in the ionization constants of a polyprotic acids. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base 36. In a 0.01 M solution of 1,4-butanedicarboxylic acid, HOOCCH2CH2COOH (Ka1 = 2.9 10– 5 , Ka2 = 5.3 10–6), which species is present in the highest concentration? A) HOOCCH2CH2COO–(aq) B) HOOCCH2CH2COOH(aq) C) H3O+(aq) D) –OOCCH2CH2COO–(aq) E) OH–(aq) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.2 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a solution of a diprotic acid. (Example 16.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | polyprotic acids MSC: general chemistry 37. In a 0.01 M solution of 1,4-butanedicarboxylic acid, HOOCCH2CH2COOH (Ka1 = 2.9 10– 5 , Ka2 = 5.3 10–6), which species is present in the lowest concentration? A) –OOCCH2CH2COO–(aq) B) H2O C) HOOCCH2CH2COO–(aq) D) H3O+(aq) E) HOOCCH2CH2COOH(aq) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.2 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a solution of a diprotic acid. (Example 16.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | polyprotic acids MSC: general chemistry 38. For a 0.05 M H2SO3 solution, which of the following relationships is true? A) [SO32–] > [H2SO3] B) [SO32–] > [HSO3–] C) [HSO3–] > [H2SO3] D) [H2SO3] > [H+] E) [H+] > [H2SO3] ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.2 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a solution of a diprotic acid. (Example 16.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | polyprotic acids MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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39. Hydrosulfuric acid, H2S, is a weak diprotic acid. In a 0.1 M solution of the acid, which of the following species is present in the largest amount? A) HS– B) S2– C) H2S D) H3O+ E) OH– ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.2 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a solution of a diprotic acid. (Example 16.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | polyprotic acids MSC: general chemistry 40. For a 0.10 M solution of glutaric acid, HO2C(CH2)3CO2H (Ka1 = 4.6 10–5, Ka2 = 3.9 10– 6 ), rank the following species in order of increasing equilibrium concentration. A) H3O+ < –O2C(CH2)3COO– < HO2C(CH2)3COO– < OH– < HO2C(CH2)3CO2H B) OH– < –O2C(CH2)3COO– < H3O+ < HO2C(CH2)3COO– < HO2C(CH2)3CO2H C) OH– < –O2C(CH2)3COO– < HO2C(CH2)3COO– < H3O+ < HO2C(CH2)3CO2H D) H3O+ < HO2C(CH2)3CO2H < HO2C(CH2)3COO– < –O2C(CH2)3COO– < OH– E) OH– < –O2C(CH2)3COO– < HO2C(CH2)3COO– < HO2C(CH2)3CO2H < H3O+ ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.2 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a solution of a diprotic acid. (Example 16.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | polyprotic acids MSC: general chemistry 41. Which of the following is/are true concerning multiprotic acids where Ka1 >> Ka2? 1.
2. 3.
In a solution made from H3A, the equilibrium concentration of H3O+ and H2A− can be accurately determined from the first ionization without accounting for the remaining ionizations. In a solution made from H2A, the equilibrium concentration of the fully deprotonated form of the acid (A2-) is approximately equal to Ka1. In general the second ionization constant of a triprotic acid is nearly equal to the third ionization constant and both are much smaller than the first ionization constant.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.2 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a solution of a diprotic acid. (Example 16.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
13
42. Two unlabeled solutions are found to have a pH of 4.00. Which of the following is/are reasonable conclusions regarding the composition of each solution? 1. 2. 3.
The molar concentration of H3O+ is the same in both solutions. The relatively high pH compared to a solution of strong acid is consistent with neither solution containing a strong acid. One or both solutions may contain a weak monoprotic or multiprotic acid.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.2 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a solution of a diprotic acid. (Example 16.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base 43. In a 0.10 M solution of a diprotic acid H2A (Ka1 = 3.6 10–5 and Ka2 = 9.8 10–10 at 25°C), what is the equilibrium concentration of A2–? A) 9.9 10–6 M B) 9.8 10–10 M C) 1.9 10–3 M D) 0.20 M E) 0.10 M ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.2 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a solution of a diprotic acid. (Example 16.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | polyprotic acids MSC: general chemistry 44. The equilibrium hydronium ion concentration of an initially 0.228 M solution of a diprotic weak acid (H2A) is 1.9 10 −3 M. What is Ka1? (assume Ca/Ka 102 and Ka1 >> Ka2) A) 1.6 10 −5 B) 2.3 10 −6 C) 3.0 10 −8 D) 3.6 10 −6 E) not enough information provided ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.2 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a solution of a diprotic acid. (Example 16.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
14
45. What is the hydronium-ion concentration in a 0.030 M solution of carbonic acid, H2CO3? For carbonic acid, Ka1 = 4.2 10–7 and Ka2 = 4.8 10–11. A) 3.0 10–2 M B) 4.2 10–7 M C) 4.8 10–11 M D) 1.1 10–4 M E) 5.6 10–5 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.2 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a solution of a diprotic acid. (Example 16.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | polyprotic acids MSC: general chemistry 46. What is the concentration of HCO3– in a 0.029 M solution of carbonic acid, H2CO3? For carbonic acid, Ka1 = 4.2 10–7 and Ka2 = 4.8 10–11. A) 1.1 10–4 M B) 2.9 10–2 M C) 5.5 10–5 M D) 4.8 10–11 M E) 4.2 10–7 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.2 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a solution of a diprotic acid. (Example 16.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | polyprotic acids MSC: general chemistry 47. What is the concentration of CO32– in a 0.030 M solution of carbonic acid, H2CO3? For carbonic acid, Ka1 = 4.2 10–7 and Ka2 = 4.8 10–11. A) 3.0 10–2 M B) 1.1 10–4 M C) 5.6 10–5 M D) 4.8 10–11 M E) 4.2 10–7 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.2 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a solution of a diprotic acid. (Example 16.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | polyprotic acids MSC: general chemistry 48. What is the hydronium-ion concentration of a 0.350 M oxalic acid, H2C2O4, solution? For oxalic acid, Ka1 = 5.6 10–2 and Ka2 = 5.1 10–5. A) 1.1 10–1 M B) 1.4 10–1 M C) 1.0 10–7 M D) 4.2 10–3 M E) 4.2 10–3 M
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
15
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 16.2 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a solution of a diprotic acid. (Example 16.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | polyprotic acids MSC: general chemistry 49. What is the hydroxide-ion concentration of a 0.240 M oxalic acid, H2C2O4, solution? For oxalic acid, Ka1 = 5.6 10–2 and Ka2 = 5.1 10–5. A) 2.9 10–12 M B) 8.6 10–14 M C) 3.5 10–3 M D) 1.1 10–13 M E) 1.0 10–7 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 16.2 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a solution of a diprotic acid. (Example 16.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | polyprotic acids MSC: general chemistry 50. What is the concentration of HC2O4– in a 0.390 M oxalic acid, H2C2O4, solution? For oxalic acid, Ka1 = 5.6 10–2 and Ka2 = 5.1 10–5. A) 4.4 10–3 M B) 1.2 10–1 M C) 1.5 10–1 M D) 4.5 10–3 M E) 5.1 10–5 M ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 16.2 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a solution of a diprotic acid. (Example 16.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | polyprotic acids MSC: general chemistry 51. What is the concentration of C2O42– in a 0.370 M oxalic acid, H2C2O4, solution? For oxalic acid, Ka1 = 5.6 10–2 and Ka2 = 5.1 10–5. A) 1.2 10–1 M B) 4.3 10–3 M C) 4.3 10–3 M D) 5.1 10–5 M E) 1.4 10–1 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 16.2 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a solution of a diprotic acid. (Example 16.4) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | polyprotic acids MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
16
52. What is the equilibrium concentration of H2C2O4 in a 0.230 M oxalic acid, H2C2O4, solution? For oxalic acid, Ka1 = 5.6 10–2 and Ka2 = 5.1 10–5. A) 1.4 10–1 M B) 1.1 10–1 M C) 2.3 10–1 M D) 5.1 10–5 M E) 8.9 10–2 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 16.2 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak acid solution using Ka (quadratic formula). (Example 16.3) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | polyprotic acids MSC: general chemistry 53. For which of the following equilibria does Kc correspond to a base-ionization constant, Kb? A) H3O+(aq) + OH–(aq) 2H2O(l) – – B) HCO3 (aq) + OH (aq) CO32–(aq) + H2O(l) C) HOCl(aq) + H2O(l) H3O+(aq) + OCl–(aq) D) CO32–(aq) + H2O(l) HCO3–(aq) + OH–(aq) E) HCHO2(aq) + NH3(aq) CHO2–(aq) + NH4+(aq) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.3 OBJ: Write the chemical equation for a weak base undergoing ionization in aqueous solution. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: base-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry 54. For which of the following equilibria does Kc correspond to the base-ionization constant, Kb, of HCO3–? A) HCO3–(aq) + H2O(l) CO32–(aq) + H3O+(aq) B) HCO3–(aq) + H2O(l) H2CO3(aq) + OH–(aq) C) H2CO3(aq) + H2O(l) HCO3–(aq) + H3O+(aq) D) HCO3–(aq) + OH–(aq) CO32–(aq) + H2O(l) E) HCO3–(aq) + H3O+(aq) H2CO3(aq) + H2O(l) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.3 OBJ: Write the chemical equation for a weak base undergoing ionization in aqueous solution. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: base-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry 55. Which of the following reactions is associated with the definition of Kb? A) CN–(aq) + H+(aq) HCN(aq) B) F–(aq) + H2O(l) HF(aq) + OH–(aq) C) Zn(OH2)62+(aq) [Zn(OH2)5OH]+(aq) + H+(aq) D) Cr3+(aq) + 6H2O(l) Cr(OH2)63+(aq) E) none of these
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.3 OBJ: Define base-ionization constant. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: base-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry 56. What is the base-ionization equilibrium constant for an aqueous solution of ammonia, NH3? A) B) C) D) E) none of these ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.3 OBJ: Define base-ionization constant. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: base-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry 57. What is the pOH of a 0.20 M solution of pyridine (Kb = 1.4 10–9) at 25°C? A) 1.40 B) 4.08 C) 8.85 D) 4.78 E) 11.00 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.3 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak base solution using Kb. (Example 16.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: base-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry 58. What is the pH of a 0.24 M solution of methylamine (CH3NH2, Kb = 4.4 10–4) at 25oC? A) 5.63 B) 0.62 C) 12.00 D) 13.38 E) 2.00 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.3 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak base solution using Kb. (Example 16.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: base-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
18
59. What is the hydronium-ion concentration at equilibrium in a 0.72 M solution of aniline (C6H5NH2, Kb = 4.2 10–10) at 25oC? A) 1.4 10–14 M B) 7.2 10–1 M C) 5.8 10–10 M D) 1.7 10–5 M E) 2.4 10–5 M ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.3 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak base solution using Kb. (Example 16.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: base-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry 60. What is the hydroxide-ion concentration at equilibrium in a 0.17 M solution of ethylamine (C2H5NH2, Kb = 4.7 10–4) at 25oC? A) 8.7 10–3 M B) 5.4 10–2 M C) 5.9 10–14 M D) 1.1 10–12 M E) 1.7 10–1 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.3 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak base solution using Kb. (Example 16.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: base-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry 61. What is the percent ionization at equilibrium in a 0.75 M solution of dimethylamine, (CH3)2NH (Kb = 5.1 10–4), at 25oC? A) 2.6% B) 0.068% C) 1.9% D) 100% E) 75% ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.3 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak base solution using Kb. (Example 16.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: base-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry 62. What is the equilibrium concentration of ammonium ion in a 0.51 M solution of ammonia (NH3, Kb = 1.8 10–5) at 25oC? A) 2.0 10–14 M B) 3.3 10–12 M C) 3.0 10–3 M D) 6.0 10–3 M E) 5.1 10–1 M
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.3 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak base solution using Kb. (Example 16.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: base-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry 63. A solution of aniline (C6H5NH2, Kb = 4.2 10–10) has a pH of 8.75 at 25oC. What was the initial concentration of aniline? A) 1.8 10–9 M B) 9.3 10–9 M C) 7.7 10–2 M D) 4.2 10–10 M E) 5.6 10–6 M ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.3 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak base solution using Kb. (Example 16.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: base-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry 64. A 0.0884 M solution of a weak base has a pH of 11.79. What is the identity of the weak base? Weak Base Kb Ethylamine (CH3CH2NH2) 4.7 10–4 Hydrazine (N2H4) 1.7 10–6 Hydroxylamine (NH2OH) 1.1 10–8 Pyridine (C5H5N) 1.4 10–9 Aniline (C6H5NH2) 4.2 10–10 A) hydrazine B) pyridine C) aniline D) ethylamine E) hydroxylamine ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.3 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak base solution using Kb. (Example 16.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: base-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry 65. Saccharin is a weak organic base with a Kb of 4.80 10–3. A 0.297-g sample of saccharin dissolved in 25.0 mL of water has a pH of 12.190. What is the molar mass of saccharin? A) 0.616 g/mol B) 19.3 g/mol C) 184 g/mol D) 181 g/mol E) 119 g/mol
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
20
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 16.3 OBJ: Calculate concentrations of species in a weak base solution using Kb. (Example 16.5) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: base-ionization equilibria MSC: general chemistry 66. Which of the following equilibria best represents the hydrolysis reaction that occurs in an aqueous solution of NH4Cl? A) Cl–(aq) + H3O+(aq) HCl(aq) + H2O(l) B) NH4+(aq) + H2O(l) NH3(aq) + H3O+(aq) + – C) NH4 (aq) + OH (aq) NH3(aq) + H2O(l) D) Cl–(aq) + H2O(l) HCl(aq) + OH–(aq) E) NH4+(aq) + Cl–(aq) NH4Cl(s) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.4 OBJ: Write the hydrolysis reaction of an ion to form an acidic solution. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions MSC: general chemistry 67. Which of the following equilibria best represents the hydrolysis reaction that occurs in an aqueous solution of KNO2? A) NO2–(aq) + H2O(l) HNO3(aq) + 2H+(aq) B) NO2–(aq) + H2O(l) HNO2(aq) + OH–(aq) C) NO2–(aq) + H3O+(aq) HNO2(aq) + H2O(l) + – D) K (aq) + NO2 (aq) + H2O(l) KOH(aq) + HNO2(aq) + E) K (aq) + H2O(l) KOH(aq) + H+(aq) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.4 OBJ: Write the hydrolysis reaction of an ion to form a basic solution. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions MSC: general chemistry 68. Which of the following statements is true concerning a 0.1 M solution of Na2S and a 0.1 M solution of NaHS? For H2S, Ka1 = 1.0 10–7 and Ka2 = 1.3 10–13. A) Both solutions are neutral. B) The sodium hydrogen sulfide solution is the more basic. C) Both solutions have the same pH. D) The sodium sulfide solution is the more basic. E) Both the solutions are acidic. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.4 OBJ: Predict whether a salt solution is acidic, basic, or neutral. (Example 16.6) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions | prediction of salt solution acid-base properties MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
21
69. Which of the following solutions has the highest hydroxide-ion concentration? A) 0.10 M NH4ClO4 B) 0.10 M NaI C) 0.10 M NaNO3 D) 0.10 M NH4Cl E) 0.10 M NaCN ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.4 OBJ: Predict whether a salt solution is acidic, basic, or neutral. (Example 16.6) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions | prediction of salt solution acid-base properties MSC: general chemistry 70. Given the following, what will be the approximate equilibrium pH of an aqueous solution of ammonium acetate, NH4CH3CO2? NH4+ CH3CO2−
Ka = 5.69 x10-10 Kb = 5.71 x10-10
A) very basic B) very acidic C) nearly neutral ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.4 OBJ: Predict whether a salt solution is acidic, basic, or neutral. (Example 16.6) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base 71. Given the following, what will be the approximate equilibrium pH of an aqueous solution of ammonium cyanide, NH4CN? NH4+ HCN
Ka = 5.69 x10-10 Ka = 6.2 x10-10
A) slightly basic B) slightly acidic C) nearly neutral ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.4 OBJ: Predict whether a salt solution is acidic, basic, or neutral. (Example 16.6) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base 72. The amphiprotic anion monohydrogenphosphate acts as both an acid and a base in aqueous solution. Given the following acid-ionization and base-hydrolysis constants, what will be the approximate equilibrium pH of an aqueous solution of sodium monohydrogenphosphate? −13
Ka = 4.22 10 −7 Kb = 1.58 10
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) basic B) acidic C) neutral ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.4 OBJ: Predict whether a salt solution is acidic, basic, or neutral. (Example 16.6) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base 73. Which sodium salt(s) of an amphiprotic ion will produce an acidic solution when added to pure water? 1. 2. 3.
NaHSO4 (Ka = 1.03 x10-2; Kb = 9.71 x10-13) NaHCO3 (Ka = 4.69 x10-11; Kb = 2.24 x10-8) NaHSO3 (Ka = 6.73 x10-8; Kb = 7.19 x10-13)
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 1 and 2 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.4 OBJ: Predict whether a salt solution is acidic, basic, or neutral. (Example 16.6) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base 74. Which of the following salts will produce an acidic solution when added to pure water? A) Cs2CO3 B) NaF C) KCN D) Al(NO3)3 E) Li2S ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.4 OBJ: Predict whether a salt solution is acidic, basic, or neutral. (Example 16.6) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base 75. Which of the following salts is most likely to form an aqueous solution having the pH shown in the figure below?
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) Na2CO3 B) RbF C) NH4Cl D) Zn(NO3)2 E) KCl ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.4 OBJ: Predict whether a salt solution is acidic, basic, or neutral. (Example 16.6) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions | prediction of salt solution acid-base properties MSC: general chemistry 76. Which of the following salts is most likely to form an aqueous solution having the pH shown in the figure below?
A) NH4Cl B) NaBr C) K2CO3 D) RbCN E) LiNO3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.4 OBJ: Predict whether a salt solution is acidic, basic, or neutral. (Example 16.6) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions | prediction of salt solution acid-base properties MSC: general chemistry 77. Which of the following salts is most likely to form an aqueous solution having the pH shown in the figure below?
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) KCl B) Zn(NO3)2 C) NaCN D) NH4Cl E) LiBr ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.4 OBJ: Predict whether a salt solution is acidic, basic, or neutral. (Example 16.6) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions | prediction of salt solution acid-base properties MSC: general chemistry 78. Which of the following salts will produce a neutral solution when added to pure water? A) LiHCO3 B) NH4NO3 C) Na2SO4 D) RbNO2 E) KNO3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.4 OBJ: Predict whether a salt solution is acidic, basic, or neutral. (Example 16.6) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions | prediction of salt solution acid-base properties MSC: general chemistry 79. Which of the following salts forms an acidic aqueous solution? A) NaNO2 B) KCH3CO2 C) Rb2O D) FeCl3 E) NaCN ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.4 OBJ: Predict whether a salt solution is acidic, basic, or neutral. (Example 16.6) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base 80. Consider the reaction NH3(aq) + H2O(l) NH4+(aq) + OH–(aq). Kb for NH3 is 1.8 10– 5 at 25°C. What is Ka for the NH4+ ion at 25°C? A) 5.6 104 B) 5.6 10–10 C) 1.8 10–5 D) 7.2 10–12 E) 9.2 10–8
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Obtain Ka from Kb or Kb from Ka. (Example 16.7) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions
REF: 16.4
MSC: general chemistry
81. What is Ka at 25°C for the following equilibrium? C6H5NH3+(aq) + H2O(l)
C6H5NH2(aq) + H3O+(aq)
Kb (C6H5NH2) = 4.2 10–10 at 25°C. A) 4.2 10–4 B) 2.4 103 C) 4.2 10–10 D) 4.2 104 E) 2.4 10–5 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Obtain Ka from Kb or Kb from Ka. (Example 16.7) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions
REF: 16.4
MSC: general chemistry
82. The Ka for hydrofluoric acid is 6.8 10–4. What is Kb for the fluoride ion? A) 1.5 10–11 B) 6.8 10–4 C) 1.5 103 D) 6.8 1010 E) 6.8 10–18 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Obtain Ka from Kb or Kb from Ka. (Example 16.7) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions
REF: 16.4
MSC: general chemistry
83. What is Kb for the following equilibrium? Ka for HNO2 is 5.0 10–4. NO2–(aq) + H2O(l)
HNO2(aq) + OH–(aq)
A) 2.0 10–4 B) 5.0 10–4 C) 5.0 1010 D) 5.0 1018 E) 2.0 10–11 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Obtain Ka from Kb or Kb from Ka. (Example 16.7) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 16.4
MSC: general chemistry
26
84. What is Ka for the methylammonium cation, CH3NH3+, at 25°C? (Kb for CH3NH2 = 4.4 10–4 at 25°C.) A) 1.0 10–7 B) 4.4 1010 C) 4.4 10–18 D) 2.3 10–11 E) 4.4 10–4 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Obtain Ka from Kb or Kb from Ka. (Example 16.7) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions
REF: 16.4
MSC: general chemistry
85. The two acid-ionization constants for sulfurous acid, H2SO3, are 1.3 10–2 and 6.3 10–8 at 25°C. What is Kb for the HSO3– ion? A) 6.3 10–8. B) 6.2 10–22. C) 7.7 10–13. D) 1.3 10–2. E) 8.2 10–10. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Obtain Ka from Kb or Kb from Ka. (Example 16.7) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions
REF: 16.4
MSC: general chemistry
86. What is Kc for the following equilibrium? For phosphoric acid (H3PO4), Ka1 = 6.9 10–3, Ka2 = 6.2 10–8, and Ka3 = 4.8 10–13. HPO42–(aq) + OH–(aq)
PO43–(aq) + H2O(l)
A) 7.3 10–16 B) 6.4 10–23 C) 491 D) 48 E) 2.3 10–35 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Obtain Ka from Kb or Kb from Ka. (Example 16.7) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions
REF: 16.4
MSC: general chemistry
87. What is the pH of a 0.38 M solution of sodium propionate, NaC3H5O2, at 25°C? (For propionic acid, HC3H5O2, Ka = 1.3 10–5 at 25°C.) A) 6.11 B) 4.77 C) 11.10 D) 7.89 E) 9.23
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.4 OBJ: Calculating concentrations of species in a salt solution. (Example 16.8) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions | pH of a salt solution MSC: general chemistry 88. What is the hydroxide-ion concentration in a 0.22 M solution of Na2CO3? For carbonic acid, Ka1 = 4.2 10–7 and Ka2 = 4.8 10–11. (Kw = 1.0 10–14) A) 6.8 10–3 M B) 2.0 10–4 M C) 7.2 10–5 M D) 4.2 10–9 M E) 3.2 10–6 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.4 OBJ: Calculating concentrations of species in a salt solution. (Example 16.8) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions | pH of a salt solution MSC: general chemistry 89. In a 0.10 M solution of sodium hydrogen sulfate, the HSO4– ion is 29% dissociated. What is Ka2 for H2SO4? A) 2.4 10–1 B) 1.2 10–2 C) 1.0 10–2 D) 8.4 10–3 E) 2.0 10–2 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.4 OBJ: Calculating concentrations of species in a salt solution. (Example 16.8) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions | pH of a salt solution MSC: general chemistry 90. What is the pH of a solution prepared by adding 0.490 g of ammonium iodide to 155 mL of water? Kb of NH3 is 1.8 10–5. A) 5.46 B) 3.21 C) 7.00 D) 8.54 E) 10.79 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.4 OBJ: Calculating concentrations of species in a salt solution. (Example 16.8) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions | pH of a salt solution MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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91. What is the pOH of a solution prepared by adding 1.12 g of ammonium iodide to 105 mL of water? Kb of NH3 is 1.8 10–5. A) 2.94 B) 11.06 C) 7.00 D) 5.19 E) 8.81 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.4 OBJ: Calculating concentrations of species in a salt solution. (Example 16.8) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions | pH of a salt solution MSC: general chemistry 92. What is the pH of a solution prepared by adding 1.67 g of potassium nitrite to 185 mL of water? Ka of HNO2 is 4.5 10–4. A) 5.82 B) 2.18 C) 7.00 D) 11.82 E) 8.18 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.4 OBJ: Calculating concentrations of species in a salt solution. (Example 16.8) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions | pH of a salt solution MSC: general chemistry 93. What is the pOH of a solution prepared by adding 1.42 g of sodium nitrite to 125 mL of water? Ka of HNO2 is 4.5 10–4. A) 11.92 B) 2.08 C) 8.28 D) 7.00 E) 5.72 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.4 OBJ: Calculating concentrations of species in a salt solution. (Example 16.8) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-base properties of salt solutions | pH of a salt solution MSC: general chemistry 94. What is the hydroxide-ion concentration of a 0.250 M sodium oxalate (Na2C2O4) solution? For oxalic acid (H2C2O4), Ka1 = 5.6 10–2 and Ka2 = 5.1 10–5. A) 7.0 10–6 M B) 1.0 10–7 M C) 9.4 10–2 M D) 3.5 10–3 M E) 2.1 10–7 M Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 16.4 OBJ: Calculating concentrations of species in a salt solution. (Example 16.8) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base KEY: acid-ionization equilibria | polyprotic acids MSC: general chemistry 95. Which of the following substances, if added to a 0.10 M HC2H3O2 solution, would not increase the hydronium-ion concentration? A) Na2CO3(s) B) NaHSO4(s) C) H2C2O4(s) D) HF(l) E) HCl(g) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.5 OBJ: Explain the common-ion effect. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: common-ion effect MSC: general chemistry 96. What will happen if a small amount of hydrochloric acid is added to a 0.1 M solution of HF? A) The percent ionization of HF will decrease. B) Ka for HF will increase. C) Ka for HF will decrease. D) The percent ionization of HF will remain unchanged. E) The percent ionization of HF will increase. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.5 OBJ: Explain the common-ion effect. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: common-ion effect MSC: general chemistry 97. What will happen if a small amount of sodium hydroxide is added to a 0.1 M solution of ammonia? A) Kb for ammonia will decrease. B) The percent ionization of ammonia will increase. C) Kb for ammonia will increase. D) The percent ionization of ammonia will decrease. E) The percent ionization of ammonia will remain unchanged. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.5 OBJ: Explain the common-ion effect. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: common-ion effect MSC: general chemistry 98. 15.0 mL of 0.50 M HCl is added to a 100.0-mL sample of 0.377 M HNO2 (Ka for HNO2 = 4.0 10–4). What is the equilibrium concentration of NO2– ions? A) 3.3 10–1 M B) 1.3 10–4 M C) 4.5 10–2 M D) 2.0 10–3 M E) none of these Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.5 OBJ: Calculate the common-ion effect on acid ionization (effect of a strong acid). (Example 16.9) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another soluteKEY: common-ion effect MSC: general chemistry 99. When equal volumes of solutions are mixed, as shown below, what will be the relative pH values of the resulting solutions?
A) I < V < III < II < IV B) V < I < IV < II < III C) III < I < IV = V < II D) I = V < III < II < IV E) III < I = V < III < IV < II ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 16.5 OBJ: Calculate the common-ion effect on acid ionization (effect of a conjugate base). (Example 16.10) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: common-ion effect MSC: general chemistry 100. For a solution equimolar in HCN and NaCN, which statement is false? A) [H+] is equal to Ka. B) [H+] is larger than it would be if only the HCN were in solution. C) Addition of NaOH will increase [CN–] and decrease [HCN]. D) Addition of more NaCN will shift the acid-dissociation equilibrium of HCN to the left. E) Addition of more HCN will shift the acid-dissociation equilibrium of HCN to the right. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.5 OBJ: Calculate the common-ion effect on acid ionization (effect of a conjugate base). (Example 16.10) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: common-ion effect MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
31
101. What is the pH of the solution if 0.021 g of sodium fluoride is added to 130.0 mL of a 0.098 M HF solution? Ka for HF is 6.8 10–4. A) 2.21 B) 5.08 C) 2.88 D) 2.11 E) 4.85 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.5 OBJ: Calculate the common-ion effect on acid ionization (effect of a conjugate base). (Example 16.10) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: common-ion effect MSC: general chemistry 102. What is the equilibrium fluoride ion concentration of a solution that initially consists of 0.47 M HF and 0.418 M HCl? Ka for HF is 6.8 10–4. A) 7.7 10 −4 M B) 6.0 10 −4 M C) 3.4 10 −3 M D) 1.8 10 −2 M E) 3.8 10 −2 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.5 OBJ: Calculate the common-ion effect on acid ionization (effect of a conjugate base). (Example 16.10) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute 103. Calculate the pH of a solution that is 2.00 M HF, 1.00 M NaOH, and 0.690 M NaF. (Ka = 6.8 10–4) A) 3.40 B) 2.94 C) 3.17 D) 2.71 E) none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 16.5 OBJ: Calculate the common-ion effect on acid ionization (effect of a conjugate base). (Example 16.10) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: common-ion effect MSC: general chemistry 104. Which of the following combinations is not suitable for making a buffer? A) HClO4 and NaClO4 B) NaH2PO4 and Na2HPO4 C) NH4Cl and NH3 D) H3PO4 and NaH2PO4 E) Na2CO3 and NaHCO3
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
32
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.6 OBJ: Define buffer and buffer capacity. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: buffer MSC: general chemistry 105. Which of the following would be the best mole ratio of conjugate acid to conjugate base for a large buffer capacity? A) 100:1 B) 1:1 C) 1:100 D) 1:10 E) 10:1 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.6 OBJ: Define buffer and buffer capacity. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: buffer MSC: general chemistry 106. Which of the following is the most effective buffer system for a pH value of 4.45? A) H2CO3/HCO3– (Ka1 for H2CO3 is 4.3 10–7) B) HCO3–/CO32– (Ka2 for H2CO3 is 4.8 10–11) C) H2S/HS– (Ka1 for H2S is 8.9 10–8) D) HC2O4–/C2O42– (Ka2 for H2C2O4 is 5.1 10–5) E) H3PO4/H2PO4– (Ka1 for H3PO4 is 6.9 10–3) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.6 OBJ: Define buffer and buffer capacity. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: buffer | Henderson-Hasselbalch equation MSC: general chemistry 107. Which of the following will give a buffer with a pH near 4.76 when the acid and conjugate base are mixed in equimolar proportions? Acid NH4 (from ammonia) HC2H3O2 (acetic acid) HF (hydrofluoric acid) CH3CH2NH3+ (from ethylamine) +
Ka 5.69 10-10 1.75 10-5 6.8 10-4 2.12 10-11
A) acetic acid B) hydrofluoric acid C) ethylamine D) none E) ammonia ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.6 OBJ: Define buffer and buffer capacity. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
33
108. Which of the following solutions will not yield an effective NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4 buffer? A) 2.0 M NaH2PO4 + 1.0 M NaOH B) 1.0 M NaH2PO4 + 1.0 M Na2HPO4 C) 1.0 M H3PO4 + 1.0 M Na3PO4 D) 2.0 M Na2HPO4 + 1.0 M HCl E) 1.0 M H3PO4 + 1.0 M NaH2PO4 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.6 OBJ: Define buffer and buffer capacity. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: buffer MSC: general chemistry 109. Which of the following mixtures will be a buffer when dissolved in 1 L of water? A) 0.3 mol KCl and 0.3 mol HCl B) 0.2 mol HC2H3O2 and 0.1 mol NaOH C) 0.4 mol NH3 and 0.4 mol HCl D) 0.2 mol HBr and 0.1 mol NaOH E) 0.1 mol Ba(OH)2 and 0.2 mol HCl ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.6 OBJ: Define buffer and buffer capacity. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: buffer MSC: general chemistry 110. Which of the following solutions would show the greatest change in pH upon the addition of 10.0 mL of 1.0 M NaOH to 1.0 L of the solution? A) 0.50 M HC2H3O2 B) 0.50 M HC2H3O2 + 0.50 M NaC2H3O2 C) 0.10 M HC2H3O2 + 0.10 M NaC2H3O2 D) 0.10 M HC2H3O2 E) 0.50 M NaC2H3O2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.6 OBJ: Define buffer and buffer capacity. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: buffer MSC: general chemistry 111. Which of the following mixtures will be a buffer when dissolved in a liter of water? A) 0.4 mol NH3 and 0.4 mol HCl B) 0.3 mol NaCl and 0.3 mol HCl C) 0.1 mol Ca(OH)2 and 0.3 mol HI D) 0.2 mol H3PO4 and 0.1 mol NaOH E) 0.2 mol HBr and 0.1 mol NaOH ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.6 OBJ: Define buffer and buffer capacity. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: buffer MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
34
112. A weak acid, HF, is in solution with dissolved sodium fluoride, NaF. If HCl is added, which ion will react with the extra hydrogen ions from the HCl to keep the pH from changing? A) Na+ B) OH– C) Na– D) F– E) none of these ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.6 OBJ: Describe the pH change of a buffer solution with the addition of acid or base. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: buffer MSC: general chemistry 113. Suppose a buffer solution is made from formic acid (HCHO2) and sodium formate (NaCHO2). What is the net ionic equation for the reaction that occurs when a small amount of hydrochloric acid is added to the buffer? A) H3O+(aq) + HCHO2(aq) → H2O(l) + H2CHO2+(aq) B) H3O+(aq) + CHO2–(aq) → HCHO2(aq) + H2O(l) C) HCl(aq) + CHO2–(aq) → HCHO2(aq) + Cl–(aq) D) HCl(aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l) + Cl–(aq) E) H3O+(aq) + OH–(aq) → 2H2O(l) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.6 OBJ: Describe the pH change of a buffer solution with the addition of acid or base. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: buffer | adding an acid or base to a buffer MSC: general chemistry 114. Suppose a buffer solution is made from formic acid (HCHO2) and sodium formate (NaCHO2). What is the net ionic equation for the reaction that occurs when a small amount of sodium hydroxide is added to the buffer? A) NaOH(aq) + HCHO2(aq) → NaCHO2(aq) + H2O(l) B) Na+(aq) + HCHO2(aq) → NaH(aq) + HCO2+(aq) C) OH–(aq) + HCHO2(aq) → CHO2–(aq) + H2O(l) D) H3O+(aq) + OH–(aq) → 2H2O(l) E) NaOH(aq) + H3O+(aq) → Na+(aq) + 2H2O(l) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.6 OBJ: Describe the pH change of a buffer solution with the addition of acid or base. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: buffer | adding an acid or base to a buffer MSC: general chemistry 115. What is the pH of a solution that is 0.12 M in acetic acid, HC2H3O2, and 0.50 M in sodium acetate, NaC2H3O2, at 25°C? Ka of acetic acid is 1.8 10–5. A) 4.12 B) 1.53 C) 4.74 D) 2.29 E) 5.36
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
35
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.6 OBJ: Calculate the pH of a buffer from given volumes of solution. (Example 16.11) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: buffer | Henderson-Hasselbalch equation MSC: general chemistry 116. What is the hydrogen-ion concentration of a solution that is 0.052 M in acetic acid and 0.052 M in sodium acetate at 25°C? The acid-ionization constant of acetic acid is 1.8 10–5 at 25°C. A) 1.8 10–3 M B) 1.8 10–6 M C) 1.8 10–7 M D) 1.8 10–5 M E) 1.8 10–4 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.6 OBJ: Calculate the pH of a buffer from given volumes of solution. (Example 16.11) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: buffer | pH of a buffer MSC: general chemistry 117. What is the pH of a buffer made by combining 175 mL of 0.33 M NaC2H3O2 with 126 mL of 0.48 M HC2H3O2? The Ka of acetic acid is 1.75 10-5. A) 4.74 B) 4.78 C) 5.79 D) 4.69 E) 5.24 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 16.6 OBJ: Calculate the pH of a buffer from given volumes of solution. (Example 16.11) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute 118. What is the hydronium-ion concentration of a buffer solution that is 0.50 M Na2HPO4 and 0.20 M NaH2PO4? For H3PO4, Ka1 = 6.9 10–3, Ka2 = 6.2 10–8, and Ka3 = 4.8 10–13. A) 1.7 10–2 M B) 2.8 10–3 M C) 1.6 10–7 M D) 2.5 10–8 M E) 1.9 10–13 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.6 OBJ: Calculate the pH of a buffer from given volumes of solution. (Example 16.11) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: buffer | pH of a buffer MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
36
119. What mass of sodium hydroxide must be added to 75.0 mL of 0.205 M acetic acid in order to create a buffer with a pH of 4.74? Ka for acetic acid is 1.8 10–5. A) 40 g B) 0.31 g C) 1.0 g D) 0.000055 g E) 0.61 g ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 16.6 OBJ: Calculate the pH of a buffer from given volumes of solution. (Example 16.11) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: buffer | pH of a buffer MSC: general chemistry 120. What is the hydronium-ion concentration in a solution resulting from mixing 173 mL of 0.100 M HCN and 73 mL of 0.100 M KOH at 25°C? Ka for HCN = 4.9 10–10 at 25°C. A) 4.5 10–6 M B) 7.0 10–6 M C) 3.4 10–13 M D) 6.7 10–10 M E) 1.0 10–13 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.6 OBJ: Calculate the pH of a buffer when a strong acid or a strong base is added. (Example 16.12) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: buffer | pH of a buffer MSC: general chemistry 121. What is the pH of a solution that is 0.026 M in HA and also 0.0060 M in NaA? (Ka = 5.3 10–6) A) 8.15 B) 4.64 C) 5.91 D) 5.28 E) 7.70 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.6 OBJ: Learn the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: buffer | Henderson-Hasselbalch equation MSC: general chemistry 122. A certain weak base B has a base-ionization constant Kb of 2.4 10–4 at 25°C. If strong acid is added to a solution of B, at what pH will [B] = [BH+]? A) 8.5 B) 10.4 C) 7.0 D) 3.6 E) 5.5
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
37
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.6 OBJ: Learn the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: buffer | Henderson-Hasselbalch equation MSC: general chemistry 123. What molar ratio of acetic acid to sodium acetate is required to create a buffer solution having a pH of 4.89 at 25°C? Ka for HC2H3O2 is 1.8 10–5. A) 0.72 B) 1.4 C) 0.56 D) 2.0 E) 2.9 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.6 OBJ: Learn the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: buffer | Henderson-Hasselbalch equation MSC: general chemistry 124. What is the hydronium-ion concentration of a solution formed by combining 400. mL of 0.21 M HNO3 with 600. mL of 0.11 M NaOH at 25°C? A) 0.082 M B) 6.7 10–13 M C) 0.21 M D) 0.018 M E) 0.11 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.7 OBJ: Calculate the pH of a solution of a strong acid and a strong base. (Example 16.13) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base MSC: general chemistry 125. What is the hydronium-ion concentration of a solution formed by combining 700. mL of 0.18 M HCl with 300. mL of 0.51 M NaOH at 25°C? HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) A) 0.13 M B) 3.7 10–13 M C) 0.33 M D) 0.18 M E) 0.027 M ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.7 OBJ: Calculate the pH of a solution of a strong acid and a strong base. (Example 16.13) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base KEY: pH of a solution MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
38
126. What is the pH of a solution that is formed at 25°C by combining 300 mL of 0.040 M NaOH with 400 mL of 0.030 M HCl? A) 2.0 B) 3.0 C) 5.0 D) 7.0 E) 1.0 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.7 OBJ: Calculate the pH of a solution of a strong acid and a strong base. (Example 16.13) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base MSC: general chemistry 127. What is the hydronium-ion concentration of a solution that is formed by combining 600. mL of 0.10 M NaOH with 400. mL of 0.80 M HNO3 at 25°C? A) 0.080 M B) 0.010 M C) 0.80 M D) 0.45 M E) 0.26 M ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.7 OBJ: Calculate the pH of a solution of a strong acid and a strong base. (Example 16.13) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a strong acid or base MSC: general chemistry 128. Which of the following statements is true concerning the titration of a weak monoprotic acid with a strong base? A) At the equivalence point, the solution has excess moles of strong base. B) At the equivalence point, the solution is acidic. C) At the equivalence point, the solution has excess moles of weak acid. D) At the equivalence point, the solution is composed of the conjugate base of the weak acid. E) At the equivalence point, the pH is 7. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.7 OBJ: Define equivalence point. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: acid-base titration curve | titration of a weak acid by a strong base MSC: general chemistry 129. What is the pH at the equivalence point of the titration of a strong acid with a strong base? A) 3.9 B) 4.5 C) 8.2 D) 7.0 E) none of these ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.7 OBJ: Define equivalence point. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: acid-base titration curve | titration of a strong acid by a strong base MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
39
130. Which of the following indicators is most suitable for the titration of a 25.00-mL sample of 0.140 M propionic acid, HC3H5O2, with strong base? A) alizarin yellow (transition pH range: 10.0–12.0) B) methyl red (transition pH range: 4.2–6.3) C) methyl orange (transition pH range: 3.1–4.4) D) thymol blue (transition pH range: 8.0–9.6) E) bromothymol blue (transition pH range: 6.2–7.6) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.7 OBJ: Describe the curve for the titration of a weak acid by a strong base. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: acid-base titration curve | titration of a weak acid by a strong base MSC: general chemistry 131. A solution contains 10. mmol of H3PO4 and 5.0 mmol of NaH2PO4. How many milliliters of 0.10 M NaOH must be added to reach the second equivalence point of the titration of the H3PO4 with NaOH? A) 250 mL B) 2.0 102 mL C) 50 mL D) 150 mL E) 1.0 102 mL ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.7 OBJ: Describe the curve for the titration of a weak acid by a strong base. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: acid-base titration curve | titration of polyprotic acids MSC: general chemistry 132. A 75.0-mL sample of 0.0500 M HCN (Ka = 6.2 10–10) is titrated with 0.421 M NaOH. What is [H+] in the solution after 3.0 mL of 0.421 M NaOH has been added? A) 8.2 10–6 M B) 2.0 M C) 1.2 10–9 M D) 1.0 10–7 M E) none of these ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.7 OBJ: Describe the curve for the titration of a weak acid by a strong base. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: acid-base titration curve | titration of a weak acid by a strong base MSC: general chemistry 133. If 40 mL of 0.10 M NaOH is added to 50 mL of 0.20 M HC2H3O2, what is the pH of the resulting solution at 25°C? Ka for HC2H3O2 is 1.8 10–5 at 25°C. A) 10.5 B) 4.3 C) 4.9 D) 2.7 E) 4.6
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
40
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.7 OBJ: Calculate the pH at the equivalence point in the titration of a weak acid by a strong base. (Example 16.14) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another soluteKEY: acid-base titration curve | titration of a weak acid by a strong base MSC: general chemistry 134. A 25.00-mL sample of propionic acid, HC3H5O2, of unknown concentration was titrated with 0.155 M KOH. The equivalence point was reached when 35.94 mL of base had been added. What was the original concentration of the propionic acid? A) 0.295 M B) 0.111 M C) 0.108 M D) 0.155 M E) 0.223 M ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.7 OBJ: Calculate the pH at the equivalence point in the titration of a weak acid by a strong base. (Example 16.14) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: acid-base titration curve | titration of a weak acid by a strong base MSC: general chemistry 135. A 25.00-mL sample of propionic acid, HC3H5O2, of unknown concentration was titrated with 0.101 M KOH. The equivalence point was reached when 42.20 mL of base had been added. What is the concentration of the propionate ion at the equivalence point? A) 0.101 M B) 0.147 M C) 0.0634 M D) 0.170 M E) 0.128 M ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.7 OBJ: Calculate the pH at the equivalence point in the titration of a weak acid by a strong base. (Example 16.14) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: acid-base titration curve | titration of a weak acid by a strong base MSC: general chemistry 136. A 25.00-mL sample of propionic acid, HC3H5O2, of unknown concentration was titrated with 0.151 M KOH. The equivalence point was reached when 41.28 mL of base had been added. What is the hydroxide-ion concentration at the equivalence point? Ka for propionic acid is 1.3 10–5 at 25°C. A) 1.5 10-9 M B) 1.0 10-7 M C) 1.1 10-5 M D) 8.5 10-6 M E) 1.1 10-3 M
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
41
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 16.7 OBJ: Calculate the pH at the equivalence point in the titration of a weak acid by a strong base. (Example 16.14) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another soluteKEY: acid-base titration curve | titration of a weak acid by a strong base MSC: general chemistry 137. Which acid-base combination is depicted by this titration curve?
A) Titration of a weak acid with a strong base. B) Titration of a weak base with a strong acid. C) Titration of a strong acid with a strong base. D) Titration of a strong base with a strong acid. E) Not enough information provided. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.7 OBJ: Describe the curve for the titration of a weak base by a strong acid. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute 138. The following titration curve depicts the titration of a weak acid with a strong base. Which of the labeled points is/are part of the buffer region.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
42
A) II only B) III only C) I only D) II and V E) I and IV ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.7 OBJ: Describe the curve for the titration of a weak base by a strong acid. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute NOT: REVISED 139. A sample of ammonia (Kb = 1.8 10–5) is titrated with 0.1 M HCl. At the equivalence point, what is the approximate pH of the solution? A) 5 B) 1 C) 9 D) 7 E) 11 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.7 OBJ: Calculation of the pH of a solution at several points of a titration of weak base by a strong acid. (Example 16.15) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: acid-base titration curve | titration of a weak base by a strong acid MSC: general chemistry 140. A weak base is titrated with a hydrochloric acid solution. What is the pH at the equivalence point? A) equal to pKa B) equal to 7 C) equal to pKb D) greater than 7 E) less than 7 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.7 OBJ: Calculation of the pH of a solution at several points of a titration of weak base by a strong acid. (Example 16.15) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: acid-base titration curve | titration of a weak base by a strong acid MSC: general chemistry 141. Which of the following statements is true concerning the titration of a weak base by a solution of hydrochloric acid? A) The solution is basic at the equivalence point. B) The solution is acidic at the equivalence point. C) At the equivalence point, the pH is determined by the hydrolysis of chloride ion. D) At the equivalence point, the pH is 7. E) At the equivalence point, there is excess hydrochloric acid. Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
43
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 16.7 OBJ: Calculation of the pH of a solution at several points of a titration of weak base by a strong acid. (Example 16.15) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another soluteKEY: acid-base titration curve | titration of a weak base by a strong acid MSC: general chemistry 142. Consider the titration of 300.0 mL of 0.410 M NH3 (Kb = 1.8 10–5) with 0.500 M HNO3. After 150.0 mL of 0.500 M HNO3 has been added, what is the pH of the solution? A) 4.94 B) 9.06 C) 6.06 D) 11.06 E) none of these ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.7 OBJ: Calculation of the pH of a solution at several points of a titration of weak base by a strong acid. (Example 16.15) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute KEY: acid-base titration curve | titration of a weak base by a strong acid MSC: general chemistry 143. Titration of 0.4089 g of an unknown monoprotic acid dissolved in 25.00 mL of water requires 28.45 mL of 0.1521 M NaOH to reach the endpoint. What is the molar mass of the acid? A) 94.49 g/mol B) 0.01058 g/mol C) 107.5 g/mol D) 2.186 g/mol E) 2.718 g/mol ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.7 OBJ: Titration calculations. TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute 144. In the titration of a weak monoprotic acid with a strong base, the pH of the titration solution halfway to the endpoint will be A) equal to the pKa of the weak acid. B) greater than 7.00. C) equal to 7.00. D) greater than the pKa of the weak acid. E) less than the pKa of the weak acid. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.7 OBJ: Calculation of the pH of a solution at several points of a titration of weak base by a strong acid. (Example 16.15) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
44
145. In the titration of a weak monoprotic acid with a strong base, the pH at the endpoint will be A) equal to the pKa of the weak acid. B) greater than 7.00. C) equal to 7.00. D) less than 7.00. E) less than the pKa of the weak acid. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.7 OBJ: Calculation of the pH of a solution at several points of a titration of weak base by a strong acid. (Example 16.15) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute 146. In the titration of a weak monoprotic acid with a strong base, the pH at the endpoint will be A) equal to the pKa of the weak acid. B) less than 7.00. C) equal to 7.00. D) greater than the pKa of the weak acid. E) less than the pKa of the weak acid. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 16.7 OBJ: Calculation of the pH of a solution at several points of a titration of weak base by a strong acid. (Example 16.15) TOP: acids and bases | solutions of a weak acid or base with another solute
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
45
Chapter 17 - Solubility and Complex-Ion Equilibria 1. Cation C and anion A form an ionic compound for which Ksp = s2, where s is the molar solubility of the ionic compound. Which of Figures I–III represent(s) possible results of the mixing of an aqueous solution containing cation C with an aqueous solution containing anion A?
A) only I B) only III C) both I and III D) both I and II E) only II ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.1 OBJ: Write solubility product expressions. (Example 17.1) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 2. Cation C and anion A form an ionic compound for which Ksp = 4s3, where s is the molar solubility of the ionic compound. Which of Figures I–III represent(s) possible results of the mixing of an aqueous solution containing cation C with an aqueous solution containing anion A?
A) only III B) only II C) both I and II D) only I E) both I and III
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
1
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.1 OBJ: Write solubility product expressions. (Example 17.1) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 3. Which of the following particulate views is/are consistent with a heterogeneous equilibrium?
I
II
III
A) I only B) II only C) III only D) II and III E) I, II, and III ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Write solubility product expressions. (Example 17.1) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria
REF: 17.1
4. What is the solubility product expression for Al(OH)3? A) Ksp = [Al3+][3OH–] B) Ksp = 3[Al3+][OH–]3 C) Ksp = [Al3+][OH–]3 D) Ksp = [Al3+][3OH–]3 E) Ksp = [Al3+][OH–] ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.1 OBJ: Write solubility product expressions. (Example 17.1) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 5. What is the solubility product expression for Th(IO3)4? A) Ksp = [Th4+][4IO3–]4 B) Ksp = [Th4+][IO3–] C) Ksp = [Th][IO3]4 D) Ksp = [Th4+][IO3–]4 E) Ksp = [Th4+][IO3–] ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.1 OBJ: Write solubility product expressions. (Example 17.1) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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6. What is the solubility product expression for Zn3(PO4)2? A) Ksp = [Zn32+][(PO43–)2] B) Ksp = [3Zn2+]3[2PO43–]2 C) Ksp = [Zn2+][2PO43–] D) Ksp = [Zn3+]2[PO42–]3 E) Ksp = [Zn2+]3[PO43–]2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.1 OBJ: Write solubility product expressions. (Example 17.1) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 7. What is the solubility product expression for mercury(I) iodide, Hg2I2? A) Ksp = [Hg22+][2I–]2 B) Ksp = [Hg22+][I–]2 C) Ksp = [Hg22+][2I– ] D) Ksp = [Hg2][I2] E) Ksp = [Hg+]2[I–]2 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.1 OBJ: Write solubility product expressions. (Example 17.1) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 8. What is the solubility product expression for La2(CO3)3? A) Ksp = [2La3+]2[3CO32–]3 B) Ksp = [La2+]2[CO32–]3 C) Ksp = [2La3+]2[CO32–]3 D) Ksp = [2La3+][3CO32–] E) Ksp = [La3+]2[CO32–]3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.1 OBJ: Write solubility product expressions. (Example 17.1) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 9. What is the solubility product expression for Pb3(PO4)4? A) Ksp = [Pb3+]4[PO44–]3 B) Ksp = [3Pb3+][4PO43–] C) Ksp = [3Pb3+]3[4PO43–]4 D) Ksp = [Pb2+]3[PO43–]2 E) Ksp = [Pb4+]3[PO43–]4 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.1 OBJ: Write solubility product expressions. (Example 17.1) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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10. What is the solubility product expression for Sn(IO3)2? A) Ksp = [Sn2+][IO3–]2 B) Ksp = [Sn4+][2IO32–]2 C) Ksp = [Sn2+][2IO3–] D) Ksp = [Sn4+][IO32–]2 E) Ksp = [Sn2+][2IO3–]2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.1 OBJ: Write solubility product expressions. (Example 17.1) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 11. Figures I–IV represent ionic compounds formed upon the mixing of an aqueous solution containing cation C with an aqueous solution containing anion A. Identify the figure(s) that represent(s) products for which Ksp = s2, where s is the molar solubility of the ionic compound.
A) only I B) only II C) only IV D) only III E) both I and II ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define molar solubility. KEY: solubility product constant
DIF: moderate REF: 17.1 TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria MSC: general chemistry
12. Figures I–IV represent ionic compounds formed upon the mixing of an aqueous solution containing cation C with an aqueous solution containing anion A. Identify the figure(s) that represent(s) products for which Ksp = 4s3, where s is the molar solubility of the ionic compound.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) both I and II B) only II C) only IV D) only I E) only III ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Define molar solubility. KEY: solubility product constant
DIF: moderate REF: 17.1 TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria MSC: general chemistry
13. Figures I–IV represent ionic compounds formed upon the mixing of an aqueous solution containing cation C with an aqueous solution containing anion A. Identify the figure(s) that represent(s) products for which Ksp = 108s5, where s is the molar solubility of the ionic compound.
A) only II B) both I and II C) only IV D) only III E) only I ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define molar solubility. KEY: solubility product constant
DIF: moderate REF: 17.1 TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria MSC: general chemistry
14. What is the relationship between molar solubility (s) and Ksp for calcium fluoride? A)
B) C)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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D) E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Define molar solubility. KEY: solubility product constant
DIF: easy REF: 17.1 TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria MSC: general chemistry
15. What is the correct mathematical expression for finding the molar solubility (s) of Sn(OH)2? A) 2s3 = Ksp B) 4s3 = Ksp C) 108s5 = Ksp D) 2s2 = Ksp E) 8s3 = Ksp ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: Define molar solubility. KEY: solubility product constant
DIF: easy REF: 17.1 TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria MSC: general chemistry
16. The concentration of calcium carbonate in a saturated aqueous solution of the salt at 25°C is 6.71 10 −5 M. What is the Ksp of this sparingly soluble salt? A) 4.50 10 −9 B) 1.21 10 −12 C) 5.47 10 −16 D) 8.19 10 −3 E) 4.06 10 −2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate Ksp from the solubility (simple example). (Example 17.2) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria −3
17. The solubility of strontium carbonate in water at 25°C is 4.50 10 g/L. What is the Ksp of this sparingly soluble salt? A) 9.30 10 −10 B) 1.13 10 −13 C) 2.34 10 −17 D) 5.52 10 −3 E) 3.12 10 −2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate Ksp from the solubility (simple example). (Example 17.2) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
6
18. After mixing an excess PbCl2 with a fixed amount of water, it is found that the equilibrium concentration of Pb2+ is 1.6 10–2 M. What is Ksp for PbCl2? A) 4.0 10–6 B) 1.6 10–5 C) 2.5 10–4 D) 4.8 10–2 E) 1.0 10–6 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate Ksp from the solubility (more complicated example).(Example 17.3) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 19. The solubility of lead(II) sulfate is 4.0 10–2 g/L. What is the solubility product constant for lead(II) sulfate? A) 1.7 10–8 B) 1.3 10–4 C) 1.6 10–3 D) 4.6 10–15 E) 8.9 10–12 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate Ksp from the solubility (more complicated example).(Example 17.3) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 20. The solubility of silver(I) carbonate is 3.6 10–2 g/L. What is the solubility product constant for silver(I) carbonate? A) 4.4 10–15 B) 8.9 10 −12 C) 1.7 10–8 D) 1.3 10–4 E) 1.3 10–3 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate Ksp from the solubility (more complicated example).(Example 17.3) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry −5
21. The hydroxide ion concentration of a saturated solution of Fe(OH)2 is 1.16 10 M. What is the solubility product constant for Fe(OH)2? A) 7.80 10 −16 B) 6.24 10 −15 C) 1.56 10 −15 D) 3.41 10 −3 E) 2.26 10 −2
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate Ksp from the solubility (more complicated example).(Example 17.3) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria NOT: REVISED 22. The silver-ion concentration in a saturated solution of silver(I) chromate is 1.3 10–4 M. What is Ksp for silver(I) chromate? A) 2.9 10–16 B) 4.2 10–9 C) 8.8 10–12 D) 1.1 10 −12 E) 1.7 10–8 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate Ksp from the solubility (more complicated example).(Example 17.3) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 23. Which of the following salts has the highest molar solubility in water? A) SrCO3 (Ksp = 9.3 10–10) B) BaSO4 (Ksp = 1.1 10–10 ) C) PbS (Ksp = 2.5 10–27) D) BaCrO4 (Ksp = 1.2 10–10) E) AgCl (Ksp = 1.8 10–10 ) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant | relative solubilities
REF: 17.1
MSC: general chemistry
24. Which of the following salts has the lowest molar solubility? A) SrCO3 (Ksp = 9.3 10–10) B) MnS (Ksp = 2.5 10–10) C) BaF2 (Ksp = 1.0 10–6) D) BaSO4 (Ksp = 1.1 10–10) E) AgCl (Ksp = 1.8 10–10) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant | relative solubilities
REF: 17.1
MSC: general chemistry
25. Rank the following salts in order of increasing molar solubility. Salt BaSO4 AgCl BaCO3 CdS PbSO4 Test Bank
Ksp 1.1 10–10 1.8 10–10 9.1 10–9 8 10–27 1.8 10–8 General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) CdS < AgCl < BaSO4 < BaCO3 < PbSO4 B) CdS < AgCl < BaCO3 < BaSO4 < PbSO4 C) CdS < BaSO4 < AgCl < BaCO3 < PbSO4 D) PbSO4 < BaCO3 < AgCl < BaSO4 < CdS E) PbSO4 < BaCO3 < BaSO4 < AgCl < CdS ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant | relative solubilities
REF: 17.1
MSC: general chemistry
26. A saturated solution of which of the following salts will have the lowest molar concentration of chromate ion? A) BaCrO4 (Ksp = 2.1 10-10) B) CuCrO4 (Ksp = 3.6 10-6) C) Ag2CrO4 (Ksp = 1.2 10-12) D) Hg2CrO4 (Ksp = 2.0 10-9) E) Tl2CrO4 (Ksp = 9.8 10-13) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria
REF: 17.1
27. A saturated solution of which of the following salts will have the greatest molar concentration of silver ion? A) Ag2S (Ksp = 8 10-51) B) AgCl (Ksp = 1.8 10-10) C) Ag2CrO4 (Ksp = 1.2 10-12) D) Ag2CO3 (Ksp = 8.1 10-12) E) Ag4Fe(CN)6 (Ksp = 8.5 10-45) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria
REF: 17.1
28. What is the solubility (in g/L) of aluminum hydroxide at 25°C? The solubility product constant for aluminum hydroxide is 4.6 10–33 at 25°C. A) 3.6 10–31 g/L B) 8.2 10–10 g/L C) 2.8 10–7 g/L D) 5.3 10–15 g/L E) 1.8 10–31 g/L ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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29. What is the solubility (in g/L) of silver(I) bromide at 25°C? The solubility product constant for silver(I) bromide is 5.0 10–13 at 25°C. A) 9.4 10–3 g/L B) 9.4 10–11 g/L C) 1.3 10–4 g/L D) 4.7 10–11 g/L E) 7.9 10–2 g/L ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 30. Rank the following metal sulfides in order of increasing molar solubility in water. Salt CoS CuS FeS HgS MnS
Ksp 4 10–21 6 10–36 6 10–18 1.6 10–52 2.5 10–10
A) MnS < FeS < CoS < CuS < HgS B) FeS < HgS < CoS < CuS < MnS C) HgS < CuS < CoS < FeS < MnS D) CuS < CoS < FeS < MnS < HgS E) CoS < CuS < FeS < HgS < MnS ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant | relative solubilities
REF: 17.1
MSC: general chemistry
31. What is the molar solubility of silver(I) bromide at 25°C? The solubility product constant for silver(I) bromide is 5.0 10–13 at 25°C. A) 7.1 10–7 M B) 2.5 10–13 M C) 4.2 10–4 M D) 5.0 10–5 M E) 5.0 10–13 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
10
32. What is the molar solubility of calcium sulfate at 25°C? The solubility product constant for calcium sulfate is 2.4 10–5 at 25°C. A) 2.4 10–5 M B) 3.5 10–2 M C) 1.2 10–5 M D) 1.8 10–2 M E) 4.9 10–3 M ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 33. What is the molar solubility of barium fluoride at 25°C? The solubility product constant for barium fluoride is 1.0 10–6 at 25°C. A) 6.3 10–3 M B) 1.0 10–6 M C) 5.0 10–7 M D) 1.0 10–3 M E) 1.6 10–2 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 34. What is the molar solubility of aluminum hydroxide at 25°C? The solubility product constant for aluminum hydroxide is 4.6 10–33 at 25°C. A) 2.3 10–33 M B) 6.8 10–17 M C) 4.6 10–33 M D) 3.6 10–9 M E) 1.0 10–11 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 35. What is the solubility (in g/L) of barium chromate at 25°C? The solubility product constant for barium chromate is 1.2 10–10 at 25°C. A) 0.42 g/L B) 3.0 10–8 g/L C) 1.5 10–8 g/L D) 0.079 g/L E) 0.0028 g/L
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 36. What is the solubility (in g/L) of calcium fluoride at 25°C? The solubility product constant for calcium fluoride is 3.4 10–11 at 25°C. A) 0.00046 g/L B) 2.7 10–9 g/L C) 0.016 g/L D) 1.3 10–9 g/L E) 0.094 g/L ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 37. Pure water is saturated with slightly soluble calcium fluoride, CaF2. Which of the following is true concerning the equilibrium concentration of Ca2+? A) B) [Ca2+] = [F–] C) D) E) [Ca2+] = Ksp ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 38. Which of the following salts has the lowest molar solubility in water? A) Ni(OH)2 (Ksp = 2.0 10–15) B) Fe(OH)2 (Ksp = 8 10–16) C) PbI2 (Ksp = 6.5 10–9) D) SrCO3 (Ksp = 9.3 10–10) E) AgBr (Ksp = 5.0 10–13) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant | relative solubilities
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 17.1
MSC: general chemistry
12
39. Which of the following salts has the highest molar solubility in water? A) CaCO3 (Ksp = 3.8 10–9) B) Ni(OH)2 (Ksp = 2.0 10–15) C) Fe(OH)2 (Ksp = 8 10–16) D) AgBr (Ksp = 5.0 10–13) E) PbI2 (Ksp = 6.5 10–9) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations MSC: general chemistry 40. Which salt has the highest molar solubility in pure water? Salt Cd(OH)2 Fe(OH)2 PbCrO4 CdCO3 Mn(OH)2
Ksp 5.3 10–15 8.0 10–16 1.8 10–14 6.2 10–12 2.0 10–13
A) CdCO3 B) Cd(OH)2 C) Mn(OH)2 D) PbCrO4 E) Fe(OH)2 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant | relative solubilities
REF: 17.1
MSC: general chemistry
41. Which salt has the lowest molar solubility in pure water? Salt Cd(OH)2 Fe(OH)2 PbCrO4 CdCO3 Mn(OH)2
Ksp 5.3 10–15 8.0 10–16 1.8 10–14 6.2 10–12 2.0 10–13
A) PbCrO4 B) Fe(OH)2 C) CdCO3 D) Cd(OH)2 E) Mn(OH)2
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant | relative solubilities
REF: 17.1
MSC: general chemistry
42. What is the hydroxide-ion concentration of a saturated solution of Ni(OH)2? For Ni(OH)2, Ksp = 2.0 10–15. A) 2.8 10–3 M B) 7.9 10–6 M C) 1.0 10–7 M D) 2.7 10–2 M E) 1.6 10–5 M ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 43. What is the pH of a saturated solution of Ni(OH)2? For Ni(OH)2, Ksp = 2.0 10–15. A) 4.80 B) 8.90 C) 5.10 D) 9.20 E) 7.00 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.1 OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant MSC: general chemistry 44. Rank the following salts in order of increasing molar solubility. Salt AgSCN Ag2CrO4 Ag3PO4
Ksp 1.0 10–12 1.1 10–12 1.0 10–16
A) AgSCN < Ag2CrO4 < Ag3PO4 B) AgSCN < Ag3PO4 < Ag2CrO4 C) Ag3PO4 < Ag2CrO4 < AgSCN D) Ag3PO4 < AgSCN < Ag2CrO4 E) Ag2CrO4 < AgSCN < Ag3PO4 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant | relative solubilities
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 17.1
MSC: general chemistry
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45. The insoluble salts AV, B2W, C2X3, DY2, and EZ3, which were formed from the metal ions A+, B+, C3+, D2+, and E3+ and the nonmetals V1–, W2–, X2–, Y1–, and Z1–, all have the same Ksp value. Which salt has the highest molar solubility? A) AV B) EZ3 C) DY2 D) B2W E) C2X3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Calculate the solubility from Ksp. (Example 17.4) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility product constant | relative solubilities
REF: 17.1
MSC: general chemistry
46. In which of the following solutions would silver(I) phosphate, Ag3PO4, be least soluble? A) 0.10 M Na3PO4 B) 0.10 M AgNO3 C) 0.10 M Na2HPO4 D) 0.10 M HNO3 E) 0.10 M NaH2PO4 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.2 OBJ: Explain how the solubility of a salt is affected by another salt that has the same cation or anion (common ion). TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility and the common-ion effect MSC: general chemistry 47. In which of these solutions would silver(I) carbonate have the lowest molar solubility? For silver(I) carbonate, Ksp = 8.5 10–12. A) 0.03 M H2CO3 B) 0.1 M AgNO3 C) 0.01 M AgNO3 D) 0.1 M Na2CO3 E) pure water ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.2 OBJ: Explain how the solubility of a salt is affected by another salt that has the same cation or anion (common ion). TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility and the common-ion effect MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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48. The figure below represents the result of adding which of the following aqueous solutions to a filtered, saturated solution of AgCl?
A) only NaCl(aq) B) only HNO3(aq) C) HCl(aq) or NaCl(aq) D) only HCl(aq) E) HCl(aq) or HNO3(aq) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.2 OBJ: Explain how the solubility of a salt is affected by another salt that has the same cation or anion (common ion). TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility and the common-ion effect MSC: general chemistry 49. What is the concentration of silver(I) ion in a saturated solution of silver(I) carbonate containing 0.0030 M Na2CO3? For Ag2CO3, Ksp = 8.6 10–12. A) 6.0 10–4 M B) 2.0 10–9 M C) 8.0 10–9 M D) 5.4 10–5 M E) 8.0 10–4 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.2 OBJ: Calculate the solubility of a slightly soluble salt in a solution of a common ion. (Example 17.5) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility and the common-ion effect MSC: general chemistry 50. What is the molar solubility of MgF2 in a 0.40 M Mg(NO3)2 solution? For MgF2, Ksp = 8.4 10–8. A) 8.0 10–8 M B) 2.3 10–4 M C) 2.0 10–-8 M D) 4.6 10–4 M E) 3.2 10–3 M ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.2 OBJ: Calculate the solubility of a slightly soluble salt in a solution of a common ion. (Example 17.5) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility and the common-ion effect MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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51. What is the molar solubility of MgF2 in a 0.45 M NaF solution? For MgF2, Ksp = 8.4 10–8. A) 1.0 10–7 M B) 1.4 10–4 M C) 1.9 10–7 M D) 7.1 10–4 M E) 4.1 10–7 M ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.2 OBJ: Calculate the solubility of a slightly soluble salt in a solution of a common ion. (Example 17.5) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility and the common-ion effect MSC: general chemistry 52. Ksp for PbF2 is 4.0 10–8. If a 0.034 M NaF solution is saturated with PbF2, what is [Pb2+] in solution? A) 4.6 10–11 M B) 1.4 10–9 M C) 1.2 10–6 M D) 1.0 10–3 M E) 3.5 10–5 M ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.2 OBJ: Calculate the solubility of a slightly soluble salt in a solution of a common ion. (Example 17.5) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility and the common-ion effect MSC: general chemistry 53. The solubility of La(IO3)3 in a 0.62 M KIO3 solution is 1.0 10–7 mol/L. Calculate Ksp for La(IO3)3. A) 6.2 10–8 B) 2.4 10–22 C) 2.4 10–1 D) 2.4 10–8 E) none of these ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.2 OBJ: Calculate the solubility of a slightly soluble salt in a solution of a common ion. (Example 17.5) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility and the common-ion effect MSC: general chemistry 54. Which of the following, when added to a saturated solution of AgCl, will cause a decrease in the molar concentration of Ag+ relative to the original solution? 1. 2. 3.
HCl(g) AgCl(s) MgCl2(s)
A) 1 only Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.2 OBJ: Calculate the solubility of a slightly soluble salt in a solution of a common ion. (Example 17.5) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria 55. How many moles of CaF2 will dissolve in 3.0 L of 0.051 M NaF solution? (Ksp for CaF2 = 4.0 10–11) A) 2.6 10–10 B) 1.5 10–8 C) 4.6 10–8 D) 5.1 10–9 E) none of these ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.2 OBJ: Calculate the solubility of a slightly soluble salt in a solution of a common ion. (Example 17.5) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: solubility and the common-ion effect MSC: general chemistry 56. Which of Figures I–IV represent(s) the result of mixing aqueous solutions of Na2S and NiCl2 in which the ion product Qc > Ksp for the insoluble product? (C = cation, A = anion)
A) both I and II B) only I C) only II D) only III E) only IV ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.3 OBJ: State the criterion for precipitation. TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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57. Which Figures I–IV represent(s) the result of mixing aqueous solutions of NaOH and CuCl2 in which the ion product Qc > Ksp for the insoluble product? (C = cation, A = anion)
A) only II B) both I and II C) only IV D) only I E) only III ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.3 OBJ: State the criterion for precipitation. TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations MSC: general chemistry 58. For which of the following will precipitation be expected? A) Qc < Ksp B) Qc = 1 C) Qc = Ksp D) Qc > Ksp E) Ksp = 1 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State the criterion for precipitation. TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | criterion for precipitation
REF: 17.3
MSC: general chemistry
59. Which of the following will apply to a saturated solution of an ionic compound? A) Qc < Ksp B) Qc > Ksp C) Qc = Ksp D) Ksp = 1 E) Qc = 1 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State the criterion for precipitation. TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | criterion for precipitation
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 17.3
MSC: general chemistry
19
60. Suppose 50.00 mL of 2.0 10–6 M Fe(NO3)3 is added to 50.00 mL of 2.0 10–4 M KIO3. Which of the following statements is true? For Fe(IO3)3, Ksp = 1.0 10–14. A) A precipitate forms because Qc > Ksp. B) A precipitate forms because Qc < Ksp. C) No precipitate forms because Qc < Ksp. D) No precipitate forms because Qc = Ksp. E) No precipitate forms because Qc > Ksp. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.3 OBJ: Predict whether precipitation will occur (given ion concentrations). (Example 17.6) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | criterion for precipitation MSC: general chemistry 61. To 1.0 L of water, 3.0 10–6 mol of Pb(NO3)2, 4.0 10–6 mol of K2CrO4, and 1.0 mol of NaCl are added. What will happen? Salt PbCrO4 PbCl2
Ksp 1.8 10–14 1.6 10–5
A) A precipitate of KCl will form. B) A precipitate of PbCrO4 will form. C) A precipitate of PbCl2 will form. D) No precipitate will form. E) Both a precipitate of PbCl2 and a precipitate of PbCrO4 will form. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.3 OBJ: Predict whether precipitation will occur (given ion concentrations). (Example 17.6) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | criterion for precipitation MSC: general chemistry 62. What is the maximum Sr2+ concentration possible in a solution that has a 6.3 10 −5 M sulfide-ion concentration without precipitating strontium sulfate? For SrSO4, Ksp = 2.5 10–7. A) 1.6 10 −10 M B) 1.6 10 −11 M C) 4.0 10 −3 M D) 6.3 10 −5 M E) 2.5 10 2 M ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.3 OBJ: Predict whether precipitation will occur (given ion concentrations). (Example 17.6) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | criterion for precipitation MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
20
63. What will happen if 0.1 mol of solid silver(I) nitrate is added to 1.0 L of a saturated solution of silver(I) chromate? For Ag2CrO4, Ksp = 2.4 10–12. A) The AgNO3 will settle to the bottom without dissolving. B) The concentration of CrO42– will increase. C) Some Ag2CrO4 will precipitate. D) Nothing will happen. E) The concentration of Ag+ in solution will not change. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.3 OBJ: Predict whether precipitation will occur (given ion concentrations). (Example 17.6) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | criterion for precipitation MSC: general chemistry 64. A 4.0 10–4 M solution of MnSO4 is gradually made more basic by adding NaOH. At what pH will manganese(II) hydroxide begin to precipitate? For Mn(OH)2, Ksp = 2.0 10–13. A) 4.70 B) 9.57 C) 4.65 D) 9.35 E) 9.30 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.3 OBJ: Predict whether precipitation will occur (given ion concentrations). (Example 17.6) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | criterion for precipitation MSC: general chemistry 65. What is the minimum concentration of Cu2+ required to begin precipitating Cu(OH)2(s) in a solution of pH 10.77? For Cu(OH)2, Ksp = 2.6 10–19. A) 2.9 10–4 M B) 1.5 10–8 M C) 4.4 10–16 M D) 7.5 10–13 M E) 2.2 10–21 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.3 OBJ: Predict whether precipitation will occur (given ion concentrations). (Example 17.6) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | criterion for precipitation MSC: general chemistry 66. What is the maximum hydroxide-ion concentration that a 0.027 M MgCl2 solution could have without causing the precipitation of Mg(OH)2? For Mg(OH)2, Ksp = 1.8 10–11. A) 4.2 10–6 B) 1.7 10–4 C) 1.2 10–8 D) 6.7 10–9 E) 2.6 10–5
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
21
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.3 OBJ: Predict whether precipitation will occur (given ion concentrations). (Example 17.6) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | criterion for precipitation MSC: general chemistry 67. If 500 mL of 1.4 10–6 M AgNO3 is mixed with 500 mL of 1.4 10–6 M NaBr, what will occur? For AgBr, Ksp = 5 10–13. A) Silver(I) bromide will precipitate. B) The concentration of Ag+ will be 1.4 10–6 M. C) 7.0 10–7 mol of AgBr will form. D) No precipitation will occur. E) Sodium bromide will precipitate. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.3 OBJ: Predict whether precipitation will occur (given solution volumes and concentrations). (Example 17.7) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | criterion for precipitation MSC: general chemistry 68. Suppose 50.00 mL of a 1 10–5 M solution of lead(II) nitrate is mixed with 50.00 mL of a 1 10–6 solution of sodium phosphate. Which of the following statements is true? For lead(II) phosphate, Ksp = 1 10–44. A) A precipitate forms because Qc < Ksp. B) No precipitate forms because Qc > Ksp. C) A precipitate forms because Qc > Ksp. D) No precipitate forms because Qc = Ksp. E) No precipitate forms because Qc < Ksp. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.3 OBJ: Predict whether precipitation will occur (given solution volumes and concentrations). (Example 17.7) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | criterion for precipitation MSC: general chemistry 69. If 270 mL of 1 10–7 M AgNO3 is mixed with 270 mL of 1 10–8 M NaI, what will occur? For AgI, Ksp = 8.3 10–17. A) Sodium nitrate will precipitate. B) Silver(I) nitrate will precipitate. C) Sodium iodide will precipitate. D) Silver(I) iodide will precipitate. E) No precipitate will form. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.3 OBJ: Predict whether precipitation will occur (given solution volumes and concentrations). (Example 17.7) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | criterion for precipitation MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
22
70. If 315 mL of 1 10–4 M Ca(NO3)2 is mixed with 315 mL of 1 10–4 M NaF, what will occur? For CaF2, Ksp = 3.4 10–11. A) No precipitate will form. B) Sodium nitrate will precipitate. C) Calcium nitrate will precipitate. D) Calcium fluoride will precipitate. E) Sodium fluoride will precipitate. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.3 OBJ: Predict whether precipitation will occur (given solution volumes and concentrations). (Example 17.7) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | criterion for precipitation MSC: general chemistry 71. If 270 mL of 1 10–8 M Al(NO3)3 is mixed with 270 mL of 1 10–8 M NaOH, what will occur? For Al(OH)3, Ksp = 4.6 10–33. A) Aluminum hydroxide will precipitate. B) Sodium hydroxide will precipitate. C) Aluminum nitrate will precipitate. D) Sodium nitrate will precipitate. E) No precipitate will form. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.3 OBJ: Predict whether precipitation will occur (given solution volumes and concentrations). (Example 17.7) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | criterion for precipitation MSC: general chemistry 72. What is the minimum mass of Na2CO3 that must be added to 24.6 mL of a 9.5 10– 4 M AgNO3 solution in order for precipitation to occur? For Ag2CO3, Ksp = 8.6 10–12 . A) 2.5 10–3 g B) 3.1 10–4 g C) 1.2 10–3 g D) 2.4 10–8 g E) 2.5 10–5 g ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.3 OBJ: Predict whether precipitation will occur (given solution volumes and concentrations). (Example 17.7) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | criterion for precipitation MSC: general chemistry 73. What is the maximum volume of 4.9 10–5 M K2CrO4 that, added to 17.0 mL of a solution that is 8.6 10–5 M Ba(NO3)2 and 5.4 10–6 M Pb(NO3)2, will precipitate PbCrO4 but not BaCrO4? For PbCrO4, Ksp = 1.8 10–14, and for BaCrO4, Ksp = 1.2 10–10. A) 17 mL B) 0.51 mL C) 0.48 mL D) 0.0012 mL E) 7.7 mL
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
23
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 17.3 OBJ: Predict whether precipitation will occur (given solution volumes and concentrations). (Example 17.7) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | fractional precipitation MSC: general chemistry 74. A solution is 0.010 M in each of Pb(NO3)2, Mn(NO3)2, and Zn(NO3)2. Solid NaOH is added until the pH of the solution is 8.50. Which of the following statements is true? Salt Pb(OH)2 Mn(OH)2 Zn(OH)2
Ksp 1.4 10–20 2.0 10–13 2.1 10–16
A) Only Mn(OH)2 will precipitate. B) All three hydroxides will precipitate. C) Only Pb(OH)2 will precipitate. D) No precipitate will form. E) Only Zn(OH)2 and Pb(OH)2 will precipitate. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.3 OBJ: Explain how two ions can be separated using fractional precipitation. TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | fractional precipitation MSC: general chemistry 75. What is the maximum concentration of carbonate ions that will precipitate BaCO3 but not MgCO3 from a solution that is 2.7 10 −3 M each in Mg2+ and Ba2+? For MgCO3, Ksp = 1.0 10–5 and for BaCO3, Ksp = 2.6 10–9. A) 3.7 10 −3 M B) 9.6 10 −7 M C) 2.7 10 −8 M D) 7.0 10 −12 M E) 2.6 10–14 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.3 OBJ: Explain how two ions can be separated using fractional precipitation. TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | fractional precipitation MSC: general chemistry 76. Which of the following solutions should be added to a solution containing both copper(II) ions and silver(I) ions in order to precipitate only one of the ions? A) HCl(aq) B) H2S(aq) C) HNO3(aq) D) H2S(aq) + HCl(aq) E) H2S(aq) + HNO3(aq) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.3 OBJ: Explain how two ions can be separated using fractional precipitation. TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | fractional precipitation MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
24
77. For which pair of cations would the addition of dilute hydrobromic acid precipitate one but not the other? A) Ag+ and Ca2+ B) Hg22+ and Ag+ C) Ba2+ and Na+ D) Ca2+ and Ba2+ E) Pb2+ and Ag+ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.3 OBJ: Explain how two ions can be separated using fractional precipitation. TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | fractional precipitation MSC: general chemistry 78. Sodium chloride is added slowly to a solution that is 0.010 M in Cu+, Ag+, and Au+. The Ksp values for the chloride salts are 1.9 10–7, 1.6 10–10, and 2.0 10–13, respectively. Which compound will precipitate first? A) AuCl(s) B) All will precipitate at the same time. C) It cannot be determined. D) AgCl(s) E) CuCl(s) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.3 OBJ: Explain how two ions can be separated using fractional precipitation. TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | fractional precipitation MSC: general chemistry 79. Solid KCN is added to a solution composed of 0.10 M Ag+ and 0.10 M Zn2+ just until a precipitate forms. What is the composition of this initial precipitate? AgCN Ksp = 2.2 1016 and Zn(CN)2 Ksp = 3 10-16. A) The precipitate is pure AgCN(s). B) The precipitateis pure Zn(CN)2(s). C) The precipitate is a mixture of AgCN(s) and Zn(CN)2(s). D) The precipitate is a mixture of KCN(s) and AgCN(s). E) The precipitate is a mixture of KCN(s) and Zn(CN)2(s). ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.3 OBJ: Explain how two ions can be separated using fractional precipitation. TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria 80. Silver nitrate (AgNO3) is slowly added to a solution containing 0.100 M Br− and 0.050 M FeCN64− until a precipitate just forms. What is the molar concentration of Ag+ just as the precipitate forms? AgBr Ksp = 5.0 10-13 and Ag4FeCN6 Ksp = 8.5 10-45. A) 2.0 10-11 M Ag+ B) 5.0 10-12 M Ag+ C) 1.0 10-11 M Ag+ D) 3.3 10-12 M Ag+ E) 1.7 10-43 M Ag+ Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
25
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.3 OBJ: Explain how two ions can be separated using fractional precipitation. TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria 81. A solution contains 0.018 mol each of I–, Br–, and Cl–. When the solution is mixed with 200 mL of 0.24 M AgNO3, how much AgCl(s) precipitates out? Ksp AgI = 1.5 10–16 Ksp AgBr = 5.0 10–13 Ksp AgCl = 1.6 10–10 A) 5.0 g B) 3.3 g C) 2.6 g D) 0.0 g E) 1.7 g ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 17.3 OBJ: Explain how two ions can be separated using fractional precipitation. TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: precipitation calculations | fractional precipitation MSC: general chemistry 82. The best explanation for the dissolution of ZnS in dilute HCl is that A) the zinc ion is amphoteric. B) the sulfide ion concentration is decreased by the formation of H2S. C) the solubility product of ZnCl2 is less than that of ZnS. D) the zinc ion concentration is decreased by the formation of a chloro complex. E) the sulfide ion concentration is decreased by oxidation to sulfur. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.4 OBJ: Explain the qualitative effect of pH on solubility of a slightly soluble salt. TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: effect of pH on solubility | qualitative effect of pH MSC: general chemistry 83. You have two salts, AgX and AgY, with very similar Ksp values. You know that Ka for HX is much greater than Ka for HY. Which statement will be true? A) AgX and AgY are less soluble in acidic solution than in pure water. B) AgX is more soluble in acidic solution. C) AgX and AgY are equally soluble in acidic solution. D) AgY is more soluble in acidic solution. E) none of these ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.4 OBJ: Explain the qualitative effect of pH on solubility of a slightly soluble salt. TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: effect of pH on solubility | qualitative effect of pH MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
26
84. For which of the following salts would the addition of nitric acid increase its solubility? A) AgI B) AgNO3 C) AgCl D) Ag2SO4 E) AgBr ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.4 OBJ: Determine the qualitative effect of pH on solubility. (Example 17.8) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: effect of pH on solubility | qualitative effect of pH MSC: general chemistry 85. Which of the following substances will increase the molar solubility of nickel(II) phosphate in a saturated solution? A) AgCl B) HNO3 C) KOH D) AlPO4 E) Na3PO4 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.4 OBJ: Determine the qualitative effect of pH on solubility. (Example 17.8) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: effect of pH on solubility | qualitative effect of pH MSC: general chemistry 86. In which of the following solutions would CaC2O4 have the highest molar solubility? A) 0.01 M Na2C2O4 B) 0.01 M NaCl C) 0.01 M HCl D) 0.01 M Ca(NO3)2 E) 0.01 M NaHC2O4 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.4 OBJ: Determine the qualitative effect of pH on solubility. (Example 17.8) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: effect of pH on solubility | qualitative effect of pH MSC: general chemistry 87. The figure below represents the results of adding a strong acid to a saturated solution of an ionic compound. Which of the following could be the ionic compound?
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
27
A) AgClO4 B) AgF C) AgI D) AgCl E) AgBr ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.4 OBJ: Determine the qualitative effect of pH on solubility. (Example 17.8) TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: effect of pH on solubility | qualitative effect of pH MSC: general chemistry 88. What is the best way to ensure complete precipitation of SnS from a saturated H2S solution? A) Add a strong acid. B) Add a weak acid. C) Add a strong base. D) Add a weak base. E) Add more H2S. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.4 OBJ: Explain the basis for the sulfide scheme to separate a mixture of metal ions. TOP: solubility | applications of solubility equilibria MSC: general chemistry 89. Suppose hydrogen sulfide is added to a solution that is 0.10 M in Cu2+, Pb2+, and Ni2+ such that the concentration of H2S is 0.10 M. When the pH of the solution is adjusted to 1.00, a precipitate forms. What is the composition of the precipitate? H2S(aq) + 2H2O(l) Salt CuS PbS NiS
2H3O+(aq) + S2–(aq); Kc = 1.1 10–20
Ksp 6.0 10–36 2.5 10–27 3.0 10–19
A) CuS only B) PbS and NiS C) CuS and PbS D) NiS only E) CuS, PbS, and NiS ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 17.4 OBJ: Explain the basis for the sulfide scheme to separate a mixture of metal ions. TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: effect of pH on solubility MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
28
90. Suppose hydrogen sulfide is added to a solution that is 0.0010 M in Fe2+, Cd2+, Co2+, and Mn2+ such that the concentration of H2S is 0.10 M. When the pH of the solution is adjusted to 3, a precipitate forms. What is the composition of the precipitate? H2S(aq) + 2H2O(l) Salt FeS CdS CoS MnS
2H3O+(aq) + S2–(aq); Kc = 1.1 10–20
Ksp 6.0 10–18 8.0 10–27 4.0 10–21 2.5 10–10
A) CdS only B) CdS, CoS, FeS, and MnS C) CdS, CoS, and FeS D) CdS and FeS E) CdS and CoS ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 17.4 OBJ: Explain the basis for the sulfide scheme to separate a mixture of metal ions. TOP: solubility | solubility equilibria KEY: effect of pH on solubility MSC: general chemistry 91. What is the value of the dissociation constant, Kd, for the complex ion Cd(NH3)42+? For Cd(NH3)42+, Kf = 1.0 107. A) 1.0 10–7 B) 2.5 106 C) 1.0 107 D) 5.6 101 E) 1.0 10–7 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.5 OBJ: Define formation constant or stability constant, Kf, and dissociation constant, Kd. TOP: solubility | complex ion equilibria KEY: complex ion formation MSC: general chemistry 92. Which of the following is not likely to form a complex ion with Al3+? A) NH4+ B) NH3 C) OH− D) H2O E) CH3NH2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.5 OBJ: Define formation constant or stability constant, Kf, and dissociation constant, Kd. TOP: solubility | complex ion equilibria
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
29
93. Which of the following statements concerning amphoteric hydroxides is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
The amphoteric hydroxide of aluminum(III) is commercially used to separate aluminum(III) oxide from impurities in the aluminum ore bauxite. Amphoteric hydroxides form soluble complex ions at high pH’s. The amphoteric hydroxide, Zn(OH)2, can be precipitated by increasing the pH of a solution containing Zn2+(aq) or lowering the pH of a solution containing Zn(OH)42−.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.5 OBJ: Define formation constant or stability constant, Kf, and dissociation constant, Kd. TOP: solubility | complex ion equilibria 94. Calculate the molar concentration of uncomplexed Zn2+(aq) in a solution that contains 0.22 mol of Zn(NH3)42+ per liter and 0.3109 M NH3 at equilibrium. Kf for Zn(NH3)42+ is 2.9 10 9 . A) 8.1 10 −9 M B) 2.4 10 −10 M C) 1.2 10 8 M D) 7.8 10 −10 M E) 6.8 10 10 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.5 OBJ: Calculate the concentration of a metal ion in equilibrium with a complex ion. (Example 17.9) TOP: solubility | complex ion equilibria 95. Cyanide ion forms very stable complex ions with a variety of metal ions. What is the molar equilibrium concentration of uncomplexed Cu2+(aq) in a solution that initially contains 1.3 mol of Cu(CN)2− per liter of solution . Kf for Cu(CN)2− is 2.8 10 16 . A) 2.3 10 −6 M B) 3.6 10 −6 M C) 4.4 10 5 M D) 3.4 10 −9 M E) 1.2 10 −17 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.5 OBJ: Calculate the concentration of a metal ion in equilibrium with a complex ion. (Example 17.9) TOP: solubility | complex ion equilibria
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
30
96. What is the molar equilibrium concentration of uncomplexed Ag+(aq) in a solution composed of 1.1 mol Ag(CN)2− dissolved in 1.00 L of 0.47 M NaCN. Kf for Ag(CN)2− is 4.5 10 10 . A) 1.1 10 −10 M B) 5.2 10 −11 M C) 9.0 10 9 M D) 2.4 10 −10 M E) 1.1 10 −5 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.5 OBJ: Calculate the concentration of a metal ion in equilibrium with a complex ion. (Example 17.9) TOP: solubility | complex ion equilibria 97. An aqueous solution of Ag(CN)2− is made by combining 0.0100 moles AgNO3 with 1.00 mole NaCN and diluting to 1.000 L. What is the molar concentration of Ag+ in the solution? Ag+(aq) + 2CN–(aq)
Ag(CN)2–(aq); Kf = 5.6 1018
A) 1.9 10-21 M B) 5.3 1020 M C) 5.8 1016 M D) 1.7 10-17 M E) 0.010 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.5 OBJ: Calculate the concentration of a metal ion in equilibrium with a complex ion. (Example 17.9) TOP: solubility | complex ion equilibria KEY: complex ion formation | equilibrium calculations with Kf MSC: general chemistry 98. Suppose sodium hydroxide is added to a 0.0016 M solution of zinc nitrate such that the pH of the solution is 13.42. What is the equilibrium concentration of Zn2+? Zn2+(aq) + 4OH–(aq)
Zn(OH)42–(aq); Kf = 2.8 1015
A) 2.2 10–18 M B) 1.6 10–3 M C) 6.6 10–2 M D) 1.2 10–16 M E) 2.2 10–18 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.5 OBJ: Calculate the concentration of a metal ion in equilibrium with a complex ion. (Example 17.9) TOP: solubility | complex ion equilibria KEY: complex ion formation | equilibrium calculations with Kf MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
31
99. What is the concentration of Cd2+ in a 0.010 M Cd(NO3)2 solution that is also 1.0 M NH3? For Cd(NH3)42+, Kf = 1.0 107. A) 3.2 10–5 M B) 1.0 10–9 M C) 1.2 10–9 M D) 3.2 10–4 M E) 1.0 10–2 M ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 17.5 OBJ: Calculate the concentration of a metal ion in equilibrium with a complex ion. (Example 17.9) TOP: solubility | complex ion equilibria KEY: complex ion formation | equilibrium calculations with Kf MSC: general chemistry 100. Which of the following insoluble salts will dissolve upon reaction with excess ammonia? A) BaSO4 B) CaCO3 C) PbSO4 D) HgS E) AgCl ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.6 OBJ: Predict whether a precipitate will form in the presence of the complex ion. (Example 17.10) TOP: solubility | complex ion equilibria KEY: complex ions and solubility MSC: general chemistry 101. Which sparingly soluble salt will exhibit the highest solubility at low pH’s? A) PbS (Ksp = 2.5 10-27) B) MnS (Ksp = 2.5 10-10) C) HgS (Ksp = 1.6 10-52) D) NiS (Ksp = 3 10-9) E) ZnS (Ksp = 1.1 10-21) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.6 OBJ: Predict whether a precipitate will form in the presence of the complex ion. (Example 17.10) TOP: solubility | complex ion equilibria 102. The figure below represents the results of adding NH3 to a saturated solution of an ionic compound. Which of the following could the ionic compound be?
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) AgCl or CaF2 B) CaF2 C) Mg(OH)2 D) AgCl E) SrCO3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.6 OBJ: Predict whether a precipitate will form in the presence of the complex ion. (Example 17.10) TOP: solubility | complex ion equilibria KEY: complex ions and solubility MSC: general chemistry 103. What will happen if 50.0 mL of 0.022 M Na2S2O3, 50.0 mL of 0.010 M AgNO3, and 50.0 mL of 0.097 M KCl are mixed together? For AgCl, Ksp = 1.8 10–10; for Ag(S2O3)23–, Kf = 2.9 1013. A) A precipitate of Ag2S2O3 will form. B) A precipitate of KNO3 will form. C) No precipitate will form because silver(I) ion exists predominantly as Ag+. D) No precipitate will form because silver(I) ion exists predominantly in the complex Ag(S2O3)23–. E) A precipitate of AgCl will form. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 17.6 OBJ: Predict whether a precipitate will form in the presence of the complex ion. (Example 17.10) TOP: solubility | complex ion equilibria KEY: complex ions and solubility MSC: general chemistry 104. Given the two equilibria below, Ag+(aq) + 2NH3(aq); Kd = 5.9 10–8
Ag(NH3)2+(aq) AgCN(s)
Ag+(aq) + CN−(aq); Ksp = 2.2 10
−16
what is Kc for the following equilibrium? AgCN(s) + 2NH3(aq)
Ag(NH3)2+(aq) + CN–(aq)
A) 3.7 10 −9 B) 1.3 10 −23 C) 2.7 10 8 D) 1.4 10 −17 E) 5.9 10 −8 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.6 OBJ: Calculate the solubility of a slightly soluble ionic compound in a solution of the complex ion. (Example 17.11) TOP: solubility | complex ion equilibria
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
33
105. Given the following equilibrium constants, AgIO3 Ksp = 3.1 10 −8 Ag(NH3)2+ Kf = 1.7 10 7 determine Kc for the dissolution of the sparingly soluble salt AgIO3 in aqueous ammonia (shown below). AgIO3(s) + 2NH3(aq) Ag(NH3)2+(aq) + IO3–(aq) A) 5.3 10 −1 B) 1.8 10 −15 C) 5.5 10 14 D) 1.9 E) 1.7 10 7 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.6 OBJ: Calculate the solubility of a slightly soluble ionic compound in a solution of the complex ion. (Example 17.11) TOP: solubility | complex ion equilibria 106. What is the molar solubility of nickel(II) sulfide in 0.053 M KCN? For NiS, Ksp = 3.0 10– 19 ; for Ni(CN)42–, Kf = 1.0 1031. A) 5.5 10–10 M B) 5.3 10–2 M C) 1.5 10–19 M D) 1.3 10–2 M E) 2.2 10–5 M ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 17.6 OBJ: Calculate the solubility of a slightly soluble ionic compound in a solution of the complex ion. (Example 17.11) TOP: solubility | complex ion equilibria KEY: complex ion formation | equilibrium calculations with Kf MSC: general chemistry 107. What is the molar solubility of zinc hydroxide at pH 12.40? For Zn(OH)2, Ksp = 2.1 10–16; for Zn(OH)42–, Kf = 2.8 1015. A) 9.4 10–26 M B) 1.5 10–2 M C) 3.7 10–4 M D) 3.7 10–6 M E) 1.4 10–8 M ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 17.6 OBJ: Calculate the solubility of a slightly soluble ionic compound in a solution of the complex ion. (Example 17.11) TOP: solubility | complex ion equilibria KEY: complex ion formation | equilibrium calculations with Kf MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
34
108. Which of the following statements concerning the separation of metal ions into Analytical Groups I-V is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Only the least soluble sulfides will precipitate in an acidic solution of H2S. K+ and Na+ are precipitated in the last step of the separation scheme. The formation of a precipitate with the addition of dilute HCl(aq) indicates the original solution contains all of the ions of Analytical Group I (the ions which precipitate as chlorides).
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.7 OBJ: Describe the main outline of the sulfide scheme for qualitative analysis. TOP: solubility | applications of solubility equilibria 109. Which of the following statements concerning the separation of metal ions into Analytical Groups I-V is/are correct? 1.
2. 3.
The substitution of dilute Zn(Cl)2 for dilute HCl in step one, the precipitation of the Analytical Group I metal ions as chloride salts, will have no effect on the rest of the analysis. Group I ions cannot be precipitated using this scheme. In the filtration stages, the filtrate is the solid material that is removed from the mixture by filtration.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.7 OBJ: Describe the main outline of the sulfide scheme for qualitative analysis. TOP: solubility | applications of solubility equilibria 110. In the qualitative analysis scheme for metal ions, how are the Analytical Group III cations separated from the cations of Analytical Groups IV and V? A) by addition of H2S in acidic solution, forming insoluble metal sulfides B) by addition of (NH4)2CO3 or (NH4)3PO4, forming insoluble metal carbonates or phosphates C) by addition of H2SO4, forming insoluble metal sulfates D) by addition of HCl, forming insoluble metal chlorides E) by addition of H2S in basic solution, forming insoluble metal sulfides or hydroxides
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
35
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.7 OBJ: Describe the main outline of the sulfide scheme for qualitative analysis. TOP: solubility | applications of solubility equilibria KEY: qualitative analysis of metal ions MSC: general chemistry 111. What is the effect of substituting soluble metal salts such as NaCl and K2CO3 for HCl or (NH4)2CO3 in the qualitative analysis scheme for separating the five Analytical Groups? A) You can no longer tell if your original sample contained Na+ or K+. B) There is no effect on the analysis since Na+ and K+ do not form a precipitate. C) The NaCl and K2CO3 are not pure, analytical grade materials. D) Potassium ion forms a precipitate with sulfide ion. E) Na+ and K+ react violently with acids such as H2S, producing highly flammable and potentially explosive hydrogen gas. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.7 OBJ: Describe the main outline of the sulfide scheme for qualitative analysis. TOP: solubility | applications of solubility equilibria 112. In the sulfide scheme for qualitative analysis, the cations of Analytical Group IV are precipitated as phosphates or carbonates. Analytical Group IV consists of A) alkaline earth elements. B) the halogens. C) alkali metals. D) transition metals having +2 ions. E) none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.7 OBJ: Describe the main outline of the sulfide scheme for qualitative analysis. TOP: solubility | applications of solubility equilibria KEY: qualitative analysis of metal ions MSC: general chemistry 113. Consider a solution containing the following cations: Na+, Hg2+, Mn2+, Al3+ and Ag+. Treatment of the solution with dilute, HCl followed by saturation with H2S, results in formation of precipitate(s). Which ions still remain in solution (did not precipitate)? A) Na+, Hg2+, Al3+ B) Na+ only C) Ag+ and Hg2+ D) Ag+ only E) Na+, Al3+, and Mn2+ ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 17.7 OBJ: Describe the main outline of the sulfide scheme for qualitative analysis. TOP: solubility | applications of solubility equilibria KEY: qualitative analysis of metal ions MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
36
114. The following reaction represents a step in the separation of which analytical group of cations? Hg22+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) → Hg2Cl2(s) A) Analytical Group II B) Analytical Group I C) Analytical Group V D) Analytical Group IV E) Analytical Group III ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.7 OBJ: Describe the main outline of the sulfide scheme for qualitative analysis. TOP: solubility | applications of solubility equilibria KEY: qualitative analysis of metal ions MSC: general chemistry 115. The following reaction represents a step in the separation of which analytical group of cations? Cu2+(aq) + S2–(aq) → CuS(s) A) Analytical Group I B) Analytical Group III C) Analytical Group V D) Analytical Group IV E) Analytical Group II ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 17.7 OBJ: Describe the main outline of the sulfide scheme for qualitative analysis. TOP: solubility | applications of solubility equilibria KEY: qualitative analysis of metal ions MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
37
Chapter 18 - Thermodynamics and Equilibrium 1. Which of the following is not a state function? A) w B) H C) P D) U E) T ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.1 OBJ: Define internal energy, state function, work, and first law of thermodynamics. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics MSC: general chemistry 2. According to the first law of thermodynamics, the energy of the universe is constant. Does this mean that E is always equal to zero? A) No, E does not always equal zero, but this is due only to factors such as friction and heat. B) No, E never equals zero because energy is always flowing between the system and the surroundings. C) No, E does not always equal zero because it refers to the system's internal energy, which is affected by heat and work. D) Yes, E = 0 at all times, which is why q = -w. E) No, E never equals zero because work is always being done on the system or by the system. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.1 OBJ: Define internal energy, state function, work, and first law of thermodynamics. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: first law of thermodynamics MSC: general chemistry 3. For the isothermal (constant-temperature) expansion of an ideal gas, A) w > 0 and q < 0. B) w = 0 and q > 0. C) w < 0 and q = 0. D) w < 0 and q > 0. E) w > 0 and q > 0. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.1 OBJ: Explain why the work done by the system as a result of expansion or contraction during a chemical reaction is -PdeltaV. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: thermodynamics of ideal gases | isothermal expansion and compression MSC: general chemistry 4. H and U are nearly the same in all the following processes except A) F2(g) + H2(g) → 2HF(g). B) CH4(g) + Cl2(g) → CH3Cl(g) + HCl(g). C) C6H6(s) → C6H6(l). D) CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O(g). E) 3O2(g) → 2O3(g). Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
1
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.1 OBJ: Relate the change of internal energy, deltaU, and heat of reaction, q. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: first law of thermodynamics MSC: general chemistry 5. A gas absorbs 0.0 J of heat and then performs 77.0 J of work. What is the change in internal energy of the gas? A) –77.0 J B) 37.0 J C) 117.0 J D) 76.6 J E) none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.1 OBJ: Relate the change of internal energy, deltaU, and heat of reaction, q. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: first law of thermodynamics MSC: general chemistry 6. For a particular process, q = 20 kJ and w = 15 kJ. Which of the following statements is true? A) U = 35 kJ. B) The system does work on the surroundings. C) Heat flows from the system to the surroundings. D) All of the above are true. E) None of the above are true. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.1 OBJ: Relate the change of internal energy, deltaU, and heat of reaction, q. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: first law of thermodynamics MSC: general chemistry 7. What is the change in internal energy of the system (U) if 36 kJ of heat energy is absorbed by the system and 84 kJ of work is done by the system for a certain process? A) –48 kJ B) 120 kJ C) 36 kJ D) 48 kJ E) –120 kJ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.1 OBJ: Relate the change of internal energy, deltaU, and heat of reaction, q. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
2
8. What is the change in internal energy (U) of the system if q = –55 kJ and w = 58 kJ for a certain process? A) 3 kJ B) –113 kJ C) 113 kJ D) –3 kJ E) –55 kJ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.1 OBJ: Relate the change of internal energy, deltaU, and heat of reaction, q. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics 9. A system under constant external pressure undergoes an increase in volume. What is the effect on the surroundings? A) Energy is transferred as pressure-volume work done on the surroundings. B) Energy is transferred as pressure-volume work done by the surroundings on the system. C) Energy is transferred as heat from the system to the surroundings. D) Energy is transferred as heat from the surroundings to the system. E) None of the above. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.1 OBJ: Relate the change of internal energy, deltaU, and heat of reaction, q. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics 10. In which of the following scenarios is no change in the internal energy of the system possible? A) q < 0, w > 0 B) q > 0, w > 0 C) q = 0, w > 0 D) q < 0, w = 0 E) q < 0, w < 0 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.1 OBJ: Relate the change of internal energy, deltaU, and heat of reaction, q. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics 11. Under what conditions does q, the heat evolved or absorbed by the system in a physical or chemical process, equal the change in enthalpy of the system? 1. 2. 3.
When q 0. When w = 0. When w = −PV.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
3
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 18.1 OBJ: Relate the change of internal energy, deltaU, and heat of reaction, q. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics 12. Which of the following statements concerning entropy change is/are true? 1. 2. 3.
For a spontaneous process, For a spontaneous process,
. .
For an equilibrium process (such as a phase change),
.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: E OBJ: Entropy.
PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.2 TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics
13. Which of the following statements concerning entropy is/are true? 1. 2.
3.
On a per mole basis, the solid form of a particular substance has a greater entropy than its gaseous form. On a per mole basis at a fixed temperature, larger gaseous molecules tend to have a greater entropy than smaller gaseous molecules because of a greater number of comformations over which to disperse energy. On a per mole basis, the liquid form of a particular substance has a greater entropy than the solid form of the substance.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D OBJ: Entropy.
Test Bank
PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.2 TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics
General Chemistry, 10th edition
4
14. Which of the following is true for the sublimation of a solid substance? A) S = 0 and H = 0. B) S < 0 and H < 0. C) S < 0 and H > 0. D) S > 0 and H > 0. E) S > 0 and H < 0. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.2 OBJ: Relate entropy to disorder in a molecular system (energy dispersal). TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics 15. Which of the following has the lowest entropy per mole? A) liquid sodium at 100°C B) gaseous sodium at 900°C and 0.5 atm C) a solid solution of sodium in potassium at 30°C D) gaseous sodium at 900°C and 1 atm E) solid sodium at 30°C ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.2 OBJ: Relate entropy to disorder in a molecular system (energy dispersal). TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: second law of thermodynamics | entropy and molecular disorder MSC: general chemistry 16. Which of the following compounds has the highest standard entropy per mole at 298 K? A) H2O(l) B) CaCO3(s) C) CO(g) D) SiO2(s) E) CH3OH(l) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.2 OBJ: Relate entropy to disorder in a molecular system (energy dispersal). TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: second law of thermodynamics | entropy and molecular disorder MSC: general chemistry 17. The total entropy of a system and its surroundings always increases for a spontaneous process. This is a statement of A) the third law of thermodynamics. B) the law of constant composition. C) the second law of thermodynamics. D) the law of conservation of matter. E) the first law of thermodynamics. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.2 OBJ: State the second law of thermodynamics in terms of system plus surroundings.. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: second law of thermodynamics | entropy MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
5
18. The standard enthalpy of vaporization of Freon-10, CCl4, is 29.82 kJ/mol at its normal boiling point of 77°C. What is the change of entropy for 1 mol of liquid Freon-10 when it vaporizes at its normal boiling point? A) 8.52 10–2 J/K B) 1.04 104 J/K C) 85.2 J/K D) 0.387 J/K E) 3.87 102 J/K ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.2 OBJ: Calculate the entropy change for a phase transition. (Example 18.1) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: second law of thermodynamics | entropy change for a phase transition MSC: general chemistry 19. The standard enthalpy of vaporization of chloroform is 29.2 kJ/mol at its normal boiling point, 61.2°C. What is the standard change in entropy for the vaporization of chloroform at its normal boiling point? A) 87.3 J/(mol · K) B) –29.2 J/(mol · K) C) 0.477 J/(mol · K) D) 0.0873 J/(mol · K) E) 477 J/(mol · K) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.2 OBJ: Calculate the entropy change for a phase transition. (Example 18.1) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: second law of thermodynamics | entropy change for a phase transition MSC: general chemistry 20. The standard enthalpy of fusion of bromobenzene is 10.7 kJ/mol at its melting point, 242.4 K. What is the standard change in entropy for the melting of bromobenzene at its melting point? A) 0.0208 J/(mol · K) B) 44.1 J/(mol · K) C) –10.7 J/(mol · K) D) –348 J/(mol · K) E) 0.0441 J/(mol · K) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.2 OBJ: Calculate the entropy change for a phase transition. (Example 18.1) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: second law of thermodynamics | entropy change for a phase transition MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
6
21. At the normal boiling point of o-xylene, H°vap = 36.2 kJ/mol and S°vap = 86.7 J/(mol · K). What is the normal boiling point of o-xylene? A) 314 K B) 373 K C) 115 K D) 867 K E) 418 K ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.2 OBJ: Calculate the entropy change for a phase transition. (Example 18.1) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: second law of thermodynamics | entropy change for a phase transition MSC: general chemistry 22. The enthalpy of vaporization (H°vap) of benzene is 30.7 kJ/mol at its normal boiling point of 353.3 K. What is S°vap at this temperature? A) 86.9 J/(mol·K) B) 0.087 J/(mol·K) C) 11.5 J/(mol·K) D) 0.0115 J/(mol·K) E) 383 J/(mol·K) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.2 OBJ: Calculate the entropy change for a phase transition. (Example 18.1) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics 23. Assuming H and S are constant with respect to temperature, under what conditions will a chemical reaction be spontaneous only at low temperatures? A) H is negative, and S is negative. B) H is positive, and S is positive. C) S = 0, and H is positive. D) H = 0, and S is negative. E) none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.2/18.7 OBJ: Describe how deltaH – TdeltaS functions as a criterion of a spontaneous reaction. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics 24. Which of the following is not a spontaneous process at 25°C and 1 atm pressure? A) salt dissolving B) ice melting C) water boiling D) iron rusting E) steam condensing
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
7
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.2 OBJ: Describe how deltaH – TdeltaS functions as a criterion of a spontaneous reaction. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: second law of thermodynamics | entropy and molecular disorder MSC: general chemistry 25. The third law of thermodynamics states that A) the entropy of the universe is increasing. B) the entropy of the universe is constant. C) the entropy of the universe equals the sum of the entropy of system and that of the surroundings. D) the absolute entropy of a substance decreases with increasing temperature. E) the entropy is zero at 0 K for a perfect crystal. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.3 OBJ: State the third law of thermodynamics. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: third law of thermodynamics MSC: general chemistry 26. In which reaction is S° expected to be negative? A) 2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) B) Ga(l) → Ga(s) C) H2O(l) + 2SO2(g) → H2SO4(l) D) CO2(g) → CO2(s) E) all of above ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.3 OBJ: State the situations in which the entropy usually increases. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics 27. For which of the following processes would S° be expected to be most positive? A) H2O(l) → H2O(s) B) NH3(g) + HCl(g) → NH4Cl(s) C) O2(g) + 2H2(g) → 2H2O(g) D) N2O4(g) → 2NO2(g) E) 2NH4NO3(s) → 2N2(g) + O2(g) + 4H2O(g) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.3 OBJ: State the situations in which the entropy usually increases. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: third law of thermodynamics | entropy change for a reaction MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
8
28. For which of the following reactions is S° at 25°C closest to zero? A) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g) B) H2(g) + I2(s) → 2HI(g) C) CH3CHO(g) + 5/2O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) D) 2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g) E) C2H4(g) + Br2(l) → C2H4Br2(l) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.3 OBJ: Predict the sign of the entropy change of a reaction. (Example 18.2) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: third law of thermodynamics | entropy change for a reaction MSC: general chemistry 29. For which of the following reactions is S° > 0 at 25°C? A) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g) B) 2ClBr(g) → Cl2(g) + Br2(g) C) I2(g) → I2(s) D) 2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g) E) NH4HS(s) → NH3(g) + H2S(g) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.3 OBJ: Predict the sign of the entropy change of a reaction. (Example 18.2) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: third law of thermodynamics | entropy change for a reaction MSC: general chemistry 30. Which of the following reactions has the smallest value of S° at 25°C? A) C6H6(l) + 9/2O2(g) → 6CO(g) + 3H2O(g) B) C6H6(s) → C6H6(l) C) C6H6(l) + Br2(l) → C6H5Br(l) + HBr(g) D) C6H6(s) → C6H6(g) E) C6H6(l) + 15/2O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 3H2O(g) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.3 OBJ: Predict the sign of the entropy change of a reaction. (Example 18.2) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: third law of thermodynamics | entropy change for a reaction MSC: general chemistry 31. For which of the following reactions is S° < 0 at 25°C? A) 2KClO3(s) → 2KCl(s) + 3O2(g) B) 2HgO(s) → 2Hg(l) + O2(g) C) Br2(l) → Br2(g) D) P4(s) + 5O2(g) → P4O10(s) E) (NH4)2Cr2O7(s) → N2(g) + 4H2O(l) + Cr2O3(s)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
9
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.3 OBJ: Predict the sign of the entropy change of a reaction. (Example 18.2) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: third law of thermodynamics | entropy change for a reaction MSC: general chemistry 32. Arrange the following reactions in order of increasing S° value. 1. 2. 3.
H2(g) + F2(g) → 2HF(g) NH4NO3(s) → N2O(g) + 2H2O(l) (NH4)2Cr2O7(s) → Cr2O3(s) + 4H2O(l) + N2(g)
A) 1 < 2 < 3 B) 2 < 3 < 1 C) 3 < 1 < 2 D) 1 < 3 < 2 E) 2 < 1 < 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.3 OBJ: Predict the sign of the entropy change of a reaction. (Example 18.2) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: third law of thermodynamics | entropy change for a reaction MSC: general chemistry 33. For which of the following reactions is S° > 0 at 25°C? A) MgO(s) + CO2(g) → MgCO3(s) B) 2H2(g) + O2(l) → 2H2O(l) C) 2Li(s) + O2(g) → Li2O(s) D) 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g) E) F3BNH3(s) → BF3(g) + NH3(g) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.3 OBJ: Predict the sign of the entropy change of a reaction. (Example 18.2) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: third law of thermodynamics | entropy change for a reaction MSC: general chemistry 34. Which of the following reactions has the largest positive value of S° per mole of O2 at 25°C? A) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g) B) 2C(s) + O2(g) → 2CO(g) C) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s) D) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) E) 2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
10
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.3 OBJ: Predict the sign of the entropy change of a reaction. (Example 18.2) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: third law of thermodynamics | entropy change for a reaction MSC: general chemistry 35. For the process Cl2(g) → 2Cl(g), A) H is + and S is + for the reaction. B) H is + and S = 0 for the reaction. C) H is – and S is – for the reaction. D) H is – and S is + for the reaction. E) H is + and S is – for the reaction. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.3 OBJ: Predict the sign of the entropy change of a reaction. (Example 18.2) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics 36. For the reaction N2(g) → 2N(g), A) H < 0 and S < 0. B) H > 0 and S < 0. C) H < 0 and S > 0. D) H = 0 and S > 0. E) H > 0 and S > 0. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.3 OBJ: Predict the sign of the entropy change of a reaction. (Example 18.2) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: third law of thermodynamics | entropy change for a reaction MSC: general chemistry 37. Given the following, determine S° at 298 K for one mole of NO(g). 2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g); S = −146.7 J/K at 298K Substance NO(g) O2(g) NO2(g)
S° (J/(mol · K)) at 298 K ? 205.1 240.0
A) 210.9 J/K B) −90.85 J/K C) 421.7 J/K D) –421.7 J/K E) +90.85 J/K ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Calculate deltaS for a reaction. (Example 18.3) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 18.3
11
38. What is the change in entropy when 0.100 g of silicon is burned in excess oxygen to yield silicon dioxide at 298 K? Si(s) + O2(g) → SiO2(s); S° = –182.4 J/K at 298 K A) –182 J/K B) –18.2 J/K C) –2.18 10–3 J/K D) –5.12 104 J/K E) –0.649 J/K ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.3 OBJ: Calculate deltaS for a reaction. (Example 18.3) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: third law of thermodynamics | entropy change for a reaction MSC: general chemistry 39. What is the change in entropy when 0.646 g of water decomposes to form hydrogen gas and oxygen gas at 298 K? 2H2O(l) → 2H2(g) + O2(g); S° = 326.3 J/K at 298 K A) 5.85 J/K B) 0.0785 J/K C) 23.4 J/K D) 11.7 J/K E) 211 J/K ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.3 OBJ: Calculate deltaS for a reaction. (Example 18.3) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: third law of thermodynamics | entropy change for a reaction MSC: general chemistry 40. What is the change in entropy when 5.46 mL of liquid benzene (C6H6, d = 0.879 g/mL) is combusted in the presence of 27.3 L of oxygen gas, measured at 298 K and 1 atm pressure? (R = 0.0821 L · atm/(K · mol)) 2C6H6(l) + 15O2(g) → 12CO2(g) + 6H2O(l); S° = –437.7 J/K at 298 K A) –488 J/K B) –46.0 J/K C) –26.9 J/K D) –13.4 J/K E) –515 J/K ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.3 OBJ: Calculate deltaS for a reaction. (Example 18.3) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: third law of thermodynamics | entropy change for a reaction MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
12
41. Which of the following equations is correct? A) G = S – TH B) G = H – PV C) G = H – TS D) G = Ginitial – Gfinal E) G = S – PV ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Define free energy, G. thermodynamics KEY: free energy MSC: general chemistry
easy TOP:
REF: 18.4 thermochemistry |
42. The free-energy change of a reaction is a measure of A) the excess entropy given off to the reaction system. B) the increased molecular disorder that occurs in the system. C) the energy given off to the surroundings. D) the direction in which a net reaction occurs. E) the excess entropy given off to the surroundings. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Define free energy, G. thermodynamics KEY: free energy MSC: general chemistry
easy TOP:
REF: 18.4 thermochemistry |
43. What is the thermodynamic quantity that provides the criterion for the spontaneity of a chemical reaction? A) TS B) U C) S D) G E) H ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define free energy, G. thermodynamics KEY: free energy | spontaneity
DIF:
easy TOP:
REF: 18.4 thermochemistry |
MSC: general chemistry
44. Which of the following is the best criterion for determining the spontaneity of a chemical reaction? A) H B) H° C) G D) G° E) TS ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Define free energy, G. thermodynamics KEY: free energy MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
moderate TOP:
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 18.4 thermochemistry |
13
45. What is G° at 298 K for the following reaction? I2(g) + Br2(g) → 2IBr(g); H° = –11.6 kJ; S° = 12 J/K at 298 K A) –8.02 kJ B) 15.2 kJ C) –15.2 kJ D) 3.59 103 kJ E) –3.59 103 kJ ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.4 OBJ: Calculate deltaG from deltaH and deltaS. (Example 18.4) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: free energy | standard free energy change MSC: general chemistry 46. From these two reactions at 298 K, V2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2V(s) + 3CO2(g); H° = 369.8 kJ; S° = 8.3 J/K V2O5(s) + 2CO(g) → V2O3(s) + 2CO2(g); H° = –234.2 kJ; S° = 0.2 J/K calculate G° for the following at 298 K: 2V(s) + 5CO2(g) → V2O5(s) + 5CO(g) A) +133.1 kJ B) +601.6 kJ C) –601.6 kJ D) –133.1 kJ E) +1.6 kJ ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.4 OBJ: Calculate deltaG from deltaH and deltaS. (Example 18.4) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: free energy | standard free energy change MSC: general chemistry 47. What is S° at 298 K for the following reaction? CH4(g) + N2(g) → HCN(g) + NH3(g); H° = 164.1 kJ; G° = 159.1 kJ at 298 K A) 2.0 J/K B) 5.5 102 J/K C) 1.1 103 J/K D) 5.3 102 J/K E) 17 J/K ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.4 OBJ: Calculate deltaG from deltaH and deltaS. (Example 18.4) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: free energy | standard free energy change MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
14
48. Which of the following has a value of zero for the standard free energy of formation at 298 K? A) I(l) B) I2(g) C) I2(l) D) I2(s) E) I(g) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define the standard free energy of formation, deltaG. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: free energy | standard free-energies of formation
REF: 18.4
MSC: general chemistry
49. For which of the following substances is the standard free energy of formation not equal to zero at 298 K? A) Ne(g) B) Gd(s) C) O2(g) D) Be(g) E) Cu(s) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define the standard free energy of formation, deltaG. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: free energy | standard free-energies of formation
REF: 18.4
MSC: general chemistry
50. Given the following, determine G°f at 298 K for SnO. Sn(s) + SnO2(s) → 2SnO(s) ; G° = 12.0 kJ at 298K Substance SnO(s) SnO2(s)
G°f (kJ/mol) at 298 K ? –515.8
A) –251.9 kJ/mol B) –503.8 kJ/mol C) 527.8 kJ/mol D) 263.9 kJ/mol E) 1055.6 kJ/mol ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.4 OBJ: Calculate deltaG from standard free energies of formation. (Example 18.5) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics 51. Given the following, determine G° at 298 K for the precipitation reaction, Ag+(aq) +Cl−(aq) → AgCl(s) Substance Cl−(aq) Ag+(aq) AgCl(s) Test Bank
G°f (kJ/mol) at 298 K –131.3 –109.8 General Chemistry, 10th edition
15
A) –55.6 kJ/mol B) –164.0 kJ/mol C) 55.6 kJ/mol D) 164.0 kJ/mol E) 98.6 kJ/mol ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.4 OBJ: Calculate deltaG from standard free energies of formation. (Example 18.5) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics 52. Consider the following hypothetical reaction at 310 K. Standard free energies of formation are given in parentheses. B (?)
C (176.4 kJ/mol)
G° = –20.7 kJ/mol
Calculate the standard free energy of formation of compound B. A) 155.7 kJ/mol B) –197.1 kJ/mol C) –155.7 kJ/mol D) 197.1 kJ/mol E) none of these ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.4 OBJ: Calculate deltaG from standard free energies of formation. (Example 18.5) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: free energy | standard free-energies of formation MSC: general chemistry 53. Determine G° for the following reaction: CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) Substance Gf° (kJ/mol) CH4(g) –50.72 O2(g) 0 CO2(g) –394.4 H2O(l) –237.4 A) –581.1 kJ B) –818.5 kJ C) 131.1 kJ D) –682.5 kJ E) –919.9 kJ ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.4 OBJ: Calculate deltaG from standard free energies of formation. (Example 18.5) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: free energy | standard free-energies of formation MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
16
54. Which of the following is correct for the condensation of gaseous methane at –166°C? The normal boiling point of methane is –161°C. A) H < 0, S > 0, and G > 0. B) H < 0, S < 0, and G < 0. C) H > 0, S < 0, and G < 0. D) H = 0, S = 0, and G < 0. E) H > 0, S > 0, and G > 0. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.4 OBJ: State the rules for using deltaG as a criterion for spontaneity. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: free energy | spontaneity MSC: general chemistry 55. If a process is both endothermic and spontaneous, then A) H = 0. B) G > 0. C) S > 0. D) U < 0. E) H < 0. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.4 OBJ: State the rules for using deltaG as a criterion for spontaneity. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: free energy | spontaneity MSC: general chemistry 56. For a reversible phase change at constant temperature and pressure, A) G = 0. B) U = 0. C) w = 0. D) H = 0. E) q = 0. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.4 OBJ: State the rules for using deltaG as a criterion for spontaneity. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: free energy | spontaneity MSC: general chemistry 57. For a reaction system that is at equilibrium, which of the following must always be true? A) H = 0 B) S = 0 C) G = 0 D) q = 0 E) U = 0 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.4 OBJ: Interpret the sign of deltaG. (Example 18.6) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: free energy | spontaneity MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
17
58. An ideal fuel for the control jet of a space vehicle should decompose with A) G = 0 and H = 0. B) G < 0 and H < 0. C) G > 0 and H > 0. D) G < 0 and H > 0. E) G > 0 and H < 0. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.4 OBJ: Interpret the sign of deltaG. (Example 18.6) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: free energy | spontaneity MSC: general chemistry 59. For a certain process, at 300. K, G = –44.0 kJ and H = –7.0 kJ. If the process is carried out reversibly, what is the amount of useful work that can be performed? A) –7.0 kJ B) –51.0 kJ C) –37.0 kJ D) 37.0 kJ E) –44.0 kJ ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.5 OBJ: Relate the free-energy change to maximum useful work. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: free energy | maximum work MSC: general chemistry 60. Which of the following is true for the reaction NH3(l) pressure? (The normal boiling point for NH3 is –33°C.) A) H = TS B) H = 0 C) H = nRT D) S = 0 E) H = PV
NH3(g) at –33°C and 1 atm
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.5 OBJ: Describe how the free energy changes during a chemical reaction. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: free energy MSC: general chemistry 61. Consider the following reaction: CaO(s) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s); G° = –130.9 kJ at 298 K At what partial pressure of CO2(g) will the reaction no longer be spontaneous at 298 K? (R = 0.0821 L · atm/(K · mol) = 8.31 J/(K · mol)) A) 1.59 108 atm B) 1.00 atm C) 6.28 10–9 atm D) 8.77 1022 atm E) 1.14 10–23 atm
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
18
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 18.6 OBJ: Give the relation between free energy change of a reaction and the reaction quotient. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: free energy MSC: general chemistry 62. What is the change in free energy at 298 K when 12.0 mL of 0.344 M calcium chloride is combined with 73.7 mL of 0.245 M sodium carbonate? (R = 8.31 J/(K · mol)) Ca2+(aq) + CO32–(aq) → CaCO3(s) Substance Ca2+(aq) CO32–(aq) CaCO3(s)
G°f (kJ/mol) at 298 K –553.5 –527.9 –1128.8
A) –36.0 kJ B) –2.20 103 kJ C) –41.3 kJ D) –47.4 kJ E) 9.16 103 kJ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 18.6 OBJ: Give the relation between free energy change of a reaction and the reaction quotient. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: free energy MSC: general chemistry 63. Based on the following data, what is the standard Gibbs free energy of formation of the sulfate ion at 298 K? (R = 8.31 J/(K · mol)) CaSO4(s)
Ca2+(aq) + SO42–(aq); Ksp = 2.4 10–5
Substance Ca2+(aq) CaSO4(s)
G°f (kJ/mol) at 298 K –553.5 –1322.0
A) –768.5 kJ/mol B) –1849.2 kJ/mol C) –1875.5 kJ/mol D) –742.2 kJ/mol E) 794.8 kJ/mol ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 18.6 OBJ: Give the relation between free energy change of a reaction and the reaction quotient. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: free energy MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
19
64. Given the following, determine K at 298K for the reaction, AgBr(s) → Ag+(aq) +Br−(aq) Substance Br−(aq) Ag+(aq) AgBr(s)
G°f (kJ/mol) at 298 K –104.0 –96.9
A) 5.3 10 −13 B) 5.2 10 4 C) 1.9 10 12 D) 1.9 10 −5 E) 1.8 10 −49 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.4 OBJ: Calculate deltaG from standard free energies of formation. (Example 18.5) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics 65. For a reaction, if G° = 0, then A) S° = 0. B) K = 0. C) H° = 0. D) K = 1. E) G = 0. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.6 OBJ: Relate the standard free-energy change to the thermodynamic equilibrium constant. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: thermodynamic equilibrium constant (K) MSC: general chemistry 66. For a reaction that has an equilibrium constant of 7 10–3, which of the following statements must be true? A) S° is positive. B) G° is positive. C) G° is negative. D) H° is negative. E) H° is positive. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.6 OBJ: Relate the standard free-energy change to the thermodynamic equilibrium constant. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: thermodynamic equilibrium constant (K) MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
20
67. A certain reaction is found to be product favored. Which of the following is a correct description of the reaction? A) G° < 0, K > 1 B) G° > 0, K < 1 C) G° > 0, K > 1 D) G° < 0, K < 1 E) G° = 0, K > 1 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.6 OBJ: Relate the standard free-energy change to the thermodynamic equilibrium constant. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics 68. The standard free energy of formation of nitric oxide, NO, at 1000. K (roughly the temperature in an automobile engine during ignition) is 78.0 kJ/mol. Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction 2NO(g) at 1000. K. (R = 8.31 J/(K · mol)) A) 0.95 B) 7.0 10–9 C) 1.6 105 D) –15 E) 8.4 10–5 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.6 OBJ: Calculate K from the standard free-energy change (molecular equation). (Example 18.8) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: thermodynamic equilibrium constant (K) MSC: general chemistry 69. Consider the following hypothetical reaction (at 316.8 K). Standard free energies, in kJ/mol, are given in parentheses. A (–32.2)
B (207.8)
+
C (–237.0)
G° = ?
What is the value of the equilibrium constant for the reaction at 316.8 K? A) 0.42 B) 1.0 C) 273 D) 6.5 104 E) 0.32 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.6 OBJ: Calculate K from the standard free-energy change (molecular equation). (Example 18.8) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: thermodynamic equilibrium constant (K) MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
21
70. Consider the following reaction: 3C(s) + 3H2(g) → C3H6(g); H° = 20.41 kJ; S° = –131.6 J/K at 298 K What is the equilibrium constant at 298 K for this reaction? A) 3.5 10–11 B) 1.0 C) 1.3 10–7 D) 2.8 1010 E) 2.6 10–4 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.6 OBJ: Calculate K from the standard free-energy change (molecular equation). (Example 18.8) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: thermodynamic equilibrium constant (K) MSC: general chemistry 71. Water gas, a commercial fuel, is made by the reaction of hot coke carbon with steam:
When equilibrium is established at 805°C, the concentrations of CO, H2, and H2O are 4.00 10–2, 4.00 10–2, and 1.00 10–2 mol/L, respectively. Calculate the value of G° for this reaction at 805°C. A) 53.7 kJ B) 12.3 kJ C) 16.4 kJ D) –12.4 kJ E) none of these ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.6 OBJ: Calculate K from the standard free-energy change (molecular equation). (Example 18.8) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: thermodynamic equilibrium constant (K) MSC: general chemistry 72. Consider the following reaction: 2AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g); H° = 127.1 kJ; S° = 115.7 J/K at 298 K Suppose 41.0 g of silver(I) chloride is placed in a 70.0 L vessel at 298 K. What is the equilibrium partial pressure of chlorine gas? (R = 0.0821 L · atm/(K · mol) = 8.31 J/(K · mol)) A) 0.050 atm B) 5.1 10–23 atm C) 0.95 atm D) 0.10 atm E) 5.7 10–17 atm ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 18.6 OBJ: Calculate K from the standard free-energy change (molecular equation). (Example 18.8) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: thermodynamic equilibrium constant (K) MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
22
73. A 0.0997 M solution of a particular monoprotic weak acid, HA, has a pH of 6.00 at 298 K. What is G° for the following equilibrium? HA(aq) + H2O(l)
H3O+(aq) + A–(aq)
A) 28.5 kJ B) 34.2 kJ C) 620 kJ D) 5.71 kJ E) 62.7 kJ ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 18.6 OBJ: Calculate K from the standard free-energy change (molecular equation). (Example 18.8) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: thermodynamic equilibrium constant (K) MSC: general chemistry 74. A 0.0228 M solution of a particular weak base, B, has a pH of 9.11 at 298 K. What is G° for the following equilibrium? B(aq) + H2O(l)
BH+(aq) + OH–(aq)
A) 27.9 kJ B) 51.9 kJ C) 9.36 kJ D) 46.4 kJ E) 94.5 kJ ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 18.6 OBJ: Calculate K from the standard free-energy change (molecular equation). (Example 18.8) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: thermodynamic equilibrium constant (K) MSC: general chemistry 75. What is G° at 298 K for the following equilibrium? Ag+(aq) + 2NH3(aq)
Ag(NH3)2+(aq); Kf = 1.7 107 at 298 K
A) –41 kJ B) 41 kJ C) –18 kJ D) 0 E) 18 kJ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.6 OBJ: Calculate K from the standard free-energy change (net ionic equation). (Example 18.9) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: thermodynamic equilibrium constant (K) MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
23
76. What is G° at 500.0 K for the following reaction? Sr(s) + H2O(g) → SrO(s) + H2(g) Substance Sr(s) H2O(g) SrO(s) H2(g)
H°f (kJ/mol) at 298 K 0 –241.8 –634.9 0
S° (J/(mol · K)) at 298 K 52.3 188.7 54.4 130.6
A) 365.1 kJ B) –365.1 kJ C) 376.4 kJ D) –376.4 kJ E) –421.1 kJ ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.7 OBJ: Describe how deltaG at a given temperature (deltaG T) is approximately related to deltaH and deltaS at that temperature. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy | calculation of free energy change at various temperatures MSC: general chemistry 77. For the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g), H° and S° are both negative at 298 K, and the process is spontaneous at 298 K. Which of the following statements must also be true? A) The change in entropy is the driving force of the reaction. B) G is positive for the reaction at 298 K. C) The direction of the reaction may be reversed at high temperatures. D) G is temperature independent. E) At high temperature, H becomes positive. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.7 OBJ: Describe the how spontaneity or nonspontaneity of a reaction is related to each of the four possible choices of signs of deltaH and deltaS. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy | spontaneity and temperature change MSC: general chemistry 78. For the reaction 4Ag(s) + O2(g) → 2Ag2O(s), H° = –61.14 kJ and S° = –132 J/K at 25°C. Which of the following statements is true? Assume that H° and S° are essentially temperature independent. A) The change in entropy is the driving force at low temperatures. B) The reaction will be spontaneous at high temperatures, and the reverse reaction will be spontaneous at low temperatures. C) The reaction will not be spontaneous at any temperature. D) The reaction will be spontaneous at low temperatures, and the reverse reaction will be spontaneous at high temperatures. E) The reaction will be spontaneous at all temperatures.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
24
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.7 OBJ: Describe the how spontaneity or nonspontaneity of a reaction is related to each of the four possible choices of signs of deltaH and deltaS. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy | spontaneity and temperature change MSC: general chemistry 79. The following reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures: CaC2(s) + 2H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(s) + C2H2(g) Which of the following statements is true? A) H is negative and S is positive. B) H is negative and S is negative. C) H is positive and S is negative. D) H is positive and S is positive. E) G is positive at all temperatures. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.7 OBJ: Describe the how spontaneity or nonspontaneity of a reaction is related to each of the four possible choices of signs of deltaH and deltaS. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy | spontaneity and temperature change MSC: general chemistry 80. The reaction Br2(g) → 2Br(g) is spontaneous only at temperatures in excess of 1600°C. We can conclude that A) H is + and S is + for the reaction. B) H is – and S is + for the reaction. C) G is + for all temperatures. D) H is – and S is – for the reaction. E) H is + and S is – for the reaction. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.7 OBJ: Describe the how spontaneity or nonspontaneity of a reaction is related to each of the four possible choices of signs of deltaH and deltaS. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy | spontaneity and temperature change MSC: general chemistry 81. A certain reaction has negative values for both H and S. Therefore, the reaction A) can be spontaneous if the temperature is low enough. B) cannot be spontaneous at any temperature. C) must be spontaneous at all temperatures. D) can be spontaneous if the temperature is high enough. E) has a positive free energy at any temperature.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
25
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.7 OBJ: Describe the how spontaneity or nonspontaneity of a reaction is related to each of the four possible choices of signs of deltaH and deltaS. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy | spontaneity and temperature change MSC: general chemistry 82. The reaction CaO(s) + SO3(g) → CaSO4(s) is nonspontaneous at 2200 K, whereas it is spontaneous at room temperature. Which of the following statements is false? A) The change in enthalpy is the main driving force of the reaction. B) Both H and S are negative for the reaction. C) G is negative at room temperature. D) The change in entropy is the main driving force of the reaction. E) G becomes zero at a temperature between 300 and 2200 K. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.7 OBJ: Describe the how spontaneity or nonspontaneity of a reaction is related to each of the four possible choices of signs of deltaH and deltaS. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy | spontaneity and temperature change MSC: general chemistry 83. For the reaction CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + O2(g) at 1 atm pressure, the values of H and S are both positive, and the process is spontaneous at high temperatures. Which of the following statements about this reaction is true? A) The change in entropy is the driving force for the reaction. B) The process is exothermic at high temperatures and endothermic at room temperature. C) The reverse reaction is endothermic. D) The reverse reaction is nonspontaneous at room temperature. E) G at room temperature is negative. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.7 OBJ: Describe the how spontaneity or nonspontaneity of a reaction is related to each of the four possible choices of signs of deltaH and deltaS. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy | spontaneity and temperature change MSC: general chemistry 84. For the reaction SrSO3(s) → SrO(s) + SO2(g), which is spontaneous only at high temperatures, one would predict that A) H is negative and S is negative at room temperature. B) H is positive and S is positive at room temperature. C) H is positive and S is negative at room temperature. D) G is positive at high temperatures. E) H is negative and S is positive at room temperature.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
26
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.7 OBJ: Describe the how spontaneity or nonspontaneity of a reaction is related to each of the four possible choices of signs of deltaH and deltaS. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy | spontaneity and temperature change MSC: general chemistry 85. Under standard-state conditions, a reaction with H° < 0 and S° > 0 is A) not spontaneous at low temperatures but spontaneous at high temperatures. B) at equilibrium. C) spontaneous at any temperature. D) spontaneous at low temperatures but not at high temperatures. E) not spontaneous at any temperature. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.7 OBJ: Describe the how spontaneity or nonspontaneity of a reaction is related to each of the four possible choices of signs of deltaH and deltaS. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy | spontaneity and temperature change MSC: general chemistry 86. Consider the following reaction, which is spontaneous at room temperature. NH3(g) + BF3(g) → H3NBF3(s) One would predict that A) G is negative at all temperatures. B) H is positive and S is negative for the reaction. C) H is negative and S is positive for the reaction. D) H is positive and S is positive for the reaction. E) H is negative and S is negative for the reaction. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.7 OBJ: Describe the how spontaneity or nonspontaneity of a reaction is related to each of the four possible choices of signs of deltaH and deltaS. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy | spontaneity MSC: general chemistry 87. Which of the following statements is true concerning the reaction below? CH4(g) + N2(g) → HCN(g) + NH3(g); H° = 164.1 kJ; G° = 159.1 kJ at 298 K A) It is nonspontaneous at all temperatures. B) It is spontaneous at relatively low temperatures only. C) It is spontaneous at all temperatures. D) It is at equilibrium at 298 K. E) It is spontaneous at relatively high temperatures only.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
27
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.7 OBJ: Describe the how spontaneity or nonspontaneity of a reaction is related to each of the four possible choices of signs of deltaH and deltaS. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy | spontaneity and temperature change MSC: general chemistry 88. Which of the following statements is true for the following reaction? NH4HS(s) → NH3(g) + H2S(g); H° = 93 kJ A) The reaction is not spontaneous at any temperature. B) The reaction is spontaneous only at relatively high temperatures. C) The reaction is at equilibrium under standard-state conditions. D) The reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures. E) The reaction is spontaneous only at relatively low temperatures. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.7 OBJ: Describe the how spontaneity or nonspontaneity of a reaction is related to each of the four possible choices of signs of deltaH and deltaS. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy | spontaneity and temperature change MSC: general chemistry 89. The reaction C(s) + CO2(g) → 2CO(g) is spontaneous only at temperatures in excess of 1100 K. We can conclude that A) G° is negative for all temperatures. B) H° is negative and S° is negative. C) H° is positive and S° is positive. D) H° is negative and S° is positive. E) H° is positive and S° is negative. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.7 OBJ: Describe the how spontaneity or nonspontaneity of a reaction is related to each of the four possible choices of signs of deltaH and deltaS. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy | spontaneity and temperature change MSC: general chemistry 90. Sublimation is an example of a process for which A) H is positive and S is negative at all temperatures. B) H is negative and S is positive at all temperatures. C) H, S, and G are negative at all temperatures. D) H and S are positive at all temperatures. E) H, S, and G are positive at all temperatures. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.7 OBJ: Describe the how spontaneity or nonspontaneity of a reaction is related to each of the four possible choices of signs of deltaH and deltaS. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy | spontaneity and temperature change MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
28
91. Condensation is a process for which A) G is negative at high temperature but positive at low temperature. B) H, S, and G are positive at all temperatures. C) G is positive when condensation occurs spontaneously. D) H and S are positive at all temperatures. E) H and S are negative at all temperatures. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.7 OBJ: Describe the how spontaneity or nonspontaneity of a reaction is related to each of the four possible choices of signs of deltaH and deltaS. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy | spontaneity and temperature change MSC: general chemistry 92. Consider the following reaction, which is spontaneous at room temperature. C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g) One would predict that A) H is positive and S is positive for the reaction. B) G is positive at all temperatures. C) H is negative and S is negative for the reaction. D) H is positive and S is negative for the reaction. E) H is negative and S is positive for the reaction. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.7 OBJ: Describe the how spontaneity or nonspontaneity of a reaction is related to each of the four possible choices of signs of deltaH and deltaS. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy | spontaneity and temperature change MSC: general chemistry 93. Which of the following statements is true concerning the reaction below? C(s, graphite) → C(s, diamond) Substance C(s, graphite) C(s, diamond)
H°f (kJ/mol) at 298 K 0 1.897
S° (J/(mol · K)) at 298 K 5.740 2.377
A) Under standard-state conditions, the reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures. B) Under standard-state conditions, the reaction is spontaneous only at temperatures above 564 K. C) Under standard-state conditions, the reaction is spontaneous only at temperatures below 564 K. D) Under standard-state conditions, the reaction is at equilibrium at 298 K. E) Under standard-state conditions, the reaction is not spontaneous at any temperature.
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
29
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 18.7 OBJ: Describe the how spontaneity or nonspontaneity of a reaction is related to each of the four possible choices of signs of deltaH and deltaS. TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy | spontaneity and temperature change MSC: general chemistry 94. For the reaction reaction at 700. K? A) 1.00 B) 1.54 C) 10.1 D) 2.31 E) none of these
G°700K = –13.457 kJ. What is Kp for this
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 18.7 OBJ: Calculate deltaG and K at various temperatures. (Example 18.10) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy MSC: general chemistry 95. Consider the following reaction: 2C(s) + 3H2(g) → C2H6(g); H° = –84.68 kJ; S° = –173.8 J/K at 298 K What is the equilibrium constant at 400.0 K for this reaction? A) 1.0 10–2 B) 2.0 104 C) 1.0 D) 9.5 101 E) 8.6 10–10 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 18.7 OBJ: Calculate deltaG and K at various temperatures. (Example 18.10) TOP: thermochemistry | thermodynamics KEY: temperature dependence of free energy MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
30
Chapter 19 - Electrochemistry 1. When balancing oxidation–reduction reactions in acidic solution by the half-reaction method, the addition of the reactant H+ is required to balance the product A) O2. B) OH–. C) O. D) H2O. E) none of these ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.1 OBJ: Learn the steps for balancing oxidation–reduction reactions in acidic solution using the half-reaction method. TOP: electrochemistry | half-reaction KEY: balancing oxidation-reduction equations | half-reaction method MSC: general chemistry 2. When the following oxidation–reduction reaction in acidic solution is balanced, what is the lowest whole-number coefficient for Rb+(aq)? Rb(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Rb+(aq) + Cu(s) A) 5 B) 4 C) 1 D) 3 E) 2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.1 OBJ: Balance equations by the half-reaction method (acidic solution). (Example 19.1) TOP: electrochemistry | half-reaction KEY: balancing oxidation-reduction equations | half-reaction method MSC: general chemistry 3. When the following oxidation–reduction reaction in acidic solution is balanced, what is the lowest whole-number coefficient for H+, and on which side of the balanced equation should it appear? MnO4–(aq) + Br–(aq) → Mn2+(aq) + Br2(l) A) 1, reactant side B) 2, product side C) 8, reactant side D) 16, reactant side E) 4, product side ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.1 OBJ: Balance equations by the half-reaction method (acidic solution). (Example 19.1) TOP: electrochemistry | half-reaction KEY: balancing oxidation-reduction equations | half-reaction method MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
1
4. Balance the following half-reaction occurring in acidic solution. NO3–(aq) → NO(g) A) NO3–(aq) + 4H+(aq) + 3e− → NO(g) + 2H2O(l) B) NO3–(aq) + 2H2O(l) + 3e− → NO(g) + 4H+(aq) C) NO3–(aq) + 4H+(aq) → NO(g) + 2H2O(l) + 3e− D) NO3–(aq) + 3e− → NO(g) + 4H+(aq) + 2H2O(l) E) NO3–(aq) + 4H+(aq)→ NO(g) + 2H2O(l) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 19.1 OBJ: Balance equations by the half-reaction method (acidic solution). (Example 19.1) TOP: electrochemistry | half-reaction 5. When the following oxidation–reduction reaction in acidic solution is balanced, what is the lowest whole-number coefficient for H+, and on which side of the balanced equation should it appear? S2O82–(aq) + NO(g) → SO42–(aq) + NO3–(aq) A) 4, product side B) 8, reactant side C) 12, reactant side D) 8, product side E) 4, reactant side ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 19.1 OBJ: Balance equations by the half-reaction method (acidic solution). (Example 19.1) TOP: electrochemistry | half-reaction KEY: balancing oxidation-reduction equations | half-reaction method MSC: general chemistry 6. Balance the following half-reaction occurring in basic solution. MnO2(s) → Mn(OH)2(s) A) MnO2(s) + 2H2O(l) + 2e−→ Mn(OH)2(s)+ 2OH−(aq) B) MnO2(s) + 2H2O(l) + 4e−→ Mn(OH)2(s)+ (OH)2−(aq) C) MnO2(s) + H22+(aq) + 2e−→ Mn(OH)2(s) D) MnO2(s) + H2(g) → Mn(OH)2(s) + 2e− E) MnO2(s) + 2H2O(l) → Mn(OH)2(s)+ 2OH−(aq) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.1 OBJ: Balancing equations by the half-reaction method (basic solution). (Example 19.2) TOP: electrochemistry | half-reaction
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
2
7. Balance the following oxidation-reduction occurring in acidic solution. MnO4–(aq) + Co2+(aq)→ Mn2+(aq) + Co3+(aq)
A) MnO4–(aq) + 8H+(aq) + 5Co2+(aq) → Mn2+(aq) + 4H2O(aq) + 5Co3+(aq) B) MnO4–(aq) + 8H+(aq) + Co2+(aq) → Mn2+(aq) + 4H2O(aq) + Co3+(aq) C) MnO4–(aq) + 4H2(g) + 5Co2+(aq)→ Mn2+(aq) + 4H2O(aq) + 5Co3+(aq) D) MnO4–(aq) + 8H+(aq) + 2Co2+(aq) → Mn2+(aq) + 4H2O(aq) + 2Co3+(aq) E) MnO4–(aq) + Co2+(aq) → Mn2+(aq) + 2O2(g) + Co3+(aq) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 19.1 OBJ: Balancing equations by the half-reaction method (basic solution). (Example 19.2) TOP: electrochemistry | half-reaction 8. When the following oxidation–reduction reaction in basic solution is balanced, what is the lowest whole-number coefficient for OH–, and on which side of the balanced equation should it appear? Cr2O3(s) → Cr(OH)2(aq) + CrO42–(aq) A) 2, reactant side B) 10, product side C) 4, product side D) 4, reactant side E) 2, product side ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 19.1 OBJ: Balancing equations by the half-reaction method (basic solution). (Example 19.2) TOP: electrochemistry | half-reaction KEY: balancing oxidation-reduction equations | half-reaction method MSC: general chemistry 9. Which of the following statements is true for a voltaic (galvanic) cell? A) The electron flow is from the anode to the cathode. B) The electron flow is from the positive electrode to the negative electrode. C) The electron flow is from the negative cathode to the positive anode. D) The electron flow is through the salt bridge. E) The electron flow is from the oxidizing agent to the reducing agent through an external circuit. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.2 OBJ: Define electrochemical cell, voltaic (galvanic) cell, electrolytic cell, and half-cell. TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
3
10. Which of the following statements concerning a voltaic cell is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Reduction occurs at the cathode. A spontaneous reaction generates an electric current in a voltaic cell. Without a salt bridge charge buildup will cause the cell reaction to stop.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the function of the salt bridge in a voltaic cell. TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells
REF: 19.2
11. The electrochemical reaction which powers a lead-acid storage battery is as follows: Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 4H+(aq) + 2SO42–(aq) → 2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l) A single cell of this battery consists of a Pb electrode and a PbO2 electrode, each submerged in sulfuric acid. What reaction occurs at the cathode during discharge? A) Pb(s) is reduced to PbSO4(s). B) PbO2(s) is reduced to PbSO4(s). C) PbO2(s) is oxidized to PbSO4(s). D) Pb(s) is oxidized to PbSO4(s). E) H+ is oxidized to H2O(l) . ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.2 OBJ: State the reactions that occurs at the anode and the cathode in an electrochemical cell. TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: construction of voltaic cells MSC: general chemistry 12. A lead storage battery involves the following two half-reactions: PbSO4(s) + 2e– → Pb(s) + SO42–(aq); E° = –0.36 V PbO2(s) + 4H+(aq) + SO42–(aq) + 2e– → PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l); E° = 1.69 V During the discharge reaction of the lead storage battery at 1.0 M concentrations, the cell potential and the reducing agent are, respectively, A) 2.05 V and PbO2. B) –2.05 V and PbO2. C) 1.33 V and Pb. D) –2.05 V and Pb. E) 2.05 V and Pb. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.4 OBJ: State the reactions that occurs at the anode and the cathode in an electrochemical cell. TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: construction of voltaic cells MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
4
13. The anode in a voltaic cell and in an electrolytic cell is A) the site of oxidation and of reduction, respectively. B) the site of reduction and of oxidation, respectively. C) positive in both cells. D) the site of reduction in both cells. E) the site of oxidation in both cells. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.9 OBJ: State the reactions that occurs at the anode and the cathode in an electrochemical cell. TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: construction of voltaic cells MSC: general chemistry 14. The cell reaction for a certain alkaline dry cell is Zn(s) + 2MnO2(s) + H2O(l) → Zn(OH)2(s) + Mn2O3(s) Which of the following statements concerning this cell is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
MnO2(s) is oxidized to Mn2O3(s) during cell discharge. Water is consumed during the discharge of this cell. Zn(OH)2(s) forms at the anode during discharge of this cell.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2 and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.2 OBJ: State the reactions that occurs at the anode and the cathode in an electrochemical cell. TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells 15. Which statement concerning the cathode in an electrochemical cell is correct? A) Metal ions may be deposited as metal atoms on the cathode during cell discharge. B) When connected to an external circuit, the cathode develops a positive charge. C) Reduction occurs at the cathode during cell discharge. D) Positive ions flow towards the cathode during cell discharge. E) All of the above. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.2 OBJ: State the reactions that occurs at the anode and the cathode in an electrochemical cell. TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: construction of voltaic cells MSC: general chemistry 16. The following reactions take place in a lead storage battery. Discharging: Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 4H+(aq) + 2SO42–(aq) → 2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l) Charging: 2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l) → Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 4H+(aq) + 2SO42–(aq)
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
5
Which of the following statements is true? A) The concentration of H2SO4 increases as the battery discharges. B) Pb is formed at the anode during discharge. C) Pb is formed at the cathode during charging. D) The mass of Pb decreases during charging. E) The mass of PbSO4 remains constant during charging and discharging. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.2 OBJ: State the reactions that occurs at the anode and the cathode in an electrochemical cell. TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: construction of voltaic cells MSC: general chemistry 17. A strip of iron is placed in a 1 M solution of iron(II) sulfate, and a strip of copper is placed in a 1 M solution of copper(II) chloride. The two solutions are connected with a salt bridge, and the two metals are connected by a wire. Reduction Half-Reaction Fe (aq) + 2e– Fe(s) 2+ – Cu (aq) + 2e Cu(s) 2+
E° (V) –0.41 0.34
Which of the following takes place? A) Sulfur deposits at the iron electrode. B) The Fe(II) concentration of the iron half-cell decreases. C) Copper atoms deposit at the cathode. D) Chlorine is produced at the copper electrode. E) Chlorine is produced at the iron electrode. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.6 OBJ: State the reactions that occurs at the anode and the cathode in an electrochemical cell. TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: construction of voltaic cells MSC: general chemistry 18. Which reaction would be most likely to occur at the anode of a voltaic cell? A) PbSO4(s) + 2e– → Pb(s) + SO42–(aq) B) 2H2O(l) + 2e– → H2(g) + 2OH–(aq) C) 2H2O(l) → O2(g) + 4H+(aq) + 4e– D) PbSO4(s) → Pb2+(aq) + SO42–(aq) E) 2H2O(l) → 2H2(g) + O2(g) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.2 OBJ: State the reactions that occurs at the anode and the cathode in an electrochemical cell. TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: construction of voltaic cells MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
6
19. Which of the following statements is true concerning the voltaic cell shown below?
A) The Cu cathode mass increases as the cell discharges. B) The Cu anode mass decreases as the cell discharges. C) The Cu anode mass increases as the cell discharges. D) The Cu cathode mass decreases as the cell discharges. E) The mass of the Cu electrode neither increases nor decreases as the cell discharges. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.2 OBJ: State the reactions that occurs at the anode and the cathode in an electrochemical cell. TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells 20. Which of the following statements is true concerning half-cell I as the voltaic cell shown below discharges?
A) [Zn2+] increases with time, and [Cl−] increases with time. B) [Zn2+] decreases with time, and [Cl−] increases with time. C) [Zn2+] decreases with time, and [Cl−] decreases with time. D) [Zn2+] decreases with time, and [NO3−] increases with time. E) [Zn2+] increases with time, and [NO3−] increases with time. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.2 OBJ: State the reactions that occurs at the anode and the cathode in an electrochemical cell. TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
7
21. Which of the following cell reactions would require the use of an inert electrode? A) Fe(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → 2Ag(s) + Fe2+(aq) B) 3Cu(s) + 2Au3+(aq) → 3Cu2+ + 2Au(s) C) Fe(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Fe2+(aq) + 2Ag(s) D) Fe(s) + 2MnO2(s) + 2NH4+(aq) → Fe2+(aq) + Mn2O3(s) + 2NH3(aq) + H2O(l) E) 3Zn2+(aq) + 2Al(s) → 3Zn(s) + 2Al3+(aq) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.2 OBJ: State the reactions that occurs at the anode and the cathode in an electrochemical cell. TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: construction of voltaic cells MSC: general chemistry 22. What is the effect on the cell when a salt bridge in an electrochemical cell is completely clogged during cell discharge? 1. 2. 3.
Each half-cell reaction stops. The flow of ions to and from the salt bridge is disrupted. The flow of current through the external circuit slows but does not stop.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2 and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Sketch and label a voltaic cell. (Example 19.3) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells
REF: 19.2
23. According to the following cell notation, which species is undergoing reduction? Sn | Sn2+(aq) || Mn2+(aq) | MnO2(s) | Pt(s) A) Mn2+(aq) B) Sn2+(aq) C) Sn(s) D) MnO2(s) E) Pt(s) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.3 OBJ: Write the cell reaction from the cell notation. (Example 19.4) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells 24. In the following electrochemical cell, what is the role of the platinum? Cu(s) | Cu2+(aq) || Fe3+(aq), Fe2+(aq) | Pt(s) A) The platinum serves as the anode. B) The oxidation of Fe2+ takes place at the surface of the platinum as the cell discharges.
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
8
C) The reduction of Fe3+ takes place at the surface of the platinum as the cell discharges. D) A and C. E) A and B. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.3 OBJ: Write the cell reaction from the cell notation. (Example 19.4) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells 25. In the following electrochemical cell, what is the reduction half reaction? Mn(s) | Mn2+(aq) || Fe3+(aq), Fe2+(aq) | Pt(s) A) Fe3+(aq) + e− → Fe2+(aq) B) Fe2+(aq) + e− → Fe3+(aq) C) Fe2+(aq) + Pt(s) → Fe3+(aq) + e− D) Mn2+(aq) → Mn(s) + 2e− E) Mn(s) → Mn2+(aq) + 2e− ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.3 OBJ: Write the cell reaction from the cell notation. (Example 19.4) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells 26. A zinc–copper voltaic cell is represented as follows: Zn(s) | Zn2+(1.0 M) || Cu2+(1.0 M) | Cu(s) Which of the following statements is false? A) The copper electrode is the anode. B) Reduction occurs at the copper electrode during discharge. C) The mass of the zinc electrode decreases during discharge. D) Electrons flow through the external circuit from the zinc electrode to the copper electrode. E) The concentration of Cu2+ decreases during discharge. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.3 OBJ: Write the cell reaction from the cell notation. (Example 19.4) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: cell notation MSC: general chemistry 27. What is the cell reaction for the following voltaic cell? Al(s) | Al3+(aq) || Br–(aq) | Br2(g) | Pt(s) A) 2Al(s) + 3Br2(g) 2Al3+(aq) + 6Br–(aq) B) Al(s) + Al3+(aq) Br–(aq) + Br2(g) C) 2Al3+(aq) + 6Br–(aq) 2Al(s) + 3Br2(g) 3+ D) Al(s) + 3Br2(g) Al (s) + 2Br–(aq) E) Al(s) + 2Br–(aq) Br2(g) + Al3+(aq)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
9
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.3 OBJ: Write the cell reaction from the cell notation. (Example 19.4) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: cell notation MSC: general chemistry 28. What is the cell notation for the voltaic cell shown below?
A) Zn2+(aq) | Zn(s) || Cu2+(aq) | Cu(s) B) Zn(s) | Zn2+(aq) || Cu(s) | Cu2+(aq) C) Zn(s) | Cu(s) || Zn2+(aq) | Cu2+(aq) D) Zn(s) | Zn2+(aq) || Cu2+(aq) | Cu(s) E) Zn2+(aq) | Zn(s) || Cu(s) | Cu2+(aq) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.3 OBJ: Write the cell reaction from the cell notation. (Example 19.4) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: cell notation MSC: general chemistry 29. What is the cell reaction for the following electrochemical cell? Cu | Cu2+(aq) || Ni2+(aq) | Ni A) 2Cu(s) + Ni2+(aq) → Ni(s) + 2Cu2+(aq) B) Cu(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Ni(s) + Ni2+(aq) C) Cu(s) + Ni2+(aq) → Ni(s) + Cu2+(aq) D) 2Ni(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Cu(s) + 2Ni2+(aq) E) Ni(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Cu(s) + Ni2+(aq) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.3 OBJ: Write the cell reaction from the cell notation. (Example 19.4) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: cell notation MSC: general chemistry 30. What is the correct cell notation for a cell in which the hydrogen electrode is the anode and the cathode half-reaction is Co3+(aq) + e− → Co2+(aq). A) Pt(s) | H2(g) | H+(aq) || Co3+(aq), Co2+(aq) | Pt(s) B) Pt(s) | H2(g) | H+(aq) || Co3+(aq), Co2+(aq) C) Co2+(aq), Co3+(aq) || H+(aq) | H2(g) | Pt(s) D) Pt(s)| Co2+(aq), Co3+(aq) || H+(aq) | H2(g) | Pt(s) E) H2(g) | H+(aq) || Co2+(aq), Co3+(aq)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
10
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.3 OBJ: Write the cell reaction from the cell notation. (Example 19.4) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells 31. Consider the following standard electrode potentials: Ag+(aq) + e– Mn2+(aq) + 2e–
Ag(s); E° = 0.80 V Mn(s); E° = –1.18 V
Which of the following statements is false concerning the electrochemical cell given below? Mn(s) | Mn2+(aq) || Ag+(aq) | Ag(s) A) The anode half-cell reaction is Mn(s) → Mn2+(aq) + 2e–. B) The reducing agent is Ag(s). C) Under standard-state conditions, the cell potential is 1.98 V. D) The cell potential decreases with time. E) The oxidizing agent is Ag+(aq). ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.5 OBJ: Write the cell reaction from the cell notation. (Example 19.4) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: cell notation MSC: general chemistry 32. For a galvanic cell using Fe | Fe2+(1.0 M) and Pb | Pb2+(1.0 M) half-cells, which of the following statements is correct? Fe2+(aq) + 2e– → Fe(s); E° = –0.41 V Pb2+(aq) + 2e– → Pb(s); E° = –0.13 V A) The iron electrode is the cathode. B) When the cell has completely discharged, the concentration of Pb2+ is zero. C) The mass of the iron electrode increases during discharge. D) The concentration of Pb2+ decreases during discharge. E) Electrons leave the lead electrode to pass through the external circuit during discharge. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.5 OBJ: Write the cell reaction from the cell notation. (Example 19.4) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: cell notation MSC: general chemistry 33. What is the cell reaction for the following electrochemical cell? Ni | Ni2+(aq) || Y3+(aq) | Y A) 3Ni(s) + 2Y3+(aq) → 2Y(s) + 3Ni2+(aq) B) 2Y(s) + 3Ni2+(aq) → 3Ni(s) + 2Y3+(aq) C) Ni(s) + Ni2+(aq) → Y(s) + Y3+(aq) D) Ni(s) + Y3+(aq) → Y(s) + Ni2+(aq) E) Y(s) + Ni2+(aq) → Ni(s) + Y3+(aq) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.3 OBJ: Write the cell reaction from the cell notation. (Example 19.4) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: cell notation MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
11
34. What is the cell reaction for the following electrochemical cell? Pt | Fe2+(aq),Fe3+(aq) || Al3+(aq) | Al A) 3Fe2+(aq) + Al3+(s) → Al(s) + 3Fe3+(aq) B) 3Fe2+(aq) + 3Fe3+(aq) → Al(s) + Al3+(aq) C) Al(s) + 3Fe3+(aq) → Al3+(aq) + 3Fe2+(aq) D) Pt(s) + Fe2+(aq) + Al3+(aq) → Al(s) + Pt2+(aq) + Fe3+(aq) E) Al(s) + Al3+(aq) → 3Fe2+(aq) + 3Fe3+(aq) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.3 OBJ: Write the cell reaction from the cell notation. (Example 19.4) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: cell notation MSC: general chemistry 35. What is the SI unit of potential difference? A) coulomb B) farad C) volt D) joule E) ampere ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define cell potential and volt. KEY: electromotive force
DIF: easy REF: 19.4 TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells MSC: general chemistry
36. The Faraday constant is defined as A) The charge per mole of electrons. B) The charge on a single electron. C) The maximum work obtainable from an electrochemical cell. D) The electromotive force of the cell. E) The amount of charge moved between electrodes. ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Define cell potential and volt.
DIF: easy REF: 19.4 TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells
37. Which of the following statments concerning electrochemical cell potentials is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Electrons flow from a point of high electrical potential to a point of low electrical potential. The potential difference between two points in a circuit is measured in coulombs. The cell voltage is at its maximum when no current is flowing.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 E) 1 and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Define cell potential and volt. Test Bank
DIF: easy REF: 19.4 TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells
General Chemistry, 10th edition
12
38. A fuel cell designed to react grain alcohol with oxygen has the following net reaction: C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l) The maximum work that 1 mol of alcohol can yield by this process is 1320 kJ. What is the theoretical maximum voltage that this cell can achieve? A) 1.14 V B) 2.28 V C) 2.01 V D) 0.760 V E) 13.7 V ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.4 OBJ: Calculate the quantity of work from a given amount of cell reactant. (Example 19.5) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: electromotive force MSC: general chemistry 39. The cell potential of an electrochemical cell with the cell reaction Al(s) + Cr3+(aq) → Cr(s) + Al3+(aq) is 1.63 V. What is the maximum electrical work obtainable from this cell when 0.50 g of Al is consumed? A) −8.7 10 3 J B) −2.9 10 3 J C) −1.7 10 4 J D) −6.4 10 6 J E) −2.4 10 5 J ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.4 OBJ: Calculate the quantity of work from a given amount of cell reactant. (Example 19.5) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells 40. The cell potential of an electrochemical cell with the cell reaction Al(s) + Cr3+(aq) → Cr(s) + Al3+(aq) is 1.63 V. What is the maximum electrical work obtainable from this cell when 1.0 mol of Al is consumed? A) −4.7 10 5 J B) −1.6 10 5 J C) −1.8 10 5 J D) −5.2 10 4 J E) −3.1 10 5 J ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.4 OBJ: Calculate the quantity of work from a given amount of cell reactant. (Example 19.5) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
13
41. What is the balanced spontaneous reaction and standard cell potential of an electrochemical cell constructed from half cells with the following half reactions? E° = –0.763 V E° = –0.130 V A) Pb2+(aq) + Zn(s) → Pb(s) + Zn2+(aq); 0.633 V B) Pb(s) + Zn2+(aq) → Pb2+(aq) + Zn(s); −0.633 V C) Pb2+(aq) + Zn2+(aq) → Pb(s) + Zn(s); –0.893 V D) Pb2+(aq) + Zn(s) → Pb(s) + Zn2+(aq); 0.317 V E) Pb(s) + Zn2+(aq) → Pb2+(aq) + Zn(s); −0.317 V ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 19.5 OBJ: Calculate the quantity of work from a given amount of cell reactant. (Example 19.5) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells 42. In a table of standard reduction potentials, the strongest reducing agents are the _______ species in the half-reactions with the _______ E° values. A) reduced, most negative B) oxidized, most positive C) reduced, most positive D) oxidized, most negative E) none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Interpret the table of standard reduction potentials. TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells
REF: 19.5
43. Given: Mn2+(aq) + 2e– Mn(s); E° = –1.18 V 2+ – Cu (aq) + 2e Cu(s); E° = 0.34 V 2– + Cr2O7 (aq) + 14H (aq) + 6e– 2Cr3+(aq) + 7H2O(l); E° = 1.33 V Which of the following species is the strongest reducing agent? A) Mn B) Cu C) Cr3+ D) Mn2+ E) Cr2O72– ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.5 OBJ: Determine the relative strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents. (Example 19.6) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | strength of oxidizing and reducing agents MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
14
44. Given: Ni2+(aq) + 2e– Ni(s); E° = –0.23 V 2+ – Cu (aq) + 2e Cu(s); E° = 0.34 V 2– + Cr2O7 (aq) + 14H (aq) + 6e– 2Cr3+(aq) + 7H2O(l); E° = 1.33 V Which of the following species is the strongest oxidizing agent? A) Ni B) Cr3+ C) Cr2O72– D) Ni2+ E) Cu ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.5 OBJ: Determine the relative strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents. (Example 19.6) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | strength of oxidizing and reducing agents MSC: general chemistry 45. Given: Ni2+(aq) + 2e– Ni(s); E° = –0.23 V + – 2H (aq) + 2e H2(g); E° = 0.00 V + – Ag (aq) + e Ag(s); E° = 0.80 V – + NO3 (aq) + 4H (aq) + 3e– NO(g) + 2H2O(l); E° = 0.96 V Which of the following statements is true? A) Ni2+ reacts spontaneously with 1 M H+(aq) to form H2. B) Ni2+ reacts spontaneously with H2(g). C) Ag(s) reacts spontaneously with Ni2+. D) Ag(s) reacts spontaneously with 1 M NO3– in 1 M H+(aq). E) Ag(s) reacts spontaneously with 1 M H+(aq). ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.5 OBJ: Determine the relative strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents. (Example 19.6) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | strength of oxidizing and reducing agents MSC: general chemistry 46. Given: Pb2+(aq) + 2e– Mg2+(aq) + 2e– Ag+(aq) + e– 2H+(aq) + 2e–
Test Bank
Pb(s); E° = –0.13 V Mg(s); E° = –2.38 V Ag(s); E° = 0.80 V H2(g); E° = 0.00 V
General Chemistry, 10th edition
15
Under standard-state conditions, which of the following species is the best reducing agent? A) H2 B) Mg2+ C) Ag+ D) Pb E) Ag ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.5 OBJ: Determine the relative strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents. (Example 19.6) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | strength of oxidizing and reducing agents MSC: general chemistry 47. Given: Zn2+(aq) + 2e– Co2+(aq) + 2e– Sn2+(aq) + 2e– Pb2+(aq) + 2e– Fe3+(aq) + e–
Zn(s); E° = –0.76 V Co(s); E° = –0.28 V Sn(s); E° = –0.15 V Pb(s); E° = –0.13 V Fe2+(aq); E° = 0.77 V
Under standard-state conditions, which of the following pairs of elements or ions is capable of reducing Sn2+(aq) to Sn(s)? A) Zn(s) or Co(s) B) Pb(s) or Fe2+(aq) C) Co(s) or Pb(s) D) Fe2+(aq) or Zn(s) E) Zn2+(aq) or Co2+(aq) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.5 OBJ: Determine the relative strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents. (Example 19.6) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells 48. Given: Pb2+(aq) + 2e– Pb(s); E° = –0.13 V + – 2H (aq) + 2e H2(g); E° = 0.00 V – + NO3 (aq) + 4H (aq) + 3e– NO(g) + 2H2O(l); E° = 0.96 V + – O2(g) + 4H (aq) + 4e 2H2O(l); E° = 1.23 V 2– + PbO2(s) + SO4 (aq) + 4H (aq) + 2e– PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l); E° = 1.69 V Under standard-state conditions, which of the following is the best oxidizing agent? A) H+ B) Pb2+ C) PbO2 D) O2 E) NO3–
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
16
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.5 OBJ: Determine the relative strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents. (Example 19.6) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | strength of oxidizing and reducing agents MSC: general chemistry 49. Given: 2H+(aq) + 2e– Li+(aq) + e– F2(g) + 2e– Al3+(aq) + 3e– Pb2+(aq) + 2e–
H2(g); E° = 0.00 V Li(s); E° = –3.04 V 2F–(aq); E° = 2.87 V Al(s); E° = –1.66 V Pb(s); E° = –0.13 V
Under standard-state conditions, which is the strongest reducing agent? A) Pb2+ B) Al3+ C) F– D) Li E) H+ ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.5 OBJ: Determine the relative strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents. (Example 19.6) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | strength of oxidizing and reducing agents MSC: general chemistry 50. Given: W3+(aq) + 3e– Pb2+(aq) + 2e– Ni2+(aq) + 2e– Cd2+(aq) + 2e– Zn2+(aq) + 2e– Al3+(aq) + 3e– Mg2+(aq) + 2e–
W(s); E° = 0.10 V Pb(s); E° = –0.13 V Ni(s); E° = –0.23 V Cd(s); E° = –0.40 V Zn(s); E° = –0.76 V Al(s); E° = –1.66 V Mg(s); E° = –2.38 V
Under standard-state conditions, which of the following metals will reduce W3+ to W but will not reduce Ni2+ to Ni? A) Cd B) Pb C) Al D) Zn E) Mg ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.5 OBJ: Determine the relative strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents. (Example 19.6) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | strength of oxidizing and reducing agents MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
17
51. Given: Zn2+(aq) + 2e– Cr3+(aq) + 3e– Fe2+(aq) + 2e– Cd2+(aq) + 2e– Sn2+(aq) + 2e– Hg2+(aq) + 2e– Au+(aq) + e–
Zn(s); E° = –0.76 V Cr(s); E° = –0.74 V Fe(s); E° = –0.41 V Cd(s); E° = –0.40 V Sn(s); E° = –0.15 V Hg(s); E° = 0.85 V Au(s); E° = 1.69 V
Under standard-state conditions, which of the following metals will reduce Hg2+ to Hg but will not reduce Cd2+ to Cd? A) Cr B) Zn C) Fe D) Sn E) Au ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.5 OBJ: Determine the relative strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents. (Example 19.6) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | strength of oxidizing and reducing agents MSC: general chemistry 52. Given: Zn2+(aq) + 2e– Zn(s); E° = –0.76 V + – 2H (aq) + 2e H2(g); E° = 0.00 V – – I2(s) + 2e 2I (aq); E° = 0.54 V – Br2(l) + 2e 2Br–(aq); E° = 1.07 V Ni2+(aq) + 2e– Ni(s); E° = –0.23 V Cu2+(aq) + 2e– Cu(s); E° = 0.34 V Which of the following species will oxidize Ni but not Cu? A) Zn2+ B) Br– C) H+ D) I2 E) Zn ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.5 OBJ: Determine the relative strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents. (Example 19.6) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | strength of oxidizing and reducing agents MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
18
53. Given: Pb2+(aq) + 2e– Zn2+(aq) + 2e– Al3+(aq) + 3e– Mg2+(aq) + 2e– V2+(aq) + 2e– Cu2+(aq) + 2e–
Pb(s); E° = –0.13 V Zn(s); E° = –0.76 V Al(s); E° = –1.66 V Mg(s); E° = –2.38 V V(s); E° = –1.18 V Cu(s); E° = 0.34 V
Which of the following cations is capable of oxidizing Pb to Pb2+ under standard-state conditions? A) Al3+ B) V2+ C) Cu2+ D) Mg2+ E) Zn2+ ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.5 OBJ: Determine the relative strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents. (Example 19.6) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | strength of oxidizing and reducing agents MSC: general chemistry 54. Given: Li+(aq) + e– Mg2+(aq) + 2e– Fe2+(aq) + 2e– Ag+(aq) + e– Br2(l) + 2e–
Li(s); E° = –3.04 V Mg(s); E° = –2.38 V Fe(s); E° = –0.41 V Ag(s); E° = 0.80 V 2Br–(aq); E° = 1.07 V
Which of the following species is the best oxidizing agent? A) Mg2+ B) Br– C) Fe2+ D) Li E) Ag+ ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.5 OBJ: Determine the relative strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents. (Example 19.6) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | strength of oxidizing and reducing agents MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
19
55. Given: Hg2+(aq) + 2e– Li+(aq) + e– Br2(l) + 2e– Au+(aq) + e– Cl2(g) + 2e–
Hg(s); E° = 0.85 V Li(s); E° = –3.04 V 2Br–(aq); E° = 1.07 V Au(s); E° = 1.69 V 2Cl–(aq); E° = 1.36 V
Which of the following species is the best reducing agent? A) Hg B) Li+ C) Au D) Cl– E) Br– ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.5 OBJ: Determine the relative strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents. (Example 19.6) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | strength of oxidizing and reducing agents MSC: general chemistry 56. Which of the following statements is true about a voltaic cell for which E°cell = –1.00 V? A) The cathode is at a higher energy than the anode. B) It has G° < 0. C) The reaction is nonspontaneous. D) The system is at equilibrium. E) It has K = 1. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.6 OBJ: Determine the direction of spontaneity from electrode potentials. (Example 19.7) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials MSC: general chemistry 57. Which of the following is true for a reaction that is nonspontaneous as written? A) G > 0; Ecell < 0 B) G < 0; Ecell > 0 C) G < 0; Ecell < 0 D) G > 0; Ecell > 0 E) G > 0; Ecell = 0 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.6 OBJ: Determine the direction of spontaneity from electrode potentials. (Example 19.7) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells 58. Consider the following standard reduction potentials: Mg2+(aq) + 2e– V2+(aq) + 2e– Cu2+(aq) + e– Test Bank
Mg(s); E° = –2.38 V V(s); E° = –1.18 V Cu+(aq); E° = 0.15 V General Chemistry, 10th edition
20
Which of the following reactions will proceed spontaneously from left to right under standard-state conditions? A) Mg(s) + 2Cu2+(aq) → Mg2+(aq) + 2Cu+(aq) B) V2+(aq) + 2Cu+(aq) → V(s) + 2Cu2+(aq) C) Mg2+(aq) + 2Cu+(aq) → 2Cu2+(aq) + Mg(s) D) Mg2+(aq) + V(s) → V2+(aq) + Mg(s) E) 2Cu2+(aq) + 2Cu+(aq) → Mg2+(aq) + Mg(s) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.5/19.6 OBJ: Determine the direction of spontaneity from electrode potentials. (Example 19.7) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials MSC: general chemistry 59. Consider the following standard reduction potentials: 2H+(aq) + 2e– Sn2+(aq) + 2e– Cd2+(aq) + 2e–
H2(g); E° = 0.00 V Sn(s); E° = –0.15 V Cd(s); E° = –0.40 V
Which pair of substances will react spontaneously under standard-state conditions? A) Cd with H+ B) Cd with Sn C) Sn2+ with Cd2+ D) Sn with Cd2+ E) Sn2+ with H+ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.5 OBJ: Determine the direction of spontaneity from electrode potentials. (Example 19.7) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials MSC: general chemistry 60. For a certain oxidation–reduction reaction, E°cell is positive. This means that A) G° is negative and K is greater than 1. B) G° is positive and K is less than 1. C) G° is positive and K is greater than 1. D) G° is negative and K is less than 1. E) G° is zero and K is greater than 1. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.6 OBJ: Determine the direction of spontaneity from electrode potentials. (Example 19.7) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
21
61. Consider the following reduction potentials: Cd2+(aq) + 2e– Pb2+(aq) + 2e– Cu2+(aq) + 2e– Br2(l) + 2e–
Cd(s); E° = –0.40 V Pb(s); E° = –0.13 V Cu(s); E° = 0.34 V 2Br–(aq); E° = 1.07 V
Under standard-state conditions, which of the following reactions is spontaneous? A) Cd2+(aq) + Pb(s) → Cd(s) + Pb2+(aq) B) Pb2+(aq) + Cu(s) → Pb(s) + Cu2+(aq) C) 2Br–(aq) + Pb2+(aq) → Br2(l) + Pb(s) D) 2Br–(aq) + Cu2+(aq) → Br2(l) + Cu(s) E) Cu2+(aq) + Cd(s) → Cu(s) + Cd2+(aq) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.5 OBJ: Determine the direction of spontaneity from electrode potentials. (Example 19.7) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials MSC: general chemistry 62. Consider the following cell reaction: 2Ag+(aq) + H2(g) → 2H+(aq) + 2Ag(s); E°cell = 0.80 V Under standard-state conditions, what is E° for the following half-reaction? Ag+(aq) + 2e– → Ag(s) A) 0.80 V B) –0.40 V C) 0.40 V D) –0.80 V E) 1.10 V ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.5 OBJ: Calculate cell potential from standard potentials. (Example 19.8) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | calculating cell emfs MSC: general chemistry 63. Consider the following cell reaction: Zn(s) + 2H+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + H2(g); Ecell = 0.76V Under standard-state conditions, what is E° for the following half-reaction? Zn2+(aq) + 2e− → Zn(s) A) B) C) D) E)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
22
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.5 OBJ: Calculate cell potential from standard potentials. (Example 19.8) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | calculating cell emfs MSC: general chemistry 64. What is E°cell for the cell reaction
?
A) B) C) D) E) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.5 OBJ: Calculate cell potential from standard potentials. (Example 19.8) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | calculating cell emfs MSC: general chemistry 65. If the value of E°cell is
for the reaction
what is the value of E°cell for ½ F2(g) ? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.5 OBJ: Calculate cell potential from standard potentials. (Example 19.8) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | calculating cell emfs MSC: general chemistry 66. Given:
What is the standard cell potential for the following reaction?
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) B) C) D) E) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.5 OBJ: Calculate cell potential from standard potentials. (Example 19.8) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | calculating cell emfs MSC: general chemistry 67. A voltaic cell is made by placing an iron electrode in a compartment in which the Fe2+ concentration is 2.0 10–5 M and by placing a Pt electrode in the other compartment, in which the H+ concentration is 3.4 M and = 1.00 atm. The Fe2+/Fe half-cell reduction potential is –0.41 V, and the H+/H2 half-cell reduction potential is 0.00 V. What is the value of E° for this cell, and which electrode is the anode? A) 0.41 V, Fe B) 0.90 V, Pt C) –0.41 V, Pt D) –0.41 V, Fe E) 0.41 V, Pt ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.5 OBJ: Calculate cell potential from standard potentials. (Example 19.8) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | calculating cell emfs MSC: general chemistry 68. Which of the following statements is true concerning the electrochemical cell depicted below? Cu | Cu2+(aq) || Zn2+(aq) | Zn Cu2+(aq) + 2e− Cu(s); E° = –2.38 V 2+ − Zn (aq) + 2e Zn(s); E° = –2.87 V A) The cell is at equilibrium. B) The cell reaction is nonspontaneous with a standard cell potential of . C) The cell reaction is spontaneous with a standard cell potential of . D) The cell reaction is nonspontaneous with a standard cell potential of . E) The cell reaction is spontaneous with a standard cell potential of . ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.5 OBJ: Calculate cell potential from standard potentials. (Example 19.8) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | calculating cell emfs MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
24
69. Which of the following statements is true concerning the hypthetical electrochemical cell depicted below? (M1 and M2 are differing metals) M1 | M12+(aq) || M2+(aq) | M2 M12+(aq) + 2e− M1(s); E° = –2.38 V 2+ − M2 (aq) + e M2(s); E° = –2.98 V A) The cell reaction is nonspontaneous with a standard cell potential of . B) The cell reaction is spontaneous with a standard cell potential of . C) The cell is at equilibrium. D) The cell reaction is spontaneous with a standard cell potential of . E) The cell reaction is nonspontaneous with a standard cell potential of . ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.5 OBJ: Calculate cell potential from standard potentials. (Example 19.8) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | calculating cell emfs MSC: general chemistry 70. If the cell is initially at standard-state conditions, which of the following statements is true?
Zn2+(aq) + 2e– Cu2+(aq) + 2e– A) Initially B) Initially C) Initially D) Initially E) Initially
Zn(s); E° = –0.76 V Cu(s); E° = 0.34 V , and it will become more positive with time. , and it will not change with time. , and it will become more negative with time. , and it will become more positive with time. , and it will become more negative with time.
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.6 OBJ: Calculate the free-energy change from electrode potentials. (Example 19.9) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: equilibrium constants from emfs MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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71. Given:
What is for the following cell reaction? 2AlCl3(aq) 2Al(s) + 3Cl2(g) A) B) C) D) E) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.6 OBJ: Calculate the free-energy change from electrode potentials. (Example 19.9) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: equilibrium constants from emfs MSC: general chemistry 72. Given:
What is the standard Gibbs free-energy change for the following reaction?
A) B) C) D) E) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.6 OBJ: Calculate the free-energy change from electrode potentials. (Example 19.9) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials MSC: general chemistry 73. Calculate the maximum electrical work obtainable at 25oC from the following voltaic cell.
A) B) C) D) E)
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 19.6 OBJ: Calculate the free-energy change from electrode potentials. (Example 19.9) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: equilibrium constants from emfs MSC: general chemistry 74. For a reaction in a voltaic cell, both H° and S° are positive. Which of the following statements is true? A) E°cell will increase with an increase in temperature. B) E°cell will not change when the temperature increases. C) E°cell will decrease with an increase in temperature. D) G° > 0 for all temperatures. E) None of the above statements is true. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.6 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential from free-energy change. (Example 19.10) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: electromotive force MSC: general chemistry 75. If Ecell for a certain reaction is –1.68 V (n = 1), and S is 31.1 J/(Kmol), what is H in units of J/mol at 25C? A) 1.71 10 5 J/mol B) −1.53 10 5 J/mol C) 1.63 10 5 J/mol D) −4.82 10 4 J/mol E) 1.53 10 5 J/mol ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.6 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential from free-energy change. (Example 19.10) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells 76. For a certain reaction, reaction at 25°C. A) 0.0164 V B) 0.0961 V C) 0.346 V D) 0.736 V E) 0.0654 V
kJ and
J/K. If
, calculate E°cell for the
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 19.6 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential from free-energy change. (Example 19.10) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: equilibrium constants from emfs MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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77. What is the logarithm of the equilibrium constant, log K, at 25°C of the voltaic cell constructed from the following two half-reactions? Ag+(aq) + e–
Ag(s); E° = 0.80 V
A) 6.7 B) 40.6 C) 20.3 D) 13.5 E) 67.6 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.6 OBJ: Calculate the equilibrium constant from cell potential. (Example 19.11) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: equilibrium constants from emfs MSC: general chemistry 78. What is the equilibrium constant (K) at 25°C for the following cell reaction?
A) 0.010 B) 1.5 C) 0.25 D) 1.0 E) 2.2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.6 OBJ: Calculate the equilibrium constant from cell potential. (Example 19.11) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: equilibrium constants from emfs MSC: general chemistry 79. Calculate the solubility product of silver iodide at 25°C given the following data: E°(V) – – –0.15 AgI(s) + e → Ag(s) + I – – +0.54 I2(s) + 2e → 2I +0.80 Ag+ + e– → Ag(s) A) 2 10–12 B) 3 10–3 C) 2 10–24 D) 9 10–17 E) 2 10–4 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.6 OBJ: Calculate the equilibrium constant from cell potential. (Example 19.11) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: equilibrium constants from emfs MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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80. A voltaic cell is made by placing an iron electrode in a compartment in which the concentration is 2.0 10–5 M and by placing a Pt electrode in the other compartment, in which the H+ concentration is 3.4 M and PH2 = 1.00 atm. The /Fe half-cell reduction potential is –0.41 V, and the H+/H2 half-cell reduction potential is 0.00 V. What is the equilibrium constant at 25°C for the spontaneous cell reaction? A) 4 104 B) 5 1020 C) 5 1022 D) E) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the equilibrium constant from cell potential. (Example 19.11) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: equilibrium constants from emfs MSC: general chemistry 81. The cell potential of the following cell is determined using an unspecified concentration of acid. What is [H+] given that the measured cell potential is –0.366 V and the anode reduction potential (E) is 0.222 V at 25C? Ag(s) | AgCl(s) | Cl−(1.0 M) || H+(aq, ? M) | H2(g, 1.0 atm) | Pt(s) A) 3.7 10 −3 M B) 1.2 10 −10 M C) 4.9 10 −5 M D) 1.4 10 −5 M E) 6.1 10 −2 M ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the equilibrium constant from cell potential. (Example 19.11) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells 82. The cell potential of the following cell is determined using an unspecified concentration of acid. What is the pH of the acid solution given that the measured cell potential is –0.562 V and the anode reduction potential (E) is 0.222 V at 25C? Ag(s) | AgCl(s) | Cl−(1.0 M) || H+(aq, ? M) | H2(g, 1.0 atm) | Pt(s) A) 5.74 B) 13.2 C) 6.24 D) 11.5 E) 1.26 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the equilibrium constant from cell potential. (Example 19.11) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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83. If the cell is initially at standard-state conditions, which of the following statements is true?
Zn2+(aq) + 2e– Zn(s); E° = –0.76 V Cu2+(aq) + 2e– Cu(s); E° = 0.34 V A) Initially Kc = 2 10–37, and it decreases with time. B) Initially Kc = 2 1037, and it does not change with time. C) Initially Kc = 2 1037, and it decreases with time. D) Initially Kc = 2 1037, and it increases with time. E) Initially Kc = 2 10–37, and it increases with time. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.6 OBJ: Calculate the equilibrium constant from cell potential. (Example 19.11) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: equilibrium constants from emfs MSC: general chemistry 84. What is E of the following cell reaction at 25°C? E°cell = 0.460 V.
A) 0.468 V B) 0.282 V C) 0.460 V D) 0.490 V E) 0.479 V ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential for nonstandard conditions. (Example 19.12) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: dependence of emf on concentration | Nernst equation MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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85. For the cell reaction l) the standard cell potential is 1.34 V. To determine the cell potential at nonstandard conditions, what is the value that should be used for n in the Nernst equation? A) 8 B) 10 C) 5 D) 2 E) 6 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential for nonstandard conditions. (Example 19.12) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: dependence of emf on concentration | Nernst equation MSC: general chemistry 86. For the cell reaction 2MnO4–(aq) + 5H2SO3(aq) → 2Mn2+(aq) + 5SO42–(aq) + 4H+(aq) + 3H2O(l) the standard cell potential is 1.34 V. Which change(s) will result in an increase in the cell potential? 1. 2. 3.
increasing the permanganate-ion concentration decreasing the pH increasing the sulfurous acid concentration
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1 and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential for nonstandard conditions. (Example 19.12) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: dependence of emf on concentration | Nernst equation MSC: general chemistry 87. What is the copper(II)-ion concentration at 25°C in the cell Zn(s) | Zn2+(1.0 M) || Cu2+(aq) | Cu(s) if the measured cell potential is 1.01 V? The standard cell potential is 1.10 V. A) 0.030 M B) 0.99 M C) 0.00091 M D) 1.0 M E) 0.99 M ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential for nonstandard conditions. (Example 19.12) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: dependence of emf on concentration | Nernst equation MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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88. Given: Zn2+(aq) + 2e– Cu2+(aq) + 2e–
Zn(s); E° = –0.76 V Cu(s); E° = 0.34 V
What is the cell potential of the following electrochemical cell at 25°C? Zn(s) | Zn2+(1.0 M) || Cu2+(0.0010 M) | Cu(s) A) between 0.34 and 0.76 V B) less than 0.42 V C) between 0.00 and 0.76 V D) between 0.76 and 1.10 V E) greater than 1.10 V ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential for nonstandard conditions. (Example 19.12) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: dependence of emf on concentration | Nernst equation MSC: general chemistry 89. A voltaic cell is made by placing an iron electrode in a compartment in which the Fe2+ concentration is 2.0 10–5 M and by placing a Pt electrode in the other compartment, in which the H+ concentration is 3.4 M and = 1.00 atm. The Fe2+/Fe half-cell reduction potential is –0.41 V, and the H+/H2 half-cell reduction potential is 0.00 V. What is E for the cell at equilibrium? A) –0.41 V B) 0.41 V C) 0.69 V D) 0.00 V E) 0.28 V ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential for nonstandard conditions. (Example 19.12) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: dependence of emf on concentration | Nernst equation MSC: general chemistry 90. For the cell the standard cell potential is 0.46 V. A cell using these reagents was made, and the observed potential was 0.31 V at 25oC. What is a possible explanation for the observed voltage? A) The volume of the solution was larger than the volume of the Ag+ solution. B) The volume of the Ag+ solution was larger than the volume of the solution. + C) The concentration was larger than the Ag concentration. D) The Ag electrode was twice as large as the Cu electrode. E) The Ag+ concentration was larger than the concentration. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential for nonstandard conditions. (Example 19.12) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: dependence of emf on concentration | Nernst equation MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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91. What is the value of the reaction quotient, Q, for the voltaic cell constructed from the following two half-reactions when the Zn2+ concentration is 0.0120 M and the Ag+ concentration is 1.31 M?
A) 9.16 10–3 B) 6.99 10–3 C) 109 D) 1.25 10–2 E) 143 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential for nonstandard conditions. (Example 19.12) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: dependence of emf on concentration | Nernst equation MSC: general chemistry 92. Given:
What is the cell potential at 25°C for the following cell? Cr(s) | Cr3+(0.010 M) || Ag+(0.00020 M) | Ag(s) A) 0.95 V B) 2.09 V C) 1.51 V D) 1.36 V E) 1.72 V ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential for nonstandard conditions. (Example 19.12) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: dependence of emf on concentration | Nernst equation MSC: general chemistry 93. A cell consists of a magnesium electrode immersed in a solution of magnesium chloride and a silver electrode immersed in a solution of silver nitrate. The two half-cells are connected by means of a salt bridge. It is possible to increase the voltage of the cell by A) decreasing the concentration of Mg2+ and increasing the concentration of Ag+. B) adding sodium chloride to both half-cells. C) increasing the size of the Mg electrode and decreasing the size of the Ag electrode. D) decreasing the size of the Mg electrode and increasing the size of the Ag electrode. E) increasing the concentration of Mg2+. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential for nonstandard conditions. (Example 19.12) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: dependence of emf on concentration | Nernst equation MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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94. A voltaic cell is made by placing an iron electrode in a compartment in which the Fe2+ concentration is 2.5 10–5 M and by placing a Pt electrode in the other compartment, in which the H+ concentration is 3.70 M and = 1.00 atm. The Fe2+/Fe half-cell reduction potential is –0.41 V, and the H+/H2 half-cell reduction potential is 0.00 V. What is E for the cell at 25oC? A) 0.10 V B) 0.58 V C) 0.27 V D) 0.24 V E) 0.56 V ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential for nonstandard conditions. (Example 19.12) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: dependence of emf on concentration | Nernst equation MSC: general chemistry 95. The following cell is initially at standard-state conditions. Which of the following statements is true after the cell is allowed to discharge (do work) for a period of time?
Zn2+(aq) + 2e– Zn(s); E° = –0.76 V 2+ – Cu (aq) + 2e Cu(s); E° = 0.34 V A) Initially Ecell = – 1.10 V, and it will become more negative with time. B) Ecell does not change with time. C) Initially Ecell = – 1.10 V, and it will become more positive with time. D) Initially Ecell = + 1.10 V, and it will become more negative with time. E) Initially Ecell = + 1.10 V, and it will becomes more positive with time. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential for nonstandard conditions. (Example 19.12) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: dependence of emf on concentration | Nernst equation MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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96. In order to determine the identity of a particular transition metal (M), a voltaic cell is constructed at 25°C with the anode consisting of the transition metal as the electrode immersed in a solution of 0.0977 M M(NO3)2, and the cathode consisting of a copper electrode immersed in a 1.00 M Cu(NO3)2 solution. The two half-reactions are as follows: M(s)
M2+(aq) + 2e–
Cu2+(aq) + 2e–
Cu(s)
The potential measured across the cell is 0.77 V. What is the identity of the metal M? Reduction Half-Reaction Cu2+(aq) + 2e– Cu(s) Ni2+(aq) + 2e– Ni(s) Cd2+(aq) + 2e– Cd(s) Zn2+(aq) + 2e– Zn(s) Mn2+(aq) + 2e– Mn(s)
E° (V) +0.34 –0.23 –0.40 –0.76 –1.18
A) Cd B) Ni C) Cu D) Mn E) Zn ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential for nonstandard conditions. (Example 19.12) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: dependence of emf on concentration | Nernst equation MSC: general chemistry 97. What is the reduction potential for the half-reaction Al3+(aq) + 3e– [Al3+] = 0.44 M and E° = –1.66 V?
Al(s) at 25°C if
A) –1.66 V B) –1.65 V C) –1.84 V D) –1.72 V E) –1.67 V ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential for nonstandard conditions. (Example 19.12) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: dependence of emf on concentration | Nernst equation MSC: general chemistry 98. In order to determine the identity of a particular lanthanide metal (M), a voltaic cell is constructed at 25°C with the anode consisting of the lanthanide metal as the electrode immersed in a solution of 0.0873 M MCl3, and the cathode consisting of a copper electrode immersed in a 1.00 M Cu(NO3)2 solution. The two half-reactions are as follows: M(s)
M3+(aq) + 3e–
Cu2+(aq) + 2e–
Cu(s)
The potential measured across the cell is 2.68 V. What is the identity of the metal? Reduction Half-Reaction Test Bank
E° (V) General Chemistry, 10th edition
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Cu2+(aq) + 2e– Ce3+(aq) + 3e– Tm3+(aq) + 3e– Eu3+(aq) + 3e– Gd3+(aq) + 3e– Sm3+(aq) + 3e–
Cu(s) Ce(s) Tm(s) Eu(s) Gd(s) Sm(s)
0.34 –2.336 –2.319 –1.991 –2.279 –2.304
A) Sm B) Gd C) Tm D) Eu E) Ce ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential for nonstandard conditions. (Example 19.12) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: dependence of emf on concentration | Nernst equation MSC: general chemistry 99. Which of the following statements is true concerning the electrochemical cell described below at 25oC? Ni |
||
| Ni
A) The cell reaction is spontaneous with a cell potential of 20.8 mV. B) The cell reaction is nonspontaneous with a cell potential of –0.23 V. C) The cell reaction is nonspontaneous with a cell potential of –10.6 mV. D) The cell reaction is spontaneous with a cell potential of 10.6 mV. E) The cell reaction is nonspontaneous with a cell potential of –20.8 mV. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 19.7 OBJ: Calculate the cell potential for nonstandard conditions. (Example 19.12) TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: standard cell emfs and standard electrode potentials | calculating cell emfs MSC: general chemistry 100. Which of the following statements about batteries is false? A) A fuel cell is a galvanic cell for which the reactants are continuously supplied. B) Lithium–iodine batteries have low current, but extremely long life. C) Lead storage batteries contain lead at the anode and lead coated with lead dioxide at the cathode. D) It is not safe to recharge a nickel–cadmium battery. E) Dry cell batteries are used in flashlights and portable radios. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.8 OBJ: Describe the construction and reactions of a zinc–carbon dry cell, a lithium–iodine battery, a lead storage cell, and a nickel-cadmium cell. TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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101. A piece of iron half-immersed in a sodium chloride solution will corrode more rapidly than a piece of iron half-immersed in pure water, because A) the ions, which are not present in pure water, balance the accumulation of charge in each of the half-cells. B) the chloride ions increase the pH of the solution. C) the sodium ions oxidize the iron atoms. D) the chloride ions form a precipitate with iron. E) the chloride ions oxidize the iron atoms. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.8 OBJ: Explain the electrochemical process of the rusting of iron. TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells KEY: commercial voltaic cells MSC: general chemistry 102. Cathodic protection results when A) iron is amalgamated with mercury. B) iron is made amphoteric. C) iron is painted to protect it from corrosion. D) iron is tin-plated for use as a tin can. E) iron is attached to a more active metal. ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Define cathodic protection. KEY: commercial voltaic cells
DIF: easy REF: 19.8 TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells MSC: general chemistry
103. Protection of iron (E(Fe2+/Fe) = −.23 V; (E(Fe3+/Fe) = −0.04 V) from corrosion can be accomplished by making an electrical contact between iron and certain other metals. Metal(s) that would provide protection is(are) 1. 2. 3. 4.
Mg (E = −.38 V). Ni (E = −.23 V). Zn (E = −.76 V). Pb(E = −.13 V).
A) 1 only B) 4 only C) 1 and 3 D) 2 and 4 E) 3 and 4 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define cathodic protection. KEY: commercial voltaic cells
Test Bank
DIF: easy REF: 19.8 TOP: electrochemistry | voltaic cells MSC: general chemistry
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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104. What half-reaction occurs at the cathode during the electrolysis of molten potassium bromide? A) K(s) → K+(l) + e– B) Br2(l) + 2e– → 2Br–(l) C) 2Br–(l) → Br2(l) + 2e– D) K+(l) + e– → K(s) E) 2H2O(l) + 2e– → H2(g) + 2OH–(l) ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define electrolysis. KEY: electrolysis of molten salts
DIF: easy REF: 19.9 TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells MSC: general chemistry
105. Molten magnesium chloride is electrolyzed using inert electrodes and reactions represented by the following two half-reactions: 2Cl–(l) → Cl2(g) + 2e– Mg2+(l) + 2e– → Mg(s) Concerning this electrolysis, which of the following statements is true? A) The anions in the electrolyte undergo reduction. B) Mg2+ ions are reduced at the anode. C) Oxidation occurs at the cathode. D) Electrons pass through the metallic part of the circuit from Mg2+ ions to the Cl– ion. E) Cl– ions are reducing agents. ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Define electrolysis. KEY: electrolysis of molten salts
DIF: easy REF: 19.9 TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells MSC: general chemistry
106. What is one of the major products in the electrolysis of a saturated aqueous sodium chloride solution? Reduction Half-Reaction E° (V) Na+(aq) + e– Na(s) –2.71 2+ – Mg (aq) + 2e Mg(s) –2.37 – – 2H2O(l) + 2e H2(g) + 2OH (aq) –0.83 + – O2(g) + 4H (aq) + 4e 2H2O(l) 1.23 – – Cl2(g) + 2e 2Cl (aq) 1.36 A) Mg B) O2 C) H2O D) Na E) Cl2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.10 OBJ: Predict the half-reactions in an aqueous electrolysis. (Example 19.13) TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells KEY: aqueous electrolysis MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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107. What is the half-reaction that occurs at the cathode during electrolysis of an aqueous potassium iodide solution? Reduction Half-Reaction E° (V) + – K (aq) + e K(s) –2.93 2+ – Mg (aq) + 2e Mg(s) –2.37 – – 2H2O(l) + 2e H2(g) + 2OH (aq) –0.83 + – 2H (aq) + 2e H2(g) 0.00 – – I2(s) + 2e 2I (aq) 0.54 + – O2(g) + 4H (aq) + 4e 2H2O(l) 1.23 A) H2O(l) → ½ O2(g) + 2H+(aq) + 2e– B) 2H2O(l) + 2e– → H2(g) + 2OH–(aq) C) K(s) → K+(aq) + e– D) K+(aq) + e– → K(s) E) I2(aq) + 2e– → 2I–(aq) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.10 OBJ: Predict the half-reactions in an aqueous electrolysis. (Example 19.13) TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells KEY: aqueous electrolysis MSC: general chemistry 108. When an aqueous solution of lithium sulfate is electrolyzed, what are the expected products? Reduction Half-Reaction
E° (V)
Li(s) 2H2O(l) + 2e H2(g) + 2OH–(aq) + – 2H (aq) + 2e H2(g) O2(g) + 4H+(aq) + 4e– 2H2O(l) S2O82–(aq) + 2e– 2SO42–(aq)
–3.04 –0.83 0.00 1.23 2.01
–
A) Li(s) and H2(g) B) H2(g), OH–(aq), O2(g), and H+(aq) C) O2(g), H+(aq), and Li(s) D) H2(g), OH–(aq), and Li(s) E) H2(g), OH–(aq), and S2O82–(aq) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.10 OBJ: Predict the half-reactions in an aqueous electrolysis. (Example 19.13) TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells KEY: aqueous electrolysis MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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109. When an aqueous solution of AgNO3 is electrolyzed, a gas is formed at the anode. What is the identity of the gas? Reduction Half-Reaction E° (V) – – 2H2O(l) + 2e H2(g) + 2OH (aq) –0.83 + – 2H (aq) + 2e H2(g) 0.00 + – Ag (aq) + e Ag(s) 0.80 – + – NO3 (aq) + 4H (aq) + 3e NO(g) + 2H2O(l) 0.96 + – O2(g) + 4H (aq) + 4e 2H2O(l) 1.23 A) H2O B) NO C) Ag D) O2 E) H2 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.10 OBJ: Predict the half-reactions in an aqueous electrolysis. (Example 19.13) TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells KEY: aqueous electrolysis MSC: general chemistry 110. What reaction occurs at the anode during the electrolysis of aqueous CuSO4? Reduction Half-Reaction E° (V) 2H2O(l) + 2e– H2(g) + 2OH–(aq) –0.83 + – 2H (aq) + 2e H2(g) 0.00 2+ – Cu (aq) + 2e Cu(s) 0.34 + – O2(g) + 4H (aq) + 4e 2H2O(l) 1.23 A) 2H2O(l) → O2(g) + 4H+(aq) + 4e– B) Cu(s) → Cu2+(aq) + 2e– C) 2H2O(l) + 2e– → H2(g) + 2OH–(aq) D) Cu2+(aq) + 2e– → Cu(s) E) 2H+(aq) + 2e– → H2(g) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.10 OBJ: Predict the half-reactions in an aqueous electrolysis. (Example 19.13) TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells KEY: aqueous electrolysis MSC: general chemistry 111. Which of the following statements is true concerning the electrolysis of a 1.0 M aqueous solution of NaI? Reduction Half-Reaction E° (V) + – Na (aq) + e Na(s) –2.71 – – 2H2O(l) + 2e H2(g) + 2OH (aq) –0.83 + – 2H (aq) + 2e H2(g) 0.00 – – I2(s) + 2e 2I (aq) 0.54 + – O2(g) + 4H (aq) + 4e 2H2O(l) 1.23
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) The solution becomes more basic. B) Sodium is deposited at the cathode. C) Iodine is formed at the cathode. D) Oxygen is evolved at the anode. E) Hydrogen is evolved at the anode. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.10 OBJ: Predict the half-reactions in an aqueous electrolysis. (Example 19.13) TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells KEY: aqueous electrolysis MSC: general chemistry 112. When Au is obtained by electrolysis from NaAu(CN)2, what is the minimum number of coulombs required to produce 1.06 mol of gold? A) C B) C C) C D) C E) C ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.11 OBJ: Calculate the amount of charge from the amount of product in an electrolysis. (Example 19.14) TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells KEY: stoichiometry of electrolysis MSC: general chemistry 113. How many faradays are involved in the conversion of a mole of A) 5 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4
to
?
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.11 OBJ: Calculate the amount of charge from the amount of product in an electrolysis. (Example 19.14) TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells KEY: stoichiometry of electrolysis MSC: general chemistry 114. How many faradays are required to convert a mole of AsO3– ions to AsH4+ ions? A) 4 B) 7 C) 8 D) 6 E) 5 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.11 OBJ: Calculate the amount of charge from the amount of product in an electrolysis. (Example 19.14) TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells KEY: stoichiometry of electrolysis MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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115. If an electrolysis plant operates its electrolytic cells at a total current of 1.0 106 A, how long will it take to produce one metric ton (one million grams) of Mg(s) from seawater containing Mg2+? (1 faraday = 96,485 coulombs) A) 66 min B) 0.55 year C) 2.2 h D) 2.2 days E) 1.1 h ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.11 OBJ: Calculate the amount of charge from the amount of product in an electrolysis. (Example 19.14) TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells KEY: stoichiometry of electrolysis MSC: general chemistry 116. Gold (atomic mass = 197) is plated from a solution of chlorauric acid, HAuCl4; it deposits on the cathode. Calculate the time it takes to deposit 0.64 g of gold, passing a current of 0.10 A. (1 faraday = 96,485 coulombs) A) 54 min B) 0.87 h C) 0.29 h D) 2.6 h E) none of these ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.11 OBJ: Calculate the amount of charge from the amount of product in an electrolysis. (Example 19.14) TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells KEY: stoichiometry of electrolysis MSC: general chemistry 117. Copper is electroplated from CuSO4 solution. A constant current of 4.39 A is applied by an external power supply. How long will it take to deposit 1.00 ×102 g of Cu? The atomic mass of copper is 63.546. A) 19.2 h B) 13.17 s C) 1.48 days D) 9.6 min E) 2.74 h ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.11 OBJ: Calculate the amount of charge from the amount of product in an electrolysis. (Example 19.14) TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells KEY: stoichiometry of electrolysis MSC: general chemistry 118. How many moles of electrons are produced from a current of 15.6 A in 3.20 h? A) 3.35 mol B) 9.33 103 mol C) 5.17 10–4 mol D) 1.86 mol E) 49.9 mol
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.11 OBJ: Calculate the amount of product from the amount of charge in an electrolysis. (Example 19.15) TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells KEY: stoichiometry of electrolysis MSC: general chemistry 119. In the electrolysis of an acid solution, oxygen can be produced by the following halfreaction: 2H2O(l) → O2(g) + 4H+(aq) + 4e– How many moles of O2 can be produced from a solution that was electrolyzed for 4.50 h using a current of 5.80 A? A) mol B) mol C) mol D) 0.243 mol E) 0.974 mol ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.11 OBJ: Calculate the amount of product from the amount of charge in an electrolysis. (Example 19.15) TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells KEY: stoichiometry of electrolysis MSC: general chemistry 120. What mass of chromium could be deposited by electrolysis of an aqueous solution of Cr2(SO4)3 for 160 min using a constant current of 15.0 A? (F = 96485 C/mol) A) 0.431 g B) 25.9 g C) 232.8 g D) 0.187 g E) 38.8 g ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.11 OBJ: Calculate the amount of product from the amount of charge in an electrolysis. (Example 19.15) TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells KEY: stoichiometry of electrolysis MSC: general chemistry 121. A current of 15.0 A is passed through molten magnesium chloride for 15.0 h. How many moles of magnesium metal could be produced via this electrolysis? A) 0.0700 mol B) 4.20 mol C) 0.37 mol D) 0.22 mol E) 8.40 mol ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 19.11 OBJ: Calculate the amount of product from the amount of charge in an electrolysis. (Example 19.15) TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells KEY: stoichiometry of electrolysis MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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122. A solution of
is electrolytically reduced to Mn3+. A current of 7.79 A is passed
through the solution for 15.0 min. What is the number of moles of Mn3+ produced in this process? (1 faraday = 96,486 coulombs) A) 0.218 mol B) 1.61 10-3 mol C) 0.0242 mol D) 0.0727 mol E) 4.04 10-4 mol ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 19.11 OBJ: Calculate the amount of product from the amount of charge in an electrolysis. (Example 19.15) TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells KEY: stoichiometry of electrolysis MSC: general chemistry 123. Electrolysis of a molten salt with the formula MCl, using a current of 3.86 A for 16.2 min, deposits 1.52 g of metal. Identify the metal. (1 faraday = 96,485 coulombs) A) Na B) Li C) Ca D) Rb E) K ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 19.11 OBJ: Calculate the amount of product from the amount of charge in an electrolysis. (Example 19.15) TOP: electrochemistry | electrolytic cells KEY: stoichiometry of electrolysis MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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Chapter 20 - Nuclear Chemistry 1. Which particle does the nuclide symbol represent? A) helium nucleus B) electron C) positron D) proton E) gamma photon ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Learn the nuclear symbols for positron, gamma photon, electron, neutron, proton. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions 2. Which of the following concerning nuclear chemistry is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Beta particle emission produces a nucleus with one additional neutron and one additional proton. No stable nuclides are known above atomic number 83. In electron capture a proton is converted to a neutron through the capture of an inner orbital electron.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Learn the nuclear symbols for positron, gamma photon, electron, neutron, proton. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions 3. Which particle has the same mass as a beta particle? A) a neutron B) a proton C) a gamma ray D) an alpha particle E) a positron ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Learn the nuclear symbols for positron, gamma photon, electron, neutron, proton. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity MSC: general chemistry 4. Which of the following nuclides will produce 192Pt upon undergoing beta decay? A) 192Ir B) 193Pt C) 192Au D) 196Hg E) 188Os Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
1
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Write a nuclear equation. (Example 20.1) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear equation MSC: general chemistry 5. Which of the following nuclides will produce 233Pa upon undergoing alpha decay? A) 234Pa B) 233U C) 229Ra D) 237Np E) 233Th ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Write a nuclear equation. (Example 20.1) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear equation MSC: general chemistry 6. Which of the following nuclides will produce 243Am upon undergoing alpha decay? A) 247Bk B) 239Np C) 243Pu D) 243Cm E) 244Am ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Write a nuclear equation. (Example 20.1) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear equation MSC: general chemistry 7. Which of the following statements about 248Bk is incorrect? A) If 248Bk were to undergo spontaneous fission, the products would be 247Bk and a neutron. B) If 248Bk were to undergo beta decay, the products would be 248Cf and a beta particle. C) If 248Bk were to undergo alpha decay, the products would be 244Am and an alpha particle. D) If 248Bk were to undergo electron capture, the only product would be 248Cm. E) If a metastable form of 248Bk were to undergo gamma decay, the products would be 248Bk and a gamma ray. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Write a nuclear equation. (Example 20.1) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear equation MSC: general chemistry
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8.
can be prepared by electron capture from which of the following? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Deduce a product or reactant in a nuclear equation. (Example 20.2) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear equation MSC: general chemistry
9. The gamma ray emission from the decay of cobalt-60 is used in cancer therapies. Cobalt-60 decays by the emission of two gamma rays followed by beta emission. What is the final product of this decay process? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Deduce a product or reactant in a nuclear equation. (Example 20.2) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions 10. When A) B) C) D) E)
undergoes electron capture, what is the product nuclide?
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Deduce a product or reactant in a nuclear equation. (Example 20.2) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear equation MSC: general chemistry 11. When A) B) C) D) E)
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undergoes beta emission, what is the product nuclide?
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Deduce a product or reactant in a nuclear equation. (Example 20.2) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear equation MSC: general chemistry 12. The radioactive nuclide, , undergoes decay by emitting a positron. What is the nuclear composition of the product nuclide? A) 12 protons and 10 neutrons B) 11 protons and 11 neutrons C) 11 protons and 10 neutrons D) 9 protons and 12 neutrons E) 10 protons and 12 neutrons ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Deduce a product or reactant in a nuclear equation. (Example 20.2) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear equation MSC: general chemistry 13. When the radioactive nuclide nuclide? A) B) C) D) E)
undergoes positron emission, what is the product
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Deduce a product or reactant in a nuclear equation. (Example 20.2) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear equation MSC: general chemistry 14. When the radioactive nuclide A) B) C) D) E)
undergoes electron capture, what is the product nuclide?
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Deduce a product or reactant in a nuclear equation. (Example 20.2) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear equation MSC: general chemistry
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15. When the radioactive nuclide A) B) C) D) E)
undergoes alpha emission, what is the product nuclide?
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Deduce a product or reactant in a nuclear equation. (Example 20.2) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear equation MSC: general chemistry 16. A sodium nucleus,
, is bombarded with alpha particles to form a radioactive nuclide.
This product nuclide can decay by several routes. Which of the following sets of products does not represent a potential route of decay of the product nuclide? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 20.1 OBJ: Deduce a product or reactant in a nuclear equation. (Example 20.2) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear equation MSC: general chemistry 17. Which of the following nuclides is most likely to be radioactive? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Predict the relative stabilities of nuclides. (Example 20.3) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear stability MSC: general chemistry
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18. Which of the following nuclides is most likely to be radioactive? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Predict the relative stabilities of nuclides. (Example 20.3) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear stability MSC: general chemistry 19. Which of the following statements is/are true? 1. Neutrons increase the average distance between protons within the nuclei, potentially leading to a more stable nucleus. 2. Neutrons increase the binding energy of a nucleus without adding electrostatic repulsion, potentially leading to a more stable nucleus. 3. The conversion of a proton to a neutron through beta emission may produce a stable isotope. A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 20.1 OBJ: Predict the relative stabilities of nuclides. (Example 20.3) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear stability MSC: general chemistry 20. Which of the following nuclear decay processes decreases the nuclear charge? 1. 2. 3.
Electron capture Beta emission Positron emission
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1 and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: List the six types of radioactive decay. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions
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21. In the ejection of a beta particle from the nucleus, which of the following occurs? A) A neutron is converted to a proton and an electron. B) A neutron is converted to an electron and an alpha particle. C) A positron is converted to a neutron and a proton. D) A neutron is converted to a positron, an electron, and a gamma ray. E) A proton is converted to a neutron and a positron. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: List the six types of radioactive decay. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactive decay | beta emission MSC: general chemistry 22. When a nucleus undergoes radioactive decay, its new mass number is A) always less than its original mass number. B) never more than its original mass number. C) never less than its original mass number. D) always the same as its original mass number. E) always more than its original mass number. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: List the six types of radioactive decay. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactive decay MSC: general chemistry 23. For which of the following radioactive decay processes does the atomic number not change? A) electron capture B) positron emission C) alpha emission D) gamma emission E) beta emission ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: List the six types of radioactive decay. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactive decay | gamma emission MSC: general chemistry 24. When a neutron in the nucleus is converted to a proton, which of the following is emitted? A) positron B) beta particle C) alpha particle D) deuteron E) neutron ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: List the six types of radioactive decay. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactive decay | beta emission MSC: general chemistry
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25. A radioactive isotope decays by emission followed by two emissions. What is the change in the mass number and atomic number of the original isotope? A) The mass number decreases by 4 and the atomic number is unchanged. B) The mass number increases by 4 and the atomic number increases by 2. C) The mass number increases by 4 and the atomic number increases by 4. D) The mass number decreases by 2 and the atomic number decreases by 2. E) none of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 20.1 OBJ: List the six types of radioactive decay. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions 26. When the nucleus of an element undergoes beta emission A) the mass number increases by one. B) the mass number decreases by one. C) the atomic number decreases by one. D) the number of neutrons increases by one. E) the atomic number increases by one. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: List the six types of radioactive decay. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactive decay | beta emission MSC: general chemistry 27. Which particle has a +2 charge and is produced during the decay of some radioactive elements? A) alpha particle B) beta particle C) proton D) positron E) deuteron ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: List the six types of radioactive decay. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactive decay | alpha emission MSC: general chemistry 28. Nuclides with too many neutrons to be in the band of stability are most likely to decay by what mode? A) – B) fission C) D) + E) electron capture ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Predict the type of radioactive decay. (Example 20.4) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear stability MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
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29. Which types of processes are likely when the neutron-to-proton ratio in a nucleus is too low? I decay II decay III positron emission IV electron capture A) III and IV only B) I and II only C) II, III, and IV D) II and IV only E) II and III only ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Predict the type of radioactive decay. (Example 20.4) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear stability MSC: general chemistry 30. A nucleus located to the left of the band of stability is expected to undergo what type of nuclear decay? A) alpha emission B) electron capture C) positron emission D) fission E) electron emission ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Predict the type of radioactive decay. (Example 20.4) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions 31. Which of the following is the most likely mode of decay for the radioactive nuclide
?
A) positron emission B) gamma radiation C) beta emission D) alpha emission E) neutron emission ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Predict the type of radioactive decay. (Example 20.4) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear stability MSC: general chemistry 32. Which is the most likely mode of radioactive decay for the radioactive nuclide carbon-14? A) gamma emission B) alpha emission C) electron capture D) positron emission E) beta emission
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Predict the type of radioactive decay. (Example 20.4) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear stability MSC: general chemistry 33. Which of the following is the most probable mode of radioactive decay for the radioactive nuclide
?
A) beta emission B) gamma emission C) neutron emission D) alpha emission E) positron emission ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.1 OBJ: Predict the type of radioactive decay. (Example 20.4) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactivity | nuclear stability MSC: general chemistry 34. The nuclide
is radioactive. When one of these atoms decays, a series of and -
particle emissions occurs, taking the atom through many transformations to end up as an atom of
. How many particles are emitted in converting
into
?
A) 6 B) 2 C) 214 D) 8 E) 4 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 20.1 OBJ: Define radioactive decay series. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactive decay series MSC: general chemistry 35. In the radioactive decay series of plutonium-244 to form lead-208, how many alpha particles and how many beta particles are emitted per plutonium atom? A) 6 alpha particles and 6 beta particles B) 3 alpha particles and 3 beta particles C) 9 alpha particles and 6 beta particles D) 12 alpha particles and 8 beta particles E) 18 alpha particles and 9 beta particles ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 20.1 OBJ: Define radioactive decay series. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radioactive decay series MSC: general chemistry
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36. The following reaction is an example of what type of process? A) alpha decay B) deprotonation C) fission D) transmutation E) none of these ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.2 OBJ: Define transmutation. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: nuclear bombardment reactions | transmutation MSC: general chemistry 37. Which of the following particles cannot be accelerated to high speeds in a particle accelerator or cyclotron? A) neutrons B) electrons C) protons D) alpha particles E) hydrogen nuclei ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.2 OBJ: Define transmutation. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions 38. Which of the following statements concerning nuclear bombardment and transmutation is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Alpha particles emitted by natural decay processes do not have sufficient kinetic energy to penetrate and react with any nuclei. Particle accelerators and other nuclear transmutation methods were a crucial component in the discovery of the lanthanide elements. The discovery of new elements by bombarding other elements with high energy particles still continues to this day.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.2 OBJ: Define transmutation. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions
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39. What is the abbreviated notation for the following nuclear bombardment reaction? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.2 OBJ: Use the notation for a bombardment reaction. (Example 20.5) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: nuclear bombardment reactions | transmutation MSC: general chemistry 40. Which of these is not a transuranium element? A) plutonium B) neptunium C) curium D) thorium E) americium ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.2 OBJ: Locate the transuranium elements on the periodic table. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: nuclear bombardment reactions | transuranium elements MSC: general chemistry 41. When
absorbs a neutron, fission occurs. One possible fission pathway is as follows:
What is the missing isotope? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.2 OBJ: Determine the product nucleus in a nuclear bombardment reaction. (Example 20.6) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions
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42. The first nuclear reaction that was ever observed occurred when nitrogen-14 was bombarded with alpha particles. One product was a proton, and the other was A) . B) . C)
.
D)
.
E)
.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.2 OBJ: Determine the product nucleus in a nuclear bombardment reaction. (Example 20.6) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: nuclear bombardment reactions | transmutation MSC: general chemistry 43. A particular nuclear bombardment reaction is represented by the abbreviated notation . What is the identity of the nuclide X? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.2 OBJ: Determine the product nucleus in a nuclear bombardment reaction. (Example 20.6) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: nuclear bombardment reactions | transmutation MSC: general chemistry 44. When 235U collides with one neutron, fission occurs. What is one possible set of products? A) four neutrons, , and B) four neutrons, , and C) four neutrons, , and D) four neutrons, , and E) four neutrons, , and ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 20.2 OBJ: Determine the product nucleus in a nuclear bombardment reaction. (Example 20.6) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: nuclear bombardment reactions MSC: general chemistry 45. A Geiger counter measures radiation by detecting A) cations produced from radiation colliding with phosphor gases. B) alpha and beta particles as they strike a detector window. C) the increase in temperature when a gas is struck by radiation. D) flashes of light emitted from a phosphor affected by radiation. E) electrons released when gas atoms are ionized by the radiation.
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.3 OBJ: State the purposes of a Geiger counter and a scintillation counter. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radiation and matter | radiation counter MSC: general chemistry 46. A scintillation counter measures radiation by detecting A) cations produced from radiation colliding with phosphor gases. B) electrons released when gas atoms are ionized by the radiation. C) alpha and beta particles as they strike a detector window. D) the increase in temperature when a gas is struck by radiation. E) flashes of light emitted from a phosphor affected by radiation. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.3 OBJ: State the purposes of a Geiger counter and a scintillation counter. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radiation and matter | radiation counter MSC: general chemistry 47. The activity of a radioactive source A) is a measure of the number of nuclear disintegrations per second. B) may be quantified in units of curies (Ci). C) is a measure of the energy released per kilogram of tissue. D) A and B E) B and C ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.3 OBJ: Define activity of a radioactive source and curie (Ci). TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions 48. Which of the following statements concerning radiation is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
An argon filled Geiger counter tube cannot detect neutron radiation. Radiation only causes damage to biological materials. The greater relative biological effectiveness of alpha radiation compared to neutron radiation means alpha radiation is more destructive to human tissue.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 2 and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.3 OBJ: Define activity of a radioactive source and curie (Ci). TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions
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49. Which of the following correctly represents the relationship among rads, rems, and relative biological effectiveness (RBE)? A) rems = rads RBE B) rads = rems RBE C) rads = rems ln(RBE) D) rems = rads + RBE E) none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.3 OBJ: State the relationship between a rad and a rem. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radiation and matter MSC: general chemistry 50. Which of the following types of radioactive decay has the greatest relative biological effectiveness (RBE)? A) alpha radiation B) electromagnetic radiation C) beta radiation D) gamma radiation E) neutron radiation ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 20.3 OBJ: State the relationship between a rad and a rem. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: radiation and matter MSC: general chemistry 51. As a radioactive isotope decays, its rate constant A) remains the same. B) decreases. C) doubles. D) halves. E) increases. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.4 OBJ: Define radioactive decay constant. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay MSC: general chemistry 52. Which of the following statements concerning radioactive decay is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
The form of the rate law for a radioactive decay is the same as for a first-order chemical process. The half-life of a radioactive sample is independent of the amount of the sample. The determination of the approximate age of relics and other ancient items is limited to radiocarbon (carbon-14) dating.
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A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.4 OBJ: Define radioactive decay constant. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions 53. Which of the following corresponds to the most rapid nuclear decay? A) t1/2 = 1.0 103 min B) t1/2 = 1.0 109 year C) k = 1.0 10–3/year D) k = 1.0 10–1/day E) k = 1.0 10–5/s ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.4 OBJ: Define radioactive decay constant. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay MSC: general chemistry 54. Which of the following statements is true? A) As a radioactive isotope decays, its half-life decreases over time and its rate of disintegration remains the same. B) As a radioactive isotope decays, its half-life remains the same and its rate of disintegration remains the same. C) As a radioactive isotope decays, its half-life remains the same and its rate of disintegration increases over time. D) As a radioactive isotope decays, its half-life remains the same and its rate of disintegration decreases over time. E) As a radioactive isotope decays, its half-life decreases over time and its rate of disintegration decreases over time. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.4 OBJ: Define radioactive decay constant. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay MSC: general chemistry 55. If a sample of the radioactive nuclide 139Cs has an activity of 0.0293 Ci, what is the instantaneous rate of decomposition of 139Cs in terms of grams per second? The mass of 139 Cs is 138.9134 amu. (1 Ci = 3.700 1010 disintegrations/s, 1 amu = 1.66054 10–24 g) A) g/s B) g/s C) g/s D) g/s E) g/s Test Bank
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 20.4 OBJ: Calculate the decay constant from activity. (Example 20.7) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay MSC: general chemistry 56. What is the percent activity of a radioactive sample (relative to its original activity) that has undergone four half-lives of decay? A) 6.25% B) 25.0% C) 12.5% D) 3.13% E) 75.0% ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.4 OBJ: Define half-life. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions 57. After 3.2 hours, of the initial amount of a particular radioactive nuclide remains unchanged. What is the half-life of the nuclide? A) 32 min B) 45 min C) 60 min D) 74 min E) 20 min ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.4 OBJ: Define half-life. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay | half-life MSC: general chemistry 58. Consider a certain type of nucleus that has a rate constant of 2.56 10-2 min-1. Calculate the time required for the sample to decay to one-fourth of its initial value. A) 27.1 min B) 33.8 min C) 0.0512 min D) 54.1 min E) 2.56 min ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 20.4 OBJ: Calculate the half-life from the decay constant. (Example 20.8) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay | half-life MSC: general chemistry
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59. The rate constant for the decay of a radioactive isootope is 4.226 10-3 / day. What is the half-life of of this isotope? A) 328.0 days B) 410.0 days C) 82.00 days D) 164.0 days E) none of these ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.4 OBJ: Calculate the half-life from the decay constant. (Example 20.8) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay | half-life MSC: general chemistry 60. Use the following table to assist in answering the question below. Nuclide Uranium-238 Uranium-234 Thorium-230 Radium-226 Lead-210
Half-Life 4.51 109 years 2.48 105 years 8.0 104 years 1.62 103 years 20.4 years
The rate constant for the decay of unstable nuclide X by alpha-particle emission is 1.17 10-6 / day. What is the identity of X? A) radium-226 B) thorium-230 C) uranium-238 D) uranium-234 E) lead-210 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.4 OBJ: Calculate the half-life from the decay constant. (Example 20.8) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay | half-life MSC: general chemistry 61. Iodine-131 decays by beta emission with a half-life of 8.04 days. What is the decay constant for iodine-131? A) /h B) /min C) /s D) /day E) /h ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.4 OBJ: Calculate the decay constant and activity from half-life. (Example 20.9) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay MSC: general chemistry
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62. A sample of a radioactive isotope is found to have lost 39.9% of its original activity after 8.57 days. What is the decay constant of this isotope? A) 0.0594 d− B) 0.107 d− C) 4.36 d− D) 0.0392 d− E) 0.478 d− ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.4 OBJ: Calculate the decay constant and activity from half-life. (Example 20.9) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions 63. What is the decay constant for a particular radioactive element that has a half-life of 5.55 years? A) 0.161/year B) 0.113/year C) 7.18 10–3/h D) 25.8/s E) 0.125/year ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.4 OBJ: Calculate the decay constant and activity from half-life. (Example 20.9) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay | half-life MSC: general chemistry 64. The half-life of the radioactive nuclide sample of ? The molar mass of disintegrations/s) A) Ci B) Ci C) Ci D) Ci E) Ci
is 9.0 min. What is the activity of a 9.8is 78.921 g/mol. (1 Ci = 3.700 1010
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 20.4 OBJ: Calculate the decay constant and activity from half-life. (Example 20.9) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay MSC: general chemistry 65. The half-life of the radioisotope 158Eu is 0.77 h. How much time is required for a 160.0-g sample of 158Eu to decay to 1.29 g? A) 6.0 h B) 4.0 h C) 3.0 h D) 2.3 h E) 5.4 h
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.4 OBJ: Determine the fraction of nuclei remaining after a specified time. (Example 20.10) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay | half-life MSC: general chemistry 66. The half-life of 42K is 12.5 h. How much will remain after 81 h if the original sample contained 256 g of 42K? A) 22 g B) 2.9 g C) 17 g D) 19 g E) 11 g ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.4 OBJ: Determine the fraction of nuclei remaining after a specified time. (Example 20.10) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay | half-life MSC: general chemistry 67. The isotope 210Pb has a half-life of 22 years. What percentage of a pure 210Pb sample prepared in April 1937 remains in April 2003? A) 13% B) 26% C) 31% D) 21% E) 38% ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.4 OBJ: Determine the fraction of nuclei remaining after a specified time. (Example 20.10) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay MSC: general chemistry 68. Iodine-131, which is used to treat thyroid cancer, has a half-life of 8.04 days. How much time is required for 84% of the isotope to decay? A) 21 days B) 7 days C) 41 days D) 53 days E) 2 days ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.4 OBJ: Determine the fraction of nuclei remaining after a specified time. (Example 20.10) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay | half-life MSC: general chemistry
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69. The half-life of phosphorus-33 is 25 days. How much of a 128-g sample will remain after 150 days? A) 2.0 g B) 16 g C) 1.0 g D) 8.0 g E) 4.0 g ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.4 OBJ: Determine the fraction of nuclei remaining after a specified time. (Example 20.10) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay | half-life MSC: general chemistry 70. A 4.50-mg sample of a newly discovered radioactive nuclide was analyzed and found to contain only 3.25 mg after a period of 31.9 h. What is the half-life of the nuclide? A) 77.3 h B) 67.9 h C) 72.2 h D) 12.8 h E) 16.8 h ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 20.4 OBJ: Determine the fraction of nuclei remaining after a specified time. (Example 20.10) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay | half-life MSC: general chemistry 71. Strontium-90 is produced in nuclear explosions. It can replace calcium in the bone. The half-life of 90Sr is 27.7 years. If the activity of 90Sr in the bones of an exposed person were 90 disintegrations per second, how long would it take the activity of 90Sr to decrease to 8.1 disintegrations per second? A) 96 years B) 68 years C) 46 years D) 57 years E) 75 years ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 20.4 OBJ: Determine the fraction of nuclei remaining after a specified time. (Example 20.10) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay MSC: general chemistry 72. The half-life of neptunium-231 is 50.0 min. How many minutes will it take for 5.0 g of this isotope to decay to 0.20 g? A) 1.60 10 2 min B) 2.30 10 2 min C) 1.50 102 min D) 4.00 102 min E) 1.00 10 2 min
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 20.4 OBJ: Determine the fraction of nuclei remaining after a specified time. (Example 20.10) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay | half-life MSC: general chemistry 73. A radioactive isotope undergoes decay by emission of a positron. After 2.00 h, 5.880% of the initial amount of the isotope remains undecayed. What is the half-life of this isotope? A) 45.0 min B) 29.3 min C) 90.0 min D) 15.0 min E) 60.0 min ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 20.4 OBJ: Determine the fraction of nuclei remaining after a specified time. (Example 20.10) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay | half-life MSC: general chemistry 74. A living tree contains 14C (half-life, 5730 years) and has a specific activity of 750 counts per hour. A wooden artifact recovered from an archeological site gives a count of 210 counts per hour. The age of this artifact is most nearly A) 47,000 years. B) 4,600 years. C) 11,000 years. D) 22,000 years. E) 5730 years. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 20.4 OBJ: Apply the carbon-14 dating method. (Example 20.11) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay | radioactive dating MSC: general chemistry 75. What assumption must be true for radiocarbon (14C) dating to be useful? A) 14C has the same mass as 12C. B) A constant concentration of 14C is maintained in living plants and animals through equilibration with atmospheric levels of 14C. C) The sample cannot have been chemically altered prior to the analysis. D) 14C always decays at the same rate. E) 14C is nonradioactive. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.4 OBJ: Apply the carbon-14 dating method. (Example 20.11) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay | radioactive dating MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
22
76. Which of the following statements is(are) true of radioactive carbon-14? 1. 2. 3.
It undergoes alpha decay. It is produced in the upper atmosphere by cosmic radiation. It has a constant concentration in living matter.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 2 and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.4 OBJ: Apply the carbon-14 dating method. (Example 20.11) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay | radioactive dating MSC: general chemistry 77. A sample of wood from an Egyptian mummy case gives a count of 8.4 cpm/gC (counts per minute per gram of carbon). How old is the wood? (The initial decay rate of is 15.3 cpm/g C, and its half-life is 5730 years.) A) 6.01 10 3 years B) 7.46 10 3 years C) 4.96 10 3 years D) 2.48 10 3 years E) none of these ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 20.4 OBJ: Apply the carbon-14 dating method. (Example 20.11) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay | radioactive dating MSC: general chemistry 78. If a tree dies and the trunk remains undisturbed for 14821 years, what percentage of original is still present? (half-life of = 5730 years) A) 33% B) 25% C) 83% D) 17% ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 20.4 OBJ: Apply the carbon-14 dating method. (Example 20.11) TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: rate of radioactive decay | radioactive dating MSC: general chemistry 79. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) Isotope dilution is a technique used to determine the quantity of a substance in a mixture by adding a known amount of an isotope to it. B) Isotope dilution was used to elucidate the biological pathways of photosynthesis. C) Isotope dilution may be used to determine the amount of vitamin B12 in food.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
23
D) A radioactive tracer is a very small amount of a radioactive isotope added to a system used to study the chemical, physical, or biological processes of a system. E) Neutron activation analysis is an analysis of elements in a sample based on the conversion of stable isotopes to radioactive isotopes by bombarding a sample with neutrons. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.5 OBJ: State the ways in which radioactive isotopes are used for chemical analysis. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: applications of radioactive isotopes | chemical analysis MSC: general chemistry 80. Which of the following radioactive isotopes is not commonly used in medical applications? A) technetium-99m B) iodine-131 C) strontium-90 D) cobalt-60 E) thallium-201 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.5 OBJ: Describe how isotopes are used for medical therapy and diagnosis. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions KEY: applications of radioactive isotopes | medical therapy MSC: general chemistry 81. Metastable isotopes, such as Technetium-99m and those produced from neutron activation analysis decay by what process? A) gamma emission B) alpha emission C) beta emission D) positron emission E) all of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.5 OBJ: Describe how isotopes are used for medical therapy and diagnosis. TOP: nuclear chemistry | radioactivity and nuclear bombardment reactions 82. What is the energy change for the following nuclear bombardment reaction? (c = 3.00 108 m/s, 1 amu = 1.66054 10–27 kg, 1 MeV = 1.602 10–13 J) Particle Mass (amu) 1.008665 4.00260 39.96400 42.96115
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) MeV B) MeV C) MeV D) 3.00 MeV E) MeV ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Calculate the energy change for a nuclear reaction. TOP: nuclear chemistry | energy of nuclear reactions KEY: mass-energy calculations | mass-energy equivalence
REF: 20.6
MSC: general chemistry
83. How much energy is released when 3.00 metric tons of 2H2 gas undergoes nuclear fusion? (1 metric ton = 1000 kg, c = 3.00 108 m/s, 1 amu = 1.66054 10–27 kg) 2
H + 2H → 3He + 1n Particle Mass (amu) 1.008665 2.01400 3.01603
A) B) C) D) E)
J J J J J
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Calculate the energy change for a nuclear reaction. TOP: nuclear chemistry | energy of nuclear reactions KEY: mass-energy calculations | mass-energy equivalence
REF: 20.6
MSC: general chemistry
84. What quantity of energy is released per gram of U-235 based on the following neutron induced fission of U-235? (c = 3.00 108 m/s)
Particle Mass (amu) 1.008665 235.043922 136.9253 96.910950
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) 7.62 1010 J/g U-235 B) 7.62 1013 J/g U-235 C) 1.79 1010 J/g U-235 D) 1.79 1013 J/g U-235 E) 3.10 1011 J/g U-235 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult OBJ: Calculate the energy change for a nuclear reaction. TOP: nuclear chemistry | energy of nuclear reactions
REF: 20.6
85. Relative to the sum of the masses of its constituent nucleons (neutrons + protons), the mass of a nucleus is A) always greater. B) sometimes the same and sometimes smaller. C) always smaller. D) always the same. E) sometimes greater and sometimes smaller. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define nuclear binding energy and mass defect. TOP: nuclear chemistry | energy of nuclear reactions KEY: mass-energy calculations | mass-energy equivalence
REF: 20.6
MSC: general chemistry
86. One of the first nuclear bombs based on the fission of U-235 had a maximum yield of 7.5 x1013 J. If the fission of U-235 releases 1.8 1013 J/mol, approximately what mass of U235 was used in this bomb? (U-235 has a molar mass of 235.04 g/mol) A) 9.8 102 g U-235 B) 56 g U-235 C) 0.018 g U-235 D) 0.0010 g U-235 E) 2.3 102 g U-236 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define nuclear binding energy and mass defect. TOP: nuclear chemistry | energy of nuclear reactions
REF: 20.6
87. Which of the following nuclides has the highest nuclear binding energy per nucleon? A) B) C) D) E)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define nuclear binding energy and mass defect. TOP: nuclear chemistry | energy of nuclear reactions KEY: mass-energy calculations | nuclear binding energy 88. What is the mass defect of Particle
REF: 20.6
MSC: general chemistry
?
Mass (amu) 11.0216 1.00728 1.00867 0.00055
A) –0.1055 amu B) –1.685 amu C) –0.0704 amu D) –4.1051 amu E) –0.1707 amu ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.6 OBJ: Define nuclear binding energy and mass defect. TOP: nuclear chemistry | energy of nuclear reactions KEY: mass-energy calculations MSC: general chemistry 89. If 1 mol of oxygen-16 were formed from protons and neutrons, 0.1366 g of mass would be lost. What can best account for this loss? A) Converting from the atomic scale (in atomic mass units) to the macroscopic scale (in grams) can often cause minor errors to occur. B) The process was so exothermic that the system lost energy, which means that it also lost mass. C) This is impossible because of the law of conservation of matter (so mass must be conserved). D) When fission occurs, the nuclei remaining always have a smaller mass. E) Both a and c are correct. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define nuclear binding energy and mass defect. TOP: nuclear chemistry | energy of nuclear reactions KEY: mass-energy calculations | nuclear binding energy
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 20.6
MSC: general chemistry
27
90. What is the nuclear binding energy per nucleon of a 1 amu = 1.66054 10–27 kg) Particle
atom? (c = 3.00 108 m/s,
Mass (amu) 65.926036 1.00728 1.00867 0.00055
A) B) C) D) E)
J/nucleon J/nucleon J/nucleon J/nucleon J/nucleon
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Define nuclear binding energy and mass defect. TOP: nuclear chemistry | energy of nuclear reactions KEY: mass-energy calculations | nuclear binding energy
REF: 20.6
MSC: general chemistry
91. Enriched uranium is uranium that has a greater proportion of A) lead-207. B) lead-208. C) deuterons. D) uranium-235. E) uranium-238. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.7 OBJ: Explain how a controlled chain reaction is used in a nuclear fission reactor using a critical mass of fissionable material. TOP: nuclear chemistry | energy of nuclear reactions KEY: nuclear fission MSC: general chemistry 92. Which of the following statements is(are) true for the fission of uranium-235? A) The electron is captured by the nucleus, which becomes unstable. B) The nuclides produced are more stable than the uranium nuclide. C) The nuclides produced are individually heavier than the uranium nuclide. D) The products include neutrons. E) Two of these statements are true. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 20.7 OBJ: Explain how a controlled chain reaction is used in a nuclear fission reactor using a critical mass of fissionable material. TOP: nuclear chemistry | energy of nuclear reactions KEY: nuclear fission MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
28
93. It is possible that the world's energy problem could be solved by making use of the fusion reaction of deuterium and tritium. Which of the following reaction equations corresponds to that process? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.7 OBJ: Write the reaction of the nuclear fusion of deuterium and tritium. TOP: nuclear chemistry | energy of nuclear reactions KEY: nuclear fusion MSC: general chemistry 94. Which of the following statements regarding a fission based nuclear reactor is not correct? A) A nuclear fission reactor uses the heat energy released by the fission of U-235 to produce steam. B) The control rods in a nuclear reactor contain materials which absorb neutrons. C) The moderator in a fission reactor slows down the neutrons produced from the fission of U-235. D) (heavy water), graphite, and H2O (light water) have been used as moderators in fission reactors. E) The uranium dioxide fuel pellets used in a U.S. light-water reactor are made up mostly of the U-235 isotope. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 20.7 OBJ: Write the reaction of the nuclear fusion of deuterium and tritium. TOP: nuclear chemistry | energy of nuclear reactions
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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Chapter 21 - Chemistry of the Main-Group Metals 1. Within a group, as the atomic numbers of the elements increase, the A) ionization energies decrease. B) atomic masses decrease. C) elements become less metallic. D) atomic radii decrease. E) electronegativities increase. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.1 OBJ: Note the low ionization energies and electronegativities of the metals. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal MSC: general chemistry 2. Which of the following statements about the general properties of the main group metals is not correct? A) Metallic character increases down a group. B) Metallic character decreases left to right across a period. C) The majority of main group metal oxides are acidic. D) Main group metals tend to form cations (lose electrons) in their reactions. E) Main group metal reactivity tends to increase down a group. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.1 OBJ: Note the low ionization energies and electronegativities of the metals. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal 3. Which of the following statements about the general properties of the main group nonmetals is incorrect? A) The oxides of nonmetals tend to be acidic. B) The ionization energies of the nonmetals increase down a group. C) Nonmetals tend to be insulators. D) Nonmetals tend to form monoatomic anions or oxoanions. E) The highest possible oxidation state for all but the most electronegative nonmetals is equal to the group number of the element. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.1 OBJ: Note the low ionization energies and electronegativities of the metals. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal 4. Which element commonly has both +1 and +3 oxidation states? A) Tl B) Pb C) Ba D) Al E) Cu
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
1
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.1 OBJ: Give the principal oxidation states of the main-group elements. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IIIA metal MSC: general chemistry 5. All of the following elements have the oxidation states listed except A) Sn2+. B) Sn+. C) Pb2+. D) Tl+. E) Tl3+. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.1 OBJ: Give the principal oxidation states of the main-group elements. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal MSC: general chemistry 6. Choose the most metallic element. A) As B) P C) Bi D) N E) Sb ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State the periodic trends in metallic characteristics. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal
REF: 21.1 MSC: general chemistry
7. Which element in Group IVA has the strongest metallic character? A) None of the elements in Group IVA is metallic. B) Pb C) Si D) C E) Ge ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State the periodic trends in metallic characteristics. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal
REF: 21.1 MSC: general chemistry
8. Which of the following exhibits the greatest metallic character? A) Ge B) Ga C) Br D) As E) All are equally metallic. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State the periodic trends in metallic characteristics. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 21.1 MSC: general chemistry
2
9. Which of the following is not a normal characteristic of a metal? A) ability to form cations B) low ionization energy C) conductor of electricity D) high electron affinity E) malleability ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.1 OBJ: Define metal, alloy, mineral, and ore. TOP: materials chemistry | metal MSC: general chemistry 10. Metals usually act as A) oxidizing agents. B) reducing agents. C) conjugate bases. D) conjugate acids. E) ion exchange agents. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.2 OBJ: Define metal, alloy, mineral, and ore. TOP: materials chemistry | metal MSC: general chemistry 11. Which of the following is not a property of metals? A) ductile B) heat conductor C) malleable D) luminous E) electrical conductor ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.2 OBJ: Define metal, alloy, mineral, and ore. TOP: materials chemistry | metal MSC: general chemistry 12. Which of the following statements is true? A) An alloy may also be an ore. B) A metal may also be a mineral. C) A mineral may also be an alloy. D) A mineral may also be an ore. E) All of these statements are true. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.2 OBJ: Define metal, alloy, mineral, and ore. TOP: materials chemistry | metal KEY: natural sources of metallic elements MSC: general chemistry 13. Bauxite is the principal ore of which element(s)? A) B B) Tl C) Al D) Ga E) all of these Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.2 OBJ: Define metal, alloy, mineral, and ore. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IIIA metal | aluminum MSC: general chemistry 14. At which step in the production of a metal would a blast furnace be used? A) preliminary treatment B) refining C) reduction D) smithing E) extruding ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.2 OBJ: State the basic steps in the production of a metal. TOP: materials chemistry | metal KEY: metallurgy | reduction MSC: general chemistry 15. Roasting is an example of which step in the production of a metal? A) reduction B) alloying C) smithing D) refining E) preliminary treatment ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.2 OBJ: State the basic steps in the production of a metal. TOP: materials chemistry | metal KEY: metallurgy | preliminary treatment MSC: general chemistry 16. What is the metallurgical process of roasting? A) A heating process done in the presence of carbon to reduce a metal oxide mineral to the metal. B) A heating process done in the presence of carbon to reduce a metal sulfide mineral to the metal. C) A heating process done in the presence of air to oxidize a metal mineral to the metal oxide. D) A heating process done in the presence of air to convert a metal sulfide mineral to the metal oxide mineral. E) A heating process done in the presence of air to reduce a metal oxide mineral to the metal. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State the basic steps in the production of a metal. TOP: materials chemistry | metal
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 21.2
4
17. A chemical method of isolating aluminum oxide from aluminum ore is called A) the Hall–Héroult process. B) the Solvay process. C) the Goldschmidt process. D) the Bayer process. E) the Dow process. ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define the Bayer process. KEY: metallurgy | preliminary treatment
DIF: easy REF: 21.2 TOP: materials chemistry | metal MSC: general chemistry
18. In the first stage of the Bayer process bauxite is mixed with a strong base. What is the purpose of the strong base? A) Strong base dissolves the silicate constituents of the ore, leaving pure aluminum oxide as a precipitate to be collected by filtration. B) Strong base favors the formation of a soluble anion of the aluminum, leaving the silicates and other impurities as precipitates to be removed by filtration. C) Strong base dissolves the silicate constituents of the ore and precipitates the aluminum as Al(OH)3 for collection by filtration. D) Strong base dissolves the silicates and aluminum constituents of the ore, allowing for the removal of any insoluble impurities by filtration and eventual precipitation of the aluminum from the filtrate. E) The strong base, along with HF, is used to extract the aluminum from the ore as cryolite, a compound used in the electrolytic reduction of aluminum. ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define the Bayer process.
DIF: easy REF: 21.2 TOP: materials chemistry | metal
19. A solution may contain NaCl, MgCl2, and/or AlCl3. When sodium hydroxide is added, a white precipitate forms that dissolves as more NaOH is added. Therefore, A) the solution definitely contains AlCl3 and cannot contain MgCl2. B) the solution contains only NaCl. C) the solution contains at least two of the compounds, but it cannot be determined which two are present. D) the solution definitely contains AlCl3 and probably contains MgCl2. E) the solution can contain only AlCl3. ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Define the Bayer process. KEY: metallurgy | preliminary treatment
DIF: moderate REF: 21.2 TOP: materials chemistry | metal MSC: general chemistry
20. Which element is found in the ore galena? A) aluminum B) lead C) silicon D) germanium E) tin
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.2 OBJ: Describe the roasting of lead sulfide ore. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IVA metal | lead MSC: general chemistry 21. Which of the following equations represents the roasting of lead(II) sulfide ore? A) PbS(s) + 4H2O(l) → Pb(OH)3–(aq) + H2S(aq) + H3O+(aq) B) PbS(s) + H2(g) → Pb(s) + H2S(g) C) 2PbS(s) + C(s) → 2Pb(s) + CS2(l) D) PbS(s) + 2H2O(l) → Pb(OH)2(s) + H2S(aq) E) 2PbS(s) + 3O2(g) → 2PbO(s) + 2SO2(g) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.2 OBJ: Describe the roasting of lead sulfide ore. TOP: materials chemistry | metal KEY: metallurgy | preliminary treatment MSC: general chemistry 22. The commercial method of isolating magnesium from seawater is called A) the Solvay process. B) the Goldschmidt process. C) the Dow process. D) the Hall–Héroult process. E) the Bayer process. ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define the Dow process. KEY: metallurgy | reduction
DIF: easy REF: 21.2 TOP: materials chemistry | metal MSC: general chemistry
23. Which of the following elements is obtained commercially from seawater and salt brine? A) beryllium B) sulfur C) potassium D) magnesium E) aluminum ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define the Dow process. KEY: metallurgy | reduction
DIF: easy REF: 21.2 TOP: materials chemistry | metal MSC: general chemistry
24. Which of the following is initially obtained commercially by electrolytic reduction? A) magnesium B) fluorine C) copper D) iodine E) bromine ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define the Dow process. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IIA alkaline earth metal | magnesium Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 21.2
MSC: general chemistry 6
25. Aluminum is obtained from a Al2O3–Na3AlF6 mixture by A) reduction with hydrogen. B) reduction with carbon monoxide. C) flotation. D) reduction with carbon. E) electrolysis. ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Define the Hall–Héroult process. KEY: metallurgy | reduction
DIF: easy REF: 21.2 TOP: materials chemistry | metal MSC: general chemistry
26. Aluminum is produced commercially by electrolysis in a cell that contains A) AlCl3(aq). B) aluminum anodes and cathodes. C) Al2O3(l) + Na3AlF6(l). D) AlCl3(aq) + Na3AlF6(aq). E) aluminum anodes. ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define the Hall–Héroult process. KEY: metallurgy | reduction
DIF: easy REF: 21.2 TOP: materials chemistry | metal MSC: general chemistry
27. Cryolite, Na3AlF6, is used in the production of A) HF. B) NaF. C) Na. D) Al. E) F2. ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define the Hall–Héroult process. KEY: metallurgy | reduction
DIF: easy REF: 21.2 TOP: materials chemistry | metal MSC: general chemistry
28. Which of the following processes is used commercially in the production of aluminum? A) Goldschmidt process B) Hall–Héroult process C) Dow process D) Frasch process E) Ostwald process ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: Define the Hall–Héroult process. KEY: metallurgy | reduction
DIF: easy REF: 21.2 TOP: materials chemistry | metal MSC: general chemistry
29. In the production of aluminum by the Hall–Héroult process, what is the product produced at the cathode? A) CO B) F2 C) Al D) Na E) O2 Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define the Hall–Héroult process. KEY: metallurgy | reduction
DIF: easy REF: 21.2 TOP: materials chemistry | metal MSC: general chemistry
30. The valence electrons in a metal crystal are A) delocalized between every two atoms. B) localized between every two atoms. C) found only on the surface of the crystal. D) delocalized only by an applied potential. E) free to travel throughout the crystal. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the electron-sea model of metals. TOP: materials chemistry | metal KEY: bonding in metals | electron-sea model of metals
REF: 21.3
MSC: general chemistry
31. Which of the following statements concerning the description of metals is/are correct? 1. 2.
3.
Metals may be simply viewed as a sea of positive ions which are free to move over the entire metal crystal. Molecular orbital theory shows that the large number of overlapping valence orbitals on the metal atoms in a crystal are so close together that they form bands. Molecular orbital theory shows that electrons can become mobile when some of the electrons in a band are excited into unoccupied orbitals within the same band or a nearby band.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 2 and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.3 OBJ: Describe the molecular orbital theory of sodium and magnesium metals. TOP: materials chemistry | metal NOT: REVISED 32. Which of Figures I–V best represents the band theory description of metallic sodium?
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) Figure IV B) Figure II C) Figure V D) Figure I E) Figure III ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.3 OBJ: Describe the molecular orbital theory of sodium and magnesium metals. TOP: materials chemistry | metal KEY: bonding in metals | molecular orbital theory of metals MSC: general chemistry 33. Which of the following properties of the alkali metals does not increase with increasing atomic number? A) ionic radius B) reactivity with water C) atomic radius D) atomic mass E) ionization energy ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.4 OBJ: Note the reactivity of the alkali metals. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IA alkali metal MSC: general chemistry 34. Which element reacts most vigorously with water? A) Al B) Li C) Ba D) Mg E) Cs ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.4 OBJ: Note the reactivity of the alkali metals. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IA alkali metal MSC: general chemistry 35. Which of the following metals is expected to have the fastest reaction with water? A) Li B) K C) Cs D) Na E) Rb ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Note the reactivity of the alkali metals. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal
Test Bank
easy
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 21.4
9
36. Which of the following alkali metals has the highest melting point? A) Li B) Na C) Rb D) Cs E) K ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.4 OBJ: Note the reactivity of the alkali metals. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IA alkali metal | lithium MSC: general chemistry 37. An alkali metal (designated M) reacts with water with the formation of A) MOH + H2. B) M2O + H2. C) M(OH)2 + H2. D) MO + H2. E) MOH + O2. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.4 OBJ: Note the reactivity of the alkali metals. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IA alkali metal MSC: general chemistry 38. Which of the following metals will have the most vigorous reaction with water? A) Ga B) Li C) K D) Ca E) Ba ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.5 OBJ: Note the reactivity of the main group metals. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IA alkali metal MSC: general chemistry 39. Which one of the following metals reacts least vigorously with water? A) Li B) Ca C) Na D) Mg E) K ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.5 OBJ: Note the reactivity of the alkali and alkaline earth metals. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IA alkali metal MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
10
40. Which of the following is not a property of the alkali metals? A) They form +1 cations in ionic compounds. B) Their hydroxides tend to be amphoteric. C) They do not occur as free metals in nature. D) They are the most reactive of all metals. E) They are soft and silvery. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.4 OBJ: Note the reactivity of the alkali metals. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IA alkali metal MSC: general chemistry 41. Which is the most fundamental reason why potassium is more reactive than sodium? A) The effective nuclear charge on the valence electrons of potassium is less than the effective nuclear charge on the valence electrons of sodium. B) The electronegativity of potassium is less than the electronegativity of sodium. C) The atomic radius of potassium is larger than the atomic radius of sodium. D) The ionization energy of potassium is larger than the ionization energy of sodium. E) The ionic radius of potassium is larger than the ionic radius of sodium. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 21.4 OBJ: Note the reactivity of the alkali metals. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IA alkali metal MSC: general chemistry 42. Which of the following statements about lithium is false? A) Lithium reacts with oxygen to produce lithium peroxide. B) The commercial source of lithium is the ore spodumene. C) Lithium metal is obtained by electrolysis of lithium chloride. D) Lithium reacts with water to produce lithium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. E) Lithium is commonly used as the anode in batteries. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.4 OBJ: Describe the metallurgy, reactions, and compounds of lithium. TOP: materials chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IA alkali metal | lithium MSC: general chemistry 43. Which of the following statements about compounds of lithium is false? A) Lithium hydroxide is a strong base. B) Lithium carbonate is much more soluble in water than is sodium carbonate. C) Lithium carbonate is a medication used to treat bipolar disorder. D) Lithium hydroxide is used to remove carbon dioxide from the air in spacecraft. E) Lithium hydroxide is produced by the reaction of calcium hydroxide with lithium carbonate. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.4 OBJ: Describe the metallurgy, reactions, and compounds of lithium. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IA alkali metal | lithium MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
11
44. Which alkali metal is capable of forming a stable nitride? A) Cs B) Na C) Rb D) K E) Li ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.4 OBJ: Describe the metallurgy, reactions, and compounds of lithium. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IA alkali metal | lithium MSC: general chemistry 45. Which of the following is not an important use of sodium compounds? A) NaCl as a food preservative B) Na2CO3 in the manufacture of glass C) NaOH in the extraction of Al2O3 from ore D) NaI in the production of iodine E) NaOH in the manufacture of soap ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.4 OBJ: Describe the metallurgy, reactions, and compounds of sodium. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IA alkali metal | sodium MSC: general chemistry 46. Which of the following statements about sodium is false? A) Sodium reacts with oxygen to produce sodium peroxide. B) Sodium ions are a significant component of seawater. C) Sodium reacts with water to produce sodium hydride and oxygen gas. D) Sodium metal is produced by electrolysis of sodium chloride. E) Sodium metal is a strong reducing agent. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.4 OBJ: Describe the metallurgy, reactions, and compounds of sodium. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IA alkali metal | sodium MSC: general chemistry 47. Which of the following statements is true? A) The Solvay process is used to produce lead from galena ore. B) The Solvay process is used to produce magnesium from seawater. C) The Solvay process is used to produce sodium carbonate from sodium chloride and limestone. D) The Solvay process is used to separate aluminum oxide from bauxite ore. E) The Solvay process is used to produce aluminum metal from the electrolysis of aluminum oxide in cryolite. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.4 OBJ: Define the Solvay process. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IA alkali metal | sodium MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
12
48. Which of the following is not a reaction used in the Solvay process? A) 2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O(l) → H2(g) + Cl2(g) + 2NaOH(aq) B) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g) C) NH3(g) + H2O(l) + CO2(g) + NaCl(aq) → NaHCO3(s) + NH4Cl(aq) D) 2NaHCO3(s) → Na2CO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(g) E) CaO(s) + 2NH4Cl(aq) → 2NH3(g) + CaCl2(aq) + H2O(l) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 21.4 OBJ: Define the Solvay process. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IA alkali metal | sodium MSC: general chemistry 49. The Solvay process is an industrial method for the production of what compound? A) Li2CO3 B) Na2CO3 C) NaOH D) KO2 E) KNO3 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Solvay Process TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal
easy
REF: 21.4
50. Almost all the potassium metal produced is used in the preparation of what compound? A) KNO3 B) K2O2 C) KOH D) KO2 E) KCl ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.4 OBJ: Describe some compounds of potassium. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IA alkali metal | potassium MSC: general chemistry 51. Which of the following statements concerning potassium and its compounds is false? A) Potash consists mostly of potassium carbonate. B) Potassium is so soft that it can be cut with a butter knife. C) Potassium reacts with oxygen to produce potassium superoxide. D) Potassium superoxide is used in self-contained breathing apparatuses. E) Potassium metal is prepared by electrolysis of potassium chloride. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.4 OBJ: Describe some compounds of potassium. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IA alkali metal | potassium MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
13
52. Which of the following statements concerning magnesium is false? A) Magnesium ion is the third most abundant dissolved ion in the oceans. B) Magnesium reacts with oxygen to produce magnesium oxide. C) Magnesium has a low density compared to most metals. D) Magnesium is the least reactive alkaline earth metal. E) Magnesium is used as a reducing agent in the production of zirconium. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.5 OBJ: Describe the metallurgy, reactions, and compounds of magnesium. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IIA alkaline earth metal | magnesium MSC: general chemistry 53. Which of the following statements concerning magnesium is false? A) Milk of magnesia is composed of a slurry of magnesium hydroxide. B) Combustion of magnesium produces an intense white light. C) Carbon dioxide may be used to put out magnesium fires. D) Magnesium hydroxide is relatively insoluble in water. E) Firebricks are a hardened form of magnesium oxide. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.5 OBJ: Describe the metallurgy, reactions, and compounds of magnesium. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IIA alkaline earth metal | magnesium MSC: general chemistry 54. Which of the following statements concerning calcium is false? A) Calcium metal is produced by the reduction of calcium oxide by aluminum. B) Coral reefs are composed mainly of calcium hydroxide. C) The mineral gypsum is composed of calcium sulfate dihydrate. D) Calcium reacts with hydrogen to produce calcium hydride. E) Seashells are composed principally of calcium carbonate. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.5 OBJ: Describe the metallurgy, reactions, and compounds of calcium. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IIA alkaline earth metal | calcium MSC: general chemistry 55. Which of the following combinations of common name and formula is incorrect? A) plaster of Paris, CaHCO3 B) slaked lime, Ca(OH)2 C) quicklime, CaO D) limestone, CaCO3 E) slag, CaSiO3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.5 OBJ: Describe the metallurgy, reactions, and compounds of calcium. TOP: materials chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IIA alkaline earth metal | calcium MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
14
56. Which of the following hydroxides has amphoteric character? A) Al(OH)3 B) CsOH C) Ba(OH)2 D) KOH E) B(OH)3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.6 OBJ: Describe the metallurgy, reactions, and compounds of aluminum. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IIIA metal | aluminum MSC: general chemistry 57. Which of the following statements concerning aluminum is false? A) Sapphires and rubies are composed principally of aluminum oxide. B) Aluminum hydroxide is amphoteric. C) Aluminum can have both +1 and +3 oxidation states. D) The main industrial source of aluminum is bauxite ore. E) Corundum is a hard mineral of aluminum oxide. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.6 OBJ: Describe the metallurgy, reactions, and compounds of aluminum. TOP: materials chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IIIA metal | aluminum MSC: general chemistry 58. The Goldschmidt process is a method to A) produce lead from galena ore. B) prepare aluminum metal from electrolysis of aluminum hydroxide and cryolite. C) prepare sodium carbonate from sodium chloride and calcium carbonate. D) produce magnesium from seawater. E) prepare a metal by reduction of its oxide with aluminum metal. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.6 OBJ: Define the Goldschmidt process. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IIIA metal | aluminum MSC: general chemistry 59. Which of the following equations describes the application of the Goldschmidt process to iron(III) oxide? A) 2Fe2O3(s) + 6H2(g) → 4FeH3(s) + 3O2(g) B) Fe2O3(s) + 3H2SO4(aq) → Fe2(SO4)3(aq) + 3H2O(l) C) Fe2O3(s) + 3H2O(l) → 2Fe(OH)3(aq) D) Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(s) → 2Fe(l) + Al2O3(l) E) 2Fe2O3(s) → 4Fe(l) + 3O2(g) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.6 OBJ: Define the Goldschmidt process. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IIIA metal | aluminum MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
15
60. Which of the following statements concerning tin is false? A) Tin(IV) chloride is a molecular liquid. B) Tin metal is obtained from the mineral cassiterite. C) Tin(II) compounds are strong oxidizing agents. D) Solder and bronze are both alloys of tin. E) One allotrope of tin is a metal, and the other allotrope is a nonmetal. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.6 OBJ: Describe the metallurgy, reactions, and compounds of tin and lead. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IVA metal | tin MSC: general chemistry 61. Which of the following statements concerning lead is false? A) Lead is predominantly used to make electrodes in batteries. B) Lead ions exist only in the +4 oxidation state. C) Lead reacts with hydrochloric acid, but because lead(II) chloride is insoluble in water, the reaction soon stops. D) Lead is commercially prepared by reducing lead(II) oxide with carbon monoxide. E) Lead is commonly found in galena, a lead(II) sulfide mineral. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.6 OBJ: Describe the metallurgy, reactions, and compounds of tin and lead. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal KEY: group IVA metal | lead MSC: general chemistry 62. Which of the following metals tends to form compounds where the metal has a +2 or +4 oxidation number? A) Al B) Mg C) Sn D) Na E) Ba ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.6 OBJ: Describe the metallurgy, reactions, and compounds of tin and lead. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group metal 63. Which of the following statements about hydrogen is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
It has three isotopes. It is the most abundant element in the universe. An atom of deuterium is about three times the mass of protium.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2 and 3
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
16
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe some properties of hydrogen. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal
REF: 21.7
64. Which of the following reactions does not represent a commercial method for preparing hydrogen gas? A) C3H8(g) + 3H2O(g) → 3CO(g) + 7H2(g) B) C(s) + H2O(g) → CO(g) + H2(g) C) 2NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g) D) 2H2O(l) → 2H2(g) + O2(g) E) CO(g) + H2O(g) → CO2(g) + H2(g) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.7 OBJ: Describe the commercial preparation of hydrogen. TOP: materials chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: hydrogen | preparation MSC: general chemistry 65. The major industrial source of hydrogen gas is the reaction of methane and water at high temperatures (800–1000°C) and high pressures (10–15 atm) with nickel as a catalyst.
If 150.0 g of CH4 and 150.0 g of H2O are reacted at 915°C and 11.0 atm, how much hydrogen should be available for industrial use? A) 171 L B) 1330 L C) 249 L D) 25.0 L E) 222 L ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 21.7 OBJ: Define the steam-reforming process. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: hydrogen | preparation MSC: general chemistry 66. A sample of pure deuterium oxide, D2O, is mixed with a sample of pure water, H2O. After a period of time, the mixture will be A) mostly H2O. B) mostly D3O+. C) mostly D2O. D) an equilibrium mixture of D2O, H2O, and DOH. E) mostly OD–. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Describe some reactions and compounds of hydrogen. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: hydrogen | reactions and compounds
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 21.7
MSC: general chemistry
17
67. What is the general formula for an alkali metal hydride? (M = metal) A) MH B) M(OH)2 C) MH2 D) MH3 E) MOH ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define a binary hydride. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal
REF: 21.7
68. Which of the following reactions describes the formation of an ionic hydride? A) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l) B) H2(g) + Br2( ) → 2HBr(g) C) 2Li(s) + H2(g) → 2LiH(s) D) H2(g) + C2H4(g) → C2H6(g) E) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define a binary hydride. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: hydrogen | reactions and compounds
REF: 21.7
MSC: general chemistry
69. Which of the following reactions describes the formation of a covalent hydride? A) 2Rb(s) + H2(g) → 2RbH(s) B) 2Li(s) + H2(g) → 2LiH(s) C) Mg(s) + H2(g) → MgH2(s) D) (s) + 6H2(g) → (g) E) 2Al(s) + 3H2(g) → 2AlH3(s) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define a binary hydride. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: hydrogen | reactions and compounds
REF: 21.7
MSC: general chemistry
70. Catenation is A) the ability of a compound to form more than one type of unit-cell structure. B) the transformation of minerals to gems. C) the formation of more than one type of cation, such as Fe2+ and Fe3+. D) the covalent bonding of two or more atoms of the same element to one another. E) the ability of an element to form more than one oxide. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.8 OBJ: Define catenation. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group IVA nonmetal | carbon MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
18
71. Which property of carbon distinguishes it from the other elements in its group? A) the existence of more than one allotrope of carbon B) its four valence electrons C) its nonmetallic character D) the ability of carbon to catenate to a high degree E) the ability of carbon to form more than one oxide ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.8 OBJ: Define catenation. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group IVA nonmetal | carbon MSC: general chemistry 72. Which of the following compounds is not an allotrope of carbon? A) diamond B) All are allotropes of carbon. C) methane D) graphite E) buckminsterfullerene ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.8 OBJ: Describe some allotropes of carbon. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group IVA nonmetal | carbon MSC: general chemistry 73. Which of the following statements concerning oxides of carbon is false? A) Both carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide are produced when an organic substance is burned in an oxygen-lean environment. B) Both carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide are toxic in large quantities. C) Both carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide are colorless. D) Both carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide support most combustion reactions. E) Both carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide are odorless. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.8 OBJ: Describe the chemical properties of the oxides of carbon. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group IVA nonmetal | carbon MSC: general chemistry 74. Highly pure silicon for the manufacture of solid state electronic devices is made on an industrial scale by A) reduction of SiCl4(g) with hydrogen gas. B) reduction of SiO2(s) with coke (amorphous carbon). C) thermal decomposition of SiH4(g). D) reduction of SiCl4(g) with an alkali metal. E) reduction of SiO2(s) with aluminum. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Production of silicon. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 21.8
19
75. Which of the following is not a form of silicon dioxide? A) sand B) quartz C) amethyst D) glass E) silicone ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define silica. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal
REF: 21.8
76. Which of the following is not a possible formula for a silicate anion? A) SiO3– B) Si4O1310– C) Si2O76– D) Si6O1812– E) SiO44– ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 21.8 OBJ: Define silicate, condensation reaction, and silicone. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group IVA nonmetal | silicon MSC: general chemistry 77. What small molecule is the eliminated as part of a condensation reaction? A) H2O B) CO2 C) O2 D) H2 E) HCl ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Define silicate, condensation reaction, and silicone. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal
REF: 21.8
78. Which of the following is not an example of "fixing" nitrogen? A) Scientists combine dinitrogen and hydrogen gases to form ammonia. B) Bacteria convert dinitrogen from the atmosphere into ammonium ion and nitrate ion containing compounds. C) Denitrifying bacteria decompose organic compounds into dinitrogen gas. D) When magnesium combusts in air, some magnesium also reacts with dinitrogen to produce magnesium nitride. E) Lightning strikes in the atmosphere produce nitrogen monoxide from dinitrogen and dioxygen gases. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.9 OBJ: Describe the properties and uses of nitrogen. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VA | nitrogen MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
20
79. Dinitrogen gas is prepared commercially A) from the decomposition of ammonia. B) from the decomposition of magnesium nitride. C) from the electrolytic reduction of ammonium salts. D) from the distillation of air. E) from the electrolytic reduction of nitrate salts. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.9 OBJ: Describe the properties and uses of nitrogen. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VA | nitrogen MSC: general chemistry 80. The oxidation state of nitrogen (given in parentheses) is correct in all the following cases except A) HN3 (–1). B) N2O3 (+3). C) HNO3 (+5). D) NH4+ (–3). E) N2O (+1). ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.9 OBJ: Describe some nitrogen compounds. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VA | nitrogen MSC: general chemistry 81. What is the gas obtained by gently heating NH4NO3? A) N2 B) NO2 C) N2O D) NO3 E) N2O3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.9 OBJ: Describe some nitrogen compounds. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VA | nitrogen MSC: general chemistry 82. Nitric acid can be obtained directly by the reaction of _____________with water. A) N2O B) NO C) N2 D) N2O3 E) N2O5 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.9 OBJ: Describe some nitrogen compounds. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VA | nitrogen MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
21
83. Which of the following equations describes the reaction of copper metal with dilute nitric acid? A) Cu(s) + 4H3O+(aq) + 2NO3–(aq) → Cu2+(aq) + 2NO2(g) + 6H2O(l) B) 4Cu(s) + 10H3O+(aq) + 2NO3–(aq) → 4Cu2+(aq) + N2O(g) + 15H2O(l) C) 5Cu(s) + 12H3O+(aq) + 2NO3–(aq) → 5Cu2+(aq) + N2(g) + 18H2O(l) D) 4Cu(s) + 10H3O+(aq) + NO3–(aq) → 4Cu2+(aq) + NH4+(aq) + 13H2O(l) E) 3Cu(s) + 8H3O+(aq) + 2NO3–(aq) → 3Cu2+(aq) + 2NO(g) + 12H2O(l) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 21.9 OBJ: Describe some nitrogen compounds. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VA | nitrogen MSC: general chemistry 84. Which of the following equations describes the reaction of copper metal with concentrated nitric acid? A) 4Cu(s) + 10H3O+(aq) + NO3–(aq) → 4Cu2+(aq) + NH4+(aq) + 13H2O(l) B) 5Cu(s) + 12H3O+(aq) + 2NO3–(aq) → 5Cu2+(aq) + N2(g) + 18H2O(l) C) Cu(s) + 4H3O+(aq) + 2NO3–(aq) → Cu2+(aq) + 2NO2(g) + 6H2O(l) D) 3Cu(s) + 8H3O+(aq) + 2NO3–(aq) → 3Cu2+(aq) + 2NO(g) + 12H2O(l) E) 4Cu(s) + 10H3O+(aq) + 2NO3–(aq) → 4Cu2+(aq) + N2O(g) + 15H2O(l) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 21.9 OBJ: Describe some nitrogen compounds. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VA | nitrogen MSC: general chemistry 85. In which of the following pairs is the nonmetal oxide the acid anhydride of the acid with which it is paired? A) N2O3 and HNO3 B) N2O5 and HNO3 C) NO2 and HNO3 D) NO2 and HNO2 E) NO and HNO2 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 21.9 OBJ: Describe some nitrogen compounds. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VA | nitrogen MSC: general chemistry 86. Nitric acid is obtained commercially from A) NH3. B) NH4NO3. C) Mg3N2. D) NaNO2. E) CO(NH2)2. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.9 OBJ: Define the Ostwald process. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VA | nitrogen MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
22
87. Which nitrogen-containing compound is produced commercially via the Ostwald process? A) NH4NO3 B) N2O C) NH3 D) NO E) HNO3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.9 OBJ: Define the Ostwald process. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VA | nitrogen MSC: general chemistry 88. The commercial preparation of nitric acid involves a number of reactions. Which of the reaction sequences below summarizes part of this process? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.9 OBJ: Define the Ostwald process. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VA | nitrogen MSC: general chemistry 89. Which of the following statements about ammonia is incorrect? A) Ammonia can be generated on a small scale from the reaction of an ionic nitride with water or by heating a solution of an ammonium salt with a strong base. B) Ammonia is the conjugate acid of the strongly basic nitride ion (N3−). C) Large quantities of ammonia are converted to urea (CO(NH2)2), which is used as a fertilizer, livestock feed supplement, and in the manufacture of some plastics. D) Large amounts of nitric oxide (NO) are produced by the catalytic oxidation of ammonia. E) Ammonia is produced commercially by the Haber process. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define the Ostwald process. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 21.9
23
90. Which of the following statements concerning phosphorus is false? A) At room temperature, white phosphorus is a molecular solid, while red phosphorus is a polymeric form of phosphorus.. B) The molecular formula of white phosphorus is P4. C) Phosphorus is commonly found in phosphate minerals such as fluorapatite. D) Because phosphorus may use 3d orbitals for bonding, it can form the +7 oxidation state. E) White phosphorus spontaneously combusts when exposed to air. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.9 OBJ: Describe the allotropes of phosphorus. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VA | phosphorus MSC: general chemistry 91. A primary industrial purpose of calcium phosphate is A) use as a fungicide. B) direct use as a plant growth supplement. C) use for treatment with sulfuric acid to make fertilizers. D) use as a starting material for PVC plastics. E) use to make phosphorus-containing vitamin pills. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.9 OBJ: Describe the phosphorus oxides and the oxoacids of phosphorus. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VA | phosphorus MSC: general chemistry 92. When P4O10 reacts with water, the product is A) HPO3. B) H4P2O7. C) H3PO2. D) H3PO3. E) H3PO4. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.9 OBJ: Describe the phosphorus oxides and the oxoacids of phosphorus. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VA | phosphorus MSC: general chemistry 93. Which formula–name combination is incorrect? A) H3PO4, orthophosphoric acid B) H5P3O10, pentaphosphoric acid C) H3P3O9, trimetaphosphoric acid D) P4O10, tetraphosphorus decoxide E) H4P2O7, diphosphoric acid ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 21.9 OBJ: Define polyphosphoric acids and metaphosphoric acids. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VA | phosphorus MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
24
94. Polyphosphoric and metaphosphoric acids are made by a series of _____ reactions of orthophosphoric acid. A) condensation B) oxidation C) reduction D) combustion E) precipitation ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Define polyphosphoric acids and metaphosphoric acids. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal
REF: 21.9
95. Which of the following is the acid anhydride of orthophosphoric acid? A) P4O10 B) PO4 C) P4 (white phosphorus) D) P4O6 E) P (red phosphorus) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Define polyphosphoric acids and metaphosphoric acids. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal
REF: 21.9
96. What is the largest source for the commercial preparation of oxygen? A) peroxides B) air C) silicates D) water E) carbonates ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.10 OBJ: Describe the properties and preparation of oxygen. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VIA | oxygen MSC: general chemistry 97. Suppose a metal (M) that is capable of forming +1, +2, and +3 oxidation states is heated and reacted with excess dioxygen gas. What is the most likely result? A) The metal will be oxidized to the +1 oxidation state and form a superoxide compound having the formula MO2. B) The metal will be oxidized to the +1 oxidation state and form a peroxide compound having the formula M2O2. C) The metal will be oxidized to the +2 oxidation state and form a compound having the formula MO. D) The metal will be oxidized to the +1 oxidation state and form a compound having the formula M2O. E) The metal will be oxidized to the +3 oxidation state and form a compound having the formula M2O3.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
25
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 21.10 OBJ: Describe some reactions of oxygen. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VIA | oxygen MSC: general chemistry 98. Which of the following compounds would not be expected to react with oxygen? A) NH3 B) N2H4 C) N2O5 D) N2O4 E) Li3N ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.10 OBJ: Describe some reactions of oxygen. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VIA | oxygen MSC: general chemistry 99. Which of the following elements is least likely to form a stable oxide? A) Fe B) Ca C) S8 D) P4 E) He ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe some reactions of oxygen. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal
REF: 21.10
100. Which of the following compounds is a peroxide? A) Al2O3 B) Na2O2 C) BaO D) SiO2 E) Na2O ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.10 OBJ: Define oxide, peroxide, and superoxide. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VIA | oxygen MSC: general chemistry 101. A superoxide ion can be distinguished from the peroxide ion and the oxide ion because A) the superoxide ion is stable. B) the superoxide ion is paramagnetic. C) the superoxide ion is diamagnetic. D) the superoxide ion is an acid. E) the superoxide ion is a base.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 21.10 OBJ: Define oxide, peroxide, and superoxide. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VIA | oxygen MSC: general chemistry 102. Which of the following is not an allotropic form of sulfur? A) S10 B) S6 C) S2 D) S4 E) S8 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the allotropes of sulfur. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal sulfur MSC: general chemistry
REF: 21.10 KEY: group VIA |
103. Which of the following statements concerning sulfur is incorrect? A) Sulfur exists in different allotropic forms. B) Sulfur is readily soluble in water. C) Sulfur has common oxidation states of –2, 0, +4, and +6. D) Sulfur may act as either an oxidizing agent or a reducing agent. E) Sulfur may exist as S8 molecules. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the allotropes of sulfur. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal sulfur MSC: general chemistry
REF: 21.10 KEY: group VIA |
104. The process of using superheated water to melt underground deposits of sulfur and force them to the surface is called A) the Claus process. B) the Frasch process. C) the Dow process. D) the steam-reforming process. E) the contact process. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define the Frasch process and the Claus process. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal sulfur MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 21.10 KEY: group VIA |
27
105. The process by which free sulfur is obtained by the partial burning of hydrogen sulfide is called A) the Frasch process. B) the Dow process. C) the Claus process. D) the Ostwald process. E) the contact process. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define the Frasch process and the Claus process. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal sulfur MSC: general chemistry
REF: 21.10 KEY: group VIA |
106. Which of the following statements about sulfur is incorrect? A) The complete combustion of sulfur produces sulfur trioxide as the major product. B) In the Frasch process, underground deposits of sulfur are melted and forced to the surface under pressure. C) In the first step of the contact process, sulfur trioxide is produced from sulfur dioxide and oxygen using a vanadium catalyst. D) Sulfur dioxide produced from the combustion of fossil fuels has been implicated in respiratory ailments. E) In the Claus process, free sulfur is obtained by the partial burning of hydrogen sulfide. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the sulfur oxides and oxoacids. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal sulfur MSC: general chemistry
REF: 21.10 KEY: group VIA |
107. In which of the following compounds does sulfur exist in the +4 oxidation state? A) KHSO3 B) Na2S4O6 C) Na2S2O3 D) K2SO4 E) H2S2O8 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the sulfur oxides and oxoacids. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal sulfur MSC: general chemistry
REF: 21.10 KEY: group VIA |
108. Which of the following is not a commercial use for sulfur dioxide? A) in the preparation of sulfuric acid B) as a disinfectant C) as a bleaching agent for wood pulp D) in a fire extinguisher E) as a food preservative Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
28
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the sulfur oxides and oxoacids. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal sulfur MSC: general chemistry
REF: 21.10 KEY: group VIA |
109. Which molecule does not have a bent molecular geometry? A) H2O B) SO2 C) N2O D) O3 E) H2S ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Molecules of nitrogen and oxygen TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal
REF: 21.10
110. Which of the following statements concerning elemental chlorine is incorrect? A) Cl2 is used to purify water. B) Cl2 is used in the preparation of polyvinyl chloride. C) Cl2 is used in the production of bleaching agents. D) Cl2 is used for the preparation of NaCl. E) Cl2 is used in the preparation of Br2. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.11 OBJ: Describe chlorine and its properties, preparation, and uses. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VIIA halogen | chlorine MSC: general chemistry 111. Which of the following ions are oxidized by chlorine gas in an aqueous solution? A) F− only B) Br− only C) I− only D) Br− and I− E) I−, Br−, and F− ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.11 OBJ: Describe chlorine and its properties, preparation, and uses. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal 112. Most HCl(g) is obtained commercially A) by reaction of MnO2 with concentrated HCl. B) by reaction of NaCl with concentrated H2SO4. C) by electrolysis of NaCl. D) by distillation of HCl(aq). E) as a by-product from the chlorination of hydrocarbons.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
29
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.11 OBJ: Describe chlorine and its properties, preparation, and uses. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal 113. Which of the following statements concerning chlorine and its compounds is false? A) At high temperatures, perchloric acid decomposes explosively. B) Chlorine is a weaker oxidizing agent than either bromine or iodine. C) Common bleach is a solution of sodium hypochlorite. D) Hydrogen chloride gas is commercially prepared by heating sodium chloride with concentrated sulfuric acid. E) In aqueous solution, chlorine disproportionates in basic solution to form chloride and hypochlorite. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.11 OBJ: Describe chlorine and its properties, preparation, and uses. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VIIA halogen | chlorine MSC: general chemistry 114. Which of the following reactions is a disproportionation? A) CaSiO3(s) + 8HCl(aq) → H2SiCl6(aq) + CaCl2(aq) + 3H2O(l) B) Cl2(aq) + 2I–(aq) → I2(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) C) HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) D) AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq) E) Cl2(g) + 2NaOH(aq) → NaClO(aq) + NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 21.11 OBJ: Describe the preparation and uses of the oxoacids of chlorine. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VIIA halogen | chlorine MSC: general chemistry 115. In hot, basic solution, the hypochlorite ion is unstable. What are the products of its decomposition? A) HCl(aq) and Cl2(g) B) ClO3–(aq) and ClO4–(aq) C) Cl–(aq) and Cl2(g) D) ClO2–(aq) and ClO3–(aq) E) Cl–(aq) and ClO3–(g) ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.11 OBJ: Describe the preparation and uses of the oxoacids of chlorine. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VIIA halogen | chlorine MSC: general chemistry 116. What is the acid anhydride of perchloric acid? A) Cl2O B) Cl2O3 C) Cl2O7 D) Cl2O5 E) ClO2
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
30
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.11 OBJ: Describe the preparation and uses of the oxoacids of chlorine. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VIIA halogen | chlorine MSC: general chemistry 117. Which of the noble gases was detected in the spectrum of the sun before it was ever isolated on earth? A) neon B) krypton C) xenon D) argon E) helium ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.12 OBJ: Describe the discovery, preparation, and uses of the noble gases. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VIIIA noble gas | helium MSC: general chemistry 118. Which of the noble gases is not obtained commercially by distillation of liquid air? A) krypton B) neon C) helium D) argon E) xenon ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.12 OBJ: Describe the discovery, preparation, and uses of the noble gases. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VIIIA noble gas | helium MSC: general chemistry 119. Which of the following noble gases has, thus far, eluded formation of a compound? A) xenon B) radon C) krypton D) neon E) argon ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 21.12 OBJ: Describe some compounds of the noble gases. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal KEY: group VIIIA noble gas | neon MSC: general chemistry 120. What is the principal source of commercial helium? A) Certain natural gas wells. B) Fractional distillation of air. C) It is a byproduct of commercial fusion research. D) It is a byproduct of commercial fission reactors. E) The mineral cleveite, a uranium ore.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe some compounds of the noble gases. TOP: main group chemistry | main-group nonmetal
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 21.12
32
Chapter 22 - The Transition Elements and Coordination Compounds 1. Which of the following is not a transition-metal? A) cobalt B) ruthenium C) rhodium D) vanadium E) aluminum ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Identify the transition elements on the periodic table. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends
REF: 22.1 MSC: general chemistry
2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the transition metals? A) variable oxidation state B) the ability to form many colored compounds C) valence electrons in a d subshell D) high electronegativity E) the ability to form complex ions ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.1 OBJ: State the three characteristics that set the transition elements apart from the maingroup elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends MSC: general chemistry 3. Which of the following is not a characteristic property of transition-element compounds? A) Most of them are colored. B) Most of them are paramagnetic. C) Most of the metals exhibit multiple oxidation states. D) Most of the elements form many complexes. E) Most of the elements, upon ionizing, lose the d electrons first. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.1 OBJ: State the three characteristics that set the transition elements apart from the maingroup elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends MSC: general chemistry 4. Transition metals can be distinguished from main-group metals by the fact that A) main-group metals have only +1 or +2 oxidation states. B) transition metals have higher relative atomic masses than main-group metals. C) transition metals have a greater tendency to form colored compounds than maingroup metals. D) main-group metals have higher relative atomic masses than transition metals. E) only the main-group metals can form complex ions. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.1 OBJ: State the three characteristics that set the transition elements apart from the maingroup elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
1
5. An element with the electron configuration [Xe]6s24f145d7 would belong to which class on the periodic table? A) rare-earth elements B) transition elements C) alkaline-earth elements D) halogens E) none of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.1 OBJ: Write electron configurations of the transition elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends KEY: electron configuration MSC: general chemistry 6. Ti has __________ in its d orbitals. A) 1 electron B) 2 electrons C) 3 electrons D) 4 electrons E) none of these ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.1 OBJ: Write electron configurations of the transition elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends KEY: electron configuration MSC: general chemistry 7. Fe has __________ that is(are) unpaired in its d orbitals. A) 3 electrons B) 4 electrons C) 1 electron D) 2 electrons E) 5 electrons ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.1 OBJ: Write electron configurations of the transition elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends KEY: electron configuration MSC: general chemistry 8. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d2 is the correct electron configuration for which of the following atoms? A) Ti B) Ca C) Ge D) Zr E) none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.1 OBJ: Write electron configurations of the transition elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends KEY: electron configuration MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
2
9. The phenomenon called __________ contraction is responsible for the great similarity in atomic size and chemistry of 4d and 5d elements. A) coordination B) isomeric C) lanthanide D) transition E) none of these ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.1 OBJ: Describe trends in atomic radii of the transition elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends KEY: atomic radii MSC: general chemistry 10. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning the 3d, 4d, and 5d transition series? A) There is a large increase in radius in going from the 3d to the 4d metals. B) There is a general increase in size going left to right across each series due to an increasing number of electrons. C) Hafnium through mercury exhibit what is referred to as the lanthanide contraction. D) The separation of hafnium and zirconium found together in nature is difficult due to their similar chemistries, which are attributed to their virtually identical sizes. E) The transition metal from a period 6 group is similar in size to the peroid 5 transition metal sitting above it on the periodic table. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 22.1 OBJ: Describe trends in atomic radii of the transition elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends KEY: atomic radii MSC: general chemistry 11. What is the maximum oxidation state expected for chromium? A) +6 B) +3 C) +4 D) +7 E) +5 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.1 OBJ: Learn the common oxidation states of the fourth-period transition elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends KEY: oxidation state MSC: general chemistry 12. Which of the following first-row transition elements is not able to have a +3 oxidation state? A) Sc B) Cr C) V D) Zn E) Fe
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
3
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.1 OBJ: Learn the common oxidation states of the fourth-period transition elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends KEY: oxidation state MSC: general chemistry 13. What is the maximum oxidation state for rhenium, Re? A) 6 B) 3 C) 2 D) 7 E) 4 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.1 OBJ: Learn the common oxidation states of the fourth-period transition elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends KEY: oxidation state MSC: general chemistry 14. What is the maximum oxidation state for niobium, Nb? A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 6 E) 5 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.1 OBJ: Learn the common oxidation states of the fourth-period transition elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends KEY: oxidation state MSC: general chemistry 15. What is the maximum oxidation number for chromium? A) 7 B) 4 C) 6 D) 5 E) 8 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.1 OBJ: Learn the common oxidation states of the fourth-period transition elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends KEY: oxidation state MSC: general chemistry 16. In which of the following compounds is the metal atom not in a common oxidation state? A) CrOCl2 B) NiF2 C) CuI D) Zn(NO3)2 E) MnSO4
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
4
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 22.1 OBJ: Learn the common oxidation states of the fourth-period transition elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends KEY: oxidation state MSC: general chemistry 17. A property that many representative nonmetals and many transition elements share is that they both have A) color in many compounds. B) many paramagnetic compounds. C) high electronegativities. D) many compounds that observe the octet rule. E) many oxidation states. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.1 OBJ: Learn the common oxidation states of the fourth-period transition elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends KEY: oxidation state MSC: general chemistry 18. All of the following elements have the oxidation states listed except A) Ti, +3. B) Zn, +3. C) V, +3. D) Co, +3. E) Fe, +3. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.1 OBJ: Learn the common oxidation states of the fourth-period transition elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends KEY: oxidation state MSC: general chemistry 19. In which compound is cobalt in the highest oxidation state? A) Co2(CO)8 B) [Co(NH3)6]Cl2 C) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl D) Na2[CoCl4] E) K4[CoF6] ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.1 OBJ: Learn the common oxidation states of the fourth-period transition elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends KEY: oxidation state MSC: general chemistry 20. The oxidation number of which of the following elements is often +2 but can be as great as +7? A) manganese B) cobalt C) aluminum D) bismuth E) chromium
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
5
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.1 OBJ: Learn the common oxidation states of the fourth-period transition elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends KEY: oxidation state MSC: general chemistry 21. Which of the following statements about transition metals is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
The sixth period elements have higher ionization energies than the fourth and fifth period element in their respective groups. The total number of oxidation states observed for a fourth period element is greatest for manganese (group VIIB). Covalent radii uniformly decrease from left to right across each period.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.1 OBJ: Learn the common oxidation states of the fourth-period transition elements. TOP: transition elements | periodic trends 22. Which of the following is a dark green solid? A) CrO3 B) KCr(SO4)2·12H2O C) Na2Cr2O7 D) Na2CrO4 E) Cr2O3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.2 OBJ: Learn some of the common chromium compounds and their chemistry. TOP: transition elements MSC: general chemistry 23. What is the principal ore of chromium? A) chromite B) chromate C) chrome alum D) stibnite E) hematite ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.2 OBJ: Learn some of the common chromium compounds and their chemistry. TOP: transition elements
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
6
24. Which of the following is a product of the acidification of sodium chromate? A) CrO42-(aq) B) Cr2O72-(aq) C) Cr3+(aq) D) CrO3(s) E) Cr(s) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.2 OBJ: Learn some of the common chromium compounds and their chemistry. TOP: transition elements 25. Copper metal can be oxidized by which of the following acids? A) H3PO4 B) HI C) H2SO4 D) CH3COOH E) HBr ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.2 OBJ: Learn some of the common copper compounds and their chemistry. TOP: transition elements MSC: general chemistry 26. Common ores of copper may contain which of the following forms of copper? 1. 2. 3.
The free metal or native copper (Cu(s)) Cu2O(s) and CuO(s) CuS(s)
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.2 OBJ: Learn some of the common copper compounds and their chemistry. TOP: transition elements 27. In which of these pairs of elements can both elements normally exhibit multiple oxidation states? A) K and O B) Cs and Cl C) Mg and Se D) Co and Cu E) Sc and Al ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.2 OBJ: Learn some of the common copper compounds and their chemistry. TOP: transition elements MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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28. Which of the following coordination compounds will immediately form a precipitate when combined with an AgNO3 solution? A) K[Cr(NH3)2Cl4] B) K3[Cr(CN)6] C) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 D) [Cr(NH3)2(H2O)Cl3] E) [Cr(NH3)3Cl3] ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 22.3 OBJ: Define complex ion, complex (coordination compound), ligand, and coordination number. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure of complex | formula of a complex MSC: general chemistry 29. The formula for a platinum(IV) complex is [Pt(NH3)2Br2]Cl2. In aqueous solution, it will dissociate into A) 5 ions. B) 4 ions. C) 6 ions. D) 2 ions. E) 3 ions. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.3 OBJ: Define complex ion, complex (coordination compound), ligand, and coordination number. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure of complex | formula of a complex MSC: general chemistry 30. What is the oxidation state of iron in K4[Fe(CN)6]? A) 3 B) 2 C) 4 D) −4 E) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.3 OBJ: Define complex ion, complex (coordination compound), ligand, and coordination number. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds 31. Which of the following is a necessary characteristic of a ligand? A) A ligand must be an anion. B) A ligand must be an ion. C) A ligand must be a Lewis base. D) A ligand must be bidentate. E) A ligand must be a Lewis acid.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.3 OBJ: Define complex ion, complex (coordination compound), ligand, and coordination number. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure of complex | ligand MSC: general chemistry 32. The bond between a metal cation and a ligand is best classified as a(n) A) polar covalent bond. B) ionic bond. C) nonpolar covalent bond. D) polydentate bond. E) coordinate covalent bond. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.3 OBJ: Define complex ion, complex (coordination compound), ligand, and coordination number. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure of complex | basic definitions MSC: general chemistry 33. In which of the following ions does the metal ion have a 3d7 electron configuration? A) [NiCl4]2– B) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ C) [CoCl4]2– D) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ E) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.3 OBJ: Define complex ion, complex (coordination compound), ligand, and coordination number. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure of complex | formula of a complex MSC: general chemistry 34. What is the coordination number of iron in K3[Fe(ox)3]?
ox =
A) 6 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 2
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
9
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 22.3 OBJ: Define complex ion, complex (coordination compound), ligand, and coordination number. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds 35. What is the coordination number of cobalt in [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl?
en = A) 6 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 7 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 22.3 OBJ: Define complex ion, complex (coordination compound), ligand, and coordination number. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds 36. In complexes of platinum(IV), the coordination number is usually A) 3. B) 4. C) 6. D) 2. E) 1. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 22.3 OBJ: Define complex ion, complex (coordination compound), ligand, and coordination number. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure of complex | basic definitions MSC: general chemistry 37. The freezing point of an aqueous 0.050 m solution of a platinum(IV) complex having the molecular formula Pt(NH3)3Cl4 is –0.19°C. Which of the following equations best represents what happens when Pt(NH3)3Cl4 dissociates in water? (Kf for water is 1.86°C/m.) A) Pt(NH3)3Cl4(s) → [Pt(NH3)3Cl2]2+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) B) Pt(NH3)3Cl4(s) → [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]+(aq) + Cl–(aq) C) Pt(NH3)3Cl4(s) → [Pt(NH3)3Cl]3+(aq) + 3Cl–(aq) D) Pt(NH3)3Cl4(s) → [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]2+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq) + NH3(aq) E) Pt(NH3)3Cl4(s) → Pt4+(aq) + 4Cl–(aq) + 3NH3(aq) ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 22.3 OBJ: Define complex ion, complex (coordination compound), ligand, and coordination number. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure of complex | formula of a complex MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
10
38. Which of the following species is least likely to function as a ligand in a transition-metal coordination compound? A) NH3 B) CO32– C) H2O D) BF3 E) Cl– ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.3 OBJ: Give examples of a monodentate ligand, bidentate ligand, and polydentate ligand. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure of complex | ligand MSC: general chemistry 39. Ag+ forms many complexes with a coordination number of 2. Some of these are [Ag(NH3)2]+, [Ag(CN)2]–, and [Ag(S2O3)2]3–. Which of the following statements is true? A) The hybridization of Ag+ is sp2. B) In these complexes, Ag+ is a Lewis base. C) In these complexes, the ligands are monodentate. D) The hybridization of Ag+ is dsp. E) The Ag+ complexes are good reducing agents. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.3 OBJ: Give examples of a monodentate ligand, bidentate ligand, and polydentate ligand. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure of complex | ligand MSC: general chemistry 40. Which of the following liquids could best act as a bidentate ligand for a metal ion? A) NH2Cl B) NH3 C) ClCH2CH2NH2 D) N2H5+ E) H2NCH2CH2NH2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.3 OBJ: Give examples of a monodentate ligand, bidentate ligand, and polydentate ligand. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure of complex | ligand MSC: general chemistry 41. Which of the following Lewis bases may not serve as a bidentate ligand? A) C2O42– B) NH2CH2CH2NH2 C) HOCH2CH2NH2 D) HOCH2CH2OH E) CH3NH2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.3 OBJ: Give examples of a monodentate ligand, bidentate ligand, and polydentate ligand. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure of complex | ligand MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
11
42. What is the correct IUPAC name for [AuCl4(H2O)2]–? A) diaquatetrachloroaurate(I) ion B) diaquatetrachloroaurate(III) ion C) diaquatetrachloroaurate(0) ion D) diaquatetrachlorogold(III) ion E) diaquatetrachlorogold(I) ion ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.4 OBJ: Write the IUPAC name given the structural formula of a coordination compound. (Example 22.1) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: naming coordination compounds MSC: general chemistry 43. What is the correct formula for sodium tetrachlorocuprate(II)? A) Na3[CuCl4] B) Na2[CuCl4] C) Na[CuCl4] D) Na4[CuCl4] E) Na2[CuCl6] ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.4 OBJ: Write the structural formula given the IUPAC name of a coordination compound. (Example 22.2) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: naming coordination compounds MSC: general chemistry 44. What is the formula for the hexaaquacobalt(II) ion? A) [Co(H2O)6]2+ B) [Co(H2O)4]2+ C) [Co2(H2O)6]4– D) [Co2(H2O)6]2+ E) [Co2(H2O)6]4+ ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.4 OBJ: Write the structural formula given the IUPAC name of a coordination compound. (Example 22.2) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: naming coordination compounds MSC: general chemistry 45. What is the formula for the pentaamminehydroxovanadium(II) ion? A) [V(NH3)5(OH)5]2+ B) [V(NH3)5(OH)5]3– C) [V(NH3)5(OH)]2+ D) [V(NH3)5(OH)]+ E) [V(NH3)(OH)5]3– ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.4 OBJ: Write the structural formula given the IUPAC name of a coordination compound. (Example 22.2) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: naming coordination compounds MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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46. Which of the following are constitutional isomers? I. coordination isomers II. linkage isomers III. geometric isomers IV. optical isomers A) I, III, and IV B) II and III C) I and II D) I and III only E) II and IV only ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.5 OBJ: Define constitutional isomers, stereoisomers, and geometric isomers. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure and isomerism in coordination compounds | constitutional isomerism MSC: general chemistry 47. The complexes [Ni(NH3)5Cl]Br and [Ni(NH3)5Br]Cl are what type of isomers? A) geometric isomers B) constitutional isomers C) stereoisomers D) linkage isomers E) optical isomers ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.5 OBJ: Define constitutional isomers, stereoisomers, and geometric isomers. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds 48. How many geometric isomers are possible for the square planar complex [Pt(NH3)2BrCl]? A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 1 E) 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.5 OBJ: Decide whether geometric isomers are possible. (Example 22.3) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure and isomerism in coordination compounds | stereoisomerism MSC: general chemistry 49. What is the total number of geometric isomers possible for the octahedral complex [Co(NH3)3(H2O)3]? A) 1 B) 4 C) 5 D) 2 E) 3 Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.5 OBJ: Decide whether geometric isomers are possible. (Example 22.3) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure and isomerism in coordination compounds | stereoisomerism MSC: general chemistry 50. Which complex is capable of forming geometric isomers? A) K3[FeCl6] B) [Co(NH3)5Br]Br2 C) [Co(NH3)6]Br3 D) [Pd(NH3)2Br2] E) [Pt(NH3)4]Br2 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.5 OBJ: Decide whether geometric isomers are possible. (Example 22.3) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure and isomerism in coordination compounds | stereoisomerism MSC: general chemistry 51. Molecules that have nonsuperimposable mirror images are A) multidentate. B) racemic. C) dextrorotatory. D) chiral. E) levorotatory. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.5 OBJ: Define enantiomers (optical isomers). TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure and isomerism in coordination compounds | stereoisomerism MSC: general chemistry 52. Which of the following complexes can exhibit optical isomerism? (en = H2N—CH2— CH2—NH2 and is bidentate) A) Co(NH3)3Cl3 B) cis-Co(en)2Cl2 C) trans-Co(en)2Br2 D) cis-Co(NH3)4Cl2 E) none of these ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.5 OBJ: Decide whether optical isomers are possible. (Example 22.4) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure and isomerism in coordination compounds | stereoisomerism MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
14
53. How many optical isomers do the cis and trans isomers of [Co(en)2Br2]+ have? A) cis, 1 and trans, 1 B) cis, 2 and trans, 0 C) cis, 0 and trans, 0 D) cis, 0 and trans, 2 E) cis, 2 and trans, 2 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 22.5 OBJ: Decide whether optical isomers are possible. (Example 22.4) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure and isomerism in coordination compounds | stereoisomerism MSC: general chemistry 54. Which of the following compounds can exhibit optical activity? A) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl B) [Co(NH2CH2CH2NH2)3]Cl3 C) Na2[CoCl4] D) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 E) Cr(CO)6 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.5 OBJ: Decide whether optical isomers are possible. (Example 22.4) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: structure and isomerism in coordination compounds | stereoisomerism MSC: general chemistry 55. What bond hybridization is associated with octahedral complexes? A) d2sp3 B) sp3 C) sp D) dsp3 E) dsp2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.6 OBJ: Write the orbital diagram of a transition metal ion in a complex. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: valence bond theory of complexes MSC: general chemistry 56. Which of the following best describes the complex [Mn(H2O)6]2+? A) sp3 hybridization; diamagnetic B) d2sp3 hybridization; diamagnetic C) d2sp3 hybridization; paramagnetic D) dsp3 hybridization; diamagnetic E) sp3 hybridization; paramagnetic ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.6 OBJ: Write the orbital diagram of a transition metal ion in a complex. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: valence bond theory of complexes MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
15
57. Which of the following high-spin complexes has the most unpaired electrons? A) [Ti(H2O)6]2+ B) [V(H2O)6]3+ C) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ D) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ E) [Sc(H2O)]63+ ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.6 OBJ: Write the orbital diagram of a transition metal ion in a complex. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: valence bond theory of complexes MSC: general chemistry 58. According to valence bond theory, what hybrid orbitals are occupied by the ligands in the complex [Mn(H2O)6]2+? A) dsp3 B) sp3 C) d2sp3 D) sp2 E) dsp2 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 22.6 OBJ: Write the orbital diagram of a transition metal ion in a complex. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: valence bond theory MSC: general chemistry 59. Which of the metal ions in the following complex ions has a d5 electron configuration? A) V(H2O)62+ B) RhCl64– C) Co(CN)4– D) Fe(CN)63– E) Mo(NH3)63+ ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.6 OBJ: Write the orbital diagram of a transition metal ion in a complex. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: valence bond theory of complexes MSC: general chemistry 60. In which of the following complexes does the transition metal have a d8 configuration? A) Cu(H2O)62+ B) Fe(CN)63– C) Ni(CO)4 D) PtCl42– E) Zn(NH3)42+ ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.6 OBJ: Write the orbital diagram of a transition metal ion in a complex. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: valence bond theory MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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61. Which of the following describes a d6 metal-ion complex with ligands that bond strongly to the metal ion? A) Pairing energy is less than crystal field splitting, giving a low-spin complex. B) Pairing energy is greater than crystal field splitting, giving a low-spin complex. C) Pairing energy is less than crystal field splitting, giving a high-spin complex. D) A d6 ion has only one possible electron arrangement regardless of the ligands. E) Pairing energy is greater than crystal field splitting, giving a high-spin complex. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 22.7 OBJ: Define crystal field splitting, high-spin complex, low-spin complex, and pairing energy. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: crystal field theory | high-spin and low-spin complex MSC: general chemistry 62. Which combination leads to a high-spin octahedral complex? A) low pairing energy and a weak-bonding ligand B) high pairing energy and a weak-bonding ligand C) moderate pairing energy and a strong-bonding ligand D) high pairing energy and a strong-bonding ligand E) low pairing energy and a strong-bonding ligand ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 22.7 OBJ: Define crystal field splitting, high-spin complex, low-spin complex, and pairing energy. TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: crystal field theory | high-spin and low-spin complex MSC: general chemistry 63. The octahedral complex hexacyanoferrate(III) ion, [Fe(CN)6]3–, is a low-spin complex. How many unpaired electrons does the complex have? A) 5 B) 1 C) 4 D) 0 E) 3 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.7 OBJ: Describe the bonding in an octahedral complex ion (crystal field theory). (Example 22.5) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: crystal field theory | high-spin and low-spin complex MSC: general chemistry 64. If an octahedral iron(II) complex is diamagnetic, which of the following sets of conditions best describes the complex? A) low spin, small B) high spin, large C) low spin, large D) high spin, small E) none of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.7 OBJ: Describe the bonding in an octahedral complex ion (crystal field theory). (Example 22.5) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds Test Bank
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65. How many unpaired electrons are there in an octahedral cobalt(III) complex with weakbonding ligands? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 3 E) 0 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 22.7 OBJ: Describe the bonding in an octahedral complex ion (crystal field theory). (Example 22.5) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: crystal field theory | high-spin and low-spin complex MSC: general chemistry 66. Which of the following compounds is paramagnetic? A) Li4[Fe(NO2)6] B) K3[Co(CN)6] C) K3[ScCl6] D) Na2[TiBr6] E) [Mn(H2O)6]Cl2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 22.7 OBJ: Describe the bonding in an octahedral complex ion (crystal field theory). (Example 22.5) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: crystal field theory | high-spin and low-spin complex MSC: general chemistry 67. A complex ion is a square planar complex. It has a d8 electron configuration. What is the most reasonable d orbital scheme for this complex? A)
B)
C)
D)
E) ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 22.7 OBJ: Describe the bonding in a four-coordinate complex ion (crystal field theory). (Example 22.6) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: crystal field theory | tetrahedral and square planar complexes MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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68. The complex ion NiCl42– is tetrahedral. The number of unpaired electrons in the complex is A) 2. B) 3. C) 0. D) 4. E) 1. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 22.7 OBJ: Describe the bonding in a four-coordinate complex ion (crystal field theory). (Example 22.6) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: crystal field theory | tetrahedral and square planar complexes MSC: general chemistry 69. How many unpaired electrons are there in the tetrahedral complex ion [FeCl4]–? A) 3 B) 2 C) 1 D) 4 E) 5 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 22.7 OBJ: Describe the bonding in a four-coordinate complex ion (crystal field theory). (Example 22.6) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: crystal field theory | tetrahedral and square planar complexes MSC: general chemistry 70. Which of the following salts would not be expected to be colored in aqueous solution? A) NiCl2 B) CuCl2 C) CrCl2 D) TiCl3 E) CdCl2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.7 OBJ: Predict the relative wavelengths of absorption of complex ions. (Example 22.7) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds 71. Which of the following salts would not be expected to be colored in aqueous solution? A) CoCl2 B) FeCl2 C) CuCl2 D) CuCl E) CrCl3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.7 OBJ: Predict the relative wavelengths of absorption of complex ions. (Example 22.7) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: crystal field theory | visible spectra of transition-metal complexes MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
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72. Which of the following salts would not be expected to be colored in aqueous solution? A) CrF3 B) NiF2 C) TiF3 D) ScF3 E) MnF3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.7 OBJ: Predict the relative wavelengths of absorption of complex ions. (Example 22.7) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: crystal field theory | visible spectra of transition-metal complexes MSC: general chemistry 73. Which of the following salts would be expected to be colored in aqueous solution? A) AlI3 B) CuI C) TiCl4 D) CrCl2 E) ScI3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.7 OBJ: Predict the relative wavelengths of absorption of complex ions. (Example 22.7) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds KEY: crystal field theory | visible spectra of transition-metal complexes MSC: general chemistry 74. Which of the following statements concerning crystal field theory is incorrect? A) In an isolated metal ion the d-orbitals have identical energies. B) In low spin octahedral complexes the electrons are concentrated in the dxy, dxz, and dyz orbitals. C) High spin complexes have the minimum of unpaired electrons. D) Strong bonding ligands favor a larger crystal field splitting () than weak bonding ligands. E) Low spin complexes are favored when the electron pairing energy (P) is less than the crystal field splitting (). ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.7 OBJ: Predict the relative wavelengths of absorption of complex ions. (Example 22.7) TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds 75. Which of the following statements concerning crystal field theory is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
The visible absorption maxima of transition metal coordination complexes are a measure of the crystal field splitting (). As the crystal field splitting () of a coordination complex increases, the wavelength of visible light absorbed decreases. All tetrahedral complexes are high spin.
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 22.7 OBJ: Crystal Field Theory TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds 76. The spectrochemical series is an arrangement of A) ligands in order of their tendency to split the d orbitals of a transition metal ion. B) coordination compounds in order of increasing ligand field splitting (). C) complex ions in order of the wavelength of light absorbed. D) ligands in the order of electronegativity. E) ligands in order of Lewis basicity. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 22.7 OBJ: Spectrochemical Series TOP: transition elements | complex ions and coordination compounds
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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Chapter 23 - Organic Chemistry 1. Which of the following structures is incorrect? A)
B)
C) D)
E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the ways in which carbon typically bonds. TOP: carbon atom | bonding characteristics
REF: 23.1 MSC: organic chemistry
2. Which of the following statements concerning hydrocarbons is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Saturated hydrocarbons may be cyclic or acyclic molecules. An unsaturated hydrocarbon molecule contains at least one double bond. Ethylenediamine, H2NCH2CH2NH2, is an example of a saturated hydrocarbon.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the ways in which carbon typically bonds. TOP: carbon atom | bonding characteristics
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 23.1
1
3. What is the molecular geometry around each carbon atom in a saturated hydrocarbon? A) tetrahedral B) trigonal planar C) trigonal bipyramidal D) linear E) bent ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.1 OBJ: Define saturated hydrocarbon, unsaturated hydrocarbon, and aromatic hydrocarbon. TOP: carbon atom | bonding characteristics 4. Which of the following molecules has the longest carbon–carbon bond distance? A) C6H6 B) H2CCO C) H2CCH2 D) H3CCH3 E) HCCH ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define alkane and cycloalkane. MSC: organic chemistry
DIF: moderate REF: 23.2 TOP: alkane | structural characteristic
5. Which of the following is an example of a condensed formula of an alkane? A) C3H8 B)
C)
D)
E) CH3CH2CH2CH3 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Define alkane and cycloalkane.
Test Bank
DIF: moderate REF: 23.2 TOP: alkane | structural characteristic
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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6. Which of the following is the general formula for an alkane? A) CnH2n+2 B) C2nH2n-2 C) CnHn D) CnH2n E) none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.2 OBJ: Know the general formula of an alkane. TOP: alkane | structural characteristic MSC: organic chemistry 7. All of the following molecules except _________ make up a homologous series. CHA) 3C H2CH2CH2CH2CH3 B) CH3CH2CH3 C) CH3CH2CH2CH3 D) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 E) CH3CHCHCH3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.2 OBJ: Give examples of alkanes in a homologous series. TOP: alkane | structural characteristic MSC: organic chemistry 8. Based on the three condensed structural formulas below, which of the following statements is true? 1 2 3
A) Formulas 2 and 3 describe enantiomers. B) Formulas 1 and 3 describe different compounds. C) Formulas 1 and 2 describe structural isomers. D) Formulas 1, 2, and 3 all describe the same compound. E) Formulas 2 and 3 describe geometric isomers. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.2 OBJ: Define constitutional (structural) isomers. TOP: alkane | isomerism KEY: branched-chain alkane MSC: organic chemistry 9. How many structural isomers have the molecular formula C6H14? A) 5 B) 2 C) 4 D) 1 E) 3
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Define constitutional (structural) isomers. TOP: alkane | isomerism
easy
REF: 23.2
10. Which of the following statements is true concerning the two compounds 2,3dimethylpentane and 2,4-dimethylpentane? A) Because the two compounds are structural isomers, they should have the same molecular formula. B) Because the two compounds are structural isomers, they should have identical chemical properties. C) Because the two compounds are structural isomers, they should have identical physical properties. D) Because the two compounds are enantiomers, they should rotate polarized light in opposite directions. E) Because the two compounds are geometric isomers, one should be cis and the other should be trans. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.2 OBJ: Define constitutional (structural) isomers. TOP: alkane | isomerism KEY: branched-chain alkane MSC: organic chemistry 11. The compounds 2,3-dimethylbutane and 2-methylpentane are A) functional isomers. B) structural isomers. C) unrelated. D) geometric isomers. E) enantiomers. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.2 OBJ: Define constitutional (structural) isomers. TOP: alkane | isomerism KEY: branched-chain alkane MSC: organic chemistry 12. It is possible to write at least two different structural formulas for each of the following molecular formulas except A) C2HCl3. B) C3H7Cl. C) C3H6. D) C4H10. E) C2H2Cl2. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.2 OBJ: Define constitutional (structural) isomers. TOP: carbon atom | structural formula MSC: organic chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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13. Four of the following compounds are structural isomers. Which one is not? A)
B)
C)
D)
E) ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.2 OBJ: Define constitutional (structural) isomers. TOP: alkane | isomerism KEY: branched-chain alkane MSC: organic chemistry 14. How many hydrogen atoms are needed to complete the following hydrocarbon structure?
A) 10 B) 12 C) 8 D) 14 E) 6 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Know the general formula of cyclic cycloalkanes. TOP: cycloalkane | structural characteristic chemistry
REF: 23.2 MSC: organic
15. What is the molecular formula of a cyclic alkane with 6 carbon atoms? A) C6 H14 B) C6 H10 C) C6 H16 D) C6 H12 E) C6 H6 Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Know the general formula of cyclic cycloalkanes. TOP: cycloalkane | structural characteristic chemistry
REF: 23.2 MSC: organic
16. What is the composition of crude oil? A) mostly unsaturated hydrocarbons having 5–12 carbons per molecule B) mostly hydrocarbons, but the precise composition varies widely depending on location C) mostly aromatic hydrocarbons D) mostly saturated hydrocarbons having 5–12 carbons per molecule E) mostly saturated hydrocarbons having 12–20 carbons per molecule ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: State the source of alkanes and cycloalkanes. MSC: organic chemistry
REF: 23.2 TOP: alkane
17. Equal masses of each of the following are reacted with an excess of dioxygen. Which would form the greatest amount of carbon dioxide? A) neopentane B) n-pentane C) isopentane D) Two of these would form equal amounts. E) All of these would form equal amounts. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.2 OBJ: Predict the products of reactions of alkanes with oxygen. TOP: alkane | chemical reaction KEY: combustion MSC: organic chemistry 18. Which of the following is a possible product of the chlorination of butane in the presence of light? A) C4H9Cl2 B) C4H6Cl2 C) C4H10Cl2 D) C4H9Cl E) C4H8Cl ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.2 OBJ: Predict the products of substitution reactions of alkanes with the halogens F2, Br2, and Cl2. TOP: alkane | chemical reaction KEY: halogenation MSC: organic chemistry 19. Which of the following chemical equations represents a substitution reaction? A) C2H4 + Cl2 → ClCH2CH2Cl B) HCOOH + CH3OH → HCOOCH3 + H2O C) CH3OH + 3/2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O D) C2H4 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O E) C2H6 + Cl2 → CH3CH2Cl + HCl
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.2 OBJ: Predict the products of substitution reactions of alkanes with the halogens F2, Br2, and Cl2. TOP: alkane | chemical reaction KEY: halogenation MSC: organic chemistry 20. What is the molecular formula of a straight-chain alkene with 10 carbon atoms? A) C10 H18 B) C10 H24 C) C10 H22 D) C10 H20 E) C10 H10 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.3 OBJ: Know the general formula of alkenes (olefins). TOP: alkene | structural characteristic MSC: organic chemistry 21. What category of hydrocarbons contains a carbon–carbon double bond? A) cycloalkane B) alkyne C) alcohol D) alkane E) alkene ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.3 OBJ: Know the general formula of alkenes (olefins). TOP: alkene | structural characteristic MSC: organic chemistry 22. Which of the following best describes the bonding in ethylene, CH2=CH2? A) The pi electrons are localized above and below a plane defined by the carbon and hydrogen atoms. B) The pi electrons are localized between the two carbons. C) Each carbon atom is sp2 hybridized. D) A and C. E) B and C. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Know the general formula of alkenes (olefins). TOP: alkene | structural characteristic
REF: 23.3
23. The functional group of an alkene consists of A) 3 bonds. B) 1 bond and 1 bond. C) 2 bonds and 1 bond. D) 2 bonds. E) 2 bonds. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.3 OBJ: Know the general formula of alkenes (olefins). TOP: alkene | bonding characteristics MSC: organic chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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24. Which of the following is a geometric isomer of the structure given below?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Define geometric isomers. KEY: cis-trans isomer
DIF: difficult REF: 23.3 TOP: alkene | isomerism MSC: organic chemistry
25. Which of the following structural formulas is not an isomer of cis-2-pentene? A)
B)
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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C)
D)
E)
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: Define geometric isomers. MSC: organic chemistry
DIF: difficult REF: 23.3 TOP: alkene | isomerism
26. How many different isomers are possible for substances having the molecular formula C2H2F2? A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 3 E) 1 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.3 OBJ: Predict cis–trans isomers. (Example 23.2) TOP: alkene | isomerism MSC: organic chemistry 27. Which of the following alkenes is capable of forming cis-trans isomers? A) (CH3)2C = CH2 B) (CH3)2C= CHF C) CH3CH = CH2 D) CH3CH = CF2 E) CHF = CHBr ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.3 OBJ: Predict cis–trans isomers. (Example 23.2) TOP: alkene | isomerism KEY: cis-trans isomer MSC: organic chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
9
28. Which of the following names may represent either a cis or a trans isomer? A) 1-butene B) 1,2-dibromoethene C) 1,1,2-tribromoethene D) 1,1-dibromoethene E) 1-bromo-1-chloroethene ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.3 OBJ: Predict cis–trans isomers. (Example 23.2) TOP: alkene | isomerism KEY: cis-trans isomer MSC: organic chemistry 29. What is the major product upon addition of HF to propene? A) CH3CHFCH2F B) CH3CH2CH3 C) CH3CHFCH3 D) CH3CH2CH2F E) CH3CHF=CH2 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.3 OBJ: Predict the major product of an addition reaction. (Example 23.3) TOP: alkene | chemical reaction KEY: hydrohalogenation MSC: organic chemistry 30. What is the major product after addition of two HCl to propyne, CH3CCH? A) CH3CHClCH2Cl B) CH2ClCH2CH2Cl C) CH3CCl2CH3 D) CH3CH2CCl2H E) CH3CHCl=CH2 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.3 OBJ: Predict the major product of an addition reaction. (Example 23.3) TOP: alkene | chemical reaction 31. What is the expected product from the reaction of 2,3-dimethyl-1-pentene with hydrogen gas? A) 2,2-dimethylpentane B) 2,3-dimethylpentane C) 3,3-dimethylpentane D) 2-methylhexane E) 2,3-dimethyl-2-pentene ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.3 OBJ: Predict the major product of an addition reaction. (Example 23.3) TOP: alkene | chemical reaction KEY: hydrogenation MSC: organic chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
10
32. What is the expected major product from the reaction of 2-methyl-2-pentene with HCl? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.3 OBJ: Predict the major product of an addition reaction. (Example 23.3) TOP: alkene | chemical reaction KEY: hydrohalogenation MSC: organic chemistry 33. What is the molecular formula of a straight-chain alkyne with 7 carbon atoms? A) C7H7 B) C7H18 C) C7H16 D) C7H14 E) C7H12 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.3 OBJ: Know the general formula of alkynes. TOP: alkyne | structural characteristic MSC: organic chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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34. What category of hydrocarbons contains a carbon–carbon triple bond? A) alkane B) aromatic C) alkyne D) alkene E) cycloalkane ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.3 OBJ: Know the general formula of alkynes. TOP: alkyne | structural characteristic MSC: organic chemistry 35. The functional group of an alkyne consists of A) 3 bonds. B) 2 bonds and 1 bond. C) 3 bonds. D) 1 bond and 2 bonds. E) 1 bond and 1 bond. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.3 OBJ: Know the general formula of alkynes. TOP: alkyne | structural characteristic MSC: organic chemistry 36. What is the compound represented by the following structure?
A) cyclohexane, C6H12 B) cyclohexene, C6H10 C) cyclohexatriene, C6H12 D) benzene, C6H6 E) cyclohexatriene, C6H9 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Recognize aromatic hydrocarbon molecules. TOP: aromatic hydrocarbons | structural characteristic
REF: 23.4 MSC: organic chemistry
37. Which of the following statements concerning aromatic hydrocarbons is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Benzene requires a catalyst to undergo an addition reaction with Br2. The pi electrons of benzene are delocalized over the entire carbon ring. Aromaticity leads to decreased stability relative to alkenes.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Recognize aromatic hydrocarbon molecules. TOP: aromatic hydrocarbons | structural characteristic
REF: 23.4
38. What is the purpose of the circle in the condensed formula given below?
A) The circle represents the delocalization of the pi electrons. B) The circle represents the delocalization of both the sigma and pi electrons. C) The circle represents alternating single and double bonds in the ring. D) B and C. E) A, B, and C. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Recognize aromatic hydrocarbon molecules. TOP: aromatic hydrocarbons | structural characteristic
REF: 23.4
39. Which of the following reactions is a substitution reaction? A) C6H6 + F2 → C6H5F + HF B) CH2=CH2 + F2 → CH2FCH2F C) CH2=CH2 + HF → CH3CH2F D) CH2=CH2 + H2 → CH3CH3 E) HCCH + 2F2 → CHF2CHF2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.4 OBJ: Predict the products of substitution reactions of aromatic hydrocarbons. TOP: aromatic hydrocarbons | chemical reaction MSC: organic chemistry 40. What is the most characteristic reaction of benzene? A) addition and elimination B) addition C) oxidation D) reduction E) substitution ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.4 OBJ: Predict the products of substitution reactions of alkanes with the halogens F2, Br2, and Cl2. TOP: aromatic hydrocarbons | chemical reaction MSC: organic chemistry
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41. What is the IUPAC name for the following compound?
A) 4-ethyl-3-methylheptane B) 2,3-diethylhexane C) 3-propyl-4-methylhexane D) 4,5-diethyldecane E) 4-ethyl-5-methylheptane ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.5 OBJ: Write the IUPAC name of an alkane given the structural formula. (Example 23.4) TOP: alkane | nomenclature KEY: IUPAC nomenclature MSC: organic chemistry 42. What is the IUPAC name for the following structural formula?
A) 1,1-dimethyl-2-ethylpropane B) isoheptane C) 2-ethyl-3-methylbutane D) 2-methyl-3-ethylbutane E) 2,3-dimethylpentane ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.5 OBJ: Write the IUPAC name of an alkane given the structural formula. (Example 23.4) TOP: alkane | nomenclature KEY: IUPAC nomenclature MSC: organic chemistry 43. What is the IUPAC name for the molecule given below?
A) trans-3-hexene B) cis-3-hexene C) cis-3-pentene D) cis-3-pentyne E) trans-3-hexyne
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ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.5 OBJ: Write the structural formula of an alkane given the IUPAC name. (Example 23.5) TOP: alkane | nomenclature 44. What is the condensed structural formula of the propyl group? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.5 OBJ: Write the structural formula of an alkane given the IUPAC name. (Example 23.5) TOP: alkane | nomenclature 45. Which is the correct condensed structural formula for 3,3-diethylhexane? A)
B)
C)
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D)
E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.5 OBJ: Write the structural formula of an alkane given the IUPAC name. (Example 23.5) TOP: alkane | nomenclature KEY: IUPAC nomenclature MSC: organic chemistry 46. Which of the following formulas represents butane? A) CH3CH3 B) CH3CH2CH3 C) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 D) CH3CH2CH2CH3 E) CH4 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.5 OBJ: Write the structural formula of an alkane given the IUPAC name. (Example 23.5) TOP: alkane | nomenclature KEY: IUPAC nomenclature MSC: organic chemistry 47. What is the molecular formula of the alkane 2,2,4-trimethylpentane? A) C8H14 B) C8H8 C) C8H16 D) C8H18 E) C8H24 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.5 OBJ: Write the structural formula of an alkane given the IUPAC name. (Example 23.5) TOP: alkane | nomenclature KEY: IUPAC nomenclature MSC: organic chemistry 48. Which is the correct condensed structural formula for 2-methyl-4-propyloctane? A)
B)
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C)
D)
E)
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.5 OBJ: Write the structural formula of an alkane given the IUPAC name. (Example 23.5) TOP: alkane | nomenclature KEY: IUPAC nomenclature MSC: organic chemistry 49. Name the following:
A) 3-methyl-4-pentyne B) 3-methyl-1-pentyne C) 1-hexyne D) 2-ethyl-3-butyne E) 2-ethynyl butane ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.5 OBJ: Learn the additional IUPAC rules for naming alkenes and alkynes. TOP: alkyne | nomenclature KEY: IUPAC nomenclature MSC: organic chemistry 50. CH3C CCH2CH2Cl is named A) 1-chloro-3-pentyne. B) 5-chloro-2-pentyne. C) 5-chloro-2-pentene. D) 1-acetylenyl-3-chloropropane. E) 1-chloro-3-pentene. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.5 OBJ: Learn the additional IUPAC rules for naming alkenes and alkynes. TOP: alkyne | nomenclature KEY: IUPAC nomenclature MSC: organic chemistry Test Bank
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51. Name the following:
A) 1,1,1-trichloro-5-bromo-3-pentene B) 1,1,1-trichloro-5-bromo-2-pentene C) 1-bromo-5,5,5-trichloro-2-pentene D) 1,1,1-trichloro-5-bromo-3-pentyne E) none of these ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.5 OBJ: Write the IUPAC name of an alkene given the structural formula. TOP: alkene | nomenclature KEY: IUPAC nomenclature MSC: organic chemistry 52. Which of the following is not a structural isomer of 1-pentene? A) 1-methyl-cyclobutene B) 2-methyl-2-butene C) 3-methyl-1-butene D) 2-pentene E) cyclopentane ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 23.5 OBJ: Write the IUPAC name of an alkene given the structural formula. TOP: alkene | nomenclature KEY: IUPAC nomenclature MSC: organic chemistry 53. What is the correct structural formula for o-dichlorobenzene? A)
B)
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C)
D)
E)
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.5 OBJ: Learn the nomenclature of aromatic hydrocarbons. TOP: aromatic hydrocarbons | nomenclature KEY: IUPAC nomenclature MSC: organic chemistry 54. What is the correct structure for 1-methyl-4-propylbenzene? A)
B)
C)
D)
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E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.5 OBJ: Learn the nomenclature of aromatic hydrocarbons. TOP: aromatic hydrocarbons | nomenclature KEY: IUPAC nomenclature MSC: organic chemistry 55. Which functional group does not contain an oxygen atom? A) aldehyde B) alkyne C) alcohol D) ester E) ketone ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: Define functional group. MSC: organic chemistry
DIF: easy REF: 23.6 TOP: alkyne | structural characteristic
56. What is the general structural representation of a carboxylic acid? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Define functional group.
Test Bank
DIF: easy REF: 23.6 TOP: alkyne | structural characteristic
General Chemistry, 10th edition
20
57. How many structural isomers possessing the alcohol functional group have the molecular formula C4 H10 O? A) 3 B) 4 C) 1 D) 5 E) 2 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.6 OBJ: Recognize alcohols and ethers by functional group. TOP: alcohol | structural characteristic MSC: organic chemistry 58. How many structural isomers possessing the ether functional group have the molecular formula C5 H12 O? A) 3 B) 5 C) 4 D) more than 5 E) 2 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.6 OBJ: Recognize alcohols and ethers by functional group. TOP: ethers | structural characteristic MSC: organic chemistry 59. Which of the following is a secondary alcohol? A)
B) CH3CH2CH2OCH3 C) (CH3)3COH D)
E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.6 OBJ: Recognize alcohols and ethers by functional group. TOP: alcohol | structural characteristic KEY: secondary alcohol MSC: organic chemistry
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60. What is the hybridization of the carbon in the aldehyde functional group? A) sp2 B) sp3 C) sp D) sp3d E) sp3d2 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Recognize alcohols and ethers by functional group. TOP: carbon atom | bonding characteristics
REF: 23.6
61. Name the following:
A) ethanol B) propanol C) butanol D) 2-butanol E) 2-propanol ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.6 OBJ: Name alcohols using IUPAC rules. TOP: alcohol | nomenclature KEY: IUPAC nomenclature MSC: organic chemistry 62. What is the IUPAC name for the alcohol (CH3)3CCH2CH2OH? A) 3,3-dimethyl-1-butanol B) isopentyl alcohol C) 3,3-dimethyl-1-propanol D) 2-isopropyl-1-ethanol E) isoamyl alcohol ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.6 OBJ: Name alcohols using IUPAC rules. TOP: alcohol | nomenclature KEY: IUPAC nomenclature MSC: organic chemistry 63. What is the common name for the following compound? CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH3 A) 2-pentanone B) pentyl ether C) 2-pentanol D) propoxyethane E) ethyl propyl ether ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Use common names for ethers. MSC: organic chemistry Test Bank
DIF: moderate REF: 23.6 TOP: ethers | nomenclature
General Chemistry, 10th edition
22
64. Which of the following compounds is a ketone? A) CH3OOCH3 B) CH3CH2COCH3 C) CH3CH2COOH D) CH3OCH3 E) CH3CH2OH ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.6 OBJ: Recognize aldehydes and ketones by functional group. TOP: ketone | structural characteristic MSC: organic chemistry
65. The functional group A) aldehydes. B) esters. C) ketones. D) alcohols. E) acids.
is characteristic of
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.6 OBJ: Recognize aldehydes and ketones by functional group. TOP: ketone | structural characteristic MSC: organic chemistry
66. The functional group A) aldehydes. B) esters. C) organic acids. D) peptide linkages. E) ketones.
is characteristic of
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.6 OBJ: Recognize aldehydes and ketones by functional group. TOP: aldehyde | structural characteristic MSC: organic chemistry 67. Which compound is a ketone? A) (CH3)2C(OH)CH3 B) (CH3)2CHCOOH C) (CH3)2CHOCH3 D) (CH3)2CHCHO E) (CH3)2CHCOCH3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.6 OBJ: Recognize aldehydes and ketones by functional group. TOP: ketone | structural characteristic MSC: organic chemistry
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68. What is the IUPAC name for the compound having the following condensed structural formula?
A) 3,4-dimethylpentyl methyl ether B) 3,4-dimethyl-2-hexanol C) 3,4-dimethyl-5-hexanone D) 4-ethyl-3-methyl-2-pentanone E) 3,4-dimethyl-2-hexanone ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.6 OBJ: Name aldehydes and ketones using IUPAC rules. TOP: ketone | nomenclature KEY: IUPAC nomenclature MSC: organic chemistry 69. What is the correct condensed structural formula for 2,4-dimethyl-3-hexanone? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
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ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.6 OBJ: Name aldehydes and ketones using IUPAC rules. TOP: ketone | nomenclature KEY: IUPAC nomenclature MSC: organic chemistry
70. The functional group A) esters. B) organic acids. C) peptide linkages. D) aldehydes. E) ketones.
is characteristic of
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.6 OBJ: Recognize carboxylic acids and esters by functional group. TOP: aldehyde | structural characteristic MSC: organic chemistry
71. The functional group A) ketones. B) peptide linkages. C) organic acids. D) aldehydes. E) esters.
is characteristic of
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.6 OBJ: Recognize carboxylic acids and esters by functional group. TOP: aldehyde | structural characteristic MSC: organic chemistry 72. Which of the following alcohols is a tertiary alcohol? A) HOCH2CH(OH)CH2OH B) CH3CH2CH2OH C) HOCH2CH2OH D) (CH3)3COH E) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.6 OBJ: Recognize alcohols and ethers by functional group. TOP: alcohol | structural characteristic KEY: tertiary alcohol MSC: organic chemistry 73. Which substance is a weak Brønsted–Lowry acid in aqueous solution? A) CH3OCH3 B) CH3COOCH3 C) CH3OH D) CH3NH2 E) CH3COOH
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 23.6 OBJ: Recognize carboxylic acids and esters by functional group. TOP: amines | chemical reaction KEY: acidity MSC: organic chemistry 74. What is the IUPAC name for the substance having the following condensed structural formula? (CH3)3CCH2COOH A) 3,3-dimethyl-1-butanone B) 3,3-dimethylbutanoic acid C) 4,4-dimethylpentanal D) 3,3-dimethylpropanoic acid E) hexanoic acid ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.6 OBJ: Name carboxylic acids and esters using IUPAC rules. TOP: carboxylic acids | nomenclature KEY: IUPAC nomenclature MSC: organic chemistry 75. What is the condensed structural formula for 3-ethyl-2-methyloctanoic acid? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 23.6 OBJ: Name carboxylic acids and esters using IUPAC rules. TOP: carboxylic acids | nomenclature KEY: IUPAC nomenclature MSC: organic chemistry 76. What is the functional group classification of a compound with the general formula given below?
A) amide B) ester C) primary amine D) secondary amine E) tertiary amine ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate OBJ: Recognize amines and amides by functional group. TOP: amines | structural characteristic
REF: 23.7
77. Which substance is a weak Brønsted–Lowry base in aqueous solution? A) CH3COOCH3 B) CH3OCH3 C) CH3COOH D) CH3NH2 E) CH3OH ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Recognize amines and amides by functional group. TOP: amines | chemical reaction KEY: basicity
REF: 23.7 MSC: organic chemistry
78. What are the products of a condensation reaction between a primary amine and a carboxylic acid? A) water and an amide B) water and an ester C) ammonia and an amid D) ammonia and an ester E) an ammonium cation and a carboxylate anion ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Recognize amines and amides by functional group. TOP: amines | chemical reaction
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REF: 23.7
27
Chapter 24 - Polymer Materials: Synthetic and Biological 1. Consider the polymer drawn below:
What monomer(s) could produce the above polymer? A) CH2 = CH2 and CH3CH = CH2 B) CH3CH = CHCH3 C) CH2 = C(CH3)2 D) CO and CH2 = CH2 E) none of these ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define polymer and monomer. MSC: general chemistry
DIF: moderate REF: 24.1 TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer
2. Which of the following statements about polymers is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Polypropylene and polyethylene are high molecular weight alkenes. Addition polymers must be made from monomers which have at least one double or triple bond somewhere in the molecule. Condensation polymerization reactions produce small molecules, like H2O, as byproducts to the polymer formation.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define polymer and monomer.
DIF: moderate REF: 24.1 TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer
3. Which of the following statements about polymers is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Condensation polymers are always formed from a single monomer. Addition polymerization sometimes requires an initiator, such as an organic peroxide. Polyesters are formed from amines and carboxylic acid monomers which have two or more amine and carboxylic acid functional groups per monomer.
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A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: Define polymer and monomer.
DIF: moderate REF: 24.1 TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer
4. The structure of the polymer used in a freezer wrap can mainly be described as follows: [CCl2 —CH2 —CCl2 —CH2 —CCl2 —CH2 —CCl2 —CH2]n Which monomer could produce this polymer? A) Cl2C – CH2 B) CCl2 C) CCl2 = CH2 D) Cl2C = CH2 = CCl2 E) none of these ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define polymer and monomer. MSC: general chemistry
DIF: moderate REF: 24.1 TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer
5. Which of the following is not an addition polymer? A) poly(vinyl chloride) B) polyethylene C) polystyrene D) polypropylene E) polyester ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.1 OBJ: Define addition polymer. TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer KEY: synthesis of organic polymer | addition polymer MSC: general chemistry 6. Which of the following combinations can produce a condensation polymer? (R and R’ are alkyl groups) A) R−OH + HOOC−R’−COOH B) HO−R−OH + R’−COOH C) H2N−R−NH2 + HOOC−R’−COOH D) A and C E) A, B, and C ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define condensation polymer.
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DIF: easy REF: 24.1 TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer
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7. The polymer
is formed by addition of which of the following? A) CH3CH2CH3 B) CH2 = CH – CH3 C) CH3CH = C(CH3)2 D) H2C = CH – CH – CH2 E) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 24.1 OBJ: Define addition polymer. TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer KEY: synthesis of organic polymer | addition polymer MSC: general chemistry 8. For a free-radical addition polymerization, which of the following statements is true? A) Upon polymerization, -bonds are transformed into -bonds. B) The final polymer is a free radical. C) A copolymer is formed between the monomer and the initiator. D) Upon polymerization, -bonds are transformed into -bonds. E) The final polymer must be electrically conducting. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.1 OBJ: Describe free-radical addition. TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer KEY: synthesis of organic polymer | addition polymer MSC: general chemistry 9. What of the following polymers could be produced by the free-radical addition of 1,1difluoroethylene, F2C=CH2? A)
B)
C)
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D)
E)
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.1 OBJ: Describe free-radical addition. TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer KEY: synthesis of organic polymer | addition polymer MSC: general chemistry 10. For the addition polymer poly(vinyl chloride) shown below, what is the chemical structure of the monomer?
A)
D)
B)
E)
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C)
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.1 OBJ: Describe free-radical addition. TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer KEY: synthesis of organic polymer | addition polymer MSC: general chemistry 11. Which of the following statements does not describe natural rubber? A) It is a copolymer. B) Isoprene is the monomer. C) It may be sticky unless it has been vulcanized. D) It is a homopolymer. E) It can be made from the sap of a certain tree. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the nature of natural and synthetic rubber. TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer KEY: synthesis of organic polymer | addition polymer
REF: 24.1
MSC: general chemistry
12. The polymer formed from ethylene glycol (HOCH2CH2OH) and1,3-propanedicarboxylic acid (HOOCCH2COOH) is what type of polymer? I. addition polymer II. condensation polymer III. homopolymer IV. copolymer A) II and IV B) II and III C) I and IV D) I and III E) None of these; it's a polyamide. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Define homopolymer and copolymer. TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer KEY: synthesis of organic polymer | condensation polymer
Test Bank
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REF: 24.1
MSC: general chemistry
5
13. Elimination of a small molecule such as water is involved in formation of which type of polymer? A) condensation polymer B) addition polymer C) free-radical polymer D) homopolymer E) copolymer ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.1 OBJ: Define condensation polymer. TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer KEY: synthesis of organic polymer | condensation polymer MSC: general chemistry 14. Which of the following pairs of substances could form a polyester? A) H2NCH2COOH + H2NCH2CH2COOH B) HO(CH2)4COOH + HOCH2CH=CHCH3 C) HOCH2CH2OH + HOOCCOOH D) H2C=CHCH3 + HOCH2CH2COOH E) H2C=CHCN + H2C=CHCH3 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the synthesis of polyesters and polyamides. TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer KEY: synthesis of organic polymer | condensation polymer
REF: 24.1
MSC: general chemistry
15. What is the polymer formed by the condensation of ethylene glycol, HOCH2CH2OH, with 1,3-propanedicarboxylic acid, HOOCCH2COOH? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
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6
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the synthesis of polyesters and polyamides. TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer KEY: synthesis of organic polymer | condensation polymer
REF: 24.1
MSC: general chemistry
16. What is the polymer formed by the condensation of 1,3-propanedicarboxylic acid, HOOCCH2COOH, with 1,2-diaminoethane, NH2CH2CH2NH2? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the synthesis of polyesters and polyamides. TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer KEY: synthesis of organic polymer | condensation polymer
REF: 24.1
MSC: general chemistry
17. What is the type of polymer formed when 1,4-butanecarboxylic acid, HOOCCH2CH2COOH, reacts with 1,4-diaminobutane, H2NCH2CH2CH2CH2NH2? A) polyacetylene B) polyolefin C) polystyrene D) polyester E) polyamide ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the synthesis of polyesters and polyamides. TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer KEY: synthesis of organic polymer | condensation polymer
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 24.1
MSC: general chemistry
7
18. What is the type of polymer formed when 1,5-pentanediol, HOCH2CH2CH2CH2CH2OH, reacts with 1,6-hexanedicarboxylic acid, HOOCCH2CH2CH2CH2COOH? A) polyacetylene B) polyester C) polyamide D) polypropylene E) polyolefin ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the synthesis of polyesters and polyamides. TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer KEY: synthesis of organic polymer | condensation polymer
REF: 24.1
MSC: general chemistry
19. In an electrically conducting polymer, what is a "hole"? A) It is a region of negative charge. B) It is a delocalized electron. C) It is an antibonding molecular orbital. D) It is a molecular orbital from which a electron has been abstracted. E) It is an ion, such as I3–, added to increase the conductivity of the polymer. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.2 OBJ: Explain how these polymers conduct electricity. TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer KEY: synthesis of organic polymer | electrically conducting polymers MSC: general chemistry 20. Which of the following statements about conductive polymers is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
Alternating single and double bonds are required for a polymer chain to conduct electricity. Doping of trans-polyacetylene with I2 facilitates the conduction of electrical charge between individual polymer molecules. trans-Polyacetylene is an addition polymer.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Explain how these polymers conduct electricity. TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 24.2
8
21. Which of the following is not an electrically conducting polymer? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.2 OBJ: Explain how these polymers conduct electricity. TOP: polymer | synthetic polymer KEY: synthesis of organic polymer | electrically conducting polymers MSC: general chemistry 22. The side chain on the amino acid phenylalanine
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is classified as A) polar. B) asymmetric. C) hydrophilic. D) nonpolar. E) chiral. ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define proteins and amino acids. KEY: protein | amino acid
DIF: easy REF: 24.3 TOP: polymer | biological polymer MSC: general chemistry
23. The amino acid L-lysine has the amine side chain R = −(CH2)4NH2. At low pH, all ionizable groups are protonated. What is the net charge on this fully protonated form of Llysine? A) 2 B) 1 C) −1 D) −2 E) 0 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Define proteins and amino acids.
DIF: easy REF: 24.3 TOP: polymer | biological polymer
24. The side chain on the amino acid tyrosine
is classified as A) hydrophobic. B) nonpolar. C) a zwitterion. D) polar. E) asymmetric. ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define proteins and amino acids. KEY: protein | amino acid
Test Bank
DIF: easy REF: 24.3 TOP: polymer | biological polymer MSC: general chemistry
General Chemistry, 10th edition
10
25. Which of the following amino acids has a hydrophobic side chain? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Define proteins and amino acids. KEY: protein | amino acid
Test Bank
DIF: easy REF: 24.3 TOP: polymer | biological polymer MSC: general chemistry
General Chemistry, 10th edition
11
26. Which of the following amino acids has a hydrophilic side chain? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: Define proteins and amino acids. KEY: protein | amino acid
Test Bank
DIF: easy REF: 24.3 TOP: polymer | biological polymer MSC: general chemistry
General Chemistry, 10th edition
12
27. Which of the following is an amino acid? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Define proteins and amino acids. KEY: protein | amino acid
DIF: easy REF: 24.3 TOP: polymer | biological polymer MSC: general chemistry
28. Polymers of amino-acid units are called A) metabolites. B) nucleic acids. C) lipids. D) carbohydrates. E) proteins. ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: Define proteins and amino acids. KEY: protein | amino acid
Test Bank
DIF: easy REF: 24.3 TOP: polymer | biological polymer MSC: general chemistry
General Chemistry, 10th edition
13
29. Which of the following is the zwitterionic form of glycine (R = H)? A) –NHCH2CO2H B) NH2CHCO2H+ C) +NH2CH2CO2– D) +NH3CH2CO2– E) NH2CH2CO2– ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: Define proteins and amino acids.
DIF: moderate REF: 24.3 TOP: polymer | biological polymer
30. When L-lysine (R = −(CH2)4NH2) is reacted with a large excess of strong acid, which of the following ions is the predominant species in solution? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: Define proteins and amino acids.
Test Bank
DIF: moderate REF: 24.3 TOP: polymer | biological polymer
General Chemistry, 10th edition
14
31. Near a pH of 5.5, L-lysine (R = −(CH2)4NH2) the major species in aqueous solution is the diprotonated zwitterion. Given the following acid dissociation constants, what is the correct structure of the zwitterion? Functional Group Ka carboxylic acid 1.7 x10-2 amine 8.5 x10-10 side chain amine 1.51 x10-11
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define proteins and amino acids.
Test Bank
DIF: moderate REF: 24.3 TOP: polymer | biological polymer
General Chemistry, 10th edition
15
32. Which of the following structures is the best representation for the amino acid cysteine under physiological conditions? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: Define proteins and amino acids. KEY: protein | amino acid
DIF: moderate REF: 24.3 TOP: polymer | biological polymer MSC: general chemistry
33. What is the functional group corresponding to a peptide bond? A) amine B) ether C) amide D) hemiacetal E) carboxylic acid Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.3 OBJ: Define a peptide (amide) bond. TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: protein MSC: general chemistry 34. Which of the following represents the linkage connecting amino acids in proteins? A)
B)
C) D)
E)
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.3 OBJ: Define a peptide (amide) bond. TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: protein MSC: general chemistry 35. Which of the following statements concerning protein structure is/are correct? 1. 2. 3.
The primary structure of a protein is defined as its sequence. Secondary protein structures include the alpha helix and beta sheet. Disulfide linkages are sometimes formed by the glycine which can significantly effect the protein shape.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: OBJ: Define the primary structure of a protein. TOP: polymer | biological polymer
Test Bank
easy
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 24.3
17
36. The sequence of amino acids held together by peptide bonds in a protein is the A) tertiary structure. B) hydrogen bonding. C) primary structure. D) quaternary structure. E) secondary structure. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.3 OBJ: Define the primary structure of a protein. TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: protein | protein primary structure MSC: general chemistry 37. How many different tripeptides can be made from two molecules of the amino acid valine (val) and one molecule of the amino acid alanine (ala)? A) 4 B) 3 C) 1 D) 5 or more E) 2 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.3 OBJ: Define the primary structure of a protein. TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: protein | protein primary structure MSC: general chemistry 38. Which of the following types of structure in proteins always has/have covalent bonds? 1. primary structure 2. secondary structure 3. tertiary structure A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1, and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.3 OBJ: Define the primary structure of a protein. TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: protein | protein primary structure MSC: general chemistry 39. Which of the following statements is correct? A) Fibrous proteins tend to form long, water-soluble fibers, while globular proteins tend to form compact, water-soluble shapes. B) Fibrous proteins tend to form long, water-insoluble fibers, while globular proteins tend to form compact, water-soluble shapes. C) Fibrous proteins tend to form long, water-insoluble fibers, while globular proteins tend to form compact, water-insoluble shapes.
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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D) Both fibrous proteins and globular proteins tend to form water-soluble structures of about the same shape. E) Fibrous proteins tend to form long, water-soluble fibers, while globular proteins tend to form compact, water-insoluble shapes. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.3 OBJ: Define fibrous protein and globular protein. TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: protein | shapes of protein MSC: general chemistry 40. The alpha helix and beta sheet are examples of A) protein denaturation. B) protein primary structure. C) complementary bases. D) protein tertiary structure. E) protein secondary structure. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.3 OBJ: Define the secondary and tertiary structures of a protein. TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: protein | shapes of protein MSC: general chemistry 41. The overall shape of a protein is maintained by A) hydrogen bonding. B) ionic bonds. C) dipole–dipole bonding. D) covalent bonds. E) all of these ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.3 OBJ: Define the secondary and tertiary structures of a protein. TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: protein | shapes of protein MSC: general chemistry 42. A hemiacetal is formed from A) an alcohol and a ketone. B) a carboxylic acid and a mercaptan. C) an alcohol and an ether. D) an aldehyde and an alcohol. E) an ester and an amine. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy OBJ: Describe the structure of the monosaccharides. TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: nucleic acid | sugar constituents of nucleic acid
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
REF: 24.4
MSC: general chemistry
19
43. What are the building blocks of nucleic acids? A) proteins B) monosaccharides C) lipids D) nucleotides E) amino acids ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.4 OBJ: Define nucleotides and polynucleotides. TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: nucleic acid | nucleotide MSC: general chemistry 44. A fragment of a DNA molecule has the base sequence CTGA. What is the complementary sequence? A) ATGC B) AGTC C) TCAG D) GACT E) CTGA ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.4 OBJ: Define nucleic acids, complementary bases, deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), and ribonucleic acid (RNA). TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: nucleic acid | polynucleotide MSC: general chemistry 45. The nucleic acid sequence that is complementary to the DNA sequence GAC TAC GTT AGC is A) CTG ATG CAA TCG. B) GAC TAC GTT AGC. C) CGA TTG CAT CAG. D) TCA GCA TGG CTA. E) none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 24.4 OBJ: Define nucleic acids, complementary bases, deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), and ribonucleic acid (RNA). TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: nucleic acid | DNA and genetic code MSC: general chemistry 46. What is the charge on each phosphate group in DNA in an aqueous solution near physiological pH? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) −1 E) −2 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 24.4 OBJ: Define nucleic acids, complementary bases, deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), and ribonucleic acid (RNA). TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: nucleic acid | DNA and genetic code MSC: general chemistry Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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47. Which of the following units is not found in a DNA molecule? A) a phosphate group B) a peptide bond C) an organic base D) a five-membered ring E) a ribose sugar ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.4 OBJ: Define nucleic acids, complementary bases, deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), and ribonucleic acid (RNA). TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: nucleic acid | polynucleotide MSC: general chemistry 48. What is the nitrogenous base that is found in RNA but not in DNA? A) thymine B) guanine C) uracil D) cytosine E) adenine ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.4 OBJ: Define nucleic acids, complementary bases, deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), and ribonucleic acid (RNA). TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: nucleic acid | polynucleotide MSC: general chemistry 49. Double stranded DNA may be represented as a double helix with the two strands held together by A) hydrogen bonds. B) covalent bonds. C) disulfide bonds. D) hydrophobic bonds. E) ionic bonds. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.4 OBJ: Define nucleic acids, complementary bases, deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), and ribonucleic acid (RNA). TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: nucleic acid | polynucleotide MSC: general chemistry
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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50. Which of the following 2'-deoxynucleotides contains the base thymine? A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.4 OBJ: Define nucleic acids, complementary bases, deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), and ribonucleic acid (RNA). TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: nucleic acid | nucleotide MSC: general chemistry 51. What is the cell structure that contains the cell's DNA? A) chromosome B) codon C) ribosome D) gene E) nucleus ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.4 OBJ: Describe the nature of the genetic code. TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: nucleic acid | DNA and genetic code MSC: general chemistry 52. Where in the cell does protein synthesis cell take place? A) ribosome B) nucleus C) gene D) chromosome E) codon ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.4 OBJ: Describe how RNA translates the genetic code in DNA to protein structure. TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: nucleic acid | RNA and transmission MSC: general chemistry 53. What is the significance of a "stop codon"? A) When it appears in messenger RNA, it is a signal to stop protein biosynthesis. B) When it appears in transfer RNA, it is a signal to stop transferring amino acids to the growing protein chain. C) When it appears in DNA, it is a signal to stop chromosome biosynthesis. D) When it appears in a protein, it is a signal for the protein to unfold. E) When it appears in ribosomal RNA, it is a signal to stop catalyzing protein biosynthesis. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.4 OBJ: Describe how RNA translates the genetic code in DNA to protein structure. TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: nucleic acid | RNA and transmission MSC: general chemistry 54. Which of the following is(are) not necessary for protein synthesis at the time and place where synthesis occurs? A) ribosomes B) DNA C) mRNA D) amino acids E) tRNA Test Bank
General Chemistry, 10th edition
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ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.4 OBJ: Define ribosomes, ribosomal RNA, messenger RNA, codon, and transfer RNA. TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: nucleic acid | RNA and transmission MSC: general chemistry 55. Which type of molecule is responsible for carrying an amino acid to a ribosome? A) protein B) DNA C) ribosomal RNA D) messenger RNA E) transfer RNA ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.4 OBJ: Define ribosomes, ribosomal RNA, messenger RNA, codon, and transfer RNA. TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: nucleic acid | RNA and transmission MSC: general chemistry 56. Which type of molecule attaches itself to a ribosome, where it serves as a pattern for protein biosynthesis? A) transfer RNA B) protein C) DNA D) ribosomal RNA E) messenger RNA ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.4 OBJ: Define ribosomes, ribosomal RNA, messenger RNA, codon, and transfer RNA. TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: nucleic acid | RNA and transmission MSC: general chemistry 57. How many RNA nucleotides are in a codon? A) 1 B) 5 C) 2 D) 4 E) 3 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 24.4 OBJ: Define ribosomes, ribosomal RNA, messenger RNA, codon, and transfer RNA. TOP: polymer | biological polymer KEY: nucleic acid | RNA and transmission MSC: general chemistry
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General Chemistry, 10th edition
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